Modern Portfolio Theory, Capital Market Theory, and Asset Pricing Models
Modern Portfolio Theory, Capital Market Theory, and Asset Pricing Models
Modern Portfolio Theory, Capital Market Theory, and Asset Pricing Models
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Modern Portfolio Theory, Capital Market Theory, and Asset Pricing Models
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Chapter 2
11
12 Portfolio Theory and Asset Pricing
For the three indifference curves shown in Exhibit 1, the utility the inves-
tor receives is greater the further the indifference curve is from the horizontal
axis, because that curve represents a higher level of return at every level of risk.
Thus, for the three indifference curves shown in the figure, u3 has the highest util-
ity and u1 the lowest.
where
rn = the n-th possible rate of return for asset i
pn = probability of attaining rate of return n for asset i
N = number of possible outcomes for the rate of return
In practice, the probability distribution is based on historical returns.
Assume that an individual is considering an investment, stock XYZ,
which has a probability distribution for the rate of return for some time period as
given below:
n Rate of return (%) Probability of occurrence
1 15 0.50
2 10 0.30
3 5 0.13
4 0 0.05
5 −5 0.02
E(RXYZ) = 0.50 (15%) + 0.30(10%) + 0.13 (5%) + 0.05 (0%) + 0.02 (−5%)
= 11%
Thus, 11% is the expected value or mean of the probability distribution for the
rate of return on stock XYZ.
2Harry M. Markowitz, “Portfolio Selection,” Journal of Finance (March 1952), pp. 77-91, and Portfolio
Selection, Cowles Foundation Monograph 16 (New York: John Wiley & Sons, 1959).
16 Portfolio Theory and Asset Pricing
Using the probability distribution of the return for stock XYZ we can
illustrate the calculation of the variance:
SD ( R i ) = var ( R i )
The two are conceptually equivalent; that is, the larger the variance or standard
deviation, the greater the investment risk.
There are two criticisms of the use of the variance as a measure of risk.
The first criticism is that since the variance measures the dispersion of an asset’s
return around its expected return, it considers the possibility of returns above the
expected return and below the expected return. Investors, however, do not view
possible returns above the expected return as an unfavorable outcome. In fact,
such outcomes are quite favorable. Because of this, some have argued that mea-
sures of risk should not consider the possible returns above the expected return.
Markowitz recognized this limitation and, in fact, suggested a measure of
downside risk — the risk of realizing an outcome below the expected return —
called the semi-variance. The semi-variance is similar to the variance except that
in the calculation no consideration is given to returns above the expected return.
However, because of the computational problems with using the semi-variance
Chapter 2 17
and the limited resources available to him at the time, he compromised and used
the variance in developing portfolio theory.
Today, various measures of downside risk are currently being used by
practitioners. However, regardless of the measure used, the basic principles of
portfolio theory developed by Markowitz are applicable. That is, the choice of the
measure of risk may affect the calculation but doesn’t invalidate the theory.
The second criticism is that the variance is only one measure of how the
returns vary around the expected return. When a probability distribution is not
symmetrical around its expected return, then a statistical measure of the skewness
of a distribution should be used in addition to the variance. The variance can be
justified based on empirical evidence which suggests that the historical distribu-
tion of the returns on stocks is approximately symmetrical. 3 Because expected
return and variance are the only two parameters that investors are assumed to con-
sider in making investment decisions, the Markowitz formulation of portfolio the-
ory is often referred to as a two-parameter model.
3 See Chapters 1 and 2 in Eugene Fama, Foundations of Finance (New York: Basic Books, 1976).
18 Portfolio Theory and Asset Pricing
In words, equation (6) states that the variance of the portfolio return is
the sum of the weighted variances of the individual assets plus the sum of the
weighted covariances of the assets. Hence, the variance of the portfolio return is
the weighted sum of the individual variances of the assets in the portfolio plus the
weighted sum of the degree to which the assets vary together.
In general, for a portfolio with G assets, the portfolio variance is
G G G
∑ ∑ ∑ wg wh cov ( Rg, Rh )
2
var ( R p ) = w g var ( R g ) + (7)
g=1 g = 1 h=1
for h ≠ g
Portfolio Diversification
Often, one hears investors talking about “diversifying” their portfolio. By this an
investor means constructing a portfolio in such a way as to reduce portfolio risk
without sacrificing return. This is certainly a goal that investors should seek.
However, the question is how does one do this in practice.
Chapter 2 19
Markowitz Diversification
The Markowitz diversification strategy is primarily concerned with the degree of
covariance between asset returns in a portfolio. Indeed a key contribution of
Markowitz diversification is the formulation of an asset’s risk in terms of a portfo-
lio of assets, rather than in isolation. Markowitz diversification seeks to combine
assets in a portfolio with returns that are less than perfectly positively correlated,
in an effort to lower portfolio risk (variance) without sacrificing return. It is the
concern for maintaining return, while lowering risk through an analysis of the
covariance between asset returns, that separates Markowitz diversification from
the naive approaches mentioned above and makes it more effective.
Markowitz diversification and the importance of asset correlations can be
illustrated with a simple two-asset portfolio example. To do this, we will first
show the general relationship between the risk of a two-asset portfolio and the
correlation of returns of the component assets. Then we will look at the effects on
portfolio risk of combining assets with different correlations.
Portfolio Risk and Correlation In our two-asset portfolio, assume that com-
mon stock C and common stock D are available with expected returns and stan-
dard deviations as shown:
E(R) SD(R)
Stock C 10% 30%
Stock D 25% 60%
20 Portfolio Theory and Asset Pricing
dard deviation) of the return for that portfolio. This is due to the degree of corre-
lation between the asset returns. The good news is that investors can maintain
expected portfolio return and lower portfolio risk by combining assets with lower
(and preferably negative) correlations. However, the bad news is that very few
assets have small to negative correlations with other assets! The problem, then,
becomes one of searching among large numbers of assets in an effort to discover
the portfolio with the minimum risk at a given level of expected return or, equiva-
lently, the highest expected return at a given level of risk. The stage is now set for
a discussion of Markowitz efficient portfolios and their construction.
beyond the scope of this chapter. However, it is possible to illustrate the general
idea of the construction of Markowitz efficient portfolios by referring again to the
simple two-asset portfolio consisting of stocks C and D.
Recall that for two assets, common stocks C and D, E(RC) = 10%,
SD(R C) = 30%, E(R D) = 25%, and SD(R D) = 60%. We now further assume that
cor(RC,RD) = −0.5. The expected portfolio return and standard deviation are cal-
culated for five different proportions of C and D in the portfolio in Exhibit 2.
Given these available combinations of stocks C and D, it is now possible to intro-
duce the notion of a feasible portfolio and a Markowitz efficient portfolio.
Proportion of Proportion of
Portfolio stock C (wC) stock D (wD) E(Rp) SD(Rp)
1 100% 0% 10.0% 30.0%
2 75 25 13.8 19.8
3 50 50 17.5 26.0
4 25 75 21.3 41.8
5 0 100 25.0 60.0
Chapter 2 23
Markowitz efficient set (portfolios 2 and 3) that have higher expected returns and
lower risk levels. Portfolios to the left of section 2-3-4-5 are not attainable from
combinations of stocks C and D and are, therefore, not candidates for the Markow-
itz efficient set. Portfolios to the right of section 2-3-4-5 are not included in the
Markowitz efficient set, since there exists some other portfolio that would provide
a higher expected return at the same level of risk or, alternatively, a lower level of
risk at the same expected return. To see this, consider portfolio 6 in Exhibit 3. Port-
folios 4 and 6 have the same level of risk, but portfolio 4 has a higher expected
return. Likewise, portfolios 2 and 6 have the same expected returns, but portfolio 2
has a lower level of risk. Thus, portfolios 4 and 2 are said to dominate portfolio 6.
Exhibit 4 also shows the Markowitz efficient set. All the portfolios on the
Markowitz efficient set dominate the portfolios in the shaded area.
The Markowitz efficient set of portfolios is sometimes called the
Markowitz efficient frontier, because graphically all the Markowitz efficient port-
folios lie on the boundary of the set of feasible portfolios that have the maximum
return for a given level of risk. Any portfolios above the Markowitz efficient fron-
tier cannot be achieved. Any portfolios below the Markowitz efficient frontier are
dominated by portfolios on the Markowitz efficient frontier.
Consequently, for the investor’s preferences for risk and return as deter-
mined by the shape of the indifference curves, and his or her expectations for
returns and covariance of stocks C and D, portfolio 3 maximizes utility. If this
investor had a different preference for expected risk and return, there would have
been a different optimal portfolio.
At this point in our discussion, a natural question is how to estimate an
investor’s utility function so that the indifference curves can be determined.
Unfortunately, there is little guidance about how to construct one. In general,
economists have not been successful in measuring utility functions.
The inability to measure utility functions does not mean that the theory is
flawed. What it does mean is that once an investor constructs the Markowitz effi-
cient frontier, the investor will subjectively determine which Markowitz efficient
portfolio is appropriate given his or her tolerance to risk.
ior and expectations of investors, and assumptions about capital markets, these
models predict the theoretical equilibrium price of an asset.
Assumptions
Just like the model for the selection of Markowitz efficient portfolios, capital mar-
ket theory and asset pricing models are abstractions of the real world and, as such,
are based upon some simplifying assumptions. Some of these assumptions may
even seem unrealistic. However, these assumptions make the theory more tracta-
ble from a mathematical standpoint. The assumptions to derive the CAPM are that
(1) investors rely on two factors in making their decisions: expected return and
variance; (2) investors are rational and risk averse and subscribe to Markowitz
methods of portfolio diversification; (3) investors all invest for the same period of
time; (4) investors share all expectations about assets (the “homogeneous expec-
tations assumption”); (5) there is a risk-free investment and investors can borrow
and lend any amount at the risk-free rate; and (6) capital markets are completely
competitive and frictionless.
The theory assumes all investors make investment decisions over some
single-period investment horizon. How long that period is (i.e., six months, one
year, two years, etc.) is not specified. In reality, the investment decision process is
more complex than that, with many investors having more than one investment
horizon — such as short-term and long-term planning horizons. Nonetheless, the
assumption of a one-period investment horizon is necessary to simplify the math-
ematics of the theory.
The first four assumptions deal with the behavior of investors in making
investment decisions. It is also necessary to make assumptions about the character-
istics of the capital market in which investors transact. These are covered by the
last two assumptions.
struct. Portfolios to the left of M represent combinations of risky assets and the
risk-free asset. Portfolios to the right of M include purchases of risky assets made
with funds borrowed at the risk-free rate. Such a portfolio is called a levered port-
folio since it involves the use of borrowed funds.
Now compare a portfolio on the capital market line to the portfolio on the
Markowitz efficient frontier with the same risk. For example, compare portfolio
PA, which is on the Markowitz efficient frontier, with portfolio PB, which is on the
capital market line and therefore some combination of the risk-free asset and the
Markowitz efficient portfolio M. Notice that for the same risk the expected return
is greater for PB than for PA. A risk-averse investor will prefer PB to PA. That is,
PB will dominate PA. In fact, this is true for all but one portfolio on the line: port-
folio M, which is on the Markowitz efficient frontier.
Recognizing this, we must modify the conclusion from portfolio theory
that an investor will select a portfolio on the Markowitz efficient frontier, the par-
ticular portfolio depending on the investor’s risk preference. With the introduction
of the risk-free asset, we can now say that an investor will select a portfolio on the
line representing a combination of borrowing or lending at the risk-free rate and
purchasing the Markowitz efficient portfolio M.
The particular efficient portfolio that the investor will select on the line
will depend on the investor’s risk preference. The investor will select the portfolio
on the line that is tangent to the highest indifference curve. In the absence of a
risk-free asset, it would not be possible to construct such a portfolio.
5 William F. Sharpe, “Capital Asset Prices,” Journal of Finance (September 1964), pp. 425- 442; John Lint-
ner, “The Valuation of Risk Assets and the Selection of Risky Investments in Stock Portfolio and Capital
Budgets,” Review of Economics and Statistics (February 1965), pp. 13-37; Jack L. Treynor, “Toward a The-
ory of Market Value of Risky Asset,” Unpublished Paper, Arthur D. Little, 1961; and, Jan Mossin, “Equilib-
rium in a Capital Asset Market,” Econometrica (October 1966), pp. 768- 783.
6 Eugene F. Fama, “Efficient Capital Markets: A Review of Theory and Empirical Work,” Journal of
SD(Rp) are the market’s consensus for the return distributions for the market port-
folio and portfolio p. The slope of the CML is
E ( R M ) – RF
------------------------------
SD ( R M )
Let’s examine the economic meaning of the slope. The numerator is the
expected return of the market in excess of the risk-free return. It is a measure of
the risk premium, or the reward for holding the risky market portfolio rather than
the risk-free asset. The denominator is the risk of the market portfolio. Thus, the
slope measures the reward per unit of market risk. Since the CML represents the
return offered to compensate for a perceived level of risk, each point on the line is
a balanced market condition, or equilibrium. The slope of the line determines the
additional return needed to compensate for a unit change in risk. That is why the
slope of the CML is also referred to as the equilibrium market price of risk.
The CML says that the expected return on a portfolio is equal to the risk-
free rate plus a risk premium equal to the price of risk (as measured by the differ-
ence between the expected return on the market and the risk-free rate divided by
the standard deviation of the market return) times the quantity of market risk for
the portfolio (as measured by the standard deviation of the portfolio). That is,
E(Rp) = RF + Market price of risk × Quantity of market risk
277-293.
30 Portfolio Theory and Asset Pricing
where
Rit = return on asset i over the period t
RMt = return on the market portfolio over the period t
αi = a term that represents the nonmarket component of the return on
asset i
βi = a term that relates the change in asset i’s return to the change in
the market portfolio
eit = random error term that reflects the unique risks associated with
investing in an asset over period t
The market model given by equation (9) says that the return on an asset
depends on the return on the market portfolio and the extent of the asset’s respon-
siveness as measured by beta (βi). In addition, the return will also depend on con-
ditions that are unique to the firm as measured by eit.
The term β, or beta, is the slope of the market model for the asset, and
measures the degree to which the historical returns on the asset change systemati-
cally with changes in the market portfolio’s return. Hence, beta is referred to as an
index of that systematic risk due to general market conditions that cannot be
diversified away. For example, if a stock has a beta of 1.5, it means that, on aver-
age, on the basis of historical data, the stock had a return equal to 1.5 times that of
the market portfolio’s return. The beta for the market portfolio is 1.0.
The term in the market model, popularly referred to as alpha is equal to
the average value over time of the unsystematic returns for the stock. For most
stocks, alpha tends to be small and unstable.
Recall from our earlier discussion, the total risk of an asset can be
decomposed into market or systematic risk and unique or unsystematic risk. We
can use the market model to quantify these two risks. To see how, let’s look at the
total risk of the return of stock i as measured by the variance of its return. This is
done by determining the variance of equation (9). We show without proof that the
variance would be
2
var(Ri) = β i var(RM) + var(ei) (10)
Equation (10) says that the total risk as measured by var(Ri) is equal to the sum of
2
(1) the market or systematic risk as measured by β i var(RM), and (2) the unique
risk as measured by var(ei)
In Chapter 3 we explain how the market model is estimated by applying
statistical techniques to historical data on returns. Another product of the statisti-
cal technique used to estimate beta is the percentage of systematic risk to total
risk. In statistical terms, it is measured by the coefficient of determination (R 2)
from the regression, which indicates the percentage of the variation in the return
of the asset explained by the market portfolio return. The value of the coefficient
32 Portfolio Theory and Asset Pricing
Equation (11) simply uses risk and return variables for an individual security in
place of the portfolio values in the formula for the CML in equation (8). This ver-
sion of the risk- return relationship for individual securities is called the security
market line (SML). As in the case of the CML, the expected return for an asset is
equal to the risk-free rate plus the product of the market price of risk and the
quantity of risk associated with the security.
Another more common version of the SML relationship uses the beta of a
security. To see how this relationship is developed, look back at equation (10). In
a well-diversified portfolio (i.e., Markowitz diversified), the unique risk is elimi-
2
nated. Consequently, equation (10) can be rewritten as var(Ri) = β i var(RM) and
the standard deviation as SD(Ri) = βi SD(RM).
If βi SD(RM) is substituted into equation (11) for SD(Ri), we have the beta
version of the SML or the capital asset pricing model as shown in equation (12):
Equation (12) states that, given the assumptions of the CAPM, the expected
(or required) return on an individual asset is a positive linear function of its index of
systematic risk as measured by beta. The higher the beta, the higher the expected
return. Notice that it is only an asset’s beta that determines its (differential) expected
return.
Chapter 2 33
Let’s look at the prediction of the CAPM for several values of beta. The
beta of a risk-free asset is zero, because the variability of the return for a risk-free
asset is zero and therefore it does not covary with the market portfolio. So if we
want to know the expected return for a risk-free asset, we would substitute zero for
βi in equation (12). Thus, the return on a risk-free asset is simply the risk-free
return. Of course, this is what we expect. The beta of the market portfolio is 1. If
asset i has the same beta as the market portfolio, then substituting 1 for βi in equa-
tion (12) gives a value equal to E(RM). In this case, the expected return for the asset
is the same as the expected return for the market portfolio. If an asset has a beta
greater than the market portfolio (i.e., greater than 1), then the expected return will
be higher than for the market portfolio. The reverse is true if an asset has a beta less
than the market portfolio. A graph of the SML is presented in Exhibit 8.
In equilibrium, the expected return of individual securities will lie on the SML
and not on the CML. This is true because of the high degree of unsystematic risk that
remains in individual securities that can be diversified out of portfolios of securities.
It follows that the only risk that investors will pay a premium to avoid is
market risk. Hence, two assets with the same amount of systematic risk will have
the same expected return. In equilibrium, only efficient portfolios will lie on both
the CML and the SML. This underscores the fact that the systematic risk measure,
beta, is most correctly considered as an index of the contribution of an individual
security to the systematic risk of a well-diversified portfolio of securities.
There is one more version of the SML that is worthwhile to discuss. It
can be demonstrated that SML can be expressed as:
Cov ( R i, R M )
E ( R i ) = R F + ------------------------------- [ E ( R M ) – R F ] (13)
var ( R M )
34 Portfolio Theory and Asset Pricing
This version of the SML emphasizes that it is not the variance or stan-
dard deviation of an asset that affects its return. It is the covariance of the asset’s
return with the market’s return that affects its return. An asset that has a positive
covariance will have a higher expected return than the risk-free asset; an asset
with a negative covariance will have a lower expected return than the risk-free
asset. The reason has to do with the benefits of diversification we discussed earlier
in this chapter. If the covariance is positive, this increases the risk of an asset in a
portfolio and therefore investors will only purchase that asset if they expect to
earn a return higher than the risk-free asset. If an asset has a negative covariance,
recall from our discussion earlier in this chapter that this will reduce the portfolio
risk and investors would be willing to accept a return less than the risk-free asset.
Finally, it is important to point out the difference between the market
model and the CML and SML. The CML and the SML represent an ex ante, or
predictive, model for expected returns. The market model is an ex post, or
descriptive, model used to describe historical data. Hence, the market model
makes no prediction of what expected returns should be.
that he does not believe there ever will be an unambiguous test of the CAPM. He
does not say that the CAPM is invalid. Rather, Roll says that there is likely to be
no unambiguous way to test the CAPM and its implications due to the non-
observability of the true market portfolio and its characteristics.
Does this mean that the CAPM is useless to the financial practitioner?
The answer is no, it does not. What it means is that the implications of the CAPM
should be viewed with caution.
where E(RZ) is the expected return on the zero-beta portfolio and [E(RM) − E(RZ)] is
the market risk premium.
The version of the CAPM as given by equation (14) is the same as equa-
tion (12) except that the expected return for the zero-beta portfolio is substituted
for the risk-free rate. Black’s zero-beta version of the CAPM is called the two-
factor model. Empirical tests of the two-factor model suggest that it does a better
job in explaining historical returns than the pure CAPM.12
The basic principle in developing the zero-beta portfolio is that by means
of short selling, a zero-beta portfolio can be created from a combination of securi-
ties. The reason why short selling is a necessary assumption is that since assets
such as stocks are positively correlated, the only way to get a portfolio that is
uncorrelated with the market portfolio is to create a portfolio in which stocks are
owned and stocks are shorted. Thus, when the price of stocks increases, there will
be a gain on the stocks owned in the portfolio, giving a positive return; however,
there will be a loss on the stocks that have been shorted and therefore a negative
return. The zero-beta portfolio is created such that this combination of stocks
owned and stocks shorted will have a beta of zero.
Unfortunately, not all investors are permitted to sell short. Many institu-
tional investors are prohibited or constrained from selling short. Thus, the two-fac-
tor version of the CAPM avoids relying on the myth of “borrowing and lending at a
risk-free rate.” It still cannot reflect the real world for all investors, however,
because it does require unrestricted short selling, which is not available to everyone.
12 Fischer Black, Michael C. Jensen, and Myron Scholes, “The Capital Asset Pricing Model,” in Michael C.
Jensen (ed.), Studies in the Theory of Capital Markets (New York: Praeger 1972).
13 Stephen A. Ross, “The Arbitrage Theory of Capital Asset Pricing,” Journal of Economic Theory (Decem-
where
βi,Fh = the sensitivity of security i to the h-th factor, and
E(RFh) − RF = the expected excess return of the h-th systematic factor
over the risk-free rate, and can be thought of as the
price (or risk premium) for the h-th systematic risk.
Equation (16) is the APT model. It states that investors want to be com-
pensated for all the factors that systematically affect the return of a security. The
compensation is the sum of the products of each factor’s systematic risk (βi,Fh),
and the risk premium assigned to it by the financial market [E(RFh − RF)]. As in the
case of the CAPM, an investor is not compensated for accepting unsystematic risk.
Examining the equations, we can see that the CAPM as given by equation
(12) is actually a special case of the APT model as given by equation (16). If the
only factor in equation (16) is market risk, the APT model reduces to equation (12).
Supporters of the APT model argue that it has several major advantages
over the CAPM. First, it makes less restrictive assumptions about investor prefer-
ences toward risk and return. CAPM theory assumes investors trade off between
risk and return solely on the basis of the expected returns and standard deviations
of prospective investments. The APT, in contrast, simply requires that some rather
38 Portfolio Theory and Asset Pricing
In this chapter, we have covered the heart of what is popularly called modern
portfolio theory and capital market theory. We have emphasized the assumptions
and their critical role in the development of these theories. While you may under-
stand the topics covered, you may still be uncomfortable as to where we have pro-
gressed in investment management given the lack of theoretical and empirical
support for the CAPM or the difficulty of identifying the factors in the APT
model. You’re not alone. There are a good number of practitioners and academics
who feel uncomfortable with these models, particularly the CAPM.
Nevertheless, what is comforting is that there are several general princi-
ples of investing that are derived from these theories that very few would ques-
tion. All of these principles are used in later chapters.
1. Investing has two dimensions, risk and return. Therefore, focusing only on
the actual return that a manager has achieved without looking at the risk
that had to be accepted to achieve that return is inappropriate.
2. It is inappropriate to look at the risk of an individual asset when deciding
whether it should be included in a portfolio. What is important is how the
inclusion of an asset into a portfolio will affect the risk of the portfolio.
3. Whether investors consider one risk or 1,000 risks, risk can be divided into
two general categories: systematic risks that cannot be eliminated by
diversification, and unsystematic risk which can be diversified.
4. Investors should only be compensated for accepting systematic risks.
Thus, it is critical in formulating an investment strategy to identify the
systematic risks.
Chapter 2 39
QUESTIONS
1. “A portfolio’s expected return and variance of return are simply the weighted
average of the individual asset’s expected returns and variances.” Explain why
you agree or disagreement with this statement?
5. Explain the critical role of the correlation between assets in determining the
potential benefits from diversification.
a. Write out the rate of return variance for this 4-asset global portfolio.
b. How many unique covariances are there in this portfolio having four asset
classes? Verify your answer by using the following formula:
Use the following average return and risk information for U.S. and interna-
tional equities over a recent 20-year period to verify the risk management
accuracy (or inaccuracy) of the proposed “30 Percent Solution.”
U.S. Equities International Equities “70/30 Solution”
Average Return 15% 17% ?
Standard Deviation 14% 22% ?
The figures are based on S&P 500 and Morgan Stanley EAFE (Europe, Australia,
and Far East) total return indexes during 20-year period, 1977-1996.
8. The following excerpt is from Warren Bailey and Rene M. Stulz, “Benefits of
International Diversification: The Case of Pacific Basin Stock Markets,” Jour-
nal of Portfolio Management (Summer 1990):
a. Why would you expect that the justification of diversifying into foreign stock
markets would depend on empirical evidence regarding the ability to “reduce
the variance of a portfolio of domestic stocks without reducing its expected
return”?
b. Typically in research papers that seek to demonstrate the benefits of interna-
tional diversification by investing in a foreign stock market, two efficient fron-
tiers are compared. One is an efficient frontier constructed using only domestic
stocks; the other is an efficient frontier constructed using both domestic and
foreign stocks. If there are benefits to diversifying into foreign stocks, should
the efficient frontier constructed using both domestic and foreign stocks lie
above or below the efficient frontier constructed using only domestic stocks?
Explain your answer.
9. The following excerpt is from John E. Hunter and T. Daniel Coggin, “An Anal-
ysis of the Diversification from International Equity Investment,” Journal of
Portfolio Management (Fall 1990):
a. Why are the “cross-national correlations” critical in justifying the benefits from
international diversification?
b. Why do Hunter and Coggin state that there would be no benefit from interna-
tional diversification if these correlations are all 1.00?
10 a. In the “real world” the investor’s borrowing rate of interest is higher than the
lending rate. Show how this capital market imperfection impacts the set of
efficient portfolios that are available to risk averse investors. (Hint: the
“Capital Market Line” now consists of two linear segments.)
b. In a world where investors can borrow and lend at the same (risk-free) rate of
interest, we learned that there is one tangency portfolio consisting of all risky
assets called the market portfolio, M. Illustrate where the market portfolio, M,
would be positioned in the portfolio opportunity set when there exists a diver-
gence between borrowing and lending rates of interest in the economy.
Explain your answer.
11. What is the single factor that is used to explain the expected return for a secu-
rity or portfolio in the traditional CAPM?
12 a. How does the Black “zero-beta” model differ from the traditional CAPM?
Be sure to discuss the underlying logic of the Black portfolio model.
b. Show where Black’s “zero beta” portfolio lies on the boundary of feasible
investment portfolios. (Hint: Portfolio “Z,” for zero-beta portfolio, plots
directly across from a line drawn tangent to the market portfolio M and inter-
secting the expected return axis (vertical axis) in expected return and portfolio
risk space.)
14. One of the major challenges for corporate pension plan (defined benefit) spon-
sors is to be sure that there are sufficient assets in a portfolio to cover pro-
jected payment of future benefits to retired (and retiring) employees. From a
“surplus risk management” perspective, should plan sponsors prefer positive
or negative return correlation in a portfolio having both assets and liabilities?
Explain your answer in the context of the rate of return variance for a “2-asset”
portfolio—namely, a portfolio consisting of a conventional asset class like com-
mon stocks and a liability (or negative asset) having the payoff characteristics of a
“fixed income” security.
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