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in
1. A Process Control Block(PCB) does not contain which of the following?

a) Code
b) Stack
c) Bootstrap program
d) Data
Answer: d
Explanation: Process Control Block (PC
b) contains information related to a process such as Process State, Program Counter, CPU Register, etc. Process Con
trol Block is also known as Task Control Block. Bootstrap program is a program which runs initially when the syste
m or computer is booted or rebooted.

2. The number of processes completed per unit time is known as __________

a) Output
b) Throughput
c) Efficiency
d) Capacity
Answer: a
Explanation: The number of processes completed per unit time is known as Throughput. Suppose there are 4 process
es A, B, C & D they are taking 1, 3, 4 & 7 units of time respectively for their executions. For 10 units of time, throu
ghput is high if process A, B & C are running first as 3 processes can execute. If process C runs first then throughput
is low as maximum only 2 processes can execute. Throughput is low for processes which take a long time for execu
tion. Throughput is high for processes which take a short time for execution.

3. The state of a process is defined by __________

a) the final activity of the process

b) the activity just executed by the process
c) the activity to next be executed by the process
d) the current activity of the process
Answer: c
Explanation: The state of a process is defined by the current activity of the process. A process state changes when th
e process executes. The process states are as New, Ready, Running, Wait, Terminated.

1. Which of the following do not belong to queues for processes?

a) Job Queue
b) PCB queue
c) Device Queue
d) Ready Queue
Answer: c
Explanation: PCB queue does not belong to queues for processes. PCB is a process control block which contains inf
ormation related to process. Each process is represented by PCB.

2. When the process issues an I/O request __________

a) It is placed in an I/O queue

b) It is placed in a waiting queue
c) It is placed in the ready queue
d) It is placed in the Job queue
Answer: c
 www.aktutor.in
Explanation: When the process issues an I/O request it is placed in an I/O queue. I/O is a resource and it should be u
sed effectively and every process should get access to it. There might be multiple processes which requested for I/O.
Depending on scheduling algorithm I/O is allocated to any particular process and after completing I/O operation, I/
O access is returned to the OS.

3. What will happen when a process terminates?

a) It is removed from all queues

b) It is removed from all, but the job queue
c) Its process control block is de-allocated
d) Its process control block is never de-allocated
Answer: a
Explanation: When a process terminates, it removes from all queues. All allocated resources to that particular proces
s are deallocated and all those resources are returned back to OS.

4. What is a long-term scheduler?

a) It selects processes which have to be brought into the ready queue

b) It selects processes which have to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects processes which heave to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: A long-term scheduler selects processes which have to be brought into the ready queue. When processe
s enter the system, they are put in the job queue. Long-term scheduler selects processes from the job queue and puts
them in the ready queue. It is also known as Job Scheduler.

5. If all processes I/O bound, the ready queue will almost always be ______ and the Short term Scheduler will have
a ______ to do.

a) full, little
b) full, lot
c) empty, little
d) empty, lot
Answer: c
Explanation: If all processes are I/O bound, the ready queue will almost empty and the short-term scheduler will hav
e a little to do. I/O bound processes spend more time doing I/O than computation.

6. What is a medium-term scheduler?

a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue

b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: A medium-term scheduler selects which process to remove from memory by swapping. The medium-te
rm scheduler swapped out the process and later swapped in. Swapping helps to free up memory.

7. What is a short-term scheduler?

a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue

b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
 www.aktutor.in
Explanation: A short-term scheduler selects a process which has to be executed next and allocates CPU. Short-term
scheduler selects a process from the ready queue. It selects processes frequently.

8. The primary distinction between the short term scheduler and the long term scheduler is __________

a) The length of their queues

b) The type of processes they schedule
c) The frequency of their execution
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The primary distinction between the short-term scheduler and the long-term scheduler is the frequency
of their execution. The short-term scheduler executes frequently while the long-term scheduler executes much less fr
equently.

9. The only state transition that is initiated by the user process itself is __________

a) block
b) wakeup
c) dispatch
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The only state transition that is initiated by the user process itself is block. Whenever a user process ini
tiates an I/O request it goes into block state unless and until the I/O request is not completed.

1. Restricting the child process to a subset of the parent’s resources prevents any process from __________

a) overloading the system by using a lot of secondary storage

b) under-loading the system by very less CPU utilization
c) overloading the system by creating a lot of sub-processes
d) crashing the system by utilizing multiple resources
Answer: c
Explanation: Restricting the child process to a subset of the parent’s resources prevents any process from overloadin
g the system by creating a lot of sub-processes. A process creates a child process, child process requires certain reso
urces to complete its task. A child process can demand required resources directly from the system, but by doing this
system will be overloaded. So to avoid overloading of the system, the parent process shares its resources among chi
ldren.

2. A parent process calling _____ system call will be suspended until children processes terminate.

a) wait
b) fork
c) exit
d) exec
Answer: a
Explanation: A parent process calling wait system call will be suspended until children processes terminate. A para
meter is passed to wait system call which will obtain exit status of child as well as wait system call returns PID of ter
minated process.

3. Cascading termination refers to termination of all child processes if the parent process terminates ______

a) Normally
b) Abnormally
c) Normally or abnormally
d) None of the mentioned www.aktutor.in
Answer: c
Explanation: Cascading termination refers to termination of all child processes if the parent process terminates Norm
ally or Abnormally. Some systems don’t allow child processes to exist if the parent process has terminated. Cascadin
g termination is normally initiated by the operating system.

4. With _____________ only one process can execute at a time; meanwhile all other process are waiting for the proc
essor. With ______________ more than one process can be running simultaneously each on a different processor.

a) Multiprocessing, Multiprogramming
b) Multiprogramming, Uniprocessing
c) Multiprogramming, Multiprocessing
d) Uniprogramming, Multiprocessing
Answer: d
Explanation: With Uniprogramming only one process can execute at a time; meanwhile all other processes are waiti
ng for the processor. With Multiprocessing more than one process can run simultaneously each on different processo
rs. The Uniprogramming system has only one program inside the core while the Multiprocessing system has multipl
e processes inside multiple cores. The core is one which executes instructions and stores data locally into registers.

5. In UNIX, each process is identified by its __________

a) Process Control Block

b) Device Queue
c) Process Identifier
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: In Unix, each process is identified by its Process Identifier or PID. The PID provides unique value to e
ach process in the system so that each process can be identified uniquely.

6. In UNIX, the return value for the fork system call is _____ for the child process and _____ for the parent process.

a) A Negative integer, Zero

b) Zero, A Negative integer
c) Zero, A nonzero integer
d) A nonzero integer, Zero
Answer: c
Explanation: In Unix, the return value of the fork system call is Zero for the child process and Non-zero value for pa
rent process. A fork system call returns the PID of a newly created (chil
d) process to the parent and returns Zero to that newly created (chil
d) process.

7. The child process can __________

a) be a duplicate of the parent process

b) never be a duplicate of the parent process
c) cannot have another program loaded into it
d) never have another program loaded into it
Answer: a
Explanation: The child process can be a duplicate of the parent process. The child process created by fork consists of
a copy of the address space of the parent process.

8. The child process completes execution, but the parent keeps executing, then the child process is known as ______
____
a) Orphan www.aktutor.in
b) Zombie
c) Body
d) Dead
Answer: b
Explanation: The child process completes execution, but the parent keeps executing, then the child process is known
as Zombie. When a child process terminates, its resources get deallocated but its entry in the Process Control Block
(PC
b) remains there until its parent calls wait system call.

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1. What is Interprocess communication?

a) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions when using the same address space
b) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions
c) allows the processes to only synchronize their actions without communication
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Interprocess Communication allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions. Interproc
ess Communication (IP
c) mechanism is used by cooperating processes to exchange data and information.

2. Message passing system allows processes to __________

a) communicate with each other without sharing the same address space
b) communicate with one another by resorting to shared data
c) share data
d) name the recipient or sender of the message
Answer: a
Explanation: Message Passing system allows processes to communicate with each other without sharing the same ad
dress space.

3. Which of the following two operations are provided by the IPC facility?

a) write & delete message

b) delete & receive message
c) send & delete message
d) receive & send message
Answer: d
Explanation: Two operations provided by the IPC facility are receive and send messages. Exchange of data takes pla
ce in cooperating processes.

4. Messages sent by a process __________

a) have to be of a fixed size

b) have to be a variable size
c) can be fixed or variable sized
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Messages sent by a process can be fixed or variable size. If the message size of the process is fixed the
n system level implementation is straightforward but it makes the task of programming more difficult. If the messag
e size of the process is variable then system level implementation is more complex but it makes the task of program
ming simpler. www.aktutor.in
5. The link between two processes P and Q to send and receive messages is called __________

a) communication link
b) message-passing link
c) synchronization link
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The link between two processes P and Q to send and receive messages is called communication link. T
wo processes P and Q want to communicate with each other; there should be a communication link that must exist b
etween these two processes so that both processes can able to send and receive messages using that link.

6. Which of the following are TRUE for direct communication?

a) A communication link can be associated with N number of process(N = max. number of processes supported by s
ystem)
b) A communication link is associated with exactly two processes
c) Exactly N/2 links exist between each pair of processes(N = max. number of processes supported by system)
d) Exactly two link exists between each pair of processes
Answer: b
Explanation: For direct communication, a communication link is associated with exactly two processes. One commu
nication link must exist between a pair of processes.

7. In indirect communication between processes P and Q __________

a) there is another process R to handle and pass on the messages between P and Q
b) there is another machine between the two processes to help communication
c) there is a mailbox to help communication between P and Q
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: In indirect communication between processes P and Q there is a mailbox to help communication betwe
en P and Q. A mailbox can be viewed abstractly as an object into which messages can be placed by processes and fr
om which messages can be removed.

8. In the non blocking send __________

a) the sending process keeps sending until the message is received

b) the sending process sends the message and resumes operation
c) the sending process keeps sending until it receives a message
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In the non blocking send, the sending process sends the message and resumes operation. Sending proce
ss doesn’t care about reception. It is also known as asynchronous send.

9. In the Zero capacity queue __________

a) the queue can store at least one message

b) the sender blocks until the receiver receives the message
c) the sender keeps sending and the messages don’t wait in the queue
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In the Zero capacity queue the sender blocks until the receiver receives the message. Zero capacity que
ue has maximum capacity of Zero; thus message queue does not have any waiting message in it.
 www.aktutor.in
10. The Zero Capacity queue __________

a) is referred to as a message system with buffering

b) is referred to as a message system with no buffering
c) is referred to as a link
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The Zero capacity queue is referred to as a message system with no buffering. Zero capacity queue has
maximum capacity of Zero; thus message queue does not have any waiting message in it.

11. Bounded capacity and Unbounded capacity queues are referred to as __________

a) Programmed buffering
b) Automatic buffering
c) User defined buffering
d) No buffering
Answer: b
Explanation: Bounded capacity and Unbounded capacity queues are referred to as Automatic buffering. Buffer capa
city of the Bounded capacity queue is finite length and buffer capacity of the Unbounded queue is infinite.

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1. Remote Procedure Calls are used ____________

a) for communication between two processes remotely different from each other on the same system
b) for communication between two processes on the same system
c) for communication between two processes on separate systems
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

2. To differentiate the many network services a system supports ______ are used.

a) Variables
b) Sockets
c) Ports
d) Service names
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. RPC provides a(an) _____ on the client-side, a separate one for each remote procedure.

a) stub
b) identifier
c) name
d) process identifier
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. What is stub?

a) transmits the message to the server where the server side stub receives the message and invokes procedure on the
server side www.aktutor.in
b) packs the parameters into a form transmittable over the network
c) locates the port on the server
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

5. To resolve the problem of data representation on different systems RPCs define _____________

a) machine dependent representation of data

b) machine representation of data
c) machine-independent representation of data
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. What is the full form of RMI?

a) Remote Memory Installation

b) Remote Memory Invocation
c) Remote Method Installation
d) Remote Method Invocation
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. The remote method invocation __________

a) allows a process to invoke memory on a remote object

b) allows a thread to invoke a method on a remote object
c) allows a thread to invoke memory on a remote object
d) allows a process to invoke a method on a remote object
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. A process that is based on IPC mechanism which executes on different systems and can communicate with other
processes using message based communication, is called ________

a) Local Procedure Call

b) Inter Process Communication
c) Remote Procedure Call
d) Remote Machine Invocation
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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1. The initial program that is run when the computer is powered up is called __________

a) boot program
b) bootloader
c) initializer
d) bootstrap program
Answer: d
Explanation: None. www.aktutor.in
2. How does the software trigger an interrupt?

a) Sending signals to CPU through bus

b) Executing a special operation called system call
c) Executing a special program called system program
d) Executing a special program called interrupt trigger program
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. What is a trap/exception?

a) hardware generated interrupt caused by an error

b) software generated interrupt caused by an error
c) user generated interrupt caused by an error
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. What is an ISR?

a) Information Service Request

b) Interrupt Service Request
c) Interrupt Service Routine
d) Information Service Routine
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. What is an interrupt vector?

a) It is an address that is indexed to an interrupt handler

b) It is a unique device number that is indexed by an address
c) It is a unique identity given to an interrupt
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. DMA is used for __________

a) High speed devices(disks and communications network)

b) Low speed devices
c) Utilizing CPU cycles
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. In a memory mapped input/output __________

a) the CPU uses polling to watch the control bit constantly, looping to see if a device is ready
b) the CPU writes one data byte to the data register and sets a bit in control register to show that a byte is available
c) the CPU receives an interrupt when the device is ready for the next byte
d) the CPU runs a user written code and does accordingly
Answer: b
Explanation: None. www.aktutor.in
8. In a programmed input/output(PIO) __________

a) the CPU uses polling to watch the control bit constantly, looping to see if a device is ready
b) the CPU writes one data byte to the data register and sets a bit in control register to show that a byte is available
c) the CPU receives an interrupt when the device is ready for the next byte
d) the CPU runs a user written code and does accordingly
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. In an interrupt driven input/output __________

a) the CPU uses polling to watch the control bit constantly, looping to see if a device is ready
b) the CPU writes one data byte to the data register and sets a bit in control register to show that a byte is available
c) the CPU receives an interrupt when the device is ready for the next byte
d) the CPU runs a user written code and does accordingly
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. In the layered approach of Operating Systems __________

a) Bottom Layer(0) is the User interface

b) Highest Layer(N) is the User interface
c) Bottom Layer(N) is the hardware
d) Highest Layer(N) is the hardware
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

11. How does the Hardware trigger an interrupt?

a) Sending signals to CPU through a system bus

b) Executing a special program called interrupt program
c) Executing a special program called system program
d) Executing a special operation called system call
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

12. Which operation is performed by an interrupt handler?

a) Saving the current state of the system

b) Loading the interrupt handling code and executing it
c) Once done handling, bringing back the system to the original state it was before the interrupt occurred
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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1. CPU scheduling is the basis of ___________

a) multiprocessor systems
b) multiprogramming operating systems www.aktutor.in
c) larger memory sized systems
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. With multiprogramming ______ is used productively.

a) time
b) space
c) money
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. What are the two steps of a process execution?

a) I/O & OS Burst

b) CPU & I/O Burst
c) Memory & I/O Burst
d) OS & Memory Burst
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. An I/O bound program will typically have ____________

a) a few very short CPU bursts

b) many very short I/O bursts
c) many very short CPU bursts
d) a few very short I/O bursts
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. A process is selected from the ______ queue by the ________ scheduler, to be executed.

a) blocked, short term

b) wait, long term
c) ready, short term
d) ready, long term
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. In the following cases non – preemptive scheduling occurs?

a) When a process switches from the running state to the ready state
b) When a process goes from the running state to the waiting state
c) When a process switches from the waiting state to the ready state
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: There is no other choice.

7. The switching of the CPU from one process or thread to another is called ____________

a) process switch
b) task switch www.aktutor.in
c) context switch
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

8. What is Dispatch latency?

a) the speed of dispatching a process from running to the ready state

b) the time of dispatching a process from running to ready state and keeping the CPU idle
c) the time to stop one process and start running another one
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. Scheduling is done so as to ____________

a) increase CPU utilization

b) decrease CPU utilization
c) keep the CPU more idle
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. Scheduling is done so as to ____________

a) increase the throughput

b) decrease the throughput
c) increase the duration of a specific amount of work
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

11. What is Turnaround time?

a) the total waiting time for a process to finish execution

b) the total time spent in the ready queue
c) the total time spent in the running queue
d) the total time from the completion till the submission of a process
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

12. Scheduling is done so as to ____________

a) increase the turnaround time

b) decrease the turnaround time
c) keep the turnaround time same
d) there is no relation between scheduling and turnaround time
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

13. What is Waiting time?

a) the total time in the blocked and waiting queues

b) the total time spent in the ready queue www.aktutor.in
c) the total time spent in the running queue
d) the total time from the completion till the submission of a process
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

14. Scheduling is done so as to ____________

a) increase the waiting time

b) keep the waiting time the same
c) decrease the waiting time
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

15. What is Response time?

a) the total time taken from the submission time till the completion time
b) the total time taken from the submission time till the first response is produced
c) the total time taken from submission time till the response is output
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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1. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of ____________

a) Non-preemptive scheduling
b) Preemptive scheduling
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system ____________

a) using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm
b) using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm
c) using extremely small time slices increases performance
d) using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm
Answer: a
Explanation: All the processes will be able to get completed.

3. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is concerned with ________
____

a) assigning ready processes to CPU

b) assigning ready processes to waiting queue
c) assigning running processes to blocked queue
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
4. Complex scheduling algorithms ____________

a) are very appropriate for very large computers

b) use minimal resources
c) use many resources
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Large computers are overloaded with a greater number of processes.

5. What is FIFO algorithm?

a) first executes the job that came in last in the queue

b) first executes the job that came in first in the queue
c) first executes the job that needs minimal processor
d) first executes the job that has maximum processor needs
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily suspended is called ____________

a) Non preemptive scheduling

b) Preemptive scheduling
c) Shortest job first
d) First come First served
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. What is Scheduling?

a) allowing a job to use the processor

b) making proper use of processor
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. There are 10 different processes running on a workstation. Idle processes are waiting for an input event in the inp
ut queue. Busy processes are scheduled with the Round-Robin time sharing method. Which out of the following qua
ntum times is the best value for small response times, if the processes have a short runtime, e.g. less than 10ms?

a) tQ = 15ms
b) tQ = 40ms
c) tQ = 45ms
d) tQ = 50ms
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if _______ rule sequences the jobs.

a) earliest due date

b) slack time remaining
c) first come, first served
d) critical ratio
Answer: c www.aktutor.in
Explanation: None.

10. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

a) First come First served

b) Shortest Job First
c) Earliest Deadline First
d) Longest Job First
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

11. Under multiprogramming, turnaround time for short jobs is usually ________ and that for long jobs is slightly _
__________

a) Lengthened; Shortened
b) Shortened; Lengthened
c) Shortened; Shortened
d) Shortened; Unchanged
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

12. Which of the following statements are true? (GATE 2010)

a) I only
b) I and III only
c) II and III only
d) I, II and III
Answer: d
Explanation: I) Shortest remaining time first scheduling is a preemptive version of shortest job scheduling. It may ca
use starvation as shorter processes may keep coming and a long CPU burst process never gets CPU.

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1. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

a) FCFS – First come First served

b) SJF – Shortest Job First
c) RR – Round Robin
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is ____________

a) it is too good an algorithm

b) knowing the length of the next CPU request
c) it is too complex to understand
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for ____________

 www.aktutor.in
a) time sharing systems
b) multiprogramming systems
c) multiprocessor systems
d) operating systems
Answer: b
Explanation: In a time sharing system, each user needs to get a share of the CPU at regular intervals.

4. Consider the following set of processes, the length of the CPU burst time given in milliseconds.

a) The waiting time for process P1 is 3ms

b) The waiting time for process P1 is 0ms
c) The waiting time for process P1 is 16ms
d) The waiting time for process P1 is 9ms
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. Preemptive Shortest Job First scheduling is sometimes called ____________

a) Fast SJF scheduling

b) EDF scheduling – Earliest Deadline First
c) HRRN scheduling – Highest Response Ratio Next
d) SRTN scheduling – Shortest Remaining Time Next
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. An SJF algorithm is simply a priority algorithm where the priority is ____________

a) the predicted next CPU burst

b) the inverse of the predicted next CPU burst
c) the current CPU burst
d) anything the user wants
Answer: a
Explanation: The larger the CPU burst, the lower the priority.

7. Choose one of the disadvantages of the priority scheduling algorithm?

a) it schedules in a very complex manner

b) its scheduling takes up a lot of time
c) it can lead to some low priority process waiting indefinitely for the CPU
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. What is ‘Aging’?

a) keeping track of cache contents

b) keeping track of what pages are currently residing in memory
c) keeping track of how many times a given page is referenced
d) increasing the priority of jobs to ensure termination in a finite time
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. A solution to the problem of indefinite blockage of low – priority processes is ____________

 www.aktutor.in
a) Starvation
b) Wait queue
c) Ready queue
d) Aging i) Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvation
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

10. Which of the following statements are true? (GATE 2010)

a) i only
b) i and iii only
c) ii and iii only
d) i, ii and iii
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

11. Which of the following scheduling algorithms gives minimum average waiting time?

a) FCFS
b) SJF
c) Round – robin
d) Priority
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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1. Concurrent access to shared data may result in ____________

a) data consistency
b) data insecurity
c) data inconsistency
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

2. A situation where several processes access and manipulate the same data concurrently and the outcome of the exe
cution depends on the particular order in which access takes place is called ____________

a) data consistency
b) race condition
c) aging
d) starvation
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. The segment of code in which the process may change common variables, update tables, write into files is known
as ____________

a) program
b) critical section
c) non – critical section
d) synchronizing www.aktutor.in
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied to solve the critical section problem?

a) Mutual Exclusion
b) Progress
c) Bounded Waiting
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

5. Mutual exclusion implies that ____________

a) if a process is executing in its critical section, then no other process must be executing in their critical sections
b) if a process is executing in its critical section, then other processes must be executing in their critical sections
c) if a process is executing in its critical section, then all the resources of the system must be blocked until it finishes
execution
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. Bounded waiting implies that there exists a bound on the number of times a process is allowed to enter its critical
section ____________

a) after a process has made a request to enter its critical section and before the request is granted
b) when another process is in its critical section
c) before a process has made a request to enter its critical section
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. A minimum of _____ variable(s) is/are required to be shared between processes to solve the critical section proble
m.

a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. In the bakery algorithm to solve the critical section problem ____________

a) each process is put into a queue and picked up in an ordered manner

b) each process receives a number (may or may not be unique) and the one with the lowest number is served next
c) each process gets a unique number and the one with the highest number is served next
d) each process gets a unique number and the one with the lowest number is served next
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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 www.aktutor.in
1. An un-interruptible unit is known as ____________

a) single
b) atomic
c) static
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. TestAndSet instruction is executed ____________

a) after a particular process

b) periodically
c) atomically
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. Semaphore is a/an _______ to solve the critical section problem.

a) hardware for a system

b) special program for a system
c) integer variable
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. What are the two atomic operations permissible on semaphores?

a) wait
b) stop
c) hold
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. What are Spinlocks?

a) CPU cycles wasting locks over critical sections of programs

b) Locks that avoid time wastage in context switches
c) Locks that work better on multiprocessor systems
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. What is the main disadvantage of spinlocks?

a) they are not sufficient for many process

b) they require busy waiting
c) they are unreliable sometimes
d) they are too complex for programmers
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
7. The wait operation of the semaphore basically works on the basic _______ system call.

a) stop()
b) block()
c) hold()
d) wait()
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. The signal operation of the semaphore basically works on the basic _______ system call.

a) continue()
b) wakeup()
c) getup()
d) start()
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. If the semaphore value is negative ____________

a) its magnitude is the number of processes waiting on that semaphore

b) it is invalid
c) no operation can be further performed on it until the signal operation is performed on it
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. The code that changes the value of the semaphore is ____________

a) remainder section code

b) non – critical section code
c) critical section code
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

11. The following program consists of 3 concurrent processes and 3 binary semaphores. The semaphores are initializ
ed as S0 = 1, S1 = 0, S2 = 0.

a) At least twice
b) Exactly twice
c) Exactly thrice
d) Exactly once
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

12. Each process Pi, i = 0,1,2,3,……,9 is coded as follows.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
 www.aktutor.in
Explanation: Any one of the 9 processes can get into critical section after executing P(mutex) which decrements the
mutex value to 0. At this time P10 can enter critical section by incrementing the value to 1. Now any of the 9 proces
ses can enter the critical section by again decrementing the mutex value to 0. None of the remaining processes can g
et into their critical sections.

13. Two processes, P1 and P2, need to access a critical section of code. Consider the following synchronization cons
truct used by the processes.

a) It does not ensure mutual exclusion

b) It does not ensure bounded waiting
c) It requires that processes enter the critical section in strict alternation
d) It does not prevent deadlocks but ensures mutual exclusion
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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1. What will happen if a non-recursive mutex is locked more than once?

a) Starvation
b) Deadlock
c) Aging
d) Signaling
Answer: b
Explanation: If a thread which had already locked a mutex, tries to lock the mutex again, it will enter into the waitin
g list of that mutex, which results in a deadlock. It is because no other thread can unlock the mutex.

2. What is a semaphore?

a) is a binary mutex
b) must be accessed from only one process
c) can be accessed from multiple processes
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. What are the two kinds of semaphores?

a) mutex & counting

b) binary & counting
c) counting & decimal
d) decimal & binary
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. What is a mutex?

a) is a binary mutex
b) must be accessed from only one process
c) can be accessed from multiple processes
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
5. At a particular time of computation the value of a counting semaphore is 7.Then 20 P operations and 15 V operati
ons were completed on this semaphore. The resulting value of the semaphore is? (GATE 1987)

a) 42
b) 2
c) 7
d) 12
Answer: b
Explanation: P represents Wait and V represents Signal. P operation will decrease the value by 1 every time and V
operation will increase the value by 1 every time.

6. A binary semaphore is a semaphore with integer values ____________

a) 1
b) -1
c) 0.8
d) 0.5
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. The following pair of processes share a common variable X.

a) two
b) three
c) four
d) eight
Answer: c
Explanation: Here are the possible ways in which statements from A and B can be interleaved.

8. The program follows to use a shared binary semaphore T.

a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
Answer: a
Explanation: The semaphore T ensures that all the statements from A finish execution before B begins. So now there
is only one way in which statements from A and B can be interleaved:

9. Semaphores are mostly used to implement ____________

a) System calls
b) IPC mechanisms
c) System protection
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. Spinlocks are intended to provide __________ only.

a) Mutual Exclusion
b) Bounded Waiting
c) Aging
d) Progress www.aktutor.in
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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1. The bounded buffer problem is also known as ____________

a) Readers – Writers problem

b) Dining – Philosophers problem
c) Producer – Consumer problem
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

2. In the bounded buffer problem, there are the empty and full semaphores that ____________

a) count the number of empty and full buffers

b) count the number of empty and full memory spaces
c) count the number of empty and full queues
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. In the bounded buffer problem ____________

a) there is only one buffer

b) there are n buffers ( n being greater than one but finite)
c) there are infinite buffers
d) the buffer size is bounded
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. To ensure difficulties do not arise in the readers – writers problem _______ are given exclusive access to the shar
ed object.

a) readers
b) writers
c) readers and writers
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. The dining – philosophers problem will occur in case of ____________

a) 5 philosophers and 5 chopsticks

b) 4 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
c) 3 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
d) 6 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. A deadlock free solution to the dining philosophers problem ____________

 www.aktutor.in
a) necessarily eliminates the possibility of starvation
b) does not necessarily eliminate the possibility of starvation
c) eliminates any possibility of any kind of problem further
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. All processes share a semaphore variable mutex, initialized to 1. Each process must execute wait(mutex) before e
ntering the critical section and signal(mutex) afterward.

a) a deadlock will occur

b) processes will starve to enter critical section
c) several processes maybe executing in their critical section
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. All processes share a semaphore variable mutex, initialized to 1. Each process must execute wait(mutex) before e
ntering the critical section and signal(mutex) afterward.

a) a deadlock will occur

b) processes will starve to enter critical section
c) several processes maybe executing in their critical section
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. Consider the methods used by processes P1 and P2 for accessing their critical sections whenever needed, as given
below. The initial values of shared boolean variables S1 and S2 are randomly assigned. (GATE 2010)

a) Mutual exclusion but not progress

b) Progress but not mutual exclusion
c) Neither mutual exclusion nor progress
d) Both mutual exclusion and progress
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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1. A monitor is a type of ____________

a) semaphore
b) low level synchronization construct
c) high level synchronization construct
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

2. A monitor is characterized by ____________

a) a set of programmer defined operators

b) an identifier
c) the number of variables in it www.aktutor.in
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. A procedure defined within a ________ can access only those variables declared locally within the _______ and i
ts formal parameters.

a) process, semaphore
b) process, monitor
c) semaphore, semaphore
d) monitor, monitor
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. The monitor construct ensures that ____________

a) only one process can be active at a time within the monitor

b) n number of processes can be active at a time within the monitor (n being greater than 1)
c) the queue has only one process in it at a time
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. What are the operations that can be invoked on a condition variable?

a) wait & signal

b) hold & wait
c) signal & hold
d) continue & signal
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. Which is the process of invoking the wait operation?

a) suspended until another process invokes the signal operation

b) waiting for another process to complete before it can itself call the signal operation
c) stopped until the next process in the queue finishes execution
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. If no process is suspended, the signal operation ____________

a) puts the system into a deadlock state

b) suspends some default process execution
c) nothing happens
d) the output is unpredictable
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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 www.aktutor.in
1. A collection of instructions that performs a single logical function is called ____________

a) transaction
b) operation
c) function
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. A terminated transaction that has completed its execution successfully is ____________ otherwise it is ________
__

a) committed, destroyed
b) aborted, destroyed
c) committed, aborted
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. The state of the data accessed by an aborted transaction must be restored to what it was just before the transaction
started executing. This restoration is known as ________ of transaction.

a) safety
b) protection
c) roll – back
d) revert – back
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. Write ahead logging is a way ____________

a) to ensure atomicity
b) to keep data consistent
c) that records data on stable storage
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

5. In the write ahead logging a _____________ is maintained.

a) a memory
b) a system
c) a disk
d) a log record
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. An actual update is not allowed to a data item ____________

a) before the corresponding log record is written out to stable storage

b) after the corresponding log record is written out to stable storage
c) until the whole log record has been checked for inconsistencies
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None. www.aktutor.in
7. The undo and redo operations must be _________ to guarantee correct behaviour, even if a failure occurs during r
ecovery process.

a) idempotent
b) easy
c) protected
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Idempotent – Multiple executions of an operation have the same result as does one execution.

8. The system periodically performs checkpoints that consists of the following operation(s) ____________

a) Putting all the log records currently in main memory onto stable storage
b) putting all modified data residing in main memory onto stable storage
c) putting a log record onto stable storage
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. Consider a transaction T1 that committed prior to checkpoint. The <T1 commits> record appears in the log before
the <checkpoint> record. Any modifications made by T1 must have been written to the stable storage either with th
e checkpoint or prior to it. Thus at recovery time ____________

a) There is a need to perform an undo operation on T1

b) There is a need to perform a redo operation on T1
c) There is no need to perform an undo and redo operation on T1
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. Serializable schedules are ones where ____________

a) concurrent execution of transactions is equivalent to the transactions executed serially

b) the transactions can be carried out one after the other
c) a valid result occurs after execution transactions
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

11. A locking protocol is one that ____________

a) governs how locks are acquired

b) governs how locks are released
c) governs how locks are acquired and released
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

12. The two phase locking protocol consists of ____________

a) growing & shrinking phase

b) shrinking & creation phase
c) creation & growing phase www.aktutor.in
d) destruction & creation phase
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

13. The growing phase is a phase in which?

a) A transaction may obtain locks, but does not release any

b) A transaction may obtain locks, and releases a few or all of them
c) A transaction may release locks, but does not obtain any new locks
d) A transaction may release locks, and does obtain new locks
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

14. The shrinking phase is a phase in which?

a) A transaction may obtain locks, but does not release any

b) A transaction may obtain locks, and releases a few or all of them
c) A transaction may release locks, but does not obtain any new locks
d) A transaction may release locks, and does obtain new locks
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

15. Which of the following concurrency control protocols ensure both conflict serializability and freedom from dead
lock?

a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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1. The number of resources requested by a process ____________

a) must always be less than the total number of resources available in the system
b) must always be equal to the total number of resources available in the system
c) must not exceed the total number of resources available in the system
d) must exceed the total number of resources available in the system
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

2. The request and release of resources are ___________

a) command line statements

b) interrupts
c) system calls
d) special programs
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
3. What are Multithreaded programs?

a) lesser prone to deadlocks

b) more prone to deadlocks
c) not at all prone to deadlocks
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Multiple threads can compete for shared resources.

4. For a deadlock to arise, which of the following conditions must hold simultaneously?

a) Mutual exclusion
b) No preemption
c) Hold and wait
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

5. For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the system ____________

a) at least one resource must be held in a non sharable mode

b) the processor must be a uniprocessor rather than a multiprocessor
c) there must be at least one resource in a sharable mode
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: If another process requests that resource (non – shareable resource), the requesting process must be del
ayed until the resource has been released.

6. For a Hold and wait condition to prevail ____________

a) A process must be not be holding a resource, but waiting for one to be freed, and then request to acquire it
b) A process must be holding at least one resource and waiting to acquire additional resources that are being held by
other processes
c) A process must hold at least one resource and not be waiting to acquire additional resources
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. Deadlock prevention is a set of methods ____________

a) to ensure that at least one of the necessary conditions cannot hold

b) to ensure that all of the necessary conditions do not hold
c) to decide if the requested resources for a process have to be given or not
d) to recover from a deadlock
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. For non sharable resources like a printer, mutual exclusion ____________

a) must exist
b) must not exist
c) may exist
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a www.aktutor.in
Explanation: A printer cannot be simultaneously shared by several processes.

9. For sharable resources, mutual exclusion ____________

a) is required
b) is not required
c) may be or may not be required
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: They do not require mutually exclusive access, and hence cannot be involved in a deadlock.

10. To ensure that the hold and wait condition never occurs in the system, it must be ensured that ____________

a) whenever a resource is requested by a process, it is not holding any other resources

b) each process must request and be allocated all its resources before it begins its execution
c) a process can request resources only when it has none
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: c – A process may request some resources and use them. Before it can can request any additional resou
rces, however it must release all the resources that it is currently allocated.

11. The disadvantage of a process being allocated all its resources before beginning its execution is ____________

a) Low CPU utilization

b) Low resource utilization
c) Very high resource utilization
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

12. To ensure no preemption, if a process is holding some resources and requests another resource that cannot be im
mediately allocated to it ____________

a) then the process waits for the resources be allocated to it

b) the process keeps sending requests until the resource is allocated to it
c) the process resumes execution without the resource being allocated to it
d) then all resources currently being held are preempted
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

13. One way to ensure that the circular wait condition never holds is to ____________

a) impose a total ordering of all resource types and to determine whether one precedes another in the ordering
b) to never let a process acquire resources that are held by other processes
c) to let a process wait for only one resource at a time
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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1. Each request requires that the system consider the _____________ to decide whether the current request can be sa
 www.aktutor.in
tisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

a) resources currently available

b) processes that have previously been in the system
c) resources currently allocated to each process
d) future requests and releases of each process
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. Given a priori information about the ________ number of resources of each type that maybe requested for each pr
ocess, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

a) minimum
b) average
c) maximum
d) approximate
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the __________ to ensure that a circular wait condition ca
n never exist.

a) resource allocation state

b) system storage state
c) operating system
d) resources
Answer: a
Explanation: Resource allocation states are used to maintain the availability of the already and current available reso
urces.

4. A state is safe, if ____________

a) the system does not crash due to deadlock occurrence

b) the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still avoid a deadlock
c) the state keeps the system protected and safe
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. A system is in a safe state only if there exists a ____________

a) safe allocation
b) safe resource
c) safe sequence
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. All unsafe states are ____________

a) deadlocks
b) not deadlocks
c) fatal
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b www.aktutor.in
Explanation: None.

7. A system has 12 magnetic tape drives and 3 processes : P0, P1, and P2. Process P0 requires 10 tape drives, P1 req
uires 4 and P2 requires 9 tape drives.

a) P0, P1, P2
b) P1, P2, P0
c) P2, P0, P1
d) P1, P0, P2
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

10

a) then the system will not be in a safe state

b) then the system will be in a safe state
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

a) with multiple instances of each resource type

b) with a single instance of each resource type
c) single & multiple instances of each resource type
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. If no cycle exists in the resource allocation graph ____________

a) less efficient
b) more efficient
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. The resource allocation graph is not applicable to a resource allocation system ____________

a) Available
b) Need
c) Allocation
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

10. The Banker’s algorithm is _____________ than the resource allocation graph algorithm.

a) Allocation – Available
b) Max – Available
c) Max – Allocation
d) Allocation – Max www.aktutor.in
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

11. The data structures available in the Banker’s algorithm are ____________

a) an unsafe state
b) a safe state
c) a protected state
d) a deadlock
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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1. The wait-for graph is a deadlock detection algorithm that is applicable when ____________

a) all resources have a single instance

b) all resources have multiple instances
c) all resources have a single 7 multiple instances
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that ____________

a) Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

b) Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs
c) Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system
d) Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. If the wait for graph contains a cycle ____________

a) then a deadlock does not exist

b) then a deadlock exists
c) then the system is in a safe state
d) either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. If deadlocks occur frequently, the detection algorithm must be invoked ________

a) rarely
b) frequently
c) rarely & frequently
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. What is the disadvantage of invoking the detection algorithm for every request?
 www.aktutor.in
a) overhead of the detection algorithm due to consumption of memory
b) excessive time consumed in the request to be allocated memory
c) considerable overhead in computation time
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. A deadlock eventually cripples system throughput and will cause the CPU utilization to ______

a) increase
b) drop
c) stay still
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. Every time a request for allocation cannot be granted immediately, the detection algorithm is invoked. This will h
elp identify ____________

a) the set of processes that have been deadlocked

b) the set of processes in the deadlock queue
c) the specific process that caused the deadlock
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. A computer system has 6 tape drives, with ‘n’ processes competing for them. Each process may need 3 tape drive
s. The maximum value of ‘n’ for which the system is guaranteed to be deadlock free is?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. A system has 3 processes sharing 4 resources. If each process needs a maximum of 2 units then, deadlock ______
______

a) can never occur

b) may occur
c) has to occur
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. ‘m’ processes share ‘n’ resources of the same type. The maximum need of each process doesn’t exceed ‘n’ and t
he sum of all their maximum needs is always less than m+n. In this setup, deadlock ____________

a) can never occur

b) may occur
c) has to occur
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None. www.aktutor.in

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1. A deadlock can be broken by ____________

a) abort one or more processes to break the circular wait

b) abort all the process in the system
c) preempt all resources from all processes
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. The two ways of aborting processes and eliminating deadlocks are ____________

a) Abort all deadlocked processes

b) Abort all processes
c) Abort one process at a time until the deadlock cycle is eliminated
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. Those processes should be aborted on occurrence of a deadlock, the termination of which?

a) is more time consuming

b) incurs minimum cost
c) safety is not hampered
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. The process to be aborted is chosen on the basis of the following factors?

a) priority of the process

b) process is interactive or batch
c) how long the process has computed
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

5. Cost factors for process termination include ____________

a) Number of resources the deadlock process is not holding

b) CPU utilization at the time of deadlock
c) Amount of time a deadlocked process has thus far consumed during its execution
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. If we preempt a resource from a process, the process cannot continue with its normal execution and it must be ___
_________

a) aborted
b) rolled back www.aktutor.in
c) terminated
d) queued
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. To _______ to a safe state, the system needs to keep more information about the states of processes.

a) abort the process

b) roll back the process
c) queue the process
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. If the resources are always preempted from the same process __________ can occur.

a) deadlock
b) system crash
c) aging
d) starvation
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. What is the solution to starvation?

a) the number of rollbacks must be included in the cost factor

b) the number of resources must be included in resource preemption
c) resource preemption be done instead
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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1. What is Address Binding?

a) going to an address in memory

b) locating an address with the help of another address
c) binding two addresses together to form a new address in a different memory space
d) a mapping from one address space to another
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

2. Binding of instructions and data to memory addresses can be done at ____________

a) Compile time
b) Load time
c) Execution time
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
3. If the process can be moved during its execution from one memory segment to another, then binding must be ___
_________

a) delayed until run time

b) preponed to compile time
c) preponed to load time
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. What is Dynamic loading?

a) loading multiple routines dynamically

b) loading a routine only when it is called
c) loading multiple routines randomly
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. What is the advantage of dynamic loading?

a) A used routine is used multiple times

b) An unused routine is never loaded
c) CPU utilization increases
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. The idea of overlays is to ____________

a) data that are needed at any given time

b) enable a process to be larger than the amount of memory allocated to it
c) keep in memory only those instructions
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. The ___________ must design and program the overlay structure.

a) programmer
b) system architect
c) system designer
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. The ___________ swaps processes in and out of the memory.

a) Memory manager
b) CPU
c) CPU manager
d) User
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
9. If a higher priority process arrives and wants service, the memory manager can swap out the lower priority proces
s to execute the higher priority process. When the higher priority process finishes, the lower priority process is swap
ped back in and continues execution. This variant of swapping is sometimes called?

a) priority swapping
b) pull out, push in
c) roll out, roll in
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. If binding is done at assembly or load time, then the process _____ be moved to different locations after being s
wapped out and in again.

a) can
b) must
c) can never
d) may
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

11. In a system that does not support swapping ____________

a) the compiler normally binds symbolic addresses (variables) to relocatable addresses

b) the compiler normally binds symbolic addresses to physical addresses
c) the loader binds relocatable addresses to physical addresses
d) binding of symbolic addresses to physical addresses normally takes place during execution
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

12. Which of the following is TRUE?

a) Overlays are used to increase the size of physical memory

b) Overlays are used to increase the logical address space
c) When overlays are used, the size of a process is not limited to the size of the physical memory
d) Overlays are used whenever the physical address space is smaller than the logical address space
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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1. The address generated by the CPU is referred to as ____________

a) Physical address
b) Logical address
c) Neither physical nor logical
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. The address loaded into the memory address register of the memory is referred to as ____________
a) Physical address www.aktutor.in
b) Logical address
c) Neither physical nor logical
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. The run time mapping from virtual to physical addresses is done by a hardware device called the ____________

a) Virtual to physical mapper

b) Memory management unit
c) Memory mapping unit
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. The base register is also known as the ____________

a) basic register
b) regular register
c) relocation register
d) delocation register
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. The size of a process is limited to the size of ____________

a) physical memory
b) external storage
c) secondary storage
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. If execution time binding is being used, then a process ______ be swapped to a different memory space.

a) has to be
b) can never
c) must
d) may
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. Swapping requires a _________

a) motherboard
b) keyboard
c) monitor
d) backing store
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

8. The backing store is generally a ____________

a) fast disk www.aktutor.in
b) disk large enough to accommodate copies of all memory images for all users
c) disk to provide direct access to the memory images
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. The ________ consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in memory and are read
y to run.

a) wait queue
b) ready queue
c) cpu
d) secondary storage
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. The _________ time in a swap out of a running process and swap in of a new process into the memory is very hi
gh.

a) context – switch
b) waiting
c) execution
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

11. The major part of swap time is _______ time.

a) waiting
b) transfer
c) execution
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

12. Swapping _______ be done when a process has pending I/O, or has to execute I/O operations only into operating
system buffers.

a) must
b) can
c) must never
d) maybe
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

13. Swap space is allocated ____________

a) as a chunk of disk
b) separate from a file system
c) into a file system
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
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1. The main memory accommodates ____________

a) operating system
b) cpu
c) user processes
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. What is the operating system?

a) in the low memory

b) in the high memory
c) either low or high memory (depending on the location of interrupt vector)
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. In contiguous memory allocation ____________

a) each process is contained in a single contiguous section of memory

b) all processes are contained in a single contiguous section of memory
c) the memory space is contiguous
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. The relocation register helps in ____________

a) providing more address space to processes

b) a different address space to processes
c) to protect the address spaces of processes
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. With relocation and limit registers, each logical address must be _______ the limit register.

a) less than
b) equal to
c) greater than
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. The operating system and the other processes are protected from being modified by an already running process be
cause ____________

a) they are in different memory spaces

b) they are in different logical addresses www.aktutor.in
c) they have a protection algorithm
d) every address generated by the CPU is being checked against the relocation and limit registers
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. Transient operating system code is code that ____________

a) is not easily accessible

b) comes and goes as needed
c) stays in the memory always
d) never enters the memory space
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Using transient code, _______ the size of the operating system during program execution.

a) increases
b) decreases
c) changes
d) maintains
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. When memory is divided into several fixed sized partitions, each partition may contain ________

a) exactly one process

b) at least one process
c) multiple processes at once
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. In fixed size partition, the degree of multiprogramming is bounded by ___________

a) the number of partitions

b) the CPU utilization
c) the memory size
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None

11. The first fit, best fit and worst fit are strategies to select a ______

a) process from a queue to put in memory

b) processor to run the next process
c) free hole from a set of available holes
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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 www.aktutor.in
1. In internal fragmentation, memory is internal to a partition and ____________

a) is being used
b) is not being used
c) is always used
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. A solution to the problem of external fragmentation is ____________

a) compaction
b) larger memory space
c) smaller memory space
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. Another solution to the problem of external fragmentation problem is to ____________

a) permit the logical address space of a process to be noncontiguous

b) permit smaller processes to be allocated memory at last
c) permit larger processes to be allocated memory at last
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. If relocation is static and is done at assembly or load time, compaction _________

a) cannot be done
b) must be done
c) must not be done
d) can be done
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. The disadvantage of moving all process to one end of memory and all holes to the other direction, producing one l
arge hole of available memory is ____________

a) the cost incurred

b) the memory used
c) the CPU used
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. __________ is generally faster than _________ and _________

a) first fit, best fit, worst fit

b) best fit, first fit, worst fit
c) worst fit, best fit, first fit
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
7. External fragmentation exists when?

a) enough total memory exists to satisfy a request but it is not contiguous

b) the total memory is insufficient to satisfy a request
c) a request cannot be satisfied even when the total memory is free
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. External fragmentation will not occur when?

a) first fit is used

b) best fit is used
c) worst fit is used
d) no matter which algorithm is used, it will always occur
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. Sometimes the overhead of keeping track of a hole might be ____________

a) larger than the memory

b) larger than the hole itself
c) very small
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. When the memory allocated to a process is slightly larger than the process, then ____________

a) internal fragmentation occurs

b) external fragmentation occurs
c) both internal and external fragmentation occurs
d) neither internal nor external fragmentation occurs
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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1. Physical memory is broken into fixed-sized blocks called ________

a) frames
b) pages
c) backing store
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. Logical memory is broken into blocks of the same size called _________

a) frames
b) pages
c) backing store
d) none of the mentioned www.aktutor.in
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. Every address generated by the CPU is divided into two parts. They are ____________

a) frame bit & page number

b) page number & page offset
c) page offset & frame bit
d) frame offset & page offset
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. The __________ is used as an index into the page table.

a) frame bit
b) page number
c) page offset
d) frame offset
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. The _____ table contains the base address of each page in physical memory.

a) process
b) memory
c) page
d) frame
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. The size of a page is typically ____________

a) varied
b) power of 2
c) power of 4
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. If the size of logical address space is 2 to the power of m, and a page size is 2 to the power of n addressing units, t
hen the high order _____ bits of a logical address designate the page number, and the ____ low order bits designate t
he page offset.

a) m, n
b) n, m
c) m – n, m
d) m – n, n
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

8. With paging there is no ________ fragmentation.

a) internal
b) external www.aktutor.in
c) either type of
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. The operating system maintains a ______ table that keeps track of how many frames have been allocated, how ma
ny are there, and how many are available.

a) page
b) mapping
c) frame
d) memory
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. Paging increases the ______ time.

a) waiting
b) execution
c) context – switch
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

11. Smaller page tables are implemented as a set of _______

a) queues
b) stacks
c) counters
d) registers
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

12. The page table registers should be built with _______

a) very low speed logic

b) very high speed logic
c) a large memory space
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

13. For larger page tables, they are kept in main memory and a __________ points to the page table.

a) page table base register

b) page table base pointer
c) page table register pointer
d) page table base
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

14. For every process there is a __________

a) page table www.aktutor.in
b) copy of page table
c) pointer to page table
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

15. Time taken in memory access through PTBR is ____________

a) extended by a factor of 3
b) extended by a factor of 2
c) slowed by a factor of 3
d) slowed by a factor of 2
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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1. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL

b) consists of ____________

a) key
b) value
c) bit value
d) constant
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. If a page number is not found in the TLB, then it is known as a ____________

a) TLB miss
b) Buffer miss
c) TLB hit
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. An ______ uniquely identifies processes and is used to provide address space protection for that process.

a) address space locator

b) address space identifier
c) address process identifier
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. The percentage of times a page number is found in the TLB is known as ____________

a) miss ratio
b) hit ratio
c) miss percent
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None. www.aktutor.in
5. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by ____________

a) protection algorithm with each page

b) restricted access rights to users
c) restriction on page visibility
d) protection bit with each page
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page ____________

a) is in the TLB
b) has data in it
c) is in the process’s logical address space
d) is the system’s physical address space
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. Illegal addresses are trapped using the _____ bit.

a) error
b) protection
c) valid – invalid
d) access
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. When there is a large logical address space, the best way of paging would be ____________

a) not to page
b) a two level paging algorithm
c) the page table itself
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. In a paged memory, the page hit ratio is 0.35. The required to access a page in secondary memory is equal to 100
ns. The time required to access a page in primary memory is 10 ns. The average time required to access a page is?

a) 3.0 ns
b) 68.0 ns
c) 68.5 ns
d) 78.5 ns
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is used. With dynamic loading, a routine is not loaded unti
l it is called. For implementing dynamic loading ____________

a) special support from hardware is required

b) special support from operating system is essential
c) special support from both hardware and operating system is essential
d) user programs can implement dynamic loadingwww.aktutor.in
without any special support from hardware or operating system
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

11. In paged memory systems, if the page size is increased, then the internal fragmentation generally ____________

a) becomes less
b) becomes more
c) remains constant
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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1. In segmentation, each address is specified by ____________

a) a segment number & offset

b) an offset & value
c) a value & segment number
d) a key & value
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. In paging the user provides only ________ which is partitioned by the hardware into ________ and ______

a) one address, page number, offset

b) one offset, page number, address
c) page number, offset, address
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. Each entry in a segment table has a ____________

a) segment base
b) segment peak
c) segment value
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. The segment base contains the ____________

a) starting logical address of the process

b) starting physical address of the segment in memory
c) segment length
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. The segment limit contains the ____________

a) starting logical address of the process www.aktutor.in
b) starting physical address of the segment in memory
c) segment length
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be ____________

a) greater than segment limit

b) between 0 and segment limit
c) between 0 and the segment number
d) greater than the segment number
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. If the offset is legal ____________

a) it is used as a physical memory address itself

b) it is subtracted from the segment base to produce the physical memory address
c) it is added to the segment base to produce the physical memory address
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. When the entries in the segment tables of two different processes point to the same physical location __________
__

a) the segments are invalid

b) the processes get blocked
c) segments are shared
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. The protection bit is 0/1 based on ____________

a) write only
b) read only
c) read – write
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. If there are 32 segments, each of size 1Kb, then the logical address should have ____________

a) 13 bits
b) 14 bits
c) 15 bits
d) 16 bits
Answer: a
Explanation: To specify a particular segment, 5 bits are required. To select a particular byte after selecting a page, 1
0 more bits are required. Hence 15 bits are required.
 www.aktutor.in
11. Consider a computer with 8 Mbytes of main memory and a 128K cache. The cache block size is 4 K. It uses a di
rect mapping scheme for cache management. How many different main memory blocks can map onto a given physic
al cache block?

a) 2048
b) 256
c) 64
d) 8
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

12. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for translating virtual address to ph
ysical address because ____________

a) it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

b) it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process
c) it is required by the translation lookaside buffer
d) it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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1. If one or more devices use a common set of wires to communicate with the computer system, the connection is cal
led ______

a) CPU
b) Monitor
c) Wirefull
d) Bus
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

2. A ____ a set of wires and a rigidly defined protocol that specifies a set of messages that can be sent on the wires.

a) port
b) node
c) bus
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. When device A has a cable that plugs into device B, and device B has a cable that plugs into device C and device
C plugs into a port on the computer, this arrangement is called a _________

a) port
b) daisy chain
c) bus
d) cable
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. The _________ present a uniform device-access interface to the I/O subsystem, much as system calls provide a st
andard interface between the application and the www.aktutor.in
operating system.

a) Devices
b) Buses
c) Device drivers
d) I/O systems
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. A ________ is a collection of electronics that can operate a port, a bus, or a device.

a) controller
b) driver
c) host
d) bus
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. An I/O port typically consists of four registers status, control, ________ and ________ registers.

a) system in, system out

b) data in, data out
c) flow in, flow out
d) input, output
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. The ______ register is read by the host to get input.

a) flow in
b) flow out
c) data in
d) data out
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. The ______ register is written by the host to send output.

a) status
b) control
c) data in
d) data out
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. The hardware mechanism that allows a device to notify the CPU is called _______

a) polling
b) interrupt
c) driver
d) controlling
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
10. The CPU hardware has a wire called __________ that the CPU senses after executing every instruction.

a) interrupt request line

b) interrupt bus
c) interrupt receive line
d) interrupt sense line
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

11. The _________ determines the cause of the interrupt, performs the necessary processing and executes a return fr
om the interrupt instruction to return the CPU to the execution state prior to the interrupt.

a) interrupt request line

b) device driver
c) interrupt handler
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

12. In general the two interrupt request lines are ____________

a) maskable & non maskable interrupts

b) blocked & non maskable interrupts
c) maskable & blocked interrupts
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

13. The _________ are reserved for events such as unrecoverable memory errors.

a) non maskable interrupts

b) blocked interrupts
c) maskable interrupts
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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1. The ________ can be turned off by the CPU before the execution of critical instruction sequences that must not b
e interrupted.

a) nonmaskable interrupt
b) blocked interrupt
c) maskable interrupt
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

2. The __________ is used by device controllers to request service.

a) nonmaskable interrupt
b) blocked interrupt
c) maskable interrupt www.aktutor.in
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. The interrupt vector contains ____________

a) the interrupts
b) the memory addresses of specialized interrupt handlers
c) the identifiers of interrupts
d) the device addresses
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. Division by zero, accessing a protected or non existent memory address, or attempting to execute a privileged inst
ruction from user mode are all categorized as ________

a) errors
b) exceptions
c) interrupt handlers
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. For large data transfers, _________ is used.

a) dma
b) programmed I/O
c) controller register
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. A character stream device transfers ____________

a) bytes one by one

b) block of bytes as a unit
c) with unpredictable response times
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. A block device transfers ____________

a) bytes one by one

b) block of bytes as a unit
c) with unpredictable response times
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. What is a dedicated device?

a) opposite to a sharable device

b) same as a sharable device www.aktutor.in
c) can be used concurrently by several processes
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. A keyboard is an example of a device that is accessed through a __________ interface.

a) block stream
b) set of blocks
c) character stream
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. In polling ____________

a) busy – wait cycles wait for I/O from device

b) interrupt handler receives interrupts
c) interrupt-request line is triggered by I/O device
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

11. A non blocking system call _________________

a) halts the execution of the application for an extended time

b) does not halt the execution of the application
c) does not block the interrupts
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

12. An asynchronous call ____________

a) returns immediately, without waiting for the I/O to complete

b) does not return immediately and waits for the I/O to complete
c) consumes a lot of time
d) is too slow
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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1. Buffering is done to ____________

a) cope with device speed mismatch

b) cope with device transfer size mismatch
c) maintain copy semantics
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
2. Caching is ________ spooling. www.aktutor.in
a) same as
b) not the same as
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. Caching ____________

a) holds a copy of the data

b) is fast memory
c) holds the only copy of the data
d) holds output for a device
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. Spooling ____________

a) holds a copy of the data

b) is fast memory
c) holds the only copy of the data
d) holds output for a device
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. The ________ keeps state information about the use of I/O components.

a) CPU
b) OS
c) kernel
d) shell
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. The kernel data structures include ____________

a) process table
b) open file table
c) close file table
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. Windows NT uses a __________ implementation for I/O.

a) message – passing
b) draft – passing
c) secondary memory
d) cache
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
8. A ________ is a full duplex connection between a device driver and a user level process.

a) Bus
b) I/O operation
c) Stream
d) Flow
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. I/O is a _________ in system performance.

a) major factor
b) minor factor
c) does not matter
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. If the number of cycles spent busy – waiting is not excessive, then ____________

a) interrupt driven I/O is more efficient than programmed I/O

b) programmed I/O is more efficient than interrupt driven I/O
c) both programmed and interrupt driven I/O are equally efficient
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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1. What is the disadvantage of real addressing mode?

a) there is a lot of cost involved

b) time consumption overhead
c) absence of memory protection between processes
d) restricted access to memory locations by processes
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

2. Preemptive, priority based scheduling guarantees ____________

a) hard real time functionality

b) soft real time functionality
c) protection of memory
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. Real time systems must have ____________

a) preemptive kernels
b) non preemptive kernels
c) preemptive kernels or non preemptive kernels
d) neither preemptive nor non preemptive kernelswww.aktutor.in
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. What is Event latency?

a) the amount of time an event takes to occur from when the system started
b) the amount of time from the event occurrence till the system stops
c) the amount of time from event occurrence till the event crashes
d) the amount of time that elapses from when an event occurs to when it is serviced.
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

5. Interrupt latency refers to the period of time ____________

a) from the occurrence of an event to the arrival of an interrupt

b) from the occurrence of an event to the servicing of an interrupt
c) from arrival of an interrupt to the start of the interrupt service routine
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. Real time systems need to __________ the interrupt latency.

a) minimize
b) maximize
c) not bother about
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. The amount of time required for the scheduling dispatcher to stop one process and start another is known as ____
__________

a) event latency
b) interrupt latency
c) dispatch latency
d) context switch
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. The most effective technique to keep dispatch latency low is to ____________

a) provide non preemptive kernels

b) provide preemptive kernels
c) make it user programmed
d) run less number of processes at a time
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. Priority inversion is solved by use of _____________

a) priority inheritance protocol

b) two phase lock protocol
c) time protocol www.aktutor.in
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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1. In a real time system the computer results ____________

a) must be produced within a specific deadline period

b) may be produced at any time
c) may be correct
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. In a safety critical system, incorrect operation ____________

a) does not affect much

b) causes minor problems
c) causes major and serious problems
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. Antilock brake systems, flight management systems, pacemakers are examples of ____________

a) safety critical system

b) hard real time system
c) soft real time system
d) safety critical system and hard real time system
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. In a ______ real time system, it is guaranteed that critical real time tasks will be completed within their deadlines.

a) soft
b) hard
c) critical
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. Some of the properties of real time systems include ____________

a) single purpose
b) inexpensively mass produced
c) small size
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. The amount of memory in a real time system is generally ____________

 www.aktutor.in
a) less compared to PCs
b) high compared to PCs
c) same as in PCs
d) they do not have any memory
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. What is the priority of a real time task?

a) must degrade over time

b) must not degrade over time
c) may degrade over time
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Memory management units ____________

a) increase the cost of the system

b) increase the power consumption of the system
c) increase the time required to complete an operation
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. The technique in which the CPU generates physical addresses directly is known as ____________

a) relocation register method

b) real addressing
c) virtual addressing
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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1. Earliest deadline first algorithm assigns priorities according to ____________

a) periods
b) deadlines
c) burst times
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. A process P1 has a period of 50 and a CPU burst of t1 = 25, P2 has a period of 80 and a CPU burst of 35. The tota
l CPU utilization is ____________

a) 0.90
b) 0.74
c) 0.94
d) 0.80
Answer: c www.aktutor.in
Explanation: None.

3. A process P1 has a period of 50 and a CPU burst of t1 = 25, P2 has a period of 80 and a CPU burst of 35., the prio
rities of P1 and P2 are?

a) remain the same throughout

b) keep varying from time to time
c) may or may not be change
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. A process P1 has a period of 50 and a CPU burst of t1 = 25, P2 has a period of 80 and a CPU burst of 35., can the
two processes be scheduled using the EDF algorithm without missing their respective deadlines?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Maybe
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. Using EDF algorithm practically, it is impossible to achieve 100 percent utilization due to __________

a) the cost of context switching

b) interrupt handling
c) power consumption
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. T shares of time are allocated among all processes out of N shares in __________ scheduling algorithm.

a) rate monotonic
b) proportional share
c) earliest deadline first
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. If there are a total of T = 100 shares to be divided among three processes, A, B and C. A is assigned 50 shares, B i
s assigned 15 shares and C is assigned 20 shares.

a) 20
b) 15
c) 50
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. If there are a total of T = 100 shares to be divided among three processes, A, B and C. A is assigned 50 shares, B
is assigned 15 shares and C is assigned 20 shares.
a) 20 www.aktutor.in
b) 15
c) 50
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. If there are a total of T = 100 shares to be divided among three processes, A, B and C. A is assigned 50 shares, B
is assigned 15 shares and C is assigned 20 shares.

a) 20
b) 15
c) 50
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. If there are a total of T = 100 shares to be divided among three processes, A, B and C. A is assigned 50 shares,
B is assigned 15 shares and C is assigned 20 shares.

a) allocate 30 shares to it
b) deny entry to D in the system
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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1. To schedule the processes, they are considered _________

a) infinitely long
b) periodic
c) heavy weight
d) light weight
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. If the period of a process is ‘p’, then what is the rate of the task?

a) p2
b) 2*p
c) 1/p
d) p
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. The scheduler admits a process using __________

a) two phase locking protocol

b) admission control algorithm
c) busy wait polling
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c www.aktutor.in
Explanation: None.

4. The ____________ scheduling algorithm schedules periodic tasks using a static priority policy with preemption.

a) earliest deadline first

b) rate monotonic
c) first cum first served
d) priority
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. Rate monotonic scheduling assumes that the __________

a) processing time of a periodic process is same for each CPU burst

b) processing time of a periodic process is different for each CPU burst
c) periods of all processes is the same
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. In rate monotonic scheduling, a process with a shorter period is assigned __________

a) a higher priority
b) a lower priority
c) higher & lower priority
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. There are two processes P1 and P2, whose periods are 50 and 100 respectively. P1 is assigned higher priority than
P2. The processing times are t1 = 20 for P1 and t2 = 35 for P2. Is it possible to schedule these tasks so that each me
ets its deadline using Rate monotonic scheduling?

a) yes
b) no
c) maybe
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. If a set of processes cannot be scheduled by rate monotonic scheduling algorithm, then __________

a) they can be scheduled by EDF algorithm

b) they cannot be scheduled by EDF algorithm
c) they cannot be scheduled by any other algorithm
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. A process P1 has a period of 50 and a CPU burst of t1 = 25, P2 has a period of 80 and a CPU burst of 35. The tota
l CPU utilization is?

a) 0.90
b) 0.74 www.aktutor.in
c) 0.94
d) 0.80
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. A process P1 has a period of 50 and a CPU burst of t1 = 25, P2 has a period of 80 and a CPU burst of 35. Can th
e processes be scheduled without missing the deadlines?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Maybe
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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1. The major difference between a multimedia file and a regular file is ___________

a) the size
b) the attributes
c) the ownership
d) the rate at which the file must be accessed
Answer: d
Explanation: Multimedia files must be accessed at a specific rate whereas accessing regular files requires no special
timings.

2. Video is represented as a series of images formally known as ___________

a) pics
b) shots
c) frames
d) snaps
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. The faster the frames are displayed, ___________

a) the rougher the video appears

b) the smoother the video appears
c) it gets blurry
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. The characteristic of the eye to retain the image for a short time after it has been presented is known as ________
___

a) persistence of vision
b) learning power
c) memory mapped input
d) none of the mentioned www.aktutor.in
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. When will Local playback be used?

a) the multimedia data are delivered from a local file system

b) a computer next to you is playing something
c) a multimedia file is being played on a system in the local network
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. Multimedia files stored on a remote server are delivered to a client across the network using a technique known as
___________

a) download
b) streaming
c) flowing
d) leaking
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. What are the two types of streaming techniques?

a) progressive download & real time streaming

b) regular download & real time streaming
c) real time & virtual time streaming
d) virtual time streaming
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. A media file containing audio or video is downloaded and stored on the client’s local file system in ___________

a) progressive download
b) regular download
c) real time streaming
d) virtual time streaming
Answer: a
Explanation: As the file is being downloaded, the client is able to play back the media file without having to wait for
the file to be downloaded in its entirety.

9. Progressive download is most useful for ___________

a) short video clips

b) long video clips
c) extremely long and high quality videos
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. The media file is streamed to the client but is only played and not stored by the client in ___________

a) progressive download
b) regular download www.aktutor.in
c) real time streaming
d) virtual time streaming
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

11. Real time streaming is most useful for ___________

a) short video clips

b) long video clips
c) extremely short and low quality videos
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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1. The ability to move around within a media stream is known as ___________

a) buffering
b) random access
c) access
d) sequential access
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. What are the two types of real time streaming?

a) live & on demand streaming

b) dead & static streaming
c) static & on demand streaming
d) on demand streaming
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. Random access is not allowed in ___________

a) live streaming
b) dead streaming
c) static streaming
d) on demand streaming
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. The streaming that takes place as the event is occurring is ___________

a) live streaming
b) dead streaming
c) static streaming
d) on demand streaming
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
5. For a computer to deliver continuous media it must guarantee the specific rate and timing requirements, also kno
wn as ___________

a) deadline
b) quality of service
c) period
d) burst time
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. For QOS to be implemented properly ___________

a) file systems must be efficient to meet the rate requirements of continuous media
b) network protocols must support bandwidth requirements while minimizing delay and jitter
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. What will happen once a file is compressed?

a) it has a better quality

b) it takes up less space for storage
c) it cannot be delivered to the client more quickly
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Compression ratio is the ratio of ___________

a) the original file size to the size of the compressed file

b) the number of pixels in a frame of the original size to those in a frame of the compressed file
c) compressed file size to the original file size
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. Lossy and lossless are classifications of ___________

a) multimedia storage systems

b) files
c) compression algorithms
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. Lossy techniques provide ___________ when compared to lossless techniques.

a) lower compression ratios

b) much higher compression ratios
c) similar compression ratios
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
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1. What is the full form of MPEG?

a) Motion Pictures Engineering Group

b) Motion Picture Engineers Group
c) Motion Picture Experts Group
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

2. What is MPEG compression?

a) stores the compression values of each frame

b) stores the differences between successive frames
c) stores multiple frames’ values together
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. What are the levels in QoS?

a) Best effort service

b) Soft QoS
c) Hard QoS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. The level that treats different types of traffics in different ways, giving certain traffic streams higher priority than
other streams and with best efforts, but no guarantees are made ___________

a) Best effort service

b) Soft QoS
c) Worst effort service
d) Hard QoS
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. The quality of service requirements are guaranteed in ___________

a) Best effort service

b) Soft QoS
c) Worst effort service
d) Hard QoS
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. What are the factors that define QoS?

a) Throughput
b) Jitter
c) Delay www.aktutor.in
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. Delay and Jitter ___________

a) mean the same thing

b) are two completely different things
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. What is the Delay?

a) the time from when a request is first submitted to when the desired result is produced
b) the delay that occurs during playback of the stream
c) how the errors are handled during the transmission and processing of continuous media
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. What is Admission control?

a) the delay that occurs during playback of the stream

b) the practice of admitting a request for service only if the server has sufficient resources to satisfy the request
c) how the errors are handled during the transmission and processing of continuous media
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. An admission control scheme assigns a __________ to each type of resource.

a) processor
b) memory location
c) resource manager
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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1. A scheduling algorithm can use either ___________ priority or ________ priority.

a) static, still
b) static, dynamic
c) live, dead
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. The priority of a process will ______________ if the scheduler assigns it a static priority.
 www.aktutor.in
a) change
b) remain unchanged
c) depends on the operating system
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. As disks have relatively low transfer rates and relatively high latency rates, disk schedulers must reduce latency ti
mes to ___________

a) ensure high bandwidth

b) ensure low bandwidth
c) make sure data is transferred
d) reduce data transfer speeds
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. Servicing requests strictly according to deadline using EDF may result in ___________

a) lower seek times

b) lower bandwidth
c) higher seek time
d) higher bandwidth
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. The hybrid algorithm that combines EDF with SCAN algorithm is known as ___________

a) EDS
b) SDF
c) SCAN-EDF
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. If several requests have different deadlines that are relatively close together, then using the SCAN – EDF algorith
m ___________

a) the SCAN ordering will service the requests in that batch

b) the EDF ordering will service the requests in that batch
c) the FCFS ordering will service the requests in that batch
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. Multimedia systems require _________ scheduling to ensure critical tasks will be serviced within timing deadline
s.

a) soft real time

b) hard real time
c) normal
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None. www.aktutor.in
8. The EDF scheduler uses ________ to order requests according to their deadlines.

a) stack
b) disks
c) queue
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. In SCAN – EDF, requests with the same deadlines are ordered according to ___________

a) SCAN policy
b) EDF policy
c) FCFS policy
d) FIFO policy
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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1. The three general methods for delivering content from a server to a client across a network are ___________

a) unicasting
b) multicasting
c) broadcasting
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

2. Unicasting delivers the content to ___________

a) a single client
b) all clients, regardless whether they want the content or not
c) a group of receivers who indicate they wish to receive the content
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. Broadcasting delivers the content to ___________

a) a single client
b) all clients, regardless whether they want the content or not
c) a group of receivers who indicate they wish to receive the content
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. Multicasting delivers the content to ___________

a) a single client
b) all clients, regardless whether they want the content or not
c) a group of receivers who indicate they wish to www.aktutor.in
receive the content
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. RTSP stands for ___________

a) Real Time Streaming Policy

b) Real Time Streaming Protocol
c) Real Time Systems Protocol
d) Read Time Streaming Policy
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. HTTP is __________

a) a stateful protocol
b) a stateless protocol
c) a protocol that maintains the status of its connection with the client
d) a stateless protocol that does not maintain the status of its connection with the client
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. RTSP includes which of the following states?

a) SETUP
b) PLAY
c) PAUSE
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

8. In the SETUP state ___________

a) the server is setup

b) the client is setup
c) the server allocates resources for the client session
d) the client sends requests to the server
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. In the TEARDOWN state ___________

a) the server breaks down the connection and releases the resources allocated for the session
b) the client breaks down the connection and releases the resources allocated for the session
c) the system crashes
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. RTP stands for ___________

a) real time protocol

b) real time transmission control protocol
c) real time transmission protocol www.aktutor.in
d) real time transport protocol
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

11. The problem with unicast delivery is that the ___________

a) memory allocation is difficult

b) server must establish a separate unicast session for each client
c) the routers must support unicasting
d) the clients must be close to the server
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

12. The difficulty with multicasting from a practical point of view is ___________

a) memory allocation is difficult

b) server must establish a separate unicast session for each client
c) the routers must support multicasting
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

13. To let a client have random access to a media stream with ___________

a) the protocol used must not be stateless

b) the server must support download
c) the stream should give access rights to the client
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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1. Which of the following are forms of malicious attack?

a) Theft of information
b) Modification of data
c) Wiping of information
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

2. What are the common security threats?

a) File Shredding
b) File sharing and permission
c) File corrupting
d) File integrity
Answer: b
Explanation: Sharing and associated permissions are usual exploits which can compromise the system.

3. From the following, which is not a common file permission?

 www.aktutor.in
a) Write
b) Execute
c) Stop
d) Read
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. Which of the following is a good practice?

a) Give full permission for remote transferring

b) Grant read only permission
c) Grant limited permission to specified account
d) Give both read and write permission but not execute
Answer: c
Explanation: Limited access is a key method to circumvent unauthorized access and exploits.

5. What is not a good practice for user administration?

a) Isolating a system after a compromise

b) Perform random auditing procedures
c) Granting privileges on a per host basis
d) Using telnet and FTP for remote access
Answer: d
Explanation: Telnet and FTP are not encrypted and can be compromised.

6. Which of the following is the least secure method of authentication?

a) Key card
b) fingerprint
c) retina pattern
d) Password
Answer: d
Explanation: Passwords can be compromised more easily than to replicate a physical thing like key card, fingerprint
or retina.

7. Which of the following is a strong password?

a) 19thAugust88
b) Delhi88
c) P@assw0rd
d) !augustdelhi
Answer: c
Explanation: It has a combination of Alphabet both capital and small along with number and special character. Thus
always use complex password with a combination of all these.

8. Why is one time password safe?

a) It is easy to generated
b) It cannot be shared
c) It is different for every access
d) It is a complex encrypted password
Answer: c
Explanation: One time password is safe since it is generated per access and thus cannot be brute forced or deduced.
 www.aktutor.in
9. What does Light Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) doesn’t store?

a) Users
b) Address
c) Passwords
d) Security Keys
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. What is characteristic of RADIUS system?

a) It is essential for centralized encryption and authentication

b) It works on Network layer to deny access to unauthorized people
c) It provides centralized authentication mechanism via network devices
d) It’s a strong File access system
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

11. Which happens first authorization or authentication?

a) Authorization
b) Authentication
c) Authorization & Authentication are same
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

12. What are the characteristics of Authorization?

a) RADIUS and RSA

b) 3 way handshaking with syn and fin
c) Multilayered protection for securing resources
d) Deals with privileges and rights
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

13. What forces the user to change password at first login?

a) Default behavior of OS
b) Part of AES encryption practice
c) Devices being accessed forces the user
d) Account administrator
Answer: d
Explanation: Its administrator’s job to ensure that password of the user remains private and is known only to user. B
ut while making a new user account he assigns a random general password to give it to user. Thus even administrato
r cannot access a particular users account.

14. What is not a best practice for password policy?

a) Deciding maximum age of password

b) Restriction on password reuse and history
c) Password encryption
d) Having change password every 2 years
Answer: d www.aktutor.in
Explanation: Old passwords are more vulnerable to being misplaced or compromised. Passwords should be changed
periodically to enhance security.

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1. What is the breach of integrity?

a) This type of violation involves unauthorized reading of data

b) This violation involves unauthorized modification of data
c) This violation involves unauthorized destruction of data
d) This violation involves unauthorized use of resources
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. What is breach of confidentiality?

a) This type of violation involves unauthorized reading of data

b) This violation involves unauthorized modification of data
c) This violation involves unauthorized destruction of data
d) This violation involves unauthorized use of resources
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. What is theft of service?

a) This type of violation involves unauthorized reading of data

b) This violation involves unauthorized modification of data
c) This violation involves unauthorized destruction of data
d) This violation involves unauthorized use of resources
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. What is breach of availability?

a) This type of violation involves unauthorized reading of data

b) This violation involves unauthorized modification of data
c) This violation involves unauthorized destruction of data
d) This violation involves unauthorized use of resources
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. What is Trojan horse?

a) It is a useful way to encrypt password

b) It is a user which steals valuable information
c) It is a rogue program which tricks users
d) It’s a brute force attack algorithm
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. What is trap door?

a) IT is trap door in WarGames www.aktutor.in
b) It is a hole in software left by designer
c) It is a Trojan horse
d) It is a virus which traps and locks user terminal
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. Which mechanism is used by worm process?

a) Trap door
b) Fake process
c) Spawn Process
d) VAX process
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a virus?

a) Virus destroy and modify user data

b) Virus is a standalone program
c) Virus is a code embedded in a legitimate program
d) Virus cannot be detected
Answer: d
Explanation: Virus can be detected by having an antivirus program.

9. What is known as masquerading?

a) When one participant in communication pretends to be someone else

b) When attacker modifies data in communication
c) When attack is of fraudulent repeat of a valid data
d) When attack gains access to remote systems
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. Who unleashed famous worm attack in 1988 which effected UNIX systems and caused losses in millions?

a) Robert Morris
b) Bob Milano
c) Mark zuckerberg
d) Bill Gates
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

11. What is port scanning?

a) It is a software used to scan system for attack

b) It is a software application designed to probe a server or host for open ports
c) It is software used to scan system for introducing attacks by brute force
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

12. Which is not a port scan type?

a) TCP scanning www.aktutor.in
b) SYN scanning
c) UDP scanning
d) SYSTEM Scanning
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

13. Which is not a valid port scan type?

a) ACK scanning
b) Window scanning
c) IGMP scan
d) FIN scanning
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

14. What are zombie systems?

a) Are specific system which are designed to attack by manufacturer

b) They are network of known hacking group
c) These systems are previously compromised independent systems
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

15. What is known as a DOS attack?

a) It is attacked to block traffic of network

b) It is attacked to harm contents stored in HDD by worm spawn processes
c) It is an attempt to make a machine or network resource unavailable
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

16. With regard to DOS attack what is not true from below options?

a) We can stop DOS attack completely

b) By upgrading OS vulnerability we can stop DOS attack to some extent
c) DOS attack has to be stopped at network level
d) Such attack can last for hours
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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1. What is not an important part of security protection?

a) Large amount of RAM to support antivirus

b) Strong passwords
c) Audit log periodically
d) Scan for unauthorized programs in system directories
Answer: a
Explanation: RAM has no effect on security of a system. System’s protection remains unchanged in increasing or de
creasing amount of RAM. www.aktutor.in
2. What is used to protect network from outside internet access?

a) A trusted antivirus
b) 24 hours scanning for virus
c) Firewall to separate trusted and untrusted network
d) Deny users access to websites which can potentially cause security leak
Answer: c
Explanation: Firewall create a protective barrier to secure internal network. An antivirus can only detect harmful vir
uses but cannot stop illegal access by remote attacker.

3. What is the best practice in the firewall domain environment?

a) Create two domain trusted and untrusted domain

b) Create strong policy in firewall to support different types of users
c) Create a Demilitarized zone
d) Create two DMZ zones with one untrusted domain
Answer: c
Explanation: All live servers or workstations are kept in a separate zone than inside and outside to enhance protectio
n.

4. Which direction access cannot happen using DMZ zone by default?

a) Company computer to DMZ

b) Internet to DMZ
c) Internet to company computer
d) Company computer to internet
Answer: c
Explanation: Connection from internet is never allowed to directly access internal PCs but is routed through DMZ z
one to prevent attacks.

5. What are the two features of a tripwire file system?

a) It is a tool to monitor file systems

b) It is used to automatically take corrective action
c) It is used to secure UNIX system
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. How do viruses avoid basic pattern match of antivirus?

a) They are encrypted

b) They act with special permissions
c) They modify themselves
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. How does an antivirus of today identify viruses?

a) Previously known patterns

b) It can detect unknown patterns
 www.aktutor.in
c) It can take high priority to increase scanning speed
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. What is known as a sandbox?

a) It is a program which can be molded to do the desired task

b) It is a program that is controlled or emulated section of OS
c) It is a special mode of antivirus
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. What is are two safe computing practices?

a) Not to open software from unknown vendors

b) Open and execute programs in admin level/root
c) Open and execute programs in presence of antivirus
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Disgruntled employees have in past infected the master copies of software programs to do economic ha
rm to the company.

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1. What are the different ways to intrude?

a) Buffer overflows
b) Unexpected combinations and unhandled input
c) Race conditions
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

2. What are the major components of the intrusion detection system?

a) Analysis Engine
b) Event provider
c) Alert Database
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

3. What are the different ways to classify an IDS?

a) anomaly detection
b) signature based misuse
c) stack based
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
4. What are the different ways to classify an IDS?www.aktutor.in

a) Zone based
b) Host & Network based
c) Network & Zone based
d) Level based
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. What are the characteristics of anomaly based IDS?

a) It models the normal usage of network as a noise characterization

b) It doesn’t detect novel attacks
c) Anything distinct from the noise is not assumed to be intrusion activity
d) It detects based on signature
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. What is the major drawback of anomaly detection IDS?

a) These are very slow at detection

b) It generates many false alarms
c) It doesn’t detect novel attacks
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. What are the characteristics of signature based IDS?

a) Most are based on simple pattern matching algorithms

b) It is programmed to interpret a certain series of packets
c) It models the normal usage of network as a noise characterization
d) Anything distinct from the noise is assumed to be intrusion activity
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. What are the drawbacks of signature based IDS?

a) They are unable to detect novel attacks

b) They suffer from false alarms
c) They have to be programmed again for every new pattern to be detected
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. What are the characteristics of Host based IDS?

a) The host operating system logs in the audit information

b) Logs includes logins,file opens and program executions
c) Logs are analysed to detect tails of intrusion
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
10. What are the drawbacks of the host based IDS?

a) Unselective logging of messages may increase the audit burdens

b) Selective logging runs the risk of missed attacks
c) They are very fast to detect
d) They have to be programmed for new patterns
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

11. What are the strengths of the host based IDS?

a) Attack verification
b) System specific activity
c) No additional hardware required
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

12. What are characteristics of stack based IDS?

a) They are integrated closely with the TCP/IP stack and watch packets
b) The host operating system logs in the audit information
c) It is programmed to interpret a certain series of packets
d) It models the normal usage of network as a noise characterization
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

13. What are characteristics of Network based IDS?

a) They look for attack signatures in network traffic

b) Filter decides which traffic will not be discarded or passed
c) It is programmed to interpret a certain series of packet
d) It models the normal usage of network as a noise characterization
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

14. What are strengths of Network based IDS?

a) Cost of ownership reduced

b) Malicious intent detection
c) Real time detection and response
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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1. What is the preferred way of encryption?

a) pre shared secret key

b) using key distribution center (KD
c)
c) public key-encryption
d) symmetric key www.aktutor.in
Answer: c
Explanation: Pre Shared key can be compromised and either party can be suspected. Likewise KDC or symmetric ke
y can have breach which are undesirable. Public and private key encryption is a known industry standard.

2. What is not a role of encryption?

a) It is used to protect data from unauthorized access during transmission

b) It is used to ensure user authentication
c) It is used to ensure data integrity
d) It is used to ensure data corruption doesn’t happens
Answer: d
Explanation: Encryption doesn’t have error correction or detection facility thus cannot be used to safeguard from dat
a corruption.

3. What is cipher-block chaining?

a) Data is logically ‘ANDed’ with previous block

b) Data is logically ‘ORed’ with previous block
c) Data is logically ‘XORed’ with previous block
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. What is not an encryption standard?

a) AES
b) TES
c) Triple DES
d) DES
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. Which of the following is not a stream cipher?

a) Two fish
b) RC5
c) RC4
d) TBONE
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. What is a Hash Function?

a) It creates a small flexible block of data

b) It creates a small,fixed block of data
c) It creates a encrypted block of data
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. MD5 produces __________ bits hash data.

a) 128
b) 150 www.aktutor.in
c) 160
d) 112
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. SHA-1 produces __________ bit of hash.

a) 128
b) 160
c) 150
d) 112
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. Which two of the following are authentication algorithms?

a) MAC
b) AES
c) DAS
d) Digital-signature
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. What is the role of Key Distribution Center?

a) It is used to distribute keys to everyone in world

b) It intended to reduce the risks inherent in exchanging keys
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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1. A thread is also called ___________

a) Light Weight Process(LWP)

b) Heavy Weight Process(HWP)
c) Process
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. A thread shares its resources(like data section, code section, open files, signals) with ___________

a) other process similar to the one that the thread belongs to

b) other threads that belong to similar processes
c) other threads that belong to the same process
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
3. A heavy weight process ___________

a) has multiple threads of execution

b) has a single thread of execution
c) can have multiple or a single thread for execution
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. A process having multiple threads of control implies ___________

a) it can do more than one task at a time

b) it can do only one task at a time, but much faster
c) it has to use only one thread per process
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. Multithreading an interactive program will increase responsiveness to the user by ___________

a) continuing to run even if a part of it is blocked

b) waiting for one part to finish before the other begins
c) asking the user to decide the order of multithreading
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. Resource sharing helps ___________

a) share the memory and resources of the process to which the threads belong
b) an application have several different threads of activity all within the same address space
c) reduce the address space that a process could potentially use
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. Multithreading on a multi – CPU machine ___________

a) decreases concurrency
b) increases concurrency
c) doesn’t affect the concurrency
d) can increase or decrease the concurrency
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. The kernel is _______ of user threads.

a) a part of
b) the creator of
c) unaware of
d) aware of
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
9. If the kernel is single threaded, then any user level thread performing a blocking system call will ___________

a) cause the entire process to run along with the other threads
b) cause the thread to block with the other threads running
c) cause the entire process to block even if the other threads are available to run
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. Because the kernel thread management is done by the Operating System itself ___________

a) kernel threads are faster to create than user threads

b) kernel threads are slower to create than user threads
c) kernel threads are easier to manage as well as create then user threads
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

11. If a kernel thread performs a blocking system call, ____________

a) the kernel can schedule another thread in the application for execution
b) the kernel cannot schedule another thread in the same application for execution
c) the kernel must schedule another thread of a different application for execution
d) the kernel must schedule another thread of the same application on a different processor
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

12. Which of the following is FALSE?

a) Context switch time is longer for kernel level threads than for user level threads
b) User level threads do not need any hardware support
c) Related kernel level threads can be scheduled on different processors in a multiprocessor system
d) Blocking one kernel level thread blocks all other related threads
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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1. The model in which one kernel thread is mapped to many user-level threads is called ___________

a) Many to One model

b) One to Many model
c) Many to Many model
d) One to One model
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. The model in which one user-level thread is mapped to many kernel level threads is called ___________

a) Many to One model

b) One to Many model
c) Many to Many model
d) One to One model www.aktutor.in
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. In the Many to One model, if a thread makes a blocking system call ___________

a) the entire process will be blocked

b) a part of the process will stay blocked, with the rest running
c) the entire process will run
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. In the Many to One model, multiple threads are unable to run in parallel on multiprocessors because of ________
___

a) only one thread can access the kernel at a time

b) many user threads have access to just one kernel thread
c) there is only one kernel thread
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. The One to One model allows ___________

a) increased concurrency
b) decreased concurrency
c) increased or decreased concurrency
d) concurrency equivalent to other models
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. In the One to One model when a thread makes a blocking system call ___________

a) other threads are strictly prohibited from running

b) other threads are allowed to run
c) other threads only from other processes are allowed to run
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. Which of the following is the drawback of the One to One Model?

a) increased concurrency provided by this model

b) decreased concurrency provided by this model
c) creating so many threads at once can crash the system
d) creating a user thread requires creating the corresponding kernel thread
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

8. When is the Many to One model at an advantage?

a) When the program does not need multithreading

b) When the program has to be multi-threaded
c) When there is a single processor www.aktutor.in
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. In the Many to Many model true concurrency cannot be gained because ___________

a) the kernel can schedule only one thread at a time

b) there are too many threads to handle
c) it is hard to map threads with each other
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. In the Many to Many models when a thread performs a blocking system call ___________

a) other threads are strictly prohibited from running

b) other threads are allowed to run
c) other threads only from other processes are allowed to run
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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1. Signals that occur at the same time, are presented to the process ____________

a) one at a time, in a particular order

b) one at a time, in no particular order
c) all at a time
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. Which of the following is not TRUE?

a) Processes may send each other signals

b) Kernel may send signals internally
c) A field is updated in the signal table when the signal is sent
d) Each signal is maintained by a single bit
Answer: c
Explanation: A field is updated in the process table when the signal is sent.

1. Virtual memory allows ____________

a) execution of a process that may not be completely in memory

b) a program to be smaller than the physical memory
c) a program to be larger than the secondary storage
d) execution of a process without being in physical memory
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
2. The instruction being executed, must be in ____________

a) physical memory
b) logical memory
c) physical & logical memory
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. Error handler codes, to handle unusual errors are ____________

a) almost never executed

b) executed very often
c) executed periodically
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. The ability to execute a program that is only partially in memory has benefits like ____________

a) The amount of physical memory cannot put a constraint on the program

b) Programs for an extremely large virtual space can be created
c) Throughput increases
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

5. In virtual memory. the programmer __________ of overlays.

a) has to take care

b) does not have to take care
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. Virtual memory is normally implemented by ________

a) demand paging
b) buses
c) virtualization
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms because ____________

a) Segments are better than pages

b) Pages are better than segments
c) Segments have variable sizes
d) Segments have fixed sizes
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
8. A swapper manipulates ___________ whereas the pager is concerned with individual _______ of a process.

a) the entire process, parts

b) all the pages of a process, segments
c) the entire process, pages
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. Using a pager ____________

a) increases the swap time

b) decreases the swap time
c) decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed
d) increases the amount of physical memory needed
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

a) the page is not legal

b) the page is illegal
c) the page is in memory
d) the page is not in memory
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

11. A page fault occurs when?

a) a page gives inconsistent data

b) a page cannot be accessed due to its absence from memory
c) a page is invisible
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

12. When a page fault occurs, the state of the interrupted process is ____________

a) disrupted
b) invalid
c) saved
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

13. When a process begins execution with no pages in memory?

a) process execution becomes impossible

b) a page fault occurs for every page brought into memory
c) process causes system crash
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
14. If the memory access time is denoted by ‘ma’ and ‘p’ is the probability of a page fault (0 <= p <= 1). Then the ef
fective access time for a demand paged memory is ____________

a) p x ma + (1-p) x page fault time

b) ma + page fault time
c) (1-p) x ma + p x page fault time
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

15. When the page fault rate is low ____________

a) the turnaround time increases

b) the effective access time increases
c) the effective access time decreases
d) turnaround time & effective access time increases
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

16. Locality of reference implies that the page reference being made by a process ____________

a) will always be to the page used in the previous page reference

b) is likely to be one of the pages used in the last few page references
c) will always be one of the pages existing in memory
d) will always lead to page faults
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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1. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

a) Optimal replacement
b) LRU
c) FIFO
d) Both optimal replacement and FIFO
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

2. A process refers to 5 pages, A, B, C, D, E in the order : A, B, C, D, A, B, E, A, B, C, D, E. If the page replacemen

t algorithm is FIFO, the number of page transfers with an empty internal store of 3 frames is?

a) 8
b) 10
c) 9
d) 7
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. In question 2, if the number of page frames is increased to 4, then the number of page transfers ____________

a) decreases
b) increases www.aktutor.in
c) remains the same
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. A memory page containing a heavily used variable that was initialized very early and is in constant use is remove
d, then the page replacement algorithm used is ____________

a) LRU
b) LFU
c) FIFO
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. A virtual memory system uses First In First Out (FIFO) page replacement policy and allocates a fixed number of f
rames to a process. Consider the following statements.

a) Both P and Q are true, and Q is the reason for P

b) Both P and Q are true, but Q is not the reason for P
c) P is false but Q is true
d) Both P and Q are false
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. Users _______ that their processes are running on a paged system.

a) are aware
b) are unaware
c) may unaware
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. If no frames are free, _____ page transfer(s) is/are required.

a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. When a page is selected for replacement, and its modify bit is set ____________

a) the page is clean

b) the page has been modified since it was read in from the disk
c) the page is dirty
d) the page has been modified since it was read in from the disk & page is dirty
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. The aim of creating page replacement algorithms is to ____________

 www.aktutor.in
a) replace pages faster
b) increase the page fault rate
c) decrease the page fault rate
d) to allocate multiple pages to processes
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. A FIFO replacement algorithm associates with each page the _______

a) time it was brought into memory

b) size of the page in memory
c) page after and before it
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

11. What is the Optimal page – replacement algorithm?

a) Replace the page that has not been used for a long time
b) Replace the page that has been used for a long time
c) Replace the page that will not be used for a long time
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

12. Optimal page – replacement algorithm is difficult to implement, because ____________

a) it requires a lot of information

b) it requires future knowledge of the reference string
c) it is too complex
d) it is extremely expensive
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

13. LRU page – replacement algorithm associates with each page the ______

a) time it was brought into memory

b) the time of that page’s last use
c) page after and before it
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

14. For 3 page frames, the following is the reference string:

a) 10
b) 15
c) 11
d) 12
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

15. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented in hardware?
 www.aktutor.in
a) Counters
b) RAM & Registers
c) Stack & Counters
d) Registers
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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1. When using counters to implement LRU, we replace the page with the ____________

a) smallest time value

b) largest time value
c) greatest size
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Whenever a reference to a page is made, the contents of the clock register are copied into the time-of-u
se field in the page-table entry for that page. In this way, we always have the time of the last reference to each page.

2. In the stack implementation of the LRU algorithm, a stack can be maintained in a manner ____________

a) whenever a page is used, it is removed from the stack and put on bottom
b) the bottom of the stack is the LRU page
c) the top of the stack contains the LRU page and all new pages are added to the top
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. There is a set of page replacement algorithms that can never exhibit Belady’s Anomaly, called ____________

a) queue algorithms
b) stack algorithms
c) string algorithms
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. Applying the LRU page replacement to the following reference string.

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. Increasing the RAM of a computer typically improves performance because ____________

a) Virtual memory increases

b) Larger RAMs are faster
c) Fewer page faults occur
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c www.aktutor.in
Explanation: None.

6. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are ____________

a) Virtual page number

b) Page frame number
c) Both virtual page number and page frame number
d) Access right information
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a virtual memory environmen
t is determined by ____________

a) the instruction set architecture

b) page size
c) physical memory size
d) number of processes in memory
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. What is the reason for using the LFU page replacement algorithm?

a) an actively used page should have a large reference count

b) a less used page has more chances to be used again
c) it is extremely efficient and optimal
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. What is the reason for using the MFU page replacement algorithm?

a) an actively used page should have a large reference count

b) a less used page has more chances to be used again
c) it is extremely efficient and optimal
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. The implementation of the LFU and the MFU algorithm is very uncommon because ____________

a) they are too complicated

b) they are optimal
c) they are expensive
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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1. The minimum number of frames to be allocated to a process is decided by the ____________

a) the amount of available physical memory www.aktutor.in
b) operating System
c) instruction set architecture
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

2. When a page fault occurs before an executing instruction is complete if ____________

a) the instruction must be restarted

b) the instruction must be ignored
c) the instruction must be completed ignoring the page fault
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. Consider a machine in which all memory reference instructions have only one memory address, for them we need
at least _____ frame(s).

a) one
b) two
c) three
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: At least one frame for the instruction and one for the memory reference.

4. The maximum number of frames per process is defined by ____________

a) the amount of available physical memory

b) operating System
c) instruction set architecture
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. The algorithm in which we split m frames among n processes, to give everyone an equal share, m/n frames is kno
wn as ____________

a) proportional allocation algorithm

b) equal allocation algorithm
c) split allocation algorithm
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. The algorithm in which we allocate memory to each process according to its size is known as ____________

a) proportional allocation algorithm

b) equal allocation algorithm
c) split allocation algorithm
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
7. With either equal or proportional algorithm, a high priority process is treated ___________ a low priority process.

a) greater than
b) same as
c) lesser than
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. _________ replacement allows a process to select a replacement frame from the set of all frames, even if the fram
e is currently allocated to some other process.

a) Local
b) Universal
c) Global
d) Public
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. _________ replacement allows each process to only select from its own set of allocated frames.

a) Local
b) Universal
c) Global
d) Public
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. One problem with the global replacement algorithm is that ____________

a) it is very expensive
b) many frames can be allocated to a process
c) only a few frames can be allocated to a process
d) a process cannot control its own page – fault rate
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

11. ________ replacement generally results in greater system throughput.

a) Local
b) Global
c) Universal
d) Public
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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1. A process is thrashing if ____________

a) it spends a lot of time executing, rather than paging

b) it spends a lot of time paging than executing
c) it has no memory allocated to it
d) none of the mentioned www.aktutor.in
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. Thrashing _______ the CPU utilization.

a) increases
b) keeps constant
c) decreases
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. What is a locality?

a) a set of pages that are actively used together

b) a space in memory
c) an area near a set of processes
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. When a subroutine is called ____________

a) it defines a new locality

b) it is in the same locality from where it was called
c) it does not define a new locality
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. A program is generally composed of several different localities, which _____ overlap.

a) may
b) must
c) do not
d) must not
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. In the working set model, for:

a) {1, 2, 4, 5, 6}
b) {2, 1, 6, 7, 3}
c) {1, 6, 5, 7, 2}
d) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. The accuracy of the working set depends on the selection of ____________

a) working set model

b) working set size
c) memory size
d) number of pages in memory www.aktutor.in
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. If working set window is too small ____________

a) it will not encompass entire locality

b) it may overlap several localities
c) it will cause memory problems
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. If working set window is too large ____________

a) it will not encompass entire locality

b) it may overlap several localities
c) it will cause memory problems
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. If the sum of the working – set sizes increases, exceeding the total number of available frames ____________

a) then the process crashes

b) the memory overflows
c) the system crashes
d) the operating system selects a process to suspend
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

11. Consider the following page reference string.

a) 10
b) 14
c) 8
d) 11
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

12. Consider the following page reference string.

a) 10
b) 14
c) 8
d) 11
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

13. Consider the following page reference string.

a) 16
b) 15
c) 14
d) 11 www.aktutor.in
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

14. Consider the following page reference string.

a) 16
b) 15
c) 14
d) 11
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

15. Consider the following page reference string.

a) 16
b) 15
c) 14
d) 11
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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1. Data cannot be written to secondary storage unless written within a ______

a) file
b) swap space
c) directory
d) text format
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. File attributes consist of ____________

a) name
b) type
c) identifier
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

3. The information about all files is kept in ____________

a) swap space
b) operating system
c) seperate directory structure
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. A file is a/an _______ data type.

 www.aktutor.in
a) abstract
b) primitive
c) public
d) private
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. The operating system keeps a small table containing information about all open files called ____________

a) system table
b) open-file table
c) file table
d) directory table
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. In UNIX, what will the open system call return?

a) pointer to the entry in the open file table

b) pointer to the entry in the system wide table
c) a file to the process calling it
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. System wide table in UNIX contains process independent information such as ____________

a) location of file on disk

b) access dates
c) file size
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

8. The open file table has a/an _______ associated with each file.

a) file content
b) file permission
c) open count
d) close count
Answer: c
Explanation: open count indicates the number of processes that have the file open.

9. Which of the following are the two parts of the file name?

a) name & identifier

b) identifier & type
c) extension & name
d) type & extension
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
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1. The UNIX sytem uses a/an ________ stored at the beginning of a some files to indicate roughly the type of file.

a) identifier
b) extension
c) virtual number
d) magic number
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

2. The larger the block size, the ______ the internal fragmentation.

a) greater
b) lesser
c) same
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. In the sequential access method, information in the file is processed ____________

a) one disk after the other, record access doesnt matter

b) one record after the other
c) one text document after the other
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. Sequential access method ______ on random access devices.

a) works well
b) doesnt work well
c) maybe works well and doesnt work well
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. The direct access method is based on a ______ model of a file, as _____ allow random access to any file block.

a) magnetic tape, magnetic tapes

b) tape, tapes
c) disk, disks
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. For a direct access file ____________

a) there are restrictions on the order of reading and writing

b) there are no restrictions on the order of reading and writing
c) access is restricted permission wise
d) access is not restricted permission wise
Answer: b
Explanation: None. www.aktutor.in
7. A relative block number is an index relative to ____________

a) the beginning of the file

b) the end of the file
c) the last written position in file
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. The index contains ____________

a) names of all contents of file

b) pointers to each page
c) pointers to the various blocks
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. For large files, when the index itself becomes too large to be kept in memory?

a) index is called
b) an index is created for the index file
c) secondary index files are created
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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1. To organise file systems on disk _______________

a) they are split into one or more partitions

b) information about files is added to each partition
c) they are made on different storage spaces
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. The directory can be viewed as a _________ that translates file names into their directory entries.

a) symbol table
b) partition
c) swap space
d) cache
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. What will happen in the single level directory?

a) All files are contained in different directories all at the same level
b) All files are contained in the same directory
c) Depends on the operating system www.aktutor.in
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. What will happen in the single level directory?

a) all directories must have unique names

b) all files must have unique names
c) all files must have unique owners
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. What will happen in the two level directory structure?

a) each user has his/her own user file directory

b) the system doesn’t its own master file directory
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. When a user job starts in a two level directory system, or a user logs in _____________

a) the users user file directory is searched

b) the system’s master file directory is not searched
c) the master file directory is indexed by user name or account number, and each entry points to the UFD for that use
r
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. When a user refers to a particular file?

a) system MFD is searched

b) his own UFD is not searched
c) both MFD and UFD are searched
d) every directory is searched
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. What is the disadvantage of the two level directory structure?

a) it does not solve the name collision problem

b) it solves the name collision problem
c) it does not isolate users from one another
d) it isolates users from one another
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. In the tree structured directories _____________

a) the tree has the stem directory

b) the tree has the leaf directory www.aktutor.in
c) the tree has the root directory
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. The current directory contains, most of the files that are _____________

a) of current interest to the user

b) stored currently in the system
c) not used in the system
d) not of current interest to the system
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

11. Which of the following are the types of Path names?

a) absolute & relative

b) local & global
c) global & relative
d) relative & local
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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1. An absolute path name begins at the _____________

a) leaf
b) stem
c) current directory
d) root
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

2. A relative path name begins at the _____________

a) leaf
b) stem
c) current directory
d) root
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. In a tree structure, when deleting a directory that is not empty?

a) The contents of the directory are safe

b) The contents of the directory are also deleted
c) contents of the directory are not deleted
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
4. When two users keep a subdirectory in their own directories, the structure being referred to is _____________

a) tree structure
b) cyclic graph directory structure
c) two level directory structure
d) acyclic graph directory
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

5. A tree structure ______ the sharing of files and directories.

a) allows
b) may restrict
c) restricts
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. With a shared file _____________

a) actual file exists

b) there are two copies of the file
c) the changes made by one person are not reflected to the other
d) the changes made by one person are reflected to the other
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. In UNIX, what is a link?

a) a directory entry
b) a pointer to another file or subdirectory
c) implemented as an absolute or relative path name
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

8. The operating system _______ the links when traversing directory trees, to preserve the acyclic structure of the sy
stem.

a) considers
b) ignores
c) deletes
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. The deletion of a link ________ the original file.

a) deletes
b) affects
c) does not affect
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
10. When keeping a list of all the links/references to a file, and the list is empty, implies that _____________

a) the file has no copies

b) the file is deleted
c) the file is hidden
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

11. When a cycle exists, the reference count maybe non zero, even when it is no longer possible to refer to a director
y or file, due to _______

a) the possibility of one hidden reference

b) the possibility of two hidden references
c) the possibility of self referencing
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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1. What is the mount point?

a) an empty directory at which the mounted file system will be attached

b) a location where every time file systems are mounted
c) is the time when the mounting is done
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. When a file system is mounted over a directory that is not empty then _____________

a) the system may not allow the mount

b) the system must allow the mount
c) the system may allow the mount and the directory’s existing files will then be made obscure
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. In UNIX, exactly which operations can be executed by group members and other users is definable by _________
____

a) the group’s head

b) the file’s owner
c) the file’s permissions
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. A process _____ lower the priority of another process if both are owned by the same owner.

a) must
b) can www.aktutor.in
c) cannot
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. In distributed file system ________________ directories are visible from the local machine.

a) protected
b) local
c) private
d) remote
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. In the world wide web, a ____ is needed to gain access to the remote files, and separate operations are used to tran
sfer files.

a) laptop
b) plugin
c) browser
d) player
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. Anonymous access allows a user to transfer files _____________

a) without having an account on the remote system

b) only if he accesses the system with a guest account
c) only if he has an account on the remote system
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The world wide web uses anonymous file exchange almost exclusively.

8. The machine containing the files is the _______ and the machine wanting to access the files is the ______

a) master, slave
b) memory, user
c) server, client
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. Distributed naming services/Distributed information systems have been devised to _____________

a) provide information about all the systems

b) provide unified access to the information needed for remote computing
c) provide unique names to all systems in a network
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. Domain name system provides _____________

a) host-name-to-network-address translations for www.aktutor.in
the entire internet
b) network-address-to-host-name translations for the entire internet
c) binary to hex translations for the entire internet
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

11. To recover from failures in the network operations _____________ information may be maintained.

a) ip address
b) state
c) stateless
d) operating system
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

12. The series of accesses between the open and close operations is a _____________

a) transaction
b) procedure
c) program
d) file session
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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1. Reliability of files can be increased by _____________

a) keeping the files safely in the memory

b) making a different partition for the files
c) by keeping them in external storage
d) by keeping duplicate copies of the file
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

2. Protection is only provided at the _____ level.

a) lower
b) central
c) higher
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. What is the main problem with access control lists?

a) their maintenance
b) their length
c) their permissions
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
4. Many systems recognize three classifications of users in connection with each file (to condense the access control
list).

a) Owner
b) Group
c) Universe
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

5. All users in a group get _______ access to a file.

a) different
b) similar
c) same
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. Universe consists of _____________

a) all users that aren’t included in the group or owners

b) all users that are not owners
c) all users in the system
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. In UNIX, groups can be created and modified by?

a) superuser
b) any user
c) a programmer only
d) the people in the group only
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. To control access the three bits used in UNIX are represented by _____________

a) r
b) w
c) x
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. If each access to a file is controlled by a password, then what is the disadvantage?

a) user will need to remember a lot of passwords

b) it is not reliable
c) it is not efficient
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None. www.aktutor.in
10. What will happen in a multi level directory structure?

a) the same previous techniques will be used as in the other structures

b) a mechanism for directory protection will have to applied
c) the subdirectories do not need protection once the directory is protected
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

11. In UNIX, the directory protection is handled _________ to the file protection.

a) different
b) similar
c) it is not handled at all
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

12. Disks are segmented into one or more partitions, each containing a file system or ______

a) left ‘raw’
b) made into swap space
c) made into backup space
d) left ‘ripe’
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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1. The three major methods of allocating disk space that are in wide use are _____________

a) contiguous
b) linked
c) indexed
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

2. In contiguous allocation _____________

a) each file must occupy a set of contiguous blocks on the disk

b) each file is a linked list of disk blocks
c) all the pointers to scattered blocks are placed together in one location
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. In linked allocation _____________

a) each file must occupy a set of contiguous blocks on the disk

b) each file is a linked list of disk blocks
 www.aktutor.in
c) all the pointers to scattered blocks are placed together in one location
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. In indexed allocation _____________

a) each file must occupy a set of contiguous blocks on the disk

b) each file is a linked list of disk blocks
c) all the pointers to scattered blocks are placed together in one location
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. On systems where there are multiple operating system, the decision to load a particular one is done by _________
____

a) boot loader
b) bootstrap
c) process control block
d) file control block
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. The VFS (virtual file system) activates file system specific operations to handle local requests according to their _
______

a) size
b) commands
c) timings
d) file system types
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. What is the real disadvantage of a linear list of directory entries?

a) size of the linear list in memory

b) linear search to find a file
c) it is not reliable
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Contiguous allocation of a file is defined by _____________

a) disk address of the first block & length

b) length & size of the block
c) size of the block
d) total size of the file
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. One difficulty of contiguous allocation is _____________

a) finding space for a new file www.aktutor.in
b) inefficient
c) costly
d) time taking
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. _______ and ________ are the most common strategies used to select a free hole from the set of available holes.

a) First fit, Best fit

b) Worst fit, First fit
c) Best fit, Worst fit
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

11. The first fit and best fit algorithms suffer from _____________

a) internal fragmentation
b) external fragmentation
c) starvation
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

12. To solve the problem of external fragmentation ________ needs to be done periodically.

a) compaction
b) check
c) formatting
d) replacing memory
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

13. If too little space is allocated to a file _____________

a) the file will not work

b) there will not be any space for the data, as the FCB takes it all
c) the file cannot be extended
d) the file cannot be opened
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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1. A device driver can be thought of like a translator. Its input consists of _____ commands and output consists of _
______ instructions.

a) high level, low level

b) low level, high level
c) complex, simple
d) low level, complex
Answer: a
Explanation: None. www.aktutor.in
2. The file organization module knows about _____________

a) files
b) logical blocks of files
c) physical blocks of files
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

3. Metadata includes _____________

a) all of the file system structure

b) contents of files
c) both file system structure and contents of files
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. For each file there exists a ___________ that contains information about the file, including ownership, permission
s and location of the file contents.

a) metadata
b) file control block
c) process control block
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. For processes to request access to file contents, they need _____________

a) to run a seperate program

b) special interrupts
c) to implement the open and close system calls
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. During compaction time, other normal system operations _______ be permitted.

a) can
b) cannot
c) is
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. When in contiguous allocation the space cannot be extended easily?

a) the contents of the file have to be copied to a new space, a larger hole
b) the file gets destroyed
c) the file will get formatted and lost all its data
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a www.aktutor.in
Explanation: None.

8. In the linked allocation, the directory contains a pointer to which block?

a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. There is no __________ with linked allocation.

a) internal fragmentation
b) external fragmentation
c) starvation
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. What is the major disadvantage with a linked allocation?

a) internal fragmentation
b) external fragmentation
c) there is no sequential access
d) there is only sequential access
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

11. What if a pointer is lost or damaged in a linked allocation?

a) the entire file could get damaged

b) only a part of the file would be affected
c) there would not be any problems
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

12. FAT stands for _____________

a) File Attribute Transport

b) File Allocation Table
c) Fork At Time
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

13. By using FAT, random access time is __________

a) the same
b) increased
c) decreased
d) not affected
Answer: c www.aktutor.in
Explanation: None.

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1. A better way of contiguous allocation to extend the file size is _____________

a) adding an extent (another chunk of contiguous space)

b) adding an index table to the first contiguous block
c) adding pointers into the first contiguous block
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. If the extents are too large, then what is the problem that comes in?

a) internal fragmentation
b) external fragmentation
c) starvation
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. The FAT is used much as a _________

a) stack
b) linked list
c) data
d) pointer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. A section of disk at the beginning of each partition is set aside to contain the table in _____________

a) fat
b) linked allocation
c) hashed allocation
d) indexed allocation
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. Contiguous allocation has two problems _________ and _________ that linked allocation solves.

a) external – fragmentation & size – declaration

b) internal – fragmentation & external – fragmentation
c) size – declaration & internal – fragmentation
d) memory – allocation & size – declaration
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. Each _______ has its own index block.

a) partition
b) address www.aktutor.in
c) file
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. Indexed allocation _________ direct access.

a) supports
b) does not support
c) is not related to
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. The pointer overhead of indexed allocation is generally _________ the pointer overhead of linked allocation.

a) less than
b) equal to
c) greater than
d) keeps varying with
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. For any type of access, contiguous allocation requires ______ access to get a disk block.

a) only one
b) at least two
c) exactly two
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: We can easily keep the initial address of the file in memory and calculate immediately the disk address
of the ith block and read it directly.

10. Consider a disk where blocks 2, 3, 4, 5, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 17, 18, 25, 26 and 27 are free and the rest of the bloc
ks are allocated. Then the free space bitmap would be _____________

a) 10000110000001110011111100011111…
b) 110000110000001110011111100011111…
c) 01111001111110001100000011100000…
d) 001111001111110001100000011100000…
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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1. _______ tend to represent a major bottleneck in system performance.

a) CPUs
b) Disks
c) Programs
d) I/O
Answer: b
Explanation: None. www.aktutor.in
2. In UNIX, even an ’empty’ disk has a percentage of its space lost to ______

a) programs
b) inodes
c) virtual memory
d) stacks
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. By preallocating the inodes and spreading them across the volume, we ___________ the system performance.

a) improve
b) decrease
c) maintain
d) do not affect
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. ____________ writes occur in the order in which the disk subsystem receives them, and the writes are not buffere
d.

a) Asynchronous
b) Regular
c) Synchronous
d) Irregular
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. In ___________ writes, the data is stored in the cache.

a) Asynchronous
b) Regular
c) Synchronous
d) Irregular
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. A file being read or written sequentially should not have its pages replaced in LRU order, because ____________
_

a) it is very costly
b) the most recently used page will be used last
c) it is not efficient
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. In the optimized technique for sequential access ___________ removes a page from the buffer as soon as the next
page is requested.

a) write ahead
b) read ahead
c) free-behind www.aktutor.in
d) add-front
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. With _______ a requested page and several subsequent pages are read and cached.

a) write ahead
b) read ahead
c) free-behind
d) add-front
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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1. Some directory information is kept in main memory or cache to ___________

a) fill up the cache

b) increase free space in secondary storage
c) decrease free space in secondary storage
d) speed up access
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

2. A systems program such as fsck in ______ is a consistency checker.

a) UNIX
b) Windows
c) Macintosh
d) Solaris
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. A consistency checker __________________ and tries to fix any inconsistencies it finds.

a) compares the data in the secondary storage with the data in the cache
b) compares the data in the directory structure with the data blocks on disk
c) compares the system generated output and user required output
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. Each set of operations for performing a specific task is a _________

a) program
b) code
c) transaction
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. Once the changes are written to the log, they are considered to be ________
 www.aktutor.in
a) committed
b) aborted
c) completed
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. When an entire committed transaction is completed, ___________

a) it is stored in the memory

b) it is removed from the log file
c) it is redone
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. What is a circular buffer?

a) writes to the end of its space and then continues at the beginning
b) overwrites older values as it goes
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. All the changes that were done from a transaction that did not commit before the system crashed, have to be ____
_____

a) saved
b) saved and the transaction redone
c) undone
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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1. A machine in Network file system (NFS) can be ________

a) client
b) server
c) both client and server
d) neither client nor server
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

2. A _________ directory is mounted over a directory of a _______ file system.

a) local, remote
b) remote, local
c) local, local
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d www.aktutor.in
Explanation: None.

3. The _________ becomes the name of the root of the newly mounted directory.

a) root of the previous directory

b) local directory
c) remote directory itself
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. ___________ mounts, is when a file system can be mounted over another file system, that is remotely mounted, n
ot local.

a) recursive
b) cascading
c) trivial
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. The mount mechanism ________ a transitive property.

a) exhibits
b) does not exhibit
c) may exhibit
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Mounting a remote file system does not give the client access to other file systems that were, by chance
, mounted over the former file system.

6. A mount operation includes the _____________

a) name of the network

b) name of the remote directory to be mounted
c) name of the server machine storing it
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. The mount request is mapped to the corresponding __________ and is forwarded to the mount server running on t
he specific server machine.

a) IPC
b) System
c) CPU
d) RPC
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. The server maintains a/an ________ that specifies local file systems that it exports for mounting, along with name
s of machines that are permitted to mount them.
a) export list www.aktutor.in
b) import list
c) sending list
d) receiving list
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. In UNIX, the file handle consists of a __________ and __________

a) file-system identifier & an inode number

b) an inode number & FAT
c) a FAT & an inode number
d) a file pointer & FAT
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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1. The NFS servers ____________

a) are stateless
b) save the current state of the request
c) maybe stateless
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. Every NFS request has a _________ allowing the server to determine if a request is duplicated or if any are missi
ng.

a) name
b) transaction
c) sequence number
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. A server crash and recovery will __________ to a client.

a) be visible
b) affect
c) be invisible
d) harm
Answer: c
Explanation: All blocks that the server is managing for the client will be intact.

4. The server must write all NFS data ___________

a) synchronously
b) asynchronously
c) index-wise
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None. www.aktutor.in
5. A single NFS write procedure ____________

a) can be atomic
b) is atomic
c) is non atomic
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. The NFS protocol __________ concurrency control mechanisms.

a) provides
b) does not provide
c) may provide
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. _______________ in NFS involves the parsing of a path name into separate directory entries – or components.

a) Path parse
b) Path name parse
c) Path name translation
d) Path name parsing
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. For every pair of component and directory vnode after path name translation ____________

a) a single NFS lookup call is used sequentially

b) a single NFS lookup call is used beginning from the last component
c) at least two NFS lookup calls per component are performed
d) a separate NFS lookup call is performed
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. When a client has a cascading mount _______ server(s) is/are involved in a path name traversal.

a) at least one
b) more than one
c) more than two
d) more than three
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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1. In _______ information is recorded magnetically on platters.

a) magnetic disks
b) electrical disks www.aktutor.in
c) assemblies
d) cylinders
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. The heads of the magnetic disk are attached to a _____ that moves all the heads as a unit.

a) spindle
b) disk arm
c) track
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. The set of tracks that are at one arm position make up a ___________

a) magnetic disks
b) electrical disks
c) assemblies
d) cylinders
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the ____________

a) positioning time
b) random access time
c) seek time
d) rotational latency
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called ____________

a) positioning time
b) random access time
c) seek time
d) rotational latency
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. When the head damages the magnetic surface, it is known as _________

a) disk crash
b) head crash
c) magnetic damage
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. A floppy disk is designed to rotate ___________ as compared to a hard disk drive.

a) faster
b) slower www.aktutor.in
c) at the same speed
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. What is the host controller?

a) controller built at the end of each disk

b) controller at the computer end of the bus
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. ______ controller sends the command placed into it, via messages to the _____ controller.

a) host, host
b) disk, disk
c) host, disk
d) disk, host
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. What is the disk bandwidth?

a) the total number of bytes transferred

b) total time between the first request for service and the completion on the last transfer
c) the total number of bytes transferred divided by the total time between the first request for service and the comple
tion on the last transfer
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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1. Whenever a process needs I/O to or from a disk it issues a ______________

a) system call to the CPU

b) system call to the operating system
c) a special procedure
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. If a process needs I/O to or from a disk, and if the drive or controller is busy then ____________

a) the request will be placed in the queue of pending requests for that drive
b) the request will not be processed and will be ignored completely
c) the request will be not be placed
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
3. Consider a disk queue with requests for I/O to blocks on cylinders.

a) 600
b) 620
c) 630
d) 640
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. Consider a disk queue with requests for I/O to blocks on cylinders.

a) 224
b) 236
c) 245
d) 240
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. Random access in magnetic tapes is _________ compared to magnetic disks.

a) fast
b) very fast
c) slow
d) very slow
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. Magnetic tape drives can write data at a speed ________ disk drives.

a) much lesser than

b) comparable to
c) much faster than
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. On media that use constant linear velocity (CLV), the _____________ is uniform.

a) density of bits on the disk

b) density of bits per sector
c) the density of bits per track
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The farther a track is from the center of the disk.

8. SSTF algorithm, like SJF __________ of some requests.

a) may cause starvation

b) will cause starvation
c) does not cause starvation
d) causes aging
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
9. In the ______ algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the other end, servicing requ
ests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.

a) LOOK
b) SCAN
c) C-SCAN
d) C-LOOK
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. In the _______ algorithm, the disk head moves from one end to the other, servicing requests along the way. Whe
n the head reaches the other end, it immediately returns to the beginning of the disk without servicing any requests o
n the return trip.

a) LOOK
b) SCAN
c) C-SCAN
d) C-LOOK
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

11. In the ______ algorithm, the disk arm goes as far as the final request in each direction, then reverses direction im
mediately without going to the end of the disk.

a) LOOK
b) SCAN
c) C-SCAN
d) C-LOOK
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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1. The process of dividing a disk into sectors that the disk controller can read and write, before a disk can store data i
s known as ____________

a) partitioning
b) swap space creation
c) low-level formatting
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

2. The data structure for a sector typically contains ____________

a) header
b) data area
c) trailer
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
 www.aktutor.in
3. The header and trailer of a sector contain information used by the disk controller such as _________ and _______
__

a) main section & disk identifier

b) error correcting codes (EC
c) & sector number
c) sector number & main section
d) disk identifier & sector number
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. The two steps the operating system takes to use a disk to hold its files are _______ and ________

a) partitioning & logical formatting

b) swap space creation & caching
c) caching & logical formatting
d) logical formatting & swap space creation
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. The _______ program initializes all aspects of the system, from CPU registers to device controllers and the conte
nts of main memory, and then starts the operating system.

a) main
b) bootloader
c) bootstrap
d) rom
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. For most computers, the bootstrap is stored in ________

a) RAM
b) ROM
c) Cache
d) Tertiary storage
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. A disk that has a boot partition is called a _________

a) start disk
b) end disk
c) boot disk
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. Defective sectors on disks are often known as __________

a) good blocks
b) destroyed blocks
c) bad blocks
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c www.aktutor.in
Explanation: None.

9. In SCSI disks used in high end PCs, the controller maintains a list of _________ on the disk. The disk is initialize
d during ________ formatting which sets aside spare sectors not visible to the operating system.

a) destroyed blocks, high level formatting

b) bad blocks, partitioning
c) bad blocks, low level formatting
d) destroyed blocks, partitioning
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. The scheme used in the above question is known as _______ or ________

a) sector sparing & forwarding

b) forwarding & sector utilization
c) backwarding & forwarding
d) sector utilization & backwarding
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

11. An unrecoverable error is known as _________

a) hard error
b) tough error
c) soft error
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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1. Virtual memory uses disk space as an extension of _________

a) secondary storage
b) main memory
c) tertiary storage
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. Using swap space significantly _________ system performance.

a) increases
b) decreases
c) maintains
d) does not affect
Answer: b
Explanation: Disk access is much slower than memory access.

3. Linux __________ the use of multiple swap spaces.

a) allows www.aktutor.in
b) does not allow
c) may allow
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Putting these swap spaces on separate disks reduces the load places on the I/O system.

4. A single swap space ______ reside in two places.

a) can
b) cannot
c) must not
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. If the swap space is simply a large file, within the file system, ____________ used to create it, name it and allocat
e its space.

a) special routines must be

b) normal file system routines can be
c) normal file system routines cannot be
d) swap space storage manager is
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. For swap space created in a separate disk partition where no file system or directory structure is placed, ________
_____ used to allocate and deallocate the blocks.

a) special routines must be

b) normal file system routines can be
c) normal file system routines cannot be
d) swap space storage manager is
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. When a fixed amount of swap space is created during disk partitioning, more swap space can be added only by?

a) only I
b) only II
c) both I and II
d) neither I nor II
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. In UNIX, two per process ________ are used by the kernel to track swap space use.

a) process tables
b) swap maps
c) memory maps
d) partition maps
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. It is __________ to reread a page from the filewww.aktutor.in
system than to write it to swap space and then to reread it from the
re.

a) useless
b) less efficient
c) more efficient
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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