J1 Solutions Latex
J1 Solutions Latex
N1. Let x1 , x2 , . . . be a sequence of positive integers such that x1 = 5 or 7 and for each n either
xn+1 = 5xn or xn+1 = 7xn .
Determine all possibilities for the last two digits of x2012 .
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Solutions Australian Mathematical Olympiad Committee
Number Theory 2021 Mentor Program
Answer 2012
Solution
2011
m2 1
Let m = 2011. Then the sum is m 1
. Using DOPS repeatedly yields
2011 2010 2009
m2 1 = (m2 + 1)(m2 + 1) . . . (m2 + 1)(m + 1)(m 1).
Each parenthesis, except for the last two, is divisible by 2 but not 4 because each is of the form
x2 + 1 ⌘ 2 (mod 4) since x is odd.
Also m + 1 = 2012 is divisible by 4 but not 8.
And m 1 is irrelevant since it is to be canceled.
Thus 2 2012
divides the number but 22013 does not. ⇤
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Solutions Australian Mathematical Olympiad Committee
Number Theory 2021 Mentor Program
N3. For each positive integer n, let Sn be the sum of the first n primes. Thus S1 = 2, S2 = 2+3 = 5,
S3 = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10 and so on.
Is it possible that two consecutive terms of the sequence S1 , S2 , S3 , . . . can be perfect squares?
Answer No
Solution
We can check directly that S2 = 2, S2 = 5, S3 = 10, S4 = 17, S5 = 28 are not perfect squares.
Let pn be the nth prime. Suppose that Sn 1 and Sn are both perfect squares for some n > 5. Then
we may write Sn 1 = a2 and Sn = b2 = Sn 1 + pn = a2 + pn for some positive integers a, b. Thus
p n = b2 a2 = (b a)(b + a).
pn +1
Since pn is prime this implies that b a = 1 and b + a = pn . Thus b = 2
, and so
✓ ◆2
pn + 1
Sn = .
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We have
Sn = 2 + 3 + 5 + · · · + p n .
Except for the first term, this is the sum of the odd numbers from 3 to pn , but skipping the composite
odd numbers. This sum is less than or equal to
This is equal to the sum of all odd numbers from 1 to pn minus 8. But it is well known or easy to
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prove that the sum of the odd numbers 1 + 3 + · · · + k = k+1 2
for any odd positive integer k. Thus
pn +1 2
the sum we are considering is less than or equal to 2
8. This is a contradiction because we
pn +1 2
earlier concluded that Sn = 4
. Thus it is not possible that two consecutive terms of the given
sequence are perfect squares. ⇤
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Solutions Australian Mathematical Olympiad Committee
Number Theory 2021 Mentor Program
N4. Prove that for each positive integer n, there exists a permutation (a0 , a1 , . . . , an ) of the numbers
(0, 1, . . . , n) such that i + ai is a perfect square for i = 0, 1, . . . , n.
Solution
We prove this by strong induction.
By inspection it is true for n = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4.
Suppose it is true for all n < m. We show that it is also true for m.
There is a positive integer r such that r2 < m (r + 1)2 . Write m = r2 + s where 1 s 2r + 1.
We make the following assignments.
ar2 +s = 2r + 1 s
ar2 +s 1 = 2r + 2 s
ar2 +s 2 = 2r + 3 s
..
.
a2r+1 s = r2 + s
This bijectively assigns each positive integer in the range [2r + 1 s, r2 + s] another positive integer
in the same range, such that the sum of the two numbers is (r + 1)2 . This works fine provided that
2r + 1 s r2 + s. But this follows from r2 + 2s r2 + 2 2r + 1 for any real number r.
If 2r + 1 = s we have assigned all the numbers.
If s < 2r + 1, we apply the strong inductive assumption to find a permutation of the integers in the
range [0, 2r s] with the required property.
This concludes the induction and the proof. ⇤
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Solutions Australian Mathematical Olympiad Committee
Number Theory 2021 Mentor Program
N5. Find two positive integers c > 100 such that in each case the equation
xy 2 y2 x+y =c
Answer There are many answers. We show how to find some of them.
Solution
Putting y = 1 makes the LHS equal zero. Thus y 1 is a factor of the LHS. We may rewrite the
equation as
(y 1)(xy + x y) = c.
So far we have the two possibilities y 1 = c and xy + x y = 1 which leads to (x, y) = (1, c + 1) or
y 1 = 1 and xy + x y = c which leads to (x, y) = ( c+2 3
, 2) which is a solution if c ⌘ 1 (mod 3).
Try c = 2p where p is a prime with p ⌘ 2 (mod 3). This ensures that c ⌘ 1 (mod 3) and that we
only have two other factorizations of c to check.
First y 1 = p and xy + x y = 2. Since we are looking at 2p = c > 100, this means that
y = p + 1 > 50. But then xy + x y = y(x 1) + x > 50 for x > 1 or xy + x y = 1 for x = 1. So
this case has no solutions.
Second y 1 = 2 and xy + x y = p. This implies y = 3 and 4x 3 = p. Thus we have solution
(x, y) = (3, p+3
4
) which is valid if p ⌘ 1 (mod 4).
Thus if c = 2p, we have exactly three valid solutions for any prime p > 50 such that p ⌘ 2 (mod 3)
and p ⌘ 1 (mod 4). By the Chinese Remainder Theorem we want p ⌘ 5 (mod 12). Primes p = 53, 89
satisfy these requirements. Thus c = 106 and 178 both work. ⇤
Comment
There are many other solutions. For example if we search for solutions of form c = 5p, a similar
analysis yields p > 20, p ⌘ 2 (mod 3) and p ⌘ 1 (mod 7). By CRT p ⌘ 8 (mod 21). Thus p = 29, 71
yielding c = 145 and 355.
Also c = 7p, leads to p > 14, p ⌘ 1 (mod 3) and p ⌘ 1 (mod 9). Thus p ⌘ 1 (mod 9). So p = 19, 37
yielding c = 133 and 259. ⇤
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Solutions Australian Mathematical Olympiad Committee
Number Theory 2021 Mentor Program
N6. Find all ordered triples of positive integers (a, b, c) such that for all positive integers t
bct + b + c ⌘ 0 (mod a)
Conjecture. There are infinitely many prime triplets of the form (6k +1, 12k +1, 18k +1).
The reason this is rather interesting is because each such prime triplet yields a Carmichael number
n = (6k + 1)(12k + 1)(18k + 1), that is, n satisfies xn ⌘ x (mod n) for all integers x. ⇤
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