Chapter # 01 8.

All of the following statements are incorrect

except
Fundamental Concepts In Chemistry a. precision and accuracy should go side by side
in a scientific work
1. Chemistry deals with: b. scientific work must be precise, accuracy is not
a. Internal structural changes in matter essential
b. Composition of matter c. scientific work must be accurate, precision is
c. Properties of matter not essential
d. Composition and properties of matter d. calculations must be made before any
(d) experiment
(a)
2. All of the following statements are incorrect for
20 mol of hydrogen peroxide except 9. Brine is:
a. it has 20 mol of hydrogen atoms a. Compound
b. it has 30 mol of oxygen atoms b. Element
c. it has 80 mol of atoms c. homogeneous mixture
d. 30 mol of hydrogen atoms d. both a & b
(c) (c)

OM
3. If proton number of two atoms is same then it can 10. Pure substance which is composed of identical
be concluded that atoms is called:
a. they are isotopes a. Compound
b. compounds of both with CI2 will be similar in
reactivity towards other compounds
c. both have same colors
d. both have same melting points
D .C b. Molecule
c. Ion
d. Element
(d)
TA
(b)
11. No. of moles of Na in 4.6g:
4. Air is: a. 6 moles
US

a. Mixture b. 0.2 moles

b. homogeneous mixture c. 4 moles
c. compound d. 3 moles
AT

d. element (b)
e. both a &b
(b) 12. The mass of 2 mole of sodium hydroxide will be
DC

a. 2 g
5. Condensation is __________ process: b. 20 g
a. Chemical c. 40 g
M

b. Physical d. 80 g
c. both a & b (d)
d. none
(b) 13. “A” compound is always consists of the same
elements combined in the same fixed ratio”. The
6. Which of the following is not related to a.m.u statement is:
a. Gram a. a hypothesis
b. Kilogram b. a fact
c. Microgram c. a law
d. gram/lit d. an observation
(d) (c)

7. The number of significant figures in 0.00200 is 14. Compound having highest boiling point among
a. Two the following is:
b. Three a. HF(I)
c. Five b. HCI(I)
d. One c. HBr(I)
(b) d. HI(I)
(d)

1
15. No. of protons present in the nucleus of an atom: 22. Freezing point of a substance is a temperature at
a. atomic mass which a liquid substance is converted to solid, it
b. mass number is
c. atomic number a. always lower than its melting point
d. none b. usually a little lower than its melting point
(c) c. always higher than its melting point
d. exactly the same as its melting point
16. An atom is (d)
a. smallest indivisible particle in an element
b. smallest particle of an element which can 23. Number of covalent bonds in 10 mol of carbon
undergo a chemical reaction tetrachloride is
c. building block of an element a. 2.4 x 1025
d. always smaller than molecule b. 40
(b) c. 4 x 1024
d. 6.4 x 1021
17. 10 moles of H2O contains (a)
a. 100 moles of bonds
b. 100 moles of electrons 24. The following statement contained in a student’s
c. 30 atoms laboratory report is a conclusion

OM
d. 25 moles of hydrogen bonds a. a gas is liberated
(b) b. colour of the gas is greenish yellow
c. oxide of the gas is strongly acidic
18. The volume of one kilogram of water at 4oC is
equal to one litre. The temperature of water is kept
at 4oC because water:
a. has no dissolved gasses at this temperature
D .C d. the gas is chlorine
(d)

25. A student analyzed a sample of sea water and

TA
b. has maximum density at this temperature found that it contained 2.3g of NaCl, 0.005g of
c. polarity of water molecule is least at this MgSo4, 0.234g of CaCI2 and 60.12g of H2O. Total
temperature mass of the sample is
US

d. dipole moment has maximum value at this a. 62.659

temperature b. 62.65
(b) c. 62.70
AT

d. 65.7
19. A compound contains two elements X and Y (d)
percentage of X is 20% (At.wt = 40) and that of Y
DC

is 80% (At.wt =80). The empirical formula of the 26. A 50.00 mL sample of a cough mixture prepared
compound is by a pharmacist was found to have a mass of
a. XY2 46.0g. What is the density (in g/mL) of this
M

b. X2Y mixture? Stated to the correct number of

c. X3Y significant figures?
d. XY a. 0.92
(a) b. 0.920
c. 0.9200
20. Combustion of natural gas is ______ change: d. 1.087
a. chemical (b)
b. physical
c. reversible 27. Ozone (O3) filters the cosmic rays of sunlight.
d. none How many oxygen atoms are there in 0.2 mole of
(a) ozone (O3, molar mass 48.0 g/mol)?
a. 6.02 x 1022
21. Which of the following is a substance? b. 6.02 x 1023
a. sea water c. 3.61 x 1023
b. brass d. 6 x 1023
c. tape water (c)
d. graphite
(d)

2
28. Blue stone is: 34. 8g of Mg contain ______ number of particles.
a. mixture
a. 6.02  1021
b. element
c. compound b. 6.02  1022
d. none c. 6.02  1023
(c) d. None of these
(d)
29. Zirconium chloride reacts with magnesium to
35. H 2 & O2 gases react to produce water ( H 2O )
produce Zirconium. The process is called Knoll
process.
ZrCI4 + 2Mg Zr + 2MgCl2 as: H 2 + 1 O2 ⎯⎯
→ H 2O
How many moles Zr would be produced if 0.2 mol 2
of Mg metal is used in the reaction? If 8g each of H 2 & O2 gases are reacted together
a. 0.1 _____ will be the limiting reactant.
b. 0.01
a. H 2
c. 0.20
d. 0.05 b. O2
(a) c. Both a & b

OM
d. None of these
30. Tobacco contains a poisonous alkaloid called (b)
Nicotine. The molecular formula of nicotine is
C10H14N2 (molar mass = 162.23g). The mass 36. For the reaction:
percentage of nitrogen in nicotine, is?
a. 4.32%
b. 8.23%
c. 12.4%
D .C 2HCl + MgCO3 ⎯⎯
→ MgCl2 + CO2 + H 2O
If 90g each of HCl and MgCO3 are reacted
together, _____ will be the limiting reactant.
TA
d. 17.3%
(d) a. HCl
b. MgCO3
US

31. A sample of an ionic compound contains 2.82 g c. Both a & b

Na, 4.35 g CI, and 7.83 g O. The empirical
d. None of these
formula of this compound is:
(b)
AT

a. NaCIO2
b. NaCIO3
c. NaCIO 37. 0.1 mole of Cl2 weighs ________ gram.
DC

d. NaCIO4 a. 35.5
(d) b. 71
c. 3.55
M

32. The formula, which gives the simple ratio of each

kind of atoms present in the molecule of d. 7.10
compound, is called __________. (d)
a. Molecular formula
b. Empirical formula 38. 108g of HCN corresponds to ________ mole.
c. Structural formula a. 4
d. None b. 3
(b) c. 2
d. 1
33. The formula, which expresses the actual number
(a)
of each kind of atom present in the molecule of a
compound, is called:
a. Molecular formula 39. Law of combining volumes governs ___
b. Empirical formula relationship.
c. Structural formula a. Mass – Mass
d. None b. Mass – Volume
(a) c. Volume – Volume
d. All of these
(c)

3
40. Which of the following compounds contain a. 33.6 litres
greater number of particles? b. 33600 ml
a. MgCO3 c. 33600 cm3
d. All of these
b. CaCO3 (d)
c. Na2CO3
47. 0.25 mole of sugar (C12H22O11) corresponds to:
d. NaCl a. 342g
(c) b. 171g
c. 85.5g
41. Methane ( CH 4 ) is burnt in oxygen ( O2 ) as: d. 42.75g
(c)
CH 4 + 2O2 ⎯⎯
→ CO2 + 2 H 2O
48. The conversion of vapours in liquid state is called:
160g of CH 4 are burnt to produce __ of CO2
a. Condensation
a. 440g b. Evaporation
b. 224 dm3 c. Distillation
c. Both a & b d. Sublimation
(a)

OM
d. None of these
(a)
49. 1 mole of SiO2 contains
a. 6.02 x 1023 molecules of SiO2
42. 11.2 dm3 of N 2 at S.T.P weighs _____ grams. b. 6.02 x 1023 atoms of Si
a. 7
b. 14
c. 21
D .C c. 12.04 x 1023 atoms of O
d. All of these
(d)
TA
d. 28
50. Zinc & HCl reacts as under:
(b)
Zn + 2HCl ⎯ ⎯→ ZnCl2 + H2
US

43. For the reaction: If 1.25 mole of zinc reacts with HCl, then the
N 2 + 3H 2 ⎯⎯
→ 2 NH 3 mass of HCl required is _____.
a. 36.5g
AT

7g of N 2 reacts with _____ of H 2 to produce b. 73g

ammonia. c. 91.25g
DC

d. None of these
a. 1.5g
(c)
b. 3g
c. 6 51. The atomic mass of potassium (K) is 39 a.m.u.
M

d. 12g 15.6g of potassium corresponds to _________.

(a) a. 0.1 mole
b. 0.2 mole
44. 15.05 x 1022 molecules of a gas at S.T.P occupies: c. 0.4 mole
a. 22.4 litres d. 0.5 mole
b. 11.2 litres (c)
c. 5.6 litres
d. 2.8 litres 52. The characteristic of 84679 is ________.
(c) a. 5
b. 4
45. Which of the following pairs of gases have same c. -5
number of molecules? d. -4
a. 22.4 dm3 of O2 and 14g of N2 (b)
b. 4g of He and 2 moles of H2
c. 11.2 dm3 of SO2 and 44g of CO2
d. 14g of CO and 0.5 mole of SO3
(d) 53. Chemistry is the study of matter regarding its:
46. 42g of CO gas at S.T.P occupies a volume of: a. Properties

4
 b. Composition 6.4 gm of sulphur reacts with oxygen to produce
c. Changes ________ litters of SO2.
d. All of these a. 44.8
(d) b. 22.4
c. 4.48
54. 1.50 moles of CaCO3 corresponds to ___: d. 2.24
a. 150g (d)
b. 12.25g
c. 25.50g
d. 29.75g
(a)

55. Volume occupied by one mole of a gas at STP is:

a. Specific volume
b. Critical volume
c. Molar volume
d. None of these
(c)

OM
56. Reliable digits in a number are called:
a. Significant figures
b. Odd numbers
c. Even numbers
d. Natural numbers
(a)
D .C
TA
57. One mole of HCl contains:
a. 6.02 x 1023atoms of hydrogen
b. 6.02 x 1023atoms of chlorine
US

c. 6.02 x 1023molecules of HCl

d. All of These
(d)
AT

58. 0.3 moles of sulphur corresponds to:

a. 1.806 x 1023 atoms of sulphur
DC

b. 9.6 gm of sulphur
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
M

(c)

59. 0.05 moles of calcium weighs:

a. 40 gm
b. 20 gm
c. 4 gm
d. 2 gm
(d)

60. All of the following are chemical changes except:

a. Souring of milk
b. Rusting of iron
c. Sublimation
d. Burning of wood
(c)
Chapter # 02
61. Consider the following reaction:
S + 1 O2 ⎯⎯
→ SO2 States Of Matter
2

5
 a. I only
62. A chemist told his students that air is a mixture b. II and III only
because: suddenly a student raised his hand and c. I and III only
said d. III only
a. it is colourless (b)
b. oxygen can be removed from it
c. its composition is different at different 69. One liter of an unknown gas weighs 1.25 grams at
altitudes S.T.P, one possible formula for the gas is
d. it has different properties from its constituents a. CO2
(c) b. CO
c. O2
63. If somebody is sitting in a room. The room is d. SO2
closed from all sides, no entry, no exit of any gas. (b)
If the room expands suddenly then
a. he will be frightened 70. If pressure on a gas is increased from 2 atm to 4
b. his blood pressure will decrease atm than its volume will decrease from
c. he will feel cool a. 6L to 4L
d. he will feel warmth b. 8L to 2L
c. 3L to 1L

OM
(c)
d. 4L to 2L
64. Which of the following elements will have (d)
strongest Van Der Waal force of attraction
between its molecules?
a. hydrogen
b. oxygen
c. chlorine
D .C
71. An unknown gas has a density of 2.45 g/L at
1.5atmospheric pressure and 25 oC. The gas is
a. Kr
b. CI2
TA
d. nitrogen c. SO2
(c) d. Ar
(d)
US

65. State of matter with no definite shape & volume

is: 72. This is a known fact that the molar volumes of
a. solid different gases at S.T.P are
AT

b. liquid a. little bit greater than the molar volumes of

c. gas liquids
d. Both A and C b. little bit less than the molar volumes of solids
DC

(c) c. about the same as the molar volumes of liquids

d. much larger than the molar volumes of liquids
66. Plasma is: and solids
M

a. Highly ionized state of matter (d)

b. Form of energy
c. Is the state of matter with definite shape & 73. The behavior of a gas is non-ideal at
volume a. low temperature and low pressure
d. None b. high temperature and high pressure
(a) c. high temperature and low pressure
d. low temperature and high pressure
67. Absolute zero is: (d)
a. 0K
b. 273K
c. 373K
d. None
(a) 74. Ammonium Perchlorate is used as solid fuel in
rockets. During the process it decomposes
68. If three birds called O2, CI2 and H2 were flying in according to the reaction given below
the garden of a College then, 4 NH 4CIO4( g ) → 2CI 2( g ) + 8H 2O( g ) + 2 N 2O( g ) + 3O2( g )
I. Fastest birds are O2 and CI2
II. Slowest bird is CI2
III. Bird called O2 is in the middle

6
 The total volume of all the gases produced at c. N2
S.T.P by the decomposition of 8 moles of d. O2
Ammonium Perchlorate will be: (d)
a. 30 L PV
b. 672 L 80. The value of for an unknown gas is equal to:
nT
c. 179.0 L
a. 0.082 L.atm.mol-1.K
d. 60 L
b. 0.082 L.atm.mol-1.K-1
(b)
c. 0.82 L.atm.mol.K-1
d. 0.82 L.atm.mol.K
75. Compressed natural gas (CNG) contains mainly (b)
methane CH4. Methane gas burns in air according
to the following reaction.
81. If the temperature of the atmosphere is 30oC then
CH 4( g ) + 2O2( g ) ⎯⎯
→ CO2( g ) + 2 H 2O( g ) which of the following will have highest average
If 8 g of methane is burnt, what volume of CO2 speed
measured at S.T.P. will be produced? a. O2
a. 0.5 L b. H2
b. 22 L c. Ne
c. 22.4 L d. N2

OM
d. 11.2 L (b)
(d)
82. Glass is super called liquid. The reason that:
76. A kid has a helium filled balloon which deflates a. definite volume
at the rate of 1.00 liter/day by “He” gas leaking
through the relatively porous skin of the balloon.
D
How fast would carbon dioxide (CO2) leak from a
.C b. definite shape
c. crystalline structure
d. no crystalline structure
(d)
balloon made of the same material?
TA

a. 3.0 L/day
b. 0.3 L/day 83. Some substances are good conductor of electricity
c. 1.33 L/day in both the solid and liquid states. These
US

d. 3.33 L/day substances are generally

(b) a. ionic substances
b. metallic substances
AT

77. All of the following statements are false except c. molecular solids
a. gas molecules do not attract each other at very d. covalent network solids
(b)
DC

low temperature
b. all of the gases cannot be liquefied
c. increase in pressure will not decrease the 84. Air can be distilled fractionally because the
intermolecular distance in a gas constituents of the air
M

d. actual volume of a gas is not negligible at very a. can be liquefied

high pressure b. have different boiling points
(d) c. are gases at room temperature
d. have different densities
78. At the same temperature and pressure helium is (b)
more ideal than hydrogen due to
a. greater molar mass
b. less molar mass
c. greater molecular size
d. less molecular size
(d) 85. There are three different substances, Argon,
Hydrochloric acid and Hydroiodic acid. The
correct sequence in which the boiling point
79. A container with a porous wall has a mixture of increases is
H2, He, N2 and O2. Which of these gases will take a. Ar < HCI < HI
maximum time in getting out of the container? b. HI > HCI > Ar
a. H2 c. HCI < HI < Ar
b. He d. HI > Ar > HCI

7
 (a) 93. Which of the following is more ideal than other
gases:
86. Which of the following have highest melting a. O2
point? b. SO2
a. NaCI c. CO2
b. RbCI d. Ar
c. LiCI (d)
d. CsCI
(a) 94. All of the following have crystals except
a. diamond
87. Keeping in mind the concept of charge density, b. NaCI
compound having highest lattice energy is c. KBr
a. KCI d. glass
b. MgO (d)
c. LiBr
d. NaF 95. Kerosene is liquid at room temperature due to
(b) a. hydrogen bonding
b. organic nature
88. Meniscus is the shape of the surface of a liquid in c. dipole-dipole forces

OM
a cylindrical container. It may be concave, convex d. molecular size
or plane. For molten metals (d)
a. meniscus is concave
b. meniscus is convex
c. meniscus is plane
d. meniscus may be concave or convex
depending on the nature of the metal
D .C
96. All of the following are network covalent solids
except
a. SiO2
b. Graphite
TA
(b) c. S8
d. Diamond
89. All of the following substances are crystalline (c)
US

except:
a. Ice 97. Honey contain glucose and fructose, it has greater
b. Carbon (diamond) viscosity due to
AT

c. Sucrose a. hydrogen bonding

d. Plastic b. irregular shape of the molecules
(d) c. irregular shape of the molecules and strong
DC

intermolecular forces
90. All of the following have cleavage planes except: d. greater molecular size
a. ionic crystals (c)
M

b. covalent crystals
c. molecular crystals 98. B.P of phosphine (PH3) is -87.8 oC , silane (SiH4)
d. metallic crystals is -111 oC. Phosphine has greater boiling point
(d) because:
a. dipole moment of PH3 is greater than that of
91. Coordination number of Na+ in NaCI is SiH4
a. 1 b. PH3 has greater molecular size
b. 4 c. Molecular weight of SiH4 is less than that of
c. 2 PH3
d. 6 d. Actually the boiling of SiH4 is greater than that
(d) of PH3
92. Rate of diffusion of ______ greater than N2: (a)
a. C2H6 99. Rate of evaporation of petrol is greater than water
b. SO2 at room temperature because:
c. CH4 a. petrol molecules do not have any hydrogen
d. CO bond
(c) b. petrol is an organic compound
c. water molecules have small size
d. petrol molecules have greater size

8
 (a) b. F2
c. Ne
100. Substance having highest boiling point among d. Br2
the following is (d)
a. HF
b. HCI 107. The increasing vapor pressure caused by heating
c. Br2 a liquid is due to
d. HBr a. increase intermolecular interactions
(c) b. increasing potential energy of molecules
c. increasing kinetic energy of molecules
101. Boiling points of different substances are given d. decreasing surface tension
below (c)
CH4 = - 161 oC C2H6 = -89 oC
o
CI2 = -34.6 C F2 = -188 oC 108. Covalent network crystals have
The data shows that vapour pressure of a. higher melting point then molecular crystals
a. CI2 > C2H6 > CH4 > F2 b. lower melting point then molecular crystals
b. CI2 > F2 > CH4 > C2H6 c. discrete molecules linked by Van der waals
c. C2H6 > CH4 > F2 > CI2 forces
d. F2 > CH4 > C2H6 > CI2 d. hydrogen bonding

OM
(d) (a)

102. What is the typical range of the hydrogen bond 109. Keeping in mind different factors which affect
a. 5 – 25 kJ per mole of bonds
b. 5 – 25 kJ per molecule
c. 500 kJ per mole of bonds
d. 1 – 2 kJ per mole of bonds
D .C the boiling point of a liquid, element having
lowest boiling point among the following is
a. F2
b. CI2
TA
(a) c. Br2
d. I2
103. Hydrogen bond is unimportant in (a)
US

a. DNA structure
b. The liquid properties of water 110. A chemist was able to measure the value of
c. Liquid HF lattice energy of KCI to be 690 kJ/mol. From this
AT

d. Liquid CH4 experiment he concluded that

(d) a. lattice energy of KBr is 630 kJ/mol and that of
KI is 665 kJ/mol
DC

104. All of the following acids have hydrogen bond in b. lattice energy of KBr is 665 kJ/mol and that of
liquid state except KI is 630 kJ/mol
a. sulfuric acid c. lattice energy of KBr is 765 kJ/mol and that of
M

b. nitric acid KI is 730 kJ/mol

c. hydrofluoric acid d. lattice energy of KBr is 730 kJ/mol and that of
d. hydrochloric acid KI is 765 kJ/mol
(d) (b)

105. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 111. For given mass of a gas, if pressure is doubled
a. dispersion force is the weakest type of then volume will reduced to:
intermolecular interactions a. ½ b. ¼
b. the strong intermolecular attractions in H2O c. 1/3 d. 1/5
result from hydrogen bonding (a)
c. boiling point of H2S is less than H2O 112. For given mass of a gas at its initial conditions
d. boiling point of non-polar substances tends to the product of pressure and volume is 2atm.dm3.
decrease with increasing molecular weight If pressure is doubled by keeping the temperature
(d) constant, what will be new product of of pressure
& volume?
106. Keeping in mind different factors which affect a. 2atm.dm3 b. 3atm.dm3
the boiling point of a substance, element having c. 4atm.dm3 d. 8atm.dm3
highest boiling among the following is (a)
a. He

9
113. Which of the following conditions will favour a
gas to be more non-ideal : 122. Volume to temperature ratio for given mass of
a. high temperature & low pressure gas is always constant. This is according to:
b. low temperature & low pressure a. Daltons law of partial pressure
c. low temperature & high pressure b. Graham’s law of diffusion
d. high pressure & high temperature c. Charles law
(c) d. Boyle’s law
(c)
114. 44.8 dm3 of methane gas at STP has the mass:
a. 16g b. 32Kg 123. A gas expands at constant temperature because:
c. 3.2g d. 32g a. pressure decreases b. pressure increases
(d) c. K.E increases d. None
(a)
115. KMT explains the behaviors of gases on the basis
of: 124. For 2dm3 of gas, the pressure is increased form
a. chemical properties 1atm to 1520 torr then:
b. state a. volume will reduce to half
c. molecular motions b. volume will remain constant
d. molecular shape c. volume will increase twice

OM
(c) d. None
(a)
116. A given amount of a gas is kept at 0oC. At what
temperature its volume will be doubled?
a. 100oC
c. 546K
(c)
b. 100K
d. -273oC
D .C
125. He diffuses ____ times as that of CH4:
a. 4
c. ¼
(a)
b. 2
d. 16
TA

117. The pressure exerted by O2 in air is 159torr. This 126. The real gases can be liquefied at low
is its: temperature and high pressure and the volume of
US

a. partial pressure b. total pressure gas molecules cannot be neglected, particularly at

c. half pressure d. None high pressure. This statement is against:
(a) a. Boyles law
AT

118. A mixture of gases A & B are put into a cylinder b. Charles law
at 5atm pressure. The pressure exerted by gas A is c. Kinetic molecular theory
2atm then pressure of B will be: d. Graham’s law of diffusion
DC

a. 7atm b. 3atm (c)

c. 0.3atm d. None P1 P2
(b) 127. The expression = relates to:
T1 T2
M

119. 8g of CH4 at 273K & 1atm pressure will contain a. Boyles law
the number of molecules: b. Charles law
c. Gay – Lussac’s law
a. 6.02  10 23 b. 12.04  10 23
d. Graham’s law of diffusion
c. 1.505  10 23 d. 3.01  10 23 (c)
(d) 128. A mass of neon occupies 200 cm3 at 100°C. Find
its volume at 0°C, the pressure remaining
constant.
120. For which of the following pairs the Daltons law a. 200dm3 b. 146dm3
of partial pressure cannot be applied: c. 46dm 3
d. 192dm3
a. H 2 / O2 b. HCl / NH 3 (d)
c. He / Ne d. Ar / Xe
(b) 129. A mixture at 760torr contains 65% N2, 20% of
O2 & 15% of CO2. The partial pressure of N2 is:
121. Escaping of a gas through a pine-hole is called: a. 494torr b. 949torr
a. diffusion b. evaporation c. 114torr d. 760torr
c. effusion d. None (a)
(c)

10
130. If pressure on a gas is increased from 2 atm to 4
atm than its volume will decrease from: 137. The scale in which freezing point of water is
a. 6L to 4L taken as 320F and boiling of water as 2120F is
b. 8L to 2L called:
c. 3L to 1L a. Normal scale
d. 4L to 2L b. Fahrenheit
(d) c. Absolute scale
d. Celsius
131. All of the following statements are false except: (b)
a. gas molecules do not attract each other at very
low temperature 138. One atmosphere is equal to:
b. all of the gases cannot be liquefied a. 76 torr
c. increase in pressure will not decrease the b. 760 torr
intermolecular distance in a gas c. 7.6 torr
d. actual volume of a gas is not negligible at very d. 7600 torr
high pressure (b)
(d)
139. Normal body temperature is:
132. A container with a porous wall has a mixture of a. 370C

OM
H2, He, N2 and O2. Which of these gases will take b. 310 K
maximum time in getting out of the container? c. 98.60F
a. H2 d. All of these
b. He
c. N2
d. O2
(d)
D .C (d)

140. According to Charles law the volume of an ideal

gas should be zero at:
TA
a. 250C
133. Evaporation takes place at: b. 1000C
a. Low temperature c. -2730C
US

b. High temperature d. 2730C

c. Moderate temperature (c)
d. All temperatures
AT

(d) 141. Which variable are interrelated in ideal gas

equation:
134. Matter having no definite shape but definite a. Volume
DC

volume is called: b. Temperature

a. Liquid c. Pressure
b. Plasma d. All of the above
M

c. Solid (d)
d. Gas
(a)

135. Denser liquids flow: 142. The value of R depends on:

a. Slowly a. Temperature
b. Quickly b. Pressure
c. Do not flow c. Volume
d. All of these above d. All of the above
(a) (d)

136. The force exerted by 76c.m long colum of Hg on 143. In S.I units the numerical value of R is equal to:
an area of 1cm3 at 0oC is called: a. 8.314 J.k-1 mol-1
a. Atmospheric pressure b. 8.314 Cal. k-1 mol-1
b. Standard pressure c. 8.314 J.k-1 mol-2
c. Partial pressure d. None of these
d. None of these (a)
(b)

11
144. The spontaneous mixing of molecules of
different gasses by random motion and collisions 151. Which gas diffuses more rapidly?
until the mixture becomes homogeneous is called a. O2
gaseous: b. SO2
a. Effusion c. NH3
b. Osmosis d. H2
c. Diffusion (d)
d. Expansion
(c) 152. The ratio of diffusion of the He and SO2 is:
a. 1 : 4
145. The rate of diffusion of two gases are inversely b. 4 : 1
proportional to the square roots of their densities c. 1 : 8
of or molecular weights is a statement of: d. 1 : 16
a. Charle’s Law (b)
b. Boyle’s Law
c. Graham’s Law 153. 1 torr is equal to:
d. Dalton’s Law a. 2m.m Hg
(c) b. 1m.m Hg
c. 100m.m Hg

OM
146. The pressure of each gas in a mixture is called: d. 1000m.m Hg
a. Total pressure (b)
b. Vapour pressure
c. Equilibrium pressure
d. Partial pressure
(d)
D .C
154. All the gases can be converted into liquid and
solids by:
a. Cooling
b. Compression
TA
147. The total pressure axerted by a mixture of gases c. Evaporation
is the sum of the partial pressure all the gases d. Cooling & compression
present is a statement is: (d)
US

a. Charle’s Law
b. Boyle’s Law 155. The amount of energy required to expand the
c. Dalton’s Law surface of a liquid by unit area is called:
AT

d. Graham’s law a. Viscosity

(c) b. Free energy
c. Surface tension
DC

148. The percentage of N2 in the air is: d. None of these

a. 78 % (c)
b. 80%
M

c. 90%
d. 65%
(a)
r1 M2 156. Surface tension is measured in the units of:
149.
r2
is the mathematical form of: a. N.m b. N-1.m-1
M1 b. N.m-1
c. N.m2
a. Charle’s Law (c)
b. Graham’s Law
c. Dalton’s Law 157. Which liquid does not wet glass?
d. Non of these a. Water
(b) b. Mercury
c. Alcohol
150. At the same temp: the molecules of every gas d. Ether
have the same average: (b)
a. Potential energy
b. Rotational energy 158. The rise of liquid in capillary tubes is called:
c. Vibrational energy a. Buffer action
d. Kinetic energy b. Water action
(d) c. Capillary action

12
 d. None of these a. Diffusion
(c) b. Evaporation
c. Both a & b
159. The resistance of liquid to its flow is called: d. Surface Tension
a. Surface tension (c)
b. Viscosity
c. Refraction 167. Cooling favours ________ of a liquid.
d. None of these a. Freezing
(b) b. Contraction
c. Both a & b
160. The viscosity of H2O is more than CH3OH due d. Condensation
to: (c)
a. Covalent bond
b. Ionic Bon 168. Pressure remaining constant, at what
c. H–bonding temperature the volume of a gas will be reduced
d. None of these to half, of what it is at 00C?
(c) a. 136.5K
b. 546 K
161. The system in which all three axes are unequal c. 273 K

OM
are at right angel to each other is called: d. None of these
a. Cubic (a)
b. Hexagonal
c. Orthorhombic
d. Tetragonal
(c)
D .C
169. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct, if the volume of a gas is decreased at
constant temperature?
a. The average velocity of gas molecules remains
TA
162. Which of the following pairs of gases have same same.
number of molecules? b. Gas molecules collide more frequently with
a. 22.4 dm3 of O2 and 14g of N2 the walls of the container.
US

b. 4g of He and 2 moles of H2 c. The gas molecules exert greater pressure on the

c. 11.2 dm3 of SO2 and 44g of CO2 walls of the container.
d. 28g of CO and 0.5 mole of SO3 d. All of these
AT

(b) (d)

163. Which of the following properties does not 170. According to Charles’s law, the volume of a
DC

belong to liquids? given mass of an ideal gas at -273.160C is _____.

a. Expansion a. 0 litre
b. Freezing point b. 22.4 litres
M

c. Diffusion c. 44.8 litres

d. None of these d. None of these
(c) (a)
164. Evaporation of a liquid takes place at _____. 171. 700 cm3 of a gas is kept at 3 atm. pressure. If the
a. High temperature pressure is changed to 1 atm, its volume
b. Low temperature becomes_____.
c. Moderate temperature a. 350 cm3 b. 1400 cm3
3
d. All temperature c. 2100 cm d. 2800 cm3
(d) (c)

165. 392oF temperature corresponds to __________. 172. When a graph is plotted between volume of a
a. 200oC given mass of a gas & its pressure at constant
b. 473K temperature,______.
c. Both a & b a. Straight line
d. None of these b. Parabolic curve
(c) c. Hyperbolic curve
d. None of these
166. The molecular motion in liquids is responsible (b)
for their

13
173. At constant pressure, the ratio of volume and 180. At S.T.P a certain mass of a gas occupies
absolute temperature of a gas remains constant. It 10 dm3 volume. At what conditions of T and P its
is the statement of ______. volume remains constant?
a. Boyle’s Law a. 546 K & 2 atm.
b. Charle’s Law b. 546C & 0.5 atm
c. Avogadro’s Law c. 273 K & 2 atm
d. General gas Law
d. 273C & 2 atm
(b)
(a)
174. The absolute zero is the temperature at which:
181. Different gases occupy same volume under same
a. Molecular motion of gas ceases to exist
conditions of temperature and pressure when:
b. Volume of gases becomes zero
a. Masses of both gases are equal.
c. Both a & b
b. Number of molecules of both gases are equal
d. Gas occupy larger volume
c. Rates of diffusion of both gases are equal
(c)
d. All of these
(b)
175. At constant pressure, the decrease in
temperature causes?
182. CO2 gas occupies maximum volume at _____.
a. Decrease in average molecular velocity

OM
a. S.T.P
b. Decrease in average K.E of gas molecules
b. 00C& 1 atm
c. The sample of gas shrinks & occupies smaller
c. 273K and 760m.m Hg
volume
d. 1270C and 760torr
d. All of these
(d)
D
176. 1 mole of H2, 2 moles of N2 and 3 moles of CO2
.C (d)

183. By increasing pressure at constant temperature,

density of a gas is _____.
TA
gases are enclosed in a 3 dm3 flask. The total
a. Increased
volume occupied by the gases is ________.
b. Decreased
a. 6 dm3
c. Unchanged
US

b. 3 dm3
d. Except c
c. 1.5 dm3
(a)
d. 0.75 dm3
AT

(b)
184. Real gases show ideal behaviour at:
a. Low temperature & low pressure
177. Rate of diffusion of a gas is proportional to the
b. High temperature & high pressure
DC

density of that gas. It is the statement of ____.

c. High temperature & low pressure
a. Graham’s Law of diffusion.
d. Low temperature & high pressure
b. Dalton’s Law of partial pressures
(c)
c. Avogadro’s Law
M

185. Which of the following is not the unit of

d. None of these
pressure?
(a) 2
178. Insoluble solid particles are separated from a. kg / m. sec
liquid by means of __________. b. Psi
a. Filtration c. N .m −2
b. Distillation d. None of these
c. Sublimation (d)
d. Fractional distillation
(a) 186. If the volume of a gas is decreased at constant
temperature, the average velocity of gas
179. The volume of a gas can be increased 4 times by: molecules:
a. Increasing temperature & pressure twice. a. Increase
b. Decreasing temperature & pressure to half. b. Decrease
c. Keeping temperature and pressure constant. c. Remain same
d. Increasing temperature twice & decreasing d. Becomes zero
pressure to half. (a)
(d)

14
187. The volume occupied by 3gms of hydrogen gas (c)
at S.T.P is __________.
a. 5.6 dm3 193. The value of universal gas constant ‘R’ in C.G.S
System is:
b. 11.2 dm3 −1 −1
a. 8.3143 ergs. K . mol
c. 22.4 dm3
d. 33.6 dm3 b. 8.3143 J .K −1. mole
(d) c. 8.3143 N .m.K −1. mole
d. None of these
188. A mixture of gases at 1.5 atmosphere contains (a)
28g of N2 and 88g of CO2 gases. Their partial
pressures will be in the order of ________. 194. The gases present in the air exert a total pressure
a. N 2  CO2 of about ___________ on our bodies.
a. 20 tons
b. CO2  N 2 b. 40 tons
c. N 2 = CO2 c. 80 tons
d. None of these d. 100 tons
(b) (a)

OM
189. According to Charles’ Law, the value of 195. A gas is enclosed in a vessel at −40C . What
constant ‘K’ depends upon ________. will be the temperature of the gas in Fahrenheit
a. Mass of the gas scale?
a. −72 F
b. Number of moles of gas
c. Pressure of the gas
d. All of these
D .C b. −40 F
c. −32 F
(d) d. 40 F
TA

(b)
190. Three gases H 2 , D2 and He are enclosed in a
196. The characteristics of crystalline solids are:
US

vessel under same conditions of temperature &

pressure. The rates of diffusion of these gases will a. Definite shape
be in the order. b. Long range orders
a. H 2  D2  He c. Anisotropic
AT

d. All of these
b. He  D2  H 2 (d)
c. D2  H 2  He
DC

d. None of these
(a)
M

191. A gas, which remains a gas up to −273C is 197. Choose the incorrect statement:
said to be ____________. a. Amorphous solids are isotropic and have only
a. A noble gas short range orders.
b. An ideal gas b. Crystalline solids have sharp melting points.
c. A real gas c. Amorphous solids have sharp melting points.
d. A non-ideal gas d. Amorphous solids are also called as super
(b) cooled liquids
(c)
192. 3 moles of He and 4 moles of Ar are enclosed in
a vessel under same conditions of temperature & 198. Match the following:
pressure. The partial pressure of Ar is _____. (A) Ionic crystals (1) Diamond, Silica etc.,
a. 3 of the total pressure (B) Molecular crystals (2) Cu , Zn, Na etc.,
4
(C) Covalent crystals (3) Solid CO2 , I 2 etc.,
b. 4 of the total pressure
3 (D) Metallic crystals (4) KCl , Na2 SO4
c. 4
7 of the total pressure The correct match is
A B C D
d. 3 of the total pressure a. 1 2 4 3
7

15
 b. 4 3 2 1
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 3 4 1 2
(c)

199. The substance which exhibits electrical

conductivity in the solid state is
a. NaCl
b. Diamond
c. Silver
d. Both a & c
(c)

200. Low melting points, bad electrical conductivity

and softness are the characteristics of:
a. Ionic crystals
b. Covalent crystals
c. Metallic crystals

OM
d. Molecular crystals
(d)

201. The type of attractions present between

molecules in ice are:
a. Vander Waal’s attractions
b. Hydrogen bond
c. Both a & b
D .C
TA
d. Covalent bond
(b)
US

202. Ionic solids are generally

a. Good conductors of electricity
b. Quite hard and brittle
AT

c. Volatile
d. Except c
(d)
DC

203. The crystal system with the crystallographic

CHAPTER # 04
angles  =  =  = 90 is:
M

a. Cubic
b. Tetragonal
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
c. Orthorhombic
d. All of these
(d) 204. Color of the glow produced in the discharge
tube
a. depends on the pressure in the discharge tube
b. depends on the metal used as cathode
c. depends on the gas used in the discharge tube
d. does not depend on the nature of the gas used
in the discharge tube
(c)

205. A chemist told his students that if charge on

electrons in a chamber is 3.50 x 10 11 coulomb
than mass of electrons must be
a. 9.1 x 10-31 kg
b. 8 kg

16
 c. 4 kg
d. 2 kg 212. If the electron of hydrogen atom jumps of “M”
(d) shell then the radius of this excited hydrogen atom
will be
206. e/m ratio of the canal rays is less than that of a. 8.464 Ao
cathode rays. The reason is b. 4.761 Ao
a. greater mass of canal ray particles c. 2.116 Ao
b. greater charge of the canal ray particles d. 0.529 Ao
c. greater mass and charge of the canal ray (b)
particles
d. actually e/m ratio of canal rays is greater than 213. Second ionization energy
that of the cathode rays a. is always less than first ionization energy
(a) b. is always greater than first ionization energy
c. is equal to the first ionization energy
207. Nuclear radiation is emitted by those elements d. may be greater or less than the first ionization
whose energy depending on the nature of the element
a. molecules are stable (b)
b. molecules are unstable
c. nuclei are stable 214. “Ionization energies of the elements of the 5th

OM
d. nuclei are unstable group are greater than those of 6th group”. It is
(d) because
a. 5th group elements have less electronegativity
208. α-rays are good ionizers of gases because they b. 6th group of elements have greater shielding
a. have greater mass
b. have positive charge
c. have greater mass and positive charge
D .C effect
c. 5th group element have greater shielding effect
d. 5th group elements have half filled atomic
TA
d. are helium nuclei orbitals
(c) (d)
US

209. Consider the following reaction 215. All of the following are electromagnetic
9
4 Be + 4
2 He ⎯⎯
→ C + n
12
6
1
0
radiations except
a. red light
This reaction is
AT

b. sound waves
a. a chemical reaction
c. x-rays
b. a nuclear fission
d. photon
c. an example of artificial radioactivity
DC

(b)
d. an exothermic reaction
216. Which orbital of the following has a principal
(c)
quantum number of 3 and an angular momentum
210. Roentgen discovered X-rays and Mosley found
M

quantum number of 27?

that the frequency of the X-rays emitted from
a. 3s
anode increases with the
b. 3d
a. increase in the mass number of the metal used
c. 4f
as anode
d. 3f
b. decrease in the mass number of the metal used
(b)
as anode
c. decrease in the proton number of the metal
217. Which of the following has the highest energy?
used as anode
a. gamma rays
d. increase in the proton number of the metal used
b. X-rays
as anode
c. Ultra-violet radiation
(d)
d. radio waves
(a)
211. Radiation emitted by exited atoms is
a. in the form of continuous waves
218. All of the following elements are correct for
b. in the form of quanta
atomic orbitals except
c. nuclear radiations
a. p-sub energy level has 3 orbitals
d. ultraviolet radiation
b. s-orbital has spherical shape
(b)
c. energy of 4s is less than that of 4d

17
 d. All d orbitals have 4 lobes
(d) 226. The effective nuclear charge for an atom is less
than the actual nuclear charge due to
219. How many orbitals are allowed for principal a. Shielding
quantum number (n) of 3? b. Penetration
a. 9 c. Paramagnetism
b. 8 d. Electron-pair repulsion
c. 6 (a)
d. 4
(a) 227. “Electrons added to atomic orbitals of the same
energy will remain unpaired with parallel spins
220. Which of the following orbitals are degenerate in until the subshell is more than half-filled” is a
a multielectron atom? statement of
a. 3d orbitals a. Aufbau principle
b. 3s, 3p, 3d orbitals b. Pauli exclusion principle
c. 1s, 2s orbitals c. Hund’s rule
d. 2d orbitals d. Periodic law
(a) (c)

OM
221. The quantum number that specifies the way the 228. Select the correct electron configuration for Cu
orbital is oriented in space is: (Z=29)
a. the electron spin quantum number a. [Ar]4s23d9
b. [Ar]4s13d10
b. the magnetic quantum number
c. the angular momentum quantum number
d. the principal quantum number
(b)
D .C c. [Ar]4s24p63d3
d. [Ar]4d104s1
(b)
TA

222. Which of the following has the largest 229. Q. 36. Arrange potassium, rubidium, calcium
wavelength? and barium in order of increasing atomic size.
US

a. visible light a. K < Ca < Rb < Ba

b. x-rays b. Ca < K < Rb < Ba
c. infrared light c. Ca < K < Ba < Rb
AT

d. ultraviolet radiation d. K < Ca < Ba < Rb

(c) (b)
223. Select the arrangement of electromagnetic 230. Element having smallest atomic radius:
DC

radiation which starts with the lowest energy and a. Li

increases to greatest energy. b. Ne
a. radio, visible, infrared, visible, ultraviolet c. Rb
M

b. microwave, infrared, visible, ultraviolet d. Sr

c. visible, ultraviolet, infrared, gamma rays (b)
d. X-radiation, visible, infrared, microwave
(b) 231. The arrangement of sodium, oxygen, fluorine
and strontium on the basis of increasing first
224. The size of an atomic orbital is associated with ionization energy is
a. principal quantum number (n) a. Na < Sr < O < F
b. angular momentum quantum number (I) b. Sr < Na < O < F
c. magnetic quantum number (mI) c. Sr < Na < F < O
d. spin quantum number (ms) d. Na < Sr < F < O
(a) (b)

225. “Each electron in an atom must have its own 232. Elements with _____ first ionization energies
unique set of quantum numbers” is a statement of and _______ electron affinities generally form
a. Aufbau principle cations.
b. Pauli exclusion principle a. low, very negative
c. Hund’s rule b. high, positive or slightly negative
d. Periodic law c. low, positive or slightly negative
(b) d. high, very negative

18
 (c) a. Henry Becquerel
b. William crooks
233. Crook’s tube or discharge tube experiments c. W. Roentgen
where performed at low pressure to discover the d. Marie curie
presence of: (a)
a. Electron in an atom
b. Proton in an atom 253. Radioactive rays which are non material in
c. Neutron in an atom nature are called:
d. Both A and B a. X-rays
(d) b. β-rays
c.  -rays
246. Radioactivity confirmed the presence of:
d. N.O.T
a. Electron (c)
b. Proton
c. Neutron 254. The atomic mass of an element is 59 and it
d. All atomic number is 27. The number of neutrons
(d) contained in the nucleus will be:
a. 27

OM
247. A fundamental particle bearing a unit negative b. 32
charge 1.6 x 10-19 coulomb is called:
c. 59
a. Electron
d. 68
b. Proton
(b)
c. Neutron
d. N.O.T
(a)
D .C
255. Consider the nuclear reaction
13Al + 2He → on + X
27 4 1
TA
Where X-represents_____?
248. The passage of electric current through gases was
a. 14P30
performed by:
b. 15P29
a. Sir William crooks
US

c. 15P30
b. Gold stein d. 15P31
c. Sir J.J Thompson (c)
d. All the above
AT

(d) 256. The emission of a β -particle from the nucleus

249. Neutrons war discovered by: raises the positive charged by:
a. Rutherford
DC

a. One
b. Sir J.J Thompson b. Two
c. Goldstein c. Three
M

d. James Chadwick d. Four

(d) (a)
250. The nucleus of an atom contains: 257. When a stable element is bombarded with α-rays
a. Electron & neutron its nucleus is disintegrated and emits radiation.
b. Neutron & Protons This is known as:
c. Electron & Protons a. Natural radioactivity
d. All of these b. Artificial radioactivity
(b) c. Nuclear fission
d. N.O.T
251. Natural radioactivity is confined to: (b)
a. Lighter elements
b. Heavier elements 258. Goldstein discovered that besides the cathode-
c. Transition elements rays another type of rays is produced in the
d. None of these discharge tube which is called:
(b) a. Alpha rays
b. Beta rays
252. X-rays were discovered by: c. Positive rays
d. Gamma rays

19
 (c) (c)

259. The divisibility of atom was shown by: 266. Energy always travels in discontinuous manner
a. Stony in the form of wave packets. This statement
b. J.J Thomson relates to:
c. Milliken a. Bohr’s theory
d. Rutherford b. Plank’s quantum theory
(b) c. Henry’s law
d. Heisenberg uncertainty principle
260. The charge of an electron is determined by: (b)
a. J.J Thomson
b. Crook 267. When electrons jumps from nth orbit to n=2 in
c. Perrin case of excited hydrogen atom, radiations are
d. R.A Millikan emitted. Spectral lines obtained by passing these
(a) radiations through spectroscope lie in:
a. Balmer series
261. Which have better penetrating power? b. Brackett series
a. Alpha rays c. Paschen series
d. Lyman series

OM
b. Beta rays
c. Gamma rays (b)
d. X-rays
(d) 268. During discharge tube experiments the particles

262. Alpha rays are actually:

a. 1 Protons 2 neutrons
b. 2 Proton 2 electrons
D .C emitted from cathode are:
a. Electron
b. Proton
c. Neutron
TA
c. 2 Protons 1 neutron d. Both A and B
d. 2 Protons 2 neutrons (a)
(d)
US
AT

263. The mass of one proton is: 269. Lightest of following sub-atomic particles is:
a. Electron
a. 1.6726 10 kg-27
b. Proton
DC

b. 1.0073 a.m.u. c. Neutron

c. Both a & b d. All
d. None (a)
M

(c)
270. A fundamental particle bearing a unit positive
charge 1.6 x 10-19 coulomb is called:
a. Electron
b. Proton
264. Nature of canal rays depends upon: c. Neutron
a. Nature of electrodes d. N.O.T
b. Composition of discharge tube (b)
c. Nature of gas used inside discharge tube
d. All are correct 271. In hydrogen atom, an electron in a ____ orbital
(c) can absorb a photon, but cannot emit a photon.
a. 3s
265. Radius for hydrogen atom when hydrogen atom b. 2s
is the ground state: c. 3p
o d. 1s
a. 0.0529 A (d)
b. 0.529 10-10 m
c. both a & b 272. There are ____ unpaired electrons in a ground
d. None state phosphorus atom.

20
 a. 0 278. The maximum number of electrons that can be
b. 1 accommodated by a p-orbital is ____?
c. 2 a. 2
d. 3 b. 6
(d) c. 10
d. 8
273. The uncertainty principle states that ______. (b)
a. matter and energy are really the same thing
b. it is impossible to know anything with 279. The element that has a valence configuration of
certainty 4s1 is ____.
c. it is impossible to know the exact position and a. Li
momentum of an electron b. Na
d. there can only be one uncertain digit in a c. K
reported number d. Rb
(c) (c)
274. When beryllium is bombarded with alpha rays, 280. The fundamental particles of an atom are __.
neutrons are emitted; but beryllium is converted a. Electrons and protons & neutrons
into:

OM
b. Electrons and Neutrons
12
a. 6 C c. Electrons, Protons
13 d. Neutrons
b. C
6 (a)
c.
d.
(a)
14
C
6
15
C
6
D .C
281. The valence shell of the element X contains 2
electrons in a 4s subshell. Below that shell,
element X has a partially filled 3d sub-shell. What
TA
type of element is X?
a. main group element
b. halogen
US

c. transition metal
d. alkali metal
(c)
AT

275. The range of ____ rays is 1m-2m in air: 282. “No two electrons in the same atoms can have
a. α-rays identical set of four quantum numbers.” This
b. β-rays statement is known as:
DC

c.  -rays a. Pauli’s Exclusion Principle

d. N.O.T b. Hund’s rule
(b) c. Aufbau Rule
M

d. n+l rule
276. The mass of electron is: (a)
a. 1.6 x 10-19 g
b. 9.11 x 10-31Kg 283. ____ has the highest electronegativity value
c. 6.02 x 1023g a. Fluorine
d. 1.6 x 10-19g b. Chlorine
(b) c. Bromine
d. Iodine
277. The electron configuration of Fe is: (a)
2 2 2 6 6
a. 1s 2s 3s 3p 3d
2 2 6 2 6 6 2
284. The electron affinity of chlorine is 349 kJ/mol.
b. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s What is the correct equation for the formation of
2 2 6
c. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s
2 6 2 chloride?
2 2 6 2 6 2 6 a. Cl (s) + e- → Cl- (s) + 349 kJ
d. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 4d b. Cl (g) + e- → Cl- (g) + 349 kJ
2
e. 1s 2s 3s 3p
2 2 10 c. Cl (s) + 349 kJ + e- → Cl- (s)
(b) d. Cl (g) + 349 kJ + e- → Cl- (g)
(b)

21
 292. The power of an atom to attract a shared pair of
285. Anode rays consist of _________ particles. electrons is called ___.
a. Negative a. Ionization Potential
b. Positive b. Electron Affinity
c. Neutral c. Electronegativity
d. Both a & b d. All
(b) (c)

286. Atomic mass of an element is equal to the sum of 293. Which of the following rays is/are
____. electromagnetic in nature?
a. Electrons and protons a.  -rays
b. Protons and neutrons b.  -rays
c. Electrons and neutrons c.  -rays
d. None
(b) d. Cathode rays
(c)
287. Which element has the highest ionization
energy? 294. Gamma (  ) rays possess greatest penetration
a. Mg

OM
power due to the fact that:
b. Ca a. They are short wave rays
c. Sr b. They are electromagnetic rays
d. Ba c. They are non-material in nature
(a)

288. The value of Plank’s constant is ____J.s.

a. 6.626 x 10-34
D .C d. All of these
(d)

295. Which of the following statement(s) is/are

TA
b. 6.023 x 1024 correct?
c. 1.667 x 10-28 a. Positive rays are produced, when high speed
d. None cathode rays strike the molecules of the gas
US

(a) enclosed in the discharge tube.

b. Positive rays are produced, when high speed
cathode rays strike the anode.
AT

c. Positive rays are produced, when the gas

289. p-orbitals are __________ in shape. molecules strike the anode.
a. Spherical d. All of these
DC

b. Diagonal (a)
c. Dumb-bell
d. Oval 296. Continuous spectrum is produced from the light
M

(a) of _____.
a. Atoms in ground state
290. The removal of an electron from an atom in b. Excited atoms
gaseous state is called _____. c. Highly viscous liquids
a. Ionization energy d. Except c
b. Electron Affinity (b)
c. Electronegativity
d. None 297. The charge on electron was determined by
(a) ___________.
a. J.J Thomson
291. The energy released when an electron is added to b. Stoney
an atom in the gaseous state is called: c. Milliken
a. Ionization Potential d. Goldstein
b. Electron Affinity (a)
c. Electronegativity
d. All 298. _____ serves as the finger prints for the
(b) identification of elements.
a. Continuous Spectrum
b. Discontinuous Spectrum

22
 c. Both a & b 306. Atom is the smallest indivisible particle of
d. None of these matter. This idea was first given by ____:
(b) a. Leukiphos
b. Democritos
299. Radioactive elements emit radiations from c. John Dalton
_________. d. Neil Bohr
a. Valance shell electrons (b)
b. Nucleus
c. Both a & b 307. The complex organization of matter and energy
d. Inner shell electrons is called_______.
(c) a. Atom
b. Element
300. Atom was proved to be divisible c. Molecule
through__________. d. Compound
a. Faraday’s experiment (a)
b. Discharge tube experiment
c. Natural Radioactivity 308. The presence of electron was first indicated from
d. Positive rays experiment _________.
(c) a. Faraday’s Experiment

OM
b. Crooke’s tube Experiment
301. The mass of electron in a.m.u is _____. c. Chadwick’s experiment
a. 0.000550 d. All of these
b. 5.4858 x 10-4
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
(a)
D .C (a)

309. ______ named the basic unit of electric charge

associated with every ion.
TA
a. Humphry Davy
302. Alpha ( rays) comprises of: b. Micheal Faraday
a. 2 protons and 2 neutrons c. Stoney
US

b. 2 protons and 2 electrons d. J.J. Thomson

c. 1 protons and 2 neutrons (c)
d. protons and 1 neutrons
AT

(a) 310. The passage of electricity through solutions is

303. The breaking of light into its constituent colours called _________.
is called _________. a. Pyrolysis
DC

a. Spectrum b. Hydrolysis
b. Dispersion c. Electrolysis
c. Both a & b d. All of these
M

d. None of these (c)

(c)
311. The chemical process during which electrons are
304. On passing through matter,  -rays would eject lost by an atom or ion is called _______.
a. Reduction
__________ from the matter.
b. Oxidation
a. Electrons
c. Both a & b
b. Protons
d. Redox reaction
c. Neutrons
(b)
d. All of these
(a)
312. An atom or ion gains electron by virtue of:
a. Reduction
305. Which of the following rays possess greater
b. Oxidation
penetration power?
c. Redox reaction
a.  - rays
d. All of these
b.  - rays (a)
c.  -rays
d. X-rays 313. The electrode at which electrons enter into the
(c) electrolytic solution is called _____:

23
 a. Cathode (a)
b. Anode
c. Glass electrode 321. The constituent part of matter is/are ___:
d. All of these a. Electron
(a) b. Proton
c. Neutron
314. The electrode at which the electrons leave the d. All of these
electrolytic solution is called ________. (d)
a. Cathode
b. Anode 322. The relationship between the frequency of X-
c. Both a & b rays and atomic mass of the target element was
d. Glass electrode studied by ________.
(b) a. W. Roentgen
b. Lord Rutherford
315. Discharge tube experiment was initiated by: c. Goldstein
a. William Crookes d. Moseley
b. Heinrich Geissler (d)
c. Goldstein
d. J.J. Thomson 323. According to Bohr’s Theory, stationary states are

OM
(b) the __________ in the atom.
a. Energy levels
316. Cathode rays were discovered by ______. b. Orbits
a. Goldstein
b. J.J Thomson
c. Heinrich Geissler
d. William Crookes
D .C c. Shells
d. All of these
(d)
TA
(b) 324. The number of positive charge on the nucleus is
________ of the atomic mass.
317. Cathode rays are characterized by: a. Exactly half
US

a. Negative charge b. Nearly half

b. Low penetration power c. Exactly double
c. Straight line path d. Nearly double
AT

d. All of these (b)

(d)
325. According to Planck’s quantum theory:
DC

318. During gas discharge tube experiment, Cathode a. Atom cannot change its energy continuously
rays were produced at a pressure of _____. b. The change in atomic energy occurs in a
a. 760 torr series of steps
M

b. 1 torr c. Both a & b

c. 0.1 torr d. Atom can change its energy continuously
d. 0.001 torr (c)
(d)
326. During discharge tube experiment, the pressure
319. _____ determined the charge to mass (e/m) ratio column is found at about ______.
of electron. a. 10 m.m of Hg
a. Hertz b. 1 m.m of Hg
b. Goldstein
c. J.J. Thomson c. 0.1 m.m of Hg
d. Lenard d. 0.001 m.m of Hg
(c) (d)

320. The charge to mass (e/m) ratio of cathode rays 327. A gas emits light, when it is excited by means of:
proved them to be made up of _______. a. Electrical conductivity
a. Electron b. Thermal conductivity
b. Proton c. Both a & b
c. Neutron d. Electrolysis
d. Position (c)

24
 335. Which of the following colours possess highest
328. Bohr’s atomic theory explained the origin of frequency?
____ spectrum. a. Yellow
a. Line b. Green
b. Continuous c. Blue
c. Both a & b d. Indigo
d. No (d)
(a)
336. Second shell can have ________ electrons.
329. When electron jumps from 3rd orbit to 1st orbit, a. 6
the spectrum formed belongs to _______region. b. 7
a. Visible c. 8
b. Ultraviolet d. All of these
c. Infrared (c)
d. Far infrared
(b) 337. The angular momentum possessed by an electron
is represented as ________.
330. The formula 2n2 is used to calculate ___ number nh
a. mv =
of electrons in a shell. 2 r

OM
a. Maximum nh
b. Minimum b. mvr =
2
c. Least
nh
c. r =
d. Average
(a)
D
331. Trans-uranium elements are those which lie ____
.C d. v =
2 mr
nh
2 mr
TA
Uranium in the periodic table. (b)
a. Before
b. After
US

c. With
d. None of these 338. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
(b) correct?
AT

a. Stationary states are those orbits in which

332. Paschen discovered a series of spectral lines in angular momentum of electron is an integral
_______ region. multiple of Planck’s constant (h)
DC

a. Visible b. Stationary states are energy levels in an atom

b. Ultraviolet in which electrons revolve.
c. Infrared c. Both a & b
M

d. Far infrared d. Centripetal force, which is due to attraction

(c) between nucleus & electrons is shown as
mv 2 / r
333. _____ suggested the dual nature of electron.
(c)
a. Warner Heisenberg
b. Schrodinger
339. After filling 5d orbital, electron enters into
c. Max Planck
_______ orbital.
d. De-Borglie
a. 4 f
(d)
b. 6 p
334. When electrons jumps from 4th, 5th or 6th orbit to c. 5 f
3rd orbit in the hydrogen atom, the spectral lines d. 7s
are called __________. (c)
a. Balmer Series
b. Lyman Series
340. 1 s 2 is the configuration of ________.
c. Paschen Series
d. Brackett Series a. He
(c) b. H −
c. Li +

25
 d. All of these
(d)

341. Which of the following atom has largest radius?

a. Na
b. Mg
c. Ca
d. K
(d)

342. Which of the following ion(s) is/are isoelectronic

to F − ion?
a. C −4
+2
b. Mg
c. Si +4
d. All of these
(d)

OM
343. An orbital cannot contain more than two
electrons. It is the statement of:
a. Pauli’s exclusion principle
b. Hand’s rule of maximum multiplicity
c. Heisenberg’s uncertainly principle
d. Aufbau principle
D .C
(a)
TA

344. 2 ( 2l + 1) is the formula used to calculate CHAPTER # 05

US

________.
a. Number of orbitals in a sub-level. CHEMICAL BONDING
b. Maximum number of electron in a shell.
AT

c. Maximum number of electron in a sub-shell.

d. Number of sub-levels in an energy level. 346. Which of the following compounds has
(c) maximum ionic character?
DC

a. NaCI
345. Ionic radii increase due to the _______. b. CsF
a. Increase in positive charge on the ion c. KBr
M

b. Decrease in negative charge on the ion d. MgCI2

c. Both a & b (b)
d. Increase in negative charge on the ion
(c) 347. Which of the following molecules or ions is
nonplanar, i.e., has at least one atom that is not in
the same plane as the others?
a. BH3
b. NF3
c. SO3
d. CO32-
(b)

348. Which of the following best describes the shape

and polarity of the carbon disulfide, CS 2,
molecule?
a. bent and polar
b. linear and non-polar
c. pyramidal and polar
d. bent and non-polar

26
 (b) b. C and O are in different groups whereas S and
O are in the same group
349. Which of the following molecules has the c. The C-O bond is nonpolar while the S-O bond
smallest angle between adjacent bonds? is polar
a. CO2 d. CO2 is linear whereas SO2 is not linear
b. CH4 (d)
c. H2O
d. NH3 356. What is the state of hybridization of the carbon
(c) atoms in ethylene, C2H2?
a. sp2
350. The shape of hydronium ion H3O+ is: b. sp
a. planar c. sp3
b. see-saw d. sp3d2
c. trigonal planar (a)
d. trigonal pyramidal
(d) 357. The type(s) of bonding present in a sample of
sodium nitrated, NaNO3, are:
351. Which of the following pairs of atoms are least a. covalent bonds only
likely to form an ionic compound? b. ionic bonds only

OM
a. Ni, O c. covalent and ionic bonds
b. Na, F d. ionic and metallic bonds
c. Cu, CI (c)
d. Li, Mg
(d)
D .C
TA
352. Which of the following pairs of atoms are most 358. The C=C double bond in ethane C2H4, is consist
likely to form a covalent compound? of:
a. Na, F a. two П bonds
US

b. Cu, CI b. covalent bonds

c. C, O c. two sigma bonds
d. Li, F d. one П bond + one sigma bond
AT

(c) (d)

353. Which molecule has one pair of nonbonding 359. All of the following statements are false except
DC

electrons on the central atom? a. The number of MO’s in a molecule equals

a. PCI3 twice the number of constituent atomic orbitals
b. CO2 b. As bonding MO’s become equally less stable
c. In MO’s, the number of bonding electrons
M

c. SO3
d. BF3 equals the number of antibonding electrons
(a) d. Each bonding MO can accommodate only one
electron
354. Which of the following will have the largest (b)
dipole moment?
a. HF 360. All of the following statements are false except
b. HCI a. The MO’s in a molecule equals twice the
c. HBr number of constituent atomic orbitals.
d. F2 b. As bonding MO’s become more stable,
(a) antibonding MO’s become equally less stable.
c. In MO’s, the number of bonding electrons
355. CO2 is a nonpolar molecular (μ=0) whereas SO2 equals the number of antibonding electrons.
is polar (μ=1.62D). This difference is due to the d. Each bonding MO can accommodate only one
fact that: electron.
a. CO2 has an even number of double bonds (b)
whereas SO2 has an odd number of double
bonds 361. What is the hybridization of phosphorus in PCI3?
a. sp2

27
 b. sp3 d. 180o
c. sp (d)
d. sp3d2
(b) 368. Predict the actual bond angles in BF3 using the
VSEPR theory.
362. Analysis of an unknown substance showed that a. more than 120o
it has a high boiling point and is brittle. It is an b. between 109o and 120o
insulator as a solid but conducts electricity when c. between 90o and 109o
melted. Which of the following substances would d. less than 90o
have those characteristics? (d)
a. HCI
b. AI 369. Which of the following has no net dipole
c. KBr moment?
d. SiF4 a. N2O
(c) b. NF3
c. H2Se
363. Arrange the following bonds in order of d. TeO3
increasing bond strength. C-F, C-Br, C-I, C-CI (d)
a. C-F < C-CI < C-Br < C-I

OM
b. C-I < C-Br < C-CI < C-F
c. C-Br < C-I < C-CI < C-F
d. C-I < C-Br < C-F < C-CI
370. A molecule with the formula AX2 uses ……….
(b)
364. Based on electronegativity trends in the periodic
table, predict which of the following compounds
D
will have the greatest % ionic character in its
.C to form its bonds.
a. sp hybrid orbitals
b. sp2 hybrid orbitals
TA
bonds. c. sp3 hybrid orbitals
a. H2O d. sp3d hybrid orbitals
b. LiI (a)
US

c. RbF
d. HCI 371. Valence bond theory predicts that carbon will
(c) use____hybrid orbitals in the carbonate anion,
AT

CO32-
365. According to VSEPR theory, a molecule with the a. sp
general formula AX3 will have a _____ molecular b. sp2
DC

shape. c. sp3
a. linear d. sp3d
b. bent (b)
M

c. trigonal planar
d. tetrahedral 372. Valence bond theory predicts that sulfur will use
(c) -------- hybrid orbitals in sulfur dioxide, SO2.
a. sp
366. According to VSEPR theory, a molecule with the b. sp2
general formula AX3E will have a ____ molecular c. sp3
shape. d. sp3d
a. bent (b)
b. trigonal planar
c. trigonal pyramidal 373. Which one of the following statements about
d. tetrahedral orbital hybridization is incorrect?
(c) a. The carbon atom in CO2 is sp hybridized
b. The nitrogen atom in NH3 is sp3 hybridized.
367. Predict the ideal bond angles around carbon in c. sp2 hybrid orbitals are coplanar, and at 120o to
C2I2 using the molecular shape given by the each other.
VSEPR theory. d. sp hybrid orbitals lie at 180o to each other.
a. 90o (b)
b. 109o
c. 120 o

28
374. For which one of the following molecules is the
indicated type of hybridization not appropriate for 380. Which of the following is more stable?
the central atom? a. Atom
a. BeCI2 sp2 b. Ion
b. SiH4 sp3 c. Molecule
c. BF3 sp2 d. All of these
d. C2H2 sp (c)
(a) 381. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct?
375. According to molecular orbital (MO) theory, the a. An atom becomes more stable, when it has
twelve outermost electrons in the O2 molecule are ground state electronic configuration.
distributed as follows: b. An atom becomes more stable when it
a. 12 in bonding MOS, O in antibonding MOs. acquire inert gas configuration.
b. 10 in bonding MOs, 2 in antibonding MOs. c. An atom becomes more stable when it has a
c. 9 in bonding MOs, 3 in antibonding MOs. complete outermost orbit.
d. 8 in bonding MOs, 4 in antibonding MOs. d. All of these
(d) (d)
382. Ionic compounds dissolve in a solvent when the
376. According to molecular orbital theory, what is

OM
solvation energy released by solvent becomes
the bond order in the O2+ ion? ________ to/than the crystal lattice energy of the
a. 5.5 ionic compound.
b. 5 a. Equal
c. 4
d. 2.5
(d)
377. Which of the following statements relating to
D .C b. Less
c. Greater
d. None of these
(c)
TA
molecular orbital (MO) theory is incorrect?
a. A bonding MO is lower in energy than the two 383. Ionic bond is a ___________ bond.
atomic orbitals from which it is formed. a. Non-directional
b. Unidirectional
US

b. Combination of two 2p orbitals may result in

either Л MOs. c. Multidirectional
c. A species with a bond order of zero will be d. Some times directional, some times non-
AT

stable directional
d. In a stable molecule having an even number of 384. Which of the following molecules does not
electrons, all electrons must be paired. obeys octet rule?
DC

(d) (a) H2O (b) CO2

378. One can safely assume that the 3s- and sp- (c) O2 (d) CO
orbitals will form molecular orbitals similar to 385. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
M

those formed when 2s- and sp-orbitals interact. correct for co-ordinate covalent bond?
According to molecular orbital theory, what will (a) It is represented by placing an arrow between
be the bond order for the CI2+ ion? the bonded atoms.
a. 0.5 (b) It is formed by the elements of group IIIA, IV
b. 1 & VA of the periodic table.
c. 1.5 (c) It is represented by placing positive and
d. 2 negative charges on the acceptor & donor atoms
(c) respectively.
379. Which type of bond will formed between the (d) Except c
elements A & B, if the electronic configuration 386. The ionic character of H-F molecule is Greater
of ‘A’ is than ___________.
1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1 and that of ‘B’ is 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, (a) NaCl (b) HBr
3s2, 2p5? (c) CaCl2 (d) MgO
a. Ionic Bond 387. Formation of crystal lattice represents
b. Covalent bond __________ reaction.
c. Co-ordinate covalent bond (a) Endothermic (b) Exothermic
d. Metallic bond (c) Reversible (d) All
(a) of these

29
 388. Which of the following molecules possess
greater dipole moment? 379. Q.1. All of the following are state functions
(a) CO (b) CO2 except
(c) CS2 (d) BeCl2 a. P
389. Ionic bond, covalent bond and co-ordinate b. V
covalent bond are collectively called c. q
__________. d. H
(a) Interamolecular forces of attraction. (c)
(b) Primary bonds
(c) Both a & b Q. 2. Suppose you have a balloon of given volume, V1,
(d) Intermolecular forces of attraction. containing a gas at temperature, T1. When you
390. H2O, NH3, and SO2 molecules are ___________ place the balloon in a colder room at temperature,
in nature. T2, the balloon’s temperature starts to drop. What
(a) Asymmetrical (b) Polar are the signs of the system’s q, w, and E for this
(c) Both a & b (d) process?
Symmetrical a. +q, +w, + E
391. Which of the following compounds exist as b. -q, -w, + E
discrete unit(s)? c. +q, -w, - E
(a) NaCl (b) MgCl2 d. –q, +w, - E

OM
(c) AlCl3 (d) (d)
None of these
392. The atomic number (Z) of ‘K’ is 19. When it Q. 3. The melting of ice at body temperature is an

of:
(a) Ne
(c) Kr
(b) Ar
(d) Xe
D .C
loses 1 electron, it will acquire the configuration endothermic process:
H 2O ( s ) ⎯⎯
→ H 2O ( l ) ΔH = + 6.

Thus eating ice counteracts the exothermic

TA
393. Which of the following is not a measuring unit
of dipole moment? processes of metabolizing food. How much ice (in
(a) Debye (b) esu . cm grams) would you have to eat to counteract the
(c) Coulombs  meter (d) Debye  energy gained by eating 28.3g of peanuts (13
US

meter kJ/g)?
a. 78 g
b. 110 g
AT

c. 370 g
d. 1100 g
(d)
DC

Q. 4. All of the following statements are false except

a. q = H at constant T; q = E at constant V
M

b. q = H at constant V; q = E at constant P
c. q = H at constant P; q = E at constant V
d. q = H = E at constant P or at constant V
(c)

Q. 5. Energy can neither be created nor it can be

destroyed is the statement of:

a. Hess’s law
b. First law of thermodynamics
c. Newton’s 2nd law of motion
d. Charles law
(b)

Q. 6. Any thing under consideration is called:

a. system
CHAPTER 6 b. surrounding
ELECTRICS OF CHEMICAL REACTIONS c. boundary

30
 d. state of a system
(a) Q. 13. All combustion reactions are:
a. endothermic
Q. 7. All of the following chemical reactions are b. exothermic
endothermic except c. both a & b
a. H 2O ( s ) ⎯⎯
→ H 2O ( l ) d. none
(b)
b.
+
2H 2O ( l ) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
H / Electric current
→ 2H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g )
Q. 14. The following table provide different types of
c. H 2O ( g ) ⎯⎯
→ H 2O ( l ) system and their examples but in irregular
d. decomposition of lime stone manner.
(c)
System Example
Q. 8. All of the followings are incorrect except I. Open a. water in cork fitted
a. Hvaprizaiton < Hsublimation < Hfusion < titration flask
Hcondensation II. Closed b. pigeon
b. Hfusion < Hcondensation < sublimation III. c. ice in thermos bottle
< Hvaporization

OM
isolated
c. Hcondensation < Hfusion <
Hvaporization < Hsublimation Which of the following is a best match of both
d. Hcondensation < Hsublimation < Hfusion columns?
< Hvaporization

Q. 9.
(c)

Chemical reaction during which heat energy is

D .C a. (I, a), (II, b), (III, c)
b. (I, b), (II, a), (III, c)
c. (I, c), (II, a), (III, b)
d. (I, b), (II, c), (III, a)
TA
evolved is called (b)
a. Reversible reaction
b. Irreversible reaction Q. 15. Sublimation, vaporization, melting and
US

c. Exothermic reaction photosynthesis all are examples of

d. Endothermic reaction
(c) a. chemical processes
AT

b. physical processes
Q. 10. A chemist heated a balloon by supplying 600 J of c. biochemical processes
heat. The balloon expands doing 200 J of work d. endothermic processes
DC

against the atmospheric pressure. The change in

internal energy of (d)
a. -800 J
M

b. -400 J Q. 16. A mixture of ice and water contains 60g of ice and
c. 0J 60g of water. If 60J of heat energy is removed
d. +400 J from this mixture then some of the
(d) a. water will vaporize
b. ice will sublime
Q. 11. Spontaneous reactions are those which c. ice will melt
a. continue to occur once started d. water will freeze
b. require activation energy (d)
c. are endothermic
d. are exothermic Q. 17. Pieces of four different metals are present on a
(a) table. These metals are Na, AI, W and Ti. Their
melting points are 98, 660, 3410 and 1660 oC
Q. 12. All of the following processes are spontaneous respectively. Metal having maximum enthalpy of
except fusion is
a. reaction of H2 with O2 to form H2O a. Ti
b. combustion of natural gas b. AI
c. neutralization of HCI by NaOH c. W
d. synthesis of glucose by plants d. Na
(d) (c)

31
Q. 18. If volume of a system is kept constant and heat is
supplied to the system then
a. internal energy of the system increases
and no work is done on the surrounding
b. internal energy of the system increases
and work is done on the surrounding
c. no change in internal energy occurs
d. no work is done on the surrounding
(a)

Q. 19. Melting of ice at room temperature is

a. spontaneous exothermic process
b. spontaneous endothermic process
c. non-spontaneous exothermic process
d. non-spontaneous endothermic process
(b)

OM
D .C
TA
US
AT
DC
M

32
CHAPTER 7
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

Q. 1. At 1000 C, the equilibrium constant for the

reaction of carbon monoxide and oxygen to
produce carbon dioxide is very large (Kc = 1.2 x
1022). When the reaction is at equilibrium the:
a. concentration of carbon dioxide will be much
larger than one or both reactants
b. concentration of carbon dioxide will be much
smaller than concentrations of both reactants
c. concentration of carbon monoxide will be
much larger than the concentration of carbon
dioxide
d. concentrations of both reactants must be
much smaller than the concentration of
carbon dioxide
(a)

OM
Q. 2. A cylinder contains a unknown gas “X”. When the
cylinder is heated a reddish brown color develops.
It means that the gas present in the cylinder was
a.
b.
c.
d.
NO2
N2O
N2O5
N2O4
D .C
TA
(d)

Q. 3. A beaker contains a saturated solution of

US

potassium Perchlorate. When potassium chloride

(KCI) is added to this solution, some of the
potassium Perchlorate is precipitated. It means
AT

that
a. KCIO4 is strong electrolyte that KCI
b. Solubility of KCIO4 is greater than that
DC

of KCI
c. Both KCIO4 and KCI are soluble in
water to some extent
M

d. KCI is a strong electrolyte as compared

with KCIO4
(d)

Q. 4. In salt analysis 3rd group basic radicals (Al3+, Fe3+

etc) are detected by adding NH4CI to the salt
solution and then NH4OH. 3rd group radicals are
precipitated as hydroxide. In this process
a. NH4CI will ionize to a lesser extent in
presence of NH4CI
b. NH4CI will precipitate
c. NH4CI will react with NH4CI
d. Al3+ will precipitate as AICI3
(a)

33
CHAPTER 8 c. electrical conductivity of a solution of an
SOLUTIONS AND ELECTROLYTES electrolyte depends on the extent to which
the electrolyte ionize in the solution
Q. 1. Homogeneous mixture is called: d. strong electrolyte ionize to a greater
a. suspension extent in water
b. solution (d)
c. compound
d. both a & b Q. 8. If “X” moles of Ag2Cr2O7 are dissolved in water
(b) to produce a saturated solution then Ksp will be
a. 2X2
Q. 2. Equivalent weigh of sulfuric acid is 49, thus 1N b. 2X3
solution of sulfuric acid will contain c. 4X3
a. 98g of H2SO4 in 1lit of solution d. X3
b. 49g of H2SO4 in 1kg of solvent (c)
c. 49g of H2SO4 in 1lit of solvent
d. 49g of H2SO4 in 1lit of solution Q. 9. A salt was dissolved in water. It was found that
(d) ionic product is greater than the solubility
product. It means that the
Q. 3. 0.5 Molar solution of NaOH contains a.

OM
solution is unsaturated
a. 40g of NaOH in 1lit of solution b. solution is saturated
b. 20g of NaOH in 1lit of solution c. solution is supersaturated
c. 80g of NaOH in 1lit of solution d. we cannot predict the saturation or

Q. 4.
d.
(b)
10g of NaOH in 1kg of solvent

05. molal solution

D .C (c)
unsaturation of the solution for this data

Q. 10. Molarity is:

TA
a. is less concentrated than 0.5 molar
solution a. No. of moles of solute dissolved per liter
b. has come concentration as that of 0.5 of solution
US

molar solution b. No. of moles of solute dissolved per 1 kg

c. is 0.5 times more concentrated than 0.5 of solution
molar solution c. 1 Kg of solute dissolved per 1 liter of
AT

d. has concentration equal to 1 molar solvent

solution d. None of these
(a) (a)
DC

Q. 5. Mole fraction of water in tap water will be Q. 11. Solution containing 90g of glucose per 500mL has
a. equal to 1 molarity = _______:
M

b. less than 1 a. 1M
c. greater than 1 b. 2M
d. will be somewhat equal to 2 c. 0.5M
(b) d. 0.25M
(c)
Q. 6. Molality of pure water is
a. 36 Q. 12. The mass of Na2CO3 required to make 1L solution
b. 55.5 having molarity 1M is =____:
c. 18 a. 53g
d. 1 b. 106g
(b) c. 90g
d. 26.5g
Q. 7. All of the following are postulates of Arrhenius (b)
theory of ionization except
a. electrolytes ionize in water to produce
cations and anions Q. 13. 0.05 molar H2SO4 solution was present in the
b. ionization is reversible processes laboratory. The pH of this solution must be
a. 0.05
b. 0.5

34
 c. 1
d. 2
(c)

Q. 14. Buffer is a solution

a. whose pH is constant
b. which resists change in its pH
c. which is strong enough to maintain its pH
d. whose pH may or may not change during
a chemical reaction
(b)

OM
D .C
TA
US
AT
DC
M

35
Consider the following list of indicators of the next two d. oxidation state of N in NO and N2O5 is +2
questions and +4 respectively
(c)
I. Ferroin
II. Methyl red Q. 21. Islamian genius told his roommate that for pure
III. Diphenyl amine water at room temperature
IV. Allizarian yellow a. molarity is slightly greater then Molality
V. Bromthymol blue b. molarity is slightly less then Molality
c. molarity is equal to its Molality
Q. 15. In this list acid base indicators are d. concept of Molality and molarity does not
a. I and II applies
b. II, III and V (b)
c. III, IV and V
d. II, IV and V Q. 22. One of the following ways of expressing the
(d) concentration of a solution does not depend on
temperature. It is:
Q. 16. In this list redox indicators are a. molarity
a. I and II b. Molality
b. II and III c.

OM
Normality
c. I and V d. Formality
d. III and IV (b)
(a)

Q. 17. Consider the following four acids.

H2SO4, HNO3, HCIO4 and HCI
D
The correct order in which the strength of these
.C
Q. 23. Mole fraction of pure water is
a.
b.
c.
slightly less then one
slightly greater then one
exactly equal to one
TA
acids increases d. may be any one of the above depending
a. H2SO4 < HNO3 < HCI < HCIO4 on the temperature of water
b. HCIO4 < HCI < HNO3 < H2SO4 (c)
US

c. HNO3 < H2SO4 < HCI < HCIO4

d. HCIO4 < HCI < H2SO4 < HNO3 Q. 24. A solution contains 3 moles of ethyl alcohol and
(c) 7 moles of water. The mole fraction of ethyl
AT

alcohol and water will be:

Q. 18. An unknown acid is present in a container. If the a. 0.7 and 0.3 respectively
acid is weak then b. 0.3 and 0.7 respectively
DC

a. it will have low pH and low Pka value c. 0.6 and 0.4 respectively
b. it will have high pH and high Pka value d. 0.2 and 0.8 respectively
c. it will have low pH but high Pka value (b)
M

d. it will have high pH but low Pka value

(b) Q. 25. Any substance that produces hydrogen ions in
aqueous solution is called
Q. 19. Solution of acids are: a. acid
a. must be neutral b. base
b. must be basic c. salt
c. must be acidic d. both a & b
d. may be acidic, basic or neutral depending (a)
on the temperature
(c) Q. 26. Vitamin C is:
a. acidic in nature
Q. 20. Four statements are given below. The correct b. basic in nature
statement is c. neutral
a. oxidation state of N in NO and N2O5 is +5 d. None
and +2 respectively (a)
b. oxidation state of N in NO and N2O5 is +1
and +5 respectively Q. 27. A spontaneous reaction is for a galvanic cell as a
c. oxidation state of N in NO and N2O5 is +2 non spontaneous reaction is for
and +5 respectively

36
 a. Nelson’s cell b. order of the reaction
b. Down’s cell c. specific activity of the reaction
c. Electrolytic cell d. rate constant of the reaction
d. Daniel cell (b)

(c) Q. 2. A scientist prepared a compound in laboratory. He

found that it has two forms, one amorphous form
Q. 28. Acetic acid is a weak electrolyte. Its concentrated and another crystalline form C. Both A and C
aqueous solution will contain reacts with sulfuric acid. One possible predication
is that
a. CH3COOH and H3O+ a. increases with increase in concentration
b. CH3COO-, OH- and H+ of the reactants
c. CH3COOH, CH3COO- and H+ b. decreases with increase in concentration
d. CH3COOH, CH3COO- and H3O+ of the reactants
c. increases with increase in concentration
(d) of the products
d. decreases with increase in concentration
Q. 29. The strongest base among the following is of the products
(a)

OM
a. RbOH
b. KOH Q. 3. The rate of an irreversible reaction
c. NaOH a. increase with increase in concentration of
d.

(a)
LiOH D .C b.

c.
the reactants
decreases with increase in concentration
of the reactants
increases with increase in concentration
TA
Q. 30. Consider the following buffers of the products
d. decreases with increase in concentration
a. AI(OH)3 + AI2(SO4)3 of the products
US

b. Fe(OH)3 + FeCI3 (a)

c. NH4CI + Na2SO4
d. NaOH + Na2SO4 Q. 4. Consider the following equation
AT

Ea
(b) K = A e- RT

In this equation
DC

a. A is a molecule of the reactant

Q. 31. A solution contains two compounds AI(OH)3 and b. A is a molecule of the product
Zn (OH)2. Solubility products for these
c. A is proportionality constant
M

compounds are 8.5x10-23 and 1.8 x 10-4

d. A is Arrhenius constant
respectively. If NH4OH is added to this solution
(d)
then
a. both will precipitate at the same time Q. 5. Consider the following reactions
b. Zn(OH)2 will precipitate first
c. AI (OH)3 will precipitate first
1
I. N2O5 2NO2 + O2
d. Zn (OH)2 or AI (OH)3 will precipitate first 2
depending on the temperature of the II. SO2CI2 SO2 + CI2
solution III. H2 + I2 2HI
(c) The correct statement about these reactions is
a. I is a second order reaction
b. II and III are first order reactions
CHAPTER 9 c. III is a first order reaction
INTRODUCTION TO CHEMICAL KINETICS d. I and II are first order reactions
(d)
Q. 1. The number of atoms or molecules whose
concentration determines the rate of a chemical Q. 6. A substance which increases the efficiency of a
reaction is called the catalyst is termed as
a. molecularity of the reaction a. Promoter

37
 b. Activator
c. Retarder
d. Super catalyst
(a)

Q. 7. “Rancidity produced in butter can be decreased by

adding quinoline to the butter”. This statements
shows tha
a. nothing is impossible
b. quinoline is an inhibitor
c. quinoline is a catalyst
d. quinoline is an activator
(b)

Q. 8. Ammonia can be produce according to the

following reaction
N 2 + 3H 2 ⎯⎯⎯
Fe2O3
→ 2 NH 3

OM
In this reaction
a. Fe2O3 and AI2O3 are catalysts while K2O
is a promoter
b. Fe2O3 is catalyst while AL2O3 and K2O

c.
are promoters
AI2O3 and K2O are catalysts while AI2O3
is a promoter
D .C
d. Fe2O3 and K2O are catalysts while AI2O3
TA
is a promoter
(b)
US

Q. 9. In specified conditions the rate of consumption

of N2O5 in the reaction
2 N 2O5 ⎯⎯
→ 4 NO2 + O2
AT

is 0.5 mol N2O5 L-1.S-1. The rate of formation of

DC

NO2 is
a. 0.5
b. 4
M

c. 2
d. 1
(d)

38