1

MOCK TEST-1 (Additional)/19

FIITJEE - JEE (Main)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
JEE Main 2019 Mock Test–1 (Additional)
Code: 100382.1
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360

 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allott ed 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

Important Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of
pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having
30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.5 for correct response of each question. ¼
(one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the
total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will be
treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 6
above.
8. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the
Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.
10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

Atomic No.: H=1, He=2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8, F=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Al = 13, Si = 14,
P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar =18, K=19, Ca=20,Cr=24, Mn=25, Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu=29, Zn=30,
As=33, Br = 35, Ag = 47, Si = 21, Sn = 50, Ti = 22,I = 53, Xe = 54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82, U = 92, V = 50.
Atomic masses: H =1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16, F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al=27,
Si=28, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59, Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5,
Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127, Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Pb = 207, U = 238.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) :_____________________________________

Enrolment Number :_________________________________________________________

Batch :________________________ Date of Examination : ________________________

MOCK TEST-1 (Additional)/19 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Which of the following numbers has maximum number of significant figure?

(A) 1001 (B) 100.1
(C) 100.10 (D) 0.001001

2. Two boys are standing at the points A and B on the ground, where AB = a. The boy at B starts
running in a direction perpendicular to AB with velocity v1. The boy at A starts running
simultaneously with velocity v and catches the other in time t then t is
a a
(A) (B)
v2  v2 v  v1
1
a a
(C) (D)
v  v1 v  v12
2

3. One end of a massless rope, which passes over a massless P

and frictionless pulley P is tied to a hook C while the other
end is free. Maximum tension that the rope can bear is 360
–2
N with what value of minimum safe acceleration (in ms )
can a monkey of 60 kg move down on the rope
(A) 16 (B) 6 C
(C) 4 (D) 8

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MOCK TEST-1 (Additional)/19

th
4. A particle mass m moves on a rough horizontal ground with some initial velocity say v0. If (3/4)
of its kinetic energy is lost due to friction in time t0 then average power delivered by friction
3 mv 02 3 mv 02
(A) (B)
8 t0 4 t0
1 mv 02 1 mv 02
(C) (D)
2 t0 4 t0

5. A block of mass m is placed on an another rough block of mass M and both are moving
horizontally together without slipping with acceleration a, then work done by friction on the upper
block in moving a distance s will be
(A) Mas (B)  m  M as
M2
(C) as (D) mas
m

6. A ball falls from some height above a horizontal surface. If the collision is elastic, the graph
between speed (v) and time (t) upto the second collision looks like
v v

(A) (B)

t t
v v

(C) (D)

t t
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7. Ball 1 collides with an another identical ball 2 at rest as shown in

1 2
figure. For what value of coefficient of restitution e, the velocity of
second ball becomes two times that of 1 after collision?
(A) 1/3 (B) 1/2
(C) 1/4 (D) 1/6

8. The radius of a planet is R1 and a satellite revolves around it in a circle of radius R2. The time
period of revolution of satellite is T. Acceleration due to the gravitation of the planet at its surface
will be
42R3 R32
(A) 2 22 (B)
T R1 42 T 2R12
42R13 R13
(C) (D)
T 2R22 42 T 2R22

9. A spherical object of mass 1 kg and radius 1 m is falling vertically downward inside a viscous
liquid in a gravity free space. At a certain instant the velocity of the sphere is 2 m/s. If the
1 2
coefficient of viscosity of the liquid is N-s/m , then acceleration of object
18
(A) 3/2 (B) 2/3
(C) 1/2 (D) 1/3

10. There is an air bubble of radius R inside a drop of water of radius 3R. Find
the ratio of gauge pressure at point B to that at point A. B
1 1 A
(A) (B)
2 4
1
(C) (D) 1
3

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11. A particle having mass m is hung with a string of length  has same time period when oscillated
with a horizontal spring of force constant k on a smooth floor. Then value of m will be
k k
(A) (B)
2g g
2k 3k
(C) (D)
g 2g

12. A uniform vertical electric field E is established in the space between two large parallel plates. A
small conducting sphere of mass m is suspended in the field from a string of length L. If the
spheres is given a positive charge q and the lower plate is charged positively, the period of
oscillation of this pendulum is
L L
(A) 2 (B) 2
g g  (qE / m)
L L
(C) 2 (D) 2
g  (qE / m) [g  (qE / m)2 ]1/2
2

13. A source is moving on a circle of radius 3 m with constant angular velocity source 
 = 5 rad/s. If the observer is at a distance 5 m from the centre of circle,
the time interval between maximum and minimum frequency received by 3m
observer
the observer is
 2 3
(A) (B) cos1  
5 5 4
2 3 2 3
(C) cos1   (D) sin1  
5 5 5 5

14. A  cm long string fixed at both ends, sustains a standing wave such that all the points on the
string having displacement amplitude 1 mm (less than maximum amplitude) are separated by d
cm. The string is oscillating in its third overtone then
 
(A)  2 (B)  3
d d
 
(C)  6 (D)  8
d d

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15. The air in a open pipe of length 36 cm long is vibrating with 2 nodes and 2 antinodes. The
0
temperature of the air inside the pipe is 51 C. What is the wavelength of waves produced in air
0
outside the tube where the temperature of air is 16 C?
(A) 32.1 cm (B) 68 cm
(C) 34 cm (D) 10.2 cm

16. A close conducting vessel is placed in surroundings having temperature T0. It is filled with an
3T0
ideal gas having initial temperature and pressure P0. Pressure of gas after long time will be
2
(neglect expansion of container)
(A) P0 (B) P0/3
(C) 2P0/3 (D) P0/2

17. One mole monoatomic ideal gas is enclosed in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless piston. It is
subjected to a process given by equation T  V 2 . Choose the wrong statement.
(A) the P-V diagram of the process is a straight line.
(B) V-T diagram is parabola.
(C) Process is not isobaric.
(D) Molar specific heat of capacity of gas is R/2.

18. A point charge is placed at a distance r from center of a conducting neutral sphere of radius R (r 
R). The potential at any point P inside the sphere at a distance r1 from point charge due to
1
induced charge of the sphere is given by [k = ]
40
(A) kq/r1 (B) kq/r
(C) kq/r – kq/r1 (D) –kq/R

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19. A charge q is placed at some distance along the axis of a uniformly charged disc of surface
charge density . The flux due to the charge q through the disc is . The electric force on charge
q exerted by the disc is

(A)  (B)
4
 
(C) (D)
2 3

20. In the given circuit diagram, find the heat generated on closing the C 2C
switch S. (Initially the capacitor of capacitance C is uncharged)
3 2 S
(A) CV 2 (B) CV V 3C
2
1 2
(C) CV 2 (D) 2CV
2

21. A spherical conductor A of radius r is placed concentrically inside a conducting shell B of radius
R(R > r). A charge Q is given to A, and then A is joined to B by a metal wire. The charge flowing
from A to B will be
 R   r 
(A) Q   (B) Q  
R r  R r 
(C) Q (D) zero

22. Two very long current carrying wires A and B carrying current I0 (along z- y
axis) are placed at (–a, 0) and (a, 0) as shown. Find the value of magnetic
field at (0, a)
x
I I
(A) 0 0 (B) 0 0 A B
2a 2a (-a, 0) (a, 0)
0I0 0I0
(C) (D)
4a 2 2a

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MOCK TEST-1 (Additional)/19 8

23. A metallic ring of radius R moves in a vertical plane in the presence of a × × × × ×B

uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane of the ring. At any
given instant of time its centre of mass moves with a velocity v. The × × × × ×
P
magnitude of induced e.m.f. between points O and P is × ×R× × × v
(A) zero (B) vBR 2 
(C) vBR (D) 2 vBR × × O × ×

24. A conducting rod of length 2l is rotating with constant angular speed  

 
about its perpendicular bisector. A uniform magnetic field B exists B
parallel to the axis of rotation. The emf induced between two ends of the
rod is
2 1 2 A B
(A) Bl (B) Bl
2
1 2
(C) Bl (D) zero
8

25. At a moment (t = 0), when the charge on capacitor C1 is zero, the switch is C1
closed. If I0 be the current through inductor at t = 0. Then potential of
capacitor C1 when current in inductor is zero. (initially C2 is uncharged) L
L 2L C2 S
(A) i0 (B) i0
C1 C1  C2
L L
(C) i0 (D) i0
C2 C1  C2

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26. A capacitor and resistor are connected with an A.C. source as XC =3
shown in figure. Reactance of capacitor is XC = 3 and resistance
of resistor is 4 . Phase difference between current I and I1 is
I1 R=4
 1  3  
 tan  4   37º  I
   
(A) 90° (B) zero ~
V=V0 sin t
(C) 53º (D) 37º

27. In Young’s double slit experiment the two slits act as coherent sources of equal amplitude A and
wavelength . In another experiment with the same set-up the two slits are source of equal
amplitude A and wavelength , but are incoherent. The ratio of the intensity of light at the
midpoint of the screen in the first case to that is second case is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(D) 3 (D) 4

28. An object of mass m is moving with velocity u towards a plane mirror
kept on a stand as shown in the figure. The mass of the mirror and
stand system is m. A head-on elastic collision takes place between the 
object and the mirror stand, the velocity of image before and after the m u m
collision is =0
   
(A) u, 2 u (B) – u , –2 u
   
(C) – u , 2 u (D) u , –2 u

29. A silver sphere (work function 4.6 eV) is suspended in a vacuum chamber by an insulating
thread. Ultraviolet light of wavelength 0.2 m strike on the sphere. The maximum electric
potential of the sphere will be (hc = 12400 eVÅ)
(A) 4.6 V (B) 6.2 V
(C) 1.6 V (D) 3.2 V

30. If light of wavelength  is used to cause photoelectric emission from a metallic surface, the
maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electron is 6 eV, which is 3 times the work function of the
metallic surface. If light of wavelength 2 is used, the maximum kinetic energy of the
photoelectrons emitted is
(A) 2 eV (B) 4 eV
(C) 14 eV (D) 18 ev

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MOCK TEST-1 (Additional)/19 10

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
rd nd +2
1. The ratio of difference of radius between 3 and 2 orbit of H-atom and Li ion is:
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 1
(C) 1 : 3 (D) 2 : 3

2. The slag obtained during the extraction of copper pyrites is composed mainly of:
(A) MgSiO3 (B) CuSiO3
(C) FeSiO3 (D) CuFeS2

3. Rank in decreasing order of basicity:

NHCOCH3 NH2
NH2

(I) (II) (III)

(A) III, I, II (B) III, II, I
(C) II, I, III (D) II, III, I

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4. Which of the following is the most stabilized carbocation?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

5. Which of the diene has highest heat of hydrogenation?

(A) (B)

(C) (D) H3C CH3

C C C
H3C CH3

-1
6. If the solubility of calcium phosphate [Ca3(PO4)2] is s mol L . The solubility product is equal to
5 5
(A) 6s (B) 72s
4 5
(C) 54s (D) 108s

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MOCK TEST-1 (Additional)/19 12

7. Br

P    Q 
H Zn/CH3COOH Br /CCl
  2 4
H3C
CH3
H
Br
Q is major product?

(I) Br (II) CH3

CH3 H
H H3C
H H
H3C Br
Br Br
(III) H
H3C H

H3C Br
Br
(A) I only (B) II only
(C) III only (D) I, II and III

8. The reaction of NH3 and Cl2 is as follows

aNH3  bCl2   cNH4 Cl  N2
The coefficient a, b and c are respectively.
(A) 8,4,6,1 (B) 8, 3, 2, 1
(C) 3, 8, 6, 4 (D) 8, 3, 6, 1

9. A crystal made up of A, B and C atoms, A occupy in all the tetrahedral voids and B occupied in
octahedral void while ‘C’ forms face centred cubic. The molecular formula of the compound or
crystal is:
(A) AB2C (B) A2B3C8
(C) A3B8C3 (D) A2BC

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10. In a Cannizzaro reaction, the intermediate that will be best hydride donor is:
(A) H (B) H
O O
OH O

(C) H (D) H
MeO O O
O O

NO2

nd
11. The number of revolutions made by an electron in Bohr’s 2 orbit of hydrogen atom in one
second is (approx.)
14 15
(A) 8.3 × 10 (B) 6.66 × 10
6
(C) 5.3 × 10 ` (D) none of these

12. Two non reacting gases A and B, having the mole ratio of 3 : 5 in a container, exert a pressure of
8 atm. If B is removed, what would be pressure of A only, T remaining constant.
(A) 3 atm (B) 4 atm
(C) 5 atm (D) None of these

13. A liquid is kept in a closed vessel. If a glass plate with a small hole in kept on top of the liquid
surface, what would be the vapour pressure of the liquid in the vessel? (Neglect weight of glass)
(A) More than what would be if the glass plate were removed.
(B) Less than what would be if the glass plate were removed.
(C) Same as what would be if the glass plate were removed.
(D) Can not predicted.

14. Two mole of ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from an initial volume of 1 litre to 10
litre. The change in internal energy in the process is:
(A) 11.49 kJ (B) 2.73 kcal
(C) zero (D) All are incorrect

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15. H
 H  H 


H
Bond energies of C – C, C = C, C – H and H – H are w, x, y and z kJ/mole respectively. What is
the value of Ho for above reaction?
(A) 2y – x – z) kJ (B) (x + z – w – 2y) kJ
(C) (x + z – y) kJ (D) (x + z – 2y) kJ

16. For a reaction

3A  B   2C
d A  d C
  K  A B, the expression for will be:
dt dt
2 3
(A) K  A B  (B) K  A B 
3 2
1 1
(C) K  A B  (D) K  A B 
3 2

17. For the reaction SrCO3  s  

 SrO  s   CO2  g 


the pressure of CO2(g) depends on
(A) Amount of SrCO3(s) (B) Amount of SrO (s)
(C) Amounts of both SrCO3(s) and SrO(s) (D) Temperature of the system

18. On increasing temperature ionic product of water increases

H2 O 
    14 
 H  OH , K W  10 at 25 C  which of the following statement is correct regarding
o

dissociation of water.

(A) water becomes basic on decreasing the temperature

(B) pH of water increase on increasing the temperature
(C) water will be neutral irrespective of temperature change
(D) pH cannot be predicted on given information

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19. On adding few drops of dil. HCl to freshly precipitated ferric hydroxide, a red coloured colloidal
solution is obtained. The phenomenon is known as:
(A) protective action (B) flocculation
(C) coagulation (D) peptisation

20. When sodium argentocyanide is treated with zinc dust, silver precipitates because
+2 + 10
(A) Both Zn and Ag ions have d electronic configuration
(B) Zinc forms a complex readily with cyanide
(C) Zinc is more electropositive than silver
(D) Zinc is less electropositive than silver

21. Aqueous solution of carnalite gives a positive test for

(A) potassium ions only (B) chloride ions only
(C) magnesium and chloride ions (D) potassium, magnesium and chloride ions

22. Which compound is formed when excess of KCN is added to an aqueous solution of copper
sulphate?
(A) Cu(CN)2 (B) K[Cu(CN)2]
(C) K4[Cu(CN)6] (D) K3[Cu(CN)4]

23. In successive emission of  and  particles, how many  and  particles should be emitted for
241 233
conversion 94Pu to 92U ?
(A) 2, 3 (B) 3, 2
(C) 2, 2 (D) none of them

24. The IUPAC name of the following compound

O
C OMe

Br
(A) 3-bromo-1-methoxy cyclohexanone (B) 4-bromo-1-methoxy cyclo hexanone
(C) methyl-3-bromo cyclo hexanoate (D) methyl-3-bromo cyclo hexane carboxylate

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25. The excessive use of phosphates as water softners leads to aquatic pollution called
(A) eutrophication (B) phsophosylation
(C) deoxygenation (D) denitrification

26. Paracetamol is a common antipyretic, which is the correct formula among given options?

(A) OCOCH3 (B) NHCOCH3

COOH

C2H5
(C) NHCOCH3 (D) O

N H

HO N O
OH H

27. Consider the following statements about lactose:

1. Lactose on hydrolysis yields equimolar mixture of D-glucose and D-galactose.
2. Lactose is a poly-saccharide.
3. Lactose is a reducing sugar.
4. In lactose, the glycosidic linkage is between C-1 of galactose and C-4 glucose unit.
Which of the statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 3 and 4 only

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28. The correct order of reactivity of alkenes towards HBr is:

2. 3. 4.
1.
(A) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (B) 1 > 3 > 2 > 4
(C) 3 > 2 > 4 > 1 (D) 4 > 2 > 3 > 1

29. O CH2OH
,dry HCl
CH2OH
CH2 C OEt P 
O

Q LAH/THF
 EtOH  

H2 O / H

R 
What is the structure of (R)?

(A) O (B) O
CH2CH2OH CH2OH

(C) O (D) O
O CH2 CHO

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MOCK TEST-1 (Additional)/19 18

I NaOH
 
30.

 P
II Electrolysis
COOH
I CaOH
 
COOH
 2

 Q
II 
If P and Q are main products then P and Q are:

(A) (B) O

,
, O

O
(C) O (D) O

,
O , O

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Number of words can be formed using all the letters of the word ‘HIPHIPHURRAY’ in which all
H’s lie somewhere between R’s is
(A) (198)7! (B) (99)7!
(C) (99)8! (D) (198)8!
 
Let a, b (a  b) are two non–zero complex numbers satisfying |a – b | = a2  b2  2a  b , where
2 2
2.
 
a  a and b  b , then
a a
(A) is purely real (B) is purely imaginary
b b

(C) |arg(a) – arg(b)| =  (D) |arg(a) – arg(b)| =
4

3. Let I be the purchase value of an equipment and V(t) be the value after it has been used for t
dV  t 
years. The value V(t) depreciates at a rate given by differential equation  K  T  t  ,
dt
where K > 0 is a constant and T is the total life in years of the equipment. Then the scrap value
V(T) of the equipment is
K T  t 
2
KT2
(A) I  (B) I 
2 2
1
(D) T 2 
–KT
(C) e
K

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5 2
If  tan1 x    cot 1 x  
2 2
4. , then x is equal to
8
(A) –1 (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) none of these

 2t 2  t  1  t 2  t  1 
5. If the equation x  1  6 lim    k has four distinct solutions then the
t     
 t  tan  
  8 
number of integral values of k is
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) none of these

6. If f is a function such that f (0) = 2, f (1) = 3 and f (x + 2) = 2 f (x) –f (x + 1) for every real x, then f
(5) is
(A) 7 (B) 13
(C) 1 (D) 5

If f : [2, [  [8, [ is a surjective function defined by f(x) = x – (p – 2)x + 3p – 2, p  R then sum

2
7.
of values of ‘p’ is m  n , m, n  N then m + n is equal to
(A) 20 (B) 10
(C) 30 (D) 40

For x, y  R, if x – 2xy + 2y – 6y + 9 = 0 then the value of (5x – 4y) is equal to

2 2
8.
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 6 (D) 15

2  x  a2  9a  9, x  2
9. Let f  x    where a is a positive constant. It f(x) has local minimum at
2x  3, x2
x = 2, then a lies in the interval
(A) ]0, 1] (B) [10, [
(C) [1, 10] (D) [2, 10[

Space for Rough work

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MOCK TEST-1 (Additional)/19

10. The sum of an infinite G.P is 2 and the sum made from the cubes of the terms of this infinite
series is 24. Then sum of first three terms of this series is
21 9
(A) (B)
4 4
23 11
(C) (D)
4 4

11. The probability that a randomly selected calculator from a store is of brand ‘r’ is proportional to
7r
r(r = 1, 2, ….., 6). Further, the probability of a calculator of brand ‘r’ being defective is , r = 1,
21
p
2, 3, 4, 5, 6. If probability that a calculator randomly selected from the store being defective is ,
q
where p and q are co–prime then the value of (p + q) is
(A) 63 (B) 60
(C) 71 (D) 21

If P(r) be number of points (x, y), x, y  I which lie inside or on the curve |xy| – r(|x| + |y|) + r = 0,
2
12.
 n1 


 P r  
 1
r  N and if lim  r31   then (a + b), is
n  an  bn2  c  2
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

–1 –1 xy
13. It ax + b sec(tan x) = c and ay + b sec(tan y) = c, then is equal to
1  xy
2ac 2ac
(A) (B)
ac a  c2
2

ac ac
(C) (D)
1  ac a2  c 2

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MOCK TEST-1 (Additional)/19 22

lim 3 
1
14. n
4 5 
n n
6 n n
is equal to
n 
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6

 1  3tan1º   1  3 tan1º  tan89º

15. The absolute value of the expression    is equal to
 3  tan1º   3  tan1º  cot 3º
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3

x
1
16. The value of lim
x 0 x 
1  sin 2t 1/ t dt is equal to
0
(A) 2 (B) 1
2
(C) e (D) e

 f  x  dx
2 4 2
17. Let f be a polynomial function such that for all real x, f(x + 1) = x + 5x + 2, then is

x 3 3x 2 x 3 3x 2
(A)   2x  c (B)   2x  c
3 2 3 2
x 3 3x 2 x 3 3x 2
(C)   2x  c (D)   2x  c
3 2 3 2

If f(x) = (x – 1) (x – 2) (x – 3) (x – 4), then the value of  f  1  f   2   f '  3   f '  4   is equal to
4 3 2
18.
3
(A) 638 (B) 3(6 )
(C) 50 (D) 0

19. The first two terms of a geometric progression add up to 12. The sum of third and fourth terms is
48. If the terms are alternately positive and negative, then
(A) common ratio of G.P. is –2 (B) common ratio of G.P. is –3
(C) sixth term of G.P. is 128 (D) none of these

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 23
MOCK TEST-1 (Additional)/19

20. If P(x, y, z) is a point on the line segment joining Q(2, 3, 4) and R(3, 5, 6) such that the projection
 13 21 26
of the vector OP on the axes are , , respectively. The P divides QR in the ratio
5 5 5
(A) 2 : 3 (B) 3 : 1
(C) 1 : 3 (D) 3 : 2

2 2 2 1
21. Area of triangle whose vertices are (a, a ), (b, b ), (c, c ) is , and area of another triangle whose
2
1  ap 2 1  bp 2 1  cp 2
2 2 2
vertices are (p, p ), (q, q ) and (r, r ) is 4, then the value of 1  aq2 1  bq2 1  cq2 , is
1  ar  2
1  br  2
1  cr  2

(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 16

22. The line parallel to the x–axis and passing through the intersection of the lines ax + 2by + 3b = 0
and bx – 2ay – 3a = 0, where (a, b)  (0, 0) is
3 2
(A) below the x–axis at a distance of from it (B) below the x–axis at a distance of from it
2 3
3 2
(C) above the x–axis at a distance of from it (D) above the x–axis of distance of from it
2 3
2 2
23. The locus of feet of perpendicular from either foci of the ellipse (x – y + 1) + (2x + 2y – 6) = 20
on any tangent will be
2 2 2 2
(A) x + y + 2x + 4y + 5 = 0 (B) x + y + 2x + 4y – 5 = 0
2 2 2 2
(C) x + y – 2x – 4y – 5 = 0 (D) x + y – 2x – 4y + 5 = 0

n
24. For x  , where n  I, the range of function
2
f(x) = sgn(sin x) + sgn(cos x) + sgn(tan x) + sgn(cot x) is
(A) {–2, 4} (B) {–2, 0, 4}
(C) {–4, 0, –2, 4} (D) {0, 2, 4}

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MOCK TEST-1 (Additional)/19 24

a b c
25. If cos   , cos   , cos   , where , ,   (0, ) and a, b, c are sides of
bc ac ac
  
triangle ABC then tan2  tan2  tan2 is equal to
2 2 2
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

26. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4}. The number of different ordered pairs (B, C) that can be formed such that
B  A, C  A and B  C = 
(A) 3 (B) 9
(C) 27 (D) 81

If cos x – (c – 1)cos x + 2c  6 for every x  R, then the true set of values of c is

2
27.
(A) [4, [ (B) [2, [
(C) ]–, –2] (D) ]–, –4]

If the equations px + qx + r = 0 and rx + qx + p = 0 (p  r  0) have a negative common root,

2 2
28.
then the value of (p – q + r) is equal to
(A) –1 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 0

1
  x 2  3x  1  7
29. If f  x    x tan1  2   3  x  . Where [k] and {k} denotes greatest integer and
7

  x  3x  5  
–1
fractional part functions of k respectively, then the value of f (50) – f(50) + f(f(100)), is
(A) 0 (B) 25
(C) 50 (D) 100

2 b
30. In triangle ABC, if a sin A sin B + b cos A = 2a , then the value of   is
a
1
(A) (B) 2
2
(C) 2 (D) 1

Space for rough work