CMAT

Central Management Admission Test

Entrance Preparation Guide

Useful for:
v Banking Jobs
v BBA, BIM, BHM, BTTM, BBM, BCA, Entrance Preparation
v MBS Entrance Preparation
v MBA(Pokhara University Scholarship)
v Public Service commission
v Nepal Rastra Bank

Compiled and edited by:

[email protected]
Opp. Shanker Dev Campus, Putalisadak, Kathmandu
Phone: 01 – 4168086 and 4168106
www.edc.edu.np
 Preface

This entrance preparation book is the preparation guide for BBA, BIM,
BHM and BTTM programs to select the appropriate candidates for
admission. It is designed to help students who are planning to take the
Central Management Admission Test (CMAT) examination administered
under Dean Office Faculty of Management, TU. It assists for those who
plan to pursue their BBA, BIM, BHM and BTTM from different colleges
affiliated under Tribhuwan University and Pokhara University.
The Faculty of Management (FOM) has its ultimate objective of
educating students for professional pursuits in business, industry and
government. It is further dedicated to contributing to enhance the
knowledge and understanding of business and administration. BBA is the
very best of educational experience for young minds with aspiration and
passion for professional careers in management as well as for advanced
management knowledge. Designed with a judicious blending of academic
rigor and industry relevance and delivered in the best tradition of
integration of theoretical grounding with experiential exposure and their
competitiveness, competencies, character and conviction to prepare
them for personal and professional challenges of career.
This preparation book assists the student to make easy them from the
different probable questions of CMAT exam. In addition, additional new
questions make student more practice and build confidence.
We thank all our supporting organizations and team members who
have assisted during the publication process.

Regards

[email protected]
Putalisadak, Kathmandu.
 Instructions

Please read the following instructions carefully before you start answering the questions.

The test carries 100 marks and it must be completed within 90 minutes.

Test Contents: There are 100 test items. The test covers four sections. The details of the
test contents are as follows:

Test Section Number of Questions

Verbal Ability 25
Quantitative Ability 25
Logical Reasoning 25
General Awareness 25

How to answer the Questions?

Example 1:
Directions: Fill in the blanks with the word, which best fits in with the meaning of the
following sentences.

Question: The chair is to be put in the ……… of the room.

a) middle b) centre
c) central d) mid
Answer: Indicate your answer on the Answer Sheet by darkening the correct answer choice
(b) as shown below:

(a) (c) (d)

· In case of wrong marking you may cross (X) the wrongly marked box and darken another
box.
· If you feel the answer options provided are wrong you should mention at the bottom of the
Answer Sheet.

Other Important Instructions

· Please detach the Answer Sheet from the Questions paper.
· Write your Roll Number on the Answer Sheet.
· Do not write anything else in the Answer Sheet. If you need to do rough work, use any
space available on the question paper.
· Time yourself as you work on each section so that you complete the test within 90
minutes.
· Each set of questions contains “directions”. Read those directions carefully before
answering the questions.
· Try answering all questions. There is no negative marking for wrong answer.
· Use of CALCULATOR of ANY OTHER CALCULATING DEVIC LIKE MOBILE
PHONE is strictly PROBHIBTED. You have to perform all your rough calculations
manually wherever you like on the questions book, BUT NOT ON THE ANSWER
SHEET.
 Eligibility For CMAT

The candidate applying for BBA program will be eligible for the CMAT when he or she
will have fulfilled some basic criteria:
· He/She should have completed 10+2 degree or equivalent from any University, Board or
Institution recognized by TU
· He/She should have secured at least 45% or 2.0 CGPA marks in the above mentioned
degrees.
· He/She should have appeared in the Preliminary Test Exam

Evaluation and Grading

The students will be evaluated according to the evaluation and grading system of FOM,
TU. Students must secure a minimum of Grade “C” or Grade Point Average (GPA) of 2.0
in internal evaluation in order to qualify to appear in the semester examination. A student
must secure at least a “C” Grade of Semester Grade Point Average (SGPA) of 2.0 to pass
the semester examination. The student securing a “D” Grade in the semester will not be
promoted to the next semester.
Evaluation of students will be made through internal assessment and final (semester)
examination. In internal assessment it covers 40% and final examination covers 60% of the
overall evaluation.

Graduation Requirement

The BBA degree is awarded on its successful completion of the following requirement
· The successful completion of 120 credit hours as prescribed with a minimum of passing
grade in all courses with an aggregate CGPA of 2.0.
· Attainment of a minimum of Grade “C” in the Internship Program.
· Completion of the program within seven years from the time of registration
 Contents

Chapter – 1
Verbal Ability
1. Synonyms and Antonyms ....................................................................................... 1-12
1.1 Synonyms................................................................................................................ 2
Practice Test .................................................................................................................. 2
1.2. Antonyms............................................................................................................... 7
Practice Test .................................................................................................................. 7
2. Selecting Words/Phrase ........................................................................................ 13-42
Practice Test ................................................................................................................ 14
2.2 Grammar .............................................................................................................. 19
Nouns .......................................................................................................................... 19
Pronouns ..................................................................................................................... 23
Tenses.......................................................................................................................... 27
Adjectives ................................................................................................................... 32
Adverbs ....................................................................................................................... 34
Prepositions ................................................................................................................ 35
Conjunctions .............................................................................................................. 36
Modals ........................................................................................................................ 38
Practice Test ................................................................................................................ 39
3. Passage Completion (Cloze Test) ......................................................................... 45-49
Practice Test ................................................................................................................ 45
4. Idiom and Phrases ................................................................................................. 52-57
Practice Test ................................................................................................................ 52
5. Reading Comprehension....................................................................................... 61-71
Practice Test ................................................................................................................ 63

Chapter – 2
Quantitative Ability
1. Number System ..................................................................................................... 75-83
Decimal ....................................................................................................................... 78
Divisibility .................................................................................................................. 78
Practice Test ................................................................................................................ 81
2. Simplification ......................................................................................................... 88-90
Square Roots and Cube Roots .................................................................................. 88
Practice Test ................................................................................................................ 90
3. Average ................................................................................................................... 95-98
Practice Test ................................................................................................................ 97
4. Ratio and Proportion ........................................................................................ 103-106
Problems based on ages........................................................................................... 107
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 108
5. Percentage .......................................................................................................... 112-114
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 114
6. Profit and Loss ................................................................................................... 120-120
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 122
7. Discount .............................................................................................................. 126-124
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 127
8. Simple Interest ................................................................................................... 131-128
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 132
9. Compound Interest ........................................................................................... 135-132
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 136
10. Time and Work................................................................................................ 139-138
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 142
11. Pipe and Cistern .............................................................................................. 145-141
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 146
12. Time and Distance ........................................................................................... 148-146
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 150
13. Sequence and Series ........................................................................................ 154-152
Arithmetic Mean ...................................................................................................... 154
Harmonic Mean ....................................................................................................... 156
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 156
14. Algebra ............................................................................................................. 160-162
Coordinate Geometry .............................................................................................. 165
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 167
15. Mensuration ..................................................................................................... 170-172
2D Geometry Formula.............................................................................................. 173
3D Geometry Formulae ............................................................................................ 174
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 175
16. Statistics and Data Interpretation ................................................................. 181-189
Tables ........................................................................................................................ 182
Line Graphs ............................................................................................................. 183
Bar Diagram............................................................................................................. 183
Histogram ................................................................................................................. 184
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 185
17. Probability........................................................................................................ 199-191
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 200
18. Permutation and Combination ...................................................................... 201-193
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 202
19. Set Theory ........................................................................................................ 204-197
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 205
20. Matrix and Determinant ................................................................................. 208-200
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 210

Chapter – 4
Logical Reasoning
1. Analogy ............................................................................................................... 211-209
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 214
2. Classification (Odd Man Out) .......................................................................... 220-213
 Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 222
3. Series Completion .............................................................................................. 225-220
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 229
4. Coding-Decoding ............................................................................................... 232-226
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 234
5. Logical Venn Diagrams .................................................................................... 238-229
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 238
6. Inserting The Missing Characters ................................................................... 241-237
7. Non Verbal Reasoning ...................................................................................... 250-241
8. Statement & Conclusions.................................................................................. 254-244
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 256
9. Critical Reasoning ............................................................................................. 257-253
Practice Test .............................................................................................................. 263

Chapter – 4
General Awareness ............................................................................. 267-273

Chapter – 5
CMAT Old Question
CMAT 2002 (Batch 2059) ............................................................................................ 288
CMAT 2003 (Batch 2060) ............................................................................................ 294
CMAT 2004 (Batch 2061) ............................................................................................ 300
CMAT 2005 (Batch 2062) ............................................................................................ 306
CMAT 2006 (Batch 2063) ............................................................................................ 311
CMAT 2007 (Batch 2064) ............................................................................................ 317
CMAT 2008 (Batch 2065) ............................................................................................ 323
CMAT 2009 (Batch 2066) ............................................................................................ 329
CMAT 2010 (Batch 2067) ............................................................................................ 335
CMAT 2011 (Batch 2068) ............................................................................................ 341
CMAT 2012 (Batch 2069) ............................................................................................ 347
CMAT 2013 (Batch 2070) ............................................................................................ 353
CMAT 2014 (Batch 2071) ............................................................................................ 360
CMAT 2015 (Batch 2072) ............................................................................................ 368
CMAT 2016 (Batch 2073) ............................................................................................ 373
CMAT 2017 (Batch 2074) ............................................................................................ 378
CMAT 2018 (Batch 2075) ............................................................................................ 383
CMAT 2019 (Batch 2076)……………….………… ……………………………….389
Interview Tips ............................................................................................................... 396
Group Discussion Tips ................................................................................................. 399

Answer Sheet .......................................................................................... 403-390

 Chapter – 1
Verbal Ability

1. Synonyms and Antonyms

This is the very important area of the vocabulary section. This section tests widely
and exhaustively one's knowledge of the language and word power, but goes beyond
that to test your ability to remember words with similar meanings or opposite
meanings. Or, alternately, to discover the similarity or proximity between the meaning
of the given word with one of those in the options.
These exercises can get confusing sometimes because more than one option may
appear as the right answer or none of them may look like the right answer. For such
questions a student may consider the following strategies:
Strategy 1
If you do not know the meaning of the given word, think of a context in which you
might have used it, that may help you to figure out the meaning, for example, in the
question below find the word nearest in meaning to
Magnify
a. Forgive b. diminish c. swell d. extract
Now if you do not know what magnify means think of a magnifying glass and what
it does. It expands or makes a thing look bigger. So the right answer will be (c).
Strategy 2
If you cannot find a correct antonym in the given option think of the antonyms you
know of and subsequently check if there is any word in the given options which is
synonymous to the antonyms in your mind. For example
Industrious
a. stupid b. harsh c. indolent d. complex
If you don't know any of the words given as options think of antonyms you could
think of, like lazy, idle. Now think of synonyms of lazy and you will know indolent
is a synonym of lazy. So it will be the antonym to industrious. Formula →
SYNONYM of ANTONYM is another ANTONYM.
Strategy 3
Look at the part of speech of the given word. A word may exist in various parts of
speech. For example precipitate exists as a verb which means send rapidly into a
certain state and also as a noun, precipitate, which means a substance deposited
from a solution.
Polish
a. ruthlessness b. honesty c. indolence d. gaucheness
Now is this the verb polish or noun polish? Since all options are nouns, this cannot
be the verb polish related to shoes but noun polish which means culture and
sophistication and the antonym to this would be gaucheness.

1 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 1.1 Synonyms

Practice Test
ka

1. Surveillance
a. inspection b. detection c. inquiry d. modulation
2. Gratuitous
a. free b. hapless c. ingenuous d. invective
3. Intrepid
a. fearful b. undaunted c. bankrupt d. merry
4. Grouse
a. contradict b. crumble c. grumble d. devastate
5. Fallacious
a. empirical b. bold c. faulty d. fortunate
6. Effrontery
a. complaint b. indulgence c. penetration d. boldness
7. Fervid
a. frenzied b. frantic c. jealous d. zealous
8. Frugal
a. candid b. economical c. inevitable d. exhausted
9. Dulcet
a. impervious b. harmonious c. addicted d. precocious
10. Dull
a. piquant b. commonplace c. officious d. laconic
11. Lethargic
a. drowsy b. discontent c. pale d. sanguine
12. Nefarious
a. popular b. wicked c. virtuous d. infected
13. Officious
a. burdensome b. attached c. meddlesome d. official
14. Paucity
a. richness b. quality c. profundity d. dearth
15. Piquant
a. ingenuous b. dismal c. unpleasant d. stimulating
16. Plethora
a. aura b. clarity c. excess d. superficiality
17. Pullen
a. impartial b. gloomy c. bold d. active
18. Petulant
a. impatient b. forgiving c. deceitful d. fallacious
19. Loquacious
a. garrulous b. quiet c. lusty d. treacherous
20. Perverse
a. diplomatic b. unruly c. passionate d. depressed
21. Transient
a. regular b. patterned c. temporary d. prejudiced
22. Timorous
a. bold b. exalted c. praiseworthy d. timid
23. Assiduous
a. determined b. fanatic c. diligent d. nervous
24. Obstinate
a. premature b. stubborn c. predatory d. olfactory
2 A Complete Solution For CMAT
25. Zeal
a. enthusiasm b. sophistication c. sorrow d. happiness
26. Massive
a. sordid b. minor c. enormous d. slight
27. Belligerent
a. combative b. avid c. barbarian d. canard
28. Blandish
a. shout b. flatter c. buoyant d. capitulate
29. Debonair
a. demagogue b. despot c. deciduous d. sophisticated
30. Conversant
a. credence b. credenza c. familiar d. defunct
31. Hue
a. enamel b. color c. hideous d. masticate
32. Fortitude
a. ludicrous b. lucrative c. courage d. lofty
33. Gravity
a. hubris b. seriousness c. magnitude d. malevolence
34. Knead
a. massage b. chew c. beat d. bite
35. Hone
a. sharpen b. horde c. hovel d. bone
36. Impregnable
a. invisible b. invincible c. infernal d. inherent
37. Innocuous
a. doubtful b. indurate c. indubitable d. harmless
38. Suffuse
a. pervade b. surfeit c. tithe d. unfrock
39. Taint
a. tenacious b. tenuous c. tentative d. pollute
40. Inaugurate
a. incongruous b. induct c inevitable d. inalienable
41. Sumptuous
a. supine b. tactful c. spectacular d. supercilious
42. Virulent
a. vivid b. poisonous c. willful d. vulgarity
43. Ineffable
a. inaudible b. infallible c. inexpressible d. infamous
44. Zeal
a. honesty b. earnestness c. fanaticism d. vogue
45. Vindictive
a. forbearing b. lenient c. revengeful d. tolerant
46. Wretched
a. prosperous b. thriving c. affluent d. miserable
47. Unequivocal
a. unambiguous b. unconscionable c. unscrupulous d. uncouth
48. Unabated
a. unsung b. ceaseless c. utilitarian d. vehement
49. Venturesome
a. timorous b. discouraged c. upshot d. undeterred
50. Valiant
a. torpid b. usurping c. brave d. venal
51. Stagnant
a. moving b. inert c. starved d. startle
52. Sectarian

3 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. protected b. broad c. intolerant d. anxious
53. Fabricated
a. true b. trivial c. literal d. invented
54. Attire
a. drape b. guise c. trench d. potion
55. Desirable
a. detestable b. eligible c. derogatory d. depredator
56. Depravity
a. degeneracy b. virtue c. endowment d. superficiality
57. Capaciousness
a. spaciousness b. narrowness c. carelessness d. incompletion
58. Captivating
a. growing b. repelling c. charming d. creaking
59. Vehement
a. extensive b. uncertain c. ardent d. malicious
60. Gallant
a. dauntless b. spiteful c. predictable d. malignant
61. Tempting
a. repulsive b. scintillating c. leaning d. confused
62. Sensual
a. earnest b. serried c. carnal d. spiritual
63. Render
a. rebound b. assign c. repine d. repeat
64. Replenish
a. recompense b. reiterate c. rejoice d. fill
65. Remorseless
a. relentless b. satisfied c. replete d. refutable
66. Precedent
a. divination b. instance c. doctrine d. thought
67. Odious
a. abominable b. pleasant c. jealous d. obscure
68. Incomprehensible
a. unintelligible b. understandable c. clear d. obvious
69. Offensive
a. inflexible b. docile c. officious d. insulting
70. Ominous
a. inauspicious b. mystic c. prudent d. primitive
71. Pivotal
a. Movable b. crucial c. Internal d. Mechanical
72. Debilitate
a. Weaken b. attack c. Surmount d. Destroy
73. Cachet
a. prestige b. greed c. artless d. chagrin
74. Sanguine
a. clever b. proud c. cheerful d. modest
75. Supervene
a ensue b. interfere c. displace d. precede
76. Troglodytic
a. cadaverous b. ominous
c. resembling a caveman d. resembling a caveman cave dweller
77. Parry
a. pierce b. cut away bit by bit c. to reject d. ward off
78. Mottled
a. dirty b. full of hole c. having splotches of colour d. Poke- marked
79. Havoc

4 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. study of fish b. destruction c. gardening tool d. two wheeled carriage
80. Estrange
a. Endanger b. to become puzzling c. miscalculate d. Alienate
81. Cavil
a. Munch b. Quibble c. Amuse d. Appreciate
82. Anathema
a. medicine b. Difficult to collect c. Constant d. cruse
83. Penchant
a. Disability b. Like c. Eagerness d. Dislike
84. Whim
a. Desire b. Unnatural behavior c. Clumsy d. Fancy
85. Vendetta
a. Threat b. Mortal c. Friendship d. feud
86. Alacrity
a. Eagerness b. Hesitatingly c. Unwillingly d. With Suspicion
87. Repugnance
a. hostility b. Affection c. Like d. With suspicious
88. Spew
a. Throw in water b. solvent c. solace d. eject
89. Viaduct
a. Railroad b. Bridge c. Pipe d. Leave
90. Fiasco
a. Strength b. Success c. debacle d. Hope
91. Perspicacious
a. Clear b. Hazy c. Shrew d. Bad
92. Proscribe
a. disallow b. Prescribe c. Bash d. Advance
93. Prone
a. through forward b. disease c. Supine d. Inactive
94. Intrepid
a. Ugly b. Fearless c. Selfish d. Coward
95. Vernal
a. Luxuriant b. Spring like c. Scale d. Dirty
96. Gluttony
a. Happiness b. Contentment c. Satisfaction d. Greed
97. Incensed
a. Incited b. Affected c. Encouraged d. Inspired
98. Skeptic
a. Cultured b. Drunk c. Moderate d. doubter
99. Deplete
a. Take away b. Fill c. Make greater d. To exhaust
100. Portray
a. Communicate b. depict c. Express d. seem
101. Abandon
a. surrender b. yield c. give up d. follow
102. Ballot
a. vote b. bullet c. drama d. purse
103. Bizarre
a. unusual b. magic c. wizard d. victorious
104. Brisk
a. not concrete b. prompt c. good d. harmful
105. Celibate
a. virgin b. bachelor c. hold feast
d. remain unmarried for religious purpose
106. Condemn

5 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. hate b. approve c. commend d. content
107. Earnest
a. serious b. who earns mast of all c. honest d. dishonest
108. Economical
a. frugal b. concerned with economics c. third class d. financial
109. Encroach
a. approach b. go beyond one’s limit c. cockroach d. reproach
110. Fable
a. able b. folk tale c. legend
d. story with animals as characters with a moral folk tale
111. Fortune
a. destiny b. opportunity c. lucky d. a type of cloth
112. Friendly
a. inimical b. hostile c. amicable d. neighborhood
113. Gesture
a. posture b. God’s blessing c. stomach ache d. some sign made by hand
114. Hearsay
a. legend b. rumor c. story d. hear and say
115. Holy
a. sacred b. full of holes c. fully d. color of festival
116. Illegitimate
a. bastard b. illegal c. informal d. related with two countries
117. Inflation
a. devaluation b. rise in price after too much money circulation
c. issue coins d. counterfeit money
118. Itinerary:
a. schedule b. artery c. internal d. none of above
119. Layman:
a. salesman b. general folk c. businessman d. a learned person
120. Maiden:
a. field b. first c. make mad d. formal
121. Maze:
a. popcorn b. labyrinth c. wonder d. magic
122. Muddle:
a. middle b. mud c. disorder d. puddle
123. Oasis
a. desert b. Sahara c. barren place d. fertile, watery place in a desert
124. Omnipotence:
a. Satan b. almighty God c. who eats all
d. who is present everywhere
125. Delude
a. mislead b. competition c. accent d. pronunciation
126. Orthodox
a. liberal b. conventional c. conservation d. receptive
127. Painstaking:
a. painful b. industrial c. harmful d. very careful and thorough
128. prowess:
a. provenance b. extraordinary ability c. proponent d. proximity
129. Pivotal:
a. vital b. insignificant c. playful d. none of above
130. Pupil:
a. slang b. learned person c. person being taught d. blooming sound
131. Scorn
a. concise b. despise c. bias d. fierce
132. Catastrophe

6 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. tragedy b. anger c. violence d. hatred
133. Adjure
a. renounce b. announce c. pronounce d. denounce
134. Assess
a. overload b. measure c. permit d. enter
135. Elastic
a. free b. liberal c. flexible d. broad
136. Persevere
a. fickle b. persist c. constant d. polite
137. Petition
a. rotation b. administration c. appeal d. vocation
138. Proposition
a. intimation b. protestation c. proposal d. invitation
139. Vivacious
a. imaginary b. lively c. perceptible d. languid
140. Sporadic
a. timely b. scattered c. frequent d. irrelevant
141. Devout
a. solemn b. loyal c. dedicated d. pious
142. Predilection
a. favour b. whim c. prejudice d. preference
143. Effigy
a. dummy b. imager c. reflection d. organ
144. Annihilate
a. initiate b. destroy c. solve d. deduce
145. Quarry
a. quest b. denounce c. victim d. quake
146. Interference
a. honour b. deference c. obstruction d. fearfull
147. Verisimilitude
a. festive b. fantastic c. grotesque d. authenticity
148. Conjecture
a. knowledge b. guess c. truth d. bias
149. Pawn
a. scrounge b. hire c. pledge d. sponge
150. Maestro
a. admire b. employee c. novice d. genius

1.2. Antonyms

Practice Test
1. Eternal
a. ephemeral b. equivocal c. exacerbate d. ethereal
2. Sporadic
a. daily b. faultless c. palpable d. everlasting
3. Exalt
a. evict b. evince c. exact d. degrade
4. Gladsome
a. moderate b. dismal c. awesome d. deleterious
5. Inoffensive
a. inborn b. innocuous c. noxious d. harmless
7 A Complete Solution For CMAT
6. Despicable
a. paltry b. vile c. contemptible d. praiseworthy
7. Determinate
a. definite b. explicit c. vague d. debasement
8. Devastate
a. endow b. spoil c. waste d. ravage
9. detest
a. abhor b. deteriorate c. decide d. depict
10. Flexible
a. elastic b. rigid c. corpulent d. flawless
11. Humorous
a. sanctimonious b. serious c. impartial d. immodest
12. Astute
a. obtuse b. clever c. shrewd d. atrocious
13. Growth
a. gruff b. decline c. exacerbate d. grotesque
14. Guard
a. neglect b. grieve c. gripe d. grope
15. Impartial
a. prejudiced b. immanent c. flexible d. unceasing
16. Impervious
a. impertinent b. penetrable c. relevant d. susceptible
17. Immaculate
a. spotless b. untidy c. immanent d. physical
18. Inherent
a. extraneous b. awkward c. calm d. cunning
19. Ponderous
a. baleful b. populous c. light d. rough
20. Shrivel
a. feign b. discard c. signal d. expand
21. Torment
a. heal b. soothe c. tour d. combat
22. Compatible
a. antagonistic b. matching c. congruous d. superior
23. Feud
a. discord b. prevent c. concord d. filch
24. Martial
a. belligerent b. peaceful c. amazing d. unconcern
25. Inglorious
a. despicable b. ignominious c. splendid d. friendly
26. Remorse
a. repay b. reluctant c. satisfaction d. anger
27. Stingy
a. generous b. thrilling c. garrulous d. affluent
28. Xenodochy
a. tawny b. welcome c. hostility d. hospitality
29. Yield
a. struggle b. acquiesce c. consent d. succumb
30. Wrathful
a. idleness b. pleased c. admirable d. furious
31. Supremacy
a. suppliant b. subjection c. superb d. splendid
32. Solicitous
a. sophisticated b. concerned c. indifferent d. different
33. Sonorous

8 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. shrill b. soft c. beaten d. coarse
34. Retaliate
a. forgive b. revile c. restore d. revenge
35. Enrich
a. beautify b. impoverish c. solidify d. avenge
36. Squander
a. save b. sprout c. spur d. squabble
37. Rancor
a. genuine b. spurious c. benevolent d. compressible
38. Sporadic
a. continuous b. silent c. malicious d. frequent
39. Pompous
a. modest b. insalubrious c. corruptive d. brilliant
40. Scanty
a. polished b. bright c. plentiful d. pure
41. Penury
a. covetous b. poverty c. destitution d. affluence
42. Occasional
a. perennial b. omnipotent c. odious d. obtrusive
43. Obscure
a. apt b. doubtful c. clear d. mysterious
44. Imprudent
a. impromptu b. wise c. foolish d. lenient
45. Sufficient
a. total b. complete c. empty d. inadequate
46. Frivolity
a. seriousness b. puerility c. levity d. lightness
47. Confederacy
a. union b. secession c. partial d. concise
48. Honorary
a. hospitable b. humble c. professional d. unpaid
49. Fairness
a. honesty b. probity c. sincerity d. deceit
50. Relentless
a. unforgiving b. merciful c implacable d. harsh
51. Seraphic
a. diabolical b. celestial c. sublime d. axiomatic
52. Brawl
a. dispute b. harmony c. wrangle d squabble
53. Churlish
a. impolite b. harsh c. polite d. chronic
54. Decadence
a. decay b. degeneracy c. deterioration d. rise
55. Deceptive
a. illusive b. honest c. deceitful d. misleading
56. Eccentric
a. normal b. peculiar c. strange d. whimsical
57. Egoism
a. selfishness b. vanity c. splendor d. humility
58. Amicable
a. hostile b. cordial c. affectionate d. adherent
59. Sterile
a. unavailing b. barren c. productive d. unfertile
60. Flippant
a. puerile b. serious c. trivial d. facetious

9 A Complete Solution For CMAT

61. Frenzy
a. calm b. insanity c. lunacy d. rage
62. Garnish
a. embellish b. decorate c. adorn d. strip
63. Gay
a. sad b. cheerful c. vivacious d. joyous
64. Ghastly
a. comely b. ghostly c. horrible d. hideous
65. Harmonious
a. agreeable b. unison c. consistent d. harsh
66. Hegemonic
a. subordinate b. predominant c. controlling d. leading
67. Impeccable
a. guilty b. faultless c. pure d. sinless
68. Imperishable
a. eternal b. corruptible c. undying d. endless
69. Immoderate
a. excessive b. unreasonable c. extravagant d. reasonable
70. Whine
a. laugh b. whimper c. moan d. cry
71. Disdain
a. Ridicule b. haughtiness c. Contempt d. respect
72. Gaudy
a. Plain b. Showy c. Garnish d. Fleshly
73. Squandering
a. Retaining b. Spending c. Spendthrift d. Extravagant
74. Cordial
a. Nice b. Friendly c. Sympathy d. Antagonistic
75. Profane
a. Ungodly b. pious c. Blasphemous d. Devilish
76. Secular
a. Righteous b. Religious c. Spiritual d. Moral
77. Asceticism
a. Marxism b. purism c. Hinduism d. hedonism
78. Segregation
a. Appreciation b. Cohesion c. Integration d. Union
79. Sordid
a. Steady b. Enthusiastic c. Generous d. Splendid
80. Grim
a. Serious b. Satisfying c. Delightful d. Painful
81. Deplete
a. Refund b. Replenish c. Fulfill d. Recover
82. Unanimous
a. all b. Individual c. Majority d. Favorable
83. Innate
a. Acquired b. Gifted c. Congenial d. Inborn
84. Ephemeral
a. Permanent b. Temporal c. Brief d. Momentary
85. Defile
a. Rude b. Purity c. Assemble d. Order
86. Prim
a. Formal b. Prior c. Informal d. Private
87. Paternity
a. Posterity b. Successors c. Offspring d. Ancestors
88. Demure

10 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. Sedate b. Close c. Indecorous d. Open
89. Fiasco
a. Fruitful b. useless c. Fruitless d. Unsuccessful
90. Uniform
a. Same b. Varied c. Alike d. Equal
91. Superficial
a. Mystical b. Profound c. Difficult d. Mysterious
92. Communicate
a. Yield b. Conceal c. Refrain d. With hold
93. Verbose
a. Lucid b. Succinct c. Unusual d. Comical
94. Smooth
a. Hard b. Rough c. Gruff d. Tough
95. Lavish
a. Expensive b. Frugal c. Wasteful d. Big
96. Durable
a. Worn-out b. Fragile c. Light d. Delicate
97. Meanness
a. Generosity b. Pragmatism c. Timidity d. Kindness
98. Worship
a. Deify b. Despise c. Abuse d. Neglect
99. Considerable
a. Inadequate b. Influential c. Negligible d. Insignificant
100. Ruthless
a. Candid b. Sympathy c. Cordial d. Courteous
101. Corporal
a. Spiritual b. bodily c. Thin d. physical
102. Erudite
a. Irregular b. Illiterate c. Impatient d. Insignificant
103. Jovial
a. Fertile b. Mournful c. Festive d. Luxuriant
104. Eternal
a. Fleeting b. Flippant c. Grave d. Flickering
105. Flippant
a. Glib b. Impertinent c. Grave d. Insolent
106. Seriousness
a. Frivolity b. Solemnity c. Gravity d. Venturesome
107. Loss
a. Fruition b. Failure c. Noble d. Disappointment
108. Gigantic
a. Minute b. Colossal c. Energetic d. Tremendous
109. Glean
a. Scatter b. Collect c. Garner d. Acquire
110. Grisly
a. Benign b. Hideous c. Horrid d. Appalling
111. Grotesque
a. Bizarre b. Ludicrous c. Absurd d. Graceful
112. Guile
a. Deception b. Deceit c. Artfulness d. Honesty
113. Haggard
a. Wrinkled b. Chubby c. Lean d. Lean
114. Hazardous
a. Perilous b. Insecure c. Safe d. Vigorous
115. Heinous
a. Monstrous b. Wicked c. Laudable d. Gruesome

11 A Complete Solution For CMAT

116. Heterogeneous
a. Similar b. Dissimilar c. Unlike d. Indiscriminate
117. Hostility
a. Animosity b. Repugnance c. Friendliness d. Unfriendliness
118. Illicit
a. Illegitimate b. Unauthorized c. Lawful d. Obscure
119. Imbecile
a. Fool b. Illustrious c. Clever d. Ill-will
120. Inhibit
a. Restrain b. Encourage c. Hinder d. Prohibit
121. Instigation
a. Discouragement b. Insensibility c. Encouragement d. Insubordinate
122. Invariable
a. Constant b. Uniform c. Unalterable d. Changeable
123. Invincible
a. Indomitable b. Weak c. Unconquerable d. Irresistible
124. Irreverent
a. Devout b. Impious c. Irreligious d. Profane
125. Jeopardy
a. Danger b. Hazard c. Security d. Peril
126. Judicious
a. Rash b. Sagacious c. Succulent d. Prudent
127. Languid
a. Drooping b. Vigorous c. Enervated d. Feeble
128. Laudable
a. Despicable b. Commendable c. Exemplary d. Praiseworthy
129. Lavish
a. Economical b. Bountiful c. Wasteful d. Spendthrift
130. Lilliputian
a. Elephantine b. Serpentine c. Diminutive d. Pygmy
131. Bizaree
a. ridiculous b. ordinary c. comical d. droll
132. Guilty
a. honest b. innocent c. sorry d. dubious
133. Accusation
a. complaint b. felicitation c. exculpation d. encouragement
134. Appoint
a. reward b. yield c. disunite d. dismiss
135. Illicit
a. legal b. correct c. approved d. nobel
136. Demand
a. supply b. claim c. request d. petition
137. Descent
a. discern b. ascent c. dissent d. assent
138. Notorious
a. prominent b. infamous c. honourable d. reputed
139. Captivity
a. slavery b. permission c. freedom d. limitation
140. Contemplative
a. wistful b. unreflective c. numbed d. aroused
141. Inclement
a. radical b. mild c. harsh d. tyrannical
142. Ostracize
12 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. patronize b. shun c. crucify d. discard
143. Unapproachable
a. withdrawn b. unclear c. accessible d. casual
144. Abstain
a. repel b. disgrace c. indulge d. dismiss
145. Misanthropist
a. zeolot b. pedant c. pragmatist d. philanthropist
146. Fortify
a. support b. intensify c. undermine d. strengthen
147. Formal
a. heedful b. plain c. pitiable d. informal
148. Thorough
a. intensive b. utter c. cursory d. detailed
149. Nasty
a. unpleasant b. beautiful c. ugly d. pleasant
150. Exaggerate
a. abundance b. excerpt c. extravagant d. understate

2. Selecting Words/Phrase

2.1 Vocabulary Usage

Sentence completion questions test your ability to use your vocabulary and
recognise logical consistency among the elements in a sentence. You need to know
more than the dictionary definitions of the words involved. You need to know how the
words fit together to make logical and stylistic sense.
Sentence completion questions actually measure one part of reading comprehension.
If you can recognise how the different parts of a sentence affect one another, you should
do well at choosing the answer that best completes the meaning of the sentence or
provides a clear, logical statement of fact. The ability to recognise irony and humour
will also stand you in good stead, as will the ability to recognise figurative language
and to distinguish between formal and informal levels of speech.
Sentence completion questions may come from any of a number of different fields
art, literature, history, philosophy, botany, astronomy, geology, and so on. You cannot
predict what subject matter the sentences on your test will involve.
Some Techniques for selecting words.
« Before you look at the choices, read the sentence and think a word that makes sense.

13 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Your problem is to find the word that best completes the sentence in both thought
and style. Before you look at the answer choices, see if you can come up with a word
that makes logical sense in the context. Then look at all four choices. If the word you
thought of is one of your five choices, select that as your answer. If the word you
thought of is not one of your five choices, look for a synonym of that word. Select the
synonym as your answer.
This technique is helpful because it enables you to get a sense of the sentence as a
whole without being distracted by any misleading answers among the answer choices.
You are free to concentrate on spotting key words or phrases in the body of the
sentence and to call on your own "writer's intuition" in arriving at a stylistically apt
choice of word.
« Look at all the possible answers before you make your final choice.
Never decide on an answer before you have read all the choices. You are looking for
the word that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. In order to be sure you
have not been hasty in making your decision, substitute all the answer choices for the
missing word. Do not spend a lot of time doing so, but do try them all. That way you
can satisfy yourself that you have come up with the best answer.
« In double-blank sentences, go through the answers, testing the first word in each choice
(and Eliminating those that don’t fit.
In a sentence completion question with two blanks, read through the entire
sentence to get a sense of it as a whole. Then insert the first word of each answer pair
in the sentence's first blank. Ask yourself whether this particular word makes sense in
this blank. If the initial word of an answer pair makes no sense in the sentence, you
can eliminate that answer pair.
(Note: Occasionally this technique will not work. In some questions, for example,
the first words of all four answer pairs may be near-synonyms. However, the
technique frequently pays off, as it does in the following example.)
« Watch for signal words that link one part of the sentence to another.
Writers use transitions to link their ideas logically. These transitions or signal
words are clues that can help you figure out what the sentence actually means.
Sentences often contain several signal words, combining them in complex ways
« Break up complex sentences into simpler components.
In analysing long, complex sentence completion items, you may find it useful to
simplify the sentences by breaking them up. Rephrase dependent clauses and long
participle phrases, turning them into simple sentences.
Practice Test

1. Most companies begin as…………….limited companies.

a. unlimited b. united c. private d. government
2. Companies wishing to raise more money for expansion can sometimes issue
new………….
a. notes b. shares c. coins d. certificates
3. An investor's selection of securities is called…………
a. portfolio b. blue chip c. mutual fund d. liquidation
4. It is time we…………..home.
a. go b. went c. gone d. going
5. Prakash fell asleep………….the film
a. with b. during c. while d. in
6. Shyam prefers tea……….coffee.
a. for b. to c. than d. more
7. A good citizen always abides………….law.
a. by b. with c. for d. in
8. Asmita works six days…………week.

14 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. since b. a c. for d. in
9. Put………the clock, it is twenty minutes fast.
a. ahead b. in c. back d. forward
10. I was…………..to discover that Sydney has a large Chinese population.
a. astonishing b. astonished
c. used to astonishing d. being astonished
11. The traveler found Paris……………..,culturally vibrant and modern.
a. circular b. expectular c. spectacular d. particular
12. Most people who visit New York for the first time are………….
a. drilled b. shrilled c. grilled d. thrilled
13. Kids are the ones who suffer the most during the food…………….. .
a. sufficiency b. shortages c. efficiency d. supply
14. The boss of the supermarket told us to put the stuff on the…………..
a. heads b. pockets c. holes d. shelves
15. The first public telephone call on a ………….radiotelephone was made on April 3rd, 1973
by Martin Cooper.
a. soft b. portable c. walking d. nuclear
16. Fables are thought to have……………………in the Middle East two to three thousands
years ago.
a. accomplished b. ended c. nominated d. originated
17. Both social…………and the development of transport sectors have been important in the
growth of tourism.
a. sectors b. factors c. mentors d. partners
18. All workers must wear their identity…………..at all times.
a. batches b. certificates c. notices d. badges
19. Our night vision is not as good as that of……………..animals
a. splendid b. nocturnal c. factional d. ancestral
20. People don't want to eat food that is an…………color.
a. unfaithful b. unhappy c. unusual d. unknown
21. A lot of books don’t appear……….the writers pay for publication themselves.
a. if b. provided that c. unless d. when
22. Books and magazines are likely to disappear and be replaced by……..texts.
a. thin b. electronic c. simplified d. printed
23. Our color…………..are strongly influenced by fashion.
a. preferences b. movements c. satisfactions d. simplification
24. We sometimes buy a product because of its color rather than we……it.
a. are needing b. need c. needed d. have needed
25. I have some…………..concerning the use of laptops in the library.
a. queries b. answers c. tensions d. improvements
26. These measures introduced to simplify English spelling have not been……..
a. lengthy b. effective c. short d. silly
27. ……..by a record number of delegates, the conference was a great success.
a. Attend b. Attending c) Is attending d. Attended
28. ………..a conference in Rome, Mary found that someone else was carrying out very
similar research to her own.
a. Attend b. Attending c. Is attending d. Attended
29. Alphabets are the most……….of all writing systems.
a. adapt b. adaptation c. adaptable d. adaptably
30. The writing system consists of ……. representing words, sections of words or ideas.
a. characters b. numbers c. keyboards d. voucher
31. In the past, the labor was controlled by the husband, the……..master of the household.
a. benevolent b. disputable c. kind d. undisputed
32. According to some researchers, Americans usually give negative information
quite………….
a. generously b. hideously c. explicitly d. brilliantly

15 A Complete Solution For CMAT

33. Large scale……….factors, such as international relations, political economy and
government policies play a part in any decision to emigrate.
a. institutional b. homely c. personal d. individual
34. Migration generally arises from the previous links between home and new countries based
on…………..political influence
a. hegemony b. imperialism c. annexation d. colonization
35. The earth rotates once every 24 hours, and so places to the east start their day……….than
places to the west.
a. soon b. sooner c. first d. early
36. There has been increased traffic…………and water pollution due to rise in hotel
construction.
a. concession b. congestion c. sensation d. confession
37. There is an increase in………..rain, global warming and local pollution.
a. mud b. pollution c. acid d. snake
38. In Antarctica,………..by helicopter are particularly harmful to nest sites.
a. voyages b. trades c. jogging d. excursions
39. Smoking is…………….in factories.
a. forbid b. forbade c. forbidden d. to forbide
40. …………many people are turning into vegetarians has been a reliable fact.
a. Because b. Since c. Due to d. That
41. Green is the color of environmental……………..
a. depletion b. degradation c. flag d. awareness
42. Driving a red car means that you like…………..
a. speeding b. speeds c. sped d. is speeding
43. Advertising agencies use…………….to sell a product.
a. canvas b. texture c. color d. crayons
44. Historians use……….scientific methods like the study of statistics and data, but their goal
is to tell stories that make sense and have a plot.
a. racial b. rational c. special d. mutual
45. …………………is the most rapid form of reading screen.
a. Scanning b. Skipping c. Speaking d. Screening
46. In India,…………………..of people spend on films.
a. mere b. many c. majority d. much
47. Your secret is safe with me. I won't give you………….
a. away b. by c. in d. since
48. The Australian Government provides help with medical………. through scheme called
Medicare.
a. fundamentals b. supply c. classes d. expenses
49. Hospital patients facing an operation the next day generally prefer to spend the night with
others who have already…………. the operation.
a. have b. had c. would have d. had had
50. Formal……………should be submitted in wiring to the Principal if somebody mentally
tortures you.
a. complains b. complaints c. job applications d. proposals
51. Everyday, enormous amounts of…………., currencies and financial securities are traded.
a. commissions b. alternatives c. companies d. commodities
52. Companies finance most of their activities by way of internally………….cash flows.
a. issued b. generated c. spent d. wasted
53. Merchant banks in Britain raise……….for industry on the various financial markets.
a. mortgage b. collateral c. loan d. funds
54. Publicity can have a huge impact on public……….that could not be achieved by
advertising.
a. attention b. awareness c. consciousness d. sympathy
55. Promotion…………. together advertising, publicity, sales promotion, and personal selling.
a. groups b. is grouped c. is grouping d. grouped

16 A Complete Solution For CMAT

56. Most management and marketing writers now distinguish between………and marketing.
a. pricing b. selling c. funding d. sharing
57. Marketing theorists tend to give the word 'product' a very………..meaning.
a. grand b. broad c. enormous d. dangerous
58. The Japanese prefer small, specialized production……….with a limited capacity.
a. branches b. stems c. leaves d. plants
59. Manual and service industry workers are often organized in….unions.
a. labor b. friendship c. company d. work
60. The principle of 'pay-for-performance' often successfully motivates……… people.
a. manufacturing b. marketing c. sales d. investing
61. Teams are often not very good for decision-making, and they……… the risk of relational
problems.
a. crawl b. run c. walk d. eat
62. Managers…………, analyze and classify the activities of the organization.
a. organize b. objectify c. divide d. limit
63. Most people today agree that we ought to be as…………..as possible in our use of natural
resources.
a. economical b. uneconomical c. economic d. economists
64. Classical economic theory stated that in the long run, excess savings would cause interest
rate to fall and…………………. to increase again.
a. investment b. expenditure c. loss d. profit
65. Many manufacturers are in favor of fixed…………..rates, or a single currency.
a. change b. exchange c. buying d. selling
66. The higher the tax rates, the more people are tempted to…………...
a. cheat b. pay c. protest d. ignore
67. Legal ways of avoiding tax are known as…………..in tax laws.
a. tax havens b. tax shelters c. tax-deductible d. loopholes

68. Health……………….. is a public responsibility in all civilized worlds.

a. achievement b. illness c. problems d. care
69. Companies have an…………. to maximize profits because shareholders expect the
maximum return on their investments.
a. ownership b. opportunity c. obligation d. opinion
70. Takeovers using……….. money are called 'leveraged buyouts' or 'LBOs'.
a. black-money b. stolen c. over-drafted d. borrowed
71. This must be…….in mind.
a. born b. borne c. burn d. bourn
72. Stamp collection is Hari’s……
a. vocation b. vacation c. avocation d. vacation
73. I gladly……..luxury.
a. for go b. forego c. forgo d. forge
74. His sickness was…….by his mental suffering.
a. annoyed b. aggravated c. inflicted d. afflicted
75. She is an……scholar.
a. eminent b. imminent c. eminent d. eminent
76. He showed…….during the fire.
a. daring b. courage c. boldness d. audacity
77. Sita needs a……paper.
a. back b. answer c. blank d. sheet
78. I appeared in my final……….last summer.
a. score b. IQ c. exam d. test
79. The bridge was…….opened by the Minister.
a. formality b. formulaically c. formality d. formally
80. I always……….books in my bag.
a. lay b. put c. keep d. place

17 A Complete Solution For CMAT

81. You need a …….to run a business.
a. license b. licensee c. luck d. lease
82. Our company………1,000 pairs of shoes a month.
a. produces b. manufactures c. creates d. develops
83. He works in the……. department.
a. personal b. personnel c. person d. impersonal
84. The…….of the Campus has just left.
a. principle b. principal c. pupil d. professor
85. How do you……..this product?
a. rate b. fine c. cost d. charge
86. He has been working…….4 PM.
a. from b. since c. for d. by
87. He……….a bath right now.
a. has b. had c. is having d. did
88. A………is equal to 2 pints.
a. quarter b. quartz c. quart d. quartet
89. He is……weak that he cannot even move.
a. so b. such c. much d. very
90. The essay is……. complicated to read.
a. extremely b. too c. much d. enough
91. This pen is…….
a. yours b. yours’ c. your d. your’s
92. The company runs with the …….of the Swiss Government.
a. assistance b. co-operation c. partnership d. collaboration
93. He had a …….wound.
a. super b. superficial c. supreme d. superfluous
94. He…….the ship.
a. avoided b. abandoned c. yielded d. surrendered
95. I ……..the book from the library.
a. bought b. purchased c. edited d. borrowed
96. He received a medal for his ……… in as battle.
a. bravery b. courage c. velour d. boldness
97. He ……verses from the Gita.
a. speaks b. says c. quotes d. tells
98. Life was uneasy when people lived in…….
a. barbarity b. beneficial c. beneficent d. barbarism
99. She found no food in the……….
a. depositary b. deposit volt c. depository d. home
100. The government has sought……..measures to reduce unemployment.
a. effectual b. effective c. efficacious d. elective
101. Google is one of the most popular search engines, it is ……. by the internet users.
a. utilized b. effected c. examined d. flabbergasted
102. Rita is ….. at speaking languages. It is difficult to …… only one puppy for animal shelter.
a. adept, adopt b. adapt, adapt c. adept, adopt d. adapt, adopt
103. School days are considered to be the best years of your life. When my ……. Year in school
began. I began, to think of those past enjoyable days and of my future also.
a. penultimate b. absolute c. integral d. termination
104. Being ……, the judge gave a favourable verdict.
a. sagacious b. pugnacious c. malicious d. tenacious
105. Students-parking should be ……; students should not be charge to buy paring stickers.
a. fined b. free c. costly d. cheap
106. If you have roses growing in your garden, you can make a lovely …… of flowers at home.
a. bouqutte b. bucquete c. bouquete d. bouquet
107. The …… of the middle school is a woman of …… .

18 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. principles, principal b. principals, principal c. principal, principle
d. principle, principle
108. With the changing time, most of the students have become business-like they are …… and
want to take only those courses which they find rewarding.
a. idealistic b. pragmatic c. enthusiastic d. partial
109. There are not solitary, free living creatures; every form of life is …… other forms.
a. dependent on b. parallel to c. overshadowed by d. segregated from
110. I’ll take …… now as I have another’s appointment some where else.
a. departure b. my leave c. permission d. leave from work
111. A garden knife is …… used for right pruning.
a. generally b. compulsorily c. systematically d. daily
112. Serious threat to our ecology and environment can be …… with organic cultivation.
a. hastened b. impeded c. aggravated d. combated
113. China is a big country, in are it is bigger than any other country …… Russia.
a. accept b except c. except d. access
114. The masks worn by the men helped them …… their identity.
a. conceal b. congeal c. masquerade d. cheat
115. On the …… occasion of Laxmi Puja the Mathurs bought a new car.
a. officious b. auspicious c. fortuitious d. prosperous
116. Precautions are to be taken with any one who seems …… .
a. contagious b. infectious c. diseased d. defield
117. His profession is teaching but his …… is photography.
a. vocative b. vacation c. vocation d. avocation
118. He quarreled with his boss, …… of the consequences.
a. confident b. heedless c. weary d. devoid
119. As the driver swerved violently at the turning, the wheel come off, as it was already …… .
a. loss b. lose c. lost d. loose
120. Some verbs need a ……. to convey the full meaning.
a. compliment b. complimentary c. complement d. component

2.2 Grammar
We can communicate well verbally but when it comes to answering grammar-
based questions, we commit mistakes. Grammar is not a set of rules but in reality a
mere description of the language used by all of us. Grammar forms an important part
in the English section of any competitive examination.
Nouns
A noun is a word used as a name of a person, place or thing. There are five kind of
Noun-
a. Proper Noun b. Common noun c. collective noun
d. Abstract Noun e. Material Noun
Following are Certain Rules of Grammar Regarding Nouns That Would Be
Useful in A Competitive Exam:
« Proper nouns are sometimes used as common nouns.
For example: (a) Amitabh is Gandhiji of our class. (Incorrect)
(b) Amitabh is the Gandhiji of our class, (Correct)
Here Gandhiji does not mean Mahatma Gandhi. The word here stands for the
possessor of the qualities that Gandhiji is most known for - truth and non-violence.
Thus Gandhiji is being used as a metaphorical common noun.
Following are Rules Regarding the Number of The Noun:
« Some nouns have the same form both in singular as well as in plural.
19 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 For example: (a) A deer was caught.
(b) Deer were caught.
Here, the singular and plural form of the noun Deer is the same. Like Deer there are
other nouns that have the same form in singular as well as plural form. For example:
sheep, apparatus, species, series, hundred, dozen, hair etc. Preceding adjectives and
articles decide whether the word is used in the singular form or plural form.
For example: (a) He paid eight hundred rupees for this pair of shoes.
(b) India again won the series.
« Nouns denoting large numbers are used both in singular and plural form
For example: (a) Three hundred people attended the function.
(b) Hundreds of people attended the party.
In sentence (a), ‘hundred’ is preceded by number ‘three’. So ‘hundred’ will take no
plural form. Word ‘three hundred’ indicates plurality. But in sentence (b), ‘hundred’
is not preceded by any number. So, to indicate plurality, we will write ‘hundreds’. So,
rule is that when words like hundred, dozen, thousand, pair, score are not
preceded by any word denoting number then they take the plural form,
otherwise not.
Consider some more examples:
(a) Coca-Cola paid lakhs of rupees to Rajesh Hamal for promoting their product.
(b) I brought two dozen bananas.
« Tell which sentence is correct:
(a) Since long no news has been heard.
(b) Since long no news have been heard.
Sentence a is correct. The reason is that some nouns are always used as singular
though they look like plural nouns. That’s why we should never use the plural verb
with these words. Other similar words are politics, mathematics, physics, gallows,
means, billiards, ethics, summons, innings.
For example: (a) Politics is not my cup of tea. (b) I received summons.
(c) Parash once again played a superb innings.
« Tell which sentence is correct:
(a) The spectacles that you are wearing are really nice.
(b) The spectacles that you are wearing is really nice.
Sentence a) is correct. The reason being that some noun words are always used in the
plural form.
For example: trousers, arms, drawers, assets, scales, alms, thanks, cards; ashes, riches,
premises, scissors, credentials, proceeds.
« Tell which sentence is correct: (a) The cattle was grazing in the field.
(b) The cattle were grazing in the field.
Sentence (b) is correct. The reason being that some nouns are always used as plurals
though they look like singular. Other nouns like this are public, people, folk,
mankind, poultry, sheep, police, gentry, peasantry, bulk, majority, etc.
For example: (a) The majority are with the leader.
(b) Police, though late, have come. (c) Public wants results.
« Tell which sentence is correct.
(a) This project will lead to lots of expenditures.
(b) This project will lead to lots of expenditure.
Sentence (b) is correct. The reason is that some nouns are always used as singular.
Preceding adjectives or the verb form indicates the singularity or plurality. Other
nouns are expenditure, furniture, information, machinery, issue, offspring, alphabet,
scenery, poetry.
20 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 For example: (a) All the furniture was bought last year.
(b) All the Information was given to him.
« Meaning of some nouns in plural form is very different from the meaning of nouns in
singular form. Hence, that form should be used which will convey the right meaning. For
example:
(a) I opened the letter and read its contents.
(b) Her mouth was fixed in a smile of pure content.
(c) The conflict between good and evil is age-old.
(d) We must produce goods at competitive prices.
(e) Delhiites breathe the most polluted air in the world.
(f) She was just putting on airs when she came to visit me.
(g) We should renounce the use of force to settle our dispute.
(h) Families of people who died as a result of services in the forces should not be
ignored.
(i) I was very excited on my return to my home village.
(j) Early returns in the ballot indicate majority for opposition.
Other nouns having different meanings in the singular and plural form are:
Singular With Meaning Plural With Meaning
Advic – Counse Advises – Information
Respect – regard Respects – Compliments
Compass – extend or range Compasses – instruments
Custom – habit Customs – duties levied on
Ground – earth Grounds – reasons
Iron – metal Irons – fetters made of iron
Mean – average Means – way or method
Respect – regard Respects – polite greetings
Colour – hue Colours – appearance
Physic – medicine Physics – natural science
« Please go through the following singulars and plurals as plural forms are commonly known
but their singular forms are not commonly known.
Singular Form Plural Form
Agendum Agenda
Alumnus Alumni
Index Indices
Phenomenon Phenomena
Criterion Criteria
Radius Radii
Formula Formulae
Memorandum Memoranda
« Some noun words have two plurals with different meanings. So, that plural form should
be selected which will convey the right meaning.
For example:
(a) I have one brother and one sister (meaning- children of the same parents).
(b) Why should only select brethren be allowed to attend the meeting? (meaning -
members of the same society, organisation)
(c) I took off my shoes and clothes (meaning- things that people wear).
(d) Cotton, Nylon, Silk are different kinds of cloths (meaning- kinds or pieces of
cloth).
Other nouns having two plurals with different meanings are:
Singular Plural With different meaning
21 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Die Dies - stamps
Dice - small cubes used in games
Genius Geniuses-persons of great talent
Genie - spirit
Quarter Quarter - fourth part
Quarter(s) – lodging
Manner Manner - Method
Manners - Correct behavior
Pain Pain - Suffering
Pains - Careful efforts
Spectacle Spectacle - sight
Spectacles - eye-glasses
Penny Pence - indicate amount of money
Pennies - number of coins
Following are Rules Regarding Gender of the Noun:
« Collective nouns, even when they denote living beings, are considered to be of the neuter
gender.
For example:
(a) Mr. Smith had a heard of cows. He kept a herdsman to look after her.
(b) Mr. Smith had a herd of cows. He kept a herdsman to look after it.
Sentence b) is correct. Though herd consists of cows
(females), herd is not a feminine noun as it a collective noun.
« Young children and the lower animals are also referred to as of the neuter gender.
For example: (a) The baby loves his toys. (Incorrect)
(b) The baby loves its toys. (correct)
(c) The mouse lost his tail when the cat pounced on him. (Incorrect)
(d) The mouse lost its tail when the cat pounced on it. (correct)
We are often uncertain regarding the gender of the animals. The mouse here may be
a male or a female. So, English language prefers the easy way out: treat it as of the
neuter gender.
« When objects without life are personified they are considered of
(i) The masculine gender if the object is remarkable for strength and violence. Ex.
Sun, Summer, Winter, Time, Death etc.
(ii) The feminine gender if the object is remarkable for beauty, gentleness and
gracefulness. Ex: Earth, Moon, Spring, Nature, Mercy etc. For example:
(a) The Sun came from behind the clouds and with her brilliance tore the veil of
darkness. (Incorrect)
(b) The Sun came from behind the clouds and with his brilliance tore the veil of
darkness. (Correct)
Convention does not see brilliance as a womanly quality, but a manly one.
(a) Nature offers his lap to him that seeks it. (Incorrect)
(b) Nature offers her lap to him that seeks it. (Correct)
The offering of a lap is usually the mother’s role. Hence, Nature here should be
related as a feminine noun.
Tell which sentence is correct.
(a) The earth goes round the sun in 365 days. Can you calculate her speed?
(b) The earth goes round the sun in 365 days. Can you calculate its speed?
Sentence b is correct. The error being made here is that personification is being
brought where it does not exist. In the above statement the earth is being treated

22 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 as a body (a thing), not a person. The scientist here is not concerned with the
womanly qualities of the planet. So, neuter gender should be applied.
Following are Rules Regarding apostrophe:
« Rules regarding apostrophe S (’s):
(a) Singular noun: ’s is added after the word.
(b) Singular noun: Only an apostrophe is added when there are too many hissing
sounds. For example: Moses’ laws, for goodness’ sake, For justice’ sake.
(c) Plural nouns ending in s like boys, cows: only (’) is added after the word
(d) Plural nouns not ending in s like men, children: (’s) is added after the word.
(e) ’S is added primarily after the living things and personified objects. For example:
Governor’s bodyguard, horse’s head, Nature’s law, Fortune’s favourite.
(f) ’S is not used with inanimate or non-living things. For example: leg of the table,
cover of the book.
(g) But in nouns that denote time, distance or weight, (’s) is used. For example: a
stone’s throw, in a year’s time, the earth’s surface.
(h) Some other common phrases where (’s) is used are to his heart’s content, at his
wit’s end, out of harm’s way.
(i) When a noun consists of several words, the possessive sign is attached only to the
last word.
For example:
(a) The Queen’s of England reaction is important in the Diana episode. (Incorrect)
(b) The Queen of England’s reaction is important in the Diana episode. (Correct)
Do not be mistaken that since it is the Queen’s reaction, the (’s) should come after
queen. You might think that putting it after England would make the reaction
England’s and not the Queen’s. This is short- sightedness. Do not see Queen and
England in isolation, Queen of England is one whole unit and the apostrophe should
come at its end.
(j) When two nouns are in apposition, the possessive sign is put to the latter only.
For example:
(a) I am going to Stephen Hawking’s the scientist’s country. (Incorrect)
(b) I am going to Stephen Hawking the scientist’s country. (Correct)
(k) When two or more nouns show joint possession, the possessive sign is put to the
latter only. For example:
(a) Rohan and Kapil are Aashrab’s sons. So Aashrab is Rohan ’s and Kapil’s
father. (Incorrect)
(b) Rohan and Kapil are Aashrab’s sons. So Aashrab is Rohan and Kapil’s
father.(Correct)
(l) When two or more nouns show separate possession, the possessive sign is put with
both. For example.
(a) The audience listened to Ramkrishna and Moti Ram’s poems. (Incorrect)
(b) The audience listened to Ramkrishna’s and Moti Ram’s poems. (Correct)
Pronouns
A pronoun is a word used instead of a noun. Now consider the following cases:
« Since a pronoun is used instead of a Noun, it must be of the same number, gender and
person as the noun for which it stands. For example: Those beggars are idle. They refuse
to work for their living.
« Consider the following two sentences.
(a) After a few hearings the jury gave its verdict. (Pronoun ‘its is used in place of noun
‘jury’).

23 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 (b) The jury were divided in their opinions. (Pronoun ‘their’ is used in place of noun
‘jury’
You must be wondering why different pronoun ‘its’ and ‘their’ is used in place of the
same noun ‘jury’ The reason is when a pronoun stands for a collective noun it must
be in the singular number and neutral gender. (Sentence a). But when collective noun
conveys the idea of separate individuals comprising the whole, the pronoun standing
for it must be of the plural number. In sentence b, it is clear that members of the jury
are not behaving as whole.
For example: (a) The committee is reconsidering its decision.
(b) The committee decided the matter without leaving their seats.
Pronouns in Sentences Found By Conjunction :
« When two or more singular nouns are joined by ‘and’, the pronoun used for them must be
plural.
For example: Rama and Hari work hard. Their teachers praise them.
But when two Singular nouns joined by ‘and’ refer to the same person or thing, the pronoun
should be singular. For example: The Secretary and Treasurer is negligent of his duty.
Here the same person is acting as Secretary and Treasurer.
That’s why singular pronoun is used.
« When two singular nouns joined by ‘and’ are preceded by ‘each’ or ‘every’, then the
pronoun must be singular
For example: Every soldier and every sailor was in his place.
« When two or more singular nouns are joined by ‘or’, ‘either...or’, ‘neither...nor’, the
pronoun is generally singular.
For example: (a) Neither Mamata nor Ramita has done his lessons.
(b) Either Rama or Hari must help his friend.
« When a plural and a singular noun are joined by ‘or’ or ‘nor’, the pronoun must be in the
plural
For example: Either the manager or his assistants failed in their duty.
« When two things which have been already mentioned are referred to, ‘this’ refers to the
thing last mentioned and ‘that to the thing first mentioned.
For example: Alcohol and Tobacco are both injurious: this perhaps less than that.
Rules Regarding Personal Pronouns:
« Tell which sentence is correct- (a) The presents are for you and me.
(b) The presents are for you and I.
Sentence a is correct. Pronoun has to agree with the case. Here it is the objective case.
So, ‘me’ should be used instead of ‘I’. For example: My uncle asked my brother and
me to dinner.
« Tell which sentence is correct: (a) He loves you more than I.
(b) He loves you more than me.
Sentence a is correct ‘Than’ is a conjunction joining clauses. And the case of the
pronoun to be used may be found by writing the clauses in full. So, in sentence a.)
two clauses joined by ‘than’ are ‘He loves you more’ and ‘I love you’. Being a
subjective case, ‘I’ should be used.
For example: (a) He is taller than I (am). (b) He loves you more than (he loves) me.
« When a pronoun refers to more than one noun or pronouns of different persons, it must be
of the first person plural in preference to the second and of the second person plural in
preference to the third.
For example:
(a) You and I, husband and wife, have to look after your home. (Incorrect)
(b) You and I, husband and wife, have to look after our home. (Correct)
24 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Now, common sense tells us that if we are a couple, wife and husband, the feeling of
togetherness is expressed by our home, not your home. And so does grammar.
Rule: 123. I stands for first person, 2 for second person and 3 for third person. The order
of precedence is: 1 before 2 and 2 before 3. In the given example, we have 2 and 1. So I
will apply; that is, first person. The number, of course, will be plural.
Let us take another example. (a) You and Hari have done their duty. (Incorrect)
(b) You and Hari have done your duty. (Correct)
Applying 123 rule. You = 2 and Hari =3. So, 2. Second person plural gives ‘your’.
Similarly, when all the three persons are taken into account, it has to be I; that is, first
person plural.
(a) You, he and I have not forgotten your roots. (Incorrect)
(b) You, he and I have not forgotten our roots. (Correct)
« Each, either and neither are always singular and are followed by the verb in the singular.
For example: (a) Neither of the accusations is true. (b) Each boy took his turn.
(c) Each of the ladies performs her duty well.
« (A) Please consider the following sentences.
(a) This is the boy. He works hard. (He subjective case)
(b) This is the boy. His exercise is done well. (His is possessive case)
(c) This is the boy. All praise him. (Him is objective case)
« An apostrophe is never used in ‘its’, ‘yours’ and ‘theirs’.
« The complement of the verb be, when it is expressed by a pronoun, should be in the
nominative form. For example. (a) It was he (not him).
(b) It is I (not me) that gave the prizes away.
(c) It might have been he (not him).
« The case of a pronoun following than or as is determined by mentally supplying the verb.
For example: (a) He is taller than I (am). (b) I like you better than he (likes you).
(c) They gave him as much as (they gave) me.
« A pronoun must agree with its Antecedent in person, number and gender.
For example: (a) All passengers must show their (not his) tickets.
(b) I am not one of those who believe everything they (not I) hear
Rules Regarding Demonstrative Pronouns:
« That is used-
A. After adjectives in the superlative degree.
For example- (a) This is the best that we can do.
(b) He is the best speaker that we ever heard.
B. After the words all, same, any, none, nothing, only.
For example: (a) Man is the only animal that can talk.
(b) He is the same man that he has been.
C. After two antecedents, one denoting a person and the other denoting an animal or a
thing.
For example: The man and his pet that met with an accident yesterday died today.
« What and That refer to persons as well as things.
Rules Regarding Relative Pronouns:
« On combining each of the above pairs into one sentence
(a) This is the boy who works hard (Who in place of He)
(b) This is the boy whose exercise is done well. (whose in place of His)
(c) This is the boy whom all praise. (Whom in place of Him)
The above sentences show when to use who, whose and whom. Who is the subjective case,
Whose the possessive case and Whom the objective case.
« Who is used for persons only. It may refer to a singular or plural noun.
25 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 For example: (a) He who hesitates is lost. (b) Blessed is he who has found his work.
« Whose can be used for persons as well as things without life also.
For example: (a) This is the hotel whose owner is a criminal.
(b) This is the person whose will power is extraordinary.
« Which is used for inanimate things and animals. ‘Which’ is used for both singular and plural
nouns.
For example: (a) I have found the book which I had lost last week.
(b) The horse, which won the race yesterday, is my favourite.
« When ‘which’ is used for selection, it may refer to a person as well as things.
For example: (a) Which of the packets is yours?
(b) Which of the boys has not done his homework?
« Who, Which, Whom, That, Whose should be placed as near to the antecedent as possible.
For example:
(a) I with my family reside in Delhi, which consists of my wife and parents.
This sentence is wrong as which relates to ‘my’ family’. So ‘which’ should be placed
as near to family’ as possible. So, the correct sentence is
(b) I with my family which, consists of my wife and parents, reside in Kathmandu.
« Who is used in the nominative cases and whom in the objective cases.
For example:
(a) There is Mr. Sharma, who (not whom) they say is the best painter in the town.
(b) The Student, whom (not who) you thought so highly of, has failed to win the first
prize.
« When the subject of a verb is a relative pronoun, the verb should agree in number and
person with the antecedent of the relative.
For example:
(a) This is one of the most interesting novels that have (not has) appeared this year.
(Here, antecedent of relative pronoun that is novels and not one)
(b) This is the only one of his poems that is (not are) worth reading. (Here the
antecedent of that is one and not poems. Kindly note the difference between sentence
a and b)
Other Useful Rules:
« None is used in the singular or plural as the sense may require.
For example:
(a) Each boy was accompanied by an adult but there were none, with the orphan
(Incorrect)
(b) Each boy was accompanied by an adult but there was none with the orphan.
(Correct)
(c) I am used to many guests everyday but there was none today. (Incorrect)
(d) I am used to many guests everyday but there were none today. (Correct)
« When ‘one’ is used as pronoun, its possessive form ‘one’s’ should follow instead of his,
her etc.
For example: One must put one’s best efforts if one wishes to succeed.
« With let objective case of the pronoun is used. For example: let you and me do it.
« If a pronoun has two antecedents, it should agree with the nearer one.
For example:
(a) I hold in high esteem everything and everybody who reminds me of my failures.
(b) I hold in high esteem everybody and everything, which reminds me of my failures.
« In referring to anybody, everybody, anyone, each etc., the pronoun of the masculine or the
feminine gender is used according to the context.
For example:
26 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 (a) I shall be glad to help everyone of my boys in his studies.
(b) I shall be glad to help everyone of my girls in her studies.
(c) I shall be glad to help everyone of my students in his studies.
But when gender is not determined, the pronoun of the masculine gender is used as
in sentence c.
« (A) The pronoun one should be used throughout, if used at all.
For example: (a) One must use one’s best efforts if one wishes to succeed.
(b) One should be careful about what one says.
(B) Plural is commonly used with none.
For example: (a) None of his poems are well known.
(b) None of these words are now current.
« Anyone should be used when more than two persons or things are spoken of.
For example: She was taller than anyone of her five sisters.
Tenses
« Tense is the form taken by a verb to indicate time and continuance or completeness of
action. The continuance or completeness of action is denoted by four subcategories.
Simple Tense: It is used for habitual or routine actions in the Present Tense, action which
is over in the Past Tense & action to happen in the Future Tense.
Continuous Tense: The action is incomplete or continuous or going on.
Perfect Tense: The action is complete, finished or perfect with respect to a certain point
of time.
Perfect Continuous Tense : The action is going on continuously over a long period of
time and is yet to be finished.
« The different tenses and the verb forms used in each tense are given below:
Singular With Meaning Plural With Meaning
Name of Tens Verb formation in Tenses
Present simple/indefinite Verb/verb + s/es
Present Continuous/Progressive Is/am/are + verb + ing
Present Perfect Has/have + third form of verb
Present perfect Continuous Has/have + been + verb + ing
Past SImpel/indefinite Second form of verb only
Past Continuous/Progressive Was/were + verb + ing
Past Perfect Had + third form of verb
Past Perfect Continuous Had been + verb + ing
Future Simple/Indefinite Shall/will + verb
Future Continuous/Progressive Shall/will + be + verb + ing
Future Perfect Shall/will + have + past perfect
Future Perfect Continuous Shall will + have been + verb+ ing
« The simple Present tense is used
A. To express a habitual action.
For example: I get up every day at five o’clock.
B. To express general truths.
For example: Fortune favours the brave.
C. In vivid narrative, as substitute for the simple past.
For example: Immediately the Sultan hurries to his capital.
D. To indicate a future event that is part of a fixed programme or time table.
For example: The train leaves at 5:20 am.
Note: We can also use will leave in place of leaves.
E. It is used to introduce quotations.
27 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 For example: Keats says, ‘A thing of beauty is a joy forever’.
F. In exclamatory’ sentences beginning with here and there to express what is actually
taking place in the present.
For example: Here comes the bus!
G. When two actions of the future are being talked about, one dependent on the other, the
former action is represented by present simple and the latter by future simple.
For example: We shall go when the child comes back home.
« The present continuous tense is used
(I) For an action going on at the time of speaking.
For example: The boys are playing cricket in the ground.
(II) For a temporary action that may not be actually happening at the time of speaking but
was happening in the recent past and is still happening in recent future.
For example: I am reading Sidney Sheldon now a days.
(III) To express changing or developing situations.
For example: India is progressing day by day.
(IV) For an action that is planned or arranged to take place in the near future.
For example: I am going to cinema tonight.
Note: But it is not good to use the present continuous for slightly distant future. So,
don’t say
(a) I am going to cinema next week.
Rather, use the future simple. So, it is better if you say
(b) I will go to cinema next week.
(V) When the reference is to a particularly obstinate habit, the present continuous is used
instead of present simple. An adverb like always, continually, constantly is also used.
For example: It is no use scolding him; he always does what is forbidden.
(Incorrect)
Note: that his doing what is forbidden has become a die-hard habit. The habit
persists in spite of advice or warning. So, we should use the present continuous.
For example: It is no use scolding him; he is always doing what is forbidden.
(Correct)
« The present perfect tense is used
(I) To indicate the completed activities in the immediate past.
For example: He has just gone out.
(II) Action completed in the immediate past or an action of the past whose effect lingers
in the present.
For example: I wrote three books. (Incorrect)
The given sentence appears to be incomplete. The reader of the sentence immediately
queries. ‘When did you write three books?” It would be a different case if you said
For example: I wrote books.
Then the reader would infer that you wrote books in the past as a profession or
hobby. But when you are being so specific as to say “three books”, we immediately
feel the need of a time frame. Since no time frame is mentioned, we assume it to be
‘by now’. So, we have something to the effect.
For example: I have written three books by now.
This ‘by now’ is implied and need not be written. So,
For example: I have written three books. (Correct)
(III) The present perfect is never used with adverbs of the past time. In such cases the past
simple should be used.
For example: Nepal has won the match last week (Incorrect)

28 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 “Last week” is not immediate past. You may therefore be tempted to use the present
perfect. But remember that the immediate past here does not go unindicated. Last
week is being used as an adverb of past time. So, For example: Nepal won the
match last week. (Correct)
(IV) To express past actions whose time is not given and not definite - actions with their
effect continuing in the present.
For example: a) I have never known him to be angry.
b) Have you read ‘Prince’s Travels’?
(V) To describe the past events when we think more of their effect in the present than of
the action itself.
For example: I have cut my finger.
(VI) For long actions and situations which started in the near past and went on until very
recently.
For example: I have read three chapters since this morning.
« The present perfect continuous tense is used for an action, which began at some time in
the past and it still continuing. With the present perfect continuous tense an adverb or
phrase that expresses times used.
For example: (a) I have been reading this book since morning.
(b) They have been building the bridge for several months.
« The simple past tense is used
(I) To indicate an action completed in the past. Generally, adverbs or adverb phrases of
past time are used in the past simple tense.
For example: (a) The steamer sailed yesterday.
(b) He went home some time back.
(II) To express imaginary present situations or imaginary future events that may not
happen.
For example: (a) If I had longer holidays, I would be very happy.
(b) If I got rich, I would travel all over the world.
(III) When this tense is used without an adverb of time, then time may be either implied
or indicated by the context.
For example: I didn’t sleep well. (i.e., last night)
(IV) For past habits ‘used to’ is added to the verb.
For example: She used to carry an umbrella.
« The past continuous tense is used
(I) To denote an action going on at some time in the past. The time of the action may or
may not be indicated.
For example: (a) It was getting darker.
(b) We were listening to the radio all evening.
(II) When a new action happened in the middle of a longer action. In this case Past simple
and Past continuous are used together. Past simple is used for the new action.
For example: The Light went out while I was reading.
(III) For persistent habits in the past.
For example: She was always chewing gum.
« The past perfect tense is used when two actions happened in the past. In this case it is
necessary to show which action happened earlier than the other. Here past perfect is used
for the action, which happened earlier.
For example: (a) When I reached the station the train had started.
(b) I had done my exercise when Hari came to see me.
« Past perfect continuous tense is used when an action that began before a certain point of
time in the past & was continuing at the given point of time in the sentence. A time
29 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 expression like since last year, for the last few days is generally put after perfect
continuous tense.
For example: At that time he had been writing a novel for two months.
Here, At that time is the given point of time and for two months is the point of
time in the past.
« The simple future is used for an action that has still to take place.
For example: (a) I shall see him tomorrow. (b) Tomorrow will be Sunday.
« The future continuous tense
(I) Represents an action as going on at sometime in the future.
For example: I shall be reading the paper then.
(II) Represents the future events that are planned.
For example: He will be meeting us next week.
« The future perfect tense is used to indicate the completion of an event by a certain
future time.
For example: I shall have written my exercise by that time.
« The future perfect continuous tense indicates an action represented as being in progress
over a period of time that will end in the future. Generally time period is mentioned along
with it.
For example: By next July we shall have been living here for four years.
Articles
« A or an does not refer to a particular person or thing. It leaves indefinite the person or
thing spoken of.
For example: I saw a doctor. (means I saw any doctor)
« An is used before a word beginning with vowel sound (please note a word beginning with
vowel sound and not necessarily a vowel itself).
For example: an ass, an enemy, an inkstand, an orange, an umbrella, an hour.
« An is placed before an abbreviation if the first letter of an abbreviation is F, H. L, M, N, R,
S or X.
For example: (a) An MBA was required for the post.
(b) An SAO is an officer of high rank
« A is used before a word beginning with a consonant sound.
For example: a boy, a woman a horse, a one-rupee note, a university, a European
(both university and European begin with a consonant sound of ‘yu’ )
« A and an are used with words ‘few’ and ‘little’ if they refer to a small number or a small
amount. Words ‘few’ and ‘little’ without the articles means almost none.
For example: (a) We have little time to spare. (means almost no time)
(b) We have a little time to spare. (means some time)
(c) Few persons were present at the meeting. (means almost no one was present)
(d) A few persons were present at the meeting. (means some were present)
« A is used in the following senses :
A) In its original numerical sense of one.
For example: (a) Not a word was said. (b) A word to the wise is sufficient.
(B) In the vague sense of a certain time.
(C) In the sense of any, to single out an individual as the representative of a class.
For example: A pupil should obey his teacher.
(D) To make a common noun of a proper noun.
For example: A Daniel came to judgement. (A Daniel = A very wise man)
« The points out a particular person or thing or someone or something already referred to.
For example:
(a) I saw the doctor. (means I saw some particular doctor)
30 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 (b) The book you want is out of print.
« The is used with names of gulfs, rivers, seas, oceans, groups of islands and mountain
ranges.
For example :
The Persian Gulf, The Red Sea, The Indian Ocean, The British Isles, The Alps.
« The is used before the name of certain books.
For example : The Vedas, The Puranas, The Ramayana.
But we never say ‘The Valmiki’s Ramayana’. The is not used when the name of a
book is mentioned along with the author’s name. So, ‘Valmiki’s Ramayana’ is
correct.
« The is used before the names of things unique of their kind.
For example: the sun, the sky, the ocean, the sea.
« The is used before a plural common noun if it refers to a particular group among the class
and not the whole class.
For example: Drive away the cows from the field.
« The is used before a proper noun only when it is qualified by an adjective.
For example: The great Rani of Jhansi, the immortal Kalidas.
« The is used before superlatives.
For example: (a) Sachin was the best batsman in the world.
(b) The best person should win.
« The noun if emphasis is laid on the use of such a noun.
Here, noun can be proper or abstract noun
(a) the time for doing it.
(b) occasion to help the distressed.
« The is used with ordinals.
For example: (a) He was the first student to finish his homework.
(b) The second chapter of the book is very interesting.
« The is used before an adjective when the noun is understood.
For example:
(a) The poor are always with us. (Here poor means poor people which is
understood.)
(b) The weak and the strong. (Here weak means weak people and strong means
strong people.)
« No article is used before a common noun when it refers to all the members of the class.
For example: (a) Man is mortal. (b) Fish has high protein content.
(c) What kind of flower is it?
« No article is used before the names of materials such as gold, stone, wine, iron, wheat,
wood, cloth.
For example: (a) Gold is a precious metal.
(b) Wheat grows in Karnali and Gandaki
(c) Iron is a useful metal.
Note: But it is correct to say
For example: An iron is a useful gadget. Because here we are not taking about
material iron, but the object which is used to make clothes smooth.
« No article is used before proper nouns.
For example: (a) Kathmandu is the capital of Nepal
(b) Newton was a great philosopher.
But consider the following examples where an article is used before a proper noun.
(a) This man is a second Newton.
(b) Pokahra is the Manchester of Nepal.
31 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Here Newton and Manchester are not used as proper nouns but as common nouns.
The first sentence means that this man is as great as Newton and the second
sentence means that Pokhara is a great manufacturing city like Manchester.
« No articles are used before a common noun used in its widest sense.
For example:
(a) The science has developed much in the past hundred years. (Incorrect)
(b) Science has developed much in the past hundred years. (Correct).
« No article is used before languages, subject of arts and science.
For example: (a) We are studying English.
(b) Geometry is the toughest subject I have ever studied.
« No article is used before words such as school, college, church, bed, table, hospital,
market, prison.
For example: (a) I went to school till last year. (b) I have never been to hospital.
But an article is used before these words when reference is made to a definite place.
« No article is used before the name of relations like father, mother, aunt, uncle.
For example: Mother would like to see you.
But if someone else’s mother is being talked about then the should be used.
For example: The mother would like to see you.
Adjectives
Adjectives are the words that describe the qualities of a noun or pronoun in a given
sentence.
Rules Regarding Demonstrative Adjective :
« This and that are used with the singular nouns and these and those are used with plural
nouns.
For example: (a) This mango is sour. (b) These mangoes are sour.
(c) That boy is industrious (d) Those boys are industrious.
« This and these indicate something near to the speaker while that and those indicate
something distant to the speaker.
For example: (a) This girl sings. (b) These girls sing.
(c) That girl sings. (d) Those girls sing.
Rules Regarding Distributive Adjectives:
« Each is used when reference is made to the individuals forming any group. Each is also
used when the number of the group is limited and definite.
For example:
(a) I was in Shimla for five days and it rained each day.
Every is used when reference is made to total group or when the number is
indefinite.
For example: (a) Every seat was taken. (b) I go for a movie every week.
(c) Leap year falls in every fourth year.
« Each, either, neither and every are always followed by the singular noun.
For example: (a) Each boy must take his turn. (b) Every word of it is false.
(c) Neither accusation is true.
Rules Regarding Adjectives of Quantity:
« Some is used in affirmative sentences to express quantity or degree.
For example: I shall buy some bananas.
Any is used in the negative or interrogative sentences to express quantity or degree.
For example: (a) I shall not buy any bananas.
(b) Have you bought any bananas?
But some is an exception to the above rule. Some is used in interrogative sentences,
which are commands or requests.
32 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 For example: Will you please lend me some money?
« Few is used for countable objects and little is used for non- countable objects.
« Little means not much. So use of the word little has a negative meaning.
For example: (a) There is little hope of his recovery.
(b) He has little appreciation of hard work.
A little means some though not much. So, use of a little has a positive meaning.
For example: (a) There is a little hope of his recovery.
(b) He has a little appreciation of hard work.
The little means not much but all there is.
For example:
(a) The little information he had was quite reliable.
(b) The little knowledge of management he possessed was not sufficient to stand
him in good stead.
« Few means not many. So use of the word few has a negative meaning.
For example: Few men are free from faults.
A few means some. So use of ‘a few’ has a positive meaning.
For example: A few men are free from faults.
The few means not many, but all there are.
For example: The few remarks that he made were very good.
« Later and latest refer to time.
For example: (a) He came later than I expected.
(b) This is the latest news.
Latter and last refer to position.
For example: (a) The last player could not bat as he was injured.
(b) The latter chapters are very interesting.
Latter is used when there are two only, last when there are more than two.
For example: (a) Of Manohar, Syam and Joshi, the latter is a driver. (Incorrect)
(b) Of Manohor, Syam and Joshi, the last is a driver. (Correct)
« Elder and eldest are used only of persons (usually members of the same family).
For example: (a) My elder sister is doing MBA from KUSOM, Lalitpur.
(b) My eldest brother is getting married today.
Older and oldest are used of both persons and things.
For example: (a) This is the oldest building in the city.
(b) Anthony is the oldest boy in the class.
Other Common Rules :
« ‘Verbal’ means ‘of or pertaining to words’ whereas ‘oral’ means ‘delivered by word of
mouth or not written’. Hence the opposite of written is oral, not verbal.
For example:
(a) His written statement differs in several important respects from his oral (not
verbal) statement.
(b) The boy was sent with a verbal message to the doctor.
« ‘Common’ means shared by all concerned. If a fact is a common Knowledge, it means the
knowledge of the fact is shared by all. Everyone knows about it. ‘Mutual’ means in
relation to each other. If you and I are mutual admirers, it means I admire you and you
admire me. We might also have a common admirer who admires both of us.
(a) We stopped smoking on the advice of a mutual friend. (Incorrect)
(b) We stopped smoking on the advice of a common friend (Correct)
It is apparent that there are two or more than two of us. Apart from us, there is a
person (friend). Since he is a friend to all of us, this friend is being shared by all of
us. So, he is a common friend. Now, look at this sentence.
33 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 For example: We stopped smoking on mutual advice.
It means I advised you not to smoke and you advised me not to smoke.
« Other common errors.
(a) These kind of questions is often asked in the examinations. (Incorrect)
(b) This kind of question is often asked in the examinations. (Correct)
(c) He is as good if not better than his brother. (Incorrect)
(d) He is as good as if not better than his brother. (Correct)
(e) The future do not hold much for you. (Incorrect)
(f) The future does not hold much for you. (Correct)
Adverbs
A word that modifies the meaning of a verb is called an Adverb.
Some Important Rules :
« Adverbs of manner such is well, fast, quickly, carefully, calmly etc. are placed after the
verb if there is no object and after the object if there is one.
For example: (a) It is raining heavily.
(b) She speaks English well.
« Adverbs of time such as always, often, sometimes, never, generally, ever, merely, seldom
etc. are placed before the verb they qualify.
For example: (a) I seldom meet him. (Right)
(b) I meet him seldom. (Wrong)
Adverbs of degree refer to words which show “how much”, “in what degree” or “to
what extent” does the action takes place.
Consider the Following:
« Meaning of too is more than enough. Too denotes some kind of excess.
For example: (a) He is too weak to walk.
(b) It is never too late.
Hence, use of very in place of too is wrong.
For example: Instead of saying that (a) Cow’s milk is too nutritious
We should say that
(b) Cow’s milk is very nutritious.
« Enough is placed after the word it qualifies.
For example: Everyone should be strong enough to support one’s family.
It will be wrong if we write ‘Everyone should be enough strong to support one’s
family’.
« Much is used with past participles.
For example: (a) He was much disgusted with his life.
(b) The news was much surprising.
Very is used with present participles.
For example: (a) He is very disgusted with his life.
(b) The news is very surprising.
« Very and much are also used to emphasise superlative form of adjectives/adverbs-
For example: (a) Rishi is the very best boy in his class.
(b) Rishi is much the best boy in his class.
Adverbs of Affirmation or Negation refer to words that assert the action
emphatically.
Consider these examples: (a) He certainly was a winner among them.
(b) Luckily he survived the crash.
« ‘Of course’ is used to denote a natural consequence. It should not be used in place of
certainly, undoubtedly.
For example: (a) Of course he is the best player. (Wrong)
34 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 (b) He is certainly the best player. (Right)
« Only is used before the word it qualifies.
For example: (a) Only I spoke to him. (b) I only spoke to him.
(c) I spoke to him only.
« Else is followed by but and not by than.
For example: It is nothing else but hypocrisy.
« ‘As’ is often used in a sentence though there is no need for it.
For example: (a) He is elected as the President. (Wrong)
(b) He is elected President. (Right)
« ‘Perhaps’ means possibly whereas ‘probably’ means most likely.
For example: (a) Where is Govinda? Perhaps he is not here. (Wrong)
(b) Where is Govinda? Probably he is not here. (Right)
Prepositions
« In is used with the names of countries and large towns; at is used when speaking of small
towns and villages.
For example: (a) I live in Birgunj. (b) I live at Ratanagar Chitwan.
« In and at are used in speaking of things at rest; to and into
are used in speaking of things in motion.
For example: (a) He is in bed. (b) He is at the top of the class.
(c) He ran to school. (d) He jumped into the river. (e) The snake crawled into its hole.
« On is often used in speaking of things at rest; and upon for the things in motion.
For example: (a) He sat on a chair. (b) The cat sprang upon the table.
« Till is used for time and to is used for place.
For example: (a) He slept till eight o’clock. (b) He walked to the end of the street.
« With often denotes the instrument and by the agent.
For example: (a) He killed two birds with one shot.
(b) He was stabbed by a lunatic with a dagger.
« Since is used before a noun or phrase denoting some point of time and is preceded by a
verb in the perfect tense.
For example: (a) I have eaten nothing since yesterday.
(b) He has been ill since Monday last.
From is also used before a noun or phrase denoting some point of time but is used
with non-perfect tense.
For example: (a) I commenced work from 1st January.
(b) He will join school from tomorrow.
For is used with a period of time.
For example: (a) He has been ill for five days.
(b) He lived in Bombay for five years.
« Use of in before a period of time means at the end of period, but use of within before a
period of time means before the end of the period.
For example:
(a) I shall return in an hour. (means I shall return at the end of an hour).
(b) I shall return within an hour. (means I shall return before the end of an hour).
« The phrase ‘seldom or ever’ is wrong ‘Seldom or never’ is right.
For example: Such goods are made for export, and are seldom or never used in this
country.
« Examine the following sentence
(a) This is as good, if not better than that. (Wrong)
(b) This is as good as, if not better than, that. (Right)
(c) This is as good as that, if not better. (Right)
35 A Complete Solution For CMAT
« Beside means at the side of while besides means in addition to.
For example: (a) Beside the ungathered rice he lay.
(b) Besides being fined, he was sentenced to a term of imprisonment.
« Above and Below merely denote position While over and under also carry a sense of
covering or movement.
(a) The bird flew above the lake. (Wrong)
(b) The bird flew over the lake. (Correct)
Here over is used to denote upward position and movement also.
« During is used when reference is made to the time within which something happens. For
is used when we are talking about how long something lasts.
(a) There are few incidents of irregularity for the emergency years. (Wrong)
(b) There are few incidents of irregularity during the emergency years. (Correct)
« Compare is followed by to when it shows that two things are alike. It is followed by with
when we look at the ways in which two things are like and unlike each other.
For example:
(a) Sanath Jayasuria’s batting may be compared to the sales of a useful book, they
score right from the beginning. (Right)
(b) Sanath Jayasuria’s batting may be compared with the sales of a useful book; they
score right from the beginning. (Wrong)
(c) If we compare Tribhuwan University with the regional ones, we find the former
to be much more efficient. (Right)
(d) If we compare Tribhuwan University to the regional ones, we find the former to
be much more efficient. (Wrong)
Conjunctions
« Since as conjunction means
(A) From and after the time when.
For example: (a) Many things have happened since I left the school.
(b) I have never seen him since that unfortunate event happened.
(B) Seeing that,
For example: (a) Since you wish it, it shall be done.
(b) Since that is the case, I shall excuse you.
« Or is used
(A) To introduce an alternative.
For example: (a) You must work or starve. (b) You may take this book or that one.
(c) He may study law or medicine or engineering or he may enter into trade.
(B) To introduce an alternative name or synonym.
For example: He kept quiet that the dispute might cease.
(C) To mean otherwise.
For Example: We must hasten or night will overtake.
« If is used to mean
(A) On the condition or supposition that.
For example: (a) If he is here, I shall see him. (b) If that is so, I am content.
(B) Admitting that.
For example: If I am blunt, I am at least honest.
(C) Whether For example: I asked him if he would help me.
(D) Whenever. For example: If I feel any doubt I enquire.
« That is used
(A) To express a reason or cause.
For example:
(a) Not that I loved Caesar less but that I loved Rome more.
36 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 (b) He was annoyed that he was contradicted.
(B) To express a purpose and is equivalent to in order that.
For example: He kept quiet that the dispute might cease.
(C) To express a consequence, result or effect.
For example: He bled so profusely that he died.
« Lest is used to express a negative purpose and is equivalent to ‘in order that... not’, ‘for
fear that’.
For example: (a) He lied lest he should be killed.
(b) I was alarmed lest we should be wrecked.
« While is used to mean
(A) During that time, as long as.
For example: while there is life there is hope.
(B) At the same time that.
For example: While he found fault, he also praised.
« Only means except that, but, were it not that.
For example: (a) A very pretty woman, only she squints a little.
(b) The day is pleasant, only rather cold.
« The conjunctions after, before, as soon as, until are not followed by clause in the future
tense. Present simple or present perfect tense is used to express a future event.
For example: (a) I will phone you after I arrive here.
(b) I will phone you after I have arrived here.
« As if used in the sense of as it would be is generally followed by a subject + were +
complement.
For example: (a) He loves you as if you were his own child.
(b) Sometimes she weeps and sometimes she laughs as if she were mad.
« While as long as is used to express time in sense of how long, Until is used to express
time in sense of before.
For example: (a) Until you work hard you will improve. (Wrong)
(b) As long as you work hard you will improve. (Right)
(c) He learnt little as long as he was 15 years old. (Wrong)
(d) He learnt little until he was 15 years old. (Right)
« No sooner should be followed by verb + subject and than should begin another clause.
For example: (a) No sooner had I reached the station than the train left.
(b) No sooner did the bell ring than all the students rushed in.
« When as well as is used, finite verb should agree in number and person with the first
subject.
For example: He as well as us is innocent.
« As well as should never be used in place of and if the first subject is preceded by the word
‘both’.
For example: (a) Both Karishma as well as Niruta came. (Wrong)
(b) Both Karishma and Niruta came. (Right)
« Because is generally used when the reason is the most important part of a sentence.
For example: Some people like him because he is honest and hard working.
Since is used when the reason is already known or is less important than the chief
statement.
For example: Since you refuse to cooperate, I shall have to take legal steps.
For is used when reason is given is an afterthought.
For example: The servant must have opened the box, for no one else had the key.
For never comes at the beginning of the sentence and for is always preceded by a
comma.
37 A Complete Solution For CMAT
« Scarcely should be followed by when and not by than.
(a) Scarcely had he arrived than he had to leave again. (Wrong)
(b) Scarcely had he arrived when he had to leave again. (Right)
« Conjunctions such as either..or, neither.. nor, not only..but
also, both..and, whether, or etc. always join two words or phrases belonging to the same
parts of speech.
For example: (a) Either he will ask me or you. (Wrong)
(b) He will ask either me or you. (Right)
(c) Neither he reads nor write English (Wrong)
(d) He neither reads nor writes English. (Right)
(e) Either you shall have to go home or stay here. (Wrong)
(f) You shall have either to go home or stay here. (Right)
(g) He neither agreed to my proposal nor to his. (Wrong)
(h) He agreed neither to my proposal nor to his. (Right)
« Although goes with yet or a comma in the other clause.
For example:
(a) Although Krijal is hardworking but he does not get a job. (Wrong)
(b) Although Krijal is hard working, yet he does not get a job. (Right)
« Such ... as is used to denote a category whereas such ...that emphasises the degree of
something by mentioning its consequence.
For example:
(a) Each member of the alliance agrees to take such action that it deems necessary.
(Wrong)
(b) Each member of the alliance agrees to take such action as it deems necessary.
(Right)
Modals
The verbs like can, could, may, might, would, shall, should and ought are called modal
verbs or modals. They are used with ordinary verbs to express meanings such as
possibility, permission, certainly, etc.
« Can usually expresses ability or capacity
I can swim across the river.
Can you lift this table?
« Can is also used to express permission
You can go now.
« May is a more formal modal used to express permission
You may come in. May I leave the room now?
« May is also used to suggest possibility in an affirmative sentence.
He may be at home It may rain tomorrow.
« Can is used to suggest possibility in negative/interrogative sentence.
Can this be true ? It cannot be so.
« May when used in a negative sentence suggests an improbability whereas can suggests
impossibility.
He may not come today. She cannot sing.
« Could and might are used as past tense forms of can and ‘may’.
I could swim across the river when I was young.
I thought he might be at home.
« Might suggests less possibility or probability than may.
I might go to Bangalore next week suggests the probability of going is less than a
sentence with ‘may’ will suggest.
« Could is used as a polite form of seeking permission or making a request.
38 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Could you pass me the plate ? Could I please talk to Mr. Grover?
« Shall is used with first person and will in all the persons to denote future action.
I shall need the money tomorrow. When will you come next?
« Shall is used with the second and third person to express command, promise or threat.
You shall never come near my child. You shall be punished for this.
We shall go for a picnic this Sunday.
« Should and would are used as past forms of shall and will.
I expected that I would get a first class. She would sit for hours listening to the radio.
« Should is used to express duty or obligation.
We should obey the laws. You should keep your promise.
« Should is used to express a supposition
If it should rain, they will not come.
« Should can also be used to express probability.
He should be in the library.
« Must is used to express necessity.
You must improve your spelling.
« Must is also need to express obligation, and is a stronger word than should.
We must follow the law.
« Must is also used to express logical certainty.
Living alone in such a big city must be difficult.
« Ought is used to express moral obligation and is stronger than both should and must.
We ought to love our parents.
« Ought is also used to express probability sometimes when the probability is very strong.
The book ought to be very useful.

Practice Test

1. Write ………..ink and put your name at the top of the page.
a. by b. with c. in d. from
2. Children get presents ……………Christmas and on their birthdays.
a. on b. at c. for d. by
3. Don't leave your luggage………….. the middle of the road.
a. in b. on c. at d. against
4. At the age of 40 he was sent to prison……………theft
a. with b. because of c. at d. for
5. I want two seats…………….Romeo and Juliet for Friday night.
a. by b. with c. for d. upon
6. The house is on fire! Send…………the Fire Brigade.
a. on b. for c. with d. over
7. He insisted………..seeing the documents.
a. on b. for c. in d. into
8. How are you getting…………..at school?
a. No Preposition b. on c. into d. up
9. It never occurred to me to ask him for proof…………..his identity.
a. at b. about c. for d. of
10. She made a point………coming late so that everyone would look at her.
a. of b. for c. in d. at
11. He threw stones at his attackers, trying to drive them………..
a. by b. in c. off d. on
12. Start now and go on……….I tell you to stop.
a. when b. till c. since d. before
39 A Complete Solution For CMAT
13. He sold the picture to an American dealer……………..$5,000.
a. for b. at c. in d. till
14. Can you cure him …………his illness? He doesn’t want to die so early.
a. from b. of c. about d. off
15. Mrs. Simpson was greatly amused …………her husband’s ignorance.
a. at b. by c. in d. from
16. He will never get…………the death of his wife.
a. in b. over c. by d. off
17. It is a good idea to get……………with your neighbours.
a. for b. in c. over d. on
18. I don't know how I shall ever get…..all this work before the end of this month.
a. by b. in c. through d. over
19. Lock the door carefully so that the dogs can't get …………….
a. through b. at c. with d. for
20. He has had to cut…….smoking since his illness.
a. into b. of c. out d. in
21. We shall have to call the party………….if it rains.
a. off b. by c. of d. out
22. He broke……….in the middle of a sentence, when she came in.
a. out b. in c. off d. of
23. John's youngest son is going …..for medicine.
a. to b. off c. in d. over
24. Luckily the bomb that fell near our house never went………….
a. off b. out c. in d. down
25. You cannot expect someone who is always running ....her friends to be popular.
a. with b. out c. up d. down
26. They asked him to set………his ideas before he left.
a. up b. down c. out d. in
27. Ghanashyam takes…………….his father in appearance.
a. down b. after c. with d. before
28. People often do not rebel…………..their chosen leader.
a. with b. to c. against d. for
29. She accused her servant………….stealing.
a. for b. of c. in d. with
30. Sambhu is always intruding……………the privacy.
a. on b. in c. for d. with
31. It is very unkind to joke……………..the expense of the disabled.
a. in b. on c. at d. upon
32. Children, turn…………….page 22 and start reading.
a. on b to c. in d. at
33. He is quite blind………..his faults
a. at b. to c. on d. with
34. This is…………….far the most difficult of the exercises.
a. quite b. by c. with d. since
35. He sold the picture to an American dealer…………$100,000.00
a. with b. at c. in d. for
36. Linda is married………..three children.
a. of b. to c. with d. by
37. Shova is married ……………. a Belgian.
a. of b. to c. of d. by
38. The city center was crowded……………tourists
a. of b. with c. by d. for
39. That knob was put on the machine………..design so that you could switch it off in an
emergency.
a. in b. with c. for d. by

40 A Complete Solution For CMAT

40. We stayed at home because Cathy wasn't very keen………going out.
a. by b. with c. on d. in
41. Farahan was fed up…………..the politics of Afghanistan.
a. with b. of c. for d. in
42. It is stupid ……………..the man to take his head out of the bus' window.
a. about b. with c. in d. of
43. I feel sorry……………..George. He has a lot of problems.
a. in b. at c. for d. on
44. There has been an increase………the number of road accidents recently.
a. in b. at c. for d. on
45. What was the answer………….question 3 in the test?
a. fro b. for c. to d. from
46. When I opened the envelope, I was delighted to find a cheque……$1,000.
a. to b. about c. of d. for
47. His attitude…………his job is very negative.
a. in b. with c. for d. to
48. Did you get an invitation…………….the party?
a. for b. to c. in d. on
49. I am sorry I haven't written to you for so long. The reason………..this is that I have been
ill.
a. of b. to c. for d. on
50. Money is not the solution…………….every problem.
a. to b. of c. for d. from
51. Don't bathe immediately……………a meal.
a. afterward b. in c. after d. until
52. They reached the top of the mountain……………sunrise.
a. within b. since c. before d. until
53. She shouted at me to get out…………….his way.
a. in b. under c. of d. off
54. Who were you talking…………….?
a. to b. for c. in d. by
55. He is……………..me.
a. since b. over c. but d. of
56. They had a chat………….a cup of tea.
a. for b. over c. above d. of
57. He has friends all…………….the world.
a. below b. over c. above d. under
58. They climbed…………..the lorry.
a. of b. at c. over d. into
59. He doesn't take long…………….. lunch.
a. at b. over c. on d. in
60. He took ages……………the job.
a. onto b. over c. on d. above
61. People climbed……………..their roofs.
a. on b. onto c. into d. at
62. Nobody…………..Tom knew the way.
a. with b. but c. since d. on
63. Nothing……………the best is sold in our shops.
a. with b. since c. among d. but
64. He was happy to be…………….friends again.
a. besides b. beneath c. between d. among
65. He was absorbed…………….his book.
a. at b. onto c. in d. for
66. Drivers exceeding the speed limit are liable………….a fine.
a. off b. in c. for d. to

41 A Complete Solution For CMAT

67. For a week she lived………………bananas and milk.
a. in b. for c. with d. on
68. When arguments failed he resorted……………threats.
a. to b. for c. with d. on
69. The new CEO is in favor………………giving all the employees a day off.
a. on b. with c. of d. off
70. These days many people do not comply………………..regulations.
a. with b. to c. for d. from
71. You must be grateful………… your teacher.
a. to b. from c. of d. for
72. At the college, the professor lost his temper……….the students.
a. upon b. in c. on d. for
73. The prime Minister acted as a host…….the dinner party.
a. in b. on c. at d. to
74. Two ladies quarreled……….. a small matter.
a. upon b. for c. on d. over
75. The leader yielded……… the public demands.
a. to b. at c. on d. upon
76. My teacher warned me………… bad boys.
a. to b. against c. for d. of
77. I’ll come………ten tomorrow.
a. on b. at c. in d. with
78. I have been living here……..six months.
a. from b. since c. for d. between
79. The communist voted……….the Democratic Party.
a. for b. against c. by d. on
80. He caught the girl…………the arm.
a. at b. on c. by d. of
81. This piece is taken………Muna Madan.
a. from b. by c. through d. of
82. This ring is made……..gold.
a. by b. with c. of d. from
83. The man fell………..his cycle.
a. of b. from c. off d. by
84. Put it………..the drawer.
a. for b. into c. at d. of
85. My house is just…………the road.
a. behind b. after c. across d. between
86. The man had a knife …………his hands.
a. in b. on c. at d. to
87. I look forward………….. your kind response.
a. for b. to c. at d. on
88. He is ill………………fever.
a. of b. in c. with d. by
89. Would you kindly send me a catalogue……………your goods?
a. for b. of c. in d. from
90. I prefer coffee……….tea.
a. to b. since c. from d. for
91. He was accused……………….theft.
a. for b. of c. on d. at
92. He bought eggs……………dozens.
a. at b. for c. on d. by
93. She sat down…………..her desk.
a. on b. in c. at d. since
94. I do not know many people ………………here.

42 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. round b. about c. after d. in
95. Hari went…………..the book in one sitting.
a. through b. inside c. across d. after
96. The custom officer searched…………..the bags of the passenger.
a. in b. of c. on d. into
97. He is accurate……………….his calculation.
a. of b. to c. in d. at
98. Everybody should abide………………the rules of the University.
a. to b. for c. from d. by
99. Ram has informed the class teacher……………..her sickness.
a. in b. of c. for d. to
100. Villagers are generally ignorant………………….traffic rules.
a. to b. in c. of d. on
101. All of us are accountable ………………………… God.
a. for b. with c. to d. in
102. Ramesh is annoyed……………his sister.
a. at b. by c. with d. to
103. Ram is angry with Rama………..her remarks.
a. with b. at c. for d. from
104. Ram is annoyed with his friend…………………his laziness.
a. at b. by c. with d. for
105. They are answerable………………..their parents at their conducts.
a. to b. with c. for d. at
106. We appeal……………….the judge.
a. to b. with c. for d. at
107. She appeals………………her release from the prison.
a. to b. with c. from d. for
108. Shiela arrived at the bus station………………bus.
a. from b. at c. in d. by
109. Ishan attended……………his duties.
a. to b. for c. on d. at
110. Dr. Mohan is an authority…………….physical chemistry.
a. with b. for c. on d. at
111. The Chief District Officer has authority…………….the committee.
a. at b. to c. upon d. over
112. Rita is blind…………..one eye.
a. with b. at c. on d. of
113. Many parents are blind……………………the faults of their children.
a. on b. to c. for d. with
114. Deepak communicates……………………us on that issue.
a. in b. to c. with d. for
115. He communicated his opinion………………….me.
a. to b. for c. about d. with
116. B.P. Koirala is compared …………………….Gandhi.
a. to b. for c. with d. from
117. Life is compared………………..drama.
a. to b. for c. with d. from
118. You can compete………………….other members.
a. with b. at c. in d. to
119. They compete…………………prize and record.
a. with b. for c. to d. at
120. We should not entrust him……………..our money.
a. with b. at c. for d. to
121. I can not entrust my money…………………..him.
a. with b. at c. for d. to

43 A Complete Solution For CMAT

122. Ramesh differs…………………………..Ram.
a. with b. from c. in d. for
123. Kathmandu differs……………………..Pokhara.
a. from b. with c. in d. at
124. Ram died…………………Pneumonia.
a. of b. with c. by d. in
125. Gita died……………………..fatigue.
a. of b. from c. by d. in
126. Rita died…………………….a pistol.
a. with b. by c. form d. at
127. I am tired……………………walking for a longtime.
a. from b. with c. for d. of
128. He is tired……………………walking for whole the day continuously.
a. from b. with c. for d. by
129. You had a taste………………………..new work.
a. for b. with c. of d. at
130. I have no taste…………………….drawing.
a. for b. on c. to d. with
131. …… you leave now, you will be late.
a. until b. till c. unless d. although
132. When will you head …… you assignment?
a. in b. back c. down d. into
133. I am sorry …… the mistake.
a. from b. with c. for d. at
134. As you sow ….. shall you reap.
a. when b. as c. like d. so
135. He complemented her …… new dress.
a. for b. of c. on d. about
136. He thought that my car …… for sale.
a. is b. was c. has been d. will be
137. I would apologize if I …… you.
a. am b. was c. have been d. were
138. Regular exercise is conducive …… health.
a. in b. to c. for d. of
139. He was assured by his friends …… every type of help in an emergency.
a. about b. by c. of d. with
140. All in not well …… the automobile sector.
a. of b. down c. in d. to
141. He slipped …… his old ways and started drinking again.
a. into b. off c. by d. in
142. I could hardly recognize him …… I saw him.
a. after b. but c. and d. when
143. She tries to adjust …… her relations.
a. for b. at c. so d. with
144. Shila gained an advantage …… me.
a. upon b. from c. on d. over
145. Take this medicine regularly and you will get rid …… this disease.
a. at b. from c. of d. over
146. Statistics …… always my worst subject.
a. are b. were c. is d. have
147. Is not learning superior …… wealth?
a. than b. from c. by d. to
148. Turn the lights …… before you go to bed.
a. on b. off c. out d. down
149. Throw a stone …… the fierce dog.

44 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. at b. upon c. on d. above
150. There was a queue of people in the rain, patiently waiting to get …… the coach.
a. at b. on b. onto d. in

3. Passage Completion (Cloze Test)

Cloze tests are common on all entrance exam. They usually require you to
choose the correct choice out of four possibilities.
A cloze test (also cloze deletion test) is an exercise, test, or assessment consisting
of a portion of text with certain words removed (cloze text), where the participant is
asked to replace the missing words. Cloze tests require the ability to understand
context and vocabulary in order to identify the correct words or type of words that
belong in the deleted passages of a text.
How To Tackle A Cloze Test
« Read the text through trying to understanding the general meaning.
« Look at each missing word gap and try to imagine what the correct word should be.
« Decide which part of speech (adjective, noun, gerund, etc.) needs to be used to fill each
gap.
« Read the text again, trying to fill a gap as you come to it by imagining what the correct
answer should be.
« Read the text another time, this time choose the correct answer from the five answers
given.
« If you are unsure of any given answer, try reading the sentence with each of the
possibilities.
« Try to eliminate the obvious false choices.
« Always think about the overall meaning of the text (i.e., whether the text is negative,
positive, etc.) to make sure that your answer choice fits the context.
« Trust your intuition. If you feel a word is right instinctively, it probably is correct.

Practice Test

Directions (Qs. 1-173): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which
has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against
each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out
the appropriate word in each case.
A. Allergic reactions are triggered by the contact, inhalation, or ..1..of a number of different
allergens. Some of the most ..2..allergens are made up of proteins found in plants, mold,
food, venom, animal skin, and medication. Symptoms of allergic reactions range from mild
irritation such as itching, wheezing, and coughing to life-threatening conditions ..3.. to the
respiratory and gastrointestinal organs. ..4.. allergic reactions are more likely to result from
food, drugs, and stinging insects. A person does not become allergic to a particular
substance..5.. after the first exposure. However, in some cases, even trace amounts of a

45 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 substance, such as peanuts or seafood in a mother's breast milk, can cause an allergic
reaction in a subsequent exposure.
1. a. ingestion b. injection c. indigestion d. inclusion
2. a common b. important c. basic d. fundamental
3. a. is related b. has related c. relate d. related
4. a. Ugly b. Relevant c. Relative d. Serious
5. a. since b. until c. ever d. over
B. Toxic substances ..6.. in higher concentrations as they move up the food chain. Because
orcas are the..7.. predator in the ocean and are at the top of several different food chains in
the environment, they tend to be more affected by pollutants than other sea creatures.
Examinations of stranded killer whales ..8.. some extremely high levels of lead, mercury,
and polychlorinated hydrocarbons. Abandoned marine toxic waste dumps and present
levels of industrial and human refuse pollution of the inland waters probably presents the
most serious threat tot the ..9.. existence of this orca population ..10.., the total remedy to
this huge problem would be broad societal changes on many fronts.
6. a. account b. accumulate c. affect d. absorb
7. a. fundamental b. top c. thick d. thin
8. a. shows b. have shown c. showed d. will show
9. a. continuity b. continuation c. continue d. continued
10. a. Fortunately b. Unfortunately c. Primarily d. Basically
C. Individuals, and groups of people ..11.. business as a partnership, have unlimited liability
for debts, unless they form a limited company. If the business does badly and cannot pay
its debts, any ..12.. can have it declared bankrupt. The unsuccessful business people may
have to sell nearly all their possessions ..13.. pay their debts. A limited company is a
legal ..14.. separate from its owners, and is only liable for the amount of capital that has
been invested in it. If a limited company goes bankrupt, it is wound up and its assets are
liquidated to pay the ..15.. .
11. a. doing b. does c. have done d. is doing
12. a. creditor b. committee c. debtor d. member
13. a in order to b. because c. since d. provided that
14. a. entity b. entitle c. existence d. estimate
15. a. debts b. bonds c. shares d. securities
D. After paralyzing the tarantula, the wasp cleans herself by ..16.. her body along the ground
and rubbing her feet, sucks a drop of blood oozing from the wound in the spider's abdomen,
then grabs a leg of the flabby, helpless animal in her jaws and drags it down to the bottom
of the grave. She stays there for many minutes, sometimes for ..17.. hours, and what she
does all that time in the dark we do not know. Eventually, she lays her egg and attaches it
to the side of the spider's abdomen with a sticky ..18..Then she emerges, fills the grave with
soil carried bit by bit in her jaws, and finally ..19.. the ground all around to hide any trace
of the grave from prowlers. Then she flies away, leaving her ..20.. safely started in life.
16. a. singing b. dragging c. creating d. nurturing
17. a. wee b. several c. little d. an
18. a. separation b. secretion c. sensation d. session
19. a. bristles b. tramples c. walks d. runs
20. a. military b. descendant c. forefather d. ancestor
E. Migration takes many forms and no single cause can explain why people choose to ..21..
their country and settle in another. People migrate as ..22.. workers, highly qualified
specialists, entrepreneurs, refugees or as family members of previous migrants. Whether
the ..23.. intention is temporary or permanent movement, many migrants become settlers.
Migration has been part of human history from the earliest times, but it has grown in volume
46 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 and significance, and may be one of the most important factors in ..24.. change. Migration
is ..25.. ever a simple individual action, in which a persona decides to move in search of a
better life, leaves the home country and quickly becomes assimilated in the new country.
21. a. transform b. transfer c. change d. leave
22. a. major b. merger c. main d. manual
23. a. start b. final c. end d. initial
24. a. local b. national c. continental d. global
25. a. absolutely b. since c. hard d. hardly
F. For many centuries, there was little need for time to be ..26.. measured. The ..27.. from day
to night, the movement of the moon and the changing of the seasons were enough to
measure large units of time, and for most people, the passing of the sun through the sky
was adequate to indicate sunrise, midday and sunset. Those who needed to order their daily
time more accurately, such as monks or scientists, used a ..28.. of measuring devices, such
as sand timers or candles, or if the sun was shining, the shadow of a sundial. All these
devices were ..29.. Until late into the 18th century, very few people could ..30.. watches
and clocks, which were themselves inaccurate.
26. a. actually b. specially c. finally d. accurately
27. a. transition b. transformation c. stagnation d. tranquilization
28. a. conclusion b. confederation c. compound d. combination
29. a. practicable b. unpredictable c. unreliable d. unbelievable
30. a. lift b. wear c. afford d. carry
G. Maintaining a positive relationship with buyers is an important goal for a seller, ..31.. of
whether the seller is marketing cereal, financial services, or an electric generating
plant. ..32.. buyer-seller interaction, the buyer develops expectations about the seller's
future behavior. To fulfill these expectations, the seller must deliver ..33.. promises made.
Over time, a healthy buyer-seller relationship results interdependencies ..34.. the two
parties. The buyer depends on the seller to ..35.. information, parts, and services; to be
available; and to provide satisfying products in the future.
31. a. because b. regardless c. despite d. although
32. a. Although b. Through c. With d. By
33. a. on b. in c. for d. by
34. a. among b. in c. between d. with
35. a. furnish b. tarnish c. varnish d. squeeze
H. I want a wife who is sensitive to my ..36.. needs, a wife who makes love passionately and
eagerly when I feel like it, a wife who makes sure that I am satisfied. And, of course, I want
a wife who will not demand sexual ..37.. when I am not in the mood for it. I want a wife
who assumes the complete ..38.. for birth control, because I do not want more children. I
want a wife who will remain sexually ..39.. to me so that I do not have to clutter up my
intellectual life with jealousies. And I want a wife who understands that my sexual needs
may entail more than strict adherence to ..40.. .
36. a. Amental b. sexual c. public d. national
37. a. distraction b. concentration c. attention d. psychology
38. a. duty b. rights c. accountability d. responsibility
39. a. faithful b. unfaithful c. promiscuous d. jealous
40. a. celibacy b. endogamy c. polygamy d. monogamy
I. It is not only the activities that a family might ..41.. in together that are diminished by the
powerful presence of television in the home. The relationships of the family members to
each other are also ..42.., in both obvious and subtle ways. The hours that the young child
spends in a one-way relationship with television people, an involvement that allows for no
communication or, ..43.. surely affect his relationships with real-life people. Studies show
47 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 the importance of eye-to-eye contact, for instance, in real-life relationships, and indicate
that the nature of a person's eye-contact patterns, whether he looks another squarely in the
eye or looks to the side or shifts his ..44.. from side to side, may play a significant role in
his success or failure in human relationships. But, no eye contact is possible in the child-
television relationship, although in certain children's programs people purport to speak
directly to the child and the camera ..45.. this illusion by focusing directly upon the person
being filmed.
41. a. engage b. marry c. fight d. sleep
42. a. diminished b. affected c. reduced d. produced
43. a. gossip b. eating c. interaction d. pulling legs
44. a. eye b. smell c. far-sight d. gaze
45. a. takes care b. fosters c. looks after d. brings up
J. The face of the water, in time, became a wonderful book—a book that was a ..46.. language
to the uneducated passenger but which told its mind to me without reserve, delivering its
most cherished secrets as clearly as if it uttered them with a voice. And it was not a book
to be read once and thrown ..47.., for it had a new story to tell every day. Throughout the
long twelve hundred miles there was never a page that was ..48 ..of interest, never one that
you could leave unread without loss, never one that you would want to skip, thinking you
could find higher enjoyment in some other thing. There never was so wonderful a book
written by man, never one whose interest was so ..49.., so unflagging, so sparklingly
renewed with every reperusal. The passenger who could not read it was charmed with a
peculiar sort of faint dimple on its surface but to the pilot that was an …50..passage.
46. a. alive b. dead c. half-dead d. half-alive
47. a. beside b. aside c. out d. in
48. a. extreme b. void c. slight d. complete
49. a. uninteresting b. absorbing c. funny d. shrilling
50. a. bold b. italicized c. white-faced d wall-to-wall
K. As a rule of thumb, a manned mission costs from fifty to a hundred times more than a
comparable unmanned mission. Thus, for scientific exploration alone, ..51.. missions,
employing machine intelligence, are ..52.. However, there may well be ..53.. other than
scientific for exploring ..54.. social, economic, political, cultural or ..55.. .
51. a. manned b. unmanned c. space d. lunar
52. a. liked b. wanted c. used d. preferred
53. a. reasons b. causes c. clues d. objects
54. a. moon b. sun c. space d. mission
55. a. casual b. historic c. historical d. histrionic
L. The principal advantage in having a clear cut objective of business is that it does not
derail; the enterprise does not stray ..56.. the direct route that it has set for ..57.. Enterprises
with well-defined objectives can conveniently undertake ..58.. and follow long-range
development policies. Recognition of objectives ..59.. the temptation to compromise long
range ..60.. for short term gains and improves coordination in work and consistency in
policy.
56. a. from b. on c. along d. towards
57. a. others b. industry c. itself d. government
58. a. production b. research c. audit d. appraisal
59. a. invites b. defers c. shifts d. removes
60. a. objectives b. loses c. interests d. profits
M. His talk used to be full of wit and humours. He liked reading. He was a ..61.. reader and
would pore over books ..62.. a wide range of interest as ..63.. he got them. He had ..64.. a
standing order to two bookshops ...65.. city.
48 A Complete Solution For CMAT
61. a. voracious b. fervent c. anxious d. enthusiastic
62. a. covering b. barring c. including d. containing
63. a. firmly b. quickly c. soon d. urgently
64. a. offered b. proclaimed c. intimated d. given
65. a. at b. in c. within d. inside
N. Each species has its special place or habitat. An ..66.. bird-watcher can look at ..67..
forest, meadow, lake, swamp or field and ..68.. almost exactly what birds he ...(69)... find
there ..70.. birds are found all over the world; others ..71.. themselves to certain areas.
Still ..72.. migrate from one country to another in ..73.. in search of warmth and ...74.. and
then return in spring, ..75.. the season is more favourable.
66. a. expert b. experienced c. advanced d. active
67. a. the b. some c. a d. certain
68. a. predict b. suggest c. prophecy d. calculate
69. a. should b. must c. might d. will
70. a. more b. some c. most d. all
71. a. keep b. entrust c. confine d. involve
72. a. some b. others c. few d. all
73. a. winter b. summer c. spring d. autumn
74. a. seeds b. crops c. fruit d. food
75. a. while b. until c. after d. when
O. Man in his ..76.. of nature and universe has made the world..77.., polluted. The air we
breathe is polluted, the water we drink is ..78.. There is ..79..felling of trees, clearing of
jungles, ..80.. natural barriers like the mountains and drying up the oceans by way of ..81...
This ..82.. of nature by man is a grave mistake for which mankind has to pay the price.
Rapid industrialisation means ..83.. the industrial effluents into the rivers and seas. The
river water has turned murky. Marine life has been ..84.. . The toxic chemicals have made
the air that we breathe polluted. Pesticides and insecticides sprayed on plants and the
chemicals and fertilizers used for ..85.. plant yield have poisoned our food. Hence what we
eat today has high toxic ..86.. . Nature’s plentifulness is a heritage not to be ..87.. with
impunity. It must be conserved for future generations or its ..88.. will extinguish all.
76. a. pursuit b. view c. conquest d. victim e. want
77. a. foul b. diluted c. poor d. precarious e. critical
78. a. disturbed b. pure c. counterproductive. d. stuffocated. e. contaminated
79. a. dubious b. wanton c. careful d. planned e. useless
80. a. attacking b. projecting c. cutting d. blasting e. sizing
81. a. reclamation b. inhabitation c. stabilization d. destruction e. damage
82. a. provocation b. adventure c. vandalism d. culminating e. diverting
83. a. relocating b. divulging c. menacing d. culminating e. diverting
84. a. evaporated b. endangered c. devalued d. eliminated e. forfeiting
85. a. managing b. developing c. maintaining d. doubling e. minimizing
86. a. damage b. variable c. content d. yield e. refuge
87. a. squandered b. preserved c. doubled d. engulfed e. coerced
88. a. equilibrium b. existence c. failure d. proportion e. bankruptcy
P. Studies ..89.. the impact of computer models to support policy-making processes in
organisations have ..90.. that client involvement in the model-building process is often
a ..91.. for effective model-building. One important reason is that the process of model-
building is frequently more important than the resulting model. Model-building itself is
largely a ..92.. process about the problem. Most ..93.. about the characteristics of an ill-
structured problem are gained during the ..94.. process of designing a computer model,
rather than after the model is finished. Another important reason is that most information
49 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 in an organisation ..95.. in the mental models of organisation members. To support policy-
making in an organisation, it is this knowledge which needs to be ..96.. and represented in
the model. An important topic in client- oriented or ..97.. model building thus becomes
the ..98.. of relevant knowledge contained in the mental models of participants.
89. a. evaluating b. focusing c. projecting d. advocating e. directing
90. a. devised b. exhibited c. convinced d. attributed e. indicated
91. a. support b. valuation c. prerequisite d. material d. blueprint
92. a. valuable b. durable c. tedious d. learning e. critical
93. a. thinking b. insights c. planning d. appreciation e. opinion
94. a. elongated b. concentrated c. iterative d. evolving e. consummate
95. a. reside b. follows c. settles d. lies e. committed
96. a. extended b. bisected c. subjected d. captured e. attributed
97. a. revolving b. interactive c. dogmatic d. accentuated e. formative
98. a. demarcation b. formation c. proliferation d. association e. elicitation
Q. Once Gurudev Tagore asked Gandhiji: “Gandhiji, are you ..99.. unromantic? When in the
early ..100.. the morning sun rises does it not ..101.. your heart with joy to see its reddish
glow’? When the birds ..102.., does not your heart thrill with its ..103.. music’? When the
rose opens its petals and blooms in the garden, does its sight not bring ..104.. to your heart?”
The Mahatma replied, “Gurudev, I am not so dumb or ..105.. as not to be moved by the
beauty of the rose or the morning rays of the sun or the music of the birds. But what can I
do? My one ..106.., my one anxiety, my one ambition is: When shall I see the red tint of
the rose on the cheeks of ..107.. ..108.. millions of my people’? When shall I hear the sweet
and melodious song of the birds in place of their ..109.. sighs - when will such music ..110..
out of their soul? And when will that ..111.. come. when the light of the morning sun
will ..112.. the heart of the common man in India? When will I see its lustre and ..113.. on
his face?”
99. a. not b. genuinely c. seldom d. so e. fairly
100. a. season b. dawn c. monsoon d. climate e. days
101. a. involve b. impeach c. move d. fill e. penetrate
102. a. fly b. nestle c. flock d. cry d. sing
103. a. alarming b. fearful c. divine d. irritating e. loud
104. a. aroma b. cheer c. fragrance d. agony e. fear
105. a. insensitive b. lethargic c. ambitious d. idle e. romantic
106. a. slogan b. request c. interpretation c. desire e. demand
107. a. old b. rich c. happy d. noble e. hungry
108. a. naked b. fashioned c. poor d. fellow e. playful
109. a. encouraging b. flourishing c. prosperous d. agonizing e. cheerful
110. a. play b. bring c. come e. drop e. sing
111. a. light b. day c. authority d. person e. sun
112. a. scorch b. shine c. bright d. burn e. illumine
113. a. brightness b. shade c. dullness d. strength e. stairs
R. The social ..114.. of the Web lifestyle and work style are enormous. A lot of people ..115..
that computers and the Internet will depersonalize experience, creating a world that is less
warm. But these are unfounded as we know that some people were ..116.. afraid that the
telephone would reduce face-to-face contact and will ..117.. society to fall apart. But
the ..118.. actually came true. Just as the phone and e-mail have increased contact between
people living in different communities and between people on the go, the PC and the
Internet give us ..119.. way to communicate. They do not take any away. In reality, the
ability to use the Internet to redefine ..120.. in our communities is strengthening personal
and cultural ..121.. . The Web lifestyle is about broadening ..122.., not narrowing them.
50 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Community building is going to be one of the biggest growth areas on the Web. It
dramatically increases the number of communities you can bond to because of its ability
to ..123.. groups of like-minded people independent of geography or time zones.
114 a. groups b. needs c. factor d. teaching e. implications
115. a. accept b. dare c. fear d. propose e. reject
116. a. strongly b. initially c. always d. never e. possibly
117. a. let b. decay c. develop d. cause e. destroy
118. a. opposite b. found c. finding d. different e. negative
119. a. cheaper b. economical c. another d. second e. many
120. a. groups b. ethics c. culture d. bonds e. boundaries
121. a. distances b. connections c. differences d. implications e suggestion
122. a. horizons b. values c. nations d. means e. status
123. a. reduce b. focus c. prepare d. connect e. develop
S. The study of accountancy is ..124.. in demand in the view of ..125.. of greater complexity
in our business organisation. Formerly a ..126.. of day-to-day income and expenditure was
more than ..127.. . A business organisation today has to ..128.. a clear account of the ..129..
it uses, the amounts that are owing to it, the amount that it owes to others, the profit or loss
it has made and the ..130.. it employs. Without a scientific ..131.. of accounting no
businessman can be fully ..132.. of his real ..133.. position and run his organisation.
124. a. progressing b. getting c. powering d. moving e. growing
125. a. demand b. growth c. status d. position e. slackness
126. a. mixture b. map c. measure d. record e. transaction
127. a. sufficient b. anticipated c. expected d. required e. necessary
128. a. gather b. observe c. maintain d. organize e. assimilate
129. a. manpower b. infrastructure c. money d. resources e. capabilities
130. a. capital b. strength c. authority d. strategies e. principles
131. a. way b. plan c. system d. goal e. purpose
132. a. ignorant b. alert c. prepared d. vigilant e. aware
133. a. administrative b. financial c. capacity d. business e. hierarchical
T. The weaker sections of the rural population are mostly from the socially and economically
backward and ..134.. sections of the village community. Because of their ..135.. and
financial difficulty, they are not readily ..136.. to change their work habits and adopt
modern technology. ..137.. sure about the traditional methods, they are ..138.. to take
to ..139.. equipment and techniques which require some time to get accustomed for ..140..
work. After holding a number of group meetings with rural people ..141.. to different
vocations and spread over the entire country, we can safely say that persons in the villages
are not ..142.. for training to improve upon their traditional and hereditary 68 of working.
134. a. depressed b. different c. rich d. privileged e. forward
135. a. ability b. dependence c. illiteracy d. number e. majority
136. a. discarding b. feeling c. bending d. undertaking e. willing
137. a. making b. having c. quite d. being e. not
138. a. forced b. reluctant c. bound d. prepared e. curious
139. a. farming b. traditional c. improved d. powerful e. old
140. a. routine b. monotonous c. excessive d. wasteful e. effective
141. a. accruing b. helping c. enabling d. belonging e. referring
142. a. eager b. capable c. indifferent d. antagonistic e. unwilling
143. a. theories b. techniques c. desires d. hours e. policies
U. In the past, it was thought learning knowledge took place in school and for some also in
further education. Then, it was a matter of ..144.. practical skills at work at the beginning
of a career, and with a bit of luck, that ..145.. it. Now, things have changed. Global
51 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 competition is ..146.. the shelf life of products and the knowledge and skills that ..147..
behind them. The pace of change can be ..148.. . Knowledge that was at the leading edge
one minute can become ..149.. the next. Therefore, it is ..150.. rather than knowledge that
is the key. Successful organizations have to learn, adapt and change continuously as do
the ..151.. within them. This is ..152.. in the rapid growth of knowledge workers. It is ..153..
all levels of organizations.
144. a. fostering b. projecting c. acquiring d. manipulating e. culminating
145. a. for b. was c. from d. with e. may
146. a. replacing b. retailing c. rotating d. re-regulating e. reducing
147. a. lie b. profess c. exhibit d. manifest e. express
148. a. analytical b. absorbing c. interesting c. frightening e. valuable
149. a. critical b. absolute c. modern d. devastating e. lamentable
150. a. durability b. reactivity c. activity d. proactivity e. capacity
151. a. systems b. managements c. processes d. individuals e. units
152. a. echoed b. supported c. adjusted d. provided e. developed
153. a. directing b. providing c. affecting d. questioning e. projecting

4. Idiom and Phrases

Practice Test

1. Leave off
a. attack b. stop c. resemble d. eject
2. Make fun of
a. turn up b. take off c. set to d. take up
3. To be put out
a. embarrassed b worn out c. put off d. hold out
4. Catch up with
a. swear b. search c. reach d. endure
5. Put up with
a. wear b. clear c. tear d. tolerate
6. Have no more
a. run out of b. to be run down c. take over d. turn down
7. Interest oneself in
a. take up b. take for c. take in d. take down
8. To become useless
a. wear out b. wear in c. wear by d. wear with
9. Take up a hobby or career
a. go out for b. go out off c. go in for d. go in with
10. Become extinguished
52 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. go for b. go out c. come out d. come in
11. To get on with someone
a. be reliable b. be friendly c. be impartial d. be honest
12. Be at something
a. engaged in doing something b. not in bed
c. not at home d. capable of
13. To do away with
a. absorb b. go c. abolish d. decide
14. To do someone in
a. sell b. pull c. call d. kill
15. In time
a. at the same time b. once upon a time
c. after the passage of a certain period d. on a particular occasion
16. By all means
a. for the sake of meaning b. due to all the meanings
c. by all meanings d. as far as the speaker is concerned
17. Do away with something
a. throw something away b. give something to people
c. abolish d. kill
18. To settle an old score
a. to settle the old matters
b. to solve the previously unsolved math problem
c. to kill somebody
d. to hurt somebody who has harmed you in the past
19. In seventh heaven
a. in a very good condition b. extremely happy
c. at the age of seven d. in the seventh class
20. Put somebody in the shade
a. to be much better or more impressive than somebody/something
b. keep somebody in the shade so that he would not get burnt by the sun
c. treat some patient putting in the shade
d. encourage somebody to progress
21. Shake in your shoes
a. rock on b. dance wearing a very strong pair of shoes
c. to be very frightened d. shake legs in a dancing mood
22. Be grateful or thankful for small mercies
a. to be happy that a situation that is bad is not as bad as it could have been
b. to feel merciful at other people c. to thank people for their assistance
d. to assist people at their miseries
23. Smell a rat
a. to smell a rat in the soup
b. to suspect that something is wrong about a situation
c. smelling a rat before drinking chicken soup
d. to accuse people that they have done something extremely inexcusable
24. Chuck somebody under the chin
a. to get drenched in a rain
b. to touch somebody gently under the chin in a friendly way
c. to cut a man's throat under the chin
d. to hit somebody under the chin
25. Be taken aback
a. to be roved form one's high post b. to cheat somebody heavily
c. to admit somebody again into the hospital after discharging
d. to be shocked or surprised by somebody / something
26. Abide by something
a. to be bound by ropes. b. to accept and act according to a law, an agreement, etc

53 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 c. to take a bite of some food d. to follow a right path
27. Keep abreast of something
a. to make sure that you know all the most recent facts about a subject
b. to kick somebody on the breast with something
c. to keep one's breast at something
d. to kill a dove
28. On account of something
a. on one's bank account b. because of something
c. put some money in one's bank account d. in the accountant's version
29. Run a foul of something
a. to carry foul things in a sack and throw away
b. to become disrespectful in the eyes of people
c. to run with foul smell
d. to do something that is not allowed by a law or rule
30. Aid and a bet
a. to a bet with the aid of somebody b. to aid somebody to put a bet
c. to help somebody to do something illegal or wrong
d. to assist somebody to do good
31. In the altogether
a. along with all the friends b. without any clothes on
c. in all the matters d. in an amazement
32. Run amok
a. to run along the road with a mocking face
b. to carry a heavy stick and beat people on the public places
c. to run towards the bank to get your deposit back during the recession
d. to suddenly become very angry or excited and start behaving violently
33. Error on the side of something
a. to escape from making serious errors b. to make a lot of errors
c. to show too much of a good quality
d. to ask again and again in the class when a student makes a lot of mistakes
34. Go in with somebody
a. to go with somebody to a tour b. to join somebody in starting a business
c. to go to somebody's house as a guest d. to go to jail with somebody
35. Be in somebody's good grace
a. to have somebody's approval and be liked by them
b. to pay some one to receive his grace
c. to offer gift to somebody to get your job done
d. to grace somebody with some little money as a god-father
36. Kick the shit out of somebody
a. to kill somebody violently b. to chase and kill somebody mercilessly
c. to attack somebody violently so that you injure them
d. to forgive somebody for his error with a kick only
37. Sour grapes
a. very much hard-working person who thinks that hard work is very much important
b. jealous and pretentious person who says that that something is not important
c. a person who loves eating sour grapes
d. a person who hates eating sour grapes
38. Let off steam
a. to get rid of one's anger b. to let the steam go out of a vessel
c. to feel extremely light d. to study about steam and its effects
39. To stretch yourself out
a. to hang on something to increase one's height
b. to sleep soundly c. to lie down to relax d. to cover up
40. Pick up the threads
a. to pick up the threads where they had been dropped

54 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 b. to begin the lesson from new chapter
c. to forget what was previously done
d. to return to an earlier situation after an interruption
41. Piss yourself
a. to laugh very hard b. to pee on one's own body as a child
c. to pee on the road d. to smile in a bold manner
42. Get the hut for somebody
a. to manage hot water for somebody to take a bath
b. to get sexually attracted towards somebody
c. to buy hot meals for somebody
d. to refuse to drink cold-drinks
43. Hue and cry
a. cry so much making oneself red b. strong public support
c. strong color to paint a house d. practice to cry in the theatre
44. Make a hole in something
a. to make a hole in a pot b. to use up a lot of something that you have
c. to fill something in a pot d. to earn a lot of money
45. Jump down somebody's throat
a. to jump down from somebody's shoulder to the ground
b. to surrender without protesting any sort of injustice
c. to force somebody to carry someone due to injury
d. to react very angrily to somebody
46. Look through somebody
a. to look at somebody through the corner of eyes
b. to look into girl friend's eyes
c. to ignore somebody by pretending
d. to love somebody unconsciously
47. Meet your maker
a. to forgive b. to die c. to kill somebody d. to be happy
48. A piece of cake
a. a thing that is very easy to do b. a piece of cake to be eaten with bread in the breakfast
c. a small piece of a big cake d. a thing that is very thin
49. Be all the rage
a. to be extremely angry with all the people b. to be happy with all the people
c. to be very popular and fashionable d. to hug one's girl friend very tightly
50. First and foremost
a. first and second time b. more than anything else
c. give no priority at all to something d. to be always first in the queue
51. Answer back´
a. answer the asked question at the later time
b. answer the question at the back side of the page
c. defend yourself against criticism
d. ignore to answer somebody's question
52. Anything but
a. definitely not b. absolutely true
c. everything is possible d. nothing is possible
53. Put in an appearance
a. put the photo on the advertisement
b. tolerate somebody's unpleasant face
c. tolerate somebody's unwelcome visit at your home
d. go somewhere for a short while
54. Have been around
a. to have gained knowledge and experience of the world
b. to have visited very recently
c. to have gone around a temple round and round many times

55 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 d. to have found a suitable place to settle
55. Keep somebody at arm's length
a. to keep some unpleasant person at the distance of a foot
b. to avoid somebody having a close relationship
c. to keep the dearest one not too far
d. to avoid somebody from going far away from you
56. To arrive at something
a. to arrive at a place which is unfamiliar b. to prove something among people
c. to waste time by having in a silly way d. to decide on something after a discussion
57. To attend to somebody/something
a. to deal with somebody/something b. to be harsh upon a gang of criminals
c. to take somebody at a custody for inquiry d. to attend to the shipment of drugs
58. Behind somebody's back
a. at the back of somebody's shoulder b. to reach behind the crime scene
c. eat at the expense of somebody else. d. without somebody's knowledge or permission
59. Through the back door
a. in an unfair or indirect way
b. get into the building from the door which is at the back side of the building
c. to deal with somebody sitting at the back door
d. quickly from in due to some serious problems
60. Mess up
a. to get involved with somebody / something
b. spoil something or do it badly
c. cause somebody to have serious emotional or mental problems
d. to touch or use something in a careless way
61. Miss the boat
a. to be unable to take advantage of something because one is too late
b. to take the opportunity to do something
c. to get too late to catch the boat
d. to catch the boat after walking a very difficult way
62. Make a mountain out of a molehill
a. to make an unimportant matter seem important
b. to make an important matter seem unimportant
c. to make a mountain using the soil of small hills
d. to worry about something unnecessarily
63. A hard nut
a. a very hard-skinned dry fruit b. an unbeatable criminal gang for the police
c. a person who is difficult to influence d. a very difficult exam
64. Out and about
a. traveling around a place b. refusing to out on the rain due to cold allergic
c. stay out of home whole the night. d. going on an outing for the sake of refreshment
65. In a pickle
a. get slipped into the plate of pickle due to carelessness
b. in a difficult or unpleasant situation
c. in a very much flying color
d. enjoy life fully
66. Pipe down
a. to carry water down the valley in a pipe
b. to request somebody to speak up
c. to propose somebody to initiate a huge business
d. to tell somebody to stop being noisy
67. Keep somebody posted
a. to regularly send somebody all the daily newspapers for a fee
b. to stop sending somebody newspapers because of the overdue
c. to keep somebody regularly updated with information

56 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 d. to keep sending somebody all over the world on business dealings
68. Put something back
a. postpone b. turn back c. run ahead d. leave everything behind
69. Push somebody around
a. to push somebody round a business sit
b. to give orders to somebody in a rude or unpleasant way
c. to push somebody with anger to knock him down
d. to dismiss somebody from his position
70. Shake somebody down
a. to thoroughly search a person
b. to threaten a person badly
c. to get away from somebody who is chasing
d. to surprise somebody with a great shock
71. Chicken hearted
a. brave Person b. sick person c. a person having no courage d. a skeptic person
72. Once in a blue moon
a. again and again b. every week c. once a month d. rare occasions
73. Far and wide
a. Very far b. Wide due to a great distance
c. Far and far with a great breadth d. everywhere
74. Snail’s pace
a. fast pace b. slow c. secret pace d. unplanned move
75. To be at sea
a. to enjoy b. to go for sight scene c. to get perplexed d. to quarrel with
76. Tooth and Nail
a. make every effort to win b. to fight like a hero
c. to fight cowardly d. to fight losing battle
77. A snake in the grass
a. a very precious snake b. a secret agent
c. unrecognizable enemy d. not a reliable person
78. In deep water
a. in real trouble b. to feel alone
c. to act like a coward d. to swim in a river
79. Break the ice
a. to crack the ice b. to start a conversation
c. to start quarrelling d. to end the hostility
80. Keep the ball rolling
a. keep the conversation on b. go on playing
c. keep on thinking d. keep things going

81. Blow on trumpet

a. boast b. show c. lie d. deceive
82. Within a stone’s throw
a. at s short distance b. very far- off
c. within a definite d. circumstance
83. Plough a lonely furrow
a. survive in isolation b. remain unaffected
c. do without the help of others d. remain non-aligned
84. Tall talks
a. flattering b. ideal talks c. boasting d. irrelevant talk
85. At the eleventh hour
a. with in time b. at comfortable time
c. at the last moment d. around mid- night
86. By hook or crook
a. to be strict b. to be of the same opinion

57 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 c. to be afraid d. by fair or foul means
87. A rolling stone
a. frequent changes in work b. hard working person
c. downhill trip d. difficult task
88. Hazy idea
a. confused idea b. wonderful idea
c. hazardous idea d. vulgar idea
89. By fits and starts
a. consistently b. irregularly c. in high spirits d. excitedly
90. In a jiffy
a. in a hurry b. by some vehicle c. at stone d. very soon
91. Lick one’s boots
a. Sycophants b. A boot-maker c. A heavy drinker d. A boot-polisher
92. A bumpy ride
a. A bumpy road b. A very difficult ride
c. A difficult ride d. A difficult time
93. Capital punishment
a. fine b. punishment by death
c. bail d. life imprisonment
94. In a nutshell
a. in a very clear way b. to blame c. effective d. cruelly
95. On the brink of
a. as part of payment b. relying on c. very near to d. on the purpose
96. Out and out
a. everywhere b. to get out c. auspicious day d. thoroughly
97. On the wane
a. in the inclining way b. in the declining way
c. in the constant way d. in the plain way
98. Over and above
a. purport b. all the details c. in addition to d. eventually
99. Be worth one’s while
a. profitable b. unprofitable c. quite satisfactory d. to eat to satisfy
100. Red letter day
a. one day b. An important day
c. unpleasant day d. pleasant day
101. Bag and baggage
a. With bag and purse b. With bag and sacks
c. With all one’s possessions d. With all the things in a bag
102. Keep body and soul together
a. To fight to exist b. To maintain life
c. To separate body from soul d. To die
103. Be hell-bent on something
a. Becoming very ill due the influence of the Satan
b. Investing in something very much profitable
c. Bending towards heaven to pray
d. To be determined to do something which people think is wrong
104. On an even keel
a. To avoid showing one’s emotions b. To retain one’s skills by practice
c. Calm and not likely to change suddenly d. To keep one’s energies ready for action
105. Every now and then
a. Sometimes b. Not at all c. Always d. Never
106. Come what may
a. Whatever happens b. Maybe anything
c. It may come tomorrow d. Whatever maybe
107. A bit of all right

58 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. Sexually attractive b. Only little good-looking
c. Little attractive d. Not so much ugly
108. The status quo
a. No change in situation b. Radical c. Highly Advanced state d. Bad status
109. State of the art
a. Most modern and of the best quality b. Great art of the state
c. There is no good art in the nation d. Things of the low quality
110. To juggle with
a. Deceive b. Juggle the ball
c. To go on judging d. Appreciate successful people
111. Juda’s kiss
a. Deep love b. Juda’s kiss to Eve c. False love d. Platonic love
112. Wandering Jew
a. A Jew who wanders b. A homeless money maker
c. A Jew earning a lot of money d. A Jew going from one place to another
113. Jitterbug
a. One addicted to singing b. One addicted to drugs
c. One addicted to sports d. One addicted to dancing
114. Through thick and thin
a. From rags to riches b. In spite of all obstacles
c. Neither too thick nor too thin soup d. Push something in a hole
115. Live in clover
a. Live only eating clover b. Live in a fear
c. Live luxuriously d. Live a peaceful life
116. A cock and bull story
a. A funny story b. A story about a cock and a bull
c. An unbelievable story d. A story about funny fights
117. Clish-clash
a. fight b. struggle c. war d. gossip
118. Not to know chalk from cheese
a. Having no knowledge cheese and chalk b. Difficult to sort out chalk from cheese
c. No knowledge about foods d. To know nothing about the matter
119. Vie with
a. Compare b. Crumble c. Compete d. Prepare
120. On the verge of
a. At the situation of b. On the point of c. In the middle of d. At the end of
121. Unfounded fears
a. No retreat, no surrender b. Fears without reason
c. Never found fears d. Boundless fears
122. Uncrowned king
a. King who refused to wear crown b. Popular hero
c. Popular politician d. King who died before being crowned
123. Not to turn a hair
a. Treat the hair with vitamins b. To be undisturbed
c. Not allowing to touch on the head d. Keep long hair
124. On the run
a. Moving from place to place as a fugitive b. Fighting in the election
c. Making a lot of runs in a cricket match d. Running in the track
125. Run out
a. To run short b. Finish running c. Run out of track d. To end the game
126. In pup
a. Pregnant b. Drunk c. Sleep d. Intoxicated
127. Pull down
a. Reduce in health b. Reduce the price
c. Pull something downwards d. Carry through successfully

59 A Complete Solution For CMAT

128. Prince of peace
a. Christ b. Buddha c. Mother Teresa d. Mahatma Gandhi
129. Primrose path
a. The life of bitterness b. The path full of primrose
c. The path of peace d. The life of pleasure
130. Pound foolish
a. To be busy in a desultory way
b. Neglecting the care of large sums in attending to little ones
c. Preaching for elections
d. A man who earns a large amount of money
131. Unless you make amends for the loss, nobody is prepared to excuse you.
a. improve b. pay debt c. confess d. compensate
132. Instead of keeping his promise of helping me with office work, he just left me high and
dry.
a. left me feeling like a fool b. left me in a state of anger
c. left me without a drop o water d. left me alone to do the work
133. Amit said to Rekha, “Don’t make a mountain out of molehill”.
a. attempt an impossible task b. start looking for molehills in mountain
c. create problems d. exaggerate a minor problem
134. His friend turned out to be snake in the grass.
a. cowardly and brutal b. low and mean
c. a hidden enemy d. an unreliable and deceitful person
135. The shopping mall is a beehive of activity.
a. a secure place b. a sweet place c. a busy place d. a costly place
136. Nowdays it has become a fashion to take French leave.
a. saying goodbye in French style b. absenting oneself without permission
c. taking leave to go to France d. seeing permission from French Emabssay
137. International monetary affairs are governed by the gnomes of Zurich
a. foreign leaders b. big international bankers
c. guardians of treasure d. witchcraft of Zurich
138. He has made a dog’s breakfast of these accounts.
a. a total mess b. a break fast for dogs
c. an accurate summary d. a breakfast being served by the dogs
139. You will be reminded of the seamy side of life if you visit the slum tenements.
a. the softer aspects b. the impleasant aspects
c. the pleasanter aspects d. the gentler aspects
140. Who will believe, your cock and bull story?
a. absurd story b. common story c. ambiguous story d. authentic story

60 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 5. Reading Comprehension

Reading Comprehension is an activity your brain is constantly engaged in.

Whatever you do is reading Comprehension for brain. e.g. Reading newspaper,
watching billboards on roadside, watching TV, talking with a person, listening to
music etc. Reading a newspaper is obviously reading comprehension you would have
understood. We read the news printed on the paper, we understand what it means, we
analyse the news for ourselves, by which I mean, sometimes we agree or disagree
with the opinion expressed in the newspaper article. If it is a report we select the useful
portion of news and store it in our memory to be used later. We like or dislike the
subject chosen by the writer, sometimes we are made to think or question our beliefs
or mindset by some articles, this is data analysis, then we remember what seems
important or useful to us in the newspaper and forget much of the news in the paper
everyday.
The same procedure happens even when you are watching hoarding on the
roadside. The advertisements are the data for your brain. It is raw information that
your brain understands and processes. Remember how many times you say after
watching an Ad, “Oh, this is not real”, “Oh! Does it happen this way, I didn’t know
that”, “This is a good Ad”. All of the above reactions when studied closely are a
judgment, fact-collection, opinion formation.
Because what the brain does is at an ordinary simplistic level and we are unaware
of even that. But what is required of an aspiring student is a conscious, skilful,
determined effort to master the art of reading comprehension.
WHAT is the RIGHT way of READING ?
As I have mentioned before that we are constantly engaged in the process of
reading information from our surroundings. Only we do not do it skilfully in the right
direction. This is what a student has to practice doing to read everything rightly.
HOW? Even an apparently simple process of reading involves many factors that affect
the output of reading. How intelligently can you mould these factors will, in turn,
improve the quality of reading. These factors are :
• Subject of data • Interest areas of the reader
• Concentration span of the reader • Reading speed
• Retaining capacity • Reading Aptitude
ü Subject of Data
It is proven by research that our brains or brains of different people do not respond to
different kinds of data in a similar manner or to a similar extent. Just like we all have
our area of expertise, I might know a lot about space science while your knowledge
of Automobile may be vast. On the other hand, my idea of latest cars, engines and
their power may be meagre and you may find yourself fumbling if questioned about
planetary movements, composition of stars etc. This is a reflection of reading habits.
Ordinarily, we do selective reading, e.g; while reading a newspaper many students are
used to skipping the Business news and jumping straight to sports page while many
others simply refuse to look at the editorial page and drool all over the page 3 or
entertainment section. Whereas reading has many advantages, it is neither feasible nor
advisable for a student to read everything available on all topics under the sun. But it
is important, nevertheless, for you to have some basic knowledge about most subjects.
ü Interest of Reader
This factor is closely connected to the first factor. In fact, it is this factor that
chiefly decides the subjects we choose to read about. Just like all fingers in a hand are
not of the same size, our interest in every field cannot be of the same level. This is
61 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 why we choose certain fields and eliminate others. e.g. while walking on the road, if
there is a large poster of a bike newly launched in market, it is more likely that a
teenage or a young boy would stop by to read the details about the bike rather than a
girl who would probably stop by to read information on Jewellery or garments ranges.
This is just difference of interests. This is the difference that decides the store of one’s
knowledge. Ordinarily, it is alright for a person to seek information about one feels
drawn to the area of his/her interest. But a student should develop a habit of arousing
an interest in different kind of fields equally.
ü Concentration Span of Reader
Not only in reading but any task to be executed requires concentration. But reading
requires it more. So, most students from primary to senior level are heard complaining
about lack of concentration as the reason for their poor performance. It has become a
popular belief that concentration is naturally endowed on people and so some students
have great concentration while others remain restless and cannot concentrate properly.
Contrary to the popular belief, the truth is that even concentration can be achieved
through effort.
ü Reading Speed
From a competitive point of view, ‘Time is money,’ the faster you read, the more
time you will have for comprehension and analysis. If you have followed the first
three factors carefully then you will realise that your reading speed will improve
greatly itself. But you must keep in mind certain points while trying to read fast. Often
what students do is, in their attempt to read fast, they increase the speed of reading
words without trying to either understand or retain the information.
Remember: Reading Comprehension = Reading + Comprehension. You must read
at a fast speed but not at the cost of comprehension because in that case you’ll have
to read the passage again and, therefore, the time you saved by reading fast will be
consumed in re-reading.
ü Retaining Capacity
This is the most important part of Reading. If a student is able to read well, read
with concentration, read fast and if not able to retain useful information of the data
then all is lost. A good reader need not come back to the passage again and again to
look for answers. The first reading of this passage should, therefore, be done with
much care and attention so that the reader retains most of the matter.
ü Reading Aptitude
Reading Aptitude is different from reading skills. The points and factors discussed
up till now, constitute reading skill and are regarding the manner you read. Reading
Aptitude is what gives an upper edge to a student in the RC section or even otherwise
if developed properly.
« The Main Idea or Theme Based Questions
In this type of questions the passage will be followed by a question with certain
statements which may or may not be the central idea of the given passage, you have to
choose the statement that will best qualify as the central idea discussed in the passage.
The question can also ask for the most suitable title for the passage which will also
correspond to the central theme in the passage. Another form in which this type of
question can be asked is ‘which of the following statements is best supported by the
passage’. In this question, you may be given statements more than one of which can
be inferred from the passage but only one statement will be best supported by the
passage, which will be the central theme of the passage
How To Answer Questions About Author’s Views

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 To answer questions about Author’s opinions, one should follow the inference
technique.
By inference one means understanding the passage and deriving a logical
conclusion from it. The questions can be about opinions of author mentioned directly
in the passage or views that are indirectly expressed in the passage.
For the views directly mentioned in the passage the reader should locate the
relevant part of the passage and choose the right answer.
Choosing The Correct Or Wrong Statement On The Basis Of The Given Passage
This type of question requires the students to derive conclusions and inferences from
the given passage. This type of question will have four statements and of the four
options you are asked to choose the correct or the incorrect statement in the context
of the passage.
« Supporting Idea Question
These types of questions are aimed at measuring a student’s capacity to distinguish
the main idea from the supporting idea. Also, this type of a question will test your ability
to differentiate ideas. That is implicitly stated in a passage from the ideas that are
implied by the author.
These types of questions usually focus on a specific paragraph and their meaning
as a contribution to the whole passage.
The question may ask you about facts mentioned in the passage or ideas stated or
implied in the passage. It may even demand you to draw conclusion from a specific
passage.
« Inference Based Question
By inference, it is meant reaching a logical conclusion after analysis. In questions such
as these, the answer would not be available directly in the passage.
« Style And Tone Questions
These questions are about the language of the passage and mostly aimed at testing
your language skills. The different types of style and tone questions are-
A. Synonym and Antonym questions
In these you may be given a word from the passage and asked for a synonym or
antonym of the given world.
B. Meanings of words and phrases
In this type of question, you can be given a word or phrase from the passage and asked
to replace them with most suitable word.
C. Tone of the passage
This type of question asks about the tone of the passage, i.e. what is the style of writing
of the passage. The following can be some examples of different tones and style of
writing a passage.

Practice Test

Read the following PASSAGE carefully and answer the questions that follow:
A. Making war has been one of the most persistent of human activities in the 90 years since
men and women settled in cities and thereby became 'civilized', but the modernization of
the past 90 years has fundamentally changed the role and function of war. In pre-
modernized societies, successful warfare brought significant material rewards, the most
obvious of which were the stored wealth of the defeated. Equally important was human
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 labor—control over people as slaves or levies for the victor's army, and there was the
productive capacity— agricultural lands and mines. Successful warfare also produced
psychic benefits.
The removal or destruction of a threat brought a sense of security, and power gained
over others created pride and national self-esteem.
1. What has been one of the most persistent of human activities in the past 90 years?
a. developing software b. settling in the cities
c. working in the factories d. making war
2. What has fundamentally changed the role and function of war?
a. sophisticated society b. modernization of the past 90 years
c. development in the field of education d. human labor
3. What did the victor do in the pre-modernized societies with the vanquished?
a. he looted the property of the vanquished. b. he killed the vanquished.
c. he made friends of the vanquished. d. he played chess with the vanquished.
4. How did successful warfare bring psychic benefit to the victor?
a. The victory brought the victor property.
b. The victory brought them power.
c. The victory removed the threat and brought the sense of security to the victor.
d. The victory created misunderstanding about each other.
5. 'self-esteem' means
a. dignity b. anger c. happiness d. wrath
B. From the point of view of recycling, paper has two advantages over minerals and oil in
that first it comes from a resource which is sustainable and secondly it is less threatening
to our environment when we throw it away because it is biodegradable. Although
Australia's record in the re-use of waste paper is good, it is still necessary to use a
combination of recycled fiber and virgin fiber to make new paper. The paper industry has
contributed positively and people have also been encouraged by governments to collect
their waste on a regular basis. One major difficulty is the removal of ink from used paper
but advances are being made in this area. However, we need to learn to accept paper which
is generally of a lower quality than before and to sort our waste paper by removing
contaminants before discarding it for collection.
6. Two advantages of recycling paper over minerals and oil are that
a. paper is easily available and easy to recycle.
b. paper is cheaper and lighter to carry to the factory.
c. paper comes from the sustainable resource and is less threatening to our environment
d. paper is made up of recycled and virgin fiber.
7. Paper is less threatening to our environment than minerals and oils because
a. it is bio-diversible. b. it is bio-preservable.
c. bio-alterable. d. it is biodegradable.
8. What are the factors that encourage the people in Australia to collect waste on regular
basis?
a. contribution of paper industries and encouragement of the government
b. NGOs c. INGOs d. waste-collectors
9. What is one major difficulty in recycling the paper?
a. staple pins b. the ink
c. the cover page of books and copies d. the glues
10. 'contaminants' mean
a. virulent b. poisons c. chemicals d. contaminations
C. Traditionally uniforms were manufactured to protect the worker. When they were first
designed, all uniforms made symbolic sense. Specially, military uniforms were designed
originally to impress and even terrify the enemy. Other uniforms denoted a hierarchy too.
The last 50 years have seen an increasing emphasis on their role in projecting the image of
an organization and in uniting the workforce into a homogeneous unit—particularly in
'customer facing' industries, and especially in financial services and retailing. From
uniforms and work wear has emerged 'corporate clothing'. "The people you employ are

64 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 your ambassadors', says Peter Griffin, managing director of a major retailer in the UK."
What they say, how they look, and how they behave is terribly important'. From being a
simple means of identifying who is a member of staff, the uniform is emerging as a new
channel of marketing communication.
Truly effective marketing through visual cues such as uniforms is a subtle art. Wittingly
or unwittingly, how we look sends all sorts of powerful subliminal messages to other
people.
11. Traditionally, why were uniforms manufactured?
a. to charge some money to the workers. b. to recognize the workers of an institution
c. to make the workers obedient. d. to protect the workers.
12. Why were military uniforms originally designed?
a. to attack on the foreign lands. b. to salute the seniors.
c. to impress and terrify the enemy d. to make army personnel look handsome.
13. In the last 50 years, what contribution uniform has done to the image of an organization?
a. cost-effectiveness.
b. development of homogeneity in an office.
c. gain of appreciation of the public. d. self-satisfaction of the workers.
14. Why the people one employs are one's ambassadors?
a. they represent the total image of a company. b. they go on a visit to foreign lands.
c. they all do the marketing for the company. d. they work in the company happily.
15.. How is uniform emerging as a channel of marketing communication?
a. uniforms send a powerful message to the clients of an institution's image.
b. uniforms look impressive.
c. uniforms create a sense of recognition among the workers.
d. uniforms create a sense of belongingness.
D. In the long run a government will always encroach upon freedom to the extent to which
it has the power to do so; this is almost a natural law of politics, since, whatever the
intentions of the men who exercise political power, the sheer momentum of government
leads to a constant pressure upon the liberties of the citizen. But in many countries society
has responded by throwing up its own defenses in the shape of social economic power and
popular support, have been able to set limits to the scope of action of the executive. Such,
for example, in England was the origin of all our liberties—won from government by the
stand first of the feudal nobility, then of churches and political parties, and latterly of trade
unions, commercial organizations, and the societies for promoting various causes. Even in
European lands which were arbitrarily ruled, the powers of the monarchy, though absolute
in theory, were in their exercise checked in a similar fashion. Indeed, the fascist
dictatorships of today are the first truly tyrannical governments which western Europe has
known for centuries, and they have been rendered possible only because on coming to
power they destroyed all forms of social organization which were in any way rivals to the
state.
16. What is the natural law of politics?
a. to develop the nation as far as possible b. to exploit the people economically
c. to encroach upon freedom of the people as much as possible
d. parliamentary system of highest quality
17. How do societies respond to the oppressive regimes?
a. by organizing an armed force
b. by getting organized gaining economic power and popular support
c. by organizing Youth Force
d. by organizing Young Communist League
18. Which country was the origin of all liberties?
a. India b. America c. England d. Greece
19. Which were the first truly tyrannical governments?
a. the government of Beowulf b. the government of Napoleon Bobaoart
c. the government of George W. Bush d. the fascist dictatorships
20. Why were the fascist dictators successful?

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 a. they killed freedom fighters
b. they destroyed all forms of social organizations which were rival to them
c. they shut down all factories and department stores
d. they shut down universities and schools
E. The atmosphere is a mixture of several gases. There are about ten chemical elements
which remain permanently in gaseous form in the atmosphere under all natural conditions.
Of these permanent gases, oxygen makes up about 21 percent and nitrogen about 78
percent. Several other gases, such as argon, carbon dioxide, hydrogen, neon, krypton, and
xenon, comprise the remaining 1 percent of the volume of dry air. The amount of water
vapor and its variations in amount and distribution are of extraordinary importance in
weather changes. Atmospheric gases hold in suspension great quantities of dust, pollen,
smoke, and other impurities which are always present in considerable, but variable
amounts. The atmosphere has no definite upper limits but gradually thins until it becomes
imperceptible. Until recently it was assumed that the air above the first few miles gradually
grew thinner and colder at a constant rate. It was also assumed that upper air had little
influence on weather changes. Recent studies of the upper atmosphere, currently being
conducted by earth satellites and missile probing, have shown these assumptions to be
incorrect.
21. The atmosphere is composed of
a. stones and plants b. several permanent gases
c. oxygen and carbon dioxide d. hydrogen and krypton
22. What play the prominent roles in weather changes?
a. the rotation of the earth
b. global warming
c. distribution and variations in amount of water vapor
d. ultra violate rays
23. Atmospheric gases hold
a. pure gases in a vast amount b. great quantities of dust, pollen, smoke etc.
c. radiations and impurities d. electron, proton and neutron
24. What was assumed until recently?
a. the air got hotter as high as we went
b. the levels of atmospheric gases are being reduced
c. the sun rays are spoiling the earth
d. the air above the first few miles gradually grew thinner and colder at a constant rate
25. What proved the old assumption wrong?
a. missile attacks on the orbit of the earth b. the new assumption
c. neo-Newtonian Theory d. recent studies of the upper atmosphere
F. An essential part of economic freedom is freedom to choose how to use our income:
how much to spend on ourselves and on what items; how much to save and in what form;
how much to give away and to whom. Currently, more than 40% of our income is looted
away by the government in various disguises. As consumers, we are not even free to choose
how to spend that part of our income that is left after taxes. We are not free to buy an
automobile without seatbelts. Another essential part of economic freedom is freedom to
use the resources we possess in accordance with our own values—freedom to enter any
occupation, engage in any business enterprise, buy from or sell to anyone else, so long as
we do so on a strictly voluntary basis and do not resort to force in order to coerce others.
26. What ensures the economic freedom?
a. freedom of beating people b. freedom of choosing how to use our income
c. freedom of paying taxes d. freedom of buying fashionable clothes
27. How much of our income is looted by the government in various disguises?
a. 30% b. 35% c. 40% d. 45%
28. Why can't we buy an automobile without seatbelts?
a. the government is conscious about our safety
b. the govern wants many people to die early
c. the government wants to sell seatbelts and earn profit out of selling seatbelts

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 d. the seatbelts are made of fine fabric and cost less
29. The government also robs of us
a. from using our hard-earned resources the way we wish
b. the rights of voting the communist leaders
c. from going to cinema d. from buying Valentine gifts
30. The meaning of 'coerce' is
a. to kill b. to fight c. to beat d. to force
G. What life would be like without social relationships? What life would be like if we would
not discuss a few news with our family members at the end of the day? We gossip with
friends about the parties we attend, movies we watch, interactions we make with strangers
or with our girlfriends etc. We chat with colleagues at the coffee machine or college
ground. What life would be like if we don not have any close relationship involving mutual
support and caring. Imaging this kind of life is so difficult as to be almost impossible,
which neatly illustrates the importance of social relationships in our lives. From earliest
age, humans want to belong to their world and to feel a sense of connectedness with it. This
need for belonging can be observed as the motivation for infants in their earliest
interactions with others. From the moment of birth, babies seek to establish an enduring
social relationship with their main career, extending their circle of relationships outwards
as skills and circumstances allow. Later, as their social skills improve, children modify
their behavior to others in order to fit in with other people and gain a sense of belonging.
31. How do we maintain social relationship?
a. by talking about weather and heath. b. by maintaining phatic communion
c. by discussing news, gossiping about parties, movies, girlfriends etc.
d by going from one place to another
32. What is the key of social relationships?
a. food, clothes and schooling b. mutual support, caring and belongingness
c. world cup competitions d. rallies and bandhas
33. What do you mean by 'belongingness'?
a. the way of leading people b. the way of coercing people to support a party
c. a sense of keeping oneself aloof from sports, gathering etc.
d. a sense of connectedness to a milieu
34. What is the benefit of 'belongingness'?
a. it motivates the infants in their earlier interactions with others
b. it motivates the infants to break things at home
c. it encourages infants to out with parents
d. it supports infants to punch their parents on their nose and head
35. How does 'belongingness' help children later?
a. by making children confident to break things at public places
b. by encouraging children to go out with parents
c. by helping children modify their behaviors to others in order to fit in with other people
d. by supporting children to punch their parents' friends
H. A good sports psychology consultant can be of great value for a sportsman or woman.
But many people reluctantly come to the conclusion that a large number of these
consultants fail to reach the required standard though these people are regarded to be the
expert in working with athletes on psychological aspects of competition in sport. Many
professionals claim to be the key to improving a sportsman or woman's concentration, team
performance and virtually every other skill they require. These sports psychologists are
interviewed in local newspapers and heard on radio shows, and a surprising number of
professional teams use one. But, too many professionals in this line of work are not worth
the money they cost. Because of the incompetence of these people, the idea has gained
ground that working with a sports psychology consultant is a mistake. Yet, this should not
be the general view, as a skilled consultant can make a major contribution to success in
sport. Several reasons can be identified for poor performance by sports psychology
consultants. They have general tendency to overvalue qualifications. But, numerous
examples can be given of consultants who have the necessary skills without a certificate

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 from a sports psychology organization. Many are far more effective than some consultants
without a qualification.
36. Who are sports psychologists?
a. people who sit side by side with sportsman or woman
b. people who work with athletes on psychological aspects of competition in sport
c. people who keep on barking at sportsman or woman
d. people who manage the whole team in sports event
37. What identical view do many people have about a large number of sports psychologists?
a. they are paid low so they function poorly
b. they spoil the event as they keep scolding their clients
c. they are ignored by many clients and they are always angry
d. they fail to reach the required standard despite their false claim about their qualifications
38. What do many sports psychologists claim?
a. they are the most needed person to win a game
b. they are costly but an essential part of the sports business
c. they are the key to improving a sportsman or woman's concentration, team performance
etc.
d. they come on radio shows because they want to advertise them
39. What makes people regret about their decision of hiring a sports psychology consultant?
a. because of the overcharge of these people
b. because of the radio-shows of these people
c. because of the incompetence of these people
d. because of the shouting habits of these people
40. What is the major reason of the poor performance of these sports psychology
consultants?
a. overvaluation of qualifications (certificates). b. no knowledge of clinical skills
c. lack of managerial skills d. ignorance towards the team management
I. How can we best conserve resources? The answer can be 'reduce, reuse, and recycle'.
Reduce comes first for a good reason: it is better to not create waste than to have to figure
out what to do with it. And, recycling uses energy and other resources while creating
pollution and greenhouse gases. Rather we need to make products more durable, lighter,
more energy efficient, and easier to repair rather than to replace. Every society has to figure
out what to do with discards. We can design safest recycling facilities, landfills, and
incinerators. No one wants to spend money on just getting rid of garbage or to have a
garbage site in the backyard. The obvious solution is to stop generating so much garbage
in the first place. Doing so requires both the knowledge and self-discipline to conserve
energy and to do more with less stuff. Saving the environment is making the environment
safe for us, and for our children. Consumption is steadily growing day by day, which is
continuously creating more garbage. The split of families means the increase of
consumptions of furniture, home appliances, foods etc. A great number of populations
living longer, divorcing and splitting of families have been contributing to the mounting
trashes and garbage. Foolishly, people are spending more on trash-generating items, non-
durable goods like food and cosmetics. These are the things that are used and quickly
discarded along with their packaging. Thus, the method to tackle the garbage is to reduce
consumption and reuse packaging.
41. What can be the main message to conservation?
a. 'eat, drink and be merry' b. 'reduce, reuse, and recycle'
c. 'kidnap, ask for ransom and kill' d. 'produce, distribute and consume'
42. What sorts of goods should we produce to be eco-efficiency?
a. easily perishable and bio-degradable
b. non-reusable, pollution-generating and increasing the greenhouse effect
c. easy to consume and easy to throw on the street
d. more durable, lighter and more energy efficient
43. How can we best manage the discards?
a. by throwing on the dumpsters b. by throwing at the backyard

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 c. by designing safest recycling facilities, landfills, and incinerators
d. by throwing in front of others' houses
44. What can be the more permanent solution with discards?
a. generation of the lowest quantity of garbage and knowledge and self-discipline to
conserve energy
b. production of more canned foods and other various types of junk foods
c. absolute ban on eating and drinking at home
d. production of trash-friendly goods
45. How can we say that the 21st century people are foolish?
a. they hate the policies of reusing, repackaging
b. they spend on more on trash-generating products
c. they use less stuff than they can survive on
d. they don't like using furniture and home appliances at all
J. The phenomenon known as date rape has existed for a long time, but in recent years it
has become an important issue in many colleges. The rise of feminism has called attention
to the problem and has led to college programs to help both male and female students avoid
situations that could lead to date rape. Some colleges have even published behavior codes
in an attempt to sensitize students to this issue. Antioch College has instituted a widely
publicized code requiring students to ask a partner's permission at each stage of intimacy.
Some argue that many incidents characterized as date rape are not rape at all. What actually
occurs in these situations is a miscommunication that results in sex, which the woman may
not really want or may later regret but which cannot be fairly characterized as rape. Others
say drugs and alcohol frequently play a part in what are labeled date rapes. How can a
woman cry 'rape' when she has equally contributed to the situation? Activists say such an
argument is the continuation of the long-standing tradition of women's subjugation. The
vast majority of males argue that men give their affections only on willing recipients, and
the charge that large numbers of them are being falsely accused or rape by fickle or
vindictive women not only ignores the facts but itself trivializes the severity of the crime.
In one hand, the only way to eliminate date rape is for women to take responsibility for
their own actions. On the other hand, there should be no distinction between rape and date
rape because men should be expected to understand when 'no' means 'no.
46. What impact has the rise of feminism caused in the case of date rape?
a. it has suggested the girls not to go on date with boyfriends
b. it has issued press releases with the demand of capital punishment to the rapists
c. it has strictly advised girls to carry chilly powder to carry in their bag while going on
date
d it has pressurized the students to avoid situations that could lead to date rape
47. What have some colleges done to avoid date rape?
a. issued notices about carrying contraceptives on date b. issued ten commandments
c. issued behavior codes d. issued notice about not drinking soft drinks
48. What behavior code did Antioch College instituted?
a. female students should ask their male counterparts not keep beard
b. male students should not smoke cigarette enriched with marijuana
c. male students should only be holding hands in difficult situations only
d. students should ask for the partner's permission at each stage of intimacy
49. Why do some believe that there is nothing like 'date rape'?
a. sex is no more a taboo
b. there is an equal contribution of her in the sexual act during the date
c. the girls are the subjects to subjugation
d. the girls are foolish and vindictive
50. What do majority of men argues?
a. males should all turn to gay b. males should strictly maintain celibacy
c. males should understand that a date is not for rape
d. males give their affections only on willing recipients

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K. Kapil's was a many sided personality. He enjoyed reading and writing books as much as
he enjoyed fighting political and social evils or residing tyranny. In him, the scientist and
the humanist were held in perfect balance. While he kept looking at special problems from
a scientific standpoint. He never forgot that we should nourish the total man. As a scientist,
he refused to believe in a benevolent power interested in men's affairs. But, as a self-
proclaimed non-believer, he loved affirming his faith in life and the beauty of nature.
Children he adored. Unlike Wordsworth, he did not see him trailing clouds of glory from
the recent sojourn in heaven. He saw them as a blossom of promise and renewal, the only
hope for mankind.
51. Kapil thought that children
a. were tailing clouds of glory b. held promise for a better future
c. were like flowers to be loved and admired. d. held no hope for
52. Kapil enjoyed
a. reading and writing books b. fighting political and social evils
c. resisting tyranny d. doing all the above and much more
53. Which of the statements reflects Nehru’s point of view?
a. Humanism is more important than science
b. Science is supreme and humanism is subordinate to it
c. Science and Humanism are equally important
d. There is no ground between science and humanism
54. In this passage, 'a benevolent power interested in men's affairs' means
a. a supernatural power of god b. beauty of nature
c. the spirit of science d. the total man
55. A 'many-side personality' means
a. a complex personality b. a secretive person
c. a person having varied interests d. a capable person
L. Until the end of his first year at school, Sandip retained many of the pleasures and
pursuits he had brought with him from home, and he kept an old interest in butterflies and
fossils. His grandmother had presented him with a fine bird's eggs cabinet, but he could
never bring himself to risk in climbing trees. Once or twice he dissected dead birds from
sheer determination to overcome his horror of the operation. Probably it was his envy of
those physically unlike himself that brought on a phase during which he drew massive
athletes with thick necks and square shoulders. Again he pitied himself for what he could
never be.
56. The reason Why Sandip made drawings of athletes was that
a. though he admired them, he lacked a fine physique himself
b. he loved violent exercises
c . athletics was a passion with him
d. he had to complete an assignment
57. Sandip dissected dead birds to
a. see if he would like to become a b. please his grandmother
c. satisfy his curiosity d. he had to complete an assignment
58. Until the end of first year, Sandip retained his interest in
a. bird's eggs b. butterflies and fossils
c. dissecting bird's d. drawing pictures of athletes
59. Sandip did not want to climb trees because he
a. loved to play on the ground b. was scared of falling down
c. disliked trees d. thought it was childish
60. Sanip's early schooling was in some ways like home life because
a. he had all his old friends with him
b. the food and the climate were same as at home
c. he kept an doing what gave joy and recreation at home
d. his family visited him often
M. The assault on the purity of the environment is the price that we pay for many of the
benefits of modern technology. For the advantage of automotive transportation we pay a
70 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 price in smog-induced diseases; for the powerful effects of new insecticides, we pay a price
in dwindling wildlife and disturbances in the relation of living things and their
surroundings; for nuclear power, we risk the biological hazards of radiation. By increasing
agricultural production with fertilizers, we worsen water population.
The highly developed nations of the world are not only the immediate beneficiaries of
the good that technology can do, that are also the first victims of environmental diseases
that technology breeds. In the past, the environmental effects, which accompanied
technological progress, were restricted to a small and relatively short time. The new
hazards neither local nor brief. Modern air pollutions cover vast areas of continents:
Radioactive fallout from the nuclear explosion is worldwide. Radioactive pollutants now
on the earth surface will be found there for generations, and in case of Carbon-14, for
thousands of years.
61. The widespread use of insecticides has
a. reduced the number of wild animals
b. caused imbalance in the relationship between living beings and their environment
c. eliminated diseases by killing mosquitoes and flies
d. caused biological hazards
62. The passage emphasis that modern technology
a. is an unmixed blessing b. has caused serious hazards to life
c. has produced powerful chemicals d. has benefited highly developed nations
63. According to the passage the increasing use of fertilisers is responsible for
a. abundance of food b. disturbance in the ecological system
c. water pollution d. increase in disease
64. The harmful effects of modern technology are
a. widespread but short-lived b. widespread and long-lasting
c. limited and long-lasting d. severe but short-lived
65. Radioactive pollutants
a. are limited in their effect
b. will infect the atmosphere for thousands of years
c. will be on the surface of earth for a very long time
d. will dissipate in short span of time
N. There was a marked difference of quality between the personages who haunted near
bridge of brick and the personages who haunted the far one of stone. Those of lowest
character preferred the former, adjoining the town; they did not mind the glare of the public
eye. They had been of no account during their successes; and though they might feel
dispirited, they had no sense of shame in their ruin. Instead of sighing at their adversaries
they spat, and instead of saying the iron had entered into their souls they said they were
down in their luck. The miserable that would pause on the remoter bridge of a politer stamp
person who did not know how to get rid of the weary time. The eyes of his species were
mostly directed over the parapet upon the running water below. While one on the town
ward bridge did not mind who saw him so, and kept his back to parapet to survey the
passer-by, one on this never faced the road, never turned his head at coming foot-steps,
but, sensitive on his own condition, watched the current whenever a stranger approached,
as if some strange fish interested him, though every finned thing had been poached out of
the rivers years before.
66. In this passage the author is trying to
a. explain the difference between the construction of the two bridges
b. describe the way different sections of people like to dress
c. explain the variety of ways in which strangers can be treated
d. describe how people of different classes behaved when unhappy
67. People belonging to lower strata in their moments of distress
a. remembered the days of glory b. dressed shabbily to earn sympathy
c. visited the brick made bridge d. felt ashamed of their failures
68. The attitude of lowly and genteel towards strangers was
a. virtually the same b. entirely different

71 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 c. completely indifferent d. virulently hostile
69. The bridge of stone was frequented by
a. all the sections of society b. those fond of fishing
c. the sophisticated but luckless d. none of the above
70. The two bridges were known
a. for their similar design b. for being equidistant from town
c. for being haunted places d. for attracting dejected people to them
O. Nationalism, of course, is a curious phenomenon, which at a certain stage in a country's
history gives life, growth and unity but, at the same time, it has a tendency to limit one,
because one thinks of one's country as something different from the rest of world. One's
perceptive changes and one is continuously thinking of one's own struggles and virtues and
failing to the exclusion of other thoughts. The result is that the same nationalism, which is
the symbol of growth for a people, becomes a symbol of the cessation of that growth in
mind. Nationalism, when it becomes successful sometimes goes on spreading in an
aggressive way and becomes a danger internationally. Whatever line of thought you follow,
you arrive at the conclusion that some kind of balance must be found. Otherwise something
that was good can turn into evil. Culture, which is essentially good become not only static
but also aggressive and something that breeds conflict and hatred when looked at from a
wrong point of view. How are you find a balance, I don't know. Apart from the political
and economic problems of the age, perhaps, that is the greatest problem today because
behind it there is tremendous search for something, which it cannot found. We turn to
economic theories because they have an undoubted importance. It is folly to talk of culture
or even of god. When human beings starve and die. Before one can talk about anything
else one must provide the normal essentials of life to human beings. That is where
economies come in. Human beings today are not in mood to tolerate this suffering and
starvation and inequality when they see that the burden is not equally shared. Others profit
while they only bear the burden.
71. The greatest problem in the middle of the passage refers to the question
a. how to mitigate hardship to human beings
b. how to contain the dangers of aggressive nationalism.
c. how to share the economic burden equally
d. how to curb international hatred
72. Negative national feeling can make a nation
a. selfish b. self-centered
c. indifferent d. dangerous
73. Suitable title for this passage can be
a. Nationalism breeds unity b. Nationalism - a road to world unity
c. Nationalism is not enough d. Nationalism and national problems
74. 'Others' in the last sentence refers to
a. other people b. other nations
c. other communities d. other neighbours
75. Aggressive nationalism
a. breeds threat to international relations b. leads to stunted growth
c. endangers national unity d. isolates a country
P. Detective glories tend to glorify crime. Murderers, gangsters and crooks all kinds are
described as tough, cunning and courageous individuals who know how to take care of
them and how to get what they want. In James McCain's The Postman Always Rings twice,
for instance the villain is much more a impressive character than his victim. He is casual
brave smart and successful with women. It is true that he finally gets caught. But he is
punished for a crime that he did not commit, so that his conviction is hardly a triumph of
justice. Besides, looking back over the exciting life of the criminal, the reader might
conclude that it was worth the risk.
76. The passage mention James McCain
a. as an author of detective stories b. as brave, smart, and successful with women
c. as tough cunning and courageous d. as being more impressive than others

72 A Complete Solution For CMAT

77. Murderers, gangsters and crooks referred to in the passage given above
a. always manage to get away b. are often glorified in detective stories
c. are wiser than their victims d. know how to escape from law
78. According to this passage, a criminal in a detective story generally gets caught
a. for the crimes he has committed b. because of his careless mistakes
c. because the police is smarter than the criminals d. for the crimes he has not committed
79. According to the passage, the life of a criminal
a. is exciting b. is hardly worth the risk
c. is seldom presented in the right perspective. d. ends in a triumph of justice
80. According to be passage given above, detective stories
a. make interesting reading b. are hardly worth reading
c. encourage readers to content crimes
d. tend to create wrong notion about crimes and punishment
Q. There is modicum of truth in the assertion that "a working knowledge of ancient history
is necessary to the intelligent interpretation of current events". But the sage who uttered
these words of wisdom might well have added something on the benefits of studying,
particularly, the famous battles of history for the lessons they contain for those of us who
lead or aspire to leadership. Such a study will reveal certain qualities and attributes which
enabled the winners to win and certain deficiencies, which caused the losers to lose. And
the student will see that the same patterns recur consistently, again and again, throughout
the centuries.
81. A person who aspires to lead could learn from the history of battles
a. what led the previous leaders win a battle
b. what made them lose a battle
c. the qualities and deficiencies of commanders of these battles
d. the strategies that they have evolved in course of these battles
82. In this context, "intelligent interpretation of current event" means
a. rational explanation of events b. appropriate understanding of events
c. intellectual outlook on events d. skillful interpretation of event
83. The expression "more than a modicum of truth" means
a. some truth b. much truth
c. more than a small amount of truth d. nothing but truth
84. According to the writer, a study of famous battles of history would
a. be beneficial to wise men
b. provide food to modern leaders for reflection
c. be more useful than a general knowledge of ancient history
d. help us understand the art of modern warfare
85. A knowledge of history is necessary to interpret current problems because
a. they have roots in the past b. they can be contrasted with the past events
c. they may be repetitions of past events d. only then they can be put in a proper context
R. The casual horrors and real disasters are thrown at newspaper reader without
discrimination. In the contemporary arrangements for circulating the news, an important
element, evaluation is always weak and often wanting entirely. There is no point anywhere
along the line somewhere someone put his foot down for certain and says, "This is
important and that does not amount to row of beans; deserves no ones attention, and should
travel the wires no farther". The junk is dressed up to look as meaningful as the real news.
86. Evaluation of news would imply
a. less dependence on modern systems of communication
b. more careful analysis of each news story and its value
c. separating beans from junk
d. discriminating horrors from disasters
87. The writer of the above passage
a. seems to be happy with the contemporary arrangements for circulating news
b. is shocked by the casual stories about horrors and disasters reported in the newspapers
c. wants better evaluation of news before publication

73 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 d. wants to put his foot down on news stories
88. In the above passage, the phrase "amounts to a row of beans" means that the news
a. is weak and often wanting entirely b. deserves no one's attention
c. should travel the wires d. is junk dressed up as real news
89. Newspapers lack a sense of discrimination because
a. they do not separate the real news from mere sensationalism
b. they have to accept whatever is received on the wires
c. limited manpower makes serious evolution impossible
d. people don't see the difference between 'junk' and 'real' news
90. The passage implies that a. there has to be censorship on newspapers
b. there is no point in having censorship
c. newspapers always dress up junk to look meaningful
d. one has to be strict in selecting news items
S. The world dismisses curiosity by calling it idle or mere idle curiosity even though curious
persons are seldom idle. Parents do their best to extinguish curiosity in their children
because it makes life difficult to be faced everyday with a string of unanswerable questions
about what makes fire hot or why grass grows. Children whose curiosity survives parental
discipline are invited to join our university. With the university, they go on asking their
questions and trying to find the answers. In the eyes of a scholar, that is what a university
for. Some of the questions, which the scholars ask, seem to the world to be scarcely worth
asking, let alone answering. They asked questions too minute and specialised for you and
me to understand without years of explanation. If the world inquires of one of them why
he wants to know the answer to a particular question he may say especially if he is a
scientist, that the answer will in some obscure way make possible a new machine or
weapon or gadget. He talks that way because he knows that the world understands and
respects utility.
But to you who are now part of the university, he will say that he wants to know the answer
simply because he does not know it, the way the mountain climber wants to climb a
mountain, simply because it is there. Similarly a historian asked by an outsider why he
studies history may come out with the argument that he has learnt to respect to report on
such occasions, something about knowledge of the past making it possible to understand
the present and mold the future. But if you really want to know why a historian studies the
past, the answer is much simpler, something happened and he would like to know what.
All this does not mean that the answers which scholars to find to their enormous
consequences but these seldom form the reason for asking the question or pursuing the
answers. It is true that scholars can be put to work answering questions for sake of the
consequences as thousands are working now, for example, in search of a cure for cancer.
But this is not the primary scholar. For the consequences are usually subordinate to the
satisfaction of curiosity.
91. Children whose curiosity survives parental discipline means
a. children retaining their curiosity in spite of being discouraged by their parents
b. children pursuing their mental curiosity
c. children's curiosity subdued due to parents intervention
d. children being disciplined by their parents
92. According to their passage, the children make life difficult for their parents
a. by their ceaseless curiosity b. by unceasing bombardment of questions
c. by asking irrelevant questions d. by posing profound questions
93. The common people consider some of the questions that the scholars ask unimportant
a. as they are too lazy and idle b. as they are too lazy and idle
c. as it's beyond their comprehension d. as it is considered a waste of time
94. A historian really studies the past
a. to comprehend the present and to reconstruct the future
b. to explain the present and plan the future
c. to understand the present and make fortune
d. to understand the present and mold the future

74 A Complete Solution For CMAT

95. According to their passage, parents do their best to discourage curiosity in their children
a. because they have no time
b. because they have no patience to answer them
c. because they feel that their children ask stupid questions continuously
d. because they are unable to answer all the questions
T. He saw nothing, he had no knife or sharp instrument, the grating of the window was of iron
and he had too often assured himself of its solidity. His furniture consisted of a bed, a chair,
a table, a pail, and a jug. The bed had iron clamps, but they were screwed to the wall and
it would have required a screwdriver to take them off.
Dantes had but one resource, which was to break the jug and with one of the sharp
fragments attack the wall. He left the jug fall on the floor and it broke in pieces. He
concealed two or three of the sharpest fragments in his bed, leaving the rest on the floor.
The breaking of the jug was too natural an accident to excite suspicion, and next morning
galore went grumblingly to fetch another, without giving him the trouble to remove the
fragments. Dantes heard joyfully the key grate in the lock as guard departed.
96. Dantes was in
a. a hostel b. a dining room c. an army barracks d. a prison
97. Dantes heard the key grate in the lock when the
a. cell door was shut b. cell door was opened
c. storeroom was opened d. storeroom was shut
98. The guard left the fragments because he
a. didn't notice them b. wished to punish Dantes
c. was too lazy to bother d. wanted Dantes to clear up
99. Dantes probably broke the jug
a. in the morning b. during the night c. after breakfast d. at exactly 3pm
100. Dantes was planning to
a. carve his name b. make his escape c. tease the guard d. call for breakfast

Chapter – 2

Quantitative Ability

1. Number System

Natural Numbers: The set of counting numbers is called natural numbers. It is denoted
by N. For e.g.
N = {1, 2, 3, ......∞}
Even Numbers: The set of all natural numbers which are divisible by 2 are called
even numbers. It is denoted by E.
75 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 where, E = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, ...... ∞}
Odd Numbers: The set of all natural numbers which are not divisible by 2 are called
odd numbers. In other words, the natural numbers which are not even numbers, are
odd numbers. i.e.,
O = {1, 3, 5, 7, ........ ∞}
Whole Numbers: When zero is included in the set of natural numbers, then it forms
set of whole numbers. It is denoted by W. where,
W = {0, 1, 2, 3, ..... ∞}
Integers: When in the set of whole numbers, natural numbers with negative sign are
included, then it becomes set of integers. It is denoted by I or Z.
I : (– ∞, ............................... –4, –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, .......... ∞)
Integers can further be classified into negative or positive Integers. Negative Integers
are denoted by Z– and positive Integers are denoted by Z+.
Z– = {– ∞, ................... –3, – 2, –1} and Z+ = {1, 2, 3, ................ ∞}
Further 0 is neither negative nor positive integer.
Prime Numbers: The natural numbers which have no factors other than 1 and itself
are called prime numbers.
Note that, (i) In other words they can be divided only by themselves or 1 only.
As, 2, 3, 5, 7, 11 etc.
(ii) All prime numbers other than 2 are odd numbers but all odd numbers are
not prime numbers.
2 is the only one even Prime number.
Co-Prime Numbers: Two numbers which have no common factor except 1, are
called Co–Prime numbers. For e.g. 9 and 16, 4 and 17, 80 and 81 etc.
It is not necessary that two co–prime numbers are prime always. They may or may
not be prime numbers.
Divisible numbers/composite numbers : The whole numbers which are divisible
by numbers other than itself and 1 are called divisible numbers or we can say the
numbers which are not prime numbers are composite or divisible numbers. As, 4, 6,
9, 15, ........
Note: 1 is neither Prime number nor composite number. Composite numbers may be
even or odd.
!
Rational Numbers: The numbers which can be expressed in the form of " where p
and q are integers and coprime and q≠ 0 are called rational numbers. It is denoted by
Q. these may be positive, or negative.
# $ %
e.g. $ , % , − & etc are rational numbers.
Irrational Numbers: The numbers which are not rational numbers, are called
irrational numbers √2 = 1.414213562.........., π = 3.141592653 ...........
Real Numbers: The set of all rational numbers as well as irrational numbers are called
Real numbers. The square of all of them is positive.
Cyclic Numbers: Cyclic numbers are those numbers of n digits which when multiplied
by any other number upto n gives same digits in a different order. They are in the same
line. As 142857
2 × 142857 = 285714 : 3 × 142857 = 428571
4 × 142857 = 571428 : 5 × 142857 = 714285
Perfect Numbers: If the sum of all divisors of a number N (except N) is equal to the
number N itself then the number is called perfect number. Such as, 6, 28, 496. 8128
etc.
The factor of 6 are 1, 2 and 3
76 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Since, 6 : 1 + 2 + 3 = 6
28 : 1 + 2 + 4 + 7 + 14 = 28
496 : 1 + 2 + 4 + 8 + 16 + 31 + 62 + 124 + 248 = 496
8128:1+2+4+8+16+32+64+127+254+508 + 1016 + 2032 + 4064 = 8128. etc.
Note: In a perfect number, the sum of inverse of all of its factors including itself is 2
% % % % % % $)
always. e.g. Factors of 28 are 1,2,4,7,14 are = % + & + # + ' + %# + &( = &( = 2
Complex Numbers: Z = a + ib is called complex number, where a and b are real
numbers, b ≠ 0and + = √−1. Such as, √−2. √−3 etc.
So, a + ib or 4 + 5i are complex numbers.
Additive Identity: If a + 0 = a, then 0 (zero) is called additive identity.
Additive Inverse: If a + (–a) = 0, so ‘a’ and ‘–a’ are called additive inverse to each
other. As, 2 + (–2) = 0
Additive inverse of 2 is –2.
Multiplicative Identity: If a × 1 = a. then 1 is called multiplicative identity. e.g. 3 ×
1 = 3 etc.
Multiplicative Inverse: If a × b = 1. then we can say that a and b are multiplicative
inverse of each other. As
%
2×&=1
%
So, multiplicative inverse of 2 is &
Some Important Points on Numbers
(a) 2 is the only even prime number.
(b) Number 1 is neither divisible nor prime.
(c) Two consecutive odd prime numbers are called prime pair.
(d) All natural numbers are whole, rational, integer and real.
(e) All whole numbers are rational Integer and real.
(f) All whole numbers are rational and real.
(g) All whole numbers, rational and irrational numbers are real.
(h) Whole numbers and natural numbers can never be negative.
(i) Natural (including Prime, Composite, even or odd) numbers and whole numbers
are never negative.
(j) Fractions are rational.
(k) All prime numbers except 2 are odd.
(l) 0 is neither negative nor positive number.
(m) If a is any number then, if a divides zero, result will be zero. If 0 divides a, then
result will be infinite or not defined or undetermined i.e.
* +
= 0 but ∞ (infinite)
+ *
where a is real number.
*
(n) Dividing 0 by any number gives zero e.g. + = 0
(o) The place or position of a digit in a number is called its place value such as
Place value of 2 in 5283 is 200.
(p) The real value of any digit in a certain number is called its face value. As, face
value of 2 in 5283 is 2.
(q) The sum and the product of two rational numbers is always a rational number.
(r) The product or the sum of a rational number and irrational number is always an
irrational number.
(s) π is an irrational number.
(t) There can be infinite number of rational or irrational numbers between two rational
numbers or two irrational numbers.
77 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 (u) Decimal indication of an irrational number is infinite coming. as −√3, √2
(v) The square of an even number is even and the square of an odd number is odd.
Decimal
(w) The decimal representation of a rational number is either finite or infinite
, %%
recurring e.g. = # = 0.75 (finite), , = 3.666 … (infinite recurring) 3
(x) If decimal number 0, x and 0. xy are given, then they p can be expressed in the
! - .-
form of As, 0. 4 = and 0. 45 =
" %** %**
(y) If decimal recurring numbers 0. 4̅ 0 and 0. 45
777are given,then they can be expressed
! . .-
in the form of " As 0. 4̅ = / and 777
45 = //
(z) The recurring decimal numbers of type 0. 4̅ or 0. 458
777 may be converted to rational
! .-0. .-10.
form as " follows. 0. 457 = /* and 0. 458
777 = //*

Divisibility Test
Basic Formulae of Divisibility from 2 to 19:
« Divisibility by 2: If the last digit of a number is 0 or an even number then that number
is divisible by 2. Such as, 242, 540 etc.
« Divisibility by 3: If the sum of all digits of a number is divisible by 3, then that number
will be divisible by 3. Such as.
432: 4 + 3 + 2 = 9 which is divisible by 3.
So, 432 is divisible by 3.
« Divisibility by 4: If in any number last two digits are divisible by 4, then whole number
will be divisible by 4. Such as,
48424. In this number 24 is divisible by 4. So, 48424 will be divisible by 4.
« Divisibility by 5: If last digit of a number is 5 or 0, then that number is divisible by 5.
Such as 200, 225 etc.
« Divisibility by 6: If a number is divisible by both 2 and 3, then that number is divisible
by 6 also, such as 216, 25614 etc.
« Divisibility by 7: Here concept of osculator should be applied. The meaning of negative
osculator is – there increases or decreases 1 from the factor of 10 of the number.
As, 21 : 2 × 10 + 1 = 21
49 : 5 × 10 – 1 = 50 – 1 = 49
To check the divisibility of 7, we use osculator ‘2’, as, 112 : 11 – 2 × 2 = 7 which is
divisible by 7
Again,
343: 34 – 2 × 3 = 28 which is divisible by 7. Then 343 will be divisible by 7.
« Divisibility by 8: If in any number last three digits are divisible by 8, then whole number
is divisible by 8, such as,
247864 since 864 is divisible by 8.
So, 247864 is divisible by 8.
Similarly, 289000 is divisible by 8.
« Divisibility by 9: If the sum of all digits of a number is divisible by 9, then that whole
number will be divisible by 9.
As, 243243: 2 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 4 + 3 = 18 is divisible by 9.
So, 243243 is divisible by 9.
« Divisibility by 10: The number whose last digit is ‘0’, is divisible by 10, such as, 10,
20, 200, 300 etc.
« Divisibility by 11: If the difference between “Sum of digits at even place” and “Sum of
digits at odd place” is divisible by 11, then the whole number is divisible by 11 such
as,
78 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 9 1 7 4

+ +

5
16
∴ (9 + 7) – (4 + 1) = 16 – 5 = 11 is divisible by 11. So, 9174 will be divisible
by 11.
« Divisibility by 12: If a number is divisible by 3 and 4 both. Then the number is divisible
by 12. Such as, 19044 etc.
« Divisibility by 13: For 13 we use osculator 4, but our osculator is not negative here. It
is one-more osculator (4).
143 : 14 + 3 × 4 = 26
and 26 is divisible by 13, So, 143 is divisible by 13.
Similarly for 325 : 32 + 5 × 4 = 52
52 is divisible by 13
Hence, 325 will also be divisible by 13.
« Divisibility by 14: If a number is divisible by 2 and 7 both then that number is divisible
by 14 i.e. number is even and osculator 2 is applicable.
« Divisibility by 15: If a number is divisible by 3 and 5 both, then that number is divisible
by 15.
« Divisibility by 16: If last 4 digits of a number are divisible by 16, then whole number is
divisible by 16. Such as 341920.
« Divisibility by 17: For 17, there is a negative ‘osculator 5’. This process is same as the
process of 7. As.
1904 : 190 – 5 × 4 = 170.
∴ 170 is divisible by 17. So 1904 will be divisible by 17.
« Divisibility by 18: If a number is divisible by 2 and 9 both, then that number is divisible
by 18.
« Divisibility by 19: For 19, there is one–more (positive) osculator 2, which is same
processed as 13. As,
361 = 36 + 1 × 2 = 38
∴ 38 is divisible by 19. So 361 is also divisible by 19.
More Important Points:
« Out of a group of n consecutive integers one and only one number is divisible by n.
« The product of n consecutive numbers is always divisible by n! or = n.
« For any number n, (np–h) is always divisible by P
where P is a prime number, for e.g.,
if n = 2 and P = 5 then,
(25 – 2) = (32 – 2) = 30 which is divisible by 5.
« The square of an odd number when divided by 8 always leaves a remainder 1, as
If we divide 72 = 49 or 52 = 25 by 8 then remainder will be1.
« For any natural number n, n5 or n4k+1 is having same unit digit as n has, where k is a
whole number, such as,
35 = 243 has 3 at its unit place.
« Square of any natural number can be written in the form of 3n or 3n + 1 or 4n or (4n +
1).
e.g. square of 11 = 121 = 3 × 40 + 1 or 4 × 30 + 1

79 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 If N = ap bq cr ......... where a, b and c are prime numbers and p, q and
r are natural numbers, then
1. Number of factors of N is given by
F = (p + 1)(q + 1)(r + 1) .......
2. Number of ways to express the number as a product of two factors are
2 23%
&
F is even or &
if F is odd respectively.
3. Sum of all the factors of the number N.
4+!"# 0%5 48 $"# 0%5 49 %"# 0%5
:(<) = (+0%)
× (80%)
× (90%)
4. The number of ways in which a number N can be resolved into
coprime factors is 2k – 1, where k is the number of different Prime
factors of the number N.
5. The number of co–primes to number N is given by
% % %
>(?) = @ A1 − B A1 − B A1 − B
+ 8 9

Special Rules:
1.1 If the sum of digits of two digit number is ‘a’ and if the digits or the number are reversed,
such that number reduces by ‘b’, then
%%+38
Original Number = &
For example : (For number 82) a = 8 + 2 = 10 and b = 82 – 28 = 54 is given then
%%×%*3$# %)#
Original number = &
= & = 82
1.2 If the sum of digits of two digit number is ‘a’ and if the digits of the number are reveresed,
such that number increases by ‘b’, then,
%%+08
Original number =
&
e.g. (For number 47): a = 4 + 7 = 11 & b = 74 – 47 = 27 thus the
%%×%%0&'
original number = = 47
&
1.3 If the difference between a number and formed by number reversing digit is x, then the
.
difference between both the digits of the number is /
eg. (for 63) x = 63 – 36 = 27
&'
⇒ Required difference = / = 3
1.4 If the sum of a number and the number formed by reversing the digits is x, then the sum
.
of digits of the number is %%.
e.g. (For number 76) = x = 67 + 76 = 143 Required sum of numbers = 67 + 76 = 143
%#,
Required sum = %% = 13
Divided = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder
;<=<>?@>0A?B+<@>?C
Divisor =
DEFG<?@G
;<=<>?@>0A?B+<@>?C
Quotient =
;<=<HFC
Remainder = Dividend – (Divisor × Quotient)
Special Rule for Remainder Calculation:
+&
1.5 If +0% then remainder will always be 1, whether n is even or odd.
+ (()(& &+,-(%)
1.6 If (+3%)
, then remainder will be 1.

80 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 +(/00 &+,-(%)
1.7 (+3%)
, then remainder will be a.

1.8 If n is a single digit number, then in n3, n will be at unit place. It is valid for the number 0,
1, 4, 5, 6 or 9 As, digit at unit place in (43) is 4.
1.9 If n is a single digit number then in np, where p is any number (+ve), n will be at unit place.
It is valid for 5 and 6.

Practice Test

1. If a and b are two odd positive integers, by which of the following integers is (a4 – b4)
always divisible?
a. 3 b. 6 c. 8 d. 12
2. If m and n are positive integers and (m–n) is an even number, then (m2 – n2) will be
always divisible by
a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 12
3. If 5432*7 is divisible by 9, then the digit in place of * is:
a. 0 b. 1 c. 6 d. 9
4. The least number, which must be added to 6709 to make exactly divisible by 9, is
a. 5 b. 4 c. 7 d. 2
5. The total number of integers between 100 and 200, which are divisible by both 9 and 6 is
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 8
6. How many 3-digit numbers, in all, are divisible by 6?
a. 140 b. 150 c. 160 d. 170
7. In ‘n’ be any natural number then by which largest number (n3 – n) is always divisible?
a. 3 b. 6 c. 12 d. 18
3
8. If n is an integer, then (n – n) is always divisible by:
a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7
9. If the sum of the digits of any integer lying between 100 and 1000 is subtracted from the
number, the result always is
a. divisible by 6 b. divisible by 2 c. divisible by 9 d. divisible by 5
10. If a number is divisible by both 11 and 13, then it must be necessarily :
a. divisible by (11 + 13) b. divisible (13 – 11)
c. divisible by (11 × 13) d. 429
11. If * is a digit such that 5824* is divisible by 11. Then * equals:
a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 6
12. If 78*3945 is divisible by 11, where * is a digit, then * is equal to
a. 1 b. 0 c. 3 d. 5
13. If the number 48327*8 is divisible by 11, then the missing digit (*) is
a. 5 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1
14. Both the end digits of a 99-digit number N are 2. N is divisible by 11, then all the middle
digits are:
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
2 2
15. If n is a whole number greater than 1, then n (n – 1) is always divisible by:
a. 16 b. 12 c. 10 d. 8
16. A 4-digit number is formed by repeating a 2-digit number such as 2525. 3232, etc. Any
number of this form is always exactly divisible by:
a. 7 b. 11 c. 13. d. Smallest 3-digit prime number
81 A Complete Solution For CMAT
17. What least number, of 5 digits is divisible by 41?
a. 10045 b. 10004 d. 10041 d. 41000
32
18. It is given that (2 + 1) is exactly divisible by a certain number. which one of the
following is also definitely divisible by the same number?
a. 296 + 1 b. 7 × 233 c. 216 – 1 d. 216 + 1
19. The greatest whole number, by which the expression n + 6n + 11n2 + 6n + 24 is
4 3

divisible for every natural number n, is

a. 6 b. 24 c. 12 d. 48
20. How many numbers between 1000 and 5000 are exactly divisible by 225?
a. 16 b. 18 c. 19 d. 12
21. Find the largest number, which exactly divides every number of the form (n3 – n)(n – 2)
where n is a natural number greater than 2.
a. 6 b. 12 c. 24 d. 48
22. The greatest number less than 1500, which is divisible by both 16 and 18 is
a. 1440 b. 1404 c. 1368 d. 1368
23. The least number, which is to be added to the greatest number of 4 digits so that the sum
may be divisible by 345 is
a. 50 b. 6 c. 60 d. 5
24. 461 + 462 + 463 + 464 is divisible by
a. 3 b. 10 c. 11 d. 13
25. The difference of a number consisting of two digits from the number formed by
interchanging the digits is always divisible by
a. 10 b. 9 c. 11 d. 6
26. The number which can be written in the form of n(n + 1)(n + 2), where n is a natural
number is
a. 7 b. 3 c. 5 d. 6
27. A number when divided by 2736 leaves the remainder 75. If the same number is divided
by 24, then the remainder is
a. 12 b. 3 c. 0 d. 23
28. The maximum value of F in the following equation 5E9 + 2F8 + 3G7 = 1114 is where E,
F, G are each stands for any digit.
a. 8 b. 9 c. 7 d. 5
29. The sum of four numbers is 48. When 5 and 1 are added to the first two; and 3 and 7 are
subtracted from the 3rd and 4th, the numbers will be equal. The numbers are
a. 9, 7, 15 b. 4, 12, 20 c. 5, 11, 13 d. 6, 10 14, 18
30. The least number that should be added to 2055, be that the sum is exactly divisible by 27
is
a. 28 b. 24 c. 27 d. 31
31. What is the Arithmetic mean of the first ‘n’ natural numbers?
@(@3%) @3% @1 (@3%)
a. & b. & c. & d. 2(n + 1)
32. A number when divided by 361 gives a remainder 47. IF the same number is divided by
19, the remainder obtained is
a. 3 b. 8 c. 9 d. 1
33. The difference between the greatest and the least four-digit numbers that begin with 3 and
ends with 5 is
a. 999 b. 900 c. 990 d. 909
34. The sum of two numbers is 75 and their difference is 25. The product of the two numbers
is
a. 1350 b. 1250 c. 125 d. 1000
35. The difference between the greatest and least prime numbers which are less than 100 is
82 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 96 b. 97 c. 94 d. 95
36. Which one of the following is the minimum value of the sum of two integers whose
product is 24?
a. 25 b. 11 c. 8 d. 10
37. If the sum of the digits of a three-digit number is subtracted from that number, then it will
always be divisible by
a. 3 only b. 9 only c. Both 3 and 9 d. All of 3, 6 and 9
38. The greater of the two numbers whose product is 900 and sum exceeds their difference by
30 is
a. 60 b. 75 c. 90 d. 100
39. In a division sum, the divisor ‘d’ is 10 times the quotient ‘q’ and 5 times the remainder
‘r’. If r = 46, the dividend will be
a. 5042 b. 5328 c. 5336 d. 4276
40. A number when divided by 44, gives 432 as quotient and 0 as remainder. What will be
the remainder when dividing the same number by 31?
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
41. A number when divided by 729 gives a remainder of 56. What will we get as remainder if
the same number is divided by 27?
a. 4 b. 2 c. 0 d. 1
42. What is the smallest 6-digit number that is completely divisible by 108?
a. 100003 b. 100004 c. 10006 d. 100008
43. One-fourth of a tank hold 135 litres of water. What part of the tank is full if it contains
180 litres of water?
& & % %
a. b. c. d.
$ , , )
44. What is two-third of half of 369?
, ,
a. 123 b. 246 c. 246 ( d. 271 #
% %
45. of a number exceeds ' of the same number by 10. The number is:
$
a. 125 b. 150 c. 175 d. 200
,
46. A boy was asked to find the value of of a sum of money. Instead of multiplying the sum
(
, ,
by ( he divided it by ( and then his answer exceeded by Rs. 55. Find the correct answer?
a. Rs.9 b. Rs.24 c. Rs.64 d. Rs.1,320
, & %
47. In a class, $ of the students are girls and rest are boys. If / of the girls and # of the boys
are absent. What part of the total number of students are present?
&, &, %( %'
a. ,* b. ,) c. #/ d. &$
&
48. An 85m long rod is divided into two parts. If one part is , of the other part, then the
longer part (in metres) is:
&
a. 34 b. 56 , c. 85 d. 51
& #
49. The fraction between $ and / is:
, & # %
a. ' b. , c. $ d. &
&
50. of three-fourth of a number is:
,
% % ( %'
a. & of the number b. , of the number c. / of the number d. %& of the number
,
51. If 3 times a number exceed its $ by 60, then what is the number?
a. 25 b. 35 c. 45 d. 60
52. Half of 1 percent written as a decimal is
83 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 0.2 b. 0.02 c. 0.05 d. 0.005
, ,
53. A rational number between # and ( is
%& ' %) /
a. ' b. , c. / d. %)
54. The numerator of a fraction is 4 less than its denominator. If the numerator is decreased
by 2 and the denominator is increased by 1, then the denominator be- comes eight times
the numerator. Find the fraction.
, , # &
a. ( b. ' c. ( d. '
55. In a class, there are ‘z’ students. Out of them ‘x’ are boys. What part of the class is
composed of girls?
. 1 . .
a. b. c. 1 − d. − 1
1 . 1 1
%
56. Divide 50 into two parts so that the sum of their reciprocals is %&.
a. 35, 15 b. 20, 30 c. 24, 36 d. 28, 22
# %
57. A school group charters three identical buses and occupies $ of the seats. After # of the
passengers use only two of the buses. The fraction of the seats on the two buses that are
now occupied is
( ' ' /
a. / b. %* c. / d. %*
58. 0. 77777
123 is equal to:
%# #% %&, ##%
a. ,,, b. ,,, c. %*** d. ,,,
59. 0.393939….. is equal to
,/ %, /, ,/
a. %** b. ,, c. %** d. //*
%
60. is equal to
%%
a. 0.009 b. 0.09 7 7777
c. 0. 09 7777
d. 0.009
7777 is equal to
61. The decimal fraction 2.349
&,&) &,&) &,#' &,#'
a. /// b. //* c. ///
d. //*
% % % % % %
62. The value of &* + ,* + #& + $) + '& + /* is
% & , '
a. %* b. $ c. &* d. &*
63. The sum of three consecutive odd natural number sis 147. Then the middle number is:
a. 47 b. 48 c. 49 d. 51
64. The sum of first 20 odd natural numbers is equal to:
a. 210 b. 300 c. 400 d. 420
65. The sum of all natural numbers from 75 to 97 is:
a. 1598 b. 1798 c. 1958 d. 1978
66. The sum of all natural numbers between 100 and 200, which are multiples of 3 is:
a. 5000 b. 4950 c. 4980 d. 4900
67. The sum of the square of three consecutive natural numbers is 2030. Then, what is the
middle number?
a. 25 b. 26 c. 27 d. 28
68. The sum of three consecutive odd natural numbers is 87. The smallest of these numbers
is:
a. 29 b. 31 c. 23 d. 27
69. Sum of three consecutive even integers is 54. Find the least among them.
a. 18 b. 15 c. 14 d. 16
70. The sum of three consecutive numbers is 87. The middle number is
a. 27 b. 29 c. 30 d. 28
84 A Complete Solution For CMAT
71. What is the sum of two consecutive even numbers, the difference of whose square is 84?
a. 38 b. 34 c. 42 d. 46
72. The sum of all the natural numbers from 51 to 100 is
a. 5050 b. 4275 c. 4025 d. 3775
73. The sum of all the 2-digit number is:
a. 4995 b. 4950 c. 4945 d. 4905
74. The sum of first 50 odd natural numbers is
a. 1000 b. 1250 c. 5200 d. 2500
75. The sum of all the 3-digit numbers, each of which on division by 5 leaves remainder 3, is
a. 180 b. 1550 c. 6995 d. 99090
76. The sum of all the 3-digit numbers is
a. 98901 b. 494550 c. 8991 d. 899
77. Out of six consecutive natural numbers, if the sum of first three is 27, what is the sum of
the other three?
a. 36 b. 35 c. 25 d. 24
78. Which one of the following is a factor of the sum of first twenty- five natural numbers?
a. 26 b. 24 c. 13 d. 12
79. The sum of all even numbers between 21 and 51 is
a. 518 b. 540 c. 560 d. 596
80. The sum of four consecutive even numbers is 748. The smallest among them is
a. 188 b. 186 c. 184 d. 174
81. If the sum of five consecutive integers is S, then the largest of those integers in terms of S
is
I0%* I3# I3$ I3%*
a. $ b. # c. # d. $
82. The sum of all those prime numbers which are not greater than 17 is
a. 59 b. 58 c. 41 d. 42
83. The sum of the square of 3 consecutive positive numbers is 365. The sum of the numbers
is
a. 30 b. 33 c. 36 d. 45
84. The three consecutive numbers such that twice the first, three times the second and four
times the third together make 191 are
a. 19, 20, 21 b. 21, 22, 23 c. 20, 21, 22 d. 22, 23, 24
85. The sum of three consecutive odd natural numbers each divisible by 3 and 72. What is the
largest among them?
a. 21 b. 24 c. 24 d. 36
86. The sum of all positive multiples of 3 less than 50 is
a. 400 b. 404 c. 408 d. 412
87. What is the arithmetic mean of first 20 odd natural numbers?
a. 19 b. 17 c. 22 d. 20
88. Two positive whole numbers are such that the sum of the first number and twice the
second number is 8 and their difference is 2. The numbers are:
a. 7, 5 b. 6, 4 c. 4, 2 d. 3, 5
89. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers divisible by 3 is 45. The smallest number
is:
a. 18 b. 3 c. 12 d. 9
90. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 5, is 225. The largest
among them is
a. 85 b. 75 c. 70 d. 80
91. Sum of two numbers is 40 and their product is 375. What will be the sum of their
reciprocals?
85 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 ( % '$ '$
a. '$ b. #* c. ( d. #
92. The sum and product of two numbers are 12 and 35 respectively. What will be the sum of
their reciprocals?
% % %& ,$
a. b. c. d.
, $ ,$ %&
93. If the sum of two numbers is 3 and the sum of their squares is 12, then their product is
equal to:
, & , &
a. & b. , c. − & d. − ,
94. 800 chocolates were distributed among the students of a class. East student got twice as
many chocolates as the number of students in the class. The number of students in the
class was:
a. 25 b. 30 c. 35 d. 20
95. The numbers 2, 4, 6, 8 ...., 98, 100 are multiplied together. The number of zeros at the end
of the product must be :
a. 13 b. 12 c. 11 d. 10
96. How many digits in all are required to write numbers from 1 to 50?
a. 100 b. 92 c. 91 d. 50
97. If doubling a number and adding 20 to the result gives the same answer as multiplying the
number by 8 and taking away 4 from the product, the number is:
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6
98. A number of friends decided to go on a picnic and planned to spend 108 on eatables.
Three of them however did not turn up. As a consequence each one of the remaining had
to contribute 3 extra. The number of them who attended the picnic was:
a. 15 b. 12 c. 9 d. 6
99. The numbers 1, 3, 5,7 .., 99 and128 are multiplied together. The number of zeros at the
end of the product must be:
a. 19 b. 22 c. 7 d. Nil
100. The sum of the squares of two positive numbers is 100 and difference of their squares is
28. Find the sum of the numbers:
a. 12 b. 13 c. 14 d. 15
% % % % %
101. The simplified value of A1 − ,B A1 − #B A1 − $B … … A1 − //B A1 − %**B is
& % % %
a. // b. &$ c. $* d. %**
102. The product of two numbers is 120. The sum of their squares is 289. The difference of
these two numbers is
a. 9 b. 7 c. 8 d. 6
103. The sum and product of two numbers are 10 and 24 respectively. The sum of their
reciprocals is
% $ ' %&
a. & b. %& c. %& d. $
% & , # $ )
104. A99 ' + 99 ' + 99 ' + 99 ' + 99 ' + 99 'B is equal to
a. 603 b. 600 c. 598 d. 597
105. 380 mangoes are distributed among some boys and girls who are 85 in number. Each boy
gets four mangoes and each girl gets five. The number of boys is
a. 15 b. 38 c. 40 d. 45
106. The product of two positive numbers is 2500. If one number is four times the other, then
the sum of the two numbers is:
a. 25 b. 125 c. 225 d. 250

86 A Complete Solution For CMAT

107. In a two-digit number if it is known that its units digit exceeds its tens digit by 2 and that
the product of the given number and the sum of its digits is equal to 144, then the number
is
a. 46 b. 42 c. 26 d. 24
108. In a test, 1 mark is awarded for each correct answer and one mark is deducted for each
wrong answer. If a boy answers all 20 items of the test and gets 8 marks, the number of
questions answered correct by him was
a. 16 b. 14 d. 12 d. 8
109. A number of boys raised 400 for a famine relief fund, each boy giving as many 25 paisa
coins as there were boys. The number of boys was:
a. 40 b. 16 c. 20 d. 100
110. Thrice the square of a natural number decreased by four times the number is equal to 50
more than the number. The number is:
a. 4 b. 5 c. 10 d. 6
111. The difference between two positive numbers is 3. If the sum of their squares is 369, then
the sum of the numbers is :
a. 81 b. 33 c. 27 d. 25
112. A number consists of two digits such that the digit in the ten’s place is less by 2 than the
)
digit in the unit’s place. Three times the number added to times the number obtained by
'
reversing the digits equals 108. The sum of digits in the number is:
a. 8 b. 9 c. 6 d. 7
113. Of the three numbers, the second is twice the first and it is also thrice the third. If the
average of three numbers is 44, the difference of the first number and the third number is:
a. 24 b. 18 c. 12 d. 6
114. A two-digit number is five times the sum of its digits. If 9 is added to the number, the
digits interchange their positions. The sum of digits of the number is:
a. 11 b. 9 c. 7 d. 6
115. How many numbers less than 1000 are multiples of both 10 and 13?
a. 9 b. 8 c. 6 d. 7
116. The number 1, 2, 3, 4, ...., 1000 are multiplied together. The number of zeros at the end
(on the right) of the product must be:
a. 30 b. 200 c. 211 d. 249
117. If the difference of two numbers is 3 and the difference of their squares is 39, then the
larger number is
a. 8 b. 9 c. 12 d. 13
118. Five times of a positive integer is equal to 3 less than twice the square of that number.
The number is
a. 3 b. 13 c. 23 d. 33
119. The product of two numbers is 24 times the difference of these two numbers. If the sum
of these numbers is 14, the larger number is
a. 9 b. 8 c. 7 d. 10
%
120. The product of two numbers is $ of the other. The smaller number is
a. 0.2 b. 0.4 c. 0.02 d. 0.04

87 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 2. Simplification

2.1 An expression must be simplified by following defined order/sequence known as

VBODMAS, which is given by:
1st step, V – Vineculum (Line brackets)/Bar
B – Brackets
O – Of
D – Division
M – Multiplication
A – Addition
Last Step, S – Subtraction
There are four types of brackets given below.
i)– → Line/Bar
ii) ( ) → Simple or Small Bracket/Open Brackets
iii) { } → Curly Brackets/Braces
iv) [ ] → Square Brackets/Closed Brackets
These brackets must be solved in given order only.
% % % %
2.2 @(@3%)
+ (@3%)(@3&) + (@3&)(@3,) … (@3C0%)(@3C)
% % % % % %
=A − B + A@3% − @3&B + A@3& − @3,B
@ @3%
% % % %
+ … + A@3C0% − @3C B = A@ − @3CB
% % %
2.3 @(@3&)
+ (@3&)(@3# + (@3#)(@3))
% % % %
+ ⋯ + (@3&C0&)(@3&C ) = & A@ − @3&CB
+2 38 2
2.4 Formula → +10+83 81 = (H + I)
+2 08 2
2.5 Formula → +13 +83 81 = (H − I)
(+38)1 3 (+08 )1
2.6 Formula → (+1 38 1)
=2

2.7 Formula → a2 + 2ab + b2 = (a + b)2

+1 08 1 +1 08 1
2.8 Formula → +08
= H + I or, +38
=H−I

Square Roots and Cube Roots

Some important Points (On Square Roots):

88 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 If a number n is multiplied with itself, then product n2 is called the Square of n and
here n is called the Square root of n2.
If a number has x digits, then its square has (2x – 1) digits. Number is 12 square is
144.
∴ Number of digit in144 is 2 × 2 – 1 = 3
If we square any number, then 2, 3, 7 and 8 will never come at unit place of square.
The square root of a negative number is always imaginary.
Square of a two–digit number whose unit place digit is 5 can be obtained as.
(25)2 = 2 × 3 (Hundred) + 52 = 2 × 300 + 25 = 625
Or,
(35) = 3 × 4 (Hundred) + 52 = 3 × 400 + 25 = 1225
2

There are two methods of calculating square root.

i) Factor Method
ii) Division Method
i) Factor Method: Square root of 44100
∴ 44100 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 × 5 × 7 × 7
∴ √44100 = √2& × 3& × 5& × 7& = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 = 210
ii) Division Method: Square root of 455625

6 45 56 25 (675
6 36
127 0956
7 – 889
1345 6725
5 – 6725
0
= √455625 = 675
Special Rules:
# # #
i) (HI)1 = √HI = √H × √I = (H)1 × (I)1
# #
+ 1 (+) 1 √+ +
ii) A8B = # = = J8
(8)1 √8

If the unit digit of a number is 1, then unit digit of its square root is 1 or 9 such as
√81 = 9 or, √441 = 21
If the unit digit of any number is 4, then the unit digit of its square root is 2 or 8.
Such as, √64 = 8 or, √144 = 12
If the unit digit of any number is 5 or 00 (double zero).
As, √625 = 25, √100 = 10
Square roots of some numbers:
√0 = 0 √1 = 1
√2 = 1.414 √3 = 1.732
√4 = 2 √25 = 5
√9 = 3 √49 = 7
√16 = 4 √81 = 7
√36 = 6 √121 = 11
√64 = 8 √169 = 13
√100 = 10 √225 = 15

89 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 √144 = 12 √289 = 17
√ 196 = 14 √361 = 19
√256 = 16 √441 = 21
√324 = 18 √441 = 21
√400 = 20
Some Important Points (On Cube Roots):
If a number n is multiplied by itself 3 times then n3 is called the cube of n and here n
is called the cube root of n3.
Cube roots can be calculated only by factor method.
If in any number 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 or 9 are at unit place, then 0, 1, 8, 7, 4, 5,
6, 3,2 or 9 respectively will be the unit place of their cube root.
Note that if unit place of any number is 0, 1, 4, 5, 6 or 9 then unit place of the cube
or cube root of this number will be same as in original number.
To calculate cubic root of 3375
3375 = 3 × 3 × × 3 × 5 × × 5 × 5
2 2
∴ √3375 = √3, × 5, = 3 × 5 = 15
2 % %
If √4 = I then . 2 = I ⟹ LMN . 2 = LMN I
%
⟹ , LMN 4 = LMN I
%
∴ I = H@O+LMN A, LMN 4B
Some Cube Roots:
2 2
√1 = 1 √8 = 2
2 2
√27 = 3 √64 = 4
2 2
√125 = 5 √216 = 6
2 2
√343 = 7 √512 = 8
2 2
√729 = 9 √1000 = 10
2 2
√1331 = 11 √1728 = 12
2 2
√2197 = 13 √2744 = 14
2 2
√3376 = 15 √4096 = 16
2 2
√4913 = 17 √5832 = 18
2 2
√6859 = 19 √8000 = 2

Practice Test
& , % '
1. 9 − 1 / MP 3 %% ÷ 5 ' MP / is equal to
,& ,
a. 8 b. 9 c. 8 (% d. #
#
$ & %
#× MP 1 #
#5
2. The value of 3 #
% FL % ,
4 2 1
%
a. 1 & b. 0.05 c. 1 d. 2
/ % % $ 777777
% %
3. &*
− R$ + S# + A) − , + &BTU is equal to
/ /
a. 0 b. 1 c. &* d. %*

90 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 *.(,N÷'.$
4. PPPP PPPP
is equal to
&.,&%0*.*/(
a. 0.6 b. 0.1 c. 0.06 d. 0.05
(∗) (∗)
5. For what value of *, statement R &% × %(/U = 1 is correct?
a. 3969 b. 147 c. 63 d. 21
%%&*
6. If ! = 80, then p is equal to
√
a. 14 b. 140 c. 196 d. 225
# 6 7
, 0 FL & %
7. # #
6 7
2
8
# − A1 , MP 1 &B is equal to
#2 ÷ 7 0R#5 3 &%7S
% %
a. 9 b. 11 & c. 13 d. 15 &
8. Simplify:
% % % % 777777%
% % %
R3 # ÷ S1 # − & A2 & − # − )BTU ÷ A& MP 4 ,B
a.18 b. 36 c. 39 d. 78
9. The value of
*.%×*.%×*.%3*.&×*.&3*.,×*,×*.,0,×*.%×*.&×*.,
is
*.%×*.%3*.&×*.&3*.,×*.,0*.%×*.&0*.&*.,0*.,×*.%
a.0.006 b. 0.6 c. 0 d. 0.2
% % % % % %
10. ,* + #& + $) + '& + /* + %%* =?
& % $ )
a.√2 b. c. d.
&' / &' $$
, $
11. If W = # ÷ ), WW = 3 ÷ [(4 ÷ 5) ÷ 6], WWW = [3 ÷ (4 ÷ 5) ÷ 6], WZ = 3 ÷ 4 (5 ÷
6) then
a. I and II are equal b. I and IV are equal
c. I and III are equal d. All are equal
12. The value of 1 ÷ [1 + 1 ÷ {1 + 1 ÷ (1 + 1)}] is
$ %
a. 1 b. ( c. 2 d. &
13. The simplified value of
# # #
÷ × %
2 2 2
# # # − / is
÷ FL
2 2 2
% %
a. 0 b. 1 c. , d. /
2
& ' % % $ , ,
14. The simplified value of 6
7 ÷ ( × A, + #B + ' ÷ # MP ' is
%
8
$) #/ & &
a.'' b. (* c. , d. 3 /
7777 − 2. 705
15. The simplification of 3. 36 777 + 1. 33
7777 equals:
a.2.60 b. 2. 617777 c. 2.64 d. 2. 764
777
# 6 7
, 0 FL
6 7 8
16. The least fraction to be subtracted from the expression # # 2 # to make it an integer.
#2 ÷ 70 R#53&%7S
% $ % ,
a.& b. ) c. # d. %*
1 .
17. If √0.014 × 0.144 = 0.014 × 0.14 1[5. Find the value of -.
a.0.000196 b. 0.00196 c. 0.0196 d. 0.196
#.#% × *.%)
18. &.% ×%.) × *.&% is simplified to
a. 1 b. 0.1 c. 0.01 d. 10
19. (0.1 × 0.01 × 0.001 × 107) is equal to

91 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 % %
a. 100 b. c. d. 10
%* %**
,.&$ × ,.&*0,.&* × ,.*$
20. is equal to:
*.*)#
% %
a. 1 b. & c. %* d. 10
(*.%)1 0(*.*%)1
21. S *.***%
+ 1T is equal to
a. 1010 b. 110 c. 101 d. 100
22. (0.5 × 5 + 0.25 × 0.5 + 0.5 × 4 + 0.5 × 0.75) is equal to
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
($3$3$3$)÷$
23. ,3,3,3, ÷, is equal to
, # &
a. 1 b. %* c. / d. $
24. (0.9 × 0.9 × 0.9 + 0.1 × 0.1 × 0.1) is equal to
a. 0.73 b. 0.82 c. 0.91 d. 1.00
25. The value of (0.98) + (0.02) + 3 × 0.98 × 0.02 – 1 is:
3 3

a. 1.98 b. 1.09 c. 1 d. 0
26. The value of [11.981 + 7√1.2996 is closet to
a. 5.1 b. 4.9 c. 4.5 d. 4.1
27. The value of√32 − √128 + √50 correct to 3 places of decimal is:
a. 1.732 b. 1.141 c. 1.414 d. 1.441
28. The square root of
\7 + 3√5]\7 − 3√5] is:
a. 4 b. √5 b. 3√5 d. 2
29. The value of √400 + √0.0400 + √0.000004 is
a. 0.222 b. 20.22 c. 20.202 d. 2.022
%
30. If √3 = 1.7321, the value of √192 − & √48 − √75, correct to 3 places of decimal, is
a. 8.661 b. 4.331 c. 1.7321 d. –1.732
#(.#
31. J*.&(/ is equal to
' $ %) %
a. 129 %' b. 1 %' c. 12 %' d. 12 %'
32. The sum of the square of 3 consecutive positive numbers is 365. The sum of the numbers
is
a. 30 b. 33 c. 36 d. 45
33. If √4096 = 64, then the value o √40.96 + √0.4096 + √0.004096 + √0.4096 up to two
places of decimals is:
a. 7.09 b. 7.10 c. 7.11 d. 7.12
34. Given that √13 = 3.6 and √130 = 11.4, then the value of √1.3 + √1300 + √0.013 is
equal to
a. 36.164 b. 37.254 c. 36.254 d. 37.154

35. The simplified value of ^5 + _11 + J19 + [29 + √49 is

a. 3 b. 2 c. 4 d. 9
%
36. J110 # is equal to
a. 12.0 b. 11.5 c. 11.0 d. 10.5

92 A Complete Solution For CMAT

37. ^8 + _57 + J38 + [108 + √169 = ?

a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10
38. If (10.5) = 103.0225, then the value of √1.030225 + √10302.25 is
2

a. 1025.15 b. 103.515 c. 102.515 d. 102.0515

39. The number of digits in the square root of 625686734489 is
a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7
40. If the square root of 841 is 29, then 0.00000841 is equal to:
a. 0.029 b. 0.0029 c. 0.00029 d. 0.29
41. The sum of the perfect squares between 120 and 300 is
a. 1400 b. 1296 c. 1024 d. 1204
42. The least number that should be subtracted from the number 32146 to make it a perfect
square is:
a. 305 b. 105 c. 205 d. 405
43. If 5416 * 6 is a perfect square, the digit at ‘*’ is
a. 9 b. 4 c. 6 d. 5
44. A number of boys raised Rs.12,544 for a famine fund, each boy has given as many rupees
as there were boys. The number of boys was:
a. 102 b. 112 c. 122 d. 132
45. The sum of three positive numbers is 18 and their product is 162. If the sum of two numbers
is equal to the third number, then the sum of squares of the numbers is
a. 120 b. 126 c. 132 d. 138
46. Three numbers are such that their sum is 50, product is 3750 and the sum of their reciprocals
,&
is %$*. Find the sum of the square of the three numbers.
a. 2500 b. 1250 c. 950 d. 122
47. The greatest perfect square number of 6 digits is
a. 999001 b. 998001 c. 998009 d. 998101
48. If a perfect square, not divisible by 6, be divided by 6, the remainder will be
a. 1,3 or 5 b. 1,2 or 5 c. 1,3 or 4 d. 1, 2 or 4
49. Find the least number which must be subtracted from 18265 to make it a perfect square.
a. 30 b. 38 c. 40 d. 45
50. If the sum of squares of two real numbers is 41 and their sum is 9, then the sum of cubes
of these two number is
a. 169 b. 209 c. 189 d. 198
51. The product of two positive integers is 2048 and one of them is twice the other. The smaller
number is
a. 32 b. 64 c. 16 d. 1024
52. A number when divided by 6 leaves remainder 3. When the square of the same number is
divided by 6, the remainder is:
a. 0 b. 2 c. 1 d. 3
53. Each member of a club contributes as much rupees and as much paisa as the number of
members of the club. If the total contribution is Rs.2525, then the number of members of
the club is
a. 60 b. 45 c. 55 d. 50
54. The sum of squares of three positive integers is 323. If the sum of squares of two numbers
is twice the third, their product is
a. 255 b. 260 c. 265 d. 270

93 A Complete Solution For CMAT

55. The difference between two numbers is 9 and the difference be- tween their squares is 207.
The numbers are:
a. 17 and 8 b. 16 and 7 c. 15 and 6 d. 23 and 14
56. The least number that must be subtracted from 63520 to make the result a perfect square is
a. 30 b. 24 c. 14 d. 16
57. The least six digit number which is a perfect square is
a. 100489 b. 100000 c. 100256 d. 100225
58. The sum of two positive integers is 80 and the difference between them is 20. What is the
difference between squares of those numbers?
a. 1400 b. 1600 c. 1800 d. 2000
59. Twenty one times of a positive number is less than its square by 100. The value of the
positive number is
a. 25 b. 26 c. 42 d. 41
60. A General of an Army wants to create a formation of square from 36562 army men. After
arrangement, he found some army men remained unused. Then the number of such army
men remained unused was
a. 36 b. 65 c. 81 d. 97
61. The sum of the digits of the smallest number which, when multiplied by 1800, gives a
perfect cube, is:
a. 2 b. 3 c. 6 d. 8
62. Which smallest number must be added to 710 so that the sum is a perfect cube ?
a. 29 b. 19 c. 11 d. 21
63. The least number, by which 1944 must be multiplied so as to make the result a perfect cube,
is:
a. 2 b. 3 c. 6 d. 13
64. The smallest natural number, by which 3000 must be divided to make the quotient a perfect
cube, is:
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
65. The smallest positive integer n, for which 864n is a perfect cube, is:
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
66. By what least number should 675 be multiplied so as to obtain a perfect cube number?
a. 3 b. 5 c. 24 d. 40
67. The least number, that must be added to 1720 so as to obtain a perfect cube, is
a.7 b. 8 c. 11 d. 13
68. By what least number should 4320 be multiplied so as to obtain a number which is a perfect
cube ?
a. 40 b. 50 c. 60 d. 80
69. Which of the following is a perfect square as well as a cube? 343, 125, 81, or 64
a. 81 b. 125 c. 343 d. 64
70. The square of a natural number subtracted from its cube is 48. The number is :
a. 8 b. 6 c. 5 d. 4
71. The least possible value of A for which 90 × A is a perfect cube is
a. 200 b. 300 c. 500 d. 600
72. If the square root of x is the cube root of y, then the relation between x and y is
a. x3 = y2 b. x2 = y3 c. x = y d. x6 = y5
%
73. If 4 = √3 + √2 then the value of 4 , − . 2 is
a. 10√2 b. 14√2 c. 22√2 d. 8√2
3
74. The value of (1001) is
a. 100300300 b. 100303001 c. 100300301 d. 103003001

94 A Complete Solution For CMAT

75. What is the smallest number by which 625 must be divided so that the quotient is a perfect
cube?
a. 25 b. 5 c. 2 d. 3
76. The sum of the cubes of two numbers is 793. The sum of the numbers is 13. Then the
difference of the two numbers is
a.7 b. 6 c. 5 d. 8
77. The smallest number by which 243000 be divided so that the quotient is a perfect cube is
a. 3 b. 27 c. 9 d. 1
% , $ //'
78. When simplified, the product A2 − ,B A2 − $B A2 − 'B … A2 − ///B equals
$ $ %**% %**%
a. /// b. , c. ///
d. ,
2 2
79. If the cube root of 79507 is 43, then the value of √79.507 + √0.079507 +
2
√0.000079507 is:
a. 0.4773 b. 477.3 c. 47.73 d. 4.773
80. Find the cube root of (–13824)
a. 38 b. –38 c. 24 d. –24
81. The cube of 105 is
a. 1157625 b. 1175625 c. 1185625 d. 1158625
82. The least number which when divides 37044, gives the results a perfect cube, is:
a. 2 b. 4 c. 14 d. 21
83. The cube of 997 is:
a. 991026973 b. 991029673 c. 991029773 d. 991097273

3. Average

3.1 Average of two or more numbers/quantities is called the mean of these numbers, which is
given by
IEB FL F8H?C=+G<F@/"E+@G<G?H
`abcHNb (`) = UF.FL V8H?C=+G<F@/ "E+@G<G<?H
∴ S=A×n
OR
. 3 . 3⋯3 .&
Average of numbers = # 1@
∑& .9
Or Average = 9:# @
3.2 If the given observations (x) are occuring with certain frequency (A) then
Y . 3 Y .1 3⋯3 Y& .&
Average = # #. 3 .1 3⋯3 .
# 1 &
Where A1, A2, A3, ……….An are frequencies
3.3 The average of ‘n’ consecutive natural numbers starting from 1 i.e. The verage of
@3%
1,2,3, .....@ = &
3.4 The average of squares of ‘n’ consecutive natural numbers starting from 1 i.e.
(@3%)(&@3%)
Average of 12, 22, 32, 42 ..... x2 = )

95 A Complete Solution For CMAT

3.5 The average of cubes of first ‘n’ consecutive natural numbers i.e.
[@(@3%)]1
Average of 13, 23, 33 ..... n3 = #
3.6 The average of first ‘n’ consecutive even natural numbers i.e. Average of 2, 4, 6, ..... 2n =
(n + 1)
3.7 The average of first ‘n’ consecutive odd natural numbers i.e. 1, 3, 5, ..... (2n – 1) = n
+3@
3.8 The average of certain consecutive numbers a, b, c ……… n is &
st .(%3@)
3.9 The average of 1 ‘n’ multiples of certain numbers x = &
3.10 If the average of ‘n1’ numbers is a1 and the average of ‘n2’ numbers is a2, then average of
@ + 3 @ +
total numbers n1 and n2 is Average = #@#3 @1 1
# 1
3.11 If A goes from P to Q with speed x km/h and returns from Q to P with speed y km/h, then
the average speed of total journey is
&.- GFG+\ ><HG+9@?
`abcHNb :dbbe = .3- = GFG+\ G<B? G+]?@
3.12 If a distance is travelled with three different speeds a km/h, b km/h and c km/h, then
,+89
`abcHNb fdbbe MP OMHOL gMhc@b5 = +838939+ ij/ℎ
3.13 If the average of m numbers is x and out of these ‘m’ numbers the average of n numbers is
y. (or vice versa) then the average of remaining numbers will be
B. –@-
(i) Average of remaining numbers = If (m > n)
B–@
@-0B.
(ii) Average of remaining numbers = @0B (if n > m)
3.14 In three numbers, if 1st number is ‘a’ times
of 2nd number and ‘b’ times of 3rd number and the average of all three numbers is x, then
,+8
1st number = 4
+383+8
3.15 From three numbers, first number is ‘a’ times of 2nd number, 2nd number is ‘b’ times of
3rd number and the average of all three numbers is x, then,
,+8
First number = %383+8 4
,8
Second number = %383+8 4
,8
Third Number = %383+8 4
3.16 If from (n + 1) numbers, the average of first n numbers is ‘F’ and the average of last n
numbers is ‘L’, and the first number is ‘f’ and the last number is ‘l’ then f – l = n(F – L)
3.17 ‘t’ years before, the average age of N members of a family was ‘T’ years. If during this
period ‘n’ children increased in the family but average age (present) remains same, then,
Present age of n children = n.T – N.t
3.18 If in the group of N persons, a new person comes at the place of a person of ‘T’ years, so
that average age, increases by ‘t’ years
Then, the age of the new person = T + N.t
If the average age decreases by ‘t’ years after entry of new person, then the age of the new
person = T – N.t
3.19 The average age of a group of N students is ‘T’ years. If ‘n’ students join, the average age
U
of the group increases by ‘t’ years, then Average age of new students = m + A @ + 1B O
If the average age of the group decreases by ‘t’ years then,
U
Average age of new students = m − A @ + 1B O
3.20 If the average of ‘n’ observations is ‘x’ and from these the average of 1st ‘m’ observations
is ‘y’ and the average of last ‘m’ observations is ‘z’ then
96 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 mth observation = m(y + z) – nx
(m + 1)th observation = nx – m(y + z)
3.21 If the average age (height) of ‘n’ persons is x year (cms) and from them ‘m’ persons went
out whose average age (height) is ‘y’ years (cms) and same number of persons joined whose
average age (height) is ‘z’ years (cms) then what is the average age (height) of n persons ?
B(-01 )
∴ `abcHNb HNb = S4 − T years (cms)
@
_FG+\ CE@H
3.22 Average of bowler = UF.FL `<9]?GH
∴ Total runs = Average (A). y. where y = number of wickets.
3.23 If in a group, one member is replaced by a new member, then,
Age of new member = (age of replaced ± xn where x = increase (+) or decrease (– )
in average n = Number of members.
3.24 If a new member is added in a group then.
age (or income) of added member = Average (or income) ± x (n + 1)
where x = increase (+) or decrease (–) in average age (or income) n = Number of
members.
3.25 If a member leaves the group, then
income (or age) of left member = Average income (or age ) ± x (n – 1)
where, x = increase (+) or decrease (–) in average income (or age) n = Number of
members.
3.26 If average of n numbers is m later on it was found that a number ‘a’ was misread as ‘b’.
(+08 )
The correct average will be = j +
@
3.27 If the average of n numbers is m later on it was found that two numbers a and b misread as
p and q.
(+380!0")
The correct average = j + @

Practice Test

1. The arithmetic mean

1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4, 5, 5, 5,5,5,6,6,6,6,6,6 and 7,7, 7,7,7,7,7 is
a. 4 b. 5 c. 14 d. 20
2. The average of all the numbers between 6 and 50 which are divisible by 5 is
a. 27.5 b. 30 c. 28.5 d. 22
3. There are 100 students in 3 sections A, B and C of a class. The average marks of all the 3
sections was 84. The average of B and C was 87.5 and the average marks of A is 70. The
number of students in A was
a. 30 b. 35 c. 20 d. 25
4. The average weight of first 11 persons among 12 persons is 95 kg. The weight of 12th
person is 33 kg more than the average weight of all the 12 persons. The weight of the 12th
person is
a. 128.75 kg b. 128 kg c. 131 kg d. 97.45 kg
5. The average weight of A, B and C is 45 kg. If the average weight of A and B be 40kg and
that of B and C be 43 kg, then the weight (in kg) of B is
a. 20 b. 26 c. 31 d. 17

97 A Complete Solution For CMAT

6. The average of some natural numbers is 15. If 30 is added to first number and 5 is subtracted
from the last number the average be- comes 17.5 then the number of natural number is
a. 15 b. 30 c. 20 d. 10
7. The average weight of 3 men A, B and C is 84kg. Another man D joins the group and the
average now becomes 80 kg. If another man E whose weight is 3 kg more than that of D,
replaces A, then the average weight of B, C, D and E becomes 79 kg. Then weight
a. 72 kg b. 74 kg c. 75 kg d. 76 kg
8. The average weight of 15 oars- men in a boat is increased by 1.6 kg when one of the crew,
who weighs 42 kg is replaced by a new man. Find the weight of the new man (in kg).
a. 67 b. 65 c. 66 d. 43
9. A librarian purchased 50 story– books for his library. But he saw that he could get14 more
books by spending Rs.76 more and the average price per book would be reduced by Rs.1.
The average price (in Rs.) of each book he bought, was :
a. 15 b. 10 c. 25 d. 20
10. The average of 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, ……. to 25 terms is
a. 125 b. 25 c. 625 d. 50
11. Six friends have an average height of 167 cms. A boy with height 162 cm leaves the group.
Find the new average height.
a. 168cm b. 166 cm c. 169 cm d. 167 cm
12. The average weight of 8 persons increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of
one of them weighing 65 kg. The weight of the new person is
a.84 kg b. 85 kg c. 76 kg d. 76.5 kg
13. Three Science classes A, B and C take a Life Science test. The average score of class A is
83. The average score of class B is 76. The average score of class C is 85. The average
score of class A and B is 79 and average score ofclassBandCis81.Thenthe average score of
classes A, B and c is
a. 81.5 b. 81 c. 80.5 d. 80
14. The mean high temperature of the first four days of a week is 25°C whereas the mean of
the last four days is 25.5°C. If the mean temperature of the whole week is 25.2°C then the
temperature on
a. 25.50C b. 250C c. 5.20C d. 15.60C
15. The average marks of 50 students in a class is 72. The average marks of boys and girls in
that subject are 70 and 75 respectively. The number of boys in the class is
a. 20 b. 35 c. 25 d. 30
16. The average marks obtained by a class of 60 students is 65. The average marks of half of
the students is found to be 85. The average marks of the remaining students is
a. 35 b. 45 c. 55 d. 65
17. The average of marks obtained by 100 candidates in a certain examination is 30. If the
average marks of passed candidates is 35 and that of the failed candidates is 10, what is the
number of candidates who passed the examination?
a. 60 b. 70 c. 80 d. 90
18. The average weight of A, B and C is 45 kg. If the average weight of A and B be 40 kg and
that of B and C be 43 kg, then the weight of B is:
a. 31 kg. b. 32 kg. c. 29.5 kg. d. 35 kg.
19. The average of 25 results is 20. The average of first 12 results is 15 and that of the last 12
results is 18. Then, the 13th result is :
a. 100 b. 101 c. 104 d. 103
20. The average of 100 observations was calculated as 35. It was found later, that one of the
observations was misread as 83 instead of 53. The correct average is:
a. 32.7 b. 34.7 c. 35.7 d. 36.7
21. If the difference between the average of x, y and y, z is 12, the difference between x and z
is:
a. 24 b. 48 c. 12 d. 6
98 A Complete Solution For CMAT
22. The average of the first 7 integers in a series of 13 consecutive odd integers is 37. The
average of the entire series is
a. 37 b. 39 c. 41 d. 43
23. The average marks of a class of 35 children is 35. The marks of one of the students, who
got 35, was incorrectly entered as 65. What is the correct average of the class?
a. 33.76 b. 34.14 c. 35.24 d. 36.50
24. The average height of 30 boys out ofaclassof50is160cm.Ifthe average height of the
remaining boys is 165 cm, the average height of the whole class (in cm)
a. 161 b. 162 c. 163 d. 164
25. The average of marks of 17 students in an examination was calculated as 71. But it was
later found that the mark of one student had been wrongly entered as 65 instead of 56 and
another as 24 instead of 50. The correct average is
a. 70 b. 71 c. 72 d.73
26. The average of 12 numbers is 9. If each number is multiplied by 2 and added to 3, the
average of the new set of numbers is
a. 9 b. 18 c. 21 d. 27
27. The average of 20 numbers is calculated as 35. It is discovered later on that while
calculating the average, one number, namely 85, was mis read as 45. The correct average
is:
a. 36 b. 36.5 c. 37 d. 37.5
28. The average of a, b and c is 20 and that of b, c and d is 25. If d= 30, the value of a is:
a. 25 b. 45 c. 30 d. 15
29. In a class, average height of all students is ‘a’ cms. Among them, average height of 10
students is ‘b’ cms and the average height of the remaining students is ‘c’ cms. Find the
number of students in the class. (Here a>c and b>c)
4+(809 )5 (809 ) (809 ) %*(809 )
a. ( ) b. ( ) c. ( ) d. ( )
+09 +09 %* +09 +09
30. Nine students of a class contribute a certain sum of money. Seven of them gave Rs.50 each
and the other two gave respectively Rs.50 and Rs.90 more than the others. The average
contribution of the class of 9 students is:
a. Rs.70 b. Rs.50 c. Rs.100 d. Rs.120
31. The mean of 11 numbers is 35. If the mean of first 6 numbers is 32 and that of the last 6
numbers is 37, the sixth number is
a. 28 b. 29 c. 30 d. 27
32. Out of four numbers, the average of the first three is 15 and that of the last three is 16. If
the last number is 19, the first is
a. 19 b. 15 c. 16 d. 18
33. The average of nine numbers is 50. The average of the first five numbers is 54 and that of
the last three numbers is 52. Then the sixth number is
a. 30 b. 34 c. 24 d. 44
34. The average of 11 numbers is 63. If the average of first six numbers is 60 and the last six
numbers is 65, then the 6th number is
a. 57 b. 60 c. 62 d. 64
35. Three numbers are such that the average of first two numbers is 2, the average of the last
two numbers is 3 and the average of the first and the last numbers is 4, then the average of
three numbers is
a. 2 b. 3.5 c. 3 d. 2.5
36. The average of the largest and smallest 3 digit numbers formed by 0, 2 and 4 would be
a. 312 b. 213 c. 222 d.303
37. The average of six numbers is 3.95. The average of two of them is 3.4, while the average
of the other two is 3.85. The average of the remaining two numbers is
a. 4.6 b. 4.5 c. 4.8 d. 4.7

99 A Complete Solution For CMAT

38. Out of four numbers the average of the first three is 16 and that of the last three is 15. If the
last number is 20 then the first number is
a. 23 b. 25 c. 28 d. 21
39. Average of n numbers is a. The first number is increased by 2, second one is increased by
4, the third one is increased by 8 and so on. The average of the new numbers is
&&;# 0% && 0% &&;# && 0%
a. a + @ b. a + 2 @ c. a + @ d. a + @
40. The average of 12 numbers is 15 and the average of the first two is 14. What is the average
of the rest?
% %
a. 15 b. 15$ c. 14 d. 14$
41. The average of 8 numbers is 21. If each of the numbers is multiplied by 8, the average of
the new set of numbers is:
a. 21 b. 29 c. 8 d. 168
42. The average of 13 results is 70. The average of first seven is 65 and that of the last seven
is 75, the seventh result is:
a. 67 b. 70 c. 68 d. 70.5
43. The average of two numbers is 8 and the average of other three numbers is 3. The average
of the five numbers is:
a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 6
44. The average of 15 numbers is 7. If the average of the first 8 numbers is 6.5 and the average
of the last 8 numbers is 8.5, then the middle number is:
a. 10 b. 23 c. 13 d. 15
nd
45. The average of four consecutive even numbers is 15. The 2 highest number is
a. 12 b. 18 c. 14 d.16
46. Average of first five odd multiples of 3 is
a. 12 b. 16 c. 15 d. 21
47. The average of nine consecutive numbers is n. If the next two number are also included the
new average will
a. increase by 2 b. remain the same c. increase by 1.5 d. increase by 1
48. The average of four consecutive even numbers is 9. Find the largest number.
a. 12 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10
49. If a, b, c, d, e are five consecutive odd numbers, their average is
+89>?
a. 5(H + 4) b. $ c. 5(H + I + o + e + b) d. a + 4
50. Average of first five prime numbers is
a. 5.3 b. 5.6 c. 5 d. 3.6
51. What is the average of the first six (positive) odd numbers each of which is divisible by 7?
a. 42 b. 43 c. 47 d. 49
52. The average of first ten prime numbers is
a. 10.1 b. 10 c. 12.9 d. 13
53. If the average of eight consecutive even numbers be 93, then the greatest number among
them is
a. 100 b. 86 c. 102 d. 98
54. The average of 6 consecutive natural numbers is K. If the next two natural numbers are
also included, how much more than K will the average of these 8 numbers be?
a. 1.3 b. 1 c. 2 d. 1.8
55. The average of five consecutive positive integers is n. If the next two integers are also
included, the average of all these integers will
a. increase by 1.5 b. increase by 1 c. remain the same d. increase by 2
56. The average of all the odd integers between 2 and 22 is:
a. 14 b. 12 c. 13 d. 11
57. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 28 more than the average of these three
numbers. Then the smallest of these three numbers is
100 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 6 b. 12 c. 14 d. 16
58. The average of 7 consecutive numbers is 20. The largest of these numbers is
a. 20 b. 23 c. 24 d. 26
59. The average of 25 consecutive odd integers is 55. The highest of these integers is
a. 79 b. 105 c. 155 d. 109
60. The average of 27 numbers is 60. If one number is changed from 28 to 82, the average is
a. 56 b. 58 c. 62 d. 64
61. A tabulator while calculating the average marks of 100 students of an examination, by
mistake enters 68, instead of 86 and obtained the average as 58; the actual average marks
of those students is
a. 58.18 b. 57.82 c. 58.81 d. 57.28
62. The mean of 20 items is 47. Later it is found that the item 62 is wrongly written as 26. Find
the correct mean.
a. 48·8 b. 47·7 c. 49·9 d. 46·6
63. The mean value of 20 observations was found to be 75, but later on it was detected that 97
was misread as 79. Find the correct mean.
a. 75.7 b. 75.8 c. 75.9 d. 75.6
64. The mean of 100 items was 46. Later on it was discovered that an item 16 was misread as
61 and another item 43 was misread as 34. It was also found that the number of items were
90 and not 100. Then what is the correct mean?
a. 50 b. 50.7 c. 52 d. 52.7
65. The average of seven numbers is 18. If one of the number is 17 and if it is replaced by 31,
then the average becomes:
a. 21.5 b. 19.5 c. 20 d. 21
66. In an exam, the average marks obtained by the students was found to be 60. After omission
of computational errors, the average marks of 100 candidates had to be changed from 60 to
30 and the average with respect to all the examinees came down to 45 marks. The total
number of candidates who took the exam, was
a. 200 b. 210 c. 240 d. 180
67. In an examination, the average of marks was found to be 50. For deducting marks for
computational errors, the marks of 100 candidates had to be changed from 90 to 60 each
and so the average of marks came down to 45. The total number of candidates, who
appeared at the examination, was
a. 600 b. 300 c. 200 d. 150
68. The average of l0 items was found to be 80 but while calculating, one of the items was
counted as 60 instead of 50. Then the correct average would have been:
a. 69 b. 79.25 c. 79 d. 79.5
69. The average of 9 integers is found to be 11. But after the calculation, it was detected that,
by mis- take, the integer 23 was copied as 32, while calculating the average. After the due
correction is made, the new average will be
a. 10 b. 9 c. 10.1 d. 9.5
70. The average weight of 20 students in a class is increased by 0.75 kg when one of the
students weighing 30 kg is replaced by a new student. Weight of the new student (in kg) is:
a.35 b. 40 c. 45 d.50
71. Average weight of 25 persons is increased by 1 kg when one man weighing 60 kg is
replaced by a new person. Weight of new person is :
a. 50 kg b. 61 kg c. 86 kg d. 85 kg
72. There are 50 students in a class. One of them weighing 50 kg goes away and a new student
join. By this the average weight of the class increases by ½ kg. The weight of the new
student is :
a. 70 kg b. 72 kg c. 75 kg d. 76 kg

101 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 %
73. The average weight of the 8 oarsmen in boat is increased by 1& kg when one of the crew
who weights 60 kg is replaced by a new man. The weight of the new man (in kg) is
a. 70 kg b. 68 kg c. 71 kg d. 72 kg
74. The average weight of 12 crewmen in a boat is increase by 1/3 kg, when one of the crewmen
whose weight is 55 kg is replaced by a new man. What is the weight of that new man?
a. 58 kg b. 60 kg c. 57 kg d. 59 kg
75. The batting average for 30 innings of a cricket player is 40 runs. His highest score exceeds
his lowest score by 100 runs. If these two innings are not included, the average of the
remaining 28 innings is 38 runs. The lowest score of the player is:
a. 15 b. 18 c. 20 d. 12
76. Paras Khadka has a certain average for 11 innings. In the 12th innings he scores 120 runs
and thereby increases his average by 5 runs. His new average is
a. 60 b. 62 c. 65 d. 66
77. A cricketer whose bowling aver- age is 12.4 runs per wicket, takes 5 wickets for 26 runs
and thereby decreases his average by 0.4. The number of wickets taken by him till the last
match was
a.64 b. 72 c. 80 d. 85
78. The average run of a player is 32 out of 10 innings. How many runs must he make in the
next innings so as to increase his average by 6 ?
a. 38 b. 40 c. 6 d. 98
79. A batsman makes a score of 87 runs in the 17th innings and thus increased his average by
3. Find his average after 17th innings.
a. 39 b. 87 c. 90 d. 84
80. The batting average for 40 innings of a cricket player is 50 runs. His highest score exceeds
his lowest score by 172 runs. If these two innings are excluded, the aver- age of the
remaining 38 innings is 48 runs. The highest score of the player is
a. 165 b. 170 c. 172 d. 174
81. The average of runs of a cricket player of 20 innings was 32. How many runs must he make
in his next innings so as to increase his average of runs by 4?
a. 116 b. 114 c. 170 d. 76
82. A batsman in his 12th innings makes a score of 120, and there- by increases his average by
5. The average score after 12th inning is
a. 60 b. 55 c. 65 d. 70
83. The averages of runs scored by a cricket player in 11 innings is 63 and the average of his
first six innings is 60 and the average of last six innings is 65. Find the runs scored by him
in the sixth innings.
a. 60 b. 54 c. 67 d. 57
84. Average runs scored by 11 players of a cricket team is 23. If the first player scored 113
runs. Find the average runs of the remaining players.
a. 8 runs b. 12 runs c. 14 runs d. 27 runs
85. The average of runs scored by a cricketer in his 99 innings is 99. How many runs will he
have to score in his 100th innings so that his average of runs in 100 innings may be 100?
a. 100 b. 99 c. 199 d. 101
86. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. The run rate in the
remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 run is
a. 6.4 b. 6.3 c. 6.25 d. 6.5
87. A cricketer, whose bowling aver- age was 12.4 runs/wicket takes 5 wickets for 22 runs in
a match, thereby decreases his average by 0.4. The number of wickets, taken by him before
this match was:
a. 78 b. 87 c. 95 d. 105
88. A batsman has a certain average of runs for 12 innings. In the 13th innings he scores 96
runs thereby increasing his average by 5 runs. What will be his average after 13th innings?

102 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. 28 b. 32 c. 36 d. 42
89. Pushpa is twice as old as Rita was 2 years ago. If difference between their ages is 2 years,
how old is Pushpa today?
a. 6 years b. 8 years c. 10 years d. 12 years
90. The average age of 10 children is 9 years 9 months. The average age of 9 children is 8 years
11 months. What is the age of the tenth child ?
a. 17 years 3 months b. 18 years 4 months c. 17 years 5 months d. 18 years 3 months
91. The sum of the ages of mother and her daughter is 60 years. 12 years ago the mother was
eight times as old as her daughter. How old is the daughter at present?
a. 20 years b. 28 years c. 16 years d. 12 years
92. The average age of eight teachers in a school is 40 years. A teacher among them died at the
age of 55 years whereas another teacher whose age was 39 years joins them. The average
age of the teachers in the school now is (in years)
a. 35 b. 36 c. 38 d. 39
93. If the average age of four children is 12 years and the average age of these children and
their father is 20 years, what is the age of the father?
a. 52 years b. 48 years c. 62 years d. 54 years
94. The average age of 36 students in a group is 14 years. When the teacher’s age is included
in it, the average increases by one. The teacher’s age in years is
a. 31 b. 51 c. 36 d. 50
95. The average age of 30 boys in a class is 10 years. If the age of their teacher is also included,
the average increases by one year. The teacher’s age in years is
a. 38 b. 40 c. 30 d. 41
96. Ram is 20 years younger than Shyam. 5 years ago, the ratio of their ages was 3:5. The sum
of their present ages is:
a. 75 years 80 yeas c. 90 years d. 95 years
97. Three years ago, the average age of a family of 5 members was 17 years. A baby having
been born, the average age of the family is the same today. The present age of the baby is:
a. 2 years b. 2.4 years c. 3 years d. 1.5 years
98. Seven years ago, the average age of A, B and C was 51 years. If A is 3 years older than B
and B is 3 years older than C then the present ages of A, B and C are (in years)
a. 61, 58 and 55 b. 54, 51, and 48 c. 55, 58, and 61 d. 48, 51 and 54
99. Numbers of boys and girls are ‘x’ and ‘y’ respectively. Ages of a girl and a boy are ‘a’
years and ‘b’ years respectively. The average age (in years) of all boys and girls is
.3- 8.3+- +.38- .3-
a. 8.3+- b. .3- c. .3- d. +.38-
100. The average age of a class of 39 students is 15 years. If the age of the teacher is included,
then the average increases by 3 months. Find the age of the teacher.
a. 30 years b. 25 years c. 35 years d. 40 years
101. The average age of 3 friends is 23 years. Even if the age of 4th friend is added, the average
age remains the same. Then the age of the fourth friend is :
a. 20 years b. 21 years c. 22 years d. 23 years
102. The average age of the boys in a class is 18 years. The average age of the girls in that class
is 12 years. If the ratio of the number of boys and girls in that class is 3 : 2, then the average
age of the class is :
a.15. 6 years b. 16. 5 years c. 15 years d. 16 years

4. Ratio and Proportion

103 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Important Points
Ratio: The comparative relation between two amounts/quantities of same type is
called ratio.
The ratio of two amounts is equal to a fraction. It shows how much less or more
time an amount is in comparison to another.
Ratio always occurs between same units, as –Rupees: Rupees, kg: kg, Hour : Hour,
Second : Second etc.
Let an amount be x and another is y, then, the ratio between them is x : y or x ÷ y.
In ratio 1st number i.e., ‘x’ is called “antecedent”. and 2nd number i.e., ‘y’ is called
“consequent”.
If a:b :: c:d, then a and d are called extremes and b and c are called means.
∴ Product of extremes = Product of means.
i.e., ad = bc
]
Inversely Proportional: If 4 = - where k is a constant, then we say that x is inversely
proportional to y.
%
It is written as 4 ∝ -.
Directly Proportional: If x = ky, where k is a constant, then we say that x is directly
proportional to y. It is written as x q y.
Proportion: When two ratios are equal to each other, then they are called proportional as
a : b = c : d, then, a, b, c and d are in proportion.
or,
a : b :: c : d
E.g. 2 : 5 = 6 : 15, then we write 2 : 5 :: 6 : 15
4.1 It does not change the ratio, when we multiply or divide antecedent and consequent of the
ratio by a same non–zero number as–
+ +×9
e.g. H ∶ I = 8 = 8 × 9 = Ho ∶ Io = H ∶ I
4.2 What should be added to all of a, b, c, d (numbers) so that these become proportional
respectively?
Let x should be added:
+3 . 93.
i.e. 83. ∷ >3.
4.3 Mixed ratio: let x : y and P : Q be two ratios, then Px : Qy is called mixed ratio.
4.4 Duplicate Ratio: The mixed ratio of two equal ratios is called the duplicate Ratio as
duplicate ratio of a:b is a2 : b2
4.5 Subduplicate Ratio: The square root of a certain ratio is called its subduplicate. The
subduplicate ratio of a : b = a : b
4.6 Triplicate Ratio: The cube of a certain ratio is called triplicate ratio.
The triplicate ratio of a : b = a3 : b3
4.7 Subtriplicate Ratio: The cube root of a certain ratio is called subtriplicate ratio as
2 2
The Subtriplicate Ratio of H ∶ I = √H ∶ √H
4.8 Inverse Ratio: The Reciprocal of quantities of ratio is called its inverse. Reciprocal or
inverse ratio of a:b
% % % %
= + ∶ 8 Mc = A+ ∶ 8 B × (L.C.M. of a and b)
4.9 Invertendo: The proportion in which antecedent and consequent quantities change their
places, is called invertendo, as–
+ 9 8 >
Invertendo of a : b = c : d is b : a = d : c means 8 = > then + = 9

104 A Complete Solution For CMAT

4.10 Alternendo: If a : b :: c : d is a proportion then its alternendo is a : c :: b : d. i.e alternendo
+ 9 + 8
of 8 = > is 9 = >.
4.11 Componendo: If a:b::c:d is a proportion, then componendo is (a + b) : b :: (c + d) : d
+ 9 +38 a3>
It means, if 8 = > then, 8 = >
+ +38 93>
Or, R8 + 1 = 1 ⇒ 8 = > U
4.12 Dividendo: If a : b :: c : d is a proportion, then its dividendo is (a – b) : b :: (c – d) : d
+ 9 + 9
i.e. = ⇒ − 1 = − 1
8 > 8 >
+08 90>
⇒ 8 = >
4.13 Componendo and dividendo: If there is a proportion a : b :: c : d then its componendo and
dividendo is
+38 93>
(a + b) : (a – b) :: (c + d) : (c – d) or , +08 = 90>
To simplify the proportion any one method of componendo, dividendo, componendo and
Dividendo can directly be used.
4.14 Mean Proportion: Let x be the mean proportion between a and b, then a : x :: x : b (Real
condition)
+ .
∴ . = 8 ⇒ 4 & = HI
∴ 4 = √HI
So, mean proportion of a and I = √HI
If x be the mean proportion between (x – a) and (x – b) then what will be the value of x ?
+8
4 = +38
4.15 Third proportional: Let ‘x’ be the third proportional of a and b then,
a : b :: b : x (Real condition)
+ 8
i.e. = ⇒ H4 = I&
8 .
81
∴ 4 = +
81
∴ third proportional of a and b = +
4.16 Fourth Proportional: Let x be the fourth proportional of a, b and c, then a : b :: c : x (Real
condition)
+ 9
⇒ 8 = . ⇒ H4 = Io
89
∴ 4=
+
89
∴ Forth proportional of a, b and c = +
4.17 First Proportional: Let x be the first proportional of a,b and c, then, x:a::b:c (Real
condition)
. 8
∴ + = 9 ⇒ o4 = HI
+8
∴ 4 = 9
4.18 If A : B = x : y and B : C = p : q then
(i) A : C = xp : yp
(ii) A : B : C = (x : y) × p : qy = xp : yp : qy
It is done as follows:
A:B=x:y
B:C=p:q
A : B : C = xp : yp : qy
4.19 If A : B = x : y, B : C = p : q and C : D = m : n then,
105 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 (i) A:D = xpm : yqn
(ii) A : B : C : D = (xp : yp : yq) × m : yqn = xpm : ypm : yqm : yqn
4.20 If A : B : C : D = w : x : y : z and D : E = m : n then,
A : B : C : D : E = wm : xm : ym : zm : zn
4.21 If an amount R is to be divided between A and B in the ratio m : n then
B
(i) part of A = ×t
B3@
@
(ii) Part of B = B3@ × t
B@
(iii) Difference of part A and B = ×t
B3@
4.22 If the ratio of A and B is m:n and the difference in their share is ‘R’ units then,
B
(i) Part of A = B0@ × t
@
(ii) Part of B = B0@ × t
B3@
(iii) The sum of parts of A and B = B0@ × t
4.23 If the ratio of A and B is m:n and the part of A is ‘R’, then
@
(i) Share of B = B × t
B3@
(ii) Total share o A and B = ×t
B
B0@
(iii) Difference in share of A and B = B × t
Where m > n.
4.24 If the amount R is divided among A, B and C in the ratio l : m : n, then
\ B
(i) The share of A = × t (ii) The share of B = ×t
\3B3@ \3B3@
@
(iii) The share of C = \3B3@ × t
\0B
(iv) Difference in share of A and B = \3B3@ × t Where l > m
\0@
(v) Difference in share of B and C = × t Where m > n
\3B3@
4.25 If the ratio of A, B and C is l : m : n and the part of A is ‘R’ then,
B @
(i) Part of B = \ × t (ii) Part of C = \ × t
B0@
(iii) Difference in part of B and C = × t Where m > n
\
(\3B3@
(iv) Total share of A, B and C = \ × t
4.26 If an amount is to be divided among A, B and C in the ratio l : m : n and the difference
between A and B is ‘R’, then
@
(i) Part of C = \0B × t, Where l > m
\3B3@
(ii) Total share of A, B and C = \0B
× t Where l > m
B0@
(iii) Difference in share of B and C = \0B × t Where l > m and m > n.
4.27 If there are notes of ‘x’ rupees, ‘y’ rupees and ‘z’ rupees in a box in the ratio m:n:r and the
total value of notes is ‘R’, then
B
(i) Number of notes of ‘x’ rupees = (.B3-@31. ) × t
@
(ii) Number of notes of ‘y’ rupees = (.B3-@31C ) × t
4.28 If adding/subtracting a certain quantity gives new ratio, then multiplier
(_FG+\ DE+@G<G-±ac+@d? <@ DE+@G<G-
=
IEB FL A+G<FH
⇒ Then Quantity
= Multiplier × Ratio figure of that quantity

106 A Complete Solution For CMAT

4.29 If the ratio of alligation of milk and water in a glass is m : n and in other glass alligation is
p : q, then the ratio of milk and water in third glass which contains alligation of both glasses
is
B ! @ "
Ratio = AB3@ + !3"B ∶ AB3@ + !3"B
4.30 If the ratio of milk and water in the alligation of A litre is p : q then water must be added in
it so that ratio of milk and water would be r : s is
Y(!H0"C)
Required amount of water = C(!3") liters
4.31 The ratio of income of two persons A and B is p : q. If the ratio of their expenditures is r :
s, then the monthly income of A and B, when each one of them saves ‘R’ rupees will be
A!(C0H)
m income of A = !H0C"
A!(C0H)
m income of B = !H0C"
4.32 Let ‘x’ be a number which is subtracted from a, b, c and d to make them proportional, then
+>089
4 = (+38 )0(839)
Let ‘x’ be a number which is added to a, b, c and d to make them proportional, then
890+>
4 = (+3>)0(839)
Here, a, b, c and d should always be in ascending order.
+ 9 ? +393?…
4.33 If 8 = > = L =………. Then the ratio = 83>3L…
4.34 Two numbers are in the ratio a:b and if each number is increased by x, the ratio becomes
.+(90>) .(90>)
c : d. Then the two numbers will be and
+>089 +>089
4.35 Two numbers are in the ratio a : b and if x is subtracted from each number the ratio becomes
.+(>09) .8(>09)
c : d. The two numbers will be = +>089 and +>089
Problems based on ages
4.36 If the ratio of present age and the ratio of age after ‘n’ years is given then present age factor
is given by :
(;<LL?C?@9? <@ &&0 C+G<F)×G<B?
4 = (;<LL?C?@9? <@ 9FCHH !CF>E9GH FL C+G<F
4.37 If x is the present age factor, and the difference in cross product of ratio is zero then,
G<B?
4 = (;<LL?C?@9? FL C+G<F)
4.38 If the ratio of ‘some years ago’ and ‘after some years’ is given. And Before ‘t1’ years, the
ratio of ages of A and B was a : b.
Present age of A = ax + t1
Present age of B = bx + t1
after ‘t2’ years, the ratio of their ages will be c : d.
(;<LL?C?9@? <@ &&0 C+G<F)×(G 3G )
# 1
∴ 4 = (;<LL?C?@9? <@ 9FCHH !CF>E9GH FL Gc? C+G<F)
When, the difference in ratio is equal, then
(G# 3G1 )
4 = (;<LL?C?@9? <@ C+G<F)
4.39 If the product of present ages is given, then,
fCF>E9G FL +d?H FL G`F !?CHF@H
4=J
fCF>E9G FL C+G<F
4.40 If sum of present age and ratio of the ages is given then, present age factor,
IEB FL fC?H?@G +d?H
4=
IEB FC C+G<F
4.41 If the ratio of ages and difference in ages is given then,

107 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 ><LL?C?9@? 8?G`??@ +d?H
4= ><LL?C?@9? <@ C+G<F
4.42 The ratio of ages of A and B was x : y ‘n’ years ago.
.3@ +
(i) If the present age ratio is a : b, then -3@ = 8
.3@3B !
(ii) If after ‘m’ years, the ratio of ages will be p : q then, =
-3@3B "
4.43 If ‘n’ years before, the ratio of ages of A, B and C was x : y : z, then the ratio of their present
ages is (x + n) : (y + n) : (z + n)
4.44 If after m years, the ratio of ages of A and B will be x : y, then the ratio of their present
ages is (x – m) : (y – m).

Practice Test

1. If A : B = 2 : 3, B : C = 2 : 4 and C : D = 2 : 5, then A : D is equal to :

a. 2 : 15 b. 2 : 5 c. 1 : 5 d. 3 : 5
2. If a : b : c = 3 : 4 : 7, then the ratio (a + b + c) : c is equal to
a. 2 : 1 b. 14 : 3 d. 7 : 2 d. 1 : 2
3. If A and B are in the ratio 3 : 4, and B and C in the ratio 12 : 13, then A and C will be in
the ratio
a.3 : 13 b. 9 : 13 c. 36 : 13 d. 13 : 9
4. If A : B = 3 : 2 and B : C = 3 : 4 then A : C is equal to
a. 1 : 2 b. 2 : 1 c. 8 : 9 d. 9 : 8
2 2 2 2
5. If x : y = 2 :1, the value of (x – y ) : (x + y ) is
a. 3 : 5 b. 5 : 3 c. 4 : 5 d. 5 : 6
6. If Rs. 1000 is divided between A and B in the ratio 3 : 2,then A will receive
a. Rs. 400 b. Rs. 500 c. Rs. 600 d. Rs. 800
7. If W1 : W2 = 2 : 3 and W1 : W3 = 1 : 2 then W2 : W3 is
a. 3 : 4 b. 4 : 3 c. 2 : 3 d. 4 : 5
8. If 3x = 5y = 4z, then x : y : z is equal to
a. 9 : 12 : 16 b. 20 : 12 : 15 c. 15 : 10 : 9 d. 8 : 5 : 3
9. If A : B = 3 : 4 and B : C = 6 : 5,then A : (A + C) is equal to
a. 9 : 10 b. 10 : 9 c. 9 : 19 d. 19 : 9
%
10. If a and b are rational numbers and a + b √3 = &0 ,, then a : b is equal to
√
a. – 2 : 1 b. 2 : 1 c. √3 : 1 d. - √3 : 1
11. If A : B = 3 : 4 and B : C = 8 : 9, then A : B : C is
a. 8 : 6 : 9 b. 9 : 8 : 6 c. 6 : 8 : 9 d. 3 : 32 : 9
% %
12. If 78 is divided into three parts which are in the ratio 1 : , : ) , the middle part is
% % %
a. 9, b. 13 c. 17, d. 18,
13. If x : y = 4 : 5, then (3x + y) : (5x + 3y) =
a. 3 : 5 b. 5 : 3 c. 17 : 35 d. 35 : 17
2 2 2 2
14. If x : y = 5 : 6, then (3x – 2y ) : (y – x ) is
a. 7 : 6 b. 11 : 3 c. 3 : 11 d. 6 : 7
15. If x : y = 3 : 4, then 4x + 5y – 2y =
a. 7 : 32 b. 32 : 7 c. 4 : 3 d. 5 : 2
16. If A : B is 2 : 3 , B : C is 6 : 11, then A : B : C is :
a. 2 : 3 : 11 b. 4 : 6 : 22 c. 4 : 6 : 11 d. 2 : 6 : 11
17. If two-third of A is four-fifth of B, then A : B =?
108 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 5 : 6 b. 10 : 9 c. 6 : 5 d. 9 :10
&
18. If , of A = 75% of B = 0.6 of C, then A : B : C is
a. 2 : 3 : 3 b. 3 : 4 : 5 c. 4 : 5 : 6 d. 9 : 8 : 10
19. Rs. 33,630 are divided among A, B and C in such a manner that the ratio of the amount of
A to that of B is 3 : 7 and the ratio of the amount of B to that of C is 6 : 5. The amount of
money received by B is
a. Rs. 14,868 b. Rs. 16,257 c. Rs. 13,290 d. Rs. 12,390
20. If A : B = 3 : 5 and B : C = 4 : 7, then A : B : C is
a. 6 : 9 : 14 b. 3 : 5 : 7 c. 12 : 20 : 21 d. 12 : 20 : 35
# $
21. If A = of B and B = of C, then the ratio of A : C is
$ &
a. 1 : 2 b. 2 : 1 c. 2 : 3 d. 1 : 3
% %
22. If A = #B and B = &C, then A : B : C is:
a. 8 : 4 : 1 b. 4 : 2 : 1 c. 1 : 4 : 8 d. 1 : 2 : 4
23. If 2A = 3B = 4C, then A : B : C is:
a. 2 : 3 : 4 b. 4 : 3 : 2 c. 6 : 4 : 3 d. 3 : 4 : 6
24. The ratio 43.5 : 25 is the same as
a. 4 : 1 b. 2 : 1 c. 1 : 2 d. 1 : 4
25. If A : B = 1 : 2, B : C = 3 : 4 C : D = 6 : 9 and D : E = 12 : 16 then A : B : C : D : E is equal
to
a. 1 : 3 : 6 : 12 : 16 b. 2 : 4 : 6 : 9 : 16 c. 3 : 4 : 8 : 12 : 16 d. 3 : 6 : 8 : 12 : 16
26. If x : y = 2 : 5, then (5x + 3y) : (5x – 3y) is equal to
a. 5 b. 3 c. – 3 d. – 5
+ & 8 #
27. If 8 = , and 9 = $, then (a + b) : (b + c) = ?
a. 3 : 4 b. 4 : 5 c. 5 : 9 d. 20 : 27
28. Marks of two candidates P and Q are in the ratio of 2:5. If the marks of P is 120, marks of
Q will be
a. 120 b. 240 c. 300 d. 360
29. If A : B = 4 : 9 and A : C = 2 : 3,then (A + B) : (A + C) is
a. 15 : 13 b. 10 : 13 c. 13 : 10 d. 13 : 15
30. The third proportional to 0.8 and 0.2 is:
a. 0.05 b. 0.8 c. 0.4 d. 0.032
31. To get the ratio p : q (for p≠q), one has to add a number to each term of the ratio x : y, the
number is
!.3"- ".3!- !.0"- !-0".
a. !0- b. !0" c. !0" d. !0"
32. If x : y = 3 : 4, then the value of (4x – y) :(2x + 3y) is
a. 4 : 9 b. 8 : 9 c. 4 : 3 d. 8 : 3
.3-31
33. If x : y = 3 : 4 and y : z = 3 : 4 then ,1 is equal to
%, % ', ,'
a. &' b. & c. (# d. #(
% % % %
34. If A : B = & : ,, B : C = $: ,, then (A + B) : (B + C) is equal to
a. 5 : 8 b. 9 : 10 c. 15 : 16 d. 6 : 15
. ,
35. If - = #, the ratio of (2x + 3y) and (3y – 2x) is
a. 2 : 1 b. 3 : 2 c. 1 : 1 d. 3 : 1
% &
36. Two numbers are in the ratio 1&: 1,, when each of these is increased by 15, they are in the
& %
ratio 1, : 2&. The greater of the numbers
a. 27 b. 36 c. 48 d. 64
109 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 % & #
37. If 177 is divided into 3 parts in the ratio : : and the second part is
& , $
a. 75 b. 45 c. 72 d. 60
$ &
38. A and B together have Rs. 6300. If %/ th of A ‘s amount is equal to $ th of B’S amount. The
amount of ‘B’ is
a. Rs. 2500 b. Rs. 3800 c. Rs. 2300 d. Rs. 4000
% , $
39. Find the fraction which bears the same ratio to &' that ' to /.
$ % #$ '
a. b. c. d.
/ ,$ ' #$
% & ,
40. Rs. 782 is divided into three parts in the ratio & : , : #, the first part is
a. Rs. 182 b. Rs. 204 c. Rs. 190 d. Rs. 196
41. Four years ago, the ratio of the age of A and B was 2 : 3 and after four years it will become
5 : 7. Find their present age.
a. 36 years and 40 years b. 32 years and 48 years
c. 40 years and 56 years d. 36 years and 52 years
42. The average age of boys in the class is twice the number of girls in the class. The ratio of
boys and girls in the class of 50 is 4 : 1. The total of the ages (in years) of the boys in the
class is
a. 2000 b.2500 c. 800 d. 400
43. The ratio of age of two boys is 5: 6. After two years the ratio will be 7 : 8. The ratio of their
age after 12 years will be
&& %$ %' %%
a. &# b. %) c. %( d. %&
44. The ratio of the present age of Pooja and Anup is 2 : 3. After 3 years the ratio of their age
will be3 : 4.The present age of Pooja is:
a. 3 years b. 6 years c. 9 years d. 4 years
45. The ratio of the ages of a father and his son 10 years hence will be 5 : 3, while 10 years
ago, it was 3:1. The ratio of the age of the son to that of the father today is:
a. 1 : 2 b. 1 : 3 c. 2 : 3 d. 2 : 5
46. The ratio of the present age of Rahul and Rashmi is 2 : 1. The ratio of their age after 30
years will be 7 : 6. What is the present age of Rahul?
a. 6 years b. 10 years c. 12 years d. 20 years
47. The present age of A and B are in the ratio 4 : 5 and after 5 years they will be in the ratio
5 : 6.The present age of A is
a. 10 years b. 20 years c. 25 years d. 40 years
48. The present age of two persons are 36 and 50 years respectively. If after n years the ratio
of their age will be 3 : 4, then the value of n is
a. 4 b. 7 c. 6 d. 3
49. The ratio between Sumit’s and Prakash’s age at present is 2 : 3. Sumit is 6 years younger
than Prakash. The ratio of Sumit’s age to Prakash’s age after 6 years will be
a. 2 : 3 b. 1 : 2 c. 4 : 3 d. 3 : 4
50. The ratio of the ages of two persons is 4 : 7 and the age of one of them is greater than that
of the other by 30 years. The sum of their ages (in years) is
a. 110 b. 100 c. 70 d. 40
51. Two numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3. If 2 is subtracted from the first and 2 is added to the
second, the ratio becomes 1 : 2. The sum of the numbers is :
a. 30 b.28 c. 24 d. 10
% & ,
52. Three numbers are in the ratio & : , : #. The difference between the greatest and the smallest
number is 36. The numbers are
a. 72, 84, 108 b. 60, 72, 96 c. 72, 84, 96 d. 72, 96, 108
110 A Complete Solution For CMAT
53. T he sum of three numbers is 68. If the ratio of the first to the second be 2 : 3 and that of
the second to the third be 5 : 3, then the second number is
a. 30 b. 58 c. 20 d. 48
54. When a particular number is subtracted from each of 7, 9, 11 and 15, the resulting numbers
are in proportion. The number to be subtracted is :
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5
55. The two numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3 and their product is 96. The sum of the numbers is
a. 5 b. 20 c. 101 d. 102
56. The ratio between two numbers is 3 : 4. If each number is increased by 6, the ratio becomes
4 : 5. The difference between the numbers is
a. 1 b. 3 c. 6 d. 8
57. Two numbers are in the ratio 5 : 7. On diminishing each of them by 40, they become in the
ratio 17 : 27. The difference of the numbers is :
a. 18 b. 52 c. 137 d. 50
58. Three numbers are in the ratio 5 : 6 : 7. If the product of the numbers is 5670, then the
greatest number is
a. 15 b. 18 c. 21 d. 28
59. Two numbers are in the ratio 1 : 3. If their sum is 240, then their difference is
a. 120 b. 108 c. 100 d. 96
60. If the sum of two quantities is equal to three times their difference, then the ratio of the two
quantities is
a. 1 : 3 b. 3 : 1 c. 2 : 1 d. 2 : 3
61. Zinc and copper are in the ratio of 5 : 3 in 200 gm of an alloy. How much grams of copper
be added to make the ratio as 3 : 5?
% %
a. 133 b. c. 72 d. 66
, &**
62. The ratio of copper and zinc in brass is 13 : 7. How much zinc will be there in 100 kg of
brass ?
a. 20 kg. b. 55 kg. c. 35 kg. d. 40 kg.
63. In 30 litres mixture of acid, the ratio of acid and water is 2 : 3.What amount of water should
be added to the mixture so that the ratio of acid and water becomes 2 : 5?
a. 10 litres b. 15 litres c. 18 litres d. 12 litres
64. In an alloy, the ratio of copper and zinc is 5 : 2.If 1.250 kg of zinc is mixed in 17 kg 500g
of alloy, then the ratio of copper and
a. 2 : 1 b. 2 : 3 c. 3 : 2 d. 1 : 2
65. There are three containers of equal capacity. The ratio of Sulphuric acid to water in the first
container is 3 : 2, that in the second container is 7 : 3 and in the third container it is 11 : 4.
If all the liquids are mixed to- gether, then the ratio of Sulphuric acid to water in the mixture
will be :
a. 61 : 29 b. 61 : 28 c. 60 : 29 d. 59 : 29
66. 200 litres of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 17 : 3. After the addition of some
more milk to it, the ratio of milk to water in the resulting mixture becomes 7 : 1. The
quantity of milk added to it was
a. 20 litres b. 40 litres c. 60 litres d. 80 litres
67. A can contains a mixture of two liquidsAandBintheratio7:5. When 9 litres of mixture are
drawn off and the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B be- comes 7 : 9. Litres of liquid
A contained by the can initially was
a. 10 b. 20 c. 21 d. 25
68. A container contains two liquids A and B in the ratio 7:5. When 9 litres of mixture are
drawn off and the container is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 1 : 1. How many
litres of liquid A was in the container initially ?
111 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 % , ,
a. 26 b. 16 c. 36 d. 26
& # #
69. A and B are two alloys of gold and copper prepared by mixing metals in ratios 7 : 2 and 7 :
11 respectively. If equal quantities of the alloys are melted to form a third alloy C, the ratio
of gold and copper in C will be;
a. 7:5 b. 5:9 c. 9:5 d. 5:7
70. The ratio in which a man must mix rice at Rs. 10.20 per kg and 14.40 per kg so as to make
a mixture worth Rs. 12.60 per kg is:
a. 4 : 3 b. 2 : 5 c. 18 : 24 d. 3 : 4

5. Percentage

(
Percentage: Percentage refers to “Per hundred” i.e, 8% means 8 out of hundred or .
%**
Percentage is denoted by ‘%’
+
a represented as the per cent of b as, 8 × 100
8
b% of a = H × %**
To convert a fraction/decimal into percentage multiply it by 100
%&$ %
As 12.5% = %** = (
.0.5
5.1 If x is reduced to x0, then reduce% = .
× 100
. 0.
5.2 If x is increased to x1, then, increment% = #. × 100
5.3 If an amount is increased by a% and then it is reduced by a% again, then percentage change
+1
will be a decrease of %** %
5.4 If a number is increase by a% and then it is decreased by b%, then resultant change in
+8
percentage will be AH − I − %**B %
5.5 If a number is increased by a% and then it is increased by b%, then net increase or decrease
percent is
+8
A−H + I − %**B %(negative sign for decrease/ positive sign for increase)
5.6 If a number is first decreased by a% and then by b%, then net decrease per cent is
+8
A−H − I + %**B % (-ve sign for decrease)
5.7 If a number is first increased by a% and then again increased by b%, then total increase per
+8
cent is AH + I + %**B %
5.8 If the cost of an article is increased by A%, then how much to decrease the consumption of
article, so that expenditure remains same is given by
Or
If the income of a man is A% more than another man, then income of another man is less
in comparison to the 1st man by
Y
A(%**3Y) × 100B %
5.9 If the cost of an article is decreased by A%, then the increase in consumption of article to
maintain the expenditure will be?
112 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 If ‘x’ is A% less than ‘y’, then y is more than ‘x’ by
Y
Required % = A%**0Y × 100B % (increase)
5.10 If the length of a rectangle is increased by a% and breadth is increased by b%, then the area
of rectangle will increase by
+8
Required increase = AH + I + B %
%**
Note: If a side is increased, take positive sign and if it is decreased, take negative sign. It
is applied for two dimensional figures.
5.11 If the side of a square is increased by a% then, its area will increase by
+1 +.+
A2H + %**B % = AH + H + %**B %
The above formula is also implemented for circle where radius is used as side. This
formula is used for two dimensional geometrical figures having both length and breadth
equal.
5.12 If the side of a square is decreased by a%, then the area of square will decrease by
+1
∴ Decrease = A−2H + B %
%**
This formula is also applicable for circles. where decrease % of radius is given.
5.13 If the length, breadth and height of a cuboid are increased by a%, b% and c% respectively,
then,
+838939+ +89
Increase% in volume = RH + I + o + %** + (%**)1 U %
5.14 If every side of cube is increased by a%,
,+1 +2
= A3H + %** + (%**)1B %
This formula will also be used in calculating increase in volume of sphere. where
increase in radius is given.
5.15 If a% of a certain sum is taken by 1st man and b% of remaining sum is taken by 2nd man
and finally c% of remaining sum is taken by 3rd man, then if ‘x’ rupee is the remaining
amount then,
%**×%**×%**.
Initial Amount = (%**0+)(%**08)(%**09)
5.16 If an amount is increased by a% and then again increased by b% and finally increased by
c%, So, that resultant amount is ‘x’ rupees, then,
%**×%**×%**.
Initial amount = (%**3+)(%**38)(%**39)
5.17 If the population/cost of a certain town/ article, is P and annual increament rate is r%, then
C G
(i) After ‘t’ years population/cost = x A1 + %**B
f
(ii) before ‘t’ years population/cost = % <
R%3 S
#55
5.18 If the population/cost of a town/article is P and it decreases/reduces at the rate of r%
annually, then,
C G
(i ) After ‘t’ years population/cost = x A1 − %**B
f
(ii) before ‘t’ years population/cost = % <
R%0 S
#55
5.19 On increasing/decreasing the cost of a certain article by x%, a person can buy ‘a’ kg article
less/more in
.-
Increase/ decreased cost of the article = A%**×+B
.-
and initial cost = (%**±. )+
(Negative sign when decreasing and positive sign when
increasing)
113 A Complete Solution For CMAT
5.20 If a person saves ‘R’ rupees after spending x% on food, y% on cloth and z% on
entertainment of his income then,
%**
Monthly income = %**0(.3-3.) × t
5.21 The amount of acid/milk is x% in ‘M’ litre mixture. How much water should be mixed in
it so that percentage amount of acid/milk would be y%?
g(.0-)
Amount of water = -
5.22 An examinee scored m% marks in an exam, and failed by p marks. In the same examination
another examinee obtained n% marks and passed with q more marks than minimum, then
%**
∴ Maximum marks = (@0B) × (d + y)
5.23 In an examination, a% candidates failed in Maths and b% candidates failed in English. If
c% candidate failed in both the subjects, then,
(i) Passed candidates in both the subjects = 100 – (a + b – c)%
(ii) Percentage of candidates who failed in either subject = (a + b – c)%
5.24 In a certain examination passing marks is a%. If any candidate obtains ‘b’ marks and fails
by ‘c’ marks, then,
%**(839 )
Total marks =
+
5.25 In a certain examination, ‘B’ boys and ‘G’ girls participated. b% of boys and g% of girls
passed the examination, then,
h.83i.d
Percentage of passed students of the total students = A h3i B %
5.26 If a candidate got A% votes in a poll and he won or defeated by ‘x’ votes, then, what was
the total no. of votes which was casted in poll ?
$*×.
∴ Total no. of votes = ($*0Y)
%**±8
5.27 If number ‘a’ is increase or decrease by b%, then the new number will be A %** B × H
5.28 If the present population of a town is P and the population increases or decreases at rate of
R1%, R2% and R3% in first, second and third year respectively.
A# A1 A2
Then the population of town after 3 years = x A1 ± %** B A1 ± %**B A1 ± %**B
‘+’ is used when population increases
‘–‘ is used when population decreases.
The above formula may be extended for n number of years.
A# A1 A&
⇒ Populaiton after ‘n’ years= x A1 ± %** B A1 ± %** B … … . A1 ± %**B
5.29 If two numbers are respectively x% and y% less than the third number, first number as a
%**0.
percentage of second is %**0- × 100%
5.30 If two numbers are respectively x% and y% more than a third number the first as percentage
%**3.
of second is %**3- × 100%
5.31 If the price of an article is reduced by a% and buyer gets c kg more for some Rs. b, the new
+8
price per kg of article = %**×9

Practice Test

1. Half of 1 per cent, written as a decimal, is

a. 0.2 b. 0.02 c. 0.005 d. 0.05
114 A Complete Solution For CMAT
2. The time duration of 1 hour 45 minutes is what percent of a day?
a. 7.218 % b. 7.292 % c. 8.3 % d. 8.24 %
3. 1.14 expressed as a per cent of 1.9 is
a. 6% b. 10% c. 60% d. 90%
4. 32 is what per cent of 80?
a. 24% b. 25.6% c. 36% d. 40%
5. If 90% of A = 30% of B and B = x% of A, then the value of x is
a. 800 b. 300 c. 700 d. 400
6. If 90% of A = 30% of B and B =2 x% of A, then the value of x is
a. 450 b. 400 c. 300 d. 150
7. If 30% of A is added to 40% of B, the answer is 80% of B. What percentage of A is B?
a. 30% b. 40% c. 70% d. 75%
&Y0,h
8. If 40% of (A + B) = 60% of (A – B) then Y3h is
' ) $ )
a. ) b. ' c. ) d. $
9. 0.001 is equivalent to
a. 10% B. 1% c. 0.01% d. 0.1%
10. What percent of 3.5 kg is 70 gms?
a. 3% b. 4% c. 5% d. 2%
11. One-third of 1206 is what percent of 134?
a. 100% b. 150% c. 200% d. 300%
83+
12. If 20% of a is equal to 80% of b, then is equal to
80+
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8
&Y0h
13. If 20% of (A + B) = 50% of B, then 2A - B value of &Y3h is
% % %
a. b. c. d. 1
& , #
14. If x% of a is the same as y% of b, then z% of b will be
-1 1. .- -
a. . % of a b. - % of a c. 1 % of a d. 1 % of a
15. If Y% of one hour is 1 minute 12 seconds, then Y is equal to
% %
a. 2 b. 1 c. & d. #
16. What percent of 3.6 kg is 72 gms?
a. 32% b. 22% c. 12% d. 2%
17. 50% of a number when added to 50 is equal to the number. The number is
a. 50 b. 75 c. 100 d. 150
%
18. 83,% of Rs. 90 is equal to 60% of?
a. Rs. 123 b. Rs. 124 c. Rs. 122 d. Rs. 125
19. 51% of a whole number is 714. 25% of that number is
a. 350 b. 450 c. 550 d. 250
20. Due to 25% fall in the rate of eggs, one can buy 2 dozen eggs more than before by investing
Rs.162. Then the original rate per dozen of the eggs is
a. Rs. 22 b. Rs. 24 c. Rs. 27 d. Rs. 30
21. What per cent of a day is 30 minutes?
a. 2.83 b. 2.083 c. 2.09 d. 2.075
22. A basket contains 300 mangoes. 75 mangoes were distributed among some students. Find
the percentage of mangoes left in the basket.
a. 70% b. 72% c. 76% d. 75%
23. The weights of two iron balls are 3.5 kg and 7.5 kg. What is the percentage weight of the
first ball with respect to second ball?

115 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 & %
a. 46 % b. 35% c. 46 % d. 45%
, ,
24. A store has an offer ‘Buy 4 Get 1 Free’. What is the net percentage of discount?
a. 25% b. 33.3% c. 20% d. Insufficient Data
25. If A earns 25% more than B then how much percent does B earns less than A:
a. 15% b. 20% c. 25% d. 30%
26. What per cent of 1 day is 36 minutes?
a. 25% b. 2.5% c. 3.6% d. 0.25%
27. One number is 25% of another number. The larger number is 12 more than the smaller. The
larger number is
a. 48 b. 16 c. 4 d. 12
28. The number of students in a class is increased by 20% and the number now becomes 66.
Initially the number was
a. 45 b. 50 c. 55 d. 60
29. A number is increased by 20%. To get back to the original number, the increased number
is to be reduced by
& %
a. 20% b. 21% c.16 ,% d. 14,%
30. A village lost 12% of its goats in a flood and 5% of remainder died from diseases. If the
number left now is 8360, what was the original number before the flood?
a. 1000 b. 10000 c. 1,00,000 d. 8360
31. I f A is equal to 20% of B and B is equal to 25% of C; then what per cent of C is equal to
A?
a. 10 b. 15 c. 5 d. 20
32. In a school there are 1500 students, 44% of them are girls. Monthly fee of each boy is Rs.
540 and the fee of each girl is 25% less than that of a boy. The sum of fees of boys and
girls both is
a. Rs. 720,600 b. Rs. 720,800 c. Rs. 720,900 d. Rs. 721,000
33. In a marriage party 32% are women, 54% are men and there are 196 children. How many
men are there in the marriage party?
a. 756 b. 448 c. 332 d. 324
34. A’s income is 25% more than B’s income. B’s income is what per cent of A’s income?
a. 80 b. 75 c. 50 d. 25
35. A’s salary is 50% more than tha1t of B. Then B’s salary is less than that of A by
% % %
a. 50% b. 33,% c. 33#% d. 44&%
36. If the salary of Manoj is 40% less than that of Subhash, then by how much percentage is
the salary of Subhash more than that of Manoj?
% &
a. 60% b. 66#% c. 66,% d. 65%
37. The percentage change in a number when it is first decreased by 10% and then increased
by 10% is
a. 0.1 % increase b. 1 % decrease c. 0.1 % decrease d. No changes
38. x is 5 times longer than y. The percentage by which y is less than x is:
a. 50% b. 40% c. 80% d. 70%
39. A man spends 75% of his income. His income increases by 20% and his expenditure also
increases by 10%. Find the percentage increase in his savings.
a. 25% b. 50% c. 15% d. 10%
40. Christy donated 10% of his income to an orphanage and deposited 20% of the remainder
in his bank. If he has now Rs. 7200 left, what is his income.
a. Rs. 10000 b. Rs. 8000 c. Rs. 9000 d. Rs. 8500

116 A Complete Solution For CMAT

41. The average salary of male employees in a firm was Rs. 5200 and that of females was Rs.
4200. The mean salary of all the employees was Rs. 5000. What is the percentage of female
employees?
a. 80% b. 20% c. 40% d. 30%
42. In a factory, the salary of each worker is increased in the ratio 22 : 25 but the number of
&
workers is decreased by 26,%. The net effect on the salary is
% &
a. 11/% decrease b. 20% increase c. 16,% decrease d. 10% decrease
43. If the income of Mohan is 150% higher than that of Mahesh, then by what percent the
income of Mahesh is less than that of Mohan?
a. 40% b. 50% c. 60% d. 45%
44. A man spends 60% of his income on different items. His income is increased by 20% and
his expenditure is also increased by 10%. Find the percentage decrease in his savings?
a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25%
45. P’s salary is 25% higher than Q, what percentage is Q’s salary lower than that of P?
a. 20 b. 29 c. 31 d. 33.33
46. If A’s salary is 40% less than that of B, then how much percent is B’s salary more than that
of A?
% & & %
a. 33, b. 66, c. 33, d. 66&
47. A’s salary was decreased by 50% and subsequently increased by 50%. How much per cent
does he loose?
%
a. 25% b. 50% c. 12&% d. No loss
48. A man spends 15% of his income. If his expenditure is Rs. 75, his income (in rupees) is :
a. 400 b. 300 c. 750 d. 500
49. If A’s salary is 30% more than that of B, then by how much per- cent is B’s salary less than
that of A?
a. 13.01% b. 13.07% c. 23.07% d. 23.01%
50. The average monthly salary of all the employees in a factory is Rs. 8840. If the average
salary of all the officers is Rs. 15000 and that of the remaining employees is Rs. 8000, then
what is the percent- age of the officers among the employees?
%
a. 10% b. 12% c. 8, d. 11%
51. The monthly salary of Mr. Sachdev gets increased by 5%, there by his salary becomes Rs.
15,120 per annum. His earlier monthly salary (before the increase) was
a. Rs. 1,320 b. Rs. 1,200 c. Rs. 1,240 d. Rs. 1,440
52. The prices of a school bag and a shoe are in the ratio 7 : 5. The price of a school bag is Rs.
200 more than the price of a shoe. Then the price of a shoe is
a. Rs. 200 b. Rs. 700 c. Rs. 500 d. Rs. 1,200
53. If 15% of x is same as 20% of y then x : y is
a. 4 : 3 b. 5 : 4 c. 6 : 5 d. 3 : 4
54. The ratio of number of boys and girls in a school is 2 : 3. If 25% of the boys and 30% of
the girls are scholarship holders, the percentage of the school students who are not
scholarship holders is
a. 72 b. 36 c. 54 d. 60
&
55. Two numbers A and B are such that the sum of 5% of A and 4% of B is , rd of the sum of
6% of A and 8% of B. the ratio A : B is
a. 4 : 3 b. 3 : 4 c. 1 : 1 d. 2 : 3
56. In what ratio must 25% hydro- chloric acid be mixed with 60% hydrochloric acid to get a
mixture of 40% hydrochloric acid ?

117 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. 5 : 12 b. 4 : 3 c. 3 : 4 d. 12 : 5
57. If 50% of x = 30% y, x : y is
a. 2 : 3 b. 5 : 3 c. 3 : 2 d. 3 : 5
58. The ratio of the number of boys to that of girls in a village is 3 : 2. If 30% of boys and 70%
of girls appeared in an examination, the ratio of the number of villagers, appeared in the
examination to that not appeared in the same examination is
a. 9 : 14 b. 23 : 27 c. 1 : 1 d. 27 : 23
59. A milkman mixed some water with milk to gain 25% by selling the mixture at the cost
price. The ratio of water and milk is respectively
a. 5 : 4 b. 4 : 5 c. 1 : 5 d. 1 : 4
60. The ratio of syrup and water in a mixture is 3 : 1, then the percentage of syrup in this
mixture is:
& %
a. 75% b. 25% c. 66,% d. 33,%
61. There is a ratio of 5: 4 between two numbers. If 40 % of the first number is 12, then what
would be 50 % of the second number?
a. 12 b. 24 c. 18 d. Data Inadequate
62. One type of liquid contains 20% water and the second type of liquid contains 35% of water.
A glass is filled with 10 parts of first liquid and 4 parts of second liquid. The water in the
new mixture in the glass is
% &
a. 37% b. 46% c. 12'% d. 24'%
63. 40 litres of a mixture of milk and water contains 10% of water, the water to be added, to
make the water content 20% in the new mixture is :
a. 6 litres b. 6.5 litres c. 5.5 litres d. 5 litres
64. How much pure alcohol has to be added to 400 ml of a solution containing 15% of alcohol
to change the concentration of alcohol in the mixture to 32% ?
a. 60 ml b. 100 ml c. 128 ml d. 68 ml
65. In 50 gm alloy of gold and silver, the gold is 80% by weight. How much gold should be
mixed to this alloy so that the weight of gold would become 95% ?
a. 200 gm b. 150 gm c. 50 gm d. 10 gm
66. 200 litres of a mixture contains 15% water and the rest is milk. The amount of milk that
must be added so that the resulting mixture contains 87.5% milk is
a. 30 litres b. 35 litres c. 40 litres d. 45 litres
67. In what ratio must a mixture of 30% alcohol strength be mixed with that of 50% alcohol
strength so as to get a mixture of 45% alcohol strength ?
a. 1 : 2 b. 1 : 3 c. 2 : 1 d. 3 : 1
68. In an examination, there were 1000 boys and 800 girls. 60% of the boys and 50% of the
girls passed. Find the percent of the candidates failed ?
a. 46.4% b. 48.4% c. 44.4% d. 49.6%
69. In an examination, a student who gets 20% of the maximum marks fails by 5 marks.
Another student who scores 30% of the maximum marks gets 20 marks more than the pass
marks. The necessary percentage required for passing is :
a. 32% b. 23% c. 22% d. 20%
70. In an examination a candidate must secure 40% marks to pass. A candidate, who gets 220
marks, fails by 20 marks. What are the maximum marks for the examination?
a. 1200 b. 800 c. 600 d. 450
71. A student has to obtain 33% of total marks to pass. He got 25% of total marks and failed
by 40 marks. The number of total marks is
a. 800 b. 300 c. 500 d. 1000

118 A Complete Solution For CMAT

72. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other
and his marks were 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are:
a. 42, 33 b. 43, 34 c. 41, 32 d. 39, 30
73. A class has two sections, which contain 20 and 30 students. The pass percentage of these
sections are 80% and 60% respectively. The pass percentage of whole class is
a. 60 b. 68 c. 70 d. 78
74. In an examination 75% candidates passed in English and 60% passed in Mathematics. 25%
failed in both and 240 passed the examination. Find the total number of candidates.
a. 492 b. 300 c. 500 d. 400
75. In a quarterly examination a student secured 30% marks and failed by 12 marks. In the
same examination another student secured 40% marks and got 28 marks more than
minimum marks to pass. The maximum marks in the examination is
a. 300 b. 500 c. 700 d. 400
76. In an examination there are three subjects of 100 marks each. A student scores 60% in the
first subject and 80% in the second subject. He scored 70% in aggregate. His percentage of
marks in the third subject is
a. 80 b. 60 c. 65 d. 70
77. In an examination, a student must get 36% marks to pass. A student who gets 190 marks
failed by 35 marks. The total marks in that examination is
a. 450 b. 810 c. 500 d. 625
78. A candidate who gest 20% marks in an examination, fails by 30 marks. But if he gets 32%
marks, he gets 42 marks more than the minimum pass marks. Find the pass percentage of
marks.
a. 52% b. 20% c. 25% d. 12%
79. In an examination 73% of the candidates passed in quantitative aptitude test, 70% passed
in General awareness and 64% passed in both. If 6300 failed in both subjects the total
number of examinees was
a. 60,000 b. 50,000 c. 30,000 d. 25,000
80. In a certain school, 10% of the students have less than 75% attendance and are not allowed
to sit in the exam, but 20% of the students who have less than 75% attendance are allowed
to sit in the exam. What percent of the students in the school have less than 75% attendance?
a. 30% b. 12.5% c. 15% d. 10.5%
&
81. There are 1400 students in a school, 25% of them wear spectacles and ' of them wearing
spectacles are boys. How many girls in the school do wear spetacles?
a. 250 b. 100 c. 200 d. 300
82. If 60% of the students in a school are boys and the number of girls is 812, how many boys
are there in the school?
a. 1128 b. 1218 c. 1821 d. 1281
83. A scored 72% in a paper with a maximum marks of 900 and 80% in another paper with a
maximum marks of 700. If the result is based on the combined percent- age of two papers,
the combined percentage is
a. 75.5% b. 76% c. 76.5% d. 77%
84. In an examination, 35% of total students failed in Hindi, 45% failed in English and 20%
failed in both. Find the percentage of those students who passed in both the subjects ?
a. 45% b. 35% c. 20% d. 40%
85. In an office 40% of the staff is female, 40% of the females and 60% of the males voted for
me. The percentage of votes I got was
a. 24% b. 42% c. 50% d. 52%
86. In an election there were only two candidates. One of the candidates secured 40% of votes
and is defeated by the other candidate by 298 votes. The total number of votes polled is
119 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 745 b. 1460 c. 1490 d. 1500
87. In an assembly election, a candidate got 55% of the total valid votes. 2% of the total votes
were declared invalid. If the total number of voters is 104000, then the number of valid
votes polled in favour of the candidate is:
a. 56506 b. 56650 c. 56560 d. 56056
88. Two candidates contested in an election. One got 60% of the votes and won by 1600 votes.
What is the number of votes polled ?
a. 9000 b. 8000 c. 10000 d. 7500
89. In an election, three candidates contested. The first candidate got 40% votes and the second
got 36% votes. If total number of votes polled were 36000, find the number of votes got by
the 3rd candidate.
a. 8040 b. 8640 c. 9360 d. 9640
90. Two persons contested an election of Parliament. The winning candidate secured 57% of
the total votes polled and won by a majority of 42,000 votes. The number of total votes
polled is
a. 500,000 b. 600,000 c. 300,000 d. 400,000
91. In an election, a candidate who gets 84 % of the votes is elected by a majority of 476 votes.
What is the total number of votes polled?
a. 900 b. 810 c. 600 d. 700
92. At an election there were two candidates. A candidate got 38% of votes and lost by 7200
number of votes. The total number of valid votes were
a. 13,000 b. 13,800 c. 16,200 d. 30,000
93. In a college election a candidate secured 62% of the votes and is elected by a margin of
144 votes. The total number of votes polled is:
a. 925 b. 600 c. 1200 d. 800
94. In an election 10% of the voters on the voters’ list did not cast their votes and 60 voters
cast their ballot papers blank. There were only two candidates. The winner was supported
by 47% of all the voters in the list and he got 308 votes more than his rival. The number of
voters on the list was
a. 3600 b. 6200 c. 4575 d. 6028
95. In an election, a candidate secures 40% of the votes but is defeated by the only other
candidate by a majority of 298 votes. Find the total number of votes recoded.
a. 1580 b. 1490 c. 1470 d. 1530

6. Profit and Loss

C.P. → Cost Price (Purchasing Price + Repairing/ Maintenance Cost, if any) S.P → Selling
Price
6.1 If S.P > C.P. then there will be profit
Profit = S.P. – C.P.
fCFL<G × %**
Profit% =
a.f.
Note: Both profit and loss are always calculated on cost price only.
6.2 If C.P > S.P., then there will be Loss
jFHH × %**
Loss = C.P. – S.P., Loss% = a.f.
6.3 If an object is sold on r% Profit.
%**3fCFL<G%
Then, S.P. = C.P. R U
%**
Or

120 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 %**
C.P. = S.P. R%**3fCFL<G %U
Similarly, If an object is sold on r% loss, then
%**0jFHH% %**
:. x. = R %** U or >. x. = :. x. R%**0jFHH%U
6.4 Successive Profits: If A sells an article to B at a% profit and B sells it to C at b% profit
OR
If a% and b% are two successive profits.
+8
Then Total Profit% = AH + I + %**B %
If A sells an article to B at a% profit and B sells it to C at b% profit and if C paid Rs. x,
then amount paid by
%** %**
` = 4 × A%**3+B A%**38 B
6.5 If a% and b% are two successive losses then (negative sign shows loss and positive sign
shows profit.)
+8
Total loss% = A−H − I + %**B %
6.6 If a% profit and b% loss occur, simultaneously t
+8
hen overall loss or profit % is AH − I − B % (-ve sign for loss +ve sign for profit)
%**
+8
6.7 If a% loss and b% profit occur then, total loss/profit is A−H + − %**B % (negative sign for
loss and positive sign for profit).
6.8 If cost price of ‘x’ articles is equal to selling price of ‘y’ articles, then Selling Price = x,
Cost Price = y
.0-
Hence, Profit or loss% = - × 100
6.9 On selling ‘x’ articles the profit or loss is equal to Selling of ‘y’ articles, then Profit% =
-×%**
.0-
- ×%**
Loss % =
.3-
6.10 If a man sells two similar objects, one at a loss of x% and another at a gain of x%, then he
.1
always incurs loss in this transaction and loss % is %** %
6.11 A man sells his items at a profit/loss of x%. If he had sold it for R more, he would have
gained/lost y%. Then.
A
C.P. of items = -±. × 100
‘+’ = when one is profit and other is loss
‘–‘ = when both are either profit or loss.
6.12 If a mana purchases ‘a’ items for Rs. x and sells ‘b’ items for Rs. y, then his profit or loss
+-08.
percent is given by A 8. B × 100% OR
6.13 If the total cost of ‘a’ articles having equal cost is Rs. x and the total selling price of ‘b’
articles is Rs. y, then in the transaction gain or loss per cent is given by
+-08.
A 8. B × 100% Where positive value signifies ‘profit’ and negative value signifies
‘loss’.
6.14 A dishonest shopkeeper sells his goods at C.P. but uses false weight, then this
_CE? l?<dcG02+\H? l?<dcG
Gain % = × 100%
2+\H? l?<dcG
mCCFC
Or Gain % = _CE? n+\E?0mCCFC × 100%

121 A Complete Solution For CMAT

6.15 If A sells an article to B at a profit (loss) of r1% and B sells the same article to C at a profit
(loss) of r2% then the cost price of article for C will be given by C.P. of article for C
C# C1
= C.P. of ` × A1 ± %** B A1 ± %** B
(Positive and negative sign conventions are used for profit and loss.)
6.16 If a vendor used to sell his articles at x% loss on cost price but uses y grams instead of z
grams, then his profit or loss% is
1
R(100 − 4) - − 100U %
(Profit or loss as per positive or negative sign).

Practice Test

1. A man purchased a bedsheet for Rs. 450 and sold it at a gain of 10% calculated on the
selling price. The selling price of the bedsheet was
a. Rs. 460 b. 475 c. Rs. 480 d. Rs. 500
2. By selling an article for Rs. 960 a man incurs a loss of 4%; what was the cost price ?
a. Rs. 1,000 b. Rs. 784 c. Rs. 498.4 d. Rs. 300
3. A salesman expects a gain of 13% on his cost price. If in a month his sale was Rs. 7,91,000,
what was his profit ?
a. Rs. 85,659 b. Rs. 88,300 c. Rs. 91,000 d. Rs. 97,786
4. By selling a car for Rs. 64,000, Mr. Rao lost 20%. Then the cost price of the car is:
a. Rs. 72,000 b. Rs. 76,800 c. Rs. 80,000 d. Rs. 84,000
5. A retailer buys a radio for Rs. 225. His overhead expenses are Rs. 15. He sells the radio for
Rs. 300. The profit per cent of the retailer is :
& %
a. 25% b. 26 % c. 20% d. 33 %
, ,
6. An item when sold for Rs. 1,690 earned 30% profit on the cost price. Then the cost price
is
a. Rs. 507 b. Rs. 630 c. Rs. 1,300 d. Rs. 130
7. A fan is listed at Rs. 150 and a discount of 20% is given. Then the selling price is
a. Rs. 180 b. Rs. 150 c. Rs. 120 d. Rs. 110
8. By selling 33 metres of cloth, a person gains the cost of 11 metres. Find his gain%
% % %
a. 33,% b. 33&% c. 33% d. 34,%
9. While selling to the retailer, a company allows 30% discount on the marked price of their
products. If the retailer sells those products at marked price, his profit % will be:
% )
a. 30% b. 42'% c. 40% d. 42'%
10. A merchant purchases a wrist watch for Rs. 450 and fixes its list price in such a way that
after allowing a discount of 100%, he earns a profit of 20%. Then the list price of the watch
is
a. Rs. 650 b. Rs. 700 c. Rs. 550 d. Rs. 600
11. The cost price of a radio is Rs. 600. The 5% of the cost price is charged towards
transportation. After adding that, if the net profit to be made is 15%, then the selling price
of the radio must be
a. Rs. 704.5 b. Rs. 724.5 c. Rs. 664.5 d. Rs. 684.5
12. If a shirt costs Rs. 64 after 20% discount is allowed, what was its original price in Rs. ?
a. 76.8 b. 80 c. 88 d. 86.80
13. The total cost of 8 buckets and 5 mugs is Rs. 92 and the total cost of 5 buckets and 8 mugs
is Rs. 77. Find the cost of 2 mugs and 3 buckets.
a. Rs. 35 b. Rs. 70 c. Rs. 30 d. Rs. 38
122 A Complete Solution For CMAT
14. If books bought at prices from Rs.150 to Rs. 300 are sold at prices ranging from Rs. 250 to
Rs. 350, what is the greatest possible profit that might be made in selling 15 books ?
a. Cannot be determined b. 750 c. Rs. 4,250 d. Rs. 3,000
15. If there is a profit of 20% on the cost price, the percentage of profit on the sale price is
& %
a. 16,% b. 12% c. 15,% d. 16%
16. Nisha bought a number of oranges at 2 for a rupee and an equal numbers at 3 for a rupee.
To make a profit of 20% she should sell a dozen for
a. Rs. 6 b. Rs. 8 c. Rs. 10 d. Rs. 12
17. There is a profit of 20% on the cost price of an article. The % of profit, when calculated on
selling price is
& %
a. 16 % b. 20% c. 33 % d. None of these
, ,
%
18. If selling price of an article is 1 of cost price, find gain%
,
% &
a. 25% b. 33,% c. 1.33% d. 66,%
19. A merchant loses 10% by selling an article. If the cost price of the article is Rs. 15, then
the selling price of the article is
a. Rs. 13.20 b. Rs. 16.50 c. Rs. 12.30 d. Rs. 13.50
20. Pooja wants to sell a watch at a profit of 20%. She bought it at 10% less and sold it at Rs.
30 less, but still she gained 20%. The cost price of watch is
a. Rs. 240 b. Rs. 220 c. Rs. 250 d. Rs.225
21. A fruit merchant makes a profit of 25% by selling mangoes at a certain price. If he charges
Rs. 1 more on each mango, he would gain 50%. At first the price of one mango was
a. Rs. 5 b. Rs. 7 c. Rs. 4 d. Rs. 6
22. There is 10% loss if an article is sold at Rs. 270. Then the cost price of the article is
a. Rs. 300 b. Rs. 270 c. Rs. 320 d. Rs. 250
23. If bananas are bought at the rate of 4 for a rupee, how many must be sold for a rupee so as
%
to gain 33,%?
a. 2.5 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
24. By selling an article for Rs. 450, I lose 20%. For what price should I sell it to gain 20%?
a. Rs. 490 b. Rs. 675 c. Rs. 470 d. Rs. 562.50
25. I f the profit on selling an article for Rs. 425 is the same as the loss on selling it for Rs. 355,
then the cost price of the article is
a. Rs. 410 b. Rs. 380 c. Rs. 400 d. Rs. 390
26. The C.P of 10 articles is equal to the S.P. of 15 articles. What is the profit or loss
percentage ?
a. 25.5% b. 35% c. 10% d. 33.3%
27. The selling price of 6 bananas is equal to the cost price of 8 bananas. Then the percentage
of profit is :
%
a. 20 b. 33, c. 25 d. 30

28. By selling a bag at Rs. 230, profit of 15% is made. The selling price of the bag, when it is
sold at 20% profit would be
a. Rs. 250 b. Rs. 205 c. Rs. 240 d. Rs. 200
29. A man gains 20% by selling an article for a certain price. If he sells it at double the price,
the percentage of profit will be
a. 40% b. 100% c. 120% d. 140%
30. A trader sold a cycle at a loss of 10%. If the selling price had been increased by Rs. 200,
there would have been a gain of 6%. The cost price of the cycle is
a. Rs. 1200 b. Rs. 1205 c. Rs. 1250 d. Rs. 1275
31. The cost price of 25 books is equal to the selling price of 20 books. The profit per cent is
a. 20% b. 22% c. 24% d. 25%

123 A Complete Solution For CMAT

32. If the selling price of 40 articles is equal to the cost price of 50 articles, the loss or gain
percent is
a. 25% gain b. 20% gain c. 25% gain d. 20% loss
33. By selling a tape-recorder for Rs. 1040 a man gains 4%. If he sells it for Rs. 950, his loss
will be
a. 5% b. 4% c. 4.5% d. 9%
34. Cost price of 100 books is equal to the selling price of 60 books. The gain percentage/loss
percentage is
, &
a. 66 % b. 67% c. 66% d. 66 %
& ,
35. If the cost price of 10 articles equals selling price of 9 articles, the gain or loss percent will
be
% % % %
a. 11/% loss b. 1/% loss c. 1/% gain d. 11/% gain
%
36. Ritu purchased 2&dozen eggs at the rate of Rs. 20 per dozen. She found that 6 eggs were
rotten. She sold the remaining eggs at the rate of Rs. 22 per dozen. Then her profit or loss
percent is :
a. 12% loss b. 12% profit c. 10% loss d. 10% profit
37. Ram sold two horses at the same price. In one he gets a profit of 10% and in the other he
gets a loss of 10%. Then Ram gets
a. 2% loss b. No loss or profit c. 1 % loss d. 1% profit
38. A man purchases some oranges attherateof3forRs.40and the same quantity at 5 for Rs. 60.
If he sells all the oranges at the rate of 3 for Rs. 50, find his gain or loss percent (to the
nearest integer).
a. 32% profit b. 31% loss c. 34% loss d. 31% profit
39. An article is sold at a profit of 25%. If the selling price is doubled, the profit will be :
a. 200% b. 50% c. 100% d. 150%
40. A man purchased an article for Rs. 1500 and sold it at 25% above the cost price. If he has
to pay Rs. 75 as tax on it, his net profit percentage will be :
a. 20% b. 25% c. 30% d. 15%
41. If a man were to sell his hand– cart for Rs. 720, he would lose 25%. At what price must he
sell it to gain 25%?
a. Rs. 1200 b. Rs. 960 c. Rs. 1152 d. Rs. 768
42. If the Cost Price of 25 chairs is equal to the selling price of 30 chairs, then the loss % is :
&
a. 25% b. 20% c. 5% d. 16,%
43. A fruit seller buys oranges at the rate of Rs. 10 per dozen and sells at the rate of Rs. 12 per
dozen. His gain percent is :
%
a. 20% b. 15% c. 12% d. 8,%
44. If the cost price of 25 pens is equal to the selling price of 20 pens, then the profit per cent
is
a. 20% b. 25% d. 15% d. 5%
45. A shopkeeper sells rice at 10% profit and uses weight 30% less than the actual measure.
His gain percent is
& % & ,
a. 57,% b. 57'% c. 57$% d. 57'%
46. A man bought 4 dozen eggs at Rs. 24 per dozen and 2 dozen eggs at Rs. 32 per dozen. To
gain 20% on the whole, he should sell he eggs at
a. Rs. 16 per dozen b. Rs. 21 per dozen c. Rs. 32 per dozen d. Rs. 35 per dozen
47. If 10% loss is made on selling price, then the percentage of loss on the cost price will be
% %
a. 11/% b. 9%%% c. 10% d. 11%
48. Sapna purchased a cycle for Rs. 1,000 and sold it for Rs. 1,200. Her gain in percentage is :
a. 20% b. 10% d. 12% d. 40%

124 A Complete Solution For CMAT

49. An item costing Rs. 200 is being sold at 10% loss. If the price is further reduced by 5%,
the selling price will be
a. Rs. 170 b. Rs. 171 c. Rs. 175 d. Rs. 179
50. By selling an article for Rs. 102, there is a loss of 15%, when the article is sold for Rs.
134.40, the net result in the transaction is
a. Rs. 12% gain b. Rs. 12% loss c. Rs. 10% loss d.
Rs. 15% gain
51. Two toys are sold at Rs. 504 each. One toy brings the dealer a gain of 12% and the other a
loss of 4%.The gain or loss per cent by selling both the toys is
$ # % ,
a. 3 % profit b. 4 % profit c. 5 % profit d. 2 % profit
%, %, %, %,
52. A sold a horse to B for Rs. 4800 by losing 20%. B sells it to C at a price which would have
given A a profit of 15%. B’s gain is
a. Rs. 1800 b. Rs. 1900 c. Rs. 2000 d. Rs. 2100
53. A fruit vendor buys apples at the rate of 10 for Rs.100.How many should he sell for R. 100,
so that he makes a profit of 25% ?
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8
54. A table is sold at a profit of 13%. If it is sold for Rs. 25 more, profit is 18 %. The cost price
of table is
a. Rs. 100 b. Rs. 500 c. Rs. 200 d. Rs. 1000
55. A man sold his watch at a loss of 5%. Had he sold it for Rs. 56.25 more, he would have
gained 10%. What is the cost price of the watch (in Rs.)?
a. 370 b. 365 c. 375 d. 390
56. Kamala bought a bicycle for Rs. 1,650. She had to sell it at a loss of 8%. She sold it for
a. Rs. 1, 581 b. Rs. 1, 518 c. Rs. 1, 510 d. Rs. 1, 508
57. A table is sold at Rs. 1,800 at a loss of 10%. At what price should it be sold to earn a profit
of 15%?
a. Rs. 2,070 b. Rs. 1,890 c. Rs. 2,000 d. Rs. 2,300
68. A manufacturer sells an item to a wholesale dealer at a profit of 18%. The wholesaler sells
the same to a retailer at a profit of 20%. The retailer in turn sells it to a customer for Rs.
15045 there- by earning a profit of 25%. The cost price of the manufacturer is
a. Rs. 8000 b. Rs. 8500 c. Rs. 9000 d. Rs. 10000
59. A man sold an article at a gain of 5%. Had he sold it for Rs. 40 more, he would have gained
8%. The cost price of the article is
a. Rs. 6,000 b. Rs. 10,000 c. Rs. 12,000 d. Rs. 8,000
60. A radio is sold at a profit of 20%. Had it been sold for Rs. 60 more the profit would have
been 30%. The cost price of the radio is
a. Rs. 500 b. Rs. 600 c. Rs. 550 d. Rs. 620
61. A dealer sold a bicycle at a profit of 10%. Had he bought the bicy- cle at 10% less price
and sold it at a price Rs. 60 more, he would have gained 25%. The cost price of the bicycle
was
a. Rs. 2400 b. Rs. 2600 c. Rs. 2000 d. Rs. 2200
62. If 3 articles are sold for the cost of 5 articles, then the profit percentage is:
&
a. 50 b. 60 c. 66, d. 65
63. A sold a watch at a gain of 5% to B and B sold it to C at again of 4%. If C paid Rs.91 for
it, the price paid by A is :
a. Rs. 83.33 b. Rs. 84.33 c. Rs. 83 d. Rs. 82.81
64. Arun buys one kilogram of apples for Rs. 120 and sells it to Swati gaining 25%. Swati sells
it to Divya who again sells it for Rs. 198, making a profit of 10%. What is the profit
percentage made by Swati?
a. 25% b. 20% c. 16.67% d. 15%
65. A dealer sold an article at 6% loss. Had he sold it for Rs. 64 more, he would have made a
profit of 10%. Then the cost of the article is

125 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. Rs. 400 b. Rs. 200 c. Rs. 164 d. Rs. 464
66. If percentage of profit made, when an article is sold for Rs.78, is twice as when it is sold
for Rs. 69, the cost price of the article is
a. Rs. 49 b. Rs. 51 c. Rs. 57 d. Rs. 60
67. A shopkeeper buys 80 articles for Rs. 2400 and sells them for a profit of 16%. Find the
selling price of one article.
a. Rs. 36.40 b. Rs. 34.80 c. Rs. 35.60 d. Rs. 33.80
68. Ramesh sold a book at a loss of 30%. If he had sold it for Rs. 140 more, he would have
made a prof- it of 40%. The cost price of the book is
a. Rs. 280 b. Rs. 200 c. Rs. 260 d. Rs. 300
69. By selling cloth at Rs. 9 per metre, a shopkeeper loses 10%. Find the rate at which it should
be sold so as to earn profit of 15%.
a. Rs.11.20 b. Rs.11.30 c. Rs.11.40 d. Rs.11.50
70. By selling an article for Rs. 665, there is a loss of 5%. In order to make a profit of 12%, the
selling price of the article must be
a. Rs. 812 b. Rs. 800 c. Rs. 790 d. Rs. 784
71. By selling an article for 700 a man lost 30%. At what price should he have sold it to gain
30%?
a. Rs. 910 b. Rs. 1200 c. Rs. 1232 d. Rs. 1300
72. If a man were to sell his wrist- watch for 720, he would lose 25%. What price must he sell
at for to gain 25% ?
a. Rs. 960 b. Rs. 900 c. Rs. 1000 d. Rs. 1200
73. An article was sold at a profit of 12%. If the cost price would be 10% less and selling price
would be 5.75 more, there would be profit of 30%. Then at what price it should be sold to
make a profit of 20%?
a. Rs. 115 b. Rs. 120 c. Rs. 138 d. Rs. 215
74. By selling 80 ball pens for Rs. 140 a retailer loses 30%. How many ball pens should he sell
for Rs. 104 so as to make a profit of 30%?
a. 32 b. 52 c. 48 d. 42
75. By selling 90 ball pens for Rs. 160 a person loses 20%. The number of ball pens, which
should be sold for Rs. 96 so as to have a profit of 20% is
a. 36 b. 37 c. 46 d. 47
76. Sourav purchased 30 kg of rice at the rate of Rs. 10 per kg and 35 kg at the rate of Rs. 11
per kg. He mixed the two. At what price per kg (in Rs.) should he sell the mixture to make
a 30% profit in the transaction?
a. 12.5 b. 13 c. 13.7 d. 14.25
77. Mr. Y purchased a flat for Rs. 9,25, 000 and spent Rs. 35, 000 for its renovation. If he sold
the flat for Rs. 10, 80, 000 then his profit percent is
a. 15.0 b. 17.5 c. 20.0 d. 12.5
(
78. The selling price of an article is $ th of its cost price. Then the gain percentage is
a. 20% b. 28% c. 60% d. 68%
79. 12 copies of a book were sold for Rs. 1800 thereby gaining cost price of 3 copies. The cost
price of a copy of the book is :
a. Rs. 120 b. Rs. 150 c. Rs. 1200 d. Rs. 150
80. After selling 5% of a quantity of sugar, 5 kg. of sugar remains. Find the total quantity of
sugar.
$
a. 19 kg b. 5%/kg c. 100kg d. 95 kg

7. Discount

7.1 If Marked Price = (MP) Selling Price = (SP)

126 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Then, Discount = MP – SP and
;<H9FE@G
z+foMh@O% = gf × 100
g+C]?> fC<9?0I?\\<@d fC<9?
z+foMh@O% = × 100
g+C]?> fC<9?
Note: Any kind of Discount is calculated only on marked price and not on selling
price or cost price.
7.2 If article is sold on D% discount, then
gf(%**0;)
:x = %**
If ×%**
{x =
%**0;
7.3 When successive Discounts D1, D2 , D3 , so on, are given then
%**0;# %**0; %**0;
:x = {x A
%**
B A %** 1 B A %** 2 B
7.4 If D1, D2, D3 are successive discounts, then equivalent discount/overall discount is (in
percentage)
%**0;# %**0; %**0;
100 − RA
%**
B A %** 1 B A %** 2 B × 100U%
7.5 (Special case): When two successive discounts are given, then overall discount is
;# ;1
= Az% + z& − %** B%
gf %** ∓C
7.6 If r% of profit or loss occur after giving D% discount on marked price, then af = %**0;
(positive sign for profit and negative for loss)
7.7 ‘y’ articles (quantity/number) are given free y ́100 on purchasing ‘x’ articles. Then,
- ×%**
discount% = .3-
7.8 A tradesman marks his goods r% above his cost price. If he allows his customers a
C × (%**0 C# )
discount of r1% on the marked price. Then is profit or loss per cent is %**
− c%
(Positive sign signifies profit and negative sign signifies loss).
7.9 The marked price of an article is fixed in such a way that after allowing a discount of r%
C3A
a profit of R% is obtained. Then the marked price of the article is A × 100B % more
%**0C
than its cost price.

Practice Test

1. Applied to a bill for Rs.1,00,000 the difference between a discount of 40% and two
successive discounts of 36% and 4% is :
a. Nill b. Rs. 1,440 c. Rs. 2,500 d. Rs. 4,000
2. The successive discounts of 10% and 30% are equivalent to a single discount of:
a. 40% b. 35% c. 38% d. 37%
3. The marked price of a watch was Rs.720. A man bought the same for Rs.550.80, after
getting two successive discounts, the first at 10%. What was the second discount rate?
a. 12% b. 14% c. 15% d. 18%
4. The marked price of a watch is Rs.1000. A retailer buys it at Rs.810 after getting two
successive discounts of 10% and another rate which is illegible. What is the second
discount rate?
a. 15% b. 10% c. 8% d. 6.5%
5. The successive discounts of 10% and 20% are equivalent to a single discount of :

127 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. 30% b. 15% c. 28% d. 12%
6. The equivalent single discount for two successive discounts of 15% and 10% is
a. 25% b. 20% c. 23.5% d. 20.5%
7. The marked price of an article is Rs.500. It is sold at successive discounts of 20% and
10%. The selling price of the article (in Rs.) is:
a. 350 b. 375 c. 360 d. 400
8. An item is marked for Rs.240 for sale. If two successive discounts of 10% and 5% are
allowed on the sale price, the selling price of the article will be
a. Rs. 205.2 b. Rs. 204 c. Rs.34.8 d. Rs.36
9. The price of an article is raised by 30% and then two successive discounts of 10% each
are allowed. Ultimately the price of the article is
a. increased by 10% b. increased by 5.3% c. decreased by 3% d. decreased by 5.3%
10. A single discount equivalent to the successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25% is
a. 55% b. 45% c. 46% d. 60%
11. The list price of an article at a show room is Rs.2,000 and it is being sold at successive
discounts of 20% and 10%. Its net selling price will be :
a. Rs.1900 b. Rs.1700 c. Rs.1440 d. Rs.1400
12. The difference between a single discount of 30% on 550 and two successive discounts
of 20% and 10% on the same amount is
a. Nill b. Rs. 11 c. Rs.22 d. Rs.44
13. The marked price of a watch is Rs.800. A shopkeeper gives two successive discounts and
sells the watch at Rs.612. If the first discount is 10%, the second discount is:
a.10% b. 12% c. 15% d. 20%
14. A person paid Rs.17,000 for a motor-car after a single discount of 15%. If he is given
successive discounts of 5% and 10% then how much he would pay ?
a. Rs.17,000 b. Rs.17,010 c. Rs.17,100 d. Rs.18,900
15. The list price of a clock is Rs.160. A customer buys it for Rs.122.40 after two successive
discounts. If first discount is 10%, the second is
a. 10% b. 12% c. 15% d. 18%
16. A sofa-set listed at Rs.800 is sold to a retailer at successive discounts of 25% and 15% by
the wholesaler. Then the cost price of the sofa-set for retailer is
a. Rs.500 b. Rs.510 c. Rs.550 d. Rs.560
17. The printed price of a book is Rs.320. A retailer pays Rs.244.80 for it. He gets successive
discounts of 10% and an another rate. His second rate is:
a. 15% b. 16% c. 14% d. 12%
18. A single discount of 50% on an article costing 10000 is better than two successive
discounts of 40% and 10% by
a. Rs.400 b. Rs.100 c. Rs.500 d. Rs.600
19. Two successive discounts of 70% and 30% are equivalent to a single discount of
a. 75% b. 79% c. 100% d. 89%
20. A purchased a dining table, marked at Rs.3,000 at a successive discounts of 10% and
15% respectively. He gave Rs.105 as transportation charge and sold it at Rs.3,200. What
is his gain percentage?
% % %'
a. 22 , % b. 25% c. 33 , % d. 37 &# %
21. A tradesman marks his goods 10% above his cost price. If he allows his customers 10%
discount on the marked price, how much profit or loss does he make, if any?
a. 1% gain b. 1% loss c. 5% gain d. No gain, no loss
22. A trademan marks his goods at 20% above the cost price. He allows his customers a
discount of 8% on marked price. Find out his profit per cent.
a. 12% b. 10.4% c. 8.6% d. 8.2%
128 A Complete Solution For CMAT
23. A shopkeeper marks his goods 20% above cost price, but allows 30% discount for cash.
His net loss is:
a. 8% b. 10% c. 16% d. 20%
24. A shopkeeper marks his sarees at 20% above the cost price and allows the purchaser a
discount of 10% for cash buying. What profit percent does he make?
a. 18% b. 12% c. 10% d. 8%
25. A trader marked the selling price of an article at 10% above the cost price. At the time of
selling, he allows certain discount and suffers a loss of 1%. He allowed the discount of :
a. 11% b. 10% c. 9% d. 10.5%
26. A shopkeeper marks his goods at 30% above the cost price but allows a discount of 10%
at the time of sale. His gain is
a. 21% b. 20% c. 18% d. 17%
27. A shopkeeper marks the price of an item keeping 20% profit. If he offers a discount of
%
12 & % on the marked price, his gain percent will be
a. 4.5% b. 5% c. 7.5% d. 8%
28. A seller marks his goods 30% above their cost price but allows 15% discount for cash
payment. His percentage of profit when sold in cash is
a. 10.5% b. 15% c. 9% d. 8.5%
29. A tradesman marks his goods at 25% above its cost price and allows purchasers a
%
discount of 12 & % for cash payment. The profit, he thus makes is
, % % ,
a. 9 # % b. 9 & % c. 8 & % d. 8 ( %
30. What price should a shopkeeper mark on an article costing him Rs.200 to gain 35% after
allowing a discount of 25% ?
a. Rs.270 b. Rs.300 c. Rs.330 d. Rs.360
31. A trader marks his goods 40% above cost price and allows a discount of 25%. The profit
he makes, is :
a. 15% b. 10% c. 5% d. 2%
32. A dealer marks his goods 20% above their cost price. He then allows some discount on
marked price so that he makes a profit of 10%. The rate of discount is
% % & %
a. 10 , % b. 9 , % c. 8 , % d. 8 , %
33. In a shop, shirts are usually sold at 40% above the cost price. During a sale, the
shopkeeper offers a discount of 10% off the usual selling price. If he manages to sell 72
shirts for Rs.13,608, then his cost price per shirt, (in Rs.) is
a. 210 b. 150 c. 149 d. 125
34. If a shopkeeper marks the price of goods 50% more than their cost price and allows a
discount of 40%, what is his gain or loss percent?
a. Gain of 10% b. loss of 10% c. Gain of 20% d. Loss of 20%
35. A dealer marks his goods at 40% above the cost price and allows a discount of 20% on
the marked price. The dealer has a
a. loss of 20% b. gain of 25% c. loss of 12% d. gain of 12%
36. In order to maintain the price line a trader allows a discount of 10% on the marked price
of an article. However, he still makes a profit of 17% on the cost price. Had he sold the
article at the marked price, he would have earned a profit per cent of
a. 30 b. 32% c. 33% d. 35%
37. A trader sells his goods at a discount of 20%. He still makes a profit of 25%. If he sells
the goods at the marked price only, his profit will be
a. 56.25% b. 25.56% c. 50.25% d. 54.25%

129 A Complete Solution For CMAT

38. After allowing a discount of 16%, there was still a gain of 5%. Then the percentage of
marked price over the cost price is
a. 15% b. 18% c. 21% d. 25%
39. The marked price of a radio is Rs.4,800. The shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% and
gains 8%. If no discount is allowed, his gain per cent will be
a. 18% b. 20% c. 22% d. 25%
40. An article of cost price Rs.8,000 is marked at Rs.11,200. After allowing a discount of x%
a profit of 12% is made. The value of x is
a. 21% b. 20% c. 22% d. 23%
%
41. A trader allows a trade discount of 20% and a cash discount of 6 % on the marked price
#
of the goods and gets a net gain of 20% of the cost. By how much above the cost should
the goods be marked for the sale ?
a. 40% b. 50% c. 60% d. 70%
42. A tradesman marks his goods at such a price that after allowing a discount of 15%, he
makes a profit of 20%. What is the marked price of an article whose cost price is Rs.170?
a. Rs.240 b. Rs. 260 c. Rs.220 d. Rs.200
43. How much percent above the cost price should a shopkeeper mark his goods so as to earn
a profit of 32% after allowing a discount of 12% on the marked price ?
a. 50% b. 40% c. 60% d. 45%
44. After allowing a discount of 12% on the marked price, a shopkeeper still gains 21%. The
marked price is above the cost price by
a. 25% b. 30% c. 37.5% d. 42.5%
45. A profit of l0% is made after giving a discount of 5% on a T.V. If the marked price of the
TV is Rs.2640.00, the cost price of the TV was:
a. Rs.2280 b. Rs.2296 c. Rs.2380 d. Rs.2396
46. A grinder was marked at Rs.3,600. After given a discount of 10% the dealer made a profit
of 8%. Calculate the cost price.
a. Rs.3000 b. Rs.3312 c. Rs.3240 d. Rs.2960
47. How much percent more than the cost price should a shopkeeper mark his goods so that
after allowing a discount of 25% on the marked price, he gains 20% ?
a. 70% b. 50% c. 60% d. 55%
48. A shopkeeper marks his goods 20% above his cost price and gives 15% discount on the
marked price. His gain percent is
a. 5% b. 4% c. 2% d. 1%
49. A shopkeeper marks his goods 40% above the cost price. He allows a discount of 5% for
cash payment to his customers. He receives Rs.1064 after paying the discount. His profit
is
a. Rs.264 b. Rs.164 c. Rs.200 d. Rs.800
50. The true discount on Rs.1, 860 due after a certain time at 5% is 60. Find the time after
which it is due.
a. 10 months b. 8 months c. 9 months d. 1 year

130 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 8. Simple Interest

Important Points
Borrowed money is called Principal and it is denoted by ‘P’.
Money is borrowed for certain time period, that time is called interest time and it is
denoted by ‘T’ or ‘t’.
The principal becomes Amount when interest is added to it Amount is represented as
A.
So, Amount = Principal + Interest Þ A = P + S. I. OR
Interest = Amount – Principal Þ S. I. = A – P When Interest is payable half – yearly
Rate will be half and time will be twice When Interest is payable quarterly
Rate will be one-fourth and time will be four times.
fC<@9<!+\ ×A+G? ×_<B?
8.1 Simple Interest (S.I.) = %**
Or,
f×A×_
:. W. = %**
I.p.×%** I.p.×%** I.p.×%**
x= ,t= ,m=
A×_ f×_ f×A
A = P + S.I.
Or, S.I. = A – P
8.2 If there are distinct rates of interest for distinct time periods i.e.
Rate for 1st t1 years = R1%
Rate for 2nd t2 years = R2%
Rate for 3rd t3 years = R3%
f(A G 3A1 G1 3A2 G2 )
Then, total S.I for 3 years = # # %**
8.3 If a certain sum becomes ‘n’ times of itself in T years on Simple Interest, then the rate per
cent per annum is.
(@0%)
t% = _ × 100% and,
(@0%)
m = A × 100%
8.4 If a certain sum becomes n1 times of itself at R1% rate and n2 times of itself at R2% rate,
then,
(@ 0%) (@ 0%)
t& = (@10%) t% and m& = (@#0%) m%
# #
8.5 If Simple Interest (S.I.) becomes ‘n’ times of principal i.e.
S.I. = P × n then.
RT = n × 100
8.6 If an Amount (A) becomes ‘n’ times of certain sum (P) i.e.
A = Pn then,
RT = (n – 1) × 100
8.7 If the difference between two simple interests is ‘x’ calculated at different annual rates and
times, then principal (P) is
.×%**
x = (;<LL?C?@9? <@ C+G)×(;<LL?C?@9? <@ G<B?)
131 A Complete Solution For CMAT
8.8 If a sum amounts to x1 in t year and then this sum amounts to x2 in t years. Then the sum is
given by
(;<LL?C?@9? <@ +BFEG)×%**
x = (ac+@d? <@ <@G?C?HG A+G)×_<B?
8.9 If a sum with simple interest rate, amounts to ‘A’ in t1 year and ‘B’ in same t2 years, then,
(h0Y)×%** YG 0hG
t% = and x = 1 1
Y.G1 0h.G1 G1 0G#
8.10 If a sum is to be deposited in equal instalments then,
Y×&*
Equal instalment = _[&**3(_0%)C]
Where T = no. of years. A = amount . r = Rate of interest.
8.11 To find the rate of interest under current deposit plan.
I.p.×&#**
c = @(@3%)×(>?!FH<G?> +BFE@G)
8.12 If certain sum P amounts to Rs. A1 in t1 years at rate of R% and the same sum amounts to
Rs. A2 in t2 years at same rate of interest R%. Then,
Y 0Y
(i)t = AY _#0Y1_ B × 10
1 # # 1
Y1 _# 0Y# _1
(ii)x = A _# 0_1
B
8.13 The difference between the S.I. for a certain sum P1 deposited for time T1 at R1 rate of
interest and another sum P2 deposited for time T2 at R2 rate of interest is
f A _ 0f A _
:. W. = 1 1 1%**# # #

Practice Test

1. Manoj deposited Rs. 29400 for 6 years at a simple interest. He got Rs. 4200 as interest after
6 years. The annual rate of interest was
( ' ( (
a. 2&%% b. 2&* c. 3&%% d. 4&%%
2. A man lent 60,000, partly at 5% and the rest at 4% simple interest. If the total annual
interest is 2560, the money lent at 4% was
a. Rs. 40,000 b. Rs 44,000 c. Rs. 30,000 d. Rs. 45,000
3. A sum of money at some rate of simple interest amounts to Rs.2,900 in 8 years and to Rs.
3,000 in 10 years. The rate of interest per annum is
%
a. 4% b. 2&% c. 3% d. 2%
4. In how many years will a sum of Rs. 3,000 yield a simple interest of Rs. 1,080 at 12% per
annum ?
% %
a. 3 years b. 2& years c. 2 years d. 3&years
5. A sum of money amounts to Rs. 850 in 3 years and to Rs. 925 in 4 years at some rate of
simple interest. The sum is:
a. Rs. 550 b. Rs. 600 c. Rs. 625 d. Rs.700
6. In what time will 1,860 amount to 2,641.20 at simple interest 12% per annum ?
% %
a. 3 years b. 3& years c. 4 years d. 4& years
7. The population of a village decreases at the rate of 20% per annum. If its population 2 years
ago was 10,000, the present population is
a. 4600 b. 6400 c. 7600 d. 6000

132 A Complete Solution For CMAT

8. The sum lent at 5% per annum (i.e. 365 days) simple interest, that produces interest, of Rs.
2.00 a day, is
a. Rs. 1,400 b. Rs. 14,700 c. Rs. 14,600 d. Rs. 7,300
9. A certain sum of money lent out at simple interest amounts to Rs. 1380 in 3 years and Rs.
1500 in 5 years. Find the rate per cent per annum
a. 3% b. 3.5% c. 4% d. 5%
10. If a sum of money amounts to Rs. 12,900 and Rs. 14,250 at the end of 4th year and 5th year
respectively at a certain rate of simple interest, then the rate of interest is
a. 10% b. 12% c. 18% d. 20%
11. If the simple interest on Rs. 400 for 10 years is Rs. 280, the rate of interest per annum is
% % %
a. 7% b. 7&% c. 7#% d. 8&%
12. If the simple interest on Re. 1 for 1 month is 1 paisa, then the rate per cent per annum will
be
a. 10% b. 8% c. 12% d. 6%
13. How much simple interest will Rs. 4000 earn in 18 months at 12% per annum?
a. Rs. 216 b. R.s 360 c. Rs. 720 d. Rs. 960
14. In how many years a sum of Rs. 3000 will yield an interest of Rs. 1080 at 12% per annum
simple interest ?
%
a. 4 years b. 3 years d. 5 years d. 2& years
15. In simple interest rate per annum a certain sum amounts to Rs. 5,182 in 2 years and Rs.
5,832 in 3 years. The principal in rupees is
a. Rs. 2882 b. Rs. 5000 c. Rs. 3882 d. Rs. 4000
16. For what sum will the simple in- terest at R% per annum for 2 years will be R ?
%** %** &**
a. Rs. b. Rs.50 c. Rs. d. Rs.
&A A A
17. The amount to be paid, when principal = Rs. 2000, rate of simple interest (R) = 5%, and T
= 2 years, is:
a. Rs.3200 b. Rs.2400 c. Rs.2200 d. Rs.3400
18. The rate of simple interest for which Rs. 6,000 will amount to Rs. 6,900 in 3 years is
a. 5% b. 7% c. 2% d. 4%
19. At a certain rate of simple interest, a certain sum of money be- comes double of itself in 10
years. It will become treble of itself in
a. 15 years b. 18 years d. 20 years d. 30 years
20. In how much time, will a sum of money become double of itself at 15% per annum simple
interest?
% % % &
a. 6# years b. 6& years c. 6, years d. 6, years
21. In how many years will a sum of money double itself at 12% per annum?
a. 8 yrs. 6 months b. 6 yrs. 9 months c. 8 yrs. 4month d. 7 yrs. 6 months
22. A sum amounts to double in 8 years by simple interest. Then the rate of simple interest per
annum is
a. 10% b. 12.5% c. 15% d.20%
23. A sum doubles itself in 16 years, then in how many years will it triple itself; rate of interest
being simple
a. 25 years b. 24 years c. 48 years d. 64 years
%
24. In certain years a sum of money is doubled to itself at 6#% simple interest per annum, then
the required time will be
% &
a. 16 years b. 12& years c. 8 years d. 10, years

133 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 (
25. The simple interest on a sum of money is of the sum. If the number of years is numerically
&$
half the rate percent per annum, then the rate percent per annum is
%
a. 5 b. 8 c. 6# d. 4
26. A certain sum doubles in 7 years at simple interest. The same sum under the same interest
rate will become 4 times in how many years.
a. 14 b. 28 c. 21 d. 10
27. A certain sum of money amounts to Rs. 2200 at 5% p.a. rate of interest, Rs. 2320 at 8%
interest in the same period of time. The period of time is :
a. 3 years b. 4 years c. 5 years d. 2 years
28. At what per cent of simple interest will a sum of money double itself in 15 years?
% & %
a. 6 % b. 6 % c. 6 % d. 6%
, , &
29. If a sum of money deposited in a bank at simple interest is doubled in 6 years, then after 12
years, the amount will be
$
a. & times the original amount b. 3 times the original amount
'
c. & times the original amount d. 4 times original amount
30. The rate of simple interest for which a sum of money becomes 5 times of itself in 8 years
is:
a. 30% b. 40% c. 50% d. 55%
31. Ram bought a bike for Rs.60,000. He paid Rs.10000 cash down and the rest at the end of 2
years at 15% simple interest. How much more did he pay as simple interest ?
a.Rs.15000 b. Rs.25000 c. Rs.35000 d. Rs.50000
32. AsumofRs.7,930isdividedinto three parts and given on loan at 5% simple interest to A, B
and C for 2, 3 and 4 years respectively. If the amounts of all three are equal after their
respective periods of loan, then A received a loan of
a. Rs.3050 b. Rs.2760 c. Rs.2750 d. Rs.2800
33. A man buys a TV priced at Rs.16000. He pays Rs.4000 at once and the rest after 15 months
on which he is charged a simple interest at the rate of 12% per year. The total amount he
pays for the TV is
a. Rs.18200 b. Rs.17800 c. Rs.16800 d. Rs.17200
34. If Rahim deposited the same amount of Rs.x in a bank at the beginning of successive 3
years and the bank pays simple interest of 5% per annum, then the amount at his credit at
the end of 3rd year will be :
()%. %&)%. &%. &)#(%.
a. Rs. #** b. Rs. #** c. Rs. &* d. Rs. (***
35. A boy aged 12 years is left with Rs. 100,000 which is under a trust. The trustees invest the
money at 6% per annum and pay the minor boy a sum of Rs. 2500, for his pocket money
at the end of each year. The expenses of trust come out to be Rs. 500 per annum. Find the
amount that will be handed over to the minor boy after he attains the age of 18 years.
a. Rs.120000 b. Rs.150000 c. Rs.118000 d. Rs.125000
36. If A borrowed Rs.P at x% and B borrowed Rs. Q (> P) at y% per annum at simple interest
at the same time, then the amount of their debts will be equal after
D0f f.0D-
a. 100 Af.0D-B years b. 100 A D0f B years
f.0D- f0D
c. 100 A f0"
B years d. 100 Af.0D-B years
37. A money lender claims to lend money at the rate of 10% per annum simple interest.
However, he takes the interest in advance when he lends a sum for one year. At what
interest rate does he lend the money actually?
% %
a. 10% b. 10 / % c. 11% d. 11 / %
134 A Complete Solution For CMAT
38. Ramesh borrowed a sum at 5 per annum simple interest from Rahul. He returns the amount
after 5years. Rahul returns 2 % of the total amount received. How much did Ramesh
borrowed if he received Rs.5?
a. Rs.250 b. Rs.200 c. Rs.150 d. Rs.175
39. A man buys a watch for Rs.1950 in cash and sells it for Rs.2200 at a credit of 1 year. If the
rate of interest be 10% per annum, then how much profit or loss will he have?
a. Rs.55 gain b. Rs.30 profit c. Rs.30 loss d. Rs.30 profit
40. A money lender lends Rs.400 for 3 years to a person and lends Rs.500 for 4 years to the
other per- son at the same rate of simple interest. If altogether he receives Rs.160 as interest,
what is the rate of interest per annum ?
a. 5% b. 7% c. 9% d. 10%

9. Compound Interest

9.1 If A = Amount, P = Principal, r = Rate of Compound Interest (C.I.), n = no. of years then,
C @
` = x A1 + %**B , C.I. = A – P
C @
>. W. = x RA1 + B − 1U
%**
9.2 Compound interest is calculated on four basis
Rate Time (n)
Annually r% t years
C
Half-yearly &
% t × 2 years
(Semi-Annually)
C
Quarterly % t × 4 years
#
C
Monthly %&
% t × 12 years
9.3 If there are distinct ‘rates of interest’ for distinct time periods i.e.,
Rate for 1st year → r1%
Rate for 2nd year → r2%
Rate for 3rd year → r3% and so on
C# C1 C2
Then ` = x A1 + %** B A1 + %** B A1 + %** B …………..
C.I. = A – P
9.4 If the time is in fractional form i.e., t = nF, then
C @ C2 $
` = x A1 + %**B A1 + %**B e.g. O = 3 ' yrs. Then
C , C $
` = x A1 + %**B A1 + %** × 'B
9.5 A certain sum becomes ‘m’ times of itself in ‘t’ years on compound interest then the time
it will take to become mn times of itself is t × n years.
9.6 The difference between C.I. and S.I. on a sum ‘P’ in 2 years at the rate of R% rate of
compound interest will be
A & I.p.×A
>. W. −:. W. = x A%**B =
&**
A & A
For 3 years, >. W. −:. W. = x A%**B × A3 + %**B
9.7 If on compound interest, a sum becomes Rs. A in ‘a’ years and Rs. B in ‘b’ years then,

135 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 h
(i) If b – a = 1, then t% = AY − 1B × 100%
h
(ii) If b – a = 2, then t% = |JY − 1} × 100%
#
h &
(iii) If b – a = n then, t% = ~AYB − 1• × 100%
Where n is a whole number.
9.8 If a sum becomes ‘n’ times of itself in ‘t’ years on compound interest,
#
then t% = R@ < − 1U × 100%
9.9 If a sum ‘P’ is borrowed at r% annual compound interest which is to be paid in ‘n’ equal
annual installments including interest, then
(i) for n = 2, Each annual installment
f
= #55 #55 1
R S3R S
#55"% #55"%
(ii) For n = 3, each annual installment
f
= #55 #55 1 #55 2
R S3R S 3R S
#55"% #55"% #55"%

9.10 The simple interest for a certain sum for 2 years at an annual rate interest R% is S.I., then
A
>. W. = :. W. A1 + B
%**
# #
9.11 A certain sum at C.I. becomes x times in n1 year and y times in n2 years then 4 &# = 5 &1

Practice Test

1. At what percent per annum will Rs. 3000 amounts to Rs. 3993 in 3 years if the interest is
compounded annually?
a. 9% b. 10% c. 11% d. 13%
2. The compound interest on Rs. 10,000 in 2 years at 4% per annum, the interest being
compounded half-yearly, is :
a. Rs. 636.80 b. Rs. 824.32 c. Rs. 912. 86 d. Rs. 828. 82
3. In how many years will 2,000 amounts to Rs. 2,420 at 10% per annum compound interest?
% %
a. 3 years b. 2& years c. 2 years d. 1& years
4. In what time will 1000 becomes 1331 at 10% per annum compounded annually ?
% %
a. 3 years b. 2& years c. 2 years d. 3& years
5. The principal, which will amount to Rs. 270.40 in 2 years at the rate of 4% per annum
compound interest is
a. Rs. 200 b. Rs. 225 c. Rs. 250 d. Rs. 220
6. A sum of money on compound interest amounts to Rs. 10648 in 3 years and Rs. 9680 in 2
years. The rate of interest per annum is :
a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20%
7. At what rate per cent per annum will 2304 amount to 2500 in 2 years at compound
interest ?
% % % %
a. 4&% b. 4$% c. 4)% d. 4,%
8. A sum becomes Rs. 1,352 in 2 years at 4% per annum compound interest. The sum is
a. Rs. 1,225 b. Rs. 1,270 c. Rs. 1,245 d. Rs. 1,250
136 A Complete Solution For CMAT
9. The compound interest on Rs. 16,000 for 9 months at 20% per annum, interest being
compounded quarterly, is
a. Rs. 2,520 b. Rs. 2,524 c. Rs. 2,522 d. Rs. 2,518
10. If the rate of interest be 4% per annum for first year, 5% per annum for second year and
6% per annum for third year, then the compound interest of Rs. 10,000 for 3 years will be
a. Rs. 1,600 b. Rs. 1,625.80 c. Rs. 1,575.20 d. Rs. 2,000
11. The compound interest on Rs. 2000 in 2 years if the rate of interest is 4% per annum for
the first year and 3% per annum for the second year, will be
a. R.s 142.40 b. Rs. 140.40 c. Rs. 141.40 d. Rs. 143.40
12. At what rate per annum will Rs. 32000 yield a compound interest of Rs. 5044 in 9 months
interest being compounded quarterly ?
a. 20% b. 32% c. 50% d.80%
13. The compound interest on Rs. 8,000 at 15% per annum for 2 years 4 months, compounded
annually is:
a. Rs. 2980 b. Rs. 3091 c. Rs. 3109 d. Rs. 3100
14. In what time will Rs. 10,000 amount to Rs. 13310 at 20% per annum compounded half
yearly?
% %
a. 1 years b. 2 years c. 2 years d. 3 years
& &
15. A certain sum of money yields Rs. 1261 as compound interest for 3 years at 5% per annum.
The sum is
a. Rs. 9000 b. Rs. 8400 c. Rs. 7500 d. Rs. 8000
16. A certain sum, invested at 4% per annum compound interest, compounded half yearly,
amounts to Rs. 7,803 at the end of one year. The sum is
a. Rs. 7,000 b. Rs. 7,200 c. Rs. 7,500 d. Rs. 7,700
17. A certain sum amounts to Rs. 5,832 in 2 years at 8% per annum compound interest, the
sum is
a. Rs. 5,000 b. Rs. 5,200 c. Rs. 5,280 d. Rs. 5,400
%
18. The compound interest on Rs. 6,000 at 10% per annum for 1& years, when the interest being
compounded annually, is
a. Rs. 910 b. Rs. 870 c. Rs. 930 d. Rs. 900
19. In what time Rs. 8,000 will amount to Rs. 9,261 at 10% per annum compound interest,
when the interest is compounded half yearly ?
% % %
a. 3& years b. 1& years c. 2& years d. 2 years
20. At what rate per cent per annum will a sum of Rs. 1,000 amounts to Rs. 1,102.50 in 2 years
at compound interest ?
a. 5% b. 5.5% c. 6% d. 6.5%
21. In how many years will a sum of Rs. 800 at 10% per annum compound interest,
compounded semi-annually becomes Rs. 926.10 ?
% & % %
a. 1& years b. 1, years c. 2, years d. 2& years
22. An amount of Rs. 6,000 lent at 5% per annum compound interest for 2 years will become
a. Rs. 600 b. Rs. 6,600 c. Rs. 6,610 d. Rs. 6,615
23. In what time will Rs. 1000 amounts to Rs. 1331 at 20% per annum, compounded half
yearly?
% %
a. 1& years b. 2 years c. 1 year d. 2& years
24. The compound interest on Rs. 30,000 at 7% per annum for a certain time is Rs.4,347. The
time is
a. 3 years b. 4 years c. 2 years d. 2.5 years

137 A Complete Solution For CMAT

25. A sum of Rs. 8000 will amount to 8820 in 2 years if the interest is calculated every year.
The rate of compound interest is
a. 6% b. 7% c. 3% d. 5%
26. A principal of Rs. 10,000, after 2 years compounded annually, the rate of interest being
10% per annum during the first year and 12% per annum during the second year (in rupees)
will amount to :
a. Rs. 12,000 b. Rs. 12,320 c. R.s 12,500 d. Rs. 11,320
27. The sum of money that yields a compound interest of 420 during the second year at 5%
p.a is
a. Rs. 4,000 b. Rs. 42,000 c. Rs. 8,000 d. Rs. 21,000
28. A man saves Rs. 2000 at the end of each year and invests the money at 5% compound
interest. At the end of 3 years he will have :
a. Rs. 4305 b. Rs. 6305 c. Rs. 4205 d. Rs. 2205
29. The time in which 80,000 amounts to 92,610 at 10% p.a. compound interest, interest
being compounded semiannually is :
% %
a. 1& years b. 2 years c. 2& years d. 3 years
30. A man borrows 21000 at 10% compound interest. How much he has to pay annually at
the end of each year, to settle his loan in two years ?
a. Rs. 12,000 b. Rs. 12,100 c. Rs. 12,200 d. Rs. 12,300
31. Rs. 800 at 5% per annum compounded annually will amount to Rs. 882 in
a. 1 years b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years
32. The compound interest on Rs. 5,000 for 3 years at 10% p. a. will amount to
a. Rs. 1,654 b. Rs. 1,655 d. Rs. 1,600 d. Rs. 1,565
33. A sum of 3,200 invested at 10% p.a. compounded quarterly amounts to Rs. 3,362.
Compute the time period.
% ,
a. years b. 1 years c. 2 years d. years
& #
34. The compound interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 5% is Rs. 328, then the
sum is
a. Rs. 3000 b. Rs. 3600 c. Rs. 3200 d. Rs. 3400
35. Two years ago, the value of my motorbike was Rs. 62500. If the value depreciates by 4%
every year, now its value is
a. Rs. 56700 b. Rs. 57600 d. Rs. 57500 d. Rs. 55700
36. The compound interest on a sum of money for 2 years is Rs. 615 and the simple interest
for the same period is Rs. 600. Find the principal.
a. Rs. 6,500 b. Rs. 6,000 c. Rs. 8,000 d. Rs. 9,500
37. Rekha invested a sum of Rs. 12000 at 5% per annum compound interest. She received an
amount of Rs. 13230 after n years.
a. 2.8 years b. 3.0 years c. 2.5 years d. 2.0 years
38. When principal = Rs. S, rate of interest = 2r % p.a, then a person will get after 3 years at
compound interest
)IC C , C , C ,
a. Rs%** b. Rs. SA1 + %**B c. Rs. SA1 + $*B d. Rs. 3SA1 + %**B
39. The sum of money which becomes Rs. 2420 at 10 % rate of compound interest after two
years is
a. Rs. 2000 b. Rs. 1000 c. Rs. 2500 d. Rs. 1500
40. On a certain principal the compound interest compounded annually for the second year at
10% per annum is Rs. 132. The principal is
a. Rs. 1250 b. Rs. 1000 d. Rs. 1200 d. Rs. 1320

138 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 10. Time and Work

10.1 If M1 men can finish W1 work in D1 days and M2 men can finish W2 work in D2 days then,
Relation is
g# ;# g1 ;1
l
= l and
# 1
If M1 men finish W1 work in D1 days, working T1 time each day and M2 men finish W2
work in D2 days, working T2 time each day, then
g# ;# _# g ; _
= 1l1 1
l # 1
10.2 If A completes a piece of work in ‘x’ days, and B completes the same work in ‘y’ days,
then,
% %
Work done by A in 1 day = ., work done by B in 1 day = -
% % .3-
∴ Work done by A and B in 1 day = . + - =
.-
.-
∴ Total time taken to complete the work by A and B both = A.3-B
10.3 If A can do a work in ‘x’ days, B can do the same work in ‘y’ days, C can do the same work
in ‘z’ days then, total time taken by A, B and C to complete the work together
% .-1
= # # # = .-3-131.
3 3
= > ?
If workers are more than 3 then total time taken by A, B, C ...... so on to complete the
%
work together = # # #
3 3 3⋯
= > ?

139 A Complete Solution For CMAT

10.4 If A alone can do a certain work in ‘x’ days and A and B together can do the same work in
.-
‘y’ days, then B alone can do the same work in A.0-B days
10.5 If A and B can do a work in ‘x’ days, B and C can do the same work in ‘y’ days, C and A
can do the same work in ‘z’ days. Then total time taken, when A, B and C work together
& &.-1
= # # # or days
R 3 3 S .-3-131.
= > ?
_FG+\ lVC]
10.6 Work of one day =
_FG+\ @F.FL `FC]<@d >+-H
Total work = (work of one day) × (total no. of working days)
Remaining work = 1 – (work done)
Work done by A = (work done in 1 day by A) × (total no. of days worked by A).
#
B and C and so on = =
# # #
R 3 3 3⋯ S
= > ?
where A can complete work in x days. B in y days, C in z days so on…..
B
10.7 If A can finish @ part of the work in D days. Then,
; @
Total time taken to finish the work by ` = , = B × z days
R S
&
10.8 (i) If A can do a work in ‘x’ days and B can do the same work in ‘y’ days and when
they started working together, B left the work ‘m’
(-3B).
(i)days before completion then total time taken to complete work is
.3-
(ii) A leaves the work ‘m’ days before its completion then total time taken to complete
(.3B)-
work is = .3-
10.9 If A and B together can finish a certain work in ‘a’ days. They worked together for ‘b’ days
and then ‘B’ (or A) left the work. A (or B) finished the rest work in ‘d’ days, then
+> 8>
Total time taken by A (or B) alone to complete the work = +08 or +08 days
10.10 If food is available for ‘a’ days for ‘A’ men at a certain place and after ‘b’ days. ‘B’ men
join, then the remaining food will serve total men for
Y(+08)
Required time = (Y3h) days
If food is available for ‘a’ days for ‘A’ men at a certain place, and after ‘b’ days ‘B’
men leave then the remaining food will serve remaining men for
Y(+08)
∴ Required time = (Y0h) days
10.11 If A1 men and B1 boys can do a certain work in D1 days, Again, A2 men and B2 boys can
do the same work in D2 days, then, A3 men and B3 boys can do the same work in
Required time
;# ;1 [Y# h1 0Y1 h# ]
= ; [Y h 0Y h ]0; [Y h 0Y h ]
days
# # 2 2 # 1 1 2 2 1
10.12 If A men or B boys can do a certain work in ‘a’ days, then A1 men and B1 boys can do
the same work in
+ +(Y.h)
Time taken = @# A# = Y h3h Y days
3 # #
@ A
10.13 If A men or B boys or C women can do a certain work in ‘a’ days, then A1 men, B1 boys
and C1 women can do the same work in
+
Time taken = @# A# B#
3 3
@ A B
10.14 If ‘A’ men can do a certain work in ‘a’ days and ‘B’ women can do the same work in ‘b’
days, then the total time taken when A1 men and B1 women work together is

140 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 %
Time taken = @ A
R #3 #S
@.D A.-
If A men do a certain work in ‘a’ days, B women do the same work in ‘b’ days and C
boys do the same work in ‘c’ days then the total time taken when A1 men, B1 women
and C1 boys can work together is
%
Total time taken = @# A# B#
3 3
@.D A.- B.E
10.15 The comparison of rate of work done is called efficiency of doing work. Efficiency (Ä) ∝
% % % % q
UF.FL >+-H
, E1 : E2 : E3 = ; ∶ ; ∶ ; , Ä = ; or, ED = k or, E1D1 = E2D2
# 1 2
10.16 If the efficiency to work of A is twice the efficiency to work of B, then, A : B (efficiency)
= 2x : x and A : B (time) = t : 2t
10.17 If A can do a work in ‘x’ days and B is R% more efficient than A, then ‘B’ alone will do
%**
the same work in 4 ( )
days
%**3A
10.18 A, B and C can do a certain work together within ‘x’ days. While, any two of them can
do the same work separately in ‘y’ and ‘z’ days, then in how many days can 3rd do the
same work?
.-1
Required time = ( )
days
-10. -31
10.19 A and B can do a work in ‘x’ days, B and C can do the same work in ‘y’ days. C and A
can do the same work in ‘z’ days. Then, all can do alone the work as following:
&.-1
A alone can do in = days
.-3-101.
&.-1
B alone can do in = 0.-3-131. days
&.-1
C alone can do in = 0-13.-31. days
10.20 A can do a certain work in ‘m’ days and B can do the same work in ‘n’ days. They worked
together for ‘P’ days and after this A left the work, then in how many days did B alone
do the rest of work ?
B@0f(B3@)
Required time = B
days
when after ‘P’ days B left the work, then in how many days did A alone do the rest of
work?
B@0f(B3@)
Required time = days
@
10.21 If a man can do a certain work in ‘d1’ days working ‘h1’ hours in a days, while another
man can do the same work in ‘d2’ days working ‘h2’ hours in a day. When they work
together everyday ‘h’ hours, then in how many days work will complete?
(c > )×(c > ) %
Required time = R (c# ># 3c 1> 1) U c
# # 1 1
10.22 The efficiency of A to work is ‘n’ times more than that of B, Both start to work together
@3%
and finish it in ‘D’ days. Then, A and B will separately complete, the work in A @ B z
and (n + 1)D days respectively.
10.23 Some people finish a certain work in ‘D’ days. If there were ‘a’ less people, then the work
would be completed in ‘d’ days more, what was the number of people initially?
+(;0>)
∴ Required number = > people
10.24 A can do a work in ‘m’ days and B can do the same work in ‘n’ days. If they work together
and total wages is R, then.
@
Part of A = (B3@) × t
B
Part of B = (B3@) × t

141 A Complete Solution For CMAT

10.25 If A, B and C finish the work in m, n and p days respectively and they receive the total
% % %
wages R, then the ratio of their wages is B ∶ @ ∶ !
10.26 A and B can do a piece of work in x and y days, respectively. Both begin together but
after some days. A leaves the job and B completed the remaining work in a days. After
how many days did A leave?
(-0+)
Required time, O = .3- × 4
10.27 If A men and B boys can complete a work in x days, while A, men and B, boys will
complete the same work in y days, then
V@? >+- `FC] FL % B+@ (-h# 0.h )
V@? >+- `FC] FL % 8F-
= (.Y0-Y )
#

Practice Test

1. While working 7 hours a day, A alone can complete a piece of workin6daysandBalonein8

days. In what time would they complete it together, working 8 hours a day ?
a. 3 days b. 4 days c. 2.5 days d. 3.6 days
2. A and B can do a piece of work in 10 days. B and C can do it in 12days. C and A in 15
days. In how many days will C finish it alone ?
a. 24 days b. 30 days c. 40 days d. 60 days
3. If A and B together can complete apieceofworkin15daysandB alone in 20 days, in how
many days can A alone complete the work ?
a. 60 days b. 45 days c. 40 days d. 30 days
4. If A and B together can complete a work in 12 days, B and C together in 15 days and C and
A together in 20 days, then B alone can complete the work in
a. 30 days b. 25 days c. 24 days d. 20 days
5. A work can be completed by P and Q in 12 days, Q and R in 15days, R and P in 20 days.
In how many days P alone can finish the work?
a. 10 days b. 20 days d. 30 days d. 60 days
6. A and B can complete a piece of work in 8 days, B and C can do it in 12 days, C and A can
do it in 8 days. A, B and C together can complete it in
a. 4 days b. 5 days c. 6 days d. 7 days
7. A and B together can do a work in 10 days. B and C together can do the same work in 6
days. A and C together can do the work in 12 days. Then A, B and C together can do the
work in
$ &
a. 28 days b. 14 days c. 5' days d. 8' days
%
8. A and B working together; can do a piece of work in 4& hours. B and C working together
%
can do it in 3 hours. C and A working together can do it in 2# hours. All of them begin the
work at the same time. Find how much time they will take to finish the piece of work.
a. 3 hours b. 2 hours c. 2.5 hours d. 3.25 hours
9. A and B together can complete a piece of work in 18 days, B and Cin24daysandAandCin36
days. In how many days, will all of them together complete the work?
a. 16 days b. 15 days c. 12 days d. 10 days
10. A and B together can do a piece of work in 5 days and A alone candoitin8days.Balonecan
do the same piece of work in

142 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 % , % #
a. 11 days b. 12 days c. 13 days d. 16 days
& $ , $
11. A, B and C together can complete a piece of work in 30 minutes. A and B together can
complete the same work in 50 minutes. C alone can complete the work in
a. 60 minutes b. 75 minutes c. 80 minutes d. 150 minutes
12. A and B can do a piece of work in 8 days, B and C can do it in 24 days, while C and A can
#
do it in 8 days. In how many days can C do it alone?
'
a. 60 days b. 40 days c. 30 days d. 10 days
13. A and B can do a piece of work in10days. B and C can do it in 12days. A and C can do it
in 15 days. How long will A take to do it alone ?
a. 24 days b. 20 days c. 40 days d. 30 days
14. If A and B together can finish a piece of work in 20 days, B and C in 10 days and C and A
in 12 days, then A, B, C jointly can finish the same work in
& # '
a. 4 ' days b. 30 days c. 8 ' days d. )* days
15. A, B and C individually can do a work in 10 days, 12 days and 15 days respectively. If they
start working together, then the number of days required to finish the work is
a. 16 days b. 8 days c. 4 days d. 2 days
16. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days while A alone can do the same work in
30 days. B alone can do it in
a. 18 days b. 20 days c. 15 days d. 22 days
17. Ganesh, Ram and Sohan together can complete a work in 16 days. If Ganesh and Ram
together can complete the same work in 24 days, the number of days Sohan alone takes, to
finish the work is
a. 40 b. 48 c. 32 d. 30
18. A and B can do a piece of work in72days. B and C can do it in 120 days and A and C can
do it in 90 days. A alone can do it in:
a. 120 days b. 130 days c. 150 days d. 100 days
19. If 35 men can finish a piece of work in 8 days, then the number of men who can do the
same work in 10 days is :
a. 38 b. 28 c. 19 d. 17
20. A can do a piece of work in 30 days while B can do it in 40 days. In how many days can A
and B working together do it?
, % %
a. 42# days b. 27' days c. 17# days d. 70 days
21. 12 men can complete a work in 90 days. 30 days after they started work, 2 men left and 8
men joined. How many days will it take to complete the remaining work ?
a. 90 days b. 60 days c. 40 days d. 50 days
22. A can do a job in 10 days and B can do the same job in 15 days. They start working together,
but B leaves after 5 days. How many more days A want to finish the work ?
& &
a. 2 days b. 1, days c. 3 days d. 2, days
23. A and B together can finish a work in 30 days. They worked on it for 20 days and then B
left the work. The remaining work was done by A alone in 20 days more. In how many
days can A alone finish the work?
a. 48 days b. 50 days c. 54 days d. 60 days
24. Ram and Hari can cut 12 kgs nuts in 2 days. After 5 days, Hari left the work. Ram took 8
more days to cut the rest of the nuts. If total of 58 kgs of nuts were cut, the time taken by
Hari to cut 10 kgs of nuts is
a. 1 days b. 2 days c. 3 days d. 4 days

143 A Complete Solution For CMAT

25. Ramesh and Rahman can do a work in 20 and 25 days respectively. After doing collectively
for 10 days at the work, they leave the work due to illness and Suresh completes rest of the
work in 3 days. How many days Suresh alone can take to complete the whole work ?
a. 32 days b. 28 days c. 29 days d. 30 days
26. Acandoapieceofworkin10 daysandBcandoitin12days. They work together for 3 days. Then
B leaves and A alone continues. 2 days after that C joins and the work is completed in 2
days more. In how many days can C do it, if he works alone?
a. 30 days b. 50 days c. 40 days d. 60 days
27. A certain number of men can do a piece of work in 60 days. If there were 6 men more, the
work can be finished 20 days earlier. The number of men working is :
a. 6 b. 12 c. 18 d. 24
28. A can do a piece of work in 20 days and B in 15 days. With the help of C, they finish the
work in 5 days. C can alone do the work in
a. 5 days b. 6 days c. 10 days d. 12 days
29. 15 men can finish a piece of work in 40 days. The number of days after which 5 men should
leave the work so that the work is finished in 45 days altogether is :
a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 35
30. A and B together can complete a piece of work in 12 days. They worked together for 5 days
and then A alone finished the rest of the work in 14 days. A alone can complete the work
in
a. 24 days b. 22 days d. 20 days d. 18 day
31. If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days and 26 men and 48 boys can do the
same in 2 days, then the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys to do the same type of work
will be :
a. 5 days b. 4 days c. 6 days d. 7 days
32. 5 men can do a piece of work in 6 days while 10 women can do it in 5 days. In how many
days can 5 women and 3 men
a. 4 days b. 5 days c. 6 days d. 8 days
33. If 3 men or 6 women can do a piece of work in 16 days, in how many days can 12 men and
8 women do the same piece of work?
a. 4 days b. 5 days c. 3 days d. 2 days
34. 3 men or 7 women can do a piece of work in 32 days. The number of days required by 7
men and 5 women to do a piece of work twice as large is
a. 19 b. 21 c. 27 d. 36
35. If 1 man or 2 women or 3 boys can do a piece of work in 44 days, then the same piece of
work will be done by 1 man, 1 woman and 1 boy in
a. 21 days b. 24 days c. 26 days d. 33 days
36. 8 children and 12 men complete a certain piece of work in 9 days. Each child takes twice
the time taken by a man to finish the work. In how many days will 12 men finish the same
work?
a. 9 days b. 13 days c. 12 days d. 15 days
37. 12 men and 16 boys can do a piece of work in 5 days; 13 men and 24 boys can do it in 4
days, then the ratio of the daily work done by a man to that of a boy is
a. 2 : 1 b. 3 : 1 c. 1 : 3 d. 5 : 4
38. Twenty women can do a work in sixteen days. Sixteen men can complete the same work
in fifteen days. The ratio between the capacity of a man and a woman is
a. 3 : 4 b. 4 : 3 c. 5 : 3 d. 5 : 7
39. 18 men or 36 boys working 6 hours a day can plough a field in 24 days. In how many days
will 24 men and 24 boys working 9 hours a day plough the same field?
a. 9 b. 10 c. 6 d. 8
144 A Complete Solution For CMAT
40. 3 men and 5 women can do a work in 14 days while 5 men can doitin14days.5menand5
women can complete the work in
a. 13 days b. 11 days c. 10 days d. 12 days
41. 39 persons can repair a road in 12 days working 5 hours a day. In how many days will 30
persons working 6 hours a day complete the work ?
a. 10 days b. 13 days c. 14 days d. 15 days
42. If 72 men can build a wall of 280 m length in 21 days, how many men could take 18 days
to build a similar type of wall of length 100 m?
a. 30 b. 10 c. 18 d. 28
43. A wall of 100 metres can be built by 7 men or 10 women in 10 days. How many days will
14 men and 20 women take to build a wall of 600 metres ?
a. 15 b. 20 c. 25 d. 30
44. 5 persons can prepare an admission list in 8 days working 7 hours a day. If 2 persons join
them so as to complete the work in 4 days, they need to work per day for:
a. 10 hours b. 9 hours d. 12 hours d. 8 hours
45. 4 mat-weavers can weave 4 mats in 4 days. At the same rate how many mats would be
woven by 8 mat-weavers in 8 days ?
a. 4 b. 8 c. 12 d. 16
46. 10 men working 6 hours a day can complete a work in 18 days. How many hours a day
must 15 men work to complete the same work in 12 days ?
a. 6 days b. 10 days c. 12 days d. 15 days
47. Two persons can complete a piece of work in 9 days. How many more persons are needed
to complete double the work in 12 days?
a. 3 b. 2 c. 4 d. 11
48. Seventy-five men are employed to lay down a railway line in 3 months. Due to certain
emergency conditions, the work was to be finished in 18 days. How many more men should
be employed to complete the work in the desired time ?
a. 300 b. 325 c. 350 d. 375
49. If 4 men or 8 women can do a piece of work in 15 days, in how many days can 6 men and
12 women do the same piece of work ?
a. 30 days b. 45 days c. 15 days d. none of these
50. 24 men can do a piece of work in 17 days. How many men will be able to do it in 51 days?
a. 6 b. 10 c. 12 d. None of these

11. Pipe and Cistern

There are two types of taps:

(i)Tap to fill the water (efficiency +) (inlet)
(ii) Tap to release the water (efficiency –) (outlet)
The same follows on the formulae of time and work.
11.1 Two taps ‘A’ and ‘B’ can fill a tank in ‘x’ hours and ‘y’ hours respectively. If both the
taps are opened together, then how much time it will take to fill the tank?
.-
Required time = A.3-B hrs
145 A Complete Solution For CMAT
11.2 If x, y, z ……… all taps are opened together then, the time required to fill/empty the tank
will be:
% % % %
±-±1±⋯=_
.
where T, is the required time.
Note: Positive result shows that the tank is filling and Negative result shows that the tank
is getting empty.
11.3 Two taps can fill a tank in ‘x’ and ‘y’ hours respectively. If both the taps are opened
together and 1st tap is closed before ‘m’ hours of filling the tank, then in how much time
the tank will be filled?
(.3B )-
Required Time = (.3-) hrs
If 2nd tap is closed before ‘m’ hours then.
(-3B).
Required time = (.3-) hrs
11.4 If a pipe fills a tank in ‘x’ hours but it takes ‘t’ more hours to fill it due to leakage in tank.
If tank is filled completely, then in how many hours it will be empty? [due to leakage
outlet]
. (.3G )
Require Time = G
11.5 Amount of water released or filled = Rate × time.
11.6 Two taps ‘A; and ‘B’ can empty a tank in ‘x’ hours and ‘y’ hours respectively. If both the
taps are opened together, then time taken to empty the tank will be
.-
Required Time = A B hrs
.3-
11.7 A tap ‘A’ can fill a tank in ‘x’ hours and ‘B’ can empty the tank in ‘y’ hours. Then
(a) time taken to fill the tank
.-
When both are opened = A.0-B ∶ 4 > 5
(b) Time taken to empty the tank
.-
When both are opened = A-0.B ∶ 5 > 4
11.8 Two taps A and B can fill a tank in x hours and y hours respectively. If both the pipes are
opened together, then the time after which pipe B should be closed so that the tank is full
in ‘t’ hours
G
Required Time = R5 A1 − .BU hours
11.9 If pipes A & B can fill a tank in time x, B & C in time y and C & A in time z, then the
time required/taken to fill the tank by
&.-1
(i) (A + B + C) together = .-3-131.
&.-1
(ii) A alone = .-3-101.
&.-1
(iii) B alone = -131.0.-
&.-1
(iv) C alone = 1.3.-0-1
Practice Test

1. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. If both pipes
are opened together, the time taken to fill the tank is :
a. 50 minutes b. 12 minutes c. 25 minutes d. 15 minutes
2. A tap can empty a tank in one hour. A second tap can empty it in 30 minutes. If both the
taps operate simultaneously, how much time is needed to empty the tank?
a. 20 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 40 minutes d. 45 minutes
146 A Complete Solution For CMAT
3. A cistern can be filled with water by a pipe in 5 hours and it can be emptied by a second
pipe in 4 hours. If both the pipes are opened when the cistern is full, the time in which it
will be emptied is :
%
a. 9 hours b. 18 hours c. 20 hours d. 20& hours
4. Two pipes A and B can separately fill a cistern in 60 minutes and 75 minutes respectively.
There is a third pipe in the bot- tom of the cistern to empty it. If all the three pipes are
simultaneously opened, then the cistern is full in 50 minutes. In how much time the third
pipe alone can empty the cistern?
a. 110 minutes b. 100 minutes c. 120 minutes d. 90 minutes
5. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 3 hours and 4 hours respectively and a waste pipe can empty
it in 2 hours. If all the three pipes are kept open, then the cistern will be filled in :
a. 5 hours b. 8 hours c. 10 hours d. 12 hours
6. Two pipes can fill a tank in 15 hours and 20 hours respectively, while the third can empty
it in 30 hours. If all the pipes are opened simultaneously, the empty tank will be filled in
%
a. 10 hours b. 12 hours d. 15 hours d. 15& hours
7. A tap can fill a cistern in 8 hours and another tap can empty it in 16 hours. If both the taps
are open, the time (in hours) taken to fill the tank will be :
a. 8 b. 10 c. 16 d. 24
8. A pipe can fill a tank in ‘x’ hours and another pipe can empty it in ‘y’ (y > x) hours. If both
the pipes are open, in how many hours will the tank be filled ?
.- .-
a. (x – y) hours b. (y – x) hours c. hours d. hours
.0- -0.
9. 12 pumps working 6 hours a day can empty a completely filled reservoir in 15 days. How
many such pumps working 9 hours a day will empty the same reservoir in 12 days ?
a. 15 b. 9 c. 10 d. 12
10. Three pipes P, Q and R can separately fill a cistern in 4, 8 and 12 hours respectively.
Another pipe S can empty the completely filled cistern in10 hours. Which of the following
arrangements will fill the empty cistern in less time than others ?
a. Q alone is open b. P and S are open
c. P, R and S are open d. P, Q and S are open
11. Two pipes can fill a cistern separately in 10 hours and 15 hours. They can together fill the
cistern in
a. 6 hours b. 7 hours c. 8 hours d. 9 hours
12. Three taps A,B and C together can fill an empty cistern in 10 minutes. The tap A alone can
fill it in 30 minutes and the tap B alone in 40 minutes. How long will the tap C alone take
to fill it ?
a. 16minutes b. 24minutes c. 32minutes d.40minutes
13. One tap can fill a water tank in 40 minutes and another tap can make the filled tank empty
in 60 minutes. If both the taps are open, in how many hours will the empty tank be filled ?
a. 2 hours b. 2.5 hours c. 3 hours d. 3.5 hours
14. A tank can be filled by pipe A in 2 hours and pipe B in 6 hours. At 10 A.M. pipe A was
opened. At what time will the tank be filled if pipe B is opened at 11 A. M. ?
a. 12.45 A.M. b. 5 P.M. c. 11.45 A.M. d. 12 P.M.
15. Two pipes, P and Q, together can fill a cistern in 20 minutes and P alone can in 30 minutes.
Then Q alone can fill the cistern in
a. 62 minutes b. 60 minutes c. 61 minutes d. 51 minutes
16. Two pipes A and B can fill a cis- tern in 3 hours and 5 hours respectively. Pipe C can empty
in 2 hours. If all the three pipes are open, in how many hours the cistern will be full?
a. can’t be filled b. 10 hours c. 15 hours d. 30 hours

147 A Complete Solution For CMAT

17. Three taps A, B, C can fill an overhead tank in 4, 6 and 12 hours respectively. How long
would the three taps take to fill the tank if all of them are opened together ?
a. 2 hours b. 4 hours c. 3 hours d. 5 hours
18. If two pipes function simultaneously, a tank is filled in 12 hours. One pipe fills the tank 10
hours faster than the other. How many hours does the faster pipe alone take to fill the tank?
a. 20 hrs b. 18 hrs c. 15 hrs d. 12 hrs
19. Two pipes X and Y can fill a cis- tern in 24 minutes and 32 minutes respectively. If both
the pipes are opened together, then after how much time (in minutes) should Y be closed
so that the tank is full in 18 minutes ?
a. 10 b. 8 c. 6 d. 5
20. A cistern is provided with two pipes A and B. A can fill it in 20 minutes and B can empty
it in 30 minutes. If A and B be kept open alternately for one minute each, how soon will
the cistern be filled ?
a. 121 minutes b. 110 minutes c. 115 minutes d. 120 minutes
21. A tap can fill an empty tank in 12 hours and another tap can empty half the tank in 10 hours.
It both the taps are opened simultaneously, how long would it take for the empty tank to be
filled to half its capacity ?
a. 30 hours b. 20 hours c. 15 hours d. 12 hours
22. Pipes P and Q can fill a tank in 10 and 12 hours respectively and C can empty it in 6 hours.
If all the three are opened at 7 a.m., at what time will one-fourth of the tank be filled ?
a. 10 a.m. b. 10 p.m. c. 11 p.m. d. 11 a.m.
,
23. If $ th of a cistern is filled in 1 minute, the time needed to fill the rest is
a. 40 sec b. 30 sec c. 36 sec d. 24 sec
24. There are two pumps to fill a tank with water. First pump can fill the empty tank in 8 hours,
while the second in 10 hours. If both the pumps are opened at the same time and kept open
for 4 hours, the part of tank that will be filled up is :
/ % & %
a. b. c. d.
%* %* $ $
25. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 6 hours, 9 hours and 12 hours respectively. B and
C are opened for half an hour, then A is also opened. The time taken by the three pipes
together to fill the remaining part of the tank is
% %
a. 3 hours b. 2 hours c. 2& hours d. 3& hours

12. Time and Distance

12.1 Distance = Speed × Time

148 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 ;<HG+@9? ;<HG+@9?
:dbbe = _<B?
, m+jb = I!??>
12.2 If a man travels different distances d1, d2, d3, ....... and so on in different time t1, t2, t3
respectively then,
_FG+\ GC+=?\\?> ><HG+@9?
`abcHNb :dbbe = _FG+\ G<B? G+]?@ <@ GC+=?\\<@d ><HG+@9?
># 3>1 3>2 3⋯
= G# 3G1 3G2 3⋯
12.3 If a man travels different distances d1, d2, d3, and so on with different speeds s1, s2, s3,
respectively then,
(> 3> 3> 3⋯ )
Average Speed = 0## 011 022
3 3 3⋯
F# F1 F2
12.4 If a distance is divided into n equal parts each travelled with different speeds, then, Average
speed
@
= # # # # where n = number of equal parts s1, s2, s3,……….sn are speeds.
R 3 3 3 S
F# F1 F2 F6
12.5 If a bus travels from A to B with the speed x km/h and returns from B to A with the speed
&.-
y km/h then the average speed will be A.3-B
12.6 If d1 distance is travelled in t1 time and d2 distance is travelled in t2 time then,
> >
e% e& = e& O% or G # = G 1
# 1
12.7 If an object increases/decreases its speed from x km/hr to y km/hr. to cover a distance in t2
hours in place of t1 hours then [Here (t2 – t1) will be given].
.-
z+fOH@ob = × (>ℎH@Nb +@ O+jb)
;<LL?C?@9? FL . +@> -
fFC>E9G FL I!??>H
Or, z+fOH@ob = A;<LL?C?@9? <@ I!??>HB × (>ℎH@Nb +@ O+jb)
Y
12.8 If an object travels certain distance with the speed of h of its original speed and reaches its
destination ‘t’ hours before or after, then the taken time by object travelling at original
speed is
Y
m+jb = (;<LL?C?@9? FL Y +@> h × O+jb(+@ ℎMhc)
% %
12.9 :dbbe(f) ∝ G<B?(G) ⇒ f ∝ G
∴ f% O% = f& O& (Provided distance is constant)
10.10 If a man travels at the speed of s1 , he reaches his destination t1 late while he reaches t2
before when he travels at s2 speed, then the distance between the two places is
(H ×H )×(G 3G )
z = # H1 0H # 1
1 #

11.11 Time taken by 1 man to reach B after meeting 2nd man at C is ‘t1’ and time taken by
st

2nd man to reach A after meeting 1st man at C is ‘t2’ then:

I!??> FL %HG B+@(I# ) G
= JG1
I!??> FL &@> B+@ (H1 ) #
∴ Distance from A to B = f% O% + f& O&
12.12 If both objects run in opposite direction then, Relative speed = Sum of speeds.
If both objects run in the same direction then, Relative speed = Difference of Speeds.
;<HG+@9? 8?G`??@ Gc?B
m+jb OHib@ +@ jbbO+@N =
A?\+G<=? I!??>

12.13 Let a man take ‘t’ hours to travel ‘x’ km. If he travels some distance on foot with the
speed u km/h and remaining distance by cycle with the speed v km/h, then time taken to
travel on foot.

149 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 (=G0. )
m+jb = (=0E)
Distance travelled on foot = Time × u
12.14 Formula to calculate the no. of rounds. Circular Distance = (circumference) × No of
rounds, z = 2Çc × @
12.15 If any one overtakes or follows another,
;<HG+@9? 8?G`??@ Gc?B
then time taken to catch =
A?\+G<=? I!??>
(I!??> FL %HG GC+=?\\?C )×G<B?
or meet = (;<LL?C?@9? FL I!??>H)
(fCF>E9G FL I!??>H )×G<B?
Total travelled distance to catch the thief = (;<LL?C?@9? FL I!??>H )
12.16 Formula to calculate the no. of poles,
Distance = (n – 1)x
where n = No. of poles.
x = distance between consecutive two poles.
12.17 If in a certain time, ‘d1’ distance is travelled with ‘s1’ speed and d2 distance is travelled
> >
with ‘s2’ speed then, H # = H 1
# 1
% % %
12.18 If a man covers . part of journey at u km/h, - part at v km/h and 1 part of w km/h and so
%
on, then his average speed for the whole journey will be # # #
3 3 3⋯
=+ >) ?G
12. 19 Let ‘a’ metre long train is travelling with the speed ‘x’ m/s and ‘b’ metre long train is
travelling with the speed ‘y’ m/s in the opposite direction on parallel path. Then, time
taken by the trains to cross each other
+38
= A.3-B = seconds
12.20 Let ‘a’ metre long train is running with the speed ‘x’ m/s. A man is running in the opposite
direction of train with the speed of ‘y’ m/s. Then, time taken by the train to cross the man
+
= A(.3-)B seconds
12.21 If two trains of (same lengths) are coming from same direction and cross a man in t1 and
&× fCF>E9G FL G<B?
t2 seconds, then time taken by both the trains to cross each other = ;<LL?C?@9? FL G<B?
12.22 If two trains of same length are coming from opposite directions and cross a man in t1
seconds and t2 seconds then time taken by both trains to cross each other =
& × fCF>E9G FL G<B?
IEB FL G<B?
12.23 Two trains A and B, run from stations X to Y and from Y to X with the speed ‘SA’ and
‘SB’ respectively. After meeting with each other. A reached at Y after ‘tA’ time and B
reached at X after ‘tB’ time. Then Ratio of speeds of trains,
I@ G
= JGA
IA @

Practice Test

1. A train is travelling at the rate of 45km/hr. How many seconds it will take to cover a
#
distance of $ km?
a. 36 sec. b. 64 sec. c. 90 sec. d. 120 sec.

150 A Complete Solution For CMAT

2. An aeroplane covers a certain distance at a speed of 240 km hour in 5 hours. To cover the
&
same distance in 1, hours, it must travel at a speed of:
a. 300 km./hr. b. 360 km./hr. c. 600 km./hr. d. 720 km./hr.
3. A man walking at the rate of 5 km/hr. crosses a bridge in 15 minutes. The length of the
bridge (in metres) is:
a. 600 b. 750 c. 1000 d. 1250
4. A man crosses a road 250 metres wide in 75 seconds. His speed in km/hr is :
a. 10 b. 12 c. 12.5 d. 15
5. An athlete runs 200 metres race in 24 seconds. His speed (in km/hr) is:
a. 20 b. 24 c. 28.5 d. 30
6. A car goes 10 metres in a second. Find its speed in km/hour.
a. 40 b. 32 c. 48 d. 36
7. A car travelling at a speed of 40 km/hour can complete a journey in 9 hours. How long will
it take to travel the same distance at 60 km/hour ?
a. 6 hours b. 3 hours c. 4 hours d. 4.5 hours
8. A man travelled a certain distance by train at the rate of 25 kmph. and walked back at the
rate of 4 kmph. If the whole journey took 5 hours 48 minutes, the distance was
a. 25 km b. 30 km c. 20 km d. 15 km
9. A boy goes to his school from his house at a speed of 3 km/hr and returns at a speed of 2
km/ hr. If he takes 5 hours in going and coming, the distance between his house and school
is :
a. 6 km b. 5 km c. 5.5 km d. 6.5 km
10. A boy runs 20 km in 2.5 hours. How long will he take to run 32 km at double the previous
speed?
% %
a. 2 hours b. 2& hours c. 4& hours d. 5 hours
11. A train is moving with the speed of 180 km/hr. Its speed (in metres per second) is :
a. 5 b. 40 c. 30 d. 50
12. A man riding his bicycle covers 150 metres in 25 seconds. What is his speed in km per
hour?
a. 25 b. 21.6 c. 23 d. 20
13. A and B travel the same distance at speed of 9 km/hr and 10 km/ hr respectively. If A takes
36 minutes more than B, the distance travelled by each is
a. 48 km b. 54 km c. 60 km d. 66 km
,
14. A person started his journey in the morning. At 11 a.m. he covered ( of the journey and on
$
the same day at 4.30 p.m. he covered ) of the journey. He started his journey at
a. 6.00 a.m. b. 3.30 a.m. c. 7.00 a.m. d. 6.30 a.m.
15. Thespeedofabusis72 km/hr. The distance covered by the bus in 5 seconds is
a. 100 m b. 60 m c. 50 m d. 74.5 m
16. Two men start together to walk a certain distance, one at 4 km/h and another at 3 km/h.
The former arrives half an hour before the latter. Find the distance.
a. 8 km b. 7 km c. 6 km d. 9 km
17. A train starts from a place A at 6 a.m. and arrives at another place B at 4.30 p.m. on the
same day. If the speed of the train is 40 km per hour, find the distance travelled by the
train?
a. 420 km b. 230 km c. 320 km d. 400 km
18. Walking at the rate of 4 km an hour, a man covers a certain distance in 3 hours 45 minutes.
If he covers the same distance on cycle, cycling at the rate of 16·5 km/hour, the time taken
by him is
a. 55.45 minutes b. 54.55 minutes c. 55.44 minutes d. 45.55 minutes
19. A train covers a distance of 10 km in 12 minutes. If its speed is decreased by 5 km/hr, the
time taken by it to cover the same distance will be :
a. 10 minutes b. 13 minutes 20 sec c. 13 minutes d. 11 minutes 20 sec

151 A Complete Solution For CMAT

20. A man walks ‘a’ km in ‘b’ hours. The time taken to walk 200 metres is
&**8 8 8 +8
a. + hours b. $+ hours c. + hours d. &** hours
%
21. The speed 3, m/sec when expressed in km/hour becomes
a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 12
22. A bullock cart has to cover a distance of 120 km. in 15 hours. If it covers half of the journey
,
in $ th time, the speed to cover the remaining distance in the same left has to be
a. 6.4 km/hr b. 6.67 km/hr c. 10 km/hr d. 15 km/hr
23. A car can finish a certain journey in 10 hours at the speed of 42 kmph. In order to cover the
same distance in 7 hours, the speed of the car (km/h) must be increased by:
a. 12 b. 15 c. 18 d. 24
24. A man cycles at the speed of 8km/hr and reaches office at 11 am and when he cycles at the
speed of 12 km/hr he reaches office at 9 am. At what speed should he cycle so that he
reaches his office at 10 am?
a. 9.6 kmph b. 10 kmph c. 11.2 kmph d. cannot be determined
25. A bus travels at the speed of 36 km/hr, then the distance covered by it in one second is
a. 10 metre b. 15 metre c. 12.5 metre d.13.5 metre
26. Two buses travel to a place at 45 km./hr. and 60 km./hr. respectively. If the second bus
%
takes 5& hours less than the first for the journey, the length of the journey is:
a. 900 km b. 945 km c. 990 km d. 1350 km
27. A train is running at a speed of 116 km/hr. The distance covered by the train in metres in
18 seconds is :
a. 900 metre b. 1160 metre c. 508 metre d. 580 metre
, %
28. A man travels th of the distance of his journey by bus, th by rickshaw and 2 km on foot.
# )
The total distance travelled by the man is:
a. 12 km b. 18 km c. 20 km d. 24 km
29. To cover a certain distance with a speed of 60 km/hr, a train takes 15 hours. If it covers the
same distance in 12 hours, what will be its speed?
a. 65 km/h b. 70 km/h c. 75 km/h d. 80 km/h
30. Sound travels at 330 metre per second. The distance (in kilometre) of a thunder cloud when
its sound follows the flash after 10 seconds is:
a. 0.22 km b. 3.3 km c. 33 km d. 33.3 km
31. A man travels some distance at a speed of 12 km/hr and returns at a speed of 9 km/hr. If
the total time taken by him is 2 hrs 20 minutes the distance is
a. 35 km. b. 21 km. c. 9 km. d. 12 km.
32. The distance between two cities A and B is 330 km. A train starts from A at 8 a.m. and
travels towards B at 60 km/hr. Another train starts from B at 9 a.m. and travels towards A
at 75 km/hr. At what time do they meet?
a. 10 a.m. b. 10:30 a.m. c. 11 a.m. d. 11:30 a.m.
33. Two men are standing on opposite ends of a bridge 1200 metres long. If they walk towards
each other at the rate of 5m/minute and 10m/minute respectively, in how much time will
they meet each other ?
a. 60 minutes b. 80 minutes c. 85 minutes d. 90 minutes
34. Two trains, one 160 m and the other 140 m long are running in opposite directions on
parallel rails, the first at 77 km an hour and the other at 67 km an hour. How long will they
take to cross each other?
%
a. 7 second b. 7& seconds c. 6 seconds d. 10 seconds
35. Two trains are running in opposite direction with the same speed. If the length of each train
is 120 metres and they cross each other in 12 seconds, the speed of each train (in km/hour)
is
a. 72 b. 10 c. 36 d. 18

152 A Complete Solution For CMAT

36. Two trains 140 m and 160 m long run at the speed of 60 km/ hour and 40 km/hour
respectively in opposite directions on parallel tracks. The time (in seconds) which they take
to cross each other, is:
a. 10 sec. b. 10.8 sec c. 9 sec d. 9.6 sec.
37. Two trains start from stations A and B and travel towards each other at speed of 50 km/hour
and 60 km/hour respectively. At the time of their meeting, the second train has travelled
120 km more than the first. The distance between A and B is :
a. 990 km b. 1200 km c. 1320 km d. 1440 km
38. Two trains are moving on two parallel tracks but in opposite directions. A person sitting in
the train moving at the speed of 80 km/hr passes the second train in 18 seconds. If the length
of the second train is 1000 m, its speed is
a. 100 km/hr b. 120 km/hr c. 140 km/hr d. 150 km/hr
39. Two trains 105 metres and 90 metres long, runs at the speed of 45 km/hr and 72 km/hr
respectively, in opposite directions on parallel tracks. The time which they take to cross
each other, is
a. 8 seconds b. 6 seconds c. 7 seconds d. 5 seconds
40. Two trains of equal length, running in opposite directions, pass a pole in 18 and 12 seconds.
The trains will cross each other in
a. 14.4 seconds b. 15.5 seconds c. 18.8 seconds d. 20.2 seconds
41. A train, 150m long, passes a pole in 15 seconds and another train of the same length
travelling in the opposite direction in 12 seconds. The speed of the second train is
a. 45 km/hr b. 48 km/hr c. 52 km/hr d. 54 km/hr
42. A train travelling at 48 km/hr crosses another train, having half its length and travelling in
opposite direction at 42 km/hr, in 12 seconds. It also passes a railway platform in 45
seconds. The length of the railway platform is
a. 200 m b. 300 m c. 350 m d. 400 m
43. Two towns A and B are 500 km. apart. A train starts at 8 AM from A towards B at a speed
of 70km/ hr. At 10 AM, another train starts from B towards A at a speed of 110 km/hr.
When will the two trains meet?
a. 1 p.m. b. 12 noon c. 12.30 p.m. d. 1.30 p.m.
44. Two trains of length 70 m and 80 m are running at speed of 68 km/hr and 40 km/hr
respectively on parallel tracks in opposite directions. In how many seconds will they pass
each other?
a. 10 sec b. 8 sec c. 5 sec d. 3 sec
45. Two trains of equal length take 10 seconds and 15 seconds respectively to cross a telegraph
post. If the length of each train be 120 metres, in what time (in seconds) will they cross
each other travelling in opposite direction?
a. 16 b. 15 c. 12 d. 10
46. Two trains of length 137 metre and 163 metre are running with speed of 42 km/hr and 48
km/hr respectively towards each other on papallel tracks. In how many seconds will they
cross each other?
a. 30 sec b. 24 sec c. 12 sec d 10 sec
47. Two trains 150 m and 120 m long respectively moving from opposite directions cross each
other in 10 secs. If the speed of the second train is 43.2 km/hr, then the speed of the first
train is
a. 54 km/hr b. 50 km/hr c. 52 km/hr d. 51 km/hr
48. Two trains start from station A and B and travel towards each other at speed of 16 miles/
hour and 21 miles/ hour respectively. At the time of their meeting, the second train has
travelled 60 miles more than the first. The distance between A and B (in miles) is:
a. 444 b. 496 c. 333 d. 540
49. Two trains 108 m and 112 m in length are running towards each other on the parallel lines
at a speed of 45 km/hr and 54 km/ hr respectively. To cross each other after they meet, it
will take
a. 12 sec b. 9 sec c. 8 sec d. 10 sec

153 A Complete Solution For CMAT

50. A man standing on a platform finds that a train takes 3 seconds to pass him and another
train of the same length moving in the opposite direction, takes 4 seconds. The time taken
by the trains to pass each other will be
, , , ,
a. 2' sec. b. 3' sec. c. 4' sec. d. 5' sec.
51. Two trains, each of length 125 metre, are running in parallel tracks in opposite directions.
One train is running at a speed 65 km/hour and they cross each other in 6 seconds. The
speed of the other train is
a. 75 km/hr b. 85 km/hr c. 95 km/hr d. 105 km/hr

13. Sequence and Series

Sequence: Succession of numbers arranged in a definite order forming a definite pattern is

known as sequence.
Series: If a1, a2, a3, a4, ..., an, ... is a sequence, then the expression a1 +a2 +a3 +a4 +...+an
+...is a series.
A series is finite or infinite according to as the number of terms in the corresponding
sequence is finite or infinite.
Progressions: Those sequences whose terms follow certain patterns are called
progressions.
Arithmetic Progression (A.P.): A sequence is called an Arithmetic Progression if the
difference between two consecutive terms is always same. i.e., an + 1 – an = constant (=d)
for all n ∈ N
The constant difference, generally denoted by ‘d’ is called the common difference.
an is called the nth or last term of an A.P.
an = l = a + (n – 1)d
(i) Three consecutive, terms in an A.P are taken as a – d, a, a + d.
(ii) Four consecutive terms in an A.P taken as a – 3d, a – d, a + d, a + 3d.
Note: If each term of an A.P. is (increased/ decreased) by K then A.M. is also (increased/
decreased) by K.
If each term of an A.P. is (multiplied/Divided) by K, then A.M is also
(multiplied/Divided) by same number K.
13.1 Let a be the first term and d be the common difference of an A.P. Then its nth term is a + (n
– 1)d i.e., an = a + (n – 1)d
13.2 The sum Sn of n terms of an A.P. with first term is ‘a’ and common difference is ‘d’ is
@ @
:@ = & [2H + (@ − 1)e] or :@ = & [H + L]
where l = last term = a + (n –1)d.
+39
13.3 Three numbers a, b, c are in A.P. If 2b = a + c or b = & or vice versa. Here b is called
arithmetic mean of a and c.
Arithmetic Mean: If between two given quantities a and b we have inserted n
quantities A1, A2, A3, ... An such that a, A1, A2, .... An to form A.P., then we say that
A1, A2, A3 .... An are arithmetic means between a and b.
Insertion of ‘n’ Arithmetic Means between a and b : Let A1, A2, ... An be n Arithmetic
Means between two quantities a and b.
80+
Such that, a, A1.A2…..An, b are in A.P. then d = A@3%B
80+ &(80+ ) @(80+)
`% = AH + @3%B . `& = RH + U … `@ = H +
@3% (@3%)
These are the required Arithmetic Means between a and b.
Note: Let A be the Arithmetic Mean between a and b, then a, A, b are in A.P. Such that

154 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 +38
2A = a + b ⇒ ` = &
13.4
@(@3%)
(i)1 + 2 + 3 + ….+ n =
&
@(@3%)(&@3%)
(ii) 1 + 2 + 3 + ….. + n =
2 2 3 2
)
@(@3%) &
(iii) 13 + 23 + 33 + …..n3 = R & U
Note: (ii) and (iii) are not AP’s
Geometric Progression: A sequence of non-zero numbers is called a Geometric
Progression (abbreviated as G.P.) if the ratio of a term and the term preceding to it is
always same.
The constant ratio is called the common ratio (r) of the G.P.
In other words, a sequence a1, a2, a3, ... an is called a Geometric Progression if
+&"#
+
= oM@fOH@O PMc HLL @ ∈ ? .
&
+
Three numbers in G.P. is taken as a, ar, ar2 or , a, ar,
C
Geometric Series: If a1, a2, a3, ... an, ... is a G.P., then the expression a1 +a2 +a3 +...+an
+...is called a geometric series.
13.5 The nth term of a G.P. with first term a and common ratio r is given by an = arn-1
13.6 The sum of n terms of a G.P. with first term ‘a’ and common ratio ‘r’. is given by
%0C & C & 0%
:@ = H A %0C B for r < 1 and :@ = H A %0C B for r > 1
In fact these two are exactly identical. The only thing which must be noted is that the above
formulas do not hold for r = 1, the sum of n terms of the G.P. is Sn = na. where r = 1.
13.7 The sum of an infinite G.P. with 1st term is ‘a’ and common ratio is r(–1 < r < 1 i.e., |r| <
1) is given by
+
fr = %0C
13.8 Three non-zero numbers a, b, c are in G.P. if b2 = ac or I = √Ho. Here b, is known as the
geometric mean of a and c.
Note: Let a and b be two given numbers. If ‘n’ numbers G1, G2, ....., Gn are inserted
between a and b such that the sequence a, G1, G2, ... Gn, b is a G.P. Then the numbers
G1, G2, ... Gn are known as n Geometric Means (G.M's) between a and b.
13.9 Geometric Mean: If a single geometric mean G is inserted between two given numbers a
and b, then G is known as the Geometric Mean between a and b. Thus, G is the G.M.
between a and b.
∴ a, G, b are in G.P.
⇔ Ö & = HI
⇒ Ö = √HI
13.10 Insertion of ‘n’ Geometric Means between two given numbers a and b : Let G1, G2, .....,
Gn be n Geometric Means between two given numbers a and b. Then a, G1, G2, ... Gn, b
is a G.P. consisting of (n + 2) terms. Let r be the common ratio of this G.P., then
b = (n + 2)th term = arn-1
#
8 &"#
⇒ c = A+B
#
8 &"#
∴ Ö% = Hc = H A+B
1
8 &"#
Ö% = Hc & = H A+B
&
@ 8 &"#
Ö@ = Hc = H A+B
155 A Complete Solution For CMAT
13.11 If ‘n’ Geometric Means are inserted between two quantities, then the product of n
geometric means is the nth power of the single geometric mean between the two
quantities, i.e., – G1G2G3 ... Gn
@
= \√HI] = Ö @ . Where, √HI = Ö is the single Geometric Mean between a and b.
Harmonic Progression :
If a, b, c, d, are in H.P. then
% % % %
, , , will form an A.P. and then we can apply all rules of A.P.
+ 8 9 >
Harmonic Mean (H.M.): H will be called Harmonic Mean between a and b if a, H, b are
in H.P. Then
&+8
Ü=
+38
+38
For two numbers a and b, `. {. = &
&+8
Ö. {. = √HI: Ü. {. = +38
+38
Relation among A.M., G.M. and H.M.: For two numbers a and b, `. {. = &
; Ö. {. =
√HI
&+8
Ü. {. = +38
+38 &+8
∵ ≥ √HI ≥
& +38
∴ `. {. ≥ Ö. {. ≥ Ü. {.
They will be equal if both numbers are equal to each other.
+38 &+8
Now, A.M. × H.M. = &
×+38
`. {.× Ü. {. = HI = (Ö. {. )&
Or, Ö. {. = [(`. {. ) × (Ü. {. )

Practice Test

1. The wrong number in the series 2, 9, 28, 65, 126, 216, 344 is
a. 65 b. 216 c. 9 d. None of these
2. The odd term in the sequence 0, 7, 26, 63, 124, 217 is
a. 217 b. 7 c. 26 d. 63
3. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the series?
3, 8, 27, 112, (?), 3396
a. 565 b. 452 c. 560 d. 678
4. In the following number series a wrong number is given. Find out that number.
8, 18, 40, 86, 178, 370, 752
a. 178 b. 180 c. 128 d. 156
5. The odd one out from the sequence of numbers 19, 23, 29, 37, 43, 46, 47 is
a. 23 b. 46 c. 37 d. 19
% , $ '
6. The next number of the sequence & , # , ( , %) , … is
%* %% / /
a. &# b. ,& c. &# d. ,&
7. The next number of the sequence 3, 5, 9, 17, 33, .... is
a. 65 b. 60 c. 50 d. 49
8. Find out the wrong number in the sequence : 40960, 10240, 2560, 640, 200, 40, 10
a. 2560 b. 200 c. 640 d. 40

156 A Complete Solution For CMAT

9. Find out the wrong number in the series. 190 166 145 128 112 100 91
a. 100 b. 166 c. 145 d. 128
10. Find the wrong number in the following number series. 3 7 16 35 70 153
a. 70 b. 16 c. 153 d. 35
11. The sum (101 + 102 + 103 + ….+ 200) is equal to :
a. 15000 b. 15025 c. 15050 d. 25000
12. Which term of the series 72, 63, 54, ....... is zero?
a. 11th b. 10th c.9th d. 8th
13. The sum 9 + 16 + 25 + 36 +....+ 100 is equal to :
a. 350 b. 380 c. 400 d. 420
th
14. What is the 507 term of the sequence 1, –1, 2, –2, 1, –1, 2, –2, 1, ....?
a. – 1 b. 1 c. – 2 d. 2
th
15. If the 4 term of an arithmetic progression is 14 and the 12th term is 70, then the first
term is :
a. – 10 b. – 7 c. + 7 d. + 10
16. By adding the same constant to each of 31, 7, – 1 a geometric progression results. The
common ratio is :
%
a. 13 b. 2 c. – 12 d. None of these
,
17. The sum of the first 8 terms of a geometric progression is 6560 and the common ratio is
3. The first term is
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
18. How many terms of the series “1 + 2 + 3 ......” add upto 5050?
a. 50 b. 51 c. 100 d. 101
19. The seventh term of the sequence 1, 3, 6, 10, ......... is :
a. 20 b. 26 c. 28 d. 32
20. If the 10th term of the sequence a, a–b, a–2b, a–3b ,...is 20 and the 20th term is 10, then
the xth term of the series is
a. 10 – x b. 20 – x c. 29 – x d. 30 – x
% % % % % %
21. When simplified, the sum & + ) + %& + &* + ,* + ….+ @(@3%) is equal to
% % &(@0%) @
a. b. c. d.
@ @3% @ @3%
22. (1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 +....+ 99) is equal to
a. 2050 b. 2500 c. 2005 d. 2002
th % @3% &(@3%)
23. The n term of the sequence @, @ , @ …… is
@1 3% @1 0@3%
a. b. c. n + 1 d. 2
@ @
%*& 0%
24. If 1 + 10 + 102 + …… upto n terms = / , then the sum of the series 4 + 44 + 444 + …..
upto n term is
# #@ # #@ #* #@ #* #@
a. /(10n – 1) - / b. (% (10n -1) - / c. (%(10n – 1) - / d. / (10n – 1) - /
% % % % %
25. Which term of the sequence &, - #, (, -%), ….. is - &$)?
a. 9th b. 8th c. 7th d. 5th
26. The first odd number is 1, the second odd number is 3, the third odd number is 5 and so
on. The 200th odd number is
a. 399 b. 421 c. 357 d. 599
27. Only two entries are known of the following Arithmetic progression: - 5, -, -, 14, -, -
What should be the number just after 14?
a.17 b. 18 c. 19 d. 20
28. Which term of the sequence 7, 10, 13, ..... is 151 ?
157 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 29th b. 19th c. 59th d. 49th
% % %
29. The sum of the first 20 term of the series $×)+)×'+'×(+…… is
a.0.16 b. 1.6 c. 16 d. 0.016
30. Which term of the sequence 6, 13, 20, 27, ..... is 98 more than its 24th term ?
a. 36th b. 38th c. 35th d. 48th
31. The sum of series 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 +....+ 998 + 999 + 1000 is
a. 5050 b. 500500 b. 550000 c. 55000
% % %
32. The sum of n terms the series 1 + + 1 + 2 ……. Is
& & &
&& 0% &&;# 0% && 0%
a. &;# b. &;1 c. 2 - 22 d. &
& & &
33. The ninth term of the sequence 0, 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, .... is
a. 63 b. 70 c. 80 d. 99
34. The sixth term of the sequence 2, 6, 11, 17, ..... is
a. 24 b. 30 c. 32 d. 36
35. The ratio of the fifth and sixth terms of the sequence 1, 3, 6, 10, ......
a. 5 : 6 b. 5 : 7 c. 7 : 5 d. 6 : 5
36. The middle term(s) of the following series 2 + 4 + 6 +...+ 198 is
a. 98 b. 96 c. 94 d. 100
37. If p, q, r are in Geometric progression, then which is true among the following ?
!3C ! C
a. q= & b. p2 = qr c. q = [dc d. C ="
38. Terms a, 1, b are in Arithmetic Progression and terms 1, a, b are in Geometric
Progression. Find ‘a’ and ‘b’ given a ≠ b.
a. 2, 4 b. – 2, 1 c. 4, 1 d. -2, 4
39. The 5th term of the sequence for which t1 =1, t2 =2 and tn+2=tn + tn+1, is
a. 5 b. 10 c. 6 d. 8
40. 1 + (3 + 1) (32 + 1) (34 + 1) (38 + 1) (316 + 1) (332 +1) is equal to
,86 0% ,86 3%
a. & b. & c. 3664- 1 d. 364 + 1
41. The sum of ‘5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + ……+ 9’ is equal to
a. 150 b. 170 c. 180 d. 190
42. If 12 + 22 + 33 + ……+ 202 = 2870, the value of (22 + 42 + 62 + ……+ 402) is:
a. 11480 b. 5740 c. 28700 d. 2870
43. If 13 + 23 + 33 + …...+ 103 = 3025, the value of 23 + 43 +63 +...+ 203 is equal to
a. 6050 b. 9075 c. 12100 d. 24200
44. (45 + 46 + 47 + ...... + 113 + 114 + 115) is equal to
a. 5600 b. 5656 c. 5680 d. 4000
% .3% &.3%
45. The 12th term of the series . + . + . + ⋯
%%.3% %&.3% .3%& .3%%
a. . b. . c. . d. .
46. The first term of an Arithmetic Progression is 22 and the last term is 11. If the sum is 66,
the number of terms in the sequence is
a. 10 b. 12 c. 9 d. 8
% %
47. The 30th term of the series 30. 25&, 21, 16& ……. Is
% %
a. 0 b. - 100& c. – 183 d. - 133&
48. Find the nth term of the following sequence: 5 + 55 + 555 +……+ Tn
$ $ @
a. 5(10n – 1) b. 5n(10n – 1) c. /(10n – 1) d. A/B (10n – 1)
% % %
49. Find the sum of first five terms of the following series : + #×' +'×%* + …… + …….
%×#

158 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 / ' $ %
a. ,& b. %) c. %) d. &%*
2 n
50. The least value of n, such that (1 +3+3 +.....+3 ) exceeds 2000, is
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8
% % % % % %
51. The next term of the sequence A1 + B; A1 + B A1 + B; A1 + B A1 + B A1 + B;…… is
& & , & , #
% % %
a.3 b. 1 + $ c. 5 d. A1 + &B A1 + $B
52. The sum of 10 terms of the arithmetic series is 390. If the third term of the series is 19,
find the first term
a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 8
53. Given 22 + 42 + 62 + .......+ 402 = 11480, then the value of 12 + 22 + 32 +......+ 202 is:
a. 2870 b. 2868 c. 2867 d. 2869
2 2 2 2 !(!3%)(&!3%) 2 2 2 2
54. If 1 +2 +3 +.....+ p = )
then 1 + 3 + 5 + ……+ 17 is equal to:
a. 1785 b. 1700 c. 980 d. 969
55. If 7 times the seventh term of an Arithmetic Progression (AP) is equal to 11 times its
eleventh term, then the 18th term of the AP will be
a. 1 b. 0 c. 2 c. – 1
56. The sum (53 + 63 + .... 103) is equal to:
a. 2295 b. 2425 c. 2495 d. 2925
57. If 13 + 23 + 33 +....+ 103 = 3025, then find the value of 23 +43 +63 +....+203
a. 6050 b. 9075 c. 12100 d. 24200
58. If 13 + 23 +..... + 103 = 3025, then 4 + 32 + 108 +..... + 4000 is equal to:
a. 12000 b. 12100 c. 12200 d. 12400
59. If 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 = 441 then find the value of 2 + 4 + 63 +83 + 103 + 123
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3

a. 882 b. 1323 c. 1764 d. 3528

.(.3%)(&.3%)
60. If 12 + 22 + 32 + ……. + x2 = then 12 + 32 + 52 + …… 192 is equal to
)
a. 1330 b. 2100 c. 2485 d. 2500
61. If 1 + 2 +......+ 9 = 2025, then the value of (0.11) + (0.22) + .... + (0.99)3 is close to
3 3 3 3 3

a. 0.2695 c. 2.695 c. 3.695 d. 0.3695

62. The value of 52 + 62 + ..... + 102 + 202 is
a. 755 b. 760 c. 765 d. 770
63. 12 – 22 + 32 – 42 +…... – 102 is equal to
a. 45 b. – 45 c. – 54 d. – 55
@
64. Given that 1 + 2 + 3 +…... + n = ) (n +1) (2n + 1), then 10 + 112 + 122 + ……. + 202
2 2 2 2 2

is equal to
a. 2616 b. 2585 c. 3747 d. 2555
65. (12 + 22 + 32 + ...... + 102) is equal to
a. 380 b. 385 c. 390 d. 392
2 2 2 2
66. (5 + 6 + 7 +...+ 10 ) is equal to
a. 330 b. 345 c. 355 d. 360
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
67. [2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9 + 10 ] is equal to
a. 385 b 2916 c. 540 d. 384
3 3 3 3 3
68. [1 + 2 + 3 +......+ 9 + 10 ] is equal to
a. 3575 b. 2525 c. 5075 d. 3025
69. Given that 1 + 2 + 3 +…...+ 10 = 385, the value of 2 + 4 + 62 +......+ 202 =
2 2 2 2 2 2

a. 770 b. 1540 c. 1155 d. (385)2

159 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 14. Algebra

Polynomials: An algebraic expression in which the variables involved have only non-
negative integral powers is called a polynomial.
General Form: p(x) = a +a1 x + a2x2 +...+ an xn is a polynomial in variable x, where a0,
a1, a2, a3 ... an are real numbers and n is non-negative integer.
Remainder Theorem: Let f(x) be a polynomial of degree n ≥ 1, and let a be any real
number. When f (x) is divided by (x – a), then the remainder is f (a).
Proof: Suppose that when f(x) is divided by (x – a), the quotient is g(x) and the remainder
is r (x). Then, degree r(x) < degree (x – a)
⇒ degree r(x ) < 1
⇒ degree r(x ) = 0 [ ∵ degree of (x – a) = 1]
⇒ r(x ) is constant, equal to r (say).
Thus, when f (x ) is divided by (x – a), then the quotient is g(x ) and the remainder is r.
∴ f (x ) = (x – a) . g (x ) + r ... (i)
Putting x = a in (i), we get r = f(a).
Thus, when f(x) is divided by (x – a), then the remainder is f(a).
Remarks
(i) If a polynomial p(x) is divided by (x + a), the remainder is the value of
p(x) at x = – a i.e. p(–a)
[∵ x + a = 0 ⇒ x = – a]
(ii) If a polynomial p(x) is divided by (ax – b), the remainder is the value of
8 8
p(x) at 4 = + i.e. d A+B
8
[∵ H4 − I = 0 ⇒ 4 = +]
(iii) If a polynomial p (x ) is divided by (ax + b), then remainder is

160 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 8 8
the value of p(x) at 4 = + i.e. d A− +B
8
[∵ H4 + I = 0 ⇒ 4 = − +]
(iv) If a polynomial p(x) is divided by b – ax, the remainder is
8 8
the value of p(x at 4 = i.e. d A B
+ +
8
[∵ I − H4 = 0 ⇒ 4 = +]
Factor Theorem
Let p(x) be a polynomial of degree greater than or equal to 1 and a be a real number
such that p(a) = 0, then (x – a) is a factor of p(x).
Conversely, if (x – a) is a factor of p(x), then p(a) = 0
⇒ p(x), when divided by (x – a) gives remainder zero. But by Remainder theorem,
p(x) when divided by (x – a) gives the remainder equal to p(a). ∴p(a) =0
Remarks
(i) (x + a) is a factor of a polynomial (if and only if) p(–a) = 0
8
(ii) (ax–b)is a factor of a polynomial if d A+B = 0
8
(iii) (ax + b) is a factor of a polynomial p(x) if d A− +B = 0
(iv) (x – a) (x – b) are factors of a polynomial p(x) if p(a) = 0 and p(b) = 0
Algebraic Identities
An algebraic identity is an algebraic equation which is true for all values of the
variable (s).
Important Formulae
1. (a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2 2. (a – b)2 = a2 – 2ab + b2
3. (a + b)2 = (a – b)2 + 4ab 4. (a–b)2 = (a + b)2 – 4ab
2 2
5. a – b = (a + b)(a – b)
6. a3 + b3 = (a + b)(a2 – ab + b2) 7. a3 – b3 = (a – b)(a2 + ab + b2)
8. (a + b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3ab(a + b) 9. (a – b)3 = a3 – b3 – 3ab(a – b)
10. a3 + b3 = (a + b)3 – 3ab(a + b) 11. a3 – b3 = (a – b)3 + 3ab(a – b)
3 3 3
12. a + b + c – 3abc
= (a + b + c) (a2 + b2 + c2 – ab – bc – ac)
13. If a + b + c = 0, then a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc
14. (a + b + c)3 = a3 + b3 + c3 + 3(b + c)(c + a)(a + b)
15. a2 + b2 = (a + b)2 – 2ab
16. a2 + b2 = (a – b)2 + 2ab 17. (a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2ab + 2ac + 2bc
18. a4 + b4 + a2b2 = (a2 – ab + b2) (a2 + ab + b2)
Graphic Representation of Straight Lines
Ordered Pair: A pair of numbers a and b listed in a specific order with a at the first place
and b at the second place is called an ordered pair (a, b).
Note that (a, b) ≠ (b, a).
Thus, (2, 3) is one ordered pair and (3, 2) is another ordered pair.
Co-Ordinate System
Co-ordinate Axes: The position of a point in a plane is determined with reference
to two fixed mutually perpendicular lines, called the coordinate axes.
Let us draw two lines X’OX and YOY’, which are perpendicular to each other and
intersect at the point O. These lines are called the coordinate axes or the axes of
reference.
The horizontal line X’OX is called the x-axis.
The vertical line YOY’ is called the y-axis.
The point O is called the origin.
161 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 The distance of a point from y-axis is called its x-co- ordinate or abscissa and the
distance of the point from x-axis is called its y-co ordinate or ordinate.
If x and y, denote respectively the abscissa and ordinate of a point P, then (x, y)
are called the coordinates of the point P.
The y–co-ordinate of every point on x-axis is zero. i.e. when a straight line
intersects at x-axis, its y-co-ordinate is zero. So, the co-ordinates of any point on the
x-axis are of the form (x, 0).
The x-co-ordinate of every point on y-axis is zero. So, the co-ordinates of any
point on y-axis are of the form (0, y).
The co-ordinates of the origin are (0, 0).
y = a where a is constant denotes a
straight line parallel to x-axis.x = a
where a is constant, denotes a
straight line parallel to y-axis.
x=0 denotes y-axis.
y=0 denotes x-axis.

x
x’
We can fix a convenient unit of length
and taking the origin as zero, mark
equal distances on the x-axis as
well as on the y-axis.
Convention of Signs: The distances
measured along OX and OY are
’ OX’ and OY’ are taken as negative, as shown in
y
taken as positive and those along
the figure given above.
Co-Ordinates of A Point In A Plane
Let P be a point in a plane.
Let the distance of P from the y-axis = a units. and, the distance of P from the x-axis
= b units. Then, we say that the co-ordinates of P are (a, b). a is called the x-co-
ordinate, or abscissa of P. b is called the y co-ordinate, or ordinate of P.

Quadrants: Let X’ OX and YOY’ be the co-ordinate axes.

162 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 These axes divide the plane of the paper into four regions, called quadrants. The
regions äãå,ç åãä7, ä7ãå H@e å7ãä are respectively known as the first, second, third
and fourth quadrants.
Using the convention of signs, we have the signs of the coordinates in various
quadrants as given below.
Region Quadrant Nature of x and y Signs of co-ordinates
XOY I X > 0, y > 0 (+, +)
YOX’ II X < 0, y > 0 (–, +)
X’OY’ III X < 0, y < 0 (–, –)
’
Y OX IV X > 0, y < 0 (+, –)

Note: Any point lying on x-axis or y-axis does not lie in any quadrant.
Consistency and Inconsistency
A system of a pair of linear equations in two variables is said to be consistent if it
has at least one solution. A system of a pair of linear equations in two variables is
said to be inconsistent if it has no solution.
The system of a pair of linear equations a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0
has:
+ 8
(i) a unique solution (i.e. consistent) if +# ≠ 8# . The graph of the linear equations
1 1
intersect at only one point.
+ 8 9
(ii) no solution (i.e. inconsistent if +# = 8# ≠ 9#. The graph of the two linear
1 1 1
equations are parallel to each other i.e. the lines do not intersect.
+ 8 9
(iii) an infinite number of solution if +# = 8# = 9#. The graph of the linear equations
1 1 1
are coincident. Homogeneous equation of the form ax + by = 0 is a line passing
through the origin. Therefore, this system is always consistent.

14.1 (a + b)2 = a2 +2ab + b2 14.3 (a + b)2 – (a – b)2 = 4ab

⇒ a2 + b2 = (a + b)2 –2ab or, (a + b)2 = (a – b)2 + 4ab
(a–b)2 = a2 – 2ab + b2 or, (a – b)2 = (a + b)2 – 4ab
⇒ a2 + b2 = (a – b)2 +2ab 14.4 (a2 – b2) = (a + b)(a – b)
2 2 2 2
14.2 (a + b) + (a – b) = 2(a + b )
% % & % &
14.5 H& + +1 = AH + +B − 2 or, AH − &B + 2

163 A Complete Solution For CMAT

14.6 a4 – b4 = (a2 + b2)(a + b)(a – b)
14.7 (a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2(ab + bc + ca)
or, a2 + b2 + c2 = (a + b + c)2 – 2(ab + bc + ca)
14.8 (a + b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3ab(a + b) % %
14.14 If H + + = 2 then H@ + +& = 2
or, a3 + b3 = (a + b)3 – 3ab(a + b) % %
14.9 (a – b)3 = a3 – b3 – 3ab(a – b) 14.15 If H + = 2 then H@ − & = 0
+ +
or, a3 – b3 = (a – b)3 – 3ab(a – b). (By putting a = 1)
% %
14.10 a3 + b3 = (a + b)(a2 – ab + b2) 14.16 If H + + = 2 then HB + +& = 2
14.11 a3 – b3 = (a – b)(a2 + ab + b2) (By putting a = 1). And m ≠ n.
, % % & % % %
14.12 H + +2 = AH + + B − 3 AH + +B 14.17 If H + + = −2 then HB − +& = 0
% % & % (By putting a = 1)
14.13 H, − = AH − B + 3 AH − B
+2 + +
% @ %
14.18 If H + = −2 then H − =2 +2 if n is even
+ +&
– 2 if n is odd

(By putting a = –1)

% % %
14.19 If H + + = −2 then the value of HB ± +& = (−1)B ± (0%)&
%
14.20 a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc = (a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2 – ab – bc – ca) or (a + b + c) [(a – b)2 +
&
(b – c)2 + (c – a)2]
14.21 If a + b + c = 0, then a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc.
14.22 If a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc, then a + b + c = 0 or a = b = c.
14.23 If a2 + b2 + c2 = ab + bc + ca, then a = b = c.
14.24 Componendo and Dividendo Rule, If
+ 9 +38 93>
8
= >
then +–8
= 90>
+38 9 + 93>
14.25 If +–8
= >, then 8 = 90>

14.26 . If J4 + [4 + √4 + ⋯ ∞ where x = n(n + 1) then J4 + [4 + √4 + ⋯ ∞ = (@ + 1)

14.27 J4 − [4 − √4 − ⋯ ∞ where x = n(n + 1) then, J4 − [4 − √4 − ⋯ ∞ = @.

14.28 (a + b + c)3 = a3 + b3 + c3 – 3(a + b) (b + c) (c + a)

14.29 a4 + a2b2 + b4 = (a2 + ab + b2)(a2 – ab + b2)
% %
14.30 If H + + = 4 then H, + +2 = 4 , − 34.
% %
14.31 If H − + = 4 then H, − +2 = 4 , + 34.
Permutation and Combination
Permutation: It is used where we have to arrange things. Out of total n things, r
things (taken at a time) can be arranged as npr or P(n, r)
@!
P(n, r) = npr = (@0C )! Where n ≥ r.
Combination: It is used where we have to select things. It is written as nCr or C(n,r)
@!
C(n, r) = (@0C)!C! n ≥ r.
Some important results.
n
Po = 1; nPn = n!
n
Co = nCn = 1 ; nCr = nCn–r = nC1 = nCn–1 = n.
Example.

164 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 '! '! '.).$.#!
7
p3 = ('0,)! = #! = #!
= 210
$! $.#.,!
5
c2 = ($0&)!&! = #!×&×% = 10
n! (is called as n factorial)
5! = 5.4!
= 5.4.3!
= 5.4.3.2!
5! = 120
Also 0! = 1
Coordinate Geometry
Important Points:
x–coordinate is called the abscissa of P, where (x, y) are co-ordinates of any point P.
y–co-ordinate is called the ordinate of P, where (x, y) are co–ordinates of any point P.
Quadrants:

Cartesian Co-ordinate System:

Polar Coordinate System:

165 A Complete Solution For CMAT

14.32 The distance between any two points in the plane is the length of the line segment
joining them. The distance between two points P (x1, y1) and Q (x2, y2) is
xé = [(4% − 4& )& + (5% − 5& )& or
xé = [(e+PPbcb@ob HIfo+ffH)& + (e+Pbcb@ob MP Mce+@HOf)&
14.33 The area of a triangle, the Co-ordinates of whose vertices are (x1, y1), (x2, y2) and (x3,
y3) is
%
Area ∆= A&B |4% (5& − 5, ) + 4& (5, − 5% ) + 4, (5% − 5& )|
4% 5% 1
%
= A B ë4& 5& 1ë
&
4, 5, 1
If all three points are collinear, then area of ∆ = 0
14.34 The Co-ordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the points (x1, y1)
and (x2, y2) internally in the ratio m : n are given by
B.1 3@.# B-1 3@-#
4 = B3@ 5 = B3@
14.35 If P is the mid-point of AB, such that it divides AB in the ratio 1 : 1, then its Co-
. 3. - 3-
ordinates are (4, 5) = A # & 1 , # & 1B also called mid point formula.
14.36 The Co–ordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the points (x1, y1)
and (x2, y2) externally in the ratio m : n, are
B.1 0@.# B-1 0@-#
A B0@ , B0@ B
14.37 The Co-ordinates of the centroid of a triangle whose vertices are (x1, y1), (x2, y2) and
(x3, y3) is given by
. 3. 3. - 3- 3-
A # ,1 2 , # ,1 2 B
14.38 The Co–ordinates of the in–centre of a triangle whose vertices are A (x1, y1), B(x2, y2),
C(x3, y3) are given by
+. 38.1 39.2 +-# 38-1 39-2
A #+3839 , +3839 B where a = BC, b = CA and c = AB
Equation of straight line.
A straight line is a curve such that every point on the line segment joining any two
points on it lies on it.
14.39 If (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) are the Co-ordinates of any two points on a line, then its slope is
(- 0- ) ><LL?C?@9? FL FC><@+G?H
(tan ï = j = (.10.#) = ><LL?C?@9? FL +8H9<HH+
1 #
1 B 0B#
14.40 The angle q between the lines having slopes m1 and m2 is given by OH@ ï = ± %3B
# B1

166 A Complete Solution For CMAT

14.41 If two lines having slopes m1 and m2 are (i) parallel if m1 = m2 (ii) Perpendicular if m1
× m2 = –1
14.42 (Slope–Intercept) The equation of a line with slope m and making an intercept c on y-
axis is y = mx + c.
14.43 (Point-Slope form) The equation of a line which passes through the point (x1, y1) and
has the slope ‘m’ is (y –y1) = m(x – x1)
14.44 (Two-point form) The equation of a line passing through two points (x1, y1) and (x2, y2)
.0. -0-
is given by . 0.# = - 0-#
1 # 1 #
14.45 (Intercept form) The equation of a line which cuts off intercepts a and b respectively on
. -
the x and y–axes is + + 8 = 1
0Y
14.46 (i) The slope of a line whose general equation is given by Ax + By + C = 0 is h
(ii) The intercepts of a line on x and y axes respectively whose general equation is
0a 0a
Ax + By + C = 0 is given by :- x-intercept = Y and y-intercept = h
14.47 General equation of straight line is ax+ by + c = 0
∴Now the area of the triangle made by the given straight line and its intercepts is
% 09 09
∆= & × A + B × A 8 B sq. units

Practice Test

√.
1. If x = 5 - √21 , the value of ,&0&.0
is
√ √&%
% % % %
a. & \√3 − √7] b. & \√7 − √3] c. . & \√7 + √3] d. . \7 − √3]
√ √ √ √&
2. If 6x – 5y = 13, 7x + 2y = 23, 11x + 18y =
a. – 15 b. 51 c. 33 d. 15
839 809 93+ 90+ +38 +08
3. The value of (4 ) (4 ) (4 ) , (x ≠ 0) is
a. 1 b. 2 c. – 1 d. 0
. % %
4. If + = + = − ., then the value of x – x is:
2

% %
a. – a b. + c. − + d. a
% %**.
5. If 4 + . = 99, the value of &. 13%*&.3& is
% % % %
a. ) b. & c. , d. #
#.0, #-0, #10, % % %
6. If + + = 0, the value of . + - + 1 is
. - 1
a. 9 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6
.-
7. If -31 = o, where a, b, c are all non-zero numbers, then x equals to
&+89 &+89 &+89 &+89
a. +83890+9 b. +83+9089 c. +93890+8 d. +83893+9
%
8. If 4 = 3 + √8 , then 4 & + . 1 is equal to
a. 38 b. 36 c. 34 d. 30
9. If x and y are positive real numbers and xy = 8, then the minimum value of 2x + y is
a. 9 b. 17 c. 10 d. 8

167 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 % &
10. If the expression x2 + x + 1 is written in the form A4 + &B + y& , then the possible values of
q are
% √, & %
a. ±, b. ± & c. ± d. ± &
√,
% ,
11. If a2 – 4a – 1 = 0, then value of H& + 1 + 3H − is
+ +
a. 25 b. 30 c. 35 d. 40
% % %
12. If H + 8 = 1 and I + 9 = 1, then o + + is equal to
%
a. 0 b. & c. 1 d. 2
13. The minimum value of (x – 2)(x – 9) is
%% #/ #/
a. − # b. # c. 0 d. − #
14. One of the factors of the expression 4√34 & + 54 − 2√3 is:
a. 44 + √3 b. 4x + 3 c. 4x – 3 d. 44 − √3
15. If √4 = √3 − √5 , then the value of x – 16x + 6 is
2

a. 0 b. – 2 c. 2 d. 4
16. If x = b + c – 2a, y = c + a – 2b, z = a + b – 2c, then the value of x2 + y2 – z2 + 2xy is
a. 0 b. a + b + c c. a – b + c d. a + b – c
2 2 2 +39
17. For real a, b, i if a + b + c = ab + bc + ca, ten value of 8 is
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 0
18. If x – y = 2, xy = 24, then the value of (x2 + y2) is :
a. 25 b. 36 c. 63 d. 52
.1 -1
19. If the expression -1 + O4 + #
is a perfect square, then the value of t is
a. ± 1 b. ± 2 c. 0 d. ± 3
2 2 2
20. If a = x + y, b = x – y, c = x + 2y, then a + b + c – ab – bc – ca is
a. 4y2 b. 5y2 c. 6y2 d. 7y2
% . 1 3,.3%
21. If 4 + . = 1 then the value of . 13'.3% is
, %
a. 1 b. ' c. & d. 2
2
22. If p = 99 then, the value of p(p + 3p + 3)is:
a. 989898 b. 988899 c. 999999 d. 998889
√$0√, √$3√, . 1 3.-3- 1
23. If 4 = and 5 = then the value of . 10.-3-1 =?
√$3√, √$0√,
), )' )$ )/
a. )% b. )$ c. ), d. )'
% &
24. If 4 + . = 1 then the value of. 10.3& =?
&
a. 2 b. 4 c. , d. 1
+08 809 90+ (%0.)(%0- )(%01)
25. If 4 = + 3 8 , 5 = 839 , 8 = 93+, the value of (%3.)(%3- )(%31)
is
%
a. 1 b. 0 c. 2 d. &
√%,3√%% %
26. Let 4 = and 5 = -, the value of 3x2 – 5xy + 3y2 is
√%,0√%%
a. 1717 b. 1177 c. 1771 d. 1171
% % %
27. H + # = I + 9 = o + +, where a ≠ b ≠ c ≠ 0, then the value of a b c is
2 2 2

a. – 1 b. abc c. 0 d. 1
2 2 2 +39
28. For real a, b, c, if a + b + c = ab + bc + ca, the value of 8 is
a. 3 b. 1 c. 2 d. 0

168 A Complete Solution For CMAT

29. 9x2 + 25 – 30x can be expressed as the square of
a. – 3x – 5 b. 3x + 5 c. 3x – 5 d. 3x2 – 25
. ,
30. If , + . = 1 then the value of x3 is
a. 1 b. 27 c. 0 d. – 27
, %
31. If 4 = √3 + √2 , then the value of A4 + . 2B is
a. 6√3 b.12√3 c. 18√3 d. 24√3
3 3
32. If x + y = 7, then the value of x + y + 21xy is
a. 243 b. 143 c. 343 d. 443
# # #
33. If 4 + 5 = 8 ,the value of {(x + y – z)3 + 27xyz} is
2 2 2

a. – 1 b. 1 c. 0 d. 27
& % & %
34. If 4I + 81 = 2, then the value of 8I + 81 is
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 5
% , %
35. If 2d + = 4, then value of d + 2 is
! (!
a. 4 b. 5 c. 8 d. 15
36. If a4 + b4 = a2b2, the value of (a6 + b6) is
a. 0 b. 1 c. a2 + b c. a2b4 + a4b2
%
37. If 4 + . = √3, the value of x18 + x12 + x6 + 1 is
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
% & %
38. If 4 + = 2, 4 ≠ 0, the value of 4 + 1 is
. .
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
+ 8
39. If 8 + + = 1, H ≠ 0, I ≠ 0, the value of a + b3 is
3

a. 0 b. 1 c. – 1 d. 2
#
% .23
40. If 4 + . = 3, the value of =
. 2 0.3%
is:
, $ ' %%
a. & b. & c. & d. &
%
41. If H + + + 1 = 0(H ≠ 0) then the value of (a4 – a) is:
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. – 1
% %
42. If 4 = H + + and 5 = H − +, the value of x + y – 2x y is
4 4 2 2

a. 24 b. 18 c. 16 d. 12
% , %
43. If 4 + &. = 2, find the value of 84 + . 2
a. 48 b. 88 c. 40 d. 44
44. If for two real constants a and b, the expression ax3 + 3x2 – 8x + b is exactly divisible by
(x + 2) and (x – 2), then
a. a = 2, b = 12 b. a = 12, b = 2 c. a = 2, b = –12 d. a = –2, b = 12
, %
45. If x – 3x + 1 = 0, then the value of 4 + . 2 is
2

a. 9 b. 18 c. 27 d. 1
% , , %
46. If 4 + #. = &, find the value of 84 + (. 2
a. 18 b. 36 c. 24 d. 16
3 3 2 2
47. If a – b = 56 and a – b = 2, then value of a + b will be:
a. 48 b. 20 c. 22 d. 5
+ 8
48. If (a + b ) = (a + b ) , then 8 + + is
2 2 3 3 3 2

% & % &
a. , b. , c. − , d. − ,

169 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 % . 6 3,. 2 3$. 1 3,.3%
49. If 4 + . = 5, then the value of . 6 3%
#, #' #% #$
a. &, b. &% c. &, d. &%
% % % #
50. If x is real, 4 + ≠ 0 and 4 , + 2 = 0, then the value ofA4 + B is
. . .
a. 4 b. 9 c. 16 d. 25
51. If x = 5, y = 6 and z = - 11, then the value of x3 + y3 + z3 is
a. – 890 b. – 970 c. – 870 d. – 990
52. If p + m = 6 and p3 + m3 = 72, then the value of pm is
a. 6 b. 12 c. 9 d. 8
%
53. If average of two numbers x and (where x ≠ 0) is A, what will be the average of x3 and
.
%
.2
?
a. 4A3 – 2A b. 4A3 – 3A c. 4A3 – 4A d. 4A3 – A
+8 3+6 3+1 3%
54. If H = 2 + √3, then the value of +2
is
a. 45 b. 65 c. 42 d. 56
55. If 4 = √5 + √3 and 5 = √5 − √3 , then the value of (x – y ) is
4 4

a. 64√15 b. 16 c. 544 d. 32√15

3 3 3
56. If x + y + z = 6, then the value of (x +1) + (y – 2) + (z – 3) is
a. 3(x – 1) (y – 2) (z – 3) b. 3xyz
c. (x – 1) (y – 2) (z – 3) d. 2(x – 1) (y – 2) (z – 3)
# % , %
57. If d = 119 − !6, then the value of d − !2 is
a. 24 b. 32 c. 36 d. 18
% %
58. 4 + A.B = 2, then the value of 4 ' + A. 7B is
a. 212 b. 2 c. 25 d. 27
59. If x = 332, y = 333, z = 335, then the value of x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz is
a. 10000 b. 7000 c. 8000 d. 9000
60. If m = – 4, n = – 2, then the value of m – 3m + 3m + 3n + 3n + n3 is
3 2 2

a. – 126 b. 124 c. – 124 d. 126

15. Mensuration

Perimeter and Area (2 Dimensional Plane Figure)

The area of any figure is the planar space occupied by it or the amount of surface
(space) enclosed within its boundary lines. It is measured by the number of square
metres or square centimetres or square inches (or some other units of square
measure) that it con- tains. Hence, its units are accordingly square metre, square
centimetre, square inch, square foot, etc.
Perimeter: Perimeter of a geometrical figure is the total length of the sides
enclosing the figure or the total length of its boundary.
Triangle: A triangle is a plane figure bounded by three sides.
It includes three angles. It is denoted by the symbol ∆.
General Convention:
(i) Nomenclature of vertices or sides are usually done in clock-wise manner.
(ii) The side opposite to the vertex A is ‘a’, the side opposite to the vertex B is ‘b’
and so on.

170 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 (iii) Angle A (or angle BAC) is denoted by ∠A (or ∠ABC) and is the angle at vertex
A enclosed by sides b and c. It is opposite to side a. Similarly, we can write ∠B and
∠C. The sum of the three interior angles of a triangle is equal to 180°. Thus, ∠A +
∠B + ∠C = 1800.
Important Formula based on triangles
%
15.1 Area of a triangle = base × height
&
% &Y &Y &Y &Y
a. A = & Iℎ b. I = c
= J2` A c B c. ℎ = 8
= JA8⁄cB

15.2 ` = [:(: − H)(: − I)(: − o)

15.3 P = a + b + c = 2s
%
15.4 Right angled triangle : A = & base × perpendicular
%
15.5 Isosceles triangle: A = # I[(4H& − I& )
where a = equal side
√, √,
15.6 Equilateral triangle: h = ℎ = &
H: ` = # H& = 0.433H&
% & %
15.7 Right isosceles triangle ` = &
I = # (ℎ5dMOb@hfb)&
Quadrilateral: It is a plane figure bounded by four sides. It has four angles included in it.
The sum of these four angles is 3600.
So, ∠A + ∠B + ∠C + ∠D = 3600.
15.8 Quadrilateral:
a.P=a+b+c+d
f +38393>
:=&= &
b. ` = [:(: − H)(: − I)(: − o)(: − e)
c. ` = [4(e% e& )& − (I& + e& − H& − o & ) where d1 and d2 are diagonals
15.9 Rectangle: A geometrical figure having opposite sides are equal and parallel. Also the
angle between adjacent sides is 900.
Y Y \ 8
a. ` = LI, L = 8 , I = \ b. x = 2(L + I) = 2I A8 + 1B = 2L A1 + \ B
\ Y
c. If 8 = @, then A = nb2 : b = J@ and L = √@`
15.10 Square: A geometrical figure having all sides equal and the angle between adjacent
sides is 900.
(><+dF@+\ )1 f6
a. ` = H& = &
b. P = 4a c. P = 4√A d. ` = %)
15.11 Parallelogram: A geometrical figure having opposite sides are equal and parallel.
A = lh P = 2(l + b)
15.12 Rhombus: A geometrical figure having all sides equal.
% %
` = & (e% × e& ) P = 4l Side, L = & [e%& + e&&
15.13 Trapezium: A geomatrical figure having any pair of sides are parallel and unequal
%
` = & (H + I)ℎ P=a+b+c+d
Circle: A circle is the locus of points such that their distance from a fixed point is
always equal. The fixed point (O) is called the centre of the circle and the distance (r =
OA) between the fixed point (O) and the moving point (A) is called the radius of the
circle.
15.14 Circle:

171 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 u;1 Y
z = 2c ` = Çc & = #
c = Jv x = 2Çc = Çz
!1
` = #u x = √4Ç`
Semi Circle:
uC 1 ,)
`= &
x = Çc + 2c = '
c
w5
15.15 Length of arc = A,)*5B × 2Çc = ï(+@ cHe+H@) × c
Circumcircle: It is the circle whose circumference touches all the vertices of the
polygon
Equilateral Triangle: It is a triangle whose all the three sides are equal. It can be
proved that its all three angles are also equal, each being 600.
15.16 For an equilateral triangle:
+ u
a. In-radius = & , ∶ `cbH MP +@o+oLb = %& H&
√
+
b. Circum radius =
√,
u
Area of circum circle = , H&
15.17 For a rectangular room (or box)
Area of the floor = lb
Area of 4 walls (or faces) = 2h (l + b)
Area of 4 walls and floor = 2h (l + b) + lb
Area of 4 walls, floor and roof = 2[h(l + b) + lb]
%
15.18 Area of a regular polygon = & × (number of sides) ×(radius of inscribed circle)
,√,
15.19 Area of regular hexagon = (f+eb)&
&
= 2.598(side)2
15.20 Area of regular octagon = 2\√2 + 1](side)2= 4.828 (side)2
Regular Polygon No. of sides Area(S = side of polygon)
Triangle (Equilateral) 3 0.433 S2
Square 4 1.000 S2
Pentagon 5 1.720 S2
Hexagon 6 2.598 S2
Heptagon 7 3.634 S2
Octagon 8 4.828 S2
Nonagon 9 6.182 S2
Decagon 10 7.694 S2
15.21 Cyclic Quadrilateral: It is a quadrilateral whose vertices lie on the circumference of the
circle.
` = [:(: − H)(: − I)(: − o)(: − e)
+38393>
where, : =
&
and∠ A +∠ B + ∠C + ∠D = 2 × 1800 or, ∠ A + ∠B + ∠C + ∠D = 3600
Important Notes
YC?+ FL Gc? L\FFC
« Cost of carpeting the floor = Rate of carpet per metre × l<>?Gc FL 9+C!?G

« Least number of equal square tiles required for flooring

172 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 j?@dGc ×hC?+>Gc FL Gc? CFFB
= xa2 FL \?@dGc +@> 8C?+>Gc FL Gc? CFFB
« When a path of width ‘w’ is constructed around a rectangular garden of length ‘L’
and breadth ‘B’. Area of the path = 2w [L + B ± 2w]
Sign convention: (+) when path surrounds the gar- den/park on its outside
« When the paths, each of width ‘w’ are constructed on the outside as well as inside
the garden.
Area of the path = 4w[L + B]
« When cross paths each of width ‘w’ is constructed across the field,
Total area of the path = w(L + B – w)
Uncovered area of the field = (L – w) (B – w)
« Area of the path of width w around square of side
‘S’ on its outside = 4w (S + w) ………………………….….(A)
Area of the path of width w around square of side
‘S’ on its inside = 4w (S – w) ……………………………....(B)
Total area of the path of width w around square of
side ‘S’ both on its outside and inside = 8 Sw ……………...(C)
Total area of paths each of width w crossing each
other at right angle inside square of side ‘S’ = w(2S –w) …..(D)
Area of remaining portion of square of side ‘S’ in which
two paths each of width w cross at right angle inside it = (S – w)2 ...(E)
« Distance covered by a moving wheel of radius ‘r’ (or diameter D) = 2pr × No. of
revolutions = pD × No. of revolutions
« A circular garden of radius r has paths around it, outside as well as inside, each of
width ‘w’. Then Total area of the path = 4p wr
« When Length and breadth of a rectangle are changed by x% and y% respectively,
.- 0. 1
the net% change in its area = R4 + 5 + U % = A B % where x = –y
%** %**
Sign convention: + for increase, – for decrease
Note: Put ‘0’ for no change.
0%**. 0%**-
« If there is no change in area, then 5 = A%**3. B % and 4 = A%**3-B %
« When each of the sides of a triangle or any polygon including square, rectangle etc,
or radius of a circle is increased by x%, then
.
% change in area = 4 A2 + %**B %
% change in perimeter = x%
In case of quadrilateral,
% change in diagonal = x%
Sign Convention: + for increase, – for decrease.

2D Geometry Formula
Square
S = side Area: A = s2 Perimeter: P = 4s
Rectangle
l = length, w = width Area: A = lw Perimeter: P = 2l + 2w
Triangle
%
b = base, h = height Area: ` = & Iℎ Perimeter: P = a + b + c
173 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Equilateral Triangle
√, √,
s = side Height: ℎ = 9 f Area: ` = 9 f &
Parallelogram
b = base, h = height, a = side Area: A = bh Perimeter: P = 2a + 2b
Trapezium
%
a, b = bases, h = height, c, d = sides Area: ` = & (H + I)ℎ
Perimeter: P = a + b + c + d
Circle
r = radius, d = diameter Diameter: d = 2r
Area: A = πr2 Circumference: C = 2πr = πd
Sector of circle
%
r = radius, ï = angle in radians Area: ` = & Çc & Arc length: : = ïc
Ellipse
a = semimajor axis b = semiminor axis Area: A = πab
Circumference: > ≈ Ç A3(H + I) − [(H + 3I)(I + 3H)B
Annulus
r = inner radius, R = outer radius
%
Average Radius: ò = & (c + t) Width: w = R – r
Area: A = π(R2 – r2) or A = 2pπ òw
Regular Polygon
% u
s = side length, n = number of sides Circumradius: t = & f oMf A@B
% u % &u
Area: ` = # @f & oMO A@B or ` = & @t& f+@ A @ B
3D Geometry Formulae
Cube
s = side Volume: V = s2 Surface Area: S = 6s2
Rectangular Solid
l = length, w = width, h = height Volume: V = lwh
Surface area: S = 2lw + 2lh + 2wh
Sphere
#
r = radius Volume: Z = , Çc & Surface Area: S = 4πr2
Right Circular Cylinder
r = radius, h = height Volume: V = πr2h
Surface Area: S = 2πrh + 2πr2
Torus
r = tube radius, R = torus radius Volume: V = 2π2r2R
Surface Area: S = 4π2rR
Pyramid
%
A = area of base, h = height Volume: Z = , `
Right Circular Cone
%
r = radius, h = height Volume: Z = , Çc & ℎ
Surface Area: : = Çc√c & + ℎ& + Çc &
Frustum of a cone
r = top radius, R = base radius, h = height, s = slant height
u
Volume: Z = , (c & + ct + t& )ℎ Surface Area: S = πs(R + r) + πr2 + πR2
174 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Square Pyramid
%
s = side, h = height Volume: Z = , f & ℎ Surface Area: : = f\f + √f & + 4ℎ& ]
Regular Tetrahedron
%
s = side Volume: Z = %& √2f , Surface Area: : = √3f ,

Practice Test

1. The areas of a square and a rectangle are equal. The length of the rectangle is greater than
the length of any side of the square by 5 cm and the breadth is less by 3 cm. Find the
perimeter of the rectangle.
a. 17 cm b. 26 cm c. 30 cm d. 34 cm
2. If a wire is bent into the shape of a square, the area of the square is 81 sq. cm. When the
&&
wire is bent into a semicircular shape, the area of the semicircle. (Take Ç = ' )
a. 154 cm2 b. 77 cm2 c. 44 cm2 d. 22 cm2
3. The perimeter of a rectangle is 160 metre and the difference of two sides is 48 metre.
Find the side of a square whose area is equal to the area of this rectangle.
a. 32 m b. 8 m c. 4 m d. 16 m
4. If the area of a triangle with base 12cmisequaltotheareaofa square with side 12 cm, the
altitude of the triangle will be
a. 12 cm b. 24 cm c. 18 cm d. 36 cm
5. The area (in m2) of the square which has the same perimeter as a rectangle whose length
is 48 m and is 3 times its breadth, is:
a. 1000 b. 1024 c. 1600 d. 1042
6. A square and an equilateral triangle are drawn on the same base. The ratio of their area is
a. 2 : 1 b. 1 : 1 c. √3 : 4 d. 4 : √3
7. A wire, when bent in the form of a square, encloses a region having area 121 cm2. If the
&&
same wire is bent into the form of a circle, then the area of the circle is (Take Ç = ' )
a. 144 cm2 b. 180 cm2 c. 154 cm2 d. 176 cm2
8. A copper wire is bent in the form of an equilateral triangle and has area 121√3 cm2. If the
same wire is bent into the form of a circle, the area (in cm2) enclosed by the (Take Ç =
&&
'
)
a. 364.5 b. 693.5 c. 346.5 d. 639.5
9. A copper wire is bent in the shape of a square of area 81cm2. If the same wire is bent in
&&
the form of a semicircle, the radius (in cm) of the semicircle is (Take Ç = ' )
a.16 b. 14 c. 10 d. 7
10. At each corner of a triangular field of sides 26m, 28m and 30 m, a cow is tethered by a
rope of length 7 m. The area (in m2) ungrazed by the cows is
a. 336 b. 259 c. 154 d. 77
11. An equilateral triangle is drawn on the diagonal of a square. The ratio of the area of the
triangle to that of the square is
a. √3 : 2 b. √2 : √3 c. 2 : √3 d. 1 : √2
12. A cow is tied on the corner of a rectangular field of size 30 m ×20 m by a 14m long rope.
&&
The area of the region, that she can graze, is (Take Ç = ' )
a. 350 m2 b. 196 m2 c. 154 m2 d. 22 m2
13. A circle and a square have equal areas. The ratio of a side of the square and the radius of
the circle is
a. 1 : √π b. √π : 1 c. 1 : π d. π : 1
175 A Complete Solution For CMAT
14. If the perimeters of a rectangle and a square are equal and the ratio of two adjacent sides
of the rectangle is 1 : 2 then the ratio of area of the rectangle and that of the square is
a. 1 : 1 b. 1 : 2 c. 2 : 3 d. 8 : 9
15. The perimeter of a triangle and an equilateral triangle are same. Also, one of the sides of
the rectangle is equal to the side of the triangle. The ratio of the area of the rectangle and
the triangle is
a. √3 : 1 b. 1 : √3 c. 2 : √3 d. 4 : √3
16. The radius of a circle is a side of a square. The ratio of the area of the circle and the
square is
a. 1 : π b. π : 1 c. π : 2 d. 2 : π
17. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 25% and the width is decreased by 20%, then
the area of the rectangle :
a. increased by 5% b. decrease b 5% c. remains unchanged d. increases by 10%
18. The length of a rectangle is decreased by 10% and its breadth is increased by 10%. By
what per cent is its area changed ?
a. 0% b. 1% c. 5% d. 100%
19. The percentage increase in the area of a rectangle, if each of its sides is increased by 20%,
is :
a. 40% b. 42% c. 44% d. 46%
20. If the circumference of a circle is reduced by 50%, its area will be reduced by
a. 12.5% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75%
21. If the side of a square is increased by 25%, then its area is increased by :
a. 25% b. 55% c. 40.5% d. 56.25%
22. If the radius of a circle is in- creased by 50%, its area is increased by :
a. 125% b. 100% c. 75% d. 50%
23. If the length of a rectangle is increase by 20% and its breadth is decreased by 20%, then
its area
a. increases by 4% b. decreased by 4% c. decreases by 1% d. remains unchanged
24. If each side of a rectangle is increased by 50%, its area will be increased by
a. 50% b. 125% c. 100% d. 250%
25. If the altitude of a triangle is in- creased by 10% while its area remains same, its
corresponding base will have to be decreased by
% %
a. 10% b. 9% c. 9 % d. 11 %
%% /
26. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50% then the area will be increased by
a. 50% b. 75% c. 100% d. 125%
27. The length and breadth of a rectangle are increased by 12% and 15% respectively. Its area
will be increased by :
% #
a. 27 $ % b. 28 $ % c. 27% d. 28%
28. Each side of a rectangular field is diminished by 40%. By how much per cent is the area
of the field diminished ?
a. 32% b. 64% d. 25% d. 16%
29. The length of rectangle is increased by 60%. By what percent would the breadth to be de-
creased to maintain the same area ?
%
a.37 & % b 60% c. 75% d. 120%
30. If each side of a square is increased by 10%, its area will be increased by
a. 10% b. 21% c. 44% d. 100%
31. If the numerical values of the height and the area of an equilateral triangle be same, then
the length of each side of the triangle is
a. 2 units b 4 units c. 5 units d. 8 units
32. If the length of a side of the square is equal to that of the diameter of a circle, then the
&&
ratio of the area of the square and that of the circle is (Take Ç = ' )
a. 14 : 11 b. 7 : 11 c. 11 : 14 d. 11 : 7
33. The median of an equilateral triangle is 6 √3 cm. The area (in cm2) of the triangle is
176 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 72 b. 108 d. 72√3 d. 36√3
34. If the numerical value of the circumference and area of a circle is same, then the area is
a. 6π sq. unit b. 4π sq. unit c. 8π sq. cm d. 12π sq.cm
35. The area of an equilateral triangle is 48 sq. cm. The length of the side is
a. √8 × 4 cm b. 4√3 cm d. 8 cm d. 16 cm
36. The lengths of two parallel sides of a trapezium are 6 cm and 8 cm. If the height of the
trapezium be 4cm, then its area is
a. 28 cm b. 28 sq.cm c. 30 sq.cm d. 30 cm
37. If a and b are the lengths of the sides of a right triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 and
whose area is 20, then the value of (a + b)2 is
a. 140 b. 180 c. 120 d. 160
38. A wire is bent into the form of a circle, whose area is 154 cm2. If the same wire is bent
into the form of an equilateral triangle, the approximate area of the equilateral triangle is
a. 93.14 cm2 b. 90.14 cm2 c. 83.14 cm2 d. 39.14 cm2
39. If the ratio of the altitudes of two triangles be 3 : 4 and the ratio of their corresponding
areas be 4 : 3, then the ratio of their corresponding lengths of bases is
a. 1 : 1 b. 16 : 9 c. 1 : 2 d. 2 : 1
40. Let A be the area of a square whose each side is 10 cm. Let B be the area of a square
whose diagonals are 14 cm each. Then (A – B) is equal to
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4
41. Two sides of a parallelogram are 20 cm and 25 cm. If the altitude corresponding to the
side of length 25 cm is 10 cm, then the altitude corresponding to the other pair of sides is
a. 10.5 cm b. 12 cm c. 12.5 cm d. 10 cm
42. If the sides of an equilateral tri- angle be increased by 1 m its area is increased by √3 sq.
metere. The length of any of its sides is
$ ,
a. 2 metre b. & metre c. & metre d. √3 metre
43. The in-radius of a triangle is 6 cm, and the sum of the lengths of its sides is 50 cm. The
area of the triangle (in square cm.) is
a. 150 b. 50 c. 300 d. 56
44. One of the angles of a right-angled triangle is 15°, and the hypotenuse is 1 metre. The
area of the triangle (in square cm.) is
a. 1220 b. 1200 c. 1250 d. 1215
45. If for an isosceles triangle the length of each equal side is ‘a’ units and that of the third
side is ‘b’ units, then its area will be
+ +
a. # √4I& − H& sq. units b. & √2H& − I& sq. unit
8 8
c. # √4H& − I& sq. units d. & √H& − 2I& sq. units
46. The outer and inner diameter of a circular path be 728 metre and 700 metre respectively.
The breadth of the path is
a. 7 metre b. 28 metre c. 14 metre d. 20 metre
47. The area of the parallelogram whose length is 30 cm, width is 20 cm and one diagonal is
40 cm is
a.200√25 cm2 b. 100√15 cm2 c. 300√15 cm2 d. 150√15 cm2
48. On increasing each side of a square by 50%, the ratio of the area of new square formed
and the given square will be
a. 9 : 5 b. 9 : 35 c. 9 : 7 d. 9 : 4
49. The area of a circle is 324 p square cm. The length of its longest chord (in cm.) is
a.36 b. 28 c. 38 d. 32
50. The area of a rhombus is 256 square cm. and one of its diagonals is twice the other in
length. Then length of its larger diagonal is
a. 32 cm b. 16 cm c. 48 cm d. 24 cm
2
51. The area of a triangle is 216 cm and its sides are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5. The perimeter of
the triangle is :
a. 6 cm b. 12 cm c. 36 cm d. 72 cm

177 A Complete Solution For CMAT

52. In a triangular field having sides 30m, 72m and 78m, the length of the altitude to the side
measuring 72m is :
a. 25 m b. 28 m c. 30 m d. 35 m
53. If the perimeter of a right-angled isosceles triangle is \4√2 + 4] cm, the length of the
hypotenuse is:
a. 4 cm b. 6 cm c. 8 cm d. 10 cm
54. Four equal sized maximum circular plates are cut off from a square paper sheet of area
&&
784 sq.cm. The circumference of each plate is (Take Ç = )
'
a. 22 cm b. 44 cm c. 66 cm d. 88 cm
55. If the area of a circle and a square are equal, then the ratio of their perimeter is
a.1: 1 b. 2 : π c. π : 2 d. √π : 2
56. A copper wire is bent in the form of square with an area of 121 cm2. If the same wire is
&&
bent in the form of a circle, the radius (in cm) of the circle is (Take Ç = )
'
a.7 b. 10 c. 11 d. 14
57. If the perimeter of a square and a rectangle are the same, then the area P and Q enclosed
by them would satisfy the condition
a. P < Q b. P ≤ Q c. P > Q d. P = Q
58. A circle and a rectangle have the same perimeter. The sides of the rectangle are 18 cm
&&
and 26 cm. The area of the circle is (Take Ç = ' )
a. 125 cm2 b. 230 cm2 c. 550 cm2 d. 616 cm2
59. If the sides of an equilateral tri- angle are increased by 20%, 30% and 50% respectively to
form a new triangle, the increase in the perimeter of the equilateral triangle is
%
a. 25% b. 33 , % c. 75% d. 100%
60. A horse is tied to a post by a rope. If the horse moves along a circular path always
keeping the rope stretched and describes 88 metres when it has traced out 720 at the
&&
centre, the length of the rope is (Take Ç = ' )
a. 70 m b. 75 m c. 80 m d. 65 m
61. A piece of wire when bent to form a circle will have a radius of 84 cm. If the wire is bent
to form a square, the length of a side of the square is
a.152 cm b. 132 cm c. 168 cm d. 225 cm
62. The perimeters of two similar tri- angles are 30 cm and 20 cm respectively. If one side of
the first triangle is 9 cm. Determine the corresponding side of the second triangle.
a. 13.5 cm b. 6 cm c. 15 cm d. 5 cm
63. The sides of a triangle having area 7776 sq. cm are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5. The perimeter of
the triangle is
a. 432 cm b. 400 cm d. 412 cm d. 424 cm
64. The diameter of each wheel of a car is 70 cm. If each wheel rotates 400 times per minute,
&&
then the speed of the car ( in km/hr) is (Take Ç = ' )
a. 0.528 b. 528 c. 52.8 d. 5.28
65. Quadrilateral ABCD is circumscribed about a circle. If the lengths of AB, BC and CD are
7cm, 8.5cm, and 9.2cm respectively, then the length (in cm) of DA is
a. 7.7 b. 16.2 c. 10.7 d. 7.2
66. The perimeter of a rhombus is 60 cm and one of its diagonal is 24 cm. The area of the
rhombus is
a. 108 sq.cm b. 216 sq. cm c. 432 sq.cm d. 206 sq.cm
#
67. The ratio of circumference and diameter of a circle is 22 : 7. If the circumference be 1 '
m, then the radius of the circle is:
a. 1/3 m b. ½ m c. ¼ m d. 1 m
68. Four circles of equal radii are described about the four corners of a square so that each
touches two of the other circles. If each side of the square is 140 cm then area of the
&&
space enclosed between the circumference of the circle is (Take Ç = ' )
178 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 4200 cm2 b. 2100 cm2 c. 7000 cm2 d. 2800 cm2
69. The perimeter of a triangle is 67 cm. The first side is twice the length of the second side.
The third side is 11 cm more than the second side. Find the length of the shortest side of
the triangle.
a. 12 cm b. 14 cm c. 17 cm d. 25 cm
70. The radius of a wheel is 25 cm. How many rounds it will take to complete 11 km.
a. 5000 b. 6000 c. 7000 d. 4000
71. If the radius of a circle is decreased by 10%, then the area of the circle is decreased by
a. 89% b. 18% c. 19% d. 25%
72. The outer circumference of a circular race-track is 528 metre. The track is everywhere 14
metre wide. Cost of levelling the track at the rate of Rs. 10 per sq. metre is:
a. Rs. 77660 b. Rs. 66760 c. Rs. 76760 d. Rs. 67760
73. If the area of a square is in- creased by 44%, retaining its shape as a square, each of its
sides increases by:
a. 19% b. 21% c. 22% d. 20%
74. What will be the percentage increase in the area of a square when each of the its sides is
increased by 10%?
a. 20 b. 11 c. 121 d. 21
75. If the length and breadth of a rectangle are increased by 10% and 8% respectively, then
the area of the rectangle increases by:
' # %
a. 18 % b. 18 % c. 18% d. 18 %
$ $ $
76. The ratio of the volume of a cube to that of a sphere which will fit inside the cube is
a. 4 : π b. 4 : 3π c. 6 : π d. 2 : π
77. On a rainy day, 60cm of rain is recorded in a region. What is the volume of water
collected in an open and empty rectangular water tank that measures 12 m (length) ×10 m
(width) and 50 cm (depth)?
a.120 m3 b. 72 m3 c. 60 m3 d. 48 m3
78. How many hemispherical balls can be made from a cylinder 56 cm high and 12 cm
diameter, when every ball being 0.75 cm in radius?
a. 1792 b. 3584 c. 4824 d. 7168
79. The number of coins of radius 0.75 cm and thickness 0.2cm required to be melted to
make a right circular cylinder of height 8 cm and base radius 3cm is:
a.500 b. 600 c. 460 d. 640
80. A sphere of radius 5 cm is melted to form a cone with base of same radius. The height (in
cm) of the cone is
a.5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 22
81. The diameters of two cylinders are in the ratio 3:2 and their volumes are equal. The ratio
of their heights is
a. 2 : 3 b. 3 : 2 c. 9 : 4 d. 4 : 9
82. A cylindrical container of 32 cm height and 18 cm radius is filled with sand. Now all this
sand is used to form a conical heap of sand. If the height of the conical heap is 24 cm,
what is the radius of its base?
a. 12 cm b. 24 cm c. 36 cm d. 48 cm
83. A cylindrical vessel of radius 4 cm. contains water. A solid sphere of radius 3 cm. is
dipped into the water until it is completely immersed. The water level in the vessel will
rise by
a. 3.5 cm b. 2.25 cm c. 2 cm d. 3.8 cm
84. The heights of a cone and a cylinder are equal. The radii of their bases are in the ratio 2 :
1. The ratio of their volumes is:
a. 4 : 3 b. 3 : 4 c. 2 : 1 d. 1 : 2
85. The base area of a right pyramid is 57 sq. units and height is 10 units. Then the volume of
the pyramid is
a. 190 cu. units b. 380 cu. units c. 540 cu. units d. 570 cu. units
86. A hemispherical bowl has internal radius of 6 cm. The internal surface area would be :
(Take π= 3.14)
179 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 225 cm2 b. 400 cm2 c. 289.75 cm2 d. 226.08 cm2
2
87. The surface area of a sphere is 616 cm . The volume of the sphere would be :
% ,
a.1437 , cm3 b. 2100 cm3 c. 2500 cm3 d. 1225 $ cm3
88. Thousand solid metallic spheres of diameter 6 cm each are melted and recast into a new
solid sphere. The diameter of the new sphere (in cm) is
a. 30 b. 90 c. 45 d. 60
89. The area of the largest sphere (in cm2) that can be drawn inside a square of side 18 cm is
a. 972π b. 1166π c. 36π d. 288π
90. The total surface area of a right pyramid on a square base of side 10 cm with height 12
cm is:
a. 260 square cm b. 360 square cm c. 330 square cm d. 300 square cm
91. The circumference of the base of a circular cylinder is 6p cm. The height of the cylinder
is equal to the diameter of the base. How many litres of water can it hold?
a. 54π cc b. 36π cc c. 0.054π cc d. 0.54π cc
92. How many cubes, each of edge 3 cm, can be cut from a cube of edge 15 cm
a. 25 b. 27 c. 125 d. 144
93. A cuboidal block of 6 cm × 9cm × 12 cm is cut up into exact number of equal cubes. The
least possible number of cubes will be
a. 6 b. 9 c. 24 d. 30
94. The cost of carpeting a room is R.s 120. If the width had been 4 metres less, the cost of
the carpet would have been Rs. 20 less. The width of the room is
a. 24 m b. 20 m c. 25 m d. 18.5 m
95. A cube of edge 6 cm is painted on all sides and then cut into unit cubes. The number of
unit cubes with no sides painted is
a. 0 b. 64 c. 186 d. 108
96. The diameter of a circular wheel is 7 m. How many revolutions will it make in travelling
22 km?
a. 100 b. 400 c. 500 d. 1000
97. A solid metallic cone of height 10 cm, radius of base 20 cm is melted to make spherical
balls each of 4 cm diameter. How many such balls can be made ?
a. 25 b. 75 c. 50 d. 125
98. The number of spherical bullets that can be made out of a solid cube of lead whose edge
&&
measures 44 cm, each bullet being of 4 cm diameter, is (take Ç = ' )
a. 2541 b. 2451 c. 2514 d. 2451
99. If a metallic cone of radius 30 cm and height 45 cm is melted and recast into metallic
spheres of radius 5 cm, find the number of spheres.
a. 81 b. 41 c. 80 d. 40
100. A metallic sphere of radius 10.5 cm is melted and then recast into small cones each of
radius 3.5 cm and height 3 cm. The number of cones thus formed is
a. 140 b. 132 c. 112 d. 126
101. If the radius of a cylinder is de- creased by 50 % and the height is increased by 50 %, then
the change in volume is
a. 52.5% b. 67.5% c. 57.5% d. 62.5%
102. If the area of the base of a cone is increased by 100%, then the volume increases by
a.200% b. 182% c. 141% d. 100%
103. The percentage increase in the surface area of a cube when each side is doubled is
a. 50% b. 200% c. 150% d. 300%
104. If the radius of the base, and the height of a right circular cone are increased by 20%,
what is the approximate percentage increase in volume?
a. 60 b. 68.8 c. 72.8 d. 75
105. The radius and the height of a cone are each increased by 20%. Then the volume of the
cone in- creases by
a. 20% b. 20.5% c. 62% d. 72.8%

180 A Complete Solution For CMAT

106. The base of a triangle is 15 cm and height is 12 cm. The height of another triangle of
double the area having the base 20 cm is:
a. 9 cm b. 18 cm c. 8 cm d. 12.5 cm

16. Statistics and Data Interpretation

Data Interpretation (DI) is an important section today in all competitive

examinations especially in objective type examinations. In most examinations a
large number of questions are asked on Data Interpretation/Data Analysis. A good
score in DI consolidates performance altogether. Sound knowledge of quantitative
techniques and skills are pre-requisites for a good performance. It tests one’s ability
to analyse and interpret data presented numerically in various forms. Questions are
asked on the data given/ shown in the diagram. The thumb rules are to read the
problem fast but carefully, comprehend and interpret it simultaneously. Once the
data are well grasped, the questions that follow in the set take very little time for
solution.
Data may be presented in the form of tables, graphs or diagrams. Tables consist
of precise numerical figures whereas diagrams give only an approximate idea.
However, diagrams and graphs have the advantage of showing trends in the data.
While there is no clear line of demarcation between diagrams and graphs, we may
note the following distinction between them :
(a) A graph represents a mathematical relationship whereas a diagram does not.
(b) Diagrams do not add anything to the data while graphs are useful in statistical
analysis.
(c) Graphs are considered more appropriate than dia- grams for presenting frequency
distribution and time series.
In our everyday life we come across graphs, tables and other types of numerical
data in newspapers, magazines, periodicals, journals, information bulletins etc.
These data may relate to the cost of living, cricket average, profits of a company,
temperature of cities, expenditure in various sectors of a five-year plan and so on.
The term “data” means “information”. However, the dictionary meaning of the
term “data” is “given facts.” Data may be of two types : Primary data an d
Secondary data.
Presentation of Data
As soon as the work related to collection of data is over, the investigator has to
find ways to condense them in a tabular form in order to study their salient features
and utilise them in a convenient way to serve the purpose for which they were
collected. Such an arrangement of data collected is called Presentation of Data.
The raw data can be arranged in any one of the following ways :
(a) Serial order or alphabetical order (b) Ascending order (c) Descending order
While classifying according to class-interval like this, we use the following
technical terms :
« Class limits: The limiting values of the boundary of the classes into which the
given data are classified are called class-limits. The smaller limit of every class is
called the lower limit and the higher limit is called the upper limit.
« Class-interval: The group constituted by the two limits is called class-interval.

181 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 « Width of the class-interval: The difference between the lower and upper limits of
any class is called the class interval.
« Mid-value: The mean of upper and lower limits is called the mid-value of the
class-interval.
y!!?C a\+HH \<B<G3 _CE? y!!?C j<B<G3
jF`?C a\+HH j<B<G
{+e − aHLhb = Mc, _CE? jF`?C j<B<G
& &
« Frequency of the class-interval: The number of observations falling within
a particular class-interval is called its frequency.
Methods of Classification according to Class- Intervals:
« Exclusive Method: In this method the upper limit of one class is equal to
the lower limit of the next class. Any item equal to the upper limit of any
class is excluded from that class but included in the subsequent class. For
example, if a student has secured 40 marks in the above example, then his
marks have been taken in the class- interval 40-50 and not in the class-
interval 30-40.
« Inclusive Method: In this method any item equal to the upper limit of any
class is included in that particular class and therefore it is known as
inclusive method.
Tables
Table is often used to present a set of numerical data. It helps the person to make
comparisons and draw quick conclusions. It provides the reader greater objectivity
in the data. Tabular presentation makes complicated information easier to
understand. Its another advantage is that one can see all the information at a glance.
Tabular presentation usually consists of a table title followed by, columns and
rows containing data. While looking at the table, carefully read the table title and
headings/nomenclature of the columns and the rows. The table title gives a general
idea of the type and objective of the data presented. The column and row
nomenclatures indicate the specific kind of information contained in them
respectively.
Meaning of Tabulation
Tabulation is one of the most important devices for the presentation of the data in
a condensed and comprehensive form. It attempts to furnish the maximum
information contained in the data in a minimum possible space without minimising
the quality and usefulness of the data.
A statistical table is the logical listing of related quantitative data in vertical
columns and horizontal rows of numbers with sufficient explanatory and qualifying
words, phrases and statements in the form of titles, headings and notes to make clear
the full meaning of data and their origin. Thus, a table is a systematic presentation of
statistical data in horizontal rows and vertical columns according to some salient
features.
Merits of Tabulation
(i) Tabulation is the next stage after collection and compilation of the data.
(ii) It simplifies the data.
(iii) It gives a general idea of trend and pattern within the data
(vi) It provides a gateway for further statistical analysis and interpretation.
(v) In tabulation comparable data are kept close, so that a comparable study of these
data becomes easy.
(vi) It makes the data suitable for further Diagramatic and Graphic representation.

182 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 (vii) It saves time and space, as maximum information is expressed in a small space
without repetition.
Line Graphs
Line Graphs are more obvious, precise and accurate than the diagrams and can be
effectively used for further statistical analysis, viz., to study slopes, rates of change
and for future inference. They can be used to study the relationship between the
variates under study. Line Graphs are drawn on ‘graph-paper’.
Bar Diagram
Bar Diagrams are one of the simplest and the most common devices used for the
presentation of statistical data. They consist of a number of equidistant rectangular
bars, one for each category of the data in which the magnitudes are represented by
the length or height of the rectangles, whereas width of rectangles are arbitrary and
immaterial.
Types of Bar Diagram
1. Simple Bar Diagram
Simple bar diagram is the simplest and the easiest of the bar diagrams. It is used to
represent only one dependent variable. The values of observations are shown by
means of bars which are of equal width but of varying heights. As discussed earlier
the magnitudes of variables are represented by the heights of the rectangles.
2. Sub-Divided Bar Diagram
A simple bar diagram can represent only one characteristic at a time. For example,
the total number of students studying in a University for the last ten years can easily
be expressed by simple bar diagram, but it cannot show the faculty wise distribution
of students. This limitation of bar diagram is overcome by subdivided bar diagrams.
These are used to represent the breakdown of the total into its component parts. First
of all, a bar representing a total is drawn. Then it is divided into different segments,
each segment representing a given component of the total. Different colours, shades,
designs etc. are used to distinguish the various components. An index is given to
represent the various components. To facilitate comparisons, the order of the various
components in the different bars is same.
3. Percentage Bar Diagram
Sub-divided bar diagram presented graphically on percentage basis is termed
percentage bar diagram. They are specially useful for the diagramatic representation
of the relative changes in the data. A percentage bar diagram is used to highlight the
relative importance of the different component parts to the whole. Here all totals are
taken as 100 and are represented by bars of same length. The component parts are
expressed as percentages of totals. The other rules regarding index, shade or colour,
thickness are the same as in simple or multiple bar diagrams. The absolute changes
in the component parts or total are not shown in the diagram.
4. Multiple Bar Diagram
When a combination of inter-related variables are to be presented graphically,
multiple bar diagrams are used. These are extended forms of simple bar diagrams.
Here, many aspects of the given data are presented simultaneously and as such are
very useful for direct comparison between two or more phenomena by representing
them with separate bars of different shades or colours. Here an index is given to
explain the shades and colours used. The bars for different characteristics/
phenomena for a particular year are drawn adjacent to each other. Proper and equal
spacing is given between different sets of the bars.

183 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Histogram
It consists of a set of continuous bars drawn adjacent to each other. It is generally
used to represent frequency distribution among different class intervals of the data
presented in tabular form. Areas of bars are proportional to the corresponding class
frequencies.
Cumulative graphs: These are usually bar or line graphs where the height or length
of the bar or line is di- vided proportionately among various quantities represented
in the graph. The representation of quantities may be done in terms of either
percentage of the total or in absolute figures. Thus, a cumulative graph may be
conveniently used for making comparisons. These are also called sub-divided
graphs.
Circle Graphs or Pie-Chart
A pie-diagram is a pictorial representation of the numerical data by non-
intersecting adjacent sectors of the circle such that area of each sector is proportional
to the magnitude of the data represented by the sector.
Just as sub-divided and percentage bars are used to represent the total magnitude
and its different components, the circle representing the total may be divided into
different segments representing certain proportion or percentage of the different
components/parts to the total. Such a sub- divided circle diagram is called pie-
diagram because the entire graph looks like a pie and the components resemble
slices cut from a pie.
Some Important Points
(i) Different sectors of a pie-chart represent various component parts.
(ii) Each of the component values is expressed either as a percentage or fractional
ratio of the respective total or as sectoral angle of the respective total.
(iii) Since the total angle at the centre of the circle is 3600, the total magnitude of the
various components is taken to be equal to 3600. In other words, 360° is taken as
100% and vice versa.
,)*
(iv) Since 1 per cent of the total value is equal to 360 = 3.6* , the percentage of
%**
the component parts can be converted to degrees by multiplying each of the them by
3.6.
(v) The degrees represented by the various component parts of a given magnitude
can be obtained without computing their percentage to the total value as follows :
Degree of the any component part
aFB!F@?@G n+\E?
= × 360*
_FG+\ n+\E?
Important Tips: These will help in saving time, reducing mistakes and finding
solution easily.
1. Read the table title, nomenclatures of columns and rows.
2. Get a general picture of the information by looking at the entire table or graph.
3. Simplify the questions being asked. Break down lengthy questions into smaller
parts.
4. Use only the information given for finding solutions. Select the appropriate data
for answering a question.
5. Eliminate impossible choices.
6. Avoid lengthy calculations.
7. Try to interpret through trends of the data in the graph. Whenever possible, try to
answer the questions by visualizing rather than by computing.
8. Don’t go for exact calculation, unless necessarily required.
184 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 9. Approximate evaluation and comparision greatly simplifies solution.
10. Where calculation is required, prefer approximate values at the first stage.
Go for exact calculation where values are close and require exact answer.
11. Be careful to use proper units.
12. Make correct use of your knowledge of basic mathematical rules, principles and
formulae.
13. Don’t confuse in decimals and percentages. For example, 0.5% = 0.005.
14. Use pencil or straight edge of the answer sheet to read the graph and find
approximate values.
15. Focus your answer on the question actually asked and not on what the question
should be in your opinion.
16. Never do anything that is unnecessary.
17. Last, but not the least, make sure that the answer is sensible and reasonable.

Practice Test

Directions (1–3): The pie chart, given here, represents the number of valid votes
obtained by four students who contested election for school leadership. The total
number of valid votes polled was 720.
Paramjeet
◦
Yasin 60
◦
80

Sivaraman
120◦
Vishwanath
100◦
1. What was the minimum number of votes obtained by any candidate ?
a. 100 b. 110 c. 120 d. 130
2. Who was the winner ?
a. Sivaraman b. Paramjeet c. Yasin d. Vishwanath
3. By how many votes did the win- ner defeat his nearest rival ?
a. 40 b. 45 c. 48 d. 50
Directions (4–6): The pie chart, given here, shows the amount of money spent on
various sports by a school administration in a particular year.

185 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Football

Tennis 35 ◦ 45◦
Hockey
Basket Ball 100 ◦
◦
20
Cricket
160 ◦

4. If the money spent on football was Rs.9,000 how much more money was spent on hockey
than on football ?
a. Rs. 11,000 b. Rs. 11,500 c. Rs. 12,000 d. Rs. 12,500
5. If the money spent on football was Rs. 9,000, what amount was spent on Cricket ?
a. Rs. 31,000 b. Rs. 31,500 c. Rs. 32,000 d. Rs. 32,500
6. If the money spent on football is Rs. 9,000, then what was the total amount spent on all
sports ?
a. Rs. 73,000 b. Rs. 72,800 c. Rs. 72,500 d. Rs. 72,000
Directions (7-9): The pie charts, given here show some automobile parts
manufactured by an automobile company at its Kathmandu and plants in the year
2009.

Pokhara Plant
Kathmanud Plant

Tubes
16% Tyres
Tubes Tyres 36%
Gears
28% 30%
16%

Lights
29%
Horn Lights Horn
Gear Box
7% 20% 3%
15%

7. If the Pokhara plant produced 8,00,000 tyres, then the number of horns produced by it
was
a. 12,000 b. 18,500 c. 75,000 d. 60,000
8. How many percent more tubes were produced at the Kathmandu plant than those
produced at the Pokhara plant ?
a. 14% b. 12% c. 8% d. 3%
9. The ratio of number of horns produced at Pokhara plant to that produced at Kathmandu
plant is
186 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 3 : 7 b 10 : 3 c. 7 : 3 d. 7 : 10
Directions (10–13) : The pie chart given below shows the spendings of a family on
various heads during a month. Study the graph and answer the following questions.
Clothing
11% Fuel
9% Rent
14%

Educati
on Food
15% 45%
Other
6%

10. If the total income of the family is Rs.25,000, then the amount spent on Rent and Food
together is
a. Rs.17,250 b. Rs,14,750 c. Rs.11,250 d. Rs.8,500
11. What is the ratio of the expenses on Education to the expenses on Food?
a. 1:3 b. 3:1 c. 3:5 d. 5:3
12. Expenditure on Rent is what percent of expenditure on Fuel?
a. 135% b. 156% c. 167% d. 172%
13. Which three expenditures together have a central angle of 108°?
a. Fuel, Clothing and Others b. Fuel, Education and Others
c. Clothing, Rent and Others d. Education, Rent and Others
Directions (14-17): The pie- chart given below shows the marks obtained by a
student in an examination.
If the total marks obtained by him in the examination were 540, answer the questions
given below based on this pie chart.
Social
Studies
Mahts
650
900

550
800 Science
English
700
Nepali
14. In which subject, did the student obtain 105 marks?
a. Maths b. Social studies c. Science d. Nepali
15. What is the central angle corresponding of Science?
a. 40° b. 80° c. 75° d. 60°
16. How many more marks were obtained by the student in Maths than those in Nepali?
a. 30 b. 20 c. 10 d. 40
17. How many marks were obtained by the student in Science?
a. 130 b. 120 c. 125 d. 140
Directions (18-21): The pie chart given here shows expenditures incurred by a
family on various items and their savings, which amounts to Rs. 8,000 in a month.

187 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Housing
105 ◦ Food
◦
120
Savings 60◦
Education
30◦ Others 45◦
18. How much expenditure is incurred on education?
a. Rs. 3,000 b. Rs, 5,000 c. Rs. 4,000 d. Rs. 7,000
19. The ratio of the expenditure on food to the savings is
a. 3 : 2 b. 2 : 1 c. 4 : 3 d. 3 : 4
20. What is the total expenditure of the family for the month?
a. Rs.40,000 b. Rs.48,000 c. Rs.45,000 d. Rs.50,000
21. How much more amount is spent on food than on housing?
a. Rs.1,000 b. Rs.3,000 c. Rs.2,000 d. Rs.2,500
Directions (22–25): The pie- chart, given here, shows various expenses of a
publisher in the production and sale of a book. Study the chart and answer
questions based on it.
Binding
Charges
18% Priniting
Cost
Advertise 35%
ment Paper
Charges Cost
18% Miscellan 10%
Royalty eous
15% Expenses
22. If the printing cost is Rs.17,500, the ‘Royalty’ paid is: 4%
a. Rs.8,750 b. Rs.7,500 c. Rs.6,300 d. Rs.3,130
23. The measure of central angle for the section ‘printing cost’ is :
a. 126° b. 70° c. 63° d. 35°
24. Miscellaneous expenses are what percent of paper cost ?
a. 4% b. 10% c. 40% d. 44%
25. The difference between the measure of central angles of sector for binding charges and
advertisement charges is:
a. 180° b. 90° c. 18° d. 0°
Directions (26–29) : The piechart shows Distribution of Special Children
Population during the year 1994-96. Study the pie-chart and answer the following
questions.

188 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Articulator
y Disorder
60 Languange Auditory
Disorder Disorder
657 871

Speech Voice
Disorder Disorder
275 222
26. Find the approximate percentage distribution of children with auditory disorder.
a. 43.7% b. 42.7% c. 41.7% d. 40.7%
27. What is the average number of cases in different types of spe- cial children during the
year 1994-96?
a. 417 b. 413 c. 433 d. 465
28. Find the ratio between articula- tory disorder and speech disor- der cases.
a. 21 : 55 b. 55 : 21 c. 55 : 12 d. 12 : 55
29. What is the respective ratio be- tween language disorder and the average of the remaining
disorder cases?
a. 219 : 119 b. 119 : 219 c. 919 : 419 d. 729 : 529
Directions (30 – 33): In the given pie-chart, the comparative study of the production
of Rice, Wheat, Sugar and Tea of a country is given. Study the pie-chart and
answer the following questions.

Wheat
30%
Rice
55% Sugar
Tea 10%
5%
30. From this diagram, the ratio of sum of wheat and sugar production to difference in
production of rice and tea is
a. 4:5 b. 5:4 c. 6:1 d. 1:6
31. The production of rice and tea is more/greater than production of wheat by
a. 50% b. 100% c. 75% d. 66.6%
32. The central angle of percentage of wheat is
a. 480 b. 980 c. 1100 d. 1080
33. The total production of rice, wheat, sugar and tea (in kgs) is 500000 kgs. The production
of rice in the country is
a. 175000 kg b. 395000 kg c. 275000 kg d. 27500 kg
Directions (34–37) : Study the following pie-chart and answer the questions.
Budget estimated by a family for their monthly expenses. Total salary = Rs. 32000 per
month

189 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 M
7%
CL I
8% 15% G G- Grocery
20% M-Miscellaneous
EL I - Investment
19% E CL - Clothing
25% EI - Electricity…

C
6%
34. The budget estimated by the family on clothing and grocery together is :
a. Rs.8950 b. Rs.8960 c. Rs.8850 d. Rs.8860
35. Due to sudden marriage, the family incurs miscellaneous expenditure of Rs.3040 in total.
Then the increase in the amount un- der this head from that budgeted is:
a. Rs.810 b. Rs.1738 c. Rs.234 d. Rs.800
36. The difference in the amount estimated by the family on electricity and call bill is:
a. Rs.4560 b. Rs.4470 c. Rs.4168 d. Rs.4160
37. The family actually spent Rs.4572 on grocery. Then the difference in the amount
budgeted and spent on grocery is:
a. Rs.1528 b. Rs.1728 c. Rs.1278 d. Rs.1628
Directions (38–41) : The Bar Graph given here shows the population (in crores) of
India in various census years. Observe the graph and answer the question based on
it.
Population Of Nepal
80
Population (in Crores)

60 68.4
40 54.8
43.92
31.85 36.14
20 27.9
0
1931 1941 1951 1961 1971 1981
Census Year
38. The per cent increase in population from 1971 to 1981 is
a. 24.8% b. 20% c. 16.7% d. 22.9%
39. In which census year, the per cent increase in population is highest as compared to that in
the previous census year ?
a. 1951 b. 1961 c.1971 d. 1981
40. In which census year, the per cent increase in population is least as compared to that in
the previous census year ?
a. 1961 b. 1951 c. 1971 d. 1941
41. Per year increase in population from the year 1931 to 1981 is
a. 8100000 b. 7600000 c. 8900000 d. 6700000
Directions (15-17) : The bar graph, given here, shows the number of tickets sold by
6 students A, B. C, D, E and F during a fair.

190 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 30

Number of Tickets
20 24
20
10 16 14
8 7
0
A B C D E F
Students

42. Total number of tickets sold by A, B and C is

a. 45 b. 44 c. 42 d. 40
43. The least number of tickets were sold by
a. B b. F c. A d. D
44. Total number of tickets sold by D, E and F is
a. 47 b. 46 c. 45 d. 44
Directions (45 – 47) : Given here is a bar graph showing the number of cycles
produced in a factory during five consecutive weeks.
Graph showing the number of cycles produced in a factory in 5 consecutive weeks.

1400
Number of Cycles

1200
1000
produced

800
600
400
200
0
1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th
Work

45. The number of cycles produced during third and fourth weeks together is
a. 1060 b. 1980 c. 920 d. 1900
46. The number of cycles produced in the 5th week is
a. 1400 b. 1300 c. 1440 d. 1600
47. Total number of cycles produced in five consecutive weeks is
a. 5520 b. 1600 c. 7200 d. 7000
Directions(48 – 50): Study the following graph and answer the questions given below
it.

191 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 100

Production (in 1000 tonnes)

80 90
80
60 70
55
40 50
40
20 30
25
0
2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2009
Year
48. What was the percentage decline in the production of salt from 2003 to 2004 ?
a. 64.2% b. 180% c. 62.4% d. 107%
49. The average production of 2004 and 2005 was exactly equal to the average production of
which of the following pair of years?
a. 2006, 2007 b. 2005, 2006 c. 2002, 2006 d. 2001, 2005
50. What was the percentage increase in production of salt in 2008 compared to that of 2001?
a. 55.5% b. 125% c. 150% d. 220%
51. In how many of the given years was the production of salt more than the average
production of the given years?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
Directions (52 – 55): Study the following graph and answer the questions based on it.
Production of fertilizers by a company (in 1000 tonnes over the years 1995-2002)
90
80
Production (in 10,000

70 80
75
60 65
tonnes)

50 60
40 50
45
30 40
20 25
10
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002
Years
52. What was the percentage decline in the production of fertilizers from 1997 to 1998?
%
a. 33,% b. 30% c. 25% d. 20%
53. In how many years was the production of fertilizers more than the average production of
the given years?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
54. In which year was the percentage increase in production as compared to the previous
year, the maximum?
a. 2002 b. 2001 c. 1996 d. 1997
55. The ratio of total production of fertilizers in the year 1996 and 1997 to that of total
production in the year 1995, 1998 and 2000 is
a. 5 : 6 b. 6 : 5 c. 20 : 29 d. 13 : 24
Directions (56-57) : Given here is a graph showing the number of workers with
their daily payment by a workshop. Study the graph and answer questions based on
this graph.
192 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 50
45

Daily payment to each

40

workers(in Rs.)
35
30
25
20
15
10
5
0
2 3 4 9 16 20 26
No. of Workers
56. The number of workers whose daily payment is Rs.20 is
a. 9 b. 16 c. 20 d. 4
57. The total daily payment made to the group which contains 9 workers is (in Rs)
a. 400 b. 315 c. 480 d. 135
Directions (58–62) : Read the following graph and answer questions.
Trade Deficit of a Country
(in Crores of Rupees)
4200
3600
3100 2800 2600 2600
2200 2100
1987-88

1988-89

1989-90

1990-91

1991-92

1992-93

1993-94

1994-95

58. The deficit in 1993-94 was roughly how many times the deficit in 1990-91?
a. 1.4 b. 1.5 c. 2.5 d. 0.5
59. Percentage increase in deficit in 1993-94 as compared to deficit in 1989-90 was
a. 200% b. 150% c. 100% d. 2100%
60. In which of the following years, the percent increase of deficit was highest over its
preceding year?
a. 1992-93 b. 1990-91 c. 1993-94 d. 1988-89
61. The ratio of the number of years, in which the trade deficit is above the average deficit, to
those years in which the trade deficit is be- low the average deficit, is
a. 3 : 5 b. 5 : 3 c. 4:4 d. 3:4
62. The deficit in 1992-93 was approximately how many percent of the average deficit?
a.150% b. 140% c. 125% d. 90%
Directions (63–66) : Study the following graph and answer the questions. Number
on the top of a bar is the number of TVs.
Demand and Production of Colour T.Vs of five Companies for January 2006.

193 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Demand Production

3300 3000
2700 2500
2200
1500 1800
1200 1000
600

A B C D E
63. What is the ratio of the companies having more demand than production to the companies
having more production than demand ?
a. 2:3 b. 4:1 c. 2:2 d. 3:2
64. What is the difference between average demand and average pro- duction of the five
companies taken together ?
a. 1400 b. 400 c. 280 d. 138
65. Demand of company D is approximately what per cent of demand of company E ?
a. 12% b. 20% c. 24% d. 30%
66. What is the ratio of average demand to average production of companies B and D ?
a. 1:5 b. 2:5 c. 3 : 5 d. 4 : 5
Directions (67–70) : The following graph shows the production of cot- ton bales of
100 kg each (in lakhs) by different states A, B, C, D and E over the years.
2003-2004 2004-2005 2005-2006

30
Production of cotton bales of 100 kg

25 27 21
18
20
15
each in lakhs

17 11 15 17 10
10 13 8 13

5 8 8 7
6
0
A B C D E
States

67. The production of State C in 2003- 2004 is how many times its production in 2005-2006?
a. 2.5 b. 1.85 c. 1.5 d. 0.4
68. In which State(s) is there a steady increase in the production of cot- ton during the given
period ?
a. A and B b. B and D c. A and C d. D and E
69. How many kg of cotton was produced by State C during the given period ?
a. 32,00,00,000 kg b. 42,50,00,000 kg c. 33,00,00,000 kg d. 35,00,00,000 kg
70. The number of States for which the production of cotton in 2005- 2006 is less than or
equal to the preceding year is
a. 3 b. 2 c. 1 d. There is no such State
Directions (71–74) : The following graph shows the production of wheat flour (in
1000 tonnes) by three companies X, Y and Z over the years.

194 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 600

Production (in 1000 tonnes)

500
400
300 X
200 Y
100 Z
0
2000 2001 2002 2003 2004
Years

71. What is the difference between the production of company Z in 2004 and company Y in
2000 (in thousand tonnes)?
a. 100 b. 200 c. 20 d. 2
72. What is the ratio of the average production of company X in the period 2002-2004 to the
average production of company Y in the same period?
a. 1:1 b. 15:17 c. 23:25 d. 27:29
73. What is the percentage increase in the production of company Y from 2002 to 2003?
& )
a. 14' % b. 16'% c. 25% d. 40%
74. The average production for five years was maximum for which company (s)?
a. X and Z both b. Y c. Z d. X and Y both
Directions (75-79) : Study the following bar graph and answer the questions.
Gross Profit and Net Profit of a company (in lakhs of rupees) for the years 1994-
1997:
60
50
(in lakhs of rupees)
Gross/Net Profit

40
30
Gross Profit
20
Net Profit
10
0
1994 1995 1996 1997
Years

75. The year in which the gross profit is double the net profit
a. 1997 b. 1995 c. 1996 d. 1994
76. The percentage of net profit of 1995 as compared to the gross profit in that year is
a. 25.5% b. 35.5% c. 37.5% d. 42.5%
77. The difference of average gross profit and average net profit calculated for four years is
a. Rs.18.75 lakhs b. Rs.19.75 lakhs c. Rs.20.5 lakhs d. Rs.22.5 lakhs
78. The ratio of gross profit to net profit in a year was greatest in the year
a. 1994 b. 1995 c. 1996 d. 1997
79. For the entire four years as shown, the ratio of total gross profit to total net profit is
a. 13 : 4 b. 11 : 6 d. 11 : 5 d. 9 : 4

195 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Directions (80 – 83): graph, given here, shows the demand and production of
colour televisions of five companies for Diwali season in the year 2009. Study the
graph carefully and answer the questions based on the graph.
Demand and Production of Colour Televisions of Five Computer.
Number of television

3300
3000
2500 2700
2200
1800
1500
1000 1200
600

A B C D E
Companies

Demand Production

80. The ratio of the demand and production of colour televisions of company E is :
a. 3 : 2 b. 2 : 3 c. 2 : 1 d. 1 : 2
81. The demand of colour televisions of company B is approximately what per cent of that of
company C?
a. 60% b. 25% c. 24% d. 6%
82. The production of colour televisions of company D is how many times that of company
A?
a. 1.9 b. 1.8 c. 1.5 d. 2.3
83. The ratio of companies having more demand than production of colour televisions to
those having more production than demand is :
a. 2 : 3 b. 4 : 1 c. 1 : 4 d. 3 : 2
Direction (84–87) : The follow- ing figure shows the number of stu- dents (in
thousands) admitted and passed out per year in a college during years 2000 to 2004.
14
Number of Students (1000)

12
10
8
6 Admitted
4 Passed Out
2
0
2000 2001 2002 2003 2004
Year

84. The percent increase in the number of students admitted in the year 2003 over that in
2001 is
a. 133.3 b. 33.3 c. 40.3 d. 66.7
85. During 2000 to 2003, the ratio of the total number of the students passed out to the total
number of students admitted is
a. 17/23 b. 17/6 c. 11/23 d. 5/7
86. In which of the two years, the pass percentage of students was between 60 and 70 ?

196 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. 2000 and 2001 b. 2003 and 2004 c. 2001 and 2002 d. None of these
87. The ratio of the number of students admitted in the year 2002 to the average of the
number of students passed out in the years 2003 and 2004. Is
a. 7 : 8 b. 8 : 9 c. 9 : 8 d. 8 : 7
Directions (88–91) : The Bar accidents due to bus and car during the years 2008
2013.
70
Number of accidents (in

60
50
40
thousands)

30
20
10
0
2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013
Years

88. The total number of road accidents in the year 2009, 2011 and 2013 combined together is
a. 180000 b. 110000 c. 70000 d. 160000
89. The respective ratio of the road accidents due to bus in the year 2008 to that by car in the
year 2012 is
a. 2 : 1 b. 1 : 2 c. 2 : 3 d. 3 : 4
90. The respective ratio between the accidents by cars in the year 2012, 2010 and 2008 is
a. 2 : 5 : 4 b. 4 : 5 : 4 c. 4 : 3 : 2 d. 4 : 5 : 2
91. The ratio of the averages of the road accidents due to buses to that by cars in the year
2008, 2011 and 2013 is
a. 4 : 5 b. 5 : 4 c. 5 : 1 d. 1 : 4

Directions (92–95) : The table given below depicts the export of a commodity
through four ports in the years 1998 and 1999.
Port Export in 1998 (in crore Rs.) Export in 1999 ( in crore Rs.)
A 57 61
B 148 160
C 229 234
D 146 150
92. The percentage increase in the export of the commodity from the year 1998 to 1999 was
the highest from which port?
a. A b. B c. C d. D
93. What was the change in the aggregate export of the commodity in the year 1999 as
compared to the year 1998?
a. Nearly 4.3% increase b. Nearly 4.3% decrease
c. Nearly 0.04% increase d. Nearly 0.04% decrease
94. What was the average increase in the export of the commodity from the ports in the year
1999 as compared to the year 1998?
a. Rs.82500000 b. Rs.80000000 c. Rs.75000000 d. Rs.62500000
95. The percentage increase in the export of the commodity from the year 1998 to 1999 was
the lowest from which port?
a. A b. B c. C d. D

197 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Directions (96-99) : A survey of movie going habits of city dwellers from 5 cities A,
B, C, D and E is given below. The first column gives the percentage of viewers in
each city who watch less than two movies a week. The second column gives the total
number of viewers who view two or more movies per week. Study the table and
answer the questions.

City I II
A 60 2400
B 20 3000
C 85 2400
D 55 2700
E 75 8000
96. How many viewers in city C watch less than two movies a week ?
a. 2040 b. 13600 c. 16000 d. 3600
97. The city with the lowest number of movie watchers is
a. City E b. City D c. City B d. City C
98. The highest number of movie watchers in any given city (in the survey) is
a. 36000 b. 32000 c. 6000 d. 16000
99. Which two cities have the same number of movie watchers?
a. C and E b. C and D c. A and B d. D and A
Directions (100–103) : Study the following table and answer the questions given
below.
Annual Income of five schools. (Figures in ‘000’ rupees)
Source of Income Schools
A B C D E
Tuition Fee 120 60 210 90 120
Term Fee 24 12 45 24 30
Donation 54 21 60 51 60
Grants 60 54 120 42 55
Miscellaneous 12 3 15 3 15
Total 270 150 450 210 280
100. For school E, what per cent of the income from miscellaneous is the income from
donation?
%
a. 25% b. 40% c. # % d. 400%
101. Which school has the highest percentage of income from tuition fee out of its total
income?
a. A b. B c. C d. D
102. In case of how many schools, is the income by way of tuition fee, is less than four times
of term fee?
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
103. Which school has the lowest ratio of income by way of grants and tuition fees?
a. E b. B c. C d. D
Directions (104-108) : Refer to the following table. Read the table and answer the
questions.
District Rice Wheat Jowar Pulse Others
P 45 103 ----- 27 29
Q 48 86 73 19 15
R 59 32 67 14 31
S 41 37 59 21 15
T 37 22 41 13 11
U 68 15 12 --- 18

198 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 V 57 8 7 12 10
W 38 28 31 22 45
104. Which district had the highest grain production
a. P b. Q c. R d. S
105. What was the proportion of rice production to wheat production in the country?
a. 1 : 1 b. 0.8 : 1 c. 1.2 : 1 d. 2 : 1
106. Jowar was the most important food grain in the districts/districts:
a. Q, R, S b. Q c. R, S d. R, S, T
107. District P alone accounted for approximately what percentage of wheat production in the
country?
a. 73% b. 50% c. 41% d. 30%
108. If the average per hectare yield of rice in the country was 30 tons, then the area (approx.)
under rice cultivation during the year was approx. (in lakh hectares)
a.1.5 b. 8 c. 13 d. 40
Directions (92 - 95) : The following questions are based on the table given below
which shows production of the number of scooters by a company during the first
half of 1992. Study the table and answer the questions.
Production of Scooters by a Company during first half of 1992
Month/Type January February March April May June
X 25 25 18 40 20 15
Y 25 27 50 45 30 20
Z 25 27 15 25 30 20
T 25 26 25 0 30 35
Total 100 105 108 110 110 90
109. In which month, was the production of all types of scooters the lowest?
a. January b. February c. March d. June
110. In which month, did the company produce equal number of all types of scooters?
a. January b. March c. May d. June
111. The total number of scooters produced by the company, during the first half of 1992 is
a. 90 b. 143 c. 623 d. 197
112. In which two months, was the number of scooters produced by the company the same?
a. January, February b. April, March c. January, March d. January, May

17. Probability

The word probability or chance is very frequently used in day-to-day life . the
probability when defined in simplest way is the chance of occurring of a certain event
when expressed quantitatively, i.e., probability is a quantitative measure of the
certainty.
Some Important Terms and Concepts
Random Experiment or Trial: The performance of an experiment is called a
trial. An experiment is characterized by the property that its observations under a
given set of circumstances do not always lead to the same observed outcome but
rather to the different outcomes. If in an experiment, all the possible outcomes are
known in advance and none of the outcomes can be predicted with certainty, then such

199 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 an experiment is called a random experiment. For example, tossing a coin or throwing
a die are random experiment.
Event: The possible outcomes of a trial are called events. Events are generally
denoted by capital letters, A, B, C and so on.
Sample Space: The set of all possible outcomes of an experiment is called a
sample space. We generally denote it by S
Equally likely Events: Events are said to be equally likely if there is no reason
to expect any one in preference to other. Thus, equally likely events mean outcome is
as likely to occur as any other outcome.
Simple and Compound Events:
In the case of simple events, we consider the probability of happening or
non-happening of single events.
In case of compound events, we consider the joint occurrence of two or more events.
Algebra of Events:
If A and B are two events associated with sample space S, then
(i) A ∪ B is the event that either A or B or both occur.
(ii) A ∩ B is the event that A and B both occur simultaneously.
(iii) `̅ is the event that A does not occur.
(iv) `̅ ∩ õ 7 is an event of non-occurrence of both A and B.
Mutually Exclusive Events
In an experiment, if the occurrence of an event precludes or rules out the
happening of all the other events in the same experiment.
Fundamental Theorems on Probability
Theorem 1: In a random experiment, if S is the sample space and E is an event, then
a. P(E) ≥ 0 b. P(ø) = 0 c. P(S) = 1
Theorem 2: If E and F are mutually exclusive events, then
a. x(Ä ∩ <) = 0 b. x(Ä ∩ <) = x(Ä) + x(<)
Theorem 3: If E and F are two mutually exclusive and exhaustive events, then
P(E) + P(F) = 1
Theorem 4: Let E be any event and be its complementary event, then = 1 – P(E)
Theorem 5: For any tow events E and F x(Ä − <) = x(Ä) − x(Ä ∩ <)
Theorem 6 (Addition Theorem): For any two events E and F,
x(Ä ∪ <) = x(<) − x(Ä ∩ <)
Theorem 7: If E1 and E2 be two events such that E1⊆ E2 then prove that P(E1) ≤ P(E2)
Theorem 8: If E is an event associated with a random experiment, then 0 ≤ P (E) ≤ 1
Theorem 9: For any three events E, F, G
x(Ä ∪ < ∪ Ö) = x(Ä) + x(Ö) − x(Ä ∩ <) − x(< ∩ Ö)
−x(Ä ∩ Ö) + x(Ä ∩ < ∩ Ö)
Theorem 10: If A and B are two independent events, then P(A and B ) = P(A) • P(B)

Practice Test

1. There are two bags A and B, bag A contains 6 red balls and 10 green balls and ball B
contains 4 red balls and 6 green balls. One bag is selected at random; from the selected bag
one ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ball drawn is red?
,% % $ ,,
a. (* b. # c. %, d. )$
2. An urn contains 10 black and 5 white balls. Two balls are drawn from the urn one after the
other without replacement. What is the probability that both drawn balls are black?
a. 1/5 b.4/5 c. 3/7 d. 3/4

200 A Complete Solution For CMAT

3. John played a game where 5 dice are thrown, what is the probability of rolling not even one
pair with 5 dice?
$! #! ,! $!
a. )6 b. )1 c. #1 d. )
4. The letters H, I, I, N and D are written on a slip of paper. The five slips of paper are
placed in a hat. The slips are then selected one at a time from the hat, what is the
probability that the order in which they are chosen spells HINDI?
a. 1/60 b. 1/120 c. 1/15 d. 1/90
5. A committee of 3 members is to be selected out of 3 men and 2 women. What is the
probability that the committee has at least one woman?
&' %& / &*
a. b. c. d.
%,* &$ %* ,,
6. A box contains 2 red caps and 4 blue caps and 5 green caps, if two caps are picked then
what is the ratio of the probability that both are blue and probability that at least one is
red?
a.2/3 b.1/4 c. 5/11 d. 1/3
7. What is the probability that the leap year selected at random will contains 53 Saturday?
a.1/7 b. 1/2 c. 6/7 d. 2/7
8. A bag contains 4 red balls, 6 white balls, 8 green balls and 10 black balls. If one ball is
drawn at random, find the probability that it is black.
$ ( , &
a. %# b. &' c. &/ d. %$ e. Not
9. Ron throws a dice 6 times, what is the probability of rolling a 6 on all five dice?
% ,! % %
a. )8 b. )8 c. $8 d. )#
10. There are 10 females and 8 males prepared to work in a committee. What is the
probability that there are exactly three females on the committee?
a.1/8 b. 2/9 c. 3/10 d. Date inadequate
11. A couple plans to have five children, what is the probability that they will have 3 boys
and 2 girls?
$ # , &
a. %) b. %/ c. $ d. %'
12. A bag contains 50 tickets numbered from 1 to 50. Two tickets are drawn at random. What
is the probability that both numbers are prime?
a. 6/71 b. 3/35 c. 4/35 d. Date inadequate
13. A bag contains 7 blue balls and 8 yellow balls. If two balls are drawn randomly, then find
the probability of no ball being yellow.
), )$ ,$ %&,
a. %&% b. %,& c. %,& d. %$$
14. In a bag there are 6 red balls and 9 green balls. Two balls are drawn at random, what is
the probability that at least one of the balls drawn is red?
&, ) ,%' &,%
a. %&# b. %' c. #$$ d. ,%#
15. One card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability of getting neither a
king nor a heart card?
# & % %
a. %, b. ,/ c. %, d. #
18. Permutation and Combination

Factorial
The important mathematical term “Factorial” has extensively used in this chapter.
The product of first n consecutive natural numbers is defined as factorial of n. It is
denoted by n! or n. Therefore,

201 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 @! = 1 × 2 × 3 × … … × (@ − 1) × @
For Example, 5! = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 120
@! @
Note that: C! ≠ A C B !
The factorials of fractions and negative integers are not defined.
Permutation
Each of the arrangements, which can be made by taking, some or all of a number of
things is called a PERMUTATION.
For Example: Formation of numbers, word formation, sitting arrangement in a row.
The number of permutations of 'n' things taken 'r' at a time is denoted by nPr. it is
@!
defined as, nPr = (@0C)!.
Note that: nPn = n!
Distinguishable Permutations
Suppose a set of n objects has n1 of one kind of object, n2 of a second kind, n3 of a
third kind, and soon, with n = n1+ n2 + n3 + . . . + nk, Then the number of
@!
distinguishable permutations of the n objects is
@# !@1 !@2 !….@H !
Combination
Each of the different selections that can be made with a given number of objects
taken some or all of them at a time is called a COMBINATION.
The number of combinations of 'n' dissimilar things taken 'r' at a time is denoted
@!
by nCr or C(n, r). It is defined as, nCr = ( )
C! @0C !
Remember
ü nCr = 1, nCn = 1; nPr = r!nCr
ü nCr = nCn–r
ü nCr–1 + nCr = n+ 1Cr
ü nCx = nCy ⟹ x + y = n
ü nCr = nCr+1 = n+1Cr
@
ü nCr = C •n–1Cr–1
%
ü nCr = C (n – r + 1) nCr – 1
ü nC1 = nCn – 1 = n
Conditional Combinations
« Number of combinations of n distinct things taking r (≤ n) at a time, when k (0 ≤ k ≤ r)
particular objects always occur = n-kCr-k .
« Number of combinations of n distinct objects taking r(≤ n) at a time, when k (0 ≤ k ≤ r)
particular objects never occur = n-k Cr .
« Number of selections of r things from n things when p particular things are not together in
any selection = nCr –n–pCr–p.
« Number of selection of r consecutive things out of n things in a row= n – r + 1
« The number of Combinations of 'n' different things taking some or all at a time = nC1 + nC2
+ nC3 +.............+ nCn = 2n – 1

Practice Test
1. In how many different ways can a group of 4 men and 4 women be formed out of 7 men
and 8 women?
202 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 2450 b. 105 c. 1170 d. None of these
2. In a box there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly. What is
the probability that it is neither red nor green?
' & ,
a. %/ b. , c. # d. none of these
3. 765 chairs are to be arranged in a column in such a way that the number of chairs in each
column should be equal to the columns. How many chairs will be excluded to make this
arrangement possible?
a. 6 b. 36 c. 19 d. 27
4. In how many ways a committee consisting of 5 men and 6 women can be formed from 8
men and 10 women?
a. 266 b. 86400 c. 11760 d. 5040
5. 4 boys and 2 girls are to be seated in a row in such a way that the two girls are always
together. In how many different ways can they be seated?
a.120 b. 720 c. 148 d. 240
6. How many three digit numbers can having only two consecutive digits identical is
a. 153 b. 162 c. 168 d. 163
7. Three dice are rolled. The number of possible outcomes in which at least one dice shows
5 is
a. 215 b. 36 c. 125 d. 91
8. There are 6 tasks and 6 persons. Task 1 cannot be assigned either to person 1 or to person 2;
task 2 must be assigned to either person 3 or person 4. Every person is to be assigned one
task. In how many ways can the assignment be done?
a. 144 b. 180 c. 192 d. 360
9. A lady gives a dinner party to 5 guests to be selected from nine friends. The number of
ways of forming the party of 5, given that two of the friends will not attend the party
together is
a. 56 b. 126 c. 91 d. 94
10. A box contains 2 pink balls, 3 brown balls and 4 blue balls. In how many ways can 3 balls
be drawn from the box, if at least one brown ball is to be included in the draw?
a. 32 b. 48 c. 64 d. 96
11. A question paper has two parts A and B, each containing 12 questions. If a student needs
to choose 10 from part A and 8 from part B, in how many ways can he do that?
a. 32670 b. 36020 c. 41200 d. 29450
12. A school has 9 maths teachers and 6 science teachers. In how many ways can a team of 4
maths teachers be formed from them such that the team must contain exactly 1 science
teacher?
a. 800 b. 720 c. 680 d. 504

203 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 19. Set Theory

A set is a well-defined collection of objects. When we say well defined, we mean that
the objects follow a given rule or rules. With the help of this rule, we will be able to
say whether any given object belongs to this set or not.
Sets are usually dented by capital letters A, B, C, etc and their elements by small
letters a, b, c, etc.
Finite Set
A set having no elements or a definite number of element is called a finite set. Thus,
in a finite set, either their is nothing to be counted or the number or elements can be
counted, one by one, with the counting process coming to an end.
Example: A = the set of prime number less than 10 = {2, 3, 5, 7}
B = the set of vowels in English alphabets = { a, e, I, o, u}
Infinite set
A set having unlimited number of elements is called an infinite set. Thus, in an infinite
set, if the elements are counted one by one, the counting process never comes to an
end.
Example: The set of all natural numbers = {1, 2, 3, 4, ….}
The set of all prime numbers = {2, 3, 4, 5, 7, …}
Empty (Null) Set
The set which contains no element is called the empty or null set or void set. The
symbol for the empty set or the null set is û. Thus, û = {} , since there is no elements
in the empty set. The empty set is a finite set.
Equal sets
Two sets A and B are said to be equal if they have the same elements and we write A
= B. thus A = B if every element of A is an elements of B and every element of B is
an element of A.
In symbols, A = B if 4 ° ` ⟹ 4 ° õ and 4 ° õ ⟹ 4 ° `. TO indicate that two set A
and B are not equal we will write A ≠ B.
Equivalent Sets
Two finite sets A and B are said to be equivalent if they have same number of
elements, i.e. if we can find one-to-one correspondence between the elements of the
two sets. The symbol ~ is used to denote equivalence.
Subset of a Set
If A and B are any two sets, then B is called a subset of A if every element of B is
also an element of A. Symbolically, we write it as õ ⊆ ` Mc ` ⊇ õ.
Power Set
Elements of a set can also be some sets. Such sets are called set of sets. For example,
the set {ø, {1}, {2}, {3, 4} is a set whose elements are the sets ø, {1}, {2}, {3, 4}.
The set of all the subsets of a given set A is called the power of set of A and is denoted
by P(A).
Example: If A = {a}, then P(A) = {ø, A}
If B = {2, 5}, then P(B) = {ø, {2}, {5}, B}
Comparable Sets
If two set A and B are such a that either ` ⊂ õ or õ ⊂ `, then A and B are said to be
comparable sets. If neither A ⊂ B or B ⊂ A, then A and B are said to be non-
comparable set.
Disjoint Sets

204 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 If ` ∩ õ = ∅, then A and B are said to be disjoint sets. For example, let A = {2, 4, 6,
8} and B = {1, 3, 5, 7}. Then A and B are disjoint sets because there is no elements
which is common to both A and B.

Universal Set
If in any discussion on set theory, all the given sets are subsets of a set U, then the set
U is called the universal set.
Example: Let A = {2, 4, 6}, B = {1, 3, 5}, C = {3, 5, 7, 11}, D = {2, 4, 8, 16} and U
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 10, 11, 16} be the given sets. Here the sets A, B, C, D, are
subsets of the set U. Hence U can be taken as the universal set.
Operations of Sets
a. Union of sets
Let A and B be two given sets. Then the union of A and B is the set of all those
elements which belong to either A or B or both. It is denoted by ` ∪ õ. The union
set contains all the elements of A and B, except that the common elements of both A
and B are exhibited only one.
b. Intersection of Sets
Let A and B be two given sets. Then intersection of A and B is the set of elements
which belong to both A and B. In other words, the intersection of A and B is the set
of common member of A and B. It is denoted by ` ∩ õ.
c. Difference of Sets
Let A and B be two given sets. The difference of sets A and B is the set of elements
which are in A but not in B. It is written as A – B and read as A difference B.
Applications of Sets
ü If a set S has only a finite number of elements, we denoted by n(S) the number of
elements of S. Example: If U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}, then n(U) = 5.
ü For any two sets A and B, with finite number of elements, we have the following
formula:
@(` ∪ õ) = @(`) + @(õ) − @(` ∩ õ)
ü If A and B are disjoint sets, then
@(` ∪ õ) = @(`) + @(õ)

Practice Test

1. If A = { f } , the cardinal no. of A is

a. 1 b. 0 c. f d. x
2. Which one of the following is true?
a. f = 0 b. f = { } c. f = { f} d. f = { ,}
3. De-Morgan's law states
a.(A - C)c = Ac - Bc b. ( A ∪ B) = A C ∪ B

c. (A Ç B)c = AcÈ Bc d. ( A ∪ B) = A ∩ BC
4. If A = {2, 4, 6} and B = {a, b, c}, then,
a. A and B are equal sets. b. A and B are infinite sets.
c. A and B are equivalent sets. d. A and B intersect.
5. If A = {x : x £ 6} and B = {x : x ³ 5}, then, A Ç B =
205 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. {x : 5 £ x < 6} b. {x : 5 < x < 6} c. {x : 5 £ x £ 6} d. {x : 5 < x £ 6}
6. x £a⇒
a. - a £ x £ a b. x > a c. - a > x > a d. x < a
7. - 1 < x - 1< 1 ⇒
a. x - 1 > 1 b. x - 1 < -1 c. x - 1 < 1 d. x - 1 > -1
8. 2 is
a. Rational number b. Irrational number c. none d. (i) and (ii)
9. If a and b are two real numbers such that b - a > 0, then,
a. a = b b. a < b c. a > b d. none
10. If A = ( -1 , 3) and B = ( 2, 4) then A È B =
a. (-1, 3) b. (1, 4) c. (1, 4) d. none
11. If A = [-1 , 3) and B = (2, 4], then, A - B =
a. [-1, 2) b.[-1, 2] c. (-1, 2) d. none
12. Number of sub sets of any set containing n elements is
a. 3n b. 3n-2 c. 2n d. 2-n
13. If n( A) = 6, n(B) = 7, the maximum value of n(A È B) =
a. 1 b. 6 c. 7 d. 13
14. A = {p, q, r, s}, no. of sub sets of A are
a. 4 b. 8 c. 16 d. 256
15. No. of proper sub sets of any set which contains n elements is
a. 2n - 1 b. 2n - 2 c. 2n - 2 d. 2n - 3
16. How many proper subsets do you find the set {1, 2, 3}
a. 7 b. 8 c. 6 d. none
17. If A and B are two subsets of a universal set 'U' in which there are n (U) = 43, n (A) = 25, n(B) = 18 and n(A
Ç B) = 7, then, n ( A ∪ B)
a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9
18. In a city of 26000 populations, 5000 read English local news paper, 12000 read Nepali local newspaper
and 1000 read both, what % read neither English nor Nepali newspaper?
a. 38.44% b. 38.45% c. 38.46% d. 38.47%
19. In a certain survey, 73% of the people like to listen the radio, 85% like to watch the TV
and 65% like to listen the radio as well as to watch the TV. The % of the people who do
not like to listen the radio as well as watch the
a. 5% b. 6% c. 7% d. 8%
20. What is the multiplicative inverse of 9 ?
1 1 1
a. b. c. d. none
8 9 5
21. What is the additive inverse of y ?
-1
a. b. - y c. - (-y) d. none
y
22. The power set of a set A = { x, y}is
a. {x}, {y}. b. {f}, {x, y}. c. f, {x}, {y}. d. none of these
23. [2, 1) means
a. 2 £ x < 2 b. 2 < x < 1 c. 2 £ x < 1 d. 2 < x £ 1
24. If a, b, c, belongs to R, then, transivity property shows
a. a > b Þ a + c > b + c b. a > b and b > c Þ a > c
c. a > b Þ ac > bc, c > 0 d. a > b, a < b or a = b
25. The triangle inequality law for real numbers is

206 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. x + y > x + y b. x + y £ x + y
c. x + y ³ x + y d. x - y ³ x + y
26. If A = {0}, Write the cardinal no. of A
a. 1 b. 0 c. f d. a
27. The cardinal no. of the set {x : x is vowel in 'Mathematics}
a. 11 b. 4 c. 3 d. 8
28. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4,} and C = {1} which one is false?
a. C Ì A b. n(C) = 0
c. C = A - B d. C is singleton.
29. P = {a, b, c, d, e}, Q = {a, e, i, o, u}, Then
a. P and Q are overlapping b. P and Q are equivalent
c. P and Q are equal d. a and b both.
30. A = {x:1<x<0; x Î n} Then;
a. A is null set b. A is unit set
c. A is infinite set d. A = 0
31. P = {a, b, c, d}: Then , the no. of subsets of P are
a. 4 b. 8 c. 16 d. 5
32. If A contains n elements, the no. of proper subsets of A are
a. 2n b. 2n-1 c. 2n-2 d. 2n- 2
33. How many proper subsets exists in the set {2, 3, 4}?
a. 6 b. 8 c. 7 d. 2
34. If A = {a, b, c} Find n(S) if S is power set of A.
a. 6 b. 8 c. 7 d. 2
35. For two sets P and Q if n(P) = 7 and n(Q) = 8 Find; maximum n(PÇQ)
a. 0 b. 7 c. 11 d. 5
36. If n(A) = 6, n(B) = 5, the maximum value of n(AÈB) is
a. 1 b. 6 c. 11 d. 5
37. A and B are two subsets of a universal set U in which there are n(È) = 43, n(A) = 25,
n(B) = 18 and n(AÇB) = 7. Then find n(AÈB)c
a. 36 b. 17 c. 7 d. 0
38. In the survey of 60 students, 30 drink-milk, 25 drink curd and 10 drink both. find the no.
of students who drinks only one drink.
a. 20 b. 35 c. 15 d. 5
39. In a survey of a community 45% of the people like ' Dashain, 65% like 'Tihar" and 10%
do not like any festival. Find the percentage of people who like both festivals.
a. 20% b. 10% c. 25% d. 90%
40. 45 people were asked whether they like to drink tea or coffee, 16 like tea, 9 liked both while only
one did not like either. How many didn’t like coffee?
a. 7 b. 28 c. 16 d. 8
41. In an examination, out of 200 students 70 passed in English, 80 in Mathematics, 60 in
Nepali, 35 in English as well as in Maths, 25 in English as well as in Nepali, 35 in Nepali
as well as in Maths and 10 passed in all there subjects. Find the number of failed students
in all three subjects.
a. 105 b.75 c. 57 d.85

207 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 20. Matrix and Determinant

A set of mn numbers (real or imaginary) arrange in the form of a rectangular array of

m rows and n columns is called m × n matrix (to be read as m by n matrix)
An m × n matrix is usually written as

H&% H&& H&, ⋯ H&z ⋯ H&@

⎡ ⋮ ⋮ ⋮ ⎤
⋮ ⋮ ⋮ ⋮
⎢ ⋯ H<@ ⎥
` = ⎢ H<% H<& H<, ⋯ H<z ⎥
⎢ ⋮ ⋮ ⋮ ⋮ ⋮ ⋮ ⋮ ⎥
⎣HB% HB& HB, ⋯ HBz ⋯ HB@ ⎦

In compact from the above matrix is represented by ≠ = ÆØ{| ∞}×~ or ≠ = ÆØ{| ∞.

Types of Matrix
« Row Matrix: A matrix having only one row is called a row matrix or a row vector.
Example: [1 2 −1] is a row matrix of order 1 × 3.
« Column Matrix: A matrix having only one column is called column Matrix or a column
vector.
1 3
2
Example: ` = ± 2 ≤ H@e õ = ≥ ¥ are column matrices of order 3 ×1 and 4 × 1
5
−1 4
respectively.
« Square Matrix: A matrix in which the number of rows is equal to the number of column,
say n, is called a square matrix of order n. A square matrix of order n is also called n-
rowed square matrix. The elements aij of a square matrix A = [aij]m x n for which i = j,
i.e. the elements a11, a22, …. ann are called the diagonal elements.
2 1 −1
Example: ±3 −2 5 ≤ is square matrix of order 3 in which the diagonal elements
1 5 −3
are 2, –2 and –3.
« Diagonal Matrix: A square matrix A = [aij]n x n is called a diagonal matrix if all the
elements, except those in the leading diagonal, are zero. i.e. aij = 0 for all i ≠ j
1 0 0
Example: ` = ±0 2 0≤ is a diagonal matrix, to be denoted by A = diag [1, 2, 3].
0 0 3
« Scalar Matrix: A square matrix A = [aij]n x n is called scalar matric if aij = 0 for all I ≠ j
In other words, a diagonal matrix in which all the diagonal elements are equal is
called the scalar matrix.

208 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 1 − 2+ 0 0
Example: A=± 0 1 − 2+ 0 ≤ is scalar matrix of order 3.
0 0 1 − 2+
« Identity or Unit Matrix: A square matrix A = [aij]n x n is called an identity or unit matrix
if aij = 0 for all i ≠ j and aii = 1 for all i.
In other words a square matrix each of whose diagonal elements is unity and each of
whose non-diagonal elements is equal to zero is called an identity or unit matrix.
1 0 0
Example: W, = ±0 1 0≤ is identity matrix of order 3.
0 0 1
« Null Matrix: A matrix whose all elements are zero is called a null matrix or a zero matrix.
0 0
Example: R U is null matrix of order 2.
0 0
« Upper Triangular Matrix: A square A = [aij] is called an upper triangular matrix if aij for
all i > j
1 3 4
Example: ` = ±0 2 3≤ is an upper triangular matrix of order 3.
0 0 5
« Lower Triangular Matrix: A square A = [aij] is called an upper triangular matrix if aij
for all i < j
1 0 0
Example: ` = ±3 2 0≤ is a lower triangular matrix of order 3.
4 3 5
« Transpose of Matrix: Let [aij] be an m × n matrix. Then the transpose of A, denoted by
AT or A’, is an n × m matrix such that (AT)ij = aji for all i = 1, 2, …., n. Thus, AT is
obtained from A by changing its rows into column and its column into rows.
1 2 3 4 1 2 3
_ 2 3 2
Example: If ` = ±2 3 4 1≤ Oℎb@, ` = ≥ ¥
3 4 1
3 2 1 4
4 1 4
Properties of Transpose
Let A and B be two matrices. Then

ü ATT = A
ü (A + B)T = AT + BT, A and B being of the same order.
ü (kA)T = kAT, k be any scalar (Real or complex).
ü (AB)T = BT AT, A and B being comfortable for the product AB. (This is called the
reversal law)
« Symmetric Matrix: A square matrix A = [aij] is called symmetric matrix if aij = aji for all
ij.
3 −1 1
Example: ` = ±−1 2 5 ≤ is symmetric, because a12 = –1 = a21, a13 = 1 = a31,
1 5 −2
a23 =5 = a32.
Thus, a square matrix A is a symmetric matrix if AT = A.
« Skew Symmetric Matrix: A square matrix A = [aij] is a skew symmetric matrix if aij = –
aij for all i, j.
Example: Let A be a square matrix, then
A + AT is a symmetric matrix
A – AT is a skew symmetric matrix.
Determinants

209 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Every square matrix can be associated to an expression or number which is known as its
determinant. If A = [aij] is a square matrix of order n, then the determinant of A is
denoted by det A or | A | .
Determinant of a square matrix or order 1
If A = [a11] is a square matrix of order 1, then the determinant of A is defined as |A| = a11
or |a11| = a11.
Determinant of a square matrix of order 2.
H%% H%&
If ≠ = RH U is a square matrix of order 2, then the expression a12a22 – a12a21 is
&% H&&
defined as the determinant. i.e.
H%% H%&
|≠| = RH U or a12a22 – a12a21.
&% H&&
Thus the determinant of square matrix of order 2 is equal to the product of the diagonal
elements minus the product of off-diagonal elements.

Note: 1. Only square matrices have determinants. The matrices which are not
square do not have determinants.
2. The determinant of square matrix of order 3 can be expanded any row or
column.
3. If a row or column of a determinant consist of al zeros, then the value of
the determinant is zero.
« Singular Matrix: A square matrix is a singular matrix if its determinant is zero.
Otherwise, it is a non-singular matrix.

Practice Test
é1 2 3ù
1. If A = ê2 1 3ú then A =
ê ú
êë 3 2 1úû
é1 2 3 ù é1 2 2ù é1 2 3 ù é1 2 3ù
a. ê2 1 2ú b. ê1 2 3ú c. ê2 3 1ú d. ê2 3 2ú
ê ú ê ú ê ú ê ú
êë3 3 1úû ëê3 1 1 ûú êë3 1 2úû êë3 1 1úû
2. The size of the matrix [a b c d ] is
a. 1× 1 b. 1 × 4 c. 4 × 1 d. none
3. If the order of the matrix is 1 × 4, then the matrix is called.
a. row matrix b. column matrix c. square matrix d. none
4. If A, B, X are three matrices such that AX = B, then X =
B
a. b. BA - 1 c. A-1B d. AB-1
A
5. Which of the relation is wrong?
a. (AD)T = DTAT b. (A + B)T = AT + BT. c. (AB)T = ATBT d. (CA)T = CT AT
6. If A = (aij) is a 3 × 3 lower triangular matrix, then aij = o for
a. i < j b. i > j c. i ³ j d. i £ j
7. A(BC) = (AB)C, which property of matrix multiplication is this ?
a. Distributive b. Associative c. Commutative d. none
23 24 25
8. 25 26 27 =?
27 28 29
a. 0 b. 483 c. 29 d. 639
9. What is the value of A such that A2 - 2A - 5I = 0
é2 1ù é1 1ù é1 2ù é1 1ù
a. ê1 3ú b. ê3 2ú c. ê3 1ú d. ê2 3ú
ë û ë û ë û ë û
Where, I = identity matrix of 2 × 2 and O in null matrix 2 × 2

210 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 1 a bc
10. What is the value of 1 b ac
1 c ab
a. (b - a) (c - b) (a - c) b. (a - b) (b - c) (c - a)
c. (a - c) (b - c) (b + a) d. (a - b) (c - b) (c - a)
11. If A ¹ 0, then matrix A is
a. null matrix b. Singular matrix c. Non-singular matrix d. None.

12. If A is non-singular matrix, then A-1 =

A A
a. b. adj.A c. d. none
adj A A adj. A
13. What is the inverse matrix of ! 0 1 $ ?
# &
" 1 0 %
é0 1 ù é-1 0 ù é0 0 ù
a. ! 1 0 $ b. ê1 0ú c. ê 0 - 1ú d. ê0 0 ú
# & ë û ë û ë û
" 0 1 %
é2 -1ù
14. What type of matrix is this ê- 1 3 ú ?
ë û
a. Upper triangular b. Skew symmetric c. Symmetric d. Unit matrix
Chapter – 4
Logical Reasoning

1. Analogy

The meaning of analogy is ‘similar properties’ or similarity. If an object or word or

digit or activity shows any similarity with another object or word or digit or activity in
terms of properties, type, shape, size, trait etc., then the particular similarity will be called
analogy. For example, cricket : ground and chess: table are the analogous pairs (why?). In
fact, both pairs of words have similar relationship in terms of place of playing as cricket
is played in the ground and similarly chess is played on the table. In this chapter, we will
discuss different types of analogy because problems based on analogy are an important
category of questions to be asked in almost all examinations of competitive level.
Types of Analogy
1.1. Tool & Object Based Analogy
This establishes a relationship between a tool and the object in which it works.
Similar relations has to be discovered from answer choices.
Example: Scissors : Cloth
Saw : Wood
Eraser : Paper
1.2. Synonym Based Analogy
In such type of analogy two words have similar meaning.
Examples: Huge : Giganitc
Endless : Eternal
Notion : Idea
1.3. Worker and Tool bases Analogy

211 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 This establishes a relationship between a particular tool and the person of that
particular profession who uses that tool.
Example: Writer : Pen
Painter : Brush
Barber : Scissors
1.4. Worker and Product Based Analogy
This type of analogy gives a relationship between a person of particular profession
and his/her creations.
Examples: Writer : Book
Author : Novel
Poet : Poem
1.5. Causes & Effect Based Analogy
In such type of analogy 1st word acts and the 2nd word is the effect of that action.
Example: Work : Tiredness
Bath : Freshness
Shoot : Kill
1.6. Opposite Relationship (Antonym) Based Analogy
In such type of analogy the two words of the question pair are opposite in meaning.
Similar relations has to be discovered from the answer choice word pairs.
Examples: Poor : Rich
Fat : Slim
Tall : Short
1.7. Gender Based Analogy
In such type of analogy, one word is masculine and another word is feminine of it.
In fact, it is a ‘male and female’ or ‘sex’ relationship.
Example: Man : Women
Bull : Cow
Duck : Drake
1.8. Classification Based Analogy
This type of analogy is based on biological, physical, chemical or any other
classification. In such problems the 1st word may be classified by the 2nd word and
vice-versa.
Example: Oxygen : Gas
Water : Liquid
Snake : Reptile
1.9. Function Based Analogy
In such type of analogy, 2nd word describes the function of the 1st word.
Examples: Singer : Sings
Player : Plays
Surgeon : Operates
1.10. Quantity and Unit Based Analogy
In such type of analogy 2nd word is the unit of the first word and vice-versa.
Examples: Distance : Mile
Mass : Kilogram
Length : Meter
1.11. Finished Product & Raw Material Based Analogy
In such type of analogy the 1st word is the raw material and 2nd word is the end
product of that raw material and vice- versa.
Examples: Yarn : Fabric
Flour : Bread
212 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Latex : Rubber
1.12. Utility Based Analogy
In such type of analogy the 2nd word shows the purpose of the 1st word or vice-
versa.
Examples: Pen : Writing
Chair : Sitting
Bed : Sleeping
1.13. Symbolic Relationship Based Analogy
In such type of analogy, the 1st word is the symbol of the 2nd word and vice-versa.
Examples: White : Peace
Black : Sorrow
Red Cross : Hospital
1.14. Adult & Young One Based Analogy
In such type of analogy, the 1st word is the adult one and 2nd word is the young one
of the 1st word or vice-versa.
Examples: Cow : Calf
Human : Child
Dog : Puppy
1.15. Subject & Specialist Based Analogy
In such type of analogy the 2nd word is the specialist of 1st word (subject) or vice-
versa.
Examples: Heart : Cardiologist
Skin : Dermatologist
1.16. Habit Based Analogy
In this type of analogy 2nd word is the habit of 1st and vice- versa.
Examples: Cat : Omnivorous
Tiger : Carnivorous
Cow : Herbivorous
1.17. Instrument and Measurement Based Analogy
We see in this type of analogy, the 1st word is the instrument to measure the 2nd
word and vice-versa:
Examples: Hygrometer : Humidity
Barometer : Pressure
Sphygmomanometer : Blood Pressure
1.18. Individual & Group Based Analogy
Second word is the group of 1st word (or vice-versa) in such type of analogy.
Examples: Cow : Herd
Sheep : Flack
Grapes : Bunch
1.19. Analogy Based on Individual & Dwelling Place
In such type of analogy 1st word is the individual & 2nd word is the dwelling place
of that individual (1st word) and vice-versa.
Examples: Horse : Stable
Bee : Apiary
Dog : Kennel
1.20. Analogy Based on Worker and Working Place
In this type of analogy the 1st word represents a person of particular profession and
2nd word represents the working place of that person (1st word) and vice-versa.
Examples: Doctor : Hospital
Clerk : Office
213 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Cook : Kitchen
21. Analogy Based on Topic Study
1st word is the study of the 2nd word (or vice-versa) in the analogy like this.
Examples: Birds : Ornithology
Earth quakes : Seismology
Eggs : Zoology

Practice Test

1. BUTTER is to BREAD as BARK is to

a. HORSE b. TREE c. SKIN d. SHED
2. IF ESCORT is to VISITOR as a GUIDE is to
a. STUDENT b. DESTINATION c. MONUMENT c. SPORT
3. BIRD is to NEST as HORSE is to
a. RIDE b. MARE c. GALLOP d. STABLE
4. Choose a word from NEURTRAL from the following.
a. NOR b. NEW c. NEAT d. NOT
5. Tea and coffee, Bread and ..........
a. brick b. blood c. bones d. loaf
6. ......... and church, monk and monastery
a. Priest b. Brahamin c. Naiater d. None
7. Bed and Bedroom, Lock and .......
a. Spoun b. key c. bottle d. Almirach
8. Desert and camel, lion and .....
a. horse b. stable c. den d. stab
9. Cow and Calf, Kitten and .......
a. Cat b. Rat c. Crow d. None
10. Pen and ink, ink and .......
a. Stamp b. Pencil c. Pot d. Stamp
11. Three & four, Day and
a. five b. Week c. Night d. Noon
12. Time is to watch as pressure is to
a. hydrometer b. Lactometer c. Barometer d. Thermometer
13. Carpenter is to wood as tailor is to
a. machine b. scale c. cloth d. shop
14. Health is to sickness as happiness is to
a. health b. heart c. sadness d. cheerfulness
15. Refrigerator is to cool as oven is to
a. warm b. heat c. kitten d. cook
16. PAPER is to Book as brick is to
a. mason b. earth c. building d. ground
17. Rich is to poor healthy is to
a. fat b. man c. sick d. stout
1 1 8
18. is to as is to
4 8 8
1 1 1 3
a. b. c. d.
16 86 2 32
19. 'P' is to 'Q' as 'R' as to
a. "S" b. K c. D d. N
20. MICK is to white as slay is to
214 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. blue b. air c. green d. pink
21. Teacher is to student as doctor is to
a. hospital b. medicine c. patients d. dispensary
22. Food is to eat as water is to
a. fire b. flame c. smaller d. drink
23. Doctor : Disease :
a. Intern : medicine b. miser : gold
c. Theft : punishment d. sheriff : crime
24. play : director
a. store : manager b. theater : scenery
c. Newspaper : editor d. class : teacher
25. Tree is to Root as smoke is to ?
a. Cigarette b. Fire c. Heat d. Chimney
26. If LIGHT is coded as LJUIT, then code FLAMES.
a. FMANET b. FAMENT c. NEFAMT d. MEFANT
27. Earth is to Axis as wheel is to ?
a. Tire b. Road c. car d. Hub
28. Intelligent is to clever as Dull is to ?
a. Slow b. Foolish c. Idiot d. Cunning
29. Well: Depth :: Word:?
a. Sentence b. Meaning c. Syllable d. Height
30. Rough : Smooth :: Depression: ?
a. Hill b. Mound c. Mountain d. Plane
31. Husk : Rice :: Shell :?
a. Apple b. Bean c. Egg d. Pearl
32. Petal : Flower :: Chapter:?
a. Title b. Verse c. Paragraph d. Book
33. Thermal :Hyde :: Coal : ?
a. Hydrometer b. Water c. Tidal d. Energy
34. Helm : Rudder:: Captain : ?
a. Navigator b. Stern c. Starboard d. Machine
35. Leonine: Lion:: Lupine : ?
a. Wolf b. Capital c. Canal d. Fowl
36. Finger : Digital :: Hand :?
a. Manual b. Heady c. Nosy d. Sedentary
37. Fissiparous : Oviparous :: Division : ?
a. Owl b. Egg c. Airway d. Unification
38. Milk : Cream :: Paddy :?
a. Husk b. Rice c. Field d. Barn
39. Paragraph : Prose :: Stanza : ?
a. Play b. Verse c. Metro d. Rhythm
40. President : India :: King : ?
a. England b. China c. Jordan d. France
41. Sanctuary : Lion :: Fish : ?
a. School b. Ocean c. Aviary d. Herd
42. River : Canal :: Glacier : ?
a. Snow b. Mountain c. Pond d. River
43. Ornithologist : Bird :: Anthropologist :?
a. Animals b. Mankind c. Minerals d. Insects
44. Step : Staircase :: Soldier : ?
a. Army b. Rifle c. war d. Bravery
45. Ancient : Modern :: Often : ?
a. Seldom b. Always c. Frequent d. Never
46. Circle : Sphere :: Wheel : ?

215 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. Jet Plane b. Triangle c. Hell d. Orange
47. Open : Secretive :: Forthright : ?
a. Toll b. Detective c. Snide d. Best
48. Affirm : Hint :: Charge :?
a. Convince b. Deny c. Reject d. Insinuate
49. Abdication : Throne :: Resignation : ?
a. Deterioration b. Dust c. Contest d. Light
50. Desiccate : Moisture :: Darken : ?
a. Deterioration b. Dust c. Contest d. Light
51. Headlong : Forethought :: Barefaced : ?
a. Shamed b. Emotion c. Talent d. Ambition
52. Agoraphobia: Ocean :: Gynophobia : ?
a. Liquor b. Dogs c. Closed space d. Fire
53. Hand : Nail :: Paw : ?
a. Claw b. Hair c. Toe d. Thumb
54. Woodman : Axe : : Carpenter :?
a. Gun b. Wrench c. Prescription d. Saw
55. Assist : Save :: Request : ?
a. Decry b. Oppose c. Aid d. Command
56. Water : Liquid :: Air : ?
a. Breadth b. Gas c. Atmosphere d. Vapour
57. Cat : Rat :: Lizard : ?
a. Crocodile b. Fly c. Crow d. Nectar
58. Marriage : Celebrate :: Bereavement : ?
a. Punishment b. Failure c. Lament d. Gloom
59. Narrow: Wide :: Thin : ?
a. Lean b. Thick c. Tall d. Short
60. Light : Rays :: Sound : ?
a. Audio b. Waves c. Hear d. Pitch
61. Garage : Motor Car :: Aero plane : ?
a. Stand b. Workshop c. Hanger d. Dock
62. Gold : Goldsmith :: Leather : ?
a. Cleaner b. Painter c. Cobbler d. Butcher
63. NAMO : OCPS :: GODS : ?
a. HQES b. HQRT c. HPFZ d. HQGW
64. Waiting : Boredom :: Education : ?
a. Schooling b. Books c. Enthusiasm d. Enlightenment
65. Laborer : Wages :: Entrepreneur : ?
a. Profit b. Proprietorship c. Debt d. salary
66. Teaching : Learning :: Treatment : ?
a. Doctor b. Cure c. Medicine d. Wound
67. Player : Team :: Ship : ?
a. Sea b. Water c. Fleet d. Harbor
68. Angry : Night :: Day : ?
a. Helpful b. Kind c. Pleased d. Loving
69. Leader : Follower :: Captain : ?
a. Solider b. Game c. Ship d. Army
70. Knee : Wrist :: Elbow : ?
a. Foot b. Fingers c. Ankle d. Hand
71. Intelligent : Clever :: Dull : ?
a. Cunning b. Idiot c. Slow d. Foolish
72. Bud : Flower :: Fruit : ?
a. Flower b. Seed c. Test d. Twig
73. Strain : Train :: Stable : ?

216 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. Able b. Bales c. Table d. Lab
74. Yen : Japan :: Ruble : ?
a. USA b. UK c. GDR d. None of all
75. Tolerance : Patience :: Perseverance : ?
a. Competence b. Guidance c. Diligence d. Somnolence
76. Flower : Fruit :: Fruit : ?
a. Leaf b. Vegetable c. Seed d. Plant
77. Vicarious : Actual :: Chagrin : ?
a. Spacious b. Intolerance c. Exaggerated d. Complacency
78. Doltish : Stupid :: Halcyon : ?
a. Cooperation b. Peaceful c. Clothes d. Calm
79. Intelligence : Idiot :: Water : ?
a. Wealthy b. Erudite c. Desert d. Lackadaisical
80. Didactic : Moralize :: Callow : ?
a. Terrorize b. Rationalize c. Dramatize d. Plagiarize
81. Strategist : Campaign :: Tactician : ?
a. Paint b. Motivate c. Disorder d. Battle
82. Love : Admiration :: Ecstasy : ?
a. Thrash b. Happiness c. Complex d. Break
83. Board : Trustees :: Faggot : ?
a. Convicts b. Tanks c. Sticks d. Vehicles
84. Convict : Prison :: Cow : ?
a. Byre b. Clinic c. Stable d. Coventry
85. Nightingales : Warble :: Thrushes : ?
a. Howl b. Bleat c. Whistle d. Squeak
86. Silly : Bitter :: Goose : ?
a. Tiger b. Coward c. Cricket d. Gall
87. Radio : Listener :: Film : ?
a. Broadcast b. Critic c. Actor d. Viewer
88. Man : Baby :: Flower : ?
a. Bud b. Seed c. Fruit d. Butterfly
89. Candle : Wax :: Paper : ?
a. Wood b. Tree c. Bamboo d. Pulp
90. Glow : River :: Stagnant : ?
a. Canal b. Stream c. River d. Pool
91. Professor : Lecture :: Doctor : ?
a. Hospital b. Disease c. Medicine d. Patient
92. Horse : Neigh :: Jackal : ?
a. Squeak b. Chatter c. Howl d. Bray
93. Ink : Pen :: Blood : ?
a. Donation b. Vein c. Accident d. Doctor
94. Planet : Orbit :: Projectile : ?
a. Trajectory b. Track c. Milky Way d. path
95. Oceans : Deserts :: Waves : ?
a. Sea b. Dust c. Sand dunes d. Ripples
96. King : Throne :: Rider : ?
a. Seat b. Horse c. Saddle d. Chair
97. Ocean: Water :: Glacier : ?
a. Refrigerator b. Ice c. Mountain d. cave
98. Harp : Drum :: Flute : ?
a. Violin b. Bugle c. Harmonium d. Piano
99. Bread : Yeast :: Curd : ?
a. Fungi b. Bacteria c. Germs d. Virus
100. Glucose : Carbohydrate :: Soyabean : ?

217 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. Proteins b. Vitamins c. Minerals d. legumes
101 Line : Square :: Arc : ?
a. Ring b. Sphere c. Circle d. Ball
102. Fruit : Banana :: Mammal : ?
a. Cow b. Snake c. Fish d. sparrow
103. Rat : Cat :: Worm : ?
a. Fishing b. Earth c. Bird d. Silk
104. Earth : Sun :: Moon : ?
a. Orbit b. Sky c. Star d. Earth
105. Bank : Money :: Transport : ?
a. Goods b. Road c. Traffic d. Speed
106. Ship : Sea :: Camel : ?
a. Forest b. Land c. Mountain d. Desert
107. Walking : Running :: Smiling : ?
a. Feeling b. Laughing c. Face d. Weeping
108. Eye : Wink :: Heart : ?
a. Move b. Throb c. Pump d. Quiver
109. Sorrow : Death :: Happiness : ?
a. Love b. Dance c. Cry d. Birth
110. Physician : Treatment :: Judge : ?
a. Court b. Judgement c. Lawyer d. Punishment
111. Breeze : Cyclone :: Drizzle : ?
a. Earthquake b. Storm c. Flood d. Downpour
112. Ocean : Pacific :: Island : ?
a. Greenland b. Ireland c. Netherlands d. Borneo
113. Deep : Shallow :: Freedom : ?
a. Prison b. Discipline c. Convict d. Democracy
114. Head : Cap :: Finger : ?
a. Glove b. Thimble c. Nail d. Thumb
115. Quack : Duck :: Bellows : ?
a. Cat b. Frog c. Bull d. Fox
116. Wax : Wane :: Zenith : ?
a. Nadir b. Bottom c. Fall d. Depth
117. Major : Battalion :: Colonel : ?
a. Company b. Regiment c. Army d. Soldiers
118. Wrist :Elbow :: Ankle : ?
a. Heel b. Fingers c. Foot d. Knee
119. Book: Critic :: Building : ?
a. Engineer b. Contractor c. Weighed d. Appraiser
120. Cub : Lion :: Colt : ?
a. Doe b. Stag c. Leopard d. Stallion
121. Court : Justice :: School : ?
a. Teacher b. Student c. Ignorance d. Education
122. Import : Export :: Expenditure : ?
a. Deficit b. Revenue c. Debt d. Tax
123. Hill : Mountain :: Stream : ?
a. River b. Canal c. Glacier d. Avalanche
124. Market : Demand:: Farming : ?
a. Farmer b. Monsoons c. Food grain d. Supply
125. Video : Cassette :: Computer : ?
a. Reels b. Recordings c. Files d. Floppy
126. Snake : Fang :: Bee : ?
a. Honey b. Hive c. Wax d. Sting
127. Command : Order :: Confusion : ?

218 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. Discipline b. Clarity c. Chaos d. Problem
128. Quartz : Radio :: Gypsum : ?
a. Glass b. Porcelain c. Cement d. Powder
129. Needle : Clock :: wheel: ?
a. Walk b. Road c. Vehicle d. Driving
130. Atom : Matter : Particle : ?
a. Proton b. Electron c. Molecule d. Dust
131. Cruel : Regressed :: Planet : ?
a. Sharp b. Alertness c. Interest d. Shrewd
132. Novice : Learner :: Harbinger : ?
a. Messenger b. Thief c. Pickpocket d. Robber
133. Cringe : Fear :: Yawn : ?
a. Worry b. Anger c. Reaction d. Boredom
134. Deuce : Tennis :: Gogol : ?
a. Football b. Cricket c. Hockey d. Polo
135. 4:36::6: ?
a. 63 b. 2 c. 44 d. 54
136. 11:35::17: ?
a. 14 b. 26 c. 3 d. 18
137. 11 :101::73: ?
a. 703 b. 730 c.770 d. 707
138. 7:28::2: ?
a. 16 b. 8 c. 20 d. 14
139. 1:11::2: ?
a. 33 b. 11 c. 22 d.44
140. 78:56::72: ?
a. 14 b. 28 c. 27 d. 64
141. 121:12::25: ?
a. 6 b. 2 c. 7 d.1
142. 25:125::36: ?
a. 180 b. 216 c. 206 d. 318
143. 48:122::168: ?
a. 215 b. 225 c. 290 d. 292
144. 7:56::9: ?
a. 90 b. 80 c. 91 d.95
145. 9:8::16: ?
a. 27 b. 18 c. 91 d. 15
146. 8:81::64: ?
a. 125 b. 625 c. 216 d. 225
147. 18:30:36: ?
a. 56 b. 66 c. 70 d.75
148. 25:37::49: ?
a. 41 b. 56 c. 60 d. 65
149. 68:130::350: ?
a. 222 b.210 c. 216 d. 220
150. 14:19::21: ?
a. 24 b. 20 c. 26 d. 27
151. 42:63::84: ?
a. 128 b. 127 c. 124 d. 129
152. 17:52::1: ?
a. 6 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
153. 1:1::10: ?
a. 100 b. 64 c. 81 d. 121
154. 25: 20::44: ?

219 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. 30 b. 32 c. 64 d. 70
155. 19:39:: 42: ?
a. 85 b. 80 c. 90 d. 95
156. 6:222::7: ?
a. 210 b.336 c. 350 d. 343
157. 22:16::32: ?
a. 22 b. 21 c. 24 d. 25
158. 20:11::102: ?
a. 52 b. 50 c. 60 d. 64
159. 3:243::5: ?
a. 425 b. 465 c. 546 d. 3125
160. 42:6::61: ?
a. 4 b. 5 c. 7 d. 8
161. 42:56::110: ?
a. 132 b. 140 c. 130 d.135
162. 5:124::7: ?
a. 334 b. 342 c. 343 d. 350
163. 275:264::891: ?
a. 121 b.426 c. 464 d. 844
164. 2002:3003::7007: ?
a. 4040 b. 1001 c. 6060 d. 8800
165. 541:10::721: ?
a. 10 b. 12 c. 14 d. 8
166. 9876: 4321::8765: ?
a. 9867 b. 5432 c. 7645 d. 4231
167. 422: 824::632: ?
a. 623 b. 236 c. 326 d.362
168. 1010:20::4030: ?
a. 60 b. 50 c. 70 d. 80
169. 4943: 43:: 6957: ?
a. 97 b. 65 c. 67 d. 76
170. 473: 573 :: 1000: ?
a. 1100 b. 1200 c. 1300 d. 1400
171. 0.16: 0.0016 ::102: ?
a. 0.0102 b. 0.102 c. 1.020 d. 10.20
172. 335: 216::987: ?
a. 867 b. 868 c. 872 d. 888
173. 423: 24 :: 621: ?
a. 20 b. 25 c. 12 d. 14
174. 9842: 8294:: 2967: ?
a.9726 b. 2769 c. 7692 d.7962
175. 8641:9550 ::7453:
a. 8362 b. 8632 c. 8564 d. 6342
176. 4253: 815 :: 1456: ?
a. 500 b. 430 c. 440 d. 450
177. 8040: 200 :: 9030: ?
a. 200 b. 100 c. 300 d. 400
178. 6482: 20:: 7861: ?
a. 20 b. 30 c. 22 d. 24
2. Classification (Odd Man Out)

When we come to solve the reasoning part while preparing for any competitive
examination of objective nature. We find that the problems based on classification are

220 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 the very important segment. You can see such questions in every question paper and
this is the reason why examinees are advised to be well aware of classification part of
reasoning. In this chapter, efforts have been made to make, examinees of various
objective competitive examinations, fully aware of reasoning based on classification.
What Is Classification?
You must have in your mind that what does classification mean. In fact, in
classification we take out an element out of some given elements and the element to
be taken out is different from the rest of the elements in terms of common properties,
shapes, sizes, types, nature, colours, traits etc. In this way the rest of the elements
form a group and the element that has been taken out is not the member of that group
as this single element does not possesses the common quality to be possessed by rest
of the elements. For example, if we compare the elements like, lion, cow, tiger,
panther, bear and wolf then we find that this is a group of animals. How do we classify
them? To understand this let us see the presentation given below:-
Lion Cow Tiger Panther Bear Wolf

Wild Domestic Wild Wild Wild Wild

Animal. Animal Animal Animal Animal Animal
Here, if we want to separate out one animal then definitely that animal will be cow
because cow is the only animal in the group which is a domestic animal. Rest of the
animals (Lion, Tiger, Panther, Bear and Wolf) are wild animals. Hence rest of the
animals (Lion, Tiger, Panther, Bear & Wolf) form a group of wild animals separating
out the domestic animal (Cow)
Similarly, out of 6 letters A, M, N, U, P & Q, we will take out A and form a group
of 5 letters M, N, U, P & Q because out of given six letters only A is a vowel while
rest of the letters form a group of consonants.
Types of Classification
« Letter/Meaningless Word-Based Classification
Such classifications are based on letters of English alphabet. So many groups of letters
are given in the question in which one group is different from remaining groups and
hence the different group will be our answer.
Example: Find the odd word out of the following options.
a. PQT b. UVY c. DEH d. IJN
Sol.: As it is clear that except option (d) all the other options have 2 letters gap
between 2nd and third letters and the 1st two letters are in consecutive order. While
in case of option (d) 1st two letters are in consecutive order but there is 3 letters gap
between 2nd and third letter separating it out of the remaining group of the letters.
Hence option (d) is the correct option.
« Meaningful Words Based Classification
In such type of classification, we have to take odd word out of the given group of
meaningful words.
Example: Out of the 5 words given below, four have certain thing common and so
they form a group. Find out the word which one is not a part of that group.
a. Slim b. Trims c. Greets d. Grid.

221 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Sol.: Option (c) is the correct option because this is the only option which has two
vowels while the other options have only one vowel.
« Digit Based Classification
In such type of classifications digits or numbers are given to find out one number that
is not a part of the group of remaining numbers.
Example: Find the odd number out.
a.122 b. 128 c. 199 d. 200
Sol.: Option(c) is the correct option because this is an odd number while all the other
options are even numbers.
Example: Four of the following numbers have some similarity and hence they form
a group. Find out the number which does not suit in the group.
a. 7822 b. 7562 c. 7122 d. 8952
Option (d) is the correct answer as except option (e) all other options start with 7 &
end with 2.
« General Knowledge Based Classification
Such classification is done on the basis of our general knowledge. No doubts that this
is a word based classification but without having general knowledge this type of
questions can not be solved.
Example: Find the odd man out.
a. Cat b. Dog c. Tiger c. Octopus
Sol.: Option (d) is the correct option as this is the only animal out of given options
which is a water animal. Rest of the options are land animals.

Practice Test

1. Find the odd one out.

3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 17
a. 3 b. 9 c. 12 d. 17
2. Find out the odd one out
64, 49, 625, 576, 121, 52
a. 64 b. 625 c. 576 d. 52
3. Pick out the stranger.
a. ACEGI b. SUWYA c. LJNPR d. BDFHJ
4. Spot the stranger.
a. Now b. If c. By d. And
5. Find the odd-one out.
a. Help b. co - operate c. Encourage d. Relieve
6. Find the odd-one out.
a. Beer b. tea c. coffee d. milk
7. Find the odd one out.
a. 729 b. 72 c. 64 d. 27
8. a. Thermosphere b. Stratosphere c Exosphere d. Ionosphere
9. a. Grass b. Amaranthus c. Oats d. Chnopodium
10. a. Santhals b. Khonds c. Bhotias d. Dogri
11. a. Ode b. Lyric c. Epic d. Limerick
222 A Complete Solution For CMAT
12. a. Metre b. Acre c. Furlong d. Mile
13. a. Garo b. Khasi c. Kangara d. Jaintia
14. a. Pupil b. Iris c. Corona d. Medulla
15. a. Sepals b. Bud c. Filament d. Pistil
16. a. Mandible b. Rib c. Ulna d. Pinna
17. a. Sucrose b. Ptyalin c. Amylase d. Lipase
18. a. Rat b. Squirrel c. Mongoose d. Mole
19. a. Birbal b. Abul Fazal c. Tansen d. Faiz Ahmed
20. a. Lima b. Algiers c. New York d. Beijing
21. a. Dynamics b. Mechanics c. Electronics d. Physics
22. a. Laos b. India c. Nepal d. Bolivia
23. a. Sleet b. Fog c. Hilstone d. Vapour
24. a. Tulsidas b. Sheridan c. Kalidas d. Shakespeare
25. a. Madagascar b. Thailand c. Cuba d. Tasmania
26. a. Rival b. Spouse c. Partner d. Colleague
27. a. Sahara b. Thar c. Gobi d. Sunderban
28. a. Euphrates b. Hwang Ho c. Amazon d. Indus
29. a. Polar Bear b. Yak c. Reinder d. Leopard
30. a. Grapes b. Pineapple c. Cashew d. Orange
31. a. December b. March c. February d. May
32. a. Blaze b. Glint c. Simmer d. Shimmer
33. a. Love b. Clasp c. Cuddle d. Nestle
34. a. Ant b. Bee c. Moth d. Spider
35. a. Raid b. Attack c. Assault d. Defense
36. a. Biscuits b. Chocolate c. Cake d. Bread
37. a. Kennel b. House c. Stable d Aviary
38. a. Wheat b. Paddy c. Jowar d. Mustard
39. a. Apple b. Mango c. Potato d. Orange
40. a. Chair b. Bench c. Table d. Stool
41. a. Titan b. Mercury c. Earth d. Jupiter
42. a. Walk b. Run c. Ride d. Crawl
43. a. Bake b. Boil c. Freeze d. Simmer
44. a. Snake b. Whale c. Crocodile d. Lizard
45. a. Gallon b. Ton c. Quintal d. Kilogram
46. a. Blade b. Axe c. Scissors d. Needle
47. a. Kiwi b. Ostrich c. Eagle d. Penguin
48. a. quare b. Rectangle c. Triangle d. Cube
49. a. Bomdila b. Lhasa c. Nathula d. Shipkila
50. a. Breathing b. Swimming c. Dancing d. Playing
51. a. Teacher b. Principal c. Student d. Lecturer
52. a. Intimacy b. Enmity c. Attachment d. Friendship
53. a. Thyroxine b. Adrenalin c. Iodine d. Insulin
54. a. Brook b. Bridge c. Stream d. Canal
55. a. Fear b. Anger c. Sober d. Love
56. a. Wages b. Honorarium c. Pocket Money d. Salary
57. a. Olympus b. Apollo c. Nataraj d. Diana
58. a. Mansion b. Apartment c. Garage d. Villa
59. a. Tiger b. Cow c. Cheetah d. Leopard
60. a. Hypothesis b. Assumption c. Observation d. Experiment
61. a. Raft b. Chariot c. Sledge d. Cart
62. a. Mermaid b. Sphinx c. Unicorn d. Dinosaur
63. a. Green b. Violet c. Red d. Yellow
223 A Complete Solution For CMAT
64. a. Lake b. River c. Winds d. Current
65. a. Pharynx b. Bronchiole c. Auricle d. Alveoli
66. a. Looks b. Beauty c. Character d. Cuteness
67. a. Astonished b. Pleased c. Astounded d. Flabbergasted
68. a. 27 b.125 c. 343 d.1321
69. a. 21 b. 39 c. 51 d. 83
70. a. 145 b. 197 c. 257 d. 399
71. a. 324 b. 244 c. 136 d. 352
72. a. 15 b. 63 c. 143 d. 257
73. a. 35 b. 49 c. 50 d. 63
74. a. 385 b. 572 c. 671 d. 427
75. a. 2384 b. 1592 c. 3756 d. 3629
76. a. 120 b. 168 c. 290 d. 380
77. a. 3759 b. 2936 c. 6927 d. 4836
78. a. 5698 b. 7894 c. 9865 d. 8793
79. a. 7359 b. 1593 c. 9175 d. 3781
80. a. 126 b. 217 c. 345 d. 513
81. a. 325 b. 236 c. 178 d. 639
82. a. 3740 b. 4635 c. 5869 d. 7946
83. a. 13 b. 17 c. 23 d. 37
84. a. 263 b. 111 c. 242 d. 383
85. a. 5698 b. 4321 c. 7963 d. 8579
86. a. 7487 b. 5963 c. 8218 d. 6596
87. a. 57 b. 87 c. 131 d. 133
88. a. 1532 b. 8749 c. 4268 d. 5846
89. a. 7851 b. 6431 c. 5789 d. 1325
90. a. 121 b. 137 c. 153 d. 177
91. a. 27 b. 64 c. 125 d. 144
92. a. 11 b. 13 c. 15 d. 17
93. a. 10 b. 11 c. 15 d. 16
94. a. 1236 b. 2346 c. 4566 d.5686
95. a. 7 b. 15 c. 31 d. 57
96. a. 144 b. 168 c. 196 d. 256
97. a. 2 b. 16 c. 56 d. 128
98. a. 29 b. 85 c. 147 d. 125 e. 53
99. a. Crow b. Vulture c. Bat d. Ostrich e. Eagle
100. a. 226 b. 290 c. 360 d. 170 e. 122
101. a. Arrow b. Sword c. Knife d. Axe e. Pistol
102. a. Producer b. Director c. Entrepreneur d. Finance e. Entrepreneur
103. a. Jackal b. Leopard c. Tiger d. Lion e. Dog
104. a. 131 b. 151 c. 181 d. 171 e. 161
105. a. Anxiety b. Anger c. Sorrow d. Joy e. Feeling
106. a. 170 b. 226 c. 120 d. 290 e. 362
107. a. ISLOJ b. LUOQM c. AKDGB d. FPILG e. NXQTO
108. a. Pear b. Jackfruit c. Watermelon d. Papaya e. Mango
109. a. Swan b. Crocodile c. Frog d. Snake e. Chicken
110. a. PY8 b. EK5 c. RV3 d. DG2 e. JR6

224 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 3. Series Completion

A series is a sequence of numbers/alphabetical letters or both which follow a

particular rule. Each element of series is called ‘term’. We have to analyse the pattern
and find the missing term or next term to continue the pattern.
Number Series
Number series is a form of numbers in a certain sequence, where some numbers are
mistakenly put into the series of numbers and some number is missing in that series,
we need to observe first and then find the accurate number to that series of numbers.
Different types of Number Series–
« Perfect square series
This type of series are based on square of a number which is in same order and one
square number is missing in that given series.
Example: 841, ?, 2401, 3481, 4761
Solution: 292, 392, 452, 592, 692
« Perfect cube series
Perfect cube series is a arrangement of numbers is a certain order, where some number
which is in same order and one cube is missing in that given series.
Example: 4096, 4913, 5832, ?, 8000
Solution: 163, 173, 183, 193, 203
« Mixed number series
Mixed number series is a arrangement of numbers in a certain order. This type of
series are more than are different order which arranged in alternatively in single series
or created according to any non conventional rule.
Example: 1, 111, 220, 438, ?, 1746.
At first you can calculate missing number in mixed series and that you place the
actual missing number in the ? or missing place. Be prepared when you calculate
differences because it is either one or two step calculation. So when you calculate and
get two difference numbers result you need follow some step wise.
This kind the missing series calculation you go thorough some common
calculation shortcut tricks square of division, cube, addition, multiplication.
Example: 6, ?, 33, 69, 141, 285
Solution: × 2 + 3, ×2 + 3, ×2 + 3, ×2 + 3, ×2 + 3, ×2 + 3
Example: 4, 16, 64, 256, 1024, ?
Solution: Multiply each number by 4 to get the next number.
4 × 4 = 16
16 × 4 = 64
64 × 4 = 256 256 × 4 = 1024 1024 × 4 = 4096
Geometric Series
Geometric Number series is a arrangement of numbers in a certain order, where some
numbers are this type of series are based on ascending or descending order of numbers
and each continues number is obtain by multiplication or division of the previous
number with a static number.
In geometric series number is a combination of number arranged.
225 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Example: 5, 45, 405, 3645, ?
At first calculate the first number 5 with 9 and second number value we get that is 45
then again second number calculate multiply with 9 and get the third number and
follow same steps which is carry up to last and after that you get actual missing
number by finding the common value when you put the missing number you have
noticed that all series numbers are common 9 which multiply with number and get
next number difference.
Example: 21, 84, 336, ?, 5376
Solution: 21 × 4 = 84 84 × 4 = 336
336 × 4 = 1344 1344 × 4 = 5376
« Prime series :
In which the terms are the prime numbers in order
Example: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, __ , 19
Solution: Here the terms of the series are the prime numbers in order. The prime
number after 13 is 17. So the answer to this question is 17.
« Alternate Primes :
It can be explained by below examples
Example: 2, 11, 17, 13, __, 41
Solution: Here the series is framed by taking the alternative prime numbers. After 23,
the prime number are 29 and 31. So the answer is 31.
« The difference of any term from its succeding term is constant (either increasing series
or decreasing series):
Example: 4, 7, 10, 13, 16, 19, __, 25
Solution: Here the difference of any term from its succeeding term is 3.
7–4=3
10 – 7 = 3 so, the answer is 19 + 3 = 22
« The difference between two consecutive terms will be either increasing or decreasing
by a constant number:
Example: 2, 10, 26, 50, 82, __
Solution: Here, the difference between two consecutive terms are
10 – 2 = 8 26 – 10 = 16
50 – 26 = 24 82 – 50 = 32
Here, the difference is increased by 8 (or you can say the multiples of 8). So the next
difference will be 40 (32 + 8). So, the answer is 82 + 40 = 122
« The difference between two numbers can be multiplied by a constant number:
Example: 15, 16, 19, 28, 55, __
Solution: Here, the differences between two numbers are
16 – 15 = 1 19 – 16 = 3
28 – 19 = 9 55 – 28 = 27
Here, the difference is multiplied by 3. So, the next difference will be 81. So, the
answer is 55 + 81 = 136
« The difference can be multiples by number which will be increasing by a constant
number:
Example: 2, 3, 5, 11, 35, __
Solution: The difference between two number are
3 – 2 =1 5 – 3 =2
11 – 5 = 6 35 – 11 = 24
« Every third number can be the sum of the preceding two numbers :
Example: 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, __
Solution: Here starting from third number
226 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 3+5=8 5 + 8 = 13
8 + 13 = 21
So, the answer is 13 + 21 = 34
« Every Third number can be the product of the preceeding two numbers :
Example: 1, 2, 2, 4, 8, 32. __
Solution: Here starting from the third number
1× 2 = 2 2×2=4
2×4=8 4 × 8 = 32
So, the answer is 8 × 32 = 256

« Every succeeding term is got by multiplying the previous term by a constant number
or numbers which follow a special pattern.
Example: 5, 15, 45, 135, __
Solution: 5 × 3 = 15 15 × 3 = 45
45 × 3 = 135
So, the answer is 135 × 3 = 405
« In certain series the terms are formed by various rule (miscellaneous rules). By keen
observation you have to find out the rule and the appropriate answer.
Example: 4, 11, 31, 90, __
Solution: 4 × 3 – 1 = 11 11 × 3 – 2 = 31
31 × 3 – 3 = 90
So, the answer will be 90 × 3 – 4 = 266
Types of Questions:
« Complete the series
ü Which of the following is the next term of series given below ?
4, 6, 9, 13, ....
a.17 b. 18 c. 19 d. 20
Solution: b.

4 6 9 13 18 correct answer

+2 +3 +4 +5
ü Choose the next term of series given below. 64, 32, 16, 8, ?
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4
Solution: d. Each number is half of its previous number.
« To find the missing number of series :
ü What will come in place of question mark in the following series?
79, 87, ? , 89, 83
a. 80 b. 81 c. 82 d. 88
Solution: b.
79 87 81 89 83

+8 –6 +8 –6
ü What will come in place of question mark in the following series?
37, 41, ? , 47, 53
a. 42 b. 43 c. 46 d. 44
Solution: b. Consecutive prime numbers.
ü What will come in place of question mark in the following series?
21, 34, ? , 89, 144
227 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 43 b. 55 c. 64 d. 71
Solution: b. Each number is the sum of the two preceding numbers.
21 + 34 = 55 34 + 55 = 89 55 + 89 = 144
« To find the wrong term in the series:
Example: Find the wrong term in the series
3, 8, 15, 24, 34, 48, 63.
a. 15 b. 15 c. 34 d. 63
2 2 2 2 2
Solution: c. 2 – 1, 3 – 1, 4 – 1, 5 – 1, 6 – 1
« Examples On Alphabetic Series
ü What will come in place of question mark in the following series?
G, H, J, M, ?
a. R b. S c. Q d. P
Solution: c.
G H J M Q

+1 +2 +3 +4
ü What will come in place of question mark in the following series?
BF, CH, ? , HO, LT
a. FG b. EK c. CE d. FJ
Solution: b.

+2 +3 +4 +5
BF CH EK HO LT

+1 +2 +3 +4
« Examples On Alpha-Numeric Series
ü What will come in place of question mark in the following series?
K 1, M 3, P 5, T 7, ?
a. Y 9 b. Y 11 c. V 9 d. V 11
Solution: a. Alphabets follow the sequence
K M P T Y

+2 +3 +4 +5
ü What will come in place of question mark in the following series?
2 Z 5, 7 Y 7, 14 X 9, 23 W 11, 34 V 13, ?
Solution: First number is the sum of the number of the preceeding term.
Middle letter is moving one step backward.
Third number in a term is a series of odd numbers.
∴ 6th term = 47 U 15.
« Examples On Mixed Series
ü Complete the series Z,L,X,J,V,H,T,F,__,__
a. D, R b. R, D c. D, D d. R, R
Solution: b. The given sequence consists of two series
(i) Z, X, V, T, __
(ii) L, J, H, F, __. Both consisting of alternate letters in the reverse order.
∴ Next term of (i) series = R, and Next term of (ii) series = D
ü What will come in place of question mark in the following series?
7, 5, 26, 17, 63, 37, 124, 65, ?, ?
a. 101, 215 b. 101, 101 c. 215, 101 d. 215, 215
228 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Solution: c. The given series consists of two series
I.7, 26, 63, 124 ……
II. 5, 17, 37, 65 ….
In the first series, 7 = 23 – 1, 26 = 33 – 1, 63 = 43 – 1 , 124 = 53 – 1,
∴ 63 – 1 = 215
and in the second series. 5 = 22 + 1, 17 = 42 + 1,
37 = 62 + 1, 65 = 82 + 1,
∴ 102+1=101
« Examples On Letter Series
ü Which sequence of letters when placed at the blanks one after another will complete
the given letter series? baab–aba–bba– –
a. bbaa b. aaaa c. abab d. baba
Solution: d. baabba/baabba/ba.

Practice Test

Directions (Qs. 1-15): In each of these questions a number series is given. Only
one number is wrong in each series. You have to find out the wrong number.
1. 10, 15, 24, 35, 54, 75, 100
a. 35 b. 75 c. 24 d. 15 e. 54
2. 1, 3, 4, 7, 11, 18, 27, 47
a. 4 b. 11 c. 18 d. 7 e. 27
3. 3 2 3 6 12 37.5 115.6
a. 37.5 b. 3 c. 6 d. 2 e. 12
4. 2, 8, 32, 148, 765, 4626, 32431
a. 765 b. 148 c. 8 d. 32 e. 4626
5. 2 3 11 38 102 229 443
a. 11 229 c. 120 d. 38 e. 3
6. 2807, 1400, 697, 347, 171, 84, 41, 20
a. 697 b. 347 c. 371 d. 84 e. 41
7. 108, 54, 36, 18, 9, 6, 4
a. 54 b. 36 c. 18 d. 9 e. 6
8. 2, 3, 5, 8, 14, 23, 41, 69
a. 5 b. 8 c. 14 d. 41 e. 69
9. 0, 1, 9, 36, 99, 225, 441
a. 9 b. 36 c. 99 d. 225 e. 441
10. 3, 7.5, 15, 37.5, 75, 167.5, 375
a. 167.5 b. 75 c. 37.5 d. 15 e. 7.5
11. 2, 3, 6, 15, 45, 156.5, 630
a. 3 b. 45 c. 15 d. 6 e. 156.5
12. 36, 20, 12, 8, 6, 5.5, 4.5
a. 5.5 b. 6 c. 12 d. 20 e. 8
13. 1, 3, 9, 31, 128, 651, 3913
a. 651 b. 128 c. 31 d. 9 e. 3
14. 1, 30, 136, 417, 836, 829
a. 136 b. 417 c. 836 d. 829 e. 30
15. 5, 8, 16, 26, 50, 98, 194
a. 8 b. 26 c. 50 d. 16 e. 98
16. 1, 2, 4.5, 11, 30, 92.5, 329
a. 92.5 b. 4.5 c. 11 d. 2 e. 30

229 A Complete Solution For CMAT

17. 2, 5, 7, 12, 19, 32, 50
a. 7 b. 12 c. 32 d. 19 e. 5
18. 2, 13, 65, 271, 817, 1639, 1645
a. 13 b. 65 c. 271 d. 817 e .1639
19. 3, 4, 16, 75, 366, 1945, 11886
a. 16 b. 75 c. 366 d. 1945 e. 4
20. 2, 14, 91, 546, 3002, 15015
a. 15015 b. 91 c. 14 d. 3002 e. 546
Directions (Qs. 31-35): What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the
following number.
31. 2, 11, 38, 197, ?, 1170, 8227, 65806?
a. 1170 b. 1172 c. 1174 d. 1178 e. 1180
32. 16, ?, 21, 30, 46, 71, 107
a. 17 b. 19 c. 21 d. 23 e. 25
33. 7, 9, 16, 25, 41, ?, 107,173
a. 74 b. 70 c. 68 d. 66 e. 72
34. 42, ?, 7.5, 26, 26.5, 118.125
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3.5 c. 3 e. 4.5
35. 16, 4, 2, 1.5, ?, 1.875
a. 1.875 b. 1.5 c. 1.75 c. 2 e. 3
36. 0, 7, 26, 63, ?
a. 125 b. 126 c. 217 d. 124 e. None of these
37. 2, 5, 10, 19, 36, ?
a. 70 b. 71 c. 68 d. 69 e. None of these
38. 1, 2, 6, 24, ?, 720
a. 3 b. 5 c. 120 d. 8 e. none of these
39. 156, 506, ?, 1806
a. 1056 b. 856 c. 1465 d. 1506 e. None of these
40. –1, 0, ?, 8, 15, 24
a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1 e. None
41. BCFG, JKNO, RSVW, ?
a. ZADE b. HIKL c. STUX d. MNPQ e. None
42. 251, 12, 107, 381, ?, 125
a. 14 b. 24 c. 11 d. 16 e. None
43. 2, 3, 6, 7, 14, 15, ?
a. 16 b. 30 c. 31 d. 32 e. None
44. 3120, ?, 122, 23, 4
a. 488 b. 621 c. 610 d. 732 e. None
45. 0, 5, 60, 615, ?
a. 6030 b. 6170 c. 6130 d. 6000 e. none
Directions (Qs. 76-85) : Complete the given series.
76. BYCXW, CXDWV, EVFUT, GTHSR, ?
a. IRJQP b. KPOLN c. KPLON d. JOKPO e. None
77. FOX, GP?, HQZ
a. Y b. Z c. T d. W e. None
78. QPO, SRQ, UTS, WVU, ?
a. XVZ b. YXW c. ZYA d. VWX e. None
79. YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI, ?
a. QOL b. TOL c. QGL d. QNL e. None
80. AZ, CX, FU, ?
a. IR b. JQ c. IV d. KP e. None
81. ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ?
230 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. ZAB b. XKW c. ZKU d. ZKW e. None
82. OTE, PUF, QVG, RWH, ?
a. SYJ b. TXI c. SXJ d. SXI e. None
83. BEH, KNQ, TWZ, ?
a. IJL b. CFI c. BDF d. ADG e. None
84. MHZ, NIW, OKT, PNQ,?
a. RRN b. QRN c. QRM d. QQN e. None
85. A, CD, GHI, ?, UVWXY
a. LMNO b. MNO c. NOPQ d. MNOP e. None
Directions (Qs. 86-95): Which sequence of letters when placed at the blanks one
after another will complete the given letter series?
86. ba _ b _ aab _ a _ b
a. abaa b. abba c. baab d. babb e. None
87. c _ bba _ cab _ ac _ ab _ ac
a. abcbc b. acbcb c. babcc d. bcacb e. none
88. abc _ bcaab _ ca _ bbc _ a
a. ccaa b. bbaa c. abac d. abba e. None
89. b _ b _ bbb _ bb _ b
a. bbbbba b. bbaabb c. ababab d. aabaab e. none
90. aa _ bb _ aa _ abbbb _a
a. bbaa b. aabb c. baba d. abab e. none
91. _ aba _ cabc _ dcba _ bab _ a
a. abdca b. bcadc c. adcdd d. cbdaa e. None
92. ba _ b _ aab _ a _ b
a. abaa b. abba c. baab d. babb e. None
93. c _ bba _ cab _ ac _ ab _ ac
a. abcbc b. acbcb c. babcc d. bcacb e. None
94. aab _ cc _ daa _ bbb _ ccddd
a. bdbd b. ddca c. dbbc d. bdac e. none
95. adb _ ac _ da _ cddcb _ dbc _ cbda
a. bccba b. cbbaa c. ccbba d. bbcad e. None

231 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 4. Coding-Decoding

In this segment of commonsense reasoning, secret messages or words have to be

decoded. They are coded as per a definite pattern/ rule which should be identified
1st. Then the same is applied to decode another coded word. Under this segment you
come across types of coding letter coding and number coding. Based on these two
types of coding-decoding various types of problems come in your way. This chapter
makes you familiar with every types of problems based on coding-decoding.
« Coding By Letter Shifting
Pattern 1: Coding in forward sequence
ü If ‘GOOD’ is coded as ‘HPPE’, then how will you code ‘BOLD’?
Explanation: Here, every letter of the word ‘GOOD’ shifts one place in forward
alphabetical sequence.
G O O D
+1 +1 +1 +1

H P P E
Similarly, every letter in the word ‘BOLD’ will move one place in forward
alphabetical sequence as given below:
B O L D
+1 +1 +1 +1

C P M E
∴ Code for ‘BOLD’ will be ‘CPME’.
Pattern 2: Coding in backward sequence.
ü If ‘NAME’ is coded as ‘MZLD’, then how will code SAME?
Explanation: Here, every letter of the word ‘MZLD’ moves one place in backward
alphabet sequence. Let us see:
232 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 N A M E
–1 –1 –1 –1

M Z L D
Similarly, every letter of the word ‘SAME’ will move one place in backward
alphabet sequence. Let us see :
S A M E
–1 –1 –1 –1

R Z L D
∴ Code for ‘SAME’ will be ‘RZLD’.
Pattern 3: Coding based on skipped sequence.
ü If the word ‘FACT’ is coded as ‘IDFW’; then how will you code ‘DEEP’?
Explanation: Here, you see that 2 letters are omitted in alphabetic sequence. The
following diagram gives you the more clear picture:

F A C T
+3 +3 +3 +3

I D F W
Clearly, ‘F’ (skip 2 letters) ‘I’
‘A’ (skip 2 letters) ‘D’
‘C’ (skip 2 letters) ‘F’
‘T’ (skip 2 letters) ‘W’
Similarly, ‘DEEP’ can be coded. Let us see :
D E E P
+3 +3 +3 +3

G H H S
∴ Code for ‘DEEP’ will be ‘GHHS’.
« Coding By Analogy
ü If ‘RPTFA’ stands for ‘BLADE’, how will you code ‘BALE’.
Explanation: Here, ‘BLADE’ has been coded as ‘RPTFA’. You will see that all the
letters in the word ‘BALE’, which have to be coded, are also there in the word
‘BLADE’. Hence, all that needs to be done is to choose the relevant code letters
from the code word ‘RPTFA’. Therefore, B becomes R, A becomes T, L becomes P,
and E becomes A. Therefore, ‘BALE’ will be coded as ‘RTPA’.
∴ Correct answer is ‘RPTA’.
ü If 'cages' are called 'rockets'. rockets are called traps, 'traps' are called 'planets'
'planets' are called 'airoplanes', 'airoplanes' are called 'cycles' are cycles' are
called 'cars', what is Earth
a. cycles b. rockets c. planet d. airoplanes e. cars
Explanation: d. Earth is a planet and here planets are called airplanes. So earth will
be called airplanes.
« Coding By Reversing Letters
ü If ‘TEMPERATURE’ is coded as ‘ERUTAREPMET’, then how will you code
‘EDUCATION’ following the same scheme.
Explanation: Here, the word ‘TEMPERATURE’ has been reversed. Hence, the code
for ‘education’ will be ‘NOITACUDE’.
« Coding in Fiction Language

233 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 In some cases of coding-decoding, fictions language is used to code some words. In
such questions, the codes for a group of words is given. In such types of problems,
codes for each word can be found by eliminating the common words.
ü In a certain code language ‘over and above’ is written as ‘da pa ta’ and ‘old and
beautiful’ is written as ‘Sa na pa’. How is ‘over’ written in that code language?
Explanation: Over and above = da Pa ta

Old and beautiful = Sa na Pa

Clearly, ‘and’ is common in both and a common code is ‘Pa’.
∴ Code for ‘and’ must be ‘Pa’.
Code for ‘over’ = ‘da’ or ‘ta’.
Code for above = ‘da’ or ‘ta’.
Code for old = ‘Sa’ or ‘na’ Code for beautiful = ‘Sa’ or ‘na’
∴ We can’t certainly say what will be exact code for ‘over’. But it is sure that code
for ‘over’ must be either ‘da’ or ‘ta’.
« Coding Based On Numbers
Pattern 1: When numerical values are given to words.
ü If in a certain language A is coded as 1, B is coded as 2. C is coded as 3 and so on,
then find the code for AEECD.
Explanation: As given the letters are coded as below:
A B C D E F G H I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Now,
A E E C D
1 5 5 3 4
∴ Code for AEECD = 15534.
« Mathematical Operations With The Position Numbers Of Letters
ü In a certain code, if ‘TALE’ is written as 38, then how will you code ‘CAME’ using
the same coding scheme?
Explanation: Look at the numbered alphabet and write down the number
corresponding to the letters of the word ‘TALE’.
T A L E
20 1 12 5
The fact that the code for ‘TALE’ is 38, gives you a clue that the code is probably
obtained by performing an arithmatical operations of the numbers of each other. Let
us see :
20 + 1 + 12 + 5 = 38 Thus, the code for ‘CAME’ is
C A M E
3 + 1 + 13 + 5 = 22
∴ Code for ‘CAME’ = 22

Practice Test

1. If EARLY stands for 3267, than, YEAR will mean:

a. 3725 b. 7325 c. 3752 d. 3257
2. If 42573 stands for WORLD, then, 7253 stands for.

234 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. LORD b. DOLR c. OLRD d. None
3. If 35204 stands for PLATO, then, 043 stands for
a. OPT b. TPO c. TOP d. PTO
4. If WINTER stands for 72534, then, RENT stands for
a. 1543 b. 1453 c. 1435 d. 1534
5. If CASE is coded as 523 CHAIR is coded as 58206 and TEACH is coded as 71258, what
does 586037 stand for?
a. CHRIST b. KRIST c. DONE d. None
6. If A = 2, B = 3 and C = 4, and what does the following number stand for?
4, 2, 17, 21, 2, 10, 15
a. CAPTAIN b. MOUSE c. MAEEN d. NONE
7. If YOUNG is coded as XMKLB, CHAIR is coded as ZOSYJ and MAN is coded as PSL,
what does PMLSYZOX stand for?
a. MONTHLY b. MONARCHY c. KING d. BABY
8. If DIAMOND is coded as VQYMRLV, then code WEALTH.
a. CUYNFR b. HTLAEW c. EYNNUFR d. HLTAFW
9. If in a certain language, POPULAR is coded as QPQVMBS, which word would be coded
as GBNPVT?
a. FAMOSU b. FAMOUS c. FASOUM d. FOSAUM
10. If ROBUST is coded as QNATRS in a certain language, which word would be coded as
ZXCMP?
a. YWBLO b. YYBNO c. AWDLQ d. AYDNQ
11. If in a certain language, UTENSIL is coded as WVGPUKN, which word would be coded
as DMSFXG?
a. BKQEVE b. BKQDWE c. BKQDWF d. BKQDVE
12. If in a certain code, SWITCH is written as TVJSDG, which word would be written as
CQFZE?
a. BARED b. BRAED c. BREAD d. BRADE
13. In a certain code, REFRIGERATOR is coded as ROTAREGIRFER. Which word would
be coded as NOITINUMMA?
a. ANMOMIUTNI b. AMNTOMUIIN c.
AMMUNITION d. NUMMUNITIOA
14. If in a certain language, REMOTE is coded as ROTEME, which word would be coded as
PNIICC?
a. NPIICC b. PICCIN c. PICNIC d. PICNIC
15. If FULFNHW is the code for CRICKET, then EULGH is the code for which word?
a. PRIDE b. BRIDE c. BLADE d. BLIND
16. If in a certain language, SHIFT is coded as RFFBO, which word would be coded as
LKUMB?
a. MMXQG b. MLVNC c. KJVLA d. MJVLC
17. If LBAEHC is the code for BLEACH, then which of the following is coded as
NBOLZKMH?
a. OBNKZLHM b. LOBNHMKZ c. OCPMALNI d. BNLOKZHM
18. If in a certain language, GRASP is coded as BMVNK, which word would be coded as
CRANE?
a. FUDQH b. HWFSJ c. GVERI d. XMVIZ
19. If in a certain code, COVET is written as FRYHW, which word would be written as SHDUO?
a. QUAKE b. REPAY c. STINK d. PEARL
20. If in a certain language, TRIANGLE is coded as SQHZMFKD, which word would be
coded as DWZLOKD?
a. EXAMPLE b. FIGMENT c. DISMISS d. DISJOIN
21. If ELCSUM is the code for MUSCLE, which word has the code LATIPAC?
235 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. CONFESS b. CONDUCE c. CAPITAL d. CAPRICE
22. If in a certain language, ITNIETAM is the code for INTIMATE, which word has the code
TERVNIETARBI?
a. INVETIBRATE b. INVERTIBARTE c.
INVERTIBRETA d. INVERTIBRATE
23. If in a certain language, DIUGNAL is the code LANGUID, which word would be coded
as ELKCAHS?
a. SHINGLE b. SHERBET c. SHACKLE d. SHOCKLE
24. If EHFNRQ is the code for BECKON, which word has the code QDFWXULQ?
a. NCAUTIRN b. NACUTIRN c. NATCRIUN d. NACTURIN
25. If QKKQUGQL is the code for OMISSION, which word is coded as RYVIWZB?
a. PATKUBZ b. BZWIVYR c. BZWVIYR d. PTAKBZU
26. If QOSCFLBJO is the code for PORCELAIN, which word is coded as BKMOUSPP?
a. ALTOLROPY b. ALLOTROPY c. ALOTROLPY d. ATLOROPLY
27. If in a certain code, ALMIRAH is written as BNPMWGO, which word would be written
as DNRWLUA?
a. COSOLT b. TOGSOLC c. TOGCLOS d. CLOSGOT
28. If in a certain language, MACHINE is coded as LBBIHOD, which word would be coded
as SLTMFNB?
a. RKSLEMA b. TKULGMC c. RMSNEOA d. TMUNGOC
29. If PHYCOLOGY is coded as 168253151215715, then how will be coded as
ONOMATOLOGY ?
a. 151415131201215724 b. 151415131201215725 c.
1514131201215726 d. None of these
30. If PROIT is coded 12, then LOSS will be coded as ?
a. 8 b. 10 c. 15 d. 12
31. In a certain language SOLDER is written as 20135619, then how can FROG be coded ?
a. 714156 b. 718169 c. 719178 d. 719168
32. In a certain language MINUTES is written as 1411172525112 then how can HOUR be
coded ?
a. 10172320 b. 9172422 c. 9172523 d. 10172321
33. If MEETING is coded as 1244198136 then how will be the coded as CHAIRMAN ?
a. 27081712013 b. 27080702013 c. 27081721031 d. 1234567
34. If LONG is coded as 14192015, then how will be the coded as HIGH ?
a. 10121213 b. 10121216 c. 10131316 d. 10131416
35. In a certain language IRON is written as 10212021, then how will be coded as wool ?
a. 24182019 b. 24182020 c. 20201824 d. 24181920
36. If each of the letters in the English alphabet is assigned odd numerical value beginning
A=1,B=3 and so on, what will be the total value of the letters of the word INDIAN ?
a.86 b. 88 c. 89 d. 96
37. If A=26, SUN= 27, then CAT= ?
a. 24 b. 27 c. 57 d. 58
38. If AT=20, BAT=40, then CAT will be equal to
a. 30 b. 50 c. 60 d. 70
39. If DEER=12215 and HIGH= 5645 how will you code HEEL ?
a. 2328 b. 3449 c. 4337 d. 5229
40. If WORK is coded as 4—12—9—16, then how will you code WOMAN ?
a. 4—12—14—26—13 b. 4—26—14—13—12
c. 23—12—26—14—13 d. 23—15—13—1—14
41. If ACNE can be coded as 3,7,29,11, than BOLL will be coded as
a. 5, 29,19, 27 b. 5,29,19, 25 c. 5,31,21,25 d. 5,31,19,25
42. If O=16,FOR=42, then what is FRONT equal to ?
236 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 61 b. 65 c. 73 d. 78
43. If MOBHITY is coded as 46293927, then EXAMINATION is coded as
a. 45038401854 b. 56149512965 c. 57159413955 d. 67250623076
44. In a certain code, DEAF is written as 3587 and FILE is written as 7465. How is IDEAL
written in that code ?
a. 43568 b. 43586 c. 63548 d. 48536
45. In a certain code, EAT is written as 318 and CHAIR is written as 24156. What will
TEACHER be written as ?
a. 8312346 b. 8321436 c. 8312436 d. 8313426
46. If GLARE is coded as 67810 and MONSOON is coded as 2395339, then how can
RANSOM be coded ?
a. 183952 b. 189352 c. 189532 d. 198532
47. If ENGLAND is written as 1234526 and FRANCE is written as 785291, how is GREECE
word MOTION ?
a. 381171 b. 381191 c. 832252 d. 835545
48. If in a certain code language, PREMONITION is written as 68530492904, how will the
word MONITOR be written in that code language ?
a. 1234567 b. 30126789 c. 3049208 d.3049258
49. If NOIDA is written as 39658, how will INDIA be written ?
a. 36568 b. 63568 c. 63569 d. 65368
50. In a certain code 127982 is written 034563, then how 12345 written in the same code ?
a. 03298 b. 032278 c. 03782 d. 3456
51. If WELCOME is 5924789, what is the code for WELL ?
a. 5992 b. 5882 c. 5772 d. 5443
52. If LETTER is written 152277229 ten how will be coded as NUMBER ?
a. 1361425229 b. 1361425229 c. 1361325229 d. 13645229
53. If EDITOR is written 2223187129 then, PAPER is written as ?
a. 112611229 b. 112612229 c. 112112269 d. 1221229
54. If MO=26, TOM=33, then HOUSE will be ?
a. 66 b. 67 c. 68 d. 69
55. If FATHER=104, MORHER=83, SON=33 then DAUGHTER is written as ?
a. 125 b. 130 c. 132 d. 127
56. If GRAND is 44, SMALL is 57, then ROCKET is ?
a. 72 b. 70 c. 75 d. 80
57. If HARD=10-3-20-6, WOOD = 25-17-17-6, then SWEET= ?
a. 19-23-5-5-21 b. 21-25-7-7-20 c. 20-21-22-23 d. 20-7-7-25-21
58. GAP is written as 112, CAP is written as 48, then CAT is ?
a. 50 b. 60 c. 55 d. 65
59. If 4 APPLE 5=25, 3 MANGO 5 =20 then 7 ORANGE 3 = ?
a. 27 b. 24 c. 20 d. 25
60. If 2 BALL 5 = 6, 8 BOOK 2 = 12 then 6 FILM 4 = ?
a. 15 b. 20 c. 25 d. 30
61. If 923=54, 782=112, then 555 =?
a. 125 b. 130 c. 15 d. 50
62. If NINE=13, FIVE=12, then TEN = ?
a. 8 b. 7 c. 6 d. 9
63. If MADAN is 25 and MANISHA is ?
a. 49 b. 50 c. 40 d. 45
64. If GORAKHAKALI=11 then, BHDRAKALI= ?
a. 10 b. 11 c. 9 d. 9
65. If CHANDRAGUPTA=6, PROTO20A=4, then PIASMODIUM is ?
a. 5 b. 4 c. 6 d. 7
237 A Complete Solution For CMAT
66. If BLACK is 125 and YELLOW is ?
a. 216 b. 215 c. 225 d. 125
67. RAM=5, SHYAM =?
a. 12 b. 10 c. 5 d. 8
68. MAN= -6, DOG = -4, then CAR = ?
a. 0 b. -4 c. -1 d. 1
69. In a certain code BREAK is written as ASDBJ. How is SOLAR written in that code?
a. RPKBS b. TPMBS c. RPKBQ d. TPKBQ
70. In a certain code language EMPHASIS is written as NDIOBRJR. How will CREATURE
be written in that code language?
a. SBBDUTSD b. QBBDTUSD c. DSDBSTSF d. SBDBUTDS
71. In a certain code ‘289’ means ‘Read from newspaper’, ‘276’
means‘teafromfield’and‘85’means‘Wallnewspaper’. Which of the following number is
used for ‘tea’?
a. 2 b. 6 c. Either 7 or 6 d. Either 2 or 6
72. If RUMOUR can be written as QSJKPL, then how HERMIT can be written?
a. GEPKHR b. GCOIDN c. GCPIDM d. GCPIEN
73. In a certain code language ‘CREATIVE’ is written as ‘BDSBFUJS’. How is ‘TRIANGLE’
written in that code?
a. BSHSFHKM b. BHSSMHHF c. BSSHFMKH d. BHSSFKHM
74. In a certain code ‘BROTHER’ is written as‘$%53#4%’ and ‘DREAM’ is written as
‘9%47 ’. How is ‘THREAD’ written in that code?
a. #3%479 b. 3#%479 c. 3$%479 d. 3#%479
75. In a certain code "MOUSE" is written as "PRUQC". How is "SHIFT" written in that code ?
a. VJIDR b. VIKRD c. RKIVD d. VKIDR

5. Logical Venn Diagrams

Practice Test

1. Select from the four alternative diagrams, the one that best illustrates the relationship
among the three classes : Pigeons, Birds, Dogs.

238 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Directions (Questions 2 to 7) : In each of the following questions, choose the Venn
diagram which best illustrates the relationship among three given items?

2. Diseases, Leprosy, Scurvy

3. Hockey, Cricket, Games
4. Yak, Zebra, Bear
5. Sun, Moon, Stars
6. Animals, Men, Plants
7. Mercury, Mars, Planets
8. Which of the following figures correctly represents the relation between : Doctors,
Lawyers, Professionals?

9. Which one of the following sets is best represented in the below diagram?

a. Animals, Insects, Cockroaches

b. Country, States, Districts
c. Animals, Male, Females and Hermaphrodites
d. States, Districts, Union Territory
10. Which of the following gives the proper relation of Tall man, Black haired people,
Nepalese ?

Questions 11 to 19

a. Indicates that one class is completely contained in the other but not the third

239 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 b. Indicates that two classes are completely contained in the third

c. Indicates that neither class is completely contained in the other but the two have common
members, forming one entity.

d. Indicates that two classes are interrelated and third one is not.
Directions: Choose the Venn diagrams which best illustrates the three given classes in
each questions.
11. Protons, Electrons, Atoms
12. Sun, Planets, Earth
13. Dog, Animal, Pet
14. Science, Physics, Chemistry
15. Atmosphere, Hydrogen, Oxygen
16. Wheat, Grains, Maize
17. Machine, Lathe, Mathematics
18. Biology, Botany, Zoology
19. Citizens, Educated, Men
Directions (Questions 20 to 29) : Of the four alternatives in each of the following
questions, three alternatives are such that the three words in each are related among
themselves in one of the five ways represented by (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) below while
none of these relationship is applicable to the remaining alternatives. That is your
answer.

20. a. Army, General, Colonel b. Boy, Students, Player

c. Painter, Scholar, Table d. Man, Typist, Peon
21. a. Hen, Dog, Cat b. Body, Ear, Mouth
c. Bed, Ward, Nurse d. Tiger, Animal, Carnivorous
22. a. Atmosphere, Air, Oxygen b. Boy, Girl, Student
c. Man, Worker, Garden d. Animal, Dog, Cat
23. a. Animal, Mammal, Cow b. Colour, Cloth, Merchant
c. Colour, Red, Blue d. Male, Horse, Mare
24. a. Body, Hand, Finger b. Mammal, Nurse, Woman
c. Cereal, Wheat, Rice d. Males, Cousins, Nephews
25. a. Bed, Ward, Hospital b. Boy, Girl, Player
c. Copper, Zinc, Iron d. Book, Page, Paragraph
26. a. Star, Moon, Mars b. Professor, Scholar, Politician
240 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 c. Nurse, Doctor, Woman d. Swimmer, Carpenter, Singer
27. a. Periodical, Weekly, Book b. Mineral, Copper, Wood
c. Doctors, Human beings, Married people d. Army, Doctor, Engineer
28. a. Director, Engineer, Musician b. Apple, Orange, Mango
c. Fruit, Mango, Grass d. Oxygen, Air, Water
29. a. Mineral, Iron, Copper b. Dean, Painter, Singer
c. Seed, Leaf, Root d. Piston, Engine, Wheel
Directions (Questions 30 to 34) : Choose the Venn diagram which best illustrates the
three given classes in each questions:

30. Girl, Athlete, Singer

31. Window, Room, Wall
32. State, Country, City
33. Copper, Paper, Wire
34. Teacher, Graduate, Player

6. Inserting The Missing Characters

1. Find the missing numbers.

a. 162 b. 168 c. 184 d. 198

241 A Complete Solution For CMAT
2. Find the missing number ?

a. 6 b. 8 c. 9 d. 11
3. Insert the missing numbers?

a. 13 b. 15 c. 17 d. 19
4. Insert the missing number.

a. 7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 10
5. Find "X"

a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 2
6. Find "X"

a. 7 b. 6 c. 8 d. 4
7. Find "X"

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
8. Find "Z"

a. 18 b. 20 c. 21 d. 22

9. Find "X"

242 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. 7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 10
10. Find out the missing number.

a. 25 b. 26 c. 27 d. None
11. Find "t"
8 16 24 948
9 18 27 t
a. 106 b. 107 c.108 d. 109
12. Find out the missing number?

T V V U
a. b. c. d.
32 36 38 32
13. Find out the missing number?

a. 15 b. 16 c. 17 d. 18
14.

a. C, C b. F, F c. E, E d. R, R
15. Find "x".
3 6 2
4 12 5 5 18 2 5 x 2
2 3 9
a. 18 b. 17 c. 16 d. 15
16. Find out the missing number?

a. 1 b. 8 c. 2 d. 5

6 8 7
17.
3 - 6
6 9
243 A Complete Solution For CMAT
2 5 3
6 2
4
 a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 15
18.

a. 28 b. 26 c. 36 d. None
19.

a. 78 b. 81 c. 96 d. None
Find the value of "x", "?" and "-" in following questions.

20.

a. 5 b. 4 c. 6 d.7

21.

a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. None
22.

a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 9
23.

a. 9 b. 8 c. 6 d.10
24.

a. 64 b. 54 c. 49 d. 48

25.

244 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9
26. Find value of "x"?

a. 50 b. 60 c. 70 d. 80
27. Find the value of "?".

a. 25 b. 26 c. 27 d. 28
28. Find the value of "x"?

a. 105 b. 95 c. 85 d. 75
29. Find the value of "a"?

a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8
30. Insert the missing number.
8 0 7
4 8 3
2 5 8
9 3 ?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. None
31. Insert the missing number
8, 17, 33, 67, 133, .........
a. 264 b. 265 c. 266 d. 267
32. Insert the missing number. 0, 3, 12, 27 .......
a. 45 b. 46 c. 47 d. 48
3 1 1
33. Insert the missing number 2 , 3, 3 , 4 ............
4 2 3
1 1 1 1
a. 4 b. 4 c. 4 d. 4
2 12 5 4
34. Find the missing number.
3 4 6
5 14 4 6 18 5 8 ? 7
2 3 5
a. 22 b. 24 c. 26 d. 30

245 A Complete Solution For CMAT

35. Supply the missing number.
8 6 4
5 4 9
6 4 ?
a. 7 b. 8 c. 6 d. 5
36. Find out the value of K
8 60 44
4 4 20 46 ? 4
a. 19 b. 21 c. 22 d. 24
37. Insert the missing number.
1 2 4 2 4 8
5 10 20 15 35 80
6 9 12 35 70 ?
a. 140 b. 143 c. 144 d. 147
38.
7 4 ? 13

38 12
a. 25 b. 5 c. 6 d. 9

39.
20 10 49 42

100 ?

a. 50 b. 49 c. 45 d. 36
40.
8 12 10 6 18 4
20 90 ?
16 9 12 5 12 7

a. 180 b. 188 c. 140 d. 150

41.

91 76
14 13 8 19

a. 90 b. 12 c. 14 d. 14
42.
4 3 5 1

45 46 50 15
2 5 1 6 3 4 ? 7

246 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. 10 b. 20 c. 15 d. 30
43.
22 18 ?
36 44 36 11 44 72

a. 80 b. 56 c. 88 d. 90
44.
9 6 9 7 2 5
12 12 14 ?
8 3 4 4 10 8

a. 10 b. 12 c. 8 d. 16
45.
3 2 1
RED 3 1 2 3 5
7 3 4 6 7 5
a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9
46.
4 9 6

81 25 ?
6 8 2 3 7 4
a. 64 b. 65 c. 60 d. 55
47.
3 4
2 3

36 144 m
2 2 5
a. 80 b. 85 c. 81 d. 49
48.
1 1 1

7 169 2 5 121 2 6 ? 4

3 3 5
a. 196 b. 246 c. 250 d. 256
49.
2 2 2

2 48 3 4 384 6 3 ? 4

4 8 2
a. 42 b. 44 c. 46 d. 48
50.
36 9 25
49 26 64 81 21 25 64 ? 144
25 16 36
a. 19 b. 23 c. 25 d. 31
51.

247 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 25 25 25

100 6 100 25 5 81 25 ? 25

25 36 25
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
52.
25 4 9
16 361 1 64 289 16 1 ? 81

81 9 25
a. 260 b. 269 c. 324 d. 429

53.
64 125 216
1 10 27 8 14 64 27 ? 125

8 27 64
a. 2 b. 9 c. 17 d. 18
54.
2 6 4
5 9 12 10 8 8 3 ? 7

6 4 1
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8
55.
1 3 1
3 510 5 2 650 4 0 ? 2

4 6 8
a. 610 b. 666 c. 670 d. 690
56.
3 6 2
5 12 4 5 18 2 5 ? 2
2 3 9
a. 15 b. 16 c. 17 d. 18
57.
27 22 8

8 5 3 3 10 5

4 2 1 6 20 6

a. 50 b. 60 c. 70 d. 80
58.

4 5 10 5 3 6
? 31 34
2 6 8 2 5 5

248 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. 21 b. 20 c. 18 d. 16
59.
9 4 5
108 68 ?
3 4 5 11 2 4 6 8 12

a. 120 b. 125 c. 130 d. 135

60.

2 6 8
81 9 5 25 ? 49

4 36 64

a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9
61.
18 5 34 1
8 12 16 4
3 26 7 m

a. 10 b. 8 c. 12 d. 14
62.
40 14 50

5 6 4 80 2 3 4 10 7 8 2 ?

a. 60 b. 61 c. 62 d. 63
63.
30 25 9
15 x 25 26 240 14 22 60 18
50 55 71
a. 70 b. 60 c. 65 d. 75
64.
23 29 ?

2 2 2
9 8 5 16 7 9
40 30 30
10 5 2

a. 33 b. 32 c.34 d. 35
65.
2 4 3
1 13 3 1 ? 5 1 17 5
5 6 4
a. 21 b. 25 c. 27 d. 29
66.
10 8 6
15 14 8 9 8 5 11 ? 8
5 6 4

249 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. 6 b. 8 c. 9 d. 12

67.
5 9 8
7 13 4 8 5 4 9 ? 4
3 3 4
a. 12 b. 14 c. 15 d. 18

7. Non Verbal Reasoning

1. Which figure comes next?
choose from

Directions (Questions 1 to 16): In each of the following questions, a set of four figures
marked A, B, C and D forming a figure series is given, out of which the last one i.e.
(D) is missing. Identify from amongst the four responses, marked 1, 2, 3 and 4, the
one which would replace the question work (?) in fig. (D) so as to continue the series.
Problem Figures Answers Figures
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

250 A Complete Solution For CMAT

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

251 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Directions: In each of the following questions, there is a set of four figures labeled A, B,
C and D called the Problem set followed by a set of five other figures labeled 1, 2, 3, 4
and 5 called the Answer set. Fig. (C) contains a question mark. Select a suitable figure
from the Answer Set which will substitute this question mark so that a series is formed
by the figure A, B, C and D taken in order. The number of the selected figure is the
answer.
Problem Figures Answers Figures
17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

252 A Complete Solution For CMAT

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

253 A Complete Solution For CMAT

37.

38.

8. Statement & Conclusions

In this type of questions, a statement is given followed by two conclusions. We have

to find out which of these conclusions definitely follows from the given statement.
What Is A ‘Conclusion’?
‘Conclusion’ means a fact that can be truly inferred from the contents of a given
sentence. Conclusion is the art of judging or deciding, based on reasoning.
Directions (for Examples 1 to 3): In each of the following questions, a statement is given
followed by two conclusions I and II. Give answer :
a. if only conclusion I follows;
b. if only conclusion II follows;
c. if either I or II follows;
d. if neither I nor II follows;
e. if both I and II follows;
Example 1
Statement: The oceans are a storehouse of practically every mineral including
uranium. But like most other minerals, it is found in extremely low concentration –
about three gms per 1000 tonnes of water.
Conclusions: I. The oceans are a cheap source of uranium.
II. The oceans harbor radiation hazards.
Solution: d. I can not be concluded as most of the minerals are available in similar
concentration levels in oceans. II is out of context of the sentence.
Example 2.

254 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Statement: Today, out of the world population of several thousand million, the
majority of men have to live under government which refuse them personal liberty
and the right to dissent.
Conclusions: I. People are indifferent to personal liberty and the right to dissent.
II. People desire personal liberty and the right to dissent.
Solution: b.
Example 3.
Statement: It has been decided by the Government to withdraw 33% of the subsidy
on cooking gas from the beginning of next month—A spokesman of the Government.
Conclusions: I. People no more desire or need such subsidy from government as
they can afford increased price of the cooking gas.
II. The price of the cooking gas will increase at least by 33% from
the next month.
Solution: d.
Example 4.
Statements: Interest rate will be fixed on the basis of our bank’s rate prevailing on the
date of deposit and refixed every quarter thereafter.
Conclusions: I. It is left to the depositors to guard their interest.
II. The bank’s interest rates are subject to change on a day-to-day
basis depending on market position.
Example 5.
Statement: The government of country X has recently announced several concessions
and offered attractive package tours for foreign visitors.
Conclusion: I. Now, more number of foreign tourists will visit the country.
II. The government of country X seems to be serious in attracting
tourists.
Solution: d.
Shortcut Approach
For a adhere conclusion to follow a statement must to the following 4 GOLDEN
RULES.
ü The conclusion must be in context of the statement. If out of context than it does not
follow.
ü The conclusion must support the contents of the statement. If it negates than it does not
follow.
ü The conclusion must be truly inferred. If there is some doubt that it may or may not be
correct or truly inferred, than it does not follow.
ü The conclusion must not repeat or rephrase the statement. If so, it does not follow.
Now let us apply these rules to the 5 examples solved above.
Ex. 1 I. Rule 2 applies as it negates the statement.
II. Rule1appliesasitisoutofcontext.
Ex. 2 I. Rule 2 applies as it negates the statement.
II. FulfilsalltheconditionsinRule1-4.
Ex. 3 I. Rule1,2&4followbut3doesnotastherecanbe various reasons to withdraw
subsidy.
II. Rule 1, 2 & 4 follow but 3 does not as the price increase is actually 49%
Ex. 4 I. Rule I applies as it is out of context.
II. Followsallthe4rulesperfectly.
Ex.5 Both I & II follow all the 4 rules and hence follow the statement.

255 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Practice Test
Directions (Q. 1-15): In each questions below is given a statement followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to
be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them
logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the
statement. Give answer
a. if only conclusion I follows.
b. if only conclusion II follows.
c. if either I or II follows.
d. if neither I nor Il follows; and
e. if both I and II follow.
1. Statement: Many people and media alleged that Mr. X, the opposition leader, met the Chief
Minister yesterday to seek certain favours, an allegation which was strongly rejected by Mr
X.
Conclusions: I. Mr X did meet the Chief Minister yesterday to seek certain favours.
II. Mr X did not meet the Chief Minister to seek certain favours.
2. Statement: For over three decades company ‘X’ has been totally involved in energy
conservation, its efficient use and management.
Conclusions: I. The company has yet to learn and acquire basic things in this area.
II. It is dedication that is more important than knowledge and expertise.
3. Statement: This book ‘Z’ is the only book which focuses its attention on the problem of
poverty in India between 1950 and 1980.
Conclusions: I. There was no questions of poverty before 1950.
II. No other books deals with poverty in India during 1950 to 1980.
4. Statement: Applications of applicants who do not fulfil eligibility criteria and/or who do
not submit applications before last date will be summarily rejected and will not be called
for the written test.
Conclusions: I. Those who are called for the written test are those who fulfil eligibility
criteria and have submitted their applications before last date.
II. Written test will be held only after scrutiny of applications.
5. Statement: On metro section of railways, the motormen are frequently required to do
overtime during May and June though all vacancies are completely filled as per
requirement of this section.
Conclusions: I. Many motormen take leave of shorter or longer duration during this
period.
II. Some motormen desire to earn overtime whenever possible.
6. Statement: The President of XYZ party indicated that 25 independent Members of
Legislative Assembly (MLA) are seriously considering various options of joining some
political party. But in any case all of them collectively will join one party only.
Conclusions: I. The 25 independent MLAs will join XYZ party in a short period of time.
II. The 25 independent MLAs will join some other political party in a short
period of time.
7. Statement: ‘Our approach of fund management is based on science as much as on common
sense and discipline because our goal is consistent performance in the long term. –
Advertisement of a mutual fund company.
Conclusions: I. Only the approach of science of investment can lead to high gains in
short-term investment.
II. It is not necessary to go for long-term investment when low-return short-
term investment is available.
8. Statement: ‘We follow some of the best and effective teaching learning practices used by
leading institutes all over the world.’ — A statement of a Professor of MN Institute.
Conclusions: I. The MN Institute is one of the leading institutes of the world.
256 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 II. Whatever is being followed by world’s leading institutes will definitely
be good and useful.
9. Statement: The Bank of England’s move to auction 25 metric tons of gold drew plenty of
bidders looking for a bargain, but was criticised by major gold producers worldwide.
Conclusions: I. The Bank of England should not auction gold which it possesses to keep
steady international prices of gold.
II. Bidders should quote higher gold prices to retain present value of gold in
the international markets.
10. Statement: The oceans are a storehouse of practically every mineral including uranium. But
like most other minerals, it is found in extremely low concentration—about three gms. Per
1000 tonnes of water.
Conclusions: I. The oceans are a cheap source of uranium.
II. The oceans harbour radiation hazards.
11. Statement: The minister questioned the utility of the space research programme and
suggested its replacement by other areas of felt national needs.
Conclusions: I. Exploring the space does not contribute to critical national needs.
II. Research should be oriented to national needs.
12. Statement: The laws and statutes framed by the Government for the purpose of providing
equal treatment to every citizens, on implementation perpetuate corrupt working system.
Conclusions: I. the laws and statutes should be framed but they should not be
implemented to avoid corrupt working system.
II. There should be obvious method to investigate corrupt working system.
13. Statement: Mrs X is nominated for one of the two posts of
which one post is reserved by the Managing Committee for the female of other religious
minority community and the other for the female of scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes.
Conclusions: I. Mrs X is the member of religious minority community.
II. Mrs X is the member of Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes.
14. Statement: We do not need today in India extraordinary specialists but those trained
ordinary doctors who are dedicated to their profession.
Conclusions: I. We should promote medical profession with dedicated ordinary doctors
rather than promoting high specialised medical education.
II. Extraordinary specialists are not dedicated to their profession.
15. Statement: The maximum number of vacancies for the clerical cadre is 40, which will be
filled through this recruitment round – An advertisment of Company W.
Conclusions: I. The Company ‘A’ may appoint less than 40 clerks in this round.
II. The Company ‘A’ may appoint 40 clerks in this round.
9. Critical Reasoning

Critical Reasoning (CR) is ability to reason clearly to evaluate and judge arguments.
You are using this skill a lot during your everyday life while reading newspapers or
watching movies. When you think that the movie is pushing the limit of the
Reasonable or the news sounds less reasonable than the movie that was pushing the
limit, you are using your Critical Reasoning skills to produce these conclusions. The
argument you meet can be anything from a classical argument to an advertisement or
a dialog. Critical Reasoning questions will ask you to manipulate the argument to
weaken/strengthen it, find the conclusion, assumption, explanation, do an inference
or supplement a statement, etc. Whatever it is that you have to do, you will need 2
things to succeed: know the basic structure of arguments and clearly understand the
argument.
Strategy to Crack Critical Reasoning Questions
ü Read the questions first; this is needed so that you would know what to look for and
what to do: find an assumption, strengthen/weaken, infer something or else; do not

257 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 worry about the details in the question, read for keywords, such as strengthen, deny, or
explain. [Use symbols for convenience, e.g. + for strengthen or – for weaken].
ü Read the passage very attentively because in contrast to Reading Comprehension, there
is very little text here and mostly everything is important; try to read only once. Reread
if required.
ü Paraphrase (reword) the passage. It is a very important step because when you do a
paraphrase, you check whether you understood the passage and at the same time you
extract the skeleton of the argument, making it easier to identify the conclusion and the
assumption. Very often, the paraphrase of the passage will be pretty close to the
conclusion. It is not surprising, since the conclusion is the main point and evidence just
supports it.)
ü Read the question again (now with more understanding of what is being asked; reading
the question 2 times, it will also help you to make sure your answer exactly what is
stated and that you understand the question.)
ü Go through the answers, first time scan them for YOUR answer choice (usually you
will guess correctly in 60-70% of cases), if you did not find it, reread them more
attentively.
Types Of Critical Reasoning Questions
« Identify the Inference / Must be True Question
These type of questions are extremely common. An Inference means the same thing
as “must be true”. Conclusions differ from inferences in that conclusions are the result
of premises and inferences are something that must be true
Example: Increases in funding for police patrols often lower the rate of crimes of
opportunity such as petty theft and vandalism by providing visual deterrence in high-
crime neighborhoods. Levels of funding for police patrols in some communities are
increased when federal matching grants are made available.
Question: Which of the following can be correctly inferred from the statements
above?
Options:
(a) Areas with little vandalism can never benefit from visual deterrence.
(b) Communities that do not increase their police patrols are at higher risk for crimes
of opportunity late at night.
(c) Federal matching grants for police patrols lower the rate of crimes of opportunity
in some communities.
(d) Only federal matching grants are necessary to reduce crime in most
neighborhoods.
(e) None of these
Solution: c. is a summary of the information provided; it is the logical end of a chain
of reasoning started in the stimulus argument. The sequence of events goes like this:
Increased funding → Increased visual deterrence → Lower crime The last statement
could be mapped as follows: Federal grants → Increased patrol funds (c) makes the
chain complete by correctly stating that federal grants can lead to lower crime in some
communities. Now the logical chain becomes: Federal grants → Increased funding
→ Increased visual deterrence → Lower crime
The other answer choices may not be correctly inferred because they go beyond
the scope of the argument. They may be objectively, factually correct, or they may be
statements that you would tend to agree with. However, you are limited to the
argument presented when choosing a correct answer.
« Identify the Assumption

258 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 An assumption is an unstated premise that supports the author’s conclusion. It’s the
connection between the stated premises and the conclusion. An assumption is
something that the author’s conclusion depends upon
Example: Traditionally, decision making by doctors that is carefully, deductively
reasoned has been considered preferable to intuitive decision making. However, a
recent study found that senior surgeons used intuition significantly more than did most
residents or mid-level doctors. This confirms the alternative view that intuition is
actually more effective than careful, methodical reasoning.
Question: The conclusion above is based on which of the following assumptions?
Options:
(a) Senior surgeons are more effective at decision making than are mid-level doctors.
(b) Senior surgeons have the ability to use either intuitive reasoning or deductive,
methodical reasoning in making decisions.
(c) The decisions that are made by mid-level and entry-level doctors can be made as
easily by using methodical reasoning as by using intuitive reasoning.
(d) Senior surgeons use intuitive reasoning in making the majority of their decisions.
(e) None of these

Solution: a. The correct answer is (a), which provides a missing link in the author’s
reasoning by making a connection from the evidence: that intuition is used more by
senior surgeons than other, less-experienced doctors, and the conclusion: that,
therefore, intuition is more effective. None of the other choices helps bridge this gap
in the chain of reasoning. Although some of the other statements may be true, they
are not responsive to the question. In fact, they mostly focus on irrelevant factors such
as appropriateness, ease of application, ability, etc.
« Strengthen an Argument
Assumptions connect premises to conclusions. An argument is strengthened by
strengthening the assumptions.
Example: Three years after the Bhakra Nangal Dam was built, none of the six fish
species native to the area was still reproducing adequately in the river below the dam.
Because the dam reduced the average temperature range of the water from
approximately 40° to approximately 10°, biologists have hypothesized that sharp
increases in water temperature must be involved in signaling the affected species to
begin their reproduction activities.
Question: Which of the following statements, if true, would most strengthen the
scientists’ hypothesis? Options :
(a) The native fish species were still able to reproduce in nearby streams where the
annual temperature range remains approximately 40°.
(b) Before the dam was built, the river annually overflowed its banks, creating
temporary backwaters that were used as breeding areas for the local fish population.
(c) The lowest temperature ever recorded in the river prior to dam construction was
30°; whereas the lowest recorded river temperature after construction was completed
has been 40°.
(d) Non-native fish species, introduced after the dam was completed, have begun
competing with the native species for food.
(e) None of these
Solution: a. most strengthens the conclusion that the scientists reached. It does so by
showing that there is a control group. In other words, a similar population, not
subjected to the same change as the population near the dam, did not experience the
same type of result. Here the basic assumption about the conclusion that scientists
259 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 reached is that ‘because of the reduction of average temperature range of the water,
the reproduction of the native fish species has reduced drastically’. Option (a) clearly
strengthens the assumption.
« Weaken an Argument
Assumptions connect premises to conclusions. An argument is weakened by
weakening the assumptions.
Example: A drug that is very effective in treating some forms of cancer can, at
present, be obtained only from the bark of the Raynhu, a tree that is quite rare in the
wild. It takes the bark of approximately 5,000 trees to make one pound of the drug. It
follows, then, that continued production of the drug must inevitably lead to the
raynhu’s extinction.
Question: Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the above
conclusion?
Options:
(a) The drug made from Raynhu bark is dispensed to doctors from a central authority.
(b) The drug made from the Raynhu bark is expensive to produce.
(c) The Raynhu generally grows in largely inaccessible places.
(d) The Raynhu can be propagated from cuttings and cultivated by farmers.
(e) None of these
Solution: d. provides an alternate source of the Raynhu bark. Even though the tree is
rare in the wild, the argument is silent on the availability of cultivated trees. The
author of the argument must be assuming that there are no Raynhu trees other than
those in the wild, in order to make the leap from the stated evidence to the conclusion
that the Raynhu is headed for extinction. The option (d) weakens the assupmtion -
‘there are limited raynhu trees’ - by saying that there are other ways as well for the
propogation of Raynhu. The other answer choices all contain information that is
irrelevant. Note that the correct choice does not make the conclusion of the argument
impossible. In fact, it is possible that there may be domesticated Raynhu trees and the
species could still become extinct. Answer choice (d) is correct because it makes the
conclusion about extinction less likely to be true.
« Conclusion / Main Point Question
In Main Point / Conlcusion questions, you have to identify the conclusion of an
argument. You are trying to find the author’s point and should approach this question
in a similar way to the reading comprehension main point questions.
Example: People should be held accountable for their own behaviour, and if holding
people accountable for their own behaviour entails capital punishment, then so be it.
However, no person should be held accountable for behaviour over which he or she
had no control.
Example: People should be held accountable for their own behaviour, and if holding
people accountable for their own behaviour entails capital punishment, then so be it.
However, no person should be held accountable for behaviour over which he or she
had no control.
Question: Which of the following is the most logical conclusion of the argument
above?
Options:
(a) People should not be held accountable for the behaviour of other people.
(b) People have control over their own behaviour.
(c) People cannot control the behaviour of other people.
(d) People have control over behaviour that is subject to capital punishment.
(e) None of these
260 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Solution: b. The correct response is (b). The argument includes the following two
premises:
Premise 1: People are accountable for their own behaviour.
Premise 2: People are not accountable for behaviour they cannot control.
Here’s the logical conclusion based on these two premises:
Conclusion: People can control their own behaviour.
(a) would require that people never have control over the behaviour of other people.
Yet the argument does not provide this premise.
(b) would require that people should not be held accountable for the behaviour of
other people. Yet the argument does not provide this premise.
(d) is not inferable. The argument allows for the possibility that a person might not
have control over another person’s behaviour which is subject to capital punishment.
(e) None of these
« Identify the Paradox
These questions present you with a paradox, a seeming contradiction or discrepancy
in the argument, and ask you to resolve it or explain how that contradiction could
exist. In other words, there are two facts that are both true, and yet they appear to be
in direct conflict with one another.
Example: Town Y is populated almost exclusively by retired people and has almost
no families with small children. Yet Town Y is home to a thriving business
specializing in the rental of furniture for infants and small children.
Question: Which of the following, if true, best reconciles the seeming discrepancy
described above?
Options :
(a) The business specializing in the rental of children’s furniture buys its furniture
from distributors outside of Town Y.
(b) The few children who do reside in Town Y all know each other and often stay
over night at each other’s houses.
(c) Many residents of Town Y who move frequently prefer to rent their furniture rather
than buy it outright.
(d) Many residents of Town Y must provide for the needs of visiting grandchildren
several weeks a year.
(e) None of these
Solution: d. The correct answer (d), explains why a town of mostly retired residents
might need to rent children’s furniture. The other answer choices all contain irrelevant
information. This further illustrates the fact that, on all question types, if you eliminate
the irrelevant choices, the remaining choice will most likely be correct.
« Evaluation/ Reasoning Based Questions
Reasoning questions ask you to describe how the argument was made, not necessarily
what it says. These questions are closely related to assumption, weakening, and
strengthening questions. The correct answer identifies a question that must be
answered or information that must be gathered to determine how strong the stimulus
argument is. The information will be related to an assumption that the author is
making. Another type of question that you will encounter asks you to identify a flaw
in the stimulus argument. The question tells you that there is a problem with the logic
of the argument. You just have to choose the answer that describes the flaw.
Example: Some observers have taken the position that the recently elected judge is
biased against men in divorce cases that involve child custody. But the statistics reveal
that in 40% of such cases, the recently elected judge awards custody to the fathers.
Most other judges award custody to fathers in only 20%– 30%of their cases. This
261 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 record demonstrates that the recently elected judge has not discriminated against men
in cases of child custody.
Question: The argument above is flawed in that it ignores the possibility that
Options:
(a) A large number of the recently elected judge’s cases involve child custody
disputes.
(b) The recently elected judge is prejudiced against men in divorce cases that do not
involve child custody issues.
(c) The majority of the child custody cases that have reached the recently elected
judge’s court have been appealed from a lower court.
(d) The evidence shows that men should have won custody in more than 40% of the
recently elected judge’s cases involving divorcing fathers.
(e) None of these
Solution: d. The correct answer (d), points out a flaw in the argument. Specifically, it
points out that the author of the argument was comparing the recently elected judge
to other judges, not to the evidence presented in the recently elected judge’s cases. In
other words, the author of the argument made an unwarranted assumption that the
recently elected judge did not rule against many men in custody battles where the
evidence clearly favored the men. As with strengthening and weakening questions,
the correct answer in flaw questions often involves unwarranted assumptions.
« Identify a Parallel Argument/Structure.
The last type of Critical Reasoning question is the parallel structure question. In this
type of question, you must choose the answer that has the same structure as the
stimulus argument. In other words, you have to find the argument that is analogous to
the given argument in that it includes the same relationship between the evidence
presented and the conclusion.
Example: It is true that it is against international law to provide aid to certain
countries that are building nuclear programs. But, if Russian companies do not
provide aid, companies in other countries will.
Question: Which of the following is most like the argument above in its logical
structure?
Options:
(a) It is true that it is against United States policy to negotiate with kidnappers. But if
the United States wants to prevent loss of life, it must negotiate in some cases.
(b) It is true that it is illegal to sell diamonds that originate in certain countries. But
there is a long tradition in Russia of stockpiling diamonds.
(c) It is true that it is illegal for an attorney to participate in a transaction in which
there is an apparent conflict of interest. But, if the facts are examined carefully, it will
clearly be seen that there is no actual conflict of interest in the defendant’s case.
(d) It is true that it is against the law to steal cars. But someone else certainly would
have stolen that car if the defendant had not done so first.
(e) None of these
Solution: d. The correct answer (d), has the same structure as the stimulus argument.
If you just replace “aid to developing nuclear powers” with “car theft,” and “Russian
companies” with the “defendant,” it is essentially the same argument. Sometimes the
parallel structure is easier to see if you use symbols to represent the terms of the
argument: It is true that X is illegal. But, if Y doesn’t do it, others will. Granted, the
stimulus argument is in the future tense and the credited answer is in the past tense.
However, it certainly is most like the stimulus.

262 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Practice Test

Directions (Qs. 1 to 15) : Study the following paragraphs and answer the question
that follows :
1. Wendy, a student, is an avid backgammon player. All students play either chess or
checkers, but some checkers players do not play chess because they do not understand
chess strategy. Backgammon players never play checkers, because they do not find
checkers challenging. Therefore, Wendy must understand chess strategy.
Which of the following must be true for the conclusion drawn above to be logically
correct?
a. All chess players understand chess strategy.
b. Backgammon is more challenging than checkers.
c. Chess is more challenging than backgammon.
d. All students who find backgammon challenging play checkers.
2. Our school district should not spend its money on the new Verbal Advantage reading
program. After all, our students get all the reading practice they need by studying history
and science.
The argument above depends on which the following assumptions?
a. The Verbal Advantage program would not help the students learn history and science.
b. Other reading programs are just as effective but less expensive than the Verbal
Advantage program.
c. The Verbal Advantage program involves only reading practice.
d. Teaching students history and science is more important than teaching them reading
skills.
e. None of these
3. Efficiency is all right in its place, in the shop, the factory, the store. The trouble with
efficiency is that it wants to rule our play as well as our work; it won’t be content to reign
in the shop, it follows us home.
It can be inferred from the above passage that
a. Efficiency can become all - pervading
b. Efficiency does not always pay
c. Efficiency can be more of a torture than a blessing
d. both (b) and (c)
4. The company encourages its managers to interact regularly, without a preset agenda, to
discuss issues concerning the company and society. This idea has been borrowed from the
ancient Nepalese concept of religious congregation, called satsang. Designations are
forgotten during these meetings; hence, it is not uncommon in these meetings to find a
sales engineer questioning the CEO on some corporate policy or on his knowledge of
customers.
Based on the information provided in the above passage, it can be inferred that
a. The company is concerned about its reputation with its employees.
b. The company believes in fostering the spirit of dialogue without degenerating it into a
position-based debate.
c. The company has some inter-personnel problems in the past due to which it felt the
need for these corporate satsangs.
d. All of the above

263 A Complete Solution For CMAT

5. From Mechi to Mahakali, the new culture vultures are tearing down acres of Nepal’s
architectural treasures. Ancestral owners often fobbed off with a few hundred rupees for
an exquisitely carved door or window, which fetches fifty times that much from foreign
dealers, and yet more from the drawing room sophisticates of Europe and the US. The
reason for such shameless rape of the Indian architectural wealth can perhaps, not
wrongly, be attributed to the unfortunate blend of activist disunity and local indifference.
It can be inferred from the above passage that
a. The environment created by the meeting between activist disunity and local difference
is ideal for antique dealers to thrive in Nepal.
b. Only Nepalese are not proud of their cultural heritage and are hungry for the foreign
currency that is easily available in return of artefacts.
c. Most Nepalese families have heirlooms which can be sold at high prices to Europeans
and Americans.
d. Nepal provides a rich market for unscrupulous antique dealers.
6. Developed countries have made adequate provisions for social security for senior
citizens. State insurers (as well as private ones) offer medicare and pension benefits to
people who can no longer earn. In India, with the collapse of the joint family system, the
traditional shelter of the elderly has disappeared. And a state faced with a financial crunch
is not in a position to provide financial security, So, it is advisable that the working
population give serious thought to building a financial base for itself.
Which one of the following, if it were to happen, weakens the conclusion drawn in the
above passage the most
a. The insurance sector is under developed and trends indicate that it will be extensively
privatized in the future.
b. The insurance sector is under developed and trends indicate that it will be extensively
privatized in the future.
c. India is on a path of development that will take it to a developed country status, with all
its positive and negative implications.
d. If the working population builds a stronger financial base, there will be a revival of the
joint family system.
7. Animals in general are shrewd in proportion as they cultivate society. Elephants and
beavers show the greatest signs of this sagacity when they are together in large numbers,
but when man invades their communities they lose all their spirit of industry. Among
insects, the labours of the bee and the ant have attracted the attention and admiration of
naturalists, but all their sagacity seems to be lost upon separation, and a single bee or ant
seems destitute of every degree of industry. It becomes the most stupid insect imaginable,
and it languishes and soon dies.
Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage
a. Humankind is responsible for the destruction of the natural habitat of the animals and
insects.
b. Animals, In general, are unable to function effectively outside their normal social
environment.
c. Naturalists have great admiration for bees and ants, despite their lack of industry upon
separation.
d. Elephants and beavers are smarter than bees and ants in the presence of human beings.
d. None of these
8. Szymanski suggests that the problem of racism in football may be present even today. He
begins by verifying an earlier hypothesis tha clubs’ wage bills explain 90% of their
performance. Thus, if players’ salaries were to be only based on their abilities, clubs that
spend more should finish higher. If there is pay discrimination against some group of
264 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 players- fewer teams bidding for black players thus lowering the salaries for blacks with
the same ability as whites-that neat relation may no longer hold. He concludes that certain
clubs seem to have achieved much less than what they could have, by not recruiting black
players.
Which one of the following findings would best support Szymanski’s conclusion?
a. Certain clubs took advantage of the situational hiring above-average shares of black
players.
b. Clubs hiered white players at relatively high wages and did not show proportionately
good performance.
c. During the study period, clubs in towns with a history of discrimination against blacks,
under performed relative to their wage bills
d. Clubs in one region, which had higher proportions of black players, had significantly
lower wage bills than their counterparts in another region which had predominantly white
players.
9. The pressure on Italy’s 257 jails has been increasing rapidly. Those jails are old and
overcrowded. They are supposed to hold up to 43,000 people -----9, 000 fewer than now.
San Vittore in Milan, which has 1, 800 inmates, is designed for 800. The number of
foreigners inside jails has also been increasing. The minister in charge of prisons fears
that tensions may snap, and so has recommended to government an amnesty policy ?
Which one of the following, if true, would have most influenced the recommendation
of the minister?
a. Opinion polls have indicated that many Italians favour a general pardon.
b. The opposition may be persuaded to help since amnesties must be approved by a two-
thirds majority in parliament.
c. During a recent visit to a large prison, the Pope whose pronouncements are taken
seriously, appealed for ‘a gesture of clemency’
d. Shortly before the recommendation was made, 58 prisons reported disturbances in a
period of two weeks.
e. None of these
10. Although in the limited sense of freedom regarding appointment and internal working, the
independence of the Central Bank is unequivocally ensured, the same cannot be said of its
right to pursue monetary policy without co- ordination with the central government. The
role of the Central Bank has turned out to be subordinate and advisory in nature.
Which one of the following best supports the conclusion drawn in the passage?
a. The decision of the chairman of the Central Bank to increase the bank rate by two
percentage points sent shock waves in industry, academic and government circles alike.
b. Government has repeatedly resorted to monetisation of the debt despite the reservations
of the Central Bank.
c. The central Bank does not need the central government’s nod for replacing soiled
currency notes.
d. The inability to remove coin shortage was a major shortcoming of this government.
11. “If you want a hassle-free holiday package for city M, then join only our tour. Hurry up;
only a few seats available” – An advertisement of XYZ Tourist Company.
If the above statement is true then which of the following has been assumed while
making the statement?
a. No seats may be available with other tour operators for city M.
b. Nowadays people have a lot of money to spend on their comforts.
c. Travel packages offered by other tour operators are neither cheap nor comfortable.
d. Many people desire convenience and comfort while going for a holiday.
e. None of these
265 A Complete Solution For CMAT
12. Psychological research indicates that college hockey and football players are more
quickly moved to hostility and aggression than are college athletes in non-contact sports
such has swimming. But the researchers’ conclusion—that contact sports encourage and
teach participants to be hostile and aggressive—is untenable. The football and hockey
players were probably more hostile and aggressive to start with, than the swimmers.
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion drawn by the
psychological researchers?
a. The football and hockey players became more hostile and aggressive during the season
and remained so during the off season, whereas there was no increase in aggressiveness
among the swimmers.
b. The football and hockey players, but not the swimmers, were aware at the start of the
experiment that they were being tested for aggressiveness.
c. The same psychological research indicated that the football and hockey players had a
great respect for cooperation and team play, whereas the swimmers were most concerned
with excelling as individual competitors.
d. The research studies were designed to include no college athletes who participated in
both contact and non-contact sports.
13. The argument for liberalisation which answers the worries of the Left parties about the
possible trade deficits created by the opening up of the Indian economy goes thus: ‘In
today’s economic scenario, where there are many trading countries, the trade between
two specific countries need not be balanced. The differing demands of goods and services
and the differing productive capabilities of the same among different countries will cause
a country like India to have trade deficits with some countries and surpluses with other
countries. On the whole, the trade deficits and surpluses will balance out in order to give
a trade balance’.
Which of the following conclusions best summarises the argument presented in the
passage above?
a. Left parties need not worry about trade deficits in India since its trade will always be in
balance even though it runs a deficit with a single country.
b. India’s trade deficits and surpluses with other countries always balance out.
c. The Left parties in India should not be concerned about India’s trade deficits with
specific countries because they will balance out in the long run.
d. None of these
14. In a famous experiment at the IISC campus, when a cat smelled milk, it salivated. In the
experiment, a bell was rung whenever food was placed near the cat. After a number of
trials, only the bell was rung, whereupon the cat would salivate even though no food was
present. Such behaviour has been observed in other animals such as dogs, monkeys, etc.
and is a vital input for training domesticated animals.
Which of the following conclusions may be drawn from the above experiment?
a. The ringing of a bell was associated with food in the mind of the cat.
b. Cats and other animals can be easily tricked.
c. A conclusion cannot be reached on the basis of one experiment.
d. Two stimuli are stronger than one.
15. A mail-order company recently had a big jump in clothing sales after hiring a copywriter
and a graphic artist to give its clothing catalog a magazine-like format designed to appeal
to a more upscale clientele. The company is now planning to launch a housewares catalog
using the same concept. The company’s plan assumes that
a. An upscale clientele would be interested in a housewares catalog
b. Other housewares catalogs with magazine - like formats do not already exist

266 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 d. The same copywriter and graphic artist could be employed for both the clothing and
housewares catalogs
e. Customers to whom the old clothing catalog appealed will continue to make purchase
from catalogs with the new format

Chapter – 4

General Awareness

1. In how many countries is the Carl's Berg Group in operation?

a. 30 b. 35 c. 40 d. 45
2. In which year Asian Games were started
a. 1951 b. 1954 c. 1958 d. 1962
3. First Olympic Games was held in
a. Canada b. England c. Australia d. Jamaica
4. Which team is commonly used Badminton and Volleyball?
a. Deuce b. Dribble c. Double d. Dummy
5. Who was the winner of Asian Football Cup in 2015?
a. Japan b. South Korea c. Australia d. Saudi Arab
6. On which date did the world Cup Football 2014 began?
a. June 10 b. June 11 c. June 12 d. June 13
7. Who is the President of FIFA?
a. Marodana b. Sep Blatter c. Nelson Mandela d. Dunga
8. 'Tarun Tapasi' was authored by
a. Motiram Bhatta b. Lekhanath Poudel
c) Laxmi Pd. Devkota d. Parijat
9. Which country is going to host FIFA World Cup Football 2018?
a. Brazil b. Russia c. Qatar d. Germany
10. Who scored the first goal in the FIFA World Cup 2014?
a. Marcelo b. Thomas Muller c. Neymar d. Messi
11. Who scored the most goals in FIFA world cup 2014?
a. Thomes Muller b. James Rodrignez c. Leonal Messi d. Jaun Caudrodo
12. Who won male player of the year in Pulsar NSJF Sports Award 2070?
a. Paras Khadka b. Bimal Gharti Magar c. Shakti Gauchan d. Anil Gurung
13. Where is the world famous singer Shakira from?
a. Australia b. Colombia c. America d. Mexico
14. When was International Criminal Police Organization (Interpol) established?
a. June 13, 1926 A.D. b. June 13, 1936 A.D.
c. June 13, 1946 A.D. d. June 13, 1956 A.D.
15. When was Asian Development Bank established?
a. 1955 A.D. b. 1967 A.D. c. 1965 A.D. d. 1968 A.D.
16. How many countries are the members in North America Free Trade Agreement?
a. 7 b. 5 c. 3 d. 2
17. When was Non-aligned Movement begin?
a. 1961 A.D. b. 1962 A.D. c. 1963 A.D. d. 1964 A.D.
18. In what programs does Action Dolpo assist financially?
a. Irrigation and Drinking Water b. Education and Community Health
c. Orphanages d. Distribution of Four-footed Animals
19. What is called the reservoir of Kulekhani Hydro Power?
267 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. Jal Sarobar b. Chandra Sarobar c. Manasarobar d. Indra Sarobar
20. In which district is "Gosainkunda" situated?
a. Kabhre b. Nuwakot c. Dhading d. Rasuwa
21. Which player is holding the world record of the centuries?
a. Brian Lara b. Ricky Ponting c. Jacqnes Kallis d. Sachin Tendulkar
22. Who was the FIFA players of the year 2014?
a. Lionel Messi b. Cristina Ronaldo c. Manuel Neuer d. James Rodriguez
23. What is the full form of SIM in the phrase SIM card?
a. Superior International Machine b. Server Identity Machine
c. Sincere Intensive Module d. Subscriber Identity Module
24. Which is the biggest country of Africa continent?
a. Cameroon b. Algeria c. Sudan d. Morocco
25. From which lake is the longest river of the world ‘Nile’ originated?
a. Michigan b. Superior c. Great Slave d. Victoria Lake
26. “Every man is a poet when he is in love”. Who said this?
a. Socrates b. Plato c. Aristotle d. Shakespeare
27. Who said: “I know nothing except the fact of my ignorance”.
a. Plato b. G. B. Shaw c. Socrates d. T. S. Eliot
28. What is the central bank of America called?
a. Federal Reserve Bank b. Bank of America
c. Central Bank of America d. Central Bank
29. Who propounded the ‘Law of Heredity’?
a. Galileo Galilee b. Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen
c. Gregor John Mendall d. Humphrey Davy
30. When was Royal Nepal Academy established? Give the detail date.
a. Ashadh 1, 2014 B.S. b. Ashadh 1, 2015 B.S.
c. Ashadh 1, 2016 B.S. d. Ashadh 1, 2017 B.S.
31. When was RONAST established?
a. 2038 b. 2039 c. 2040 d. 2041
32. Who authors the book “Nepal, the Kingdom of Himalayas”?
a. Henry Ford b. Julia Chang c. Edmund Hillary d. Tony Hegan
33. Who is the last king of Dwapar Age?
a. Janamejaya b. Sabarni c. Samadhi d. Markandeya
34. Give the detail date when Boeing Jet first landed in TIA?
a. 1973 B.S. b. 1983 B.S. c. 1993 B.S. d. 2003 B.S.
35. Sarojani Naidu is known as Nightingale of India. Who is known as Iron Lady?
a. Margerate Thatcher b. Mary Antonet c. Indira Gandhi d. Benjir Bhutto
36. Where is the famous newspaper ‘Daily Mirror’ published from?
a. London b. Budapest c. Paris d. Delhi
37. If CIA is the most popular intelligence agency of America, which country does another
popular intelligence agency MOSSAD belong to?
a. Palestine b. Israel c. Iran d. Iraq
38. When was pyramid constructed?
a. 2700 BC b. 3700 BC c. 4700 BC d. 5700 BC
39. What is the French presidential palace called?
a. Luvra Palace b. Helen Palace c. Elysee Palace d. Antonito Palace
40. What is the name of the building constructed by NAZI s in the bunker of which Hitler had
committed suicide?
a. Reichskanzlei b. Raskalnikhov c. Goildeinpalato d. Srungholdet
41. After the Mahabharata-war, who cursed Krishna that his own people would fight and
destroy each other?
a. Bhisma b. Kritaverma c. Bidur d. Gandhari

268 A Complete Solution For CMAT

42. In 1642, which French philosopher and mathematician designed and built the first
mechanical calculator?
a. Galileo b. Blaise Pascal c. Leonardo da Vinci d. Milton Clark
43. If Tokha is famous for ‘chaku’, what is Khokana famous for?
a. tea b. clothes c. sugar d. oil
44. Name the wife of King Dushyanta.
a. Rambha b. Urmila c. Gaumati d. Shakuntala
45. When was Mount Everest first scaled by Tenzing Norgay and Edmund Hillary?
a. March 29, 1953 b. May 29, 1953 c. June 29, 1953 d. July 29, 1953
46. When does the longest day in the year fall?
a. June 21 b. July 21 c. August 21 d. September 21
47. How many land-locked countries are there in Asia?
a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7
48. Who is known as the father of English poetry?
a. Chaucer b. Shakespeare c. Milton d. Pope
49. What is the previous name of Radio Nepal?
a. Nepal Prajantra Radio b. Janasakti Radio Nepal
c. Prajatantrik Radio Karyakram d. Radio Nepal Mata
50. In which part of human body is Vitamin A produced?
a. Liver b. lungs c. brain d. bone
51. When was General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs (GATT) established?
a. 1917 b. 1927 c. 1937 d. 1947
52. When did Nepal fully accede to WTO? Full Date.
a. April 22, 2004 b. April 23, 2004 c. April 24, 2004 d. April 25, 2004
53. Who was the first Board First in SLC exam?
a. Pushpa Bhakta Malla b. Pushpa Kamal Dahal
c. Baburam Bhattarai d. Matrika Prasad Yadav
54. What is the metal bangle called that is worn by widows?
a. chura b. bangal c. raiya d. churi
55. Which historical city was previously called ‘Manigal’?
a. Bhaktapur b. Kathmandu c. Kirtipur d. Patan
56. Who is the youngest man to drive a vehicle in Nepal who drove one at the age of six years
and nine months?
a. Aabsyak Singh b. Hrishav Malla c. Abhijit Bhattarai d. Amogh Acharya
57. Which bank first started the service of credit card?
a. Himalayan Bank b. Standard Chartered Bank
c. Nepal Bank Limited d.NABIL Bank
58. Name the scientist who used to forget his name.
a. St. Nicholas b. Alfred Bernard Nobel
c. Pythagoras d. Thomas Alba Addison
59. What does the 'red' color in Red Cross flag symbolize?
a. equality b. neutrality c. responsibility d. accountability
60. Which country makes two budgets in a year?
a. Uruguay b. Germany c. France d. Pakistan
61. Which holy pilgrimage is known as 'Uttar Gaya'?
a. Betrawati b. Beni c. Benuganga d. Banganga
62. Which country prides to be the first country to initiate (begin) printing as well as newspaper
publication?
a. Greece b. Italy c. China d. England
63. When is World Aids Day celebrated?
a. December 1 b. January 1 c. November 1 d. August 1
64. Which Nepalese artist designed the logo of SAARC?
a. Sailendra Simkhada b. Sailendra Singh
269 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 c. Sailedra Maharjan d. Sailendra Hirachan
65. If LTTE is a terrorist group of Sri Lanka, where is the terrorist group Black Cat in
operation?
a. Shree Lanka b. Bangladesh c. India d. Pakistan
66. In which year FIFA World Cup started?
a. 1930 b. 1931 c. 1932 d. 1933
67. Which country won First FIFA World Cup?
a. Brazil b. Uruguay c. Argentina d. Germany
68. Who was the first Economist to have evolved the technique of Indifference Curve
Analysis?
a. F. Y. Edgeworth b. Adam Smith c. Ruskin d. Ohno Taichi
69. Perfect Competition is a market situation. What is this characterized by?
a. elasticity of demand b. homogeneous product
c. futures and options d. business cycle or trade cycle
70. How many districts are there in Far-West Development region?
a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9
71. Who received the glorious death at the war of Deuthal in B.S. 1871, who was greatly
praised by the English for his bravery?
a. Sardar Amar Singh Thapa b. Sardar Bhakti Thapa
c. Balabhadra Kunwar d. Sardar Bhimsen Thapa
72. Who propounded the Liquidity Preference Theory of Interest?
a. Peter Drucker b. Amartya Sen c. J.B. Say d. J.M. Keynes
73. When was Rani Pokhari constructed by Pratap Mall?
a. 1717 B.S b. 1727 B.S c. 1737 B.S d. 1747 B.S
74. Who constructed Pashupati temple?
a. King Mahendra Malla b. King Jayasthiti Malla
c. King Bhasker Dev Berma d. King Prachanda Dev
75. ‘Every supply creates its own demand’. To whom do you attribute this statement?
a. Amartya Sen b. J.B. Say c. Peter Drucker d. Adam Smith
76. Who is the first Commander-in-Chief of Nepal?
a. Juddha Shamser b. Kalu Pande
c. Amar Singh Thapa d. Ranajung Pandey
77. Who was the winner of Golden Boot in FIFA World Cup 2014?
a. Romelu Lukaku c. Harry Kane c. Lionel Messi d. Thomes Muller
78. What is SAFTA?
a. A Trade Treaty among Seven Nations
b. Arrangement of Mutual Trading
c. Preferential Trading Arrangement in South Asia
d. Agreement of Preferential Trading
79. Who is the lyricist of the song “Sarangi ta rete pani bolchha mithai dhwoni” sung by Shishir
Yogi?
a. Lekhanath Poudyal
b. Poet Laureate Madhav Prasad Ghimire
c. Kali Prasad Rijal
d. Laxmi Prasad Devkota
80. What do you call the goods lasting more than a year?
a. Perishable Goods b. Raw Materials
c. Durable Goods d. Finished Products
81. What do you call the economy in which there is co-existence of public and private sectors?
a. One-Door Economy b. Mixed Economy
c. Directed Economy d. Elastic Economy
82. What do you call the change in demand due to the change in the price of substitute goods?
a. cross elasticity b. boom c. monopoly d. economies of scale
270 A Complete Solution For CMAT
83. Specify the enactment date of Company Act in Nepal?
a. 2020 B.S. b. 2021 B.S. c. 2022 B.S. d. 2023 B.S.
84. What is the first Nepali feature film played by actor Rajesh Hamal?
a. Yuga Dekhi Yuga Samma b. Dharma
c. Kanchhi d. Kusume Rumal
85. Who was the designer of 14 universal principles of Management?
a. Ronald Bringham b. Fons Trompenaars
c. Ohno Taichi d. Henry Fayol
86. When was advertisement first published in Gorkhapatra?
a. Aswin 12, 1960 B.S. b. Aswin 12, 1961 B.S.
c. Aswin 12, 1962 B.S. d. Aswin 12, 1963 B.S.
87. When was America discovered by Columbus?
a. 1490 b. 1491 c. 1492 d. 1493
88. Which country has the shape like of a boot?
a. Italy b. Germany c. Switzerland d. France
89. Who invented dynamite?
a. James Watt b. Nils Borah c. Alfred Nobel d. Einstein
90. When had Amnesty International received Nobel prize for peace?
a. 1947 b. 1957 c. 1967 d. 1977
91. Who is the first General Secretary of SAARC?
a. Rakesh Sud b. Dr. Jakir Hussain
c. Lok Man Karki d. Abul Hassan
92. Which two oceans are linked by Panama Canal?
a. Indian and Arctic b. Atlantic and Indian
c. Artic and Pacific d. Pacific and Atlantic
93. Which is the largest lake in the world?
a. Black b. Begnas c. Caspian d. Bermuda
94. Which game is the word ‘pawn’ related with?
a. Cricket b. Chess c. Table Tennis d. Volley Ball
95. When was Julfikar Ali Bhutto hanged?
a. 4 April, 1979 b. 4 April, 1980 c. 4 April, 1981 d. 4 April, 1982
96. When was Hong Kong handed over to China by Britain?
a. 1st July, 1995 b. 1st July, 1996
c. 1st July,1997 d. 1st July, 1998
97. Who authored the book “Between Hope and History”?
a. George W. Bush b. Bill Clinton
c. J.F. Kennedy d. Abraham Lincoln
98. Which country has the largest scale of jungle?
a. Brazil b. Argentina c. America d. Russia
99. Which snake runs the fastest?
a. Lamba b. Camba c. Samba d. Mamba
100. Who was the record for scoring the most goals in World Cup history?
a. Ronaldo b. Diego Marodona c. Pele d. Miroslov Klose
101. Who is also known as “Warrior Hero”?
a. Comrade Pasang b. Tom Cruise c. Sylvester Stallion d. Che Guevara
102. What is the first Indian test-tube baby called?
a. Durga b. Chandi c. Sapsati d. Parvati
103. Who had narrated the Mahabharata war live to Dhritarastra?
a. Satyaki b. Sanjaya c. Salya d. Salwa
104. Who said: “Science without religion is blind and religion without science lame”?
a. Albert Einstein b. Thomas Alba Addison
c. John Luckas d. Sussan K. Langer
105. In which country are the head quarters of FIFA located?
271 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. Switzerland b. Brazil c. France d. Netherland
106. What is also known as “War Child”?
a. Red Cross b. WHO c. League of Nations d. UNDP
107. What is called the female gorilla?
a. Koko b. Khokho c. Gogo d. Ghogho
108. Which is the largest district of Nepal?
a. Rolpa b. Dolpa c. Mugu d. Karnali
109. Who of the following won the world cup both as the captain and coach of his county’s
team.
a. Diego Marodema b. Mario Zagallo c. Franz Beckenbauer d. Jupp Derwall
110. Which Shah king was famous as 'Nirvanananda' ?
a. Prithvi Narayan Shah b. Pratap Singh Shah
c. Rana Bahadur Shah d. Surendra Bikram Shah
111. What was Bahadur Shah also called?
a. Chatte Bahadur Shah b. Fatte Bahadur Shah
c. Mirge Bahadru Shah d. Ranajung Bahadur Shah
112. What was the name of the mother of Prithvi Narayan Shah?
a. Chandra Prabhawati b. Kausalyawati
c. Budhhimati d. Shubhadrawati
113. Which country won the FIFA Fair Play Trophy in FIFA World Cup 2018?
a. Spain b. France c. Croatia d. Belgium
c. Football For Peace d. A Time To Make Friends
114. Where was Bahadur Shah born?
a. Rusuwa b. Gorkha c. Nuwakot d. Dhading
115. Who was the first Chief Editor of the Rising Nepal?
a. Subarna Samsher b. Barun Samsher c. Narasamsher d. Toran Samsher
116. Where has Bhimsen Thapa's head been kept safely?
a. Neharu Museum b. Basantapur Museum
c. Chhauni Museum d. London Museum
117. When was paper note brought into practice in Nepal?
a. 1990 b. 1998 c. 2002 d. 2008
118. Which was the opening date of Asian Games 2014.
a. 21 March 2014 b. 15 May 2014
c. 19 September 2014 d. 12 August 2014
119. Where was Asian Game 2014 held ?
a. Bangkok b. Jakarta c. Manila d. Inchesh
120. From when Nepal contributed in the Peace Keeping of UN missions?
a. 2015 b. 2016 c. 2017 d. 2018
121. Which country is at the top in matters of capital punishment?
a. China b. India c. America d. Uganda
122. Which Russian leader had introduced the Economical policies like Perestroika and
Glasnost?
a. Vladimir Yeltsin b. Vladimir Putin
c. Yudayev Kalashkhov d. Mikhail Gorbachov
123. How many countries took part in 17th Asian Games?
a. 30 b. 45 c. 60 d. 75
124. What is the name of Hanuman's mother?
a. Sugandha b. Bayabya c. Anjana d. Aarushi
125. Who is the 'god of death' according to Hindu religion?
a. Chitragupta b. Chana c. Prachanda d. Yamaraj
126. Who wanted to kill God Buddha?
a. Shivadatta b. Devdatta c. Hiranyahanta d. Priyadatta
127. Who had betrayed Christ?
272 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. Herod b. David c. Judas d. Gordon
128. How many sporting events were held at 17th Asian Games?
a. 20 b. 28 c. 36 d. 45
th
129. What was the motto of 17 Asian Games?
a. Diversity is here b. Shine the diversity
c. Diversity Shines Here d. Shine the Diversity
130. Who is the ‘goddess of love’ according to Roman culture?
a. Athena b. Helen c. Aphrodite d. Venus
131. From when did Securities Exchange Ordinance got effective?
a. 2003 A.D. b. 2004 A.D. c. 2005 A.D. d. 2006 A.D.
132. What is the full form of GDP?
a. Gross Development Project b. Gross Domestic Product
c. Gross District Product d. None of them
133. What do you mean by LCD in LCD monitor?
a. Liquid Chip Display b. Liquid Crystal Display
c. Low Character Display d. None of the above
134. What is the full form of V-SAT?
a. Very Small Appropriate Terminal b. Very Small Appendix Toner
c. Very Small Appredore Technique d. Very Small Appredore Terminal
135. What do you mean by DTI?
a. Department of Trade and Investment
b. Department of Trade and Information
c. Development of Trade and Industry
d. Department of Trade and Industry
136. Companies wishing to raise more money for expansion can sometimes issue new shares,
which are normally offered first to existing shareholders at less than their market price.
This is called:
a. bond shares b. rights share
c. lefts shares d. bonus shares
137. When a company becomes unable to pay debt, it is called:
a. solvent b. bankrupt c. blue chip d. liquidate
138. What do you call the money invested in a possibly risky new business?
a. adventure capital b. venture capital
c. debenture d. ransom
139. What do you call the process when a financial institution guarantees to buy an entire new
share issue if no one else wants it?
a. upper write b. down write c. underwrite d. below write
140. What do you call the deposit that acts as a security or a guarantee for a loan?
a. collateral b. portfolio c. capital d. premium
141. What do you call the process when a company combines with another one?
a. takeover b. combiner c. merger d. slipper
142. What do you call the computerized machine that allows bank customers to withdraw
money, check their balance and so on?
a. cash dispenser b. Credit Card Machine
c. ATM machine d. Cash Card Machine
143. What do you call a large corporation made up of a group of companies?
a. umbrella company b. deregulation
c. component d. conglomerate
144. The stock of any item or resource used in an organization including raw materials, parts,
supplies, work in progress and finished products are called:
a. plant b. inventory c. outsourcing d. asset
145. Money paid to manual workers is:
a. wages b. salary c. earnings d. bonus
273 A Complete Solution For CMAT
146. What do you call the company structure in which an employee reports to more than one
boss?
a. line structure b. functional structure
c. matrix structure d. staff structure
147. Service sector is also called:
a. primary sector b. secondary sector
c. special sector d. tertiary sector
148. What do you call the difference between a country's total earnings from exports and its total
expenditure on imports?
a. foreign account b. balance of payments
c. mutual payments d. international payments
149. What do you call the lowest point in the business or trade cycle?
a. trough b. recession c. slump d. contraction
150. Calculating an individual's or company's liability for tax is called:
a. tax accounting b. creative accounting
c. cost accounting d. managerial accounting
151. The amount of business done by a company over a year is called:
a. lay off b. turnover c. profit d. income
152. A way to delay the payment of tax to a later time is known as:
a. tax deductible b. tax havens c. tax shelter d. tax payment
153. An absence of luxury and comfort is called:
a. autarky b. recession c. depression d. austerity
154. Which country hosted the 18th Asian Games?
a. Hanoi, Vietnam b. Delhi, India
c. Beijin, China d. Jakarta, Indonesia
155. Who was names as the most valuable player (MVP) of 17th Asian Game
a. Khurshed Beknazarov b. Yi Sophany c. Tai Cheau Xuen d. Kosuke Hagino
156. Which country won the first medal at 17th Asian Games?
a. India b. South Korea c. Japan d. China
157. Which country won the first Cricket World Cup in 1975?
a. Australia b. West Indies c. India d. South Africa
158. Which of these bowlers set a world cup recod of taking 4 wickets in 4 consecutive balls?
a. Anil Kumble b. Lasith Malinga c. Shane Warne d. Glenn Mograth
159. Which Batsman has the fastest century making record in ODI with his name?
a. Sanath Jayasuriya b. Shahid Afridi c. Virendr Sehwag d. de Villiers
160. Who bowled the first ball of 1975 worldcup?
a. Richard Hadlee b. Kapil Dev c. Don Bradman d. Madan Lal
161. Who is the highest run score in a cricket world cup?
a. Sanath Jayariya b. Ricky POnting
c. Inzamam – Ul- Haq d. Sachin Tendulkar
162. In which country Tennis originated?
a. France b. England c. Australia d. USA
th
163. How many Gold Medal won by Nepal in 12 South Asian Game 2016?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
164. Who won the first Gold Medal for Nepal in 12th South Asian Game 2016?
a. Nima Thapa b. Bishnu Buddha Magar
c. Nima Gharti Magar d. Bishnu Thapa Magar
165. Which country, invented Camera?
a. Japan b. England c. USA d. France
166. When was Nepal declared republic?
a. 2065, Baishakh 18 b. 2065, Jestha 18
c. 2065, Ashadha 18 d. 2065, Shrawan 18
163. Where is the headquarters of international Tennis Federation
274 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. London b. USA c. French d. Australia
164. Which is the highest paying Tennis tournament in the world?
a. Wimbledon b. French Open c. US Open d. Australian Open
165. Which is the oldest tennis tournament in the world?
a. US open b. Wimbledon c. French Open d. Australian Open
166. Who won the man single title at 15th Australian Open 2015?
a. Andy Murry b. Novak Djokovic c. Rafael Nadal d. Roger Federer
171. Which is the biggest Hydro Project that is being wholly financed by the Nepalese investors?
a. Upper Trishuli Hydro Project
b. Upper Karnali Hydro Project
c. Upper Tarun III Hydro Project
d. Upper Tamakoshi Hydro Project
172. Who wan the women’s singles title at Frech Open Tennis 2014?
a. Maria Sharapora b. Serena Williams c. Sara Errami d. Simona Halep
173. Which is the oldest sports in the World ?
a. Football c. Tennis c. Archery d. Cricket
174. What do the five sings on the Olympic symbol represent?
a. The five oceans b. The five continents
c. The five Planets d. Five Greek Gods
175. The five sings of the Olympic symbol are five different colours. Red, Green, Yellow, Blue
and………?
a) Indigo b. Violet c. Orange d. Black
176. When was Pulitzer Prize established?
a. 1907 b. 1917 c. 1927 d. 1937
177. Name the capital city of Kuwait.
a. Doha b. Nicosia c. Kampala d. Kuwait
178. What is the area of Pacific Ocean?
a. 1,40,56,000 Sq.KM b. 2,83,50,500 Sq.KM
c. 3,34,20,000 Sq.KM d. 6,41,86,300 Sq.KM
179. Where is the mother company of the famous company Adidas located?
a. Italy b. America c. Germany d. Spain
180. When was the famous soft drink Pepsi started production?
a. 1850 b. 1898 c. 1920 d. 1939
181. What is the company Mc Donald's Corporation famous for?
a. Soft Drinks b. Fast Food c. Perfumes d. Confectionary
182. Where is the mother industry of Coca-Cola situation?
a. Virginia b. California c. Atlanta d. Alabama
183. Which city of America is called the City of the Golden Gate?
a. San Francisco b. Texas c. New York d. Arizona
184. Which river is called the sorrow of Bihar?
a. Bramhaputra b. Yamuna c. Koshi d. Mahakali
185. How many years was taken to build the presidential palace of America 'TheWhite House'?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
186. Where are the headquarters of the international Olympic Committee located?
a. Lausanne, Switzerland b. Paris, France
c. Athens, Greece d. Atlanta, United States
187. Where are the tribe called Tamil reside in a greater number a part from Tamilnadu?
a. Afghanistan b. Shree Lanka c. Pakistan d. Bangladesh
188. How many protons and electrons are found in uranium?
a. 72 b. 82 c. 92 d. 99
189. What is salt made of?
a. Sodium and Chlorine b. Potassium and Sodium
c. Potassium and Chlorine d. Sodium and Phosphorous
275 A Complete Solution For CMAT
190. What is the machine called that is used to measure the speed of ships?
a. speedometer b. silo meter c. clinometer d. clydoscope
191. In which newspaper was the Cross Word puzzle printed for the first time in the world?
a. New York Times b. New York Herald
c. New York Journal d. New York World
192. In which year were the first Modern Olympic Games held?
a. 1892 b. 1896 c. 1900 d. 1904
193. What language Jesus Christ used to speak?
a. Latin b. Greek c. English d. Aramaic
194. What was the strong wall called that was built by France from Switzerland to Belgium to
protect from the attack of Germany before the World War II?
a. Red Line b. Magnet Line
c. Line of Control d. Electric Line
195. When was America engaged in civil war?
a. 1562-65 b. 1662-65 c. 1762-65 d. 1862-65
196. When had Korea War taken place?
a. 1950-53 b. 1951-54 c. 1952-55 d. 1953-56
197. When had Iran-Iraq war taken place?
a. 1950-60 b. 196--70 c. 1970-80 d. 1980-90
198. When was World Trade Center of America destroyed?
a. 11 September, 2000 b. 11 September, 2001
c. 11 September, 2002 d. 11 September, 2003
199. When was paper invented in China?
a. 205 BC b. 105 BC c. 05 AD d. 105 AD
200. Who is the author of Harry Portter?
a. J.K. Brown b. J.K. Flemming c. J.K. Smith d. J.K. Rolling
201. Who has been awarded with the title "Distinguished Person of Kathmandu"?
a. Ian Martin b. Lann Gren c. Tony Hegan d. Julia Chang

202. Which of the following is known as the father of Modern Olympic?

a. le Margues de amaranch b. Pieree de Counbertin
c. Demetrus VIkelas d. Ferenc Kemeny
203. Who had developed the Quantum Theory?
a. Newton b. Mex Pleng c. Dalton d. Archimedes
204. Who developed machine gun?
a. R. Gatling b. James Chadwick
c. Rom Korf d. Roger Bacon
205. Who is the author of the play "Murder in the Cathedral"?
a. Adolf Hitler b. John Ruskin c. T.S. Eliot d. Graham Green
206. Which of the following countries won the maximum number of medals at the first Olympic
Games in 1896?
a. Germany b. Great Britain
c. United States of America d. Greece
207. Who was regarded as The Great Communicator?
a. Ronald Regan b. Richard Nixon
c. Bill Clinton d. George W. Bush
208. Who was the first President of Republic China?
a. Hu Jintao b. Jiang Deo c. Maotsetung d. Dr. Sanyatsen
209. Who was the author of the book 'Das Capital'?
a. Mohan Das Karamchanda Gandhi b. Carl Marx
c. Fredrick Engels d. Stalin
210. When was the Nazi had established 'Gestapo'?
a. 1914 b. 1933 c. 1945 d. 1960
276 A Complete Solution For CMAT
211 . What do you call a male prostitute?
a. lesbian b. gay c. gigolo d. prostitute
212. Who had played the role of the 'Godfather', a movie based on Mario Puzzo's bestseller novel
'Godfather'?
a. Ronald Regan b. Bruce Willis c. Marlon Brando d. Dharmendra
213. Which among the following is not a programming language?
a. Cobol b. Logo c. Lisp d. PAT
214. What do you call the disease after which one's ability to study gets reduced?
a. Anemia b. Epilepsy c. Amnesia d. Alexia
215. What field of study "Oedipus Complex" related with?
a. Economics b. Maths c. Psychology d. Chemistry
216. What class should one join if one wants to improve one's handwriting?
a. cursive b. calligraphy c. graphics d. limerick
217. How many lines are used in a sonnet?
a. 4 b.14 c. 24 d. 34
218. When journalism contains more exaggeration and lacks truth in it, we call such thing as:
a. white journalism b. black journalism
c. red journalism d. yellow journalism
219. The leader who delivers provoking speeches is called:
a. demagogue b dynamic c. dissent d. keynote speaker
220. What is the legal paper called in which one distributes his or her property to the persons of
his or her wish?
a. agreement paper b. will c. wish d. appreciation of money
221. Copying other's signature ditto to cheat him or her is known as:
a. indictment b. libel c. betrayal d. forgery
222. What is 'love marriage' called in Nepali?
a. magi bibaha b. gandharba bibaha
c. bhagi bibaha d. jhara bibaha
223. What do you call the young leaders who protest the old generation leaders for their illogical,
old-fashioned concepts and policies?
a. Young Protestors b. Young Turks
c. Young Horns d. Young Spikes
224. What do you call a state which is run not by constitutional rules but religious rules like
Vatican City?
a. Theocratic State b. Autocratic State
c. Totalitarian State d. Democratic State
225. Which two countries are called the Red Giants?
a. America and Britainb. France and Germany
c. America and Russia d. China and Russia
226. When a country gives equal freedom to all religious followers and the nation doesn't show
partiality to any religious group, it is called:
a. Utilitarianism b. Republic c. Secularism d. Rightists
227. Where is the historically popular Bhairabi temple situated?
a. Nuwakot b) Kathmandu c. Dolkha d. Gorkha
228. When was the opening ceremony of London Olympic 2012?
a. 27 July 2012 b. 5 May 2012 c. 6 June 2012 d. 8 Feb. 2012
229. Where was Rajrajeswori exiled?
a. Panauti b. Balambu c. Dhankuta d. Helambu
230. Where is the famous Vyas Cave situated?
a. Khaptad b. Damauli c. Palpa d. Maibeni
231. Which Shah King's wife was the incarnation of Goddess Durga?
a. Narabhupal Shah b. Drabya Shah c. Ram Shah d. Bahadur Shah
232. What is goddess Bhadrakali called in Newari?
277 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. Lutiajima b. Kankesworiajima
c. Lumadhi d. Swetakali
233. Samba dance is connected with:
a. Argentina b. Cameroon c. Cuba d. Brazil
234. What is the prominent religious scripture of Jain religion?
a. Bachanamritam b. Bhagabatamritam
c. Vedamritam d. Pabitramritam
235. How many books are there altogether in both the Old Testament and the New Testament?
a. 64 b. 65 c. 66 d. 67
236. Who won the first gold medal in London Olympic 2012?
a. Sylwia Bogacka b. Yi Siling c. Yu Dan d. Marco Galiazzo
237. Who broke Larisa Latinyna’s record of 18th Olympic medals when he won his 19th
Olympic medal(15 Gold, 2 Silver, 2 Bronze) in London Olympic 2012?
a. Ryan Lochte b. Laisen Jensen c. Michael Phelps d. Park Taehwen
238. How much money was fined to the accused of the famous Rana era 'Library Parva'?
a. 50 b. 75 c. 100 d. 200
239. When did Jung Bahadur die?
a. 1934 b. 1935 c. 1936 d. 1937
240. Which country is going to host the 2016 Summer Olympic?
a. Rio de Janeiro, Brazil b. Madrid, Spain
c. Tokyo, Japan d. Chicago, USA
241. Who said this: A man is born free, but everywhere he is in chain".
a. Leo Tolstoy b. Machiavelli c. Voltaire d. Rousseau
242. Who is regarded as the Father of Symphony?
a. Mozart b. Beethoven c. Hedan d. Brumel
243. Who is regarded as the "Maiden Queen"?
a. Queen Elizabeth I b. Queen Elizabeth II
c. Queen Mary Antoinette d. Queen Martha I
244. When was UNO established?
a. October 24, 1945 b. November 24, 1945
c. November 28, 1945 d. December 24, 1945
245. Who is regarded as the Father of Science Fiction?
a. Aldous Huxley b. Isaac Asimov c. Merry Shelly d. Jules Vern
246. Which country has the highest population in the African continent?
a. South Africa b. Nigeria c. Sudan d. Somalia
247. Which country is regarded as the 'Pearl of the Orient'?
a. Malaysia b. Mauritius c. Hong Kong d. Singapore
248. Which country is known as the land of lakes?
a. Finland b. Denmark c. Sweden d. Canada
249. Who invented Television?
a. J. L. Baird b. Dr. Burner Wall Brouce
c. Benjamin Franklin d. Robert Boyal
250. Who had developed the Atomic Theory?
a. John Dalton b. Newton c. Einstein d. Jules Vern
251. How much percent do Nepal bear in UN budget?
a. 0.001% b. 0.01% c. 0.1% d. 1%
252. Where is the headquarter of UN?
a. London b. Geneva, c. Rome d. New York
253. Where is he Headquarter of International Court of Justice?
a. US b. France c. Netherland d. U.K.
254. Who is the current Secretary General of UN?
a. Yukiya Amano b. Raymond Beniyamin
c. Kofi Annan d. Ban Ki Moon
278 A Complete Solution For CMAT
255. How many members are there in security council?
a. 15 b. 16 c. 18 d. 20.
256. Which of the following is not a UN Organisation?
a. UNESCO b. Food an Agriculture Organisation
c. North Atlantic Treaty Organisation d. World Food Programme
257. How many Judge are there in international court of Justice?
a. 13 b. 14. C. 15 d. 16
258. When was World Bank set up?
a. 1944 b. 1945 c. 1947 d. 1948
259. Where is the head quarter of World Bank?
a. Rome, Italy b. Vienna, Austria
c. Washington, USA d. Geneva, Switzerland
260. Which of the following is used as the logo of the World Wide Fund for Nature(WWF)?
a. Deer b. Panda c. Camel d. Lion
261. Which of the following countries is not a member of the G-8 group?
a. Germany b. France c. Italy d. Spain
262. Which of the following Countries is not a member of SAARC?
a. Nepal b. Bangladesh c. Afghanistan d. Myanmar
263. The main aim of SAARC is
a. Regional Cooperation b. International Affairs
c. Non-alignity d. Peaceful Coexistence
264. When was the south Asian Association for Regional Co-operation (SAARC) formed?
a. 1985 b. 1982 c. 1986 d. 1983
265. Which of the following is Human Rights Organisation?
a. The French Community b. The organistion of African Unity
c. The Arab League d. Amnesty International
266. The head quarters of the International Red Cross is situated in
a. Viehna b. Paris c. Hague d. Geneva
267. Amnesty International has its headquarters at
a. Berlin b. New York c. Washington d. London
268. INTERPOL means
a. International Political Conference
b. International Criminal Police Organisation
c. International Association of Police Officers
d. None of these
269. G-15 is a group of
a. Developing countries b. Non-aligned countries
c. Developed Countries d. Companies
270. The member Countries of NAFTA are
a. USA and Canada b. USA, Canada and Mexico
c. Canada and Mexico d. USA and Mexico
271. The First General Secretary of UNO was
a. Dag Hammarskjold b. U Thant
c. Trygue Lie d. Kurt Waldeheim
272. When was the first Nobel Prize awarded?
a. 1895 b. 1901 c. 1907 d. 1913
273. For which of the following disciplines is Nobel Prize awarded?
a. Physics and Chemistry b. Physiology or Medicine
c. Literature, Peace and Economics d. All of the above
274. What is the largest bone in the human body?
a. Fibula b. Ulna c. Femur d. Tibia
275. What is the largest desert in the world?
a. Arabian Desert b. Sahara Desert c. Gobi Desert d. Great Basia
279 A Complete Solution For CMAT
276. Which country has the largest armed force?
a. Russia b. USA c. Israel d. China
277. Which is the biggest underground railway network?
a. Tokyo b. Moscow c. Seoul d. New York
278. When did Nepal got the membership of UN?
a. Dec. 12, 1955 b. Dec 15, 1955 c. Dec 14, 1955 d. Dec 15, 1955
279. The longest river in the world is the
a. Nile b. Amazon c. Zaire d. Parana
280. Who won the Nobel Peace Prize 2014 ?
a. Kailash Satyarthi, Malala b. Isamu Akasaki, HiroshiAmano
c. John O´Keefe , May-Britt Moser d. Eric Betzig, William E. Moerner
281. The longest highway in the world has a length of About
a.7500km b. 8000 km c. 8500km d. 9000km
282. The country that accounts for nearly one third of the total teak production of the world is
a. China b. U.S. c . Myanmar d. India
283. The largest coffee growing country in the world is
a. Brazil b. south Africa c. Nigeria d. Bangladesh
284. The country also known as "country of Copper" is
a. brazil b. south Africa c. Kenya d. Zambia
285. The country which ranks second in terms of land area is
a. Canada b. Russia c. brazil d. china
286. The Japanese call their country as
a. Nippon b. Jepson c. Kipper d. Sipper
287. The world's oldest known city is
a. Rome b. Istanbul c. Damascus d. Jerusalem
288. The biggest island of the world is
a. Baffin b. Greenland c. New Guinea d. Borneo
289. The country which is the largest producer of rubber in the world is
a. China b. Singapore c. Australia d. Malaysia
290. The country called the Land of Rising Sun is-
a. Great Britain b. Indian c. Nepal d. Japan
291. The country known as the Sugar Bowl of the world is-
a. Cuba b. Africa c. Malaysia d. Netherlands
292. The lowest point on earth is
a. Dead sea b Lake Assal c. Trufan d.Qattara
293. The largest ocean of the world is the
a. Pacific ocean b. Atlantic ocean c. Indian ocean d. Arctic ocean

294. The world's largest diamond producing country is

a. America b. Australia c. Nigeria d. South Africa
295. Which of the following rivers flows from Nepal to Bihar?
a. Koshi b Baghmati c. Narayani d. Karnali
296. When was Tribhuvan University set up?
a. 1957 b. 1959 c. 1961 d. 1963
297. The flag of which country has the Star of David?
a. U.K. b. Jordan c. Israel d. India
298. Which country is ruled by a single dynasty for more than two thousand years?
a. South Korea b. Australia c. Japan d. North Korea
299. Which game is played with five players on either side?
a. Basketball b. Volleyball c. Hockey d. Cricket
300. Who won the Hockey World Cup in 1975?
a. Australia b. India c. England d. South Africa
301. Kilowatt is the unit of
280 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. Energy b. Power c. Force d. Electricity
302. Tribhuvan University celebrated its golden jubilee in :
a. 2009 b. 2010 c. 2012 d. 2013
303. The first person to set foot upon moon was:
a. Stuart R. Roosu b. Edgar D. Mitchell c. Alfred M. Woden d. Neil Amstrong
304. The largest producer of fish in the world is
a. Australia b. Norway c. Japan d. India
305. Which of the following countries does not lie on Equator?
a. Gabon b. Colombia c. Tanzania d. Indonesia
306. Where is the seat international court of Justice?
a. Rome b. Geneva c. Paris d. The Hagues
307. Which of the following is not a vehicle manufacture?
a. Hyundai b. Hitachi c. Mitsubishi d. Toyota
308. Birds replaces their feathers periodically in a process called
a. Shedding b. Moulding c. Adjuring d. Molting
309. The head quarter of International Labour Organization (ILO) is Located in ?
a. Tokyo b. Paris c. New York d. Geneva
310. Carbohydrates are stored in the body as
a. glucose b. starch c. cellulose d. protein
311. Number of zones that named after the rivers
a. 6 b. 10 c. 122 d. 18
312. Which one of the following is Known as the "Coffee Port "of the world ?
a. Buenos Aires b. Rio De Janerio c. Sao Paulo d.Santos
313. Normally a balanced diet should be able to provide about
a. 2000 calories per day b. 2500 calories per day
c.3000 calories per day d. 3500 calories per day
314. Tourism Day is Celebrated on:
a. June 9 b. September 27 c. April 12 d. October 10
315. Which among the following is the perfect source of proteins?
a. potato b. fish c. chicken d. pulses
316. At the equator, the sun will be overhead on
a. March 10 and June 15 b. April 5 and August 14
c. July 6 and October 20 d. March 21 and September 23
317. The charring of sugar is due to
a. oxidation b. reduction c. dehydration d. reduction and hydration
318. Viking 2 was launched in solar system in
a. September 9, 1975 b. August 11,1975 c. June 22, 1975 d. March 27,1979
319. Which of the Following districts of Nepal doesn't border with India?
a. Darchula b. Ham c. Doti d. Morang
320. Nepal became member of MIGA in
a. Jan 10, 1993 b. Feb 9, 1994 c. March 20, 1995 d. April 15, 1996
321. When was UNESCO established?
a. 1945 AD b. 1946 AD c. 1947 AD d. 1948 AD
322. International Monetary Fund (IMF) was established in
a. 1940 AD b. 1945 AD c. 1955 AD d. 1950 AD

323. Which one of the following is known as the land of Thunder Dragon?
a. Finland b. Tibet c. Bhutan d. Germany
324. Which of the following is the second space craft to go beyond our solar system?
a. Viking 1 b. Viking 2 c. Viking 3 d. Viking 4
281 A Complete Solution For CMAT
325. Miss J. K. Rowing is the writer of popular book series
a. Small is beautiful b. Harry Potter c. Lord of the rings d. The Beauty game
326. Which of the following is a rich source of iron?
a. carrot b. cucumber c. green peas d. spinach
327. The first Nepali woman architect is
a. Hisila Yami b. Priyanka Rana c. Chandralekha Kyastha d. Manjeshree Rana
328. Largest Man made canal in world is:
a. Erie canal b. Suez Canal c. Panama Canal d. Swiss Canal
329. CAC stock exchange
a. Switzerland b. Germany c. Fracne d. Italy
330. World Sugar Bowl is:
a. Switzerland b. Cuba c. Canada d. Russia
331. An area legally reserved for wild life in its natural surrounding is
a. social forests b. biosphere reserve c. national park d. museum
332. BIMSTEC regional cooperation has members
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d.8
333. The approximate velocity of light per second is
a.3 × 10) meters b. 3 × 10%* meters
(
c. .3 × 10 jbObcf d. 3 × 10%& meters
334. The concept of 'no rent land ' is visualized by,
a. J.S Mill b. Alfred Marshell c. Adam Smith d. David Ricardo
335. Nepal was declared a federal democratic republic in
a. 2002 b. 2004 c. 2006 d.2008
336. Goodwill is a/an
a. Current assests b. Fixed assests c. fictitious assets d. Intangible assets
337. Permanent members of UN are
a. USA, Japan, China,Nepal and Russia b. USA,UK, China,France and Russia
c. UK,USA,Japan,France and Russia d. China ,Japan, USA,Russia and France
338. Which is the coldest planet ?
a. Jupiter b. Mercury c. Neptune d. earth
339. Finger print on paper can be made visible by spiriting the solution of
a. solve nitrate b. sodium thiphosphate c. ninhydrin d. ferrice chloride
340. How long had it taken to build the Great Wall of China ?
a.10 years b.12 years c.14 years d.16 years
341. Dialysis is the treatment given to patient suffering from
a. heart problem b. kidney problem c. lung problem d. liver problem
342. How old was Michael Jacksoon When he died ?
a. 50 b. 55 c. 60 d. 65
343. Which of the following is situated at the highest altitude?
a. Lhasa b. Taipei c. Shimla d. Thimpu
344. Who is known as "Snow Leopard"?
a. Angrita Sherpa b. Babuchhiri Sherpa
c. Sir Edmund Hilary d. Appa Shepra
345. Nepal became the member of ADB in
a. 1996 AD b. 1965 AD c. 1957 AD d. 1952 AD
346. Who is the first woman president in the world and where is she form ?
a. Begum Khalida Zia,Bhangladesh b. Prabtibha Patil ,India
c. Benzir Bhutto ,Pakistan d. Isabel Martinez de peron, Argentina
347. Total numbers of judge in International court of justice is
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25
282 A Complete Solution For CMAT
348. When had NRB First Issued rs.25 note ?
a. 2050 b. 2052 c.2054 d.2056
349. Viking 1 was launched in solar system in
a. June 2,1972 b. March 10,1973 c. September 17,1974 d. August 20,1975
350. Which country provides Victoria Cross to its bravest soldiers ?
a. America b. Britian c.France d.Germany
351. International Court of Justice was established in
a. 1945 AD b.1940 AD c.1950 AD d.1955 AD
352. What is the child called who is born of white and black parents ?
a. gigolo b. mulatto c. Cadillac d. gold mine
253. G4 comprises the following countries:
a. India,Brazil,Germany,Japan b. Nepal, India, Japan and germany
c. India,Japan,France and Russia d. China, Japan, India and Nepal
354. When was Sheetal Niwas constructed ?
a. 1980 BS b. 1990 BS c. 2000 BS d.2010 BS
355. What is the percentage of carbohydrate in the normal daily food calorie requirement of
adult?
a. about 29% b. about 39% c. about 49% d. about 59%
356. What is the weight of Fifa Cup ?
a. 5 kg b. 6 kg c.7 kg d. 8 kg
357. Cooking gas is the mixture of the following ?
a. methane and carbon dioxide b. oxygen and nitrogen
c. butane and propane d. butane and methane
358. Which countries fought the Hundred Year's War ?
a. England and France b. England and America
c. England and Germnay d. England and Austria
359. AIDS virus has
a. single stranded RNA b. single stranded DNA
c. doubled stranded RNA d. doubled stranded DNA
360. Where is the tallest Shiva idol in Nepal ?
a. Sanga b. Panga c. Malangawa d. Tanunga
361. Polythene bags are harmful to the environment because they
a. cannot be disposed of by burning b. cannot be recycled
c. are water resistance d. are not biodegradable
362. Which is the Longest day on the earth ?
a. June 21 b. March 22 c. January 21 d. August 21
363. Which of the following vitamins is considered good for eyes?
a. A b. B c. C d. D
364. Form when did EURO come into use ?
a.1st Jan 2002 b. 1st Jan 2003 c. 1st Jan 2004 d. 1st Jan 2005
365. The Headquater of IMF is located in
a. Geneva b. Paris c. Washington D.C d. Tokoyo
366. Tobacoo is mainly grown in :
a. Dhansha b. Ham c. Achham d. None of the above
367. Which one of the following is called economic barometer?
a. index number b. coefficient c. standard deviation d. rate of return
368. Which country used Veto Power for the First time ?
a. America b. England c. France d. China
369. Growth of bay in the uterus is found using:
a. X-rays b. Gamma-rays c. Ultra sounds c. MRI
283 A Complete Solution For CMAT
370. Which country does not have written constitution ?
a. Nepal b. India c. America d. Britian
371. Which of the following is antibiotic?
a. Aspirin b. Paracetamol c. Penicillin d. Sulphadiazine
372. Which country is considered as the poorest country in the world ?
a. Burundi b. Niger c. Somalia d. Zimbabwe
373. Energy is measured in the same units as
a. work b. motion c. power d. efficiency
374. Which of the following palces is Farthest Form Kathmandu ?
a. California b. Moscow c. London d. Tokyo
375. A car in motion has to overcome forces of
a. inertia and friction b. friction and air resistance
c. rolling friction and air resistance d. inertia and air resistance
376. White house is
a. A American Museum b. A Tibetan Monument
c. American President's House d. American Parliament
377. Which of the following food items are not source of vitamin C ?
a. tomato b. milk c. carrot d. mango
378. Which of the following causes Typhoid?
a. Vibro Comma b. Salmonella Tysphosa c. Entamoeba d. Shingella sp.
379. Which country is known as the "Land of Thousand Lakes ?
a. France b. Finland c. Switzerland d. Ireland
380. The most beautiful radiation for men are
a. alpha-rays b. beta-rays c. gamma-rays d. ultraviolet rays
381. Night blindness is caused due to deficiency of
a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin K
382. with which sport is the player pete Sampras associated?
a. swimming b. chess c. lawn tennis d. hockey
383. The blood glucose level is commonly expressed as
a. millimeter of Hg b. milligram per deciliter c. hydro litre d. deciliter
384. What is the rank of the earth in the Solar system in terms of size?
a. Third b. Fourth c. Fifth d. Sixth
385. International center for settlement of investment disputes (ICSID) was established on
a. 1950 AD b. 1956 AD c. 1966 AD d. 1960 AD
386. Which of the following is mainly a water-borne disease?
a. Malaria b. Common Cold c. Cholera d. Typhiod
387. What was Pablo Picasso famous for ?
a. sports b. Acting c. Writing d. Painting
388. Total member countries of ADB as per 2015 are
a. 65 b. 66 c. 67 d. 68
389. Jurisdiction of International Court of Justice is
a. Europe and America b. Asia and Africa
c. Worldwide, 193 state parties d. None of these
390. Earth Day is celebrated on :
a. 22 April b. 15 March c. 5 june d. 7 December
391. Judge term International Court of justice is
a. 3 years b. 6 years c. 9 years d.12 years
392. A person climbing the hill bends forward in order to
a. have rest b. increase speed c. reduce fatigue d. increase stability
393. 'Ramsetu ' is known for
284 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. The budge made by monkey troop of ram b.Bridge constructed in ayodhya
c. The new rain netqorl of india in kerla d. The hilly range in terai belt of Nepal
394. The cricket players catches the spending ball by gradually pulling back his arms back
with the ball so that
a. The ball may come to rest b. The ball may continue to accelerate
c. He may need to apply less force d. Hey may get time to apply more force
395. Who was the prime minister of Nepal the first world war ?
a. Jung Bahadur Rana b. Ranodip Thapa
c. Mathbar Singh Thapa d. Chandra Samsher
396. Current president of international court of justice
a. Green Hackworth b. Peter Tomka c. Mc Grill d. Percy spender
397. Man Sarovar " lake is in
a. Tibet b. Pakistan c. India d. Nepal
398. Which one of the following is the first space craft to go beyond the solar system?
a. Viking 1 b. Viking 2 c. Viking 3 d. Viking 4
399. When had Junko Tebei climbed Mt. Everest ?
a. 1951 b. 1953 c. 1995 d.1997
400. When there is a decrease in the concentration of oxygen in the blood,the rate of breathing
a. decrease b. increase
c. first increase and than decrease d. first decrease and then increase
401. The Headquater of the Asian Development Bank is in
a. Tokoyo,Japan b. Manila Phillipines
c. Kathamndu, Nepal d. New Delhi, India
402. Total members of countries of ICSID is
a. 156 b. 157 c. 158 d. 159
403. The percentage of water in human blood plasma normally varies from
a. 61-62 b.71-72 c. 81-82 d. 91-92
404. Originally how many heads did Brahma have ?
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
405. The world’s first satellite, the sputnik 1 was launched by
a. USA b. USSR c. Russia d. Germany
406. Which of the following words is not associated with computer?
a. Linux b. Printer c. BD-Force d. Ms-office
407. The world’s first satellite was launched in
a.1950 AD b. 1954AD c. 1957 AD d. 1960 AD
408. Nepali'sfirst commercial bank to recive ISo 9001:2000 standards certification for quality
management system
a. Nepal Bangladesh Bank b. Nepal Bank Limited
c. Nepal Industrial and Commercial Bank d. Rastriya Banijya Bank
409. Which of the following parts/tissue of the body can be safety transplanted in the body of
another person without any problem of rejection or reaction?
a. kidney b. heart c. eye d. cornea
410. Depreciation is related to
a. tangible assets b. intangible assets c. current assets d. fixed assets
411. One of these countries doesn’t have the rupees as the currency?
a. Sri lanka b. Seychelles c. India d. Bangladesh
412. What was the name of Sita (Daughter of King Janak of Mithila )in her former life ?
a. Bedbati b. Saubhawyati c. Laxmi d. Supriya
413. Out of 67 members of ADB, How many members are out of Asia and pacific
a. 12 countries b. 17 countries c. 19 countries d. 22 countries
285 A Complete Solution For CMAT
414. What is the main components of bones are teeth?
a. calcium carbonate b. calcium phosphate
c. calcium sulphate d. calcium chloride
415. What was the first Computer device Called ?
a. DOS b. FOTRAN c.Q-BASIC d. ABACUS

416. Which of the following is the first organized industry in Nepal ?

a. Biratnagar Jute Mills b. Balaju Indusrty
c. Hetauda Cement Factory d. Morang Sugar Mills
417. A number of images of a candle flame can be seen in a thick mirror. The brightest image
is
a. the first one b. the second one c. the third one d. the fourth one
418. How long is the Kathmandu Terai fasrt track ?
a.74Km b. 76Km c. 78Km d. 80Km
419. In eye donation which one of the following parts of donor’s eye utilized?
a. retina b. lens c. cornea d. lashes
420. Currently there are
a. 4 permanent members of UN b. 5 permanent members of UN
c. 6 permanent members of UN d. 7 permanent members of UN
421. How long is ARaniko High Way ?
a.112.83 KM b. 120.83 KM c. 121.83 KM d. 122.83 KM
422. Cancer caused due to
a. bacterial infection b. Unhygienic food
c. Uncontrolled cell division d. uncontrolled blood circulation
423. The chief ingredient of the mosquito repellent cream is derived from
a. Lime b. Neem c. Lemon d. Garlic
424. Which of the city is most expensive to live in ?
a. Tokyo b. Niger c. Oslo d. Copenhagen
425. Milk is lacking in which important nutrient/
a. Calcium b. Iron c. Potassium d. Protien
426. Multinational Investment Guarentee Agency MIGA was established on
a. 1968 AD b. 1988 AD c. 1978 AD d. 1998 AD
427. Nepal’s first five year plan was launched in
a. 1954 b. 1955 c. 1956 d. 1957
428. Total member countries of MIGA is
a. 166 b. 155 c. 188 d. 177
429. The headquater of MIGA is in
a. Washington D.C , America b. Geneva, Switzerland
c. Tokoyo, Japan c. Paris, France
430. Which is the wides lake in th world?
a. Superier b. Caspain c. Rara d. Nochless
431. A small stone dropped from the roof of a building takes 4 seconds to reach the ground.
What is the height of the building ?
a. 70.4m b.78.4m c. 73.4m d. 75.4m
432. Pure gold Contains :
a. 24 carat b. 22 carat c. 28 carat d. 26 carat
433. Which of the following units is the units of work?
a. Newton b. Joule c. Pascal d. Watt
434. The most populated city in the world is
a. Tokyo b. London c. New York d. Paris
286 A Complete Solution For CMAT
435. Purpose/Focus of ICSID is
a. Political Risk Insurance b. Foreign Direct Investment
c. Poverty Reduction d. International Arbitration
436. "Nelson Mandela Inernational Day " was recognized bt the UN at
a. July 10 b. July 15 c. July 18 d. August 1
436. A cyclist turns around a curve with 10 km per hour. If he doublews the speed , what
happens to the susceptibility to overturn?
a. havled b. doubled c. four times d. unchanged
437. When was Oxford University Founded ?
a. 1100 b. 1200 c.1300 d.1400
438. Nepal became membership of ICSID in
a. 1949 AD b. 1959 AD c. 1969 AD d. 1979 AD
439. Asian Development bank was established in
a. 1966 AD b. 1967 AD c. 1968 AD d. 1969 AD
440. Bhagwad Gita" is related to
a. Ramayan b. Chanakya c. Mahabharat d. Lord Buddha
441. Water has maximum density at
a. 0°C b. 3°F c.-4°C d. 4°C
442. Out of 67 members how many member are form Asia and Pacific
a. 28 b. 38 c. 48 d. 58
443. An iceberg is floating in a sea. How much of the mass will remain above the surface of
the water?
a. one-tenth b. one-eight c. one-sixth d. one-fourth
444. Where Was the World Famous singer Bob Marley Born ?
a. South –Africa b. Tobago-Trinidad c. America d. Jamaica
445. Total internal reflection can takes place when light travels from
a. steel to glass b. water to glass c. air to water d. mirror to glass
446. Nepalese National Flag was officially adopted in
a. 16 december 1962 b. 5 August 1963 c. 20 June 1964 d.7 March 1965
447. Muscles of which of the following parts of the body are the strongest?
a. thigh b. shoulder c. arm d. jaw
448. Tertiary education is
a. basic education b. primary education c. primary education d. higher education
449. Which of the following is hardest metal?
a. gold b. diamond c. iron d. aluminum
450. Universal donor blood group is:
a. A group b. B group c. AB group d. O group

287 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Chapter – 5

CMAT Old Question

CMAT 2002 (Batch 2059)

Verbal Ability
Directions: Questions are based on the following paragraph.
Behavior of man does not come out of vacuum. Behavior is the outcome of the operation
of internal and external factors at a given time. For instance, a man in a work situation
works to get his bread and goes on strike if he feels deprived of it. Thus man’s behavior is
not meaningless. It is purpose- oriented and goal directed. Their persistence in activity and
the tendency to complete an interrupted task are some of the marks of the goal directed
behavior. For instance, in work organizations a diligent worker would like to finish the
work assigned to him. He would not rest till he completes it. This goal directed behavior is
elaborated by saying ‘the behavior is motivated’. Motives are fundamentally of two types,
innate (biogenic) and acquired (social); the later developing as a result of the purpose of
socialization.
1. Behavior of man comes out of
a. Vacuum
b. Operation of internal and external factors at a given period of time
c. Society d. Industry
2. Man’s behavior is not meaningless because
a. It is purpose oriented b. It is self-oriented
c. It is system oriented d. It is global oriented
3. A man goes on strike because
a. He does not want to work b. He feels he is deprived of his bread
c. He is interested on the salary d. He needs rest from the work
4. Motive are generated from
a. External and internal factors of the working environment
b. Purpose and goal of the work
c. Biogenic and social causes d. Intelligence and diligence of the worker
5. The behavior is said to be motivated if
a. The worker is goal directed and does not rest until he completes his work
b. The worker assigns his work to his subordinates
c. The worker goes on the strike to fulfill his purpose
d. The worker interrupts the task assigned to him
Complete the following sentences correctly
6. It depends on ……… on time
a. they coming b. them coming c. their coming d. them to come
7. I ……… from New York only yesterday
a. have returned b. had returned c. returned d. was returning
8. ……… his friends are tired.
a. Neither he nor b. Not only he but also c. Either he or d. He as well as
9. As the bridge gave way the traffic was………
a. held b. held up c. held down d. held in
10. He is in the habit of finding ……… everyone.
a. fault in b. faults in c. faults with d. fault with
Direction: Select the synonyms for the following words
288 A Complete Solution For CMAT
11. Catastrophe
a. Disaster b. Boon c. Favor d. Blessing

12. Alien
a. Citizen b. Native c. Accustomed d. Stranger
13. Docile
a. Determined b. Submissive c. Inflexible d. Obstinate
14. Analogy
a. Affinity b. Disagreement c. Incongruity d. Disproportion
15. Equivocal
a. Indisputable b. Manifest c. Indeterminate d. Unquestionable
Direction: Select the best words or phrase which correctly fills the blanks
For successful education their must always be certain freshness in the knowledge …16…
it must either be new in itself or it must be invented with some …17… of application to
the new world of new time. You may be dealing with the knowledge of the world
species. With some old truth: but some how or other it must come to the students as it
were …18… of the sea with the freshness of its immediate importance. It is the research
worker that keeps knowledge …19…and saves it from fossilization. He discovers things
so far lying obscure and …20… fresh light on things already discovered. Thus the
researcher worker is at the same time observer, a discoverer, and inventor. These are the
three activities that keep the intellect of a nation alive and progressive.
16. a. dealt in b. dealt out c. dealt with d. dealt
17. a. newness b. novelty c. nicety d. strain
18. a. just drawn out b. drawn out just c. drawn just out d. out just drawn
19. a. ever new b. ever fresh c. ever novel d. novel
20. a. brings b. throws c. bestows d. puts
Direction: Select the must suitable preposition in the following sentences
21. This remark is not ……your favor.
a. to b. for c. in d. of
22. This item has been included …… the agenda of the meeting.
a. into b. in c. on d. with
23. Your team played a match …… the young men’s.
a. by b. on c. to d. against
24. Aspiration ……the people have remained on fulfill in spite of much progress through
planning.
a. by b. of c. in d. for
25. Newspaper is effective media …… public opinion in democratic country.
a. for b. of c. to d. into

Quantitative Analysis
26. Five boys went to see the CIRCUS. Four of them had Rs.5 each and the fifth boy had
Rs.1 more than the entrance ticket price. If with the whole amount (which the 5 boys had)
the boys were able to just by the entrance ticket for all the 5, cost of the entrance ticket
per person was:
a. Rs.4.25 b. Rs.5 c. Rs.5.2 d. Rs.5.25
27. The sides of two squares is X:Y, the ratio of their perimeter is:
a. X/4:Y/2 b. 4X:Y c. X:Y d. X2:Y2
28. How many numbers of two digits can be formed out of the four digits p, q, r, &s?
a. 6 b. 11 c. 12 d. 13
29. A, B, C did a work together and earned Rs.195. If the ratio of work of A:B:C be as 4:6:3,
the money obtained by C is:
a. Rs.90 b. Rs.60 c. Rs.45 d. Rs.30

289 A Complete Solution For CMAT

30. A number ‘x’ when multiplied by 5 and added to three times its own number gives 64,
the number ‘x’ is:
a. 8 b. 12 c. 16 d. 20
31. Area of a rectangle is 150 sq. m. Its one side is 15m. the height of the rectangle is:
a. 8m b. 10m c. 12m d. 16m
32. Divide Rs.53 among, A, B, and C so that A may receives Rs.7 more than B, and B may
receives Rs.8 more than C.
a. 10, 15, 18 b. 18, 10, 25 c. 20, 12, 27 d. 25, 18, 10
Direction: Question no. 33 to 37 are based on the following table: Select the best
answer choice
Days Rings Necklaces Watches
Monday 2 3 2
Tuesday 4 7 5
Wednesday 7 2 3
Thursday 5 8 6
Friday 7 9 8
Saturday 8 10 7
Number of articles sold by a Jeweler during a week
33. Which articles were sold most in the week?
a. Rings b. Necklaces c. Watches d. Both ring & watch
34. Which articles were sold least in the week?
a. Ring b. Necklace c. Watch d. Both ring & watch
35. How many articles were sold in the week?
a. 99 b. 103 c. 107 d. 111
36. On which day most articles were sold?
a. Friday b. Tuesday c. Saturday d. Wednesday
37. On which day fewest articles were sold?
a. Tuesday b. Wednesday c. Friday d. Monday
38. The system of equation 2x+ky+5=0 and x-3y-9=0 has a unique solution, when
a. k ≠ 6 b. k = 6 c. k ≠ −6 d. . k = √6
39. 3112×(2x)2 = 612 then x equals to
a. -6 b. +6 c. 12 d. K="6
40. If one straight line meets another straight line. The sum of the two adjacent angles on one
side of it is:
a. 1 right angle b. 2 right angle c. 3 right angle d. 4 right angle
41. The current population of town is 10,000. if the population of the town is increasing at
the rate of 10% every year, then the population of the town after three years will be:
a. 13000 b. 13310 c. 13300 d. 13330
42. A book seller purchased a book at Rs.20 and sold it at a profit of 15%. The selling price
in Rs. of the book would be:
a. 22 b. 23 c. 27 d. 30
43. A library has an average number of 510 visitors on Sunday and 240 visitors on other
days. The average number of visitors per day in amount of 30 days beginning with
Sunday is:
a. 285 b. 290 c. 300 d. 400
44. A journalist traveled 1200km. by air which formed 2/5 of his trip. The remaining part of
his trip was one third of the whole trip by car and the rest by bus. The distance traveled
by bus is:
a. 700 km b. 800 km c. 900 km d. 100 km
45. If y is 25% less than x then x is what percent more than y?
a. 25% b. 33.33% c. 16.5% d. 22.22%
46. If a = 8, b = 6 and c = 4, find the value of (abc)5÷(abc)4
a. 192 b. 18 c. 324 d. 1

290 A Complete Solution For CMAT

47. A businessman mixes two varieties of tea in the ratio of 2:5 and sells the mixture at Rs.40
per kg. If the cost of two varieties respectively be Rs.45 per kg. What would be his profit
percent?
a. 13 b. 14.37 c. 16 d. 14.28
48. The smallest number which when subtracted from the difference of the squares of 29 &
22 that gives a perfect square is
a. 9 b. 33 c. 13 d. 21
49. If a + b + c = 0 find the value of (a + b) (b + c) (c + a)
a. -3abc b. 3abc c. abc d. abc
50. An examination paper consists of 12 questions divided into parts A and B. part A
contains 7 questions and part B contains 5 questions. A candidate is required to attempt 8
questions selecting at least from each part. In how many maximum ways can a candidate
select the questions?
a. 320 b. 400 c. 420 d. 480

Logical Reasoning
Direction: select the logically best answer
51. Akbar was popular because he was secular
a. All popular are secular b. All secular are popular
c. Only secular are popular d. None
52. He cannot understand because he does not concentrate
a. All who understand concentrate b. All who concentrate understand
c. Some who understand do not concentrate
d. Some who do not concentrate do not understand
53. Drug addicts are hated because they are criminals
a. All who hated are drug addicts b. All criminals are hated
c. All hated are criminals d. Some criminal are hated
54. The poor are not happy because no poor have money
a. All happy have money b. All who have money are happy
c. Some who have money are happy d. Some who are happy have money
55. Birds can fly because they have wings
a. All having wings can fly b. All which can fly have wings
c. Some which can fly have wings d. Some which have wings can fly
Direction: Find the odd-one out
56. a. Monitor b. Accelerator. c. Printer d. Zip-driver
57. a. Mother b. Sister c. Brother d. Aunt
58. a. Guitar b. Piano c. Harmonium d. Banjo
59. a. Train b. Car c. Cart d. Truck
60. a. Fur b. Wool c. Cotton d. Beard
Directions: Two words on the left side of the sign (::) bears same relationships. The
same relationship exists between the third and the word provided in the answer
choices. Select the logically best word.
61. Shout : whisper :: run?
a. Stay b. Stand c. Walk d. Hop
62. Caste : Class :: appointed?
a. Status b. Achieved c. Between d. Upper middle
63. Faulty : useless :: slow?
a. Moronic b. Intelligent c. Wary d. Fresh
64. Do : undo :: reason?
a. Learning b. Intelligence c. Ignorance d. Genius
65. Cylinder : motor :: foundation?
a. Plan b. House c. Brick d. Basis

291 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Directions: select the pair of words that expresses a relationship to the given pair of
words.
66. Ring : engagement :: ?
a. Handshake : treaty b. Kick : beat c. Angle : insult d. Bangle : wrist
67. Suggestion : order :: ?
a. Advice : suggest b. Smile : laugh c. Plan : implement d. Anger : shout
68. Curve: accident :: ?
a. Dirt : disease b. Women : sweeper c. Narrow : road d. Bad : health
69. Shoe : leather :: ?
a. Brick : clay b. Cement : building c. Match : fire d. Cotton : clothes
70. Launcher: missile ::?
a. Boat : anchor b. Gun : revolver c. Catapult : stone d. Engine : train

71. Problem figure Answer figure

a b c d
72. Problem figure Answer figure

a b c d
73. Problem figure Answer figure

a b c d
74. Problem figure Answer figure

a b c d
75. Problem figure Answer figure

a b c d

General Awareness
76. Data originally collected by the investigator himself/herself is called?
a. Official data b. Secondary data c. Primary data d. Group data
77. Which automobile company manufactures the ‘Matiz’ model of car?
a. Maruti b. Honda c. Daewoo d. Nissan
78. To which product is the brand name ‘Mayos’ associated with?
a. Tomato sauce b. Car c. Noodles d. Toothpaste
79. In which desert is the Kalahari Desert located?
a. Asia b. S. America c. Africa d. Australia
292 A Complete Solution For CMAT
80. Which country is the largest producer of aluminum?
a. Russia b. USA c. S. Africa d. Japan
81. To which country does the NASDAQ stock exchange index Belong?
a. Nepal b. India c. USA d. Japan
82. Which country is the larges producer of cotton yarn?
a. Egypt b. UK c. China d. Russia
83. The airline ‘Garuda’ belongs to which country?
a. Sri Lanka b. India c. Pakistan d. Indonesia
84. “Lets make things better” is the slogan of:
a. Philips b. Daewoo c. Sony d. Grind lays bank
85. The brand name ‘CBZ’ is associated with:
a. Cold drinks b. Confectionary c. Cosmetics d. Motorcycle
86. G8 is the organization of:
a. Least developed countries b. Industrially developed countries
c. Petroleum exporting countries d. Non-aligned countries
87. Which of the following is an export item of Nepal?
a. Cement b. Cashew nut c. Pashmina d. Palm oil
88. Everest Bank has been established in collaboration with:
a. Habib Bank of Pakistan b. City Bank of Punjab
c. State Bank of India d. Punjab National Bank
89. What is SAFTA?
a. A sports promotion organization in South Asia
b. A brand of detergent
c. An arrangement for promotion of liberalized trade policy
d. A kind of computer software
90. Which of the following is not associated with foreign trade?
a. Tariff b. Excise duty c. CIF price d. Marine insurance
91. A person that contributes capital to a partnership but is not involved in its daily running is
known as:
a. Nominal partner b. Half partner c. Sleeping partner d. Limited partner
92. A joint stock company is called an artificial person because:
a. It does not have the shape of natural person
b. It cannot be sued in the court of law
c. It exist only in contemplation of law
d. It is invisible and intangible
93. The internal affairs of a company are controlled by the:
a. Memorandum of association b. Articles of association
c. Prospectus d. Company act
94. The whole seller is an important link between:
a. Manufacturer and consumer b. Manufacturer and retailer
c. Retailer and consumer d. Government and people
95. Among the following functions, commercial banks do not perform one of the functions,
identify it.
a. To issue bank draft b. To issue currency notes
c. To issue LC d. To issue credit cards
96. Saving is the:
a. Difference between current income and consumption
b. Sum of saving of different factors
c. Excess of expenditure over available income
d. Amount of reserve for future use
97. Black money is generated as and when people:
a. Do not pay for goods and service they use
b. Don pay taxes on their income
c. Keep heavy foreign exchange accounts
293 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 d. Print their own currency note
98. A man insures his house for Rs.60000 and pays the insurance company a yearly sum of
Rs.500. this payment is:
a. Premium b. Insurable interest c. Down payment d. Yearly payment
99. A ‘Laissez –fare’ economy is found only under:
a. Pure socialism b. Pure capitalism c. Pure communism d. Pure monarchy
100. A period of low economic activity is known as:
a. Boom b. Recovery c. Recession d. Inflation

CMAT 2003 (Batch 2060)

Verbal Ability
Directions: Select the most suitable Preposition in the following sentences.
1. The patient I afflicted …... cough.
a. from b. by c. in d. with
2. The old man is honest………. word and deed.
a. to b. in c. upon d. for
3. The rich man has no affection…….. the poor.
a. to b. upon c. with d. for
4. Jagdish had no servant to attend ……….him.
a. upon b. over c. with d. to
5. Beggar begged money ………. me.
a. to b. from c. by d. with
Directions: Complete the following sentences correctly.
6. The document was destroyed by him.
a. factious b. facetious c. factitious d. fictitious
7. We never ……… what we are ashamed of.
a. acknowledge b. confess c. admit d. avow
8. He…… to us for half an hour.
a. said b. spoke c. talked d. told
9. Before one …… one should make an attempt to discover the artist’s purpose.
a. assigns b. purchase c. deliberates d. criticizes
10. In order to control and defeat the dreadful diseases that plague humanity,……. activity is
necessary.
a. constant b. full c. concerted d. vital
Directions: Select the Antonyms of the following words.
11. Exaggerate
a. Relate b. Condone c. Minimize d. Disclose
12. Alleviate
a. Aggravate b. Hostile c. Friendly d. Protect
13. Arrogant
a. Familiar b. Humble c. Detach d. Regular
14. Exotic
a. Poor b. Expose b. Fragile d. Indigenous
15. Diverse
a. Different b. Unequal c. Deniable d. Homogeneous
Directions: Select the best word, which correctly fills the blanks.
Most people spend...16...of time and money buying their toothpaste, but buy the first
toothbrush they can find. It ….17... more attention than that, say dentists. The

294 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 brush...18...the less glamorous partner in your dental kit, but it is the more...19...one. It
does something that the best toothpaste...20...do alone.
16. a. enough b. part c. most d. plenty
17. a. needs b. demands c. deserves d. command
18. a. may be b. is c. has to be d. need to be
19. a. frequent b. vital c. relevant d. common
20. a. need not b. should not c. may not d. cannot
Directions: Read the following passage and among the question the follow the
passage, base on the options to each question.
The great, adventure of the electric train over the steam train, I think, is that it does not
smell. When you’re in a train drawn by a steam locomotive, you always have the
unpleasant odour of burning coal around you. If you open the window to look out at the
view and to get some fresh air, your are covered with little bit of coal-ash, which gets into
your hair and eyes and soon forces your to shut the window again and withdraw into the
impure atmosphere of your compartment. In a tunnel, your misery reaches a peak, for
there the smokes is forced into a long tunnel, smells grows worse and worse, while your
eyes smart and the electronic light in the carriage grows slim, hidden behind the
wreathing smoke. With an electric locomotive, on the other hand, you can enjoy the view
and the fresh air without inconvenience.
21. Why does one get an unpleasant smell in the steam train?
a. Because no fresh air cam enter the train
b. Because coal gives out unpleasant smell when it burns.
c. Because the steam trains are very old and foul-smelling.
d. Because there is too much crowed in the trait.
22. What forces you to close the window of a steam train?
a. It is very noisy inside
b. There is no fresh air outside
c. Little bits of coal-ash get into the viewer’s eye and hair.
d. It is too cool outside
23. Why does one feel miserable when the steam train passes through a long tunnel?
a. One cannot see things.
b. The train gets very noisy.
c. The atmosphere inside the train becomes smoke-filled and eyes begins to pain
d. One cannot get fresh air.
24. What advantages does one have when one travels by an electric locomotive?
a. One can have a full view of things outside and breathe fresh air.
b. One can travel to the mountains.
c. One can travel in any part of the world.
d. One can travel faster.
25. The author seems to suggest that
a. Steam engines should banned
b. All trains should be pulled by electric engines.
c. Passengers should be issued air filters during journey.
d. Train engines should be repaired periodically.

Quantitative Analysis
26. In June a baseball team that played 60 games had won 30% of its games played. After
phenomenal wining streak this team raised its average to 50%. How many games must
the team have won in a row to attain this average?
a. 12 b. 20 c. 24 d. 30
27. One-half of a number is 17 more than one –third of that number. What is the number?
a. 52 b. 84 c. 102 d. 112
28. 3x + 10 = 9x - 20, (x + 5)2 = ?
295 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 52 b. 84 c. 100 d. 112
29. Two cars start towards each other from points 200 miles apart. One car travels at 40 miles
per hours and the other travel at 35 miles an hour. How far apart will the two cars be after
four hours of continuous traveling?
a. 20 b. 40 c. 75 d. 100
30. A diagram of a plane drawn to the scale of 0.5 inch equals 80 feet. If the length of the
diagram is 4.5 inches the actual length of the plane is
a. 720 ft b. 680 ft c. 640 ft d. 360 ft
31. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and the width of the same rectangle is
decreased by 20% then the are of the rectangle
a. Decreases by 20% b. decreases by 4%
c. Unchanged d. increases by 40%
32. The afternoon classes in a collage begins at 1:00 PM and end at 3:52 PM. There are four
afternoon class period wit 4 minutes allowed between periods for passing to classes. The
number of minutes in each class period is
a. 39 minutes b. 40 minutes c. 43 minutes d. 45 minutes
33. Which of the following fractions has the smallest value?
a. 1/7 b.1/8 b. 2/9 c. 3/11
34. How many terms of the sequence -12,-9,-6,-3…..must be taken to make the sum of 54?
a. 13 b. 12 c. 14 d. 11
35. Shyam lost 15% by selling his old bicycle for Rs.170 for how much he must have sold it
to gain 15%?
a. Rs.184 b. Rs.194 c. Rs.230 d. Rs.224
Directions: Question number 36 to 40 are based on the following table.
Following table represent the export (In million) if an article in two year 1990 and 2000
from the cities of Nepal:
Rank in Export in Export in Rank in
2000 2000 1990 1990
Kathmandu 1 7.71 7.89 1
Bhaktapur 2 3.49 3.62 2
Lalitpur 3 2.45 1.97 4
Biratnagar 4 1.96 2.07 3
Birgunj 5 1.67 1.85 5
Bhairahwa 6 0.93 0.60 10
Pokhara 7 0.92 0.95 6
Janakpur 8 0.87 0.91 7
Nepalgunj 9 0.75 0.80 9
Jhapa 10 0.74 0.86 8
36. Which of the following cities had the largest change in export between 1990 and 2000?
a. Kathmandu b. Bhaktapur c. Lalitpur d. Bhairahawa
37. What is the percentage change of export of Pokhara from 1990 to 2000?
a. 3.25 b. 2.25 c. 3.16 d) 0.25
38. If the total export of the whole country was 70 millions in 1990, approximately what
percent of export was in due to 5 largest cities in 1990?
a. 5% b. 10% c. 17% d. 25%
39. In 2000 how many times in terms of export larger was Biratnagar than Nepalgunj?
a. 1.2 b. 1.5 c. 2.0 d. 2.6
40. If Bhaktapur had export of 1 million in 1962, what was the percentage change between
1962 and 2000?
a. 13% decrease b. 13% increase c. 30% increases d. 30% decreases
41. (25 x 92) ÷ (82 x 35) =?
a. 1/6 b. 6 c. 1/2 d. 1

296 A Complete Solution For CMAT

42. The average of ten numbers is 5. If each number is multiplied by 3, the average of the
new set of number will be
a. 34 b. 30 c. 28 d. 15
43. A mixture of 40 liters of milk and water contain 10% water. How much water must be
added to make water 20% in the new mixture?
a. 10 liter b. 7 liter c. 5 liter d. 3 liter
44. If 2 men and 3 boys can do a piece of work in 8 days whole 3 men and 4 boys will do it
a. 3 days b. 4 days b. 5 days d. 6 days
45. If x/y = 2, then (x – y) / x = ?
a. -1 b. -1/2 c. 1/2 d. 1
46. A person lent a certain sum of money at 4% simple interest and in 8 year the interest
amounted to Rs.340 less than the amount lent, find the sum lent
a. Rs.400 b. Rs.450 c. Rs.500 d. Rs600
2
47. If x > 0 and x >161, what is the best whole number approximation of x?
a. 13 b. 18 c. 41 d. 80
48. A sum of money is to be divided among three persons A, B and C at the ration of 4:9:7. If
the difference between the shares of B and C is Rs.1000 the difference between the 50
percent shares of A and C will be.
a. Rs.750 b. Rs.1500 c. Rs.1600 d. Rs1800
49. Two train of length 300m and 200m are running in opposite direction on parallel tracks
with the speed of 40 km/hr and 60 km/hr respectively.
a. 12 seconds b. 18 seconds c. 24 seconds d. 27 seconds
50. If the side of a square is increased by 25% then its area is increased by
a. 56.25% b. 50% c. 10.5% d. 25%
Directions: Find out the wrong number in the following series:
51. 3, 13, 40, 124, 386
a. 124 b. 40 c. 386 d. 3
52. 808, 408, 208, 108, 68
a. 68 b. 208 c. 808 d. 108

Directions: Find logically the best number.

53.
2 7 9
3 ? 4
7 1 10
a. 8 b. 11 b. 28 d. 13
54.
35 30 ?
40 5 20
45 10 15
a. 20 b. 25 c. 28 d. 35
55. If BEAT is coded TAEB what should be the code of SOUP
a. POUS b. OPUS c. SOPU d. PUOS
56. If PEN in coded as ODM what should be the code for WET
a. UFR b. TFQ b. VDS d. SHP
Directions: Two words on the left hand bear the same relation. Find the word that
carry similar meaning on the right and side.
57. Sparrow : Nest :: Rabbit:?
a. Hole b. Cage c. Kennel d. House
58. Vender : Buyer :: Advocate:?
a. Court b. Chamber c. Client d. Law
59. Nip : Crush :: ?
a. Rip : Tear b. Tab : Slam c. Crimp : Cramp d. Pound : Pat
60. Surgeon : Scalpel :: ?
297 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. Baker : oven b. Architect : Plant c. Carpenter : Furniture d. Sculptor : Chisel
Directions: Select logically best sentence which signifies similar meaning

a. b. c. d.
61. Doctor, Rubber, Chair
62. Men, Women, Universe
63. Tree, Thief, dog
64. Computer, Machine, Typewriter
65. Day, Night, TV
Directions: Select the best sentence with signifies similar meaning.
66. “The sky is cloudy so it may rain”
a. He has not worked he will fail. b. Students are absent, the teacher will not teach.
c. They are happy so they will dance.
d. The cold war is at breaking point it may result in shooting war.
67. “Make hay while sun shine”
a. Sleep when you are tired. b. Jump when you are dancing.
c. Take the flood at its tide. d. Entering hope when others help.
68. “All lawyers are cunning so is he”
a. Children are happy as they have no worries. b. All philosophers are wise to Socrates.
c. All animals have tails so do the dogs have. d. People worship because they fear.
Directions: An incomplete argument is followed by four statements. Select logically
the sentence which completes the argument without importing any fallacy.
69. He cannot cheat because he is shrewd.
a. No shrewd person can be cheated. b. All shrewd person cannot be cheated.
c. Shred person can be cheated. d. Only shrewd person can be cheated.
70. He will die because he takes drugs.
a. All who take drug will die. b. All who die take drug.
c. Some who die take drug. d. Some who take drugs die.
71. He is an engineer so he cannot write poem.
a. No engineer can write poem. b. So who cannot write poem are engineer.
c. Some engineer cannot write poems. d. Some who cannot write poems are engineer.
72. He deserves victor as he is brave
a. Some brave deserves victory b. Some who deserves victory are brave
c. All who deserve victor are brave. d. All brave deserves victory.
73. If the day after tomorrow is Friday, what day was it yesterday?
a. Thursday b. Wednesday c. Monday d. Tuesday
74. A clock seen through a mirror reads quarter past three, what is the correct time?
a. Quarter to Nine b. Nine thirty c. Ten thirty d. Quarter to ten
75. I walk 12 kilometer to the north, then 10 km east and then 12 km south. How far am I
from the starting point?
a. 8 km b. 10 km c. 12 km d. 14 km

General Awareness
76. A computer can perform all the following functions except
a. Add, subtract, multiply and divide
b. Exercise independent intelligence to solve problem
c. Compare alphabetic and numeric characters.
d. Store and retrieve information.
77. Alexander was king of

298 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. Macedonia b. Turkey c. Egypt d. Rome
78. The planet that came nearest to earth after 600000 year in August 2003 is
a. Mars b. Jupiter c. Venus d. Mercury
79. Ohm’s law is related to
a. Electric current b. Hydro power c. Telephone d. Lord Shiva
80. The hardest elements of the human body is
a. Bones b. Enamel c. Nail d. Skin
81. What might be the greatest risk to any computer installation?
a. Fire b. Sabotage c. Fraud d. Theft
82. Which blood is universal accepter?
a. O b. A c. AB d. B
83. Which country was the first to hold competitive examination to select candidates for a
particular job?
a. Britain b. USA c. USSR c. China
84. Which year declared as “International women’s year”?
a. 1970 b. 1975 c. 1980 d. 1985
85. In an electric fun transfer (EFT), there is
a. A high probability of error
b. No exchange of money in form of cash and cheque
c. An exchange of money in form of cash or cheque
d. None of above
86. The famous religious place in Hindu “Man Sarover” is in
a. Nepal b. India b. Tibet d. Pakistan
87. Expense relating to the sale of gods are shown in
a. Trading account b. Profit and loss account
c. Profit and loss appreciation account d. Balance sheet
88. Storage capacity of magnetic tape is determined by the tape’s
a. Record length b. Interlock gaps c. Density d Interlocks gaps
89. Dow-Jones stock exchange belongs to
a. USA b. Singapore c. UK d. Bombay
90. The historical “Silk Road” links
a. Asia and Europe b. China and Iran
c. Mongolia and Korea d. Kazakhstan and Azerbaijan
91. Standard chartered Bank is rename of
a. Indo-Suez bank b. State bank of India
c. Mongolia and Korea d. ANZ grind lays bank
92. The part of computer instruction that tells the control unit what operation to be performed
is called
a. Opened b. Register c. Address d. Operation code
93. Depreciation is related to
a. Investment b. Current assets c. Inventories d. Fixed assets
94. The World Trade Organization (WTO) came into operation since
a. 1st January 1994 b. 1st January 1995 c. 1st January 1996 d. 1st January 1997
95. Archimedes was a great
a. Scientist b. Mathematician b. Botanist d. Surgeon
96. Who is considered to be the father of Greek medicine?
a. Charak b. Hippocrates c. Allopathy d. Homeopathy
97. On which river is “Baraha Chhetra” situated?
a. Koshi b. Mechi c. Narayani d. Bagmati
98. Wall Street (New York) is famous for
a. Stock Exchange b. Hotels c. Parks d. Exhibitions
99. The Nepal Youth Cricket Team Came first in 2003 in
a. Nepal b. Pakistan c. India d. Sri-Lanka
100. “Kanchanjunga” lies in which district?
299 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. Solukhumbu b. Tapejung c. Panchthar d. Sankhhuwasabha

CMAT 2004 (Batch 2061)

Verbal Ability
Direction: Fill in the blanks with the word which best fits in.
1. Many religious believe in the ……… soul.
a. Immoral b. Amoral c. Immortal d. immoral
2. Ram is not willing to ……… the child.
a. Adapt b. Lea c. Adept d. adopt
3. The students organized a ……….
a. Fete b. Feat c. Feet d. fate
4. Rameshwor is an ……… scholar.
a. Imminent b. Eminent c. Iminant d. Emenant
5. His letter to his son speaks ……… for his affection, tolerance and generosity.
a. Much b. Volume c. Volumes d. Enough
Direction: select the most suitable Preposition in the following sentences.
6. The student yielded ……… the pressures from their parents.
a. To b. Over c. With d. Against
7. All my advice could not dissuade him ……… the foolish attempt.
a. Upon b. With c. From d. Over
8. The bottle of Plassey was fought ……… the Indian rulers and the English.
a. For b. With c. Among d. Between
9. What do you infer ……… this boy’s hesitating behaviour?
a. From b. For c. With d. Against
10. The citizens must not murmur ……… new taxes.
a. Over b. Upon c. Against d. With
Direction: select the word, which is the closest to the meaning of the word in bold
letters.
11. Ovation
a. Reception b. Applause c. Egg-like d. revision
12. Dwindle
a. Lessen b. Lesson c. Lumpen d. ditch
13. Corroborate
a. Reduce b. Contrive c. Confirm d. conform
14. Lopsided
a. Ticled b. Ugly c. Smart d. unbalanced
15. Foster
a. Rear b. Encourage c. Nourish d. Promote
Direction: Select the best word, which correctly fills the blanks.
The average new born…16…is about fifty centimeters long. In twenty years, this
little…17… more than triples…18… in length. The…19…height of a man is 1.7 meters.
However, man does not stop growing then he continues to grow even after the…20…of
twenty five and reaches his maximum height at about the age of thirty-five.
16. a. baby b. child c. infant d. kid
17. a. mass b. body c. child d. infant
18. a. around b. over c. than d. itself
19. a. average b. mean c. common d. usual
20. a. years b. period c. age d. ages

300 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given at
the end by picking the most suitable response to each question.
Both plants and animals of many sorts show remarkable changes in form, structure,
growth habits and even mode of reproduction in becoming adapted to different climatic
environment, types of food supply, of mode of living. This divergence in response to
evolution is commonly expressed by altering the form and function of some part or parts
of the organism, the original identity of which is clearly discernible. For example, the
creeping foot of the snail is seen in related marine petro pods to be modified into flapping
organ useful for swimming, and is changed into prehensile arms that bear suctorial disks
in the squids and other cephalopods. The limbs of various mammals are modified
according to several different modes of life for swift running (cursorial) as in horse, for
flying (Volant) as in the bats, for swimming (aquatic) as in the seals, whales and
dolphins. The structures or that shows main change in connection with this adaptive
alteration thus, the finger and wrist bones of bats and whale, for instance, have virtually
nothing in common except that they are definitely equivalent elements of the mammalian
limb.
21. “Homologous” means
a. Corresponding b. Simple c. Altered d. Divergent
22. Plants and animals change in form
a. In swimming b. As they evolve
c. To adjust to environment d. Because of their structure
23. Horse, monkeys, moles, bats and whales are
a. Aquatic b. Volant c. Mammalian d. Because of their structure
24. Cephalopods have
a. Discernible organs b. Homologous organs. c. Creeping feet d. Suctorial disks
25. Marine peteropods
a. Swim b. Crawl c. Grab d. Suck

Quantitative Analysis
26. The two roots of the quadratic equation x2 - 8x+15=0 are
a. 2 and 5 b. 3 and 5 c. 4 and 5 d. 5 and 5
27. If 4y – x = 10, 3x = 2y, then xy = ?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 6 d. 12
Direction: questions numbers 28-30 are based on the following table.
A training institute has one year progress report as follows:
Programs Target achievement
No. of No. of No. of No. of
programs participants programs participants
Professional course 12 150 12 145
Advanced course 10 100 7 65
Basic course 25 500 15 200
28. The percentage of success in terms of target met programs is highest in
a. Professional course b. Advance course c. Basic course d. None
29. The percentage of success in terms of number of participants is highest in
a. Professional course b. Advance course c. Basic course d. None
30. The appropriate percentage of success in terms of numbers of participants in aggregate is
a. 100% b. 55% c. 75% d. 0%
31. A manufacturing company reports that 4000 electronic parts were found defective. If this
represents 12.5% of the total shipment, how many of these parts were shipped?
a. 3200 b. 17000 c. 32000 d. 34000
32. The number of students in private and public campuses in BBA first semester is at the
ratio of 3:5. If 20 students are increased in each type of campuses at BBA first semester,
301 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 the ratio changes to 5:7.The total number of students in two type of campuses before the
increases was
a. 72 b. 80 c. 96 d. 100
33. A baseball team has won 40 games out of 60 played. It has 32 more games to play. How
of these must the team win to make its record of 75% for the season?
a. 26 b. 29 c. 30 d. 35
34. Bikram lives 12 miles west of the school and Amrit lives north of the school. Bikram
finds that the direct distance from his house to Amrit’s is 6 miles shorter than the distance
by way of school. How many miles north of the school does Amrit live?
a. 6 b. 9 c. 12 d. 14
35. A farmer wishes to built a fence around a rectangular field; the field is 100ft. long and 60
ft. wide. The fence will be of stone in one side and of wire in three other sides, stone cost
Rs 50 per foot and wire costs Rs 20 per foot. How much will the fence cost in Rs.?
a. 9,400 b. 11,000 c. 11,500 d. 12,300
36. In a city 8% of the people are eligible to vote are between 18 and 21, in an election 85%
of those eligible to vote were between 18 and 21 actually voted. In that election, people
between 18 and 21 who are actually voted were what percent of those people eligible to
vote?
a. 4.2% b. 6.4% c. 6.8% d. 8%
37. If the area of a square increases by 69%then the slide of the square increase by:
a. 30% b. 39% c. 60% d. 69%
38. A borrower pays 18% interest per year on the first Rs 600 he borrows and 17% per year
on the loan on the part of the loan in excess of Rs 600.How much interest will the
borrower pay on the loan of Rs 6000 for one year?
a. 1,020 b. 1,026 c. 1,080 d. 1,126
39. In a certain town 40% of the people have brown hair, 25% have brown eyes and 10%
have both brown hair and eyes. What percentage of the people in the town has neither
brown hair nor brown eyes?
a. 35 b. 40 c. 45 d. 50
40. A worker is digging a ditch, he gets two assistants who work 2/3 as fast as he does. If all
three work on a ditch they should finish it in what fraction of the time that the worker
takes working alone?
a. 1/7 b. 2/7 c. 3/7 d. 4/7
41. In the series 3, 7, 12, 18, 25......the 9th term is:
a. 50 b. 63 c. 75 d. 86
42. Whenever a particular organism reproduces, it doubles in a number each hour. If you start
with one organism at 3:00, how many will you have by 6:00?
a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 24
43. An ice cream truck runs down a certain street 4 times a week. This truck carries 5
different flavors of ice cream bars, each of which comes in two different designs,
considering that the truck runs Monday through Thursday, and Monday was the first day
of the month, by what day of the month could a person buying one ice cream bar each
time the truck runs purchase all the different varieties of ice cream bars?
a. 16th b. 17th c. 18th d. 19th
44. If the base of rectangular is increase by 30% and the altitude is decrease by 20%, the area
is increase by:
a. 4% b. 5% c. 10% d. 25%
45. A sum lent at 2% per annum will produce as much simple interest in 2 years as RS 480
lent at 5% per annum will produce in 4 years. The sum is:
a. Rs 2,000 b. Rs 2,200 c. Rs 2,400 d. Rs 3,000
46. If a plot is for Rs 18,700, the owner losses 15%. Find the price at which it must be sold to
gain 25%?
a. Rs 27,000 b. Rs 27,500 c. Rs 29,000 d. Rs 38,000

302 A Complete Solution For CMAT

47. Sashi started a business investing Rs 75,000. After 3 months, Shikha joined with capital
of Rs 60,000.If at the end of the year total the profit was Rs 16, 000 then what was
Shikha’s share in it?
a. Rs 5000 b. Rs 6000 c. Rs 8000 d. Rs 9000
48. The average of three numbers is 100; two integers are 119 and 120 then what is the value
of third number?
a. 1 b. 10 c. 61 d. 71
49. A can do a piece of work in 40 days. He worked it for it for 5 days and then B finishes it in
21 days. In how many days A and B together finish the work?
a. 10 b. 12 c. 15 d. 18
50. If the angle of elevation of an electric bulb on a tower is 45° when observe from the
ground at a distance of 45 meters from the foot of the tower then the height of the tower
(in meters) is:
a. 40 b. 45 c. 60 d. 75

Logical Reasoning
51. “Make hay while the sun shines” is logically similar to which of the following:
a. Sleep when you are tired b. Jump when you are dancing
c. Take the flood at its tide d. Entering hope when other helps you
52. “Save so that you may have a bank balance” is logically similar to:
a. Play well to win the game
b. Listen properly to pick up the ideas
c. Eat so that you may live longer
d. Spend so that other may respect you
Directions: questions numbers 53-55 are based on the following figure.
The circle represents “villagers”, the triangle stands for “educated” and the rectangle for
the “employed”

53. Some educated villagers are employed

a. 4 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9
54. Some educated are neither villagers nor employed
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 8
55. Some employees are neither educated nor villagers
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 7
56. You have to catch the plane at 6:10 am .You reach the airport at 6:40 am by your watch,
which was 6 minute fast.
a. You miss the plane by 24 minute b. You were just in time
c. You had to wait for 5 minute d. You had to wait for 24 minute
Directions: All the squares except one is filled with the number according to a
particular scheme. Find out the number following the scheme for question number
57-58.
57.
25 35 47
17 5 61
11 72 ?
303 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 90 b. 64 c. 88 d. 87
58.
80 160 320
40 5 640
20 10 ?
a. 1100 b. 1200 c. 1280 d. 1180
Directions: following equations follow particular mathematical reasoning. Find out
the number according to the reasoning.
59. If 6 x 5 = 41, 7 + 2 = 51, and 2 + 2 = 2 then 5 x 5 = ?
a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60
60. If 4 + 5 = 3, 7 x 7 = 7 and 40 – 4 = 6 then 45 + 5 = ?
a. 39 b. 40 c. 41 d. 42
Directions: find logically best answer from 61-65

a. b. c. d.
61. Computer, printer, book
62. Olympic, football, tennis
63. Student, boy, girl
64. Gold, water, petrol
65. God, garden, gas
66. If four brothers with their wives each with two children met for a tea, how many are there
for the tea party?
a. 8 b. 10 b. 12 d. 16
67. Things made of gold cost more than things made of iron because:
a. Gold is not so cheap as iron b. Gold is not so easily melted as iron
c. Gold is more difficult to work with then iron d. Gold is a rare metal then iron
68. While driving a man goes wayward and losses the track, the man first starts from the
garage and goes west and then turns right and goes straight and then turns left and the
right. In which direction is he from the starting point?
a. North-East b. North-West c. North d. West
69. If CARE is coded as 27, what should be the code of TOTAL?
a. 46 b. 64 c. 68 d. 86
70. If PEN is coded as ODM, what should be the code for WET?
a. UFR b. TFQ c. VDS d. SHP
Directions: Two words from the left hand bear some relationship. The same relation
exists in the right hand words. Select the best answer.
71. vender : buyer :: advocate : ?
a. court b. chamber c. client d. law
72. entrance : exit :: loyalty :?
a. treachery b. loyal c. kingship d. servant
73. hot : cold :: ?
a. sweet :: soft b. brilliant :: radiant c. dark :: light d. constant :: instant
74. army: soldiers :: galaxy :?
a. star b. meteor c. universe d. planet
75. ?: foot :: hand : wrist
a. leg b. thigh c. nail d. arm

General Awareness
304 A Complete Solution For CMAT
76. Who is known as “KABI SHIROMANI” of Nepal?
a. Laxmi Prd. Devkota b. Madhav Ghimire c. Lekhnath Paudyal d. Parashu Pradhan
77. Where is the headquarter of world trade organization (WTO)?
a. Washington D.C. b. New York c. London d. Geneva
78. Nepal’s largest trade relationship now is with:
a. India b. China c. US d. Germany
79. J.F. Kennedy airport is located at
a. New York b. Chicago c. Los Angeles d. Washington D.C.
80. How many countries are participating in Athens Olympics, 2004?
a. 180 b. 182 c. 200 d. 202
81. 2010 world cup football is being organized at:
a. Argentina b China c. Germany d. South Africa
82. Which country is the largest producer of rice?
a. India b. USA c. China d. Thailand
83. In which country, there is the largest temperate forest cover in terms of area?
a. Canada b. USA c. China d. Russia
84. Nepal formally became the member of WTO on:
a. April 23, 2004 b. September 8, 2003 c. May 23, 2004 d. January 1, 2004
85. Alcohal based transport fuel was developed for the first time in:
a. Brazil b. Cuba c. USA d. Indonesia
86. The latest bank to go for public issue is:
a. Kumari bank b. Siddhartha bank. c. Machhapuchhre bank d. Lumbini bank
87. Which insurance is also known as assurance?
a. Life b. Fire c. Marine d. General
88. At present, generally, countries having per capita income of he much is categorized as
developed countries?
a. US$5000 or more b. US$ 10000 or more
c. US$ 12000 or more d. US$ 20000 or more
89. Which is the odd name out?
a. Jo Jo b. Rum Pum c. Wai Wai d. Kurkure
90. Which beer factory has the largest market share in Nepal?
a. Mount Everest Brew.ery b. Himalayan Brewery
c. Gorkha Brewery d. Choudhary Group
91. The latest country to join BIMST-EC is:
a. Singapore b. Malaysia c. Bangladesh d. Nepal
92. The first meeting to establish WTO was held at Havana in:
a. 1947 b. 1948 c. 1987 d. 1995
93. The first commercial bank in Nepal to be established with 100 percent government
ownership is:
a. Nepal Bank Limited b. Rashtriya Banijya Bank
c. Agriculture Development Bank d. Nepal Rastra Bank
94. The first public sector enterprise of Nepal is:
a. Nepal Bank Limited
b. Nepal Industrial Development Corporation
c. Royal Nepal Airlines Corporation
d. Bansbari Leather and Shoe Factory
95. The first generation computer was bought into use on:
a. 1948 b. 1950 c. 1952 d. 1954
96. Which of the following is not a computer language?
a. BASIC b. Java c. Fortran d. Forensic
97. Surya tobacco is the joint venture with:
a. BAT and ITC b. Philip Morris
c. Philip Morris and ITC d. National Tobacco and Golden Tobacco
98. Makhan is the brand name of:
305 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. Butter b. Rice c. Instant noodle d. Soap
99. Sharapova is associated with:
a. Tennis b. Cricket c. Athletics d. Gymnastics
100. Johar Ali Khan is associated with:
a. Violin b. Sitar c. Guitar d. Tabala

CMAT 2005 (Batch 2062)

Verbal Ability
Direction: Complete the following sentence with the appropriate choice among the
option that follows
1. Those who seek …………from others must learn to forgive and forget.
a. leniency b. clemency c. country d. retribution
2. His business …………saw him through the new venture.
a. interest b. skill c. venture d. acumen
3. Lets us keep the plan in…………till we get support from people.
a. abeyance b. waiting c. doubt d. storage
4. He decided to …………of the generous offer.
a. avail b. not avail c. not to avail d. avail himself
5. Sita was…………with her own petard and faced defeat.
a. hoisted b. hoist c. confronted d. reviled
Direction: select the correct prepositions to fill in the blank in the following
questions.
6. If you repent…………your sins, god will forgive you.
a. for b. about c. of d. on
7. Reema's marriage……Rakesh was the culmination of the stormy affair.
a. with b. to c. between d. against
8. Shyam kept talking to Jaya oblivious…………the fact that he was in library and not the
common room.
a. of b. to c. with d. about
9. A mixture of Quinine, Basil leaves and Neem extract is effective
preventive…………malaria.
a. against b. about c. of d. on
10. At the hospital, ram was mistaken…………a doctor.
a. upon b. over c. on d. for
Direction: choose the littered expression that most nearly express the meaning of the
given idiom or phrase.
11. To draw a line
a. To impose certain restrictions b. To restart
c. To have a fair game d. To decide evenly
12. A bird of passage
a. Active worker b. A person who shifts from place to place
c. A coward person d. A person who cannot keep secrets
13. To crow over
a. To criticize bitterly b. To become unwanted
c. To exult in triumph d. To compromise
14. To be at sea
a. To wait for an opportunity b. To watch events
c. To make futile efforts d. To be perplexed and confused
15. Root and branch
a. Step by step b. Entirely c. Part by part d. Bare truth

306 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Direction: Choose the littered expression that most nearly express the meaning of
the given idiom or phrase
16. rift
a. Treat with contempt b. Break down c. Split d. Rigorous
17. penal
a. Connected with punishment b. Acrid
c. Grope d. Preconceived opinion
18. profound
a. Sleepy b. Asylum c. Abandon d. Deep
19. lavish
a. Accumulate b. Misuse c. Uphold d. Preserve
20. euphoria
a. Witty b. Loss of speech c. State of pleasant excitement d. Tempt
Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the question given at the end by
picking out the most suitable response to each question.
Philosophy means and includes five field of study: logic, ethics, politics and
metaphysics. Logic is the study of ideal method in thought and research: observation,
introspection, deduction and induction, hypothesis and experiment, analysis and
synthesis- such are the forms of human activity which logic tries to understand and guide;
it is the dull study for most of us, and yet the great event in the history of thoughts are the
improvements men have made in their methods of thinking and research. Aesthetics is
the study of ideal form, or beauty; it is a philosophy of art. Ethics is the study of ideal
conduct, "the highest knowledge", said Socrates, is the knowledge of good and evil, the
knowledge of the wisdom of life politics is the study of the ideal social organization. It is
not, as one might suppose, the art and science of capturing and keeping office.
Democracy, socialism, anarchism, feminism, aristocracy-these are the dramatis personae
of political philosophy. And, lastly, metaphysics is the study of the "ultimate reality" of
all things, of the real and final nature of matter, of mind, and the interrelation of "mind
and matter" in the process of perception and knowledge.
21. Logic means
a. Observation and introspection b. Deduction and induction
c. Hypothesis and experiment d. All of these
22. Ethics
a. The study of religion b. The study of good and evil
c. The study of metaphysics d. The study of the concept of beauty
23. Politics
a. The art of gaining power and retaining it b. Last refuse of the scoundrel
c. The science of good governance d. The study of ideal social organization.
24. The phase dramatics personae here means
a. Important aspects b. Characters in the political drama
c. Essential ingredients d. Plays shown in the theater
25. Metaphysics is the study of
a. Superiority of mind over matter b. The composition of the earth
c. T he physical aspects of matter d. The ultimate truth i.e the foundation of life

Quantitative Analysis
26. The roots of the equation x2 +x-6=0 are
a. (-2, -3) b. (2, 3) c. (2, -3) d. (2, 3)
27. If x3 + 5x2 - 10k leaves the reminder -2x when divided by x2 +2, then the value of k is
a. -2 b. -1 c. 1 d. 2
28. If the sum of the roots of the quadratic equation is 6 and the product of roots is also 6,
then the equation is
a. x2 - 6x + 6 = 0 b. x2 + 6x - 6 = 0 c. x2 - 6x – 6 = 0 d. x2 + 6x+ 6 = 0
307 A Complete Solution For CMAT
29. If the length of a rectangle is increase by 50% then its area is increase by
a. 20% b. 30% c. 40% d. 50%
30. If twelve persons can do a work in four days, in how many days can 8 person complete
that work?
a. 4 days b. 6 days c. 8 days d. 12 days

31. The average of the first five multiple of 7 is

a. 7 b. 14 c. 21 d. 28
32. A cricketer has a certain average in 9 innings. In the tenth innings he scores 60 runs,
thereby increase his average by 5 runs. What is his new average?
a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10
33. The ratio of the ages of A and B is 3:5. If B is 8 years elder to A then what is the ages of
A?
a. 12 b. 14 c. 16 d. 18
34. In how many years will a sum of money becomes doubles at 10% per annum simple
interest?
a. 5 years b. 10 years c. 15 years d. 20 years
35. Two successive discount of 20% and 15% is equivalent to a single discount of
a. 18 b. 24 c. 32 d. 36
36. One-third of three-fifth of a number is 35. What is that number?
a. 100 b. 125 c. 150 d. 175
37. If root x + 9 = root 784 then x = ?
a. 136 b. 361 c. 613 d. 316
38. Walking at the speed of 5 km per hours from his home, Bikram reaches his school 5
minutes late, but walking at speed of 6 km per hours he reaches his school 5 minutes
early. What is the distance of Bikram's school from his home?
a. 2km b. 2.5km c. 5 km d. 5.5 km
39. What is the cost of fencing a rectangular field of 50m x 35m with the barbed wire
running twice around it at the rate of Rs.5 per meter?
a. Rs.1250 b. Rs.1550 c. Rs.1700 d. Rs.2550
40. The angle of elevation of the top of the tower at distance of 200m from its foot on a
horizontal plane is found to be 60 degree. What is the height of the tower?
a. 340m b. 340.4m c. 346m d. 364.4m
Direction: Question numbers 41 to 45 are based on following case. The production
of clothes (000,00 meters) for six years are given

41. What percentage decrease in production 6th year compared to 5th year?
a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40
42. What was the percent production of 4th year to the 1st year?
a. 50 b. 60 c. 70 d. none
43. Increase in production from 1st to 2nd year was what time increasing the production from
4th to 5th year?
a. 1 b. 1.5 c. 2 d. 2.5
44. Total production of 1st and 2nd was what percent of production in 5th year?
a. 40 b. 80 c. 120 d. 140
45. How many years of production was less than the average production the given six years?
308 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
46. If A={1,2,3.........9}, B={2,4,6,7,8} and C={3,4,5,8,9,10}, then AUBUC=?
a) {1, 2, 3..........10} b. {1, 3, 5, 7, 9}
c. {2, 4, 6, 8, 10} d. {1, 3, 5, 8, 9, 10}
47. The number of marbles slabs of the size 20 cm × 30 cm required to pave the floor of a
square room of side 3 meter is
a. 50 b. 100 c. 150 d. 200
48. If the angles of a triangle is at the ratio of 2:3:4 then the greatest angle of the triangle is
a. 70 b. 80 c. 90 d. 100
49. How many men need to be employed to complete a job in 5 days if 10 men can complete
half of the job in 7 days?
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 28
50. If the compound interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 10% per annum is Rs
2200, the simple interest on it at the same rate for 2 years will be
a. Rs.1000 b. Rs.1500 c. Rs.2000 d. Rs.2500

Logical Reasoning
Direction: The following question (q.no.51 to 55) consists of two words that have a
certain relationship with each other, followed by four pairs of choice. Select the pair
that has the same relationship as the original pair.
51. Stratum : strata :: ?
a. moral : mores b. plead : pleads c. criterion : criteria d. small : big
52. 3000 : 5000 :: ?
a. (10)3 : (10)5 b. 1/2 : 1/5 c. 0.33 : 0.55 d. 10 x10 : 50 x 50
53. Forgive : forget :: ?
a. earn : spend b. crime : criminal c. demand : supply d. small : big
54. Boxer : boxing ::?
a. teacher : student b. thief: crime c. air : water d. shoes : socks
55. Medicine : swallow ::?
a. water: drink b. live: die c. high: higher d. six: seven
Direction: The following questions (Q.no. 56 to 60) present a pair of words with
certain relationship between them. Find out the words with similar relationship for
the second pair from the choice alternatives.
56. sun : cloud :: water :?
a. rain b. dam c. drink d. pour
57. disease : medicine:: treatment :?
a. doctor b. cure c. disease d. medicine
58. loyalty : treachery :: entrance:?
a. exit b. inlet c. door d. window
59. hit : miss :: run :?
a. walk b. fall c. running d. runner
60. school : playground ::?
a. earth : water b. kings : queen c. war : peace d. past : present
Direction: The following question (Q. no 61 to 65) present four words. Find out the
odd word.
61. a. childhood b. youth c. adulthood d. death
62. a. height b. weight c. age d. thickness
63. a. palace b. temple c. church d. synagogue
64. a. father b. son c. mother d. grandfather
65. a. look b. view c. see d. hear
Direction: Select the answer which is based on the same logic has given in the
statement.
66. A dissatisfied person is rebellious
309 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. Hard work brings success b. An idle person is clever
c. Educated person are employed d. Players are physically strong
67. If it is cloudy it might rain
a. If he studies hard he is likely to pass exam. b. If he drives safely he might reach home
c. If he works well he could get promotion d. If the car crashes he surely will die
68. Hari deserves a medal because he is intelligent and hardworking
a. All intelligent people deserves medal
b. Some intelligent people who are hardworking deserve medal.
c. Fools do not deserve medal
d. All hard-working people deserves medal
69. Glass is breakable because it is brittle
a. All transparent things are breakable b. All brittle things easily break
c. Some glasses do not break. d. Glass is breakable because it is made out of silicon
70. Smoking is dangerous still people smoke
a. People smoke out of pleasure
b. Smoking is dangerous because it causes cancer
c. Drinking alcohol is not good for health still people drink
d. If is struggle still people hate to work
Direction: identify the figure that represents the relation among the three items in
the questions

a b c d
71. Bird, Cock, Hen
72. Numbers, Words, Book
73. People, Men, Women
74. College, Teacher, Parents
75. Asia, Africa, Australia

General Awareness
76. Nepalese population, according to the census of 2001, is growing per annum at
a. 2.1% b. 2.25% c. 2.27% d. 2.60%
77. The leading international golfer is
a. Vijay Singh b. Tiger woods c. Ernie Els d. Phil Michelson
78. The only person of the Indian origin to receive Nobel prize is,
a. Jag dish Bhagawati b. Amitabh Kundu c. Har Govinda Khurana d. Amartya Sen
79. Which of the following is not a grand slam tennis tournament?
a. Rome masters b. Paris open c. Wimbledon d. US open
80. Mirage fighter plane are built by,
a. Russia b. Britain c. America d. France
81. Tomahawk missiles are built by,
a. Russia b. Germany c. America d. France
82. Columbia space shuttled crashed while returning to earth on ,
a. 2001 b. 2002 c. 2003 d. 2004
83. LIFO Is the method of valuing,
a. Suspense accounts b. Goods in process c. Pilferage rate d. Inventories
84. The deepest lake in the world is
a. Lake Victoria b. Lake superior c. Aral sea d. Lake Baikal
85. The development of computer is mainly associated with the following system, company
or individual,
a. The Abacus b. Microsoft corporation c. John Sulton d. Charles Babbage
310 A Complete Solution For CMAT
86. The culmination of fifth generation computer is the,
a. Main frame computers b. Personal computers
c. Micro processors d. Notepads
87. 'Shirish Ko Phool' is an immortal creation of,
a. Shaker Lamichhane b. Parijat c. Prema Shah d. Ramesh Bikal
88. SAFTA has been signed to be operational from,
a. 2005 b. 2006 c. 2007 d. 2008
89. Xetradas stock exchange belongs to,
a. Switzerland b. France c. Germany d. Italy
90. In which zone is Mount Saipal located at?
a. Seti b. Mahakali c. Dhaulagiri d. Karnali
91. With which country does the secretary of SAARC belong to?
a. Bangladesh b. Bhutan c. India d. Nepal
92. Which is tiniest city state of the world?
a. San Merino b. Monaco c. Lichen Stein d. Holy Sea
93. Eldaorado means ,
a. The land of gold b. The land of silver
c. The newly discovered continent . The land of joy
94. Napoleon Bonaparte was imprisoned for the first time at,
a. Sicily b. Corsica c. Malta d. St. Helena
95. For which purpose, the largest number of tourists visit Nepal?
a. Trekking and mountaineering b. Pleasure
c. Business d. Meetings & conferences (MICF)
96. Which British emperor could not speak English?
a. James First b. Charles First c. George First d. Edward seventh
97. Nepal currently experiences,
a. Trade surplus b. Current account deficit
c. Current account surplus d. Balance of payments deficit
98. Which of the following not a direct tax?
a. Income tax b. VAT c. Property tax d. Rent tax
99. Which country attracts largest numbers of tourists in terms of number?
a. France b. Italy c. Spain d. USA
100. Fiscal policy of government relates to
a. Policies regarding revenue and expenditure of government
b. Policies regarding financial institution and banks
c. Policies regarding interest rate, credit margins and money supply
d. Policies regarding budgeting and planning

CMAT 2006 (Batch 2063)

Verbal Ability
Direction: Select the word which is closest to the meaning of the bold word.
1. Fallacy
a. A wrong idea or belief b. Something not expected
c. Falsely implicated d. Under the command of
2. Impeccable
a. Faulty b. Ductile c. Intolerable d. Flawless
3. Witty
a. Ingenious b. Speedy c. Foolish d. Awkward
4. Slump
a. High spirits b. Low spirits c. Sharp fall d. Nexus
311 A Complete Solution For CMAT
5. Succumb
a. Feel ashamed b. To yield c. Smoother d. Shrine
Directions: Select the proper preposition to fill in the blank in the following
questions.
6. Plants absorb moisture ……… the air.
a. for b. in c. from d. to
7. It is vain to calculate ……… an uncertain result.
a. upon b. over c. for d. into
8. Places of honor and confidence are free ……… all.
a. for b. among c. with d. to
9. Can you guess ……… the moral of the story?
a. on b. upon c. at d. over
10. I hope you will excuse me for encroaching ……… your valuable time.
a. upon b. with c. over d. at
Directions: Each question below consists of an idiom or a phrase, followed by four
lettered expressions. Choose the lettered expression that most nearly expresses the
meaning of the given idiom or phrase.
11. To call a spade a spade.
a. To speak the plain truth b. To work on ground
c. To make a beginning d. A false praise
12. To break the ice.
a. To break a promise b. To work in winter
c. To break the silence to get over initial shyness d. To lay the foundation
13. A can and dog life.
a. Best understanding with colleagues
b. Friendship among the people of same class
c. Always quarrelling d. Purposeless
14. To be last in the clouds.
a. To be perplexed b. To fly deep in the clouds
c. To imagine about something impossible d. To achieve unprecedented success
15. Spread like wild fire.
a. To circulate information quickly b. To circulate information step by step
c. To make publicity d. Unable to stop
Directions: The following passage is followed by questions based on its contents.
After reading the passage, choose the best answers to each question.
It is no easy life that lies before a scientific investigator. He has to steel his body, and
nerves, to the utmost. There is to be for him no life of ease. It is to be one of the unending
struggle. Even after all this there is no assurance whatever of success to reward him for
his ceaseless toil. He has to cast his life as an offering, regarding gain or loss, success or
failure, as one. This will perhaps be better realized when I recount the history of the
conquest of the air. I had the unusual opportunity of coming in close contact with the
work of a man to whom this great achievement is ultimately due. Many lives had
previously been sacrificed in various ineffective attempts before the investigation of the
supporting power of moving surfaces was scientifically taken up by Langley in America.
After many years of patient experimentation, new data were obtained, which were
contrary to all previously accepted theories of aerodynamics.
Great interest was aroused and the American nation keenly watched for the occasion
when a large machine was to male its flight before the public. In this public
demonstration a small screw was left loose by the carelessness of a workman with the
result that the machine, instead of rising, was precipitated into the river.
A chorus of derision arose which was magnified by the Press, and Langley died of a
broken heart. This was often been the fate of great inventors and discoverers. But the lure
that draws heroic souls is not the success which can easily be achieved, but defeat and
tribulation in the pursuit of the unattainable.
312 A Complete Solution For CMAT
16. Langley’s experiment failed due to
a. faulty design b. carelessness of Langley
c. carelessness of a workman in fitting a screw d. unattainable pursuit
17. What is meant by the phrase ‘to steel his body’.
a. to be fair looking. b. capable of deceiving others
c. capable of sustaining stress and strain d. to become thin and lean
18. Langley worked in the field of
a. thermodynamics b. aerostatics c. hydrostatics d. aerodynamics
19. ‘Derision’ implies
a. ridicule b. praise c. publicity d. public honor
20. Langley’s design was based on
a. hypothesis b. law of aerodynamics c. experimental data d. imaginary ideas
Directions: The following paragraph has a number of blanks marked numbers
followed by a set of options that best complete.
Books are by far the most …21… product of human effort. Temples …22… to ruin,
pictures, statues decay; but books live. Time is no account with great thoughts which are
fresh today …23…when they first penetrated through their author’s mind ages ago. As
was then thought and said, still speaks to us as …24… as ever from the printed page. The
only effect of time …25… to shift and winnow out the bad products, for nothing in
literature can ever survive which is really good.
21. a. lasting b. everlasting c. temporary d. permanent
22. a. breakdown b. fall c. broken d. crumble
23. a. such b. that c. as d. so
24. a. clearly b. vividly c. graphically d. manifestly
25. a. is b. had been c. has been d. has

Quantitative Ability
26. Find the greatest number which will divide 201 and 671 leaving remainders 6 and 8
respectively.
a. 15 b. 51 c. 39 d. 65
27. The value of the expression 16 x2 + 24 x + 9 for x = -3/4 is
a. 2 b. 1 c. 0 d. -1
28. A plane left 30 minutes later than the scheduled time and in order to reach its destination
1500 km away in time it has to increase its speed by 250 km per hour from its usual
speed. Find its usual speed.
a. 1000 km / hr b. 750 km / hr c. 500 km / hr d. 600 km / hr
29. A contractor undertakes to make a road in 30 days and employ 15 men. After 24 days, he
finds that only half of the work is done. How many extra men should he now employ so
that he is able to complete the work in time?
a. 2 b. 30 c. 45 d. None
30. In the rafting situation, a boat goes 30 km downstream in 75 minutes and the same
distance upstream in 90 minutes, the speed (in km / hr) of the stream is
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6
31. A sells an article to B at profit of 20% and B sells it to C at a profit of 25%. If C buys it
for Rs.225, what did A pay for it?
a. Rs 100 b. Rs 125 c. Rs 150 d. Rs 175
32. How many of the integers between 20 and 40 are odd?
a. 10 b. 11 c. 12 d. 13
33. One-half of a number is 17 more than one-third of that number. What is the number?
a. 52 b. 84 c. 102 d. 112
34. A diagram of a plane drawn to the scale of 0.5 inch equals 80 feet. If the length of the
diagram is 4.5 inches the actual length of plane is
a. 720 ft. b. 680 ft. c. 640 ft. d. 360 ft.
313 A Complete Solution For CMAT
35. How many terms of the sequence -12, -9, -6, -3, …. must be taken to make the sum 54?
a. 13 b. 12 c. 14 d. 11
36. An owner of a restaurant earns a profit of 30% per person in a dinner even after allowing
discount of 35% on the listed price. If the list price is Rs 250, what is the cost price?
a. Rs. 120 b. Rs. 125 c. Rs. 150 d. Rs. 180
37. Today is the birthday of Rahul and he is 3 times as old as Nirmala. In 13 years, Rahul
will be one year less than twice as old as Nirmala will be then. What is the age of Rahul
today?
a. 12 years b. 24 years c. 36 years d. 48 years
38. If A : B = 5 : 7 and B : C = 3 : 5 then A : B : C = is
a. 5 : 7 : 3 b. 15 : 21 : 35 c. 5 : 3 : 7 d. 3 : 7 : 5
39. In the equation y = x2 + rx – 3, for what value of r will be y = 11 when x = 2?
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2
40. The average of 8 numbers is 6, the average of 6 other numbers is 8. What is the average
of all 14 numbers?
a. 5 5/7 b. 6 6/7 c. 7 2/7 d. 8 1/7
41. How many years will a sum of money becomes double at 10% per annum simple
interest?
a. 5 years b. 8 years c. 10 years d. 20 years
42. A company reports that 2000 electronic parts were found defective. If this represents
6.25% of the total shipment, how many of these parts were shipped?
a. 3,200 b. 17,000 c. 32,000 d. 34,000
Question number 43-46 are based on following data. Select the best answer.
Following data represents the capacity utilization (%) of selected industries.
Description 2000/01 2001/02 2002/03 2003/04
Sugar 44 40 43 42
Cigarettes 80 86 90 89
Beer 59 64 66 65
Matches 58 59 62 63
Source: Economic Survey 2004/05, Ministry of Finance
43. On the average which year shows the highest capacity utilization of the industries
selected?
a. 2000/01 b. 2001/02 c. 2002/03 d. 2003/04
44. Which industry has highest variation of the capacity utilization within four selected
years?
a. Sugar b. Cigarettes c. Beer d. Matches
45. Comparing Cigarettes and Beer, and, Cigarettes and Matches, in which year the
difference in the capacity utilization is highest?
a. 2000/01 b. 2001/02 c. 2002/03 d. 2003/04
46. Comparing Cigarettes and Beer, and, Cigarettes and Matches, in which year the
difference in the capacity utilization is lowest?
a. 2000/01 b. 2001/02 c. 2002/03 d. 2003/04
47. The price of balcony seat in a theatre is one-third of a seat in the orchestra. When
completely sold out the total tickets from 600 orchestra seats and the 450 balcony seats
are Rs 4500. What is the price of one orchestra seat?
a. Rs 3 b. Rs 4 c. Rs 5 d. Rs 6
48. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and the width of the same rectangle
decreased by 20%, then the area of rectangle
a. decreased by 20% b. decreased by 4% c. increased by 20% d. increased by 4%
49. If the sum of the roots of the quadratic equation is 6 and the product of the roots is also 6,
then the equation is
a. x2 – 6 x + 6 = 0 b. x2 + 6 x – 6 = 0 c. x2 – 6 x – 6 = 0 d. x2 + 6 x + 6 = 0
50. If A = {1,2,3…9}, B = {2,4,6,7,8} and C = {3,4,5,8,9,10}, Then A ∪ B ∪ C =?
a. {1,2,3…10} b. {1,3,5,7,9} c. {2,4,6,8,10} d. {1,3,5,8,9,10}
314 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Logical Reasoning
Directions: Select logically best answer for the question numbers 51-55.
51. “Empty vessel makes much noise” is logically similar to
a. Live and let live b. Wise people are respected
c. Fools generally praise themselves
d. Cowards die many times than before their death
52. “Making hay while the sun shines” is logically similar to
a. Sleep when you are tired b. Jump when you are dancing
c. Take the flood at its ride d. Entertain hope when other help you
53. “He will not tolerate insult because he is self respecting” is logically similar to
a. He is unhappy as he failed
b. This is rival so a fastidious person will not accept it
c. He can buy the costlier thing because he is a rich man
d. He has compassion for all because he is conscientious
54. “Do not take sugar because you have diabetes” is logically similar to
a. Do not play as you are hurt b. Do not read as you have weak sight
c. Do not sing as you have hoarse throat d. Do not speak as you are not asked to speak
55. “Read in order to increase your knowledge” is logically similar to
a. Speak to relieve your tension b. For building body take exercise
c. For making profit do not cheat others d. Pay only when you have
Directions: Question numbers 56-60 are based on matching the relationship of the
pair of words that carry same meaning as the pair of words given in the left hand
side.
56. Doctor : Disease
a. Psychiatrist : Maladjustment b. Teacher : School
c. Scholar : Book d. Lawyer : Law
57. Always : Never
a. Often : Rarely b. Frequently : Occasionally
c. Constantly : Frequently d. Constantly : Occasionally
58. Large : Huge
a. Life : Death b. Trees : Forest c. Crowd : Mob d. Two dozen : 24
59. Latitude : Equator
a. Direction : Gravitation b. Weight : Height
c. North Pole : Arctic Circle d. Longitude : International Date line
60. Multiplication : Division
a. Increase : Decrease b. Infinity : Zero c. Calculate : Estimate d. Digit : Series
Directions: Find the odd-man out for the question numbers (61-65)
61. a. Here b. There c. Now d. Nowhere
62. a. Chicago b. Seoul c. Kathmandu d. Delhi
63. a. Football b. Volleyball c. Chess d. Hockey
64. a. 24 b. 44 c. 60 d. 66
65. a. Look b. View c. Watch d. Hear
66. If HEAD is coded as EHDA what should be the code of DEAD?
a. DDEA b. EDDA c. DAED d. EADD
67. If LION is coded as ONLI what should be the code for TAPE?
a. ETPA b. PETA c. PTAE d. PTEA
68. If CROW is coded as RWCO, what should be WORK?
a. OKWR b. KROW c. ROWK d. WKRO
Directions: Question number 69-70 is based on the following figures. There are eight
squares among the left four squares are the problem figures and the right four
squares are the solution figures. The correct answer in the solution figure follows
same relationship as in the problem figures.
315 A Complete Solution For CMAT
69.
Problem figures Solution figures

a. b. c. d.
70.
Problem figures Solution figures

a. b. c. d.
Directions: Question number 71-75 are based on following four set of figures.
Identify the figure that represents the relationship among the three items given in
the question.

a. b. c. d.
71. Right, Left, Up
72. Bird, Swan, Duck
73. Tiger, Book, Road
74. Guitar, Tennis, Computer
75. Growth rate, Poverty, Ramayan

General Awareness
76. CAC stock exchange belongs to
a. Switzerland b. Germany c. France d. Italy
77. The French open, 2006 was won by
a. Roger Federer b. Rafael Nadal c. David Nalbandion d. Xavier Mailisre
78. Which is the only country to represent Asia Africa in the second round of 2006 World
Cup?
a. Japan b. South Korea c. Nigeria d. Ghana
79. The revolutionary iPod was brought out by
a. IBM b. Microsoft c. INTEL d. Apple
80. The present trade treaty with India will expire on,
a. 2006 b. 2007 c. 2008 d. 2009
81. The next SAARC summit is going to be organized at,
a. India b. Nepal c. Bangladesh d. Sri Lanka
82. Currently BIMSTEC regional cooperation has ……… members.
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8
83. Marco Polo named China as
a. Chung Ko b. China c. Silk Country d. Cathey
84. Who has won the most major’s so far in the arena of golf?
a. Tiger Woods b. Jack Nickolens c. Tom Wafson d. Sergio Garcia
85. The banking software made by the mercantile corporation of Nepal is known as,
a. Pumori b. Everest c. Kanchanjungha d. Globus
86. NEPSE (Nepal Stock Exchange) became operational since
316 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 1981 b. 1991 c. 1993 d. 1994
87. Deming’s management is related to.
a. quality circles b. quality control
c. input management d. total quality management
88. The oil crisis first of all started after the your Kipper War with more than four folds
increase of the crude oil by OPEC in,
a. 1967 b. 1973 c. 1979 d. 2005
89. The leader who changed the fate of Chrysler corporation, an automobile manufacturer of
the United States and became management icon is,
a. Peter Drucker b. Warren Buffet c. Lee Lococca d. Phil Crosby
90. The first female chief executive officer (CEO) of PEPSI INC. appointed in August 2006
is,
a. Cinderella Rice b. Vera Ivanovich c. Iva Sugiyama d. Indra Nooyi
91. The largest ever passenger aircraft manufactured so far is,
a. Boeing 747 b. Boeing 747-400 c. Airbus 380 d. C-130
92. Alonso, the young Spanish driver at formula one racing, who became the champion in
2005 and is leading against Michael Shumacker in 2006 among others in 2006 drives,
a. Ferrari b. Williams c. McLaren d. Renault
93. Dual factorial theory of motivation is explained by,
a. Abraham Maslow b. Frederick Herzberg c. Victor Broom d. David McOlleland
94. The concept quality is free is popularized by
a. Phil Crosby b. Dr. Jucan c. Dr. Deming d. Mitsu Shrohara
95. Participatory management is theoretically explained by,
a. Ronsis Likert b. Douglas McGregor c. Peter Drucker d. Philip Kotler
96. Detailed study and development of tools and techniques in motion study was made by,
a. F.W. Taylor b. Frank and Lilian c. Henry Fayol d. Elton Mayo and the team
97. The famous study conducted by Elton Mayo and the team to study the impact of physical
factors on work performance that led to the development of Human Relations Approach
is known as,
a. Ford Study b. Carnegie Study c. Hawthrone Experiment d. Expo
Experiment
98. The concept of aggregation of demand and supply in economics is introduced by,
a. Paul Samuelson b. Baumol c. Keith Davis d. J.M. Keynes
99. The concept of ‘no rent land’ is visualized by,
a. J.S. Mill b. Alfred Marshall c. Adam Smith d. David Ricardo
100. Herbert Simon got the noble prize for working on the theory of,
a. Decision Making b. Portfolio Management
c. Participatory Management d. Matrix Organization

CMAT 2007 (Batch 2064)

Verbal Ability
Directions: Fill up the blanks with the words which best fits in with the meaning of
the following sentences.
1. Santosh wandered all day in the……..
a. lay b. lec c. lea d. led
2. Ram ………..your ruling on the matter.
a. waits b. awaits c. waits for d. awaits for
3. I………my ………to be fulfilled.
a. want…needs b. want….wishes c. desire…wants d. wish…desires
4. The students organized a………
a. feet b. feat c. fate d. feat
317 A Complete Solution For CMAT
5. Her attitude was …….in the answer she gave you.
a. impetuous b. impetus c. implict d. explict
Directions: Choose the words which is closet to the meaning of the bold word.
6. Fallacy
a. a word idea or belief b. something not expected
c. falsely implicated d. under the command of
7. Impeccable
a. faulty b. Flawless c. ductile d. Intolerable
8. Antidote
a. Counteragent b. Fighter c. Laxative d. Anti thesis
9. Founder
a. Defeat b. to stumble c. cowardice d. Cumbersome
10. Dexterity
a. Clumsiness b. extremity c. deftness d. devotion
Directions: Select the words or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the
word in bold letters.
11. Derogatory
a. Complaint b. Complimentary c. male violent d. obliterate
12. Temperate
a. Aged b. unlimited c. productive d. inebriated
13. Stigma
a. mark of esteem b. sign of decline c. reflection of glory d. notice of rejection
14. Mute
a. Diversify b. Quicken c. Harmonize d. Amplify
15. Foment
a. Pretend b. Subside c. Inhibit d. Assume
Directions: Each question below consists of an idiom or phrase, followed by four
lettered expression. Choose the lettered expression that most nearly expresses the
meaning of the given idiom or phrase.
16. A cat and dog life
a. best understanding with colleagues
b. friendship amongst the people of same class
c. purposeless d. always quarrelling
17. To be lost in the clouds
a. To be perplexed b. To fly deep in clouds
c. To imagine about something impossible d. To achieve unprecedented success
18. To let the grass grow under own feet
a. To take advantage of situation b. To work cautiously
c. To idle away time d. To work on a job below the dignity
19. To come off with flying colours
a. A good star b. to attend grand party
c. Good results of constant effort d. to achieve distinction
20. To draw a line
a. To restart b. To impose certain restrictions
c. To have fair game d. To divide evenly
Directions: The following passage is followed by question based on its contents.
After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question.
As advertise become more and more expert at their work, they appeal to all the human
emotion in the effort to increase sales-greed, jealously, love of a bargain, fear of the
disapproval of other people, fear of ill health, the desire to catch a husband, the desire to
show off, and many others. But more and more customers are also becoming suspicious
of and resistant to high-powered advertisements. This is producing, in highly
sophisticated countries, a deliberately modest, self deprecating type of advertisement that
is intended to disarm the suspicions of sophisticates by giving an impression of absolute
318 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 sincerity, or even deliberate understatement. Soon we may have the strange spectacle of
advertisers vying with each other, with Eastern courtesy, to belittle the merits of their
own merchandise.
21. According to the author, high-powered advertisement has created suspicion among
people in
a. Highly sophisticated countries b. Unsophisticated countries
c. Oversold markets d. In poor countries
22. The self-deprecating type of advertisement seeks of
a. Announce the product loudly
b. Introduce the product by appealing to principal emotions
c. Lesson the suspicion in buyer’s mind
d. Tell the true merits of the products
23. In the context, “Eastern Courtesy” would mean
a. Genuine courtesy b. Courtesy with an intention to cheat
c. Sincere courtesy d. Business etiquette
24. The new type of advertisement as compared with the high-powered advertisement of the
past
a. is absolutely sincere b. gives the impression of being sincere
c. is courteous to the buyer d. is more in buyer’s interest
25. Which of the following according to you is an understatement?
a. At sixty miles an hour the only sound you can hear in our car is the tick-tock of the
electric clock.
b. We cannot make all the soap in the world. Therefore, we decided to make the best.
c. In 9 out of 10 cases our toothpaste has completely cured tooth decay.
d. Our “GENIOUS” pen cannot make you a genius. But it can make your writing chores
of pleasure.

Quantitative Ability
26. The difference between simple and compound interest in a certain sum in two years at
15% per annum is Rs. 144. The sum is
a. Rs 6000 b. Rs 6200 c. Rs 6400 d. Rs 6500
27. The number of student in a constituent campus and a affiliated campus in bachelor level
is at the ratio of 3:5. I f 20 student are increased in each campuses at the same level, the
ratio changed to 5:7. The total number of students in the two campuses before the
increase was
a. 72 b. 80 c. 96 d. 100
28. Find the greatest number will divide 201 and 671 leaving remainders 6 and 8
respectively.
a.15 b. 51 c. 39 d. 65
29. How many of the integers between 50 and 80 are odd?
a. 9 b.11 c.13 d. 15
30. One –third of a number is 20 more than one -fifth of that number. What is the number?
a. 30 b. 84 c.102 d. 150
31. A company reports that 2000 electronics parts were found defective. If this represents 5%
of the total shipment, how many of these parts were shipped?
a. 40,000 b. 30,000 c. 20,000 d. 10,000
32. A diagram of a large ground drawn to the scale of 0.5 inch equals 80 feet. If the length of
the diagram is 4.5 inches the actual length of the ground is
a. 720ft b. 680ft c. 640ft d. 360ft
33. The value of x2 + 5x = 12-x2 are
a. 3/2 and -4 b. 3 and 4 c. 2 / 3 and 4 d. 4/3 and 2
34. If 4y - x =10, 3x =2y, then xy =?
319 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 2 b. 3 c. 6 d. 12
35. There are 50 students enrolled in computer course. Of the enrolled students, 90%
appeared in a final exam. Two-third of the students attending the final exam passed. How
many student passed the final exam?
a. 30 b. 33 c. 34 d. 35
Question number 36 to 40 is related to the following data:-
Year Area under Area under Productions of Production of
Food Crop Cash Crops Food Crops Cash Crops
(000 hectors) (000 hectors) (000 MT) (000 MT)

2001 2950 313 4811 1132

2002 2946 287 4462 1180
2003 3005 284 4948 1515
2004 3028 286 5475 1653
2005 3030 288 5722 1794
36. What is the productivity of food crops (production/ area )in 2005?
a. 0.55 b. 1.50 c. 1.88 d. 2.78
37. What is the productivity of cash crops (production / area) in 2005?
a. 6.23 b. 5.37 c. 4.98 d. 3.75
38. The productivity of food crops is highest in which year?
a. 2001 b. 2002 c. 2003 d. 2005
39. The productivity of the cash crops is lowest in which year?
a. 2001 b. 2002 c. 2003 d. 2005
40. What is the productivity of food and cash crops taken together in year 2001?
a. 1.56 b. 1.82 c. 2.12 d. 2.44
41. A tourist bus travels for 3 hours at 40 miles per hour and then covers a distance of 80
miles in two hours and 40 minutes. His average rate for the entire trip was
a. 35mph b. 35.3mph c. 35.5mph d. 36mph
42. Four workers working together can plough the field in 12 hours. How long will it take 6
workers to plough the field of the same size, if all of them work at the same rate?
a. 6 hours b. 8 hours c. 10 hours d. 12 hours
43. The arithmetic mean of x and y is 10 and their geometric mean is 8. what is the value of x
and y ?
a. 16, 4 b. 15, 5 c. 14, 6 d. 12, 8
44. When magnified 10,000 times by an electron microscope, the image of a certain circular
piece of tissue has a diameter of 0.3 centimeter. The actual diameter of the tissue in
centimeter is
a. 0.03 b. 0.003 c. 0.0003 d. 0.00003
45. Selling price of four articles equals to cost price of 5 articles. The gain is
a. 20% b. 25% c. 28% d. 80%
46. A sport jacket marked $ 48 is offered at a discount of 25% during a stock-out sales. At
this reduced price the dealer makes a profit of 20% on the cost. The cost to the dealer is
a. $29 b. $30 c. $32 d. $36
47. ABC is right angled triangle with perpendicular side equal to 8, and the base side equal to
6. the hypotenuse side is equal to
a.10 b. 9 c. 7 d. 5
48. If A = {1,3,5,7,….21} , B = {1,2,3,4…20} and C ={2,4,6,8,….20}.What is A ∩ B ∩ C?
a){ 20, 30 } b. {30} c.{40} d. Ø
49. The compound interest on a certain sum for the first year for 4% is Rs. 25. The
compound interest for 2 years at the same rate on the same sum will be
a. Rs. 50 b. Rs. 51 c. Rs. 53 d. Rs. 54
50. Length and breadth of a rectangular field us 50 meter and 20 meter respectively. A 7
meter road runs outside around the field. What is the area of the road?
a. 40 sq m b.1000 sqm c. 1176 sq m d. 1208sq m
320 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Logical Reasoning
Directions: Each of the question below consists of two words that have a certain
relationship to each other, followed by the four pairs. Select the pair that has the
same relationship as the original pair of words.
51. Eight: nine::
a. six : twelve b. 23 :32 c. Ten : nine d. four :22
52. dear : heard ::
a. white: snow b. gees : flock c. ducks : duck d. seed : sprout
53. bat : blind ::
a. melt : freeze b. diseases : microbe c. traffic : road block c. quiet : lamb
54. fear : terror ::
a. distress : discomfort b. joy : ecstasy c. relief : relaxation d. danger : anxiety
55. triangle : circle ::
a. nut : screw b. salt : solution c. wedge : whet d. engine : wheel
Directions: select the pair of words which best expresses the relationship similar to
that expressed in the pair in BOLD letter.
56. Expenditure : Saving :: Import:
a. Excise b. Export c. External d. Exit
57. Sale : Excise :: Income :
a. Honorarium b. Tax c. Penalty d. Standard
58. Advocate : Law :: Cook :
a. Kitchen b. Vegetable c. Dinning table d. Recipes
59. Lunatic : Brain :: Blind :
a. Support b. Brain c. Crutches d. Spectacles
60. Darkness : Evening :: Light :
a. Electricity b. Switch c. dawn d. Heavy
Directions: one out of the four choices is odd. Find the “odd one out” from each of
the following.
61. a. 121 b. 231 c. 352 d. 453
62. a. Debenture b. Government bond c. Equity share d. Share
63. a. Reward b. Crime c. Offence d. Punishment
64. a. Conductor b. Insulator c. Contractor d. Germanium
65. a. 1210 b.125 c. 729 d. 1728
Directions: Q. 66 to 70.
Seven boys A,B,C,D,F,G and H have 10 pens each. A takes 4 pens from F and B takes 4
pens from G. D gives 3 pens to H and H gives 2 pens to F. G takes back the pens he had
given to B . A gives 3 pens to D.
66. How many pens does G have?
a. 10 b. 7 c. 11 d. 8
67. How many boys have got eleven pens each ?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
68. Who have got the least number of pens?
a. A b. D c. F d. H
69. After the exchange of pens among the boys is over, how many of them have 10 pens get?
a. Two b. Three c. Four d. None of them
70. The maximum number of pens which any of the boys has?
a. 10 b. 11 c. 12 d. None of these
Direction: select the best answer choice which is logically based on the arguments in
the given statement.
71. Yogesh is a student of Padmodaya school. He must be sharp.
a. Students of public school are sharp.
b. Students of government schools are not sharp.

321 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 c. Padmodaya is a public school.
d. Students of padmodaya are generally sharp.
72. Prices are rising again. This is mainly due to fall in production.
a. Production is expected to increase now. b. Earlier the production was high.
c. If production falls, prices rise. d. If production increases, price will fall.
73. No babies can walk. All those who can walk are grown-up. Therefore,
a. No babies are grown-up. b. All grown-up persons are babies.
c. No person who can walk are babies. d. Those who can run can also walk.
74. Nothing is a man unless it is intelligent. Nothing is intelligent unless it has a brain.
Therefore.
a. All man do not have brain. b. Some man are more intelligent than others.
c. No one without a brain is a man. d. All men are equally intelligent.
75. Some men are school teachers. Some school teachers are not football players.
Therefore.
a. All men are football players. b. Some school teachers may be football players.
c. Ramesh who plays football must be a school teacher.
d. No football players are school teachers.

General Awareness
76. Prof.Mohammad Yunus received Nobel peace Prize in 2006 is the citizen of
a. Pakistan b. Iran c. Bangladesh d. Afghanistan
77. When the reading of barometer goes down, it is an indication of
a. Strom b. Earthquake c. Tornado d. Rainfall
78. Which planet has been recently found as an asteroid, not the planet?
a. Pluto b. Venus c. Jupiter d. Saturn
79. In which international organization, Nepal has recently got the membership?
a. ILO b. WTO c. GATT d. OPEC
80. NEPSE is a
a. travel agency b. stock exchange c. computer software d. drug
81. The branch of science which deals with study of changes taking place in atmosphere is:
a. Mammography b. Meteorology c. Mycology d. Morphology
82. The revolutionary IPOD was brought out by
a. IBM b. Microsoft c. INTEL d. Apple
83. Nepal gained accession to WTO on,
a. April 23, 2004 b. Sept. 10, 2003 c. Jan 1, 2004 d. Jan 1, 2005
84. ISO signifies
a. International Organization For Standardization
b. Standardized International Organization
c. Internal Standard Organization
d. International Standardized Organization
85. The 2007 Twenty -20 cricket tournament is held in
a. Asia b. America c. Africa d. Australia
86. VAT is a form of
a. Direct tax b. Indirect tax c. Material tax d. Information tax
87. One tola of gold is equivalent to
a. 10 grams b. 10.54 grams c. 11.664 grams d. 12.335 grams
88. Which blood is universal acceptor?
a. O b. A c. AB d. B
89. The first bank established in Nepal is,
a. Nepal Rashtra Bank b. Rashtriya Banijya Bank,
c. Agriculture Development Bank, d. Nepal Bank Limited.
90. The “Man Sarover” is in
a. Tibet b. Pakistan c. India d. Nepal

322 A Complete Solution For CMAT

91. “Manager of the Year Award” given to best manager in Nepal is awarded by
a. Management Association of Nepal (MAN)
b. Nepal Rashtra Bank (NRB)
c. National Planning Commission (NPC)
d. Nepal Tourism Board (NTB)
92. Goodwill is a/an
a. Current Assets b. Fixed Assets c. Fictitious Assets d. Intangible assets
93. The number of electoral constituency as recommended by the “Electoral Constituency
Delineation Committee-2064” is
a. 205 b. 215 c. 240 d. 265
94. Swami Ramdeo is known for
a. Yoga b. The Art of Living c. Bipasyana d. Quality Control
95. The Gauri Shankar mountain peak lies in which Zone of Nepal
a. Mahakali b. Karnali c. Janakpur d. Mechi
96. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP in %) of Nepal from Agriculture, Fisheries and
Forestry in 2005 is recorded as
a. 68 b. 55 c. 38 d. 25
97. “Ramsetu” is known for
a. The bridge made by monkey troop of Ram. b. Bridge constructed in Ayodhya
c. The new train network of India in Kerala d. The hilly range in Terai belt of Nepal
98. The average width of Nepal (North-South) is
a. 193 km b. 231 km c. 291 km d. 300 km
99. The Tsunami is the name of
a. The water wall caused in the ocean b. A Chinese Scientist
c. Famous lake in Indonesia d. Mountain peak of Japan
100. “Bhagwad Gita” is related to
a. Ramayan b. Chanakya c. Mahabharat d. Lord Buddha

CMAT 2008 (Batch 2065)

Verbal Ability
Directions: Fill up the blanks with the words which best fits in with the meaning of
the following sentences.
1. Ram’s business ……… saw him through his new venture.
a. skill b. acumen c. interest d. trait
2. The candidate have to make their own arrangement for…. and lodging.
a. boarding b. food c. accommodation d. board
3. Hitler had highly ……… notions of his stature as a military leader.
a. elaborate b. arrogant c. exaggerated d. amplified
4. His caliber as an administrator is yet to be………
a. put to the test b. put to test c. tried d. applied
5. Rita has decided to ……… of the generous offer.
a. avail b. avail herself c. not avail d. not to avail
Directions: The questions below have a statement followed by four words. Select the
word which is closet in meaning to the statement.
6. One is having less blood.
a. spinster b. irritable c. Anemic d. misanthrope
7. Capable of living both on land and water.
a. amphibians b. cannibals c. omnivorous d. carnivorous
8. One who hates mankind.
a. callous b. neurotic c. amphibious d. misanthropist
9. Happening once in five years.
323 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. finale b. quinquennial c. fineness d. biannual
10. Something no longer in use.
a. avaricious b. censured c. obsolete d. ineffaceable
Directions: The following paragraph has a number of blanks marked as 1,2,3, etc.
followed by a set of options. Mark the options (Q.N.11-15) that best complete the
blanks.
Cricket is a…1…game, but the destiny of the side is often shaped by a couple of
individuals. In a …2…game. especially, a quick fire half century, a couple of quick
wickets, or a vital run out can …3…the match completely., Every ACC Cup has thrown
up its own…4…, some who had previous renown, some entirely unexpected. In reaching
the ACC final, Nepal …5… two exciting new face.
11. a. good b. team c. popular d. new
12. a. one-day b. dull c. practice d. thrilling
13. a. affect b. twist c. excite d. transform
14. a. followers b. stars c. problems d. champions
15. a. tested b. revealed c. put d. blocked
Directions: Selected the word which is closet to the meaning of the BOLD word.
16. Prone
a. inclined to b. alone c. hooch d. ready to act
17. Yield
a. try to win b. magic spell c. to hinder d. to produce
18. Jargon
a. hilarity b. language c. derivation d. error
19. Harness
a. enormous b. polyglot
c. to use something to produce power d. be too hard on
20. Suite
a. a set of room b. stymie c. plunder d. legal case
Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given at the end by
picking out the most suitable response to each question.
Not all those who know something about offering goods to customers or even about
selling can become real salesmen. You cannot become real salesman unless you have real
strength, the strength to face people who do not want to face salesman, the strength to
face and master the demands of a strenuous profession, the strength to find and face their
own short-comings and correct them. Too many people never realize these facts. Selling
is a profession that cannot be learned in the flick of an eyelid. Being tired of some other
job does not make a man into a salesman; neither does the vague hope of making money
in a hurry. Selling demands professional knowledge just as any other profession does. It
is no job for people who just want to pick up easy money. The selling career is an
exciting career but it is hard and exacting too. The salesman’s personality is under a
pressure that most people cannot take. He must feel at ease, cordial and friendly in the
presence of people who have little or no wish to see or to listen to him. In the face of their
hesitation he has to make them aware of needs which they did not realize and on which
they quite likely do not want to spend money.
21. Selling is a profession
a. that can be learned in a business college.
b. that depends solely on your ability to see things.
c. that is though, challenging and demands great strength.
d. None of the above
22. Selling is not a profession
a. fore people who have no training at a business college.
b. for those who cannot learn things at a flick of an eyelid.
c. for those who are tired of their job and want to make a fast buck.
d. for those who are not destined to be salesman.
324 A Complete Solution For CMAT
23. Selling is an exciting career but it also
a. is full of uncertainty b. offers avenues for making easy money
c. is quite risky. d. is exacting and demanding.
24. A salesman should be confident, friendly and cordial.
a. even under grave provocation.
b. for these are the essential qualities of this profession.
c. to those who treat him as an unwelcome intruder.
d. None of the above.
25. A successful salesman is one who
a. makes you aware of your needs and caters for them.
b. makes your buy what you had not planned to buy.
c. sells you useful articles at your door step.
d. makes your treat him as an honored guest.

Quantitative Ability
26. If n is odd integer, which one of the following is an even integer?
a. n3 b. 2/4 c. 2x+3 d. n(n+3)
27. If n is an integer, which of the following cannot be an even integer?
a. 2n+2 b. 2n+3 c. n-5 d. 5n+2
x
28. If is a fraction greater than 1, then which of the following must be less than
y
1?
3y x y y
a. b. c. d.
x 3y x x
29. If x and y are perfect squares, then which of the following is not necessarily a perfect
square?
a. x2 b. x+y c. xy d. yx
30. If p and q are positive integers, how many integers are larger than pq and smaller than
p(q+2)?
a. 2p-1 b. p+2 c. p-2 d. 2p+1
31. Which of the following is a solution to the equation x4-2x2=-1?
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
32. The sum of the digits of a two digits number is 12, and the ten’s digit is one third of the
units digit. What is the number?
a. 93 b. 54 c. 48 d. 39
33. Which of the following is the greatest?
15 7 13 8
a. b. c. d.
16 9 16 9
2
"1%
34. What is the value of 1− $ '
# 5&
1 15 24
a. b. c. d. 5
4 24 25
35. If a shirt selling for $ 18 is marked up to $20 t hen the percentage increase is equal to :
a. 11% b. 10% c. 12% d. 9%
36. If in a certain school 20 students are taking Math and 10 are taking History and 7 are
taking both, how many students are there?
a. 17 b. 27 c. 23 d. 37
37. If 4x+y=14 and 3x+2y=13, then x-y is equal to:
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. -1
325 A Complete Solution For CMAT
38. If x and y are prime and greater than 2, then which of the following cannot be a division
of xy?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 11 d. 15
39. In the two digit number x, both the sum and difference of its digits is 4. What is the value
of x?
a. 13 b. 31 c. 40 d. 48
40. The smallest prime number greater 53 is
a. 54 b. 55 c. 57 d. 59
41. In how many ways four persons, A, B, C,D can be arranged taking 2 person at a time
a. 12 b. 15 c. 16 d. 18
42. If 15 men can finish a work in 16 days, in how many days will 8 men finish the same
work?
a. 24 b. 30 c. 32 d. 36
43. An article was sold for Rs. 415 at a loss of 17%. What would have been the sales price?
a. Rs. 475 b. Rs.490 c. Rs.500 d. Rs. 525
44. The difference between SI and CI in a certain sum in 2 years at 12% per annum is Rs.
216. The sum is :
a. Rs. 14500 b. Rs. 15000 c. Rs. 15500 d. 16000
45. Find the greatest number which will divide 223 and 1083 leaving remainder of 8 in both
cases
a. 5 b. 40 c. 43 d. 47
46. A Co. reports that 1800 units of products were found defective. If this represents 5% of
total units exported, how many of this units were exported?
a. 36000 b. 38000 c) 40000 d. 45000
47. If A ={1,2,3,4..........15}, B={2,4,6,8,10..............22}, C= {1,3,5,7,................25} What is
A ∩ B∩ C ?
a. {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14} b. {1, 3, 5, 7, 9}
c. {6, 8, 10, 12} d. { }
" % ! $
$ 2 3 ' # 1 2 &
48. Given A= $ and B= # then AB is equal to:
$ 0 −1 '' # 3 4 &&
# & " %
⎛ ⎞ " % " % " %
⎜ 11 16 ⎟ $ 12 12 ' $ 9 9 ' $ −12 −14 '
a. ⎜ b. $ c. $ d. $
⎜ −3 −4 ⎟⎟ $ −3 −4 '' $ −3 −4 '' $ 3 4
''
⎝ ⎠ # & # & # &
49. A banker pays Rs. 564 for a bill of Rs. 600 due 6 month hence. What is the rate percent
per annum the bank has deducted from the bill?
a. 12% b. 11% c. 10% d. 8%
50. the present worth of Rs. 2040 due 4 years hence, reckoning interest at 5% p.a. is
a. Rs. 1650.50 b. Rs. 1675.30 c. Rs. 1700 d. 1680.

Logical Reasoning
51. Leather is considered as the best material for shoes, because leather is ;
a. water proof b. easily available
c. flexible and durable d. durable
52. Monday dawned 3 days preceding day before yesterday. What day will dawn two days
after tomorrow?
a. Wednesday b. Tuesday c. Monday d. Sunday
53. Steam burns the body more severely than boiling because,
a. It pierces through skin pores and water falls out.
b. Its temperature is higher than that of boiling water.
c. Steam can driver engines, but boiling water cannot.
326 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 d. Steam has latent heat, not present in boiling water.
54. Which is the odd one out?
a. Ship b. car c. motorcycle d. bicycle
55. Which number is out of step with the others in the following digit
groups ? 136, 532, 640, 514, 273, 262, 802
a. 640 b. 514 c. 273 d. 262
56. Which letter is out of place in the following series?
IMLTNKOJ
a. O b. M c. T d. L
57. Children should not see television regularly for long time because.
a. It weakens Children’s eye sight
b. They find interest in cartoons only.
c. Movies are better pastime than TV.
d. Children are subject to moral effect.
58. A man faces north and covers 12Km, turns west and covers 6Km, then turns south and
covers 3Km, and turns ‘West again and covers 6km. How far is he from the starting
point?
a. 27 km b. 10 Km c. 18km d. 12km
59. If 15 cows eat 15 bags of fodder in 15 days, in how much time will 1 cow eat a day ?
a. 1 bag b. 1/15 bag c. 1/30bag d. 1/10bag
60. P occurs only when Q occurs, Q has occurred, Therefore,
a. P has not occurred. b. P may have occurred.
c. P must have occurred d. None of the above.
61. A human being can always................ but not an animal
a. hear b. see c. reason d. listen
62. Complete the analogy: SRAND is to DETRAIN as STAND is to
a. SAND b. DETAIN c. STAN d. DESTAN
63. Find the odd one out.

a) b) C) d)
64. Score out the odd one.

a) b) C) d)

65. Find, the boys, girls and, fifteen years old.

a) b) C) d)
66. Health is to sickness as happiness is to
a. health b. heart c. sadness d. cheerfulness
67. Doctor: Disease::
a. intern : medicine b. miser : gold c. theft : punishment d. sheriff : crime
68. Ashes : Fire::
a. water : ice b. flower : bud c. disgust : expectation d. moon : sun

327 A Complete Solution For CMAT

69. Point X is north of point Y and point Y is east of point Z. To which direction is point X
with respect to Z?
a. East b. North c. Northeast d. West
70. Find out the odd one in the following.
a. Hair b. Wool c. Feathers d. Grass
71. If EARLY stands for 32567, then YEAR will be.
a. 3725 b. 7325 c. 3752 d. 7253
72. Bird is to nest as horse is to
a. ride b. mare c. gallop d. Stable
73. “Walk to be healthy” is logically similar to,
a. Read in order to increase your knowledge
b. Speak to relieve your tension
c. Cheat to make profits.
d. Listen when others speak.
74. “Work hard to earn money” is logically similar to,
a. do not cheat to make profits. b. Invest to amass wealth.
c. Buy lotteries d. Study to pass in distinction
75. “All roads lead to Rome” means
a. Roads do not go anywhere but Rome.
b. Rome is them most important place on earth.
c. Everything is attracted towards the place of action
d. Rome is the nearest place.

General Awareness
76. Who is the first Nepali woman receiving Gurber International Women rights awards?
a. Bipana Malla b. Kritika Shrestha c. Sapana Malla d. Niruta Singh
77. Who is the first ever elected president of Nepal?
a. Ram Prit Paswan b. Dr. Rambaran Yadav
c. Ram Raja prasad Singh d. Mrs. Shanta Shrestha
78. Nepal’s first commercial bank to receive ISO 9001:2000 standards certification for
Quality Management system is
a. Nepal Bangladesh bank b. Nepal Bank Limited
c. Nepal Industrial and Commercial Bank d. Rastriya Banijya Bank
79. Who was the runner up in the last edition of Indian Idol?
a. Charu Sharma b. Abisekh c. Amit Paul d. Ankita
80. The coldest planet which is just beneath Mars and in the side of Venus is
a. Sedna b. Mercury c. Sun d. Earth
81. Who is the writer of the book entitled “The Looming Tower: Al Qaeda’s Road to 9/11" ?
a. Amitar Ghosh b. Kalam Rashid c. Lawrence Wright d. Salman Rusdi
82. Who is the demon that took the form of golden deer in Ramayan?
a. Marich b. Trijata c. Rawana d. Kumbhkarna
83. Revlon is a brand name used for
a. Cosmetics b. Sportsware c. Glassware d. Pharmacetutical
84. Tribhuwan Univerwsity is going to celebrate its golden jubilee in
a. 2009 b. 2010 c. 2012 d. 2013
85. UNFCCC signifies
a. UN Framework convention on climate change
b. UN Force for control of climate cause
c. UN Fleet for the control of climate change
d. UN Flight for the control of climate change
86. The recipient for the prestigious literary award of the U K Booker of Bookers for 2008 is
a. David Brown b. Robbins Stephens c. Gordon Anderson d. Salman Rusdi
87. Dr. Dilli raman Regmi Foundation announced the 2008 National peace prize to
328 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. Jhalnath Khanal b. Amik Serchan c. Babu Ram Bhattarai d. Puspa Kamal Dahal
88. On July3, 2008, the Women Wimbeldon Tennis trophy was grabbed for the fifth time by
a. Venus Williams b. Serina Williams c. Jane Mckangie d. Jennifer Lopez
89. Which of the following is not the member of G8 Countries?
a. Britain b. Canada c. Japan d. Norway
90. With which country Nepal entered into a widely talked peace and friendship treaty in
1950
a China b. India c. Bangladesh d. Pakistan
91. What is the name of Sita (Daughter of King Janak of Mithila) in her former life?
a. Bedbati b. Saubhagyabati c. Laxmi d. Supriya
92. How many astrological signs are there in Hindu mythology?
a. 10 b. 11 c. 12 d. 15
93. Which country is recorded by World Development Report 2008 as the second largest
economy of the world?
a. Germany b. USA c. China d. India
94. ‘Uniting People’ is the slogan of
a. Mero Mobile b. United Telecom Limited
c. Nepal Telecom d. Sky Telecom Limited.
95. The ever remembered name in management is
a. Tom Jerry b. Jerry Johnson c. Micheal Hardy d. Peter Drucker
96. Reputed Hollywood actress Angelina Jolie and her husband actor Brad Pitt have been
awarded for their contributions for human cause by
a. Time Magazine b. Herald Tribune c. New York Times d. Times of India
97. Ten Grams of gold is equivalent to
a. 1.3251 tola b. 1.2578 tola c. 0.8573 tola d. 0.7573 tola
98. Who urge to eat less rice to increase earnings through rice experts.
a. Samak Sundarabej : Thai Premier b. Dr. Manmohan Sing : Indian Premier
c. Ban Ki Moon : UN Secretary General d. Gordon Brown : British Premier
99. The Bharat Bisural of Nepal is associated with
a. Football b. Professional Wrestling
c. Tennis d. Boxing
100. Miss J.K. Rowling is the writer of popular book series
a. Small is beautiful b. Harry potter
c. Autobiography d. The beautiful game

CMAT 2009 (Batch 2066)

Verbal Ability
Direction: Fill in the blanks with the word which best fits in.
1. Many religions believe in the ……… soul.
a. immoral b. amoral c. immortal d. unmoral
2. The students organized a ……….
a. fete b. feat c. feet d. fate
3. His letter to his son speaks ………. for his affection, tolerance and generosity.
a. much b. volume c. volumes d. enough
4. His business ………. saw him through this new venture.
a. interest b. skill c. venture d. acumen.
5. Amita was ………. with her own petard and faced defeat.
a. hoisted b. hoist c. confronted d. reviled.
Direction: Select the most suitable preposition in the following sentences.
6. What do you infer ………. this boy’s hesitating behavior?
329 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. from b. for c. with d. against
7. The citizens must not murmur ………. new taxes.
a. over b. upon c. against d. with
8. If you repent ………. your sins, God will forgive you.
a. for b. about c. of d. on
9. Shyam kept on talking to Jaya, oblivious ……… the fact that he was in the library and
not the common room.
a. of b. to c. with d. about
10. At the hospital, Ram was mistaken ………. a doctor.
a. upon b. over c. on d. for.
Direction: Choose the littered expression that most nearly express the meaning of
the given idiom or phrase.
11. To draw a line
a. To improve certain restrictions. b. To restart
c. To have fair game d. To divide evenly
12. A bird of passage
a. Active worker b. A person who shifts from place to place
c. A coward person d. A person who cannot keep secrets.
13. To be lost in the clouds.
a. To be perplexed b. To fly deep in the clouds
c. To imagine about something impossible d. To achieve unprecedented success
14. To let the grass grow under one’s feet
a. To take advantage of situation b. To work cautiously
c. To idle away time d. To work on a job below the dignity
15. To come off with flying colours
a. A good start b. To attend grand party
c. Good results of constant effort d. To achieve distinction
Direction: Select the best word, which correctly fill in the blanks.
The average new born …….. 16 ……..is about fifty centimeters long. In twenty years,
this little ………. 17 ………more than triples ……18 …….in length.
The ……19 ………height of a man is 1.7 meters. However, man does not stop growing
then he continues to grow even after the ….. 20 - ………. of twenty five and reaches his
maximum height at about the age of thirty-five.
16. a. baby b. child c. infant d. kid
17. a. mass b. body c. child d. infant
18. a. around b. over c. than d. itself
19. a. average b. mean c. common d. ages
20. a. years b. period c. age d. ages
Direction: The following passage is followed by questions based on its contents.
After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question.
As advertisers become more and more expert at their work, they appeal to all the human
emotions in the effort to increase sales-greed, jealously, love of a bargain, fear of the
disapproval of the other people, fear of ill health, the desire to catch a husband, the desire
to show off, and many others. But more and more customers are also becoming
suspicious of and resistant to high-powered advertisements. This is producing in highly
sophisticated countries, a deliberately modest, self deprecating type of advertisement that
is intended to disarm the suspicious of sophisticates by giving an impression of absolute
sincerity, or even deliberate understatement. Soon we may have the strange spectacle of
advertisers vying with each other, with Eastern courtesy, to belittle the merits of their
own merchandise.
21. According to the author, high-powered advertisement has created suspicion among
people in
a. Highly sophisticated countries b. Unsophisticated countries
c. Oversold markets d. In poor countries
330 A Complete Solution For CMAT
22. The self deprecating type of advertisement seeks of
a. Announce the product loudly
b. Introduce the product by appealing to principal emotions
c. Lessen the suspicion in buyer’s mind
d. Tell the true merits of the product
23. In the context “Eastern Courtesy” would mean
a. Genuine courtesy b. Courtesy with an intention to cheat
c. Sincere courtesy d. Business etiquette
24. The new type of advertisement as compared with the high-powered advertisements of the
past
a. Is absolutely sincere b. Gives the impression of being sincere
c. Is courteous to the buyer d. In more in buyer’s interest
25. Which of the following according to you is an understatement?
a. At sixty miles an hour the only sound you can hear in your car is the tick-tock of the
electric clock
b. We cannot make all the soap in the world. Therefore we decided to make the best.
c. In 9 out of 10 cases our toothpaste has completely cured tooth decay
d. Our “GENIOUS”pen cannot make you a genius. But it can make your writing chores
of pleasure

Quantitative Ability
26. If X is an integer, then which of the following is the product of the next two integer
greater than 2(x+1)?
a. 4x2+14x+12 b. 4x2+12 c. x2+14x+12 d. x2+x+12
N+N
27. If = 1 , then N=
N2
a. 1/3 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
28. If the ratio of 1/4 to 1/5 in equal to the ratio of 1/4 to x then what is the value of x?
a. 1/20 b. 5/16 c.1/5 d.5/4
29. If 0<x<1, which of the following expression is greater?
1
a. b. x c. x3 d. x4
x
30. In a certain school 20 students are taking math and 10 are taking history and 7 are taking
both, how many students are taking math only?
a. 20 b. 14 c. 13 d. 7
31. If (d) denotes the area of circle, then which of the following is equal to (4).(6)?
a . π(24) b. π(12) c. 24 d. 12
32. If –x = -|-(2 + 5)|, then x =
a. -7 b. -3 c. 3 d. 7
33. A number, when divided by 12, given a reminder of 7. If the same number is divided by
6, then the reminder must be
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
4 3
6 −6
34. The value of is equal to
5
a.1/5 b. 63 c. 6/5 d.64
35. Two successive discount of 20% and 15% is equivalent to a single discount of
a) 18 b) 24 c. 32 d 36
36. If 3x = 81, then (3x+3)(4x+1) must be equal to
a. 5(7)5 b. 9(12)5 c. 9 (7)5 d. 2(12)4
37. What is the average of x, 2x, and 6

331 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 % •3&
a. x b. 2x c. x+2 d.
& ,
38. If 7 workers can assemble a car in 8 hours, how long would it take 12 workers to
assemble the same car?
1 2 1
a. 3 hrs b. 4 hrs c. 5 hr d. 6 hrs
2 3 3
39. A Jet uses 80 gallons of fuel to fly 320 miles. At this rate , how many gallons of fuel are
needed for a 700 miles flight?
a. 155 b. 160 c. 170 d. 175
40. A 30% discount reduces the prices of a commodity by Rs. 90. If the discount is reduced
to 20%, then the price of the commodity will be
a. Rs 180 b. Rs.210 c. Rs.240 d. Rs. 300
41. A set with three elements has a number of subsets equal to
a 21 b. 22 c. 23 d.24
42. If A ∪ B = B∪ A , the set operation law is known as
a. commutative b. distributive c. associative d. de-Morgan’s
43. Find the sum of the series
5-1+1/5-………..
a. 4 1/6 b. 4 1/3 c. 4 ½ d. 4 2/3
44. Find the arrangement that can be made out of the letters of the word ‘MANAGEMENT’
a. 453600 b. 2,82,600 c. 45300 d. 2,26,800
45. If frequency distribution is positively skewed, then
a. X < M 0 b. X < Md < M 0 c. X > Md d. X > Md > M 0
46. The functional relationship of data given below, is equal to
X: 1 2 3 4 5
Y: 1 3 5 7 9
a. y=2x-1 b. y=2x+1 c. y=3x-2 d. y=3x-1
47. Given the production cost associated with an item is Rs. 20 and fixed cost is Rs. 60,000
per month. Each item is sold at Rs. 32 per item. If the target profit is Rs. 18,000, then
number of item to produced and sold is as
a. 6000 b. 6200 c. 6500 d. 6600
48. If 6 men can earn Rs. 150 in 10 days, how much do 8 men earn in 7 days?
a. Rs. 160 b. Rs. 140 c. Rs. 135 d. Rs. 130
49. The list price of an article is 25% above the selling price and cost price is 40% below the
list price, then rate of discount is
a.15% b. 20% c. 25% d. 40%
50. The difference between the simple and compound interest on a given sum for 3 yrs at 5%
p.a.is Rs. 15.25. The sum is equal to
a. Rs. 1500 b. Rs. 1800 c. Rs. 2000 d. Rs.2100

Logical Reasoning
Direction: Select the logically best answer
51 Akbar was popular because he was secular.
a. All seculars are popular b. All popular are seculars
c. Only seculars are popular d. non of these
52. Drug addicts are hated because they are criminals.
a. All who are not liked are drinkers b. All drinkers are not liked
c. Some are not liked because they are drinkers
d. Some non-drinkers are not liked.
53. A monkey climbs 5 meters in one day but falls 3 meters in one night. In how many days
can it climb an 11 meters pole.
a. 2 days b. 3 days c. 4 days d. 5 days
332 A Complete Solution For CMAT
54. Birds can fly because they have wings.
a. All having wings can fly b. All which can fly have wings
c. Some which can fly have wings d. Some which have wings can fly
Direction: Each of the questions below consists of two words that have a certain
relationship to each other, followed by four pairs. Select the pair that has the same
relationship as the original pair of words.
55. Cotton : soft
a.Wood : thick b. Silk : costly c. Nylon : thread d. iron : hard
56. Student : teacher
a. Examination : marks b. Guide : friend c. Player : coach d. Devotee : religion
57. Pyramid : triangle
a. Sphere : circle b. Prism : cone c. Solid : hollow d. Cube : square
58. Ice : cold
a. Sugar : sweet b. Butter : cow c. Attack : defeat d. Gold : cold
Direction: Select the pair of words which best expresses the relationship similar to
that expressed in the pair in bold letters/figures.
59. Drought : Flood :: Hell:
a. Torture b. Calamity c. Deprivation d. Heaven
60. 4 : 20 :: 7:
a. 14 b. 28 c. 4 d. 35
61. Mango : Fruit :: Flower :
a. Pink b. Fragrance c. Rose d. Garden
62. Hunger : Food :: Fatigue :
a. Overwhelming b. Tiredness c. Exercise d. Rest
63. June: August::Sunday
a. Weekend b. Saturday c. Monday d. Tuesday
Direction: Find the odd ones out.
64. a. Bangkok b. Bombay c. Hollywood d. Bollywood
65. a. Mother b. Aunt c. Nephew d. Friend
66. a. Dahlia b. Rose c. Pine d. Jasmine
67. a. Gun and Shell b. Tank and Gu c. Rocket and Charge d. Rifle and Bullet
68. If BEAT is coded as EBTA, what should the code of OUPS?
a. SOUP b. SPUO c. UPOS d. UOSP
69. If DEFY is coded as 40, what should be the code for TRAP?
a. 45 b. 55 c. 35 d. 65
70. If 4316 coded as DCAF, what should be the code of HIGE?
a. 3416 b. 1643 c. 8975 d. 7589
Direction: In Question 71 to 75, you are required to choose from the four diagrams
marked a, b, c and d. the one that illustrates the relationship among the three given
classes better than any other.

a. b. c. d.
71. Mongolia, China, North Korea
a. b. c. d.
72. Patan, Krishna Mandir, Jawalakhel
a. b. c. d.
73. Europe, Switzerland, Geneva
a. b. c. d.
74. Father, Mother, Athless
a. b. c. d.
75. Tribhuvan University, Thakur Ram Campus, Saraswati Campus
a. b. c. d.
333 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 General Awareness
76. What was the position of Nepalese women’s cricket team in ACC 20-20 women’s cricket
championship held in Malaysia on 11th July 2009?
a. First b. Second c. Third d. None of the above
77. Who is the current president of Confederation of Nepalese Industries (CNI)?
a. Tula Ram Dugar b. Rup Jyoti c. Rajendra Khetan. d. Binod kumar Chaudhary
78. The slogan “every morning at your doorstep” is associated to:
a. The Himalayan Times b. Dairy Development corporation
c. Wai Wai noodles d. Kathmandu Upathyak Khanepani Ltd.
79. Which of the following nation is not in G8 nations?
a. Britain b. The Netherlands c. Russia d. Japan
80. On which day of the week the daily newspaper “The Himalayan Times” brings a
supplement with the title THT property plus?
a. Wednesday b. Thursday c. Friday d. Saturday
81. Who is the writer of the book “The American Man”?
a. Elizabeth Gilbent b. Jeffrey Sachs c. John Humphrys d. Pamela Chaterjee
82. Who is the first lady minister with the portfolio of Defense in Nepal?
a. Saileja Acharya b. Bidhya Bhandari c. Kamal Shah d. Astha Laxmi Shakya
83. In which year Tribhuvan University is celebrating its Golden Jubilee?
a. 2066B.S. b. 2068B.S. c. 2070B.S. d. 2071B.S.
84. The botanical name of the national flower of Nepal is
a. Red Rose b. Rhododendron c. Rhododendron Arbarium d. Red Lotus
85. Which country has been selected to host 2012 Olympics?
a. Germany b. United Kingdom c. Japan d. Australia
86. Who is the permanent representative of Nepal to the United Nations?
a. Gyan Chandra Acharya b. Rajeshwor Acharya
c. Dr.Suresh Chalise d. Madhu Raman Acharya
87. CRBT commonly used in communication Sector Indicates to
a. Call Ring Back Tone b. Call Ring Before Tone
c. Caller Ring Back Tone d. Caller Ring Before Tone
88. Sin city stands as nick name for
a. New York b. Berlin c. Barcelona d. Las Vegas
89. Amongst different styles of temples in Kathmandu valley, to which style Kumari Ghar
(home of living Goddess Kumari ) belongs to
a. Pagoda b. Stupa c. Krishna temple d. Harmya
90. Serana Williams Clinched her third Wimbledon title and 11th Grand Slam crown with a
victory over whom?
a. Elena Dementiava b. Venus William c. S.Sarapova d. Sania Mirza
91. The first three wheeler women driver
a. Sita Thapa b. Parbati Shrestha c. Ang Kami Lama d. Laxmaya Chhetri
92. The summit of non- alinged natiions held in July 2009 in Italy was
a. 10th b. 12th c. 15th d. 16th
93. The first Nepali woman architect is
a. Hisila Yami b. Priyanka Rana c. Chandra lekha kayastha d. Manjeshree Rana
94. What is the price of the basic model of worlds cheapest car?
a. Us$ 4,000 b. Us$ 3,500 c. Us$ 2,000 d. Us $ 1850
95. Security force in India has introduced a type of hand Grenada to control the mob that
includes
a. Red chili dust b. Paper Dust c. Garlic dust d. Brick dust
96. The Everest Bank is Tied up with
a. SBI b. Cantral Bank c. Punjab National Bank d. Bank of Scotland
97. The number of students securing distinction in SLC regular examination of 2065 was
334 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 15,000 b. 13,901 c. 12,365 d. 11,304
98. Which is the most expensive city to live as an expatriate?
a. Moscow b. London c. Tokyo d. New York
99. Scientists of Queensland University, Australia have developed vaccine to treat swine flue
using
a. Butterfly cell b. Caterpillar cell c. Human cell d. Monkey cell
100. The 50-year-old musical superstar Michael Jackson had Germany Awards in his name
numbering to
a. 16 b. 15 c. 14 d. 13

CMAT 2010 (Batch 2067)

Verbal Ability
Directions: Select the word which is closest to the meaning of word.
1. Detonate
a. Stalemate b. hinder c. Cylinder d. to explode
2. Benediction
a. Denunciation b. marriage c. Original d. blessing
3. Euphoria
a. Witty b. loss of speech c. State of pleasant excitement d. tempt
4. Fallacious
a. Flimsy b. spiteful c. Bleak d. misleading
5. Dexterity
a. Proficiency b. simplicity c. Cunningness d. devotion
Directions: Complete the following sentences with the appropriate choice from
among the options that follow.
6. The wound healed but the scar remained as painful .........of the accident.
a. Evidence b. testimony c. Reminder d. accord
7. The magician astonished the audience with the ........... which he performed his trick.
a. Catechism b. caveat c. cahoots d. celerity
8. Those who seek ........... from others must learn to forgive and forget.
a. Leniency b. clemency c. courtesy d. retribution
9. The thieves tried to .......... with the lock but they did not succeed in breaking it.
a. Tamper b. temper c. fiddle d. temperate
10. His ancestral home has been ........ to build a high rise shopping complex.
a. Pulled up b. pulled down c. erased d. raged
Directions: each question below consists of an idiom or a phrase, followed four
lettered expressions. Choose the lettered expression that most nearly expresses the
meaning of the given idiom or phrase.
11. The Alpha and the Omega
a. All the relevant details b. The beginning and the end
c. To cause misunderstanding d. The best Swiss watches
12. To smell a rat
a. to look for rats b. to be upset
c. to cause misunderstanding d. to suspect trick or foul play
13. A writing on the wall
a. a distinct future possibility b. wall advertisement
335 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 c. a legal notice d. a misfortune
14. To worship the rising sun
a. to become pious b. to work honestly
c. to change the profession d. to work for the welfare of people
15. To take one’s hand to plough
a. to do basic work b. to commence the work seriously
c. to change the profession c. to do an unimportant job
Directions: the following paragraph has a number of blanks marked 16-20 followed
by a set of options. Mark options that best complete the blanks.
Broadly speaking letters may be said to..16.. into two categories; the formal and the
personal. Formal letters ...17... of official; or business matters and are addressed to the
employer or head of a department, section or institution. Letters to the ...18... of a
newspaper also belong to this class. In fact, all ...19... using formal pattern is of this
category. The ...20... has to be precisely stated.
16. a. belong b. fall c. split d. convert
17. a. comprise b. consist c. deal d. inclusive
18. a. correspondent b. reader c. owner d. editor
19. a. letters b. matters c. correspondence d. issues
20. a. content b. criticism c. case d. theme
Directions: The passage give below is followed by questions based on its contents.
After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question.
IVAN PAVLOV (1849-1936) the Russian psychologist who won the Noble Prize in 1904
showed how reflexes, animal reactions to stimuli, could be predictably fixed,
conditioned, by associations. If, for example, a dog salivates, when it sees food and if
bringing food is uniformly preceded by ringing of bell, soon the dog will begin to
associate the bell with the coming food and will be conditioned to salivate at the sound of
the bell. This discovery of conditioning by association has turned out to perhaps the most
significant finding of psychology and is the direct base of the Gestalt and the behavioral
branches of the field.
21. Pavlov showed that
a. Dogs salivate when the bell rings. b. Reflexes can be associated
c. Reflexes can be conditioned. d. Animals can be trained to behave in a particular way.
22. A reflex is
a. An animal reaction to a stimulus.
b. A stimulus resulting from a previous reaction.
c. Predictable reaction of animals.
d. An acquired response to a stimulus.
23. In the experiment explained above, the bell was rung
a. After the food was given. b. Before the food was given.
c. During the time the dog ate food. d. Before the dog started salivation.
24. Pavlov’s experiment with the dog would not have been possible
a. If the bell was not used.
b. If the dog did not salivate at the sight of food.
c. If the bell was not rung for along time.
d. If the bell was not rung uniformly.
25. Pavlov was a
a. Russian physiologist b. Gestalt psychologist
c. Russian psychologist d. Animal psychologist

Quantitative ability
26. The digits of a three-digit number add up to 18. If the ten’s digit is twice of the
Hundred’s digit and hundred’s digit is 1/3 of the unit digit, what is the number?
a. 246 b. 369 c. 531 d. 893
336 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 x 6 − 5x 3 −16
27. If = 1 , then x could be
8
a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 8
5

28. Given a triangle 3 , what the area of triangle to the right?

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 8
29. If x>y>0, which of the following are true?
x +1
i) x +1 > 1 ii) x +1 = x iii) <1
y +1 y +1 y y +1
a. III only b. I only c. II only d. I and II only
a+b 0Δ2
30. If a ∆ b is defined to be , then what the value of ?
a−b aΔ3
a. 2/3 b. 1 c. 3/2 d. 2
31. For all real numbers of x and y, let x # y = (xy)2-x+y2 what is the value of y that makes x
# y equal to - x for all value of x?
a. 7 b. 5 c. 2 d. 0
32. If x and y are prime numbers which of the following can’t be difference of x and y?
a. 9 b. 15 c. 23 d. 30
33. If x and y are both prime and greater than 2, then which of the following cannot be a
divisor of xy?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 11 d. 15
34. If is both a cube and square of an integer and x is between 2 and 200, what is the value of
x?
a. 16 b. 64 c. 125 d. 169
35. Which of the following numbers is the greatest positive integers x such that 3x is a factor
of 275?
a. 25 b. 19 c. 15 d. 10
36. If 4% of (p+q) is 8 and p is positive integer, which is the greatest value of q?
a. 197 b. 198 c. 199 d. 200
37. if 2x+y=3 and 3y=9-6x, how many solution does the given system of equations have?
a. None b. infinite c. one d. two
38. In travelling from city A and B, John drove for 1 hour at 50 mph. and for 3 hours at 60
Mph., what was his average speed of his trip?
a. 53.5 b. 55 c. 56 d. 57.5
39. The average six consecutive integers in increasing order size is 9.5, what is the average of
the last three numbers?
a. 11 b.10 c. 9 d. 8
40. if the product of two integers is odd, then sum of those two integers must be
a. odd b. even c. prime d. a perfect square
41. If two zero positive integers p and q are such that p=4q and p<8, then q equals to
a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1
42. Suppose x=y-2=(y+5)/2, then x equals
a. 1/3 b) 7 c. 1 d. 7/6
43. (31− 6) (16 + 9) equals
a. 5 b. 10 c. 25 d. 30
44. Ajar contains 4 blue balls and 40 red balls. Which of the following is % of blue balls?
a. 9 b. 10 c. 11 d. 12
45. Stella paid Rs32000for a computer after receiving 20% discount. What is the price of
Computer before discount?
337 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 35000 b. 38000 c. 40000 d. 42000
46. Seven workers can assemble a car in 8 hours, how long it would take 12 workers to
Assemble the same car?
a. 7/2 his b. 14/3 hrs c. 11/2 hrs d. 19/3 his
Directions: In questions 4710 SW you are required to choose the correct answer
based on given information, Distributions of criminal activity by category of crime
for country X in 2000 and projected for
Criminal Population in 0.1 million Criminal Population in 0.2 million

25 30 28

38 robbery
robbery
assault
m urder assault

w hite colar murder

10
w hite colar
7 30 32

2000 2010
47. What is the projected number of white collar criminals in 2010?
a. 40,000 b. 50,000 c. 60,000 d. 65,000
48. The ratio of number of robbers in 2000 to the number of projected robbers is
a. 25/56 b. 25/60 c. 1/4 d. 2/3
49. What is the approximate projected percent increase between 2000 and 2010 in the
number of criminals in murder?
a. 180% b. 182% c. 184% d. 186%
50. What is the net percentage increase in Assault in 2010 ?
a. 2% b.7% c. 9% d.10 %

Logical Reasoning
Directions: Select the logically best answers
51. He is not liked because he drinks.
a. All who are not liked are drinkers b. Some are not liked because they drink.
c. Some non-drinkers are not liked. d. All drinkers not liked.
52. She does not do well in the exams because she does not study hard,
a. All who do not study hard do poorly in exams.
b. All who study hard do well in the exams.
c. Some always do not do well in the exams.
d. Some always perform poorly in the exams.
53. All rich are happy because they have money.
a. All those who are happy have money. b. All who have money are happy.
c. Some rich are not happy. d. Some who are poor are happy.
54. Ducks can swim because they have wings.
a. All having wings can swim. b. Some which can swim have wings.
c. Which can swim have wings d. some can swim may not have wings.
55. Football is a great game because many people like it.
a. All games are liked by people. b. Football is liked by all people.
c. All games which are liked by people are great. d. Football is liked by all.
Directions: Find the odd one out.
56. a. IBM b. Hewlett-Packard c. Apple d. orange
57. a. Uncle b. Aunt c. sister in law d. Brother
58. a. Airplane b. Rocket c. Bullet Train d. Jet Plane
59. a. Nylon b. jute c. cotton d. wool
60. a. Accelerator b. Petrol c. Brake d. Steering wheel

338 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Directions: Two words on the left side of the sign (::) bears same relationships. The
same relationship exists between the third word ends the word provided in the
answer choices. Select the logically best word.
61. Whisper: shout :: walk:
a. Race b. stop c. run d. stand
62. Engine: motor:: Foundation :
a. stone b. Bricks c. Basis d. Structure
63. Undo: Do:: Ignorance: ?
a. Reason b. intelligence c. Genius d. Fool
64. Heaven: Hell :: Flood :
a. Disaster b. Calamity c. Drought d. Erosion
65. hunger : Food :: Fatigue :
a. sleep b. rest c. take vitamins d. eat
Directions: Select the pair of words that best expresses the relationship similar to
the given pair of words.
66. Curve : Accident::
a. Road : Footpath b. Vehicles : Accident. c. Dirt : disease d. road heavy traffic
67. Shoe: leather::
a. Brick: Clay b. Cement: Building c. Match : Fire c. Cotton : Clothes
68. Fur : soft ::
a. Wood : Thick b. Wool : Warm c. Silk : Expensive d. Iron : Hard
69. Student : Teacher::
a. Guide : Friend b. Devotee : Religion c. Love : Baby d. Player: Coach
70. Religious : Atheist ::
a. Hard : soft b. Warm : Hot c. Group : Single d. Cold : Cool

Directions: In questions 71 in 75, you are required to choose from the four diagrams
marked A, B, C and D the one that illustrates the relationship among the three given
classes better than any other.

A B C D
71. Singapore, Hongkong, Macao
a. A b. B c. C d. D
72. Tribhuvan university, Shanker Dev Campus, Nepal Commerce Campus
a. A b. B c. C d. D
73. Asia, Afghanistan, Kabul
a. A b. B c. C d. D
74. Father, Mother, Nurses
a. A b. B c. C d. D
75. Kathmandu, Godavari, Gokarna
a. A b. B c. C d. D

General Awareness
76. Who was awarded the Golden Boot in world cup 2010?
a. Snijder. W. b. David Villa c. Diego Forlan d. Thomas Muller
77. Which of the following country has the highest per capita income?
a. UK b. Norway c. Canada d. Australia
78. Which of the city is most expensive to live in?
a. Tokyo b. Luanda c. Oslo d. Copenhagen
79. Which country is considered as the poorest country in the world?
339 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. Burundi b. Niger c. Somalia d. Zimbabwe
80. SPSS indicates
a. Statistical Package to social Science b. Short Package to Social Science
c. Strategic Package to Social Service d. Straight Process of Social Service
81. Which temple in Kathmandu does not have pinnacle?
a. Pashupati b. Kathmandu Ganesh c. Mahankalsthan d. Sankata
82. “Nelson Mandela International Day” was recognized by the UN and celebrated across the
world on?
a. July, 10 b. July, 15 c. July, 18 d. August, 1
83. NBEX is a newly introduced brand of
a. Radio Station b. Television Channel c. Newspaper d. Educational institution
84. The currency of UAE is
a. Riyal b. Saudi Riyal c. Dirham d. Ringgit
85. What is the pass percentage of SLC examination of 2066 B.S.?
a. 68% b. 66.1% c. 65.5% d. 64.13%
86. Which of the following industry is considered as the biggest industry in the world?
a. Film b. IT c. tourism d. Dairy
87. Who own the prestigious CMO Asia Brand Builder of the Tear Award for developing
suture-less cataract surgery, a form of surgery that does not require stitching?
a. Dr. Sanduk Ruit b. Dr. Ram prasad Pokhrel
c. Dr. Deep Bdr Karki d. Dr. Sashanka Koirala
88. Who is the ambassador of Nepal to UK?
a. Damodar Gautam b. Dr. Shanker Sharma
c. Dr.Suresh Chalise d. Rukma Sharnser Rana
89. What is the projected inflation rate according to monetary policy announced by Nepal
Rastra Bank for the fiscal year 2010-11?
a. 5% b. 6% c. 7% d. 8%
90. Which of the following is the projected gross domestic product (GDP), rate of monetary
policy for 2010-11 announced by Nepal Rastra Bank?
a. 8.2% b. 6.5% c. 6.0% d. 5.5%
91. Gautam Buddha International Peace Award is the Nepal’s biggest international award
which carries purse of
a. US$50000 b. US$55000 c. US$70000 d. US $ 75000
92. G-4 comprises of the following countries
a. India, Brazil, Germany and Japan b. Brazil, India, Japan and Thailand
c. Brazil, Singapore, Japan and China d. China, Philippines, Pakistan and Bangladesh
93. What is the capacity of the highly talked Upper Tamakoshi hydro project?
a. 600 MW b. 550 MW c. 500MW d. 456MW
94. “Coblenger” is the brand name of
a. All Natural Premium Beer b. Natural Beauty Cream for Men
c. Natural Beauty Cream for Women d. Antidandruff Shampoo
95. “One Account, One Tree” is a campaign officially launched by
a. Bank of Kathmandu b. Laxmi Bank c. Kumari Bank d. Everest Bank
96. On July 20, 2010 Tribhuvan University celebrated its anniversary. What anniversary was
that?
a. 49th b. 50th c. 51st d. 52nd
97. In which country the world cup 2014 is going to be held?
a. USA b. china c. France d. Brazil
98. To which country the pop star Shakira who performed at the world cup kickoff concert in
Johannesburg belongs to?
340 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. Mexico b. South Africa c. Columbia d. UK
99. “Friendships begin with inking or gratitude- roots that can be pulled up”. Whose thought
is this?
a. S.S. Maugham b. B. Shaw c. Shakespeare d. George Eliot
100. Who was awarded Novel prize for Economics in 2010?
a. Elinor Ostron b. Oliver E. Williamson
c. Elinor Ostron and Oliver E. Williamson d. None of the above

CMAT 2011 (Batch 2068)

Verbal Ability
Direction: Select the word which is closest to the meaning of the bold word.
1. Moderate
a. Not easy b. Non-historic c. Non-starter d. Not extreme
2. Deplorable
a. Barren b. laudatory c. Acceptable d. Regrettable
3. Percept
a. Planning b. Conduct c. Dogma d. Concept
4. Profound
a. Sleepy b. Asylum c. Abandon d. Deep
5. Suite
a. A set of rooms b. Stymie c. Plunder d. Legal case
Direction: Complete the following sentence with the appropriate choice from among
the options that follow:
6. The notice clearly states that trespassers will be …………
a. Persecuted b. persuaded c. prosecuted d. pervaded
7. The police burst tear gas shells to ……… the mob.
a. Apprehend b. divert c. disturb d. disperse
8. The dose of sleeping pills proved………….and he died in sleep.
a. Disastrous b. fatal c. effective d. efficacious
9. The thieves tried to …………with the lock but they did not succeed in breaking it.
a. Tamper b. temper c. fiddle d. temperate
10. A referee should be …………. In the outcome of the match.
a. Uninterested b. disinterested c. involved d. coopted
Direction: each question below consists of an idiom or a phrase, followed by four
lettered expressions. Choose the lettered expression that most nearly expresses the
meaning of the given idiom or phrase.
11. At sixes and sevens
a. To create chaos b. improper order
c. in proper order d. sometimes odd sometimes even
12. To be ill at ease
a. To become ill b. to recover from illness
c. to become unpopular d. to be hostile terms with someone
13. Roots and branch
a. Entirely b. step by step c. part by part d. bare truth
14. To eat the humble pie
a. To be under nourished b. to work secretly
c. to face failure d. to be highly annoyed
15. To take one’s hand to plough
a. To do basic work b. to commence the work seriously

341 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 c. to change the profession d. to do an unimportant job
Direction: the following paragraph has a number of blanks marked 16-20 followed
by a set of options. Mark the options that best complete the blanks.
The average new born……..16… is about fifty centimeters long. In twenty years, this
little body more than triples…..17… in length. The average height of a man is 1.7
meters. ….18… man does not stop growing; he continues to grow even after the …..19…
of twenty five and reaches his maximum height at about the age of thirty five. An average
person shrinks as much as ten millimeters…..20…ten years after the age of forty.
16. a. body b. infant c. kid d. child
17. a. around b. itself c. over d. last
18. a. since b. yet c. though d. however
19. a. ages b. years c. age d. period
20. a. in b. after c. every d. usually
Direction: the passage given below is followed by question based on its contents.
After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question.
Sherlock Holmes was the first of all the story book detectives and he is still the greatest.
He is perhaps known to more people than other character in fiction. You have probably
seen pictures of him a powerful man of six-foot-two, dressed in a cape and deer-stalker
hat, with a pipe in his mouth and a magnifying glass in his hand. Yet it was not his
appearance that made Sherlock Holmes famous, but his marvelous powers of detection.
In the Norwood Builder, a popular Sherlock Holmes story, a story man results into
Holmes sitting-room at 221 B Baker street. ”I am John McFarlane” he says, painting
heavily. Sherlock lazily replies, “You mentioned your name as if I should recognize it . I
assure you that beyond the obvious fact that you are a bachelor, a solicitor, a freemason,
and an asthmatic, I know nothing whatever about you.
21. Sherlock Holmes pictures show him dressed in a
a. Cap and deer stalker boots b. cape and doe coloured boots
c. Cape and deer stalker hat d. deer skin cape and stocky hat
22. Sherlock Holmes was fond of smoking
a. Cigars b. pipe c. cheroot d. cigarettes
23. Sherlock Holmes’ greatest asset was
a. His power to draw conclusions b. his keen sense of observation
c. His magnifying glass d. his ability to see through people

24. What Sherlock Holmes lazily replies to John McFarlane?

a. I know you very well b. I recognize only the story writers
c. I know persons who are solicitors d. none of the above.
25. What made Sherlock Holmes famous was
a. His stately appearance b. his pipe and hat
c. his address at 221 B Baker street d. his marvelous power of detection.

Quantitative Ability
26. The ten’s digit of a two-digit number is twice the unit’s digit. Reversing the digits yield a
new number 27 less than original number Which one the following number if the original
number?
a. 83 b. 63 c. 43 d. 21

27. What is the area of right angle triangle to the right?

a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 10
28. If in a certain school 20 students are taking math and 10 are taking history and 7 are
taking both. How many students are there?
342 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 30 b. 23 c. 37 d. 27
29. Suppose p is even and q is odd. Then which of the following cannot be an integer?
I. (p+q)/p II. pq/3 III. q/p2
a. II only b. III only c. I & II only d. I & III only
30. If the average of the consecutive even integers a, b and c is less than a/3, which of the
following best described the value of a?
a. A is positive b. a is negative c. a is prime d. a is odd
31. If (x+y)/(x-y) = 3 and x and y are integers, then which one of the following must be true?
a. x is divisible by 4 b. y is an even number
c. y is an odd number d. x is even number
32. If n is an integer, then which one of the following expressions must be even?
a. N2 +1 b. n(n+2) c. n(n+1) d. n(n+4)
33. 212 + 212 + 212 + 212 =
a.214 b. 416 c. 216 d. 248
3 3 3 2
34. 4(xy) + (x - y ) =
a. (x3 - y3)2 b. (x3 + y3)2 c. (x3 + y3) d. (x3 - y3)
35. The population of a town was 12000 in 1980 and 16000 in 1990. What was the percent
increase in the population of the town during this period?
a.80 b. 75 c. 50 d. 33
36. A jar contains 24 blue balls and 40 red balls. Which one of the following is 50% of the
blue balls?
a.10 b. 11 c.12 d. 13
37. John is 20 years older than Steve. In 10 years, Steve’s age will be half that of John’s.
what is the Steve’s age?
a. 8 b. 10 c. 20 d. 25
38. How many ounces of nuts costing 80 cents a pound must be mixed with nuts costing at
60 cents a pound to make a 10 ounce mixture costing 70 cents a pound?
a. 5 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9
39. The distance between cities A and B is 120 miles. A car travels from A to B at 60 miles
per hour and returns from B to A along the same route at 40 miles per hour. What was the
average speed for the round trip?
a. 56 b. 52 c. 50 d. 48
2
40. What is the greatest prime factor of (24) -1?
a. 3 b. 5 c. 11 d. 17
41. If n is an integer, what is the least value of n such that 1/3n<0.01?
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2
1 1
42. 9
− 10 =
10 10
1 1 1 9
a. − b. − 9 c. − 19 d. 10
10 10 10 10
43. If 4% of (p+q) is 8 and p is positive integer, what is the greatest possible value of q?
a. 196 b. 197 c. 199 d. 200
44. The average of 8 number is A, and one of the numbers is 14. If 14 is replaced with 28,
then what is the new average in terms of A?
a. A + 7/4 b. A + ½ c. A + 2 d. 2A + 1
45. If 7 workers can assemble a car in 8 hours, how long would it take 12 workers to
assemble the same car?
a. 3 b. 3.5 c. 4.67 d. 6.33
46. Let u represent the sum of the integers from 1 through 20, and v represent the sum of the
integers from 21 through 40. What is the value of v-u?
a. 39 b. 200 c. 320 d. 400

343 A Complete Solution For CMAT

47. In a legislative body of 200 people, the number of Democrats is 50 less than 4 times the
number of Republicans. If one fifth of the legislators are neither Republican nor
Democrat, how many of the legislators are Republicans?
a. 71 b. 50 c. 42 d. 150
48. If you roll two dice, what is the probability of sum total of 5?
a. 1/6 b. 1/9 c. 1/18 d. 1/36
49. If y is an even integer and x is an odd integer, which of the following expressions could
be an even integer?
a. 3x+y/2 b. (x+y)/2 c. x + y d. None of these
50. If 813 = 2z, then z =
a. 10 b. 13 c. 39 d. 26

Logical reasoning
Direction: select logically best answer for the question 51 – 55
51. ’do not take sugar because you have diabetes’ is logically similar to
a. do not read as you have week sight.
b. do not speak as your art not asked to speak.
c. do not playa you are hurt.
d. do not work as you are already overworked.
52. ‘He will not ‘tolerate insult because he is self respecting is logically similar to
a. he can buy costly things because he is a rich man.
b. this is a trivial so a fastidious person will not accept it.
c. he is unhappy as has failed.
d. he has compassion for all because he is conscientious.
53. Where there is a will there is a way’ is logically similar to’
a. there is a solution to every problem.
b. determined persons can always find way outs for outs for any problem.
c. those who pray can accomplish task
d. we have to construct roads to enhance accessibility.
54. Empty vessels make much noise ‘is logically similar to,
a. wise people do not take much.
b. fools generally praise themselves.
c. empty vessels and people are similar
d. Cowards die many times than before their death
55. ‘Read in order to increase knowledge ‘is logically similar to,
a. if you want to built your body ,take exercise. b. speak to relieve your tension.
c. pay only when you have obtained service. d. if you want to earn, do not cheat others.
Direction: question number 56 – 60 are based on matching the relationship of the
pair of words that carry similar meaning as the pair of words given in the left- hand
side.
56. always : never
a. frequently : maladjustment b. often : constantly
c. scholar : book d. doctor : disease
57. lawyer : case
a. psychiatrist : maladjustment b. teacher : fores
c. scholar : book d. doctor : disease
58. crowd : mob
a. life : death b. trees : forest c. million : billion d. large : huge
59. longitude : international date time
a. direction : gravitation b. longitude : time
c. latitude : equator d. north pole : south pole
60. plus : minus
a. increase : gravitation b. infinity : zero c. digit : series d. multiplication : division
344 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Direction: Find the odd- one out for the question numbers 61 to 65.
61. a. here b. now c. there d. nowhere
62. a. los angles b. Vancouver c. Acapulco d. cape town
63. a. table- tennis b. gymnastics c. chess d. volleyball
64. a. 30 b. 35 c. 36 d. 42
65. a. listen b. look c. view d. watch
Direction : Select logically the best answer.
66. morar : engine :: computer : ?
a. software b. cpu c. monitor d. modem
67. people : food :: machine : ?
a. oil b. power c. repair d. worker
68. literacy : ability to read and write :: comprehend : ?
a. understand b. analyze c. decide d. calculate
Direction: There are two sets of figure : problem figure and answer figures. The
problem figures from some kind of series .select one figure from the answer set
which will continue the some series as given in the figures.
69. Problem Figure Answer Figure

70. Problem Figure Answer Figure

Direction: Choose from the following diagrams the one that illustration the best
relationship among the given three words.

71. Asia, Europe, Africa

a. b. c. d.
72. animal, dog, table
a. b. c. d.
73. men, teacher, performers
a. b. c. d.
74. musicians, dancers, performers
a. b. c. d.
75. people, women, earth
a. b. c. d.
76. which country introduced chess for the first time?
a. India b. china c. Pakistan d. USA
77. which country of the world passes budget two times in a year?
a. India b. France c. Sweden d. Indonesia
78. which desert is known as man made desert ?
a. Thar b. Sahara c. Decen d. Colorado
79. which country of the world is getting highest number of inflow of migrant Nepalese
workers in the fiscal year 2010/11 ?

345 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. Kuwait b. Malaysia c. UAE d. Qatar
80. who is that Indian lady to whom Asia’s equivalent of the Nobel prizes “Ramon
Magsaysay awards 2011” is awarded ?
a. Nileema mishra b. Nilem Mukharjee
c. Arifa Rahaman d. Sulakchhyana Gupta
81. “Delhi belly” an Indian movies is the production venture of
a. Rakes Roshan b. Amir Khan c. Salman Khan d. Amitabh Bachhan
82. Limgonberry is a kind of
a. grain b. animal c. game d. fruit
83. How old is the relationship between Nepal and Britain?
a. Almost 300 year b. almost 200 year c. Almost 100 year d. Almost 150 year
84. Sir Sir Ravi Shanker is a leading name of
a. a political leader b. a business leader
c. a humanitarian and spiritual leader d. an organizational leader
85. Which of the following country has the highest number of internet user?
a. India b. USA c. China d. Russia
86. Who was known as “the queen of rock and roll”?
a. Amy Winehouse b. Janis Joplin c. Janis Kate d. Tony Maya
87. Which of the following country has been endorsed as hosts of the 2012 AFC challenging
cup final ?
a. India b. Palestine c. Nepal d. Maldives
88. Who replaced Rakesah sood,the Indian ambassador to Nepal?
a. Ramesh Sood b. Jayant Prasad c. Kalyan Moodi d. Nirupama Rao
89. In which country the incident of an women blinded with acid by her suitor for turning
down his marriage proposal spread him at the last minute from being blinded too as
punishment for his crime?
a. Pakistan b. turkey c. Afghanistan d. Iran
90. Which sea lies on the west part of Syrial ?
a. Mediterranean b. Caspian c. Baltic d. Red
91. Which of the following indicator a protest against sexual assault and insecurity among
women?
a. Fashion walk b. Cat walk c. Fast walk d. Slut walk
92. Who is the first member secretary of the national sports council?
a. Ganga Thapa b. Yubraj Lama c. Hira marajhan d. Santosh Sahukhala
93. Which bank of Nepal bagged mbillionth award 2011 for its mobile cash product?
a. Laxmi bank b. Kumari Bank c. Kist Bank d. Nabil Bank
94. Who headed a three member panel that selected managing director of nepal electricity
authority with hefty remuneration ?
a. Balanda Paudel b. Suryanath Upadhaya
c. Lilamani Paudel d. Shanker Man Singh
95. Informal sector service center honoured Ghana Shyam Acharya with Pakistan human
rights award for his contribution to human rights in
a. Rolpa b. Jumla c. Dadeldhura d. Mugu
96. To which daily paper prakriti adkikari the winner of natonal education journalist award is
associated?
a. Kantipur b. Gorkhapatra c. Sqamacharpatra d. Annapurna post
97. Which of the following is not a television channel in operation in Nepal?
a. Terai b. Himalayan c. Mountain d. Chure
98. Who is considered as god of god in hindu mythology?
a. Mahadev b. Bisnu c. Bramha d. Ganesh
99. Who is the musician of the national anthem of Nepal ?
a. Sambhujeet baskota b. Amber gurung
c. Yogeswor amatya d. Sambhu rai

346 A Complete Solution For CMAT

100. On august 02, 2011,a weekly tabloid to be published from kathmandu and new York was
inaugurated in Kathmandu by Nilambar Acharya : Chairman of the constitution
committee what was the name of the tabloid ?
a. Vishwa sandeas b. Vishwa sarathee c. Vishwa Sandes New York d. Naulo vishwa

CMAT 2012 (Batch 2069)

Verbal Ability
Direction: Select the word/words which is /are closest to the meaning of the bold
word:
1. Quota
a. Quotation b. Quote c. Limited number d. Unlimited quantity
2. Plump
a. Thin b. Fat c. Chubby d. Plumber
3. Visualize
a. To see future b. Vision c. Void d. Vector
4. Compassion
a. Comparison b. Cost c. Love d. Hate
5. Unison
a. Union b. Complete c. Care d. Universal
Direction: Complete the following sentences with the appropriate choice from
among the options that follow:
6. All the following are sedimentary rocks except ………………...
a. Mica b. Gravel c. Sand d. soil
7. We lost confidence in him because he never………..….the grandiose promises he made .
a. Forgot b. Tried c. Delivered on d. Relied upon
8. Some very durable plastics…………..….when exposed to sunlight.
a. Harden b. Stagnate c. Decay d. Decompose
9. When Hari left the cocktail party, he was quite………….
a. Drunk b. Driving c. Amazed d. Lofty
10. We had to pay more taxi fare because the taxi driver brought us by the…………….route.
a. short b. Longest c. Alternative d. High speed
Direction : Each question below consists of an idiom or phrase followed by four
lettered expression. Choose the lettered expressions that most nearly express the
meaning of the idiom or phrase.
11. Throw party
a. Leave the party b. Celebrate
c. Throw food in the party d. Start conflict in the party
12. The rest is history
a. History takes rest b. Known to everyone
c. To avoid historical facts d. History repeats itself
13. Live like a king
a. Live a very high quality life b. Live like king of Nepal
c. Live the life of a saint d. Live like Indra, the king of Heaven
14. Warm as toast
a. Very hot b. Very fresh c. Lukewarm d. Cold
15. Ride out the storm
a. To overcome difficulty b. To come out in the storm
c. To play in the storm d. Ride a horse

347 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Direction: The following paragraph has a number of blanks marked 16–20 followed
by a set of options. Mark the options that best complete the blanks.
Rarely in life, there is a ...16… where only one answer is…17... In fact, even ...18…,
there is only one right ...18….often…19….to an ill thought out ...20... .
16. a. Situation b. State c. Time d. Opportunity
17. a. Wrong b. Correct c. Inaccurate d. Approximate
18. a. Taking b. Assuming c. Repeating d. Reading
19. a. Leads b. Backs c. Begins d. Ends
20. a. Decision b. Dream c. City d. Story
Direction: The following passage is followed by questions based on its contents.
After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question.
What it means to "explain" something in science often comes down to the application of
mathematics. Some thinkers hold that mathematics is a kind of language—a systematic
contrivance of signs, the criteria for the authority of which are internal coherence,
elegance, and depth. The application of such a highly artificial system to the physical
world, they claim, results in the creation of a kind of statement about the world.
Accordingly, what matters in the sciences is finding a mathematical concept that
attempts, as other language does, to accurately describe the functioning of some aspect of
the world. At the center of the issue of scientific knowledge can thus be found questions
about the relationship between language and what it refers to. A discussion about the role
played by language in the pursuit of knowledge has been going on among linguists for
several decades. The debate centers on whether language corresponds in some essential
way to objects and behaviors, making knowledge a solid and reliable commodity; or, on
the other hand, whether the relationship between language and things is purely a matter
of agreed-upon conventions, making knowledge tenuous, relative, and inexact.
21. What is used to explain things in science?
a. Physics b. Logic c. Mathematics d. Knowledge
22. What is mathematics?
a. Numbers b. Language c. Formulas d. Difficult to solve
23. What type of system is mathematics?
a. Real b. Group of numbers
c. Very difficult to understand d. Artificial
24. Who is a linguist?
a. A professor b. Expert in science of language
c. Relationship of language d. Language and mathematics

Quantitative Ability
26. On my sister's 15th birthday, she was 159 cm in height, having grown 6% since the year
before. How tall was she the previous year?
a. 140 b. 150 c. 160 d. 165
27. Arun spent 25% of his pocket money, and has Rs. 125 left. How much had he at first ?
a. 120 b. 144.45 c. 166.66 d. 175.67
28. If the cost of electricity increases by 30%, by what percent one should reduce his
expenses in order that spent on electricity stays the same ?
a. 23.07% b. 25.5% c. 26% d. 33.33%
29. If the price of petrol increases by 25% and Rajesh intends to spend only 15% more on
petrol, by how much % should he reduce the quantity of petrol that he buys ?
a. 5% b. 8% c. 9% d. 10%
30. In an election, Congress secured 10% of the total votes more than Non-Congress
(consider only two parties in the election and average voting). If non-congress got
1,26,000 votes, by how many votes did it lose the election ?
a. 2000 b. 2200 c. 2500 d. 2800

348 A Complete Solution For CMAT

31. If the populations is 1,500,000 and the expected birth rate is 50%, while the expected
death rate is 31% what will be the net change in the in the population at the end of the
one year.
a. 285,000 b. 250,000 c. 244,000 d. 200,000
32. What is the % change in the area of a square (Which will become rectangle) if its length
side is increased by 10% and its width side is decreased by 10% ?(Hint. In these types of
problems, assume a percent (100) base and then move forward).
a. 5% b. 3% c. 2% d. 1%
33. Ram obtains 40% of the marks in a paper of 200 marks. Shyam is ahead of Ram by 25%
of Ram's marks, while Bhuvan is ahead of Shyam by one ninth of his own marks. How
many marks does Bhuvan get ?
a. 112.5 b. 115 c. 120 d. 125.25
34. Three Englishmen and three Frenchmen work for the same company. Each of them
knows a secret not known to others. They need exchange these secrets over person-to –
person phone calls so that eventually each person knows all six secrets. None of the
Frenchmen knows English, and only one Englishman knows French. What is the
minimum number of phone calls needed for the above purpose ?
a. 5 b. 10 c. 9 d. 15
35. Suppose you have a currency, named Miso, in three denominations: 1 Miso, 10 Misos
and 50 Mosos, In how many ways can you pay a bill of 107 Misos ?
a. 19 b. 17 c. 16 d. 18
36. A confused bank teller transposed the rupees and paisa when he cashed a cheque for
Shailaja, giving her rupees instead of paisa and paisa instead of rupees. After buying a
toffee for 50 paisa, Shailaja noticed that she was left with exactly three times as much as
the amount on the cheque. Which of the following is a valid statement about the cheque
amount ?
a. Over Rupees 4 but less than Rupees 5
b. Over Rupees 13 but less than Rupees 14
c. Over Rupees 7 but less than Rupees 8
d. Over Rupees 18 but less than Rupees 19
37. Ten years ago, the ages of the members of a joint family of eight people added up to 231
years. Three years later, one member died at the age of 60 years and a child was born
during the same year. After another three years, one more member died, again at 60, and
a child was born during the same year. The current average age of this eight-member
joint family is nearest to
a. 24 years b. 23 years c. 22 years d. 21 years
38. In certain zoo, there are 42 animals in one sector, 34 in the second sector and 20 in the
third sector. Out of this, 24 graze in sector one and also in sector two. 10 graze in sector
two and sector three, 12 graze in sector one and sector three. These figures also include
four animals grazing in all the three sectors are now transported to another zoo, find the
total number of animals.
a. 38 b. 56 c. 54 d. None of the above
39. 10% of the voters did not cast their vote in an election between two candidates. 10% of
the votes polled were found invalid. The successful candidate got 54% of the valid votes
and won by a majority of 1620 votes. The number of voters enrolled on the voters list
was:
a. 25,000 b. 33,000 c. 35,000 d. 40,000
40. A person closes his account in an investment scheme by withdrawing Rs. 10,000. One
year ago he had withdrawn Rs. 6,000 . Two years ago he had withdrawn Rs. 5,000 .
Three years ago he had not withdrawn any money. How much money had he deposited
approximately at the time of opening the account 4 years ago, if the annual simple
interest is 10%.
a. Rs. 15,600 b. Rs. 16,500 c. Rs. 17,280 d. None of these

349 A Complete Solution For CMAT

41. It takes 6 technicians a total of 10 hours to build a new server from direct computer, with
each working at the same rate. If six technicians start to build the server at 11:00 am, and
one technician per hour is added beginning at 5:00 pm, at what time will the server be
completed ?
a. 6:40 pm b. 7:00 pm c. 7:20 pm d. 8:00 pm
42. In a 400 meter race around a circular stadium having a circumference of 1000 meters, the
fastest runner and the slowest runner reach the same point at the end of 5th minute, for
the first time after the start of the race. All the runners have the same starting point and
each runner maintains a uniform speed throughout the race. If the fastest runner runs at
twice the speed of the lowest runner, what is the time taken by the fastest runner to finish
the race ?
a. 20mins b. 15mins c. 10 mins d. 5 mins
43. A train crosses a platform 100 metres long in 60 seconds at a speed of 45 km per hour.
The time taken by the train to cross an electric pole, is
a. 8 seconds b. 1 minute c. 52 seconds d. 20 seconds
44. P, Q and R are three consecutive odd numbers in ascending order. If the value of three
times P is three less than two times R, find the value of R.
a. 5 b. 7 c. 9 d. 11
45. A shop sells floor tiles at Rs. 48 per square meter. A building contractor employs a
machine that polishes the tiles that damages 10% of the total number of tiles which
cannot be used any more. Calculate the amount that needs to be paid by contractor to tile
shop owner, if the hall is of a square shape and has a perimeter of 400 meters ?
a. Rs. 400,000 b. Rs. 500,000 c. Rs. 528,000 d. Rs. 365,000
46. A batsman makes a score of 87 runs in the 17 inning and thus increases his average by 3.
Find his average after 17th inning.
a. 39 b. 38 c. 38.5 d. 39.5
47. Out of four numbers, the average of first three is 16 and that of the last three is 15. If the
last number is 18, the first number is:
a. 20 b. 21 c. 23 d. 25
48. Narasimha, Madhu and Pavan started a business by investing Rs. 120, 000, Rs. 135,000
and Rs.150,000 respectively. Find the share of Pavan, out of an annual profit of Rs.
56,700.
a. Rs. 16,800 b. Rs. 18,900 c. Rs.21,000 d. None of these
49. The ratio of Rita's age to her mother's age is 3:8. The difference of their ages is 35 years.
The ratio of their ages after 4 years will be :
a. 7 : 12 b. 5 : 12 c. 38 : 43 d. 42 : 47
50. A stars business with Rs. 3500 and after 5 months, B joins with A as his partner. After a
year, the profit is divided in the ratio 3:3. What is B's contribution in the capital ?
a. Rs. 7,500 b. Rs. 8,000 c. Rs. 8,500 d. Rs. 9,000

Logical Reasoning
Direction: Select logically the best answer:
51. Nepal will not manufacture unclear bomb because it is a peace-loving country.
a. Some peace-loving countries do not manufacture nuclear bomb.
b. No peace-loving country will manufacture a nuclear bomb.
c. All peace-loving countries manufacture nuclear bomb.
d. Nuclear bomb is manufactured for peaceful purposes.
52. She felt the book is bad because it was sad.
a. All sad books are bad. b. Some people do not like to read sad books.
c. Bad books are all sad. d. Sad books have sad endings.
53. Brittle things break easily.
a. All hard things are brittle. b. Some hard things break easily.
c. Some hard things are brittle and can be broken.
350 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 d. Steel is unbreakable because it is very hard.
54. Most of the employees who work hard get bonus.
a. All hard working employees get bonus.
b. Some employees who are hard working get bonus
c. None of the hard working employees get bonus.
d. All employees get bonus.
55. One takes medicines because one is sick.
a. Sick people take medicines. b. Medicines cure sickness.
c. All people take medicines d. All medicines make people sick.
Direction: Two statements are followed by two possible inferences. You are
required to identify the answer choice that applies the question no 56 to 60. Assume
the statements to be correct even if they may vary with the facts.
Answer Choices
a. Only inference 1 follow b. Only inference II follow
c. Both inferences I and II follow d. Neither inference I nor inference II follows.
56. All horses are donkeys; all donkeys are monkeys. So :
(i) All horses are monkeys (ii) All monkeys are horses
a. b. c. d.
57. No flower is plant; no plant is tree. So:
(i) No trees is flower (ii) No flower is tree
a. b. c. d.
58. All cars are scooters; all scooters are trucks. So:
(i) Some trucks are cars. (ii) All cars are trucks.
a. b. c. d.
59. Every ink is red; rose is red. So:
(i) Rose is ink. (ii) Ink is rose.
a. b. c. d.
60. No drug is a tonic; some tonics are beneficial. So:
(i) No drug is beneficial (ii) Some drugs are beneficial
a. b. c. d.
Direction : Find the odd-one out.
61. a. Monitor b. Printer c. Zip-driver d. Steering
62. a. Aunt b. Mother c. Brother d. Sister
63. a. Piano b. Guitar c. Banjo d. Harmonium
64. a. Train b. Truck c. Car d. Cart
Direction: Two words on the left side of the sign (::) bears the same relationships.
The same relationship exists between the third word and the word provided in the
answer choices. Select the logically best word.
66. Run: Walk :: shout : ?
a. Cry b. Call c. Whisper d. Scream
67. Caste : Class :: Appointed : ?
a. Status b. Achieved c. Job d. Employment
68. Do : Undo :: Reason : ?
a. Intelligence b. Ignorance c. Learning d. Genius
69. Faulty : Useless :: Slow :?
a. Moronic b. Intelligent c. Fast d. Worry
70. Foundation : Structure :: Cylinder : ?
a. Plan b. Instrument c. Transport d. Motor
Direction: Questions 71–75 are based on visual analogy. There are two sets of
figures: problem figures and answer figures. The problem figures bear some
relationships. One of the answer figures is also based on the same relationships. You
are required to identify the figure that would fit the question mark.
71. Problem Figure Answer figure

351 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 ?
a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d.
72. Problem Figure Answer figure

?
a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d.
73. Problem Figure Answer figure

?
a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d.
74. Problem Figure Answer figure

Z X V
? S R T U

a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d.
75. Problem Figure Answer figure

?
a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d.

General Awareness
76. Group of Seven (G–7) is the organization of:
a. The largest industrial democracies b. The nations having atomic power
c. the developed nations of Europe d. Countries with Veto power in the UNO
77. A large retail outlet operated by one agency selling a variety of commodities and services
under one roof is known as:
a. Departmental store b. Super market
c. Shopping mall d. Chain store
78. The term 'penalty corner' is associated with
a. Foot ball b. Hockey c. Basket ball d. Volley ball
79. The unofficial winner of Beijing Olympics occupied the following position in 2012
London Olympics.
a. 0 winner b. Second position c. Third position d. Fourth position
80. 2012 T-20 World Cricket Cup is being organized at:
a. India b. Australia c. Great Britain d. Sri-Lanka
81. Remittance in Nepal is generally included at
a. Gross Domestic Product b. Gross National Product
c. Gross Disposable income d. None of the above
82. Nepal's economic growth rate for 2011-12 is estimated at
a. 4.3% b. 4.6% c. 4.9% d. –4.6%
83. Premium offering of shares mean
a. Offering of shares value b. Offering at book value
c. Offering at market value d. Offering at prices higher than the face value
84. Micro enterprises as per the official definition of Nepal means,
a. Small domestic activities
b. Cottage Industries
c. Industries employing one or two persons with Rs.100,000 or less investment
d. Enterprises employing less than 10 persons with up to Rs. 200,000 investment
352 A Complete Solution For CMAT
85. Nepal's largest export destination is:
a. India b. China c. USA d. Germany
86. Barter trade means
a. Exchange of goods with money b. Exchange of goods with services
c. Exchange of goods with goods d. Exchange of goods in ancient times
87. DRUIC Air is the flag carrier of
a. Laos b. Cambodia c. Myanmar d. Bhutan
88. A tax that is levied on the turnover of goods is called
a. Income tax b. Excise duty c. Tariff d. Value added tax
89. Thailand is Bhat as Indonesia is to,
a. Dollar b. Pound c. Dirham d. Rupiyah
90. SBI Bank Nepal is
a. A subsidiary unit of State Bank of India b. A branch of State Bank of India
c. A joint venture bank with State Bank of India
d. A bank with no relationship with State Bank of India
91. 'Global 500' Award is associated with
a. Human Rights b. Peace Promotion
c. Environmental protection d. Successful entrepreneurs
92. Which of the following countries is not completely located inside a single country?
a Lesotho b. Vatican c. San Marion d. Andorra
93. The historical silk route links
a. Asia and Europe b. China and Iran
c. Mongolia and Hungary d. China and Turkey
94. The district with the highest number of over 8,000 meter peaks in Nepal is
a. Sankhuwasabha b. Solukhumbu c. Taplejung d. Gorkha
95. Hangseng is the stock exchange index of:
a. Singapore b. Hang Kong c. Taiwan d. Japan
96. Who is the current Chief Secretary of Nepal?
a. Madhav Ghimire b. Shanker Koirala
c. Leela Mani Poudel d. Yubraj Bhusal
97. According to the astronauts, the only visible physical structure on earth from the moon is,
a. Vatican Palace b. Temple of Rhode Island
c. Sun Francisco Bridge d. the Great wall of China
98. The tallest building in the world at present is located at
a. UAE b. USA c. Malaysia d. Taiwan
99. The current chair person of the SAARC is from:
a. Nepal b. India c. Maldives d. Sri-Lanka
100. Tertiary education is
a. Basic Education b. Primary education
c. Secondary Education d. Higher Education

CMAT 2013 (Batch 2070)

Verbal Ability
Direction: each capitalized word is followed by a set of options. Select the one that is
closet in meaning to the word.
1. STAMINA
a. Vigour b. Vigorous c. Hesitation d. Incentive
2. PANORAMA
a. Ancient Greece b. Program c. Broad Sense d. Temple
3. DISDAIN

353 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. Hate b. Hatred c. Courage d. Memory
4. INDEED
a. Surprising b. Mainly c. Sadly d. Actually
5. BOUND
a. Tired b. Fast ended c. Protected d. Certain
Direction: Each capitalized word is followed by a set of options. Select the one that
is opposite or nearly opposite in meaning to the word.
6. PERPETUAL
a. Permanent b. Irritant c. Imprudent d. Transient

7. ARTICULATE
a. Loud b. Vocal c. Silent d. Casual
8. VINDICTIVE
a. Vile b. Revengeful c. Retrograde d. Forgiving
9. OVATION
a. Acclaim b. Revelation c. Mockery d. Reception
10. CUSTOMARY
a. Routine b. Favorite c. Unusual d. Cute
Direction: Each of the following sentences has a blank space. Complete the sentence
with the appropriate choice from among the options that follow.
11. It is too difficult………….
a. problem for me b. problem to me c. a problem for me d. the problem to me
12. I am sure the clerk is preparing…………
a. arrear bill b. the arrear bill c. arrears bill d. the arrears bill
13. If I …………….. I would have helped you.
a. was him b. was he c. were he d. were him
14. I ………..for the insult.
a. avenged b. avenged myself c. revenged d. revenged myself
15. I enjoyed……………the holidays.
a. during b. myself during c. myself of d. myself by
Direction: In the questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one
which can be substituted for the given sentence.
16. That which cannot be corrected.
a. unintelligible b. indelible c. illegible d. incorrigible
17. The study of ancient societies.
a. Archaeology b. Anthropology c. History d. Ethnology
18. A person who insists on something.
a. Disciplinarian b. Strickler c. Instantaneous d. Oligarchy
19. Stare in which the few govern the many.
a. plutocracy b. autocracy c. plurocracy d. oligarchy
20. Parts of a country behind the coast or a river’s banks.
a. Archipelago b. Hinterland c. Swamps d. Isthumus
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Harold a professional man who had worked in an office for many years had a fearful
dream. In it, he found himself in a land where small slug-like animals with slimy
tentacles lived on people’s bodies. The people tolerated the loathsome creatures because
after many years they grew into elephants, which then became the nation’s system of
transport, carrying everyone wherever he wanted to go. Harold suddenly realized that he
himself was covered with these things, and he woke up screaming. In a vivid sequence of
pictures this dream dramatized for Harold what he had never been able to put in to words;
he saw himself as letting society feed on his body in his early years so that it would carry
him when he retired. He later threw off the “security bug” and took up freelance work.
21. In his dream Harold found the loathsome creatures.
a. In his village b. In his own house
354 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 c. In a different land d. In his office
22. Which one of the following phrases best help to bring out precise meaning of ‘loathsome
creatures’?
a. security bug and slimy tentacles b. fearful dream and slug-like animals
c. slimy tentacles and slug-like animals d. slug-like animals and security bug
23. The statement that ‘he later threw off the security bug’ means that
a. Harold succeeded in overcoming the need for security
b. Harold stopped giving much importance to dreams
c. Harold started tolerating social victimization
d. Harold killed all the bugs troubled him.
24. Harold’s dream was fearful because
a. It was full of vivid pictures of snakes
b. it brought him face toe face with reality
c. he saw huge elephant in it
d. in it he saw slimy creatures feeding on people’s bodies
25. Harold suddenly woke up
a. laughing b. crying c. screaming d. weeping

Quantitative Ability
26. A consumer group surveyed the prices for a certain item in five different stores, and
reported the average price as $15. We visited four of the five stores, and found the prices
to be $10, $15, $20 and $25. Assuming that the consumer group is correct, what is the
price of the item at the store that we did not visit?
a. $10 b. $15 c. $20 d. $25
27. During a semester, a student received scores of 76, 80, 83, 71, 80 and 78 on six tests.
What is the student’s average score for these six tests?
a. 76 b. 77 c. 78 d. 79
28. Ms. Gutierrez needs to order rope for her gym class of 32 students. Each student will
receive a piece of rope that is 5 feet 8 inches long. What is the total length of rope, Ms.
Gutierrez needs to order for her class?
a. 106 feet b. 154 feet 8 inches c. 160 feet 8 inches d. 184 feet
29. If the number of people classified as unemployed is 20,000 and the number of people
classified as employed is 230,000, what is the unemployment rate?
a. 8% b. 8.7% c. 9.2% d. 11.5%
30. In a recent survey, 80% of the community favored building a police substation in their
neighborhood. If 15 citizens are chosen, what is the mean number favoring the
substation?
a. 12 b. 15 c. 8 d. 10
31. Which of the following represents numbers than -3 but less than 6?
a. {x:-3>x>6} b. {x:-3³x³6} c. {x:-3<x<6} d. {x:-3£x£6}
32. A man’s regular pay is $3 per hour up to 40 hour. Overtime is twice the payment for
regular time. If he was paid $168, how many hours overtime did he work?
a. 8 b. 16 c. 28 d. 48
33. In a garden, there are 10 rows and 12 columns of mango trees. The distance between the
two trees is 2 meters and a distance of one meter is left from all sides of the boundary of
the garden. The length of the garden is
a. 20m b. 22m c. 24m d. 26m
34. Profits in the partnership of Bikram, Bishmu and Binita are shred in the ratio 1:2:3. If
Bikram’s share of the profits is Rs.300, what is Binita’s shares?
a. Rs. 150 b. 450 c. Rs. 600 d. Rs. 900
35. The difference between n simple and compound interests compounded annually on a
certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Re.1. The sum (in Rs.) is
a. 625 b. 630 c. 640 d. 650
355 A Complete Solution For CMAT
36. A contractor employs 20 male, 15 female and 5 children in his factory. Male wages are
Rs. 10 per day, female Rs 8 per day, and children Rs. 3 per day. The weighted x of wages
paid per day will be
a. 3.86 b. 8.37 c. 9.21 d. 10.63
37. In a class of 50 students, 18 take music, 26 take art, and 2 take both art and music. How
many students in the class are not enrolled in either music or art?
a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12
38. Due to drop of 30% in price of mobile sets of a shop there was an increase in sales by
20%. What is the effect on the mobile shop?
a. 16%fall b. 15%fall c. 12%fall d. 10%fall
2
39. What is/are the factor(s) of the equations y =64?
a. (y+8) b. {8} c. (y+8)(y-8) d. {-8,8)
x + 2 −3
40. What is the solution set of = ?
x−2 x
a. {-2,3} b. {-1,6} c. {-3/2,-1/2} d. {-6,1}
41. The length of a rectangular window is 5 feet more than its width, w. the area of the
window is 36 square feet. Which equation could be used to find the dimensions of the
window?
a. w(w+5)=36 b. w+w+5=36 c. w(w-5)=36 d. 2w+10=36
42. Find the slope of the line that passes through the points (-1,-1) and (2,2)
a. 0.25 b. 0.50 c. 1 d. 1.5
43. Peter wants to get $200,000 for his house. An agent charges 20% of the selling price for
selling the house for Peter. What should be the selling price?
a. $250,000 b. $200,000 c. $150,000 d. $50,000
44. It look Malcom 3.5 hours to drive from city A to B. On his way back to city A, he
increased his speed by 20km per hour and it took him 3 hours. Find the average speed for
the whole journey.
a. 120 km/hr b. 129.2 km/hr c. 125 km/hr d. 139 km/hr
45. What is the nth term in the arithmetic series below?
3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + 19……….
a. 4n b. 3 4+n c. 2n+1 d. 4n+1
46. The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar and Anthony is 80 years. What was the total of their
ages three years ago?
a. 71 years b. 72 years c. 74 years d. 75 years.
47. Mr. Thakali invested an amount of 13,900 divided in two different schemes A and B at
the simple interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total amount of
simple interest earned in 2 years be 3508, what was the amount invested in schemes B?
a. 6400 b. 6500 c. 7200 d. 7500
48. Two bus tickets from city A to B and three tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 77 but three
tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 73. What are the fares
for cities B and C from A?
a. Rs4, Rs.23 b. Rs. 13,Rs. 17 c. Rs.15, Rs.14 d. Rs.17, Rs.13
49. How much time will it take for an amount of 450 to yield 81 as interest at 4.5% per
annum of simple interest?
a. 3.5 years b. 4 years c. 4.5 years d. 5 years
50. Out of 7 consonants and 4 vowels, how many words of 3 consonants and 2 vowels can be
formed?
a. 25200 b. 210 c. 21400 d. 1050

Logical Reasoning
Direction: Read each definition and all four choices carefully, and find the answer
that provides the best example of the given definition.

356 A Complete Solution For CMAT

51. It is appropriate to compensate someone if you have damaged his or her property in some
way. This is called Restitution. Which situation below is the best example of Restitution?
a. Jake barrows Leslie’s camera and the lens shatters when it falls on he ground because
he fails to zipper the case. When Jake returns the camera, he tells Leslie that he will pay
for the repair.
b. Rebecca borrows her neighbor’s car, and when she returns it, the gas tank is practically
empty. She apologizes profusely and tells her neighbor she will be more considerate the
next time.
c. Aaron asks Tom to check in on his apartment while he is out of town. When Tom
arrives, he discovers that a pipe has burst and there is a considerable amount of water
damage. He calls a plumber to repair the pipe.
d. Lisa suspects that the pothole in her company’s parking lot caused her flat tire. She
tells her boss that she thinks the company should pay for the repair.
52. Reentry occurs when a person leaves his or her social system for a period of time and
then returns. Which situation below best describes Reentry?
a. When he is offered a better paying position, Yadav leaves the restaurant he manages to
manage a new restaurant on the other side of town.
b. Sita is spending her junior year of college studying abroad in France.
c. Arjun is readjusting to civilian life after two years of overseas military service.
d. After several miserable month, Seema decides that she can no longer share an
apartment with her roommate Hilary.
53. Embellishing the Truth occurs when a person adds fictitious details or exaggerates facts
or true stories. Which situation below is the best example of Embellishing the Truth?
a. Lisa goes to the theater, and the next day, she tells her coworkers she thought the play
was excellent.
b. The realtor describes the hose, which is eleven blocks away from the ocean, as prime
waterfront property.
c. During the job interview, Mohan, who has been teaching elementary school for ten
years, describes himself as a very experienced teacher.
d. The basketball coach says it is likely that only the most talented players will get a
college scholarship.
54. Establishing a Power of Attorney occurs when a legal document is created that gives one
individual the authority to act for another. Which situation below is the best example of
Establishing a Power of Attorney?
a. Lila is selling her house and she hires a lawyer to review the contract.
b. Suman’s mother can no longer get to the bank to cash her checks and make deposits,
so she has taken legal steps to enable Suman to do these things for her.
c. Hari’s father is elderly and Hari thinks he is no longer able to make decisions for
himself.
d. At her daughter’s urging. Mrs. Kavita opens up a retirement account with the local
bank.
Direction: Each problem consist of three statements. Based on the first two
statements, the third statement may be true, false or uncertain.
55. The Kingston Mall has more stores than Galleria.
The four Corners Mall has fewer stores than the Galleria.
The Kingston Mall has more stores than the four Corners Mall.
If the first statements are true, the third statement is
a. True b. False c. Uncertain
56. All the tulips in Badri’s garden are white.
All the pansies in Badri’s garden are yellow.
All the flowers in Badri’s garden are either white or yellow.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
a. True b. False c. Uncertain
57. During the past year, Ram saw more movies then Hari.
357 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Hari saw fewer movies than Sita
Sita saw more movies than Ram.
If the two statements are true, the third statement is
a. True b. False c. Uncertain
58. Rover weight less than Fido.
Rover weights more than Boomer.
Of the three dogs, Boomer weighs the least.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
a. True b. False c. Uncertain
59. All the offices on the 9th floor have wall-to-wall carpeting.
No wall-to-wall carpeting is pink.
None of the offices on the
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
a. True b. False c. Uncertain
Direction: Select logically the best answer for the following questions.
60. “Empty vessel makes much noise” is logically similar to
a. Live and let live. b. Wise people are respected.
c. Fools generally praise themselves. d. Cowards die many times before their death.
61. “Making hay while the sun shines” is logically similar to
a. Sleep when you are tired. b. Jump when you are dancing
c. Take the flood at its ride. d. Entertain hope when others help you.
62. “He will not tolerate insult because he is self-respecting” is logically similar to
a. He is unhappy as he failed.
b. This is trivial, so a fastidious person will not accept it.
c. He can buy he costlier thing because he is a rich man.
d. He has compassion for all because he is conscientious.
63. “Do not take sugar because you have diabetes” is logically similar to
a. Do not play as you are hurt. b. Do not sing as you have hoarse throat.
c. Do not read as you have weak sight. d. Do not speak as you are not asked to speak.
64. “Read in order to increase your knowledge” is logically similar to
a. Speak to relieve your tension. b. For building body, take exercise.
c. For making profit, do not cheat others. d. Pay only when you have.
Direction: Find the odd-one out.
65. a. Here b. There c. Now d. Nowhere
66. a. Accra b. Amman c. Baghdad d. Kabul
67. a. Cricket b. Rugby c. Base Ball d. Carrom
68. a. 24 b. 44 c. 60 d. 66
69. a. Look b. View c. Watch d. Hear
70. a. Home b. Igloo c. Building d. Hut
71. If GIRL is coded as IGLR, what should be the code of BABY?
a. BBAY b. ABBY c. YBBA d. ABYB
72. If LION is coded as ONLI, what should be the code of FEET?
a. ETFE b. TEEF c. TEFE d. EEFT
73. If CROW is coded as RWCO, what should be the code of WORK?
a. OKWR b. KROW c. ROWK d. WKRO
Direction: Question 74 and 75 are based on the following figures. There are eight
squares among which the left four square are the problem figures and right four
squares are the solution figures. The correct answer is the solution figure the same
relationship in the problem figures.
74.
Problem Figures Solution Figures

358 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. b. c. d.
75.
Problem Figures Solution Figures

a. b. c. d.

General Awareness
76. XETRA DAX stock exchange belongs to,
a. Switzerland b. Germany c. France d. South Africa
77. The agreement on WTO was signed at Marracus on,
a. 1993 b. 1994 c) 1995 d. 2005
78. The Doha round of negotiations started on,
a. 1996 b. 1999 c. 2001 d. 2008
79. The latest A class bank to issue IPO in Nepal is
a. Civil Bank b. Century Bank c. Commerz and Trust Bank d. Mega Bank
80. Bill Gates established Microsoft in association with,
a. Steve Jobs b. Paul Allen c. Mark Suckerberg d. Stanislav Kochar
81. The Eurozone crisis is related to:
a. Currency crisis b. Financial and economic crisis
c. Crisis resulting from continued appreciation of US dollar d. Sovereign debt
82. SAARC consist of ……………members.
a. 7 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12
83. Who has won the most majors so far in eh game of golf?
a. Tiger Woods b. Jack Palmer c. Sergio Garcia d. Jack Nickolaus
84. Who has won the largest number of grand slam tennis tournament?
a. Rafael Nadal b. Roger Federer c. Jimmy Connors d. Pete Sampras
85. The banking software made by Mercantile Corporate of Nepal in known as
a. Lhotse b. Cho Oyu c. Everest b. Pumori
86. Who won the wimbledon Tennis in 2013?
a. Novak Dokovich b. Roger Federer c. David Ferrer d. Andy Murray
87. Deming Management is related to:
a. Quality Cricles b. Quality Control
c. Inputs Management d. Total-Quality Management
88. The oil crisis first started in the world as an aftermath of Yom Kippur War more than
four folds increase in the crude price of oil by OPEC in,
a. 1967 b. 1973 c. 1982 d. 1997
89. The famous management guru, Lgor Ansoff, by training is a
a. Physicist b. Mathematician c. Astronomer d. Economist
90. The largest ever passenger aircraft manufactured so far is,
a. Boing 747 b. Boing 747-700 c. C-130 d. Airbus 380
91. The achievement theory of motivation is theorized by;
a. Frederick Herzberg b. Victor Broom c. Renisis Likert d. David McClleland
92. Detailed study and development of tools and techniques on motion study was made by;
a. F.W. Taylor b. Frank and Lilian Cilbreth c.
Henri Fayol d. Elton mayo and the Veam
93. The welfare dimension in economics was introduced by,
359 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. Adam Smith b. Karl Marx c. Alfred Marshall d. Robert Owen
94. Herbert Simon got the noble prize on economics for working on the theory of
a. Decision Making b. Participatory Management
c. Dividend Theory d. Portfolio Theory
95. The most widely used currency in the South American continent is
a. Dollar b. Frank c. Mark d. Peso
96. The famous Nepali novel “Palpasa Café” was written by
a. Gopal Prasad Rimal b. Hari Adhikari c. Samrat Upadhaya d. Narayan Wagle
97. The lake at the highest altitude in Nepal is
a. Tilicho Lake b. Damodar Kunda c. Gosain Kunda d. Bhairav Kunda
98. The first person to climb all peaks above 8000 meter is,
a. Reinhold Messner b. Babu Chhiri Sherpa c. U Jong TI c. Edmund Hillary
99. The longest Nepali river is
a. Karnali b. Koshi c. Arun d. Trishuli
100. “Kotparva” the massacre through which Jung Bahadur Snatched power took place in
a. 1989 b. 1903 c) 1911 d. 1983

CMAT 2014 (Batch 2071)

Verbal Ability
Direction: Select the word which is closet to the meaning of the following word.
1. Decisive
a. Cruel b. Definite c. Deliberate d. Firm
2. Racket
a. Trick b. Approach c. Fraud d. Bulge
3. Precedent
a. Chief b. Accomplish c. Proof d. Example
4. Herald
a. Announce b. Deprive c. Cultivate d. Curse
5. Dwindle
a. Lesson b. Lumpen c. Itch d. Lessen
Direction: Complete the following sentence with the opposite choice from among the
options that follow:
6. The notice clearly states that trespassers will be……………….
a. Persecuted b. Persuaded c. Prosecuted d. Pervaded
7. The police burst tear gas shells to……………….. the mob.
a. Apprehend b. Divert c. Disturb d. Disperse
8. The dose of sleeping pills proved……………. and he died in sleep.
a. Disastrous b. Fatal c. Effective d. Efficacious
9. The thieves tried to ……………… with the lock but they did not succeed in breaking it.
a. Tamper b. Temper c. Fiddle d. Temperate
10. A referee should be………… in the outcome of the match.
a. Uninterested b. Disinterested c. Involved d. Participative
Direction: Each question below consists of an idiom or a phrase, followed by four
lettered expressions. Choose the lettered expression that most nearly expressed the
meaning of the given idiom or phrase.
11. To bring to light
a. to open a window b. to reveal the facts
c. to switch on the light d. to draw the curtains.
12. To see red
360 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. stop at the signal b. jump the red signal
c. to be very angry d. to suffer from color blindness
13. Roots and branch
a. entirely b. step by step c. part by part d. bare truth
14. In full cry
a. to be upset about something b. howling loudly
c. at a fast pace d. at one’s best
15. Into the bargain
a. buy goods from sales b. an additional benefits
c. a warranty card d. at no extra charge
Direction: The following paragraph has a number of blanks marked 16, 17, 18, 19
and 20 followed by a set of options. Mark the options that best complete the blanks.
The average new born…16…… is about fifty centimeters long. In twenty years, this little
body more than triples……17…. in length. The average height of a man is 1.7
meters. …18….man does not stop growing; the continues to grow even after
the …..19…. of twenty five and reaches his maximum height at about the age of thirty
five. An average shrinks as much as ten millimeters….20… ten years after the age of
forty.
16. a. body b. infant c. kid d. child
17. a. itself b. around c. over d. last
18. a. since b. yet c. though d. however
19. a. ages b. years c. age d. period
20. a. in b. after c. every d. usually
Direction: The passage given below is followed by questions based on its contents.
After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each questions.
It is to progress in the human science that we must look to undo the evils which have
resulted from the knowledge of physical would hastily and superficially acquired by
population unconscious of the changes in themselves that the new knowledge has
imperative. The road to a happier world than any known in the past lies open before us if
atavistic destructive passions can be kept in leash while the necessary adaptations are
made.
Fears are inevitable in time, but hopes are equally rational and far more likely to bear
good fruit. We must learn to think rather less of the dangers to be avoided than of the
good that will lie within our grasp if we can believe in it and let it dominate our thoughts.
Science, whatever unpleasant consequences it may have by the way, is in its very nature a
liberator, a liberator of bondage to physical nature and in time to come, a liberator from
the weight of destructive passions. We are on the threshold of utter disaster or
unprecedently glorious achievement. No pervious age has been fraught with problems so
momentous; and it is to science that we must look to for a happy future.
21. What does science liberates from? It is liberate us from.
a. fears and destructive passions
b. Slavery to physical nature and from passions
c. Bondage to physical nature
d. idealistic hopes of glorious future
22. Should human sciences be developed because they will
a. provide more knowledge of he physical word
b. make us conscious of the changing world
c. make us conscious of the changing in ourselves
d. eliminate the destruction caused by a superficial knowledge of the physical world.
23. If man’s bestial yearning is controlled
a. the future will be tolerable b. the present will be brighter than the future
c. the future will be brighter than the present d. the present will become tolerable
24. Fears and hopes according to the author
361 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. are closely linked with the life of modern man b. can bear fruit
c. can yield good results d. are irrational
25. To carve out a bright future man should
a. analyze dangers that lie ahead b. try to avoid dangers
c. overcome fear and dangers d. cultivate a positive outlook

Quantitative Ability
26. Given that 100 milliliters is equal to approximately 0.4 cup, 205 milliliters is equal to
approximately how many cups? Which of the following expressions models the solution
to the problem above?
a. (100 – 0.4)(205) b. 105% of 0.4 c. (205 – 100)(0.4) d. 205% of 0.4
27. 18% of the students at a school are in Year 8, and 16% of the students are in Year 9. If
the school has 126 Year 8 students, determine the number of Year 9 students.
a. 108 b. 110 c. 112 d. 114
28. The exam scores of all 500 students were recorded and it was determined that these
scores were normally distributed. If Jane’s score is 0.8 standard deviation above the
mean, then how many, to the nearest unit, students scored above Jane?
a. 106 b. 250 c. 394 d. 400
29. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run
rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
a. 6.25 b. 6.5 c. 6.75 d. 7
30. In a diary farm, 40 cows eat 40 bags of husk in 40 days. In how many days one cow will
eat one bag of husk?
a. 1/40 b. 1 c. 40 d. 80
31. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854 in 4
years. The sum is
a. Rs. 650 b. Rs. 690 c. Rs. 698 d. Rs. 700
32. The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually on a
certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Rs. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is,
a. 625 b. 630 c) 640 d. 650
! 1 $! 5 $! 8 $
33. # &# &# & =
" 2 %" 6 %" 5 %
a. 5/12 b. ½ c. 2/3 d. 4/3
34. If 5a = 3125, then the value of 5(a – 3) is
a. 25 b. 125 c. 625 d. 1625
35. A homeowner is planning to use carpet tiles to cover the floor of a room measuring 9 feet
by 10 feet 8 inches. If the carpet tiles are 8 inches and 1 foot long and there are no gaps
between the tiles as they are placed on the floor, how many carpet tiles will the
homeowner need to cover the floor of the room?
a. 100 b. 135 c. 144 d. 150
36. Seats for Mathematics, Computer and Accounting in a school are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8.
There is a proposal to increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will
be the ratio of increased seats?
a. 2 : 3 : 4 b. 6 : 7 : 8 c. 6 : 8 : 9 d. None of these
37. Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12,…… What number should come next?
a. 7 b. 10 c. 12 d. 13
38. Look at this series: 58, 52, 46, 40, 34,….. What number should come next?
a. 26 b. 28 c. 30 d. 32
39. If 6x + 5 = - x + 40, then
a. x = - 9 b. x = - 5 c. x = 5 d. x = 9
40. The slope of the line determined by the equation 3x + y = 4 is
a. – 3 b. 1/3 c. ¾ d. 3
362 A Complete Solution For CMAT
41. The three solutions of the equation f(x) = 0 are - 2, 0 and 3. Therefore, the three
solutions of the equation f(x – 2) = 0 are
a. – 4, - 2 and 1 b. – 2, 0 and 3 c. 4, 2 and 5 d. 0, 2 and 5
42. If the function f is defined by f(x) = x5 – 1, then f-1, the inverse function of f, is defined
by f-1(x)=
1 1 5 5
a. b. c. x −1 d. x +1
5 5
x +1 x +1
t
43. The set of all points (e , t) , where t is a real number, is the graph of y =
1 1 1
a. b) e t
c. te t
d. In t
et
6
( )( )
44. Simplify: z z
−2

3
a. z b. z4 c. z8 d. z-12
45. There are 5 numbers in a data series. First number of the data series is 14 and mean,
median and mode are 10, 9 and 6 respectively. Find the 5 numbers:
a. 14, 6, 9, 6, 15 b. 14, 9, 9, 9, 9 c. 14, 9, 10, 8, 9 d. 14, 9, 9, 6, 12
46. When a metallic ball bearing is placed inside a cylindrical, of radius 2 cm, the height of
the water, inside the container, increases by 0.6 cm. the radius, to the nearest tenth of a
centimeter, of the ball bearing is
a. 1 cm b. 1.2 cm c. 2 cm d. 0.6 cm
47. The probability that an electronic device produced by a company does not function
properly is equal to 0.1. If 10 devices are bought, then the probability, to the nearest
thousandth, that 7 devices function properly is
a. 0.057 b. 0.478 c. 0.001 d. 0
48. In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly. What
is the probability that it is neither red nor green?
a. 1/3 b. ¾ c. 7/9 d. 8/21
49. Given a sequence 1, 4, 9, 16, 20, 36, 49, find the odd man out.
a. 2 b. 9 c. 20 d. 49
50. A school committee consists of 2 teachers and 4 students. The number of difference
committees that can be formed from 5 teachers and 10 students is
a. 8 b. 10 c. 15 d. 2100
Logical Reasoning
51. Journalist: To reconcile the need for profits sufficient to support new drug research with
the moral imperative to provide medicines to those who most need them but cannot
afford them, some pharmaceutical companies feel justified in selling a drug in rich
nations at one price and in poor nations at a much lower price. But this practice is
unjustified. A nation with a low average income may still have a substantial middle class
better able to pay for new drugs than are many of the poorer citizens of an overall
wealthier nation.
Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the journalist’s
reasoning?
a. People who are ill deserve more consideration than do healthy people, regardless of
their relative socioeconomic positions.
b. Wealthy institutions have an obligation to expand at least some of their resources to
assist those incapable of assisting themselves.
c. Whether one deserves special consideration depends on one’s needs rather than on
characteristic of the society to which one belongs
d. The people wealthy nations should not have better access to health care than do the
people in poorer nations.
e. Unequal access to health care is more unfair than an unequal distribution of wealth.

363 A Complete Solution For CMAT

52. Several critics have claimed that any contemporary poet who writes formal poetry –
poetry that is rhymed and metered – is perfoming a potically conservative act. This is
plainly false. Consider Molly Peacock and Marilyn Hacker, two contemporary poets
whose poetry is almost exclusively formal and yet are themselves politically progressive
feminists.
The conclusion drawn above follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?
a. No one is a feminist is also politically conservative.
b. No poet who writes unrhymed or unmetered poetry is politically conservative.
c. Anyone who sometimes writes poetry that is not politically conservative never writes
poetry that is politically conservative.
d. No one who is politically progressive is capable of performing a politically
conservative act.
e. The content of a poet’s work, not the work’s form, is the most decisive factor in
determining what political consequences, if any, the work will have.
53. Situation: In the island nation of Bezun, the government taxes gasoline heavily in order to
induce people not to drive. It uses the revenue from the gasoline tax to subsidize
electricity in order to reduce prices charged for electricity.
The analysis provided for the situation above would be most appropriate in which one of
the following situations?
a. A library charges a late fee in order to induce borrowers to returns book promptly. The
library uses revenue from the late fee to send remainders to pay borrowers in order to
reduce the incidence of overdue books.
b. A mail-order store imposes a stiff surcharge for overnight delivery in order to limit use
of this option. The store uses revenue from the surcharge to pay the extra expenses it
incurs for providing the overnight delivery service.
c. The park management charges an admission fee so that a park’s users will contribute to
the park’s upkeep. In order to keep admission fees low, the management does not
finance any new projects from them.
d. A restaurant adds a service charge in order to spare customers the trouble of individual
tips. The service charge is then shared among the restaurant’s workers in order to
augment their low hourly wages.
e. The highway administration charges a toll for crossing a bridge in order to get
motorists to use other routes. It uses the revenue from that toll to generate a reserve
fund in order to be able one day to build a new bridge.
54. THE ancient Romans understood the principles of water power very well, and in some
outlying parts of their empire they made extensive and excellent use of water as an
energy source. This makes it all the more striking that the Romans made do without
power in regions dominated by large cities.
Which one of the following, if true, contributes most to an explanation of the difference
described above in the Roman’s use of water power?
a. In heavily populated areas the introduction of water power would have been certain to
cause social unrest by depriving large numbers of people of their live hood.
b. In the areas in which water power was not used, water flow in rivers and streams was
substantial throughout the year but nevertheless exhibited some seasonal variation.
c. Water power was relatively vulnerable to sabotage, but any damage could be quickly
and inexpensively repaired.
d. In most areas to which the use of water power was not extended, other, more
traditional sources of energy continued to be used.
e. The ancient Romans were adept at constructing and maintaining aqueducts that could
carry quantities of water sufficient to supply large cities over considerable distances.
55. Karuna: As we both know, the population of this country is aging. Elderly people
generally prefer not to live in harsh climates characterized by extreme temperatures.
Accordingly, in this country’s costal regions, where the climate is generally most

364 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 temperate, the population is likely to grow, while other regions are likely to suffer
population declines.
Mira: I disagree. With few exceptions, regions where the climate is harsh are
characterized by comparatively low living costs, a compelling factor for retired people
with little savings and on fixed incomes.
Which of the following is the most likely point of disagreement between Karuna and
Mira?
a. The reason for the populations shift toward coastal areas and away from other regions.
b. Whether the country’s current decline in overall population will continue into the for
seeable future.
c. Why older people find certain regions where the climate is harsh attractive places to
live.
d. Whether regions characterized by harsh climates are likely to experience population
declines in the foreseeable future.
e. The extent to which coastal regions are affordable places to live for retired people.
56. An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to take sleeping pills at bedtime than
a person who enjoys listening to classical music but does not watch television as a habit.
Clearly, listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful
night’s sleep. Whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the above argument?
a. Reading a book before bedtime contribute to restful sleep more than listening to music
does.
b. People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime.
c. Sleeplessness is more common among people who watch late-night television than
among people who do not.
d. Engaging in a bedtime activity that is mentally stimulating often interferes with a
person’s ability to fall asleep.
e. A silent environment is less conducive to restful sleep than an environment with
calming ambient sounds.
57. Everyone who is compassionate is kind, and someone who has experienced life’s
challenges is invariably compassionate. Jeremy is kind, so he has experienced life’s
challenges.
Which one of the following exhibits a pattern of flawed reasoning most similar to that
exhibited above?
a. Roberta is a highly productive person. Every person who is motivated is highly
productive, and every person who is organized is motivated. Therefore, Roberta is
very organized.
b. Nice people are always sympathetic people, and those who have experienced hardships
always end up being nice. Betsy is not sympathetic person, so Betsy has not
experienced hardship.
c Almost everyone who loves black and films is a movie buff, and all movies buffs enjoy
popcorn. Sasha does not love black and white films, so Sasha probably does not enjoy
popcorn.
d. Patience requires an even temperature, and being a good parent certainly requires
patience. James has no patience, so James is not a good parent.
e. Successful entrepreneurs are either confident or experienced. Yoshi is a successful
entrepreneur, and he is not experienced. Therefore, Yoshi is confident.
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the Questions no. 58 to 61.
A chess tournament is occurring in the local community school, and the players at all
four of the tables are engaged in their fourth game against prospective opponents.
The players with white pieces are: David, Gerry, Lenny and Terry
The players with black pieces are: Don, Mike, Richie and Stephen
The scores are 3 : 0, 2.5 : 0.5, 2 : 1, 1.5 : 1.5
(Note: tied games result in a score of 0.5 points for each player)
365 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Lenny is playing at the table to the right of Stephen, who has lost all of his games until
now.
Gerry is playing against Mike. At least one game at table 1 has resulted in a tie. Richie,
who is not in the lead over his opponent, has not been in a tied game. The player who is
using the white piece at table 4 is Terry; however, the current score at table 4 is not 2 : 1.
Don is leading his match after his last three games.
58. What table is Stephen playing at, and what is the score at that table?
a. Table 1, 2.5 : 1.5 b. Table 1, 3 : 0 c. Table 2, 3 : 0
d. Table 2, 2.5 : 1.5 e. Table 3, 2 : 1
59. Whose score is highest?
a. Mike b. Stephen c. Richie d. David e. Lenny
60. Which player has black pieces and is tied?
a. David b. Mike c. Richie d. Don e. Terry
61. Who is the winning player at table 4?
a. Don b. Terry c. David d. Gerry e. Richie
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the following Questions no 62.
Larry has purchased a device that the manufacturer claims will reduce the fuel
consumption in his car. After a month has passed, Larry determines that his mileage
currently rests at 17 miles per gallon. Larry’s best friend, Steve, owns the exact same
make and model car, and has calculated his mileage at 23 miles per gallon. Steve’s car
does not have the device that Larry purchased one month ago. Larry then makes the
conclusion that the manufacturer of the device’s claim is not true.
62. Which of the following statements would case Larry’s conclusion to be the weakest?
a. Though Larry has the same make and model of car as Steve, Larry’s car is 15 years
older.
b. Larry was driving in the city, whereas Steve drives the highway.
c. Larry purchases a lower grade of gasoline than Steve.
d. Steve lied, he actually only gets 15 miles per gallon
e. Before buying the device, Larry had never before calculated the mileage of his car.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the following Questions no. 63 to
66.
A petrochemical plant manufactures a range of hazardous chemical products and must
therefore follow strict guidelines concerning how each of the chemicals may interact with
one another on a daily basis. The plant processes five different chemicals every week.
Three of these chemicals can be processed on any given day.
Xenon may be processed any day except for every other Monday and every other
Thursday.
Oxygen can be processed only on Tuesday and Wednesday.
Liquid hydrogen may be processed on Monday, Wednesday and Friday.
Sulfur dioxide can’t be processed on Friday.
Methane can’t be processed on Wednesday.
63. What are the three chemicals that can be processed on any given Monday?
a. Liquid hydrogen, xenon and oxygen
b. Methane, oxygen and sulfur dioxide
c. Methane, xenon and oxygen
d. Sulfur dioxide, methane and liquid hydrogen
e. xenon, oxygen and sulfur dioxide.
64. Which weekday is most likely to be impossible for three chemical to be processed in one
day?
a. Monday b. Tuesday c. Wednesday d. Thursday e. Friday
65. There are three chemicals that can be processed on a Friday. What are they?
a. Oxygen, methane and liquid hydrogen
b. Liquid hydrogen, methane and sulfur dioxide
c. Liquid hydrogen, methane and xenon
366 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 d. Methane, oxygen and xenon
e. Liquid hydrogen, oxygen and sulfur dioxide
66. On which days of the week can they process liquid hydrogen and only an additional two
chemicals?
a. Monday and Tuesday b. Tuesday and Thursday
c. Wednesday and Friday d Thursday and Friday e. Monday and Friday
Directions: Select logically the best answer for the following questions.
67. I f FRAGANCE is written as SBHSBODFG, how can IMPOSING written?
a. NQPTJHOJ b. NQPTJOHJ c. NQTPJOHJ d. NQPTJOHI
68. If ROBUST is coded as QNATRS in a certain language, which word would be coded as
ZXCMP?
a. AYDNQ b. AWDLQ c. BZEOR d. YYBNO
69. If BE QUICK is coded as ZC OSGAI, then the code of the last letter of the third word in
the sentence I LOVE MY CONTRY is
a. A b. T c. Y d. W
70. If ZEBRA can be written as 2652181, how can COBRA be written?
a. 302181 b. 31822151 c) 3152181 d. 1182153
Direction: Questions 71 to 75 follows the given pattern. Select the appropriate
pattern.
71. Horse: Mare::
a. Fox : Vixen b. Duck : Geese c. Dog : Puppy d. Donkey : Pony
72. Cricket : Pitch ::
a. Ship : Dock b. Boat : Harbour c. Boxing : Ring d. Wrestling : Track
73. Oceans : Deserts :: Waves : ?
a. Dust b. Sand Dunes c. Ripples d. Sea
74. Grain : Stock :: Stick : ?
a. String b. Heap c. Collection d. Bundle
75. Cube is related so Square in the same way as Square is related to
a. Plane b. Triangle c. Line d. Point

General Awareness
76. Which country do Sinologists study?
a. Japan b. China c. Korea d. Singapore
77. What was the first James Bond film?
a. Dr. No b. From Russia with love c. Thunderbolt d. Star Wars
78. Which human rights organization founded in 1961 got Nobel Peace Prize in 1977?
a. UNHCR b. European Human Rights Commission
c. Amnesty International d. International Court of Justice
79. Whose autobiography was The Long Walk to Freedom?
a. Mahatma Gandhi b. Nelson Mandela c. Md. Ali Jinnah d. Subash Chandra Bose
80. Who ran through the streets naked crying Eureka?
a. Aristotle b. Albert Einstein c. Archimedes d. Right Brothers
81. The vegetables Broccoli belongs to which family?
a. Cabbage b. Cauliflower c. Potato d. Spinach
82. What links the names Botvinik, Tal, Karpov, Fischer?
a. They are Cricketers b. They are Chees Champions
c. They are Lawn Tennis players d. They are World Class Footballers
83. What is the national flower of Japan?
a. Rose b. Mary Gold c. White Lily d. Chrysanthemum
84. Which medical tool was developed by Sanctorius in 1612?
a. Thermometer b. Blood Pressure Measurement
c. Glucometer d. X – ray

367 A Complete Solution For CMAT

85. What is known as the business portfolio that provide a steady dependable source of
income which provides money for the rest of the business?
a. Star b. Dogs c. Questions Marks d. Cash Cows
86. A financial ratio which gives an indication of whether or not a company can pay its short-
term debts is known as:
a. Current ratio b. Acid test ratio c. Breakeven point d. Capital to assets ratio
87. What do you understand by FMCG?
a. Forward Marketing Core Group b. Former Manages of Chaudhary Group
c. Fast Moving Consumer Goods d. Feeling Management of Control Group
88. What does Gratis mean?
a. To give a gift to a loved one b. To give something free-of-cost
c. To give advice d. To give a lecture
89. To which country the Nikkei index belong to?
a. Hong-Kong b. China c. Japan d. Singapore
90. In which district is the Rara lake located?
a. Dolpa b. Mugu c. Jumla d. Kalikot
91. Which of the following newspaper is not published daily?
a. Kantipur b. The Himalayan Times c. Nagarik d. Bimarsha
92. To which sports does James Rodriguez belongs to?
a. Cricket b. Football c. Hockey d. Lawn Tennis
93. Which of the following book is not part of the four “Bedas”?
a. Rigbed b. Atharvabed c. Samabed d. Dhanurbed
94. Which tax is levied on production?
a. Income tax b. Custom duty c. Exise duty d. Sales tax
95. A tax payable on profits made on the sale of certain types of assets by a company or
individual is known is:
a. Property Tax b. Capital Gains Tax c. Wind Fall Tax d. Income Tax
96. Recently, Super Typhoon Neoguri, the strongest typhoon so far in the 2014 Western
Pacific season smashed which of the following conutires?
a. Japan b. New Zealand c. Australia d. China
97. How many rings are there on the Olympic flag?
a. Three b. Four c. Five d. Six
98. How many your body is your patella?
a. Knee b. Cheek c. Neck d. Backbone
99. Which bird like mammal lays egg?
a. Kiwi b. Emu c. Ostrich d. Duck-billed Platypus
100. Who starred as the Six Million Dollar Man in the Hollywood movie?
a. Charles Bronson b. Lee Majors c. John Lennon d. Jimmy Holbrook

CMAT 2015 (Batch 2072)

Verbal Ability
Direction: In the following questions, choose the word which best express the
meaning of the capitalized word.
1. CONCISE
a. small b. brief c. solid d. strong
2. GERMINATE
a. decay b. breed c. sprout d. produce
3. AUGUST
a. common b. ridiculous c. dignified d. petty
368 A Complete Solution For CMAT
4. VENTURE
a. risk b. adventure c. travel d. entrust
Directions: Select the word which is close to the opposite in meaning of the word in
capital letters.
6. ENORMOUS
a. tiny b. soft c. weak d. average
7. CURIOUS
a. uninterested b. unnoticed c. lazy d. straight
8. COMMISSIONED
a. started b. closed c. finished d. terminated
9. ARTIFICIAL
a. red b. truthful c. natural d. solid
10. RADICAL
a. slow b. superficial c. narrow d. simple
Directions: Select the proper proportion to fill the blanks in the following questions.
11. The first rank was shared……..three students.
a. for b. with c. among d. between
12. He prefers coffee……tea.
a. to b. for c. on d. over
13. …………seeing the police, the thief ran away.
a. by b. as c. on d. none
14. She has been staying in Kathmandu…….2 years.
a. from b. since c. by d. for
15. My friend presided……..meeting yesterday evening.
a. over b. at c. with d. on
Direction: The following has a number of blanks marked 16, 17, 18 etc. followed by
a set of options. Mark the options that best complete the blanks.
Most people spend plenty of time and money buying their toothpaste, but buy the first
toothpaste they can find. It…..16……more attention than that, say dentists. The brush
may be less glamorous partner in your dental kit, but it is the more….17……one. It does
something that the best toothpaste…….18….do alone; physically lift out food particles
that hide between your teeth. A…….19…..chosen brush could be responsible for tooth
decay and bad breath. Brushes, with hard bristles are wrong for everyone. Extra-stiff may
not be…….20……..enough to reach between teeth and they abrade both gums and
cannels.
16. a. needs b. demands c. deserves d. commands
17. a. frequent b. vital c. relevant d. common
18. a. need not b. should not c. may not d. cannot
19. a. casually b. commonly c. conveniently d. particularly
20. a. long b. thin c. pliable d. flexible
Directions: The passage given below is followed by questions based on its contents.
After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question.
Courage is not only the basis of virtue; it is its expression. Faith, hope charity and all the
rest don’t become virutes until it takes courage to exercise tem. There are roughly two
types of courage. The first an emotional state which urges a man to risk injury or death, is
physical courage. The second, more reasoning attitude which enables him to take coolly
his career, happiness, his whole future or his judgment of what he thinks either right or
worthwhile, is moral courage.
I have known many men, who had marked physical courage, but lacked moral courage.
Some of them where in high places, but they failed to be great in themselves because they
lacked moral courage. On the other hand I have seen men who undoubtedly possessed
moral courage but where very cautions about talking physical risks. But I have never met
a man with moral courage who wouldn’t, when it was really necessary, face a situation
boldly.
369 A Complete Solution For CMAT
21. A man of courage is
a. cunning b. intelligent c. curious d. carefull
22. Physical courage is an expression of
a. emotions b. deliberation c. uncertainty d. defiance
23. A man with moral courage can
a. defy his enemies b. overcome all difficulties
c. face a situation boldly d. be very pragmatic
24. People with physical courage often lack
a. mental balance b. capacity for reasoning c. emotional stability d. will to fight
25. All virtues become meaningful because of
a. faith b. charity c. courage d. hope

Quantitative Ability
Directions: Find the best answers for the questions given below.
26. A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5
consecutive months. How much must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an
average sale of Rs. 6500?
a. 4800 b. 4991 c. 5001 d. 5000
27. A library ha an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other days. What is the
average number of visitors per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a Sundays?
a. 290 b. 304 c. 285 d. 270
28. If the digits of the numbers 5 7 2 6 4 8 9 are arranged in ascending order, how man digits
will remain at the same position?
a. none b. one c. two c. three
29. If 6 is 24% of a number, what is 40% of the same number?
a. 8 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
30. A salary of an officer being increased by 10% every year becomes Rs. 48000 in the third
year. What was his original salary?
a. Rs. 45000 b. Rs. 44000 c. Rs. 42000 d. Rs. 40000
31. 60 is 80% of which number?
a. 60 b. 72 c. 75 d. 80
32. When 10,000 is increased by 0.1%, we get
a. 10001 b. 10010 c. 10100 d. 11000
33. The square root of 130321 is
a. 121 b. 231 c. 361 d. 661
34. Which of the following number is divisible by 12 but not by 8?
a. 72 b. 88 c. 108 d. 120
35. The average of x and y is 40. If z = 10, what is the average x, y and z?
a. 16.6 b. 20 c. 25 d. 30
36. In a mixture 60 liters, the ratio of milk and water 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1 : 2, then the
quantity of water to be further added is:
a. 20 liters b. 30 liters c. 40 liters d. 60 liters
37. The smallest four-digit number divisible by 6, 8 and 16 is
a. 1000 b. 1002 c. 1004 d. 1008
38. If a sum of money is divided equally n children, each child will receive Rs. 60. If another
child is added to the group, then when the sum is divided equally among all children,
each child will receive a Rs. 50 share. What is the sum of money?
a. Rs. 100 b. Rs. 120 c. Rs. 300 d. Rs. 400
39. Two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% more than a third number. The ratio of the
two numbers is
a. 2 : 5 b. 3 : 5 c. 4 : 5 d. 6 : 7
40. If there are 5 routes for travelling between two places A and B, how many option are
there for a person to travel from A to B and return back?
370 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 5 b. 10 c. 9 d. 25
41. If 5a = 3b = 25, then 30ab = ?
a. 100 b. 150 c. 625 d. 1250
42. Arun obtained 76, 65, 82, 67 and 85 marks (out in 100) in English, Mathematics,
Chemistry, Biology and Physics. What is his average mark?
a. 53 b. 54 c. 72 d. 75
43. 0.3 ´ 0.006 =
a. 0.00018 b. 0.0018 c. 0.018 d. 0.18
44. If 8x + 4 = 32, then 2x – 1 = ?
a. 9 b. 8 c. 6 d. 5
45. A man buys Rs. 20 shares paying 9% divided. The man wants to have an interest of 12%
on his money. What is the market value of each share?
a. Rs. 12 b. Rs. 18 c. Rs. 15 d. Rs. 21
Directions: Find the odd one out.
46. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64
a. 50 b. 26 c. 37 d. 64
47. 10, 25, 45, 54, 60, 75, 80
a. 10 b. 45 c. 54 d. 75
48. 3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21
a. 21 b. 17 c. 14 d. 3
49. 1, 4, 9, 16, 23, 25, 36
a. 9 b. 27 c. 25 d. 36
50. 23, 25, 26, 28, 29, 30
a. 26 b. 28 c. 29 d. 30

Logical Reasoning
Directions: Select the pair of words which best express the relationship similar to
that expressed in the pair in bold letters.
51. Platform : Train : :
a. Aeroplane : Aerodrome b. Hotel : Tourist
c. Quay : Ship c. Foothpath : Traveller
52. Doctor : Lawyer : :
a. Client : Illness b. Clint : Nusing c. Patient : Litigation d. Patient : Client
53. Chalk : Blackboard : :
a. Type : Point b. Table : Chair c. Door : Handle d. Ink : Paper
54. Biratnagar : Morang : :
a. Kathmandu : Nepal b. Butwal : Bhairahawa
c. Birgunj : Parsa d. Bharatpur : Ratnanagar
55. Rent : Land : :
a. Wages : Bonuses b. Interest : Capital c. Share : Profit d. Income : Salary
56. Sunrise : Sunset : :
a. Moring : Night b. Dawn : Twilight c. Noon : Midnight d. Energetic : Lazy
57. River : Ocean : :
a. Child : Scholl b. Book : Library c. Lane : Road d. Cloth : Body
58. Patient : Client : :
a. Client : Illness b. Patient : Medicine c. Medicine : Fee d. Doctor : Lawyer
59. Room : House : :
a. Chair : Room b. Cabin : Ship c. Wheel : Chair d. Refrigerator :
Kitchen
60. Border : Country : :
a. Pen : Cap b. Book : Cover c. Frame : Picture d. Handle : Shade
Directions: Choose the word which is least like other words in a group.
61. a. Telescope b. Microscope c. Binocular d. Thermoscope
371 A Complete Solution For CMAT
62. a. 221 b. 333 c. 556 d. 777
63. a. Lady b. Ornament c. Sandals d. Neckite
64. a. Birgunj b. Mahendranagar c. Bhardrapur d. Itahari
65. a. Cheese b. Butter c. Milk d. Yoghurt
66. a. Sit b. Walk c. Run d. Jog
67. a. Kabul b. Perth c. Colombo d. Jakarta
68. a. 91 b. 112 c. 135 d. 154
69. a. Reward b. Crime c. Offence d. Punishment
70. a. Now b. Cow c. Low d. How
Directions: For each question, find the best answer.
71. If SELDOM is coded as MODELS, then HELPER is written as
a. REPLEH b. PEELHR c. LEHPER d. PERHEL
72. If 6145 stands for FADE and 9451 stands for IDEA, what does 8978 stand for?
a. THIS b. NIGH c. HIGH d. THAT
73. If BAD is coded as YZW and FIGHT is coded as URTSG, then HIGH will be coded as
a. PRSP b. TRST c. RSTR d. SRTS
74. 2 x 3 = 812, and 4 x 5 = 1620, then 6 x 7 =
a. 6677 b. 6767 c. 2428 d. 2824
75. In LN NP QS DF stands for MORE, then SU QS TV SU GI stands for
a. FRUIT b. FAITH c. TRUTH d. TREES

General Awareness
Directions: In each of the following questions, select the best answer choice.
76. Where is the headquarter of the World Bank?
a. New York b. Washington DC c. Nairobi d. Pairs
77. Highest speed of wind could be expected in case of
a. Strong breeze b. Strong storm c. Hurricane d. Strong gale
78. The longest river in the world is
a. Indus b. Nile c. Ganga d. Amazon
79. Which of the following airlines does not have regular passenger flights o Kathmandu?
a. KLM b. Korean Air c. Gulf Air d. Turkish Air
80. Thailand is Baht as Indonesia is to
a. Dollar b. Yan c. Rupiyah d. Dirham
81. On 20th August 2015, which of the following players regained the first rank in the world
badminton rankings?
a. Carolina Martin b. Saina Nehwal c. Ashwini Poppanna d. Vijay Amritraj
82. Entomology is the science that studies
a. Human beings b. The formation of rock
c. Animals d. Insects
83. A web sites main page is called as
a. Website page b. Home page c. Search page d. Browser page
84. Fathometer is used of measure
a. Earthquakes b. Rainfall c. Sound intensity d. Ocean depth
85. Data that is copied from application is stored in the
a. Ram b. Prompt c. Cilpboard d. CUP
86. Which among the following is the most common source of viruses to the hard disk of
your computer?
a. Incoming Email b. Outgoing Email c. CDROM d. Websites
87. Bulls and Bears are the terms associated with
a. Parliamentary affairs b. Stock exchange c. Bull fights d. Racing
88. Which is the largest bilateral donor to Nepal?
a. USA b. UK c. Australia d. Japan
89. Tikapur is on the bank of river
372 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. Karnali b. Mahakali c. Gandaki d. Koshi
90. Which of the following is not a public sector undertaking?
a. Rastriya Beema Sansthan b. Nepal Gas Udyog c. Nepal Telecom d. DDC
91. Filaria is caused by
a. Bacteria b. Protozoa c. Virus d. Mosquito
92. Which of the following is not a Himalayan River?
a. Trishuli b. Bagmati c. Kali Gandaki d. Koshi
93. Seismology refer to
a. Earthquake b. Plants c. Humidity d. Planets
94. Which one is the largest city in term of population?
a. New Delhi b. Paris c. London d. Tokyo
95. Silver fish is
a. A fish b. An insect c. A term used in politics d. A fish made of silver
96. The national anthem of Nepal is written by
a. Bairagi Khaila b. Amber Gurung c. Madhav Ghimire d. Byakul Mahila
97. Which of the following nation is not categorized as test playing nation in creicket?
a. Zimbabwe b. Kenya c. New Zealand d. Bangladesh
98. Which of the following place is not on the direct bus route from Bharatpur to Janakpur?
a. Birgunj b. Hetauda c. Nijgadh d. Barbibas
99. The famous Swargadwari Temple is situated in
a. Surkhet b. Jajarkot c. Dang d. Pyuthan
100. QUANTAS airline belong to
a. Japan b. Germany c. Australia d. South Africa

CMAT 2016 (Batch 2073)

Verbal Ability
Directions: In the following questions, choose the word which best expresses the
meaning of the capitalized word.
1. BRIEF
a. limited b. small c. little d. short
2. AUGUST
a. common b. ridiculous c. dignified d. pretty
3. ALERT
a. energetic b. watchful c. observant d. intelligent
4. HESITAED
a. stopped b. paused c. slowed d. postponed
5. RESCUE
a. help b. command c. defense d. safely
Directions: Select the word which is the closest to the opposite in meaning of the
word in capital letters.
6. ENORMOUS
a. tiny b. soft c. average d. weak
7. EXPAND
a. condense b. convert c. congest d. conclude
8. ARROGANT
a. cowardly b. egoistic c. gentlemanly d. humble
9. GRACEFUL
a. rough b. expert d. awkward d. miserable
10. PERTINENT
a. irrational b. irrelevant c. irregular d. inconsistent
373 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Directions: Select the proper proposition to fill in the blanks in the following
questions.
11. My best friend, Ramesh, is named…… his great-grandfather.
a. for b. after d. to d. about
12. He is never late. He always comes…… time.
a. at b. in c. right d. on
13. Lalita was stopped by the police for driving……. 55 mph.
a. at b. for c. to d. on
14. Go……. these stairs until you reach the top floor.
a. through b. in c. up d. on
15. Jagadish always listens to music…… the way to work.
a. in b. by c. on d. for
Directions: The following paragraph has a number of blanks marked 16, 17, 18, etc.
following by a set of options. Mark the options that best complete the blanks.
16. Extreme old age when a man behaves like a fool.
a. imbecility b. senility c. dotage d. superannuation
17. That which cannot be seen.
a. invisible b. intangible c. insensible d. unseen
18. To accustom onself to a foreign climate.
a. adopt b. adapt c. accustom d. acclimatize
19. One who knows everything.
a. literate b. scholar c. omniscient d. omnipotent
20. Detailed plan of journey.
a. schedule b. itinerary c. travelogue d. travelkit
Directions: The passage given below is followed by questions based on its contents.
After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each questions.
Speech is great blessings but it can also be great curse, for while it helps us to make our
intentions and desires know to our fellows, it can also if we use it carelessly, make our
attitude completely misunderstood. A slip of the tongue, the use of unusual word, or of an
ambiguous word, and so on, may create an enemy where we had hoped to win a friend.
Again, different classes of people use different vocabularies, and the ordinary speech of
an educated may strike an uneducated listener as pompous. Unwittingly, we may use a
word which bears a different meaning to our listener from what it does to men of our own
class. Thus speech is not a gift to use lightly without thought, but one which demands
careful handling. Only a fool will express himself alike to all kinds and conditions to
men.
21. The best way to win a friend is to avoid.
a. irony in speech b. pomposity in speech
c. verbosity in speech d. ambiguity in speech
22. While talking to an uneducated person, we should use.
a. ordinary speech b. his vocabulary
c. simple word d. polite lanaguege
23. If one used the same style of language with everyone, one would sound
a. flat b. boring c. foolish d. democratic
24. A ‘slip of the tongue’ means southings said
a. wrongly by choice b. unintentionally
c. without giving proper thought d. to hurt another person
25. Speech can be curse, because it can
a. create misunderstanding b. hurt others
c. lead to carelessness d. reveal our intentions

Quantitative Ability
Directions: Find the best answers for the questions given below.
374 A Complete Solution For CMAT
26. A sum lent out at 12% per annum compound interest for two years amounts to Rs.
15,660. The sum lent is
a. Rs. 12,000 b. 12,250 c. Rs. 12,484 d. Rs. 12,880
27. The interest rate that doubles a sum in 10 years is
a. 12% b. 11% c. 10% d. 9%
28. A sum of Rs. 1000 in 2 years on compound interest of 5% per annum. The % rate of
interest is
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 10
29. Ramesh invested a sum of money at simple interest at a certain rate of interest for three
years. Had it been invested at a 4% higher rate, it would have fetched Rs. 480 more. Find
out the principal amount that was invested by Ramesh?
a. Rs. 3000 b. Rs. 4000 c. Rs. 5000 d. Rs. 4500
30. A salary of an officer being increased by 10% every year becomes Rs. 48400 in the third
year. What was his original salary?
a. Rs. 45000 b. Rs. 44000 c. Rs. 42000 d. Rs. 40000
31. When Usha was thrice as old as Nisha, her sister Asha was 25. When Nisha was half as
old as Asha, then sister Usha was 34. Their ages add to 100.100. How old is Usha?
a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50
32. The average age of a family of five members is 24 years. If the present age of the
youngest member is 88 years, what was the average age of the family at time of the birth
of the youngest member?
a. 50 b. 40 c. 30 d. 20
33. The average of 1010 numbers is calculated as 15.15. It is discovered later on that while
calculating the average on number, namely 3636 was wrongly read as 26.26. The correct
average is
a. 12.4 b. 14 c. 18.6 d. 16
34. Paras Khadka takes 5 wickets for 26 run in the final match due to which his bowling
average improves by 2. His old bowling average was 14. Find the total number of wickets
after the final match.
a. 20 b. 22 c. 24 d. 24
35. The average mark of a class in science test is 75. Geeta was the topper with 96 marks. If
her mark was wrongly entered as 69, the average of the class decreases b 1. Find the
number of students in the class?
a. 24 b. 25 c. 27 d. 29
36. Arun obtained 76, 65, 82, 67 and 85 marks (out in 100) in English, Mathematics,
Chemistry, Biology and Physics. What is his average mark?
a. 53 b. 54 c. 72 d. 75
37. In an examination, a student’s average marks were 63. If he had obtained 20 more marks
for his Geography and 2 more marks for his history, his average would have been 65.
How many subjects were there in the examination?
a. 12 b. 13 c. 11 d. 14
38. The average of six number is x and the average of three of these is y. If the average of the
remaining three is z, then
a. 2x=y+z b. x=y+z c. x+2y+2z d. None of these
39. In an election between two candidates, one got 55% of the total valid votes, 20% of the
votes were invalid. If the total number of votes was 7500, what was the number of valid
votes that the other candidate got?
a. 2800 b. 2700 c. 2100 d. 2500
40. The population of a town increased from 1,75,000 to 2,62,500 in a decade. What is the
average percent increase of population per year?
a. 4% b. 6% c. 5% d. 50%
41. What is the 0.5% of 100,000?
a. 0.05 b. 0.50 c. 50 d. 500

375 A Complete Solution For CMAT

42. If a sum of money is divided equally among n children, each child will receive Rs. 60. If
another child is added to the group, then when the sum is divided equally among all
children, each child will receive a Rs. 50 share. What is the sum of money?
a. Rs. 100 b. Rs. 120 c. Rs. 300 d. Rs. 400
43. A vendor bought bananas at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain
20%?
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
44. If there are 5 routes for travelling between two places A and B, how many option are
there for a person to travel from A to B and return back?
a. 5 b. 10 c. 9 d. 25
45. If 5a=3b=25, then 30ab=?
a. 100 b. 150 c. 625 d. 1250
Direction (Question 46 to question 50). Find the odd on out.
46. 1, 3, 9, 12, 19, 29
a. 12 b. 9 c. 1 d. 3
47. 18, 27, 64, 125, 196, 216, 343
a. 64 b. 196 c. 216 d. 18
48. 3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21
a. 21 b. 17 c. 14 d. 3
49. 1, 4, 9, 16, 23, 25, 36
a. 9 b. 23 c. 25 d. 36
50. 24, 36, 52, 72, 96
a. 72 b. 36 c. 24 d. 52

Logical Reasoning
Directions: Select the pair of words which best express the relationship similar to
that expressed in the pair in bold letters.
51. Paddy : Field ::
a. steel : factory b. wheat : fertilizer c. wagon : mine d. village : farmer
52. Dhangadi : Kailali ::
a. Kathmandu : Nepal b. Butwal : Bhairahawa
c. Birgunj : Parsa d. Bharatpur : Ratnanagar
53. Platform : Train ::
a. aeroplane : aerodrome b. hostel : tourist c. quay : ship d. footpath : traveler
54. Ink : Paper ::
a. door : handle b. dog : tail c. chalk : blackboard d. speak : sing
55. Always : Never ::
a. occasionally : repeatedly b. often : rarely c. words : author d. humid : hot
56. Sugar : Sweet ::
a. ice : cold b. butter : cow c. attack : fail d. wine : grapes
57. Track : Train ::
a. sea : ship b. radiation : bomb c. map : terrain d. road : car
58. Kaski : Pokhara ::
a. Kathmandu : Nepal b. Butwal : Bhairahawa
c. Jhapa : Bhadrapur d. Biratnagar : Itahari
59. Rent : Land ::
a. wages : bonuses b. interest : capital c. share : profit d. income : salary
60. Monday : Tuesday ::
a. January : February b. Working day : Holiday
c. December : Sunday d. winter : Summer
Directions: Choose the word which is least like other words in a group.
61. a. potato b. rice c. pea d. mustard
62. a. banana b. orange c. pineapple d. lemon
376 A Complete Solution For CMAT
63. a. computer b. x-ray c. television d. radio
64. a. Pokhara b. Damauli c. Inaruwa d. Malekhu
65. a. valley b. river c. tower d. mountain
66. a. sharpner b. pencil c. paper d. pen
67. a. London b. Mumbai c. Dhaka d. Bangkok
68. a. warm b. hot c. cool d. humid
69. a. one b. three c. fifth d. seven
70. a. Tansen b. Dhangadi c. Nepalgunj d. Nagarkot
Directions: For each question, find the best answer.
71. Which of the following will appear third in the English dictionary?
a. question b. quarrel c. quack d. query
72. If 6145 stands for FADE and 9451 stands for IDEA, what does 8978 for?
a. THIS b. NIGH c. HIGH d. THAT
73. If LN NP QS DF stands for MORE , then SU QS TV SU GI stands for
a. FRUIT b. FAITH c. TRUTH d. TREES
74. If BAD is coded as YZW and FIGHT is coded as URTSG, then HIGH will be coded as
a. PRSP b. TRST c. RSTR d. SRTS
75. If 2 x 3 = 812 and 4 x 5 = 1620 then 6 x 7 =
a. 6677 b. 6767 c. 2428 d. 2824
General Awareness
76. Where is the tallest bridge of Nepal?
a. Chisapain b. Trisuli c. Modikhola d. Koshi
77. Which of the following is Nepal’s largest trading partner?
a. USA b. Japan c. China d. India
78. Who developed the Principles of Bureacuracy?
a. Elton Mayo b. Max Weber c. Ivan Pavolv d. Henri Fayol
79. Chameliya Hydropower Project is located in:
a. Achham b. Taplejung c. Sidnduli d. Darchula
80. Who does the Nepal Rastra Bank submit its annual report to
a. prime minister of Nepal b. parliament of Nepal
c. ministry of finance d. auditor general of Nepal
81. Which is the South Asian nation that has prohibited the sale of cigarette in its territory?
a. Sri Lank b. Afghanistan c. Bhutan d. Bangladesh
82. Which of the following airlines does not have regular passenger flights to Kathmandu?
a. British Airways b. Korean Air c. Silk Air d. Qatar Airways
83. How many permanent members are there in the Security Council of UN?
a. 10 b. 7 c. 5 d. 3
84. Olympic games are held in every…… years.
a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 4 years d. 5 years
85. What is the term to ask the computer to put information in order numerically or
alphabetically?
a. crop b. report c. record d. sort
86. Which of the following is not a public sector undertaking?
a. Rastriya Beema Sansthan b. Hotel Himalaya c. Nepal Telcom d. DDC
87. Which of the following is a military alliance?
a. NAFTA b. ASEAN c. EEC d. NATO
88. Which of the following place is not on the direct bus route from Bharatpur to Kohalpur?
a. Ghorahi b. Butwal c. Gorusinghe d. Lamahi
89. The term “clean sweep” is associated with
a. football b. cricket c. badminton d. hockey
90. Which of the following is not a part of the internet?
a. WWB b. email c. CDROM d. HTTP
91. How many bits is a byte?
377 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 4 b. 8 c. 16 d. 32
92. To which country does the present UN Secretary General belongs?
a. Japan b. South Korea c. Australia d. Ghana
93. Sun ray yield vitamin
a. A b. B c. C d. D
94. The longest river in the world is
a. Indus b. Nile c. Ganga d. Amazon
95. Where is the Hindukush mountain range location?
a. India b. Pakistan c. Nepal d. Indonesia
96. The famous Manakamana Temple is situated in
a. Tanahu b. Makwanpur c. Dhading d. Gorkha
97. The place where bankers meet and settle their mutual claims and accounts is known as
a. treasury b. clearing house c. collection centre d. dumping ground
98. Which country will host the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
(SAARC) Summit in 2016?
a. Maldives b. Pakistan c. Bangladesh d. Bhutan
99. The world’s longest and highest glass-bottomed bridge will open to which of the
following countries?
a. United States b. United Kingdom c. China d. France
100. Hanif Mohammad, who passed away recently, was well-known cricketer of which
country?
a. India b. West Indies c. Pakistan d. Sri Lanka
CMAT 2017 (Batch 2074)

Verbal Ability
Directions: In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the
meaning of the capitalized word.
1. GENERIC
a. Cheap b. Fresh c. Elderly d. General
2. AUGUST
a. Common b. Ridiculous c. Dignified d. Pretty
3. KIN
a. Exult b. Relative c. Friend d. Twist
4. HESITATED
a. Stopped b. Paused c. Slowed d. Postponed
5. SIMULATE
a. Imitate b. Excite c. Trick d. Apelike
Directions: Select the word which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the word in
capital letters.
6. ENORMOUS
a. Tiny b. Soft c. Average d. Weak
7. LUMINOUS
a. Dim b. Clear c. Brittle d. Clever
8. ARROGANT
a. Cowardly b. Egoistic c. Gentlemanly d. Humble
9. EXPOUND
a. Besmirch b. Confine c. Confuse d. Miserable
10. ABRIDGE
a. Shorten b. Extend c. Stress d. Easy
Directions: Select the proper proposition to fill in the blanks in the following
questions.
11. He reminds me………his old history teacher.

378 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. for b. to c. of d. about
12. She always looks………herself in the mirror.
a. on b. in c. right d. at
13. Lalita was stopped by the police for driving ………..55 mph.
a. at b. for c. to d. on
14. Go……….these stairs until you reach the top floor.
a. through b. in c. up d. on
15. He’s very good ………..telling jokes.
a. in b. at c. about d. for
Directions: In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which
can be substituted for the given word/sentence.
16. Extreme old age when a man behaves like a fool.
a. imbecility b. senility c. dotage d. superannuation
17. That which cannot be seen
a. invisible b. intangible c. insensible d. unseen
18. To accustom oneself to a foreign climate
a. adopt b. adapt c. accustom d. acclimatize
19. One who knows everything
a. literate b. scholar c. omniscient d. omnipotent
20. Detailed plan of journey
a. schedule b. itinerary c. travelogue d. travelkit
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the
passage, based on he options to each question.
Courage is not only basis of virtue; it is its expression. Faith, hope, charity and all the
rest don’t become virtues until it takes courage to exercise them. There are roughly two
type of courage. The first an emotional state which urges a man to risk injury or death, is
physical courage. The second, more reasoning attitude which enables him to take coolly
his career, happiness, his whole future or his judgment of what he thinks either or
worthwhile, is moral courage.
I have known many men, who had marked physical courage, but lacked moral
courage. Some of them were in high places, but they failed to be great in themselves
because they lacked moral courage. On the other hand, I have seen men who undoubtedly
possessed moral courage but where very cautions about taking physical risks. But I have
never met a man with moral courage who couldn’t, when it was really necessary, face a
situation boldly.
21. A man of courage is
a. cunning b. intelligent c. careful d. curious
22. Physical courage is an expression of
a. emotions b. deliberations c. uncertainty d. defiance
23. A man with moral courage can
a. defy his enemies b. overcome all difficulties
c. be very pragmatic d. face a situation boldly
24. All virtues become meaningful because of
a. faith b. courage c. charity d. hope
25. People with physical courage often lack
a. mental balance b. capacity for reasoning c. emotional stability d. will to fight

Quantitative Ability
Directions: Find the best answers for the questions given below.
26. A sum lent out at 12% per annum compound interest for two years amounts to Rs.
15,660. The sum lent is
a. Rs. 120,000 b. Rs. 12,250 c. Rs. 12,484 d. Rs. 12,880
27. The interest rate that doubles a sum in 10 years is
379 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 12% b. 11% c. 10% d. 9%
28. What least number must be added to 1056, so that the sum is completely divisible by 23?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 18 d. 21
29. Ramesh invested a sum of money at simple interest at a certain of interest for three years.
Had it been invested at a 4% higher rate, it would have fetched Rs. 480 more. Find out
the principal amount that was invested by Ramesh?
a. Rs. 3000 b. Rs. 4000 c. Rs. 5000 d. Rs. 4500
30. A salary of an officer being increased by 10% every year becomes Rs. 48400 in the third
year. What was his original salary?
a. R.s 45000 b. Rs. 44000 c. Rs. 42000 d. Rs. 40000
31. When Usha was thrice as old Nisha, her sister Asha was 25. When Nisha was half as old
as Asha, then sister Usha was 34. Their ages add to 100. How old is Usha?
a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50
32. The average age of a family of five members is 24 years. If the present age of the
youngest member is 8 years, what was the average age of the family at the time of the
birth of the youngest member?
a. 50 b. 40 c. 30 d. 20
33. 1397 x 1397 =?
a. 1951609 b. 1981709 c. 18362619 d. 2031719
34. Paras Khadka takes 5 wickets for 26 run in the final match due to which his bowling
average improves by 2. His old bowling average was 14. Find the total number of wickets
after the final match.
a. 20 b. 22 c. 24 d. 24
35. The average mark of a class in a science test is 75. Geeta was the topper with 96 marks. If
her mark was wrongly entered as 69, the average of the class decreased by 1. Find the
number of students in the class?
a. 24 b. 25 c. 27 d. 29
36. Arun obtained 76, 65, 82, 67 and 85 marks (out in 100) in English, Mathematics,
Chemistry, Biology and Physics. What is his average mark?
a. 53 b. 54 c. 72 d. 75
37. In an examination, a student’s average marks were 63. If he had obtained 20 more marks
for his Geography and 2 more marks for his history, his average would have been 65.
How many subjects were there in the examination?
a. 12 b. 13 c. 11 d. 14
38. The average of six numbers is x and the average of three of these is y. If the average of
the remaining three is z, then
a. 2x=y+z b. x=y+z c. x=2y+2z d. None of these
39. In an election between two candidates, one got 55% of the total valid votes, 20% of the
votes were invalid. If the total number of votes was 7500, what the number of valid votes
that the other candidate got?
a. 2800 b. 2700 c. 2100 d. 2500
40. The population of a town increased from 1,75,000 to 2,62,000 in a decade. What is the
average percent increased of population per year?
a. 4% b. 6% c. 5% d. 50%
41. A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km per hour?
a. 10 b. 8.4 c. 3.6 d. 7.2
42. If a sum of money is divided equally among n children, each child will receive Rs. 60. If
another child is added to the group, then when the sum is divided equally among all
children, each child will receive a Rs. 50 share. What is the sum of money?
a. Rs. 100 b. Rs. 120 c. Rs. 300 d. Rs. 400
43. A vendor bought bananas at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain
20%?
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
44. The largest 4 digit number exactly divisible by 88 is:
380 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. 9944 b. 9768 c. 9988 d. 8888
45. (12)2 x 64 ÷ 432 = ?
a. 5060 b. 5184 c. 5148 d. 5084
Direction: Find the odd one out ( Questions 46 to Question 50).
46. 1, 3, 9, 12, 19, 29
a. 12 b. 9 c. 1 d. 3
47. 1, 8, 27, 64, 125, 196, 216, 343
a. 64 b. 196 c. 216 d. 18
48. 3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21
a. 21 b. 17 c. 14 d. 3
49. 1, 4, 9, 16, 23, 25, 36
a. 9 b. 23 c. 25 d. 36
50. 24, 36, 52, 72, 96
a. 72 b. 36 c. 24 d. 52

Logical Reasoning
Directions: Select the pair of words which best express the relationship similar to that
expressed in the pair in bold letters.
51. Always : Never ::
a. Occasionally : Repeatedly b. Often : Rarely c. Words : Author d. Humid : Hot
52. Sugar : Sweet ::
a. Ice : Cold b. Butter : Cow c. Attack : Fail d. Wine : Grapes
53. Track : Train ::
a. Sea : Ship b. Radiation : Bomb c. Map : Terrian d. Road : Car
54. Kaski : Pokhara::
a. Kathmandu : Nepal b. Butwal : Bhairahawa
c. Jhapa : Bhadrapur d. Biratnagar : Itahari
55. Rent : Land ::
a. Wages : Bonuses b. Interest : Capital c. Share : Profit d. Income : Slalary
56. Monday : Tuesday ::
a. January : February b. Working Day : Holiday
c. December : Sunday d. Winter : Summer
57. Ink : Paper ::
a. Door : Handle b. Dog : Tail c. Chalk : Blackboard d. Speak : Sing
58. Doctor : Lawyer ::
a. Client : Illness b. Patient : Medicine c. Medicine : Fee d. Patient : Client
59. Room : House ::
a. Chair : Room b. Cabin : Ship c. Wheel : Chair d. Refrigerator : Kitchen
60. Bee : Hive ::
a. People : Meeting b. River : Stream c. Mouse : Hole d. Fry : Cook
Directions : Choose the word which is least like other words in a group.
61. a. Calendar b. Date c. Day d. Month
62. a. Parrot b. Vulture c. Swan d. Sparrow
63. a. One b. Three c. Fifth d. Seven
64. a. Tansen b. Dhangadi c. Nepalgunj d. Nagarkot
65. a. Parrot b. Crow c. Bat d. Shark
66. a. Half b. Quarter c. One-third d. Six
67. a. Paris b. New York c. Kathmandu d. Tokyo
68. a. 91 b. 112 c. 135 d. 154
69. a. Bagful b. Careful c. Skilful d. Hopeful
70. a. Lamb b. Dog c. Cat d. Grass
Directions: For each questions, find the best answer.
71. The parts of human body are
381 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a. waist. b. belly. c. Chest. d. head e. neck. f. foot
72. If 6145 stands for FADE and 9451 stands for IDEA, what does 8978 stand for?
a. THIS b. NIGH c. HIGH d. THAT
73. If LN NP QS DF stands for MORE, then SU QS TV SU GI stands for
a. FRUIT b. FAITH c. TRUTH d. TREES
74. If BAD is coded as YZW and FIGHT is coded as URTSG, then HIGH will be coded as
a. PRSP b. TRST c. RSTR d. SRTS
75. If 2 x 3 = 812 and 4 x 5 = 1620. Then 6 x 7 =
a. 6677 b. 6767 c. 2428 d. 2824

General Awareness
Directions: In each of the following questions, select the best answer choice.
76. Highest speed of wind could be expected in case of
a. strong breeze b. strong storm c. hurricane d. strong gale
77. Many times we read in financial newspapers about ‘FDI’. What is the full form of FDI?
a. Federal Department of Investigation b. Foreign Direct Investment
c. Foreign Department of Investment d. Foreign Deposit and Investment
78. What is the national currency of Afghanistan?
a. Afghan Dollar b. Afghan Yen c. Afghan Afghani d. Afghan Rupee
79. Where is the Hindukush mountain range located?
a. India b. Pakistan c. Nepal d. Indonesia
80. The regulatory authority for stock markets in Nepal is
a. Nepal Stock Exchange b. Nepal Rastra Bank
c. Ministry of Finance d. Company Registrar’s Office
81. Which of the following is the largest contributor to the GDP of Nepal?
a. Manufacturing Sector b. Corporate Sector
c. Cooperative Sector d. Service Sector
82. Which of the following payment instruments is known as plastic money?
a. Bearer Cheques b. Demand Drafts c. Credit Card d. Gift Cheques
83. A web sites main page is called as
a. Websites Page b. Home Page c. Search Page d. Browser Page
84. Sofia is the capita of
a. Italy b. Mauritius c. Denmark d. Bulgaria
85. Data that is copied from application is stored in the
a. Ram b. Prompt c. Clipboard d. CPU
86. Which among the following is the most common source of viruses to the hard disk of
your computer?
a. Incoming Email b. Outgoing Email c. CDROM d. Websites
87. Bulls and Bears are the terms associated with
a. Parliamentary Affairs b. Stock Exchange c. Bull Fights d. Racing
88. With which of the following items is the trade name CG Group of Industries associated?
a. Cement b. Blades c. Instant Noodles d. Tractors
89. Gobar Gas mainly consists of
a. Methane b. Carbon Dioxide c. Propane d. Flourine
90. Which of the following is not a public sector undertaking ?
a. Rastriya Beema Snansthan b. Air International
c. Nepal Telcom d. DDC
91. Avianova Airline belongs to which country?
a. Germany b. Canada c. Norway d. Italy
92. Which of the following is not a Himalayan river?
a. Karnali b. Bagmati c. Kali Gandaki d. Koshi
93. Seismology refers to
a. Earthquakes b. Plants c. Humidity d. Planets
94. Beirut is capital of

382 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 a. Lebanon b. Iran c. Yaman d. UAE
95. Silver fish is
a. A fish b. An insect c. A term used in politics d. A fish made of silver
96. Bonsai is associated with
a. Dance b. Painting c. Music d. Trees
97. The moon is a
a. Planet b. Star c. Satellite d. Comet
98. Which of the following place is not on the direct bus route from Butwal to Dhangadi?
a. Lamahi b. Khohalpur c. Tikapur d. Chisapani
99. Mount Abu is situated in
a. Rajasthan b. Himnchal Pradesh c. Bihar d. Kasmhmir
100. Where is the Headquarter of international court of Justice?
a. Washington DC b. London c. Hague, Netherlandd. Berlin

CMAT 2018 (Batch 2075)

Section –I: Verbal Ability

Direction: In the following questions, choose the word which best express the
meaning of the capitalized word.
1. NUISANCE
a. Inconvenience b. Nonsense c. blessing d. Unreasonable
2. PROPRIETOR
a. Lifter b. owner c. dealer d. falconer
3. YIELD
a. Demolish b. produce c. partnership d. surplus
4. VOLATILE
a. Dissolved b. harmonious c. unpredictable d. disfigured
5. TANTRUM
a. Child b. temper c. frenzy d. pampered
Direction: Select the word which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the word
in capital letters.
6. ASSET
a. Chattels b. possessive c. insatiable d. liability
7. TERMINATE
a. Hire b. enlist c. mobilize d. display
8. OBSOLETE
a. Decayed b. unfashion c. cutting-edge d. discontinued
9. GRIEVANCE
a. Favor b. grouse c. injustice d. detest
10. AFFORD
a. Manage b. stipulate c. refuse d. dispensable
Directions: Select the proper proposition to fill in the blanks in the following
questions.
11. Are you still ….. the same address?
a. in b. at c. on d. up
12. I am going to Canada …. the summer.
a. on b. for c. from d. in
13. ….you and me, I think his marriage is in trouble.
a. in b. across c. for d. between
14. She's been like that …… her childhood.
a. from b. of c. on d. for
383 A Complete Solution For CMAT
15. Lying by the side of the road we saw the wheel …. a car.
a. in b. on c. from d. of
Direction. In questions given below out of four alternatives, find the answer choice
that has the word or set of words that best fits the meaning of the sentence as whole.
16) Country X will never stabilize its economy if it does not…..its disastrous inflationary
spending practices.
a. Exacerbate b. curtail c. strengthen d. maximize
17) A slight permutation of the soil's setting rate caused the building's foundation to ….
which led to buildings being deemed unusable.
a. Settle b. shift c. stabilize d. Liquefy
18. The mayor's unpopularity was dramatically demonstrated by his …… performance in the
citywide straw poll.
a. Confident b. despondent c. impoverished d. subjugated
19. Normally the press secretary is fairly …. but in today's briefing her face was quite
animated and her responses lively.
a. Subdued b. concise c. harmful d. subjugated
20. The publicity surrounding the mismanagement of the company's capital damaged the
company's credibility with investors, but the company remained solvent largely on
account of its …. market sheet.
a. Evolving b. stable c. climbing d. steady
Directions : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the
passage, based on the options to each question.
Critics of mark twain's novel Huckleberry Finn, view the protagonist's proclamation
"All right, then, I'll go to hell" in chapter 13 as the story's climax. Twain's novel lent itself
to such radical interpretations because it was the first major American work to depart
from traditional European novelistic structure, thus providing critics with an unfamiliar
framework. The remaining twelve chapters act as a counterpoint, commenting on, if not
reversing, the first part in which a morality play receives greater conformation. Huck's
journey down the Mississippi represent a rite passage, in which the character's personal
motions of right and wrong come into constant conflict with his socially constructed
conscience by the various people and situation the protagonist encounters. The novel's
cyclical structure encourages critics to see the novel's disparate parts as interlined; the
novel begins and ends with the boys playing games. Granted, this need not argue to an
authorial awareness of novelistic construction; however, it does facilitate attempts to
view the novel as a unified whole. Nevertheless, any interpretation that seek to unite the
last
Few chapters with remaining book is bound to be tenuous. This is not because such an
interpretation is unnecessary rigid, but because Huckleberry Finn encompasses individual
scene of the protagonist's self- recognition that are difficult to accommodate in all
encompassing interpretation. In this respect, the protagonist can best link to the Greek
tragic figure, Oedipus.
21. The author most probably mention the" novel's cyclical structure in order to
a. Demonstrate that twins was keenly aware of novelistic construction
b. Show that the remaining twelve chapters have little connection to the rest of the novel
c. Argue that Twain's protagonist has much in common with Oedipus
d. Provided supports for the particular critical interpretation of Twain's work
22. Which of the following best express the main idea of the passage?
a. Twain's novel contains some chapters that resist easy inclusion into a unfiled
interpretation
b. Twain's novel was the first major American novel discards traditional European
structure
c. The protagonist of Huckleberry Finn is considered a modern- day Oedipus by critic
d. The unconventional structure of Huckleberry Finn indicates a lack of authorial
awareness
23. By all-encompassing interpretation the critic means
a. There is same interpretation every time
384 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 b. All interpretations are coming in the future
c. The interpretation cannot be confined
d. This is false interpretation
24) The novel's
a. Conventional structure encourages critics to see the novel's disparate part as interlined
b. Cyclical structure encourages critics to see the novel's disparate part as interlined
c. Stereotypical structure encourages critics to see the novel's disparate part as interlined
d. Adult style structure encourages critics to see the novel's part as interlined
25. The novel provide the critic with unfamiliar frame work because
a. It was the radical in type
b. It was written on about the games
c. An adult is the protagonist
d. It was written in America

Quantitative Ability
Directions: Find the best answer for the question below.
26. The sum of Rs.550 amount to Rs.946 in 9 years with simple interest. What is the rate of
interest, percent per annum?
a. 7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 6
%
27. 1 + # =?
%3 #
#"
I
&/ %* &/ %*
a. %* b. %/ c. %/ d. /

28. 9+99+999+9999=?
a.111006 b.11106 c. 11007 d. none of them
29. A cricket team won 55% of the total number of matches it played during a year. If it lost
30% of the matches played and 3 matches were draw, the total number of matches played
by team during the year was
a. 10 b. 12 c. 8 d. 20
30. A merchant gains 20% by selling an article for Rs.480. What percent would he gained or
lost if he had sold it for Rs 430?
a. 7.5% gain b. 7.5% loss c. 6.5% gain d. 6.5 loss
31. The ratio of chickens to pigs to horses in a farm is 10:2:3 If there are 120 chickens in the
farm, then the number of horses in the farm is
a. 25 b. 36 c. 40 d. 24
32. The average of five numbers is 15. If four of the number are 30, 29, 25 and 20. The
average of the three larger numbers is
a. 26 b. 27 c. 28 d. 29
33. The average age of husband, his wife and daughter three years ago was 27 years and that of
the wife and daughter 5 years ago was 20 years, Husband's present age is
a. 35 b. 40 c. 32 d. 45
34. If 12 person can complete a work in 4 days. In how many days can 8 person complete the
work?
a. 4 b. 10 c. 6 d. 8
35. A train of 300 meters is moving at speed of 54Km/hr. and it took 40 second to cross a
bridge. The length of bridge is?
a. 250m b. 300m c. 325m d. 350
36. The height of room is 6m and the length is twice the breadth. If the area of the floor is
162m the area of the four wall of room is?
a. 324m b. 360m c. 720m d. 684m
%
37. Value of log 8 ÷ log ( is
a. 6 log 2 b. log 2 c. 1 d. -1

385 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Direction: In the following number series one wrong number is given. Find out that
wrong number
38. 12, 23, 43, 85, 166, 327, 648
a. 23 b) 43 c. 85 d. 166
39. 444, 300, 200, 136, 87, 84, 80
a. 300 b) 200 c. 136 d. 87
40. The value of cot ï when sec ï =4, is
√%$ %
a. # b) %$ c. ¼ d. √15
√
41. The slope of the straight line 4x + 3y= 10 is
a. 4 b. 3 c. -4/3 d. -3/4
42. The factors of x4 + 4 are
a. (x2 + 2)2 b. (x2 + 2) (x2 – 2) c. (x2 + 2x + 2)(x2 – 2x + 2) d. None of them
43. If y is the both the cube and the square of an integers and y is between 2 and 100, the
value of y is :
a. 8 b. 16 c. 64 d. 80
44. If the product of two integers is odd, then sum of those two integers must be:
a. odd b. even c. prime d. a perfect square
45. Select the correct statement.
a. Every identity matrix is a scalar matrix.
b. Every diagonal matrix is an identity matrix.
c. Every scalar matrix is an identity matrix
d. A square matrix whose each element is 1 is an identity matrix.
46. If A and B are two sets and( A ∪ B) = A∩ B then
a. A = ∅ b. B = ∅ c. (AUB) = ∅ d. A = B
47. There are seven semesters based on program in bachelor level under faculty of
management, T.U. If, one can select two programs at a time, in how many way a
candidate select the program?
a. 14 b. 7 c. 1 d. 21
48. Which one is the best measure of dispersion?
a. Range b) mean deviation c) quartile deviation d) standard deviation
49. The area of a circle is given by:
a. 2πr b. πr^2 c. πr^2 h d. 2πr^2
50. A card is drawn at random from the pack of 52 cards. What is the probability of getting a
face card?
a. 4/13 b. 1/4 c. 1/2 d. 3/13

Logical Reasoning
Directions: The following questions present a pair of word with certain relationship
between them. Find out the word with similar relationship for the second pair from the
choice alternatives.
51. Forecast: Future:: Regret:?
a. Sins b. present c. past d. predict
52. Well: Depth:: Word:?
a. Book b. meaning c. letter d. Alphabet
53. Entrance: Exit::Loyalty:?
a. Dishonesty b. honesty c. love d. treachery
54. Circle: Circumference :: Square:?
a. Area b. Angle c. Perimeter d. Triangles
55. Shoe: Foot :: Hat :?
a. Face b. Collar c. Mouth d. Head

Direction: Use the information given below to answer the questions that follow.
Saroj, hari and shyam started their journey from city A to city B at the same
time. Shyam took Saroj on his moped, while Hari started walking towards city B. Shyam
386 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 dropped Soraj somewhere on the way, asked to him to continue walking towards city B,
drove back and met hari walking towards city B. All the three of them reached city B at
the same time. While walking speed of saroj and hari was uniform 5 Kms. Per hour, the
speed of the moped was a uniform 20Kms. Per hour. The distance between the two cities
was 70Kms.
56. How much time did the take to reach city B from city A?
a. 3.5hrs b. 6.5hrs c. 14.0hrs d. 4.0hrs
57. How long did hari walk?
a. 4.0hrs b. 5.0hrs c. 2.5hrs d. 6.5hrs
58. What is the total distance travelled by the moped?
a. 70kms b. 100kms c. 130kms d. 200kms
59. At what distance from city A, was Hari when Shyam and Hari met?
a. 20.0kms b. 50.0kms c. 57.5kms d. 32.5kms
Directions: Find best answers for the question given below.
60. In the adjoining figure, ABCD is a square, BCE is an equilateral triangle. The angle BAE
is C
D

A
B
61. The number of Square in the given figure is :

a. 25 b) 35 c) 45 d. 55

62. If PEARL is coded as SHDUO, how is COVET coded?

a. FRYHW b. ELXHU c. EQXHV d. FRXHV
63. Of 'l' =9,' LOVE'= 54, how will you code 'YOU'?
a. 51 b. 55 c. 61 d. 65
64. The missing number in the following table is
5 7 9
3 5 7
28 54 ?
a.106 b. 58 c. 82 d)88
65. If 5 boys write 5 page in 5 minutes, in how many minutes can a boy write one
a. 4 minutes b. 5 minutes c. 6 minutes d. minutes
66. Find the total number of "u" in the following
Blue, clue, front, vacuum, curry, buoy, celluloid, cuisine, effluence, annual, hydraulic,
innuendo, mould
a. 20 b. 18 c. 16 d. 14
Directions: In each questions below you will find four words, three of which are alike
in same way respect; they have something common and being to one category. Only
one word is different from them; it does not belong to the category to which the other
three belong. Find out the word which is different from the rest.

387 A Complete Solution For CMAT

67. a. Help b. cooperate c. Enquire d. Encourage
68. a. Father b. Mother c. Niece d. Son
69. a. Moon b. Sun c. Lamp d. Flame
70. a. Pin b. Nail c. Screw d. Hammer
71. a. Ant b. Spider c. Bee d. Moth
Directions: Discover the similarity between two arguments.
72. "If only the good die young then not-good people die old." Logically the above statement
is most similar to which of the following?
a. If only intelligent people take test then no one who is not intelligent takes this test.
b. If only insects have six legs then only not small things are ugly.
c. If only doctors can prescribe drugs then pharmacists cannot prescribe drugs.
d. If only small things are beautiful then only not small things are ugly.
73. "Since all dogs I have seen tails so all dogs have tails."The statement given above is
logically similar to which of the following?
a. Since all fires I have seen are very hot, all fires cause grate destruction.
b. Since all people I have met are friendly no unfriendly people exist.
c. Since food is necessary for survival all people eat.
d. Since all horses I have seen are fast, all horses are fast.
74. " The sky is cloudy so it may rain." The statement given above is logically similar to
which of the Following?
a. He has not worked he will fail.
b. Students are absent, the teacher will not teach.
c. They are happy so they will dance.
d. The cold war is at the freezing point it may result in shooting war.
75. "Do not take sugar because you have diabetes" is logically to:
a. Do not play as you are hurt. b. Do not read as you have weak eye sight.
c. Do not sing as you have horses throat. d. Do not speak as you are not asked to speak.

General Awareness
Direction: In each of the following questions, select the best answer choice.
76. Which province lies a famous religious place "Swargadwari"?
a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3
77. The' black flag' signifies as:
a. a) Revolution b. Danger c. protest d. truce
78. Iran man of Nepal is known as:
a. Janga Bahadur Rana b) Ganesh Man Sing c. Bhim Samser Rana d. Pratap Malla
79. GATT is already dead but GATT is alive in the name of:
a. UN b. WTO c. UNCTAD d. ITC
80. Oxygen in our blood is transported by a protein named:
a. Keratin b. Collagen c. hemoglobin d. Platelet
81. Entomology is science and its study is related to:
a. Bird b. insect c. Animal d. Space
82. Which country has the highest per capita income in 2017?
a. Luxembourg b. Switzerland c. Japan d. Australia
83. Then people of Denmark are called:
a. Denmen b. Denmarkain c. Denian d. Danish
84. Which one is the National game of Bhutan
a. Archery b. jhopa c. cookfight d. jinsin
85. Who wrote the famous religious book "Ramayan"?
a. Kalidas b. Sri Krishna c. Valmiki d. Ramchandra
86. Hitler's party that came into power in 1933 was called:
a. German social party b. Nazi party
c. Hitler social party d. Peoples party of Germany
87. Where is the permanent secretariat of SAARC?
a. Kathmandu b. New Delhi c. Islamabad d. Colombo
388 A Complete Solution For CMAT
88. Which Country has not written constitution?
a. America b) India c. Japan d. None of the given option
89. A tax "VAT" is the full form of:
a. Value after tax b. Value and tax c. Value added tax d. Value adjustment tax
90. Who invented steam engine?
a. Charles Babbage b. Thomas Alva Edison
c. Michael Faraday d. Nikola Tesla
91. Which one district of Nepal touches both India and China
a. Darchula b. Ilam c. Rautahat d. Kanchanpur
92. Who is the current president of FNCCI?
a. Binod Chaudhary b. Bhawani Rana
c. Pashupati Murarka d. Chhandi Raj Dhakal
93. How many players play polo sport?
a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7
94. 'War and peace' was written by:
a. Maxim Gorky b. Leo Tolstoy c. William Wordsworth d. Oliver Twist
95. When did Prithivi Narayan Shah attack and conquered Kantipur?
a. 1758 b. 1768 c. 1778 d. None of these
96. Which one is the world's deepest valley?
a. Sindhu valley b. Indus valley c. Java valley d. Arun valley
97. " Indra Jatra was" first initiated by:
a. Gankamdev b. Mandev c. Shivdev d. Pratav Malla
98) Which one is the correct name of first computing device?
a. Dos b. Lotus b. Abacus d. None of these
99. What does the abbreviation "http" stands for?
a. Hypertext transfer protocol b. High task termination procedure
b. Harvard tele text proof b. None of these
100. Where was the "18th Asian Game-2018th held?
a. Bangkok b. Manila c. Dubai d. Jakarta

CMAT 2019 (Batch 2076)

Section – I : Verbal Ability
Direction: The passage given below is followed by questions based on its content.
After reading the passage choose the best answer to each question.
Marie Curie was one of the most accomplished scientist’s histories. together with her
husband, Pierre, she discovered radium, an element, widely used for treating cancer, and
studied uranium and other radioactive substances . Pierre and Marie’s amicable
collaboration later helped to unlock the secrets of the atom.
Marie was born in 1867 in Warsaw, Poland , where her father was a professor of
physics. At an early age , she displayed brilliant mind and a blithe personality. Her great
exuberance for learning prompted her to continue with her studies after high school. She
became disgruntled, however , when she learned that the university in Warsaw was
closed to women . determined to receive higher education , she definitely left Poland and
in 1891 entered the Sorbonne , a french university, where she earned her master’s degree
and doctorate in physics.
Marie was fortunate to have studied at Sorbonne with some of the greatest scientists of
her day, one of whom was Pierre Curie. Marie and Pierre were married in 1895 and spent
many productive years working together in physics laboratory. A short time after they
discovered radium, Pierre was killed by horse drawn wagon in 1906. Marrie was stunned
by his horrible misfortune and endured heartbreaking anguish. Despondently she recalled
their close relationship and the joy that they had shared in scientific research. The fact
that she had two young daughter to rise by herself greatly increased her distress .

389 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Curie’s feeling of desolation finally began to fade when she was asked to success her
husband as a physics professor at the Sorbonne. she was the first woman to be given a
professorship at the world-famous university. In 1911 she received the Nobel Prize in
chemistry for isolating radium. Although Marie Curie eventually suffered a fatal illness
from her long exposure to radium, she never became disillusioned about her work.
Regardless of the consequences, she had dedicated herself to science and revealing the
mysteries of the physics world.
1. The Curie’s ………….. collaboration helped to unlock the secrets of the atom.
a) friendly b) competitive c) courteous d) industrious
2. Her contemporary friend was ……… with whom she married.
a) Newton b) David Curie c) Pierre Curie d) Albert Einstein
3. She became a popular scientists . The main reason to encourage her to be a great scientist
is
a) Her great enthusiasm b) Her great bravery
c) Economic condition c) Support from her friends
4. This passage tells us that Madam Curie was awarded Nobel Prize because of her
condition to
a) Astronomy b) Physics c) Biology d) None of them
5……………..she remembered their joy together.
a) Dejectedly b) Worried c) Tearfully d) Happily
Direction: Select the correct word from the given options.
6. We have no prejudice ………… foreigners.
a) towards b) to c) with d) against
7. ………behalf of the staff, Kumar read the address.
a) in b) to c) on d) with
8. In case ………. Need phone 015195568.
a) of b) to c) on d) with
9. Just walk ………. the station and looked for a temple.
a) with b) past c) across d)along
10. He/She stayed in bed …………… lunch time.
a) by b) for c) until d) on
Directions: In the following questions, choose the word which best express the meaning
of the capitalized word.
11. BRIEF
a) Limited b) Small c) Little d) Short
12. RESCUE
a) Help b) Command c) Defense d) Safety
13. QUOTA
a) Quotation b) Quote c) Limited number d) Unlimited quantity
14. VISUALIZE
a) To see future b) Vision c) Void d) Vector
15. FAKE
a) Original b) Imitation c) Trustworthy d) Loyal
Direction: Supply the correct word / words from the given options to complete the given
sentences.
16. Yes/ no question of the statement ‘She had to submit her homework’ Is :…………….. to
submit her homework.’
a) Did she have to b) Did she had to
c) Do she have to c) Does she have to
17. Don’t let him come in. It becomes passive as ………… come in.
a) Let him not b) have to be bought
c) You let him out d) Let not him
18. You have to buy a rain coat. This means,’ A rain coat…………’
a) has been bought b) have to be bought
c) has to be bought d) had to be bought by you

390 A Complete Solution For CMAT

19. The negative statement of ‘He has already finished his home assignment.’ is he
hasn’t………..
a) already finished his home assignment
b) finished his home assignment
c) already finished his home assignment yet
d) finished his home assignment yet.
20. ‘Who told you about the accident?’ The passive form of this question is ………..
a) By whom you were told about the accidents?
b) By whom, were you told about the accident?
c) Whom you were told about the accident?
d) By whom you were tell about the accident.
Directions: Each question below consists of an idiom or phrase followed by four lettered
expression. Choose the lettered questions that most nearly express the meaning of the
idiom or phrase.
21. Throw a party
a) Leave the party b) Celebrate
c) Throw food in the party d) Start conflict in the party
22. The rest is history
a) History takes rest b) Known to everyone
c) To avoid historical facts d) History repeats itself
23. Live like a king
a) Live a very high-quality life b) Live like king of Nepal
c) Live the life of a saint d) Live like Indra, the king of heaven
24. Warm as toast
a) Very hot b) Very fresh c) Lukewarm d) Cold
25. Ride out the storm
a) To overcome difficulty b) To come out in the storm
c) To play in the storm d) Ride a horse

Section – II: Quantitative Ability

26. IF ‘+’ means ‘minus’, ‘×’ means ‘divided by’, ‘÷’, means ‘plus’ and ‘-‘ means ‘multiply
by’ then which of the following will be the value of the expression 252 ×9 –5 + 32 ÷ 92?
a) 95 b) 168 c)192 d)200
27. If Q means ‘add to,’ j means ‘multiply by’ T means ‘subtract from’ and K means ‘divide
b’, then 30 K 2 Q 3 J T5 =?
a) 18 b)28 c) 31 d) 103
28. Arrange the following in logical order: (1) Shoulder, (2) Wrist, (3) Elbow, (4) Palm (5)
Finger.
a) 2,4,5,3,1 b) 3,1,4,2,5 c) 3,4,5,2,1 d) 5,4,2,3,1
29. Arrange the following in meaningful sequence: (1) Phrase (2) Letter (3) Word and (4)
Sentence
a) 1,2,3,4 b)1,3,2,4 c) 2,3,1,4 d) 2,3,4,1
30. A group consisting of 25 teachers, 20 engineers, 18 doctors and 12 salesmen visited a fair
and spent Rs 1330 altogether. It was found that teachers spent as much as 4 engineers, 12
engineers spent as much as 9 doctors and 6 doctors spent as much as 8 salesmen. If every
person in a professional group spent the same amount, find the amount spent by each
engineer.
a) Rs 14 b) Rs 17.50 c) Rs 18 d) Rs 21
31. A, B, C, and D play a game card. A says to B, “If I give you 8 cards, you will have as
many as C has and I shall have 3 less than what C has . Also, if I take 6 cards from C, I
shall have twice as many as D has. If B and D together have 50 cards , how many cards
has A got?
a) 40 b) 37 c) 27 d) 23

391 A Complete Solution For CMAT

32. The age of a father is twice that of a the elder son. Ten years hence the age of the father
will be three times that of the younger son . If the difference of ages of the two son is 15
years, the age of the father is :
a) 70 years b) 60 years c) 55 years d) 50 years
33. In a group of person travelling in a bus , 6 person can speak French , 15 can speak
Spanish and 6 can speak English . In that group , none can speak any other language . If 2
persons in the group can speak two language and one person can speak all the three
languages , then how many persons are there in the group ?
a) 21 b) 22 c) 23 d) 24
34. The total number of digits used in numbering the pages of a book having 366 page is?
a) 732 b) 990 c) 1098 d) 1305
35. At the end of a business conference the ten people present all shake hands with each
other once .How many handshakes will there be altogether?
a) 20 b) 45 c)55 d) 90
36. A monkey climbs 30 feet at the beginning of each hour and rest for a while when he slips
back 20 feet before he again starts climbing in the beginning of the next hour. If he
begins his ascent at 8:00 a.m. at what time will he first touch a flag at 120 feet from the
ground ?
a) 4:00 p.m. b) 5:00 p.m. c) 6:00 p.m. d) None of these
37. Find the missing number from among the given alternatives.
1 2 3
4 5 6
7 8 9
27 38 ?
a) 49 b) 50 c) 51 d) 52
38. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground is found to be 45
degree. By going 50 meters further away from the tower, it is found to be 30 degree. In
such situation the height of the tower is
a) 78.3 meters b) 63.1 meters c) 68.3 meters d) none of these
39. Study the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the sign of
interrogation ?
3 8 10 2 ? 1
6 56 90 2 20 0
a) 7 b) 5 c) 3 d) 0
40. The mode of the given distribution is
Weight (in kg) 40 43 46 49 52 55
No. of children 5 8 16 9 7 3
a) 40 b) 46 c) 55 d) None of these
41. Which of the following statements is correct for a square ?
a) Diagonals are equal and bisect each other at right angles.
b) Diagonals are unequal and do not bisect each other
c) Diagonals are equal and do not bisect each other
d) Diagonals are unequal and bisect each other at right angles.
42. The system of equations: 3x + y – 1= 0 and 6x + 2y – 2 = 0
a) has x = 1 and y = 2 as a solution
b) has x = –1 and y = –2 as a solution
c) does not have a solution
d) has infinitely many solutions
43. The value of the expression 16x2 + 24x +9 for x= –3/4 is
a) 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) -1
44. If A is real and 1+ A + A2 + A3 = 40, then the value of A is
a) -3 b) -1 c) 1 d) 3
45. If a/b =3/4 then the ratio of 6a+b to 4a+5b is
a) 1:2 b) 3:5 c) 7:8 d) 11: 16

392 A Complete Solution For CMAT

46. A and B are the square matrices of same order such that AB = A and BA = B, A is
a) Diagonal matrix b) idempotent matrix
c) null matrix d) symmetric matrix
47. A and B are the square matrix of same order, (A-B)2 is equal to :
a) A2 – 2AB + B2 b) A2 + B2
2 2 2
c) A – 2BA + B d) A2 – BA – AB – B2
48. If a man reduces the selling price of a fan from Rs 380, his loss increases from x percent to
(x+4) percent. Is the cost price of the fan is?
a) Rs 420 b) Rs 550 c) Rs 500 d) Rs 400
49. A coin is flipped once. What is the probability of getting either tail or head?
a) 1 b) 1/3 c) ½ c) 1/4
50.The average age of boys in the class is twice the number of girls in the class. If the ratio of
boys and girls in the class of 36 is 5:1, what is the total age in years of the boys in the
class?
a) 196 b) 360 c) 392 d) 420

Section –III: Logical reasoning

Directions: The following questions consists of two words each that have a
certain relationship to each other , followed by four lettered pairs of words . Select
the lettered pair that has same relationship as the original pair of words.
51. Run : Race
a) Enjoy : Journey b) Lecture: study
c) Study : Book d) Party : Dance
52. Tree : Branches
a) River : Tributaries b) Continent : Island
c) Stream : Delta d) Ocean : Seas
53. Visitor : Welcome
a) Beggar : Hungry b) Worship : God
c) Criminal : Prosecute d) Warrior : Conquer
54. Satisfy : Hunger
a) Quell : Rebellion b) Frantic: Composed
c) Cheerful : Euphoric d) Thirst : Quench
55. Bus : Driver
a) Cook : Kitchen b) Class : Student
c) War : Soldier d) Machine : Operator
Directions : Three words in bold letters are given in each question, which have
something in common among themselves . Out of the four given alternatives , choose
the most appropriate description about these three words.
56. Chain: Link : Bridge
a) They all have hooks b) They are related with ornaments
c) They join two parts d) The terms are related with prision
57. Knot : Watt : Fathom
a) The terms are used by sailors
b) The terms are used for installing electricity
c) The terms are connected with rope
d) They are units of measurement
58. Gun : Emu : Curlew
a) These are fast runners b) These are birds
c)These are small insects d) These are animal psets
59. Press : Television : Cinema
a) They are means of entertainment b) They are means of mass media
c) They give worldwide news d) All are public undertakings
60. Columbus : Magellan : Vasco da gama
a) They are ancient astronomers
b) They are ancient sailors
393 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 c) They discovered some Ancient countries
d) They were the first to design a ship
Directions : Read the following statements to answer the questions given below.
Six persons A,B,C,D,E and F were playing a game of cards . A’s father , mother and
uncle were in the group . There were two women . B, the mother of A , got more points
than her husband . D got more points than E but less than F .Niece of E got lowest
points. Father of A got more than F but could not win the game .
61. Who won the game ?
a) A b) B c) D d) F
62. Who got the lowest points?
a) A b) B c) C d) E
63) Who is the husband of B?
a) C b) D c) E d) F
64. B was one of the ladies. Who was the other lady ?
a) A b) C c) D d) E
65. Who stood second in the game?
a) A b) B c) C d) D
Directions: Select the logically best answer
66. Akbar was popular because he was secular .
a) All secular are popular b) All popular are seculars
c) Only seculars are popular d) None of these
67. He is not liked because he drinks
a) All who are not liked are drinkers b) All drinkers are not liked
c) Some are not liked because they are drinkers. d) Some non-drinkers are not liked
68. Birds can fly because they have wings .
a) All having wings can fly
b) All which can fly have wings
c) Some which can fly have wings
d) Some which have wings can fly
69. No babies can walk . All those who can walk are grown- up . Therefore
a) No babies are grown- up. b) No person who can walk are babies
c) All grown-up persons are babies d) Those who can run can also walk
70. A basket has as many mangoes as it has oranges . Three-fourths of the fruits are yellow .
One half of the fruits are ripe . Which of the following statement is definitely true ?
a) All fruits are ripe b) At least one half of the oranges are yellow
c) All mangoes are ripe d) None of these
Directions : Find the missing term in each of the following series:
71. 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210?
a) 240 b) 290 c) 336 d) 504
72. 1, 9, 25, 49, ?, 121
a) 64 b) 81 c) 91 d) 100
73. 20, 20, 19, 16, 17,13, 14, 11, ? ?
a) 10, 10 b) 10, 11 c) 13, 14 d) 13, 16
74. R, U, X, A, D, ?
a) F b) G c) H d) I
75. A, CD, GHI, ?, UVWXY
a) LMNO b) MNO c) MNOP d) NOPQ

Section –IV: Genera l Awareness

76. I n which district there are the largest number of peaks above 8000 meters?
a) Myagdi b) Solukhumbu c) Sankhwasabha d) Taplegung
77. What is the minimum age requirement of a person in Nepal to be eligible to vote in
national election ?
a) 18 years b) 21 years c) 23 years d) 25 years
78. When had Junko Tabei climbed Mt. Everest ?
394 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a) 1951 c) 1953 c) 1975 d) 1977
79. When and where did first ICC World Cup take place ?
a) 1950 Pakistan b) 1975 England c) 2000 West Indies d) 2007 Sri Lanka
80. A period of low general economic activity is known as
a) Boom b) Depression c) Recession d) Recovery
81. Which of the following currencies has the lowest value in terms of rupee?
a) US Dollar b) Yuan c) Yen d) Pound
82. Which of the following is not an export item from Nepal?
a) Garments b)Tea c) Pashmina Shawl d) Palm Oil
83. The ‘tumeric ‘ is obtained from ……….. part of plant .
a) Stem b) Root c) Fruit d) Flowers
84. Which of the following name is associated with aircraft ?
a) Marconi b) James Watt c) Peter Paul d) Wright Brothers
85. The world Environment Day is celebrated on :
a) June 5 b) December 10 c) April 23 d) January 1
86. Which is the longest day on earth ?
a) June 21 b) March 22 c) January 21 d) August 21
87. Marble is a kind of
a) Igneous rock b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock d) Mineral rock
88. What is ‘white paper’ ?
a) A special kind of writing paper
b) A Japanese delicacy
c) A documentary published by governments giving facts
d) A paper used packing
89. What is the full form of DTH?
a) Double Transmission Hub b) Direct To Home
c) Density Thin Heater d) Direct Tetanus Healing
90. Who was the teacher (guru) of Alexander the Great ?
a) Gothe b) Plato c) Socrates d) Aristotle
91. The person who specializes in skin diseases is called
a) Endocrinologist b) Gerontologist
c) Dermatologist d) Gynecologist
92. Which of the following mobile company is named by river ?
a) Carbon b) Samsung c) Nokia d ) LG
93. If father has blood group A and mother has blood group O , then which one of the
following blood group maybe found in their son?
a) A b) B c)O d) AB
94. Which one of the following is currently matched?
a) Malaria –Fungi b) Ringworm – Virus
c) Common cold – Protozoa d) Cholera – Bacteria
95. Sunlight provides
a) Vitamin D to the body b) Vitamin K to the body
c) Vitamin B to the body d) Vitamin A to the body
96. Moving a firm or a industry from private sector to the public sector is called
a) Ownership b) Nationalization
c) Monopoly d) Privatization
97. ‘Bank of the year 2018’ was awarded by financial Times of Britain to:
a) Prabhu Bank Ltd. b) NMB Bank Ltd .
c) NABIL Bank Ltd. d) NIC Asia Bank Ltd.
98. How many articles were there in the ‘Treaty of Sugauli ‘?
a) 4 articles b) 7 articles c) 9 articles d) 10 articles
99. The smallest bone in our body is in
a) Nose b) Ear c) Chin d) Fingers
100. Mortality table is used to compute the premium of
a) Fire insurance b) Life insurance
395 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 c) Accident insurance d) Vehicle.

Interview Tips

Many colleges encourage you to interview with an admissions representative or

alumnus as part of the college application process, either on campus or in your
hometown. Admissions officers will consider the interview when evaluating your
application (although they'll be much more interested in your grades, test scores,
and essays). A few schools require interviews or have a specific process for them.
In most cases, the interview will not make or break you, but if you do arrange an
interview, take it seriously. It’s a chance to show off the unique personality traits you can
bring to campus, and build a personal relationship with the admissions gatekeepers. Our
college interview tips will help you get prepped for the big day.
Prepare specific questions.
Your interviewer will expect you to ask some questions about the school and talk about
why you want to go there. Put some energy into coming up with creative questions with
answers that cannot be easily found on the college's website
Practice like a prizefighter.
Being interviewed is a skill, and it requires practice. Sit down with one of your parents,
a teacher, a college counselor, or a friend and have him or her ask you their best college
interview questions. Answer them honestly and seriously. Then ask your "interviewer"
how you came across. You'll also get better after each college interview, so try to arrange
your schedule so that your last interviews are with the schools you care about most.
Be yourself…
Remember, the key to getting admitted (and being happy at college)
is matchmaking. You want to be yourself so that the person interviewing you can discern
if you would be a good fit. Before your interview, think about why the school appeals to
you, what you want to study, and what you might do after graduation.
…but be your best self.
You have many sides, so showcase the side of yourself that is professional, mature and
poised. Don't show up looking like you just peeled yourself off the couch—wear what
makes you feel comfortable and and confident. Smile, and remember your interviewer
wants the interview to go well too!
Stop worrying about the clock.
Most interviews run approximately 30 minutes to an hour. Students are sometimes told
that the sign of a good interview is a long one. But on-campus interviews are usually
scheduled back-to-back, and off-campus interviews are usually performed by alumni who

396 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 are working professionals—so your interviewer is likely on a tight schedule. If you notice
them checking the time, it's not (necessarily) because they think you're boring.
Be thankful.
Send a thank-you note. If there's something about the interview that was helpful to you,
let your interviewer know. If you connected with your interviewer over a book, common
experience, or band you’re both into, then mention it!
Otherwise, simply express your continued interest in the school and thank your
interviewer for taking the time to meet with you.

The DO’s and DON’T’s of College Interviews:

DO
Ø Be prepared to offer a few different dates and times when you call to schedule your
interview. This simple detail shows your ability to manage your time, as well as your
respect for your interviewer’s busy schedule
Ø If you would like to meet a specific professor or sit in on a class, make that request
when you schedule your interview, not when you appear at the admissions office.
Ø Conduct research about the college or university before you appear on campus.
Using the school’s website or a college guide, familiarize yourself with the following
things:
ü Testing requirements
ü General curriculum
ü Grading system o Majors, minors and concentrations
ü Current admissions statistics
ü Financial aid availability and procedures
Ø Dress appropriately. There’s no need to dazzle but you should not wear jeans, flip-
flops, gym clothes(!), t-shirts or ball caps. Shorts? Sure, as long as you wear a nice
shirt.
Ø Be on time -- or, better yet, five minutes early. Call if you will be late for any reason.
Ø Be respectful of everyone you come across on campus: the admissions receptionist,
student panelists, your tour guide, the guy in the Student Center who points you
toward a restroom…
Ø Turn off your cell phone. OFF not vibrate.
Ø Extend your hand to the admissions counselor; introduce him or her to your parents
and siblings.
Ø Arrive prepared for a conversation.
Practice answering questions like:
Why do you want to attend this college? (Do your research!)
What is your intended major, and why?
What are your long-term goals and dreams?
What do you like to read, and why?
Whom do you admire?
How would your friends and family describe you?
What's your favorite academic subject?
What's your favorite extracurricular?
What do you do for fun?
What are you most proud of?
Ø Think about asking thoughtful, qualitative questions such as:
What do students consider to be the biggest pros and cons of your college?
What do students like most and least about the surrounding town?
What draws students to your college?
If you had to generalize, how would you describe your student body?
What's the social scene?

397 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 What do students do on weekends?
What's the housing situation? Do students live off campus? Are there a lot of commuter
students?
Can you tell me more about X, a major/extracurricular that I'm interested in?
Ø Make eye contact and listen attentively
Thank your interviewer, shake his or her hand and request contact information; mail or
email a formal thank you within 48 hours
Ø Relax and have fun. You are the only real expert on you so show it. Enjoy the
opportunity to share who you are with someone who is genuinely interested in
getting to know you better.
Note: Everything you present to the admissions office – emails, questionnaires, notes –
should be composed with care. Use proper grammar, spelling, capitalization and
punctuation.

DON’T
Ø Ask your parents to schedule your interview for you.
Ø Design your outfit around school colors; it’s not impressive or cute.
Ø Roll in late; if it’s unavoidable, call.
Ø Slouch, chew gum, yawn or litter your speech with umm’s or like, you know’s; avoid
slang and off-color language
Ø Answer your phone or text during your interview. Your parents shouldn’t either
Ø Expect (or permit) your parents to answer questions asked of you. The admissions
counselor wants to hear from you, not your parents
Ø Be negative about everything in your life; conversely, don’t overwhelm your
interviewer with insincere enthusiasm about everything.
Ø Give answers you think the admissions counselor wants to hear. Give your own,
honest answers
Ø Show up without thoughtful questions about the college or university (see DO’s).
Ø Ask questions you could easily answer on your own if you checked the school’s
website or a college guide (see DO’s).
Ø Ask about College A’s graduation requirements when you’re interviewing at College
B.
Ø Let a question like, “What doesn’t the school know about you after reading your
application?” slip by without a good answer; answer with “Nothing” or “I covered
everything” and you miss a plumb opportunity to share something new – and
memorable – about yourself.
Ø Hug your admissions counselor. It’s too forward and uncomfortable for everyone.
Ø Forget that the interview is just one part of a collection of materials that will help the
admissions staff evaluate you. Your future does not hinge on the stellar or
pedestrian quality of your interview

Sample Interview Questionnaire

Ø Tell me about yourself?
Ø Why are you interested in our college?
Ø What can I tell you about our college?
Ø Who in your life has most influenced you?
Ø What do you want to major in…?
Ø What will you contribute to our campus community?
Ø Tell me about a challenge that you overcome?
Ø What do you do for fun in your free time?
Ø What do you see yourself doing ten years from now?
Ø Does your high school record accurately reflect your effort and ability?
398 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 Ø Recommend a good book to me?
Ø If you could do one thing in high school differently, what it would be?

Group Discussion Tips

What is a Group Discussion?

A Group Discussion or GD, as it is popularly known, judges the personality of a
person. It assesses the behavioural traits in a person his or her leadership skills, social
skills, team skills, problem solving skills and presence of mind.
If we analyse the two words Group and Discussion. Group means a number of
individuals who may or may not have interacted before. Discussion means
exchanging information on a certain topic and coming (or not coming) to a concrete
conclusion.
Hence, we can say that Group Discussion is an invigorative discussion where a
topic is analysed and discussed, and in the end, the members come to a fair
conclusion. It involves team work, but at the same time, it portrays individual
personalities.
Who conducts a Group Discussion?
Group Discussion is conducted by B-schools, institutes and companies. In fact to
get admission into B-schools and other management and engineering institutes, GD
has become an essential prerequisite. As far as companies are concerned, it is totally
at the discretion of the companies if they want GD as part of their interview process.

Why is a GD conducted?
While entrance exams test the candidates for their academics and knowledge of
subjects, the GD will test one for their soft skills and their ability to cope with various
situations.
Usually the institutes or companies conducting the GD know exactly what they
want in their candidates. They are very clear about the specific traits that they want in
their candidates. The Group Discussion helps them to analyze whether the candidates
possess the required traits or not.
GD also serves as a mass-elimination tool. When there are many candidates
applying for limited seats, the GD can act as a benchmark to select the best among the
lot.

What is the common process followed in a GD?

The group usually consists of 6 to 12 members. They are given a topic and a few
minutes to prepare. Post which they are called to begin the discussion. The duration of
the GD will vary from institute to institute or organization to organization. For each
candidate an assessor may be assigned. Usually, an assessor assesses two to three
candidates. They will be watching the candidates every move.

Preparing for Group Discussion

There are no specific rules to prepare for a GD. However, below are few points that
399 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 a person can keep in mind while preparing for a GD.

BEFORE THE GROUP DISCUSSION

Stock yourself with information

No one knows what the topic of GD is going to be. Hence, it will be a good idea to
keep yourself abreast with topics like:

Current Affairs
Current Affairs is something that you have to be thorough with. For this, read
newspapers regularly and watch news on the television. Understand the recent crises
that the world is reeling under, the latest developmental initiatives, the ties between
various countries and the like.

Historical topics
Have a fair knowledge about the countries’ history and also the history of other
countries. The topics may not be specifically from this area, but having historical
information will help you cite examples and make references whenever needed.

Sports, Arts & Literature

In these topics, try to have a decent idea about what is popular, who are the leaders
in each area, the latest that has happened in these areas. If the topic for GD is from
these areas, then you will be in control of the situation, or else you can definitely use
the information to draw references.

Data crunching
Do familiarize yourself with important data. Throwing in some data if required in
your GD will definitely create an impression among the assessors.

AT THE GROUP DISCUSSION

Understanding the topic

When the topic is given, understand the topic carefully. If it is not clear initially or
you have some doubt regarding the topic, ask immediately. Clarity of the topic is of
utmost importance to ensure that you perform well in the GD.

Precise and sharp thoughts

As you are gathering thoughts, try to stick to precise and concise thoughts.
Remember, when you are communicating, what is more important is what you are
communicating rather than how much you are communicating. In a Group
Discussion, it is always quality over quantity. Let your views be relevant and to the
point. To a great extent, try to do some out-of-the-box thinking so that your view
stands out from the rest.

Communicating your views

400 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 You may have excellent views on the topic, but are you able to communicate them
in an effective manner is the question. Here, is where your communication skills will
come to your rescue. If you have good communication skills, well and good, or else
you will have to work on developing the same. To develop communication skills, you
can choose a topic, stand before the mirror and start talking about it. As you are
talking, anticipate few questions from an imaginary audience and try replying them.
Analyse what you are doing, try to spot flaws, if any, in your communication and then
start working on them. This will help you come across as a confident person during
the GD. On the day of the Group Discussion, your aim should be to collate your
thoughts in a structured manner and put them across to the team and the assessors in
an effective way.

Taking the initiative

Try to initiate the Group Discussion, if possible. By taking the initiative, you will
be giving a structure to the discussion and defining the manner in which the
discussion will progress. This will exhibit your quality as a person who can facilitate
actions by breaking the ice. A little word of caution here, attempt being the lead only
if you have a fair amount of knowledge about the topic and you know exactly what
you are speaking. If you take the initiative of being the lead and somehow you are
unable to pull it through, then it will backfire completely. So, act wisely.

Knowledge about the topic

When you are talking on the topic, choose your points in a manner that they convey
the depth of knowledge that you possess. Superficial talk is going to be a strict no-no
here as the assessors will be easily able to see through. Try to have abstract thoughts
around the topic and also try to draw references to different situations or incidents.
Citing relevant examples will also help to a great extent.

Understanding dynamics in the group

In a group discussion, try to be in control of the discussion. This is easier said than
done, because most of the group members would be trying to do the same. What you
can do is follow the discussion keenly and try to pitch in wherever relevant. If you
have some good points, try to put them forth and steer the discussion. Do not be
aggressive. Do not force your points. If there is a disagreement on the points that you
have made, try to counter them with even more valid points. This will not only exhibit
your knowledge but also show that you are a good listener. Try to fuel the discussion
whenever possible. Give everyone a chance to speak. If someone has not contributed,
ask the person to speak up. This will showcase your ability as a team player.

Logical conclusion
When the discussion is about to end, try to conclude it by taking in the points that
everyone has made and coming to a decent conclusion. This will indicate your
analytical skills and also the way you structure your thoughts.

Generic tips
• On the day of GD, dress in comfortable clothes clothes that are simply you
• Be confident but avoid being over confident
401 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 • Talk sense. Avoid superficial talk
• Listen carefully and speak only at the appropriate time
• Be very sure of what you are speaking
• Use easy-to-understand English
• Speak loudly and clearly
• Do not be deterred by other members aggressive or submissive behavior
• Accommodate diverse view points
• Put forth your points without being aggressive
• Give due importance to other persons views. However, stick to the point you have
made. Try to support it with more view points.
• Do not allow yourself to be diverted by other peoples points
• Do not be distracted. Your concentration should be solely on the discussion
• If you do not know something, do not speak
• Do not get excited or aggressive during the discussion. Try to maintain a balanced tone
through out
• Try to contribute throughout the discussion
• Try to be the first and the last to speak
• Read as much as possible. Have good and sound knowledge on numerous topics.
Watching documentaries on various topics will help her.
• Improve your vocabulary. This does not mean that you use heavy and big words, but
it means that you will be able to understand the topic better and contribute effectively
Last but not the least, mentally visualize yourself as succeeding and you will succeed.
Sample Topics for group Discussion

• Online dating chats have nothing to do with a search for a soul mate.
• Life imprisonment is a good alternative to capital punishment.
• What is wrong with child labor?
• Corruption and Democracy go hand in hand.
• Private enterprise and public sector can both contribute to rapid economic growth in
Nepal.
• Beauty Pageants are a marketing gimmick.
• Higher education should only be for those who can pay for it.
• Women are better managers than men.
• Smarter people perform better individually; average people in a group.
• Developing countries should scrap their defense budgets and focus on development.
• No country can survive without foreign trade.
• All education in Nepal should be absolutely free.
• The younger generation is smarter than their parents.
• Imagination is more important than knowledge.
• The State should not interfere in the individual right to expression.
• “Peace cannot be kept by force. It can only be achieved by understanding.”
• Education in Nepal is irrelevant and unproductive.
• Global Warming is a myth.
• It is important to maintain work life balance.

402 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 • US war on Iraq was inhuman and unjustified.
• People Don't Fail, They Give Up!
• Love marriage vs Arrange marriage - Which one is better?
• Dance bar bill – A good sign of being open minded?
• Should extramarital affairs be acceptable?
• Would you seek medical assistance online?
• Is the excise tax on jewelers reasonable?
• Jungle or Zoo - Which is the right place for animals?
• Should violent sports like wrestling be banned?
• What triggers suicide – Depression or Failure?
• Would you undergo a knife to fix your looks?
• Invoking President’s rule in states – Pros and Cons
• Aptitude tests for school students – Pros and Cons
• Should male sportsperson earn more money than female counterparts?
• Eastern or Western - Which parenting style is better?
• Private or government hospital: which one would you prefer?
• Cricket v/s football – What’s your preference?
• Caste or Income based Reservation- Which is Better?
• Should violent video games be barred to an age limit?
• Is it worth watching a reality show?
• Should tablets replace text books?

Answer Sheet

Verbal Ability
1. Synonyms and Antonyms
1.1 Synonyms
1. a. 2. a. 3. b. 4. c. 5. c. 6. d. 7. d. 8. b. 9. b. 10. b. 11.a. 12.b.
13. c. 14. d. 15. d. 16. c. 17. b. 18. a. 19. a. 20. b. 21. c. 22. d. 23. c. 24. b.
25. a. 26. c. 27. a. 28. b. 29. d. 30. c. 31. b 32. c. 33. b. 34. a. 35. a. 36. b.
37. d. 38. a. 39. d. 40. b. 41. c. 42. b. 43. c. 44. b. 45. c. 46. d. 47. a. 48. b.
49. d. 50. c. 51. b. 52. c. 53. d. 54. a. 55.b. 56. a. 57. a. 58. c. 59.c. 60. a.
61. b. 62. c. 63. b. 64. d. 65. a. 66. b. 67. a. 68. a. 69. d. 70. a. 71. b. 72. a.
73. a. 74. c. 75. a. 76. c. 77. d. 78. d. 79. d. 80. d. 81. b. 82. a. 83. b. 84. d.
85. d. 86. a. 87. a. 88. c. 89. b. 90. c. 91. c. 92. c. 93. a. 94. b. 95. b. 96. d.
403 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 97. a. 98. b. 99. d. 100. d. 101. c. 102. c. 103. a. 104. b. 105. d 106. a. 107. a. 108. a.
109. b. 110. d 111.a. 112. c. 113. d. 114. b. 115. b. 116. a. 117. b. 118. a 119. b. 120. b.
121. b. 122. c. 123. d. 124. b. 125. a. 126. c. 127. d. 128. c. 129. a. 130. c. 131. b. 132. a.
133.a. 134.b. 135.c. 136. b. 137. c. 138. c. 139. b. 140. b. 141. d. 142. d 143. a. 144. b.
145. a. 146. c. 147. d. 148. b. 149. c. 150. d.

1.2. Antonyms
1. a. 2. a. 3. d. 4.b. 5. c. 6. d. 7. c. 8. a. 9. a. 10. b. 11. b. 12. a.
13. b. 14. a. 15. a. 16. b. 17. b. 18. a. 19. c. 20. d. 21. b. 22. a. 23. c. 24.b.
25. c. 26. c. 27. a. 28. c. 29. a. 30. b. 31. b. 32. c. 33. b. 34. a. 35. b. 36. a.
37. c. 38. d. 39. a. 40. c. 41. d. 42. a. 43. c. 44. b. 45. d. 46. a. 47. b. 48. c.
49. d. 50. b. 51. a. 52. b. 53. c. 54. d. 55. b. 56. a. 57. d. 58. a. 59. c. 60. b.
61. a. 62. d. 63. a. 64. a. 65. d. 66. a. 67. a. 68. b. 69. d. 70. a. 71. d. 72. a.
73. a. 74. d. 75. b. 76. b. 77. b. 78. c. 79. c. 80. c. 81. b. 82. b. 83. a. 84. a.
85. b. 86. c. 87. c. 88. c. 89. a. 90. b. 91. b. 92. d. 93. b. 94. b. 95. b. 96. b.
97. a. 98. b. 99. a. 100. b. 101. a. 102. b. 103. b. 104. a. 105. c. 106. a. 107. a. 108. a.
109. a. 110. a. 111. d. 112. d. 113. b. 114. c. 115. c. 116. a. 117. c. 118. c. 119. c. 120. b.
121. a. 122. d. 123. b. 124. a. 125. c. 126. a. 127. b. 128. a. 129. a. 130. a. 131. b. 132. b.
133. c. 134. d. 135. a. 136. a. 137. b. 138. c. 139. c. 140. b. 141. b. 142. a. 143. c. 144. c.
145. d. 146. d. 147. d. 148. c. 149. d. 150. d.

2. Selecting Words /Phrase

2.1. Vocabulary Usage

1. c. 2. b. 3. a. 4. b. 5. b. 6. b. 7. a. 8. b. 9. c. 10. b. 11. c. 12. ?
13. b. 14. b. 15. b. 16. d. 17. b. 18. d. 19. b. 20. c. 21. c. 22. b. 23. a. 24. b.
25. a. 26. ? 27. d. 28. b. 29. c. 30. a. 31. d. 32. c. 33. a. 34. d. 35. b. 36. b.
37. c. 38. d. 39. d. 40. d. 41. d 42. a. 43. c. 44. b. 45. a. 46. b. 47. a. 48. d.
49. b. 50. b. 51. d. 52. b. 53. d. 54. b. 55. a. 56. b. 57. b. 58. d. 59. a. 60. c.
61. b. 62. a. 63. a. 64. a. 65. b. 66. a. 67. d. 68. d. 69. c. 70. d. 71. c. 72. c.
73. b. 74. b. 75. a. 76. c. 77. c. 78. c. 79. c. 80. c. 81. b. 82. b. 83. b. 84. b.
85. a. 86. b. 87. a. 88. c. 89. a. 90. b. 91. a. 92. d. 93. b. 94. b. 95. d. 96. a.
97. c. 98. d. 99. c. 100. b. 101. a. 102. c. 103. a. 104. a. 105. b. 106. d. 107. c. 108. b.
109. a. 110. b. 111. c. 112. c. 113. b. 114. a. 115. b. 116. b. 117. d. 118. b. 119. d. 120. c.

2.2. Grammar Usage

1. c. 2. b. 3. a. 4. d. 5. c. 6. b. 7. a. 8. b. 9. d. 10. a. 11. c. 12. b.
13. a. 14. b. 15. a. 16. b. 17. d. 18 .c. 19. b. 20. c. 21. a. 22. c. 23. c. 24. a.
25. d. 26 .c. 27. b. 28. c. 29.b. 30. a. 31. c. 32. b. 33. b. 34. b. 35. d. 36. c.
37.b. 38. b. 39. d. 40. c. 41. b. 42. d. 43. c. 44. a. 45. c. 46. d. 47. d. 48. b.
49. c. 50. a. 51. c. 52. c. 53. c. 54. a. 55. b. 56. b. 57. b. 58. d. 59. b. 60. b.
61. b. 62. b. 63. d. 64. d. 65. c. 66. d. 67. d. 68. a. 69. c. 70. a. 71. a. 72. d.
73. c. 74. d. 75. a. 76. b. 77. b. 78. c. 79. b. 80. c. 81. a. 82. c. 83. c. 84. b.
85. c. 86. b. 87. b. 88. c. 89. b. 90. a. 91. b. 92. d. 93. a. 94. a. 95. a. 96. d.
97. c. 98. a. 99. b. 100. c. 101. c. 102. c. 103. a. 104. a. 105. a. 106. a. 107. d. 108. b.
109. a. 110. a. 111. d. 112. d. 113. b. 114. c. 115. a. 116. c. 117. a. 118. a. 119. b. 120. a.
404 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 121. d. 122. a. 123. a. 124. a. 125. b. 126. b. 127. d. 128. b. 129. c. 130. a. 131. c. 132. a.
133. c. 134. d. 135. c. 136. b. 137. d. 138. b. 139. c. 140. d. 141. a. 142. d. 143. d. 144. d.
145. c. 146. c. 147. d. 148. b. 149. a. 150. c.

3. Passage Completion
1. a. 2. a. 3. d. 4. d. 5. b. 6. b. 7. b. 8. b. 9. d. 10. b. 11. a. 12. a.
13 .a. 14. a. 15. a. 16. b. 17. b. 18. b. 19. b. 20. b. 21. d. 22. d. 23. d. 24. d.
25. d. 26. d. 27. a. 28. b. 29. c. 30. c. 31. b. 32. b. 33. a. 34. c. 35. a. 36. b.
37. c. 38. d. 39. a. 40. d. 41. a. 42. b. 43. c. 44. d. 45. b. 46. b. 47. b. 48. b.
49. b. 50. b. 51. c. 52.c. 53. b. 54. c. 55. b. 56. b. 57. c. 58. a. 59. b. 60. d.
61. b. 62. c. 63. a. 64. d. 65. d. 66. d. 67. a. 68. c. 69. b. 70. c. 71. c. 72. d.
73. b. 74. c. 75. c. 76. c. 77.a. 78.e. 79. b. 80. c. 81. a. 82. c. 83. e. 84. b.
85. b. 86. c. 87. a. 88. e. 89. a. 90. e. 91. c. 92. d. 93. b. 94. c. 95. d. 96. d.
97. b. 98. e. 99. d. 100. b. 101. c. 102. e. 103. c. 104. b. 105. a. 106. d. 107. e. 108. a.
109. d. 110. c. 111. b. 112. e. 113. a. 114. e. 115. c. 116. b. 117. d. 118. a. 119. c. 120. d.
121. b. 122. a. 123. e. 124. e. 125. a. 126. d. 127. a. 128. c. 129. c. 130. a. 131. c. 132. e.
133. b. 134. a. 135. c. 136. e. 137. d. 138. b. 139. c. 140. e. 141. d. 142. a. 143. b. 144. c.
145. b. 146. e. 147. a. 148. d. 149. b. 150. d. 151. d. 152. a. 153. c.

4. Idiom and Phrases

1. b. 2. b. 3. a. 4. c. 5. d. 6. a. 7. a. 8. a. 9. c. 10. b. 11. b. 12 .a.
13. c. 14. d. 15 .c. 16. d. 17. c. 18. d. 19. b. 20. a. 21. c. 22. a. 23. b. 24. b.
25. d. 26. b. 27. a. 28. b. 29. d. 30. c. 31.b. 32.d. 33. c. 34. b. 35. a. 36. b.
37. b. 38. a. 39. c. 40. d. 41. a. 42. a. 43. a. 44. c. 45. b. 46. b. 47. a. 48. c.
49. d. 50. c. 51. d. 52. c. 53. d. 54. b. 55. a 56. c. 57. a. 58. ? 59. b. 60. b.
61. d. 62. b. 63. a. 64. b. 65. d . 66. c. 67. b. 68. d. 69. c. 70. a. 71. c. 72. d.
73. d. 74. b. 75. c. 76. b. 77. c. 78. a. 79. d. 80. d. 81. a. 82. a. 83. a. 84. c.
85. c. 86. d. 87. a. 88. a. 89. b. 90. a. 91. a. 92. d. 93. b. 94. a. 95. c. 96. d.
97. b. 98. c. 99. a. 100. b. 101. c. 102. b. 103. d. 104. c. 105. a. 106. a. 107. a. 108. a.
109. a. 110. a. 111. c. 112. b. 113. d. 114. b. 115. c. 116. c. 117. d. 118. d. 119. c. 120. b.
121. b. 122.b. 123.b. 124. a. 125. a. 126. a. 127. a. 128. a. 129. d. 130. a. 131. d. 132. d.
133. d. 134. c. 135. c. 136. b. 137. b. 138. a. 139. b. 140. a.

5. Comprehension
1. d. 2. b. 3. a. 4. c. 5. a. 6. c. 7. d. 8. a. 9. b. 10. d. 11. d. 12. c.
13. b. 14. a. 15. a. 16. c. 17. b. 18. c. 19. d. 20. b. 21. b. 22. c. 23. b. 24. d.
25. d. 26. b. 27. c. 28. a. 29. a. 30. d. 31. b. 32. c. 33. a. 34. a. 35. d. 36. b.
37. d. 38. c. 39. c. 40. a. 41. b. 42. d. 43. c. 44. c. 45. b. 46. d. 47. c. 48. d.
49. b. 50. d. 51. b. 52. d. 53. c. 54. a. 55. c. 56. a. 57. d. 58. b. 59. b. 60. c.
61. b. 62. b. 63. c. 64. b. 65. c. 66. d. 67. c. 68. b. 69. c. 70. d. 71. b. 72. b.
73. c. 74. a. 75. d. 76. a. 77. b. 78. d. 79. c. 80. d. 81. c. 82. a. 83. c. 84. b.
85. c. 86. b. 87. c. 88. b. 89. a. 90. c. 91. a. 92. a. 93. c. 94. d. 95. d. 96. d.
97. d. 98. c. 99. b. 100. b.

405 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 Chapter – 2

Quantitative Ability

1. Number System
1. c 2. a. 3. c. 4. a. 5. b. 6. b. 7. b. 8. c. 9. c. 10. c. 11. c. 12. d.
13. d. 14. d. 15. b. 16. d 17. b. 18. a. 19. d. 20. b. 21. c. 22. a. 23. b. 24. b.
25. b. 26. d. 27. b. 28. b. 29. d. 30. b. 31. b. 32. c. 33. c. 34. b. 35. d. 36. d.
37. c. 38. a. 39. c. 40. c. 41. c. 42. d. 43. c. 44. a. 45. c. 46. b. 47. a. 48. d.
49. a. 50. a. 51. a. 52. d. 53. d. 54. b. 55. c. 56. d. 57. d. 58. b. 59. b. 60. c.
61. b. 62. c. 63. c. 64. c. 65. d. 66. b. 67. b. 68. d. 69. d. 70. b. 71. c. 72. d
73. d. 74. d. 75. d. 76. b. 77. a. 78. c. 79. b. 80. c. 81. d 82. b. 83. b. 84. c
85.c. 86. c. 87. d. 88. c. 89. c. 90. d. 91. a. 92. c. 93. c. 94. d. 95. c. 96. c
97. c. 98. c. 99. c. 100. c. 101. c. 102. c. 103. b. 104. d. 105. d. 106. b. 107. d. 108. b.
109. a. 110. b. 111. c. 112. c. 113. c. 114. b. 115. d. 116. d. 117. a. 118. a. 119. b. 120. d

2. Simplification
1. a 2. a. 3. a. 4. d. 5. c. 6. c. 7. c. 8. b. 9. b. 10. d. 11. b. 12. b.
13. d. 14. d. 15. d. 16. a. 17. b. 18. a. 19. d. 20. d. 21. d. 22. a. 23. d. 24. a.
25. d. 26. c. 27. c. 28. d. 29. c. 30. c. 31. c. 32. b. 33. c. 34. b. 35. a. 36. d.
37. a. 38. c. 39. c. 40. b. 41. a. 42. b. 43. a. 44. b. 45. b. 46. c. 47. b. 48. c.
49. c. 50. c. 51. a. 52. d. 53. d. 54. a. 55. b. 56. d. 57. a. 58. b. 59. a. 60. c.
61. c. 62. b. 63. c. 64. a. 65. b. 66. b. 67. b. 68. b. 69. d. 70. d. 71. b. 72. a.
73. c. 74. a. 75. b. 76. c. 77. c. 78. d. 79. d. 80. d. 81. a. 82. b. 83. a.

3. Average
1. b 2. a. 3. c. 4. c. 5. c. 6. d. 7. c. 8. c. 9. b. 10. b. 11. a. 12. b
13. a. 14. d. 15. d. 16. b. 17. c. 18. a. 19. c. 20. b. 21. a. 22. d. 23. b. 24. b.
25. c. 26. c. 27. c. 28. d. 29. d. 30. a. 31. b. 32. c. 33. c. 34. a. 35. c. 36. a.
37. a. 38. a. 39. b. 40. b. 41. d. 42. b. 43. c. 44. d. 45. d. 46. c. 47. d. 48. a.
49. d. 50. b. 51. a. 52. b. 53. a. 54. b. 55. b. 56. b. 57. b. 58. b. 59. a. 60. c.
61. a. 62. a. 63. c. 64. b. 65. c. 66. a. 67. a. 68. c. 69. a. 70. c. 71. d. 72. c
73. d. 74. d. 75. b. 76. c. 77. d. 78. d. 79. a. 80. d. 81. a. 82. c. 83. d. 84. c.
85. c. 86. c. 87. c. 88. c. 89. b. 90. a. 91. c. 92. c. 93. a. 94. b. 95. d. 96. c.
97. a. 98. a. 99. c. 100. b. 101. d. 102. a.

4. Ratio and Proportion

1. a 2. a. 3. b. 4. d. 5. a. 6. c. 7. a. 8. b. 9. c. 10. b. 11. c. 12. c
13. c. 14. c. 15. b. 16. c. 17. b. 18. d. 19. a. 20. d. 21. b. 22. c. 23. c. 24. a.
25. d. 26. d. 27. d. 28. c. 29. c. 30. a. 31. b. 32. a. 33. d. 34. c. 35. d. 36. c.
406 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 37. d. 38. a. 39. b 40. b 41. d. 42. c. 43. c. 44. b 45. a. 46. c. 47. b. 48. c.
49 d 50. a. 51. a. 52. d. 53. a. 54. c. 55. b. 56. c. 57. d. 58. c. 59. a 60. c
61. a. 62. c. 63. d. 64. a. 65. a. 66. b. 67. c. 68. c. 69. a. 70. d.

5. Percentage
1. c. 2. b. 3. c. 4. d. 5. b. 6. d. 7. d. 8. a. 9. d. 10. d. 11. d. 12. a.
13. a. 14. b. 15. a. 16. d. 17. c. 18. d. 19. a. 20. c. 21. b. 22. d. 23. a. 24. c.
25. b. 26. b. 27. b. 28. c. 29. c. 30. b. 31. c. 32. c. 33. a. 34. a. 35. b. 36. c.
37. b 38. c. 39. b. 40. a. 41. b. 42. … 43. c. 44. a. 45. a. 46. b 47. a. 48. d.
49. c. 50. b. 51. b. 52. c. 53. a. 54. a. 55. a. 56. c. 57. d. 58. b. 59. d. 60. a.
61. a. 62. d. 63. d. 64. b. 65. b. 66. c. 67. b. 68. c. 69. c. 70. c. 71. c. 72. a.
73. b. 74. d. 75. d. 76. d. 77. d. 78. c. 79. c. 80. b. 81. a. 82. b. 83. a. 84. d.
85. d. 86. c. 87. d. 88. b. 89. b. 90. c. 91. d. 92. d. 93. b. 94. b. 95. b.

6. Profit and Loss

1. d. 2. a. 3. c. 4. c. 5. a. 6. c 7. c 8. a. 9. d. 10. d. 11. b. 12. b.
13. a. 14. d 15. a. 16. a. 17. a. 18. b. 19. d. 20. c. 21. a. 22. a. 23. c. 24. b.
25. d. 26. d. 27. b. 28. c. 29. d. 30. c. 31. d. 32. a. 33. a. 34. d. 35. a. 36. a.
37. c. 38. a. 39. d. 40. a. 41. a. 42. d. 43. a. 44. b. 45. b. 46. c. 47. d. 48. a.
49. b. 50. a. 51. a. 52. d. 53. d 54. b. 55. c. 56. b. 57. d. 58. b. 59. d. 60. b.
61. a. 62. c. 63. a. 64. b. 65. a. 66. d. 67. b. 68. b. 69. d. 70. d. 71. d. 72. d.
73. c. 74. a. 75. a. 76. c. 77. d. 78. c. 79. a. 80. b.

7. Discount
1. b. 2.d. 3. c. 4. b. 5. c. 6. c. 7. c. 8. a. 9. b. 10. c. 11. c 12. b.
13. c. 14. c. 15. c. 16. b. 17. a. 18. a. 19. b. 20. c. 21. b. 22. b. 23. c. 24. d.
25. b. 26. d. 27. b. 28. a. 29. a. 30. d. 31. c. 32. d. 33. b. 34. b. 35. d. 36. a.
37. a. 38. d. 39. b. 40. b. 41. c. 42. a. 43. a. 44. c. 45. a. 46. a. 47. c. 48. c
49. d. 50. b.

8. Simple Interest
1. a. 2. b c. d. 4. a. 5. c. 6. b. 7. b. 8. c. 9. d. 10. c. 11. a. 12. c.
13. c. 14. b. 15. c. 16. b. 17. c. 18. a. 19. c. 20. d. 21. c. 22. b. 23…. 24. a.
25. b. 26. c. 27. d. 28. b. 29. b. 30. c. 31. a. 32. b. 33. b. 34… 35. c. 36. a.
37. d. 38. b. 39. a. 40. a.

9. Compound Interest
1. b. 2. b. 3. c. 4. a. 5. c. 6. b 7. c. 8. d. 9. c. 10. c. 11. a. 12. a
13. c. 14. a. 15. d. 16. c. 17. a. 18. c. 19. b. 20. a. 21. a. 22. d. 23. a. 24. c.
25. d. 26. b. 27. c. 28. b. 29. a. 30. b. 31. b. 32. b. 33. a. 34. c. 35. b. 36. b.
37. d. 38. c. 39. a. 40. c.

407 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 10. Time and Work
1. a. 2. c. 3. a. 4. d. 5. c. 6. c. 7. c. 8. b. 9. a. 10. c. 11. b. 12. a.
13. a. 14. c. 15. c. 16. b. 17. b. 18. a. 19. b 20. c. 21. c. 22. b. 23. d. 24. d.
25. d. 26. c. 27. b. 28. d. 29. c. 30. a. 31. b. 32. b. 33. c. 34. b. 35. b. 36. c.
37. a. 38. b. 39. d. 40. c. 41. b. 42. a. 43. a. 44. a. 45. d. 46. a. 47. a. 48. a.
49. d. 50. d.

11. Pipe and Cistern

1. b. 2. a. 3. c. 4. b. 5. d. 6. b. 7. c. 8. d. 9. c. 10. d. 11. a. 12. b.
13. a. 14. c. 15. b. 16. d. 17. a. 18. a. 19. b. 20. c. 21. a. 22. b. 23. a. 24. a.
25. c.

12. Time and Distance

1. b. 2. d. 3. d. 4. b. 5. d. 6. d. 7. a. 8. c. 9. a. 10. a. 11. d. 12. b.
13. b. 14. d. 15. a. 16. c. 17. a. 18. b. 19. b. 20. b. 21. d. 22. c. 23. c. 24. a.
25. a. 26. c. 27. d. 28. d. 29. c. 30. b. 31. d. 32. c. 33. b. 34. b. 35. c. 36. b.
37. c. 38. b. 39. b 40. a. 41. d. 42. d. 43. b. 44. c. 45. c. 46. c. 47. a. 48. a.
49. c. 50. b. 51. b.

13. Sequence and Series

1. b. 2. a. 3. a. 4. a. 5. b. 6. b. 7. a. 8. b. 9. d. 10. a. 11. c. 12. c.
13. b. 14. d. 15. b. 16. d. 17. b. 18. c. 19. c. 20. d. 21. d. 22. b. 23. b. 24. c.
25. b. 26. a. 27. a. 28. d. 29. a. 30. b. 31. b. 32. a. 33. c. 34. c. 35. b. 36. d.
37. c. 38. d. 39. d. 40. b. 41. c. 42. a. 43. d. 44. c. 45. a. 46. b. 47. b. 48. c.
49. c. 50. c. 51. a. 52. a. 53. a. 54. d. 55. b. 56. d. 57. d. 58. b 59. d. 60. a.
61. b. 62. a. 63. d. 64. b. 65. b. 67. d. 68. d 69. b.

14. Algebra
1. b. 2. b. 3. a. 4. d. 5. c. 6. c. 7. c. 8. c. 9. d. 10. b. 11. b. 12. c.
13. d. 14. d. 15. c. 16. a. 17. b. 18. d. 19. a. 20. d. 21. c. 22. c. 23. a. 24. a.
25. a. 26. a. 27. d. 28. c. 29. c. 30. d. 31. c. 32. c. 33. c. 34. a. 35. c. 36. a.
37. a. 38. b. 39. a. 40. c. 41. a. 42. c. 43. c. 44. c. 45. b. 46. A. 47. b. 48. b.
49. a. 50. b. 51. d. 52. d. 53. b. 54. d. 55. a. 56. a. 57. c. 58. b. 59. b. 60. a.

15. Mensuration
1. d. 2. b. 3. a. 4. b. 5. b. 6. d. 7. c. 8. c. 9. d. 10. b. 11. c. 12. c.
13. b. 14. d. 15. c. 16. b. 17. c. 18. b. 19. c. 20. d. 21. d. 22. a. 23. b. 24. b.
25. c. 26. d. 27. b. 28. b. 29. a. 30. b. 31. a. 32. a. 33. d. 34. b. 35. … 36. b.
37. b. 38. a. 39. b. 40. c. 41. c. 42. c. 43. a. 44. c. 45. c. 46. c. 47. d. 48. d.
49. a. 50. a. 51. d. 52. c. 53. a. 54. b. 55. d. 56. a. 57. c. 58. d. 59. b. 60. a.
61. b. 62. b. 63. a. 64. c. 65. a. 66. b. 67. c. 68. a. 69. b. 70. c. 71. c. 72. d.
73. d. 74. d. 75. b. 76. c. 77. c. 78. d. 79. d. 80. c. 81. d. 82. c. 83. b. 84. a.
85. a. 86. d. 87. a. 88. d. 89. a. 90. b. 91. a. 92. c. 93. c. 94. a 95. b. 96. d.
408 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 97. d. 98. a. 99. a. 100. d. 101. d. 102. d. 103. d. 104. c. 105. d. 106. b.

16. Statistic and Data Interpretation

1. c. 2. a. 3. a. 4. a. 5. c. 6. d. 7. c. 8. b. 9. a. 10. b. 11. a. 12. b.
13. b. 14. d. 15. d. 16. a. 17. b. 18. c. 19. b. 20. a. 21. c. 22. b. 23. a. 24. c.
25. d. 26. c 27. a. 28. d. 29. a. 30. a. 31. b. 32. d. 33. c. 34. b. 35. d. 36. d.
37. b. 38. a. 39. d. 40. b. 41. a. 42. b. 43. d. 44. c. 45. b. 46. c. 47. a. 48. a.
49. c. 50. b. 51. c. 52. c. 53. d. 54. c. 55. a. 56. c. 57. b. 58. b. 59. c. 60. d.
61. a. 62. c. 63. d. 64. c. 65. c. 66. b. 67. d. 68. c. 69. a. 70. b. 71. a. 72. c.
73. a. 74. a. 75. a. 76. c. 77. d. 78. a. 79. c. 80. a. 81. c. 82. b. 83. d. 84. b.
85. d. 86. a. 87. b. 88. a. 89. d. 90. b. 91. b. 92. b. 93. a. 94. d. 95. c. 96. b.
97. c. 98. b. 99. d. 100. d. 101. c. 102. b. 103. a. 104. b. 105. c. 106. a. 107. d. 108. c.
109. d. 110. a. 111. c. 112. b.

17. Probability
1. a. 2. c. 3. a. 4. a. 5. c. 6. d 7. d. 8. a. 9. a. 10. d. 11. a. 12. b.
13. c. 14. d. 15. a.

18. Permutation and Combination

1. a. 2. d. 3. b. 4. c. 5. d. 6. b. 7. d. 8. a. 9. c. 10. c. 11. a. 12. d.

19. Set Theory

1. a. 2. b. 3. c. 4. c. 5. c. 6. a. 7. c. 8. b. 9. b. 10. c. 11. b. 12. c.
13. d. 14. c. 15. c. 16. c. 17. b. 18. c. 19. c. 20. b. 21. b. 22. d. 23. c. 24. b
25. b. 26.a 27. b. 28. b 29. b. 30. a. 31. c. 32. d. 33. a. 34. b. 35. b. 36. c.
37. c 38. b 39. a 40. d. 41. b.

20. Matrix and Determinant

1. a. 2. b. 3. a. 4. c. 5.c. 6. a. 7. b. 8. a. 9. c. 10. b. 11. c. 12. b.
13. b. 14. c.

Chapter–3
Logical Reasoning
409 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 1. Analogy
1. b. 2. c. 3. b. 4. c. 5. a. 6. a. 7. b. 8. c. 9. a. 10. b. 11. b. 12. c.
13. c. 14. c. 15. a. 16. c. 17. c. 18. c. 19. a. 20. a. 21. c. 22. b. 23. b. 24. c.
25. b. 26. a. 27. d. 28. a. 29. d. 30. a. 31. d. 32. d. 33. d. 34. d. 35. d. 36. c.
37. d. 38. a. 39. d. 40. c. 41. c. 42. c. 43. d. 44. d. 45. d. 46. b. 47. a. 48. b.
49. b. 50. c. 51. c. 52. b. 53. c. 54. b. 55. d. 56. d 57.d. 58. b. 59. c. 60. a.
61. b. 62. d. 63. d. 64. c 65. b. 66. d. 67. c. 68. a. 69. b. 70. d. 71. c. 72. d.
73. d 74. d. 75. a. 76. c. 77. a. 78. d. 79. d. 80. d. 81. b. 82. a. 83. b. 84. d.
85. a. 86. d. 87. b. 88. c. 89. d. 90. d. 91. c. 92. c. 93. b. 94. a. 95. c. 96. c.
97. b. 98. b. 99. b. 100. a. 101. a. 102. b. 103. b. 104. a. 105. c. 106. b. 107. d. 108. a.
109. d. 110. d. 111. b. 112. a. 113. b. 114. c. 115. a. 116. c. 117. a. 118. a. 119. d. 120. b.
121. b. 122. d. 123. b. 124. d. 125. d. 126. d. 127. c. 128. c. 129. c. 130. d. 131. b. 132. a.
133. d. 134. b. 135. b. 136. c. 137. a. 138. b. 139. d. 140. a. 141. a. 142. b. 143. c. 144. a.
145. d. 146. b. 147. a. 148. b. 149. d. 150. a. 151. c. 152. a. 153. c. 154. a. 155. b. 156. a.
157. c. 158. d. 159. a. 160. d. 161. c. 162. a. 163. b. 164. a. 165. b. 166. a. 167. a. 168. b.
169. c. 170. c. 171. a. 172. c. 173. b. 174. c. 175. a. 176. a. 177. b. 178. c. 179. d.

2. Classification (Odd man Out)

1. d. 2. d. 3. c. 4. a. 5. b. 6. a. 7. d. 8. a. 9. c. 10. d. 11. c. 12. b.
13. c. 14. d. 15. b. 16. d. 17. a. 18. c. 19. d. 20. c. 21. d. 22. b. 23. d. 24. a.
25. b. 26. a. 27. d. 28. c. 29. d. 30. c. 31. c. 32. c. 33. a. 34. d. 35. d. 36. b.
37. b. 38. d. 39. c. 40. c. 41. a. 42. c. 43. c. 44. b. 45. a. 46. d. 47. c. 48. d.
49. b. 50. a. 51. c. 52. b. 53. c. 54. b. 55. c. 56. c. 57. d. 58. c. 59. b. 60. d.
61. a. 62. d. 63. b. 64. a. 65. c. 66. c. 67. b. 68. d. 69. d. 70. d. 71. a. 72. d.
73. c. 74. d. 75. d. 76. d. 77. b. 78. a. 79. d. 80. c. 81. b. 82. a. 83. c. 84. b.
85. d. 86. b. 87. c. 88. c. 89. b. 90. a. 91. a. 92. d. 93. c. 94. d. 95. b. 96. d.
97. b. 98. c. 99. c. 100.c. 101. e. 102. b. 103. e. 104. e. 105. e. 106. c. 107. b. 108. c.
109. e. 110. e.

4. Series Completion
1. a. 2 2. e. 3. e. 4. d. 5. b. 6. b. 7. d. 8. e. 9. c. 10. a. 11. e. 12. a.
13. b. 14. c. 15. d. 16. a. 17. c. 18. b. 19. c. 20. d. 21. c. 22. a. 23. d. 24. d.
25. b. 26. d. 27. d. 28. c. 29. a. 30. b. 31. a. 32. d. 33. b. 34. b. 35. b. 36. a.
37. a. 38. b. 39. a. 40. b. 41. d. 42. d. 43. b. 44. b. 45. d. 46. b. 47. b. 48. c.
49. c. 50. a. 51. a. 52. b. 53. b. 54. d. 55. b.

4. Coding – Decoding
1. b. 2. a. 3. c. 4. b. 5. a. 6. a. 7. b. 8. a. 9. b. 10. d. 11. d. 12. c.
13. c. 14. d. 15. b. 16. a. 17. d. 18. b. 19. d. 20. a. 21. c. 22. d. 23. c. 24. d.
25. a. 26. b. 27. d. 28. b. 29. b. 30. b. 31. a. 32. b. 33. a. 34. c. 35. a. 36. d.
37. c. 38. c. 39. d. 40. a. 41. d. 42. d. 43. b. 44. b. 45. c. 46. c. 47. b. 48. c.
49. b. 50. b. 51. a. 52. a. 53. a. 54. b. 55. c. 56. a. 57. b. 58. b. 59. a. 60. b.
61. a. 62. d. 63. a. 64. c. 65. a. 66. a. 67. a. 68. a. 69. c. 70. a. 71. c. 72. b.
73. d. 74. b. 75. d.
410 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 5. Logical Venn Diagram
1. a. 2. a. 3. a. 4. b. 5. c. 6. c. 7. b. 8. c. 9. d. 10. d. 11. b. 12. a.
13. c. 14. b. 15. b. 16. b. 17. a. 18. b. 19. c. 20. c. 21. a. 22. c. 23. b. 24. d.
25. c. 26. a. 27. c. 28. b. 29. c. 30. c. 31. b. 32. a. 33. d. 34. c.

6. Inserting Missing Characters

1. a. 2. b. 3. b. 4. c. 5. a. 6. a. 7. b. 8. b. 9. d. 10. a. 11. b. 12. b.
13. a. 14. c. 15. a. 16. c. 17. a. 18. a. 19. b. 20. a. 21. b. 22. b. 23. a. 24. a.
25. c. 26. d. 27. c. 28. c. 29. b. 30. b. 31. d. 32. d. 33. d. 34. c. 35. b. 36. c.
37. a. 38. b. 39. b. 40. b. 41. b. 42. a. 43. c. 44. c. 45. a. 46. a. 47. c. 48. d.
49. d. 50. d. 51. c. 52. c. 53. d. 54. a. 55. d. 56. d. 57. b. 58. a. 59. c. 60. b.
61. a. 62. c. 63. b 64. a. 65. d. 66. a. 67. a.

7. Non Verbal Reasoning

1. 4. 2. 2. 3. 4. 4. 4. 5. 4. 6. 1. 7. 3. 8. 4. 9. 4. 10. 4. 11. 3. 12. 1.
13. 1. 14. 4. 15. 1. 16. 1. 17. 5. 18. 1. 19. 4. 20. 2. 21. 1. 22. 5. 23. 5. 24. 3.
25. 2. 26. 3. 27. 3. 28. 5. 29. 2. 30. 5. 31. 3. 32. 4. 33. 5. 34. 5. 35. 5. 36. 5.
37. 2. 38. 5.

8. Statement and Conclusion

1. c. 2. d. 3. d. 4. e. 5. a. 6. c. 7. d. 8. d. 9. d. 10. d. 12. d. 12. d.
13. c. 14. a. 15. c. 16. d. 17. d. 18. d. 19. b. 20. e. 21. d. 22. d. 23. d. 24. c.
25. d.

9. Critical Reading
1. a. 2. c. 3. a. 4. b. 5. a. 6. d. 7. b. 8. b. 9. d. 10. a. 11. d. 12. d.
13. d. 14. b. 15. a.

Chapter–4

General Awareness
1. c 2. a. 3. a. 4. a. 5. c. 6. c. 7. b. 8. b. 9. b. 10. a. 11. b. 12. b.
13. b. 14. d. 15. c. 16. c. 17. a. 18. b. 19. d. 20. d. 21. d. 22. b. 23. d. 24 .c.
25. d. 26. b. 27. c. 28. a. 29. c. 30. a. 31. b. 32. d. 33. a. 34. d. 35. a. 36. a.
37. b. 38. a. 39. c. 40. a. 41. d. 42. b. 43. d. 44. d . 45. b. 46. a. 47. d. 48. a.
49. a. 50. a. 51. d. 52. b. 53. a. 54. c. 55. d. 56. a. 57. a. 58. d. 59. b. 60. c.
61. a. 62. c. 63. a. 64. c. 65. a. 66. a. 67. b. 68. a. 69. b. 70. d. 71. b 72. d.
73. b. 74. d. 75. b. 76. b. 77. c. 78. c. 79. b. 80. c. 81. b. 82. a. 83. b. 84. a.
85. d. 86. a. 87. c. 88. a. 89. c. 90. d. 91. d. 92. d. 93. c. 94. b. 95. a. 96. c.

411 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 97. b. 98. a. 99. d. 100. d. 101. d. 102. a. 103.b. 104. a. 105. a. 106. c. 107. a. 108. b.
109. c. 110. c. 111. b. 112. b. 113. a. 114. c. 115. b. 116. d. 117. c. 118. c. 119. d. 120. a.
121. a. 122. d. 123. b. 124. c. 125. d. 126. b. 127. c. 128. c. 129. c. 130. d. 131. c. 132. b.
133. b. 134. d. 135. d. 136. b. 137. b. 138. b. 139. c. 140. a. 141. c. 142. a. 143. d. 144. b.
145. a. 146. c. 147. d. 148. b. 149. a. 150. a. 151. b. 152. c. 153. d. 154. a. 155. d. 156. d.
157. b. 158. b. 159. d. 160. d. 161.d. 162. a. 163. b. 164. c. 165. d. 166. b. 167. a. 168. c.
169. b. 170. b. 171. d. 172. a. 173. c. 174. b. 175. d. 176. b. 177. d. 178. d. 179. c. 180. b.
181. b. 182. c. 183. a. 184. c. 185. d. 186. a. 187. ?. 188. c. 189. a. 190. b. 191. d. 192. b.
193. d. 194. b. 195. d. 196. a. 197. d. 198. b. 199. b. 200. d. 201. c. 202. b. 203. b. 204. a.
205. c. 206. d. 207. a. 208. d. 209. b. 210. b. 211. c. 212. c. 213. d. 214. d. 215. c. 216. b.
217. b. 218. d. 219. a. 220. b. 221. d. 222. b. 223. b. 224. a. 225. d. 226. c. 227. a. 228. a.
229. d. 230.b. 231. c. 232. c. 233. d. 234. a. 235. c. 236. b. 237. c. 238. c. 239. a. 240. a.
241. d. 242. c. 243. a. 244. a. 245. d. 246. b 247. d. 248. a. 249. a. 250. a. 251. b. 252. d.
253. c. 254. d. 255. a. 256. c. 257. c. 258. a. 259. c. 260. b. 261. d. 262. d. 263. a. 264. a.
265. d. 266.d. 267. d. 268. b. 269. a. 270. b. 271. c. 272. b. 273. d. 274. c. 275. b. 276. d.
277. a. 278. c. 279. a. 280. a. 281. b. 282. c. 283. a. 284. d. 285. a. 286. a. 287. c. 288. b.
289. d. 290. d. 291. a. 292. a. 293. a. 294. b. 295. b. 296. b. 297. c. 298. c. 299. c. 300. b.
301. b. 302. a. 303. d. 304. c. 305. c. 306. d. 307. b. 308. d. 309. d. 310. b. 311. b. 312. c.
313. b. 314. b. 315. d. 316. d. 317. b. 318. a. 319. c. 320. b. 321. b. 322. b. 323. c. 324. b.
325. b. 326. d. 327. c. 328. b. 329. c. 330. b. 331. c. 332. c. 333. c. 334. d. 335. d. 336. b.
337. b. 338. c. 339. c. 340. a. 341. b. 342. a. 343. a. 344. a. 345. a. 346. d. 347. b. 348. c.
349. d. 350. b. 351. a. 352. b. 353. a. 354. a. 355. d. 356. b. 357. c. 358. a. 359. b. 360. a.
361. d. 362. a. 363. a. 364. a. 365. c. 366. a. 367. a. 368. b. 369. c. 370. d. 371. c. 372. a.
373. a. 374. a. 375. c. 376. c. 377. b. 378. b. 379. b. 380. c. 381. a. 382. c. 383. b. 384. c.
385. c. 386. c. 387. d. 388. c. 389. c. 390. a. 391. c. 392. d. 393. b. 394. c. 395. d. 396. b.
397. a. 398. a. 399. b. 400. b. 401. b. 402. d. 403. d. 404. c. 405. b. 406. c. 407. c. 408. c.
409. d. 410. b. 411. d. 412. c. 413. c. 414. b. 415. d. 416. a. 417. a. 418. b. 419. c. 420. b.
421. a. 422. c. 423. b. 424. a. 425. b. 426. b. 427. c. 428. d. 429. a. 430. b. 431. b. 432. a.
433. b. 434. a. 435. d. 436. c. 437. b. 438. c. 439. a. 440. c. 441. d. 442. c. 443. a. 444. d.
445. b. 446. a. 447. d. 448. c. 449. b. 450. c.

Chapter–5

CMAT Old Questions

CMAT 2002 (Batch 2059)
1. b. 2. a. 3. b. 4. c. 5. a. 6. c. 7. c. 8. a. 9. b. 10. a.
11. b. 12. d. 13. b. 14. a. 15. c. 16. c. 17. b. 18. a. 19. b. 20. b.
21. c. 22. c. 23. d. 24. b. 25. b. 26. d. 27. c. 28. c. 29. c. 30. a.
31. b. 32. d. 33. b. 34. c. 35. b. 36. c. 37. d. 38. d. 39. b. 40. b..
41. b. 42. b. 43. a. 44. b. 45. b. 46. a. 47. d. 48. b. 49. c 50. c.
51. b. 52. d. 53. b. 54. c. 55. b. 56. b. 57. c. 58. d. 59. c. 60. c.
61. c. 62. b. 63. a. 64. c. 65. b. 66. a. 67. b. 68. a. 69. a. 70. c.
71. b. 72. b. 73. d. 74. a. 75. a. 76. c. 77. c. 78. c. 79. c. 80. b.
81. c. 82. c. 83. d. 84. a. 85. d. 86. b. 87. c. 88. d. 89. c. 90. b.

412 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 91. c. 92. c. 93. b. 94. b. 95. b. 96. a. 97. b. 98. a. 99. b. 100. c.

CMAT 2003 (Batch 2060)

1. b 2. a. 3. d. 4. d. 5. b. 6. d. 7. b. 8. b. 9. d. 10. c.
11.c. 12.a. 13. b. 14. d. 15. c. 16. d. 17. c. 18. a. 19. b. 20. d.
21. b. 22. c. 23. c. 24. a. 25. b. 26. c. 27. c. 28. c. 29. d. 30. a.
31. b. 32. a. 33. b. 34. b. 35. c. 36. c. 37. c. 38. b. 39. d. 40. c.
41. a. 42. d. 43. c. 44. b. 45. c. 46. c. 47. a. 48. a. 49. d. 50. d.
51. a. 52. a. 53. b. 54. b. 55. d. 56. c. 57. a. 58. c. 59. a. 60. d.
61. b. 62. c. 63. b. 64. c. 65. b. 66. d. 67. d. 68. c. 69. c. 70. a.
71. d. 72. d. 73. d. 74. a. 75. b. 76. b. 77. a. 78. a. 79. a. 80. b.
81. d. 82. c. 83. a. 84. d. 85. b. 86. c. 87. b. 88. a. 89. a. 90. b.
91. d. 92. d 93. d. 94. b. 95. a. 96. b. 97. a. 98. a. 99. a. 100. b.

CMAT 2004 (Batch 2061)

1. c. 2. d. 3. a. 4. b. 5. b. 6. a. 7. c. 8. d. 9. a. 10. c.
11. b. 12. a. 13. c. 14. d. 15. b. 16. c. 17. d. 18. d. 19. a. 20. c.
21. a. 22. c. 23. c. 24. d. 25. a. 26. b. 27. c. 28. a. 29. c. 30. b.
31. c. 32. b. 33. b. 34. b. 35. a. 36. c. 37. a. 38. b. 39. c. 40. c.
41. b. 42. c. 43. a. 44. c. 45. c. 46. b. 47. b. 48. c. 49. c. 50. b.
51. a. 52. b. 53. c. 54. c. 55. b. 56. a. 57. d. 58. c. 59. a. 60. b.
61. d. 62. c. 63. a. 64. b. 65. b. 66. d. 67. a. 68. b. 69. c. 70. c.
71. c. 72. a. 73. c. 74. a. 75. a. 76. c. 77. d. 78. a. 79. a. 80. c.
81. d. 82. c. 83. a. 84. a. 85. d. 86. c. 87. a. 88. b. 89. d. 90. a.
91. d. 92. c. 93. a. 94. d. 95. d. 96. d. 97. c. 98. b. 99. a. 100. b.

CMAT 2005 (Batch 2062)

1. a. 2. b. 3. a. 4. d. 5. c. 6. d. 7. b. 8. a. 9. a. 10. d.
11. a. 12. d. 13. a. 14. d. 15. b. 16. c. 17. a. 18. d. 19. b. 20. c.
21. d. 22. b. 23. c. 24. b. 25. d. 26. c. 27. c. 28. ?. 29. d. 30. b.
31. c. 32. d. 33. a. 34. d. 35. c. 36. d. 37. b. 38. d. 39. c. 40. d.
41. c. 42. b. 43. c. 44. d. 45. c. 46. a. 47. c. 48. b. 49. c. 50. c.
51. c. 52. c. 53. a. 54. b. 55. a. 56. b. 57. a. 58. a. 59. b. 60. a.
61. d. 62. c. 63. a. 64. c. 65. d. 66. d. 67. a. 68. b. 69. b. 70. c.
71. a. 72. a. 73. a. 74. d. 75. d. 76. a. 77. b. 78. d. 79. a. 80. d.
81. c. 82. d. 83. b. 84. b. 85. b. 86. c. 87. b. 88. b. 89. c. 90. a.
91. b. 92. b. 93. a. 94. a. 95. a. 96. b. 97. d. 98. b. 99. c. 100. a.

CMAT 2006 (Batch 2063)

1. a. 2. d. 3. a. 4. c. 5. b. 6. c. 7. c. 8. a. 9. b. 10. d.
11. a. 12. c. 13. c. 14. a. 15. d. 16. c. 17. c. 18. d. 19. a. 20. c.
21. a. 22. d. 23. c. 24. b. 25. c. 26. c. 27. c. 28. b. 29. c. 30. c.
31. c. 32. a. 33. c. 34. a. 35. b. 36. b. 37. a. 38. b. 39. a. 40. b.
41. c. 42. c. 43. c. 44. b. 45. c. 46. a. 47. d. 48. b. 49. ?. 50. a.
51. c. 52. d. 53. d. 54. a. 55. b. 56. a. 57. a. 58. c. 59. d. 60. a.

413 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 61. c. 62. a. 63. c. 64. b. 65. d. 66. b. 67. b. 68. a. 69. a. 70. a.
71. a. 72. c. 73. b. 74. b. 75. d. 76. c. 77. b. 78. d. 79. d. 80. b.
81. d. 82. c. 83. c. 84. a. 85. a. 86. c. 87. d. 88. b. 89. b. 90. b.
91. c. 92. c. 93. a. 94. c. 95. c. 96. b. 97. c. 98. d. 99. d. 100. a.

CMAT 2007 (Batch 2064)

1. c. 2. b. 3. a. 4. c. 5. d. 6. a. 7. b. 8. c. 9. b. 10. c.
11. b. 12. b. 13. c. 14. d. 15. b. 16. d. 17. a. 18. c. 19. c. 20. b.
21. a. 22. c. 23. c. 24. b. 25. d. 26. c. 27. b. 28. c. 29. d. 30. d.
31. a. 32. a. 33. a. 34. c. 35. a. 36. c. 37. a. 38. d. 39. a. 40. b.
41. b. 42. b. 43. d. 44. d. 45. b. 46. b. 47. a. 48. d. 49. b. 50. c.
51. b. 52. b. 53. c. 54. d. 55. c. 56. b. 57. b. 58. d. 59. d. 60. c.
61. c. 62. b. 63. a. 64. c. 65. a. 66. a. 67. b. 68. c. 69. d. 70. b.
71. d. 72. c. 73. c. 74. c. 75. b. 76. c. 77. c. 78. a. 79. b. 80. b.
81. b. 82. d. 83. a. 84. d. 85. c. 86. b. 87. c. 88. c. 89. d. 90. a.
91. a. 92. d. 93. c. 94. a. 95. c. 96. c. 97. a. 98. a. 99. a. 100. c.

CMAT 2008 (Batch 2065)

1. b. 2. b. 3. b. 4. d. 5. b. 6. c. 7. a. 8. d. 9. b. 10. c.
11. b. 12. a. 13. b. 14. b. 15. a. 16. a. 17. d. 18. b. 19. c. 20. a.
21. c. 22. c. 23. d. 24. c. 25. a. 26. d. 27. b. 28. c. 29. d. 30. a.
31. b. 32. d. 33. a. 34. c. 35. b. 36. c. 37. a. 38. a. 39. c. 40. d.
41. c. 42. b. 43. c. 44. b. 45. c. 46. a. 47. d. 48. a. 49. a. 50. c.
51. c. 52. d. 53. d. 54. a. 55.c. 56. c. 57. a. 58. a. 59. b. 60. c.
61. c. 62. b. 63. b. 64. d. 65. d. 66. c. 67. d. 68. b. 69. c. 70. d.
71. b. 72. d. 73. a. 74. d. 75. c. 76. c. 77. b. 78. c. 79. c. 80. d.
81. d 82. a. 83. a. 84. a. 85. a. 86. a. 87. d 88. a. 89. d. 90. b.
91. c 92. c. 93. c. 94. b. 95. d. 96. a. 97. c 98. b. 99. b. 100. b.

CMAT 2009 (Batch 2066)

1. c. 2. a. 3. a. 4. d. 5. c. 6. b. 7. c. 8. d. 9. c. 10. d.
11. b. 12. b. 13. c. 14.c. 15. d. 16. d. 17. b. 18. d. 19. a. 20. c.
21. a. 22. c. 23. c. 24. b. 25. d. 26. a. 27. a. 28. b. 29. a. 30. c.
31. c. 32. d. 33. a. 34. a. 35. c. 36. c. 37. c. 38. b. 39. d. 40. c.
41. d. 42. a. 43. c. 44. b. 45. b. 46. a. 47. a. 48. b. 49. c. 50. c.
51. a. 52. c. 53. c. 54. b. 55. d. 56. c. 57. d. 58. a. 59. d. 60. d.
61. c. 62. d. 63. c. 64. c. 65. d. 66. c. 67. b. 68. d. 69. b. 70. c.
71. a. 72. d. 73. d. 74. c. 75. c. 76. c. 77. d. 78. b. 79. b. 80. c.
81. a. 82. b. 83. a. 84. b. 85. b. 86. b. 87. c. 88. d. 89. c. 90. b.
91. a. 92. c. 93. c. 94. c. 95. a. 96. c. 97. d. 98. c. 99. a. 100. d.

CMAT 2010 (Batch 2067)

1. d. 2. d. 3. c. 4. d. 5. a. 6. a. 7. d. 8. b. 9. a. 10. b.
11. b. 12. d. 13. d. 14. c. 15. b. 16. c. 17. b. 18. d. 19. c. 20. d.
21. c. 22. a. 23. b. 24. b. 25. c. 26. b. 27. a. 28. c. 29. a. 30. b.
414 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 31. d. 32. c. 33. a. 34. b. 35. c. 36. d. 37. a. 38. d. 39. a. 40. b.
41. d. 42. b. 43. c. 44. a. 45. c. 46. b. 47. c. 48. a. 49. d. 50. a.
51. b. 52. a . 53. b. 54. b. 55. d. 56. b. 57. c. 58. c. 59. b. 60. b.
61. c. 62. b. 63. b. 64. c. 65. b. 66. c. 67. a. 68. d. 69. d. 70. a.
71. a. 72. b. 73. d. 74. b. 75. d. 76. d. 77. b. 78. a. 79. a. 80. a.
81. c. 82. c. 83. b. 84. b. 85. b. 86. a. 87. a. 88. c. 89. c. 90. b.
91. a. 92. b. 93. d. 94. a. 95. b. 96. c. 97. d. 98. c. 99. d. 100. d.
CMAT 2011 (Batch 2068)
1. d. 2. d. 3. d. 4. d. 5. a. 6. c. 7. d. 8. b. 9. b. 10. b.
11. b. 12. a. 13. a. 14.c. 15. b. 16. c. 17. b. 18. d. 19. c. 20. c.
21. b. 22. b. 23. b. 24. d. 25. d. 26. b. 27. a. 28. b. 29. d. 30. b.
31. d. 32. c. 33. a. 34. b. 35. d. 36. c. 37. b. 38. a. 39. a. 40. d.
41. d. 42. d. 43. c. 44. a. 45. c. 46. d. 47. c. 48. b. 49. c. 50. c.
51. c 52. d . 53. a. 54. b. 55. a. 56. d. 57. a. 58. d. 59. c. 60. d.
61. b. 62. a. 63. c. 64. b. 65. a. 66. b. 67. b. 68. a. 69. c. 70. d.
71. a. 72. b. 73. c. 74. c. 75. d. 76. b. 77. b. 78. a. 79. a. 80. a.
81. b. 82. d. 83. b. 84. c. 85. c. 86. a. 87. c. 88. b. 89. c. 90. a.
91. d. 92. b. 93. b. 94. c. 95. a. 96. c. 97. d. 98. a. 99. b. 100. a.

CMAT 2012 (Batch 2069)

1. c. 2. c. 3. a. 4. c 5. a. 6. d 7. c 8. b 9. a. 10. b.
11. b. 12. b. 13. a. 14. b. 15. a. 16. a. 17. b. 18. c. 19. d. 20. a.
21. c. 22. b. 23. d. 24. b. 25. a. 26. b. 27. c. 28. a. 29. b. 30. d.
31. b. 32. d. 33. a. 34. b. 35. c. 36. d. 37. d. 38. a. 39. b. 40. a.
41. c. 42. b. 43. d. 44. b. 45. c. 46. d. 47. a. 48. c. 49. b. 50. d.
51. b. 52. a. 53. c. 54. b 55. a. 56. c. 57. b. 58. b. 59. d. 60. d.
61. d. 62. c. 63. c. 64. d. 65. d. 66. c. 67. b. 68. d. 69. a. 70. d.
71. a. 72. d. 73. a. 74. c. 75. c. 76. a. 77. a. 78. d. 79. a. 80. a.
81. b. 82. a. 83. d. 84. a. 85. a. 86. c. 87. d. 88. b. 89. d. 90. c.
91. c. 92. c. 93. b. 94. a. 95. b. 96. c. 97. d. 98. c. 99. d. 100. d.

CMAT 2013 (Batch 2070)

1. a. 2. c. 3. a. 4. d. 5. d. 6. d. 7. c. 8. d. 9. c. 10. c.
11. c. 12. d. 13. c 14. d. 15. b. 16. d 17. a. 18. b. 19. b. 20. b.
21. c. 22. c. 23. a 24. b. 25. c. 26. a 27. c. 28. d. 29. a. 30. a.
31. c. 32. a. 33. b 34. d. 35. a. 36. b 37. b. 38. a. 39. c. 40. d.
41. a. 42. c. 43. a 44. b. 45. d. 46. a 47. a. 48. b. 49.b. 50. a.
51. a. 52. c. 53. b 54. b. 55. a. 56. c 57. c. 58. a. 59. a. 60. c.
61. a. 62. d. 63. a 64. b. 65. c. 66. a 67. d. 68. b. 69. d. 70. c.
71. d 72. a. 73. a 74. c. 75. a. 76. b 77. b. 78. c. 79. b. 80. b.
81. d 82. b. 83. d 84. b. 85. d. 86.? 87. d. 88. b. 89. d. 90. d.
91. d 92. b. 93. a 94. a. 95. a. 96. d 97. a. 98. a. 99. a. 100. b.

CMAT 2014 (Batch 2071)

1. d. 2. a. 3. b. 4. a. 5. d. 6. c. 7. d. 8. b. 9. a. 10. b.
11. b. 12. c. 13. a. 14. b. 15. b. 16. b. 17. a. 18. b. 19. c. 20. c.
415 A Complete Solution For CMAT
 21. d. 22. d. 23. b. 24. a. 25. d. 26. d. 27. c. 28. a. 29. a. 30. c
31. c. 32. a. 33. c. 34. a. 35. c. 36. a. 37. b. 38. b. 39. c. 40. a.
41. d. 42. d. 43. d 44. b. 45. a. 46. b. 47. a. 48. a. 49. c. 50. d.
51. c. 52. d 53. c. 54. a. 55. d. 56. b. 57. a. 58. c. 59. d. 60. b.
61. a. 62. c. 63. d. 64. d. 65. c. 66. e. 67. b. 68. a. 69. d. 70. c.
71. a. 72. c. 73. c. 74. d. 75. c. 76. b. 77. a. 78. c. 79. b. 80. c.
81. a. 82.b. 83. d. 84. a. 85. d. 86. a. 87. c. 88. b. 89. c. 90. d.
91. d. 92.b. 93. d. 94. c. 95. b. 96. a. 97. c. 98. a. 99. d. 100. b.

CMAT 2015 (Batch 2072)

1. b. 2. c 3. c. 4. a. 5. d. 6. a. 7. a. 8. d. 9. c. 10. d.
11. c. 12. a. 13. a. 14. d. 15. a. 16. b. 17. b. 18. d. 19. a. 20. c.
21. d. 22. a. 23. c. 24. b. 25. c. 26. b. 27. c. 28. d. 29. b. 30. d.
31. c. 32. b. 33. c. 34. c. 35. d. 36. d. 37. d. 38. c. 39. c. 40. d.
41. d. 42. d. 43. b. 44. c. 45. d. 46. d. 47. c. 48. c. 49. b. 50. d.
51. c. 52. d. 53. d. 54. c. 55. b. 56. b. 57. c. 58. d. 59. b. 60. c.
61. d. 62. c. 63. a. 64. d. 65. c. 66. a. 67. b. 68. a. 69. a. 70. c.
71. a. 72. c. 73. d. 74. c. 75. c. 76. b. 77. c. 78. b. 79. a. 80. c.
81. b. 82. d. 83. b. 84. d. 85. c. 86. a. 87. b. 88. b. 89. a. 90. b.
91. d. 92. b. 93. a. 94. d. 95. b. 96. d. 97. b. 98. a. 99. d. 100. c.

CMAT 2016 (Batch 2073)

1. c. 2. c 3. d. 4. a. 5. d. 6. a. 7. a. 8. d. 9. c. 10. b.
11. b. 12. d. 13. a. 14. c. 15. c. 16. c. 17. a. 18. d. 19. d. 20. b.
21. d. 22. b. 23. c. 24. c. 25. a. 26. c. 27. c. 28. a. 29. b . 30. d.
31. c. 32. d. 33. c. 34. d. 35. c. 36. d. 37. c. 38. a. 39. b. 40. c.
41. d. 42. c. 43. c. 44. c. 45. d. 46. a. 47. b. 48. c. 49. b. 50. d.
51. a. 52. c. 53. c. 54. c. 55. b. 56. a. 57. d. 58. c. 59. b. 60. a.
61. b. 62. a. 63. b. 64. c. 65. c. 66. a. 67. b. 68. c. 69. c. 70. d.
71. a. 72. c. 73. c. 74. d. 75. c. 76. a. 77. d. 78. b. 79. d. 80. b.
81. c. 82. a. 83. c. 84. c. 85. d. 86. b. 87. d. 88. a. 89. b. 90. a.
91. b. 92. b. 93. d. 94. b. 95. b. 96. d. 97. b. 98. b. 99. c. 100. c.

CMAT 2017 (Batch 2074)

1. d. 2. c 3. b. 4. b. 5. a. 6. a. 7. a. 8. d. 9. c. 10. b.
11. c. 12. d. 13. a. 14. c. 15. b. 16. c. 17. a. 18. d. 19. c. 20. b.
21. c. 22. a. 23. d. 24. b. 25. b. 26. c. 27. c. 28. a. 29. b . 30. d.
31. c. 32. d. 33. a. 34. b. 35. c. 36. d. 37. c. 38. a. 39. b. 40. c.
41. d. 42. c. 43. c. 44. a. 45. b. 46. a. 47. b. 48. c. 49. b. 50. d.
51. b. 52. a. 53. d. 54. c. 55. ---. 56. a. 57. c. 58. d. 59. b. 60. c.
61. a. 62. c. 63. c. 64. d. 65. d. 66. d. 67. b. 68. --. 69. ---. 70. ---.
71. a. 72. c. 73. c. 74. --. 75. c. 76. c. 77. b. 78. c. 79. b. 80. a.
81. d. 82. c. 83. b. 84. d. 85. c. 86. a. 87. b. 88. c. 89. a. 90. b.
91. d. 92. b. 93. a. 94. a. 95. b. 96. d. 97. a. 98. c. 99. a. 100. c.

CMAT 2018 (Batch 2075)

416 A Complete Solution For CMAT

 1. a. 2. b. 3. b. 4. c. 5. b. 6. d. 7. a. 8. c. 9. a. 10. c.
11. b. 12. d. 13. d. 14. a. 15. d. 16. d. 17. c. 18. d. 19. a. 20. b.
21. d. 22. a. 23. . 24. 25. 26. b. 27. c. 28. b. 29. d. 30. a.
31. b. 32. c. 33. b. 34. c. 35. b. 36. a. 37. d. 38. a. 39. d. 40.
41. c. 42. c. 43. c. 44. b. 45. a. 46. d. 47. d. 48. d. 49. b. 50. d.
51. c. 52. b. 53. d. 54. c. 55. d. 56. b. 57. a. 58. c. 59. a. 60. c.
61. d. 62. a. 63. c. 64. d. 65. b. 66. c. 67. c. 68. c. 69. a. 70. d.
71. b. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. b. 77. c. 78. b. 79. b. 80. c.
81. b. 82. a. 83. d. 84. a. 85. c. 86. b. 87. a. 88. d. 89. c. 90. b.
91. a. 92. b. 93. a. 84. b. 95. b. 96. d. 97. a. 98. c. 99. a. 100. d.

417 A Complete Solution For CMAT