All MCQs of Cytology and cytotechnology techniques

. The term cell was given by

 Robert Hooke

 Tatum

 Schwann

 De Bary

The cell is not applied for

 Algae

 Bacteria

 Virus

 Fungi

The membrane around the vacuole is known as

 Tonoplast

 Elaioplast

 Cytoplast

 Amyloplast

plant cell wall is mainly composed of

 Protein

 Cellulose

 Lipid

 Starch

Glycolipids in the plasma membrane are located at

 Inner leaflet of the plasma membrane

 The outer leaflet of the plasma membrane

 Evenly distributed in the inner and outer leaflets

 It varies according to cell types

Lysosomes are known as “suicidal bags” because

 Parasitic activity

 Presence of food vacuole

 Hydrolytic activity

 Catalytic activity

The properties of integral membrane proteins can be studied by

 Atomic force microscopy

 Cryo-sectioning and electron microscopy

 Freeze-fracture technique and electron microscopy

 All of the above

cell without a cell wall is termed as

 Tonoplast

 Protoplast

 Symplast

 Apoplast

The function of the centrosome is

 Formation of spindle fibres

 Osmoregulation

 Secretion

 Protein synthesis

Which cell organelle is involved in apoptosis?

 Lysosome

 ER

 Golgi

 Mitochondria

Which of the following cell organelles is absent in animal cells and present in a plant cell?
  (a) Cell wall

 (b) Cytoplasm

 (c) Vacuoles

 (d) Mitochondria

Which of the following cell organelles does not contain DNA?

 (a) Nucleus

 (b) Lysosomes

 (c) Chloroplast

 (d) Mitochondria

Which of the following statements is true about the cell wall?

 (a) The cell wall is mainly composed of lipid

 (b) The cell wall is mainly composed of starch

 (c) The cell wall is mainly composed of protein

 (d) The cell wall is mainly composed of cellulose

___________ is a jellylike substance found floating inside the plasma membrane.

 (a) Cell sap

 (b) Cytoplasm

 (c) Karyoplasm

 (d) Mitochondria

Which of the following cell organelles regulates the entry and exit of molecules to and
from the cell?

 (a) Lysosomes

 (b) Golgi bodies

 (c) Cell membrane

 (d) Mitochondria

_____________is the study of the cell, its types, structure, functions and its organelles.
  (a) Biology

 (b) Cell Biology

 (c) Microbiology

 (d) Biotechnology

Which of the following cell organelles is absent in prokaryotic cells?

 (a) Nucleus

 (b) Lysosome

 (c) Endoplasmic Reticulum

 (d) All of the above

Which of the following cell organelles is present in plant cells and absent in animal cells?

 (a) Nucleus

 (b) Vacuole

 (c) Chloroplast

 (d) Cytoplasm

Which of the following statements is true about the Nucleus?

 (a) It is absent in prokaryotes

 (b) It is called the brain of the cell

 (c) It contains DNA and other genetic materials.

 (d) All of the above

The primary purpose of serous fluid is:

A. Removal of waste products
B. Lowering of capillary pressure
C. Lubrication of serous membranes
D. Nourishing serous membranes

The membrane that lines the wall of a cavity is the:

A. Visceral
B. Peritoneal
 C. Pleural
D. Parietal

During normal production of serous fluid, the slight excess of fluid is:
A. Absorbed by the lymphatic system
Production B. Absorbed through the visceral capillaries
C. Stored in the mesothelial cells
D. Metabolized by the mesothelial cells

of serous fluid is controlled by:

A. Capillary oncotic pressure
B. Capillary hydrostatic pressure
C. Capillary permeability
D. All of the above

An increase in the amount of serous fluid is called a/an:

A. Exudate
B. Transudate
C. Effusion
D. Malignancy

Pleural fluid is collected by:

A. Pleurocentesis
B. Paracentesis
C. Pericentesis
D. Thoracentesis

Fluid-to–serum protein and lactic dehydrogenase ratios are performed on serous

fluids:
A. When malignancy is suspected
B. To classify transudates and exudates
C. To determine the type of serous fluid
D. When a traumatic tap has occurred
Which of the following requires the most additional testing?
A. Transudate
B. Exudate
 An additional test performed on pleural fluid to classify the fluid as a transudate or
exudate is the:
A. WBC count
B. RBC count
C. Fluid-to-cholesterol ratio
D. Fluid-to–serum protein gradient

. A milky-appearing pleural fluid is indicative of:

A. Thoracic duct leakage
B. Chronic inflammation
C. Microbial infection
D. Both A and B

Which of the following best represents a hemothorax?

A. Blood HCT: 42 Fluid HCT: 15
B. Blood HCT: 42 Fluid HCT: 10
C. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 10
D. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 20

All of the following are normal cells seen in pleural fluid except:

A. Mesothelial cells
B. Neutrophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Mesothelioma cells

. A differential observation of pleural fluid associated with tuberculosis is:

A. Increased neutrophils
B. Decreased lymphocytes
C. Decreased mesothelial cells
D. Increased mesothelial cells

All of the following are characteristics of malignant cells except:

A. Cytoplasmic molding
 B. Absence of nucleoli
C. Mucin-containing vacuoles
D. Increased N:C ratio

. A pleural fluid pH of 6.0 is indicative of:

A. Esophageal rupture
B. Mesothelioma
C. Malignancy
D. Rheumatoid effusion
Bacterial fungus and viral infectious can
be A:Life threatning
B:Short-term
C:Both

In response to all ,the body generates antibodies or

resistance
A:Harmful agents
B:Bacteria
C:Infectious
agents

In all cases, bacteria,fungi and virus infect and the start to

spread
A:One cell
B:One tissue
C:Both

:One of the common symptoms of all the infectious disease is

A:Fever
B:Cough
C:Flu

:Fever or temperature is regulated in the of the brain

A:Forebrain
B:Hypothalamus
C:Mid-brain

:Hypothalamus works like a

A:Small brain
B:Head factory
C:Thermostat

: reduces heat loss through skin and causes the person to

feel cold
A:Vasodilation
B:Vasoconstriction
 C:Both

:A is a substance that induces

fever
A:Pyrogen
B:Anti-body
C:Antibiotic

A pyrogen is a substance that induces fever.These can be either to the

body.
A:Internal
B:External
C:Both

: present in the cell wall of bacteria is an example of

pyrogen
. A:Lipopolysaccharide
B:Lipo protein
C:Glyco protein

:All pyrogens ,fungi and virus produce cytokines ,molecules that are
part of the
A:Nervous system
B:Immune
system C:None

Cancer is the one of the most common malignancies occuring

worldwide
A:Bladder
B:Lung
C:Blood

Most bladder cancers are detected because they

produce
A:Cytokines
B:Hematuria
C:None

Mainstay for diagnosis of bladder cancer is

combination of
A:Cytoscopy
B:Biopsy
C:Both

:Urine cytology is a technique , suitable for screening , diagnosis and

follow-up
A:Non-invasive
B:Invasive
 C:Both

Higher the grade of tumor the more the diagnosis is

. A:Defective
B:Precise
C:Accurate

When resistance occurs it is necessary to form modified drugs to-------

resistance A:Increase
B:Avoid
C:Enhance

:The variants of penicillin to work around resistance of common

infections are
A:Ampicillin
B:Amoxicillin
C:Both

:The evolution pf resistance strains is

a……...phenomenon A:Natural
B:Artificial
C:Induced

:Viral entry, when the virus attaches to and enters the host cell is stage of viral
infection
A:Early
B:Last
C:Intermediate

Gas exchange takes place in the

A.Pharynx

B.Larynx

C.Alveoli

D.Trachea

The area between the lungs is known as

A.Thoracic cage

B.Mediastinum

C.Pleura

D.Hilum

Involuntary breathing is controlled by

A.The pulmonary arterioles

B.The bronchioles

C.The alveolar capillary network

D.Neurons located in the medulla and pons

Soft and low pitched breath sounds normal heard over most of both lungs are

A.Bronchovesicular

B.Bronchial

C. Tracheal

D.Vesicular

Which of the following are parts of the human respiratory system?

(a) Trachea
(b) Diaphragm
(c) The lungs
(d) All of the above
Which of the following gas is released out during the process of respiration?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) None of the above
Which of the following is not the function of the respiratory system?
A.regulate blood Ph
B.helps in gaseous exchange
C.protection against blood loss
D.contains receptors for the sense of smell
How many oxygen molecules bound to hemoglobin to give 50% saturation
A.6
B.4
C.2
D.7
Name the process of gaseous exchange in the body
A.lymphatic system
B.respiration
C.cardiovascular system
D.respiratory system
The epithelial tissues present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian
tubules are
A.squamous
B.ciliated
C.glandular
D.cuboidal
Site of respiration inside the lungs are
A.alveoli
B.diaphragm
C.bronchi
D.bronchioles
Which structure act as air conditioner
A.nasal chambers
B.Larynx
C.phyrnx
D.lungs
What is the function of trachea
A.filters air we breath
B.releases air out of the body
C.carries air to lungs
D.exchange of gas
Which of the following does not belong to conducting portion of the respiratory
system
A.nose
B.phyrnx
C.alveoli
D.bronchioles

Which epithelial cell surface specialization is used to move mucous and particles along the
surface?

a. Cilia
b. desmosomes
c. microvilli
d. villi

Pseudostratified columnar, ciliated epithelium is found lining the:

a. nasal cavities.
b. crypts of pharyngeal tonsils.
c. bronchi.
d. All of the above

The cell type in the olfactory epithelium whose nuclei are positioned most apically is the:

a. olfactory receptor cell.

b. goblet cell.
c. Sustenacular cells
d. basal cell.

The most numerous cell type in the olfactory epithelium, whose nuclei are positioned at
several levels in the lower portion of the epithelium, is the:

a. olfactory receptor cell.

b. goblet cell.
c. basal cell.
d. Sustenacular cells

Nasal mucosa includes:

a. pseudostratified, ciliated columnar epithelium.

b. Seromucous glands
c. Venous plexuses
d. all of the above

Small sero-mucous glands may be found in the mucosa of the:

a. nasal cavity.
b. nasal sinuses.
c. trachea.
d. bronchi.
e. all of the above
In which of the following are goblet cells most frequent?

a. trachea
b. bronchus
c. bronchiole
d. alveolus
e. The frequency of goblet cells in each of the above is about equal.

As respiratory passages branch from trachea to bronchioles, the epithelium gradually

changes from:

a. simple squamous to ciliated, pseudostratified columnar.

b. simple columnar to simple squamous.
c. simple cuboidal to simple columnar.
d. stratified squamous to simple squamous.
e. ciliated, pseudostratified columnar to simple cuboidal.

Simple squamous epithelium lines the:

a. nasal cavities.
b. crypts of pharyngeal tonsils.
c. bronchi.
d. trachea.
e. alveoli.

Alveolar type 1 cells are:

a. cuboidal cells that secrete surfactant.

b. squamous cells involved in gas exchange.
c. ciliated cells that move mucous.
d. columnar cells that secrete mucous.
e. amoeboid, phagocytic cells that clean the alveolar surface.

Alveolar type 2 cells are:

a. cuboidal cells that secrete surfactant.

b. squamous cells involved in gas exchange.
c. ciliated cells that move mucous.
d. columnar cells that secrete mucous.
e. amoeboid, phagocytic cells that clean the alveolar surface.

Alveolar dust cells (macrophages) are:

a. cuboidal cells that secrete surfactant.

b. squamous cells involved in gas exchange.
c. ciliated cells that move mucous.
d. columnar cells that secrete mucous.
 e. amoeboid that clean the alveolar surface.

The entire alveolar wall or septum (separating adjacent alveoli) consists of:

a. surface epithelium.
b. blood vessels.
c. connective tissue.
d. all of the above

Non-ciliated cuboidal cells in bronchiole epithelium that are thought to be involved in

absorption or secretion are called:

a. chief cells.
b. club cells.
c. goblet cells.
d. basal cells.
e. Type I cells.

The thickness of interalveolar septa separating adjacent alveoli is typically:

a. 1 micron or less.
b. 5 to 10 microns.
c. 50 to 100 microns.
d. 500 to 1000 microns.
e. greater than 5 mm.

The maximum amount of time allowed between collection and separation of cells from
plasma or serum is;

a) 30 minutes

b) 1 hour

c) 2 hours

d) 4 hours

The most common light sensitive test is;

a) Lactic acid

b) ABG

c) Billirubin

d) LFT
A stat requisition should be delivered to the lab;

a) Within an hour of being drawn

b) 30 to 45 minutes after being drawn

c) Within 30 minutes of being drawn

d) immediately after being drawn

Of the following collection tubes, which should be drawn first:

a) Yellow top tube for blood culture

b) Light-blue top for coagulation studies

c) Gray top for glucose

d) Purple top for CBC

When drawing a blood specimen using a light-blue top tube, a set of rules are employed.
Which of the rules DOES NOT apply to use of a blue-top tube?

a) It should never be the first tube drawn

b) It must be used only for coagulation tests

c) It must be filled completely (full draw)

d) it must always be the 1st tube drawn

Which of the following collection tubes may be partially filled without affecting test
results?

a) Red top for total protein

b) Gray top for glucose

c) Light-blue top for protine

d) Purple top for CBC

Paracentesis is best described as:

a) The removal of fluid from the lung

b) The removal of fluid or air from pleural cavity

c) The removal of fluid from abdominal cavity

d) The removal of secretion from the stomach

The membrane that lines the wall of a cavity is the:

a) Visceral

b) Peritoneal

c) pericardial

d) Parietal

During normal production of serous fluid, the slight excess of fluid is:

a) Absorbed by the lymphatic system

b) Absorbed through the visceral capillaries

c) Stored in the mesothelial cells

d) Metabolized by the mesothelial cells

Production of serous fluid is controlled by:

a) Capillary oncotic pressure

b) Capillary hydrostatic pressure

c) Capillary permeability

d) All of above

An increase in the amount of serous fluid is called a/an:

a) Exudate

b) Transudate

c) Effusion

d) ECF
Pleural fluid is collected by:

a) Pleurocentesis

b) Paracentesis

c) Pericentesis

d) Thoracentesis

Fluid-to–serum protein and lactic dehydrogenase ratios are performed on serous fluids:

a)To classify Transudate & Exudate

b) To determine the type of serous fluid

c) When a traumatic tap has occurred

d)None

Which of the following requires the most additional testing?

a) Transudate

b) Exudate

An additional test performed on pleural fluid to classify the fluid as a transudate or

exudate is the:

a) WBC count

b) RBC count

c) Fluid to cholesterol ratio

d) Fluid-to–serum protein gradient

All of the following are normal cells seen in pleural fluid except:

a) Mesothelial cells

b) Neutrophils

c) Lymphocytes

d) Mesothelioma cells
Another name for a peritoneal effusion is:

a) Peritonitis

b) Ascites

c) Lavage

d) Cirrhosis

Cultures of peritoneal fluid are incubated:

a) Aerobically

b) Anaerobically

c) Both A & B

d) None

A coagulopathy, such as an elevated PTT or INR, is an absolute contraindication to

paracentesis.

a) True

b) False

Which of the following is NOT an indication for paracentesis?

a. Relief of cardiorespiratory symptoms of tense ascites

b. Diagnosis of new-onset ascites

c. Determination of infection in patients with known or suspected ascites

d) All of above are indications of paracentesis

Choose the best possible site of entry for paracentesis from the following;

a) a. 2cm infraumbilical, through a surgical scar

b) Right lower quadrant, 4 to 5 cm cephalad

c) Left lower quadrant, cephalad and medial to ASIS through a superficial vein

Which PREVENTATIVE strategy will decrease the likelihood of persistent leakage of ascitic
fluid?

a) A single suture at the sight of puncture

b) Ensuring the patient's coagulation status is within normal range

c) Using Z tract method when inserting the needle

d) Placing the patient in Trendelenburg position

Choose the correct statement from the following choices:

a) Ascitic fluid should undergo gross inspection as well as laboratory analysis

b. Normal ascitic fluid is green and opaque

c. Gram stain is the most reliable way to detect infection in ascitic fluid

d. To determine the serum-ascites albumin gradient, simply measure the albumin content
in the ascitic fluid

Abdominal paracentesis:

a) Is a non-invasive procedure.
b) Can be performed under US guidance
c) Is used only for diagnostic purposes.
d) Can be performed without exercising the aseptic technique.

Which of these describes the classical clinical manifestation of large-volume ascites?

a) Shifting dullness is not a feature.

b) It can only be detected by CT scan of the abdomen.

c) It is associated with a positive fluid

d) It is Exudate

Ascites;

a) is most commonly caused by malignancy

b) Excess of fluid in pleural cavity

 c) It can be Exudate & Transudate

Most commonly used route for emergency pericardiocentesis in cardiac tamponade is:

a) Left parasternal

b) Right parasternal

c) Apical

d) Subxhiphoid

Most commonly utilized Intercostal Space for Pericardiocentesis is:

a) left 6th Intercostal Space

b) left 4th intercostal space

c) left 5th intercostal space

d) right 5th intercostal space

Synovial fluid is collected by using;

a) 22 gauge needle and 20 ml syringe

b) 22 gauge needle & 5 ml syringe

c) 16 gauge needle & 10 ml syringe

d) None of these

Arthrocentesis is;

a) Pleural fluid collection

b) Peritoneal fluid collection

c) Pericardial fluid collection

d) Synovial fluid collection

the histologic architecture is ………. in aspiration samples

A. Changed
B. Denatured
C. Lost
D. Same as before
Frequent samples taken to diagnose pulmonary carcinoma

A. Sputum
B. BAL
C. BB
D. All of above
The advantages of using cytological examination

A. Safe
B. Simple
C. Quick
D. All of above
Hematomas are observed more frequently in patients who have

A. Coagulopathies
B. Cancer
C. Asthma
D. Pneumonia
Branch of cytopathology is

A. Exfoliative cytology
B. Aspiration cytology
C. Both a and b
D. None of above
The initial smears are stained by

A. Leishman stain
B. H and E stain
C. Romanowsky stain
D. None of above
DQ stain is good for

A. Microorganisms
B. Cytoplasm
C. Background material staining
D. All of above
Papanicolaou stain is used to see
 A. Ribosomal detail
B. Nuclear detail
C. Mitochondrial detail
D. Lysosomal detail
Types of smear preparations used in cytopathology laboratory

A. Direct smear
B. Cytocentrifuge smear
C. Centrifuge smear
D. All of above
In French technique ,the aspiration is done by using a fine needle of

A. 16 guage
B. 20 guage
C. 21-25 guage
D. 12 guage
A cytopathology report should express

A. Adequacy
B. Diagnosis
C. Recommendations and comments
D. All of above
Diagnostic pitfalls occur due to

A. Poor collection technique

B. Poor fixation
C. Both a and b
D. None of above
False positive diagnosis is caused by

A. Pregnancy
B. Contamination
C. Inflammation
D. All of above
Cytodiagnois of viral infections is limited to those viruses that

A. DNA enveloped viruses

B. RNA enveloped viruses
C. Membrane bounded viruses
D. Viruses that produce cytopathic effects
Types of urothelial neoplasm

A. Low grade urothelial lesions

 B. High grade urothelial lesions
C. Both a and b
None of above1. The properties of cytological fixatives are all, except

a) They do not excessively shrink or swell cells

b) They do not dissolve cellular components

c) They kill microbes

d) They promotes enzymatic activity

e) They preserve nuclear details

The ideal fixative recommended in most of the laboratories for cytological

specimen is

a) 80% ethanol

b) 85% ethanol

c) 50% methanol

d) 95% ethanol

e) Any concentration of ethanol can be used for fixation

Answer d 24.

Which one is not the property of ethanol?

a) It is a dehydrating agent

b) It causes shrinkage of cells

c) It is cheaper than ethanol

d) It is more expensive than ethanol

e) It produces the characteristic effect desired on nucleus

Answer d 

.  Which of the following is not the property of Carnoy’s fixative?

a) It is best for haemorrhagic samples

b) One of its contents causes hemolysis of RBCs

c) It is excellent nuclear fixative

d) It is does not causes shrinkage of cells

e) It is best preservative for glycogen

 Which fixative is used for the transportation of smear to distant laboratory?

a) Wet fixative

b) Coating fixative

c) Ether

d) Both a and b

e) None of the above

The disadvantages of pre fixations are

a) Precipitation of cells

b) Hardening of cells

c) Condensation of proteins

d) It preserves specimens without deterioration for days

e) a, b and c

The duration between collection and preparation of sample before cellular damage
can occur depends on
a) pH

b) protein contents
c) Enzymatic activity

d) Presence or absence of bacteria

 e) All of the above

.  Which one of the following is an example of fluid with high mucus content?

a) Bronchial aspirates
b) Pleural fluid
c) Ascetic fluid
d) Pericardial fluid
 e) Cerebrospinal fluid

Specimens with high proteins contents include

a) Urine

b) CSF

c) Sputum

d) Pleural fluid

e) All of the above

which specimen must be collected on ice and be processed within minutes to

prevent cellular destruction by HCL?

a) Pleural fluid

b) Pericardial fluid

c) Sputum

d) Gastric material

e) All of the above

Preservation of cells in by pre-fixation is also possible

a) In 50% methanol

b) 50% ethanol

c) 50%propanol

d) 50% acetone

e) 95% ethanol

During cell block preparation, the cell pellet remaining after preparing smear is
mixed with one or two drops of supernatant and

. a) Equal volume of AAF fixative

b) Twice volume of AAF fixative
c) Thrice volume of AAF fixative
d) four times volume of AAF
e) None of the
All of the following are the precautions for preparing cytological smear except

a) The smear should be immediately fixed

b) Smear should not be dried before placing the coverslip

c) Haematoxylin should not be filtered before use

d) Contamination from one slide to another should be avoided

e) All dishes should be washed daily

. During Papanicolaou staining, the over staining produced by Harris haematoxylin

can be removed by using

a) Acid alcohol (0.05% HCl in 70% ethanol)

b) 0.05% aqueous solution of HCl

c) 99% ethanol d)

Both a and b can be used

e) It is impossible to remove the excessive stain

All of the following are the characteristics of cytoplasm stains used in cytology
except

a) Cytoplasmic stains includes OG-6 and OG-36

b) Both the stains are synthetic

c) OG-6 is polychromic

d) OG-36 is polychromic

e) OG-6 is monochromic

Hyperplasia is characterized by all of the following except:

a- the hormonal type is the commonest example

b- sometimes precancerous

c- always irreversible
d- may lead to organ hyperfunction

e- monotony of hyperplastic cells

Atrophy is characterized by all of the following except:

a- decrease in size and number of cells

b- common in brain of old age

c- may be congenital

d- may result from a disuse of an organ

Hypertrophy is:

a- associated with increased cell number

b- rare in the heart

c- often predispose to malignancy

d- all of the above

e- non of the above

Hypertrophy is characterized by all of the following except:

a- not always pathological

b- usually results in an increase of the blood supply of the tissue

c- common in the heart

d- precancerous

e- may be associated with hyperplasia

Hyperchromatism is seen in:

a- degenerated cells b- necrotic cells

c- signet-ring cells d- dysplastic cells

6- Squamous metaplasia may result from:

a- bilharziasis b- smoking

c- both d- neither
Metaplasia is:

a- common in the skin b- only seen in epithelial tissues

c- both d- neither

As a physician, you should be concerned about a surgical

pathology report that describes metaplasia in a biopsy because:

a- this change indicates irreversible tissue damage

b- it may be due to irritant that can be avoided

c- the patient will probably develop cancer

d- It may be due to viral infection that can be treated

e- Any of the above

Hyperplastic tissues:

a- show marked cellular pleomorphism

b- may become neoplastic

c- are always irreversible lesions

d- all of the above

e- non of the above

A paraplegic patient aged 30 yrs., he is expected to have:

a- atrophy of the calf muscles

b- hypertrophy of the calf muscles

c- both

d- neither

Neoplasia is characterized by:

a- has no stimulus b- has no useful function

c- not coordinated d- all of the above

e- non of the above

All these benign tumours are capsulated except:

a- lipoma b- chondroma

c- angioma d- neurofibroma

e- fibroadenoma

Malignant tumour of mesenchymal tissues is called:

a- adenocarcinoma b- sarcoma

c- mucoid carcinoma d- squamous cell

- A malignant ulcer is characterized by:

a- necrotic floor b- raized everted edge

c- indurated base d- all of the above

e- non of the above

The edge of a malignant ulcer is:

a- undermined b- rolled over

c- punched out d- everted

e- sloping

Precancerous lesions include:

a- papilloma of the tongue b- adenoma of the

thyroid

c- bilharziasis of the urinary bladder d- all of the above

e- non of the above

The nuclei of malignant cells show:

a- variability in size b- hyperchromatism

c- variability in shape d- abnormal mitosis

e- all of the above

Transcoelomic spread occurs in carcinoma of:

a- breast b- tongue

c- skin d- stomach

e- non of the above

- Squamous cell carcinoma occurs as a primary tumour in the

following sites except:

a- skin b- gall bladder

c- urinary bladder d- tongue

e- liver

The following tumours give distant metastasis except:

a- basal cell carcinoma b- squamous cell

carcinoma

c- adenocarcinoma d- scirrhous carcinoma

e- encephaloid carcinoma

- Which of the following is not a benign tumour:

a- adenoma b- fibroma

c- chondroma d- papilloma

Osteoclastoma is:

a- benign tumour of bone b- malignant tunour of

bone

c- locally malignant tumour of bone

d- metastatic tumour of bone e- non of the above

A benign tumour usually shows:

a- lymphatic spread b- blood spread

c- many mitotic figures d- mature cell

population

e- extensive necrosis

Neoplasia means:

a- disturbance in cellular growth

b- disturbance in cellular differentiation

c- disturbance in both cellular growth and differentiation

e- all of the above

The most common malignant tumour of the liver:

a- cholangiocarcinoma b- hepatocellular

carcinoma

c- metastatic carcinoma d- sarcoma

Carcinoma in situ is:

a- carcinoma of unknown origin b- occult carcinoma

c- carcinoma with bad prognosis d- non invasive

carcinoma

e- carcinoma occurs in certain sites.

Locally malignant tumours include all except:

a-adamantinoma b- osteoclastoma

c- basal cell carcinoma d- mixed salivary gland

tumour

e- osteosarcoma

All tumours metastasizing in bone result in bone destruction

except:

a- thyroid gland carcinoma b- breast carcinoma

c- prostatic carcinoma d- renal cell carcinoma

An occult carcinoma is:

a- in situ carcinoma b- locally malignant carcinoma

c- clinically undetectable primary carcinoma, manifested by metastasis

d- all of the above e- none of the above

A male patient aged 63 years with multiple osteolytic lesions in

the skull, he is expected to have:

a- osteomalacia b- miliary tuberculosis

c- prostatic carcinoma d- melanoma

e- none of the above

Basal cell carcinoma spreads by:

a- transcoelomic b- blood

c- lymph d- all of the above

e- non of the above

Osteoclastoma is:

a- benign tumour of bone b- malignant tumour of bone

c- locally malignat tumour of bone d- metastatic tumour of

bone

e- none of the above

A locally malignant tumour includes:

a- bronchial adenoma b- rodent ulcer

c- adamantinoma d- desmoid tumour

e- all of the above

A benign tumour usually shows:

a- stromal invasion b- mature cell

population

c- lymphatic spread d- many mitotic figures

e- extensive necrosis

Teratoma areise from:

a- multipotent cells b- unipotent cells

c- totipotent cells d- all of the above

e- none of the above

The following tumours give distant metastasis except:

a- squamous cell carcinoma b- basal cell carcinoma

c- adenocarcinoma d- scirrhous carcinoma

- Krukenberg tumour:

a- primary tumour of the ovary b- associated with

hydrothorax

c- secondary tumour reach the ovary by the blood stream

d- secondary tumour that reach the ovary by transcoelomic spread

e- all of the above

- Krukenberg tumour:

a- usually bilateral ovarian tumour b- associated with

malignant ascitis

c- secondary tumour that reach the ovary by transcoelomic spread

d- reach the ovaries from the GIT

e- all of the above

The following are examples of hereditary cancer except:

a- breast carcinoma b- colon carcinoma

c- Wilm's tumour d- osteogenic carcinoma

e- retinoblastoma

- Viruses that have been associated with malignancy include all of

the following except:

a- rhinovirus b- hepatitis B virus

c- human immunodeficiency d- human papilloma virus

e- human T-lymphocyte virus, type I

Tumour cachexia is related to all except:

a- depression leading to anorexia b- altered taste

sensation

c- tumour necrosis factor d- altered deglutition

e-None of the above

1-Hyperplasia is characterized by all of the following except:

a-the hormonal type is the commonest example

b-sometimes precancerous

c-always irreversible

d-may lead to organ hyperfunction

e-monotony of hyperplastic cells

Hypertrophy is:

a-associated with increased cell number

b-rare in the heart

c-often predispose to malignany

d-all of the above

e- non of the above

As a physician, you should be concerned about a surgical

pathology report that describes metaplasia in a biopsy

because:

a-this change indicates irreversible tissue damage

b-it may be due to irritant that can be avoided

c-the patient will probably develop cancer

d-It may be due to viral infection that can be treated

e-any of the above

Neoplasia is characterized by:

a- has no stimulus b- has no useful

function

c- not coordinated d- all of the above

e- non of the above

All these benign tumours are capsulated except:

a- lipoma b- chondroma

c- angioma d- neurofibroma

e- fibroadenoma

The edge of a malignant ulcer is:

a- undermined b- rolled over

c- punched out d- everted

e- sloping

Precancerous lesions include:

a- papilloma of the tongue b- adenoma of the

thyroid

c- bilharziasis of the urinary bladder d- all of the above

e- non of the above

A benign tumour usually shows:

a- lymphatic spread b- blood spread

c- many mitotic figures d- mature cell

population

e- extensive necrosis

Carcinoma in situ is:

a- carcinoma of unknown origin b- occult carcinoma

c- carcinoma with bad prognosis d- non invasive

carcinoma

e- carcinoma occurs in certain sites.

- Tetratomic areise from:

a- multipotent cells b- unipotent cells

c- totipotent cells d- all of the above

e- non of the above

A male patient aged 63 years with multiple osteolytic lesions in

the skull, he is expected to have:

a- osteomalacia b- miliary tuberculosis

c- prostatic carcinoma d- melanoma

e- non of the above

- The following are examples of hereditary cancer except:

a- breast carcinoma b- colon carcinoma

c- Wilm's tumour d- osteogenic carcinoma

e- retinoblastoma

- Anaplastic tumour is a tumour in which the tissue is:

a- well differentiated b- moderately

differentiated

c- poorly differentiated d- undifferentiated

- Krukenberg tumour is:

a- primary tumour of the ovary b- associated with

hydrothorax

c- secondary tumour reach the ovary by the blood stream

d- secondary tumour that reach the ovary by transcoelomic spread

e- all of the above

- The most common malignant tumour of the liver:

a- cholangiocarcinoma b- hepatocellular

carcinoma

c- metastatic carcinoma d- sarcoma

Viruses that have been associated with malignancy include all of

the following except:

a- rhinovirus b- hepatitis B virus

c- human immunodeficiency virus d- human papilloma virus

e- human T-lymphocyte virus, type I

Tumour cachexia is related to all except:

a- depression leading to anorexia b- altered taste sensation

c- tumour necrosis factor d- altered deglutition

e- non of the above

As a physician, you should be concerned about a surgical

pathology report that describes metaplasia in a biopsy because:

a-this change indicates irreversible tissue damage

b-it may be due to irritant that can be avoided

c-the patient will probably develop cancer

d-It may be due to viral infection that can be treated

All are true for gatekeeper genes except:

1 maintain the integrity of the genome by repairing DNA damage

2- inhibit the proliferation, or promote the death of cells with

damaged DNA

3- are exemplified by the p35 gene

4- are mutated in familial neuroblastoma

5- are exemplified by the BRCA1 gene

- Telomeres

a- are situated in the centromeric regions of chromosomes

b- lengthen with each cell division

c- are non-coding tandemly repetitive sequences of DNA

d- are replicated by the enzyme telomerase

e- are prematurely shortened in progeria

Ionizing radiation
A- increases DNA synthesis

B- increases H2O2 in the tissues

C- breaks disulphide bonds

D- causes atrophy of the seminiferous tubules of the testis

Viruses that have been associated with malignancy include all

of the following except:

a- rhinovirus b- hepatitis B virus

c- human immunodeficiency d- human papilloma

virus

f- human T-lymphocyte virus, type

Tumour cachexia is related to all except:

a- depression leading to anorexia b- altered taste

sensation

c- tumour necrosis factor d- altered deglutition

e- non of the above

As a physician, you should be concerned about a surgical

pathology report that describes metaplasia in a biopsy because:

a-this change indicates irreversible tissue damage

b-it may be due to irritant that can be avoided

c-the patient will probably develop cancer

d-It may be due to viral infection that can be treated

e-any of the above

A male patient aged 63 years with multiple osteolytic lesions in the

skull, he is expected to have:

a- osteomalacia b- miliary tuberculosis

c- prostatic carcinoma d- melanoma

e- non of the above

Fourth event in this series?

A- budding of C-type particle from cell surface

B- replication

C- RNA virus enters cell

D- Synthesis of DNA provirus

E- Synthesis of reverse transcriptase

Tetraploidy in a tumour can only be recognized with certainly by

a chromosome count on a dividing cell, but the next best indicator

is a nucleus that?

A- contains four times the normal amount of DNA

B- contains twice the normal amount of DNA

C- has two nucleoli

D- is four times the normal diameter

E- is twice the normal diameter

- All are true for cellular proto-oncogenes except:

A- may be converted to cellular oncogenes by placement next to

promoter genes

B- are responsible for the production of cellular constituents of

Enzymes

C- the cellular proto-oncogenes responsible for chronic myeloid

leukemia is the same as that for Burkitt's lymphoma

D- contain similar genetic structures to viral oncogenes

E- may be converted into cellular oncogenes by gene amplification

Atrophy is characterized by all of the following except:

a-decrease in size and number of cells

b-common in brain of old age

c-may be congenital

d-may result from a disuse of an organ

Hypertrophy is characterized by all of the following except:

a-not always pathological

b-usually results in an increase of the blood supply of the tissue

c-common in the heart

d-precancerous

e-may be associated with hyperplasia

Squamous metaplasia may result from:

a- bilharziasis b- smoking

c- both d- neither

Hyperplastic tissues:

a-show marked cellular pleomorphism

b-may become neoplastic

c-are always irreversible lesions

d-all of the above

e-non of the above

A malignant ulcer is characterized by:

a- necrotic floor b- raized everted edge

c- indurated base d- all of the above

e- non of the above

The nuclei of malignant cells show:

a- variability in size b- hyperchromatism

c- variability in shape d- abnormal mitosis

e- all of the above

The following tumours give distant metastasis except:

a- basal cell carcinoma b- squamous cell carcinoma

c- adenocarcinoma d- scirrhous carcinoma

e- encephaloid carcinoma

- Krukenberg tumour:

a- usually bilateral ovarian tumour b- associated with

malignant ascitis

c- secondary tumour that reach the ovary by transcoelomic spread

d- reach the ovaries from the GIT

e- all of the above

Viruses that have been associated with malignancy include all of

the following except:

a- rhinovirus b- hepatitis B virus

c- human immunodeficiency d- human papilloma

virus

e- human T-lymphocyte virus, type I

Tumour cachexia is related to all except:

a- depression leading to anorexia b- altered taste sensation

c- tumour necrosis factor d- altered deglutition

e- non of the above

- Osteoclastoma is:

a- benign tumour of bone b- malignant tunour

of bone

c- locally malignant tumour of bone

d- metastatic tumour of bone e- non of the above

Neoplasia means:

a- disturbance in cellular growth

b- disturbance in cellular differentiation

c- disturbance in both cellular growth and differentiation

e- non of the above

Locally malignant tumours include all except:

a- adamantinoma b- osteoclastoma

c- basal cell carcinoma d- mixed salivary gland

tumour

e- osteosarcoma

An occult carcinoma is:

a- in situ carcinoma b- locally malignant

carcinoma

c- clinically undetectable primary carcinoma, manifested by

metastasis

d- all of the above e- non of the above

NOT true of retinoblastoma:

0. Cells small, often arranged in rosettes

1- Five year survival under 15%

2- Occurs in infants

3- Often bilateral

4- Often familial

- Lymphoma of the stomach:

a- may be primary or secondary in the stomach

b- has a better prognosis than carcinoma of the stomach

c- both d- neither

- The most biologically aggressive pigmented skin lesion is:

a- junction nevus
b- compound nevus

c- Intradermal nevus

d- Blue nevus

e- Lentigo maligna

- NOT true of giant cell tumours of bone (osteoclastoma)

1- about 20% metastasize

2- are surrounded by a zone of dense new bone

3- Haemorrhage and haemosidrin-laden phagocytes common

4- Histologically a mixture of spindle cell and multinucleated giant

cells

5- Occurs chiefly at bone ends, especially at knee

Which one of the following is the commonest neoplastic cause of

enlargement of lymph node

a-chronic lymphatic leukaemia

b-diffuse non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

c-follicular lymphoma

d-nodular sclerosis Hodgkin's lymphoma

e-secondary carcinoma

Viruses that have been associated with malignancy include all of

the following except:

a- rhinovirus b- hepatitis B virus

c- human immunodeficiency virus d- human papilloma virus

e- human T-lymphocyte virus, type I

Tumour cachexia is related to all except:

a- depression leading to anorexia b- altered taste sensation

c- tumour necrosis factor d- altered deglutition

e- non of the above

All these benign tumours are capsulated except:

a- lipoma b- chondroma

c- angioma d- neurofibroma

f- fibroadenoma

- As a physician, you should be concerned about a surgical

pathology report that describes metaplasia in a biopsy because:

a-this change indicates irreversible tissue damage

b-it may be due to irritant that can be avoided

c-the patient will probably develop cancer

d-It may be due to viral infection that can be treated

e- any of the above

Neoplasia means:

a- disturbance in cellular growth

b- disturbance in cellular differentiation

c- disturbance in both cellular growth and differentiation

e- non of the above

An occult carcinoma is:

a- in situ carcinoma b- locally malignant

carcinoma

c- clinically undetectable primary carcinoma, manifested by

metastasis

d- all of the above e- non of the above

Krukenberg tumour:

a- usually bilateral ovarian tumour b- associated with

malignant ascitis

c- secondary tumour that reach the ovary by transcoelomic spread

d- reach the ovaries from the GIT

e- all of the above

The following are examples of hereditary cancer except:

a- breast carcinoma b- colon carcinoma

c- Wilm's tumour d- osteogenic carcinoma

Hereditary predisposition to the development of tumours occurs

in the following sites:

a- Retina

b- Colon

c- Uterus

d- Skin

e- Stomach

Which of the following types of necrosis is grossly opaque and

chalky white:

a) Coagulation necrosis.

b) Liquefaction necrosis.

c) Caseous necrosis.

d) Fat necrosis.

e) Gangrenous necrosis.

Which of the following types of necrosis is most commonly

associated with ischaemic injury:

a) Coagulative necrosis.

b) Liquifactive necrosis.

c) Caseous necrosis.

d) Fat necrosis.

e) Gangrenous necrosis.
Dystrophic calcification is most closely associated with:

a) Hypercalcaemia.

b) Necrosis.

c) Chronic irritation.

d) Diminished blood flow.

e) Increased work load.

Localized area of ischaemic necrosis is mostly associated with:

a) Ascitese.

b) Petechiae.

c) Infarction.

d) Emboli formation.

e) Hematoma.

Metabolism is most closely associated with:

a) Diminished blood supply.

b) Increased work load.

c) Necrosis.

d) Chronic irritation.

e) Hypercalcemia.

Which of the following is a reversible change:

a) Karyorrhexis.

b) Pyknosis.

c) Karyolysis.

d) Swelling of endoplasmic reticulum.

e) Gangrenous necrosis.

After initiation of an acute inflammatory process third in a

sequence of changes in vascular flow is:

a) Vasoconstriction.

b) Redness.

c) Leukocytic migration.

d) Vasodilation.

e) Slowing of the circulation.

Which of the following are thought to mediate, many of the

systemic effects of inflammation are chemotactic and stimulate

adhesion molecules:

a) Interleukin 1 (IL-1) and tumor necrosis factor.

b) C5 a and leukotriene B-4.

c) C3 b.

d) Leukotriene C4, D4 and E4.

e) Bradykinin.

Which of the following is the hallmark of acute inflammation:

a) Neutrophils.

b) Connective tissue.

c) Macrophages.

d) Granulation tissue.

e) Granuloma formation.

. Granuloma formation is most frequently associated with:

a) The healing process.

b) Acute inflammation.

c) Wound contraction.

d) Fibroblasts and neovascularization.

e) A persistent irritant.

Morphologic changes seen in chronic non-specific inflammation

include an increase in:

a) Neutrophils, lymphocytes and liquefaction necrosis.

b) Neutrophils, macrophages and fibrosis.

c) Lymphocytes, plasma cells and fibrosis.

d) Giant cells, macrophages and coagulative necrosis.

Caseation necrosis is most characteristic of:

a) Acute myocardial infarction.

b) Tuberculosis.

c) Acute pancreatitis.

d) Cerebral infarct.

e) Pulmonary pneumoconiosis.

The most characteristic feature of granulation tissue is the:

a) Growth of fibroblasts and new capillaries.

b) Resemblance to a granuloma.

c) Character of the exudate.

d) Granular scar that results.

e) Presence of monocytes and fibroblasts.

The growth factor elaborated by macrophages, which recruits

macrophages and fibroblasts to wound site and induces all

steps in angiogenesis is:

a) Vascular endothelial growth factor.

b) Fibroblast growth factor.

c) Epithelial growth factor.

d) Platelet derived growth factor.

e) Endostatin.

A young man of 20, got a lacerated wound on his left arm,

stiched-1 week later sutures were remained-healing continued

but the site became disfigured by prominent raised irregular

nodular scar, in next 2 months which of the following best

describes the process:

a) Organization.

b) Dehiscence.

c) Resolution.

d) Keloid formation.

e) Secondary union.

If a rare disorder with an early onset in life is inherited in such

a way that male and female offsprings are equally affected,

only homozygous persons are affected, then the mode of

inheritance would be:

a) Autosomal dominant.

b) Autosomal recessive.

c) X-linked dominant.

d) X-linked recessive.

e) Mitochondrial inheritance.

A six months old baby with blue eyes, decreased pigmentation

of hair and skin and a strong mousy odour is brought to you-on

examination there is severe mental retardation. What will be

the enzyme deficiency:

a) Homogentisate oxidase.

b) Phenyl Alanine oxidase.

c) P-hydroxyphenyl pyruvate hyroxylase.

d) Tyrosinase.

e) α–glucocerebrosidase.

A 39 years old male developed a testicular mass which was

removed and was sent for pathological examination, along with

additional studies. Which of the following is the most

compelling evidence that the lesion is malignant:

a) Cells of the mass infiltrate a narrow band of the tuinea

albuginea.

b) Two mitosis are found in every (HPF) high power field of

microscope.

c) Nuclei are viable in size and tend to stain.

d) X-ray shows 2 round nodules in the left lung field and one in the

right, were not present 2 years ago.

e) The patient is found to be infertile

. Which of the following pair does not correctly match the tumor

with its causative agent:

a) Anagenital carcinoma – HPV (Type 16 & 18).

b) Burkitts lymphoma - EBV.

c) Hepatocellular carcinoma - Hepatitis A virus.

d) Carcinoma stomach - Helicobacter pylori.

e) Squamous cell carcinoma skin – Ultraviolet radiation.

Which of the following terms refer to a malignant tumor of

mesenchymal origin:

a) Carcinoma.

b) Hepatoma.

c) Hematoma.

d) Sarcoma.

e) Teratoma.

. Grading of cancer is based on which of the following

statements:

a) Size of the primary tumor.

b) Spread of cancer cells to regional lymph nodes.

c) Presence of blood born metastasis.

d) Degree of differentiation of tumor cells, anaplasia and no. of

mitosis.

e) Presence of capsular invasion by tumor cells.

The chemical carcinogen, aflatoxin B-1 derived form a fungus,

which contaminates grain foods most commonly induces:

a) Transitional cell carcinoma of lung.

b) Adenocarcinoma of rectum.

c) Squamous cell carcinoma of skin.

d) Hepatocellular carcinoma.

e) Renal cell carcinoma.

Which of the following is not a malignant tumor:

a) Glioma.

b) Lymphoma.

c) Melanoma.

d) Leiamyoma.

e) Medulloblastoma.

. Which of the following are most frequent site of venous

thrombosis?

a) Veins of lower extremity.

b) Pelvic veins.

c) Portal vein.

d) Hepatic vein.

e) Pulmonary veins.

. In a state of shock there is:

a) A decreased hydrostatic pressure and increased osmotic

pressure.

b) Cardiovascular collapse.

c) Active process leading to increased volume of blood.

d) Decreased pulse rate.

e) Fever.

The main factor responsible for world wide distribution of

Entamoeba histolytica is:

a) Extreme antigenic variation.

b) Usual stability of its cysts in the environment.

c) Wide spread distribution of mosquitoes.

d) Usual motility of trophoziotes in contaminated water.

e) Poor hygienic conditions of individuals.

. All of the following characteristics are seen in the stool of

Amoebic dysentery except one:

a) RBCs in clumps.

b) Charcat leyden crystals.

c) Eosinophils’.

d) Ghost cells.

e) Macrophages.

Parasite induced pernicious anaemia is caused by:

a) Taenia saginata.

b) Taenia solium.

c) Diphyllabothrium latum.

d) Echinococcus granulosus.

e) Hymenolepis nana.

In malaria the form of plasmodium transmitted to man from

mosquito is:

a) Sporozoites.

b) Gametocytes.

c) Merozoites.

d) Trophazoites.

e) Schizonts.

The host that harbours the adult or sexually mature, parasite is

called:

a) Intermediate host.

b) Commensal host.

c) Symbiotic host.

d) Reservoir host.

e) Definite host

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding

Hookworm infestation:

a) Hookworm infection causes anaemia.

b) Man acquires infection when filariform larvae penetrate skin.

c) Hookworm infection may sometimes be acquired by oral route.

d) Larva passes through human lung during its life cycle.

e) Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding trophozoites in

the stool.

. Which of the following bacterial substance binds to the Fc

portion of immunoglobulin molecules:

a) Endotoxin.

b) Coagulase.

c) Lipotheichoic acid.

d) M. protein.
e) Protein A.

Which of the following is associated with a deficiency of third

component of complement C3:

a) Pyogenic infection.

b) Immune complex disease.

c) Systemic lupus erythematosus.

d) Glomerulonephritis.

e) Xeroderma pigmentosum.

Which of the following components enhances the binding of

antigen antibody complex to macrophages:

a) C1.

b) C3a.

c) C3b.

d) C8.

e) Cb6,7 complex.

A secretary piece is attached to IgA:

a) In plasma cells.

b) In epithelial cells.

c) By enzyme in mucous secretion.

d) By T-cells.

e) By macrophages.

Two tests are used to detect the presence of HIV infections are:

a) Agglutination and neutralization reactions.

b) Compliment fixation and immunoflorescence tests.

c) ELIZA and Western Blotting.

d) Haemagglutination and Coamb’s Test.

e) Indirect haemagglutination and Western Blotting.

General steps in viral multiplication cycle are:

a) Adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation and release.

b) Endocytosis, uncoating, replication, assembly and budding.

c) Adsorption, uncoating, duplication, assembly and lysis.

d) Endocytosis, penetration, replication, maturation, exocytosis.

e) Adsorption, replication, uncoating and release.

Which of the following serum component is an indicator of

post infection and subsequent immunity to hepatitis B-viral

infection:

a) HBS Ag.

b) HBC Ag.

c) HBe Ag.

d) Anti HBS.

e) Anti HBC.

Which of the following conditions is not rightly against its

causative agent:

a) Squamous cell carcinoma cervix = HPV (16, 18).

b) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma = EBV.

c) Cutaneous warte, (squamous cell papilloma) = HPV (12, 4, 7).

d) Hepatocellular carcinoma = HDV.

e) Gastric lymphoma = H. Pylori.

Which of the following is a RNA virus:

a) Human papilloma virus.

b) Human T-cell leukaemia virus.

c) Hepatitis B virus.

d) Epstein Barr virus.

e) Cytomegalo virus.
The antiphagocytic property of the group A streptococcus is

associated with which of the following:

a) Hyaluromidase.

b) Streptolysin S.

c) M. protein.

d) Peptidoglycan.

e) C carbohydrate.

Which of the following is correct sequence of steps in

performing Gm. Stain:

a) Safranin stain, crystal violet stain, iodine solution.

b) Crystal violet stain, decolorization, safranin stain, iodine

solution.

c) Safranin stain, iodine solution, decolorization, crystal violet

stain.

d) Crystal violet stain, iodine solution, decolorization, safranin

stain.

e) Iodine solution, crystal violet, decolorization, safranin.

The most reliable method for diagnosis of primary syphilis is

the:

a) VDRL Test.

b) FTA-ABS.

c) Microhemagglutinine.

d) Dark field examination of chancre material.

e) Treponema pallidum immobilization test.

The pathogenisis of which of the following organisms is most

likely to involve invasion of the intestinal mucosa:

a) Vibrio chalerae.
b) Enteroloxigenic E. coli.

c) Shigella somei.

d) Clostridium botulinum.

e) Pseudomonas aerogenosa.

Which of the following tests does not correspond with the

respective disease:

a) Casoni’s Test for Hydatid disease.

b) Frei’s Test in Infectious mononuclease.

c) Schick’s Test for Diphtheria.

d) Wasserman’s Test for syphilis.

e) Widal Test for typhoid.