Objective question

1. Which process is responsible for the production of energy in the sun?

a. Nuclear fission reaction c. nuclear fusion reaction
b. Exothermic chemical reaction d. all of the above
2. Which of the following statement is not true for solar energy?
a. It is a dilute form of energy.
b. Its availability diurnal.
c. Availability at any instant of time is uncertain.
d. Its harnessing at large scale is easy.
3. Diffuse radiation has
a. Unique direction.
b. No unique direction.
c. Short wave length as compared to beam radiation.
d. Large magnitude as compared to beam radiation.
4. Terrestrial radiation has a wave length in the range of
a. 0.2µm to 4µm c. 0.38µm to 0.76µm
b. 0.2µm to 0.5µm d. 0.29µm to 2.3µm
5. What is the standard value of solar constant?
a. 1Kw/m2 b. 1.367 Kw/m2 c. 1.5Kw/m2 d. 1.7Kw/m2
6. The percentage of solar radiation reflected back to the space by earth is
a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40%
7. Air mass ratio is minimum
a. When the sun is at its zenith c. at sunrise
b. At sunset d. at 6:00 GMT
8. At the altitude angle of 30º what will be magnitude of zenith angle?
a. 60º b. 120º c. 150º d. 60º
9. For 1º change in longitude, the change in solar time is
a. 4 minutes b. 4 seconds c. 15 minutes d. 60 seconds
10. At solar noon, the hour angle is.
a. +90º b. -90º c. zero d. +180º
11. Pyrheliometer is used to measure
a. Beam radiation c. diffuse radiation
b. Global radiation d. ettraterrestrial radiation
12. By how much angle Earth tilted from its polar axis
a. 13.5º c. 33.5º
b. 23.5º d. 43.5º
13. Earth rotates about its polar axis from
a. East to West CW c. East to West ACW
b. West to East CW d. West to East ACW
14. The angle between sun ray with normal to horizontal surface is called
a. Angle of incidence c. Altitude angle
b. Zenith angle d. Declination angle
15. What is the maximum value of declination angle
a. 23.45º b. 23.54º c. 24.35º d. 24.53º
16. The angle between projection of normal to inclined surface with the line due to south
is
a. Altitude angle c. Solar azimuthal angle
b. Surface azimuthal angle d. Declination angle
17. What is value of declination angle for 14th Feb 2020?
a. -13.61º c. -14.21º
b. +13.61º d. +14.21º
18. What is the hour angle at 14 hr
a. +30º c. +210º
b. -30º d. -210º
19. The value of zenith angle during sunrise and sunset is
a. 0º c. 180º
b. 90º d. 360º
20. The hour angle during sunrise is 75º, so the value of Day length is
a. 5hr c. 15hr
b. 10hr d. 20hr
21. What is the value of zenith angle for an altitude angle of 30º
a. 40º c. 60º
b. 50º d. 70º
22. What is the standard longitude of India
a. 72.5º c. 72º
b. 82.5º d. 82º
23. In India we follow which time
a. GMT (Green witch mean time) c. CT (Clock time)
b. LAT (Local apparent time) d. ST (Solar time)
24. Which gas is mostly present inside of sun’s core
a. Hydrogen c. Carbon dioxide
b. Methane d. Carbon monoxide
25. Time required for sun’s ray to reach Earth’s surface is
a. 6 min c. 8 min
b. 7 min d. 9 min
26. A solar thermal collector
a. Collects the solar energy and reflect it back
b. Absorbs the solar radiation and dissipates into the environment
c. Collects and converts the solar energy into electrical energy
d. Collects and converts the solar energy into thermal energy and delivers it to
the next stage of the system
27. The concentration type of collector
a. Firtst absorbs the radiation and then increase the concentration
b. Increase the density of solar radiation before absorbing it
c. Dilute the density of solar radiation before absorbing it
d. Increase the intensity of solar radiation before absorbing it
28. Read the following statement about flat plate collectors and answer the question
i. These are simple in construction
ii. They have high efficiency
iii. They don’t track the sun
 iv. They make use of both beam and diffuse radiation
a. I and ii are correct
b. I, ii, iii are correct
c. Only ii is correct
d. I, ii, iv are correct
29. The value of concentration ratio of flat plate collector is
a. 1
b. 10
c. 100
d. 1000
30. Selective surface has the characteristics of
a. Selective absorption of long wave length radiation
b. Selective absorption of short wave length radiation
c. High value of absorptivity of incoming radiation low value of emissivity of
outgoing radiation
d. Low value of absorptivity of incoming radiation an high value of emissivity of
outgoing radiation
31. The value of heat removal factor FR of a flat plate collector lies in the range of
a. 0 to 0.1
b. 0 to 1
c. 0.9 to 0.95
d. 0.5 to 0.6
32. In an evacuated tube collectors
a. Both conduction and convection losses are suppressed
b. Only conduction losses are suppressed
c. Only convection losses are suppressed
d. Only radiation losses are suppressed
33. Use of booster mirror with a flat plate collector
a. Increase the reflection to the atmosphere
b. Decreases the reflection to the atmosphere
c. Increases the diffusion radiation component on the absorber
d. Increase the beam radiation component on the absorber
34. A cylindrical parabolic concentrator requires
a. 2-axis tracking
b. 1-axis tracking
c. No tracking
d. Seasonal adjustment only
35. What is the typical cooling time of a paraboloidal dish cooker?
a. 2-3hr
b. 20-30 min
c. 20-30 sec
d. 6-12 hr
36. The most important advantages of solar furnance is
a. Heating available throughout the day
b. Cheap low grade heating
c. Availability of both light and heat
 d. Heating without contamination of electromagnetic fields
37. A solar thermal Water pump
a. Uses solar thermal energy to evaporate water
b. Uses solar thermal energy to circulate water
c. Uses electric powered pump to circulate water heated by solar energy
d. Uses solar thermal energy for production of power to drive the pump
38. A solar green house
a. Uses solar energy to provide conductive conditions for growth of vegetation
b. Provides enhance radiation for photosynthesis process
c. Prevents fresh air to come in contact with plants
d. Uses solar thermal pump for irrigation
39. A solar cell is basically
a. A voltage source, controlled by flux radiation
b. A current source, controlled by flux radiation
c. An uncontrolled current source
d. An uncontrolled voltage source
40. The efficiency of commercial solar cell lies in the range of
a. 0-10%
b. 10-20%
c. 20-30%
d. 50-60%
41. A typical open circuit voltage of a solar cell is
a. 12 v
b. 6 v
c. 3 v
d. 0.5 v
42. The charge carrier available in a semiconductor material has
a. Free electrons and holes
b. Only electron
c. Only holes
d. Positively charged ions
43. The energy level of donor ions are
a. Very close to the conduction band
b. Very close to the valance band
c. Lies in the middle of energy gap
d. Lies within the conduction band
44. The energy associated with photon is
a. Directly proportional to the wavelength
b. Inversely proportional to the frequency
c. Directly proportional to the intensity of radiation
d. Inversely proportional to the wavelength
45. If no load is connected to the solar PV system
a. It will stop absorbing light
b. It will dissipate energy in the panel and increase its temperature
c. It will start reflecting the light
d. Its voltage will go on increasing till its breakdown
46. The range of wind speed suitable for wind power generator is
a. 0 to 5 m/s
b. 5 to 25 m/s
c. 25 to 50 m/s
d. 50 to 75 m/s
47. Favourable winds for small scale application exists
a. Everywhere on the earth’s surface
b. On 75% of the earth’s surface
c. On 50% of earth’s surface
d. On 25% of earth’s surface
48. Compare to conventional source of power such as thermal power plants, the cos tof
wind power is
a. 100 times
b. 10 times
c. Comparable
d. 1/10 times
49. There is little wind in the
a. North pole region
b. South pole region
c. Tropical region
d. 5 degree around the equator
50. When solar radiation falls on earth’s surface, the temperature of
a. Land masses rise faster than water mass
b. Land masses rise slower than water mass
c. Land mass and water mass rises uniformly
d. Only land mass increases water remains stationary
51. A wind turbine extracts maximum power from wind, when the downstream wind
speed reduces to
a. One-third that of upstream wind
b. Half that of upstream wind
c. Two-third that of upstream wind
d. Zero
52. The wind turbine blade rotor having a low value of solidity
a. Runs slower
b. Runs faster
c. Produces high torque
d. Has low efficiency
53. As per size of installed capacity of wind power generation in the world, india ranks
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth
54. Storage of biomass energy is
a. Very difficult
b. Inbuilt feature
c. Expensive
 d. Impossible
55. Biogas is predominantly
a. Hydrogen
b. Carbon monoxide
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Methane
56. Fluidised bed gasifier produces
a. Low tar and high particulate
b. High tar and low particulate
c. Gas at low conversion efficiency
d. Low exit temperature
57. Compared to petrol operated engine, an ethanol operated engine
a. Produces 50% more power
b. Produces 20% more power
c. Produces comparable amount of power
d. Produces 20% less power
58. Increasing the pressure inside the biogas plant
a. Increases the gas production
b. Decreases the gas production
c. Has no effect on gas production
d. Causes explosion
59. When ambient temperature of biogas plant decrease below 20 degree
a. The gas production increases
b. The gas production first increase then decreases
c. The gas production decreases
d. Remains unaltered
60. The optimum solid concentration of biogas is
a. 37-39%
b. 27-29%
c. 17-19%
d. 7-9%
61. Which material should be added in the feed of biogas plant to increase nitrogen
content
a. Lignin
b. Carbohydrate
c. Chopped leguminous plant
d. Night soil
62. Liquefaction of biomass is carried out at
a. High temperature and low pressure
b. Relatively low temperature and high pressure
c. Relatively low temperature and normal pressure
d. Room temperature and high pressure
63. Which one is a source of Non-Renewable Energy?
a) Coal
b) Solar power
c) Wind power
 d) Wave power
64. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the nuclear energy sources?
a) High Pollution
b) High waste disposal
c) Unreliable supply
d) High cost of generation
65. Photovoltaic Energy is the conversion of sunlight in to:
a) Chemical energy
b) Biogas
c) Electricity
d) Heat energy
66. Energy is released from coal when it is:
a) Pumped
b) cooled
c) Burned
d) Pressurized
67. What is the % share of fossil fuel consumption globally from Primary Energy
resources?
a) 86%
b) 50%
c) 10%
d) 99%
68. Most nuclear fuel used in the world is:
a) Thorium-232
b) Uranium-232
c) Uranium-235
d) Plutonium-239
69. In the production of Wave Energy, which form of energy is used?
a) Potential Energy
b) Kinetic Energy
c) Solar Energy
d) Wind Energy
70. A tidal barrage is built over a :
a) River bed
b) River estuary
c) River end
d) River starting

71. How many forms of Fossil fuels are there?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
72. Energy in the form of heat and light is obtained from:
a) Biomass
b) Fossil fuels
c) Sun
 d) Wind
73. SI unit of energy is:
a) Watt
b) Kg
c) Newton
d) Joule
74. Trapped heat inside the Earth is known as:
a) Heat energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Geothermal energy
d) thermal energy
75. Geothermal Energy is basically which type of energy?
a) Renewable
b) Non-renewable
c) Biotic
d) Non-cyclic
76. Which State of India has high potential for solar energy?
a) Odisha
b) Karnataka
c) West Bengal
d) Rajasthan
77. Which of the following is a Non-renewable Energy Source?
a) Water
b) Wind energy
c) Coal
d) Solar energy
78. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource?
a) Fresh Water
b) Salt
c) Clean air
d) Fertile Soil
79. Which Non-conventional energy resource can be exploited most economically?
a) Wind Energy
b) Solar Energy
c) Geothermal Energy
d) Wave Energy
80. The main components of Bio-gas are:
a) CH4 and SO2
b) CH4, H2 and NO2
c) CH4, and NO2
d) CH4, CO2 and H2S
81. Common energy source in Indian village is
a) Electricity
b) Coal
c) Sun heat
d) Wood and animal dung
82. The first controlled fission of an atom was carried out in Germany in :
 a) 1920
b) 1930
c) 1938
d) 1948
83. Crude Oil is:
a) Colorless
b) Odorless
c) Smelly yellow to black liquid
d) Odorless yellow to black liquid
84. The process that converts solid coal into liquid hydrocarbon fuel is called:
a) Carbonation
b) Catalytic conversion
c) Liquefaction
d) Cracking
85. Lignite, Bituminous and Anthracite are different forms of:
a) Nuclear fuel
b) Coal
c) Natural gas
d) Bio-gas
86. Boiling water reactor and Pressurized water reactor are related to:
a) Solar reactors
b) OTEC
c) Bio-gas reactors
d) Nuclear reactors
87. When combustion of carbon takes place in insufficient Oxygen, which gas is formed?
a) CO2
b) NO2
c) CO
d) H2O(Steam)
88. What is the per capita energy consumption in India?
a) 100 kWh/year
b) 700 kWh/year
c) 150 kWh/year
d) 400 kWh/year
89. Global warming is mainly caused due to:
a) Emission of Heat energy
b) Emission of CO2
c) Use of nuclear energy
d) Air Pollution
90. Which energy of water is used to produce Hydro-electricity?
a) Potential energy (PE)
b) Kinetic energy (KE)
c) PE & KE
d) None of the above
91. Which of the following is NOT a Greenhouse gas?
a) Sulphur Hexafluoride
b) Methane
 c) Carbon dioxide
d) Oxygen
92. The annual potential of Wind Energy in India is about
a) 20K MW
b) 45K MW
c) 80K MW
d) 5K MW
93. The most accepted value of ‘Solar Constant’, a measure to define amount of solar
energy that falls on a unit area is about:
a) 1.353 kW/m2
b) 2.353 kW/m2
c) 3.353 kW/m2
d) 4.353 kW/m2
94. The Energy-GDP Elasticity of India is around:
a) 2.5
b) 0.6
c) 1.2
d) 0.75
95. The Installed Capacity of Wind Energy in India at present is about ------% of total
Installed Capacity of all energy sources.
a) 2%
b) 16%
c) 6%
d) 26%
96. The PAT (Perform, Achieve and Trade) was launched by Bureau of Energy Efficiency
(BEE), India on:
a) 26th January, 2018
b) 15th August, 2001
c) 4th July, 2020
d) None of the above.
97. Utilization of Non-commercial Energy in the world per year is about -------% of Total
Energy consumption:
a) 4%
b) 8%
c) 14%
d) 25%
98. The turbine used in a tidal range plant is a
a. Pelton turbine
b. Kaplan turbine with variable pitch blade
c. Kaplan turbine with fixed pitch blade
d. Francis turbine
99. Pumping of water from ocean to basin during high tide
a. Increases the net energy generation
b. Decreases the net energy generation
c. Helps in uniform power generation
d. Decreases the net tidal range
100. The minimum tidal range required for power generation is about
 a. 1m
b. 5m
c. 10m
d. 20m

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A N S W E R K E Y S

1.c, 2.d, 3.b, 4.d, 5.b, 6.c, 7.a, 8.d, 9.a, 10.c, 11.a, 12.b, 13.d,14.b, 15.a, 16.b, 17.a, 18.a, 19.b,
20.b, 21.c, 22.b, 23.c, 24.a, 25.c, 26.d, 27.b, 28.d, 29.a, 30.c, 31.b. 32.a, 33.d, 34.b, 35.b,
36.d, 37.d, 38.a, 39.b, 40.b, 41.d, 42.a, 43.a, 44.d, 45.b, 46.b, 47.b, 48.c, 49.d, 50.a, 51.a,
52.b, 53.d, 54.b, 55.d, 56.a, 57.b, 58.b, 59.c, 60.b, 61.d, 62.b, 63.a, 64.c, 65.a, 66.c, 67.a,
68.c, 69.b, 70.b, 71.c, 72.c, 73.d, 74.c, 75.a, 76.d, 77.c, 78.d, 79.b, 80.d, 81.d, 82.c, 83.c, 84.c,
85.b, 86.d, 87.c, 88.b, 89.b, 90.a, 91.d, 92.b, 93.a,94. C, 95.c, 96.c, 97.b, 98.b, 99.a, 100.b

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101.
102.