Haryana Judicial Service (Pre.

) Examination, 2013

HARYANA STATE JUDICIAL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2013

S.No Common subjects Question number

1. Constitution 1-15
2. CPC
3. CRPC 16-30
4. Indian Evidence Act 31-50
5. Indian Contract Act 51-56
6. Limitation Act 82
7. Specific Relief Act 57-75, 81
8. TP Act
9. IPC 95-113
10. Registration Act
11. Partnership Act 42
12. Sale of Goods Act 76-80
13. Hindu Law 84-91, 93-94
14. Muslim Law 92
15. Punjab Court Act
16. Haryana Urban (Control of rent & eviction) 83
1973
17. Customary Law
Haryana Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2013
1. As per Section 2(12) of CPC, 'mesne India from trying similar suit even if it
profits' of property are profits is founded on the same cause of
received by a person in; action
(a) Unlawful possession of the (d) None of the above [c]
property 5. "Any relief claimed in the plaint,
(b) Wrongful possession of the which is not expressly granted by
property the decree, shall, for the purposes
(c) Lawful possession of the property of this section, be deemed to have
(d) Effective possession of the been refused. “This provision is
property [b] incorporated in;
2. A decree is preliminary; (a) Section 11, Explanation II
(a) When it is issued in the (b) Section 11, Explanation III
preliminary stages of the suit (c) Section 11, Explanation IV
(b) When further proceedings have to (d) Section 11, Explanation V [d]
be taken or the suit to be completely 6. The general power to transfer suits
disposed of under section 24 has been granted
(c) When it deals with some to:
preliminary issues (a) High Court
(d) None of the above [b] (b) District Court
3. That a petition dismissed under (c) Both (a) and (b)
Article 226 would operate as res (d) Supreme Court [c]
judicata so as to bar a similar 7. Under section 32 of CPC, the
petition in the Supreme Court maximum fine which can be
under Article 32 of the Constitution imposed by the court for
was held in the case of; compelling the attendance of any
(a) Daryao v. State of U.P. person to whom a summons has
(b) Arjun Singh v. State of M.P. been issued under section 30;
(c) Sudhir Chandra v. State of W.B. (a) Two thousand rupees
(d) None of the above [a] (b) Three thousand rupees
4. Which of the following is true; (c) One thousand rupees
(a) The pendency of suit in a foreign (d) Five thousand rupees [d]
court precludes the courts in India 8. Precepts are issued under section
from a trying a similar suit 46 of CPC for;
(b) The pendency of a suit in a (a) Serving summons on persons
foreign court precludes the courts in residing beyond local jurisdiction
India from trying a similar suit (b) Serving a warrant on the
provided the suit is founded on the judgment debtor
same cause of action (c) Attaching the property of the
(c) The pendency of a suit in a foreign judgment debtor
court does not preclude the courts in (d) None of the above [c]
Haryana Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2013
9. Under section 58 of CPC, a person (a) Arbitration
detained shall be released from the (b) Conciliation
detention on the amount (c) Negotiation
mentioned in the warrant of his (d) Mediation [c]
detention being paid to; 14. No second appeal shall lie from any
(a) The officer appointed by the court decree when the subject matter of
(b) The court the original suit is for recovery of
(c) The officer in charge of the civil money not exceeding;
prison (a) Fifteen thousand rupees
(d) None of the above [c] (b) Twenty thousand rupees
10. Which of the following property is (c) Twenty-five thousand rupees
not liable to be attached and sold (d) Thirty thousand rupees [c]
in the execution of a decree; 15. The authority to annul, alter or add
(a) Money to the rules in the First Schedule of
(b) Hundis the Code of Civil Procedure rests
(c) Electricity with the;
(d) None of the above [c] (a) High Court
11. The stipulation that in a suit by the (b) State Government
Central Government, the authority (c) Supreme Court with the previous
to be named as plaintiff shall be approval of rules by the Central
"the Union of India" has been Government
provided for in Section: (d) High Court with the previous
(a) 78 approval of rules by the State
(b) 79 Government [a]
(c) 79A 16. Assault or use of criminal force
(d) 77 [b] otherwise than on grave
12. Which of the following is true provocation under Section 353 of
(a) Alien enemies residing in India the IPC is which kind of offence;
can never sue (a) Bailable and Cognizable
(b) Alien enemies residing in India (b) Bailable and Non-cognizable
may sue with the permission of the (c) Non-bailable and Cognizable
Central Government (d) Non-bailable and Non-cognizable
(c) Alien enemies residing in India [b]
may sue with the permission of the 17. Attempt to commit suicide is
State Government in whose triable by;
jurisdiction they are residing (a) Court of Session
(d) Alien enemies can sue in any (b) Magistrate of the first class
court [b] (c) Any Magistrate
13. Under section 89 of CPC, the court (d) Executive Magistrate [c]
cannot make a reference for;
Haryana Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2013
18. The definition of the “victim" was (c) The police officer shall prepare a
incorporated in the Code of memorandum of arrest to be
Criminal Procedure by the countersigned by the person
Amendment Act of; arrested
(a) 2009 (d) The police officer shall inform the
(b) 2010 person arrested that he has the right
(c) 2011 of legal counsel during interrogation
(d) 2008 [a] [d]
19. The stipulation that all offences 22. Under section 53A of Cr.P.C., when
under Indian Penal Code would be a person is arrested on the charge
tried according to the provisions in of committing rape, the arrestee
Code of Criminal Procedure, is may be examined by a registered
contained in which Section; medical practitioner other than a
(a) 5 registered medical practitioner
(b) 4 employed in a hospital -run by the
(c) 3 Government or by a local authority
(d) 6 [b] when the later is not available
20. In relation to the commission of within a radius of Sixteen
which of the following offence, the kilometres from the place;
general public does not have a (a) Where the offence has been
duty under section 39 of Cr.P.C. to committed
give information to the nearest (b) Where the arrest was made
Magistrate or police officer; (c) Where the nearest police station is
(a) Criminal breach of trust by public situated
servant (d) where the nearest court is
(b) Kidnapping for ransom situated [a]
(c) Mischief by destroying a light- 23. Which one of the following
house Magistrate is authorised under
(d) House-trespass in order to section 110 Cr.P.C. to require
commit offence punishable with security for good behaviour from
imprisonment [d] habitual offenders within his local
21. Which one of the following is not a jurisdiction;
necessary requirement for a (a) Judicial Magistrate First Class
proper procedure of arrest under (b) Chief Judicial Magistrate
section 41B of Cr.P.C. (c) District Magistrate
(a) The police officer shall bear an (d) Executive Magistrate [d]
accurate identification of his name 24. Which of the following person
(b) The police officer shall bear a cannot claim maintenance under
visible and clear identification of his Section 125 of Cr.P.C.;
name
Haryana Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2013
(a) A legitimate child who after 28. Chapter XXIA of the Cr.P.C. was
attaining majority cannot maintain incorporated in the year;
himself by reason of economic (a) 2005
hardship (b) 2006
(b) An illegitimate child who after (c) 2004
attaining majority cannot maintain (d) 2003 [b]
himself by reason of economic 29. In case of plea Bargaining by the
hardship parties;
(c) Both (a) and (b) (a) No judgement may be delivered
(d) None of the above [c] by the court
25. Which one of the following is not (b) Judgement may be delivered in
an act for the prevention of which private to the parties
and order cannot be made under (c) Judgement shall be delivered in
section 144 Cr.P.C.; the open court
(a) Disturbance of the Public (d) The bargain struck by the parties
Tranquillity is to operate as the Judgement [c]
(b) Annoyance to any person lawfully 30. In which of the following cases it
employed has been held that presence of a
(c) Injury to any person lawfully lawyer at the time of interrogation
employed cannot be demanded as a matter
(d) None of the above [d] of right;
26. Which of the following is a ground (a) Poolpandi and other v.
on which a witness under Section Superintendent, Central Excise
161 (2) of Cr.P.C. may refuse to (b) Senior Intelligence Officer v. Jugol
answer questions put by a police Kishore Samra
officer; (c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) Answers would have a tendency (d) None of the above [c]
to expose him to a criminal charge 31. The Information Technology
(b) Answers would have a tendency Amendment Act came into force in;
to expose him to a penalty (a) 2008
(c) Answers would have a tendency to (b) 2009
expose him to a forfeiture (c) 2007
(d) All of the above [d] (d) 2010 [b]
27. Any court may alter or add to any 32. Which of the following is not a
charge any time before; 'fact';
(a) The closing of arguments (a) Mental condition
(b) The judgement is written (b) Relation of things
(c) The judgment is pronounced (c) State of things
(d) None of the above [c] (d) None of the above [d]
Haryana Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2013
33. Which one of the following has not (d) None of the above [b]
been mentioned in the definition 38. Which one of the following has not
of "Documents" as the means by been mentioned as a ground under
which any matter is expressed or section 24 rendering a confession
described upon any substance; by an accused person irrelevant
(a) Letters (a) Inducement
(b) Figures (b) Promise
(c) Symbols (c) Deceit
(d) Marks [c] (d) Threat [c]
34. 'Res Gestae literally means; 39. Section 32 of Evidence Act does not
(a) Things done speak of which of the following
(b) Things spoken kind of persons;
(c) Same transaction (a) Person who is dead
(d) Things then [a] (b) Person who cannot be found
35. The stipulation that facts which (c) Person who is unwilling to give
enable the court to determine the evidence
amount of damages are relevant is (d) Person who has become
incorporated in Section_ Evidence incapable of giving evidence [c]
Act; 40. Under section 45 of Evidence Act,
(a) 12 which of the following have not
(b) 10 been mentioned as points on
(c) 8 which opinion of experts is
(d) 11 [a] relevant;
36. Which of the following state of (a) Point of foreign law
minds has not been expressly (b) Point of art
mentioned in section 14 of the (c) Point of domestic law
Indian Evidence Act; (d) Point of science [c]
(a) Intention 41. Under section 57 of the Evidence
(b) Rashness Act, the court is not bound to take
(c) Motive judicial notice of which of the
(d) Ill-will [c] following facts;
37. Oral admission as to contents of (a) The existence of every state
electronic records are relevant recognised by the Government of
when; India
(a) The party proposing to prove (b) The title of every state recognised
them shows that he is entitled to give by the Government of India
secondary evidence of the same (c) The national flag of every state
(b) The genuineness of the electronic recognised by the Government of
record produced is in question India
(c) Both (a) and (b)
Haryana Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2013
(d) The national emblem of every 46. If a child is born within ____________
state recognised by the Government days after the dissolution of a valid
of India [d] marriage, it is a conclusive proof of
42. The Best Evidence Rule in relation the legitimacy of the child
to documentary evidence is (a) 270
incorporated in section; (b) 275
(a) 61 (c) 280
(b) 64 (d) 285 [c]
(c) 65 47. Which of the following does not
(d) 66 [b] figure in section 115 while dealing
43. Which one of the following is not a with applying the principle of
public document; Estoppel;
(a) Documents forming records of (a) Conduct
acts of tribunals (b) Act
(b) Documents forming records of (c) Omission
acts of public officers of India (d) Declaration [a]
(c) Documents forming records of 48. The provisions of section 126 of the
acts of public officers of a foreign Evidence Act dealing with
country confidentiality of professional
(d) Public records kept of private communication shall apply to;
documents [c] (a) Clerks of barristers
44. A person is presumed to be alive if (b) Servants of pleaders
it is shown that he was alive within (c) Interpreters of barristers
____________ years (d) All of the above [d]
(a) Fourteen 49. Which of the following is true;
(b) Twenty (a) There cannot be further cross
(c) Seven examination after re-examination
(d) Thirty [d] (b) There can be further cross-
45. The rule that once the terms of any examination after re-examination as
contract have been proved by per Section 137
documentary evidence, no (c) There can be further cross-
evidence of any oral statement examination after re-examination as
shall be admitted for contradicting per Section 138
such terms has ____________ provisos (d) There can be further cross-
establishing variations to the rule. examination [c]
(a) 6 50. Indecent and scandalous questions
(b) 4 may be forbidden by the court
(c) 3 under;
(d) 7 [a] (a) Section 149
(b) Section 150
Haryana Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2013
(c) Section 151 56. Which of the following Section of
(d) Section 152 [c] the Indian Contract Act provides
51. In relation to devolution of joint that the responsibility of finder of
liabilities, as a general rule the goods is similar to that of a bailee;
Indian Contract Act incorporates (a) 69
the principle of; (b) 70
(a) Survivorship (c) 71
(b) Succession (d) 72 [c]
(c) Both (a) & (b) 57. Under Section 6 of the Specific
(d) None of the above [c] Relief Act, 1963, a person cannot
52. An agreement enforceable by law sue for recovering the possession
at the instance of one party & not of immovable property;
of other party under section 2(i) is (a) After six months from the date of
called dispossession
(a) A valid contract (b) After nine months from the date
(b) An illegal contract of dispossession
(c) A void contract (c) After twelve months from the date
(d) A voidable contract [d] of dispossession
53. Competency to contract relates to (d) After twenty-four months from
(a) Age of the parties the date of dispossession [a]
(b) Soundness of mind of the parties 58. Which one of the following is not a
(c) Both age & soundness of mind ground on which a reasonable
(d) Intelligence of the parties [c] restrictions on the right to
54. A general offer open for world at freedom of speech and expression
large can be accepted can be imposed;
(a) By sending a communication of (a) Security of the State
acceptance (b) Public Order
(b) By complying with the conditions (c) Morality
of offer (d) Public Policy [d]
(c) By tendering himself to comply 59. Which of the following is included
the conditions of offer in the definition of law' as provided
(d) None of the above [b] in Article 13;
55. A sub-agent is responsible to the (a) Bye-Law
principal on which of the following (b) Custom having the force of law
grounds (c) Usage having the force of law
(a) Fraud or Negligence (d) All of the above [d]
(b) Negligence or Deceit 60. Which one of the following is a
(c) Wilful wrong or Fraud ground which is not mentioned in
(d) Wilful wrong or Negligence [c] both Articles 15 and Article 16 on
Haryana Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2013
which the State can not (a) Separate the judiciary from the
discriminate; executive in the public services of the
(a) Race state
(b) Caste (b) Separate functioning of judiciary
(c) Residence from executive
(d) Place of Birth [c] (c) Separate the powers of judiciary
61. Practising untouchability is; from the executive
(a) Violation of a constitutional right (d) Separate the powers of judiciary
(b) A criminal offence from the legislature [a]
(c) Both (a) and (b) 66. What is the minimum age to be
(d) Violation of a legal right only [c] eligible for becoming the President
62. Petitions to the Supreme Court of India;
under Article 32 are subject to the (a) 35
rule of Res judicata except (b) 45
(a) Quo Warranto (c) 55
(b) Habeas Corpus (d) 25 [a]
(c) Certiorari 67. When the President is to be
(d) Prohibition [b] impeached, the charge shall be
63. Which one of the following is a preferred by;
ground on which the state can (a) Either House of the Parliament
impose reasonable restrictions on (b) The Upper House of the
the right to move freely Parliament
throughout the territory of India; (c) The Lower House of the
(a) Security of the State Parliament
(b) Decency (d) Both the Houses of the Parliament
(c) Morality simultaneously [a]
(d) Protecting the Interests of any 68. What is the meaning of 'lex loci'
Scheduled Tribe [d] (a) Law of land
64. As per Article 21 A, the state shall (b) Sovereignty is essential for
provide free and compulsory enacting laws
education to all children of the age (c) Law of the land is supreme
of; (d) Crown has supreme authority [a]
(a) Six to fourteen years 69. The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular'
(b) Six to twelve years were inserted in the Preamble by
(c) Six to ten years amendment of the Constitution.
(d) Six to eighteen years [a] (a) 15th
65. According to Article 50, the state (b) 39th
Shall take steps to; (c) 42nd
(d) 44th [c]
Haryana Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2013
70. As far as Armed Forces are (d) The court is bound to render its
concerned the fundamental rights opinion when it is a dispute of the
granted under Articles 14 and 19 of kind mentioned in Article 72 [b]
the Constitution are 74. Which of the following grounds is
(a) Not available at all necessary to be proved in order to
(b) Available to armed forces but not remove a speaker of any
to other forces Legislative Assembly;
(c) Available only at the discretion of (a) Misbehaviour
the Chief of Army staff (b) Incapacity
(d) Available only according to law (c) Conduct involving moral turpitude
made by Parliament [d] (d) None of the above [d]
71. The following are not included in 75. Questions as to the age of a judge
the right to personal liberty of a High Court are to be decided
(a) Right to go abroad by;
(b) Right to human dignity (a) President
(c) Right to undertrial prisoners not (b) Chief Justice of the concerned
to be detained for unreasonably long High Court.
period (c) Governor
(d) Right not to be detained beyond (d) Chief Justice of India [a]
24 hours in police custody [d] 76. Which of the following Section deal
72. During the Proclamation of with an implied warranty in every
Emergency, the duration of the contract of sale;
House of People may be extended (a) 14(A)
by the Parliament for a period not (b) 14(B)
exceeding ____________ at a time (c) 15
(a) One year (d) 16(2) [b]
(b) Six months 77. Which of the following rights of an
(c) Nine months unpaid-seller can be exercised only
(d) Eighteen months [a] when the buyer has become
73. When the President refers a matter insolvent and not otherwise;
to the Supreme Court; (a) Right of lien
(a) The court is bound to render its (b) Right of Re-sale
opinion (c) Right of Stoppage in transit
(b) The court is bound to render its (d) Right to Sue [c]
opinion when it is a dispute of the 78. As per section 41, the buyer must
kind mentioned in the Proviso to have the reasonable opportunity
Article 131 to examine the goods for the
(c) The court is bound to render its purpose of ascertaining;
opinion when it is a dispute of the (a) The goods are in a deliverable
kind mentioned in Article 71 state
Haryana Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2013
(b) The goods are of merchantable Eviction) Act, 1973 deals with
quality eviction of tenants;
(c) The goods are in conformity with (a) 10
the contract (b) 11
(d) All of the above [c] (c) 12
79. Within how many months of (d) 13 [d]
attaining majority, a minor 84. A petition for divorce may be
admitted into the benefits of a presented under section 13(1) A if
partnership firm must decide even after the passing of a decree
whether he wants to become a for restitution of conjugal rights,
partner in the firm? which have not been restored for a
(a) Two period of at least
(b) Three (a) 2 years
(c) Six (b) 6 months
(d) Twelve [c] (c) 1 years
80. Generally, an introduction of a new (d) 18 months [c]
partner in a partnership firm 85. Naveen Kohli v. Neelu Kohli's case
would require the consent of; dealt with
(a) The majority of the partners (a) Irretrievable breakdown of
(b) All the partners marriage
(c) The majority of partners barring (b) Adultery
the dormant partners (c) Divorce by mutual consent
(d) The partners having majority (d) Conversion [a]
share in the firm [b] 86. The decree of Restitution of
81. Which of the following sections Conjugal Rights can be enforced
deals with Personal bars to the under the following provision of
remedy of specific relief; CPC;
(a) 14 (a) Order 21 Rule 32
(b) 15 (b) Order 22 Rule 31
(c) 16 (c) Order 21 Rule 25
(d) 17 [c] (d) None of the above [a]
82. The period of limitation for a suit 87. The period of limitation for seeking
to claim compensation for false an annulment of marriage on the
imprisonment is; ground of Fraud is
(a) One year (a) One year from the date of
(b) Two years knowing the fact of Fraud
(c) Three years (b) Six months from the date of
(d) Twelve years [a] knowledge of Fraud
83. Which section of the Haryana (c) Within two years from the incident
Urban (Control of Rent and of Fraud
Haryana Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2013
(d) Within fourteen months from the (d) None of the above [b]
date of knowledge of fraud [a] 93. As a general rule, interest in the
88. Forced intercourse by a man with coparcenary property is acquired
his wife while a decree of judicial by virtue of
separation is in effect (a) birth
(a) is punishable under the Hindu (b) inheritance
Marriage Act (c) marriage
(b) is punishable under the Indian (d) none of the above [a]
Penal Code 94. Customs are an important source
(c) is not an offence in India of Hindu Law. One of the following
(d) None of the above [b] is not a necessary feature of
89. One of the following is not a Customs:
condition for determining the (a) Uniformity
capacity of a male Hindu to adopt; (b) Certainty
(a) Consent of wife under certain (c) Conformity with public policy
circumstances (d) None of the above [d]
(b) Majority 95. The term "offence" is defined
(c) Soundness of mind under Section _________ of IPC
(d) Must be necessarily married [d] (a) 41
90. A Hindu man wants to adopt a girl- (b) 42
child. The difference in age (c) 40
between the two should be: (d) 43 [c]
(a) at least 21 years 96. In the IPC, nothing is an offence
(b) at least 15 years when it is done by a child below:
(c) at least 24 years (a) 12 years of age
(d) none of the above [a] (b) Above seven but below 12 years
91. Under the Hindu Adoptions and of age
Maintenance Act, a wife will not be (c) Below 14 years of age
entitled to maintenance (d) None of the above [d]
(a) she is unchaste 97. A, under the influence of grave
(b) her husband has ceased to be a provocation by Z, kills Y, Z's child. A
Hindu is guilty of
(c) she is suffering from a venereal (a) Culpable homicide
disease in communicable form (b) murder
(d) All of the above [a] (c) Grievous hurt
92. A Nikah solemnised in the absence (d) No offence as he was under
of Qazi is provocation [b]
(a) Valid 98. Under section 376 of the IPC A
(b) Void public servant committing rape on
(c) Irregular
Haryana Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2013
a woman in his custody shall be has been dealt with in___________
punishable with Section:
(a) Rigorous imprisonment up to 7 (a) 405
years (b) 402
(b) Rigorous imprisonment of at least (c) 404
8 years (d) 401 [a]
(c) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 104. For which of the following
years offences, mens rea is not a
(d) None of the above [d] requisite?
99. A crime under section 399 can (a) Kidnapping
sufficiently attract punishment (b) Robbery
under the IPC at the stage of: (c) Trespass
(a) Intention (d) None of the above [a]
(b) Preparation 105. If the offender is armed with
(c) Attempt deadly weapons at the time of
(d) Commission [b] attempting dacoity, he is liable to
100. Section 511 of the Indian Penal be punished with
Code applies to offences (a) Rigorous imprisonment of at least
punishable under the 7 years
(a) Indian Penal Code (b) Rigorous imprisonment up to 7
(b) Any special Law years
(c) Any Local Law (c) Rigorous imprisonment not
(d) All of the above [a] exceeding 5 years
101. Under section 103 of IPC, the right (d) None of the above [a]
to Private defence of property 106. A was attempting to kill a deer in a
extends to causing death if the sanctuary. While doing so, the
offence is: gunshot hit a man who died
(a) Mischief per se instantly. A is guilty of
(b) Robbery per se (a) Culpable Homicide
(c) Theft per se (b) Murder
(d) All of the above [b] (c) Grievous hurt
102. Smith v. Desmond is a leading case (d) None of the above [d]
on: 107. The maxim 'Ignorantia juris non
(a) Rape excusať means
(b) Extortion (a) Ignorance of law is no excuse
(c) Sedition (b) Ignorance of fact is no excuse
(d) Criminal Conspiracy [d] (c) Ignorance of law is an excuse
103. In the Indian Penal Code, the (d) Ignorance of fact is an excuse [a]
offence of Criminal Breach of Trust 108. 'Infancy' as an exception has been
provided under Section _____ IPC
Haryana Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2013
(a) 80 113. Grave & sudden provocation is
(b) 81 (a) question of fact
(c) 82 (b) question of law
(d) 84 [c] (c) mixed question of fact & law
109. Irresistible impulse is a defence (d) a presumption under the law [a]
(a) in India 114. Which one of the following is not a
(b) in England "Public Servant"
(c) in India and England both (a) liquidator
(d) neither in India nor in England (b) a Civil Judge
[d] (c) member of a panchayat assisting
110. Abettor is a person a Court of justice
(a) who commits the offence (d) Secretary of a Co-operative
(b) who instigates the commission of Society [d]
offence 115. Navy Day is observed on
(c) against whom the offence is (a) December 4
committed (b) December 25
(d) who is innocent [b] (c) December 31
111. 10 persons were charged for (d) January 1 [a]
offence under section 302/149 IPC, 116. The shorter version of India's
out of which six persons were National Anthem has a playing
acquitted, the remaining four time of
(a) cannot be convicted for offence (a) 12 seconds
under section 302/149 of IPC (b) 15 seconds
(b) cannot be convicted for offence (c) 20 seconds
under section 302 of IPC (d) 26 seconds [c]
(c) cannot be convicted for offence 117. The highest airfield in India is
under section 149 of IPC (a) Bhuntar
(d) all the above [a] (b) Pantnagar
112. In the context of the exception of (c) Chushul
grave & sudden provocation, which (d) Parapani [c]
of the following is correct 118. Who among the following had the
(a) provocation should not be longest tenure as the President of
voluntarily provoked by the offender India?
(b) lawful exercise of the right of (a) Dr. Zakir Hussain
private defence does not give (b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
provocation (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) lawful exercise of powers by a (d) V.V. Giri [c]
public servant in obedience to the 119. Shaurya Chakra made up of bronze
law does not amount to provocation is awarded for:
(d) all the above [d]
Haryana Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2013
(a) gallantry otherwise than in the
face of the enemy
(b) most conspicuous bravery or
some act of self sacrifice
(c) gallantry in the presence of enemy
(d) none of these [a]
120. What is the effect of deficit
financing on economy?
(a) Inflation
(b) Deflation
(c) Depression
(d) Recession [a]
121. Mother Teresa was born in
(a) Switzerland
(b) India
(c) Germany
(d) Albania [d]
122. Who is known as 'Little Corporal'?
(a) Adolf Hitler
(b) Napolean Bonaparte
(c) William E. Gladstone
(d) None of these [b]
123. Asian Games have been organised
in India
(a) Once
(b) thrice
(c) five times
(d) twice [d]
124. Ranji Trophy and Aga Khan Cup are
associated with
(a) Cricket and Footbal
(b) Cricket and Volleyball
(c) Cricket and Hockey
(d) Badminton and Hockey [c]
125. The term 'deuce' is common in
which of the following two games?
(a) Basketball and Badminton
(b) Badminton and Tennis
(c) Volleyball and Tennis
(d) None of these [b]