Ugc Net Paper 1
Ugc Net Paper 1
Ugc Net Paper 1
MANTI DEVI
"सभी पास हो सभी ªोोफेसर बने""
Prepared by
Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL)
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INDEX
S.N. TOPIC PAGE NO
1 UNIT-1 2
2 UNIT-2
27
3 UNIT-3
51
4 UNIT-4
84
5 UNIT-5
105
6 UNIT-6
133
7 UNIT-7
154
8 UNIT-8
190
9 UNIT-9
213
10 UNIT-10 238
Prepared by
Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL)
(B.Com,M.Com., MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)
(NET- Management- 1Time)
Teaching Aptitude
TEACHING
Teaching is a process in which one individual teaches or instruct another individual. Teaching
is considered as the act of imparting instructions to the learners in the classroom situation.
It is watching systematically.
Dewey: - considers it as a manipulation of the situation, where the learner will acquire skills
and insight with his initiation.
It is the first and thoughtless level of teaching. It is concerned with memory or mental ability that
exists in all living beings. Teaching at memory level is considered to be the lowest level of teaching.
At this level,
1. Useful for children at lower classes. This is because of their intellect us under development and
they have a rote memory.
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2. The role of the teacher is important in this level of teaching and he is free to make choices of
subject matter, plan it and can present it at will.
3. The knowledge acquired at memory level teaching forms a basis for the future i.e. when student’s
intelligence and thinking is required.
4. Memory level teaching acts as the first step for understanding and reflective levels of teaching. It
is pre-requisite for understanding level teaching.
2. Understanding level
Understanding something is to perceive the meaning, grasp the idea and comprehend the
meaning. In the field of Education and Psychology, the meaning of ‘ UNderstanding‘ can be classified
as
The teaching at the understanding level is of a higher quality than the one at the memory level. It is
more useful and thoughtful from the point of view of mental capabilities. At this level of teaching,
the teacher explains the student about the relationship between principles and facts and teaches
them how these principles can be applied. Memory level teaching barrier is essential to be crossed
for this level of teaching.
1. Teaching at this level is subject centered. There is no interaction between the teacher and
students at this level.
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2. This type of teaching mastery is emphasized.
This level is also known as introspective level. Reflecting on something means giving careful
thought to something over a period of time. It also means thinking deeply about something.
Reflective level of teaching is considered to be the highest level at which teaching is
carried out.
It is highly thoughtful and useful.
A student can attain this level only after going through memory level and understanding
level.
Teaching at the reflective level enables the students to solve the real problems of life.
At this level, the student is made to face a real problematic situation. The student by
understanding the situation and using his critical abilities succeeds in solving the problem.
At this level emphasis is laid on identifying the problem, defining it and finding a solution to
it. The student’s original thinking and creative-abilities develop at this level.
The role of the teacher in this level of teaching is democratic. He does not force knowledge
on the students but develops in their talents and capabilities.
The role of the students is quite active.
Reflective level of teaching is that which is problem-centered and the student is busy in
original imagination.
Characteristics of teaching:-
1. The main character of teaching is to provide guidance and training.
2. Teaching is interaction between teacher and students.
3. Teaching is an art to give knowledge to students with effective way.
4. Teaching is a science to educate fact and causes of different topics of different subjects.
5. Teaching is continues process.
6. Teacher can teach effectively, if he has full confidence on the subject.
7. Teaching encourages students to learn more and more.
8. Teaching is formal as well as informal
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9. Teaching is communication of information to students. In teaching, teacher imparts information
in interesting way so that students can easily understand the information.
10. Teaching is tool to help student to adjust himself in society and its environment.
Learner’s characteristics
Academic
Academic characteristics of learners include the education type, education level and knowledge. In
young adolescents, intellectual development is not as visible as physical development, but it is just
as intense. During early adolescence, youth exhibit a wide range of individual intellectual
development, including meta-cognition and independent thought.
Social
Adolescent social development is often described as the process of establishing a sense of identity
and establishing a role and purpose. It is an outward sense of oneself. Body image is a key factor in
developing a sense of self and identity, especially for girls, and the family and increasingly peers
play an important role assisting and supporting the adolescent to achieve adult roles.
Emotional
The way a person thinks and feels about themselves and others, their inward thoughts, is key to
their emotional development. Adolescents shifts moods rapidly and can become rebellious toward
adults. They are sensitive to criticism and easily get offended.
Cognitive
Cognition is the process involving thought, rationale and perception. The physical changes of the
brain that occur during adolescence follow typical patterns of cognitive development. They are
characterized by the development of higher-level cognitive functioning that aligns with the changes
in brain structure and function, particularly in the prefrontal cortex region.
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Nervousness
Application of mind and creativity
Social and cultural background
Factors affecting teaching related to: Teacher, Learner, Support material, Instructional facilities,
Learning environment and Institution
Teacher
Teacher – Teacher plays an important role in the teaching-learning process as facilitator of
learning. By adopting the best teaching techniques and efficient methods a teach could explore the
right talent of the learners to help them towards quality learning process.
Learner
Learner – Learning is most effective when the differences in learner’s language, cultural and social
behaviors are taken into account, it’s necessary to take note of intelligence, ethnic group, race,
belief and socioeconomic status of the learners which can influence the teaching in the class room.
Every individual is different with others in the terms of physical, social and cultural orientation;
these aspects make learner different from one another.
Environment
Environment and other factors
Support materials
Instructional facilities
Learning environment
- Class-room environments
- Socio-economic factor
- Expectations
NCERT (National Council of Educational Research and Training) in its publication Core Teaching
Skills (1982) have laid stress on the following teaching skills.
Writing instructional objectives
Organizing the content
Creating set for introducing the lesson
Introducing a lesson
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Structuring classroom questions
Question delivery and its distribution
Response management
Explaining
Illustrating with examples
Using teaching aids
Stimulus variation
Pacing of the lesson
Promoting pupil participation
Use of blackboard
Achieving closure of the lesson
Giving assignments
Evaluating the pupil’s progress
Diagnosing pupil learning difficulties and taking remedial measures
Management of the class
Micro Teaching –
Micro-teaching is a product of research at Stanford University. It was first adopted in
1961 by Dwight W. Allen and his co-workers. It implies micro-element that systematically
attempts to simplify the complexities of the teaching process. Teaching is a complex
process. It cannot be mastered in a rigid and general setting. So it is analyzed into well-
defined components that can be practiced, taught and evaluated.
Micro-teaching concentrates on specific teaching behaviors and provides opportunity for
practicing teaching under controlled conditions. So through micro-teaching, the behavior of
the teacher and pupil is modified and the teaching-learning process is more effective by the
skill training.
Teaching Methodology
There are different types of teaching methods which can be categorized into four broad types.
1. Teacher-centred methods,
2. Learner-centred methods,
3. Content-focUsed methods; and
4. Interactive/participative methods.
#2 Learner-Centred Methods
In learner-centred methods, the teacher/instructor is both a teacher and a learner at the same
time. In the words of Lawrence Stenhouse, the teacher plays a dual role as a learner as well “so
that in his classroom extends rather than constricts his intellectual horizons”.
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#3 Content-Focused Methods
In this category of methods, both the teacher and the learners have to fit into the content that is
taught. Generally, this means the information and skills to be taught are regarded as sacrosanct or
very important. A lot of emphases are laid on the clarity and careful analyses of content. Both the
teacher and the learners cannot alter or become critical of anything to do with the content.
#4 Interactive/Participative Methods
This fourth category borrows a bit from the three other methods without necessarily laying
emphasis unduly on the learner, content or teacher. These methods are driven by the situational
analysis of what is the most appropriate thing for us to learn/do now given the situation of learners
and the teacher. They require a participatory understanding of varied domains and factors.
It creates new ideas. It is good for a large class. Students give their views at the end of the
lecture. The teacher is experienced and has mastery on the subject, explain all points and can
answer all questions raised by students. Students can ask if they need any clarification.
USES
to orient students.
To introduce a subject.
To give directions on procedures.
To present basic material.
To introduce a demonstration, discussion or performance.
To illustrate the application of rules, principles, or concepts.
To review, clarifies, emphasize or summarize
ADVANTAGES
Saves time.
Permits flexibility.
requires less rigid space requirement.
Permits adaptability.
Permits versatility.
Permits better centre over contact and sequence.
DISADVANTAGES
Involves one-way communication
Poses problems in skill teaching.
Encourages student passiveness.
Poses difficulty in gauging student reaction.
Require highly skilled instructors.
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A method in which group discussion techniques are used to reach instructional objectives.
Students listen to other’s opinion & express Discuss with teachers the points that were Students
learn on their own & find out key ideas. Students exchange their ideas. Students get point of view
of all and not on after discussion when students give their ideas teacher corrects their mistakes.
Students can make their own notes.
USES
to develop imaginative solutions to problem
To stimulate thinking and interest and to se
To emphasize main teaching points.
To determine how well the student understands concepts and principle
To prepare students for application of the theory of procedure.
To supplement lectures, reading & laboratory exercises.
To summarize, clarify points or review.
ADVANTAGES
Increase student’s interest
Increases students’ acceptance and commitment
Utilizes student knowledge and experience.
Results in more permanent learning because high degree of student participation.
DISADVANTAGES
Require highly skilled instructor.
requires preparation by the student.
Limits content.
Consumes time.
restricts the size of groups.
USES/ADVANTAGES
Reduce failure rate.
Improves end-of-course proficiency.
Saves time.
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Provides for self-instruction.
DISADVANTAGES
Require local or commercial
Preparation.
Requires lengthy programmer training.
Increases expenses.
Requires considerable lead time.
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To teach teamwork.
To set standards of workmanship.
To teach safety procedures
Brainstorming
More interesting
More informative
Gain knowledge
Learning is effective
More participation of students
Students give their opinion
Active learning
Creative thinking is encouraged.
Students think beyond their knowledge.
Everyone gets the chance to express their thoughts.
Simple topics can be learnt from different angles.
Roleplay
Interesting method
Creative thinking is encouraged.
Students think beyond their knowledge.
Students enjoy the situation
Active learning
Easy to learn
Case study
Active learning
Creative thinking is encouraged.
Students think beyond their knowledge.
Swayam, Swayamprabha, MOOCs etc.
(Details on Digital Initiative in Higher Education through NMEICT has been covered in another
post)
SWAYAM is an indigenous (Made in India) IT Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) Platform for
providing best quality education that can be accessed by anyone, anytime and anywhere using the IT
system. The Concept of Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) involves online delivery of
interactive learning content to large number of people simultaneously. It allows sharing of best
quality education with everyone, thereby bringing in equity as far as the quality of education is
concerned. SWAYAM platform is developed by Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD)
and All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) with the help of Microsoft. It’s ultimately
capable of hosting 2000 courses and 80000 hours of learning: covering school, undergraduate, post-
graduate, engineering, law and other professional courses. All the courses on this platform are
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interactive, prepared by the best teachers in the country and are available, free of cost to the
students in India.
Below are few key teaching techniques based on Modern and ICT Based teaching methods.
o Flipped Classroom – It’s allowing students to go beyond their normal boundaries and explore the
lesson before teacher describes them in class-room.
o Design Thinking & Creative ideas – This involves real life case to increase the curiosity, analytical
skills and creativity.
o Mind Maps – Use of self-learning tools
o Gamification – Learn through the play using quizzes and hunt ideas
o Free online Learning Tools
o ICT Based Teaching Methods – Virtual Reality , Virtual Labs , Open educational Resources
o Learning Management system (LMS) & Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs)
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EVALUATION SYSTEM
In any education system evaluation is a critical part. Evaluation basically means the judgment about
the student by the teacher, but these judgment is really, really tough. Evaluation is an interwoven
activity in the process of teaching and learning. Nowadays evaluation by using the multiple-choice
questions type is better than the broad question.
PRINCIPLES OF EVALUATION
Student evaluation in the teaching-learning processes must be well planned, goal
oriented and continuous. One piece of paper cannot evaluate a student’s ability. So
it is better that evaluation must be done inside the classroom throughout the
semester. Following are some rules regarding evaluation.
ASSESSMENT
Assessment is a preliminary phase in the evaluation process. A student can be
assessed by using the multiple sources like class test, assignment, presentations,
quiz, brainstorming session.
EVALUATION
Evaluation is the action in the entire process that allows teachers to make a judgment
based on assessment records with reference to learning objectives. Assessment
without evaluation has no purpose. Following are the different evaluation techniques.
1. Written test
2. Classroom activities
3. Assignment
4. Project tasks
5. Laboratory activities
6. Social activities
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1. Criteria referenced evaluation:
2. Formative evaluation
4. Summative evolution
As already mentioned above, most of the educational institutions follow marks or percentage based
evaluation systems which restrict the students to take up the subject or the course of their choice.
Our educational system should be flexible that is, the student must get a choice to study his/her
course/subject of interest. It can only be possible if the Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) are
being introduced. The CBCS opens up many opportunities and path for the students to learn and
explore not only the subject of their choice but beyond which also develops ones individual self.
These courses can further be
Evaluated through grading system, which is considered to be better than the age old marking
system. It is better if we introduce and follow the uniform grading system across India which will
further help the students to move across institutions within India and across countries.
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(B) Encouraged to participate in the discussion in the class
(C) Encouraged to continue asking questions
(D) Encouraged to search answers independently
Answer :(C) Encouraged to continue asking questions
5. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of
teaching ?
Indicate your answer by selecting from the code.
(a) Teaching and learning are integrally
(b) There is no difference between teaching and training.
(c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.
(d) All good teaching is formal in nature.
(e) A teacher is a senior person.
(f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.
Code :
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (b), (c) and (e)
(3) (a), (c) and (f)
(4) (d), (e) and (f)
Answer: (3)
7. In the two sets given below Set – I indicates methods of teaching while Set – II provides
the basic requirements for success/effectiveness. Match the two sets and indicate your
answer by choosing from the code :
Set – I Set – II
(Method of teaching) (Basic requirements for success/effectiveness)
(a) Lecturing (i) Small step presentation with feedback provided
(b) Discussion in groups (ii) Production of large number of ideas
(c) Brainstorming (iii) Content delivery in a lucid language
(d) Programmed Instructional (iv) Use of teaching-aids
Procedure (v) Theme based interaction among participants
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(3) (iii) (v) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Answer: (3)
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8. At authoritarian level teaching is ……
(A) Teacher centered
(B) Child—centered
(C) Headmaster centered
(D) Experience based
Answer :(A) Teacher centered
9. Who developed the interaction analysis category system in education for increasing the
teacher effectiveness
(A) Flander
(B) Rayon
(C) Amidon and Simon
(D) Richard Over
Answer :(A) Flander
10. One of the important theory of moral development has been proposed by——
(A) Laurence Kohlberg
(B) Erik Fromm
(C) Daniel Coleman
(D) Benjamin Bloom
Answer :(A) Laurence Kohlberg
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(B) Learning without Burden
(C) Learning through Broad- casting
(D) None of the above
Answer :(B) Learning without Burden
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Answer :(A) N. L. Gage
21. Instruction medium affects the absence and escape from class teaching-
(A) Agreed
(B) Indianite
(C) Disagreed
(D) None of the above
Answer :(A) Agreed
26. From the list of evaluation procedures given below identify those which will be called
‘formative evaluation’. Indicate your answer by choosing from the code :
(a) A teacher awards grades to students after having transacted the course work.
(b) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides corrective
feedback.
(c) The teacher gives marks to students on a unit test.
(d) The teacher clarifies the doubts of students in the class itself.
(e) The overall performance of a students is reported to parents at every three months
interval.
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(f) The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.
Code :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (e)
(4) (b), (d) and (f)
Answer: (4)
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(A) Scoring the answers
(B) Preserve the information
(C) Analysis of data
(D) All of the above
Answer:- (D)
33. UNESCO satellite directed television program was used first
(A) 1926
(B) 1959
(C) 1961
(D) 1965
Answer :(D) 1965
35. The computer based teaching model has been developed by-
(A) Gilbert (1962)
(B) Stolurow and Davis (1965)
(C) Robert Gagne (1965)
(D) Mecner (1965)
Answer :(B) Stolurow and Davis (1965)
36. Which of the following expectation students have from group learning ?
(A) To get appreciation from the group
(B) To distribute the work equally
(C) To ignore individual view point
(D) To attract isolated student towards the group
Answer :(D) To attract isolated student towards the group
37. In order to modify the undesirable behaviour of a student the most effective method is-
(A) To punish the student
(B) To bring it to the notice of parents
(C) To find out the reasons for the undesirable behaviour and provide remedies
(D) To ignore it
Answer :(C)
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39. The correct meaning of C.A.I. is-
(A) Characteristics of Assistant Instructor
(B) Computer Assisted Instruction
(C) Community Assisted Instruction
(D) None of the above
Answer :(B) Computer Assisted Instruction
40. “Man is born free but every-where he is in chains/’ This statement has been given by-
(A) Abraham Maslow
(B) Jean Jacques Rousseau
(C) John Dewey
(D) W. I-I. Kilpatrick
Answer :(B) Jean Jacques Rousseau
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Answer :(A) Bug
48. Which one of the following is not a principle of a good time table ?
(A) Flexibility
(B) Ruthless master
(C) Variety
(D) Coordination of efforts
Answer :(B) Ruthless master
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(B) Family background
(C) School
(D) All the above
Answer :(D) All the above
55.refers to states within a person or animal that drive behaviour towards some goal.
(A) Competence
(B) Affiliation
(C) Motivation
(D) Self-actualization
Answer : (C) Motivation
56. Psychologists who diagnose learning problems and try to remedy them are called ……………
Psychologists.
(A) Social
(B) Community
(C) School
(D) Clinical
Answer : (C) School
57. A child with average potential intelligence but fertile environment will achieve—
(A) A better life
(B) An average life
(C) Nothing in life
(D) Everything in life
Answer : (A) A better life
58. Siblings, parents and teachers are important source of ........... for the children.
(A) Motivation
(B) Information
(C) Opinions
(D) Attitudes
Answer : (A) Motivation
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59. A good understanding of ............ makes us know about ourselves better.
(A) Education
(B) Colours
(C) Social perception
(D) None of the rest
Answer :(A) Education
65. With the development of technology, the role of teacher in future will be—
(A) To provide information
(B) To develop new text-books
(C) To guide students
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(D) To use internet in teaching
Answer : (C) To guide students
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(B) Take introduction of students and introduce yourself
(C) Explain the syllabus
(D) Explain the rules of school and your teaching way
Answer : (B) Take introduction of students and introduce yourself
76. If students are not taking interest in your teaching, then you will—
(A) Ignore them
(B) Leave the class
(C) Ask them to pay attention
(D) Change the teaching method
Answer : (D) Change the teaching method
1. Which of the following set of statements best represents the nature and objective of
teaching and learning ?
(a) Teaching is like selling and learning is like buying.
(b) Teaching is a social act while learning is a personal act.
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(c) Teaching implies learning whereas learning does not imply teaching.
(d) Teaching is a kind of delivery of knowledge while learning is like receiving it.
(e) Teaching is an interaction and is triadic in nature whereas learning is an active engagement in
a subject domain.
Code :
(1) (a), (d) and (e)
(2) (b), (c) and (e)
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer: (1)
2. From the list given below identify the learner characteristics which would facilitate
teaching learning system to become effective. Choose the correct code to indicate your
answer.
(a) Prior experience of learner (b) Learner’s family lineage
(c) Aptitude of the learner (d) Learner’s stage of development
(e) Learner’s food habits and hobbies (f) Learner’s religious affiliation
Code :
(1) (a), (c) and (d)
(2) (d), (e) and (f)
(3) (a), (d) and (e)
(4) (b), (c) and (f)
Answer: (1)
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Answer: (3)
6. Which of the following set of statements represents acceptable propositions in respect of
teaching-learning relationships ? Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.
(i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.
(ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.
(iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place.
(iv) There can be no learning without teaching.
(v) A teacher teaches but learns also.
(vi) Real learning implies rote learning.
Codes :
(1) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)
Answer: (2)
10. One of the most powerful factors affecting teaching effectiveness is related to the
(1) Social system of the country
(2) Economic status of the society
(3) Prevailing political system
(4) Educational system
Answer: (4)
11. Assertion (A) : Formative evaluation tends to accelerate the pace of learning.
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Reason (R) : As against summative evaluation, formative evaluation is highly reliable.
Choose the correct answer from the following code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (3)
13. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with intent to develop
cognitive dimensions of students centered on skills of analysis and synthesis. Below, given
are two sets of items
Set – I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and Set – II comprising basic requirements for
promoting them. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing the correct alternative
from the code:
Set – I Set – II
(Levels of Cognitive (Basic requirements for promoting Interchange) cognitive interchange)
a. Memory level i. Giving opportunity for discriminating examples and non-examples of a point.
b. Understanding level ii. Recording the important points made during the presentations.
c. Reflective level iii. Asking the students to discuss various items of information.
iv. Critically analyzing the points to be made and discussed.
Codes:
abc
(A) ii iv i
(B) iii iv ii
(C) ii i iv
(D) i ii iii
Answer: (C)
14. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in respect of evaluation
system. Choose the correct code:
Set – I Set – II
a. Formative evaluation i. Evaluating cognitive and co-cognitive aspects with regularity
b. Summative evaluation ii. Tests and their interpretations based on a group and certain
yardsticks
c. Continuous and comprehensive iii. Grading the final learning outcomes evaluation
d. Norm and criterion referenced iv. Quizzes and discussions tests
Codes:
abcd
(A) iv iii i ii
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(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) i iii iv ii
Answer: (A)
15. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to effectiveness of
teaching:
List of factors:
(a) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject.
(b) Teacher’s socio-economic background.
(c) Communication skill of the teacher.
(d) Teacher’s ability to please the students.
(e) Teacher’s personal contact with students.
(f) Teacher’s competence in managing and monitoring the classroom transactions.
Codes:
(A) (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (c), (d) and (f)
(C) (b), (d) and (e)
(D) (a), (c) and (f)
Answer: (D)
17. Assertion (A): The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative thinking
abilities among students.
Reason (R): These abilities ensure job placements.
Choose the correct answer from the following code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
18. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the classroom.
(A) Use of peer command
(B) Making aggressive statements
(C) Adoption of well-established posture
(D) Being authoritarian
Answer: (C)
19. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are of equal status.
Which method of communication is best suited and normally employed in such a context?
(A) Horizontal communication
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(B) Vertical communication
(C) Corporate communication
(D) Cross communication
Answer: (A)
20. Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while addressing
students in a classroom.
(A) Avoidance of proximity
(B) Voice modulation
(C) Repetitive pause
(D) Fixed posture
Answer: (B)
21. Greater the handicap of the students coming to the educational institutions, greater the
demand on the:
(A) Family
(B) Society
(C) Teacher
(D) State
Answer: (C)
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24. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple – choice type
questions?
(A) They are more objective than true-false type questions.
(B) They are less objective than essay type questions.
(C) They are more subjective than short-answer type questions.
(D) They are more subjective than true-false type questions.
Answer: (A)
25. As Chairman of an independent commission on education, Jacques Delors report to UNESCO
was titled
(A) International Commission on Education Report
(B) Millennium Development Report
(C) Learning : The Treasure Within
(D) World Declaration on Education for All
Answer: (C)
28. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of a dynamic
pattern of ideas is referred to as:
(A) Systemisation
(B) Problem – orientation
(C) Idea protocol
(D) Mind mapping
Answer: (D)
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29. Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom communication are
considered as:
(A) Verbal
(B) Non-verbal
(C) Impersonal
(D) Irrational
Answer: (B)
34. Which of the following statements about teaching aids are correct
a) They help in retaining concepts for longer duration
b) They help students learn better
c) They make teaching learning process interesting
d) They enhance rote learning
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)
33
Answer: (B)
34
Answer: (C)
44. In the classroom, the teacher sends the message either as words or images. The students
are really
(A) Encoders
(B) Decoders
(C) Agitators
(D) Propagators
Answer: (B)
35
(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom
(D) Students taking notes
Answer: (A)
49. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry of
Human Resource Development to
(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium for Educational Communication
(C) National Knowledge Commission
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
Answer: (B)
52. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, a teacher should
(A) keep quiet for a while and then continue.
(B) punish those causing disturbance
(C) motivate to teach those causing disturbance
(D) not bother of what is happening in the class
Answer: (C)
36
53. Effective teaching is a function of
(A) Teacher’s satisfaction.
(B) Teacher’s honesty and commitment
(C) Teacher’s making students learn and understand
(D) Teacher’s liking for professional excellence.
Answer: (C)
37
Answer: (A)
38
Prepared by
Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL)
(B.Com, M.Com. MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)
(NET- Management- 1Time)
Research Methodology
Research is a logical and systematic search for new and useful information on a particular topic.
It is a discovery of hidden truths.
Research can lead to new contributions to existing knowledge.
Research is indeed civilization and determines the economic, social and political development of a
nation.
Objectives of Research
to discover new facts
to verify and test important facts
to analyses an event or process or phenomenon to identify the cause and effect relationship to develop
new scientific tools, concepts and theories to solve and understand scientific and non scientific problems
to find solutions to scientific, non scientific and social problems and
To overcome or solve the problems occurring in our everyday life.
According to Redman and Mory (1923), research is a “systematized effort to gain new knowledge”. In simple terms
research refers to a search for knowledge. It is a scientific and systematic search for information on a particular
topic or issue. It is also known as the art of scientific investigation.
Types of Research
Fundamental or basic research: Fundamental research is also known as basis research. If the
goal of the research is to find out the basic truth or principles, it is called as fundamental or
basic research. This type of research is carried out in a laboratory or other sterile
environment, sometimes with animals also. Examples of fundamental research Newton Law.
Applied research: most of the characteristics of fundamental research is found in applied
research. This type of research involves finding new applications of scientific knowledge to the
solution of a problem such as development of the new system, new device or new methods or
27
tools in order to solve the problem. Mind it, most of the educational research falls under the
category of applied research.
Action research: action research is used to solve an immediate application, not on the
development of theory or general application. If the researcher finds any problem at time of
his fields, investigation and observation, the researcher applies action research at that time
Historical research: Historical research talks about the past. In this type of research we need
investigation, recording, analyzing and interpreting the events of the past for the purpose of
discovering generalization.
Quantitative descriptive research: This method is used to describe what is being described,
recording, analyzing, and interpreting conditions that make this around ours. It is used to
discover the relationship between non-manipulated existing variables.
Qualitative descriptive research: This type of research use non-quantitative methods. This
method of research is used to discover non-quantified relationship between existing variable.
Experimental research: It describes “what will happen” in the future if certain variables are
carefully controlled and manipulated. Main focus of this kind of research is to find out the
relationship between variables
QUALITIES OF A RESEARCHER
must be of the temperament that vibrates in unison with the theme which he is searching
intelligence about subject matter of research
must having knowledge of research methodology
must possess an alert mind
Must have immense courage and a sense of conviction.
Should cultivate the habit of reserving judgment when the required data are insufficient.
RESEARCH DESIGN
The research design refers to the overall strategy that you choose to integrate the different components of the
study in a coherent and logical way, thereby, ensuring you will effectively address the research problem, it
constitutes the blueprint for the collection, measurement, and analysis of data.
28
a diagnostic research design determines the frequency with which a variable occurs or its relationship with
another variable.
the study analyzing whether a certain variable is associated with another comprises a diagnostic research
study. On the other hand, a study that is concerned with specific predictions or with the narration of
facts and characteristics related to an individual, group or situation, are instances of descriptive research
studies.
Control- One of the most important features of a good research design is to minimize the effect of the
extraneous variable(s). Technically, the term ‘control’ is used when a researcher designs the study in such a
manner that minimizes the effects of extraneous variables.
Research Hypothesis
When a prediction or a hypothesized relationship is tested by adopting scientific methods, it is known as
the research hypothesis.
The research hypothesis is a predictive statement which relates to a dependent variable and an
independent variable.
Whereas the relationships that are assumed but not to be tested are predictive statements that are not
to be objectively verified, thus are not classified as research hypotheses.
The research in which the independent variable is manipulated is known as ‘experimental hypothesis-
testing research’, whereas the research in which the independent variable is not manipulated is termed as
‘non-experimental hypothesis-testing research.
Experimental And Control Groups :- When a group is exposed to usual conditions in experimental
hypothesis-testing research, it is known as ‘control group’. On the other hand, when the group is exposed to a
certain new or special condition, it is known as an ‘experimental group’.
Treatments :- Treatments refer to the different conditions to which the experimental and control groups are
subject to.
29
Experiment :-Experiment refers to the process of verifying the truth of a statistical hypothesis relating to a
given research problem.
Hypothesis
The hypothesis may be defined as a proposition or a set of propositions set forth as an explanation for the
occurrence of some specified group of phenomena either asserted merely as a provisional conjecture to
guide some investigation in the light of facts(Kothari, 1988).
Essential features about Hypothesis:
must be capable of being put to test.
must state the relationship between two variables, in the case of relational hypotheses.
must be specific and limited in scope.
must be stated in the simplest language, to make it understood by all concerned.
must be consistent and derived from the most known facts
must be amenable to testing within a stipulated or reasonable period.
should state the facts that give rise to the necessity of looking for an explanation.
SAMPLING
Sampling is a process used in statistical analysis in which a predetermined number of observations are taken from
a larger population. The methodology used to sample from a larger population depends on the type of analysis being
performed, but it may include simple random sampling or systematic sampling.
METHODS OF SAMPLING
In this case each individual is chosen entirely by chance and each member of the population has an equal chance, or
probability, of being selected. One way of obtaining a random sample is to give each individual in a population a
number, and then use a table of random numbers to decide which individuals to include.
2. Systematic sampling
Individuals are selected at regular intervals from the sampling frame. The intervals are chosen to ensure an
adequate sample size. If you need a sample size n from a population of size x, you should select
every x/nth individual for the sample. For example, if you wanted a sample size of 100 from a population of 1000,
select every 1000/100 = 10th member of the sampling frame.
3. Stratified sampling
In this method, the population is first divided into subgroups (or strata) who all share a similar characteristic. It
is used when we might reasonably expect the measurement of interest to vary between the different subgroups,
and we want to ensure representation from all the subgroups.
4. Clustered sampling
In a clustered sample, subgroups of the population are used as the sampling unit, rather than individuals. The
population is divided into subgroups, known as clusters, which are randomly selected to be included in the study.
Clusters are usually already defined, for example individual GP practices or towns could be identified as clusters.
In single-stage cluster sampling, all members of the chosen clusters are then included in the study. In two-stage
30
cluster sampling, a selection of individuals from each cluster is then randomly selected for inclusion. Clustering
should be taken into account in the analysis.
1. Convenience sampling
Convenience sampling is perhaps the easiest method of sampling, because participants are selected based on
availability and willingness to take part. Useful results can be obtained, but the results are prone to significant
bias
2. Quota sampling
This method of sampling is often used by market researchers. Interviewers are given a quota of subjects of a
specified type to attempt to recruit.
Also known as selective, or subjective, sampling, this technique relies on the judgement of the researcher when
choosing who to ask to participate.
4. Snowball sampling
This method is commonly used in social sciences when investigating hard-to-reach groups. Existing subjects are
asked to nominate further subjects known to them, so the sample increases in size like a rolling snowball.
Bias in sampling
There are five important potential sources of bias that should be considered when selecting a sample, irrespective
of the method used. Sampling bias may be introduced when:1
STAGES OF A RESEARCH
31
Google/Bing/Yahoo and many other search engines help you to find useful and relevant contents. This also helps
you to explore the millions of thesis and already published articles and keeps you up to date with the latest
happenings in your area of interest.
Below are important Online Tools to explore millions of research article across the globe.
Google Scholar – Provides a way to broadly search for scholarly literature across disciplines and sources.
Microsoft Academic Search – Find information about academic papers, authors, conferences, journals, and
organizations from multiple sources.
Science scope – Innovation in the exploration of papers and authors.
ResearchGate – ResearchGate is the professional network for scientists and researchers. Over 15 million
members from all over the world use it to share, discover, and discuss research.
Biohunter – Portal with literature search, data statistics, reading, sorting, storing, field expert
identification and journal finder.
edu -is a platform for academics to share research papers. The company’s mission is to accelerate the
world’s research.
SSRN – Multi-disciplinary online repository of scholarly research and related materials in social sciences.
DeepDyve- provides simple and affordable access to millions of articles across thousands of peerreviewed
journals. Content from the world’s leading publishers including Reed Elsevier, Springer, Wiley-Blackwell,
and more.
Wiki Journal Club – Open, user-reviewed summaries of the top studies in medical research.
32
4. Free Digital Library
The National Digital library of India is a project under the Ministry of Human Resource Development, India. The
objective is to integrate several national and international digital libraries in one single web-portal. The NDL
provides free access to many books in English and the Indian languages.
RESEARCH ETHICS
Research Ethics is a set of guidelines that help researchers to conduct research successfully. The major
principals revolve around the research process, data collection, interpretation of data, report publication,
thesis, confidentiality, obfuscation and plagiarism.
The ethics are closely related to the moral and value, it explains norms for conduct that distinguish
between ‘what is wrong’ & ‘what is right’.
It fosters a research culture that adheres to ‘relevant legislation governing the protection of the dignity,
rights, safety and privacy of those involved in research;’ ‘provide clear and easily accessible guidance on
33
best ethical practice and regulatory requirements’; ‘offer support and training to staff and students and
any others
1. There are two sets given below. Set – I specifies the types of research, while Set – II
indicates their characteristics. Match the two and give your answer by selecting the
appropriate code.
Set – I Set – II
(Research types) (Characteristics)
(a) Fundamental research (i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact
of an intervention
(b) Applied research (ii) Developing an effective explanation through
theory building
(c) Action research (iii) Improving an existing situation through
use of interventions
(d) Evaluative research (iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in
various situations
(v) Enriching technological
resources Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(v) Answer: 1
2. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy ?
(1) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act
(2) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan
(3) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect
(4) Plan, Act, Observe,
Reflect Answer: 4
34
T
(1) Suggested solution of the problem , deducing the consequences of the solution, perceiving the problem
situation, location of the difficulty and testing the solution.
(2) Perceiving the problem situation, Locating the actual problem and its definition, Hypothesizing,
Deducing the consequences of the suggested solution and Testing the hypothesis in action.
(3) Defining a problem, Identifying the causes of the problem, Defining a
population, Drawing a sample, Collecting data and Analysing results.
(4) Identifying the causal factors, Defining the problem, Developing a hypothesis,
Selecting a sample, Collecting data and arriving at generalizations and Conclusions.
Answer: 3
4. The problem of ‘research ethics’ is concerned with which aspect of research activities ?
(1) Following the prescribed format of a thesis
(2) Data analysis through qualitative or quantitative techniques
(3) Defining the population of research
(4) Evidence based research
reporting Answer: 4
5. In which of the following activities, potential for nurturing creative and critical
thinking is relatively greater ?
(1) Preparing research summary
(2) Presenting a seminar paper
(3) Participation in research conference
(4) Participation in a
workshop Answer: 4
6. Which of the following research types focuses on ameliorating the prevailing situations ?
(1) Fundamental Research
(2) Applied Research
(3) Action Research
(4) Experimental
Research Answer : 3
Answer : 3
35
8. In which of the following arrangements a wider spectrum of ideas and issues may be
made possible ?
(1) Research Article
(2) Workshop mode
(3) Conference
(4) Symposium
Answer : 2
Appendices
Answer : 1
findings
Answer : 4
11. The principal of a school conducts an interview session of teachers and students
with a view to explore the possibility of their enhanced participation in school
programmes. This endeavour may be related to which type of research ?
(1) Evaluation Research
(2) Fundamental Research
(3) Action Research
(4) Applied Research
Answer: 3
36
(4) Act, observe, plan,
reflect
Answer: 2
13. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below ?
(1) Problem formulation, Analysis, Development of Research design,
Hypothesis making, Collection of data, Arriving at generalizations and
conclusions.
(2) Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Problem formulation,
Data analysis, Arriving at conclusions and data collection.
(3) Problem formulation, Hypothesis making, Development of a Research design,
Collection of data, Data analysis and formulation of generalizations and conclusions.
(4) Problem formulation, Deciding about the sample and data collection
tools, Formulation ofhypothesis, Collection and interpretation of research
evidence.
Answer: 3
14. Below are given two sets – research methods (Set-I) and data collection tools
(Set-II). Match the two sets and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code :
Set – I Set – II
(Research Methods) (Data Collection Tools)
a. Experimental method i. Using primary and secondary sources
b. Ex post-facto method ii. Questionnaire
c. Descriptive survey method iii. Standardized tests
d. Historical method iv. Typical characteristic
tests Codes :
a b cd
(1) ii i iiiiv
(2) iii iv iii
(3) ii iii iiv
(4) ii iv iiii
Answer: 2
15. The issue of ‘research ethics’ may be considered pertinent at which stage of research ?
(1) At the stage of problem formulation and its definition
(2) At the stage of defining the population of research
(3) At the stage of data collection and interpretation
(4) At the stage of reporting the findings.
Answer :4
37
16. In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be considered critical?
(A) Data collection with standardised research tools.
(B) Sampling design with probability sample techniques.
(C) Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.
(D) Data gathering to take with top-down systematic evidences.
Answer: C
17. From the following list of statements identify the set which has negative implications for
‘research ethics’ :
(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.
(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references.
(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policy making.
(iv) Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences.
(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other researches.
(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms of preliminary
studies.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(D) (i), (iii) and
(v) Answer: C
18. A research intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the organization of
effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research method will be most appropriate for this
study?
(A) Historical method
(B) Descriptive survey method
(C) Experimental method
(D) Ex-post-facto
method Answer: D
19. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research?
(A) Developing a research design
(B) Formulating a research question
(C) Deciding about the data analysis procedure
(D) Formulating a research
hypothesis
Answer: B
38
20. The format of thesis writing is the same as in
(A) preparation of a research paper/article
(B) writing of seminarpresentation
(C) a research dissertation
(D) presenting a workshop/conference
paper Answer: C
21. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of participatory research?
(A) It recognizes knowledge as power.
(B) It emphasises on people as experts.
(C) It is a collective process of enquiry.
(D) Its sole purpose is production of knowledge.
Answer: D
22. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the testing of a hypothesis?
(A) It is only the alternative hypothesis, that can be tested.
(B) It is only the null hypothesis, that can be tested.
(C) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses can be tested.
(D) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses cannot be tested.
Answer: B
23. Which of the following are the basic rules of APA style of referencing format?
(a) Italicize titles of shorter works such as journal articles or essays
(b) Invert authors’ names (last name first)
(c) Italicize titles of longer works such as books and journals
(d) Alphabetically index reference list
(d) Answer: B
39
(D) (a), (b) and
(d) Answer: D
policies Answer: A
l Answer: B
28. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called:
(A) Lexical
(B) Precising
(C) Stipulative
(D) Persuasive
Answer: C
29. A Cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference is called
(A) An inference
(B) An argument
(C) An explanation
40
(D) A valid
argument
Answer: B
30. Which of the following statements regarding the meaning of research are correct
(a) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to find out the
solution of a problem
(b) It is a systematic, logical and an unbiased process wherein verification of hypothesis data
analysis, interpretation and formation of principles can be done
(c) It is an intellectual enquiry or quest towards truth
(d) It leads to enhancement of knowledge
(d) Answer: D
Answer: A
32. Jean Piaget gave a theory of cognitive development of humans on the basis of his
(A) Fundamental research e basis of his
(B) applied research
(C) Action research
(D) Evaluation
Research
Answer: A
33. “Male and female students perform equally well in a numerical aptitude test.”
41
This statement indicates a(A) research hypothesis
(B) null hypothesis
(C) directional hypothesis
(D) statistical hypothesis
Answer: B
34. The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to other situations
(A) Historical research
(B) Descriptive Research
(C) Experimental Research
(D) Causal Comparative Research
Answer: C
and (d)
Answer: B
36. When the purpose of a definition is to explain the use or to eliminate ambiguity the definition is
called
(A) Stipulative
(B) Theoretical
(C) Lexical
(D) Persuasie
Answer: B
Conclusion
Answer: D
42
38. What is a Research Design?
(A) A Way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.
(B) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.
(C) The style in which you present your research findings e.g. a graph.
(D) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.
Answer: D
Answer: D
40. The frequency distribution of a research data which is symmetrical in shape similar to
a normal distribution but center peak is much higher, is
(A) Skewed
(B) Mesokurtic
(C) Leptokurtic
(D) Platykurti
c Answer: C
practical Answer: A
42. When academicians are called to deliver lecture or presentations to an audience on certain
topics or a set of topics of educational nature, it is called
(A) Training Program
(B) Seminar
(C) Workshop
(D) Symposium
Answer: B
43
(D) Fourth Estate Answer: D
itself
Answer: D
Answer: C
46. The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create meanings in natural
settings is identified as
(A) Positive paradigm
(B) Criticalparadigm
(C) Natural paradigm
(D) Interpretative
paradigm
Answer: D
Answer: B
48. Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to provide continuous
feedback to the students during instruction.
(A) Placement
(B) Diagnostic
44
(C) Formative
(D) Summative
Answer: C
Answer: B
50. The population information is called parameter while the corresponding sample information is
known as
(A) Universe
(B) Inference
(C) Sampling design
(D) Statistis
Answer: D
Answer: A
Answer: D
facts
Answer: D
45
54. Sampling error decreases with the
(A) Decrease in sample size
(B) Increase in sample size
(C) Process of randomization
(D) Process of
analysis
Answer: B
research
Answer: B
57. Read the following statements – one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason
(R) : Assertion (A) : Qualitative research in India has a long way to go to reach international
standards.
Reason (R) : Because the funding agencies do not support qualitative research in academic
institutions.
false
Answer: D
collection
Answer: A
Answer: D
analysis
Answer: B
61. The variable which impacts the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent
variable is known as
(A) antecedent variable
(B) precedent variable
(C) predictor variable
(D) control
variable
Answer: D
Sampling
Answer: D
47
63. A research paper
(A) is a compilation of information on a topic.
(B) contains original research as deemed by the author.
(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted by others.
(D) can be published in more than one journal.
Answer: C
64. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good ‘research ethics’?
(A) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the editors.
(B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of other people in
the relevant field or relevant prior work.
(C) Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons in a research paper.
(D) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a favor even though the
colleague did not make a serious contribution to the paper.
Answer: B
Answer: (c )
66. Which one of the following references is written as per Modern Language Association (MLA)
format?
(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(B) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(C) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of
India,2005
Answer: D
67. A workshop is
(A) a conference for discussion on a topic.
(B) a meeting for discussion on a topic.
(C) a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
(D) a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or
technique for solving a specific problem.
Answer: D
48
(B) not required to be tested.
(C) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research.
(D) a scientific theory.
Answer: C
69. Which one of the following is an indication of the quality of a research journal?
(A) Impact factor
(B) h-index
(C) g-index
(D) i10-
index
Answer: A
Answer: B
sampling
Answer: D
72. Which one of the following references is written according to American Psychological
Association (APA) format?
(A) Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(B) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(C) Sharma.V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(D) Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw
Hill
Answer: A
49
73. Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence :
(1) Identification of research problem
(2) Listing of research objectives
(3) Collection of data
(4) Methodology
(5) Data analysis
(6) Results and discussion
(A) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(B) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6
(C) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(D) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6
Answer: B
Answer: D
50
Prepared by
Govind Singh ( Assistant Professor, GNCL)
(B.Com,M.Com., MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)
(NET- Management- 1Time)
READING COMPREHENSION
It was then that I realised, to my horror, that I had forgotten how to write. My entire existence is
"tap letters into computer". My shopping lists are hidden in the notes function of my phone. If I
need to remember something I send an e-mail to myself. A pen is something I chew when I'm
struggling to think. Paper is something I pile beneath my laptop to make it a more comfortable
height for me to type on.
A poll of 1,000 teens by the stationers, Bic found that one in 10 don't own a pen, a third have never
written a letter, and half of 13 to 19 years - old have never been forced to sit down and write a
thank you letter. More than 80 % have never written a love letter, 56 % don't have letter paper at
home. And a quarter have never known the unique torture of writing a birthday card. The most a
teen ever has to use a pen is on an exam paper.
Bic, have you heard of mobile phones? Have you heard of e-mail, facebook and snap chatting? This is
the future. Pens are dead. Paper is dead. Handwriting is a relic.
"Handwriting is one of the most creative outlets we have and should be given the same importance
as other art forms such as sketching, painting or photography."
Answer: 1
2. According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of pursuit?
51
(1) Handwriting
(2) Photography
(3) Sketching
(4) Reading
Answer: 4
(c) Typewriter
Answer: 2
4. How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen?
(1) 800
(2) 560
(3) 500
(4) 100
Answer: 4
52
Answer: 4
Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers from 6 to 11:
In terms of labour, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality of Japanese workers
conferred considerable competitive advantage across numerous durable goods and
consumerelectronics industries (eg. Machinery, automobiles, televisions, radios). Then labour-based
advantages shifted to South Korea, then to Malaysia, Mexico and other nations. Today, China
appears to be capitalizing best on the basis of labour. Japanese firms still remain competitive in
markets for such durable goods, electronics and other products, but the labour force is no longer
sufficient for competitive advantage over manufacturers in other industrializing nations. Such
shifting of labour-based advantage is clearly not limited to manufacturing industries. Today, a huge
number of IT and service jobs are moving from Europe and North America to India, Singapore, and
like countries with relatively well-educated, low-cost workforces possessing technical skills.
However, as educational levels and technical skills continue to rise in other countries, India,
Singapore, and like nations enjoying labour-based competitive advantage today are likely to find
such advantage cannot be sustained through emergence of new competitors.
In terms of capital, for centuries the days of gold coins and later even paper money restricted
financial flows. Subsequently regional concentrations were formed where large banks, industries
and markets coalesced. But today capital flows internationally at rapid speed. Global commerce no
longer requires regional interactions among business players. Regional capital concentrations in
places such as New York, London and Tokyo still persist, of course, but the capital concentrated
there is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over other capitalists distributed
worldwide. Only if an organization is able to combine, integrate and apply its resources (eg. Land,
labour, capital, IT) in an effective manner that is not readily imitable by competitors can such an
organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime.
In a knowledge-based theory of the firm, this idea is extended to view organizational knowledge as
a resource with atleast the same level of power and importance as the traditional economic inputs.
An organization with superior knowledge can achieve competitive advantage in markets that
appreciate the application of such knowledge. Semiconductors, genetic engineering,
pharmaceuticals, software, military warfare, and like knowledge-intensive competitive arenas
provide both time-proven and current examples. Consider semiconductors (e.g. computer chips),
which are made principally of sand and common metals. These ubiquitous and powerful electronic
devices are designed within common office buildings, using commercially available tools, and
fabricated within factories in many industrialized nations. Hence, land is not the key competitive
resource in the semiconductor industry.
(2) Japan
(3) Mexico
(4) Malaysia
53
Answer: 2
Answer: 3
Answer: 4
Answer: 3
Answer: 1
54
(1) International commerce
Answer: 4
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 12 to 17:
The last great war, which nearly shook the foundations of the modern world, had little impact on
Indian literature beyond aggravating the popular revulsion against violence and adding to the
growing disillusionment with the ‘humane pretensions’ of the Western World. This was eloquently
voiced in Tagore’s later poems and his last testament, Crisis in Civilisation. The Indian intelligentsia
was in a state of moral dilemma. On the one hand, it could not help sympathising with England’s
dogged courage in the hour of peril, with the Russians fighting with their backs to the wall against
the ruthless Nazi hordes, and with China groaning under the heel of Japanese militarism; on the
other hand, their own country was practically under military occupation of their own soil, and an
Indian army under Subhas Bose was trying from the opposite camp to liberate their country. No
creative impulse could issue from such confusion of loyalties. One would imagine that the
achievement of Indian independence in 1947, which came in the wake of the Allies’ victory and was
followed by the collapse of colonialism in the neighbouring countries of South-East Asia, would have
released an upsurge of creative energy. No doubt it did, but unfortunately it was soon submerged in
the great agony of partition, with its inhuman slaughter of the innocents and the uprooting of
millions of people from their homeland, followed by the martyrdom of Mahatma Gandhi. These
tragedies, along with Pakistan’s invasion of Kashmir and its later atrocities in Bangladesh, did indeed
provoke a poignant writing, particularly in the languages of the regions most affected, Bengali,
Hindi, Kashmiri, Punjabi, Sindhi and Urdu. But poignant or passionate writing does not by itself make
great literature. What reserves of enthusiasm and confidence survived these disasters have been
mainly absorbed in the task of national reconstruction and economic development. Great literature
has always emerged out of chains of convulsions. Indian literature is richer today in volume, range
and variety than it ever was in the past.
Answer: 2
55
13. What did Tagore articulate in his last testament?
(1) Offered support to Subhas Bose.
Answer: 2
14. What was the stance of Indian intelligentsia during the period of great war?
(1) Indifference to Russia’s plight.
Answer: 4
15. Identify the factor responsible for the submergence of creative energy in Indian
literature.
(1) Military occupation of one’s own soil.
Answer: 3
16. What was the aftermath that survived tragedies in Kashmir and Bangladesh?
(1) Suspicion of other countries
Answer: 4
56
(2) Great literature emerges out of chains of convulsions.
Answer: 2
Read the passage carefully and answer question numbers from 18 to 23.
Climate change is considered to be one of the most serious threats to sustainable development,
with adverse impacts on the environment, human health, food security, economic activity, natural
resources and physical infrastructure. Global climate varies naturally. According to the
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), the effects of climate change have already been
observed, and scientific findings indicate that precautionary and prompt action is necessary.
Vulnerability to climate change is not just a function of geography or dependence on natural
resources; it also has social, economic and political dimensions which influence how climate change
affects different groups. Poor people rarely have insurance to cover loss of property due to natural
calamities i.e. drought, floods, super cyclones etc. The poor communities are already struggling to
cope with the existing challenges of poverty and climate variability and climate change could push
many beyond their ability to cope or even survive. It is vital that these communities are helped to
adapt to the changing dynamics of nature. Adaptation is a process through which societies make
themselves better able to cope with an uncertain future. Adapting to climate change entails taking
the right measures to reduce the negative effects of climate change (or exploit the positive ones)
by making the appropriate adjustments and changes. These range from technological options such as
increased sea defences or flood - proof houses on stilts to behavioural change at the individual
level, such as reducing water use in times of drought. Other strategies include early warning
systems for extreme events, better water management, improved risk management, various
insurance options and biodiversity conservation. Because of the speed at which climate change is
happening due to global temperature rise, it is urgent that the vulnerability of developing countries
to climate change is reduced and their capacity to adapt is increased and national adaptation plans
are implemented. Adapting to climate change will entail adjustments and changes at every level from
community to national and international. Communities must build their resilience, including adopting
appropriate technologies while making the most of traditional knowledge, and diversifying their
livelihoods to cope with current and future climate stress. Local coping strategies and knowledge
need to be used in synergy with government and local interventions. The need of adaptation
interventions depends on national circumstances. There is a large body of knowledge and experience
within local communities on coping with climatic variability and extreme weather events. Local
communities have always aimed to adapt to variations in their climate. To do so, they have made
preparations based on their resources and their knowledge accumulated through experience of past
weather patterns. This includes times when they have also been forced to react to and recover
from extreme events, such as floods, drought and hurricanes. Local coping strategies are an
important element of planning for adaptation. Climate change is leading communities to experience
climatic extremes more frequently, as well as new climate conditions and extremes. Traditional
knowledge can help to provide efficient, appropriate and time - tested ways of advising and enabling
57
adaptation to climate change in communities who are feeling the effects of climate changes due to
global warming.
18. Given below are the factors of vulnerability of poor people to climate change. Select the
code that contains the correct answer.
(a) Their dependence on natural resources
Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: 1
Answer: 1
20. To address the challenge of climate change, developing countries urgently require:
(1) Imposition of climate change tax
58
(3) Adoption of short-term plans
Answer: 2
Answer: 3
Answer: 3
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 23 to 27:
If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological
imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions: the people, the overall economy and the
strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimension,
time, an offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to
continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing
with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the
economy in the global context, and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the
heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive
employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills.
Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the
years to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation’s strategic strengths are becoming
more and more clear, especially since 1990s. India’s own strength in a number of core areas still
puts it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a
developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to
continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well,
whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and
health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The
59
absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious
natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt
the poorest most. The technological imperatives to lift our people to a new life, and to a life they
are entitled to is important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade and
increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad or
only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even while being alive
to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core technological
strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.
23. According to the above passage, which of the following are indicative of the fourth
dimension?
(a) Aspirations of people
Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
Answer: 3
Answer: 1
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(d) Hurting the poorest most
Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
Answer: 2
Answer: 4
Answer: 4
The literary distaste for politics, however, seems to be focused not so much on the largely
murky practice of politics in itself as a subject of literary representation but rather more on how it
is often depicted in literature, i.e., on the very politics of such representation. A political novel
often turns out to be not merely a novel about politics but a novel with a politics of its own, for it
seeks not merely to show us how things are but has fairly definite ideas about how things should be,
and precisely what one should think and do in order to make things move in that desired direction.
In short, it seeks to convert and enlist the reader to a particular cause or ideology; it often is (in an
only too familiar phrase) not literature but propaganda. This is said to violate the very spirit of
61
literature which is to broaden our understanding of the world and the range of our sympathies
rather than to narrow them down through partisan commitment. As John Keats said, ‘We hate
poetry that has a palpable design upon us’.
Another reason why politics does not seem amenable to the highest kind of literary
representation seems to arise from the fact that politics by its very nature is constituted of ideas
and ideologies. If political situations do not lend themselves to happy literary treatment, political
ideas present perhaps an even greater problem in this regard. Literature, it is argued, is about
human experiences rather than about intellectual abstractions; it deals in what is called the ‘felt
reality’ of human flesh and blood, and in sap and savour. (rasa) rather than in and lifeless ideas. In
an extensive discussion of the matter in her book Ideas and the Novel, the American novelist Mary
McCarthy observed that ‘ideas are still today felt to be unsightly in the novel’ though that was not
so in ‘former days’, i.e., in the 18th and 19th centuries. Her formulation of the precise nature of the
incompatibility between ideas on the one hand and the novel on the other betrays perhaps a divided
conscience in the matter and a sense of dilemma shared by many writers and readers: ‘An idea
cannot have loose ends, but a novel, I almost think, needs them. Nevertheless, there is enough in
common for the novelists to feel… the attraction of ideas while taking up arms against them — most
often with weapons of mockery.’
Answer: (C)
Answer: (D)
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(B) Dichotomy of conscience on political ideas and novels
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (B)
Story telling is not in our genes. Neither it is an evolutionary history. It is the essence of what
makes us Human.
Human beings progress by telling stories. One event can result in a great variety of stories
being told about it. Sometimes those stories differ greatly. Which stories are picked up and
repeated and which ones are dropped and forgotten often determines how we progress. Our
history, knowledge and understanding are all the collections of the few stories that survive. This
includes the stories that we tell each other about the future. And how the future will turn out
depends partly, possibly largely, on which stories we collectively choose to believe.
63
Some stories are designed to spread fear and concern. This is because some story-tellers
feel that there is a need to raise some tensions. Some stories are frightening, they are like totemic
warnings: "Fail to act now and we are all doomed." Then there are stories that indicate that all will
be fine so long as we leave everything upto a few especially able adults. Currently, this trend is
being led by those who call themselves "rational optimists". They tend to claim that it is human
nature to compete and to succeed and also to profit at the expense of others. The rational
optimists however, do not realize how humanity has progressed overtime through amiable social
networks and how large groups work in less selfishness and in the process accommodate rich and
poor, high and low alike. This aspect in story-telling is considered by the 'Practical Possibles', who
sit between those who say all is fine and cheerful and be individualistic in your approach to a
successful future, and those who ordain pessimism and fear that we are doomed.
What the future holds for us is which stories we hold on to and how we act on them.
Answer: (B)
64
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
(B) An art
(C) A science
Answer: (A)
Answer: (D)
38. How the future will turn out to be, depends upon the stories?
65
(D) Designed to spread fear and tension
Answer: (B)
Geography seeks to understand the physical and human organization of the surface of the
Earth. In the field of geography, inter-related themes are frequently seen. These are scale,
pattern and process. Scale is defined as the level of structure on organisation at which a
phenomenon is studied. Pattern is defined as the variation observed in a phenomenon studied at a
particular scale. The third theme, process, further connects the first two. Process is defined as
the description of how the factors that act a phenomenon act to product a pattern at a particular
scale. For instance, when a passenger on an aircraft looks out of the window, the View changes
according to the scale. At the global scale when the aircraft maintains its height, he can see the
chunks of clouds in all their pattern, the sun or the moon, as per the time. When the aircraft loses
a little height, passengers can see the land and water masses in their dierent colours and the shape
of land masses. At the continental scale, the passengers can see the shapes of the land features
and how they are distributed. The pattern emerges as the variation of land and water and the
proportion of each. Looking carefully, passengers can note how each land mass aligns with the
others and how each mountain bears the signs of the process through which it emerged.
The processes in a geography change in a regular and repetitive manner. One instance of
this is the annual solar cycle of the sun and the earth. Most systems in nature display time cycles
that are organised in a rhythm of their own as these time cycles and natural processes are always
active, the environment of the earth is always in a state of dynamism. This environmental change is
not only the result of natural process but also the result of human activity. Physical geography
works towards understanding the interaction between man and nature and also the results of this
interaction in order to manage global climate change better.
39. The time cycles of the system of nature follow their own
(1) Path
(2) Rhythm
(3) Process
(4) Cycle
Answer: (2)
40. The view seen by a passenger looking out of the window of an aircraft; will be affected by the
(1) Process
(2) Pattern
(3) Scale
66
(4) Rhythm
Answer: (3)
41. Physical geography studies the results of the interaction between man and nature in order to
Answer: (3)
Answer: (1)
43. The alignment of landmass with other elements can be seen by a passenger on a flight on a
Answer: (2)
Singapore has long advocated for India to take up its role as an integral part of the region.
It is gratifying to see how Asean – India relations have grown during the past 25 years. In 1991,
when the Cold War ended and India began its economic liberalization, Singapore saw an opportunity
67
to deepen ties and build on its historical and cultural links with the Asian region. Singapore pushed
for India to become a full Asean dialogue partner in 1995 and join the EAS in 1995 and since then,
Asean – India ties have strengthened. All in all, around 30 platforms for co-operation exist,
including seven ministerial dialogues and the Annual Leader Summit. However, there is scope for
more and it is a must. For instance, there are tremendous opportunities in enhancing physical and
digital connectivity between India and Asean. Asean is committed to strengthening land, air and sea
linkages with India. These linkages will enhance people-to-people flows, as well as boost business,
investment and tourism. The India-Myanmar Thailand trilateral highway will connect India’s
Northeast to mainland Southeast Asia. While one can y directly between India and several Asean
countries, there is still much room to expand air links to support growing business and tourism.
Beyond physical linkages, digital connectivity, is the new frontier in the Fourth Industrial
Revolution. India has made great progress in innovation, Start-ups and digital inclusion. There are
opportunities to apply initiatives such as Aadhaar in our region. E-commerce and FinTech are two
other areas potential collaboration. As an economic hub, Singapore can serve as a springboard to
launch these ideas to Southeast Asia and beyond. India’s role in Asean should be anchored by
growing economic ties with Singapore. The economic integration involving 16 countries with one-
third of global GDP and trade will create an integrated Asian market.
44. Who can be India’s Launchpad for an integrated Asian market as per the passage?
1. Southwest Asia
2. Thailand
3. Singapore
4. Myanmar
Answer: (3)
(a) FinTech
(b) Aadhaar
(c) e-commerce
68
1. (b), (c), (d) and (e)
Answer: (2)
Answer: (3)
1. Waterways
2. Innovation
3. Air links
4. Start-ups
Answer: (3)
48. What prompted Singapore to opt for stronger ties with India?
1. Historical past
3. geo-political equations
69
Answer: (4)
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions no. 49 to 53.
Some 2000 km down south of the Amazon, and about the same time when the tidal waves
were at their highest as a consequence of the big clash of sea and fresh water at the Amazon delta
most vigorously in March and April (2018), more than 40,000 people were talking about the power of
water. Brasilia hosted the eighth edition of the World Water Forum (WWF – 8), where heads of
states, civil societies and private sector gathered to discuss the present and future of mankind’s
most valuable resource. This year’s theme was ‘Sharing Water’, and the government authorities
expectedly put forth a political declaration, aimed at raising awareness about threats and
opportunities associated with water resources. Deliberations here would play a decisive role in the
periodic assessment of the sustainable development goals of Agenda 2030.
Brazil has established a solid institutional and legal framework for water management,
based on the principle of multi-stakeholder participation. Brazil has also been conducting one of the
boldest river inter-linking projects in which 500 km of canals will transfer abundant waters from
the Sāo Francisco basin to small rivers and weirs in one of Brazil’s most arid areas, benefitting more
than 12 million people in almost 400 municipalities.
India, too, has a large variety of water resources. An institutional framework consisting of
regional river boards and river cleansing missions has been set up, while successive Central
Governments have made efforts to address the dire needs of irrigation and mitigation of ground
water depletion. As in the case of Brazil, a lot remains to be done in India.
Today, mankind is faced with two facts: water is too powerful a force to be fought over,
and too valuable a resource to be lost. To harmonise these two conflicting aspects, sharing water is
perhaps the only meaningful motto for the ages to come.
49. As per the text of the passage, the eighth edition of the World Water Forum was concerned
with
70
(4) The role of civil society in solving water-related problems
Answer: (3)
Answer: (1)
Answer: (2)
52. What would be of high priority to both New Delhi and Brasilia as regards river water ?
Answer: (4)
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(3) Management of water as a valuable resource
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 54 to 58:
If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological
imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions: the people, the overall economy and the
strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimensions,
time, and offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to
continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing
with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the
economy in the global context, and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the
heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive
employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills.
Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the
years to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation’s strategic strengths are becoming
more and more clear, especially since 1990s. India’s own strength in a number of core areas still
puts it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a
developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to
continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well,
whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and
health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The
absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious
natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt
the poorest most important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade
and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad
or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even while being
alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core technological
strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.
54. According to the above passage, which of the following are indicative of the fourth dimension?
Code:
72
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
Answer: (3)
Answer: (1)
Codes:
Answer: (2)
73
(1) Unbridled technological growth
Answer: (4)
Answer: (4)
74
are implemented, Adapting, to climate change will entail adjustments and changes at every level
from community to national and international. Communities must build their resilience, including
adopting appropriate technologies while making the most of traditional knowledge, and diversifying
their livelihoods to cope with current and future climate stress. Local coping strategies and
knowledge need to be used in synergy with government and local interventions. The need of
adaptation interventions depends on national circumstances. There is a large body of knowledge and
experience within local communities on coping with climatic variability and extreme weather events.
Local communities have always aimed to adapt to variations in their climate. To do so, they have
made preparations based on their resources and their knowledge accumulated through experience
of past weather patterns. This includes times when they have also been forced to react to and
recover from extreme events, such as floods, drought and hurricanes. Local coping strategies are
an important element of planning for adaptation. Climate change is leading communities to
experience climatic extremes more frequently, as well as new climate conditions and extremes.
Traditional knowledge can help to provide efficient, appropriate and time – tested ways of advising
and enabling adaptation to climate change in communities who are feeling the effects of climate
changes due to global warming.
59. To address the challenge of climate change developing countries urgently requires:
Answer: (1)
60. Given below are the factors of vulnerability of poor people to climate changes. Select the
correct that contains the correct answer.
Code:
75
(3) (c) only
Answer: (4)
Answer: (4)
Answer: (2)
76
(3) Modern technology
Answer: (2)
The last great war, which nearly shook the foundations of the modern world, had little
impact on Indian literature beyond aggravating the popular revulsion against violence and adding to
the growing disillusionment with the 'humane pretensions' of the Western World. This was
eloquently voiced in Tagore's later poems and his last testament, Crisis in Civilisation. The Indian
intelligentsia was in a state of moral dilemma. On the one hand, it could not help sympathising with
England's dogged courage in the hour of peril, with the Russians fighting with their backs to the
wall against the ruthless Nazi hordes, and with China groaning under the heel of Japanese
militarism; on the other hand, their own country was practically under military occupation of their
own soil, and an Indian army under Subhas Bose was trying from the opposite camp to liberate their
country. No creative impulse could issue from such confusion of loyalties. One would imagine that
the achievement of Indian independence in 1947, which came in the wake of the Allies' victory and
was followed by the collapse of colonialism in the neighbouring countries of South-East Asia, would
have released an upsurge of creative energy. No doubt it did, but unfortunately it was son
submerged in the geat agony of partition, with its inhuman slaughter of the innocents and the
uprooting of millions of people from their homeland, followed by the martyrdom of Mahatma Gandhi.
These tragedies, along with Pakistan's invasion of Kashmir and its later atrocities in Bangladesh, did
indeed provoke a poignant writing, particularly in the languages of the regions most affected,
Bengali, Hindi, Kashmiri, Punjabi, Sindhi and Urdu. But poignant or passionate writing does not by
itself make great literature. What reserves of enthusiasm and confidence survived these disasters
have been mainly absorbed in the task of national reconstruction and economic development. Great
literature has always emerged out of chains of convulsions. Indian literature is richer today in
volume, range and variety than it ever was in the past. Based on the passage answer the following
questions from 55 to 60:
Answer: (2)
65. What was the stance of Indian intelligentsia during the period of great war?
77
(1) Indifference to Russia's plight.
Answer: (4)
66. Identify the factor responsible for the submergence of creative energy in Indian literature.
Answer: (3)
67. What was the aftermath that survived tragedies in Kashmir and Bangladesh?
Answer: (4)
Answer: (2)
78
69. What was the impact of the last Great War on Indian literature?
Answer: (2)
Many aspects of the motion-picture industry and its constituent companies are dissimilar to
those observable in advanced-technology industries and firms. For instance, company longevity does
not represent a consistent concern across the two organisational contexts. In the advanced-
technology company for example, one new-product innovation – which is expected to generate
financial returns to the firm – is insufficient for the company to be successful.
Rather, a stream of new product innovations is required. By contrast with the independent
production company of this case, each new film – which is expected to generate financial returns to
the principals – is sufficient for the company to be successful. Any subsequent new films involving
the firm’s participants will be produced by a different independent company.
79
heavily on exploitation over exploration. Yet success of the industry as a whole is critically
dependent upon learning and exploration overtime.
70. What is not a consistent concern across the two organisational contexts?
(A) Dissimilarity
Answer: (D)
Answer: (B)
72. What does an advanced-technology company expect from the learning experience of its
participants?
Answer: (A)
73. What is not the expectation of an independent production company in the case of its
participants?
80
(A) Absence from the next project.
Answer: (B)
(D) Because it allows easy entry to everyone into the film world.
Answer: (C)
75. According to the author, what has been the focus of film business?
(B) Mentoring
(C) Exploitation
Answer: (C)
Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers 76 to 80.
I did that thing recently where you have to sign a big card - which is a horror unto itself,
especially as the keeper of the Big Card was leaning over me at the time. Suddenly I was on the
spot, a rabbit in the headlights, torn between doing a fun message or some sort of in-joke or a
drawing. Instead overwhelmed by the myriad options available to me, I decided to just write “Good
luck, best, Joel”.
It was then that I realised, to my horror, that I had forgotten how to write. My entire
existence is “tap letters into computer”. My shopping lists are hidden in the notes function of my
phone. If I need to remember something I send an e-mail to myself. A pen is something I chew
81
when I’m struggling to think. Paper is something I pile beneath my laptop to make it a more
comfortable height for me to type on.
A poll of 1,000 teens by the stationers, Bic found that one in 10 don’t own a pen, a third
have never written a letter, and half of 13 to 19 years - old have never been forced to sit down and
write a thank you letter. More than 80% have never written a love letter, 56% don’t have letter
paper at home. And a quarter has never known the unique torture of writing a birthday card. The
most a teen ever has to use a pen is on an exam paper.
Bic, have you heard of mobile phones? Have you heard of e-mail, facebook and snap
chatting? This is the future. Pens are dead. Paper is dead. Handwriting is a relic.
“Handwriting is one of the most creative outlets we have and should be given the same
importance as other art forms such as sketching, painting or photography.”
76. When confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like “a rabbit in the headlight”. What
does this phrase mean?
Answer: (A)
77. According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of pursuit?
(A) Handwriting
(B) Photography
(C) Sketching
(D) Reading
Answer: (D)
(a) Computer
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(b) Mobile phone
(c) Typewriter
Answer: (B)
79. How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen?
(A) 800
(B) 560
(C) 500
(D) 100
Answer: (D)
Answer: (D)
83
Prepared by
Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL)
(B.Com, M.Com. MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)
(NET- Management- 1Time)
COMMUNICATION
Meaning of Communication
The term communication is derived from the Latin word “communis” or “communicare” which means
to make common. Thus communication means to make common facts, information’s, thoughts and
requirements. Communication therefore is the exchange of thoughts, message, information etc. by
way of speech, signal or in writing. Communication is a two-way process and works well with
feedback, this helps to confirm that intended message has been successful.
Communication is effective when a concise and clear message is delivered well, received successfully
and understand fully. The process of communication has the following distinct components:
Communication begins with an impulse (or motivation) to pass on a message made up of bits of
information. In the process of encoding, units of information are selected and organized for
transmission. Input is the sum of experiences that build up in the human brain or computer.
The output is the encoded message transmitted by the information source (an individual person or
group of people). The interpretation of the message is referred to as decoding.
Feedback is the response or message that the recipient (decoder) returns to the sender (encoder).
The sender has an idea
Sender encodes the idea
The sender transmits the message through a medium
The receiver gets the message
The receiver decodes the message
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Receiver sends feedback
Feedback in the communication process is the response that gives us some indication of how
effectively we communicate. It is the gauge of efficiency in communication
Non-verbal communication:
It includes using of pictures, signs, gestures, and facial expressions for exchanging information
between persons. It is done through sign language, action language, or object
Language. Non-verbal communication flows through all acts of speaking or writing. It is a
Wordless message conveyed through gestures (sign), movements (action language), and
Object language (pictures/clothes) and so on. Further non-verbal communication can be
Identified by personal space (proxemics), sense of smell (olfactics) and time (chronemics).
Meta Communication:
Here the speaker’s choice of words unintentionally communicates something more than what the
actual words state. For example, a flattering remark like “I’ve never seen you so smartly dressed”
could also mean that the regular attire of the listener needed improvement.
Formal Communication: A formal channel of communication can be defined as a means of
communication that is formally controlled by managers or people occupying positions in an
organization. The communication flows through formal channels, that is, officially recognized
positions along the line in the organization. This ensures that the information flows orderly, timely,
and accurately. Any information, decision, memo, reminder etc. will follow this path.
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Informal Communication:
Side by side with the formal channel of communication every organization has an equally effective
channel of communication that is the informal channel. It is not officially sanctioned, and quite
often it is even discouraged or looked down upon. But, then, it is very much there and has been given
the name ‘grapevine’ precisely because it
Runs in all directions-horizontal, vertical, diagonal. As the management experts put it, “it flows
around water coolers, down hallways, through lunch rooms, and wherever people get together in
groups”.
Downward Communication:
The Communication that flows from Top to Bottom is known as downward communication. Any
organization has an inbuilt hierarchical system, and in that, in the first instance, communication
invariably flows downwards.
Upward Communication:
The Communication that flows from bottom to top, which is from lower hierarchical level to
Higher level is called Upward Communication. The main function of upward communication
Is to supply information to the upper levels about what is happening at the lower levels. It is
Just the reverse of the previous dimension
Lateral Communication:
When communication takes place between two or more persons who are subordinates
Working under the same person or those who are working on the same level, it is called
Lateral or horizontal communication. A good example of this kind of communication is that
Between functional managers. It is necessary for the reviewing of the activities assigned to
Various subordinates having identical positions
Diagonal Communication:
Diagonal or Crosswise communication includes the flow of information among persons at
Different levels who have no direct reporting relationships. As an example, the Communication
between the Training Supervisor and Marketing Manager, regarding the Training of a few
employees of the Marketing Department, is Diagonal Communication. This kind of communication is
used to speed up information flow, to improve understanding, and to coordinate efforts for the
achievement of organizational objectives.
Characteristics of communication
It involved two persons
Message is must
Communication May be Written, Oral or Gestural:
Communication is a Two Way Process
Its Primary Purpose is to Motivate a Response
Communication may be Formal or Informal
It Flows Up and Down and also from Side to Side
It is an Integral Part of the Process of Exchange
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Objectives/Purpose of Communication
The objectives of communication are dynamic and ever-changing. Some of the common objectives of
official communication are to get or give information, to ask for or give instructions or advice or
suggestions, to make requests, to persuade other people to agree with us.
Sometimes, we communicate with the intention of complaining, or warning; but unfortunately, we do
this angrily and get into arguments. If we learn to complain and warn in an acceptable and
constructive manner, our serious intention can be conveyed quite effectively without damaging
relationships.
In order to caution, counsel, clarify, apprise, evaluate, reprimand, and organize and numerous such
objectives, we make use of communication.
Communication is not an end in itself; rather it is a means to attain other ends or goals. Hence, it
has to be effective to be able to attain these goals or objectives. Communication effectiveness can
be examined in relation to the following criteria:
Fidelity of Communication: the distortion free quality of a message is called fidelity. An
effective person gets the message across to others with minimal possibilities of
misunderstanding.
Economy: In an effective communication a minimum of energy time, symbols and cues are
used to encode message without losing its fidelity and impact.
Congruence: An effective communication integrates both verbal and non-verbal cues.
Influence: The most important criterion of effectiveness is the influence that the
communicator is able to exercise over the receiver of the communication. Influence means
the communicator achieve the results he intended.
Relationship Building: effective communication contributes to the building of trust and a
better relationship between the source and the target.
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Semantic barriers
This barrier is related to the process of coding and decoding the message. Various types of
semantic gaps found in day-to-day use of people are as follows:
Words having similar pronunciation but multiple meaning: Same pronunciation but are having
many meanings. For example: sight, site, cite.
Badly expressed message: Lack of clarity and precision make the message badly expressed.
Lacks of coherence, awkward sentence structure, jargons etc. are common faults, which
lead to such messages.
Wrong interpretation: Whenever one interprets a symbol, his understanding may differ with
others. The Hindi word ‘kaka’ means uncle in one part of the country but small boy in
another part of the country.
Technical Language: When technical language is used in the communication process, it
creates barriers in understanding the message in the same sense and in the same spirit.
When technical jargons or specialist languages are used in the communication and
conversation process, they create tension, confusion and misunderstanding between the
sender and the receiver.
New meanings given to ordinary words by computer technology; to people who are not
familiar with computers, “mouse” is only an animal, where as in computer jargon, it is a
device.
Organizational Barriers
It may originate in contradictory management policies, or too many levels of management or the
clash between line and staff operations. The specialized nature of functions or even the special
language of those functions may cause it. It may have its source in formal informal, or grapevine
transactions. Following are the organizational barriers in communication:
Organization culture and climate: In every organization, there exists a unique culture and
climate. The climate and culture of an organization ultimately influence the freedom, thrust
and interaction pattern among people in an organization.
Organizational rules and regulations: The rules and regulations of the organization vary
widely from one organization to another. They may be so rigid that they may influence the
flow of information in a wrong direction.
Status relationships: The status, power and position relationship acts as the hurdle in the
effectiveness of communications. Individuals may not be able to say what they wish to say
because of their fear for the position and power of the other party in the communication
process. The complex hierarchical structure of the organization like too tall or too much of
divisionalisation of the organization may not facilitate the free flow of communication.
Lack of cooperation between superior and subordinate: There may not be proper
cooperation between the superior and subordinate for various personal or organizational
relationships, which may held to improper communication in an organization.
Interpersonal Barriers
The effectiveness of Communication depends a lot on the interpersonal relationship between two
people. If and when the sender and receiver are at the same economic, educational and status level
and also have good rapport with each other, there is hardly any barrier arising in communication.
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But, in case of a difference at any level, there is a greater chance of Miscommunication. The most
common example for this in an organization is the Barriers relating to Superior and Subordinate.
The subordinate must follow the order of the superior, carry out all work efficiently, and provide
full information related to any matter, which arises in the organization or in any work. Moreover,
the superior should have full confidence in himself and the subordinate.
1. Lack of proper channel: There may be complexity in the organizational structure, which may
influence proper and effective communication from the subordinate. They may not feel free
to communicate because of the pressure of position power and authority.
2. No interest to communicate: There may not be any interest on the part of subordinates to
have a dialogue, discussion and interaction with their superiors, which affect the
communication process adversely.
3. Lack of cooperation: lack of cooperation and mutual understanding also leads to the hiding
of certain information between the superior and subordinates in the organization.
4. Lack of trust: There may be lack of trust and coordination between the superior and the
subordinate, which may lead to infective communication.
5. The poor relationship between superior and subordinate: A good relationship must develop
between superiors and subordinates frequently and freely. They must interact to improve
the upward and downward communication system. The superior must listen to the
subordinates’ suggestion, their problems, and must have faith in them. In the absence of all
this, it may so happen that what the superior speaks, the subordinate may not understand it.
6. Fear of penalty: If subordinate fees that because of free expression and upward
communication he will face some type of penalty, there is a possibility that he may not
provide a full or correct message to the superior.
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11. Filtering: Filtering is the process of reducing the details or aspects of a message. Each
person who receives the message reduces it according to his or her understanding of the
situation. In this process, much of the important information may be lost or misinterpreted
and the sender will fail to convey what he wants to convey.
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mostly related to mechanical distractions. A few noise distractions are as follows: (i) Human
sounds, (ii) Traffic, (iii) Telephone instruments (iv) Channel defects (v) Birds (vi) Trees (vii)
Fans (viii) Chalk writing (ix) Use of Duster (x) Projector and (xi) Nasal Voice
Constant effort is required to overcome the barriers which unconsciously creep up in the process of
Communication. Barriers can be overcome if sufficient effort is put into the communication process
and it is desired that communication be effective and efficient.
One way of reducing the effects of these barriers is to check continuously during the
communication process what the massage really is. The actions to be taken by the Sender, Receiver
and together the two of them, to achieve this are listed below:
Sender: The sender should be clear about the following Ws and H:
WHO To who should the message go?
WHY Why should I communicate? What are the motives?
WHAT decide what to communicate? Be clear about what one needs to communicate.
WHEN the best time for optimum reception is chosen.
HOW Use a language, which the receiver will understand and which is unambiguous.
WHERE: Choose a location which will not interfere with the reception,
understanding and acceptance of the message: Privately? Home or away? In a group?
At work or outside?
Receiver: The receiver can be aware about the following, to overcome the barriers:
Be fully attentive to sender.
Listen actively to the message being sent.
Ask for clarification and repetition wherever necessary.
Keep checking the receipt of information with sender.
Both: Receiver and Sender can make the Communication Flawless if they:
Realize that misunderstandings are bound to occur, and be alert for all cues to this effect.
Listen, listen, listen, and listen again.
Share opinions, feelings and perceptions generated by the me
Mass communication is the term used to describe the academic study of various means by which
individuals and entities relay information to large segments of the population all at once through
mass media.
It is observed that the term mass communication must have at least five aspects:
Large audience
Fairly undifferentiated audience composition
Some form of message reproduction
Rapid distribution and delivery
Low cost to the consumers
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Characteristics of Mass communication:
Anonymous
Large audience
Fairly undifferentiated audience composition
Some form of message reproduction
Rapid distribution and delivery
Low cost to the consumers
Directs messages toward relatively large, heterogeneous and anonymous audience.
Messages are transmitted publicly no privacy.
Short duration message for immediate consumption
Feedback is indirect, non-existent or delayed
Cost per exposure per individual is minimum
Source belongs to organization or institutions
Mostly one way
QUESTIONS
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(4) selective morality
Answer: (4)
2. Assertion (A) : The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be
critical to establish interactions later.
Reason (R) : More control over the communication process means more control over what the
students are learning.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (3)
5. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication
process ?
(a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.
(b) Communication is a learnt ability.
(c) Communication is not a universal panacea.
(d) Communication cannot break-down.
(e) More communication means more effective learning by students.
(f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.
Code :
(1) (a), (c), (e) and (f)
(2) (b), (d), (e) and (f)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (d), (e) and (f)
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Answer: (4)
6. The classroom communication should essentially be :
(1) Contrived
(2) Empathetic
(3) Abstract
(4) Non-descriptive
Answer: (2)
10. When verbal and non-verbal messages are contradictory, it is said that most people believe in
(1) indeterminate messages
(2) verbal messages
(3) non-verbal messages
(4) aggressive messages
Answer: (3)
11. The typical feature of an information-rich classroom lecture is in the nature of being
(1) Sedentary
(2) Staggered
(3) Factual
(4) Sectoral
Answer: (3)
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(3) External clues
(4) Encoder-decoder contract
Answer: (4)
13. Positive classroom communication leads to
(1) Coercion
(2) Submission
(3) Confrontation
(4) Persuasion
Answer: (4)
15. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are of equal status. Which
method of communication is best suited and normally employed in such a context ?
(1) Horizonatal Communication
(2) Vertical communication
(3) Corporate communication
(4) Cross communication
Answer: (1)
16. Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while addressing students in
a classroom.
(1) Avoidance of proximity
2) Voice modulation
(3) Repetitive pause
(4) Fixed posture
Answer: (2)
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19. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the classroom.
(1) Use of peer command
(2) Making aggressive statements
(3) Adoption of well-established posture
(4) Being authoritarian
Answer: 3
22. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of a dynamic pattern of
ideas is referred to as :
(1) Systemisation
(2) Problem – orientation
(3) Idea protocol
(4) Mind mapping
Answer: (4)
23. Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as :
(1) Physical language
(2) Personal language
(3) Para language
(4) Delivery language
Answer: (3)
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(4) Context
Answer: (4)
25. Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom communication are considered
as :
(1) Verbal
(2) Non-verbal
(3) Impersonal
(4) Irrational
Answer: (2)
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(a) Communication involves exchange of ideas, facts and opinions.
(b) Communication involves both information and understanding.
(c) Communication is a continuous process.
(d) Communication is a circular process.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (4)
34. When academicians are called to deliver lecture or presentation to an audience on certain topics
or a set of topics of educational nature, it is called
(A) Training Program
(B) Seminar
(C) Workshop
(D) Symposium
Answer: (B)
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36. The mode of communication that involves a single source transmitting information to a large
number of receivers simultaneously, is called
(A) Group Communication
(B) Mass Communication
(C) Intrapersonal Communication
(D) Interpersonal Communication
Answer: (B)
39. In the classroom, the teacher sends the message either as words or images. The students are
really
(A) Encoders
(B) Decoders
(C) Agitators
(D) Propagators
Answer: (B)
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(C) criticality
(D) feedback
Answer: (D)
43. The Telephone Model of Communication was _rst developed in the area of
(A) Technological theory
(B) Dispersion theory
(C) Minimal effects theory
(D)Information theory
Answer: (D)
44. Users who use media for their own ends are identi_ed as
(A) Passive audience
(B) Active audience
(C) Positive audience
(D) Negative audience
Answer: (B)
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(A) Samachar
(B) API
C) Hindustan Samachar
(D) Samachar Bharati
Answer: (C)
50. In the process of Communication, which one Of the following is in the chronological order ?
(A) Communication, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message
(B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
(C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect
(D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect
Answer: (C)
51. Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is
termed as
(A) Entertainment
(B) Interactive Communication
(C) Development Communication
(D) Communitarian
Answer: (B)
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(D) Textbook centric
Answer: (B)
55. “Spare the rod and spoil the child”, gives the message that
(A) punishment in the class should be banned.
(B) corporal punishment is not acceptable.
(C) undesirable behaviour must be punished.
(D) children should be beaten with rods.
Answer: (C)
56. The type of communication that the teacher has in the classroom, is termed as
(A) Interpersonal
(B) Mass communication
(C) Group communication
(D) Face-to-face communication
Answer: (C)
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62. Photo bleeding means
(A) Photo cropping
(B) Photo placement
(C) Photo cutting
(D) Photo colour adjustment
Answer: (D)
68. Transforming thoughts, ideas and messages into verbal and non-verbal signs is referred to as
(A) channelisation
(B) mediation
(C) encoding
(D) decoding
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(A) economic environment
(B) political environment
C) social environment
(D) multi-cultural environment
Answer: (C)
70. A major barrier in the transmission of cognitive data in the process of communication is an
individual’s
(A) personality (B) expectation (C) social status D) coding ability
Answer: (D)
73. Media that exist in an interconnected series of communication – points are referred to as
A) Networked media
(B) Connective media
(C) Nodal media
(D) Multimedia
Answer: (A)
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Prepared by
Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL)
(B.Com, M.Com. MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)
(NET- Management- 1Time)
Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude
Questions on number series are prevalent in most of the exams. Almost 1-2 Questions comes in exam from this topic.
These questions are based on numerical sequences that follow a logical rule/ pattern based on elementary
arithmetic concepts.
A particular series is given from which the pattern must be analysed. You are then asked to predict the next
number in the sequence following the same rule
There are some numbers are wrongly put into the series of number and you need to identify or correct them
Tips and Tricks for Number series for NTA NET EXAM
Number series questions are mostly numbers in the series are connected to each other. When you identify the
connection, solving the question becomes easier for you.
Identify the pattern asked in the question. Once you identify the pattern, solving the questions would be much
easier.
Once you have identified the pattern, apply it to the number before/ after the missing number in the series to get
the answer.
Try to analyse the given pattern such as prime numbers, perfect squares ,cubes, series of known numbers like
Mathematics progression (AP/GP) etc.
Next, if you are unable to find the familiar number :-
Calculate difference B/W the given series elements
Then observe the pattern in difference to see are they following any regular pattern or known numbers like said
above.
If the numbers are growing slowly its must be addition or subtraction series
If the numbers are growing rapidly it might be a Square series or cube or multiplicative series.
If the difference or sum don’t have any particular pattern it must be alternate number series.
Now, You need to t signifies that the series follows a complex pattern. Check for cases like multiplying the number
and adding/subtracting a constant number from it to reach the pattern.
Pattern in differences
Calculate the differences between the numbers given in the series provided in the question. This difference can be
constant or varying in nature. After identifying this difference, you can find the problem number or words or letters in
the problem series.
Example:- A, D, G, J, ?
The difference between the position of these letters is 3. So, The next third letter to J will be M.
Example:- 2, 3, 4, 7, 6, 11, ?
In this series, the alternate numbers are incremented by 2 and 4 successively. Hence, the next number will be 8.
Similar can be done to letter series or word series to find the answer.
Geometric Series
When numbers in the series follow the geometric progression means when each successive number in the series is obtained
by multiplying or dividing the previous numbers with a fixed ratio, then problem number can be easily figured out.
Complex Series
In such series, the differences between numbers are dynamic instead of being fixed, but still there is a clear logical rule.
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Complex arithmetic functions
In some series, more than one operation (+, x, - and /) is used successively. Such pattern are very tough to recognize and
sometime take a lot of time. So, it is advisable not to spend so much time on such questions. If you find the correct answer
under the expected time limits, then only attempt it otherwise switch to the next question.
One of the simplest rule to solve alphabetical series problem is EJOTY rule. Most of the times, you need to
remember the position of any letter to solve puzzle. EJOTY rules will help you to easily find out the position of
different letters in the alphabet.
E J O T V
5 10 15 20 25
This type of question usually consists of a series of small letters which follow a certain pattern. However some letters
are missing from the series. These missing letters are then given in a proper sequence as one of the alternatives. The
candidate is required to choose this alternative as the answer.
In One lettered series each term contains one letter and follows a certain pattern.
1) R
2) T
3) Q
4) S
Answer: 1) R
Explanation:
B = 2, F = 6, J = 10, N = 14 . Here the difference between the letters is 4. So the answer is 14 + 4 = 18 which is R.
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Example-2: What is the next letter in the series B, C, E, G, ?
1) J
2) I
3) K
4) M
Answer: - K
Explanation:
B = 2, C = 3, E = 5, G = 7 . Here the letters are consecutive primes. So the next prime number is 11 which is K.
In Two lettered series each term contains two letters and follows a certain pattern. We have to find out the next term
according to that pattern.
1) GR
2) GQ
3) HQ
4) HR
Answer: 2) GQ
Explanation:
C = 3, D = 4, E = 5, F = 6.
M = 13, N = 14, O = 15, P = 16.
So next term is G = 7 and Q = 17
In Three lettered series each term contains three letters and follows a certain pattern. We have to find out the
next term according to that pattern.
Example: What is the next letter in the series CNL, BLI, AJF, ZHC, __ ?
1) XDY
2) YFZ
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3) YFA
4) XFY
Answer: 2) YFZ
Explanation:
If NOTE is coded as OQWl and BOA is coded as CQD, then which of the following is coded as NCWGM?
A MOKEB
B MATER
C CATCH
D
MATCH
Correct Option: D
Similarly
So,
In a certain code language OFFICE is written as NGGHDD. How is DENOTE written in that code language?
A CDMNSD
B EDONUD
C EPOPUF
D EODND
Correct Option: B
Similarly
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Note: Vowels – 1; Consonants + 1
hence, option B is correct.
If "ANANT is code as "BPDRY", then "MANOJ" will be coded as which of the following options
A NDQSO
B NCPSO
C NCQSO
D
NCQSP
Correct Option: C
ANANT is coded as BPDRY, here the logic is A+1 = B, N+2 = P, A+3 = D, N+4 = R, T+5 = Y
Hence, code for MANOJ will be, M + 1 = N, A + 2 = C, N + 3 = Q, O + 4 = S, J + S = O i.e. "NCQSO".
Hence, option C is correct.
in a certain code language, "YIELD" is written as "YHBGX" and "FORT" is written as "POME". How is "HEIGHT"
written in that code language?
A NCDFCG
B NCCECG
C NBCFCG
D NCCFCG
Correct Option: D
So,
Similarly
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Hence, option D is correct.
in a certain code of language, "PREVENT" is written as "TNEVERP”. How is "SPECIAL" written in that code
language?
ALAICPES
B LAICEPS
C LCAIEPS
DLAEICPS
Correct Option: B
The letters of the word are reversed.
Hence, option B is correct.
Blood Relations Based Question are very common in all type of examination where you have been given relationship
among few members of the family and based on given details you need to Find out the ‘Unknown’ relation that
exists satisfying the given criteria.
Questions depict relationships among the various members of a family in a roundabout chain.
The candidate is expected to find the relation of two particular persons mentioned in the question.
Generally, the question deals with a hierarchical structure which is based on seven generation three above
Q.1 Pointing to a boy, Saras said, "His father's wife's brother is the only brother of my sister's father." How is
the boy related to Saras?
A Son
B Nephew
C Cousin brother
D Uncle
Correct Option: C
Boy's father's wife means his 'mother'.
His mother's brother means his 'maternal uncle'.
Saras' sister's father means Saras' father.
Boy's maternal uncle is the only brother of Saras' father.
Boy's maternal uncle is the paternal uncle of Saras.
This clearly means that the boy is the cousin brother of Saras.
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Q,2 Pointing to a boy in a photograph, a girl said, "His father's mother is the mother-in-law of my brother's
mother." How is the person in photograph related to the girl?
A Maternal Uncle
B Grandfather
C Brother
D
Paternal Uncle
Correct Option: C
Girl's brother's mother means girl's 'mother'.
Mother-in-law of girl's mother means her grandmother.
Mother of the father of the boy in photograph is his 'grandmother'.
So, the boy's grandmother is also girl's grandmother.
This clearly means that the boy is related to the girl as her 'Brother.'
pointing to a lady Pankaj Said, Her mother's only grandson is my son, “How is that Lady related to pankaj"?
A Aunt
B Sister
C Mother
D
Wife
Correct Option: B
introducing a girl. Ronit said, " He is the daughter of the daughter of my grandfather's only son", How is that girl
related to Ronit?
A Cousin
B Niece
C Father in law
D Nephew
Correct Option: B
" He is the daughter of the daughter of my grandfather's only son"
My grandfather's only Son - It means Ronit's father.
Daughter of my grandfather's only son - Ronit's father's daughter. It means Ronit's sister.
Daughter of the daughter of my grandfather - It means Ronit's sister's daughter.
Hence, that girl is a niece of Ronit.
Hence, option B is correct
Pointing towards a lady in a photograph a girls says Vinita's grandmother is the mother- in - law of this lady how is
the lady in the photograph related to Vinita?
A Mother
B Sister
C Aunt
D
Grandmother
Correct Option: A
()
↓
( ) + ⇔ (Lady)
↓
Vinita
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Hence, option A is correct.
Mathematical Aptitude (Fraction, Time & Distance, Ratio, Proportion and Percentage, Profit and
Loss, Interest and Discounting, Averages etc.).
1) A person sold a stove for Rs. 423 and incurred a loss of 6%. At what price would it be sold so as to earn a
profit of 8%?
a. Rs. 525
b. Rs. 500
c. Rs. 490
d. Rs. 486
ANSWER: Rs. 486
Explanation:
2) A fruit seller buys lemons at 2 for a rupee and sells then at 5 for three rupees. His gain percent is
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: 20%
Explanation:
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3) A sells a car to B at 10% loss. If B sells it for Rs. 54000 and gains 20%, the cost price of the car for A was
a. Rs. 25000
b. Rs. 50000
c. Rs. 37500
d. Rs. 60000
ANSWER: Rs. 50000
Explanation:
4) Ramesh sold a statue for a price 25% higher than the original price of the statue. He had however bought the
statue at 20% discount on the original price. With the profit of Rs. 2025, find the original price of the statue.
a. Rs. 6000
b. Rs. 7500
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c. Rs. 3500
d. Rs. 4500
ANSWER: Rs. 4500
Explanation:
5) If selling price of 40 articles is equal to cost price of 50 articles, the loss or gain percent is
a. 25% loss
b. 20% loss
c. 25% gain
d. 20% gain
ANSWER: 25% gain
Explanation:
6) Two bicycles were sold for Rs. 3990 each, gaining 5% on one and losing 5% on the other. The gain or loss percent
on the whole transaction is
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7) The ratio of cost price and selling price is 4:5. The profit percent is
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 30%
ANSWER: 25%
Explanation:
8) If a person sells a ‘sari’ for Rs. 5200, making a profit of 30%, then the cost price of the sari is
a. Rs. 4420
b. Rs. 4000
c. Rs. 3900
d. Rs. 3800
ANSWER: Rs. 4000
Explanation:
9) A shopkeeper earns a profit of 15% after selling a book at 20% discount on the printed price. The ratio of the
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cost price and printed price of the book is?
a. 20:23
b. 23:20
c. 16:23
d. 23:16
ANSWER: 16:23
Explanation:
10) Simran bought pet food worth Rs. 56000. She then sold 1/3rd of it incurring a loss of 40%. What profit she
must earn on rest of the supplies to nullify this loss?
a. 25%
b. 20%
c. 45%
d. 50%
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ANSWER: 20%
Explanation:
11) Ramesh gets a profit of 20% in one trade and suffers a loss of 20% in the second when he sells 2 cycles for
Rs. 4000 each. What is his profit or loss in the entire trade?
a. Loss = 4%
b. Loss = 16%
c. Profit = 16%
d. Profit = 4%
ANSWER: Loss = 4%
Explanation:
12) Suman buys 160 chocolates for Rs. 480. She wanted to earn 30% profit by selling them. But Rakesh visited her
and she gave him 25% of those chocolates at the cost price itself. But even after doing this, she earned a profit of
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30% as decided. For how much did she sell each chocolate?
a. Rs. 3.8
b. Rs. 4.2
c. Rs. 6
d. Rs. 3
13) Guddi buys some oranges in a shop at 4 per rupee. She goes to other shop and buys same number of oranges at
5 per rupee. She then combines them in a basket and sells them at 4 per rupee. Will she get a profit or loss? And
how much?
a. Profit = 100/9 %
b. Loss = 100/9 %
c. Profit = 116/9 %
d. Loss = 116/9 %
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14) Chaman sells 40 fans at 10% profit. He wants a total of 20% profit on the entire sale. Since he got 160 fans
at rate of Rs. 100 each, at what profit must he sell the remaining fans?
a. 70/3%
b. 160/58%
c. 30%
d. 100/3%
ANSWER: 70/3%
Explanation:
15) Uma wants to gain 15% profit on her sale of sugar. She buys 120 kg of sugar at Rs. 24 per kg to mix with 180
kg of sugar bought at Rs. 28 per kg. She sells the sugar mix at ….
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a. Rs. 8159
b. Rs. 9108
c. Rs. 9756
d. Rs. 8564
16) Rohit got profit of 11½% by selling his old car. However he realized that had he sold it for Rs. 8100 more, his
profit would be 38.5%. At what price did he buy the car?
a. Rs. 44500
b. Rs. 55000
c. Rs. 41000
d. Rs. 30000
17) Rambabu sells paper planes at the rate of 20 planes for Re. 1. If he gets profit of 20%, how many planes did
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he buy in 1 rupee?
a. 16
b. 40
c. 24
d. 36
ANSWER: 24
Explanation:
18) A cheater manipulated his weighing machine so that it shows 1kg for 970 grams. How much profit does he get?
a. 397/100%
b. 0.3 %
c. 0.03%
d. 300/97%
ANSWER: 300/97%
Explanation:
19) Ajay incurred loss of 20% by selling a vase for Rs. 2880. To get a profit of 20% at what price should he sell
the vase?
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a. Rs. 4320
b. Rs. 5760
c. Rs. 1440
d. Rs. 3500
20) A sold a car to B at a profit of 25%. B incurred loss of 15% while selling the same car to C. A spent Rs. 50000
for this car. At what price did C buy it?
a. Rs. 62500
b. Rs. 60000
c. Rs. 53125
d. Rs. 90000
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21) What will be selling price, if cost price is Rs. 120 and gain is 35%?
a. Rs. 13
b. Rs. 85
c. Rs. 155
d. Rs. 162
ANSWER: Rs. 162
Explanation:
22) A and B enter into a partnership with respective capitals of Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 40,000. At the end of the
year, the total profit is Rs. 33,000. If A receives Rs. 15,000 as both his salary and profit, then what is his salary?
a. Rs. 2000
b. Rs. 4000
c. Rs. 3500
d. Rs. 3000
ANSWER: Rs. 4000
Explanation:
A's capital : B 's capital
20000 : 40000 = 1 : 2
Since, the time period is fixed, the profit is distributed in the ratio of capital 1 : 2
Profit of A = (1/3) * 33,000 = Rs. 11,000
Salary of A = Rs. (15000 – 11000) = Rs. 4000
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23) An article costs Rs. 600. What should be the marked price of an article so that after 10% discount, the trader
makes 20% profit?
a. Rs. 800
b. Rs. 950
c. Rs. 1100
d. Rs. 1040
ANSWER: Rs. 800
Explanation:
Cost price of article = Rs. 600
Profit % = 20%
Therefore,
selling price of article = 120% of C.P.
= (120 / 100) * 600 = Rs. 720
Marked price = ?
Discount % = 10%
S.P. = Rs. 720
90% of M.P. = S.P.
90/100 * M.P. = 720
M.P. = 720 * (100/90) = Rs. 800
24) A man buys 50 pens at marked price of 46 pens from a whole seller. If he sells these pens giving a discount of
1% , what is the profit percent?
a. 5.3 %
b. 7.6 %
c. 10.6 %
d. 12 %
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: 7.6 %
Explanation:
Let Marked price be Re. 1 each
C.P. of 50 pens = Rs. 46
S.P. of 50 pens = 99% of Rs. 50 = Rs. 49.50
Profit % = (Profit /C.P.) x 100
Profit% = (3.50/46) x 100 = 7.6 %
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25) P sells an article to Q at 10 % profit. Q sells it to R at 25 % profit. If R pays Rs. 250 for it, What did P pay
for it ?
a. Rs. 225
b. Rs. 198..50
c. Rs. 181.81
d. Rs. 162.30
e. None of these
ANSWER: Rs. 181.81
Explanation:
Selling price of P = Cost price of Q
Selling Price of Q = Cost price of R = Rs. 250 ….. Given
Q sold it to R with 25 % profit.
Cost price of Q = 100/125 * 250/1 = Rs. 200 = Selling price of P.
P sold it to Q with 10 % profit.
Cost price of P = 100 / 110 * 200 / 1 = Rs. 181.81
26) Sagar purchased 10 kg of rice at the rate of Rs. 15 per kg and 25 kg of rice at the rate Rs. 14 per kg. He
mixed the two and sold the mixture. Approximately at what rate per kg should he sell the mixture to make 40 %
profit in the transaction?
a. Rs. 20.00
b. Rs. 19.50
c. Rs. 15
d. Rs. 17.5
ANSWER: Rs. 20.00
Explanation:
First 10 15 150
Second 25 14 350
Total 500
By 40% profit on cost price,
Selling price of mixture = 140/100 * 500
= Rs. 700
Therefore, selling price per kg of mixture = 700/35 = Rs. 20
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27) A trader has 200 kg of sugar, out of which he sells some with 10% profit and the rest with 25% profit. He
gains 15% on the whole. Find the quantity of sugar sold at 25% profit?
a. 120 kg
b. 96.5 kg
c. 84 kg
d. 67 kg
e. None of these
ANSWER: 67 kg
Explanation:
Let CP of each kg. of sugar = Rs.1.
Cost Price of 200 kg of sugar = Rs.200.
Let quantity of sugar sold with 25% profit be X.
Therefore, (200 – X) kg of sugar sold at a profit of 10%
Then,
(125/100 * X) + 110/100 (200 – X) = 115/100 * 200
125X + 110(200 – X) = 115 * 200
125X + 22000 – 110X = 23000
125X – 110X = 23000 – 22000
15X = 1000
X = 1000/15
X = 66.66 kg
Quantity of sugar that was sold at 25% gain is 66.66 kg
Therefore, option nearby for 66.66 is 67 (d)
28) Anil purchased 30 kg of wheat at the rate of Rs. 22 per kg and 20 kg of wheat at the rate of Rs. 24 per kg.
He mixed the two. Approximately at what rate per kg should he sell the mixture to make 25% profit?
a. Rs. 25
b. Rs. 28
c. Rs. 30
d. Rs. 32.5
ANSWER: Rs. 28
Explanation:
Total quantity of mixture = 30 + 20 = 50 kg.
By earning a profit of 25% on the total cost, the selling price of the mixture is
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125/100 * (660 + 480 = 1140) = Rs. 1425
Selling price per kg = Total selling price / Total of mixture
= 1425 / 50
= Rs. 28.5
29) At what price should the Karan mark a sewing machine that costs him Rs. 1200/- so that even after offering a
20% discount, he makes 25% profit?
a. Rs. 2,025/-
b. Rs.1,900/-
c. Rs. 1,675/-
d. Rs. 1,875/-
e. None of these
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Rs. 1,875/-
Explanation:
Cost of a sewing machine = Rs. 1200/-
By giving 20% discount on the marked price of a sewing machine, the cost price is :
100/80 * 1200 = Rs. 1500/- By making a profit of 25% on the cost price of a sewing machine, the marked price of the
sewing machine is:
125/100 × 1500 = 125 × 15 = Rs. 1,875/-
30) Virat buys an old car for Rs. 50000 and spends Rs. 4000 on its repairs. If he sells the scooter for Rs. 60000,
his gain percent is:
a. 3 (4/7) %
b. 11 (1/9) %
c. 12 (2/3) %
d. 12%
ANSWER: 11 (1/9) %
Explanation:
C.P. = Rs. (50000 + 4000) = Rs. 54000
S.P. = Rs. 60000.
Gain% = ( (6000 / 54000) * 100 ) % = 11 (1/9)%
31) P, Q, R subscribe Rs. 50,000 for a business. P subscribes Rs. 4000 more than Q and Q Rs. 5000 more than R.
Out of a total profit of Rs. 25,000, what will be P's share?
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a. Rs. 8400
b. Rs. 10,500
c. Rs. 13,600
d. Rs. 14,700
ANSWER: Rs. 10,500
Explanation:
Let amount subscribed for R be x.
Therefore, Q = x + 5000 and P = x + 5000 + 4000 = x + 9000
So, x + x + 5000 + x + 9000 = 50000
3x = 36000
x = 12000
P : Q : R = 21000 : 17000 : 12000 = 21 : 17 : 12
P’s share = 25000 X (21/50) = Rs. 10,500
32) A trader purchases several articles at the rate of 13 for Rs. 10 and sells them at the rate of 10 for Rs. 13.
What is his gain/loss?
a. 69 % gain
b. 56.25 % gain
c. 56.25 % loss
d. 25 % loss
e. None of these
ANSWER: 69 % gain
Explanation:
We have, C. P of 13 articles = Rs. 10
& S. P of 10 articles = Rs. 13
S. P of 13 articles = ?
= (13 * 13) / 10 = 16.9
Gain = [(16.9 – 10)/10] * 100 = 69 %
33) A boy pays Rs. 369 for an article marked at Rs. 600, by enjoying two successive discounts. If the first
discount is of 25%, how much should be the second discount?
a. 20 %
b. 10 %
c. 25 %
d. 18 %
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e. None of these
ANSWER: 18 %
Explanation:
First discount = 25% of 600 = Rs. 150.
Thus, the reduced price = 600 – 150 = Rs. 450.
Since the person actually paid Rs. 369, the value of the second discount must be equal to Rs. 81 (450 – 369).
Let the second discount be x
Thus, we get, 81 = x of 450
( 81/450)*100 = 18%
34) By purchasing an article at 20 % discount on the original price and then selling it at a price of 25% above the
original price, a trader earns Rs. 200 as the profit. What was the original price of the article?
a. Rs. 444.44
b. Rs. 255.50
c. Rs. 100.10
d. Rs. 810
e. None of these
ANSWER: Rs. 444.44
Explanation:
Let the original price of the article be Rs. 100. Hence the purchase price for the trader would be Rs. 80 and his selling
price would be Rs. 125. Thus, he would earn a profit of Rs. 45 (125 – 80). Therefore,
Profit is Rs. 45 if the original price is Rs. 100
Hence, if profit is Rs. 200, then original price will be..
= 100x 200/45
= Rs. 444.44
35) A boy incurs 5% loss by selling a book for Rs. 1000. At what price should the book be sold to earn 5 % profit?
a. Rs. 1105.26
b. Rs. 1251.50
c. Rs. 1085.13
d. Rs. 1885.13
ANSWER: Rs. 1105.26
Explanation:
Let the new selling price be Rs. x
(100 – loss %) /1000 = (100 + gain %) / x
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(100 – 5) / 1000 = (100 + 5) / x
x = (105 × 1000) / 95 = 105000 / 95
x = 1105.26.
36) Find the resultant profit if A sells a cupboard at a profit of 6% to B and B sells the same to C at a profit of
9%.
a. 15%
b. 16%
c. 14.5%
d. 15.54%
ANSWER: 15.54%
Explanation:
The resultant profit = 1.06 * 1.09 = 1.1554 = 15.54%
Alternatively, the resultant profit = [x + y + xy/100]
= 6 + 9 + (6*9)/100
= 15 + 0.54
= 15.54%
37) If Harsh sold a match ticket for Rs.340 at a profit of 25%, at what price did he purchased the ticket?
a. 280
b. 255
c. 300
d. 272
ANSWER: 272
Explanation:
Cost price = Selling price/(1 + profit percent)
= 340/(1 + 0.25) = 340/1.25
= Rs.272
38) Eleven bags are bought for Rs.1000 and sold at 10 for Rs.1100. What is the gain or loss in percentage?
a. 10%
b. 21%
c. 25%
d. 20%
ANSWER: 21%
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Explanation:
As selling price is Rs.1100 for 10 bags, each bag is sold at Rs.110.
Hence, the profit is Rs.100 after selling 10 bags plus the selling price of 1 bag = 100 + 110 = Rs.210.
%profit = 210/1000 *100
= 21%
39) Vijay sells a cupboard at 14% below cost price. Had he got Rs.2086 more, he would have made a profit of 14%.
What is the cost price of the cupboard?
a. 7450
b. 14900
c. 7400
d. 7500
ANSWER: 7450
Explanation:
Cost price = 2086/(0.14 + 0.14) = 2086/0.28
= Rs.7450
40) If selling price of 12 pens is equal to the cost price of 18 pens, find the profit percent.
a. 40%
b. 33.3%
c. 50%
d. 25%
ANSWER: 50%
Explanation:
Selling price of 12 pens = cost price of 18 pens
Therefore, the profit is 6 pens and cost price is 12 pens.
% profit = profit/cost price * 100
= 6/12 * 100
= 50%
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Prepared by
Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL)
(B.Com, M.Com. MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)
(NET- Management- 1Time)
STRUCTURING AN ARGUMENT
Conclusion
The conclusion (or claim) is the statement with which you want the other person to agree. It is drawn from the premises of
the argument, of which there may be many.
We need to get out.
You should buy this car.
The new housing should be sited elsewhere.
A useful way of spotting a conclusion is that it may well be a statement of necessity, saying what must or should happen. It
may well be framed to persuade the other person to do something or make some decision.
Inference
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– Between the conclusion and the premises are further statements which translate the premises into the conclusion. This
is the reasoning process, and in a formal argument uses careful logic (in informal arguments, emotional reasoning and
assumptive leaps may well be used).
A particular aspect of the logical argument is that inferential statements have true-false qualities — that is, they are
either true or false and nothing in between. Thus a sentence can contain many statements.
If we stay here, we will not only get uncomfortable, we will also start to smell.
There are other people interested in this car who will be here later.
If we don’t do something, the peasants will revolt.
Inferential arguments seek to prove. Thus commands, explanations and other statements may not directly add to the
inference, although they may be a useful component of persuasion.
Look at this. (command)
The people are angry because we did not listen to them. (explanation)
I hate it when cars don’t start. (emotion)
Based on the above fact generally, three types of Question were asked in UGC NET exam in the logical reasoning
section –
Statement & Assumption Test
Statement & Argument Test
Statement & Inference Test
How to solve –
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the
statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement:
The GOI has decided to pay compensation to the tune of Rs. 10 lakh to the family members of those who are killed in
major railway accidents.
Assumptions:
The government has enough funds to meet the expenses due to compensation.
There may be a reduction in incidents of railway accidents in the near future.
(A) If the only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.
If you consider the statement given that Gov of India has decided to pay 10 lakh compensation for railway accidents that
means it must have been discussed in minister councils and subsequently rules has been provisioned after considering the
amount that might need to allocate for this fund.
Means- The government has enough funds to meet the expenses due to compensation.
However, The no of train incidents are unpredictable and this cant guarantee that there will be a reduction in incidents of
railway accidents in the near future.
Hence – the only assumption I is implicit
These type of Question are commonly asked you need to give attention to details. You might not able to identify
that given assumption is implicit or not in the first few attempts however one you practise more questions based on
the same pattern you will be able to identify them.
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Statement & Argument Test
Paper Pattern – Questions are givens with the statement and you need to identify which of
argument is strong & week
How to solve –
Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II.
You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
Answer:
* (A) If only argument I is strong
* (B) If only argument II is strong
* (C) If either I or II is strong
* (D) If neither I nor II is strong and
* (E) If both I and II are strong.
Usually, in these questions, a statement is given which is followed by two arguments. An individual is required to
differentiate between strong and weak arguments.
You will see many different types of questions in this section. Usually, confusing questions will be asked.
The arguments that will be provided will generally be contrary to each other.
You have to choose the strong argument which satisfies the Statement.
Example 1-
Statement: Should taxes on colour television be further increased?
Arguments:
Yes, Colour television is a luxury item and only rich people buy them.
No, Televisions are bought by the poor too.
1. Only argument I is strong
2. Only argument II is strong
3. Either I or II is strong
4. Neither I nor II is strong
5. Both I and II are strong
Answer: Option 4
Explanation: Taxes on an item cannot be increased or decreased based on the financial position of the people who buy it.
So, both arguments I and II do not hold strong.
Example 2-
Statement: Should India become a permanent member of the UN’s Security Council?
Arguments:
Yes. India has emerged as a country which loves peace and amity.
No. Let us first solve the problems of our people like poverty, malnutrition.
1. Only argument I is strong
2. Only argument II is strong
3. Either I or II is strong
4. Neither I nor II is strong
5. Both I and II are strong
Answer: Option 1
Explaination:- A peace-loving nation like India can well join an international forum which seeks to bring different nations on
friendly terms with each other. So, the argument I hold strong. Argument II highlights a different aspect. The internal
problems of a nation should not debar it from strengthening international ties. So, argument II is vague.
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Statement & Inference Test
Paper Pattern – Questions are givens with the statement and you need to identify which of
inference/Conclusion is correct.
How to solve –
In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything
in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond
a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
Statements:
The government has spoiled many top-ranking financial institutions by appointing bureaucrats as Directors of these
institutions.
Conclusions:
The government should appoint Directors of the financial institutes taking into consideration the expertise of the
person in the area of finance.
The Director of the financial institutions should have expertise commensurate with the financial work carried out
by the institute.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow
Answer: Option E
Explanation: According to the statement, the Government has spoiled financial institutions by the appointing bureaucrats
as Directors. This means that only those persons should be appointed as Directors who are experts in finance and are
acquainted with the financial work of the institute. So, both I and II follow.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: An organization like UNO is meant to maintain peace all over and will always serve to prevent conflicts
between countries. So, its role never ends. So, the argument I do not hold. Also, lack of such an organization may in future
lead to increased mutual conflicts and international wars, on account of lack of a common platform for mutual discussions.
So, argument II holds.
First, both deduction and induction are ways to learn more about the world and to convince others about the truth of
those leanings. None of these terms would mean anything or are useful to anyone if they weren’t used to do something
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useful, like determining who committed a crime, or how many planets might harbor life in the Milky Way galaxy. Induction
and Deduction help us deal with real world problems.
“The biggest difference between deductive and inductive reasoning is that deductive reasoning starts with a statement or
hypothesis and then tests to see if it’s true through observation, where inductive reasoning starts with observations and
moves backward towards generalizations and theories.”
Key Points
Deduction moves from idea to observation, while induction moves from observation to idea.
Deduction moves from more general to more specific, while induction moves from more specific to more general.
Deductive arguments have unassailable conclusions assuming all the premises are true, but inductive arguments
simply have some measure of probability that the argument is true—based on the strength of the argument and
the evidence to support it.
“ All men are mortal. Harold is a man. Therefore, Harold is mortal.”
Deduction
I have a bag of many coins, and I’ve pulled 10 at random and they’ve all been pennies, therefore this is probably a bag full
of pennies.
Induction
This gives some measure of support for the argument that the bag only has pennies in it, but it’s not complete support like
we see with deduction.
Deduction has theories that predict an outcome, which are tested by experiments. Induction makes observations
that lead to generalizations for how that thing works.
If the premises are true in deduction, the conclusion is definitely true. If the premises are true in induction, the
conclusion is probably true.
Deduction is hard to use in everyday life because it requires a sequential set of facts that are known to be true.
Induction is used all the time in everyday life because most of the world is based on partial knowledge,
probabilities, and the usefulness of a theory as opposed to its absolute validity.
Deduction is more precise and quantitative, while induction is more general and qualitative.
What is Analogies
‘Analogy’ means ‘correspondence’ or ‘Similar items’. In other words, we can say the similarity or similar relation
existence between the given subject.
In analogy based question section, you will find that a particular relationship is given and another similar
relationship has to identify from the alternatives provided.
Analogy based tests are meant to test a candidate’s overall knowledge, power of verbal reasoning and ability to
think concisely and accurately. There is three types of Analogy-
Number Analogy
Letter Analogy
Word Analogy
The candidates are asked to identify and point out relationships, similarities or differences, and dissimilarities in a series
or between groups of numbers.
In most of the cases relationships between the numbers in a given pair can be any of the following:
One number is a multiple of the other.
One number is the square or square root of the other.
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One number is the cube or cube root of the other.
The two numbers can be consecutive, even, odd or prime numbers.
Understanding Number Analogy is a crucial step in solving questions on reasoning ability. The reasoning ability is
checked mainly by the questions related to Number Analogy.
#2 121 : 12 : : 25 : ?
The relationship is x2 : (x + 1).
The questions based on letter analogy are similar to number analogy. Here, the questions are based on the relationship
between two groups of letters on each side of the sign : :
Normally, three pairs of letters are given followed by a question mark where the fourth pair of letters is supposed to
come.
#2 ? : I K M O : : Q S U W : YA C E
(a) ACEG (b) ADEG (c) ACDG (d) ADDG
In each group, one letter is skipped between every two consecutive letters. So, the missing term will be ACEG.
In word analogy questions there is a certain relationship between the two given words on one side of and one word is given
on the other side.
Students are asked to find the correct alternative that has same relationship with that word.
There are many possibilities in establishing a relationship. Here are some useful points on the basic knowledge required for
the test.
Tool and Action
Worker and Working Place (Eg: Farmer : Field : : Doctor : Hospital)
Worker and Product (Eg: Carpenter : Furniture : : Mason : Wall)
Quantity and Unit (Eg: Length : Metre : : Distance : Light Year)
Instrument and Measurement
Study and Topic (Eg: Botany : Plants : : Ornithology : Birds)
Word and Antonym
Person and field
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Book & author
#3 In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Book : Publisher : : Film ; ?
(a)Writer (b) Editor (c) Director (d) Producer
1. Superiority of intellect depends upon its power of concentration on one theme in the same way as a concave mirror
collects all the rays that strike upon it into one point.
(1) Mathematical
(2) Psychological
(3) Analogical
(4) Deductive
Answer:3
2. Given below are two premises (A and B). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states validity
drawn conclusion (s) (taking the premises individually or jointly). Premises:
(A) Most of the dancers are physically fit.
(B) Most of the singers are dancers.
Conclusions:
(a) Most of the singers are physically fit.
(b) Most of the dancers are singers.
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(c) Most of the physically fit persons are dancers.
(d) Most of the physically fit persons are singers.
Code:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (d) and (a)
Answer:2
4. If the proposition ‘domestic animals are hardly ferocious’ is taken to be false, which of the following
proposition/propositions can be claimed to be certainly true? Select the correct code:
Propositions:
(a) All domestic animals are ferocious.
(b) Most of the domestic animals are ferocious.
(c) No domestic animal is ferocious.
(d) Some domestic animals are non-ferocious.
Code:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a) only
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (b) only
Answer:1
5. Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of Venn diagram method?
(1) It is a method of testing the validity of arguments.
(2) It represents both the premises of a syllogism in one diagram.
(3) It requires two overlapping circles for the two premises of a standard-form categorical syllogism.
(4) It can be used to represent classes as well as propositions.
Answer:3
6. It is Truism to say that no one was there when life first appeared on earth. Any assertion about life’s origin thus, should
be treated as a theory. The above two statements constitute:
(1) A narrative
(2) An argument
(3) A conjecture
(4) A historical explanation
Answer:2
7. Given below are four statements. Among them, two are related in such a way that they can both be true but they cannot
both be false. Select the code that indicates those two statements:
Statements:
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(a) Honest people never suffer.
(b) Almost all honest people do suffer.
(c) Honest people hardly suffer.
(d) Each and every honest person suffers. Code:
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (a) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (a) and (b)
Answer:3
9. Given below are two premises (a and b), from those two premises four conclusions (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are drawn. Select
the code that states the conclusion/conclusions drawn validity (taking the premises singularly or jointly).
Premises:
(a) All bats are mammals
(b) No birds are bats
Conclusion:
(i) No birds are mammals
(ii) Some birds are not mammals
(iii) No bats are birds
(iv) All mammals are bats
Code:
(1) (i) and (ii) only
(2) (iii) only
(3) (iii) and (iv) only
(4) (i) only
Answer:2
10. Just melting ice-cubes do not change a glass of water to overflow. Melting sea – ice does not increase change volume.
What type of argument is it?
(1) Hypothetical
(2) Psychological
(3) Statistical
(4) Analogical
Answer:4
11. Given below are some characteristics of reasoning. Select the code that states a characteristic which is not of
deductive reasoning:
(1) The conclusion must be based on observation and experiment.
(2) The conclusion should be supported by the premise/premises.
(3) The conclusion must follow from the premise/premises necessarily.
(4) The argument may be valid or invalid.
141
Answer:1
12. The missing term in the series 1, 4, 27, 16, ?, 36, 343, … is
(1) 30
(2) 49
(3) 125
(4) 81
Answer:3
13. Men and woman may have different reproductive strategies but neither can be considered inferior or superior to the
other, any more than a bird’s wings can be considered superior or inferior to a fish’s fins.
What type of argument it is ?
(1) Biological
(2) Physiological
(3) Analogical
(4) Hypothetical
Answer:3
14. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they cannot both be true but can both be false.
Select the code that states those two propositions.
Propositions:
(a) Every student is attentive.
(b) Some students are attentive.
(c) Students are never attentive.
(d) Some students are not attentive.
Codes:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (c) and (d)
Answer:3
15. Given below are two premises ((a) and (b)). From those two premises four conclusions (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) are drawn.
Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn from the premises (taking singly or jointly.)
Premises:
(a) Untouchability is a curse.
(b) All hot pans are untouchable.
Conclusions:
(i) All hot pans are curse.
(ii) Some untouchable things are hot pans.
(iii) All curses are untouchability.
(iv) Some curses are untouchability.
Codes:
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:4
142
16. If the statement ‘None but the brave wins the race’ is false which of the following statements can be
claimed to be true?
Select the correct code:
(1) All brave persons win the race.
(2) Some persons who win the race are not brave.
(3) Some persons who win the race are brave.
(4) No person who wins the race is brave.
Answer:2
17. Among the following propositions, two are related in such a way that one is the denial of the other. Which
are those propositions? Select the correct code:
Propositions:
(a) All women are equal to men
(b) Some women are equal to men
(c) Some women are not equal to men
(d) No women are equal to men
Codes:
(1) (a)and(b)
(2) (a)and(d)
(3) (c)and(d)
4) (a)and(c)
Answer:4
18. If the proposition ‘All thieves are poor’ is false, which of the following propositions can be claimed certainly to be true
?
Propositions:
(1) Some thieves are poor.
2) Some thieves are not poor.
(3) No thief is poor.
(4) No poor person is a thief.
Answer:2
19. Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the nature of the argument involved in it:
To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the in_nite space is as absurd as to assert that in an entire field
of millet only one grain will grow.
(1) Astronomical
(2) Anthropological
(3) Deductive
(4) Analogical
Answer:4
20. Select the code which is not correct about Venn diagram:
(1) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.
(2) It can provide clear method of notation.
(3) It can be either valid or invalid.
(4) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.
Answer:3
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21. Select the code which is not correct in the context of a deductive argument with two premises:
(1) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion may be valid.
(2) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
(3) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a true conclusion may be valid.
(4) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
Answer:2
22. Given below are two premises and four conclusions are drawn from them (taking singly or together).
Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn.
Premises:(i) All religious persons are emotional.
(ii) Ram is a religious person.
Conclusions :(a) Ram is emotional.
(b) All emotional persons are religious.
(c) Ram is not a non-religious person.
(d) Some religious persons are not emotional.
Codes:
(1) (a),(b),(c)and(d)
(2) (a)only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (b) and (c) only
Answer:3
24. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way thai, they can both be true although they cannot both
be false. Which are those propositions? Select the correct code.
Propositions :
(a) Some priests are cunning.
(b) No priest is cunning.
(c) All priests are cunning.
(d) Some priests are not cunning.
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (a) and (d)
Answer:4
25. A Cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference is called :
144
(1) An inference
(2) An argument
(3) An explanation
(4) A valid argument
Answer:2
26. Consider the following assertion (A)and reason (R) and select the correct code given below :
(A) : No man is perfect.
(R) : Some men are not perfect.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer:1
27. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called :
(1) Lexical
(2) Precising
(3) Stipulative
(4) Persuasive
Answer:3
28. If the proposition ‘No men are honest’ is taken to be false which of the following proposition/ propositions can be
claimed certainly to be true?
Propositions :
(1) All men are honest
(2) Some men are honest
(3) Some men are not honest
(4) No honest person is man
Answer:2
29. If we want to seek new knowledge of facts about the world, we must rely on reason of the
type:
(1) Inductive
(2) Deductive
(3) Demonstrative
(4) Physiological
Answer:1
145
(2) Unity of nature
(3) Uniformity of nature
(4) Harmony of nature
Answer:3
32. Among the following statements two are contradictory to each other. Select the correct code that represents them :
Statements :
(a) All poets are philosophers.
(b) Some poets are philosophers.
(c) Some poets are not philosophers.
(d) No philosopher is a poet.
Codes :
(1) (a)and(b)
(2) (a) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (b) and (c)
Answer:3
33. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
Select the code :
Statements :
(a) Venn diagram represents the arguments graphically.
(b) Venn diagram can enhance our understanding.
(c) Venn diagram may be called valid or invalid.
(d) Venn diagram is clear method of notation.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)
Answer:2
34. When the purpose of a de_nition is to explain the use or to eliminate ambiguity the definition is called:
(1) Stipulative
(2) Theoretical
(3) Lexical
(4) Persuasive
Codes:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer:3
35. “A man ought no more to value himself for being wiser than a woman if he owes his advantage to a better education
than he ought to boast of his courage for beating a man when his hands were tied.”
The above passage is an instance of
(1) Deductive argument
146
(2) Hypothetical argument
(3) Analogical argument
(4) Factual argument
Answer:3
36. By which of the following proposition, the proposition wise men are hardly afraid death is contradicted?
(1) Some wise men are afraid of death.
(2) All wise men are afraid of death.
(3) No wise men is afraid of death.
(4) Some wise men are not afraid of death.
Answer:2
37. When in a group of propositions, one proposition is claimed to follow from the others, the group of
propositions is called
(A) An argument
(B) A valid argument
(C) An explanation
(D) An invalid argument
Answer:A
38. Namita and Samita are brilliant and studious. Anita and Karabi are obedient and irregular Babita and
Namita are irregular but brilliant. Samita and Kabita are regular and obedient. Who among them is/are brilliant, obedient,
regular and studious?
(A) Samita alone
(B) Namita and Samita
(C) Kabita alone
(D) Anita alone
Answer:A
39. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms can both be true but can not both be false, the
relation between those two propositions is called
(A) contradictory
(B) contrary
(C) sub-contrary
(D) subaltern
Answer:C
40. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How many numbers have been written?
(A) 32
(B) 36
(C) 40
(D) 38
Answer:A
41. “If a large diamond is cut up into little bits, it will lose its value just as an army is divided up into small units of soldiers,
it loses its strength.” The argument put above may be called as
A) Analogical
(B) Deductive
147
(C) Statistical
(D) Causal
Answer:A
42. Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code which expresses a characteristic which is
not of inductive in character.
(A) The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.
(B) The conclusion is based on causal relation.
(C) The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.
(D) The conclusion is based on observation and experiment.
Answer:C
43. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those premises. Select the code that expresses
conclusion drawn validly from the premises (separately or jointly).
Premises:
(a) All dogs are mammals.
(b) No cats are dogs.
Conclusions:
(i) No cats are mammals.
(ii) Some cats are mammals.
(iii) No dogs are cats.
(iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:C
44. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the
relationship between them is called
(A) Contradictory
(B) Contrary
(C) Sub-contrary
(D) Sub-alternation
Answer:A
45. Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak Hindi as Archana does.
Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak
and follow English, Hindi, and Bengali?
(A) Archana
(B) Bulbul
(C) Ananya
(D) Krishna
Answer:C
148
(B) Always false
(C) Sometimes true, sometimes false
(D) Neither true nor false
Answer:D
47. When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called
(A) Circular argument
(B) Inductive argument
(C) Deductive argument
(D) Analogical argument
Answer:C
48. Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the Sun as the Earth
does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is. What type of argument is contained in
the above passage?
(A) Deductive
(B) Astrological
C) Analogical
(D) Mathematical
Answer:C
49. Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes.
Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
Premises:
(i) All saints are religious, (major)
(ii) Some honest persons are saints. (minor)
Codes :
(A) All saints are honest.
(B) Some saints are honest.
(C) Some honest persons are religious.
(D) All religious persons are honest
Answer:C
50. If the statement ‘some men are honest’ is false, which among the following statements will be true
Choose the correct code given below
(i) All men are honest
(ii) No men are honest
(iii) Some men are not honest
(iv) All men are dishonest
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (i) and (iv)
Answer:B
51. Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question Bee – Honey, Cow – Milk,
Teacher–?
149
(A) Intelligence
(B) Marks
(C) Lessons
(D) Wisdom
Answer:D
52. P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P, If R is the sister of S, how is Q related to
T?
(A) Wife
(B) Sister-in-law
(C) Brother-in-law
(D) Daughter-in-law
Answer:B
53. A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called
(A)Lexical
(B) Persuasive
(C) Stipulative
(D)Precisions
Answer:B
54. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
Statements:
(i) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation
(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms
(iii) In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.
(iv) In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism
Codes:
(A) (i) (ii) & (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) &(iv)
(C) (ii) (iii)& (iv)
(D) (i) (iii) &(iv)
Answer:B
56. By which of the following proposition, the proposition ‘some men are not honest’ is contradicted?
(A) All men are honest.
(B) Some men are honest.
(C) No men are honest.
(D) All of the above.
Answer:A
150
57. A stipulative definition is
(A) always true
(B) always false
(C) sometimes true sometimes false
(D) neither true nor false
Answer:D
58. Choose the appropriate alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.
Examiner – Examinee, Pleader – Client, Preceptor–?
(A) Customer
(B) Path-Finder
(C) Perceiver
(D) Disciple
Answer:D
59 .If the statement ‘most of the students are obedient’ is taken to be true, which one of the following pair of statements
can be claimed to be true?
I. All obedient persons are students.
II. All students are obedient.
III. Some students are obedient.
IV. Some students are not disobedient.
Codes :
(A) I&II
(B) II & III
(C) III & IV
(D) II&IV
Answer:C
151
62. In the expression ‘Nothing is larger than itself’ the relation ‘is larger than’ is
(A) antisymmetric
(B) asymmetrical
(C) intransitive
(D) irreflexive
Answer:D
63. Assertion (A) : There are more laws on the books today than ever before, and more crimes being committed than ever
before.
Reason (R) : Because to reduce crime we must eliminate the laws.
Choose the correct answer from below :
(A) (A) is true, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is false, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:A
64. If the proposition “All men are not mortal” is true then which of the following inferences is correct?
Choose from the code given below :
1. “All men are mortal” is true.
2. “Some men are mortal” is false.
3. “No men are mortal” is doubtful.
4. “All men are mortal” is false.
Code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Answer:B
152
(B) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(C) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(D) assess but not represent the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
Answer:A
69. Which of the following statements are false? Choose from the code given below :
1. Inductive arguments always proceed from the particular to the general.
2. A cogent argument must be inductively strong.
3. A valid argument may have a false premise and a false conclusion.
4. An argument may legitimately be spoken of as ‘true’ or ‘false’.
Code :
(A) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
Answer:C
70. Six persons A, B, C, D, E, and F are standing in a circle. B is between F and C, A is between E and D, F is to the left of
D. Who is between A and F?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
Answer:C
153
Data Interpretation
(A) W.
(B) X.
(C) Y.
(D) Z.
Answer: (A)
(A) W.
(B) X.
(C) Y.
(D) Z.
Answer: (B)
154
(A) W.
(B) X.
(C) Y.
(D) Z.
Answer: (A)
(A) I.
(B) II.
(C) III.
(D) IV.
Answer: (B)
5. Which candidate has secured the highest percentage in the papers appeared:
(A) W.
(B) X.
(C) Y.
(D) Z.
Answer: (D)
Consider the following two tables (I and II) that indicate the percentage of employees
working in various departments of an organization along with the ratio of men to women in the same
departments. The total number of employees in the organization is 4600. Based on these tables I
and II, answer the questions that follow (Questions no. 6 – 10):
155
Purchase 18
HR 11
Accounts 8
Production 15
(1) 86
(2) 102
(3) 80
(4) 92
Answer: (4)
7. What is the total number of employees working in the IT and HR departments together ?
(1) 1628
(2) 1646
(3) 1766
(4) 1702
Answer: (4)
8. What is the ratio of the total number of men to total number of women working in all the
departments put together?
(1) 63 : 41
(2) 41 : 27
156
(3) 53 : 47
(4) 27 : 19
Answer: (3)
9. The number of women in the Purchase department forms what percentage of the total number of
employees in the organization?
(1) 3%
(2) 6%
(3) 1%
(4) 12%
Answer: (1)
10. What is the ratio of the number of men in the Production department to the number of men in
the Marketing department ?
(1) 7 : 3
(2) 9 : 11
(3) 13 : 7
(4) 11 : 9
Answer: (2)
The table below embodies data on the sales revenue (Rs. in lakh) generated by a publishing house
during the years 2012-15 while selling books, magazines and journals as three categories of items.
Answer questions 11 — 13 based on the data contained in the table.
Sales Revenue (Z in lakh)
2012 2013 2014 2015
Journals 46 47 45 44
Magazines 31 39 46 51
Books 73 77 78 78
Total
11. The number of years in which there was an increase in revenue from at least two categories of
items, is
157
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
Answer: (3)
12. If the year 2016 were to show the same growth in terms of total sales revenue as the year
2015 over the year 2014, then the revenue in the year 2016 must be approximately:
Answer: (4)
13. In 2015, approximately what percent of total revenue came from books?
(1) 45%
(2) 55%
(3) 35%
(4) 25%
Answer: (1)
A University professor maintains data on MCA students tabulated by performance and gender of
the students. The data is kept on a computer hard disk, but accidently sonic of it is lost because of
a computer virus. Only the following could be recovered:
158
Male 10
Female 32
Total 30
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that
the following facts were self evident:
(1) 0
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.50
(4) 0.75
Answer: (2)
(1) 0
(2) 0.73
(3) 0.43
(4) 0.27
Answer: (2)
159
(1) 0
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 32
Answer: (1)
Answer the question 17 to 21 based on the data given in the table below.
17. What was the per capita ownership of two wheelers in India in the year 2011?
(1) ~0.0084%
(2) ~0.84%
(3) ~0.068%
(4) ~0.084%
18. What was the average decadal growth in the number of cars during 1961 – 2011?
(1) ~68%
160
(2) ~217%
(3) ~157%
(4) ~131%
Answer: (4)
19. In the year 2001, out of total number of vehicles, the number of passenger vehicles (4
wheelers) accounted for:
(1) ~24%
(2) ~31%
(3) ~43%
(4) ~14%
Answer: (4)
20. The maximum decadal growth in population of India is registered in the period:
Answer: (4)
21. In which year the decadal growth (%) in number of car surpassed that of the two wheelers?
(1) 2001
(2) 1981
(3) 2011
(4) 1991
Answer: (3)
161
The table below embodies data on the production, exports and per capita consumption of rice in
country P for the five years from 2012 to 2016. Answer questions 22 - 26 based on the data
contained in the table.
Where, Per Capita Consumption = (Consumption in million kg) / (Population in million) and consumption
(in million kg) = Production – Exports.
22. The Percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year was the highest in
which year?
(1) 2013
(2) 2014
(3) 2015
(4) 2016
Answer: (2)
23. What is the population of the country in the year 2014 (in million)?
(1) 2.64
(2) 2.72
(3) 2.79
(4) 2.85
Answer: (3)
24. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year:
162
(1) 2012
(2) 2013
(3) 2014
(4) 2015
Answer: (1)
(1) 2013
(2) 2014
(3) 2015
(4) 2016
Answer: (4)
26. What is the average consumption of rice (in million kg) over the years 2012 - 2016?
(1) 104
(2) 102.1
(3) 108
(4) 100.1
Answer: (4)
Based on the below table, answer question No. 27, 28, and 29.
163
F 30%
27. How many States have at least 50% or more electrified villages?
1. 3
2. 2
3. 4
4. 1
Answer: (3)
28. Which State has twice the percentage of electrified villages in comparison to State D?
1. State A
2. State C
3. State B
4. State D
Answer: (2)
29. In the year 2000, the total number of villages in State D was 15,000. In the year 2010, the
total number of villages had increased to 20,000 out of which 10,000 villages were yet to be
electrified. The % of villages not electrified in 2010 in state D has thus .
2. Gone up
3. Come down
4. Cannot be computed
Answer: (3)
164
State Name % of Population Below Education Index
A 20%
B 25%
C 23%
D 17%
E 16%
F 21%
G 15%
30. If the population for state F is 2.6 lakhs, what is the population below education index?
1. 51000 lakhs
2. 3900 lakhs
3. 0.39 lakhs
4. 49000 lakhs
Answer: (3)
31. If the total population of state was 5 lakhs while the population in state B was 2 lakhs, the
number of people below education index will be:
1. Cannot be calculated
2. Higher in State A
4. Higher in State B
Answer: (2)
1961 21 20
165
1971 24 25
1981 27 40
1991 30 50
2001 32 80
2011 35 100
Based on the above table, answer the questions from Sl. No. 32 to 37.
32. Which decade registered the maximum growth rate (%) of population?
(1) 1961-71
(2) 1971-81
(3) 1991-2001
(4) 2001-2011
Answer: 1
(2) ~ 9.82%
(3) ~ 6.73%
(4) ~ 5%
Answer: 2
34. Based on the average decadal growth rate, what will be the population in the year 2021?
(1) 40.34 million
Answer: 2
35. In the year 1951, what was the power availability per person?
(1) 100 W
166
(2) 200 W
(3) 400 W
(4) 500 W
Answer: 4
36. In which decade, the average power availability per person was maximum?
(1) 1981-1991
(2) 1991-2001
(3) 2001-2011
(4) 1971-1981
Answer: 3
37. By what percentage (%) the power production increased from 1951 to 2011?
(1) 100%
(2) 300%
(3) 600%
(4) 900%
Answer: 4
The following table shows the percentage profit (%) earned by two companies A and B during
the years 2011-15. Answer questions 38-40 based on the data contained in the table:
A B
2011 20 30
2012 35 40
2013 45 35
2014 40 50
2015 25 35
Where, percent (%) Profit = Income – Expenditure/ Expenditure X 100
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38. If the total expenditure of the two companies was Rs. 9 lakh in the year 2012 and the
expenditure of A and B were in the ratio 2: 1, then what was the income of the company A in
that year?
(1) Rs. 9.2 lakh
Answer: 2
(2) 42%
(3) 38%
(4) 40%
Answer: 3
40. In which year, the percentage profit earned by the company B is less than that of
company A?
(1) 2012
(2) 2013
(3) 2014
(4) 2015
Answer: 2
The following table shows the number of people in different age groups who responded to a
survey about their favourite style of music. Use this information to answer the questions that
follow: (Question 41-43) to the nearest whole percentage:
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41. Approximately what percentage of the total sample were aged 21-30?
(1) 31%
(2) 23%
(3) 25%
(4) 14%
Answer: 3
42. Approximately what percentage of the total sample indicates that Hip-Hop is their
favourite style of music?
(1) 6%
(2) 8%
(3) 14%
(4) 12%
Answer: 4
43. What percentage of respondents aged 31+ indicated a favourite style other than classical
music?
(1) 64%
(2) 60%
(3) 75%
(4) 50%
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Answer: 3
The table below embodies data on the sales revenue (` in lakh) generated by a publishing
house during the years 2012-15 while selling books, magazines and journals as three
categories of items. Answer questions 44 – 46 based on the data contained in the table.
44. In 2015, approximately what percent of total revenue came from books?
(1) 45%
(2) 55%
(3) 35%
(4) 25%
Answer: 1
45. The number of years in which there was an increase in revenue from at least two
categories of items, is
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
Answer: 3
46. If the year 2016 were to show the same growth in terms of total sales revenue as the
year 2015 over the year 2014, then the revenue in the year 2016 must be approximately:
(1) Rs. 194 lakh
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Answer: 4
A University professor maintains data on MCA students tabulated by performance and gender
of the students. The data is kept on a computer hard disk, but accidently some of it is lost
because of a computer virus. Only the following could be recovered:
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided
that the following facts were self evident:
(a) Half the students were either excellent or good.
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 32
Answer: 1
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.50
(4) 0.75
Answer: 2
49. Approximately, what proportion of good students are male?
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(1) 0
(2) 0.73
(3) 0.43
(4) 0.27
Answer: 2
Answer the questions 50 to 54 based on the data given in the table below.
Table: Number of registered vehicles in India and India’s population.
Year Total Two Cars, Jeeps, Buses Goods Others Population
vehicles wheelers Taxis (Lakhs) (Lakhs) vehicles (Lakhs) (India)
(Lakhs) (Lakhs) (Lakhs) (Millions)
50. The maximum decadal growth in population of India is registered in the period:
(1) 1961 - 1971
Answer: 1
51. In which year the decadal growth (%) in number of cars surpassed that of the two
wheelers?
(1) 1991
(2) 2001
(3) 1981
(4) 2011
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Answer: 4
52. What was the average decadal growth in the number of cars during 1961 - 2011?
(1) ~ 131%
(2) ~ 68%
(3) ~ 217%
(4) ~ 157%
Answer: 1
53. In the year 2001, out of total number of vehicles, the number of passenger vehicles (4
wheelers) accounted for:
(1) ~ 14%
(2) ~ 24%
(3) ~ 31%
(4) ~ 43%
Answer: 1
54. What was the per capita ownership of two wheelers in India in the year 2011?
(1) ~ 0.084%
(2) ~ 0.0084%
(3) ~ 0.84%
(4) ~ 0.068%
Answer: 2
The table below embodies data on the production, exports and per capita consumption of rice
in country P for the five years from 2012 to 2016. Answer questions 55 - 59 based on the
data contained in the table.
Year-wise Production, Exports and Per Capita Consumption of Rice
Year Production (in million kg) Exports (in million kg) Per Capita Consumption (in kg)
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2015 221 116 40.7
2016 215 88 42
Where, Per Capita Consumption = (Consumption in million kg) ÷ (Population in million) and consumption
(in million kg) = Production - Exports.
55. The percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year was the highest
in which year?
(1) 2013
(2) 2014
(3) 2015
(4) 2016
Answer: 2
56. What is the population of the country in the year 2014 (in million)?
(1) 2.64
(2) 2.72
(3) 2.79
(4) 2.85
Answer: 3
57. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year:
(1) 2012
(2) 2013
(3) 2014
(4) 2015
Answer: 1
(2) 2014
(3) 2015
(4) 2016
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Answer: 4
59. What is the average consumption of rice (in million kg) over the years 2012-2016?
(1) 104
(2) 102.1
(3) 108
(4) 100.1
Answer: 4
Consider the following two tables (I and II) that show the percentage of students in each
faculty at University and the number of foreign students in the Science faculty. These percentages
have been rounded to the nearest whole number. There are a total of 1049 students in the science
faculty. Study these tables I and II and answer the questions that follow (Questions 29 – 31):
29. Approximately, what percentage of students in the Science faculty is that of foreign students?
(A) 14%
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(B) 9%
(C) 30%
(D) 11%
Answer: (D)
(A) 420
(B) 410
(C) 390
(D) 400
Answer: (B)
31. In case, there are 34 European medical students, then approximately, what is their percentage
in the medicine faculty?
(A) 13%
(B) 18%
(C) 12%
(D) 15%
Answer: (D)
A college has a total of 800 MCA students, 80% of whom are in class MCA-III and
remaining are equally divided between class MCA-I and class MCA-II. The proportion of female
students and the proportion of vegetarian students in the college are indicated as under through
the table.
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Class Female (F) Vegetarian (V)
MCA-I 0.40
MCA-II 0.45 0.50
MCA-III 0.55
Total 0.525 0.53
For example, in the table above, 0.525 is the total proportion of female students and 0.53 is
the total proportion of vegetarian students in the college.
(A) 40
(B) 45
(C) 50
(D) 55
Answer: (D)
(A) 40
(B) 45
(C) 50
(D) 55
Answer: (A)
34. How many total non-vegetarian students are there in class MCA-I and class MCA-II?
(A) 72
(B) 88
177
(C) 78
(D) 92
Answer: (B)
The following table shows the percentage profit (%) earned by two companies A and B during the
years 2011 - 15. Answer questions 1 - 3 based on the data contained in the table:
51. If the total expenditure of the two companies was Rs. 9 lakh in the year 2012 and the
expenditure of A and B were in the ratio 2:1, then what was the income of the company A in that
year?
Answer: (B)
(A) 35%
(B) 42%
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(C) 38%
(D) 40%
Answer: (C)
53. In which year, the percentage profit earned by the company B is less than that of company A?
(A) 2012
(B) 2013
(C) 2014
(D) 2015
Answer: (B)
The table shows the number of people in different age groups who responded to a survey about
their favourite style of music. Use this information to answer the questions that follow:
Ages ⇒ (years) 15 - 20 (years) 21 - 30 (years) 31+ (years)
Style of Music ⇓
Classical 6 4 17
Pop 7 5 5
Rock 6 12 14
Jazz 1 4 11
Blues 2 3 15
Hip-Hop 9 3 4
Ambient 2 2 2
54. Approximately what percentage of the total sample were aged 21 - 30?
(A) 31%
(B) 23%
(C) 25%
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(D) 14%
Answer: (C)
55. Approximately what percentage of the total sample indicates that Hip-Hop is their favourite
style of music?
(A) 6%
(B) 8%
(C) 14%
(D) 12%
Answer: (D)
56. What percentage of respondents aged 31 + indicated a favorite style other than classical music?
(A) 64%
(B) 60%
(C) 75%
(D) 50%
Answer: (C)
Given below in the table is the decadal data of Population and Electrical Power Production of a
country.
180
watt
Based on the above table, answer the questions from Sl. No. 57 to 62.
57. Which decade registered the maximum growth rate (%) of population? (A)
1961-71
(B) 1971-81
(B) 1991-2001
(D) 2001-2011
Answer: (A)
(A) ~12.21%
(B) ~9.82%
(C) ~6.73%
(D) ~5%
Answer: (B)
59. Based on the average decadal growth rate, what will be the population in the year 2021?
181
Answer: (B)
60. In the year 1951, what was the power availability per person?
(A) 100 W
(B) 200 W
(C) 400 W
(D) 500 W
Answer: (D)
61. In which decade, the average power availability per person was maximum?
(A) 1981-1991
(B) 1991-2001
(C) 2001-2011
(D) 1971-1981
Answer: (C)
62. By what percentage (%) the power production increased from 1951 o 2011?
(A) 100%
(B) 300%
(C) 600%
(D) 900%
Answer: (D)
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A company has 20 employees with their age (in years) and salary (in thousand rupees per month)
mentioned against each of them:
S.No. Age (in years) Salary (in thousand rupees per month)
1. 44 35
2. 32 20
3. 54 45
4. 42 35
5. 31 20
6. 53 60
7. 42 50
8. 51 55
9. 34 25
10. 41 30
11. 33 30
12. 31 35
13. 30 35
14. 37 40
15. 44 45
16. 36 35
17. 34 35
18. 49 50
19. 43 45
20. 45 50
63. What is the average salary (in thousand per month) in the age group 40-50 years? (A)
36.5
(B) 35
(C) 42.5
(D) 40.5
Answer: (C)
64. What is the fraction of employees getting salary less than the average salary of all the
employees?
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(A) 47%
(B) 45%
(C) 50%
(D) 55%
Answer: (D)
65. What is the frequency (%) in the class interval of 30-35 years?
(A) 35%
(B) 20%
(C) 25%
(D) 30%
Answer: (A)
66. What is the fraction (%) of employees getting salary > 40,000 per month?
(A) 32%
(B) 45%
(C) 50%
(D) 35%
Answer: (B)
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(B) 40.3 years
Answer: (B)
68. Classify the data of age of each employee in class interval of 5 years. Which class interval of 5
years has the maximum average salary?
Answer: (A)
PROBLEM
The following table represents Maximum marks of five subjects and marks obtained by five
students in five subjects.
» Explain it
Correct Option: B
185
Marks obtained by Ragini in Chemistry and Biology together = 45 + 38 = 83
» Explain it
Correct Option: B
Marks obtained by all the students in Mathematics = 65 + 52 + 78 + 82 + 96 = 373
Marks obtained by all the students in Chemistry = 45 + 62 + 70 + 65 + 64 = 306
Required ratio = 373 : 306
Hence, option B is correct.
71
Find the overall percentage of Sohan in all the subjects.
A 62.7%
B 58.4%
C 77.3%
D 79.1%
» Explain it
Correct Option: C
Total marks in all the subjects = 75 + 100 + 75 + 75 + 120 = 445
Marks obtained by Sohan in all the subjects = 50 + 78 + 70 + 58 + 88 = 344
344
Reqd. % = = 77.3%
445
Hence, option C is correct.
72
Find the difference between percentage of marks obtained by Mohan in English and that of
Rohan in Physics.
A 6.67%
B 4.59%
C 5.53%
D 3.12%
» Explain it
Correct Option: A
186
Percentage of marks obtained by Mohan in English
104
= × 100 = 86.67%
120
Percentage of marks obtained by Rohan in Physics
60
= × 100 = 80%
75
Required difference = 86.67 – 80 = 6.67%
Hence, option A is correct.
73
Find the sum of marks obtained by Rohan in all the subjects.
A 515
B 427
C 611
D 317
» Explain it
Correct Option: D
Sum of marks obtained by Rohan in all the subjects = 60 + 52 + 62 + 55 + 88 = 317
Hence, option D is correct.
PROBLEM-2
Read the above table and answer below mentioned questions 74 to 78.
(A) W.
(B) X.
(C) Y.
187
(D) Z.
Answer: (A)
(A) W.
(B) X.
(C) Y.
(D) Z.
Answer: (B)
(A) W.
(B) X.
(C) Y.
(D) Z.
Answer: (A)
77. In which paper the lowest marks were obtained by the candidates:
(A) I.
(B) II.
(C) III.
(D) IV.
Answer: (B)
78. Which candidate has secured the highest percentage in the papers appeared:
(A) W.
188
(B) X.
(C) Y.
(D) Z.
Answer: (D)
189
Prepared by
Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL)
(B.Com, M.Com. MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)
(NET- Management- 1Time)
ICT
190
• SQL – Structured Query Language
• RW – Re-Writeable
• SDT – Serial Data Transmission
• CAN – Campus Area Network
• SIMMs – Single In-line Memory Module
• PAN – Personal Area Network
• DIMMs – Dual In-line Memory Module
• CMOS – Complimentary Metaoxide Semi Conductor
• ENIAC – Electronic Number Integrator and Calculator
• CMD – Command
• EDSAC – Electronic Dialog Storage Automatic Computer
• MAC – Media Access Control
• IC – Integrated Circuit
• LSIC – Large Scale Integrated Circuit
• DIR – Directory
• GIGO – Gabbage in Gabbage Out
• PHP – PHP Hypertext Preprocessor
• DOC – Document
• PDT – Parallel Data Transmission
• PDA – Personal Digital Assistant
• USSD – Unstructured Supplementary Service Data
• WWW – World Wide Web
• COBOL – Common Basic Oriented Language
• CCNP – Cisco Certified Network Professionals
• BASIC – Beginner All Purpose Symbolic Instruction Code
• CEH – Certified Ethical Hacking
• TCP – Transmission Control Protocol
• CSS – Cascading Style Sheet
• CISCO – Computer Information System Company
• XXS – Cross Site Scripting
• XML – Extensible Mark-up Language
• HTML – Hypertext Markup Language
• CCNA – Cisco Certified Network Associate
• RFI – Remote File Inclusion
• HTTP –Hypertext Transfer Protocol
• DDOS –Distribution Denial of Service
• VPN –Virtual Private Network
• SEO –Search Engine Optimization
• IP - Internet Protocol
BIOS – This is the Basic Input Output System which controls the computer, telling it what
operations to perform. These instructions are on a chip that connects to the motherboard.
BYTE – A byte is a storage unit for data.
191
CPU – This stands for the Central Processing Unit of the computer. This is like the
computer’s brain.
MAC – This is an abbreviation for Macintosh, which is a type of personal computer made by
the Apple Computer company.
OS – This is the Operating System of the computer. It is the main program that runs on a
computer and begins automatically when the computer is turned on.
PC – This is the abbreviation for personal computer. It refers to computers that are IBM
compatible.
PDF – This represents the Portable Document Format which displays _les in a format that is
ready for the web.
RAM – This stands for Random Access Memory which is the space inside the computer that
can be accessed at one time. If you increase the amount of RAM, then you will increase the
computer’s speed. This is because more of a particular program is able to be loaded at one
time.
ROM – This is Read Only Memory which is the instruction for the computer and cannot be
altered.
VGA – The Video Graphics Array is a system for displaying graphics. It was developed by
IBM.
WYSIWYG – This initialism stands for What You See Is What You Get. It is pronounced
“wizziwig” and basically means that the printer will print what you see on your monitor.
FTP – This is a service called File Transport Protocol which moves a _le between computers
using the Internet.
HTML – Hyper Text Markup Language formats information so it can be transported on the
Internet.
HTTP – Hypertext Transfer Protocol is a set of instructions for the software that controls
the movement of files on the Internet.
IP – This stands for Internet Protocol which is the set of rules that govern the systems
connected to the Internet. IP Address is a digital code specific to each computer that is
hooked up to the Internet.
ISP – The Internet Service Provider is the company which provides Internet service so you
can connect your computer to the Internet.
LAN – This stands for Local Area Network which is the servers that your computer
connects to in your geographic area.
PPP – Point-to-Point Protocol is the set of rules that allow your computer to use the
Internet protocols using a phone line and modem.
URL – This is the Uniform Resource Locator which is a path to a certain le on the World
Wide Web.
USB – The Universal Serial Bus is used for communications between certain devices. It can
connect keyboards, cameras, printers, mice, ash drives, and other devices. Its use has
expanded from personal computers to PDAs, smart phones, and video games, and is used as a
power cord to connect devices to a wall outlet to charge them.
VR – Virtual Reality simulates a three-dimensional scene on the computer and has the
capability of interaction. This is widely used in gaming.
VRML – Virtual Reality Markup Language allows the display of 3D images.
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Basic of Internet
Domain name country codes include, but are not limited to:
.au - Australia
.de - Germany
.fr - France
.in - India
.uk - United Kingdom
.us - United States
SSL- The acronym SSL stands for Secure Sockets Layer. SSL is a secure encryption Web
protocol used to make data safe when transmitted over the Internet.
Web Hosting- A web host is a business/company that offers space, storage, and
connectivity in order to enable a website to be viewed by Internet users.
Web Server- the Term Web server refers to a specialized computer system or dedicated
server specifically designed to host or deliver Web sites.
Hypertext Markup Language is the programming language of WebPages. HTML commands
your web browser to display text and graphics in a specific fashion. Beginning internet users
193
don’t need to know HTML coding to enjoy the WebPages the programming language delivers
to browsers.
XML is extensible Markup Language, a cousin to HTML. XML focuses on cataloging and
databasing the text content of a web page.
XHTML is a combination of HTML and XML.
HTTP- The client/server protocol used to exchange hypertext documents is called HTTP
(Hyper Text Transport Protocol). The main thing you need to know is that HTTP is a
language spoken between your web browser (client software) and a web server (server
software) so that they can communicate with each other and exchange files
Basic of e-Mail
Electronic mail is a method of exchanging messages between people using electronic devices.
Invented by Ray Tomlinson, email first entered limited use in the 1960s and by the mid-
1970s had taken the form now recognized as email.
Email, short for Electronic Mail, consists of messages which are sent and received using the
Internet. There are many different email services available that allow you to create an
email account and send and receive email and attachments, many of which are free.
Today, the top three webmail providers are Yahoo!, Microsoft’s Outlook.com (previously
Hotmail), and Google’s Gmail.
Many people also have an email address hosted by their company, school, or organization.
These email addresses are usually for professional purposes.
The first five lines of an E-mail message is called E-mail header. The header part comprises
of following fields:
From
Date
To
Subject
CC
BCC
E-mail Protocols are set of rules that help the client to properly transmit the information to or
from the mail server.
POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) - This is a simple, standardized protocol that allows users to
access their mailboxes on the Internet and download messages to their computers. The
simple design of POP3 allows casual email users who have a temporary Internet connection
(dial-up access) to access emails. They can read their emails, draft new emails or reply to
emails while they are offline, and can send these emails when they are back online.
IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) – This is a standard protocol used for email
transfer by users. Like POP3, it also supports both online and offline modes of email access.
The email message is downloaded to the user’s machine only when a specific request is made
to read it. Users can download mails to their computers while keeping a copy on the server.
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The mails on the server are the primary copy and anything changed on the local machine is
updated by what is on the serve
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) – As the name suggests, SMTP is a simple, text-
based protocol that works best when devices are interconnected to each other. However,
SMTP protocol can only be used to send emails. Unlike POP3 and IMAP protocols, SMTP
does not provide the functionality to the users to retrieve emails from the server. This
limits the use of SMTP to some extent. One of the main issues with SMTP is the lack of
sender email authentication. SMTP lacks security features too and thus users get spam
emails.
195
e-Shodh Sindhu
Based on the recommendation of an Expert Committee, the MHRD has formed e-ShodhSindhu
merging three consortia initiatives, namely UGC-INFONET Digital Library Consortium, NLIST and
INDEST-AICTE Consortium. More than 15,000 international electronic journals and e-books are
made available to all the higher educational institutions through the e shodh Sindhu initiative. This
allows access to be best education resources in the world using digital mode
Virtual Labs
Physical distances and the lack of resources make us unable to perform experiments, especially
when they involve sophisticated instruments. Also, good teachers are always a scarce resource.
Web-based and video-based courses address the issue of teaching to some extent. Conducting joint
experiments by two participating institutions and also sharing costly resources has always been a
challenge.
e-Yantra
An MHRD initiative under NMEICT Programme, named “e-Yantra” is implemented to incorporate
Robotics into engineering education with the objective of engaging students through exciting
hands-on application of mathematics, computer science, and engineering principles. Creation of
robotic platforms has been very successfully demonstrated during Phase-I of the project.
Presently, e-Yantra has been implemented in 100 colleges.
Campus Connectivity
The National Mission on Education through Information and Communication Technology (NMEICT)
aims to leverage the potential of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in teaching and
learning process. The Mission also aims to provide 20 Broadband connections of 512 Kbps speed to
over 25,000 colleges and 2000 polytechnics and optical ber connectivity one Gbps to 419
universities/ university level institutions in the country which includes internet facility.
Talk to a Teacher
Talk to a Teacher developed by IIT Bombay, is an initiative of the National Mission on Education
through ICT, funded by MHRD to provide free access to a few selected graduate and postgraduate
courses, taught at IIT Bombay by distinguished faculty members and scholars at large.
Ask A Question
Ask A Question is a unique platform through which students from science and engineering colleges
all over India can ask questions and faculty from IIT Bombay answers them. Students can ask
questions either through an online forum or during an interactive live session.
e-Acharya
e-Acharya also called ‘Integrated e-Content Portal’ of NMEICT, is the o_cial repository of NMEICT
econtent and all content produced under NMEICT is being put at this Repository platform at
INFILIBNET Centre Gandhinagar, so to apply basic tenets of preservation for digital content,
implement standard Metadata schema of different types for the digital content and ensure their
long-term availability.
196
E-Kalpa
Another MHRD/ NMEICT initiative named “e-Kalpa” creating Digital-Learning Environment for
Design in India has successfully demonstrated the achievement of the following project objectives,
on completion of its phase-I:
1. Digital online content for learning Design with e-Learning programs on Design
2. Digital Design Resource Database including the craft sector
3. Social networking for Higher Learning with collaborative Learning Space for Design
4. Design inputs for products of National Mission in Education through ICT
e- Vidwan
The ‘Information and Library Network’ (INFLIBNET) Centre took the initiative called “Vidwan:
Expert Database and National Researcher’s Network” with the financial support from NMEICT.
Objectives:-
collect academic and research profiles of scientists, faculty and research scientists working in
leading academic and R&D organizations in India and abroad;
quickly and conveniently provide information about experts to peers, prospective collaborators,
funding agencies, policy makers and research scholars in the country;
establish communication directly with the experts who possess the expertise needed by research
scholars;
identify peer reviewers for review of articles and research proposals; and
create information exchanges and networking opportunities among scientist.
NIRF
launched on 29th September 2015 by MHRD, this framework intents to outlines a methodology for
ranking the institutions across our country. The Core Committee set up by MHRD arrived at the
broad level understanding and hence give overall recommendations. Then only the methodology has
been driven.
GIAN
197
Aimed to tap the talent of the strong academic network of the country-scientists, entrepreneurs,
at international level. To encourage their overall engagement with Higher Education Institutes in
India
UAY
The major objectives of the UAY scheme are to promote innovation & development in IITs
addressing the issues of the manufacturing industries; to spur the innovative mindset; to coordinate
the action between the academia & industry and to strengthen the labs & the research facilities.
IMPRINT
IMPRINT-Impacting Research Innovation & Technology. First of this kind Pan-IIT + IISc joint
initiative supported by MHRD to address the major challenges in science and engineering. These
challenges are must to fix and India must champion in that to enable and empower the country for
self-reliance and inclusive growth.
RUSA
Rashtriya Uchchtar Shiksha Abhiyan. It is the Centrally Sponsored Scheme planned by the Central
Government has to implement the strategic funding, reforms, and improvements in the Higher
Education sector at the state level.
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E-District (Various certificates/ licences, social welfare scheme, RTI, Land registration,
etc)
EPIC(Election Commission services)
IRCTC
e-Panchayat
e-Court Mission Mode Project (MMP)
NTA- National Testing Agency
National Agriculture Market (eNAM)
Digital India
The Digital India programme is a flagship programme of the Government of India with a vision to
transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.
The focus is on being transformative – to realize IT + IT = IT
The focus is on making technology central to enable change.
It is an Umbrella Programme – covering many departments.
MCQ
2. Which of the following is a type of malware intentionally inserted into a software system that
will set off a malicious function when specified conditions are met?
(1) Worm
(2) Trojan
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(3) Spyware
(4) Logic bomb
Answer: 4
6. A computer has a main memory of 960 Kbytes. What is the exact number of bytes contained in
this memory?
(1) 960 × 8
(2) 960 × 1000
(3) 960 × 1024
(4) 960 × 1024 × 1024
Answer: 2
7. The convenient place to store contact information for quick retrieval in e-mail is:
(1) Address box
(2) Message box
(3) Address book
(4) Message book
Answer : 3
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(3) BCC: allows the sender of a message to conceal the recipient entered in the BCC: field from the
other recipients.
(4) BCC: allows recipients to be visible to all other recipients of the message.
Answer: 3
9. Jatin’s laptop has an LCD screen. The acronym LCD stands for:
(1) Light Crystal Display
(2) Liquid Compact Display
(3) Light Compact Display
(4) Liquid Crystal Display
Answer: 4
11. With respect to computers, which one of the following best describes phishing?
(1) A malicious program installed on a system that stays concealed to avoid detection.
(2) A method of bypassing normal authentication procedures over a connection to a network.
(3) A type of unsolicited bulk email of identical messages sent to numerous recipients.
(4) An attempt to acquire sensitive information for malicious reasons, by masquerading as a
trustworthy entity.
Answer : 4
13. A/An is a computer program that spreads by inserting copies of itself into other
executable code or documents.
(1) Operating system
(2) Computer Virus
(3) Firewall
(4) Anti-virus
Answer:2
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15. One Terabyte (TB) of memory is equal to:
(1) 1024 KB
(2) 1024 × 1024 KB
(3) 1024 × 1024 × 1024 KB
(4) 1024 × 1024 × 1024 Bytes
Answer :3
16. Which one of the following processes is the main task for the computer in mapping the
geographical data?
1. Data storage
2. Data visualization
3. Data retrieving and drawing
4. Data Collection
Answer: 3.
19. Most World Wide Web pages contain commands in the language
1. NIH
2. URL
3. HTML
4. IRC
Answer: 3
20. Which one of the following would not be considered as a form of secondary storage?
1. Floppy Disk
2. Optical Disk
3. RAM
4. Flash Drive
Answer: 3
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2. Wild Area Network
3. Wide Area Networking
4. Wide Area Network
Answer: 4
23. Bluetooth is a type of radio wave information transmission system that is good for about
1) 30 feet
2) 30 yards
3) 30 miles
4) 300 miles
Answer: 1
24. Which of the following statements, regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE ?
P : ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian Classical Technology.
Q : Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audio-visual, telephone and
computer networks through a common cabling system.
(1) P only
(2) Q only
(3) P and Q
(4) Neither P nor Q
Answer: (2)
25. A new Laptop has been produced that weighs less, is smaller and uses less power than previous
Laptop models. Which of the following technologies has been used to accomplish this ?
(1) Universal Serial Bus Mouse
(2) Faster Random Access Memory
(3) Blu Ray Drive
(4) Solid State Hard Drive
Answer: (4)
26. Given the following email _elds, which of the email addresses will ‘swami’ be able to see when he
receives the message ?
To… [email protected]
Cc… [email protected]; [email protected]
Bcc… [email protected]; [email protected]
(1) [email protected]
(2) [email protected]; [email protected]; [email protected]
(3) [email protected]; [email protected]
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(4) [email protected]; [email protected]; [email protected]; [email protected]
Answer: (2)
27. Put the following units of storage into the correct order, starting with the smallest unit first
and going down to the largest unit :
(a) Kilobyte (b) Byte (c) Megabyte
(d) Terabyte (e) Gigabyte (f) Bit
Give your answer from the following code :
(1) (f), (b), (a), (c), (d), (e)
(2) (f), (b), (a), (d), (e), (c)
(3) (f), (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
(4) (f), (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)
Correct answer is (3) i.e. bit<Byte<KB<MB<GB<TB
28. With regard to computer memory, which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE ?
P : Read Only Memory (ROM) is ‘volatile’ memory.
Q : Random Access Memory (RAM) is ‘volatile’ memory.
R : Secondary Memory is ‘volatile’ memory.
(1) P only
(2) Q only
(3) P and Q only
(4) P and R only
Correct answer should be (2)
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(1) Directory
(2) Protocol
(3) URL
(4) Domain
Answer: (3)
35. Which of the following correctly lists computer memory types from highest to lowest speed ?
(1) Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM); Cache Memory; CPU Registers
(2) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM)
(3) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage
(4) Cache Memory; CPU Registers; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage
Answer: (2)
37. With regard to a word processing software, the process of combining static information in a
publication together with variable information in a data source to create one merged publication is
called
(1) Electronic mail
(2) Data sourcing
(3) Mail merge
(4) Spam mail
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Answer: (3)
38. DVD technology uses an optical media to store the digital data. DVD is an acronym for
(1) Digital Vector Disc
(2) Digital Volume Disc
(3) Digital Versatile Disc
(4) Digital Visualization Disc
Answer: (3)
39. The statement “the study, design, development, implementation, support or management of
computer based information systems, particularly software applications and computer Hardware”
refers to
(1) Information Technology (IT)
(2) Information and Collaborative Technology (ICT)
(3) Information and Data Technology (IDT)
(4) Artificial Intelligence (AI)
Answer: (1)
40. If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000, then the binary equivalent of the
decimal number 51 is given by
(1) 110011 (2) 110010 (3) 110001 (4) 110100
Answer: (1)
43. is a type of memory circuitry that holds the computer’s start-up routine.
(1) RIM (Read Initial Memory)
(2) RAM (Random Access Memory)
(3) ROM (Read Only Memory)
(4) Cache Memory
Answer: (3)
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45. NMEICT stands for :
(1) National Mission on Education through ICT
(2) National Mission on E-govemance through ICT
(3) National Mission on E-commerce through ICT
(4) National Mission on E-learning through ICT
Answer: (1)
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54. Which of the following is not open source software ?
(1) Internet explorer (2) Fedora Linux (3) Open office (4) Apache HTTP server
Answer: (3)
55. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal number 25 ?
(1) 10101 (2) 01101 (3) 11001 (4) 11011
Answer: (3)
60. gif. jpg, bmp, png are used as extensions for _les which store
(A) audio data (B) image data (C) video data (D) text data
Answer: (B)
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63. When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by
(A) RAM (B) ROM
(C) CD-ROM (D) TCP
Answer: (B)
64. Which one of the following is not. the same as the other three ?
(A) MAC address
(B) Hardware address
(C) Physical address
(D) IP address
Answer: (D)
67. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format ?
(A) PNG (B) GIF
(C) BMP (D)GUI
Answer: (D)
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70. Internal communication within institutions is done through
(A) LAN
(B) WAN
(C) EBB
(D) MMS
Answer: (A)
72. A hard disk is divided into tracks which is further subdivided into
(A) Clusters (B) Sectors (C) Vectors (D) Head
Answer: (B)
73. A computer program that translates a program statement by statement into machine language is
called a / an
(A) Compiler (B) Simulator (C) Translator (D) Interpreter
Answer: (D)
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(B) Alternate Local Unit
(C) Alternating Logic Unit
(D) Arithmetic Logic Unit
Answer: (D)
78. A Personal Computer uses a number of chips mounted on a circuit board called
(A) Microprocessor
(B) System Board
(C) Daughter Board
(D) Mother Board
Answer: (D)
82. Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value which stands for
(A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change
Answer: (B)
84. Minimum number of bits required to store any 3 digit decimal number is equal to
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 8
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(D) 10
Answer: (D)
88. If (y)x represents a number y in base x, then which of the following numbers is smallest of all ?
(A) (1111)2 (B) (1111)8 (C) (1111)10 (D) (1111)16
Answer: (A)
89. High level programming language can be converted to machine language using which of the
following ?
(A) Oracle (B) Compiler (C) Mat lab (D) Assembler
Answer: (B)
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Prepared by
Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL)
(B.Com, M.Com. MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)
(NET- Management- 1Time)
PEOPLE, DEVELOPMENT AND ENVIRONMENT
In India, Prime Minister Sh. Narendra Modi with his High-Level Steering Committee periodically
reviews and refines the National Indicator Framework (NIF) to monitor the Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs).
SDG India Index scores within each Goal, leading States/UT’s can be identified under each goal-
1. No poverty – Tamil Nadu and Pondicherry
2. Zero hunger – Goa and Delhi
3. Good health and well being – Kerala and Pondicherry
4. Quality education – Kerala
5. Gender equality – Kerala, Sikkim and Andaman & Nicobar Islands
6. Clean water and sanitation – Gujarat, Chandigarh, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Lakshadweep
7. Affordable and clean energy – Tamil Nadu and Chandigarh
8. Decent work and economic growth – Goa and Daman & Diu
9. Industry innovation and infrastructure – Manipur, Delhi and Pondicherry
10. Reduced inequality – Meghalaya, Mizoram, Telangana, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, Daman & Diu
and Lakshadweep
11. Sustainable cities and communities – Goa and Andaman & Nicobar Islands
12. Life on land – Assam, Chhattisgarh, Goa, Manipur, Odisha, Uttarakhand, Dadra & Nagar
Haveli and Lakshadweep
13. Peace, justice and strong institutions – Himachal Pradesh and Pondicherry
The National Indicator Framework (NIF) helps to monitor and report on the progress
of SDGs on the national level.
To achieve the deadline of 2030, the United Nations has introduced many initiatives so
that it could be more effective, organized and accountable.
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Human and Environment Interaction: Anthropogenic activities and their impacts on the
Environment
Energy resources
Renewable and non-renewable resources play a major role in energy resources. For global
Industrialization, fossil fuels are the main energy source, but as they are non-renewable the
quantity is limited and is not sustainable for longer period. Another main cause of climatic change is
due to the burning of fossil fuels. The wood we know is a renewable source, when we cut the trees,
it will re-grow but this also causes deforestation.
Water resources
The direct use of water can be categorized into three main categories –
Domestic use
Agricultural use
Industrial use
Environmental Issues
Environmental issues like
global warming
air pollution
water pollution
noise pollution
space pollution
heat pollution
acid rain
waste disposal
ozone layer depletion
use of fossil energy
greenhouse gas releases
climatic changes, etc
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Stratosphere
Ionosphere, and
Exosphere.
Thus the three basic divisions of the physical environment may be termed as
Lithospheric Environment
Hydrospheric Environment
Atmospheric Environment.
The biotic or living component consists of flora and fauna including man as an important factor.
Thus the biotic environment may be divided into
i) Plants Environment and
ii) Animals Environment.
Environmental pollution
There are several kinds of pollution, they are as follows:
Air Pollution – Air pollution is mainly caused due to the release of toxic gases or smokes
from the industries or small factories.
Water Pollution – As natural water resources is diminishing day by day, water has become a
scarcity. The major issues due to which water pollution are cause are the lakes and rivers
are filled with the sewage, garbage or liquid wastes from the households, agricultural lands
and factories. They contain harmful chemicals which makes the water poisonous for the
aquatic plants and animals.
Waste disposal/garbage pollution – When there are no proper waste disposal mechanisms,
the garbage gets accumulated which cause garbage pollution. There should be a proper
waste disposal system so that it does not pollute our environment.
Noise Pollution – Noise pollution is caused when there are excessive noises which are
disturbing others, creating physical and mental health like sleep disturbance, hearing loss,
hypertension, etc. They are mainly due to noise from the machines, transportation systems,
aircraft, trains, etc.
Population growth – population growth has become a global problem. Population growth is the
major cause of the degradation of the environment. With the increase in population, people
require land for buildings, more minerals, more water and more energy. The effects include
uses of chemical fertilizers, insecticides, deforestation, increased population and heavy
transportation, etc.
Urbanization – with the increase in population, people moving from villages to towns and
cities causing chaos as they face various problems like lack of water, sanitation, houses at
an affordable price, roads, public transport, traffic problems, congestions, fresh air, as well
as an unsafe social environment.
Agricultural development – agricultural practices causes ecological and social harm in
developing countries. They pollute the environment in various ways like:
-Through chemical fertilizers, pesticides and insecticides
-Through unreasonable facilities and other irrigation processes.
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-By making changes in biological communities.
Industrialization – industrial revolution had brought drastic changes in manufacturing,
agriculture, animal husbandry and transportation among various other things. Without
proper treatment, these industries discharge wastewater into rivers causing water pollution.
Misuse of natural resources to meet the industrial demands has resulted in,
-reduction of forests due to the cutting of trees.
-digging of land for mining purposes.
-lowering of groundwater level due to excessive extraction of groundwater.
Deforestation – forests play a vital role in India for its economy, social and cultural.
Deforestation gives problems to various issues like soil erosion, increase of residue in the
rivers, increase of floods and droughts. Growth of greenhouse effects which destructs the
atmospheric storms, etc., damage to agricultural crops due to floods and droughts results in
loss of economy. It also results in a decrease in agricultural production, the supply of raw
materials to the industries and building matters, etc.
Electronic waste (E-waste) – electronics, telecommunications, and computerizations are
inseparable in this fast developing economy like India. But, these electronic devices contain
toxic substances and their disposal and recycling become a health issue. E-waste is growing
very fast as people changing their devices more frequently than ever before. Each year
they are just dumped or burnt. Though global initiatives have been started in 2006 to phase
out chemicals from electronic devices with the launch of the Restriction of Hazardous
Substances Directive (RoHS) in Europe.
Thermal power plants – power plants mainly use coal for generating electricity. Energy in
the form of electricity is a basic requirement for any developmental activities and can be
generated by various methods, materials and mechanisms. The wear and tear of plant and
machinery, low thermal efficiency, choking and scaling of furnaces results to a large amount
of fly ash. Due to little land space, thermal plants cannot afford an ash pond and they let
the waste run into the nearby river or stream, choking the drainage system. Coal-based
thermal plants pollute the atmosphere by emitting gaseous substance like sulphur dioxide
(SO2), Nitrogen oxide etc., causing acid rain, damage of soil, vegetation and aquatic life of
that region.
It is preferred that power plants should be placed more on wastelands but with the course of time,
we can find that some of the cultivable areas are covered for ash mount site. The presence of fly
ash is very harmful to the lungs as it affects the tissues of the respiratory tract when inhaled.
Modern productive technology – though modern technologies and techniques have enabled
the man to increase his comfort level. But, these also have created several environmental
problems affecting our forests, rivers, streams, etc. The most dangerous is the production
of toxic chemicals, synthetic materials. Disposal of plastics is also a main issue for any
developing or advanced countries. Another major which is affecting our environment is the
disposal of nuclear wastes coming out of nuclear reactor plants.
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Tobacco smoke – it generates harmful chemicals and causes cancer to the smoker. It also
affects the passive smoker like burning sensation in the eyes or nose, throat irritation, etc.
Volatile organic compounds – they can cause irritation of the eyes, throat, nose, headaches
and nausea. They even can damage the liver and other parts of the body.
Lead – the exposure damages the nervous system, digestive problems, cancer. It is also
dangerous to small children.
Ozone – the exposure to this gas causes itching on the eyes, burning and watery. It also
increases respiratory disorders like asthma. It also lowers the resistance to colds and
pneumonia.
Nitrogen oxide – this gas makes the children disposed to respiratory diseases in winters.
Carbon monoxide – carbon monoxide combines with hemoglobin and lessens the required
oxygen that enters our blood through lungs. This causes changes in the function of the
affected organs like the brain and cardiovascular system. It also affects the concentration
level, makes one sleepy.
Sulphur dioxide – sulphur dioxide in the air are caused due to the increase in the burning of
fossil fuels. It causes diseases of lungs and other lung disorders like wheezing and
shortness of breath.
Suspended particulate matter (SPM) – they consist of dust, mist, fumes and smoke. The
main components of SPM that affects the health are lead, nickel, arsenic and those present
in diesel exhaust. When we breathe these particles it affects our lungs causing lung damage
and respiratory problems.
Soil pollution
Soil pollution happens when the toxic chemicals, pollutants or contaminants in the soil are high
causing risk to the plants, wildlife, human beings and to the soil.
The major causes of soil pollution are:
Use of chemicals like pesticides, herbicides, insecticides and fertilizers are the main
factors.
The breaking of the underground storage tank
Leakage of wastes from landfills
Direct discharge of industrial wastes
Harmful irrigation practices
Improper maintenance
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Leakage from sanitary sewage, acid rain falling onto the soil
Fuel leakage of automobiles that soak into the soil
Soil pollution can have harmful effects on ecosystems, human beings and plants. It can harm
the water and food which are in direct contact with the polluted soil.
Noise pollution
When there is too much noise or an unpleasant sound causing a temporary disruption in the natural
balance is known as noise pollution.
The main causes of noise pollution are:
Industrialization
Poor urban planning
Social events
Transportation
Construction activities
Household chores
Noise pollution causes health issues like
Hearing problems
Sleeping disorders
Cardiovascular issues
Trouble in communicating
Radioactive pollution
Radioactive pollution happens when there is the presence of radioactive materials in the
environment caused by the emission of harmful radiations like alpha or beta particles or gamma
rays.
The main causes of radioactive pollution are:
Nuclear accidents from nuclear energy generation plants
The use of nuclear weapons for mass destruction
Mining
Spillage of radioactive chemicals
Tests on radiation
Cosmic rays
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Proper storage or container should be there for the radioactive materials so that there is
no leakage.
Light pollution
By light pollution, we understand the excessive, flashy and unwanted artificial lighting.
The cause of light pollution is mainly due to Industrialization & Modernization.
Following are the adverse effects of light pollution:
Over-illumination causes headache, fatigue, stress and anxiety.
Light trespass during night causes the sleeping disorder.
Glaring on outdoor lights decreases our vision and the chances of accidents increases.
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Its calorific value is 6,150 to 7,300 kcal/kg.
It has a moisture content of about 30-50% before exposure to air.
Its volatile matter is about 30%. Lignite when exposed to air gets oxidized.
Due to high moisture, rapid oxidation and low heating value, it is not economical to transport
it to distant places.
It is burned in pit head power plants.
d) Peat
Peat is a solid fuel with highest moisture content.
It is not fully matured form as it is partially decomposed, so
It is not true coal.
Its heating value is much less and is lower than that of wood.
It has about 90% moisture.
It is used as a low grade fuel.
The Ministry of Non-Conventional Energy Sources (MNES) created in 1992, is the nodal agency of
the Government of India for all matters relating to nonconventional/renewable energy.
Solar Energy
The Sun provides us enormous amounts of energy in the form of solar radiation-energy that travels
in small wave packets called photons, reaching the surface of the Earth from a distance of 93
million miles. Radiation energy is released due to thermo-nuclear fusion going on continuously in the
Sun.
The solar energy reaching per square metre of the Earth’s atmosphere is called the ‘Solar Constant’
and is equal to 1.36 KW in 12 hours.
Conversion of solar energy into heat.
Conversion of solar energy directly into electricity.
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Conversion of solar energy to plants, vegetable or other biological forms and application of
solar energy to convert these forms into usable forms of fuel. This may broadly be termed
as bio-energy.
Indirect application of solar energy, such as, harnessing of winds, waves, temperature
gradients from the ocean, etc.
Wind Energy
Wind energy is the kinetic energy associated with movement of large masses of air resulting from
the differential heating of the atmosphere by the Sun. Hence, wind energy is nothing but the
converted form of solar energy. It is estimated that about 106 to 107 MW of usable power is
continuously available in the Earth’s winds.
Wind Energy Conversion: The shaft power from the wind turbine can be utilized for a wide variety
of purposes, including electricity (AC & DC generation), direct pumping, direct mechanical work, etc.
The most common wind turbine system involves a tower mounted multi- bladed rotor facing into the
wind, rotating around a horizontal axis and turning an electrical generator or a mechanical gearbox
connected to its axis. The maximum power that can be extracted from a wind turbine is 59.3 per
cent.
Water Pumping Windmills: Small windmills with direct mechanical drive matched to a pump and tank
storage are in extensive use in many parts of the world. These hold significant potential for
pumping water irrigation, drinking needs, etc. Improved types of soil water pumping windmills have
also been developed in several countries, including India.
Wind Electric Conversion Systems: Wind energy is a high-quality form of mechanical energy that
can be converted into electrical energy with minimal energy losses. Since the rotor of a windmill
moves periodically, the output may be obtained in the form of alternating current either by using a
gearbox or fixing the rotational speed or by allowing speed variations and transforming the
generated electrical power.
Ocean Energy
The sea, which is constantly receiving solar radiations and acts as the world’s largest natural solar
collector, has potential to provide a means of utilizing renewable energy. It acts not only as
collector, but also has an enormous storage capacity. Energy from the ocean is available in several
forms such as ocean thermal energy, wave energy, tidal energy, salinity gradients, ocean currents,
ocean winds and biomass.
Tidal Energy
Tides are created by the combined gravitational effect of the Earth, the Moon and the Sun.
Though the tide is the universal phenomenon of the Earth’s sea-water body, some regions are more
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favorable for the establishment of such power plant for the commercial production of tidal energy.
Primary requirements for the construction of an installation having a capacity over 200 MW are
an average tide of 5-12 meters;
the possibility of linkage to a grid in order to accommodate the variable power output of the
tidal plant;
Favorable geographical location and favorable socio-economic and ecological conditions. Bulb
type turbines as used in conventional hydro-electric stations have proved to be reliable for
generating power from the tides.
In India, three potential sites have so far been identified, namely, the Gulfs of Kutch and Cambay
on the west coast in Gujarat and the Sunder bans along the east coast in West Bengal.
HYDRO ENERGY
The National Hydro-Electric Power Corporation (NHPC) was incorporated in 1975 with the
objectives to plan, promote and organize the integrated development of hydro-electric power.
NHPC Limited presently has an installation base of 5295 MW from 14 hydropower stations on
ownership basis, including projects taken up in Joint Venture.
Some important hydro-electric power projects constructed by NHPC are at Salal and Dulhasti (both
in J&K), Tanakpur (Uttarakhand), Chamera (HP), Baira Siul (HP), Chutak (J&K), Teesta Low Dam –
III (W.Bengal), Sewa – II (J&K), Teesta – V (Sikkim), Omkareshwar (MP), Dhauliganga – I
(Uttarakhand), Indira Sagar(MP), Rangit (Sikkim), Uri – I (J&K), and Loktak (Manipur).
GEOTHERMAL ENERGY
Geothermal energy is the exploitation of heat energy of Earth within 10 km of the Earth’s upper
crust. Geothermal energy can be processed for generation of power, where the geothermal fluid
has a temperature of 130°C.
Geothermal manifestations are widespread in India in the form of 340 Hot Springs localities. Only a
few direct utilization schemes have been launched by various agencies. They are in Puga,
Chhumuthang, Manikaran and Bakreshwar. Of these, India’s most promising geothermal field is in
Puga valley in Ladakh. There are number of geothermal wells drilled in the valley. Tattapani in
Madhya Pradesh is another promising geothermal area in India.
CNG
Compressed Natural Gas or CNG is a cleaner alternative to the liquid petroleum. CNG
Is already in use in countries such as the USA, Japan, Italy, Brazil and New Zealand.
In Delhi, the Supreme Court has directed the operation of city buses exclusively on CNG fuel mode.
The government on its part launched CNG pilot project in Delhi as early as 1993.
Thanks to this project, CNG is now available in the NCR and most cities of the country.
CNG is cleaner fuel than the conventional fuel (petrol and diesel) as far as PM is concerned.
Further, CO, HC and NOX emission for CNG based car are lower because of the catalytic converter
fitted with them.
The Division of Disaster Management of Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India is the
ministry for all matters at the Centre except the Drought. The Ministry of Agriculture,
Government of India, looks after the Drought Management. The National Contingency Action
Plan (NCAP) makes possible in relief and rescue operations without delay.
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National Disaster Management Act 2005
The Parliament of India has passed the National Disaster Management Act in November 2005,
which brings a pattern in India’s approach to disaster management.
The Act provides for establishment of:
National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA)
District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA)
Constitution of Disaster Response Fund and Disaster Mitigation Fund at National, State and
District levels Establishment of NIDM and NDRF.
It gives penalties for obstruction, false claims, misuse etc.
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the states. Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation are
the members who supported this mission.
National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem – It aims to preserve the
biodiversity, forest conservation and other ecological problems that are causing problems in
the Himalayan region.
National Mission for a “Green India” – Its main goal is to expand the forest and promote
“Green India” by protecting, refurbishing and enhancing the forests in India which are
diminishing. It’s taking various measures in responding to climate change by adopting and
taking different steps towards it. In 2014, Ministry of Environment and Forests got go-
ahead to work on this from the Cabinet.
National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture – The main objective is how climatic change
affects crops and their development through various mechanisms. For example, in areas
where there are more rains, it focuses on integrated farming, use of water efficiently, soil
health management, etc. It got approval from the government in 2010.
National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change – It aims for the climatic
changes and its impact. The mission tries to improve through research and international
collaboration. The mission is run by the Department of Science and Technology.
International Agreements/efforts
By international agreements, we mean treaties or contract between different countries for
different global issues like air pollution, climate change, protection of the ozone layer, etc.
International agreements have different names like treaties, pacts, protocols, acts, etc.
Most of the agreements are legally binding between the countries that have approved them.
Each nation has respective responsibilities under the agreements.
Montreal Protocol
The Montreal Protocol on Substance is a global agreement to protect the ozone layer by phasing out
the production of various substances that are responsible for ozone reduction. The main objective
of the Montreal Protocol was to protect the ozone layer by taking different steps to manage the
production and consumption of depleting substances (ODS) and to remove it completely. It was
agreed on 26 August 1987, and entered into force on 16 September 1989, following the first
meeting in Helsinki, May 1989.
Signed: 16 September 1987
Rio Summit
Rio Summit or The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also
known as the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit was the major United Nations conference which was held
on Rio from 3rd to 14th June 1992.
The main objective of the summit was to stop the destruction of various natural resources and to
handle pollution which is affecting the planet. And the condition of the global environment and its
association between economics, science and the environment in a political context. 105 countries
participated in the Earth Summit, for this development.
Convention on Biodiversity
The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is an international treaty with three main objectives:-
1. Conservation of biodiversity
2. Sustainable use of biodiversity
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3. Fair and equitable sharing of the benefits which occur from the genetic recourses.
This treaty was signed on 5th June 1992 and was effective from 29th December 1993. Over 196
countries participated in Rio de Janeiro.
Kyoto Protocol
The Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement which was extended on the 1992 United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change like to reduce the greenhouse gas emission based on
scientific agreement.
This Protocol was signed on 11th December 1997 and was effective from 16th February
2005 in Kyoto. Over 192 countries participated in this.
India has ratified the second commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol known as the Doha
Amendment to the protocol
Paris Agreement
Paris Agreement is an international agreement to fight against climate change. The main objective
of this agreement was to stop global warming and the threat of dangerous climatic changes. Over
195 countries participated in the Paris Agreement from 30th November to 11th December 2015.
The Paris Agreement opened for signature on 22 April 2016 – Earth Day – at UN
Headquarters in New York. It entered into force on 4 November 2016.
Holding the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2 °C above pre-
industrial levels and to pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5 °C above pre-
industrial levels
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1. The arsenic pollution in ground water in Bangladesh and parts of India is due to
(A) industrial waste
(B) thermal power plants
(C) natural sources
(D) agricultural practices
2. Among the following air pollutants which directly impacts human health as well as climate?
(A) Soot
(B) Sulphur dioxide
(C) Oxides of nitrogen
(D) Chlorofluoro carbons
4. The percentage share of electrical power from solar energy in the total electric power
generation from all renewable energy sources sought to be achieved by Indian government by the
year 2022, is
(A) ~ 57.1%
(B) ~ 65.5%
(C) ~ 47.5%
(D) ~ 75%
7. Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers of India?
226
(A) Untreated sewage
(B) Agriculture run-off
(C) Unregulated small scale industries
(D) Religious practices
9. Indian government’s target of producing power from biomass by the year 2022, is
(A) 50 MW
(B) 25 MW
(C) 15 MW
(D) 10 MW
10. Assertion (A): Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival.
Reason (R): Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.
11. World Meteorological Organization’s (WMO) objective has been to reduce the number of deaths
due to hydro meteorological disasters over the decade 2010-2019 by (with reference to the decade
1994-2003)
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) 80%
12. Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also respiratory tract of
human beings.
(A) Particulate matter
(B) Oxides of nitrogen
(C) Surface ozone
(D) Carbon monoxide
227
14. As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is planning to raise the installed
capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to
(A) 175 GW
(B) 200 GW
(C) 250 GW
(D) 350 GW
15. At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWh/year), identify the correct
sequence.
(A) Brazil > Russia > China > India
(B) Russia > China > India > Brazil
(C) Russia > China > Brazil > India
(D) China > Russia > Brazil > India
16. Inside rural homes, the source/sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution may be:
(a) Unvented gas stoves
(b) Wood stoves
(c) Kerosene heaters
18. Assertion (A): People population control measures do not necessarily help in checking
environmental degradation.
Reason (R): The relationship between population growth and environmental degradation is rather
complex.
228
(C) China
(D) India
21. Two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6 respectively on Richter Scale. The
ratio of the energies released EB/EA will be approximately
(A) ~ 8
(B) ~ 16
(C) ~ 32
(D) ~ 64
23. In the recently launched Air Quality Index in India, which of the following pollutants is not
included
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Fine particulate matter
(C) Ozone
(D) Chlorofluorocarbons
24. The factors which are most important in determining the impact of anthropogenic activities on
environment are
(A) Population, affluence per person, land available per person are
(B) Population, affluence per person and the technology used for exploiting resources
(C) Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover
(D) Population, forest cover and land available per person
25. In terms of total CO2 emissions from a country, identity the correct sequence:
(A) U.S.A. > China > India > Russia
(B) China > U.S.A. > India > Russia
(C) China > U.S.A. > Russia > India
(D) U.S.A. > China > Russia > India
26. Match List – I and List – II and identify the correct code:
a. World Health Day i.16th September
b. World Population Day ii. 1st December
c. World Ozone Day iii. 11th July
d. World AIDS Day iv. 7th April
229
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) iii iv ii i
27. Which of the anthropogenic activity accounts for more than 2/3 rd of global water consumption?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Hydropower generation
(C) Industry
(D) Domestic and Municipal usage
28. One of the anthropogenic sources of gaseous pollutants chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in air is
(A) Cement Industry
(B) Fertiliser industry
(C) Foam industry
(D) Pesticide industry
31. The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average consumption of energy per person
per year in India as 30 Mega Joules. If this consumption is met by carbon based fuels and the rate
of carbon emissions per kilojoule is l5 x I06 kgs, the total carbon emissions per year from India will
be
(A) 54 million metric tons
(B) 540 million metric tons
(C) 5400 million metric tons
(D) 2400 million metric tons
32. Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in recent times?
(A) Paris
(B) London
(C) Los Angeles
(D) Beijing
230
33. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is
(A) run-off urban areas
(B) run-off from agricultural forms
(C) sewage effluents
(D) industrial effluents
35. In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is general agreement
among the countries of the world to limit the rise in average surface temperature of earth
compared to that of pre-industrial times by
(A) 1.5 oC to 2 oC
(B) 2.0 oC to 3.5 oC
(C) 0.5 oC to 1.0 oC
(D) 0.25 oC to 0.5 oC
36. The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the Union Ministry of
(A) Environment
(B) Water Resources
(C) Home Affairs
(D) Defence
37. Match List - I and List - II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List - II
(a) Flood (1) Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration
(b) Drought (2) Tremors produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the rocks
of the earth
(c) Earthquake (3) A vent through which molted substances come out
(d) Valcano (4) Excess rain and uneven distribution of water
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
38. Which one of the following green house gases has the shortest residence time in the
atmosphere?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
231
(D) Nitrous oxide
39. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:
(i) Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country.
(ii) India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.
(iii) The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by Tamil Nadu.
(iv) The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.
40. Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they appeared. Use the code given
below:
(i) Limits to Growth
ii) Silent Spring
(iii) Our Common Future
(iv) Resourceful Earth
Codes:
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
42. "Women are closer to nature than men." What kind of perspective is this?
(A) Realist
(B) Essentialist
(C) Feminist
(D) Deep ecology
43. Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of tropical forests?
(A) Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer.
(B) Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the earth.
(C) Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture content and reflectivity.
(D) Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.
44. The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-environment interaction is
one of the following:
(A) Natural Resource Conservation Approach
232
(B) Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach
(C) Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach
(D) Watershed Development Approach
45. The major source of the pollutant gas, carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban areas is
(A) Thermal power sector
(B) Transport sector
(C) Industrial sector
(D) Domestic sector
46. ln a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of
(A) Methane
(B) Hydrogen
(C) LPG
(D) CNG
47. By the year 2022, the Climate Change Action Plan of Government of India aims at installing
(A) 20,000 MW of wind power
(B) 25,000 MW of wind power
(C) 20,000 MW of solar power
(D) 10,000 MW of solar power
48. Which one of the following biosphere reserves has UNESCO recognition?
(A) Manas
(B) Kanchenjunga
(C) Seshachalam Hills
(D) Greater Nicobar
49. Which activity contributes to water pollution more than any other throughout world ?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Hydroelectric power generation
(C) Industry
(D) Urbanisation
50. Match List – I with List – II and find the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
233
d. Achankmar- Amarkantak iv. Western Ghat
Codes :
abcd
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv iii i ii
51. G5 are the five most important emerging economies of world. Which one of the following does
not form part of G5?
(A) Mexico
(B) Brazil
(C) China
(D) Korea
52. Which of the following nations has the maximum per capita emissions of carbon di-oxide?
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) USA
(D) India
53. The world population growth rate at a certain reference year was 3.5%. Assuming exponential
growth of population, after how many years, the population of the world would have increased by a
factor 16?
(A) ~ 80 years
(B) ~ 40 years
(C) ~ 160 years
(D) ~ 320 years
56. Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual formation of surface
ozone as a pollutant?
(A) Transport sector
234
(B) Refrigeration and Air-conditioning
(C) Wetlands
(D) Fertilizers
58. Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause damage to
humans?
(A) Earthquakes
(B) Forest fires
(C) Volcanic eruptions
(D) Droughts and Floods
59. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production in India is around
(A) 2-3%
(B) 22-25%
(C) 10-12%
(D) < 1%
60. The phrase “tragedy of commons” is in the context of
(A) tragic even related to damage caused by release of poisonous gases.
(B) tragic conditions of poor people.
(C) degradation of renewable free access resources.
(D) climate change.
62. Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual formation of surface
ozone as a pollutant?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Refrigeration and Air-conditioning
(C) Wetlands
(D) Fertilizers
235
64. Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause damage to
humans?
(A) Earthquakes
(B) Forest fires
(C) Volcanic eruptions
(D) Droughts and Floods
65. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production in India is around
(A) 2-3%
(B) 22-25%
(C) 10-12%
(D) < 1%
70. The second most important source after fossil fuels contributing to India’s energy needs is
(A) Solar energy
(B) Nuclear energy
(C) Hydropower
(D) Wind energy
ANSWER
1 C 2 A 3 A 4 A 5 B
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6 D 7 A 8 B 9 D 10 A
11 B 12 C 13 D 14 D 15 C
16 D 17 A 18 A 19 A 20 B
21 C 22 A 23 D 24 C 25 B
26 B 27 A 28 C 29 A 30 D
31 W 32 D 33 C 34 A 35 A
36 C 37 A 38 C 39 D 40 C
41 A 42 B 43 A 44 D 45 B
46 B 47 C 48 D 49 A 50 D
51 D 52 C 53 A 54 C 55 C
56 A 57 B 58 D 59 C 60 C
61 C 62 A 63 B 64 D 65 C
66 A 67 B 68 A 69 D 70 C
237
Prepared by
Govind Singh (Assistant Professor, GNCL)
(B.Com, M.Com. MBA, B.Ed., CTET, NET- Commerce-3Times)
(NET- Management- 1Time)
Following are the important bodies, which plays an important role in higher education system in
India.
Central government is responsible to take the policies related to the higher education. It also
gives different grant to the Central universities. Whether an educational system will be
deemed or not is also decided by central government on the recommendation of the UGC. At
present, there are 53 Central universities in the country.
One can get degree from education system. Following are degrees, one may acquire after school
leaving.
1. Higher Secondary School Certificate
2. Secondary School Certificate
3. Diploma
4. Bachelor³s Degree
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5. Postgraduate Diploma
6. Master³s Degree
7. Master of Philosophy
8. Post-Master Degree
9. Doctorate
10. Doctor of Laws
11. Doctor of Literature
12. Doctor of Science
From education point of view India was very rich country at ancient times too. Following system
were widely used in ancient India.
Gurukul system
Gurukul (ashram) was a type of school in India, residential in nature, with pupils living in proximity to
the teacher (guru). In a gurukul, students would reside together as equals, irrespective of their social
standing, learnt from the guru and distribute work in themselves to help the guru in his day-to-day
life. At the end of studies, pupil would be ready to offer gurudakshina (one time fees) to the guru.
The gurudakshina is a traditional gesture of acknowledgment, respect and thanks.
In India the Guru or the teacher is held in high esteem. Indeed, there is an understanding that if
the devotee were presented with the guru and God, first he would pay respect to the guru, since
the guru had been instrumental in leading him to God.
Vedic University
Nalanda is one of the great Vedic university in India. Nalanda is the name of an ancient university in
Bihar, India which was a Buddhist center of learning from 427 CE (AD) to 1197 CE (AD). It has been
called as ™one of the first great universities™ in recorded history. There were universities like
Taxila, Ujjain, Karachi etc. for medicine and learning including mathematics and astronomy.
Vedic books
In compiling the vedic mantras, VED VYASA edited them into four books, the Rig-Veda, the Yajur-
Veda, the Sama-Veda, and the Atharva-Veda
The Vedas are a large body of texts originating in ancient India. Composed in Vedic Sanskrit, the text
constitutes the oldest layer of Sanskrit literature and the oldest scriptures of Hinduism.Scholars
have determined that the Rig Veda, the oldest of the four Vedas, was composed about 1500 B.C.
Education of Indians had become a topic of interest among East India Company officials. The
policy³s goal was
India’s first education minister recommended strong central government control over education
throughout the country, with a uniform educational system and introduced right to education.
Every child between the ages of 6 to 14 years has the right to free and compulsory education.
The government schools shall provide free education to all the children. Private schools shall
admit at least 25% of the children in their schools without any fee.
The Indian government lays great emphasis on primary education up to the age of fourteen
years (referred to as Elementary Education in India.) The Indian government has also
banned child labour in order to ensure that any children do get an opportunity to nurture.
Education has also been made free for children for six to 14 years of age. The District
Primary Education Programme (DPEP) was launched in 1994 with an aim to universalize
primary education in India by reforming and vitalizing the existing primary education
system
NCERT
The NCERT was established in 1961. It functions as a resource centre in the field of school
education and teacher education. Publication of school textbooks and other educational material
like teachers³ guides/manuals etc. are its major functions.
NCERT is an a UTonomoUs body FUlly FUnded by the Ministry of HUMan ResoURce and Development (MHRD)
There is a common educational structure (10+2+3) followed all over the country. Its similar to
the USA but unlike to the one being followed in the UK
Vocational education is that form of instruction designed to prepare people for industrial or commercial
employment. It can be acquired either formally in trade schools, technical secondary schools, or in on-the-job
training programs or, more informally, by picking up the necessary skills on the job. is imparted through
Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) and polytechnics. Vocational study falls under the purview of MHRD. The
240
all india council of vocational education is responsible for planning, guiding and coordinating the programme at
the national level. State Councils for Vocational Education (SCVEs) perform similar functions at the states of
Statutory body and their functions
The origin of the Indian Education Department dates back to pre-Independence days when for
the first time a separate Department was created in 1910 to look after education. However, soon
after India achieved its Independency on 15th August. 1947, a full fledged Ministry of Education
was established on 29th August 1947. The nomenclature and responsibilities of the Education
Department has undergone changes from time to time since Independence
Statutory Mandate Coordination and determination of standards in higher education and research
in the country
Other Functions Recognition of Universities and colleges (including eligibility for central grants)
specification of degrees, Minimum standards of instruction, common pay scales, common facilities
and institutional accreditation through NAAC
Primary Function Release of grants to open universities and correspondence course institutes
Statutory Mandate Planning and coordinated development of technical education in the country
Primary Function Approval of degree and diploma programs in engineering, architecture, pharmacy and hotel
management
Other Functions Funding for institutional and faculty development, pay scales and qualifications of
teachers accreditation through NAAC
In 2016, three important initiatives were taken up by AICTE. First one was a responsibility given
by MHRD to evolve a national MOOCs platform SWAYAM. Second one is that of launching a Smart
India Hackathon-2017 challenging the young bright talented students of technical colleges to solve
241
the 598 problems of 29 different Government departments. Third one is that of launching of an
AICTE's Student Start up Policy by Hon. President on Nov 16, during visitors conference from
rashtrapati Bhavan. In 2009, the Union Minister of Education formally communicated his intentions
of closing down AICTE and related body, the UGC. This later led to reforms in the way the AICTE
approves institutes, and to establishing the National Board of Accreditation (NBA) as an
independent body.
Other Functions Eligibility criteria for admissions¡ exam. for recognition of foreign
qualifications for practice in India.
Statutory Mandate Regulate profession and practice of architects and town planners in India
Other Functions Maintaining the register of architects and make recommendations with regard to
recognition and de-recognition of a qualification.
Primary Function Accepts qualifications awarded by universities within and outside India
Other Functions Collection and compilation of data relating to nurses, midwives, health visitors.
Statutory Mandate Standardize and regulate the training of personnel and professions in the
field of rehabilitation and special education.
242
Other Functions Registration of professionals, assessment and accreditations¡ promotion of
barrier free environment.
Statutory Mandate Planned and Coordinated development of the teacher education in the country.
Indian Council for Agricultural Research (ICAR), Ministry of Agriculture. It is not a statutory body
Primary Function Coordinate and fund agricultural education and research in 30 state and 1 central
and several deemed universities for agriculture.
Bar Council of India (BCI) established by The Advocates Act, 1962, Ministry of Law
Statutory Mandate Lay down standards of professional conduct and standards of legal education.
Primary Function Lay down standards of professional conduct and standards of legal education.
Other Functions Listing of members of bar¡ listing of foreign universities whose qualifications are
approved in India.
There are various Educational Statutory bodies in India, these are namely:
1. Curricular Aspects
k. Innovative practice
244
Elementary Education in India
Education is important not only for development of one³s personality, but also for the sustained
growth of nation.It is the foundation on which the development of every citizen and the nation as
a whole hinges. The quality of elementary education in India has also been a major cause of worry
for government
The current scheme for universalization of Education for All is the SARVA SHIKSHA ABHIYAN
which is one of the largest education initiatives in the world. After the District Primary Education
Programme (DPEP) of 1994, the govt. has now launched the ”Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan” or SSA. Sarva
Shiksha Abhiyan was launched in 2001 to universalize and improve the quality of elementary
education in India. It has set 200k as the deadline for providing primary education in India and
2010 as the deadline for providing useful and relevant elementary education to all children in the 6
to 14 age group.
Every child between the ages of 6 to 14 years has the right to free and compulsory education.
The government schools shall provide free education to all the children. Private schools shall
admit at least 25% of the children in their schools without any fee.
Despite all the efforts of the government, universalization of education in India remains a distant
dream. While the literacy rate is 72.99% according to 2011 census, the female literacy rate is
64.64% & Male literacy rate 80.89%. While 84.11.0% urban people are literate, 67.77% of the
rural population is literate.
School education
Schooling system in India is a two tire system. First 10 years is a general study followed by two
years of senior secondary education. The primary education system is also two tire system. The
first five years is the primary stage and the coming next three years is upper primary stage or
middle school.
Secondary education can be instrumental in shaping and directing a child for his bright future.
Secondary education serves as a link between primary and higher education. A child³s future
depends a lot on type of education the child receives. Significant feature of India³s secondary
school system is the emphasis on inclusion of the disadvantaged sections of the society. Another
feature of India³s secondary school system is its emphasis on profession based vocational
training to help students attain skills for finding a vocation of his/her choosing.
The Secondary education is supported by the following organizations under the administrative
control of the Union Department of Education: Some of the institutes are:
245
∙ National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS)
The National Policy on Education (NPE), 1986, has provided for environment awareness, science and
technology education, and introduction of traditional elements such as yoga into the Indian
secondary school system
NCERT
NCERT is an autonomous body fully funded by the Ministry of Human Resource and
Development (MHRD). The NCERT was established in 1961. It functions as a resource
centre in the field of school education and teacher education. Publication of school
textbooks and other educational material like teachers guides/manuals etc. are its major
functions. It aims at making environmental education an integral part of curriculum in
school education.
The CBSE was set up by a special resolution of the Government of India in 1929 at Ajmer with a
view to play a useful role in the field of Secondary Education and to raise its standard.
The Main functions of the board are: to conduct Class X and XII examinations and grant
certificates, to prescribe courses of instructions, prescribe conditions for examinations, and to
affiliate institutions for the purpose of examinations. The CBSE also conducts all India entrance
examinations at the under graduate level for pre- medical/pre-dental, engineering and
architecture courses.
CBSE mews
The CBSE has constantly been engaged in process of curriculum design, in-service teacher
empowerment programmes and development of textual material.
In our national perception, Education refines sensitivities and perceptions that contribute to
national cohesion, a scientific temper and independence of mind and spirit - thus furthering the
goals of socialism, secularism and democracy enshrined in our Constitution. The government is
committed to providing education through main- stream schools for children with disabilities. The
need for inclusive education arises precisely because it is now well understood that most children
with disabilities can, with motivation and effort on the part of teaching institutions, become an
integral part of those institutions. There is a common educational structure(10+2+3) followed all
over the country.
246
Education level Years
Pre primary (FOR 1 YEAR)
Primary (GRADE 1-5)
Middle (GRADE 6-8)
Secondary (GRADE 9-10)
Senior (GRADE11-12)
Secondary
Fashion Technology
India which has always been a centre for the textile and garment trade. Now the fashion industry
has become so specialized that it encompasses a vast field of studies in design, concept
management, design production management, quality control, planning, fabric design, printing,
fashion accessory design, fashion merchandising, textile science, colour mixing, marketing and so
on. National Institute of Fashion Technology was set up in 1986 under the aegis of the Ministry of
Textiles, Government of India. It has emerged as the premier Institute of Design, Management
and Technology, developing professionals for taking up leadership positions in fashion business in the
emerging global scenario.
The online projects encourage our students to collaborate, cooperate and communicate with the
students all over the world. This use of cyber space has led to the globalization of
education.
The University Grants Commission (UGC) of India is a statutory body set up by the Indian Union
government in 1956, and is charged with coordination, determination and maintenance of
standards of higher education. It provides recognition to universities in India, and disburses
funds to such recognized universities and colleges. Its headquarters is in New Delhi, and six
regional centers in Pune, Bhopal, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Guwahati and Bangalore.
A Central University or a Union University in India is established by Act of Parliament and are
under the purview of the Department of Higher Education in the Union Human Resource
Development Ministry. In general, universities in India are recognized by the University Grants
247
Commission (UGC), which draws its power from the University Grants Commission Act, 1956. The
types of universities controlled by the UGC include:
State universities are run by the state government of each of the states and territories of India,
and are usually established by a local legislative assembly act.
Private universities are approved by the UGC. They can grant degrees but they are not allowed to
have off-campus affiliated colleges.
Funding Agency
Apart from the above universities, other institutions are granted the permission to autonomously
award degrees. These institutes do not affiliate colleges and are not officially called “universities” but
“autonomous organizations” or “autonomous institutes”. They fall under the administrative control
of the Department of Higher Education. These organizations include the Indian Institutes of
Technology, the National Institutes of Technology, the Indian Institutes of Science Education and
Research, the Indian Institutes of Engineering Science and Technology, the Indian Institutes of
Management (though these award diplomas, not degrees), the National Law Schools, the All India
Institute of Medical Sciences, and other autonomous institutes.
248
agency. NTA is responsible for conducting the Joint Entrance Examination – Main (JEE
Main), National Eligibility cum Entrance Test-Undergraduate (NEET UG), National Eligibility
Test (NET), Common Management Admission Test (CMAT) and Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude
Test (GPAT).
Pharmacy Discipline: Jamia Hamdard Universitt, Punjab University, National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education
and Research Mohali
Colleges category: Miranda house DU, LSR for women DU and Hindu college DU.
Medical Discipline: AIIMS, New Delhi, PGIMER Chandigarh, Christian Medical College, Bangalore
Law Discipline: National Law School of India University, Bengaluru, NLU New Delhi, Nalsar University of Law,
Hyderabad
Dental College: Maulana Azad Institute of Dental Science, Manipal College of Dental Science, Dr DY Patil Vidyapith
Pune
Padma Vibhushan
George Fernandes
1. Public Affairs Bihar
(Posthumous)
249
Arun Jaitley
2. Public Affairs Delhi
(Posthumous)
Sushma Swaraj
6. Public Affairs Delhi
(Posthumous)
Sri Vishveshateertha
Swamiji Sri
Others-
7. Pejavara Adhokhaja Karnataka
Spiritualism
Matha Udupi
(Posthumous)
Padma Bhushan
Jammu and
Muzaffar Hussain Baig Public Affairs
10.
Kashmir
Literature and
12. Manoj Das Puducherry
Education
250
15. S. C. Jamir Public Affairs Nagaland
Neelakanta Ramakrishna
19. Public Affairs Kerala
Madhava Menon (Posthumous)
Manohar Gopalkrishna
20. Public Affairs Goa
Prabhu Parrikar (Posthumous)
Literature and
21. Prof. Jagdish Sheth USA
Education
Padma Shri
251
32. Dr. Sushovan Banerjee Medicine West Bengal
252
52. Lia Diskin Social Work Brazil
Abdul Jabbar
66. Social Work Madhya Pradesh
(Posthumous)
253
72. Benichandra Jamatia Literature and Education Tripura
V. K. Munusamy
85. Art Puducherry
Krishnapakthar
Manmohan Mahapatra
87. Art Odisha
(Posthumous)
Kattungal Subramaniam
89. Science and Engineering Kerala
Manilal
254
90. Munna Master Art Rajasthan
Literature and
91. Prof. Abhiraj Rajendra Mishra Himachal Pradesh
Education
Literature and
92. Binapani Mohanty Odisha
Education
Literature and
94. Dr. Prithwindra Mukherjee France
Education
Literature and
97. N. Chandrasekharan Nair Kerala
Education
Literature and
100. Pu Lalbiakthanga Pachuau Mizoram
Education-Journalism
Literature and
102. Dr. Prasanta Kumar Pattanaik USA
Education
Literature and
103. Jogendra Nath Phukan Assam
Education
Literature and
105. Yogesh Praveen Uttar Pradesh
Education
255
109. Rani Rampal Sports Haryana
Literature and
112. Shahbuddin Rathod Gujarat
Education
Others-Animal
117. Batakrushna Sahoo Odisha
Husbandry
256
(Posthumous)
Literature and
130. Vijayasarathi Sribhashyam Telangana
Education
(Duo)*
Jammu and
132. Javed Ahmad Tak Social Work
Kashmir
Literature and
134. Yeshe Dorjee Thongchi Arunachal Pradesh
Education
Literature and
135. Robert Thurman USA
Education
MCQ
1. India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after :
(a) The United States of America
(b) Australia
(c) China
257
(d) United Kingdom (U.K.)
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (c) only
Answer: 2
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6. Which of the following has been ranked the best college in the country (2017) as per the National Institutional Ranking
Framework (NIRF) ?
(1) Miranda House, Delhi
(2) St. Stephen’s College, Delhi
(3) Fergusson College, Pune
(4) Maharaja’s College, Mysore
Answer: 1
7. Which of the following universities has received the Visitor’s Award for the best Central University in India in Feb.
2017 ?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru University
(2) Banaras Hindu University
(3) Tezpur University
(4) University of Hyderabad
Answer: 1
8. Who among the following can be removed by the President without Parliament’s resolution ?
(1) Judge of a High Court
(2) Governor of a State
(3) Chief Election Commissioner
(4) Comptroller and Auditor – General
Answer: 2
9. Which of the following come(s) within the ambit of the term ‘corruption’ ?
(a) Misuse of official position
(b) Deviation from rules, laws and norms
(c) Non-action when action is required
(d) Harm to public good
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a) only
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 4
10. Which of the following are the demerits of globalisation of higher education ?
(a) Exposure to global curriculum
(b) Promotion of elitism in education
(c) Commoditization of higher education
(d) Increase in the cost of education
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 3
11. Which of the following statements are correct about deemed universities ?
(a) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed universities.
(b) They can design their own syllabus and course work.
(c) They can frame their own guidelines regarding admission and fees.
(d) They can grant degrees.
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Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 2
14. Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate consequences of the proclamation of the President’s Rule in a
State ?
(a) Dissolution of the State Assembly.
(b) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.
(c) Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government.
(d) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a) andü (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (b) and (c)
Answer: 1
15. Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the President who among the following hold(s) office during good
behaviour ?
(a) Governor of a State (b) Attorney General of India
(c) Judges of the High Court (d) Administrator of a Union Territory
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a) only
(2) (c) only
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 2
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16. Which of the following set of statements represents acceptable propositions in respect of teaching-learning
relationships ? Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.
(i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.
(ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.
(iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place.
(iv) There can be no learning without teaching.
(v) A teacher teaches but learns also.
(vi) Real learning implies rote learning.
Codes :
(1) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)
Answer: 2
17. Which of the following core values among the institutions of higher education are promoted by the NAAC (National
Assessment and Accreditation Council) ?
(a) Contributing to national development.
(b) Fostering global competencies among the students.
(c) Inculcating a value system among students and teachers.
(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (b),(c)and(d)
(2) (a),(b)and(c)
(3) (a),(c)and(d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 2
19. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared unconstitutional by
1) The Supreme Court of India
(2) The High Court
(3) The High Court and the Supreme Court both
(4) The President of India
Answer: 1
20. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct ?
(a) The President is both Head of the State and Head of the Government
(b) Parliament is Supreme.
(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justiciable.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a),(b),(c) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (d) (3) (b) and (c) 4) (c)only
Answer: 4
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(a) To respect the National Flag.
(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.
(c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education/to his/her child.
(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.
Select the correct answer from the codes given:
(1) (a),(b)and(c)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a),(c)and(d)
(4) (a), (b),(c) and (d)
Answer: 1
22. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog?
(a) It is a constitutional body.
(b) It is a statutory body.
(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
(d) It is a think-tank.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a)and(d)
(2) (b)and(d)
(3) (c)and(d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 3
23. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with an intent to develop cognitive dimensions of
students centered on skills of analysis and synthesis. Below, given are two sets of items
Set – I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and Set ~ II comprising basic requirements for promoting them. Match
the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing the correct alternative from the code:
Set-I Set-II
(Levels of Cognitive interchange) (Basic requirements for promoting cognitive Interchange)
a. Memory level i. Giving opportunity for discriminating examples and non-examples of a point.
b. Understanding level ii. Recording the important points made during the presentations.
c. Reflective level iii. Asking the students to discuss various items of information.
iv. Critically analyzing the points to be made and discussed.
Codes:
abc
(1) ii iv i
(2) iii iv ii
(3) ii i iv
(4) i ii ii
Answer: 3
24. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in designing effective teaching-learning systems ?
Select the correct alternative from the codes given below :
(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.
(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learner’s family friends.
(iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject.
(iv) Student’s language background.
(v) Interest of students in following the prescribed dress code.
(vi) Motivational-orientation of the students.
Codes:
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(3) (ii),(iii),(iv)and(v)
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(4) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
Answer: 2
25. Which of the following are the objectives of Kashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhivan (RUSA) ?
(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.
(b) lo ensure adequate availability of quality faculty.
(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges.
(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer : 2
26. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited are :
(a) Religion
(b) Sex
(c) Place of birth
(d) Nationality
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer : 2
27. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha ?
(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.
(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election Commission.
(c) First – past – the Post electoral system is followed.
(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b); (c) and (d)
Answer : 1
30. Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha ?
(1) Maharashtra (2) Rajasthan (3) Tamil Nadu (4) West Bengal
Answer : 1
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31. The session of the parliament is summoned by :
(1) The President
(2) The Prime Minister
(3) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(4) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Answer : 1
34. The University Grants Commission was established with which of the following aims ?
(a) Promotion of research and development in higher education
(b) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning
(c) Capacity building of teachers
(d) Providing autonomy to each and every higher educational institution in India
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer : 2
35. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in institutions of higher education in India at present (2015) is about:
(1) 8 percent (2) 12 percent (3) 19 percent (4) 23 percent
Answer : 3
36. The total number of central universities in India in April 2015 was :
(1) 08 (2) 14 (3) 27 (4) 43
Answer : 4
37. The maximum number of fake institutions / universities as identi_ed by the UGC in the year 2014 are in the State /
Union territory of
(A) Bihar B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Delhi
Answer : B
38. Which of the following institutions are empowered to confer or grant degrees under the UGC Act, 1956 ?
1. A university established by an Act of Parliament.
2. A university established by an Act of Legislature.
3. A university / institution established by a linguistic minority.
4. An institution which is a deemed to be university.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1,2 and 3
(C) 1.2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer : A
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4. Right to Information
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1,3 and 4 (B) 2. 3 and 4
(C) l and 4 (D) 1,2. 3 and 4
Answer : D
41. Which of the following organizations deals with capacity building Educational Planning ?
(A) NCERT
(B) UGC
(C) NAAC
(D) NUEPA
Answer : A
42. Which of the following powers, the President has in relation to Lok Sabha ?
1. Summoning
2. Adjournment – sine die
3. Prorogation
4. Dissolution
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 1.2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1,2, 3 and 4
Answer : C
43. The interval between two sessions of parliament must not exceed
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 4 months
(D) 100 days
Answer : B
45. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below :
i. Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country.
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ii. India has the fth largest installed wind power in the world.
iii. The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by TamilNadu.
iv. The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.
Codes:
(A) i and ii
(B) i, ii and iii
(C) ii and iii
(D) i and iv
Answer : D
46. Who among the following is the defacto executive head of the Planning Commission ?
(A) Chairman
(B)Deputy Chairman
(C) Minister of State for Planning
(D) Member Secretary
Answer : B
47. Education as a subject of legislation gures in the
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Residuary Powers
Answer : C
48. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).
Statement : India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments : (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.
(ii) No, it will discourage honest ocers from making quick decisions.
Codes:
(A) Only argument (i) is strong.
(B) Only argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer : A
49. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept ?
(A) Assam University
(B) Delhi University
(C) Hyderabad University
(D) Pondicherry University
Answer : B
50. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University ?
1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.
3. The President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive Committee or the Board of Management of
the University.
4. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes :
(A) 1,2 and 4
(B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 1,2 and3
(D) 1,2, 3 and 4
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Answer : C
51. The e-content generation for under–graduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry of Human
Resource Development to
(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium for Educational Communication
(C) National Knowledge Commission
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
Answer-B
52. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013?
(A) Distance Education Council (DEC)
(B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
(D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
Answer : A
53. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Assessment and Accreditation Council?
1. It is an autonomous institution.
2. It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of higher education.
3. It is located in Delhi.
4. It has regional offices.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes :
(A) l and 3 (B) l and 2
(C) l,2 and 4 (D) 2,3 and 4
Answer : A
54. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction
(D)Writ Jurisdiction
Answer : C
56. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission?
1. The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.
2. The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India.
3. The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of Rs 25,000/-
4. It can punish an errant officer.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1,2 and 4
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(C) 1,2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Answer : C
57. Who among the following conducted the CNN-IBN – The Hindu 2013 Election Tracker Survey across 267
constituencies in 18 States?
(A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)
(B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)
(C) CNN and IBN
(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu
Answer : A
58. In which of the following categories the enrollment of students in higher in 2010 – 11 was beyond the
percentage Of seats reserved ?
(A) OBC students
(B) SC students
(C) ST students
(D) Woman students
Answer : A
59. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University Grants Commission (UGC)?
(A) It was established in 1956~by an Act of Parliament.
(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.
(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.
(D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities
Answer : D
60. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II)
Statement: Should India switch over to a two party system?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.
(II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.
61. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should persons with criminal background be banned from contesting elections?
Arguments: (I) Yes, it will decriminalise politics.
(II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to _le frivolous cases against their political opponents.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer : A
62. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?
1. A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.
2. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
3. He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.
4. He can be removed for proven misbehaviour or incapacity.
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Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes :
(A) 1,2and3 (B) 1,3and4
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1 and 4
Answer : D
63. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only to
(A) The President
(B) The Vice-President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Cabinet Ministers
Answer : C
66. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about the Attorney General of India ?
1. The President appoints a person, who is qualied to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India.
2. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.
3. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
4. He has a fixed tenure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) l and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 3 only
Answer : A
67. Which of the following prefix President Pranab Mukherjee desires to be discontinued while interacting
with Indian dignitaries as well as in official notings ?
1. His Excellency 2. Mahamahim
3. Hon’ble 4. Shri/Smt.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3
(C) l and 2 (D) 1,2 and 3
Answer : C
68. Which of the following can be done under conditions of nancial emergency ?
1. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.
2. Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of States.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be reduced.
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
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(C) l and2 (D) 2 and 3
Answer : D
69. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List-I List -II
(a) Poverty Reduction Programme (i) Mid-day Meals
(b) Human Development Scheme (ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)
(c) Social Assistance Scheme (iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP)
(d) Minimum Need Scheme (iv) MNREGA
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer : A
71. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of National Council of Teacher Education.
(A) 04
(B) 05
(C) 06
(D) 08
Answer : A
72. Which of the following rights was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar ?
(A) Freedom of Speech
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right to Freedom of Religion
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer : D
73. Who among the following created the oce of the District Collector in India ?
(A) Lord Cornwallis
(B) Warren Hastings
(C) The Royal Commission on Decentralisation
(D) Sir Charles Metcalfe
Answer : A
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(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 3, 4 and 2
Answer : B
77. Indicate the number of Regional O_ces of University Grants Commission of India.
(A) 10 (B) 07(C) 08 (D) 09
Answer : B
79. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Commissions and Committees) (Year)
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (i) 2005
(b) Paul H. Appleby Committee I (ii) 1962
(c) K. Santhanam Committee (iii) 1966
(d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission (iv) 1953
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Answer : B
80. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political parties is the function performed by
(A) The State Election Commission of respective States
(B) The Law Ministry of Government of India
(C) The Election Commission of India
(D) Election Department of the State Governments
Answer : C
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(B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
(C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas
(D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat
Answer : D
82. The first Open University in India was set up in the State
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Delhi (C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
Answer : A
84. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality of Technical and Management education in
India?
(A) NCTE (B) MCI (C) AICTE (D) CSIR
Answer : C
85. Consider the following statements : Identify the statement which implies natural justice.
(A) The principle of natural justice is followed by the Courts.
(B) Justice delayed is justice denied.
(C) Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen
(D) A reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given.
Answer : D
87. Who among the following holds oce during the pleasure of the President of India?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(D) Governor of a State
Answer : D
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90. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body ?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) Planning Commission
Answer : D
92. Which one of the following statements reects the republic character of Indian democracy ?
(A) Written Constitution
(B) No State religion
(C) Devolution of power to local Government institutions
(D)Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament
Answer : D
93. Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be removed by only the President of India ?
(A) Chief Minister of a State
(B) A member of the State Public Service Commission
(C) Advocate-General
(D) Vice-Chancellor of a State University
Answer : B
94. The accreditation process by National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) differs from that of National
Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of
(A) Disciplines covered by both being the same, there is duplication of efforts.
(B) One has institutional grading approach and the other has programme grading approach.
(C) Once get accredited by NBA or NAAC, the institution is free from renewal of grading, which is not a progressive
decision.
(D) This accreditation amounts to approval of minimum standards in the quality of education in the institution concerned.
Answer : B
96. Which statement is not correct about the “National Education Day” of India ?
(A) It is celebrated on 5th September every year.
(B) It is celebrated on 11th November every year.
(C) It is celebrated in the memory of India’s first Union Minister of Education, Dr. Abul Kalam Azad.
(D) It is being celebrated since 2008
Answer : A
97. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
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List – I List – II
(Articles of the Constitution) (Institutions)
(a) Article 280 (i) Administrative Tribunals
(b) Article 324 (ii) Election Commission of India
(c) Article 323 (iii) Finance Commission at Union level
(d) Article 315 (iv) Union Public Service Commission
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Answer : B
98. Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956, are not permitted to
(A) offer programmes in higher education and issue degrees.
(B) give a_liation to any institute of higher education.
(C) open off-campus and off-shore campus anywhere in the country and overseas respectively without the permission of
the UGC.
(D) offer distance education programmes without the approval of the Distance Education Council.
Answer : C
99. The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the establishment of 1500 Universities is to
(A) create more teaching jobs
(B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education
(C) replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by public institutions
(D) enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas
Answer : B
100. According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall be transacted in
(A) English only
(B) Hindi only
(C) English and Hindi both
(D) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
Answer : C
103. The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal System of Education and by System of
Distance Education. Distance education contributes
(A) 50% of formal system
(B) 25% of formal system
(C) 10% of the formal system
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(D) Distance education system’s contribution is not taken into account while considering the figures of enrolment in higher
education
Answer : B
104. Assertion 6. (A) : The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to improve the quality of teachers.
Reason (R) : University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation and refresher courses.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
Answer : A
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