Question Bank of A

N
Mathematical FoundationCA-1.4(254104) S
1) An ordered collection of objects are called ______ B
A.Relation
B.Set
C.Function
D.Proposition

2) A set is collection of ordered _________. D

A. Elements
B. Numbers
C. Objects
D. All of the above

3) The set ‘A’ of odd positive numbers less than 10 can show by ______ D
A.{1, 2, 3}
B.{1, 5, 7, 9, 11}
C.{1, 2, 5, 9}
D.{1, 3, 5, 7, 9}

4) What is the Cartesian product of A = {1, 2} and B = {a, c}? A

A.{(1, a), (1, c), (2, a), (d, c)}
B.{(1, 1), (2, 2), (a, a), (d, d)}
C.{(1, a), (2, a), (1, c), (2, d)}
D.{(1, 1), (a, a), (2, a), (1, c)}
5) The Cartesian Product B x A is equal to the Cartesian product A x B. B
A.True
B.False
6) What is the cardinality of the set of odd positive integers less than 10? B
A. 10
B. 5
C. 3
D. 20

1 P.T.O.
7) Which of the following two sets are equal? C
A. A = {1, 2} and B = {1}
B. A = {1, 2} and B = {1, 2, 3}
C. A = {1, 2, 3} and B = {2, 1, 3}
D. A = {1, 2, 4} and B = {1, 2, 3}

8) The set {0, 1, 2} having Cardinality of the Power set? C

A.7
B.6
C.8
D.9
9) The members of the set S = {x | x is the cube of an integer and x < 10} is ___________ C
A. 1 8 10
B. 1 4 9
C. 1 8
D. None of the above
10) The members of the set S = {x | x is the square of an integer and x < 100} is B
________________
A.{0, 2, 4, 5, 9, 58, 49, 56, 99, 12}
B.{0, 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81}
C.{1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 64, 81, 85, 99}
D.{0, 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 121}
11) The union of the sets {11, 12, 15} and {11, 12, 16} is the set _______________ B
A.{11, 12, 16,}
B.{11, 12, 15, 16}
C.{11, 12, 11}
D.{11, 15, 16, 13}

12) The intersection of the sets {1, 2, 5,6} and { 2,3,4,5 6} is the set _____________ C
A.{1, 2 , 4}
B.{3, 5, 6}
C.{2, 5 ,6 }
D.{1,2,3,4,5, 6}

2
13) Two sets are called disjoint if there _____________ is the empty set. C
A.Union
B.Difference
C.Intersection
D.Complement

14) The difference of the B-A, where A= {1, 2, 3, 4} and B= {1, 2, 4, 5} is? B
A.{1}
B.{5}
C.{3}
D.{2}
15) What is complement of the set A _______ C
A.A – B
B.U – A
C.A – U
D.B – A
16) Which is the symbol for null set ? D
A. Ʃ
B. µ
C. ˄
D. ᶲ
17) Let Ai = {i, i+1, i+2, …..}. Then set {n, n+1, n+2, n+3, …..} is the _________ of the set B
Ai.
A.Union
B.Intersection
C.Set Difference
D.Disjoint

18) In this diagram A and B are------ C

A B

A. Equal sets
B. Overlapping sets
C. Disjoint sets
D. None

3 P.T.O.
19) In this diagram A and B are------ D

A B

A. Equal sets
B. Disjoint sets
C. Both A & B
D. None
20) Complement of a set B in denoted by A
A. B'
B. B °
C. {B}
D. B²

21) What is the set difference of set A with null set is __________ A
A.A
B.null
C.U
D.B

22) Let the set A is {1, 2, 3} and B is {2, 3, 4 ,8}. Then the total number of elements in (A U B
B) is?
A.4
B.5
C.6
D.7

23) Let the set A is {1, 2 } and B is {2, 3, 5 }. Then the total number of elements in (A ∩ B) A
is?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4

24) Let A be set of all prime numbers, B be the set of all even prime numbers, C be the set of D
all odd prime numbers, then which of the following is true?
A.A ≡ B U C
B.B is a singleton set.
C.A ≡ C U {2}
D.All of the mentioned

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25) If A has 3 elements B has 7 elements then the minimum and maximum number of B
elements in A U B are ____________
A.3, 7
B.7, 10
C.3, 10
D.None of the mentioned

26) Two sets A and B contains ‘a’ and ‘b’ elements respectively. If power set of A contains 16 A
more elements than that of B, value of ‘b’ and ‘a’ are _______
A.4, 5
B.6, 7
C.2, 3
D.None of the mentioned

27) Let A be {11, 22, 23, 44}, U be set of all natural numbers, then U-A’(complement of A.is C
given by set.
A.{11,22,33, 44, 55, 66, ….}
B.{55, 66, 77, 88, 99, ……}
C.{11, 22, 33, 44 }
D.All of the mentioned
Answer: c
28) Which sets are not empty? D
A.{x: x is a even prime greater than 3}
B.{x : x is a multiple of 2 and is odd}
C.{x: x is an even number and x+3 is even}
D.{ x: x is a prime number less than 5 and is odd}

29) In a disjunction, even if one of the statements is false, the whole disjunction is still... C
A. False
B. Negated
C. True
D. Both true and false

5 P.T.O.
30) Consider the statement form p ⇒ q where p = “If Ram is Puja’s father then Puja isniece” B
and q = “Shyam is Ram’s brother.” Which of the following statements is equivalent to this
statement?
A.If Shyam is Ram’s Brother, then Ram is Puja’s father and Puja is not Shyam’sniece.
B. If Shyam is not Ram’s Brother, then Ram is Puja’s father and Puja is not Shyam’s
niece.
C.If Shyam is not Ram’s Brother, then Ram is Puja’s father or Puja is Shyam’s niece.
D.If Shyam is Ram’s Brother, then Ram is Puja’s father and Puja is Shyam’s niece.

31) The compound propositions p and q are called logically equivalent if ________ is a A
tautology.
A. p ↔ q
B. p → q
C. ¬ (p ∨ q)
D. ¬p ∨ ¬q

32) p ∨ q is logically equivalent to ________ D

A.¬q → ¬p
B.q → p
C.¬p → ¬q
D.¬p → q

33) ¬ (p ↔ q) is logically equivalent to ________ B

A.q↔p
B.p↔¬q
C.¬p↔¬q
D.¬q↔¬p
34) p ∧ q is logically equivalent to ________ A
A.¬ (p → ¬q)
B.(p → ¬q)
C.(¬p → ¬q)
D.(¬p → q)

35) Which of the following statement is correct? D

A.p ∨ q ≡ q ∨ p
B.¬(p ∧ q) ≡ ¬p ∨ ¬q
C.(p ∨ q) ∨ r ≡ p ∨ (q ∨ r)
D.All of mentioned

36) p ↔ q is logically equivalent to ________ C

A.(p → q) → (q → p)
B.(p → q) ∨ (q → p)
C.(p → q) ∧ (q → p)
D.(p ∧ q) → (q ∧ p)

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37) (p → q) ∧ (p → r) is logically equivalent to ________ A
A.p → (q ∧ r)
B.p → (q ∨ r)
C.p ∧ (q ∨ r)
D.p ∨ (q ∧ r)

38) P → (Q → R) is equivalent to A
a)(P ^Q)-> R
b)(P v Q)->R
c)(P v Q)-> ˥R
d)None of these

39) ¬ (p ↔ q) is logically equivalent to ________ A

A.p ↔ ¬q
B.¬p ↔ q
C.¬p ↔ ¬q
D.¬q ↔ ¬p
40) Let P (x) denote the statement “x >5.” Which of these have truth value true? B
A.P (0)
B.P (6)
C.P (2)
D.P (1)

41) Let Q(x) be the statement “x < 5.” What is the truth value of the quantification ∀xQ(x), B
having domains as real numbers.
A. True
B. False

42) Determine the truth value of ∀n(n + 1 > n) if the domain consists of all real numbers. A
A.True
B.False
43) A biconditional is symbolized like this… B
A. pvq
B. p↔ q
C. p*q
D. p˄q
44) Let R (x) denote the statement “x > 2.” What is the truth value of the quantification A
∃xR(x), having domain as real numbers?
A.True
B.False

7 P.T.O.
45) The symbolization for a conjunction is... B
A. p → q
B. p ˄ q
C. p v q
D. ~ p
46) In a truth table for a two-variable argument, the first guide column has the following truth A
values:
A. T, T, F, F
B. F, F, T, T
C. T, F, T, F
D. T, F, F, F

47) Which of the following are tautologies? D

A. ((P v Q) ^ Q) ↔ Q
B. ((P v Q) ^ ˥P) → Q
C. ((P v Q) ^ P) → P
D. Both (a) & (b)
48) Which of the following propositions is tautology? C
A. (p v q)→q
B. p v (q→p)
C. p v (p→q).
D. Both (b) & (c)
49) Which of the proposition is p^ (~ p v q) is C
A. A tautology
B. A contradiction
C. Logically equivalent to p ^ q
D. All of above

50) ”Everyone wants to learn cosmology.” This argument may be true for which domains? C
A.All students in your cosmology class
B.All the cosmology learning students in the world
C.Both of the mentioned
D.None of the mentioned
51) Number of ways in which 7 girls & 7 boys can be arranged such that no two boys and no C
two girls are together is
A. 12!(2!)2
B. 7! 8!
C. 2(7!)2
D. None of these

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52) A _______ is an arrangement of outcomes in which the order does not matter A
A. Permutation
B. Combination
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
53) How many substrings (of all lengths inclusive) can be formed from a character string of D
length 8? (Assume all characters to be distinct)
A.14
B.21
C.54
D.37

54) A _______ is a grouping of outcomes in which the order does not matter B
E. Permutation
F. Combination
G. Both A & B
H. None of the above
55) What is formula of Combinations? B
A. nCr= n!/ (n-r)!
B. nCr = n!/ r! (n-r)!
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

56) Let M be a sequence of 9 distinct integers sorted in ascending order. How many distinct A
pairs of sequences, N and O are there such that i) each are sorted in ascending order, ii) N
has 5 and O has 4 elements, and iii) the result of merging N and O gives that sequence?
A.84
B.35
C.194
D.138

57) The number of ordered triplets (a, b, c), a, b, c Є N, such that a + b + c <= 20 is D
A. Less than 100
B. Less than 1000
C. Equal to 1000
D. More than 1000
58) A polygon has 44 diagonals. The number of its sides is B
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13

9 P.T.O.
59) The number of ways in which a mixed doubles tennis game can be arranged between 10 A
players consisting of 6 men and 4 women is
A. 180
B. 90
C. 48
D. 12
60) The number of zeroes at the end of (127)! is A
A. 31
B. 30
C. 0
D. 10
61) Matrix obtained by changing rows and columns is called B
A. rectangular matrix
B. transpose
C. symmetric
D. none
62) Generally the elements of a matrix are denoted by D
A. numbers
B. capital letters
C. small letters
D. both A and C
63) A symmetric matrix is a one in which? C
A.All diagonal elements are zero
B.All diagonal elements are 1
C.A = AT
D.A = -AT

64) An anti-symmetric matrix is a one in which? D

A.All diagonal elements are zero
B.All diagonal elements are 1
C.A = AT
D.A = -AT
65) B

66) If for a square matrix A and B,null matrix O, AB = O implies A=O and B=O. B
A.True
B.False

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67) B

68) If matrix M= [ 1 3 6 5 ] and MT (M transpose) is called C

A. Zero matrix
B. Diagonal matrix
C. Column matrix
D. Row matrix
69) For a skew symmetric odd ordered matrix A of integers, which of the following will hold C
true?
A.detA.= 9
B.detA.= 81
C.detA.= 0
D.detA.= 4
70) The Inverse exist only for non-singular matrices. A
A.True
B.False
71) If matrix M= 4 10 then determinant of matrix M C
2 5
A. 1
B. -1
C. 0
D. 10

72) If A is a lower triangular matrix then AT is a _________ B

A.Lower triangular matrix
B.Upper triangular matrix
C.Null matrix
D.None of the mentioned

11 P.T.O.
73) The functions expressed in form of ratios and form of quotient of polynomials are A
A. rational functions
B. irrational functions
C. quotient function
D. ratio function

74) An onto function are known as injection. B

A.True
B.False

75) A function is a relation from a set of inputs to a set of possible outputs where each input is
related to exactly one output is called.
A. One to one function
B. One to many function
C. Many to one function
D. Many to many function
76) function is a relation from a set of inputs to a set of possible outputs where each input is
related to exactly one output is called.
A. One to one function
B. One to many function
C. Many to one function
D. Many to many function

77) If X is domain and Y is codomain then function represented

A. f : XY
B. f : YX
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
78) Domain of function also called___ B
A. Output of function
B. Input of function
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
79) Range of function also called___ A
A. Output of function
B. Input of function
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

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80) May possibly come out of a function is called the B
A. Domain
B. Codomain
C. Range
D. None of the above

81) Actually comes out of a function is called the Range C

A. Domain
B. Codomain
C. Range
D. None of the above
82) f=cos(x)is which kind of function A
A. Even Function
B. Odd Function
C. Composite Function.
D. None of the above
83) f(x) = x/(x2−1) B
A. Even Function
B. Odd Function
C. Composite Function.
D. None of the above
84) f(x) = axis which of the following is A
A. Exponential Function
B. Rational Function
C. Linear Function
D. None of the above

85) Function having same range as well as domain C

A. Exponential Function
B. Rational Function
C. Identity Function
D. None of the above
86) is a function whose (output) value is the same for every input value A
A. Constant function
B. Rational Function
C. Identity Function
D. Exponential Function
87) If f(x)=4x2-2x+5 then f(2)=? B
A. 7
B. 17
C. 27
D. 37

13 P.T.O.
88) The Cartesian system is also called as B
A.Circular coordinate system
B. Rectangular coordinate system
C. Spherical coordinate system
D. Space coordinate system

89) If 2x+y=20 , x+y=10 then values of x & y are C

A. 5,5
B. 10,5
C. 10,0
D. 0,10
90) The scalar factor of Cartesian system is unity. State True/False. A
A.True
B.False

91) Which of the following criteria is used to choose a coordinate system? D

A.Distance
B.Intensity
C.Magnitude
D.Geometry
92) The distance of the point P(-2, 6) from the x-axis is B
A.2
B.-2
C.6
D.-6

93) If the coordinates of a point are (10, 0), then it lies in: B
A. X-axis
B. Y-axis
C. At origin
D. Between x-axis and y-axis

94) If the coordinates of a point are (0, -4), then line parallel to : A
A. X-axis
B. Y-axis
C. At origin
D. Between x-axis and y-axis
95) If y coordinate of a point is zero, then the point lies on: D
A. First quadrant
B. Second quadrant
C. X-axis
D. Y-axis

96) The point P in Cartesian plane is located by an ordered pair called C

A. (c, b, a)
B. (a, b, c)
C. (a, b)
D. (b, a)
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97) Consider equation x+5y =10 if x=0 then y=? C
A. 5
B. 10
C. 2
D. 8
98) Consider equation 4x+2y =10 if x=1 then y=? B
A. 6
B. 3
C. 2
D. 7
99) The point A(-5,5) is belongs to which Quadrants? C
A. Ist Quadrant
B. IInd Quadrant
C. IIIrd Quadrant
D. IVth Quadrant
100) If value of x is negative and y is negative then it lies on _ C
A. Ist Quadrant
B. IInd Quadrant
C. IIIrd Quadrant
D. IVth Quadrant

**********

15 P.T.O.
 Question Bank of A
N
CA-1.5 Essentials of Web Design(254105) S

1) A program in HTML can be rendered and read by - A

A) Web browserB) ServerC) InterpreterD) None of the above
2) Gif And Jpg Are The Two Main Types Of What? B
A) Videos B) Images
C) None Of The Above D) Animated Effects

3) HTML tags are surrounded by __________ brackets. C

A) Square B) Round
C) Angle D) Curly
4) Which attribute sets the text direction as related to lang attribute? B
A) Sub B) Lang C) Dir D) DS
5) Which of the following selector matches an element based on its id? A
A) The Id Selector B) The Universal Selector
C) The Descendant Selector D) The Class Selector
6) In HTML, how many headings are defined? C
A) h1 to h4 B) h1 to h5 C) h1 to h6 D) h1 to h9

7) From which tag descriptive list starts? C

A) <LL> B) <DD>
C) <DL> D) <DS>

8) Which of the following tag is used to define options in a drop-down selection list? D
A) <select> B) <list>
C) <dropdown> D) <option>
9) How can you open a link in a new browser window? B
A) < a href = "url" target = "new">
B) <a href = "url" target= "_blank">
C) <a href = "url".new>
D) <a href = "url" target ="open">

1 P.T.O.
10) Select the correct HTML syntax for creating a text area? C
A) <input type="textarea">
B) <input type="textbox">
C) <textarea>
D) None of the above
11) Which tag inserts a line horizontally on web page? A
A) < hr > B) <Line> C) < line irection "Horizontal"> D) <tr>

12) How to insert an image in HTML? D

A) <imghref = "img.png" /> B) <imgurl = " img.png" />
C) <img link = " img.png" /> D) <imgsrc = " img.png" />

13) Which HTML tag is used to define an internal style sheet? A

A ) <style> B) <css> C) <script> D) <link>

14) Which attribute is used to start a video automatically? D

A) submit
B) select
C) <video>
D) autoplay
15) Which HTML tag is used to display the power in expression, i.e., (x2 - y2)? A
A) <sup> B) <sub>
C) <p> D) None of the above

16) Which of the following element is responsible for making the text italic in HTML? A
A) <i> B) <italic> C) <it> D) <pre>

17) Apart from <b> tag, what other tag makes text bold ? B
A) <fat> B) <strong>
C) <black> D) <emp>
18) which of the following tag is used to mark a begining of paragraph ? C
A) <TD> B) <br> C) <P> D) <TR>

2
19) Which is the correct way to comment out something in HTML? B
A) Using ## and #B) Using <!-- and -->
C) Using </-- and -/->D) Using <!-- and -!>

20) Correct HTML tag for the largest heading is C

A) <head> B) <h6> C) <h1> D) <heading>
21) Which tag creates a Textbox for a form in HTML ? B
A) <textbox> B) <input type= "text"> C)<input=textbox> D) <input textbox>

22) How can you make a Bulleted list ? D

A) <dl> B) <ol> C) <list> D) <ul>

23) The correct sequence of HTML tags for starting a webpage is - D

A) Head, Title, HTML, bodyB) HTML, Body, Title, Head
C) HTML, Title, Body, HeadD) HTML, Head, Title, Body
24) HTML is considered as _________ language C
A) OOP Language
B) Higher Level Language
C) Markup Language
D) Programming lang
25) Web pages starts with which of the following tag? B
A) <Body> B) <HTML>
C) <Title> D) <Form>

26) Which of the following tag is used to make the underlined text? C
A) <i> B) <ul> C) <u> D) <pre>

27) Which CSS property is used to control the text size of an element ? A
A) font-size B) text-size C) font-style D) text-style
28) Markup tags tell the web browser B

A) How to organise the page

B) How to display the page
C) How to display message box on page
D) None of these

3 P.T.O.
29) Which of the following is used to merge rows in the table? C
A) colB) colspanC) rowspanD) row
30) What is the correct HTML tag for inserting a line break ? B
A) <lb> B) <br> C) <break> D) <newline>
31) In HTML5, which of the following tag is used to initialize the document type? D
A) <Doctype HTML>B) <\Doctype html>
C) <Doctype>D) <!DOCTYPE html>

32) Which of the following element is responsible for making the text bold in HTML? C
A) <pre> B) <a> C) <b> D) <br>

33) Which of the tag is used to creates a number list? B

A) <LI>B) <OL>C) <UL>D) None of these

34) Which tags can be used to display the audio and video? C
A) <audio>
B) <video>
C) both A) & B)
D) none of the above

35) How to create a checkbox in HTML? A

A) <input type = "checkbox"> B) <input type = "button">
C) <checkbox> D) <input type = "check">
36) Correct HTML tag for the smallest heading is B
A) <head> B) <h6> C) <h1> D) <heading>
37) HTML supports C
A) ordered lists B) unordered lists
C) both type of lists D) does not support list

38) The attribute of <form> tag C

A) Method B) Action
C) Both A) & B) D) None of these

4
39) What Tag Is used To add an image to HTML Page? B
A) Picture B) Img
C) Src D) Image

40) HTML tags are enclosed in- D

A) # and # B) { and }
C) !and ? D) < and >

41) Which of the following attributes of text box control allow to limit the maximum C
character?
A) size B) len C) maxlength D) all of these

42) What is the correct HTML for adding a background color? C

A) <background>yellow<Background>
B) <body color = "yellow">
C) <body bgcolor = "yellow">
D) <body bg ="yellow">
43) The <hr> tag in HTML is used for - D
A) new line B) vertical ruler
C) new paragraph D) horizontal ruler

44) Which of the following is the correct way to create a list using the lowercase letters? B
A) <ol alpha = "a" >
B) <ol type = "a">
C) <ol letter = "a">
D) None of the above

45) Which of the following tag is used to add rows in the table? C
A) <td> and </td>
B) <th> and </th>
C) <tr> and </tr>
D) None of the above

5 P.T.O.
46) Which of the following is used to merge columns in the table? B
A) col
B) colspan
C) rowspan
D) row
47) Which of the following attribute is used to provide a unique name to an element? B
A) class B) id
C) type D) None of the above

48) Which attribute is used to define inline css C

A) script B) action C) style D) form

49) Which of the following tag is used to add column headings in the table? B
A) <td> and </td>
B) <th> and </th>
C) <tr> and </tr>
D) None of the above
50) Main container for <TR>, <TD> and <TH> is A
A) <TABLE> B) <GROUP>
C) <DATA> D) All of these

51) What are the types of unordered or bulleted list in HTML? C

A) disc, square, triangle B) polygon, triangle, circle
C) disc, circle, square D) All of the above

52) How can you make an e-mail link? B

A) <mail href +"[email protected]">

B) <a href ="mail to: [email protected]">
C) <a href = "[email protected]">
D) Both (B) and (C)

53) Which of the following tag is used to create a drop-down list? A

A) <select> B) <list>
C) <dropdown> D) <option>

6
54) Correct HTML to left align the content inside a table cell is C
A) <tdleft> B) <td raligh = "left" >
C) <td align = "left"> D) <td leftalign>

55) Which of the following is the correct way to start an ordered list with the count of D
numeric value 4?
A) <ol type = "1" initial = "4">
B) <ol type = "1" begin = "4">
C) <ol type = "1" num = "4">
D) <ol type = "1" start = "4">

56) There are ____ different of heading tags in HTML C

A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7

57) How can you created rounded corners using CSS3? C

A) border[round]: 30px;
B) corner-effect: round;
C) border-radius: 30px;
D) alpha-effect: round-corner;

58) Which of the following tag is used to add column in the table? A
A) <td> and </td>
B) <th> and </th>
C) <tr> and </tr>
D) None of the above
59) An HTML program is saved by using the ____ extension. B
A) .ht
B) .html
C) .hml
D) None of the above
60) Which of the following is an attribute of <Table> tag? C
A) SRC
B) LINK
C) CELLPADDING
D) BOLD

7 P.T.O.
61) Which of the following is not a valid CSS unit? C
A) ptB) pxC) pixD) cm
62) The body tag usually used after B
A) Title tag B) HEAD tag
C) EM tag D) FORM tag
63) Increasing Cell padding means?
A) increase softness of your site
B) increase space between cell
C) increase the distance between cell and content
D) none of the above

64) The tags in HTML are - C

A) case-sensitive
B) in upper case
C) not case sensitive
D) in lowercase
65) Which of the following is the root tag of the HTML document? D
A) <body>B) <head>C) <title>D) <html>
66) Which Of The Following Is A Declaration For An HTML Document? B
A) <html>.....</html>
B) <!DOCTYPE Html>
C) <body>.....</body>
D) <p>.....</p>
67) B
In css what does “font-size” can be called as

A) SelectorB) Property-Name C) Value D) Tag

8
68) HTML Links Are Defined With <a> Tag And Address Is Specified By Attribute A
A) Href
B) Hlink
C) Src
D) Src-link
69) Which of the following is / are the state of the links in CSS? D
A) a:visited
B) a:hover
C) a:active
D) All of the above.

70) Which element of the text type shows that it is important? D

A) <strong>
B) <em>
C) <sup>
D) Both A) & B)

71) Which attribute is use to merge two cells horizontally? B

A) merge B) colspan C) rowspan D) horizontal

72) What does CSS stand for? C

A) Creative Style Sheets B) Colorful Style Sheets
C) Cascading Style Sheets D) Computer Style Sheets
73) Pick the odd one out. D
A) Table B) TR C) TD D) TS
74) Which of the following attributes is used to open a hyperlink in new tab? C
A) tab B) href C) target D) ref
75) Which property is used in css to change the background color? A
A) background-color B) color C)bgcolor D)back-color

9 P.T.O.
76) What does vlink attribute mean? A
A) visited link
B) virtual link
C) very good link
D) active link

77) Which of the following is a correct character entity for "copyright" symbol? A
A) &copy;
B) Ccopy;
C) &copyright;
D) &c;
78) Which of the following is an attribute related to font tag? D
A) size B) face C) color D) All of the above
79) If we want to use a nice looking green dotted border around an image, which css property C
will we use?
A) border-color B) border-decoration
C) border-style D) border-line

80) When we write <imgsrc="img.png">, what "img.png" inside double quote implies? C
A) element B) attribute
C) value D) operator

81) The default value of "position" attribute is _________. D

A) fixed B) absolute
C) inherit D) relative
82) Which of the following property sets the width of an element’s complete border?
A) border-width B) width
C) border-depth D) none of the above

83) In CSS what does H1 can be called as ? A

A) Selector
B) Attribute
C) Value
D) Tag

10
84) If we want define style for an unique element, then which css selector will we use ? A
A) Id B) text C) class D) name
85) _________ selectors, which are used to specify a group of elements B
A) id B) class C) tag D) None of the above
86) Where in an HTML document is the correct place to refer to an external stylesheet? A
A) <head> B)Body C) <form> D) <script>
87) Which tag is used to define internal style sheet C
A) <script > B) <head> C) <style> D) <form>
88) Which tag supports CSS code between its opening and closing tag? C
A) < div > ... < /div >
B) <css> ... < /css>
C) < style > ... < /style >
D) < link > ... < /link >

89) As a general rule, properties in CSS inherit from ___________ elements B

A) child to parent B) parent to child
C) grandparents to parents D) none of the above

90) Which CSS property lets you adjust the size of the text? B
A) text-size
B) font-size
C) display-size
D) None of the given.
91) Which of the following selector matches all elements of a type? B
A) The Type Selector
B) The Universal Selector
C) The Descendant Selector
D) The Class Selector
92) How can you make a bulleted list with numbers? D
A) <dl> B) <ul> C) <list> D. <ol>

11 P.T.O.
93) Which of the attribute is used to add video controls like play , pause and volume in video B
A) autoplay B) Controls C) Video Ctrl D) Play
94) Which of the following property is used to control the space between the border and C
content in a table?
A) border B) margin C) padding D) resize
95) Which of the following uses of the tag is correct? A
A) < link rel="stylesheet" href="css/my_styles.css" >
B) < link rel="stylesheet" src="css/my_styles.css" >
C) < link rel="css" >
D) < link href="css/my_styles.css" >
96) What is CSS? C
A) Used to customize a page for each user
B) A subset of HTML
C) Used to control what a page looks like
D) None of the given.

97) Which CSS property allows you to control the spacing between html items? C
A) spacingB) paddingC) marginD) None of the given.

98) If you wanted to move a banner to the right instead of the left, which of these would you B
set?
A )margin-bottom: B) margin-left: C) margin-top: D) margin-right:
99) HTML stands for? A
A) Hyper Text Markup Language
B) High Text Markup Language
C) Hyper Tabular Markup Language
D) None of these

100) Which character is used to represent the closing of a tag in HTML? C

A) \ B) ! C) / D) *

**********

12
 Question Bank of A
N
CA-5.1 Web UI Design(254501) S

1) How to get a particular value using the tagged name? C

A)getElementbyID()
B)getElementsbyName()
C)getElementsbyTagName()
D)getTagName()

2) Which company developed JavaScript? B

A) Bell Labs
B) Netscape
C) Sun Microsystems
D) IBM

3) What are the types of Pop up boxes available in JavaScript? D

A) AlertB) PromptC) ConfirmD) All of the above

4) Choose the correct JavaScript syntax to change the content of the following HTML code. C
A)document.getElement (“test").innerHTML = "I am a test";
B)document.getId (“test") = "I am a test";
C)document.getElementById (“test").innerHTML = "I am a test";
D)documents.getElementByIds (“test").innerHTML = I am a test;
5) JavaScript is ____________language C
A) Programming B) Application C) Scripting D) system
6) Which of them is not the looping structures in JavaScript? C
A) forB) whileC)forwhichD)dowhile
7) With jQuery, look at the following selector: $("div"). What does it select? A
A) All div elements
B) The first div element
C) The last div element
D) none of above

1 P.T.O.
8) The speed options can be applied to which jQuery functions? B
A) css and ajax
B) show and fadeIn
C) toggleCss
D) All of the above
9) Which property is used to specify the key type when pressed? A
A) keyCodeB) keyTypeC) keyNameD) keyProperty

10) Which event can be fired on any scrollable document element? B

A) WindowB) ScrollC) LoadD) Unload

11) What is mean by "this" keyword in javascript? A

A) It refers current object
B) It refers previous object
C) It is variable which contains value
D) None of the above

12) In general, event handler is nothing but ____________ A

A) functionB) interfaceC) eventD) handler

13) The var statement is used to: A

A) Create a new local variable
B) Retrieve a variable descriptor
C) Declare a member of a class
D) Change a constant

14) BOM stands for ________ B

A) Binary object modeB) Browser object model
C) Binary Object modellingD) none of the above
15) $(“P:first”).hide() will hide B
A) All Paragraphs B) First Paragraph C) Last ParagraphD) None
16) Which of the following is a Jquery UI Effect B
A) ResizableB) Show
C) DroppableD) Hidden

2
17) Which of the following is not the property of screen objects in JavaScript? B
A)AvailHeightB)ColorsDepthC)AvailWidthD)ColorDepth
18) $(“span.intro”). What does it select? D
A) The first span element with class=”intro”
B) The first span element with id=”intro”
C) All span elements with id=”intro”
D) All span elements with class=”intro”

19) Which method is used to add a binding? C

A) binding()B) add_bind()
C) bind()D) addbind()

20) How do you declare a JavaScript variable? C

A) variable carName; B) v carName;
C) varcarName;D) char[20] carName
21) What does the “min” mean in jquery.min.js? A
A) Minimised versionB) Miniature
C) Minimised parametersD) Minimum value

22) What is the alternate name for Java script? D

A)LimeScriptB)vbscriptC)ECAMScriptD) ECMAScript

23) $(“P”).action() C
What type of selector is used in the above jQuery syntax?
A)id selectorB)class selector
C)element selectorD)value selector

24) JavaScript is an implementation of the ______ language standard C

A) VBScriptB) ActionScriptC) ECMAScriptD) HTML

25) Which jQuery method is used to set one or more style properties for selected elements? A
A)css() B) html() C) style()D) animate()

3 P.T.O.
26) What does the <noscript> tag do? A
A) Enclose text to be displayed by non-JavaScript browsers.
B) Prevents scripts on the page from executing.
C) Describes certain low-budget movies.
D) None of the above
27) ______ tag is an extension to HTML that can enclose any number of JavaScript A
statements.
A)<SCRIPT>B)<BODY>C)<HEAD>D)<TITLE>
28) JavaScript is interpreted by _________ A
A) ClientB) ServerC) ObjectD) None of the above
29) Which jQuery method is used to hide selected elements? B
A) hidden() B) hide() C) visible(false) D) display(none)
30) Which of the following are not key event properties? A
A) Code keyB) Alt KeyC) Ctrl KeyD) Shift Key
31) How do you read the first character in a string? A
A) data.charAt(0);
B) data.slice(1)
C) data.substr(0);
D) data.charAt(1);

32) Which of the following attribute can hold the JavaScript version? A
A) LANGUAGEB) SCRIPTC) VERSIOND) None of the above

33) What is the correct syntax for referring to an external script called "abc.js"? C
A)<script href=" abc.js"> B)<script name=" abc.js">
C)<script src=" abc.js"> D) None of the above

34) Which event fires whenever a control loses focus? C

A) onclickB) onmoveC) onblurD) onchange

4
35) With jQuery, look at the following selector: $("div.intro"). What does it select? C
A) The first div element with class="intro"
B) The first div element with id="intro"
C) All div elements with class="intro"
D) All div elements with id="intro"
36) Which statement is true? B
A) All the statements are true
B) All XML elements must have a closing tag
C) All XML elements must be lower case
D) All XML documents must have a DTD

37) Java script start with…… C

A) Do_script
B) Start_script
C) <script>
D) <scr>

38) How do you write “Hello World” in an alert box? C

A) msgbox(“Hello World”); B) alertbox(“Hello World”);
C)alert(“Hello World”); D) msg(“Hello World”);
39) What character combination is used to create a single line comment? D
A) !!
B) —
C) $$
D) //

40) What character ends a javascript statement? B

A) An exclamation mark “!”.
B) A semicolon “;”.
C) A period “.”.
D) A colon “:”.

5 P.T.O.
41) Which of the following Attribute is used to include External JS code inside your HTML A
Document
A) srcB) extC) scriptD) link

42) Which of the following primitive values exist in JavaScript? D

A) Boolean B) stringC) numberD) All of the above
43) What is the correct JavaScript syntax to write "Hello World"? C
A) System.out.println("Hello World")
B) println ("Hello World")
C) document.write("Hello World")
D) response.write("Hello World")
44) Which function need to use for toggling fade ? A
A) fadeToggleB) fadeInC) fadeoutD)Toggle
45) What keyword is used to begin a conditional statement? C
A) whenB) howC) ifD) condition
46) What is the correct JavaScript syntax to insert a comment that can span multiple lines? D
A) // This comment has mor than one line *//
B) / This comment has more than one line /
C) // This comment has more than one line //
D) /* This comment has more than one line */

47) How do you define a function called “fName”? C

A) function fName: { }
B) funcfName = function () {}
C) function fName() { }
D) new fName = { }

48) To which object does the location property belong? A

A) WindowB) PositionC) ElementD) Location

49) Which among the following is not a property of the Location object? C
A) protocolB) hostC) hosteeD) hostname

6
50) How to write your own plug-in using jquery? A
A)jQuery.fn.methodName = methodDefinition;
B)jQuery.Stylesheet= methodDefinition;
C)jQuery.functions.method = methodDefinition;
D)jQuery.Stylesheet.function = methodDefinition;
51) In an array object, what is the key of the first value? A
A) 0B) 2C) 1D) -1

52) $.foo() is equivalent to.. C

A) javascript.foo()B) document.foo()
C) jQuery.foo()D) None of the above

53) The type that specifies what kind of event occurred is ____________ A
A) event typeB) even target
C) both event type and even targetD) interface
54) The focus and blur events are also part of _________ C
A) Element eventsB) Handler events
C) Window eventsD) Scroll events

55) $(‘.temp’).action() B
What type of selector is used in the above jQuery syntax?
A)id selectorB)class selector
C)name selectorD)value selector

56) jQuery code to set the background color of all span elements to blue? C
A) $(“span”).style(“background-color”,”blue”);
B) $(“span”).manipulate(“background-color”,”blue”);
C) $(“span”).css(“background-color”,”blue”);
D) $(“span”).layout(“background-color”,”blue”);

57) Which jQuery method is used to switch between adding/removing one or more classes (for D
CSS) from selected elements?
A) toggleClass()B) switch()
C) altClass()D) switchClass()

7 P.T.O.
58) What are the various speed options? A
A) The words "slow" and "fast" as well as integers for the milliseconds
B) Only the words "slow", "fast", and "medium"
C) All of the above
D) None of the above

59) Which is the opposite of the load event in JavaScript? D

A) dontloadB) postload
C) preloadD) unload
60) Which sign does jQuery use as a shortcut for jQuery? A
A) $ signB) % signC) ? SignD) None
61) What is the value of (“cat”.length)? B
A) 4B) 3C 1D) 2
62) $(“span”) what does it selects? A
A) All span elementsB)First span element
C)Last span elementD)None of above
63) Which built in method returns length of string? C
A) Size()B) Index()
C) Length()D) None of above
64) What is the correct syntax of the declaration which defines the XML version?: B
A) <xml version="1.0" />
B) <?xml version="1.0"?>
C) <?xml version="1.0" />
D) None of the above
65) $(“#temp”).action() A
What type of selector is used in the above jQuery syntax?
A)id selector B)class selector
C)name selector D)value selector
66) What scripting language is jQuery written in? B
A) VBScriptB) JavaScriptC) C#D) C++

8
67) Which of the following is not a Jquery UI interaction D
A) DraggableB) SortableC) ResizableD) Viewable
68) What does XML stand for? B
A) eXtra Modern Link
B) eXtensibleMarkup Language
C) Example Markup Language
D) X-Markup Language

69) Comment in XML document is given by C

A) <?---->
B) <!----!>
C) <!---->
D) </---- >

70) Which of the following is/are the sources of Content Distribution Network(CDN) for D
jQuery.
A) jQuery CDNB) Microsoft CDN
C) Google CDND) All of the above

71) Which of the following specifies the property of the event? A

A) TypeB) Target_Type
C) MannerD) Program
72) Which of the following is not a Jquery UI Effect D
A) HideB) ShowC) ToggleD) Hidden
73) The process by which the browser decides which objects to trigger event handlers on is D
____________
A) Event TriggeringB) Event Listening
C) Event HandlingD) Event propagation

74) Inside which HTML element do we put the JavaScript? C

A) <js>B) <scripting>C) <script>D) <javascript>

9 P.T.O.
75) When is the mouseout event fired? A
A) When mouse is no longer over an element
B) When mouse is over an element
C) When mouse is hovered
D) When mouse is clicked
76) What does DTD stand for? B
A) Direct Type Definition
B) Document Type Definition
C) Do The Dance
D) Dynamic Type Definition

77) Which jQuery method is used to perform an asynchronous HTTP request? B

A) jQuery.ajaxAsync()B) jQuery.ajax()
C) jQuery.ajaxSetup()D) jQuery.ajaxStartup()
78) Which of the following strings are a correct XML name? A
A) _myElementB) my Element
C) #myElementD) None of the above

79) Which jQuery function is used to prevent code from running, before the document is C
finished loading?
A) $(document).load()B) $(document).ready()
C) $(body).onload()D) $(body).unload()

80) Which of the following Node object property returns the node immediately before a node? A
A) previousSiblingB) textContentC) indexD) localName

81) How many node types are there in total? B

A) 11B) 12C) 13D) 14

82) If you want to stop your jQuery for a few milliseconds, which function do you use? D
A) stop()B) pause()C) slowdown()D) delay()

83) Which event is fired when a document and all of its external resources are fully loaded B
and displayed to the user?
A) WindowB) LoadC) ElementD) Handler

10
84) Load remote data using HTTP GET A
A) $.get(url,data,callback,type)
B) $.ajax(options)
C) $.post(url,data,callback,type)
D) $.getScript(url,callback)
85) The URL property belongs to which of the following object? A
A) DocumentB) ElementC) LocationD) Event

86) What operator is used for string concatenation? B

A) *B) +C) &D) All of the above

87) The properties that specify the position and button state of the mouse are _________ A
A) clientX and client B) clientY and clientX
C) altKey and ctrlKeyD) metaKey and shiftKey

88) jQuery's main focus is.. D

A) AJAXB) DOM Manipulation
C) AnimationsD) All of the above

89) When are the keyboard events fired? B

A) When the user manually calls the button
B) When the user clicks a key
C) When the user calls the modifier
D) When the user right clicks the mouse

90) jQuery is a A
A) JavaScript Library. B)JavaScript Language
C)JavaScript Method D) PHP Method
91) Which is the object on which the event occurred or with which the event is associated? B
A) event typeB) event target
C) both event type and even targetD) interface

92) Which of the following event fires when the form element loses the focus: <button>, B
<input>, <label>, <select>, <textarea>?
A) onfocusB) onblurC) onclickD) ondblclick

11 P.T.O.
93) Xslt stands for A
A)eXtensible Stylesheet Language transformation
B)eXtra Stylesheet Language transform
C)eXtended Style Language transformation
D)eX Stylesheet Language transform
94) Which of the following way can be used to indicate the LANGUAGE attribute? C
A) <LANGUAGE="JavaScriptVersion">
B) <SCRIPT LANGUAGE="JavaScriptVersion">
C) <SCRIPT LANGUAGE="JavaScriptVersion"> JavaScript statements…</SCRIPT>
D) <SCRIPT LANGUAGE="JavaScriptVersion"!> JavaScript statements…</SCRIPT>

95) What are the predefined attributes C

A) xml:langB) xml:spaceC) both A) and B)D) none.

96) What does the function $(“.selector”) return? C

A) An array.B) A node list.
C) A new jQuery object.D) None of the above
97) Inside which HTML tag do we put javascript D
A) <js> B) <scripting> C) <javascript> D) <script>
98) varps = $("p");ps will be.. D
A) A linked listB) A hash or dictionary
C) An arrayD) A jQuery object

99) $(“*”).action() D
What type of selector is used in the above jQuery syntax?
A)id selectorB)class selector
C)name selectorD)Universal selector
100) DOM is ________ B
A) Duplicate object modeB) Document object model
C) Doc Object modellingD) none of the above

**********

12
Sr. Question Bank of ANS
No.
CA 5.2 Theoretical Computer Science(254502)
1) Which of the following is true? b)
a) Every subset of a regular set is regular
b) Every finite subset of non-regular set is regular
c) The union of two non-regular set is not regular
d) Infinite union of finite set is regular
2) If L1 = {x | x is a palindrome in (0 + 1)*} a)
L2 = {letter (letter + digit)* };
L3 = (0n 1n 2n | n > 1}
L4 = {ambnam+n | m, n > 1}
then which of the following statement is correct ?
a) L1 is context free language and L3 is context sensitive language
b) L2 is a regular set and L4 is not a context free language
c) Both L1 and L2 are regular sets
d) Both L3 and L4 are context-sensitive languages
3) L = {aP | p ; } is prime is b)
a) regular
b) not regular
c) accepted by DFA
d) accepted by PDA
4) Regular expression are a)
a) Type 0 language
b) Type 1 language
c) Type 2 language
d) Type 3 language
5) Which of the technique can be used to prove that a language is non regular? c)
a) Ardens theorem
b) Ogden’s Lemma
c) Pumping Lemma
d) None of the mentioned

1 P.T.O.
6) Following context free grammar a)
S —> aB | bA
A —>b | aS | bAA
B —> b | bS | aBB
generates strings of terminals that have
a) equal number of a's and b's
b) odd number of a's and odd number b's
c) even number of a's and even number of b's
d) d. odd number of a's and even number of a's
7) Which of the following is not true? b)
a. Power of deterministic automata is equivalent to power of non-deterministic
automata.
b. Power of deterministic pushdown automata is equivalent to power of non-
deterministic pushdown automata.
c. Power of deterministic Turing machine is equivalent to power of non-
deterministic Turing machine.
d. All the above
8) Identify the language which is not context - free. b.
a. L = {ωωR|ωϵ{0,1}*}
b. L = {a^nb^n|n≥0}
c. L = {ωω|ωϵ{0,1}*}
d. L = {a^nb^mc^md^n | n, m≥0 }
9) The context-free languages are closed for: c.

(i) Intersection (ii) Union

(iii) Complementation (iv) Kleene Star
a. (i) and (iv)
b. (i) and (iii)
c. (ii) and (iv)
d. (ii) and (iii)

2
10) Grammars that can be translated to DFAs: a.
a. Right linear grammar
b. Left linear grammar
c. Generic grammar
d. All of these
11) The language accepted by a Push down Automata:
c.
a. Type0
b. Type1
c. Type2
d. Type3
12) Consider the following two languages:
c.

L1 = {x ∣ for some y with ∣y∣ = 2^∣x∣,xy ∈ L and L is regular language}

L2 = {x ∣ for some y such that ∣x∣ = ∣y∣, xy ∈ L and L is regular language}

Which one of the following is correct?

a. Only L1 is regular language

b. Only L2 is regular language

c. Both L1 and L2 are regular languages

d. Both L1 and L2 are not regular languages

3 P.T.O.
13) Palindromes can't be recognized by any FSM because d

a. FSM can't remember arbitrarily large of information

b. FSM can't deterministically fix the mid-point
c. even if mid-point is known, FSM be can't be found whether, second half of the
string matches the first half
d. all of these
14) To obtain a string of n Terminals from a given Chomsky normal form grammar, a.
the number of productions to be used is:
a. 2n−1
b. 2n
c. n+1
d. n^2
15) Consider the following two Grammars: c.

G1 : S → SbS | a
G2 : S → aB | ab, A→GAB | a, B→ABb | b

Which of the following option is correct?

a. Only G1 is ambiguous
b. Only G2 is ambiguous
c. Both G1 and G2 are ambiguous
d. Both G1 and G2 are not ambiguous
16) Context sensitive language can be recognized by a: d.
a. Finite state machine
b. Deterministic finite automata
c. Non-deterministic finite automata
d. Linear bounded automata

4
17) The set A={ 0^n 1^n 2^n | n=1, 2, 3, ......... } is an example of a grammar that is: a.
a. Context sensitive
b. Context free
c. Regular
d. None of the above
18) Regular expression a / b denotes the set c.

a. {a}

b. { ∈ , a, b }

c. {a, b}

d. { ab }
19) Which of the following is true? b)
a) Every subset of a regular set is regular
b) Every finite subset of non-regular set is regular
c) The union of two non-regular set is not regular
d) Infinite union of finite set is regular
20) A push down automaton employs ________ data structure. d)
a) Queue
b) Linked List
c) Hash Table
d) Stack
21) State true or false: a)
Statement: The operations of PDA never work on elements, other than the top.
a) true
b) false
22) Which of the operations are eligible in PDA? a)
a) Push
b) Delete
c) Insert
d) Find

5 P.T.O.
23) Write the regular expression to denote the language L over ? = { a,b} such that all b)
the string do not contain the substring “ ab”.
a) a*b*
b) b*a*
c) (ab)*
d) (ba)*
24) The following move of a PDA is on the basis of: c)
a) Present state
b) Input Symbol
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the mentioned
25) Which of the following was not a part of Chomsky hierarchy?
a) Context sensitive grammar c)
b) Unrestricted grammar
c) Recursive grammar
d) None of the mentioned
26) Assume the R is a relation on a set A, aRb is partially ordered such that a and b are d)
_____________
a) reflexive
b) transitive
c) symmetric
d) reflexive and transitive
27) Recognize the CFL for the given CFG. a.
S-> aB| bA,
A-> a|aS|bAA,
B-> b|bS|aBB

a) Strings contain equal number of a's and equal number of b's.

b) Strings contain odd number of a's and odd number of b's.
c) Strings contain odd number of a's and even number of b's.
d) Strings contain even number of a's and even number of b's.
28) Moore Machine is an application of: b.
a) Finite automata without input
b) Finite automata with output
c) Non- Finite automata with output
d) None of the mentioned

6
29) In Moore machine, output is produced over the change of: a.
a) states
b)transitions
c) Both
d) None of the mentioned
30) FSM shown in the figure c.

a. all strings
b. no string
c. ε- alone
d. none of these
31) Which of the following is a correct statement? a.
a) Moore machine has no accepting states
b) Mealy machine has accepting states
c) We can convert Mealy to Moore but not vice versa
d) All of the mentioned
32) In mealy machine, the O/P depends upon? c.
a) State
b) Previous State
c) State and Input
d) Only Input
33) Which of the given are correct? c.
a) Moore machine has 6-tuples
b) Mealy machine has 6-tuples
c) Both Mealy and Moore has 6-tuples
d) None of the mentioned
34) The major difference between Mealy and Moore machine is about: a.
a) Output Variations
b) Input Variations
c) Both
d) None of the mentioned

7 P.T.O.
35) Mealy and Moore machine can be categorized as: b.
a) Inducers
b) Transducers
c) Turing Machines
d) Linearly Bounder Automata
36) Which one among the following is true? d.
A mealy machine
a) produces a language
b) produces a grammar
c) can be converted to NFA
d) has less circuit delays
37) When are 2 finite states equivalent? c.
a) Same number of transitions
b) Same number of states
c) Same number of states as well as transitions
d) Both are final states
38) What does the following figure most correctly represents? c.

a) Final state with loop x

b) Transitional state with loop x
c) Initial state as well as final state with loop x
d) Insufficient Data

8
39) Regular expression corresponding to the state diagram given in the figure is a.

a. (0+1(1 + 01)* 00)*

b. (1 + 0 (0 + 10) 00)*
c. (0 + 1 (1 + 10) 00)*
d. (1 + 0(1 + 00) 11)*
40) The language which is generated by the grammar S-> aSa / bSb / a / b over the c.
alphabet {a, b} is the set of
a. Strings that begin and end with the same symbol
b. All odd and even length palindromes
c. All odd length palindromes
d. All even length palindromes
41) Which of the following is not an example of finite state machine system? d.
a. Control Mechanism of an elevator
b. Combinational Locks
c. Traffic Lights
d. Digital Watches

9 P.T.O.
42) Given: b.
L= {xϵ∑= {0,1} |x=0n1n for n>=1}; Can there be a DFA possible for the
language?
a) Yes
b) No
43) There are ________ tuples in finite state machine. b.
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) unlimited
44) Transition function maps. d.
a) Σ * Q -> Σ
b) Q * Q -> Σ
c) Σ * Σ -> Q
d) Q * Σ -> Q
45) Consider the regular expression 0 * (10 *) which is similar to the same set as d.
a. 0 + (0 + 10) *
b. (0 +1) * 10 (0 + 1) *
c. (1 * 0) * 1*
d. None of the above
46) Finite automata requires minimum _______ number of stacks. b.
a. 1
b. 0
c. 2
d. None of the mentioned
47) Which one of the following is true for the language {am bn c m+n I m, n≥1}? b.
a. It is context-free but not regular
b. It is regular
c. It is type-0 but not context-sensitive
d. It is context-sensitive but not context-free
48) Regular expression for all strings starts with ab and ends with bba is. c.
a. aba*b*bba
b. ab(ab)*bba
c. ab(a+b)*bba
d. All of the mentioned

10
49) The basic limitation of finite automata is that a.
a. It can’t remember arbitrary large amount of information.
b. It sometimes recognize grammar that are not regular.
c. It sometimes fails to recognize regular grammar.
d. All of the mentioned
50) Predict the number of transitions required to automate the following language a.
using only 3 states:
L= {w | w ends with 00}
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. Cannot be said
51) Reverse of a DFA can be formed by c.
a. using PDA
b. making final state as non-final
c. making final as starting state and starting state as final state
d. None of the mentioned
52) Concatenation of R with Ф outputs: b.
a) R
b) Ф
c) R.Ф
d) None of the mentioned
53) Simplify the following regular expression: a.
ε+1*(011) *(1*(011) *) *
a. (1+011) *
b. (1*(011) *)
c. (1+(011) *) *
d. (1011) *
54) P, O, R be regular expression over ∑, P is not ε, then b.
R=Q + RP has a unique solution:

a) Q*P
b) QP*
c) Q*P*
d) (P*O*) *

11 P.T.O.
55) If two finite state machines are equivalent, they should have the same number of d.
a. states
b. edges
c. states and edges
d. none of these
56) The difference between number of states with regular expression (a + b) and (a + a.
b) * is:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
57) In order to represent a regular expression, the first step to create the transition a.
diagram is:
a) Create the NFA using Null moves
b) Null moves are not acceptable, thus should not be used
c) Predict the number of states to be used in order to construct the Regular
expression
d) None of the mentioned
58) Regular Expression denote precisely the ________ of Regular Language. a.
a) Class
b) Power Set
c) Super Set
d) None of the mentioned
59) Relate the following statement: b.
Statement: All sufficiently long words in a regular language can have a middle
section of words repeated a number of times to produce a new word which also
lies within the same language.
a) Turing Machine
b) Pumping Lemma
c) Arden’s theorem
d) None of the mentioned
60) While applying Pumping lemma over a language, we consider a string w that c.
belong to L and fragment it into _________ parts.
a) 2
b) 5
c) 3
d) 6

12
61) If we select a string w such that w∈L, and w=xyz. Which of the following portions b.
cannot be an empty string?
a) x
b) y
c) z
d) all of the mentioned
62) There exists a language L. We define a string w such that w∈L and w=xyz and |w| a.
>=n for some constant integer n.What can be the maximum length of the substring
xy i.e. |xy|<=?
a) n
b) |y|
c) |x|
d) none of the mentioned
63) Answer in accordance to the third and last statement in pumping lemma: d.
For all _______ xyiz ∈L
a) i>0
b) i<0
c) i<=0
d) i>=0
64) Let w be a string and fragmented by three variable x, y, and z as per pumping a.
lemma. What does these variables represent?
a) string count
b) string
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
65) Regular expression (a | b ) (a | b) denotes the set d.
a. { a, b, ab, aa }
b. { a, b, ba, bb }
c. { a, b }
d. { aa, ab, ba, bb }
66) The language of balanced paranthesis is b.
a) regular
b) non regular
c) may be regular
d) none of the mentioned

13 P.T.O.
67) The entity which generate Language is termed as: c.
a) Automata
b) Tokens
c) Grammar
d) Data
68) Production Rule: aAb->agb belongs to which of the following category? c.
a) Regular Language
b) Context free Language
c) Context Sensitive Language
d) Recursively Ennumerable Language
69) The Grammar can be defined as: G=(V, ∑, p, S) b.
In the given definition, what does S represents?
a) Accepting State
b) Starting Variable
c) Sensitive Grammar
d) None of these
70) Which among the following cannot be accepted by a regular grammar? d.
a) L is a set of numbers divisible by 2
b) L is a set of binary complement
c) L is a set of string with odd number of 0
d) L is a set of 0n1n
71) Which is not the correct statement(s) ? b.
(i) Every context sensitive language is recursive.
(ii) There is a recursive language that is not context sensitive.
a. (i) is true, (ii) is false
b. (i) is true and (ii) is true
c. (i) is false, (ii) is false
d. (i) is false and (ii) is true
72) Which of the following statement is correct? a.
a. All Regular grammar are context free but not vice versa
b. All context free grammar are regular grammar but not vice versa
c. Regular grammar and context free grammar are the same entity
d. None of the mentioned
73) Are ambiguous grammar context free? a.
a. Yes
b. No

14
74) A->aA| a| b b.
The number of steps to form aab:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
75) Which of the following the given language belongs to? d
L={ambmcm| m>=1}
a) Context free language
b) Regular language
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the mentioned
76) Which among the following is the correct option for the given grammar? a
G->X111|G1,X->X0|00
a) {0a1b|a=2,b=3}
b) {0a1b|a=1,b=5}
c) {0a1b|a=b}
d) More than one of the mentioned is correct
77) Which one of the following is not a Greibach Normal form grammar? c.
(i) S ->a|bA|aA|bB
A->a
B->b
(ii) S->a|aA|AB
A->a
B->b
(iii) S->a|A|aA
A->a
a. (i) and (ii)
b. (i) and (iii)
c. (ii) and (iii)
d. (i), (ii) and (iii)

15 P.T.O.
78) Which of the following statement is false in context of tree terminology? a.
a. Root with no children is called a leaf
b. A node can have three children
c. Root has no parent
d. Trees are collection of nodes, with a parent child relationship
79) For the expression E*(E) where * and brackets are the operation, number of nodes b.
in the respective parse tree are:
a. 6
b. 7
c. 5
d. 2
80) The number of leaves in a parse tree with expression E*(E) where * and () are a.
operators
a. 5
b. 2
c. 4
d. 3
81) Context sensitive language can be recognized by a: d.
a. Finite state machine
b. Deterministic finite automata
c. Non-deterministic finite automata
d. Linear bounded automata
82) __________ is the acyclic graphical representation of a grammar. c.
a. Binary tree
b. Oct tree
c. Parse tree
d. None of the mentioned
83) Which of the following is false for a grammar G in Chomsky Normal Form: d.
a. G has no useless symbols
b. G has no unit productions
c. G has no epsilon productions
d. None of the mentioned
84) A CFG is ambiguous if b.
a. It has more than one rightmost derivations
b. It has more than one leftmost derivations
c. No parse tree can be generated for the CFG
d. None of the mentioned

16
85) A null production can be referred to as: a.
a. String
b. Symbol
c. Word
d. All of the mentioned
86) NPDA stands for a.
a. Non-Deterministic Push Down Automata
b. Null-Push Down Automata
c. Nested Push Down Automata
d. All of the mentioned
87) The format: A->aB refers to which of the following? b.
a. Chomsky Normal Form
b. Greibach Normal Form
c. Backus Naur Form
d. None of the mentioned
88) Which of the production rule can be accepted by Chomsky grammar? d.
a) A->BC
b) A->a
c) S->e
d) All of the mentioned
89) Every grammar in Chomsky Normal Form is: c.
a) regular
b) context sensitive
c) context free
d) all of the mentioned
90) Let G be a grammar: S->AB|e, A->a, B->b a
Is the given grammar in CNF?
a) Yes
b) No
91) Given grammar G: a
(1)S->AS
(2)S->AAS
(3)A->SA
(4)A->aa
Which of the following productions denies the format of Chomsky Normal Form?
a) 2,4
b) 1,3
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4

17 P.T.O.
92) Which of the following grammars are in Chomsky Normal Form: a.
a) S->AB|BC|CD, A->0, B->1, C->2, D->3
b) S->AB, S->BCA|0|1|2|3
c) S->ABa, A->aab, B->Ac
d) All of the mentioned
93) The variable which produces an epsilon is called: b.
a) empty variable
b) nullable
c) terminal
d) all of the mentioned
94) Let G=(V, T, P, S) be a CFG such that _____________. Then there exists an c.
equivalent grammar G’ having no e productions.
a) e ∈ L(G)
b) w ∉ L(G)
c) e ∉ L(G)
d) w ∈ L(G)
95) Which among the following is the format of unit production? a
a) A->B
b) A->b
c) B->Aa
d) None of the mentioned
96) Given Grammar G: c
S->aA
A->a| A
B->B
The number of productions to be removed immediately as Unit productions:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
97) Given grammar: b
S->aA
A->a
A->B
B-> A
B->bb
Which of the following is the production of B after simplification by removal of
unit productions?
a) A
b) bb
c) aA
d) A| bb

18
98) Given Grammar: S->A, A->aA, A->e, B->bA d
Which among the following productions are Useless productions?
a) S->A
b) A->aA
c) A->e
d) B->bA
99) Let G be a grammar. When the production in G satisfy certain restrictions, then G c.
is said to be in ___________.
a) restricted form
b) parsed form
c) normal form
d) all of the mentioned
100) The DFA shown below accepts the set of all strings over {0, 1} that a.

a. End with 00
b. End with 0
c. Begin either with 0 or 1
d. Contain the substring 00

**********

19 P.T.O.
 Question Bank of A
CA 5.4 Computer Graphics(254504) N
S
1) Which devices provides positional information to the graphics system ? D
A. Input devices
B. Output devices
C. Pointing devices
D. Both a and c
2) The number of pixels stored in the frame buffer of a graphics system is known as D
A. Resolution
B. Depth
C. Resolution
D. Only a
3) In graphical system, the array of pixels in the picture are stored in A
A. Memory
B. Frame buffer
C. Processor
D. All of the mentioned
4) Heat supplied to the cathode by directing a current through a coil of wire is called C
A. Electron gun
B. Electron beam
C. Filament
D. Anode and cathode
5) The maximum number of points that can be displayed without overlap on a CRT is B
referred as
A. Picture
B. Resolution
C. Persistence
D. Neither b nor c
6) ________ stores the picture information as a charge distribution behind the B
phosphor-coated screen.
A. Cathode ray tube
B. Direct-view storage tube
C. Flat panel displays
D. 3D viewing device
7) GUI means – B
A. Graphical user interaction
B. Graphical user interface
C. Graphical uniform interaction
D. None of the above

1 P.T.O.
8) Any CRT based display must be refreshing at least _______ times a second B
A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 10
9) The resolution of Raster scan display is A
A. Low
B. High
C. Medium
D. None
10) A shadow mask CRT has ________ phosphor color dots at each pixel position A
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. None of the above
11) LCD means C
A. Liquid chrome data
B. Liquid crystal data
C. Liquid crystal displays
D. None of the above
12) Which of the adapter does not support all points’ addressable display? D
A. VGA
B. CGA
C. MGA
D. EGA
13) We can align the electric gun with the help of C
A. shadow mask
B. resolution
C. pixel
D. refresh
14) In which system, the Shadow mask methods are commonly used A
A. Raster-scan system
B. Random-scan system
C. Only b
D. Both a and b
15) The process of digitizing a given picture definition into a set of pixel-intensity for C
storage in the frame buffer is called
A. Rasterization
B. Encoding
C. Scan conversion
D. True color system

2
16) The primary output device in a graphics system is_________ B
A. Scanner
B. Video monitor
C. Neither a nor b
D. Printer
17) On a black and white system with one bit per pixel, the frame buffer is commonly C
called as
A. Pix map
B. Multi map
C. Bitmap
D. All of the mentioned
18) Which of the following device is not the input device? C
A. Trackball and space ball
B. Data glove
C. Only d
D. Impact printers
19) DSVT stands for C
A. Digital View Storing Table
B. Digital Visual Storage Tube
C. Direct View Storage Tube
D. Digital View Storage Tube
20) Which equation is correct about line segment- B
A. x=yc+m
B. y=mx+c
C. y=mc+x
D. None of the above
21) On raster system, lines are plotted with C
A. Lines
B. Dots
C. Pixels
D. None of the mentioned
22) DDA stands for- D
A. Digital Data analyser
B. Digital Direct analysis
C. Digit Distinct analysis
D. Digital Differential analyser
23) Which of the following method is fastest pixel position calculating method B
A. Bresenham’s algorithm
B. DDA algorithm
C. Midpoint algorithm
D. None of the above

3 P.T.O.
24) An accurate and efficient raster line-generating algorithm is D
A. DDA algorithm
B. Mid-point algorithm
C. Parallel line algorithm
D. Bresenham’s line algorithm

25) In Bresenham’s line algorithm, if the distances d1 < d2 then decision parameter Pk C
is______
A. Positive
B. Equal
C. Negative
D. Option a or c
26) If the boundary is specified in a single color, and if the algorithm proceeds pixel by B
pixel until the boundary color is encountered is called
A. Scan-line fill algorithm
B. Boundary-fill algorithm
C. Flood-fill algorithm
D. Parallel curve algorithm
27) If we want to recolor an area that is not defined within a single color boundary is C
known as
A. Boundary-fill algorithm
B. Parallel curve algorithm
C. Flood-fill algorithm
D. Only b
28) A translation is applied to an object by A
A. Repositioning it along with straight line path
B. Repositioning it along with circular path
C. Only b
D. All of the mentioned
29) We translate a two-dimensional point by adding D
A. Translation distances
B. Translation difference
C. X and Y
D. Only a
30) The translation distances (dx, dy) is called as C
A. Translation vector
B. Shift vector
C. Both a and b
D. Neither a nor b
31) In 2D-translation, a point (x, y) can move to the new position (x’, y’) by using the B
equation
A. x’=x+dx and y’=y+dx
B. x’=x+dx and y’=y+dy
C. X’=x+dy and Y’=y+dx
D. X’=x-dx and y’=y-dy

4
32) The two-dimensional translation equation in the matrix form is A
A. P’=P+T
B. P’=P-T
C. P’=P*T
D. P’=p
33) _________ is a rigid body transformation that moves objects without deformation. C
A. Rotation
B. Scaling
C. Translation
D. All of the mentioned
34) A straight line segment is translated by applying the transformation equation A
A. P’=P+T
B. Dx and Dy
C. P’=P+P
D. Only c
35) The basic geometric transformations are D
A. Translation
B. Rotation
C. Scaling
D. All of the mentioned
36) Which is not polygon filling algorithm? D
A. Flood fill
B. Scanline fill
C. Boundary fill
D. Heap fill
37) A two dimensional rotation is applied to an object by B
A. Repositioning it along with straight line path
B. Repositioning it along with circular path
C. Any of the mentioned
D. None of the above

38) To generate a rotation , we must specify A

A. Rotation angle ϴ
B. Distances dx and dy
C. Rotation distance
D. All of the mentioned
39) Positive values for the rotation angle ϴ defines C
A. Counterclockwise rotations about the end points
B. Counterclockwise translation about the pivot point
C. Counterclockwise rotations about the pivot point
D. Negative direction

5 P.T.O.
40) The two-dimensional rotation equation in the matrix form is B
A. P’=P+T
B. P’=R*P
C. P’=P*P
D. P’=R+P
41) An ellipse can also be rotated about its center coordinates by rotating B
A. End points
B. Major and minor axes
C. Only a
D. None
42) The transformation that is used to alter the size of an object is A
A. Scaling
B. Rotation
C. Translation
D. Reflection
43) The two-dimensional scaling equation in the matrix form is B
A. P’=P+T
B. P’=S*P
C. P’=P*R
D. P’=R+S
44) If the scaling factors values sx and sy are assigned to the same value then B
A. Uniform rotation is produced
B. Uniform scaling is produced
C. Scaling cannot be done
D. Scaling can be done or cannot be done
45) If the scaling factors values sx and sy are assigned to unequal values then C
A. Uniform rotation is produced
B. Uniform scaling is produced
C. Differential scaling is produced
D. Scaling cannot be done
46) The matrix representation for scaling in homogeneous coordinates is A
A. P’=S*P
B. P’=R*P
C. P’=dx+dy
D. P’=S*S
47) What is the use of homogeneous coordinates and matrix representation? A
A. To treat all 3 transformations in a consistent way
B. To scale
C. To rotate
D. To shear the object

6
48) If point are expressed in homogeneous coordinates then the pair of (x, y) is D
represented as
A. (x’, y’, z’)
B. (x, y, z)
C. (x’, y’, w)
D. (x’, y’, w)
49) For 2D transformation the value of third coordinate i.e. w=? A
A. 1
B. 0
C. -1
D. Any value
50) If two pure reflections about a line passing through the origin are applied A
successively the result is ___________________
A. Pure rotation
B. Quarter rotation
C. Half rotation
D. True reflection
51) Which of the following represents shearing? D
A. (x, y) → (x+a, y+b)
B. (x, y) → (ax, by)
C. (x, y) → (x cos(θ)+y sin(θ), -x sin(θ)+y cos(θ))
D. (x, y) → (x+ay, y+bx)
52) Which of this is compulsory for 2D reflection? C
A. Reflection plane.
B. Origin
C. Reflection axis
D. Co-ordinate axis.
53) A view is selected by specifying a sub-area of the __________ picture area. B
A. half
B. total
C. full
D. quarter
54) Image formed by reflection through a plane mirror is_______________ B
A. of same size
B. same orientation
C. virtual
D. is at same distance from the mirror
55) Which of the following represents shearing? D
A. (x, y) → (x+a, y+b)
B. (x, y) → (ax, by)
C. (x, y) → (x cos(θ)+y sin(θ), -x sin(θ)+y cos(θ))
D. (x, y) → (x+ay, y+bx)

7 P.T.O.
56) Shearing is also termed as ________________ D
A. Selecting
B. Sorting
C. Scaling
D. Skewing
57) Any convenient co-ordinate system or Cartesian co-ordinates which can be used to D
define the picture is called ___________
A. spherical co-ordinates
B. vector co-ordinates
C. viewport co-ordinates
D. world co-ordinates
58) Which of the following co-ordinates are NOT used in 2d viewing transformation? C
A. modeling co-ordinates
B. viewing co-ordinates
C. vector co-ordinates
D. device co-ordinates
59) The process of elimination of parts of a scene outside a window or a viewport is C
called _____________
A. cutting
B. plucking
C. clipping
D. editing
60) Which equation is correct about translation B
A. X' = Dx + X
Y' = Dx + Y
B. X' = Dx + X
Y' = Dy + Y
C. X' = Dy + X
Y' = Dy + Y
D. X' = Dx +Y
Y' = Dy + X
61) Which approaches are used for determine whether a particular point is inside or c
outside of polygon
A. Even odd method
B. Winding number method
C. Both a &b
D. None of these
62) The selection and separation of a part of text or image for further operation are D
called as
A. Translation
B. shear
C. Rotation
D. Clipping

8
63) Reflection about the line Y=X is equivalent to ________, followed by an B
anticlockwise rotation 90 ̊.
A. Reflection about y-axis
B. Reflection about x-axis
C. Reflection about origin
D. None of these
64) Two consecutive rotation transformations are always__________. A
A. Additive
B. Subtractive
C. Multiplicative
D. None of these
65) Reflection about the line Y=X is equivalent to ________, followed by a B
anticlockwise rotation 90 ̊.
A. Reflection about y-axis
B. Reflection about x-axis
C. Reflection about origin
D. None of these
66) After performing Y-shear transformation we got A(2,5),B(4,11),C(2,7).If the B
constant value is 2 then original coordinates will be___________.
A. A(2,5),B(4,11),C(2,7)
B. A(2,1),B(4,3),C(2,3)
C. A(4,1),B(10,3),C(4,3)
D. A(5,11),B(3,4),C(3,2)
67) If the resultant object is given along with the set of transformations applied on it, D
then to find the original object we
have to use___________.
A. Affine transformation
B. Reverse transformation
C. Normal transformation
D. Inverse transformation
68) A point (x, y) becomes (-x, y) in__________, transformation. B
A. Reflection at X axis
B. Reflection at Y axis
C. Reflection at origin
D. Reflection about line Y=X
69) In Y-shear transformation point (x,y) becomes_______. C
A. x+yb, xa+y
B. x+yb, y
C. x, xa+y
D. None of these
70) Is shear transformation can be formed by scaling and rotation A
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. Not always
D. None of these

9 P.T.O.
71) Cohen Sutherland algorithm is _________ algorithm B
A. Polygon clipping
B. Line clipping
C. Point clipping
D. None of these
72) Cyrus –Back algorithms is ____________ algorithm C
A. Polygon clipping
B. Point clipping
C. Line clipping
D. None of these
73) Which of the following is polygon clipping algorithm C
A. Cohen Sutherland algorithm
B. Cyrus-beck algorithm
C. Sutherland Hodgman algorithm
D. None of these
74) A line with endpoints codes as 0000 and 0100 is? A
A. Partially invisible
B. Completely visible
C. Completely invisible
D. Trivially invisible
75) Some common clipping includes D
A. Curve clipping
B. Polygon clipping
C. Point clipping
D. All of the above
76) The process of mapping a world window in world coordinates system to viewport A
are called
A. Transformation Viewing
B. Viewport
C. Clipping window
D. Screen coordinates system
77) Which approaches are used for determine whether a particular point is inside or C
outside of
A. polygon
B. Even odd method
C. Winding number method
D. Both a &b
E. None of these

10
78) P' = R * P where B
′ cos − sin 0
′ ′
= ′ = sin cos 0 =
1 0 0 1
Such homogeneous transformation is called
A. homogeneous Translation
B. homogeneous Rotation
C. Homogeneous Scaling
D. None of the above
79) Addition transformation are C
A. Shear
B. Reflection
C. both a &b
D. None of the above
80) The rectangle portion of the interface window that defines where the image will A
actually appear are called
A. View port
B. Transformation viewing
C. Clipping window
D. Screen coordinate system
81) Coordinates of window are knows as B
A. Screen coordinates
B. World coordinates
C. Device coordinates
D. Cartesian coordinates
82) For a point to be clipped, which of the following conditions must be satisfied by C
the point?
A. xwmin < x < xwmax
B. xwmin = x = xwmax
C. xwmin > x > xwmax
D. ywmin = y = ywmax
83) Which of the following is NOT a type of clipping algorithm used on the raster D
system?
A. line clipping
B. point clipping
C. area clipping
D. solid clipping
84) For a point to be clipped, which of the following conditions must be satisfied by B
the point?
A. ywmin < y < ywmax
B. ywmin > y > ywmax
C. ywmin = y = ywmax
D. xwmin < x < xwmax

11 P.T.O.
85) Which type of clipping is used to clip character strings? A
A. text clipping
B. line clipping
C. sentence clipping
D. word clipping
86) What is the name of the space in which the image is displayed? B
A. World co-ordinate system
B. Screen co-ordinate system
C. World window
D. Interface window
87) What is the rectangle in the world defining the region that is to be displayed? C
A. World co-ordinate system
B. Screen co-ordinate system
C. World window
D. Interface window
88) The process of mapping a world window in World Coordinates to the Viewport is A
called Viewing transformation.
A. True
B. False
89) By changing the dimensions of the viewport, the _________ and ___________ of C
the objects being displayed can be manipulated.
A. Number of pixels and image quality
B. X co-ordinate and Y co-ordinate
C. Size and proportions
D. All of these
90) Cohen-Sutherland clipping is an example of _________________ C
A. polygon clipping
B. text clipping
C. line clipping
D. curve clipping
91) The Cohen-Sutherland algorithm divides the region into _____ number of spaces. D
A. 8
B. 6
C. 7
D. 9
92) The Cohen–Sutherland algorithm can be only be used on a rectangular clip A
window.
A. True
B. False
93) The 4-bit code of top-left region of the window is ____________ B
A. 1001
B. 1100
C. 0101
D. 1010

12
94) If the logical AND of the endpoint codes is NOT zero, the line can be trivially B
accepted.
A. True
B. False
95) Liang–Barsky algorithm is a __________ clipping algorithm. C
A. circle
B. text
C. line
D. pixel
96) The ideas of the Liang-Barsky algorithm are the same with which algorithm? A
A. Cyrus Beck algorithm
B. Liam-Chopsky algorithm
C. Cohen Sutherland algorithm
D. All have the same
97) The Liang-Barsky algorithm is more efficient than the Cohen Sutherland A
algorithm.
A. True
B. False
98) Which type of arithmetic is used in Liang Barsky algorithm? B
A. simple arithmetic operations
B. floating point arithmetic
C. fixed point arithmetic
D. logarithmic operations
99) . How many edges of the clipping are/is present in 2D? D
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
100)The scale factor of viewport transformation for x co-ordinate is ________ A
A. Sx = (svmax – svmin)/ (swmax – swmin)
B. Sx = (svmax – svmin)/ (swmax + swmin)
C. Sx = (svmin – svmax)/ (swmax – swmin)
D. Sx = (svmax + svmin)/ (swmax – swmin)

**********

13 P.T.O.
 Question Bank of ANS
CA 7.1 Design and Analysis of Algorithms(254701)
ou are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There
e 4 items with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}.
hat is the maximum value of the items you can carry using the
apsack? a
160
200
170
90
e 0-1 Knapsack problem can be solved using Greedy algorithm.
True b
False
hen a top-down approach of dynamic programming is applied to a
oblem, it usually _____________
Decreases both, the time complexity and the space complexity b
Decreases the time complexity and increases the space complexity
ncreases the time complexity and decreases the space complexity
ncreases both, the time complexity and the space complexity
hat is a subset sum problem? b
finding a subset of a set that has sum of elements equal to a given
mber
checking for the presence of a subset that has sum of elements equal to
iven number and printing true or false based on the result
inding the sum of elements present in a set
finding the sum of all the subsets of a set
hich of the following is not true about subset sum problem? d
the recursive solution has a time complexity of O(2n)
there is no known solution that takes polynomial time
he recursive solution is slower than dynamic programming solution
the dynamic programming solution has a time complexity of O(n log n)
hich of the following algorithm can be used to solve the Hamiltonian path a
oblem efficiently?
branch and bound
terative improvement
divide and conquer
greedy algorithm
hich of the following is false about Prim’s algorithm? b
It is a greedy algorithm
It constructs MST by selecting edges in increasing order of their weights
t never accepts cycles in the MST
It can be implemented using the Fibonacci heap
oose the correct answer for the followingstatements:
e theory of NP–completeness provides a method of obtaining a polynomial
e for NPalgorithms.
NP-complete problem areNP-Hard. a
is FALSE and II is TRUE
is TRUE and II is FALSE
Both are TRUE
Both are FALSE
e upper bound on the time complexity of the nondeterministic sorting
orithm is
O(n) a
O(n log n)
O(1)
( log n)
cursive algorithms are basedon
Divideand conquer approach
Top-down approach C
Bottom-up approach
Hierarchical approach
w do you determine the cost of a spanningtree?
By the sum of the costs of the edges of the tree
By the sum of the costs of the edges and vertices of the tree a
By the sum of the costs of the vertices of the tree
By the sum of the costs of the edges of the graph
me the node which has been generated but none of its children nodes have
en generated in state space tree of backtrackingmethod.
Dead node b
Live node
-Node
StateNode
 w many nodes are there in a full state space tree with n = 6?
5
4 c
3
2

om the following chose the one which belongs to the algorithm paradigm
er than to which others from the following belongsto.
Minimum & Maximum problem.
Knapsack problem b
election problem.
Merge sort.

hat is the type of the algorithm used in solving the 4 Queensproblem?

Greedy
Dynamic d
ranch and Bound
Backtracking.

eedy job scheduling with deadlines algorithms’ complexity is definedas

O(N)
Ω( n log n) a
O (n2log n)
O ( n log n)

is the minimum number of steps that can executed for the

enparameters
Average case
Time complexity d
Worstcase
Bestcase
 r sorting a file of size n by straight selection sort, the number of comparisons
de in the first pass is
n b
n-1
n(n - 1)/2
None of the above
knapsack is based on method
greedy method
dynamic programming b
branch and bound
divide andconquer
ffmancodes are theapplications of with minimal weighted external path
gth obtained by an optimalset.
BST c
MST
Binary tree
Weighted Graph
is a round trip path along n edges of G that visits every vertex once and
urns to its startingposition.
MST d
Multistage Graph
SP
HamiltonianCycle
e following numbers are inserted into an empty binary search tree in the
en order: 10, 1, 3, 5, 15, 12, 16. What is the height of the binary search tree
e height is the maximum distance of a leaf node from theroot)?
b
3
4
6
 G be a simple graph with 20 vertices and 100 edges. The size of the
nimum vertex cover of G is 8. Then, the size of the maximum independent
of G is
12 a
8
Less than 8
More than 12
Priority-Queue is implemented as a Max-Heap. Initially, it has 5 elements.
e level- order traversal of the heap is given below: 10, 8,5,3,2 Two new
ments 1 and 7 are inserted in the heap in that order. The level-order traversal
the heap after the insertion of the elements is D
10,8,7,5,3,2,1
10,8,7,2,3,1,5
10,8,7,1,2,3,5
10,8,7,3,2,1,5
hich of the following problems should be solved using dynamic c
ogramming?
Mergesort
Binary search
Longest common subsequence
Quicksort
hich of the following is true about Huffman Coding. c
Huffman coding may become lossy in some cases
Huffman Codes may not be optimal lossless codes in some cases
n Huffman coding, no code is prefix of any other code.
ll of the above
hich of the following problems is NOT solved using dynamic d
ogramming?
0/1 knapsack problem
Matrix chain multiplication problem
Edit distance problem
Fractional knapsack problem
pological sort can be applied to which of the following graphs? d
Undirected Cyclic Graphs
Directed Cyclic Graphs
Undirected Acyclic Graphs
Directed Acyclic Graphs
most of the cases, topological sort starts from a node which has d
________
Maximum Degree
Minimum Degree
Any degree
Zero Degree
____is the first step in solving the problem B
Understanding the Problem
Identify the Problem
Evaluate the Solution
None of these
quick sort, the number of partitions into which the file of size n is B
ided by a selected record is
n
n-1
2
None of the above
amples of O(1) algorithms are______________. D
Multiplying two numbers.
assigning some value to a variable
displaying some integer on console
All of the above
amples of O(n2) algorithms are______________. C
Adding of two Matrices
Initializing all elements of matrix by zero
Both A and B
Neither A nor B
 a Max heap the largest key is at A
the root
a leaf
a node
None of the above
heap sort the input is arranged in the form of a A
heap
tree
queue
None of the above
ppose we need to sort a list of employee records in ascending order, A
ng the social security number (a 9-digit number) as the key (i.e., sort
e records by social security number). If we need to guarantee that the
nning time will be no worse than n log n, which sorting methods could
use?
mergesort
quicksort
insertion sort
Either mergesort or quicksort
the Union/Find algorithm, the ranks of the nodes on a path will a
rease monotonically from?
leaf to root
root to node
root to leaf
left subtree to right subtree
avelling salesman problem is an example of b
Dynamic Algorithm
Greedy Algorithm
Recursive Approach
Divide & Conquer
hich of the following is an example of dynamic programming approach? d
Fibonacci Series
Tower of Hanoi
Dijkstra Shortest Path
All of the above
hich of the following uses memoization? c
Greedy approach
Divide and conquer approach
Dynamic programming approach
None of the above
kstra's algorithm is based on which paradigm? A
Greedy paradigm
Backtracking paradigm
Dynamic Programming paradigm
Divide and Conquer paradigm
hich of the problems cannot be solved by backtracking method? d
n-queen problem
subset sum problem
hamiltonian circuit problem
travelling salesman problem

cktracking algorithm is implemented by constructing a tree of choices a

led as?
State-space tree
State-chart tree
Node tree
Backtracking tree
w many solutions are there for 8 queens on 8*8 board? c
12
91
92
93
hromatic number of a line graph is 4 then the chromatic index of the c
aph will be?
0
1
4
nformation insufficient
hich of the following algorithms solves the all pair shortest path problem? b
Diskstra's algorithm
Floyd algorithm
Prim's algorithm
Warshall's algorithm
graph can be represented as an _ _ _ _ _ _ a
Linked list
Structure
Union
Queue
which of the following class does a CNF-satisfiability problem belong? c
NP class
P class
NP complete
NP hard

hich of the following methods can be used to solve the Knapsack d

oblem?
Brute force algorithm
Recursion
Dynamic programming
Brute force, Recursion and Dynamic Programming
actional knapsack problem is also known as __________ b
0/1 knapsack problem
Continuous knapsack problem
Divisible knapsack problem
Non continuous knapsack problem
me complexity of fractional knapsack problem is ____________ a
O(n log n)
O(n)
O(n2)
O(nW)
ster’s theorem is used for? a
solving recurrences
solving iterative relations
analysing loops
calculating the time complexity of any code
 assen’s algorithm is a/an_____________ algorithm. b
Non- recursive
Recursive
Approximation
Accurate
assen’s Matrix Algorithm was proposed by _____________ a
Volker Strassen
Andrew Strassen
Victor Jan
Virginia Williams
nsider the two matrices P and Q which are 10 x 20 and 20 x 30 matrices d
pectively. What is the number of multiplications required to multiply the
o matrices?
10*20
20*30
10*30
10*20*30
nsider the matrices P, Q and R which are 10 x 20, 20 x 30 and 30 x 40 a
trices respectively. What is the minimum number of multiplications
quired to multiply the three matrices?
18000
12000
24000
32000
hich of the following is not an application of topological sorting? d
Finding prerequisite of a task
Finding Deadlock in an Operating System
Finding Cycle in a graph
Ordered Statistics
man wants to go different places in the world. He has listed them down c
But there are some places where he wants to visit before some other
ces. What application of graph can he use to determine that?
Depth First Search
Breadth First Search
Topological Sorting
Dijkstra’s Shortest path algorithm
 nsider the strings “PQRSTPQRS” and “PRATPBRQRPS”. What is the c
gth of the longest common subsequence?
9
8
7
6
anch and bound is a __________ a
problem solving technique
data structure
sorting algorithm
type of tree
hich of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate d
anches?
LIFO branch and bound
FIFO branch and bound
Lowest cost branch and bound
Highest cost branch and bound
oose the correct statement from the following. c
branch and bound is more efficient than backtracking
branch and bound is not suitable where a greedy algorithm is not
plicable
branch and bound divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub
oblems
backtracking divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub
oblems
_______ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non- A
erministic polynomial algorithms?
NP
P
Hard
Complete
ven an array arr = {45,77,89,90,94,99,100} and key = 100; What are the
d values(corresponding array elements) generated in the first and
cond iterations?
90 and 99
90 and 100
89 and 94
94 and 99
hat is the advantage of recursive approach than an iterative approach?
Consumes less memory
Less code and easy to implement
Consumes more memory
More code has to be written
hich of the given options provides the increasing order of asymptotic
mplexity of functions f1, f2, f3 and f4?
n) = 2^n f2(n) = n^(3/2) f3(n) = nLogn f4(n) = n^(Logn)
3, f2, f1, f4
2, f3, f1, f4
2, f3, f4, f1
f3, f2, f4, f1
ps of Divide and Conquer approach
Divide, Conquer and Combine
Combine, Conquer and Divide
Combine, Divide and Conquer
Divide, Combine and Conquer
e complexity of searching an element from a set of n elements using Binary
rch algorithm is
O(n log n)
O(log n)
O(n2) In
O(n)
he development of dynamic programming the value of an optimal solution
computed in
op up fashion
Bottom up fashion Correct
In any way
 e number of operations in Matrix multiplications M1, M2, M3, M4 and M5
sizes 5X10, 10X100, 100X2, 2X20 and 20X50
830
4600
6900
12890
hich case of Master’s theorem is applicable in the recurrence relation
n)=0.5*T(n/2)+1/n?
Case 3
Case 1
Master’s theorem is not applicable
Case 2
____ is a condition that is always true at a particular point in an algorithm.
ssertion
constant
exception
nvariant
vision Pattern of Problems in Divide and Conquer approach
erative
Recursive
Parallel
Random
a problem can be broken into subproblems which are reused several
es, the problem possesses ____________ property.
Overlapping subproblems
Optimal substructure
Memorization
Greedy
hich of the following sorting algorithms does not have a worst case running
e of O(n2) ?
Quick sort
Merge sort
nsertion sort
Bubble sort
 e running time of quick sort depends on the selection of.
election of pivot elements t
Number of input
Number of passes
Arrangements of the elements
me Complexity of Optimal binary search tree.
O(logn)
O(n)
O(n!)
O(n*n)
ta Structure used for the Merge Sort
wo Pointers
Two pointers and N Extra Arrays
2N/2 pointers and N/2 Extra Arrays
Two Pointers and an Extra Array
e optimal solution to a problem is a combination of optimal solutions to its
bproblems. This is known as
rincipleof Duality
rinciple of Feasibility
rinciple of Optimality
rinciple of Dynamicity.
problem L is NP-complete iff L is NP-hard and
≈ NP
L α NP
L ε NP
L = NP
hat would be the cost value for any answering node of a sub tree with root ‘r’
ng branch-bound algorithm?
Maximum
Minimum
Optimal
Average
 msalgorithm is based on method
Divide and conquer method
Greedy method
Dynamic programming
Branch and bound
w many number of comparisons are required in insertion sort to sort a file if
file is sorted in reverse order?
N2
N
N-1
N/2
w many number of comparisons are required in insertion sort to sort a file if
file is already sorted?
N2
N
N-1
N/2
e worst-case time complexity of Quick Sort is________.
O(n2)
O(log n)
O(n)
O(n logn)
per bound is denotedas
Ω
ω
Θ
O
e worst-case time complexity of Merge Sort is________.
O(n2)
O(log n)
O(n)
O(n logn)
 e algorithm like Quick sort does not require extra memory for carrying out
sorting procedure. This technique is called __________.
n-place
stable
unstable
in-partition
hich of the following sorting procedures is the slowest?
uick sort
heap sort
hell sort
bubble sort
o main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are
processor and memory
complexity and capacity
ime and space
data and space
e time factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by
counting microseconds
counting the number of key operations
counting the number of statements
counting the kilobytes of algorithm
hich of the following case does not exist in complexity theory?
best case
worst case
average case
null case
e concept of order Big O is important because
t can be used to decide the best algorithm that solves a given problem
t determines the maximum size of a problem that can be solved in a given
ount of time
t is the lower bound of the growth rate of algorithm
both a and b
e recurrence relation capturing the optimal execution time of the Towers of
noi problem with n discs is
(n) = 2T(n - 2) + 2
T(n) = 2T(n - 1) + n
T(n) = 2T(n/2) + 1
T(n) = 2T(n - 1) + 1
implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that
uns in linear time, the data structure to be used is:
Stack
Heap
Queue
Binary Tree

sort which compares adjacent elements in a list and switches where

cessary is ____.
nsertion sort
heap sort
quick sort
ubble sort
Which design strategy stops the execution when it find the solution
erwise starts the problem from top
Back tracking
Branch and Bound
Divide and conquer
Dynamic programming
analysis of algorithm, approximate relationship between the size of the job
d the amount of work required to do is expressed by using
Central tendency
Differential equation
Order of execution
Order of magnitude
eadth first search
cans each incident node along with its children.
cans all incident edges before moving to other node.
ssame as backtracking
Scans all the nodes in random order.
hich method of traversal does not use stack to hold nodes that are waiting to
processed?
Dept First
D-search
Breadth first
Back-tracking
Sr. Question Bank of ANS
No.
CA 7.2Automata Theory and Computability(254702)
1) All the regular languages can have one or more of the following d)
descriptions:
i) DFA ii) NFA iii) e-NFA iv) Regular Expressions
Which of the following are correct?
a) i, ii, iv
b) i, ii, iii
c) i, iv
d) i, ii, iii, iv
2) A turing machine is a d)
a) real machine
b) abstract machine
c) hypothetical machine
d) more than one option is correct
3) A turing machine operates over: b)
a) finite memory tape
b) infinite memory tape
c) depends on the algorithm
d) none of the mentioned
4) Which of the functions are not performed by the turing machine after d)
reading a symbol?
a) writes the symbol
b) moves the tape one cell left/right
c) proceeds with next instruction or halts
d) none of the mentioned
5) Which of the problems were not answered when the turing machine was d)
invented?
a) Does a machine exists that can determine whether any arbitrary
machine on its tape is circular.
b) Does a machine exists that can determine whether any arbitrary
machine on its tape is ever prints a symbol
c) Hilbert Entscheidungs problem
d) None of the mentioned

1 P.T.O.
6) The ability for a system of instructions to simulate a Turing Machine is a)
called _________
a) Turing Completeness
b) Simulation
c) Turing Halting
d) None of the mentioned
7) Which of the problems are unsolvable? c)
a) Halting problem
b) Boolean Satisfiability problem
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the mentioned
8) If d is not defined on the current state and the current tape symbol, then b)
the machine ______
a) does not halts
b) halts
c) goes into loop forever
d) none of the mentioned
9) A language L is said to be ____________ if there is a turing machine M b)
such that L(M)=L and M halts at every point.
a) Turing acceptable
b) decidable
c) undecidable
d) none of the mentioned
10) The language accepted by a turing machine is called ____________ c)
a) Recursive Ennumerable
b) Recursive
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the mentioned
11) Recursive languages are also known as: a)
a) decidable
b) undecidable
c) sometimes decidable
d) none of the mentioned
12) Let G be a grammar: S->AB|e, A->a, B->b a)
Is the given grammar in CNF?
a) Yes
b) No

2
13) Given grammar G: a)
(1)S->AS
(2)S->AAS
(3)A->SA
(4)A->aa
Which of the following productions denies the format of Chomsky
Normal Form?
a) 2,4
b) 1,3
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
14) Which of the technique can be used to prove that a language is non b.
regular?
a) Ardens theorem
b) Pumping Lemma
c) Ogden’s Lemma
d) None of the mentioned
15) If L is DFA-regular, L’ is b.
a) Non regular
b) DFA-regular
c) Non-finite
d) None of the mentioned
16) All the regular languages can have one or more of the following d.
descriptions:
i) DFA ii) NFA iii) e-NFA iv) Regular Expressions
Which of the following are correct?
a) i, ii, iv
b) i, ii, iii
c) i, iv
d) i, ii, iii, iv

3 P.T.O.
17) L is a regular Language if and only If the set of __________ classes of a.
IL is finite.
a) Equivalence
b) Reflexive
c) Myhill
d) Nerode
18) According to the rice’s theorem, If P is a non trivial property, Lp is : c.
a) infinite
b) decidable
c) undecidable
d) none of the mentioned
19) Given grammar: b)
S->aA
A->a
A->B
B-> A
B->bb
Which of the following is the production of B after simplification by
removal of unit productions?
a) A
b) bb
c) aA
d) A| bb
20) RR* can be expressed in which of the forms: a.
a) R+
b) R-
c) R+ U R-
d) R
21) Let G be a grammar. When the production in G satisfy certain c)
restrictions, then G is said to be in ___________.
a) restricted form
b) parsed form
c) normal form
d) all of the mentioned

4
22) The number of leaves in a parse tree with expression E*(E) where * a) 5
and () are operators
a) 5
b) 2
c) 4
d) 3
23) A grammar with more than one parse tree is called: b)
a) Unambiguous
b) Ambiguous
c) Regular
d) None of the mentioned
24) If L1 and L2 are regular sets then intersection of these two will be a.
a) Regular
b) Non Regular
c) Recursive
d) Non Recursive
25) Which of the following is false for a grammar G in Chomsky Normal d)
Form:
a) G has no useless symbols
b) G has no unit productions
c) G has no epsilon productions
d) None of the mentioned
26) A CFG is ambiguous if b)
a) It has more than one rightmost derivations
b) It has more than one leftmost derivations
c) No parse tree can be generated for the CFG
d) None of the mentioned
27) A null production can be referred to as: a) String
a) String
b) Symbol
c) Word
d) All of the mentioned

5 P.T.O.
28) Which of the following is incorrect according to rice theorem? c.
Let S be a set of language hat is non trivial:
a) there exists a TM that recognizes the language in S
b) there exists a TM that recognizes the language not in S
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
29) The format: A->aB refers to which of the following? b)
a) Chomsky Normal Form
b) Greibach Normal Form
c) Backus Naur Form
d) None of the mentioned
30) Which of the production rule can be accepted by Chomsky grammar? d)
a) A->BC
b) A->a
c) S->e
d) All of the mentioned
31) The entity which generate Language is termed as: c.
a) Automata
b) Tokens
c) Grammar
d) Data
32) Which among the following cannot be accepted by a regular grammar? d)
a) L is a set of numbers divisible by 2
b) L is a set of binary complement
c) L is a set of string with odd number of 0
d) L is a set of 0n1n
33) The minimum number of productions required to produce a language c) 5
consisting of palindrome strings over ∑={a,b} is
a) 3
b) 7
c) 5
d) 6
34) Which of the following statement is correct? a
a) All Regular grammar are context free but not vice versa
b) All context free grammar are regular grammar but not vice versa
c) Regular grammar and context free grammar are the same entity
d) None of the mentioned

6
35) Are ambiguous grammar context free? a)
a) Yes
b) No
36) A->aA| a| b b)
The number of steps to form aab:
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
37) Which of the following the given language belongs to? d)
L={ambmcm| m>=1}
a) Context free language
b) Regular language
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the mentioned
38) Which among the following is the correct option for the given a)
grammar?
G->X111|G1,X->X0|00
a) {0a1b|a=2,b=3}
b) {0a1b|a=1,b=5}
c) {0a1b|a=b}
d) More than one of the mentioned is correct
39) A grammar G=(V, T, P, S) is __________ if every production taken one b)
of the two forms:
B->aC
B->a
a) Ambiguous
b) Regular
c) Non Regular
d) None of the mentioned
40) Which of the following statement is false in context of tree a)
terminology?
a) Root with no children is called a leaf
b) A node can have three children
c) Root has no parent
d) Trees are collection of nodes, with a parent child relationship

7 P.T.O.
41) "CFG" stands for _________ b.
a)Context Free Graph
b)Context Free Grammar
c)Context Finite Graph
d)Context Finite Grammar
42) While applying Pumping lemma over a language, we consider a string c)
w that belong to L and fragment it into _________ parts.
a) 2
b) 5
c) 3
d) 6
43) If we select a string w such that w∈L, and w=xyz. Which of the b)
following portions cannot be an empty string?
a) x
b) y
c) z
d) all of the mentioned
44) There exists a language L. We define a string w such that w∈L and a)
w=xyz and |w| >=n for some constant integer n.What can be the
maximum length of the substring xy i.e. |xy|<=?
a) n
b) |y|
c) |x|
d) none of the mentioned
45) Answer in accordance to the third and last statement in pumping d)
lemma:
For all _______ xyiz ∈L
a) i>0
b) i<0
c) i<=0
d) i>=0
46) Let w be a string and fragmented by three variable x, y, and z as per a)
pumping lemma. What does these variables represent?
a) string count
b) string
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned

8
47) Which kind of proof is used to prove the regularity of a language? a.
a) Proof by contradiction
b) Direct proof
c) Proof by induction
d) None of the mentioned
48) A turing machine operates over: b.
a) finite memory tape
b) infinite memory tape
c) depends on the algorithm
d) none of the mentioned
49) The entity which generate Language is termed as: c
a) Automata
b) Tokens
c) Grammar
d) Data
50) Production Rule: aAb->agb belongs to which of the following category? c
a) Regular Language
b) Context free Language
c) Context Sensitive Language
d) Recursively Ennumerable Language
51) The Grammar can be defined as: G=(V, ∑, p, S) b
In the given definition, what does S represents?
a) Accepting State
b) Starting Variable
c) Sensitive Grammar
d) None of these
52) ___________ States are called the halt states. a.

a)ACCEPT and REJECT

b)ACCEPT and READ
c)ACCEPT AND START
d)ACCEPT AND WRITE

9 P.T.O.
53) Reverse of a DFA can be formed by c)
a) using PDA
b) making final state as non-final
c) making final as starting state and starting state as final state
d) None of the mentioned
54) Concatenation of R with Ф outputs: b)
a) R
b) Ф
c) R.Ф
d) None of the mentioned
55) Simplify the following regular expression: a
ε+1*(011) *(1*(011) *) *
a) (1+011) *
b) (1*(011) *)
c) (1+(011) *) *
d) (1011) *
56) P, O, R be regular expression over ∑, P is not ε, then b
R=Q + RP has a unique solution:
a) Q*P
b) QP*
c) Q*P*
d) (P*O*) *
57) Arden’s theorem is true for: c
a) More than one initial states
b) Null transitions
c) Non-null transitions
d) None of the mentioned
58) The difference between number of states with regular expression (a + b) a
and (a + b) * is:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0

10
59) The PDA is called non-deterministic PDA when there are more than one c.
out going edges from……… state

a)START or READ
b)POP or REJECT
c)READ or POP
d)PUSH or POP
60) Regular Expression denote precisely the ________ of Regular a
Language.
a) Class
b) Power Set
c) Super Set
d) None of the mentioned
61) Relate the following statement: b
Statement: All sufficiently long words in a regular language can have a
middle section of words repeated a number of times to produce a new
word which also lies within the same language.
a) Turing Machine
b) Pumping Lemma
c) Arden’s theorem
d) None of the mentioned
62) Can a DFA recognize a palindrome number? b.
a) Yes
b) No
c) Yes, with input alphabet as ∑*
d) Can’t be determined
63) Which of the following is not an example of finite state machine d.
system?
a) Control Mechanism of an elevator
b) Combinational Locks
c) Traffic Lights
d) Digital Watches

11 P.T.O.
64) Given: b.
L= {xϵ∑= {0,1} |x=0n1n for n>=1}; Can there be a DFA possible for
the language?
a) Yes
b) No
65) The symbols that can’t be replaced by anything are called ---------------- b.
a)Productions
b)Terminals
c)Non-terminals
d)All of above
66) Transition function maps. d.
a) Σ * Q -> Σ
b) Q * Q -> Σ
c) Σ * Σ -> Q
d) Q * Σ -> Q
67) Number of states require to accept string ends with 10. a.
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) can’t be represented.
68) The grammatical rules are often called_____________ a.

a)Productions
b)Terminals
c)Non-terminals
d)None of given
69) The language generated by __________ is called Context Free c.
Language (CFL).
a)FA
b)TG
c)CFG
d)TGT

12
70) The production of the form no terminal → Λ is said to be null a.
production.
a)TRUE
b)FALSE
71) The basic limitation of finite automata is that a.
a) It can’t remember arbitrary large amount of information.
b) It sometimes recognize grammar that are not regular.
c) It sometimes fails to recognize regular grammar.
d) All of the mentioned
72) The productions of the form nonterminal → one nonterminal, is called b.
_________
a)Null production
b)Unit production
c)Null able production
d)None of given
73) Which of the following is a correct statement? a.
a) Moore machine has no accepting states
b) Mealy machine has accepting states
c) We can convert Mealy to Moore but not vice versa
d) All of the mentioned
74) In mealy machine, the O/P depends upon? c.
a) State
b) Previous State
c) State and Input
d) Only Input
75) Which of the given are correct? c.
a) Moore machine has 6-tuples
b) Mealy machine has 6-tuples
c) Both Mealy and Moore has 6-tuples
d) None of the mentioned
76) The major difference between Mealy and Moore machine is about: a.
a) Output Variations
b) Input Variations
c) Both
d) None of the mentioned

13 P.T.O.
77) Mealy and Moore machine can be categorized as: b.
a) Inducers
b) Transducers
c) Turing Machines
d) Linearly Bounder Automata
78) Which one among the following is true? d.
A mealy machine
a) produces a language
b) produces a grammar
c) can be converted to NFA
d) has less circuit delays
79) CNF is stands for c.
a)Context Normal Form
b)Complete Normal Form
c)Chomsky Normal Form
d)Compared Null Form
80) What does the following figure most correctly represents? c.

a) Final state with loop x

b) Transitional state with loop x
c) Initial state as well as final state with loop x
d) Insufficient Data

14
81) Which of the following will not be accepted by the following DFA? a.

a) ababaabaa
b) abbbaa
c) abbbaabb
d) abbaabbaa
82) “One language can be expressed by more than one FA”. This statement a.
is ______
a)True
b)False
c)Sometimes true & sometimes false
d)None of these
83) The part of an FA, where the input string is placed before it is run, is c.
called _______
a)State
b)Transition
c)Input Tape
d)Output Tape
84) Which of the operations are eligible in PDA? a
a) Push
b) Delete
c) Insert
d) Find

15 P.T.O.
85) A string is accepted by a PDA when c.
a) Stack is empty
b) Acceptance state
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the mentioned
86) The following move of a PDA is on the basis of: c.
a) Present state
b) Input Symbol
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the mentioned
87) Which of the following was not a part of Chomsky hierarchy?
a) Context sensitive grammar c.
b) Unrestricted grammar
c) Recursive grammar
d) None of the mentioned
88) Assume the R is a relation on a set A, aRb is partially ordered such that d.
a and b are _____________
a) reflexive
b) transitive
c) symmetric
d) reflexive and transitive
89) Which of the following is a not a part of 5-tuple finite automata? c.
a) Input alphabet
b) Transition function
c) Output Alphabet
d) Initial State

90) Moore Machine is an application of: b.

a) Finite automata without input
b) Finite automata with output
c) Non- Finite automata with output
d) None of the mentioned
91) In Moore machine, output is produced over the change of: a.
a) states
b) transitions
c) Both
d) None of the mentioned

16
92) Myhill Nerode theorem is consisting of the followings,
a)L partitions Σ into distinct classes.
d.

b)If L is regular then, L generates finite number of classes.

c)If L generates finite number of classes then L is regular.
d)All of above
93) Consider the following two languages:
c.

L1 = {x ∣ for some y with ∣ y ∣ = 2^ ∣ x ∣ , xy ∈ L and L is regular language}

L2 = {x ∣ for some y such that ∣ x ∣ = ∣ y ∣ , xy ∈ L and L is regular

language}

Which one of the following is correct?

a. Only L1 is regular language

b. Only L2 is regular language

c. Both L1 and L2 are regular languages

d. Both L1 and L2 are not regular languages

94) Pushdown automata can recognize language generated by ................ c.
a. Only context free grammar
b. Only regular grammar
c. Context free grammar or regular grammar
d. Only context sensitive grammar

17 P.T.O.
95) To obtain a string of n Terminals from a given Chomsky normal form a.
grammar, the number of productions to be used is:
a. 2n−1
b. 2n
c. n+1
d. n^2
96) A turing machine that is able to simulate other turing machines: b.
a) Nested Turing machines
b) Universal Turing machine
c) Counter machine
d) None of the mentioned
97) Context sensitive language can be recognized by a: d.
a. Finite state machine
b. Deterministic finite automata
c. Non-deterministic finite automata
d. Linear bounded automata
98) The set A={ 0^n 1^n 2^n | n=1, 2, 3, ......... } is an example of a a.
grammar that is:
a. Context sensitive
b. Context free
c. Regular
d. None of the above
99) Which of the following is not a regular expression? b.
a) [(a+b)*-(aa+bb)]*
b) [(0+1)-(0b+a1)*(a+b)]*
c) (01+11+10)*
d) (1+2+0)*(1+2)*

18
100)Following context free grammar a
S —> aB | bA
A —>b | aS | bAA
B —> b | bS | aBB
generates strings of terminals that have
a) equal number of a's and b's
b) odd number of a's and odd number b's
c) even number of a's and even number of b's
d) d. odd number of a's and even number of a's

**********

19 P.T.O.
 Question Bank of ANS

CA 7.3 Artificial Intelligence(254703)

What is the main task of a problem-solving agent?
a) Solve the given problem and reach to goal
1) b) To find out which sequence of action will get it to the goal state C
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Using logic to represent and reason we can represent knowledge about the world with
2) facts and rules. A
a) True
b) False
Uncertainty arises in the wumpus world because the agent’s sensors give only
___________
3) a) Full & Global information C
b) Partial & Global Information
c) Partial & local Information
d) Full & local information
A Hybrid Bayesian network contains ___________
a) Both discrete and continuous variables
4) b) Only Discrete variables À
c) Only Discontinuous variable
d) Both Discrete and Discontinuous variable
If a hypothesis says it should be positive, but in fact it is negative, we call it
___________
5) a) A consistent hypothesis C
b) A false negative hypothesis
c) A false positive hypothesis
d) A specialized hypothesis
The primitives in probabilistic reasoning are random variables.
6) a) True A
b) False
Which is true for Decision theory?
a) Decision Theory = Probability theory + utility theory
7) b) Decision Theory = Inference theory + utility theory C
c) Decision Theory = Uncertainty + utility theory
d) Decision Theory = Probability theory + preference

1 P.T.O.
 A constructive approach in which no commitment is made unless it is necessary to do so
is ___________
8) a) Least commitment approach A
b) Most commitment approach
c) Nonlinear planning
d) Opportunistic planning
What is the extraction of the meaning of utterance?
a) Syntactic
9) b) Semantic B
c) Pragmatic
d) None of the mentione
What is meant by compositional semantics?
a) Determining the meaning
10) b) Logical connectives A
c) Semantics
d) None of the mentioned
What can’t be done in the semantic interpretation?
a) Logical term
11) b) Complete logical sentence C
c) Both Logical term & Complete logical sentence
d) None of the mentioned
which is used to mediate between syntax and semantics?
a) Form
12) b) Intermediate form B
c) Grammer
d) All of the mentioned
What kind of interpretation is done by adding context-dependant information?
a) Semantic
13) b) Syntactic C
c) Pragmatic
d) None of the mentioned
How many issues are available in describing degree of belief?
a) 1
14) b) 2 B
c) 3
d) 4

2
 What is used for probability theory sentences?
a) Conditional logic
15) b) Logic C
c) Extension of propositional logic
d) None of the mentioned
Where does the dependance of experience is reflected in prior probability sentences?
a) Syntactic distinction
16) b) Semantic distinction À
c) Both Syntactic & Semantic distinction
d) None of the mentioned
Where does the degree of belief is applied?
a) Propositions
17) b) Literals A
c) Variables
d) Statements
How many formal languages are used for stating propositions?
a) 1
18) b) 2 B
c) 3
d) 4
What is the basic element of a language?
a) Literal
19) b) Variable C
c) Random variable
d) All of the mentioned
Which is the complete specification of the state of the world?
a) Atomic event
20) b) Complex event A
c) Simple event
d) None of the mentioned
Which variable cannot be written in entire distribution as a table?
a) Discrete
21) b) Continuous B
c) Both Discrete & Continuous
d) None of the mentioned

3 P.T.O.
 What is meant by probability density function?
a) Probability distributions
22) b) Continuous variable D
c) Discrete variable
d) Probability distributions for Continuous variables
How many terms are required for building a bayes model?
a) 1
23) b) 2 C
c) 3
d) 4
What is needed to make probabilistic systems feasible in the world?
a) Reliability
24) b) Crucial robustness B
c) Feasibility
d) None of the mentioned
What does the bayesian network provides?
a) Complete description of the domain
25) b) Partial description of the domain A
c) Complete description of the problem
d) None of the mentioned
To which does the local structure is associated?
a) Hybrid
26) b) Dependant C
c) Linear
d) None of the mentioned
What is the consequence between a node and its predecessors while creating bayesian
network?
27) a) Functionally dependent C
b) Dependant
c) Conditionally independent
d) Both Conditionally dependant & Dependant
The values of the set membership is represented by ___________
a) Discrete Set
28) b) Degree of truth B
c) Probabilities
d) Both Degree of truth & Probabilities

4
 ____________ are algorithms that learn from their more complex environments (hence
eco) to generalize, approximate and simplify solution logic.
29) a) Fuzzy Relational DB C
b) Ecorithms
c) Fuzzy Set
d) None of the mentioned
What will take place as the agent observes its interactions with the world?
a) Learning
30) b) Hearing A
c) Perceiving
d) Speech
Which is used for utility functions in game playing algorithm?
a) Linear polynomial
31) b) Weighted polynomial D
c) Polynomial
d) Linear weighted polynomial
What takes input as an object described by a set of attributes?
a) Tree
32) b) Graph D
c) Decision graph
d) Decision tree
How the decision tree reaches its decision?
a) Single test
33) b) Two test C
c) Sequence of test
d) No test
Which algorithm are in more similar to backward chaining algorithm?
a) Depth-first search algorithm
34) b) Breadth-first search algorithm A
c) Hill-climbing search algorithm
d) All of the mentioned
What form of negation does the prolog allows?
a) Negation as failure
35) b) Proposition A
c) Substitution
d) Negation as success

5 P.T.O.
 Which is omitted in prolog unification algorithm?
a) Variable check
36) b) Occur check B
c) Proposition check
d) Both Occur & Proposition check
There exists two way to infer using semantic networks in which knowledge is represented
as Frames.
37) 1) Intersection Search A
2) Inheritance Search
a) True
b) False
How many functions are available in the unification and lifting process?
a) 1
38) b) 2 D
c) 3
d) 4
How the buckets are stored in predicate indexing?
a) Lists
39) b) Stack C
c) Hashes
d) None of the mentioned
Rational agent is the one who always does the right thing.
40) a) True A
b) False
What is Artificial intelligence?
a) Putting your intelligence into Computer
41) b) Programming with your own intelligence C
c) Making a Machine intelligent
d) Putting more memory into Computer
Artificial Intelligence has its expansion in the following application.
a) Planning and Scheduling
42) b) Game Playing D
c) Robotics
d) All of the above

6
 The characteristics of the computer system capable of thinking, reasoning and learning is
known is
43) a) machine intelligence C
b) human intelligence
c) artificial intelligence
d) virtual intelligence
Which of the following search belongs to totally ordered plan search?
a) Forward state-space search
44) b) Hill-climbing search A
c) Depth-first search
d) Breadth-first search
Which cannot be taken as advantage for totally ordered plan search?
a) Composition
45) b) State search C
c) Problem decomposition
d) None of the mentioned
In which of the following situations might a blind search be acceptable?
a) real-life situation
46) b) complex game C
c) small search space
d) all of the mentioned
Which search method takes less memory?
a) Depth-First Search
47) b) Breadth-First search A
c) Optimal search
d) Linear Search
A heuristic is a way of trying __________
a) To discover something or an idea embedded in a program
48) b) To search and measure how far a node in a search tree seems to be from a goal D
c) To compare two nodes in a search tree to see if one is better than the other is
d) All of the mentioned
Which of the following, is a component of an expert system?
a) inference engine
49) b) knowledge base D
c) user interface
d) all of the mentioned

7 P.T.O.
 What is state space?
a) The whole problem
50) b) Your Definition to a problem D
c) Problem you design
d) Representing your problem with variable and parameter
A search algorithm takes _________ as an input and returns ________ as an output.
a) Input, output
51) b) Problem, solution B
c) Solution, problem
d) Parameters, sequence of actions
A problem in a search space is defined by one of these state.
a) Initial state
52) b) Last state A
c) Intermediate state
d) All of the mentioned
The Set of actions for a problem in a state space is formulated by a ___________
a) Intermediate states
53) b) Initial state C
c) Successor function, which takes current action and returns next immediate state
d) None of the mentioned
The process of removing detail from a given state representation is called ______
a) Extraction
54) b) Abstraction B
c) Information Retrieval
d) Mining of data
What are taken into account of state-space search?
a) Postconditions
55) b) Preconditions D
c) Effects
d) Both Preconditions & Effects
Fuzzy Set theory defines fuzzy operators. Choose the fuzzy operators from the following.
a) AND
56) b) OR D
c) NOT
d) All of the mentioned

8
 ______________ is/are the way/s to represent uncertainty.
a) Fuzzy Logic
57) b) Probability D
c) Entropy
d) All of the mentioned
There exist only two types of quantifiers, Universal Quantification and Existential
58) Quantification. A
a) True
b) False
A _________ is used to demonstrate, on a purely syntactic basis, that one formula is a
logical consequence of another formula)
59) a) Deductive Systems A
b) Inductive Systems
c) Reasoning with Knowledge Based Systems
d) Search Based Systems
First Order Logic is also known as ___________
a) First Order Predicate Calculus
60) b) Quantification Theory D
c) Lower Order Calculus
d) All of the mentioned
Which is used to compute the truth of any sentence?
a) Semantics of propositional logic
61) b) Alpha-beta pruning A
c) First-order logic
d) Both Semantics of propositional logic & Alpha-beta pruning
Which are needed to compute the logical inference algorithm?
a) Logical equivalence
62) b) Validity D
c) Satisfiability
d) All of the mentioned
Which form is called as a conjunction of disjunction of literals?
a) Conjunctive normal form
63) b) Disjunctive normal form A
c) Normal form
d) All of the mentioned

9 P.T.O.
 Which is also called single inference rule?
a) Reference
64) b) Resolution B
c) Reform
d) None of the mentioned
What is the condition of literals in variables?
a) Existentially quantified
65) b) Universally quantified B
c) Quantified
d) None of the mentioned
What is meant by factoring?
a) Removal of redundant variable
66) b) Removal of redundant literal B
c) Addition of redundant literal
d) Addition of redundant variable
When the resolution is called as refutation-complete?
a) Sentence is satisfiable
67) b) Sentence is unsatisfiable B
c) Sentence remains the same
d) None of the mentioned
Which closely resembles propositional definite clause?
a) Resolution
68) b) Inference D
c) Conjunction
d) First-order definite clauses
The room temperature is hot. Here the hot (use of linguistic variable is used) can be
represented by _______
69) a) Fuzzy Set A
b) Crisp Set
c) Fuzzy & Crisp Set
d) None of the mentioned
What is the form of Fuzzy logic?
a) Two-valued logic
70) b) Crisp set logic C
c) Many-valued logic
d) Binary set logic

10
 How the bayesian network can be used to answer any query?
a) Full distribution
71) b) Joint distribution B
c) Partial distribution
d) All of the mentioned
Where does the bayes rule can be used?
a) Solving queries
72) b) Increasing complexity D
c) Decreasing complexity
d) Answering probabilistic query
Which algorithm takes two sentences and returns a unifier?
a) Inference
73) b) Hill-climbing search D
c) Depth-first search
d) Unify algorithm
Which process makes different logical expression looks identical?
a) Lifting
74) b) Unification B
c) Inference process
d) None of the mentioned
Frames in artificial intelligence is derived from semantic nets.
75) a) True A
b) False
Which of the following elements constitutes the frame structure?
a) Facts or Data
76) b) Procedures and default values A
c) Frame names
d) Frame reference in hierarchy
Semantic Network represents _____________
a) Syntactic relation between concepts
77) b) Semantic relations between concepts B
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Graph used to represent semantic network is _____________
a) Undirected graph
78) b) Directed graph B
c) Directed Acyclic graph (DAG)
d) Directed complete graph

11 P.T.O.
 What are Semantic Networks?
a) A way of representing knowledge
79) b) Data Structure A
c) Data Type
d) None of the mentioned
A Horn clause is a clause with _______ positive literal.
a) At least one
80) b) At most one B
c) None
d) All
Forward chaining systems are _____________ where as backward chaining systems are
___________
81) a) Goal-driven, goal-driven C
b) Goal-driven, data-driven
c) Data-driven, goal-driven
d) Data-driven, data-driven
In a backward chaining system you start with the initial facts, and keep using the rules to
82) draw new conclusions (or take certain actions) given those facts. B
a) True
b) False
Translate the following statement into FOL.
“For every a, if a is a PhD student, then a has a master degree”
83) a) ∀ a PhD(a) -> Master(a) A
b) ∃ a PhD(a) -> Master(a)
c) A is true, B is true
d) A is false, B is false
Which among the following could the Existential instantiation of ∃x Crown(x) ^
OnHead(x, Johnny)?
84) a) Crown(John) ^ OnHead(John, Jonny) A
b) Crown(y) ^ OnHead(y, y, x)
c) Crown(x) ^ OnHead(x, Jonny)
d) None of the mentioned
Which of the following is not the style of inference?
a) Forward Chaining
85) b) Backward Chaining D
c) Resolution Refutation
d) Modus Pones

12
 An inference algorithm that derives only entailed sentences is called sound or truth-
86) preserving. A
a) True
b) False
Which is not a property of representation of knowledge?
a) Representational Verification
87) b) Representational Adequacy A
c) Inferential Adequacy
d) Inferential Efficiency
‘α |= β ‘(to mean that the sentence α entails the sentence β) if and only if, in every model
in which α is _____ β is also _____
88) a) True, true A
b) True, false
c) False, true
d) False, false
A) Knowledge base (KB) is consists of set of statements.
B) Inference is deriving a new sentence from the KB)
Choose the correct option.
89) a) A is true, B is true A
b) A is false, B is false
c) A is true, B is false
d) A is false, B is true
What is the term used for describing the judgmental or commonsense part of problem
solving?
90) a) Heuristic A
b) Critical
c) Value based
d) Analytical
What was originally called the "imitation game" by its creator?
a)The Turing Test
91) b)LISP A
c)The Logic Theorist
d)Cybernetics
A)M. turing developed a technique for determining whether a computer could or could
not demonstrate the artificial Intelligence,, Presently, this technique is called
92) a)Turing Test A
b)Algorithm
c)Boolean Algebra
d)Logarithm

13 P.T.O.
 How is Fuzzy Logic different from conventional control methods?
a)IF and THEN Approach
93) b)FOR Approach A
c)WHILE Approach
d)DO Approach
Where does the degree of belief are applied?
a)Propositions
94) b)Literals A
c)Variables
d)Statements
Which variable cannot be written in entire distribution as a table?
a)Discrete
95) b)Continuous B
c)Both a & b
d)None of the mentioned
Where does the Bayes rule can be used?
a)Solving queries
96) b)Increasing complexity D
c)Decreasing complexity
d)Answering probabilistic query
What is the process of associating an FOL expression with a phrase?
a)Interpretation
97) b)Augument reality C
c)Semantic interpretation
d)Augument interpretation
What is the major component/components for measuring the performance of problem
solving?
98) a) Completeness D
b) Optimality
c) Time and Space complexity
d) All of the mentioned
A production rule consists of ____________
a) A set of Rule
99) b) A sequence of steps C
c) Set of Rule & sequence of steps
d) Arbitrary representation to problem

14
 Which is the best way to go for Game playing problem?
a) Linear approach
100)b) Heuristic approach (Some knowledge is stored) B
c) Random approach
d) An Optimal approach

15 P.T.O.
 Question Bank of ANS

CA 7.4 Advanced Java Programming(254704)

1) When the ejbRemove method encounters a system problem ,it should
throw_________

A. javax.ejb.NoSuchEntityException B
B. java.ejb.EJBException
C. java.ejb.RemoveException
D. javax.ejb.DuplicateKeyException

2) Select the right method to read data from a file.

A) get()
B) readFileInput() D

C) scan()
D) read()
3) Which JSP block is used define class-wide variables and functions in the
generated class file?
A. scriplets
D
B. expression
C. element
D. declarations

4) Which of the following is not an implicit object?

A. date
A
B. request
C. out
D. pagecontext

1 P.T.O.
5) Which of these exceptions is thrown in cases when the file specified for writing is
not found?
A) IOException
C
B) FileException
C) FileNotFoundException
D) FileInputException
6) An Enterprise JavaBeans can be deployed in _______

A. J2EE server
D
B. Weblogic
C. Web sphere
D. All of the above

7) Mapping files (*.hbm.xml) is used __________

A. to map persistent objects to a relational database

B. to configure the hibernate services (connection driver class, connection URL) A

C. to configure the hibernate services (connection username, connection password, dialect

etc)
D. All the above

8) Which of the following is used to rollback a JDBC transaction?

A) rollback()
B) rollforward() A
C) deleteTransaction()
D) RemoveTransaction()

2
9) Consider the following HTML page code: < html >< body >< a
href='/servlet/HelloServlet' >POST< /a >< /body >< /html > Which method of
HelloServIet will be invoked when the hyperlink is clicked?

A. doGet A

B. doPost
C. doHref
D. servicePost

10) To determine the behaviour of the beans in an application , we make use of

A. Java.beans.SimpleBeanInfo
B
B. Java.beans.Introspector
C. Java.awt.*
D. None of the above

11) Which of the elements defined within the taglib element of taglib descriptor file are
required

A. uri B
B. jsp-version
C. display-name
D. None

12) Name the element within the tag element that defines the tag class that
implements the functionality of tag
Which element of tag defines the tag class that implements the tag’s functionality?
A. tag D
B. tag-uri
C. tag-name
D. tag-class

3 P.T.O.
13) What does setAutoCommit(false) do?

A) commits transaction after each query

B) explicitly commits transaction C
C) does not commit transaction automatically after each query
D) never commits transaction
14) __________ provides the ability to directly insert java into an HTML document

A. declarations
B
B. scriptlets
C. directives
D. None of the above

15) -----------beans would survive a server crash

A. Stateful session beans
B. Stateless session beans C
C. Entity beans
D. Message-driven beans

16) Which of the following statements are true about locating or using the home
interface of a session bean

A. Once acquired, the home interface can be used only once

D
B. Each instance of a session bean has its own EJBHome object
C. The InitialContext must be narrowed before it can be used to get the home
interface
D. None of the above

4
17) Which of the following statements about Java Threads is correct?

A) Java threads don’t allow parts of a program to be executed in parallel

B) Java is a single-threaded language
D
C) Java’s garbage collector runs as a high priority thread
D) Ready, running and sleeping are three states that a thread can be in during its
life cycle
18) Which of the following statements are correct about a session bean whose class
contains the following method? public void ejbCreate (String id)

A. It is a Stateless session bean

B
B. The home interface of the bean has the method create (String id) declared in it
C. The component interface ofthe bean has the method ejbCreate (String id)
declared in it
D. None of the above

19) What are valid methods for HttpSessionListener interface

A. sessionRemoved
B
B. sessionDestroyed
C. sessionReCreated
D. sessionReplaced

20) Sites using HTTPS that is HTTP plus SSL(Secure Sockets Layer ) can be identified by

A. There is no way one can detect that site uses HTTPS protocol
B
B. The URL of the website begins with https: instead of http
C. The URL of the website begins with ssl: instead of http
D. The URL of the website begins with shttp

5 P.T.O.
21) An object which implements the interfaces java.rmi.Remote and
java.io.Serializable is being sent as a method parameter from one JVM to
another. How would it be sent by RMI?

A. RMI will serialize the object and send it B

B. RMI will send the stub of the object

C. Either A or B Throws an exception
D. None

22) In the JMS, message producers and message consumers are created by which of
the following objects?

A. Connection Factories D
B. Message Listeners
C. Connections
D. Sessions

23) Which of the following operators is used to generate instance of an exception

which can be thrown using throw?
A) thrown
D
B) alloc
C) malloc
D) new
24) To author a Session bean which of the following classes are needed?

A. A Home interface, A Remote Interface, a class that implements

Enterprisebean interface and a PrimaryKey class
B. A Home interface, A Remote Interface and a class that implements the B
SessionBean interface
C. A Remote Interface and a class that implements the SessionBean interface
D. A Home interface, A Remote Interface and a class that implements the
EnterpriseBean interface

6
25) Which of the following statement is false regarding the exceptions in JDBC

A. SQLWarning objects are a subclass of SQLException that deal with database

access warnings
B
B. Warnings stop the execution of an application, as exceptions do; they simply
alert the user that something did not happen as planned
C. Connection object has a getWarning() method in it
D. Statement and ResultSet objects have getWarning() methods in it

26) JDBC-ODBC Bridge does not work with Microsoft J++, because it does not
support

A. Java Native Interface A

B. JNDI
C. JINI
D. None of above

27) In order to run JSP ……………….. is required.

A) Mail Server
B) Applet viewer C

C) Java Web Server

D) Database connection
28) Prepared Statement object in JDBC used to execute……….. queries.
A) Executable
B) Simple D
C) High level
D) Parameterized

7 P.T.O.
29) Name the class that includes the getSession method that is used to get the
HttpSession object

A. HttpServletRequest A
B. HttpServletResponse
C. SessionContext
D. SessionConfig

30) The EJB timer service is used for timing notifications. It can be used with

A. CMP entity beans

C
B. both BMP and CMP entity beans
C. message-driven beans
D. B and C

31) In JDBC ……… imports all Java classes concerned with database connectivity.
A) javax.sql.*
B) java.mysql.* C
C) java.sql.*
D) com.*

32) Which of the following classes can catch all exceptions which cannot be caught?

A) RuntimeException
B) Error B
C) Exception
D) ParentException
33) How can I use JDBC to create a database?

A. Include create=true at end of JDBC URL

D
B. Execute 'CREATE DATABASE jGuru' SQL statement
C. Execute 'STRSQL' and 'CREATE COLLECTION jGuru' SQL statements
D. Database creation is DBMS specific

8
34) JSP embeds in ……… in …………
A) Servlet, HTML
B) HTML, Java D
C) HTML, Servlet
D) Java, HTML

35) Which page directive attribute allows you to take care of possible thread conflicts?

A. session
D
B. extends
C. buffer
D. IsThreadSafe
36) In the Model View Controller architecture of an enterprise application, which of the
following can be 'best suited' as the Controller?

A. Servlets D
B. Java Server Page
C. Session Bean
D. Option 1 and Option 3

37) --------function is used to add elements in the vector at particular position

A) add()
B) addElement() B

C) AddElement()
D) set()
38) How constructor can be used for a servlet?
A) Initialization
B) Constructor function C
C) Initialization and Constructor function
D) Setup() method

9 P.T.O.
39) What is the difference between servlets and applets?
i. Servlets execute on Server; Applets execute on browser
ii. Servlets have no GUI; Applet has GUI
iii. Servlets creates static web pages; Applets creates dynamic web pages
iv. Servlets can handle only a single request; Applet can handle multiple requests B
A) i, ii, iii are correct
B) i, ii are correct
C) i, iii are correct
D) i, ii, iii, iv are correct

40) The …… and ….. classes are abstract classes that support reading and writing of
byte streams.
A) reader, writer
B
B) inputstream, outputstream
C) objectinputstream, objectoutputstream
D) none

41) Which of these is the interface of legacy?

A) Map
B) Enumeration B
C) HashMap
D) Hashtable

42) Which method is used to get three-letter abbreviation for locale’s country in
servlets?
A) Request.getISO3Country()
A
B) Locale.getISO3Country()
C) Response.getISO3Country()
D) Local.retrieveISO3Country()

10
43) Which of the following code retrieves the body of the request as binary data?
A) DataInputStream data = new InputStream()
B) DataInputStream data = response.getInputStream() C
C) DataInputStream data = request.getInputStream()
D) DataInputStream data = request.fetchInputStream()

44) When destroy() method of a filter is called?

A) The destroy() method is called only once at the end of the life cycle of a filter
B) The destroy() method is called after the filter has executed doFilter method
A
C) The destroy() method is called only once at the begining of the life cycle of a
filter
D) The destroyer() method is called after the filter has executed

45) Java support RMI. What does this RMI stand for?
A) Random Memory Interface
B) Remote Method Invocation B
C) Random Method Invocation
D) Remote Memory Interface

46) How is the dynamic interception of requests and responses to transform the
information done?
A) servlet container
D
B) servlet config
C) servlet context
D) servlet filter

47) Which of these are legacy classes?

A) Stack
B) Hashtable D
C) Vector
D) All of the mentioned

11 P.T.O.
48) Which are the session tracking techniques?
i. URL rewriting
ii. Using session object
iii. Using response object
iv. Using hidden fields
v. Using cookies B
vi. Using servlet object
A) i, ii, iii, vi
B) i, ii, iv, v
C) i, vi, iii, v
D) i, ii, iii, v

49) Which of the following is used for session migration?

A) Persisting the session in database
B) URL rewriting A
C) Create new database connection
D) Kill session from multiple sessions

50) Which of the below is not a session tracking method?

A) URL rewriting
B) History B
C) Cookies
D) SSL sessions

51) Which of the following is stored at client side?

A) URL rewriting
B) Hidden form fields D
C) SSL sessions
D) Cookies

12
52) Which of the following leads to high network traffic?
A) URL rewriting
B) Hidden form fields A
C) SSL sessions
D) Cookies

53) Which of the following is not true about session?

A) All users connect to the same session
B) All users have same session variable C
C) Default timeout value for session variable is 20 minutes
D) New session cannot be created for a new user

54) Which of these methods is used to insert value and its key?

A) put()
B) set() A
C) insertElement()
D) addElement()
55) Which function is used to do session invalidate?
A) session.discontinue()
B) session.falsify() D
C) session.disconnect()
D) session.invalidate()

56) Which method creates unique fields in the HTML which are not shown to the
user?
A) User authentication
C
B) URL writing
C) HTML Hidden field
D) HTML invisible field

13 P.T.O.
57) Which object is used by spring for authentication?
A) ContextHolder
B) SecurityHolder D
C) AnonymousHolder
D) SecurityContextHolder

58) Which page directive should be used in JSP to generate a PDF page?
A) contentType
B) generatePdf A
C) typePDF
D) contentPDF

59) ------tag must be used to send data from JSP to included JSP.
A) Using <%jsp:page> tag
B) Using <%jsp:useBean> tag D
C) Using <%jsp:import> tag
D) Using <%jsp:param> tag

60) Application is instance of which class?

A) javax.servlet.Application
B) javax.servlet.HttpContext D
C) javax.servlet.Context
D) javax.servlet.ServletContext

61) How many JDBC driver types does Sun define?

A) One
B) Two D
C) Three
D) Four

14
62) Which one is the correct order of phases in JSP life cycle?
A) Initialization, Cleanup, Compilation, Execution
B) Initialization, Compilation, Cleanup, Execution C
C) Compilation, Initialization, Execution, Cleanup
D) Cleanup, Compilation, Initialization, Execution

63) Which JDBC driver Type(s) can be used in either applet or servlet code?

A) Both Type 1 and Type 2

B) Both Type 1 and Type 3 C

C) Both Type 3 and Type 4

D) Type 4 only
64) request is the object of -------class.
A) HttpServletRequest
B) HttpRequest A
C) Request
D) ServletRequest

65) Which is not a directive?

A) include
B) page C
C) export
D) useBean

66) What is not true of a Java bean?

A) There are no public instance variables.
B) All persistent values are accessed using getxxx and setxxx methods. C
C) It may have many constructors as necessary.
D) All of the above are true of a Java bean.

15 P.T.O.
67) Which one of the following is correct for directive in JSP?
A) <%@directive%>
B) <%!directive%> A
C) <%directive%>
D) <%=directive%>

68) -------is used to include the file in JSP?

A) jsp:include
B) jsp:getProperty A
C) jsp:setProperty
D) jsp:plugin

69) Which of the below does not implement Map interface?

A) HashMap
B) Hashtable D
C) EnumMap
D) Vector
70) A JSP is transformed into a(n):
A) Java applet
B) Java servlet B
C) Either 1 or 2 above
D) Neither 1 nor 2 above

71) “out” is implicit object of which class?

A) javax.servlet.jsp.PrintWriter
B) javax.servlet.jsp.SessionWriter D
C) javax.servlet.jsp.SessionPrinter
D) javax.servlet.jsp.JspWriter

16
72) What programming language(s) or scripting language(s) does Java Server Pages
(JSP) support?
A) VBScript only
C
B) Jscript only
C) Java only
D) All of the above are supported

73) What temporarily redirects response to the browser?

A) <jsp:forward>
B) <%@directive%> C
C) response.sendRedirect(URL)
D) response.setRedirect(URL)

74) Which tag is used to set a value of a JavaBean?

A) <c:set>
B) <c:param> A
C) <c:choose>
D) <c:forward>

75) In JSP -------- is not a directive.

A) page directive
B) command directive B
C) taglib directive
D) include directive
76) Which of the below is not a javascript framework for UI?

A) Vaadin
B) AngularJS D
C) KendoUI
D) Springcore

17 P.T.O.
77) Which of these is a process of writing the state of an object to a byte stream?

A) Serialization
B) Externalization A
C) File Filtering
D) All of the mentioned
78) Which of these processes occur automatically by the java runtime system?

A) Serialization
B) Garbage collection A
C) File Filtering
D) All of the mentioned
79) DataOutput interface is extended by------------

A) ObjectOutput
B) Externalization A
C) Serializable
D) ObjectInput
80) Which of these is a method of ObjectOutput interface used to finalize the output
state so that any buffers are cleared?
A) clear()
B
B) flush()
C) fflush()
D) close()
81) What servlet processor was developed by Apache Foundation and Sun?

A) Apache Tomcat
B) Apache Web server A

C) Sun servlet processor

D) None of the above is correct.

18
82) What type of protocol is HTTP?

A) stateless
B) stateful A
C) transfer protocol
D) information protocol
83) Which of these standard collection classes implements a dynamic array?

A) AbstractList
B) LinkedList C
C) ArrayList
D) AbstractSet
84) Which of these classes can generate an array which can increase and decrease in
size automatically?
A) ArrayList()
A
B) DynamicList()
C) LinkedList()
D) MallocList()
85) How can we take input text from user in HTML page?

A) input tag
B) inoutBufferedReader tag A
C) meta tag
D) scanner tag
86) Which of these methods can be used to increase the capacity of ArrayList object
manually?
A) Capacity()
D
B) increaseCapacity()
C) increasecapacity()
D) ensureCapacity()

19 P.T.O.
87) ---------function of ArrayList class is used to getcurrent size.

A) index()
B) length() C
C) size()
D) capacity()
88) How can we connect to database in a web application?

A) oracle sql developer

B) toad C
C) JDBC template
D) mysql
89) What is invoked via HTTP on the Web server computer when it responds to
requests from a user's Web browser?
A) A Java application
C
B) A Java applet
C) A Java servlet
D) None of the above is correct.
90) Which of these keywords is not a part of exception handling?

A) try
B) finally C
C) thrown
D) catch
91) --------keyword need be utilized to monitor an exception.

A) throw
B) finally C
C) try
D) catch

20
92) Which of these keywords must be used to handle the exception thrown by try
block in some rational manner?
A) try
D
B) finally
C) throw
D) catch
93) How are java web applications packaged?

A) jar
B) war D
C) zip
D) both jar and war
94) To manually throw an exception --------keyword is used.

A) throw
B) finally A
C) try
D) catch
95) What is multithreaded programming?

A) It’s a process in which two different processes run simultaneously

B) It’s a process in which two or more parts of same process run simultaneously
B
C) It’s a process in which many different process are able to access same
information
D) It’s a process in which a single process can access information from many
sources
96) Thread priority in Java is?

A) Integer
B) Float A
C) double
D) long

21 P.T.O.
97) In the web application, servlet resides in-------

A) client
B) applet D
C) tomcat
D) server
98) How many copies of a JSP page can be in memory at a time?

A) One
B) Two A

C) Three
D) Unlimited
99) What is true about threading?

A) run() method calls start() method and runs the code

B) run() method creates new thread D
C) run() method can be called directly without start() method being called
D) start() method creates new thread and calls code written in run() method
100) Which of the following is a correct constructor for thread?

A) Thread(Runnable a, String str)

B) Thread(int priority) A
C) Thread(Runnable a, int priority)
D) Thread(Runnable a, ThreadGroup t)

**********

22
 Question Bank of ANS

CA-7.5 ADBMS(254705)
1) In a _______ clustering index, the index record contains the search-key value and a pointer to B
the first data record with that search-key value and the rest of the records will be in the
sequential pointers.
A) SparseB) DenseC) StraightD) Continuous
2) A key that consists of more than one attribute to uniquely identify rows in a table is called A
A) Composite key
B) Candidate key
C) Primary key
D) Foreign key
3) Which one is true about clustered index? B
A) Clustered index is not associated with table
B) Clustered index is built by default on unique key columns
C) Clustered index is not built on unique key columns
D) None of the mentioned
4) When the __________ the backup site takes over processing and becomes the primary. C
A) Secondary fails
B) Backup recovers
C) Primary fails
D) None of the mentioned
5) In hierarchical model, data is organized into C
A) logical structure
B) physical structure
C) tree like structure
D) none of them
6) FDBS stands for_____ A
A) Federated database system
B) Featured database system
C) First database system
D) none of the above

7) D
A heterogeneous distributed database is which of the following?
A) The same DBMS is used at each location and data are not distributed across all nodes.
B) The same DBMS is used at each location and data are distributed across all nodes.
C) A different DBMS is used at each location and data are not distributed across all nodes.
D) A different DBMS is used at each location and data are distributed across all nodes.

1 P.T.O.
8) DDL stands for ________ A
A) data definition language
B) data description language
C) data definition list
D) none of the above
9) WAL stands for _______ B
A) Write After Logging
B) Write Ahead Logging
C) Watch After Logging
D) none of the above
10) The _______operation performs a set union of two “similarly structured” tables A
A) Union
B) Join
C) Product
D) Intersect

11) Using which language can a user request information from a database? A
A) Query
B) Relational
C) Structural
D) Compiler
12) In Oracle, the end of the transaction is recorded in the ……………………….. files. C
A) Data
B) Control
C) Redo Log
D) Password
13) For each attribute of a relation, there is a set of permitted values, called the ________ of that C
attribute.
A) Set
B) Relation
C) Domain
D) Schema

14) DBA is responsible for ______ D

A) Account creation
B) Privilege granting
C) Privilege revocation
D) All of the above

2
15) What is DES ? B
A) Data Entity standard
B) Data Encryption Standard
C) Direct Encryption Standard
D) All of the above
16) Which of the following is /are Security Issues? D
A) Legal and ethical issues B) Policy issues
C) System-related issues D) All of the above

17) Data items grouped together for storage purposes are called a : A
A) record
B) title
C) list
D) string
18) Which of the different ways for handling recovery? D
A) Steal/No-Force (Undo/Redo)
B) Steal/Force (Undo/No-redo)
C) No-Steal/No-Force (Redo/No-undo)
D) All of the above

19) The_____ operation allows the combining of two relations by merging pairs of tuples, one from B
each relation, into a single tuple.
A) Select
B) Join
C) Union
D) Intersection
20) Storage devices like magnetic disk comes under B
A) Volatile storage
B) Non-volatile storage
C) Stable storage
D) Dynamic storage
21) The term _______ is used to refer to a row. C
A) AttributeB) Field C) TupleD) Instance
22) _____________provides enterprise-wide connectivity solutions in distributed, heterogeneous B
computing environments
A) Online new server
B) Oracle Net Services
C) Online Net Solutions
D) none of the above

3 P.T.O.
23) ARIES uses a ___________ to identify log records, and stores it in database pages. B
A) Log sequence number
B) Log number
C) Lock number
D) Sequence
24) An abstraction concept for building composite object from their component object is called : C
A) Specialization
B) Normalization
C) Aggregation
D) Generalization
25) An active database allows users to make the following changes to triggers D

A) ActivateB) DeactivateC) DropD) All of the above

26) ADBMS stands for __________ A
A) Advanced DBMS
B) Automatic DBMS
C) Anti DBMS
D) none of the above

27) Which of the follow is not the degree of relationship? A

A) SingleB) BinaryC) TernaryD) n-ary
28) Which of the following is not a type of Data Update D
A) Immediate Update
B) Deferred Update
C) Shadow Update
D) Inferred Update
29) Immediate database modification technique uses A
A) Both undo and redo
B) Undo but no redo
C) Redo but no undo
D) Neither undo nor redo
30) Tape storage is referred to as __________ storage. C
A) Direct-access
B) Random-access
C) Sequential-access
D) All of the mentioned

4
31) The disk controller uses ________ at each sector to ensure that the data is not corrupted on data A
retrieval.
A) Checksum
B) Unit drive
C) Read disk
D) Readsum

32) Which one of the following design is both software and hardware independent ? C
A) Logical
B) Physical
C) Conceptual
D) None of the above
33) DML stands for ________
A
A) data manipulation language
B) data mutation language
C) data master list
D) none of the above

34) Remote backup system must be _________ with the primary site. A
A) Synchronised
B) Separated
C) Connected
D) Detached but related
35) The term attribute refers to a ___________ of a table. B
A) Record
B) Column
C) Tuple
D) Key

36) The remote backup site is sometimes also called the B

A) Primary Site
B) Secondary Site
C) Tertiary Site
D) None of the mentioned
37) Which of the following is/are Design decisions about indexing
D
A) Whether to index an attribute?
B) What attribute or attributes to index on?
C) Whether to set up a clustered index?
D) All of the above

5 P.T.O.
38) A schema describes : D
A) Record Relationship
B) Data Elements
C) Record and files
D) All of the above
39) In B+ tree the node which points to another node is called D
A) Leaf node
B) External node
C) Final node
D) Internal node
40) _____________ refers to the correctness and completeness of the data in a database? B

A) Data security

B) Data integrity

C) Data constraint

D) Data independence

41) The syntax of a user query is verified by : C

A) query optimizer
B) DBA
C) parser
D) none of the above
42) The …………………… consists of physical files and memory components. B
A) Oracle Client
B) Oracle Server
C) Oracle Middleware
D) Oracle Instance
43) Shadow paging has A
A) no redo
B) no undo
C) redo but no undo
D) neither redo nor undo
44) The backup is taken by C
A) Erasing all previous records
B) Entering the new records
C) Sending all log records from primary site to the remote backup site
D) Sending selected records from primary site to the remote backup site

6
45) Which of following are the properties of entities ? C
A) Groups
B) Table
C) Attributes
D) Switchboards
46) Which one is lowest level data model ? A
A) physical data model
B) logical data model
C) external data model
D) none of the above
47) RAID is __________________ C
A) Redundant Arrays of Inexpensive Display
B) Redundant Arrays of expensive Disks
C) Redundant Arrays of Inexpensive Disks
D) none of the above
48) Course(course_id,sec_id,semester) B
Here the course_id,sec_id and semester are __________ and course is a _________
A) Relations, Attribute
B) Attributes, Relation
C) Tuple, Relation
D) Tuple, Attributes
49) Which of the following is/are Types of multimedia data? D
A) Graphics
B) Image
C) Animation
D) All of the above

50) The database may become unavailable for use due to ______ D
A) Transaction Failure
B) System Failure
C) Media Failure
D) All of the above

7 P.T.O.
51) A hash function must meet ________ criteria. B
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) None of the mentioned
52) In ordered indices the file containing the records is sequentially ordered, a ___________ is an A
index whose search key also defines the sequential order of the file.
A) Clustered index
B) Structured index
C) Unstructured index
D) Nonclustered index
53) In Oracle Database ………………….. Contain the data dictionary and user created data. A
A) Data Files
B) Control Files
C) Redo Log Files
D) Password Files
54) Which of the following is not an advantage of B-Tree Index Files C
A) Lack of redundant storage
B) Some searches are faster
C) Leaf and non-leaf nodes are of different size
D) All of the above

55) An organization comprising a database system usually includes a person called as ____________ B
A) system administrator.B)database administrator
C)office administrator D) oracleadministrator
56) The time to process the remote backup can be reduced by D
A) Flags
B) Breakpoints
C) Redo points
D) Checkpoints
57) Which of the following Problems to be considered in tuning: D
A) How to avoid excessive lock contention?
B) How to minimize overhead of logging and unnecessary dumping of data?
C) How to optimize buffer size and scheduling of processes?
D) All of the above

8
58) The _______ is that part of main memory available for storage of copies of disk blocks. A
A) Buffer
B) Catalog
C) Storage
D) Secondary storage
59) A data model is : C
A) Used to describe structure of a database
B) Set of basic operations on the database
C) Both [A] and [B]
D) None of the above
60) For a transaction to be durable, its changes need to be written to ________ storage. C
A) Volatile storage
B) Non-volatile storage
C) Stable storage
D) Dynamic storage
61) Which of the following Operations can be performed on Files D
A) Open
B) Read
C) Delete
D) All of the above

62) What is the main limitation of Hierarchical Databases? B

A) Limited capacity (unable to hold much data)
B) Limited flexibility in accessing data
C) Overhead associated with maintaining indexes
D) The performance of the database is poor

63) Object which is distinguishable from other objects by specific set of attributes is called as A
___________.
A) Entity
B) None of these
C) Attributes
D) Classes
64) For correct behaviour during recovery, undo and redo operation must be C
A) Commutative
B) Associative
C) Idempotent
D) Distributive

9 P.T.O.
65) If any tampering with the database is suspected, a database _______is performed. A
A) audit
B) Rollback
C) Lock
D) none of the above
66) Which of the following is/are Threats to databases D
A) Loss of integrity
B) Loss of availability
C) Loss of confidentiality
D) All of the above
67) The process of saving information onto secondary storage devices is referred to as C
A) Backing up
B) Restoring
C) Writing
D) Reading
68) Which of the following is not a level of data abstraction? B
A) Physical Level
B) Critical Level
C) Logical Level
D) View Level
69) A data dictionary is a special file that contains? D
A) The names of all fields in all files
B) The data types of all fields in all files
C) The widths of all fields in all files
D) All of the mentioned

70) The ……………………… consists of the memory components of Oracle and various D
background processes.
A) Oracle Parameter
B) Oracle Profile
C) Oracle Process
D) Oracle Instance
71) A logical description of some portion of database that is required by a user to perform task is B
called as
A) System View
B) User View
C) Logical View
D) Data View

10
72) Which of the following is not a Schema? C
A) Database Schema
B) Physical Schema
C) Critical Schema
D) Logical Schema
73) _________enables you to configure Oracle Net Services A
A) Oracle Net Manager
B) Online net manager
C) Both A) and B)
D) none of the above
74) Which of the following is a physical storage media? D
A) Tape Storage
B) Optical Storage
C) Flash memory
D) All of the mentioned
75) A ________ is a pictorial depiction of the schema of a database that shows the relations in the A
database, their attributes, and primary keys and foreign keys.
A) Schema diagram
B) Relational algebra
C) Database diagram
D) Schema flow
76) A relational database consists of a collection of A
A) Tables
B) Fields
C) Records
D) Keys
77) Data Models in DBMS are classified into ______ categories. B

A) 5 B) 3 C) 2 D) 4
78) Which one of the following is not an object-based logical model ? C
A) The binary model
B) The entity-relational model
C) The infological model
D) None of these
79) In a __________ index, an index entry appears for only some of the search-key values. A
A) Dense
B) Sparse
C) Straight
D) Continuous

11 P.T.O.
80) Which of the following is/are type of hashing C
A) Internal Hashing
B) External Hashing
C) Both A) and B)
D) none of the above
81) In magnetic disk ________ stores information on a sector magnetically as reversals of the D
direction of magnetization of the magnetic material.
A) Read–write head
B) Read-assemble head
C) Head–disk assemblies
D) Disk arm

82) _________ is the time from when a read or write request is issued to when data transfer begins. A
A) Access time
B) Average seek time
C) Seek time
D) Rotational latency time
83) Which of the following is /are Countermeasures for DB security? D
A) access control
B) inference control
C) flow control
D) All of the above
84) C
Data about data is normally termed as :
A) directory
B) Data abnk
C) MetaData
D) none of the above
85) What is RBAC in Database Security? A
A) Role-based access control
B) Rule-based access command
C) Role-based active control
D) none of the above

12
86) Database __________ which is the logical design of the database, and the database _______ D
which is a snapshot of the data in the database at a given instant in time.
A) Instance, Schema
B) Relation, Schema
C) Relation, Domain
D) Schema, Instance

87) A ________ in a table represents a relationship among a set of values. C

A) Column
B) Key
C) Row
D) Entry
88) The scheme for hierarchical database is : A
A) a tree
B) a graph
C) a B-tree
D) none of the above
89) The level of data abstraction which describes how the data is actually stored is : B
A) conceptual level
B) physical level
C) file level
D) none of these
90) A __________ is the smallest unit of information that can be read from or written to the disk. C
A) Track
B) Spindle
C) Sector
D) Platter
91) DBA stands for : D
A) Data Bank Access
B) Database Access
C) Data Bank Administration
D) Database Administrator
92) The log is a sequence of _________ recording all the update activities in the database. A
A) Log records
B) Records
C) Entries
D) Redo

13 P.T.O.
93) Collection of information stored in a database at a particular moment is : A
A) view
B) schema
C) instance
D) none of the above
94) Key value pairs is usually seen in A
A) Hash tables
B) Heaps
C) Both Hash tables and Heaps
D) Skip list
95) One of the following is a valid record-based data model : B
A) Object-oriented model
B) Relational model
C) Entity-relationship model
D) None of the above
96) Which of the following is not a type of index D
A) primary index
B) Dense Index
C) Sparse Index
D) High Index
97) Manager’s salary details are hidden from the employee. This is : A
A) Conceptual level data hiding
B) Physical level data hiding
C) External level data hiding
D) None of these
98) A technique for direct search is D
A) Binary Search
B) Linear Search
C) Tree Search
D) Hashing
99) The method in which records are physically stored in a specified order according to a key field A
in each record is

A) Hash
B) Direct.
C) Sequential
D) All of the above.

14
100) The property that uniquely defines each row in a table is called the: C
A) Identifier
B) Index
C) Primary key
D) Symmetric key

**********

15 P.T.O.
 Question Bank of ANS

CA 8.1 Software Project Management(254801)

1) Assembling project team and assigning their responsibilities are done during which
phase of a project management?
A) Initiation
A
B) Planning
C) Execution
D) Closure
2) Determining the method and the timing of releasing team members should be
included in the—
A) Staff acquisition plan
C
B) Human resource plan
C) Staffing management plan
D) Project training plan
3) The nature of a project is
A) Permanent
B) temporary B
C) (A) or (B)
D) Both (A) and (B)
4) A process that involves continuously improving and detailing a plan as more detail
become available is termed as
A) project analysis
D
B) project enhancing
C) progressive deliberation
D) progressive elaboration
5) Which from the following statement(s) is/are NOT true?
I. Projects have defined objectives
II. Programs have a larger scope than projects
III. The projects and programs in a portfolio must be directly related
C
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) II and III only

1 P.T.O.
6)
Which from the following represents the correct project cycle?
A) Planning→Initiating→Executing→Closing
B) Planning→Executing→Initiating→Closing C
C) Initiating→Planning→Executing→Closing
D) Initiating→Executing→Planning→Closing

7)
A horizontal bar chart that shows project tasks against a calendar is known as
A) Gantt chart
B) goal A
C) milestone
D) PERT chart

8) By which of these techniques, the most long-lasting conflict resolution is caused?

A) Smoothing
B) Forcing D
C) Compromising
D) Confrontation
9) The statistical tool that depicts a project’s tasks and the relationships between
those tasks is known as
A) milestone
D
B) goal
C) Gantt chart
D) PERT chart
10) Which of below is not a part of project management?
A) Initiating
B) monitoring D
C) closing
D) All above are parts
11) The business case and the justification for the project is determined during the
_____ phase.
A) Initiation
A
B) planning
C) execution
D) closure

2
12)
In which phase of the project management, scope of the work is defined?

A) Executing C
B) Planning
C) Initiating
D) Closing

13)
How the project work will be carried out, monitored, and controlled? These
questions are answered in which phase of the project management?
A) Initiating B
B) Planning
C) Executing
D) Closing

14) The key way for a project manager to promote optimum team performance in
project teams whose members are not collocated is to—
A) Build trust
A
B) Establish a reward and recognition system
C) Obtain the support of the functional managers in the other locations
D) Exercise his or her right to control all aspects of the project
15)
The review of the successes and the mistakes is normally held during _____ phase.
A) Initiation
B) planning D
C) execution
D) closure

16) The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
A) Project Management
B) Manager life cycle C
C) Project Management Life Cycle
D) All of the mentioned

3 P.T.O.
17) Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when
computing the costs of a software development project?
A) Travel and training costs
D
B) hardware and software costs
C) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
D) all of the mentioned
18) Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
A) team
B) project manager D
C) customers
D) project
19) Which of the following is not correct about initial phase of a project?

A) The cost associated at the beginning of the project is highest.

B) Stakeholders have maximum influence during this phase A
C) The highest uncertainty is at this stage of the project.
D) All the above statements are correct.
20)
Project managers have the highest level of authority and the most power in which
type of organizational structure?
A
A) Projectized
B) Strong Matrix
C) Functional
D) Balanced Matrix
21) The chances for successful completion of a multidisciplinary project are increased
if project team members are—
A) Problem oriented
A
B) Politically sensitive to top management’s needs
C) Focused on individual project activities
D) Focused on customer demands

4
22)
What is one of the most important skills a project manager can have?
A) Negotiation skills C
B) Influencing skills
C) Communication skills
D) Problem Solving skills
23)
Which of the following contracts should you use for projects that have a degree of
uncertainty and require a large investment early in the project life cycle?
B
A) Fixed Price
B) Cost Reimbursable
C) lump Sum
D) Unit Price
24)
A Project manager would find team development the most difficult in which form
of organization?
A
A) Weak Matrix Organization
B) Balanced Matrix Organization
C) Projectized Organization
D) Tight Matrix Organization
25) Software systems are likely to be subject to a high degree of ________.

A) Performance
B) Change B
C) Time
D) Strength
26) In case of product-driven projects, the objectives of the project are defined in terms
of ___________.
A) Functional requirements only
C
B) Resource and non-functional requirements
C) Functional and quality requirements
D) Resource requirements only

5 P.T.O.
27) Quality requirements consist of__________.

A) Reliability.
B) Ease of using the system. D
C) Response time.
D) All the above.
28) Which of the following is tabular illustration of the anticipated risks in a project?

A) Time Table
B) Assessment Table C
C) Risk Table
D) Round Table
29) Two team members on your project often disagree. You need a conflict resolution
method that provides a long-term resolution. You decide to use which one of the
following approaches?
A) Confronting
C
B) Problem solving
C) Collaborating
D) Smoothing
30) In order to carry out a successful strategic assessment of a potential project there
should be strategic plan clearly defining the organization's _________.
A) Objectives
A
B) Rules
C) Conditions
D) Ideas

6
31) Which one of the following statements best describes a project?

A) A project is a set of tools and techniques often used when delivering

organizational change.
B) A project is the sum of activities needed to remove uncertainty from a unique C
piece of work.
C) A unique transient endeavor undertaken to achieve a desired outcome.
D) A project is a method of planning work.
32) The document that identifies what information needs to be shared, to whom, why,
when and how is called the:
A) Communication management plan.
A
B) Stakeholder mapping grid.
C) Document distribution schedule.
D) Responsibility assignment matrix.
33) What are Requirements refined and analyzed to assess their clarity,
completeness, and_____
A) Consistency
A
B) Correctness
C) Concurrency
D) None of these

34) If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means:

A) Project is on budget and on schedule
B) Schedule Variance Index is 1 D
C) There is no schedule variance
D) There is no cost variance
35) Which of the following is the most important element of Project Management Plan
that is useful in HR Planning process?
A) Risk Management activities
C
B) Quality Assurance activities
C). Activity Resource requirements
D) Budget Control activities

7 P.T.O.
36) Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late?
A) Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes
B) Technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance D
C) Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
D) All of the mentioned
37) Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the
planned project duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering
tasks?
A) Software Macroscopic schedule B
B) Software Project scheduling
C) Software Detailed schedule
D) None of the mentioned
38) Every task that is scheduled should be assigned to a specific team member is
termed as
A) Compartmentalization
C
B) Defined milestones
C) Defined responsibilities
D) Defined outcomes
39) The main objective for investing money, time in the event is to increase —

A) Quality
B) Morale C
C) Team performance
D) Individual performance
40) What is a collection of software engineering work tasks, milestones, and
deliverables that must be accomplished to complete a particular project?
A) Task set
A
B) Degree of milestone
C) Adaptation criteria
D) All of the mentioned
41) Ensuring that no more than the allocated numbers of people are allocated at any
given time in Software Scheduling is known as
A) Time Allocation
B
B) Effort Validation
C) Defined Milestone
D) Effort Distribution

8
42) Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for software projects?
A) Size of the project
B) Customers Complaints B
C) Project staff
D) Mission criticality
43) The primary result of effective team development is—

A) Improved project performance

B) An effective, smoothly running team
A
C) An understanding by project team members that the project manager is
ultimately responsible for project performance
D) Enhancement of the ability of stakeholders to contribute as individuals and
team members
44) Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to
software development?
A) PERT
D
B) CPM
C) CMM
D) Both PERT and CPM
45) The standard way of evaluating the economic benefits of any projects is to carry
out a ________ analysis.
A) price-benefit.
B
B) cost-benefit.
C) Cash flow.
D) Fund flow.
46) Which of the below elements contributes the maximum to team communication?

A) External feedback
B) Collection B
C) Smoothing over of team conflicts by the project manager
D) Performance appraisals

9 P.T.O.
47) The costs that include the salaries and other employment costs of the staff involved
in the development project and all associated costs are____________.
A) Operational cost.
B
B) Development cost.
C) Setup cost
D) Direct cost.
48) Long term or benefits that are considered very difficult to quantify is called
_______.
A) Direct benefits
D
B) Assessable benefits.
C) Indirect benefits.
D) Intangible benefits
49) The availability of staff and experience will be under ___________.

A) Process uncertainty.
B) Product uncertainty. C
C) Resource uncertainty.
D) Profit uncertainty.
50) PERT analysis is based on

A) Most likely time

B) Pessimistic time D
C) Optimistic time
D) All of these.
51) Which of the option is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?

A) Deadlines exist.
B) Independent activities. B
C) Too many workers may be required.
D) Costly delay

10
52) The specific work performance in CPM is called as

A) Activity
B) Event A
C) Dummy
D) Contract.
53) The critical path

A) Is the longest path

B) Is a mixture of all paths. A
C) Is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node
D) Is the shortest path
54) Which of the following is a ground rule for project team building?

A) Perform frequent performance appraisals

B) Ensure that each team member reports to his or her functional manager in
C
addition to the project manager
C) Start early
D) Try to solve team political problems
55) Completion of a CPM network diagram activity is commonly known

A) Connector
B) Event D
C) Node
D) All the above.
56) While scheduling a project by CPM

A) A project is divided into various activities

B) Required time for each activity is established D
C) A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
D) All the above.

11 P.T.O.
57) An important aim of a post-project review is to:

A) Validate overall progress to date against the budget and schedule.

B) Capture learning and document it for future usage. B
C) Ensure acceptance of all permanent documentation, signed by the sponsor.
D) Establish that project benefits have been identified.
58) The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is
called:
A) Quality assurance.
A
B) Quality planning.
C) Quality control.
D) Quality audit.
59) Each component of the software product is separately estimated and the results
aggregated to produce an estimate for the overall job.
A) Algorithmic model
C
B) Expert judgment
C) Bottom-up
D) Top down
60) Process Analysis is a task of

A) Process Improvement Plan

B) Quality Metrics A
C) Performance Analysis
D) Quality Improvement Plan
61) Root Cause Analysis relates to

A) Quality Control Measurements

B) Quality Audits C
C) Process Analysis
D) Performance Measurements

12
62) A planning phase for an engineering component generated 80 engineering
drawings. The QA team randomly selected 8 drawings for inspection. This
exercise can BEST be described as example of:
A) Inspection
B
B) Statistical Sampling
C) Flowcharting
D) Control Charting
63) Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

A) The life cycle phases.

B) The logical order of tasks. C
C) The scope of the project.
D) Project costs.
64) Project reporting can best be defined as:

A) Informing stakeholders about the project.

B) Storing and archiving of project information. A
C) Gathering stakeholder feedback.
D) Collecting project information.
65) Which one of the following statements best defines an estimate?

A) An approximation of project time and cost targets, refined throughout the

project life cycle.
B) A prediction of a future condition or event based on information or knowledge
available now. A
C) The value of useful work done at any given point in a project to give a measure
of progress.
D) A situation that affects or influences the outcome of the project expressed in
time or cost terms.

13 P.T.O.
66) During which stage of Risk planning is risks prioritized based on probability and
impact?
A) Identify Risks
C
B) Plan Risk responses
C) Perform Qualitative risk analysis
D) Perform Quantitative risk analysis
67) The objective of ________ is to avoid or minimize the adverse effects of
unforeseen events is called
A) Risk management.
A
B) Risk maintenance.
C) Risk taking.
D) Risky job.
68) ________ = risk likelihood x risk impact.

A) Risk estimate.
B) Risk expenditure. D
C) Risk identification
D) Risk exposure.
69) The impact of some risks can be transferred away from the project by _______.

A) Risk analysis.
B) Risk control. C
C) Risk transfer.
D) Risk evaluation.
70) A ________ is any item or person required for the execution of the project.

A) Risk.
B) Allocation. D
C) Activity.
D) Resource

14
71) Controlling the changes in the project might disturb

A) Project scope
B) Stage cost D
C) The progress of the project
D) All of these
72) Cost schedule of an activity plan is represented as

A) Sequence of steps.
B) Descending steps. A
C) Ascending steps.
D) Reverse steps
73) The process of Control Procurements belongs to

A) Monitoring and Control

B) Closing A
C) Planning
D) Executing
74) What is defined as “the ability to influence and align others towards a common
purpose”?
A) Teamwork.
D
B) Motivation.
C) Management.
D) Leadership.
75) Which one of the following statements about the project risk register is false?

A) It facilitates the review and monitoring of risks.

B) It facilitates the risk appetite. B
C) It facilitates the recording of risk responses.
D) It facilitates the recording of risks.

15 P.T.O.
76) Which one of the following statements best defines procurement?

A) A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the
project.
B) A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into
outputs. D
C) The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a
product.
D) The process by which products and services required for the project are
acquired.
77) Which is next step in change control process, once a change has been demanded?

A) Update the change log.

B) Advise the sponsor. C
C) Evaluate the change.
D) Update the project plan.
78) Which one of the following best describes project success criteria?

A) Actively seeking some senior management support.

B) Measures by which the success of the project is judged. B
C) Achievement of milestones.
D) A motivated project team.
79) For project risk, -----has decisive responsibility.

A) Project sponsor.
B) Risk owner. A
C) Steering group
D) Project manager.
80) When a project has completed the handover and closure phase:

A) The project deliverables are ready for commissioning.

B) The project deliverables are ready for handing over to the users. D
C) The project documentation must be disposed of.
D) The capability is now in place for the benefits to be realized.

16
81) A main aspect of managing a project includes

A) Defining which operational systems to put in place.

B) Planning to achieve defined objectives. B
C) Ensuring ongoing operations are maintained.
D) Identifying routine tasks.
82) Which one of the following statements best defines teamwork?

A) People working collaboratively towards a common goal.

B) Developing skills that will enhance project performance. A
C) Gathering the right people together to work on a project.
D) Establishing vision and direction towards a common purpose.
83) The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:

A) Identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.

B) Identify all project risks and transfer them immediately. A
C) Identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project.
D) Satisfy the organization’s project management process.
84)
The fixed price contract is advantageous to the buyer because it:

A) Requires extremely well defined specifications

C
B) Requires formal procedures for scope changes

C) Seller assumes financial and technical risk

D) Has a known cost

85)
The contract administration job comprises:

A) Performance control
D
B) Managing relationships and interfaces

C) Funding management

D) All of these

17 P.T.O.
86)
The tools and techniques used in the process of Plan Procurement Management
includes all but

A) Make-or-buy analysis
C
B) Market Research

C) Bidder Conferences

D) Expert Judgment
87) Following is (are) the tool(s) for changing a process

A) Change Management System (CMS)

B) Configuration Management (CM) C
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) None of the above
88)
Which is the last item a project manager should do to finalize the project closing?

A) Reassign the team

D
B) Complete lessons learned

C) Archive the project records

D) Contract completion
89)
The inputs utilized in the process of Conduct Procurements comprises all
excluding

A) Seller Proposals
B
B) Agreements

C) Source Selection Criteria

D) Procurement statement of work

18
90)
The component of the project management plan that describes how a project team
will acquire goods and services from outside the performing organization is called

A) Procurement Management Plan

A
B) Procurement Statement of Work

C) Procurement Documents

D) None of the above

91) To have a legally binding contract, which of the following items must be present?

A) Offer and Consideration

B) Offer and Acceptance C
C) Offer, acceptance, consideration, capacity by both parties to contract, and a
legal purpose
D) A meeting of the minds
92)
A manager that manages a collection of associated projects is known as

A) Project manager.
B
B) Program manager.

C) Program coordinator.

D) Project expediter.
93) Two types of change management are

A)Real change and superficial change

B) Incremental change and transformational change B
C) Radical change and transformational change
D) Incremental change and circular change
94) The possibility of finishing the project in the initial phase is ___

A) Low
B) High A
C) Zero
D) Any of the above

19 P.T.O.
95) A change agent-------

A) Supports change
B) Helps implement change B
C) Initiates change
D) Opposes change
96) The three stages of the change process are:

A) unfreezing, adjustment, and refreezing

B) Adjustment, unfreezing and refreezing A
C) Adjustment, unfreezing and re-adjustment
D) Adjustment, re-adjustment and unfreezing
97) Transformational change is often done

A) By middle managers
B) After extensive consultation D
C) Bottom up
D) Top down
98) Five dimensions that must be managed on a project

A) Constraint, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff

B) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff B
C) Features, priority, Cost, Schedule, Staff
D) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, customer
99) Project performance comprises of

A) Quality
B) Cost D
C) Time
D) All of these

20
100) The probability of completing the project can be estimated based upon the ____.

A) Uniform distribution curve

B) Normal distribution curve. B
C) U-shaped distribution curve
D) None of the above

**********

21 P.T.O.
 Question Bank of ANS

CA 8.2 Internet Computing(254802)

1) menus, tree view and sitemap path controls cannot be styled with CSS - b.
a. True
b. False
2) Every server control must have an id a.
a. True
b. False
3) Which of the following object is not as ASP component. c.
a. Counter
b. AdRotator
c. LinkCounter
d. File Access

4) Which of the following tool is used to manage the GAC. b.

a. RegSvr.exe
b. GacUtil.exe
c. GacSvr32.exe
d. Gacmgr.exe

5) _________________ is the code mixed with the HTML and asp controls called? a.
a. inline code
b. bar code
c. both 1 & 2
d. both a and b

1 P.T.O.
6) d.
We can manage states in asp.net application using
a. Session Objects
b. Application Objects
c. Viewstate
d. All of the above

7) a.
Attribute must be set on a validator control for the validation to work.
a. ControlToValidate
b. ControlToBind
c. ValidateControl
d. Validate

8) ____________ is not an ASP.NET page event. c.

a. Load

b. Init

c. Import

d. All of the mentioned

9) b.
File extension used for ASP.NET files.
a. .Web
b. .ASP
c. .ASPX
d. None of the above

2
10) c.
File extension used for ASP.NET Page.
a. .Web
b. .ASP
c. .ASPX
d. None of the above

11) d.
How do you get information from a form that is submitted using the "post"
method?
a. Request.QueryString
b. Response.writeln
c. Response.write
d. Request.Form

12) ASP.NET was first released in

b.
a. January 2003
b. January 2002
c. Feb 2002
d. January 2001
13)
Which of the following object is used along with application object in order to b.
ensure that only one process accesses a variable at a time?
a. Synchronize
b. Synchronize()
c. ThreadLock
d. Lock()

3 P.T.O.
14) a
Which of the following authentication is best suited for a corporate network?
a. Windows
b. Form
c. User
d. All

15) a.
By default, code written with the Debug class is stripped out of release builds.
a. Yes
b. No

16) b.
The .NET Framework provides a runtime environment called..... ?
a. RMT
b. CLR
c. RCT
d. RC

17) b.
Find the term: The .NET framework which provides automatic memory
management using a technique called ______________ ?
a) Serialization
b) Garbage Collection
c) Assemblies
d) Overriding

4
18) d.
Which of the following denote ways to manage state in an ASP.Net Application?
a. Session objects
b. Application objects
c. ViewState
d. All the Above

19) b.
What is the base class from which all Web forms inherit?
a. Master Page
b. Page Class
c. Session Class
d. None of the Above

20) ASP.NET was developed by c.

a. IBM
b. Google
c. Microsoft
d. None of the above
21) b.
Which of the following method used for transfer one page to another page?
a. Response.Transfer
b. Response.Redirect
c.Both a and b
d.None of the Above

5 P.T.O.
22) a.
The type of code found in Code-Behind class is ________ ?
a. Server-side code
b. Client-side code
c. Both A. and B.
d. None of the above

23) b.
To add a custom control to a Web form we have to register with.
a. TagPrefix
b. Name space of the dll that is referenced
c. Assemblyname
d. All of the above

24) Which of the following Session Mode Serialization is not required to store the a.
data?
a. InProc
b. SQLServer
c. StateServer
d. None of the above
25) Syntax for closing and opening the connection in ADO.net is _______________ c.
a) sqlConn.Open() and sqlConn.close()
b) sqlConn.open() and sqlConn.Close()
c) sqlConn.Open() and sqlConn.Close()
d) none of the mentioned
26) __________object is used to fill a DataSet/DataTable with query results in c.
ADO.net.
a) DataReader
b) Dataset
c) DataAdapter
d) DataTables

6
27) a.
Which of these data source controls do not implement Caching?
a. LinqDataSource
b. ObjectDataSource
c. SqlDataSource
d. XmlDataSource

28) b.
How to implement authentication via web.config?
a. Include the authentication element.
b. Include the authorization element.
c. Include the identity element.
d. Include the deny element.

29) In a SQL Statement while working with SqlCommand it returns a single value, at a.
that time .................... method of Command Object will be used.
a. ExecuteScalar
b. ExecuteReader
c. ExecuteNonQuery
d. None of the above
30) d.
Which one of the following namespaces contains the definition for IdbConnection?
a. System.Data.Interfaces
b. System.Data.Common
c. System.Data
d. System.Data.Connection

7 P.T.O.
31) d.
Which one of the following namespaces contains the definition for IdbConnection?
a. System.Data.Interfaces
b. System.Data.Common
c. System.Data
d. System.Data.Connection

32) c.
Select the control which does not have any visible interface.
a. Datalist
b. DropdownList
c. Repeater
d. Datagrid

33) What are characteristics best define .NET Core? d.

a. Flexible deployment
b. Cross-platform
c. Command-line tools
d. All of the above
34) b.
What's the difference between Response.Write() andResponse.Output.Write()?
a. Response.Output.Write() allows you to flush output
b. Response.Output.Write() allows you to buffer output
c. Response.Output.Write() allows you to write formatted output
d. Response.Output.Write() allows you to stream output

8
35) Which file contains settings for all .NET application types, such as Windows, b.
Console, ClassLibrary, and Web applications?
a. Web.config
b. Machine.config
c. Global.asax
d. All of the above
36) a.
Which method do you invoke on the Data Adapter control to load your generated
dataset?
a. Fill( )
b. ExecuteQuery( )
c. Read( )
d. None

37) To implement a specified .NET Framework interface which directive is used? d.

a. @Register
b. @Control
c. @Reference
d. @Implements
38) d.
Which of the following languages can be used to write server side scripting in
ASP.NET?
a. C-sharp
b. VB
c. C++
d. A and B

9 P.T.O.
39) a.
Which of the following can be used to add alternating color scheme in a Repeater
control?
a. AlternatingItemTemplate
b. DataSource
c. ColorValidator
d. None of the Above

40) a.
Suppose one wants to modify a SOAP message in a SOAP extension then how this
can be achieved. Choose the correct option from below:
a. One must override the method ReceiveMessage
b. One must override the method InitializeMethod
c. Both A. and B.
d. One must override the method ProcessMessage

41) d.
How many classes can a single .NET DLL contain?
a. One
b. Two
c. None
d. Many

42) What are the three primary kinds of parameters? d.

a. Input, Integer, String
b. Integer, String, DateTime
c. int, varchar, nvarchar
d. Input, Output, InputOutput

10
43) b.
Which of the following allow writing formatted output?
a. Response.Write()
b. Response.Output.Write()
c. Both A. and B.
d. None of the Above

44) What property contains the actual error message returned by SQL Server? d.
1. SqlException.Source
2. SqlException.Message
3. SqlError.Class
4. SqlError.Message
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 3
d. 2, 4
45) c.
In ASP.NET the < authorization > section contain which of the following
elements?
a. < deny >
b. < allow >
c. Both A. and B.
d. None of the Above

11 P.T.O.
46) a.
In .NET the operation of reading metadata and using its contents is known as
______?
a. Reflection
b. Enumeration
c. Binding
d. Serialization

47) Which CommandType value is incorrect? c.

a. StoredProcedure
b. TableDirect
c. TableSchema
d. Text
48) c.
If one has two different web form controls in a application and if one wanted to
know whether the values in the above two different web form control match what
control must be used?
a. DataList
b. GridView
c. CompareValidator
d. Listview

49) b.
What attributes do you use to hide a public .Net class from COM?
a. DLLImport Attributes
b. ComVisible attributes
c. COM Interop
d. All

12
50) What datatype is returned when calling the ExecuteScalar method of a command b.
object?
a. System.Int32
b. Object
c. No. of effected records
d. None of the above
51) Which of the following constitutes the .NET Framework? b.
ASP.NET Applications
CLR
Framework Class Library
WinForm Applications
Windows Services

a. 1, 2

b. 2, 3

c. 3, 4

d. 2, 5

52) What are the advantages of AJAX d.

a. AJAX is a platform-independent technology.

b. It provides partial-page updates.
c. Improved performance.
d. All of the above.

13 P.T.O.
53) Which control is required of every AJAX page to manage the JavaScript files sent b.
to the client and the communication between client and server?

a. UpdatePanel
b. ScriptManager
c. AsyncPostBackTrigger
d. None of the above.
54) Which control can be used to update only the portion of the page? a.

a. UpdatePanel
b. ScriptManager
c. AsyncPostBackTrigger
d. None of the above.
55) Which protocol is used to transfer files frtom localhost to remote host? b.
a. HTTP
b. FTP
c. TCP
d. UDP
56) Which of the following directive is used to link an assembly to a page or user c.
control?
a. @Page
b. @Import
c. @Assembly
d. @Reference

57) If you want that command object should returns XML data then which method of c.
Command Object will be used?
a. getXMLData
b. getXML
c. ExecuteXMLReader
d. None of the above.

14
58) The method applied to change the styles of the elements in a ASP.NET webpage c.
is called
a. master page
b. child page
c. cascading style sheets
d. UTF-8

59) Which of the following web server control display static text that can change at c.
runtime?
a. Hyperlink
b. Textbox
c. Label
d. None of these above

60) Which web server control is used to display advertisements in ASP.NET a d.

webpage?
a. Image
b. Imagemap
c. Panel
d. AdRotator

61) Which of the following server control shows data in a tabular format and allows b.
sorting, paging, edit, delete each record?
a. ListBox
b. GridView
c. Repeater
d. None of these above

62) Which of the following webserver control used as container for other server b.
controls in a ASP.NET webpage?
a. PlaceHolder
b. Panel
c. Table
d. ImageMap

15 P.T.O.
63) By using which of the following web server control data can be retrieved from a b.
relational database?
a. ObjectDataSource
b. SqlDataSource
c. AccessDataSource
d. XmlDataSource

64) Choose the correct option about DataSet object. d.

a. Provides Disconnected mode
b. Can store multiple table simultaneously
c. Consumer Object
d. All of the above.
65) AccessDataSource Control work with which of the following file types? c.
a. .mpd file
b. .mdb file
c. .mdf file
d. .myd file

66) Which of the following validation control is used to ensure that an user does not a.
skip a form entity field?
a. RequiredFieldValidator
b. CompareValidator
c. RangeValidator
d. RegularExpressionValidator

67) Which type of validation is used to check an email address entered by the user is d.
matches to email pattern?
a. RangeValidator
b. CustomValidator
c. ValidationSummary
d. RegularExpressionValidator

16
68) Using CustomValidator server control c.
a. a developer can compell users to fill all the required fields
b. a developer can sreate pop up menu
c. a developer can write custom validation function as needed
d. none of these above

69) The @Implements directive c.

a. imports a namespace into current page page or user control
b. assigns a class or virtual path used to type the Master property of a page
c. indicates that a page or user control implements a specified .NET
Framework interface
d. none of these above

70) Which commands are used to specify settings of an .aspx file? b.s
a. Class
b. Directives
c. Events
d. Validation

71) Choose the correct option about Master Page and Theme. d.
a. A Master Page enables you to share content across multiple pages in a website
and A Theme enables you to control the appearance of the content.
b. Theme enables you to share content across multiple pages in a website and A
Master Page enables you to control the appearance of the content.
c. App_Themes folder contains skin files.
d. Option A and C are correct.

72) What is/are true about master page? d.

a. Master page contains a <%@ Master %> directive instead of the normal <%@
Page %> directive.
b. ContentPlaceHolder control can be added only on master page.
c. You can add as many ContentPlaceHolders to a Master Page as you need.
d. All of the above.

17 P.T.O.
73) At which level Theme can be applied? d.
a. Page level
b. Site level (through the Web.config file)
c. Individual control level
d. All of the above.

74) Which control is required inside a content page to reference ContentPlaceHolder a.

control inside the master page?
a. Content control on a content page.
b. ContentPlaceHolder on a content page.
c. PlaceHolder control is required on content page.
d. None of the above.

75) What is/are the advantages of master page? d.

a. It helps to display common content in multiple pages.
b. They allow you to centralize the common functionality of your pages so that
you can make updates in just one place.
c. It helps to create a common page layout.
d. All of the above.

76) Choose the correct option about DataSet object. d.

a. Provides Disconnected mode
b. Can store multiple table simultaneously
c. Consumer Object
d. All of the above.
77) What types of data can you store in the Cache collection? b.
a. Only String Type of Data
b. You can store any type of data in the Cache collection.
c. Only DataSet Object
d. All of the above.

78) When do LINQ queries actually run? d.

a. When they are iterated over in a foreachloop
b. When calling the ToArray() method on the range variable
c. When calling the ToList() method on the range variable
d. All of the above
18
79) How many types of Cache Dependencies are available in ASP.NET? d.
a. File based dependencies
b. Key-based dependencies
c. Time-based dependencies
d. All of the above

80) Which of these data source controls do not implement Caching? a.

a. LinqDataSource
b. ObjectDataSource
c. SqlDataSource
d. XmlDataSource

81) If you want to access a web service method, which attribute it must have? a.
a. [WebMethod]
b. [PageMetod]
c. [Web.Service]
d. [WebSupport]

82) What is the file extension of web service in ASP.NET? c.

a. .ascx
b. .aspx
c. .asmx
d. .docx

83) In ASP.NET application DLL files are stored in which folder? c.

a. App_Code
b. App_Data
c. Bin
d. App_LocalResources

84) Application_Start event is available in which file? a.

a. Global.asax
b. Local.asax
c. Web.config
d. None of the above

19 P.T.O.
85) In which Event you can set the value of a Theme? d.
a. Page_Load
b. Page_Render
c. Page_PreRender
d. Page_PreInit

86) If you are using Webparts in your web page then which control is necessary? b.
a. WebpartController
b. WebPartmanager
c. WebpartZone
d. None of the above
87) ______________ is the DataType return in IsPostback property. b.
a. bit
b. boolean
c. int
d. object

88) What is the last event of web page life cycle? a.

a. Page_Unload
b. Page_Load
c. Page_LoadComplete
d. Page_Finish

89) If you must use a user name and password to connect to a database, where should b
you store the sensitive information?
a. Compiled in the application
b. In an encrypted application configuration file
c. In a resource file deployed with the application
d. In the registry

90) Which of the following is the default authentication mode for IIS? a.
a. Anonymous
b. Windows
c. Basic Authentication
d. None

20
91) If any user has disabled cookies in their browsers, what can you do to enable them c.
to use forms authentication?
a. Set BoweserCookieEnabled=true;
b. Set cookieless=true;
c. Use the AutoDetect setting of the cookieless attribute.
d. None of the above.

92) Which of the following works on server side? c.

a. ViewState
b. HiddenField
c. Application and session
d. All of the above
93) What happen in the Web Page when Init event occur? b.
a. ViewState is loaded on the page.
b. Each child control of the page is initialized to its design time values.
c. HTML is rendered.
d. None of the above

94) What are the types of Web Server Button Controls that can be created? c.
a. Only Submit buttons
b. Only Command buttons
c. Submit and command buttons
d. None of the above.
95) What is the name of the Page object’s property that determines if a Web page is d.
being requested without data being submitted to server?
a. IsCallback
b. IsReusable
c. IsValid
d. IsPostBack

21 P.T.O.
96) ______________ is the DataType return in IsPostback property. b.
a. bit
b. boolean
c. int
d. object
97) If you are using user control in ASP.NET page which directory will be used? a.
a. Register
b. Assembly
c. Implements
d. Aspx
98) Debug class is available in which namespace? c.
a. System.Debug
b. System.Data
c. System.Diagnostics
d. None of the above

99) How do you execute multiple SQL statements using a DataReader? c.

a. Call the ExecuteReadermethod of two Command objects and assign the results
tothe same instance of a DataReader.
b. Call the ExecuteReadermethod of a single Command object twice.
c. Set the Command.CommandTextproperty to multiple SQL statements delimited
by a semicolon.
d. Set the Command.CommandTypeproperty to multiple result sets.

100) Which SqlCommand execution returns the number of effected records in the a.
table?
a. ExecuteNonQuery
b. ExecuteReader
c. ExecuteXmlReader
d. ExecuteScalar

**********

22
 Question Bank of
ANS
CA-8.3 Network Programming (254803)
What is Concurrent server?
a. Handle one request at a time
1) b. Handle multiple request at a time b
c. Not handle any request
d. None of the above
Abbreviate SMTP
a. Simple Mail Transport Protocol
2) b. Single Mail Transfer Protocol c
c. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
d. Single Mail Transport Protocol
In specific, if the systems use separate protocols, which one of the following devices is
used to link two systems?
a. Repeater b
3)
b. Gateway
c. Bridge
d. Hub
Which of the following system call is used for opening a file?
a) read
4) b) write c
c) open
d) close
Which of the following is/are the components of sendmail?
A. Mail user agent(MUA)
5) B. Mail transfer agent(MTA) d
C. Mail delivery agent(MDA)
D. All of the above
What is User Agents in SMTP
a. It acts as a Mail Box
6) b. It prepares the message, encloses it in an envelope b
c. It transfers the mail across the internet
d. It sends and receives the message
Find the following call never returns an error?
7) a) open b) fork d
c) ioctl d) getpid
For reading input, which of the following system call is used?
8) a) write b) rd c
c) read d) change
Which of the following are not system calls?
a. close
9) b. getc b
c. bind
d. connect

1 P.T.O.
 Which of the following mode is used for opening a file in both reading and writing?
a) O_RDONLY
10) b) O_WRONLY c
c) O_RDWR
d) O_WDR
Open system call returns the file descriptor as ___
a) int
11) b) float d
c) double
d) char
IPv6 has _______ -bit
a. 32
12) b.64 c
c.128
d. variable
DHCP is the abbreviation of
a. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
13) b. Dynamic Host Control Protocol a
c. Dynamic Hyper Control Protocol
d. Dynamic Hyper Configuration Protocol
............ is limited to 7-bit ASCII text, with a maximum line length of 1000 characters.
A. SMTP
14) B. MIME a
C. POP
D. MTA
Can a multi-user chat application be developed using UDP protocol?
15) a. Yes a
b. No
Which of the following class does not provide getInputStream() method?
a. Socket
16) b.DatagramSocket b
c. URLConnection
d. None of the above
Which of the following object is required at both ends for TCP/IP based
communication?
a. InetAddress d
17)
b. ServerSocket
c. DatagramSocket
d. Socket
How many versions available of IP?
a. 6 version
18) b. 4 version c
c. 2 version
d. 1 version

2
 Which is the type of socket?
a. Datagram
19) b. Stream d
c. Raw
d. All the above
Who provide us internet?
a. TCP
20) b. HTTP c
c. ISP
d. FTP
DNS is an acronym for ______________.
(a) Domain Name Security
21) (b) Domain Number System d
(c) Document Name System
(d) Domain Name System
What is a Zone in DNS?
a. A set of distinct but non-contiguous portions of the domain name space managed by
multiple administrators
b. A distinct, contiguous portion of the domain name space managed by multiple
22) administrators d
c. A set of distinct but non-contiguous portions of the domain name space managed by a
single administrator
d. A distinct, contiguous portion of the domain name space managed by a single
administrator
The applications of the Client and Server Model are
23) a.World Wide Web b.Network Printing d
c.Email d.All of the above
In a_____________name space, each name is made of several parts.
a. Flat
24) b. Organized c
c. Hierarchical
d. None of the above
A_________________is a subtree of domain name space.
a. Label
25) b. Domain b
c. Name
d. None of the above
_____________________is a technology that creates and handle dynamic document.
a. CGI
26) b. GIC a
c. HTPP
d. WWW

3 P.T.O.
 TCP process may not write and read data at the same speed. So we need __________
for storage.
a) Packets b
27)
b) Buffers
c) Segments
d) Stacks
To achieve reliable transport in TCP, ___________ is used to check the safe and
sound arrival of data.
a) Packet d
28)
b) Buffer
c) Segment
d) Acknowledgment
What is the size of MAC Address?
a. 16-bits
29) b. 32-bits c
C. 48-bits
d. 64-bits
…………………….. is responsible for converting the higher level protocol addresses
(IP addresses) to physical network addresses.
a) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) a
30)
b) Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)
c) Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP)
d) Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
If exec is called immediately after forking,
a) The program specified in the parameter to exec will replace the entire process
31) b All the threads will be duplicated a
c) All the threads may be duplicated
d) None of the mentioned
Which of the following services use TCP?
DHCP
SMTP
HTTP
TFTP
32) FTP b

a. 1 and 2
b. 2, 3 and 5
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4

4
 You want to implement a mechanism that automates the IP configuration, including
IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information. Which protocol will
you use to accomplish this?
33) a. SMTP d
b. SNMP
c. ARP
d. DHCP
Which of the following is private IP address?
a. 12.0.0.1
34) b. 168.172.19.39 d
c. 172.15.14.36
d. 192.168.24.43
Which of the following allows a router to respond to an ARP request that is intended
for a remote host?
a. Gateway DP c
35)
b. Reverse ARP (RARP)
c. Proxy ARP
d. Inverse ARP (IARP)
Which class of IP address provides a maximum of only 254 host addresses per
network ID?
a. Class A b
36)
b. Class C
c. Class B
d. Class D
What is the address range of a Class B network address in binary?
A. 01xxxxxx
37) B. 0xxxxxxx c
C. 10xxxxxx
D. 110xxxxx
Return value of the UDP port “Chargen” is _______
a) String of characters
38) b) String of integers a
c) Array of characters with integers
d) Array of zero’s and one’s
Which of the following is not a mechanism that DHCP supports for IP address
allocation?
a) Automatic allocation b
39)
b) Static allocation
c) Dynamic allocation
d) Manual allocation
The name of the protocol which provides virtual terminal in TCP/IP model is.
a) FTP
40) b) SMTP d
c) HTTP
d) Telnet

5 P.T.O.
 In a/an ............ of DNS resolver, the queried name server can return the best answer it
currently has back to the DNS resolver.
a. Recursive queries b
41)
b. Iterative queries
c. Reverse queries
d. Inverse queries
Central Computer which is powerful than other computers in the network is called
as __________. b
42)
a.Client b.Server
c.Hub d.Switch
Machine that places the request to access the data is generally called as __________.
43) a. Server Machine b. Client Machine b
c. Request Machine d. None of the above
File transfer protocol (FTP) is built on _________architecture
44) a.Peer to peer b.Client server b
c.Both a and b d.None of the above
The first line of HTTP request message is called ____.
45) a.Request line b.Header line a
c.Status line d.Entery line
The main reason for transition from IPv4 to IPv6 is _________
a) Huge number of systems on the internet
46) b) Very low number of system on the internet a
c) Providing standard address
d) To provide faster internet
RPC is a _________
a) asynchronous operation
47) b) synchronous operation b
c) time independent operation
d) channel specific operation
Which of the following protocols is used for WWW ?
A. ftp
48) B. http b
C. w3
D. all of the above
RPC (remote procedure call) is used to
a.Establish a server on remote machine that can respond to queries
49) b.Retrieve information by calling a query c
c.Both a and b
d.None of the above
The WWW today is a _______ client-server service, in which a client using a browser
can access a service using a server. c
50)
a.Limited b.Vast
c.Distributed d.None of the above

6
 In remote procedure call, the client program must be bound with a small library
procedure called ................... d
51)
a.Server stub b.Marshalling
c.Client hub d.Client stub
Which of the following is an example of a client-server model?
52) a.FTP b.DNS d
c.TELNET d.All of the above
Which 2 protocols are used in the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model?
53) a) UDP and HTTP b) TCP and UDP b
c) HTTP and TCP d) ICMP and HTTP

Which of the protocol is not used in the network layer of the TCP/IP model?
54) a) ICMP b) IP d
c) IGMP d) HTTP
Which of the following allows a router to respond to an ARP request that is intended
for a remote host? c
55)
a.Gateway DP b. ReverseARP (RARP)
b.Proxy ARP d.Inverse ARP (IARP)
Which class of IP address provides a maximum of only 254 host addresses per
network ID? c
56)
a. Class A b. Class B
c. Class C d. Class D
If you use either Telnet or FTP, which is the highest layer you are using to transmit
data? d
57)
a. Transport b.Presentation
c.Session d. Application
Which of the following protocols uses both TCP and UDP?
58) a.FTP b.SMTP d
c.Telnet d.DNS
What layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI
model? b
59)
a) Application b) Host to host
c) Internet d) Network Access
Which of the following is not the layer of TCP/IP protocol?
60) a. Physical layer b. link layer b
c. network layer d. transport layer.
To use the services of UDP, we need ……… socket addresses.
61) a. four b. two b
c. three d. four
………. is responsible for converting the higher-level protocol address (IP addresses)
to physical network addresses.
a. Internet Protocol(IP) c
62)
b. Internet Control Message Protocol(ICMP)
c. Address Resolution Protocol(ARP)
d. Bootstrap Protocol(BOOTP)

7 P.T.O.
 Remote Procedure Calls are used ____________
a) for communication between two processes remotely different from each other on the
same system c
63)
b) for communication between two processes on the same system
c) for communication between two processes on separate systems
d) none of the mentioned
To differentiate the many network services a system supports ______ are used.
64) a) Variables b) Sockets c
c) Ports d) Service names
What is stub?
a) transmits the message to the server where the server side stub receives the message and
invokes procedure on the server side d
65)
b) packs the parameters into a form transmittable over the network
c) locates the port on the server
d) all of the mentioned
A remote procedure call is _______
a) inter-process communication
66) b) a single process a
c) a single thread
d) a single stream
Which of these packages contains classes and interfaces for networking?
67) a) java.io b) java.util c
c) java.net d) java.network
NFS is……..
a) Filesystems
68) b) Operating systems d
c) Transport protocols
d) File access protocols
NFS stands for….
a) Null File System
69) b) New File System c
c) Network File System
d) Netware File Server
A _________ directory is mounted over a directory of a _______ file system.
a) local, remote
70) b) remote, local d
c) local, local
d) none of the mentioned
The _________ becomes the name of the root of the newly mounted directory.
71) a) root of the previous directory b) local directory b
c) remote directory itself d) none of the mentioned
Application layer sends & receives data for particular applications using Hyper Text
Transfer Protocol (HTTP), and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). a
72)
a) True
b) False

8
 Which class is given wrong here ?
a. CLASS A = 1 to 126
b. CLASS B = 128 to 191 c
73)
c. CLASS C = 192 to 220
d. CLASS D = 224 to 239 (Multicasting)

What type of addresses does DHCP server use?

74) a. Permanent address b. Local address d
c. Pool address d. Both a and c
_______ allows you to connect and login to a remote computer
75) a) Telnet b) FTP a
c) HTTP d) SMTP
All telnet operations are sent as ________
76) a) 4 bits b) 8 bits b
c) 16 bits d) 32 bits
Which of the following is true for character mode operation of telnet
implementation?
a) each character typed is sent by the client to the server a
77)
b) each character typed is discarded by the server
c) each character typed is aggregated into a word and then sent to the server
d) each character type is aggregated into a line and then sent to the server
The main reason for transition from IPv4 to IPv6 is _________
a) Huge number of systems on the internet
78) b) Very low number of system on the internet a
c) Providing standard address
d) To provide faster internet
A DNS client is called _________
a) DNS updater
79) b) DNS resolver b
c) DNS handler
d) none of the mentioned
What is the difference between TCP and UDP?
a. TCP guarantees that a packet will reach the destination without any duplication while
UDP does not provide this guarantee. D
80)
b. The order of data will be same in TCP but that won't be so in UDP.
c. TCP is unreliable protocol but UDP is a reliable protocol.
d. Only a and b
What is internet?
A. a single network
81) B. a vast collection of different networks b
C. interconnection of local area networks
D. none of the mentioned
What does the java.net.InetAddress class represent?
82) a) Socket b) IP Address b
c) Protocol d) MAC Address

9 P.T.O.
 Which is true for TCP connections?
A. TCP connection is a message stream, but it does not preserve message boundaries
B. TCP connection is byte stream and it preserves message boundaries c
83) C. TCP connection is byte stream and it does not preserve message boundaries
D. TCP connection is message stream which preserves message boundaries

Virtual terminal protocol is an example of _________

a) Network layer
84) b) Application layer b
c) Transport layer
d) Physical layer
Which system call returns the process identifier of a terminated child?
85) a. close b. exit c
c. wait d. get
The following program results in the creation of?
main()
{
if(fork()>0)
86) sleep(100); b
}

a) an orphan process b) a zombie process

c) a process that executes forever d) none of the mentioned

The header length of an IPv6 datagram is ___________

a) 10bytes
87) b) 25bytes d
c) 30bytes
d) 40bytes
The location of a resource on the internet is given by its?
a. Protocol
88) b. URL b
c. E-mail address
d. ICQ
How many types of Socket present in Computer network programming?
a. 5
89) b. 6 c
c. 3
d. None of the above

10
 ______________ Protocol defines how messages are formatted and transmitted, and
what actions Web servers and browsers should take in response to various
commands.
90) (a) FTP c
(b) TCP/IP
(c) HTTP
(d) SMTP
What is User Agents in SMTP
a. It acts as a Mail Box
91) b. It prepares the message, encloses it in an envelope b
c. It transfers the mail across the internet
d. It sends and receives the message
The term IPv4 stands for?
a. Internet Protocol Version 4
92) b. Internet Programming Version 4 a
c. International Programming Version 4
d. None of these
An RPC (remote procedure call) is initiated by the
93) a.Server b. Both (a) and (b) c
c.Client d.None of the mentioned
Which software prevents the external access to a system?
a. Firewall
94) b. Gateway a
c. Router
d. Virus checker
An RPC application requires
a.Specific protocol for client server communication
95) b.A client program d
c.A server program
d.All of the above
The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is __________
a. 5
96) b. 7 b
c. 6
d. 10
The length of an IPv6 address is?
a. 32 bits
97) b. 64 bits d
c. 128 bits
d. 256 bits
What is the default port of SMTP?
98) a. 85 b. 70 c
c. 25 d. 50

11 P.T.O.
 When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes ___ ?
a. SMTP client
99) b. SMTP server a
c. Peer
d. Master
In a …………………, the kernel can execute on any processor, and typically each
processor does self-scheduling from the pool of available processes or threads.
a) master/slave a
100)
b) symmetric multiprocessor
c) cluster
d) SIMD

12
 Question Bank of A
CA 8 .4 Advanced Computer Graphics(254804) N
S
1) Which of the following is the Computer Graphics application- d
a. Statistical Representation
b. Image Formation
c. Information Retrieval
d. Computation Physics
2) Hardwar pipeline consists of __________phase. c
a. Circuits
b. Ports
c. Computations
d. Discs
3) Which of the following is computational Phase- a
a. Rasterization
b. Vectorization
c. Segmentation
d. Transition
4) The quality of Image depends on – a
a. No. of Pixels used by image
b. No. of lines used by image
c. No. of resolution used by image
d. None of these
5) Types of Computer Graphics are- b
a. Scalar and raster
b. Vector and raster
c. Vector and scalar
d. None of these
6) Components of iterative computer graphics are d
a. A light pen
b. Display unit
c. Bank of switches
d. All of the above
7) Computer Graphics models are commonly used for making- d
a. Television show
b. Motion Pictures
c. Music Videos
d. All of the above

1 P.T.O.
8) Graphics programs are those which creates- b
a. Images
b. Pictures
c. Designs
d. All of the above
9) The process of determining the appropriate pixels for representing picture or b
graphics object is known as
a. animation
b. Rasterization
c. Both a & b
d. representation
10) A World- coordinate area selected for display is called is b
a. Graphics
b. Window
c. GUI
d. None of the above
11) Solid pattern in random scan display is _________ to fill b
a. Easy
b. Difficult
c. Not fill
d. None of the above
12) In beam penetration method of color CRT, two layer phosphor coated are- a
a. Red and blue
b. Red and green
c. Blue and green
d. None of the above
13) LCD is an _____ b
a. Emissive
b. Non Emissive
c. Expensive
d. None
14) A technique by which the vertical and/or horizontal scan frequency of video a
signal can be changed for Different purpose and application is called
a. scan conversion
b. Polygon filling
c. Two dimensional graphics
d. Antialiasing
15) DSVT stands for c
a. Digital View Storing Table
b. Digital Visual Storage Tube
c. Direct View Storage Tube
d. Digital View Storage Tube
2 P.T.O.
16) Sequencing and display of a set of images to create a visual change effect is a
called
a. Computer animation
b. Computer graphics
c. Computer Videography
d. Computer image terminals
17) Which of the following are Computer graphics coordinates systems – c
a. Two Dimensional Co-ordinates System
b. Three Dimensional Co-ordinates System
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
18) Each image used in sequence by video is said to be c
a. Entity
b. Instance
c. Frame
d. Block
19) Line consists of how many number of coordinates c
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. None
20) Which is reflection about origin b
a. x' = x , y' = -y
b. x' = -x , y' = -y
c. x' = x , y' = y
d. x' = -x , y' = y
21) “The boundary is specified in a single color, and the algorithm proceeds pixel by b
pixel until the boundary color is encountered “- These statement defines which of
the following algorithm
a. Scan-fill algorithm
b. Boundary-fill algorithm
c. Entire fill algorithm
d. Slide curve algorithm
22) The Process of colouring the area of polygon is called b
a. Polygon flow
b. Polygon filling
c. Aliasing
d. None of these

3 P.T.O.
23) Moving, Resizing ,changing direction of an object refer as d
a. Translation
b. Rotation
c. Scaling
d. Transformation
24) Consider point (x,y), moving the point to(x’,y’) by adding some value dx,dy is a
called
a. Translation
b. Rotation
c. Scaling
d. None
25) Consider point (x,y ),rotating point about origin by angle theta is called as b
a. Translation
b. Rotation
c. Scaling
d. None
26) Which is reflection about x-axis b
a. x' = x , y' = -y
b. x' = -x , y' = -y
c. x' = x , y' = y
d. x' = -x , y' = y

27) which equation is correct about Scaling a

a. X' = Sx * X , Y' = Sy * Y
b. X' = Sx * Y, Y' = Sy * Y
c. X' = Sx * X , Y' = Sy * X
d. X' = Sx * X, Y' = Sx * Y
28) An ellipse can also be rotated about its centre coordinates by rotating b
a. End points
b. Major and minor axes
c. Only A
d. None
29) Which is reflection about y-axis d
a. x' = x , y' = -y
b. x' = -x , y' = -y
c. x' = x , y' = y
d. x' = -x , y' = y

4 P.T.O.
30) which of the following is/are line clipping algorithm c
a. Cohen sutherland algorithm
b. Cyrus-beck algorithm
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
31) Cohen Sutherland algorithm is _________ algorithm b
a. Polygon clipping
b. Line clipping
c. Point clipping
d. None of these
32) Cyrus –Back algorithms is ____________ algorithm c
a. Polygon clipping
b. Point clipping
c. Line clipping
d. None of these
33) A line with endpoints codes as 0000 and 0100 is ? a
a. Partially invisible
b. Completely visible
c. Completely invisible
d. Trivially invisible
34) Some common clipping includes d
a. Curve clipping
b. Polygon clipping
c. Point clipping
d. All of the above
35) The process of mapping a world window in world coordinates system to a
viewport are called
a. Trasformation Viewing
b. Viewport
c. Clipping window
d. Screen coordinates system
36) Which approaches are used for determine whether a particular point is inside or c
outside of polygon
a. Even odd method
b. Winding number method
c. Both a &b
d. None of these

5 P.T.O.
37) The selection and separation of a part of text or image for further operation are d
called as
a. Translation
b. shear
c. Rotation
d. Clipping
38) All the hidden surface algorithms employees image space approach except d
a. Depth sort method
b. Scan line method
c. Depth buffer method
d. Back face removal
39) The first viewing parameter we Must consider is the? b
a. view reference plane
b. view reference point
c. viewing window
d. Shifting vector
40) Region code of point within the window is a
a. 0000
b. 0001
c. 1000
d. 1111
41) The _____________ algorithms divide 2D space into 9 regions of which only the a
middle parts(viewport) is visible.
a. Cohen Sutherland algorithm
b. liangBarsky
c. SutherlangHodgman
d. None of these
42) A Bezier curve is a polynomial of degree ___________the no of control points b
used
a. One more than
b. One less than
c. Two less than
d. None of these
43) Bezier spline always passes through a
a. First and second control point
b. Does not pass from First and second control point
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

6 P.T.O.
44) The Bezier curve obtained from the four control points is called a b
a. Square Bezier curve
b. Cubic Bezier curve
c. Hectare Bezier curve
d. Rectangle Bezier curve
45) The orthographic projection that show more than one side of an object are called b
a. Axonometric projection
b. Isometric projection
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
46) The projection that can be viewed as the projection that has a centre of projection b
at a finite distance from the plane of projection are called
a. Parallel projection
b. Perspective projection
c. Isometric projection
d. None of these
47) The shape of a Bezier curve primarily depends upon the a
a. Position of control points
b. Distance of control points
c. Position of control panel
d. None of these
48) The no of control points in a Bezier curve ensures the b
a. Jaggies of curve
b. Smoothness of curve
c. Straightness of curve
d. None of these
49) What is Shearing is also termed as a
a. Skewing
b. Translating
c. Moving
d. None of the above
50) The method which is based on the principle of checking the visibility point at b
each pixel position on the projection plane are called
a. Object-space methods
b. Image-space methods
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

7 P.T.O.
51) Which surface algorithm is based on perspective depth ? b
a. Depth comparison
b. Z-buffer or depth-buffer algorithm
c. subdivision method
d. back-face removal

52) A fast and simple method for rendering an object with polygon surface is c
a. Constant-intensity shading
b. Flat shading
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
53) Which one is not the neighbour of a pixel (x,y) in 4 -connected method ? d
a. (x,y+1)
b. (x+1,y+1)
c. (x,y-1)
d. none of these
54) Various curve functions are useful in ________________________. a
a. Object modeling
b. Graphics applications
c. Animation path specifications
d. All of the given
55) The best hidden surface removal algorithm is ? c
a. Depth buffer
b. Area subdivision
c. Depends on the application
d. painters
56) Engineering drawing commonly applies ? a
a. orthographic projection
b. oblique projection
c. perspective projection
d. none of the above
57) Back face removal is an example of ? c
a. combination of both
b. image space method
c. object space method
d. none of the above
58) Oblique projection with an angle of 45 degree to the horizontal plane is called as b
a. Cabinet projection
b. Cavalier projection
c. Isometric projection
d. None of these

8 P.T.O.
59) A transformation that slants the shape of objects is called the_____________ b
a. reflection
b. shear transformation
c. translation
d. none of these
60) The region code of a point is 1001. The point is in the .................region of b
window.
a. Top right
b. Top left
c. Bottom left
d. Bottom right
61) The equation for describing surface of 3D plane are a
a. Ax+ By+ Cz+ D= 0
b. Ax+ By+ Cz = 0
c. Ax+ By+ D= 0
d. Ax+ By+ Cz+ D= 1
62) The Bezier curve obtained from the four control points is called a b
a. Square Bezier curve
b. Cubic Bezier curve
c. Hectare Bezier curve
d. Rectangle Bezier curve
63) The shape of a Bezier curve primarily depends upon the a
a. Position of control points
b. Distance of control points
c. Position of control panel
d. None of these
64) More the control points of a Bezier curve,________ quality of the curve a
a. Higher
b. Lower
c. Bad
d. None of these
65) ______is a flexible strip that is used to produce smooth curve using a set of point a
a. Spline
b. Scan-line method
c. Depth-sorting method
d. None of these
66) The equation for describing surface of 3D plane are a
a. Ax+ By+ Cz+ D= 0
b. Ax+ By+ Cz = 0
c. Ax+ By+ D= 0
d. Ax+ By+ Cz+ D= 1

9 P.T.O.
67) The array are used with scan line coherence algorithm are c
a. For intensity value
b. For depth value
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
68) The painter algorithm were developed on a
a. 1972 by Newell
b. 1972 by Evans
c. 1974 by Cat mull
d. None of these
69) The painter algorithm are also called c
a. Depth sort algorithm
b. Priority algorithm
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
70) The painter algorithm are based on the property of b
a. Polygon
b. Frame buffer
c. Depth buffer
d. None of these
71) What is x-shear? d
a. x’=x+ shx. y , y’=y
b. x’=x+ shx. x , y’=y
c. y’=x+ shx.y , x’=x
d. y’=y+ shy. x , x’=x
72) What is y-shear? a
a. x’=x+ shx. y , y’=y
b. x’=x+ shx. x , y’=y
c. y’=x+ shx. y , x’=x
d. y’=y+ shy. x , x’=x
73) How many steps required for composite transformation c
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. None of the above
74) The scan line coherence algorithm was developed by d
a. Wylie
b. Evans
c. Cat mull
d. Both a & b

10 P.T.O.
75) What is true for an rotate an object about an arbitrary point? b
a. Rotate it about the origin , Translate point to the origin
b. Translate point to the origin, Rotate it about the origin , translate the
center of rotation back where it belonge
c. Translate point to the origin, Scale it about the origin , translate the center
of rotation back where it belonge
d. None of the above
76) A many sided figure is termed as b
a. Square
b. Polygon
c. Rectangle
d. None
77) Ray-tracing is an extension of b
a. Ray calling
b. Ray casting
c. Ray sampling
d. Ray coherence
78) Scan lines are used to scan from a
a. Top to bottom
b. Bottom to top
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

79) In displaying a clipped picture the efficient method is ? D

a. Clipping against the window and then applying the window
transformation
b. Applying window transformation and then clipping against the view port
c. Both A and B have the same efficiency
d. Efficiency depends on whether the window is an aligned rectangle or not

80) The anti - aliasing technique which allows shift of 1/4,1/2 and 3/4 of a pixel d
diameter enabling a closer path of a line is ?
a. Filtering
b. Pixel phasing
c. Sampling technique
d. Intensity compensation
81) The amount of light emitted by the phosphor coating depends on the? a
a. Number of electrons striking the screen
b. Speed of electrons striking the screen
c. Distance from the cathode to the screen
d. None of above

11 P.T.O.
82) Lower persistence phosphorus is used in a
a. Animation
b. Simple object
c. Complex object
d. All of these
83) Higher persistence phosphorus needs _________ refresh rate a
a. Lower
b. Higher
c. Medium
d. None of these
84) Phosphorus are of various types depending on c
a. Color
b. Persistence
c. both a & b
d. none of these
85) The subtractive color model use the concept of a
a. Printing ink
b. Light to display color
c. Printing line
d. None of these

86) A fast and simple method for rendering an object with polygon surface is c
a. Constant-intensity shading
b. Flat shading
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
87) The basic parameter to curved attributes are? d
a. Width
b. Color
c. Type
d. All of above
88) Raster curves of various widths can be displayed using? d
a. Horizontal and vertical spans
b. Vertical spans
c. Horizontal spans
d. Horizontal or vertical spans
89) If the magnitude of the curve slope is lesser than 1, then? b
a. We can plot horizontal spans
b. We can plot vertical spans
c. Both A & B
d. None of above

12 P.T.O.
90) If the slope magnitude is 1, then circles, ellipse and other curves will appear? c
a. Rough
b. Big
c. Thinnest
d. Thick
91) One of the method for displaying thick curves is? b
a. Curve cap
b. Curve slope
c. Curve width
d. None of above
92) The function of the pixel mask is? a
a. To display dashes and inter dash spaces according to the slope
b. To display curved attributes
c. To display the thick curves
d. None of above
93) The curves displayed with a rectangular pen will be? a
a. Thicker and magnitude slope is 1
b. Thicker and magnitude slope >1
c. Thinner
d. None of above
94) Choose the correct representation of Hyperbola? a
a. − = 1
b. − =1
c. − =1
d. None of these
95) ______is a flexible strip that is used to produce smooth curve using a set of point. a
a. Spline
b. Scan-line Method
c. Depth Sorting Method
d. None of above
96) The types of spline curve are C
a. Open spline
b. Closed spline
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
97) Which of following the light or reflection types d
a) Specular
b) Diffuse
c) Ambient
d) All of the above

13 P.T.O.
98) Phong shading algorithm interpolates the Phong shading algorithm interpolates the a
normals and compute lighting during
a) rasterization
b) Vectorization
c) Segmentation
d) Transition
99) Final illumination of a point (Vertex) d
a) Ambient
b) Diffuse
c) Specular
d) None of these
100) Gouraud Shading can be done using b
a) Goolge
b) OpenGL
c) Raster
d) None of the above

**********

14 P.T.O.
 Question Bank of A
N
CA-8.5 Optimization Algorithms(254805)
S

1. Operations Research was known as an ability to win a war without really going in to a D
A. Battlefield
B. Fighting
C. War
D. Both A andB
2. Who defined Operations Research as an aid for the executive in marketing his A
decisions by providing him with the quantitative information based on the scientific
method of analysis?
A. C. Kitte
B. H.M. Wagner
C. E.L. Arnoff
D. None of the above
3. Which of the following is not required in LPP formulation? A
A. Write the hole problem
B. Defining the decision variable
C. Writing constraints
D. Applying nonnegative constraints
4. Which of the following use for LP to find optimal use of D
A. Money
B. Manpower
C. Machine
D. All the above
5. Operations Research helps in refining the _________ of the result but doesn’t give a B
perfect solution.
A. Clarity
B. Quality
C. Both A and B
D. Decisions

6. Identify the Phases and Processes of Operations Research Study C

i. Observe the problem
ii. Analysis and defining the problem
iii. Developing model
iv. Collecting data
v. Coming up with solution
vi. Qualifying the model and solution
vii. Implement the solution
A. i , ii, iii, iv ,v ,vii
B. i , ii, iii, iv ,vi ,vii
C. i , ii, iii, iv ,v, vi ,vii
D. i , ii, iv ,v ,vii

1 P.T.O.
7. Which of the following techniques or tools of Operations Research? D
A. Queuing Theory
B. Inventory Control Models
C. Network analysis
D. All of the above
8. Which of the following typical Applications/Scope of Operations Research D
A. Finance, Budgeting and Investments
B. Purchasing, Procurement and Exploration
C. Production Management
D. All of the above
9. Which of the following techniques or tools of Operations Research? D
A. Replacement Problems
B. Sequencing
C. Integer Programming
D. All of the above
10. Which of the following techniques or tools of Operations Research? D
A. Assignment Problems
B. Transportation Problems
C. Decision Theory and Games Theory.
D. All of the above
11. Which of the following techniques or tools of Operations Research? D
A. Dynamic Programming
B. Simulation
C. Symbolic Logic
D. All of the above
12. Which of the following techniques or tools of Operations Research? D
A. Symbolic Logic
B. Goal-programming
C. Markov Analysis
D. All of the above
13. Which are not advantages of Operations Research? D
A. Better Decision
B. Better System
C. Better Control
D. None of the above

14. Which is not Personnel Management operational research role? D

A. Selection of suitable personnel.
B. Assignment of jobs.
C. Skills balancing.
D. All of the above

2
15. Which is not Marketing operational research role? C
i. Product selection, timing, etc.
ii. Advertising media, budget allocation.
iii. Number of salesman required.
iv. Selection of product mix.
A. Only i
B. Both i , ii
C. All i, ii ,iii , iv
D. None of the above

16. Graphical methods contain how many special cases? D

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
17. Who is father of operation research A
A. Philip M. Morse
B. J.F. McCloskey
C. F.N. Trefethen
D. P.F. Adams
18. Operations Research (OR) , is a used for C
A. Operations
B. Research
C. Decision – Making
D. None of the above
19. Operation research having how many principles? C
A. Four
B. Five
C. Seven
D. None of the above
20. In which year term Operations Research was invented A
A. 1940
B. 1950
C. 1978
D. 1960
21. Maximum P: 20x + 35y C
Subject to: x + 2y >= 34
3x+ 4y >= 90
Where x ,y >=0
A. Multiple Optimal Solutions
B. Infeasible Solution
C. Unbounded Solution
D. None of the above

3 P.T.O.
22. In simplex method , if constraint is of type less than equal to than we add _____ A
A. Slack Variable
B. Surplus Variable
C. Artificial Variable
D. None of the above
23. Each LPP is connected with another LPP is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ B
A. Primal
B. Dual
C. Non‐linear programming
D. None of the above
24. Operations Research approach is B
A. Multi‐disciplinary
B. Scientific
C. Initiative
D. All of the above
25. Decision variables are D
A. Scientific
B. Initiative
C. Multi-disciplinary
D. None of the above
26. The quantitative approach to decision analysis is B
A. Logical approach
B. Rational approach
C. Scientific approach
D. All of the above
27. What is being considered as one of the most versatile management tools? B
A. Electronic Computers
B. Linear Programming
C. Computer Programming
D. None of the above
28. A maximized objective function having _______ function A
A. Profit
B. Active
C. Passive
D. None of the above
29. A LPP solved which kind of resource allocation problems? D
A. Production planning & scheduling
B. Assignment Problem
C. Game theory
D. All of the above

4
30. The following primal having how many dual constraints A
Maximum P: 12x + 13y
Subject to: 5x + 2y <= 140
3x+ 6y <= 190
where x ,y >=0
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. None of the above
31. The following primal having how many dual constraints A
Minimum P: 15x + 13y
Subject to: 5x + 12y >= 60
30x + 60y >= 90
x + 2y <= 40
where x ,y >=0
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. None of the above
32. Is every optimal solution is feasible solution? A
A. Yes
B. No
33. What is dual of any primal who’s having objective function Minimize? A
A. Maximize
B. Minimize
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
34. Maximum P: 2x + 3y D
Subject to: 6x + 2y <= 12
4x + 2y <= 16
Where x ,y >=0
A. Multiple Optimal Solutions
B. Infeasible Solution
C. Unbounded Solution
D. Redundant Constraint
35. LPP infeasible solution goes to D
A. First Quadrant
B. First and Second Quadrant
C. Second Quadrant
D. None of the above
36. Each feasible basic solution must satisfy
A. Negativity Constraint
B. Basic Constraint
C. Non-negativity Constraint
D. Common Constraint

5 P.T.O.
37. The objective function Minimized C = 2x + y with respect to the feasible region at which D
point it gives minimum cost?
A. (3,2)
B. (5,0)
C. (2,4)
D. (0,7)
38. The linear function in LPP having C
A. Decision variable
B. Constraints
C. Objective Function
D. Nonnegative constraints
39. Maximum P: 2x + 3y B
Subject to: 6x + 2y <= 12
4x + 2y >= 16
Where x ,y >=0
A. Multiple Optimal Solutions
B. Infeasible Solution
C. Unbounded Solution
D. Redundant Constraint
40. In simplex method key column is also called A
A. Pivot Column
B. Plan Column
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

41. In simplex method key row is also called B

A. Plan row
B. Pivot row
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

42. The objective function Maximized P = 3x + 4y with respect to the feasible region at which D
point it gives maximum Profit?
A. (0,2)
B. (3,0)
C. (4,2)
D. (2,4)
43. Intersection of key row and key column is also called C
A. Pivot Element
B. Key Element
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

44. In two phase method phase the phase1 start with _____ B
A. If solution is feasible
B. If solution is infeasible
C. If solution is unbounded
D. None of the above

6
45. Variables are unrestricted in nature means what? C
A. Variable values are positive
B. Variable values are negative
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
46. What is degenerate solution in transportation problem? A
A. Number of stone square less than required stone square
B. Number of stone square greater than required stone square
C. Number of water square less than required water square
D. Number of water square greater than required water square
47. In minimization cases , _______ are assigned to the artificial variables as their coefficients B
in the objective function
A. +m
B. –m
C. 0
D. None of the above
48. What is unbalanced transportation problem? C
A. Total number of stone square less than total number water square
B. Total number of water square less than total number stone square
C. Total supply is not equal to total demand
D. None of the above
49. In Transportation Problem, the initial solution can be generated how many ways C
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. None of the above
50. The purpose of the stepping-stone method is to C
A. Develop the initial solution to the transportation problem.
B. Determine whether a given solution is feasible or not.
C. Assist one in moving from an initial feasible solution to the optimal solution.
D. Identify the relevant costs in a transportation problem
51. When total supply is equal to total demand in a transportation problem, the problem is said B
to be 1.
A. Degenerate
B. Balanced
C. Unbalanced
D. None of the above
52. Which method is used for solving LPP in a finite number of stages? D
A. Simplex algorithm
B. Simplex variable
C. M method
D. Simplex method

53. What is LCM ? B

A. LabelChange Method
B. Least Cost Method
C. LimittedChange Method
D. None of the above

7 P.T.O.
54. Which of the following is a not special case in transportation problem? D
A. Unbalanced transportation problem
B. Maximized transportation problem
C. Prohibited routes transportation problem
D. None of the above
55. Which of the following is a special case in transportation problem? C
A. Modified Distribution Method
B. Stepping stone
C. Maximization Objective
D. Travelling salesman

56. In VAM to a profit maximization problem, row and column penalties are determined by: C
A. Finding the largest unit cost in each row or column.
B. Finding the smallest unit cost in each row or column.
C. Finding the difference between the two lowest unit costs in each row and column.
D. Finding the difference between the two highest unit costs in each row and column.
57. What is the size of matrix in assignment problems? C
A. m x n
B. n x m
C. n x n
D. None of the above
58. What is CPA? D
A. Critical Power Analysis.
B. Critical Payment Analysis.
C. Critical Path Algorithm
D. Critical Path Analysis
59. In network not contain more than one critical path exist? B
A. Yes
B. No
60. PERT ffsd B
A. (a+4m+b)/3
B. (a+4m+b)/6
C. (a+4c+2b)/d
D. None of the above
61. The LCM requires that we start allocating units to shipping routes in the: C
A. Lower right corner of the table.
B. Upper right corner of the table.
C. Highest costly cell of the table.
D. Upper left-hand corner of the table.

62. Which of the following is not used to come up with a solution to the transportation D
problem?
A. MODI method
B. northwest corner method
C. stepping-stone method
D. Hungarian method

8
63. Which of the following is a float time A
A. Total Float
B. Frequency Float
C. Activity Float
D. Parallel Float
64. Which of the following is a zero-sum game? B
A. Prisoners' dilemma
B. Chess
C. A cartel member's decision regarding whether or not to cheat
D. All of the above
65. To represent event in a network diagram used. B
A. Arrows
B. Circles
C. Squares
D. Rectangles
66. A common assumption about the players in a game is that D
A. neither player knows the payoff matrix.
B. the players have different information about the payoff matrix.
C. only one of the players pursues a rational strategy.
D. the specific identity of the players is irrelevant to the play of the game.
67. In a zero-sum game, A
A. what one player wins, the other loses.
B. the sum of each player’s winnings if the game is played many times must be zero.
C. the game is fair—each person has an equal chance of winning.
D. long-run profits must be zero.
68. Which of the following is not game type? D
A. Nonzero-sum game.
B. zero-sum game
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

69. Who is the father of game theory? A

A. John von Neumann
B. Emile Borel
C. Kenneth Binmore
D. None of the above

70. In game theory negative values in playoff matrix indicate? C

A. Having loss to one of the player
B. Having again to one of the player
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
71. What is row Dominance? A
A. If all the elements of a Row-i< = Row-j, then the Row-i is dominated by the Row-
j and it is removed from the matrix.
B. If all the elements of a Row-i> = Row-j, then the Row-i is dominated by the Row-
j and it is removed from the matrix.
C. If all the elements of a Row-i< = Row-j, then the Row-j is dominated by the Row-
j and it is removed from the matrix.
D. None of the above
9 P.T.O.
72. Zero sum game has to be a ______ game. C
A. Single player
B. Two player
C. Multiplayer
D. Three player
73. How many types of zero sum game?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. None of the above
74. Check from following which playoff matrix having saddle point? A
3 2 5 2 6 9 10 2
A. B. C. D.
4 5 7 9 13 5 −4 5
75. Check from following which playoff matrix having column dominance? C
13 − 2 50 20 −6 19 20 25
A. B. C. D.
14 15 70 90 −5 12 25 10
76. Which is not of type mixed strategy game? D
A. 2 x 2
B. 2 x n
C. m x n
D. None of the above
77. Which is the method used to solve mixed strategy game? D
A. Algebraic Method
B. Sub game Method
C. Graphical Method
D. None of the above
78. If the payoff matrix of the type “m x n” size then which methods not used to solve A
A. Algebraic Method
B. Sub game Method
C. Dominance Method
D. Simplex Method
79. If the payoff matrix of the type “2 x n or m x 2” size then which methods used to solve C
A. Big Omega Method
B. Pickup Method
C. Sub game Method
D. None of the above
80. Each participant in game is called A
A. Player
B. Strategy
C. Payoff
D. Game
81. What is first step to solve problem of mixed strategy game? B
A. Finding sub games
B. Finding Saddle point
C. Finding row and column dominance
D. None of the above

10
82. A play of the game occurs when each player has chosen B
A. Player
B. Strategy
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
83. A game with two players, where a gain of one player equals the loss to the other is known C
A. Multiple person zero sum game
B. One person zero sum game
C. Two person zero sum game
D. Three player
84. In game theory which following problem cannot solved using graphical method? C
A. 2 x n
B. m x 2
C. m x n
D. None of the above
85. In game theory which following problem can be solved using graphical method? A
A. 2 x n
B. 3 x 4
C. m x n
D. All of the above
86. What is column Dominance? B
A. If all the elements of a Column-i< = Column-j, then the Column-i is dominated by
the Column-j and it is removed from the matrix.
B. If all the elements of a Column-i> = Column-j, then the Column-i is dominated by
the Column-j and it is removed from the matrix.
C. If all the elements of a Column-i< = Column-j, then the Column-j is dominated by
the Column-j and it is removed from the matrix.
D. None of the above
87. PERT analysis is based on D
A. optimistic time
B. pessimistic time
C. most likely time
D. all the above.
88. In which phase is optimization done and how does that phase also checks for optimality C
conditions?
A. Phase III
B. Phase I
C. Phase II
D. None of the above
89. Which of these statements about the stepping-stone method is best? A
A. Only squares containing assigned shipments can be used to trace a path back to an
empty square.
B. An improvement index that is a net positive means that the initial solution can be
improved.
C. A dummy source and destination must be added if the number of rows plus
columns minus 1 is not equal to the number of filled squares.
D. Only empty squares can be used to trace a path back to a square containing an
assigned shipment.

11 P.T.O.
90. Dual simplex method solve for which type of objective B
A. Maximize
B. Minimize
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
91. The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to C
perform an activity is known as _________
A. Free float
B. Independent float
C. Total float
D. Half float

92. Which of the following is a special case in assignment problem? D

A. Modified Distribution Method
B. Stepping stone
C. Prohibited routes
D. Travelling salesman

93. What is VAM? B

A. Variable Assignment Method
B. Vogel's approximation method Prohibited routes
C. Both A& B
D. None of the above

94. An Algebraic Method used to solve ___ which type of payoff matrix A
A. 2 x 2
B. 2 x n
C. m x 2
D. m x n
95. The queuing theory is used to ______ D
A. Analyze computer
B. Telecommunication systems / Traffic systems
C. Logistic/ Manufacturing systems.
D. All of the above
96. The total cost of a queuing system is typically calculated as the C
A. waiting cost.
B. service cost.
C. sum of waiting cost and service cost.
D. difference of the waiting cost and service cost.
97. The case in which a customer joins a queue but then leaves before being served is A
called
A. balking.
B. reneging.
C. first-in, first-out.
D. finite queue length.

12
98. Which are elements of Queuing System D
i. Arrival/Input Process
ii. Waiting Process
iii. Queuing/Service Discipline
iv. Customer Behaviors
v. Service Facility/ Mechanism
vi. System Output
A. i iii, iv , v , vi
B. i , ii, iv , vi
C. i , ii, iii, iv, vi
D. i , ii, iii, iv , v , vi
99. What is SIRO B
A. Scientific in Research Order (SIRO)
B. Service in Random Order (SIRO)
C. Scientific in Research Operation (SIRO)
D. None of the above
100. In most basic queuing models, the size of the arrival population is assumed to be A
____________.
A. infinite
B. finite
C. constant
D. all of the above

13 P.T.O.
 Question Bank of
ANS
CA 1.3 Programming using C(254103)
C Language developed at?
A. AT & T's Bell Laboratories of USA in 1972
1) B. AT & T's Bell Laboratories of USA in 1970 A
C. Sun Microsystems in 1973
D. Cambridge University in 1972
For 16-bit compiler allowable range for integer constants is ______?
A. -3.4e38 to 3.4e38
2) B. -32767 to 32768 C
C. -32768 to 32767
D. -32668 to 3266
C programs are converted into machine language with the help of
A. An Editor
3) B. A compiler B
C. An operating system
D. None of the above
A C variable cannot start with
A. An alphabet
4) B. A number D
C. A special symbol other than underscore
D. both (b) and (c)
Which of the following is allowed in a C Arithmetic instruction
A. []
5) B.{} C
C. ()
D. None of the above
Which of the following shows the correct hierarchy of arithmetic operations in
C
A./+*- D
6)
B.*-/+
C.+-/*
D.*/+-
What is an array?
A. An array is a collection of variables that are of the dissimilar data type.
7) B. An array is a collection of variables that are of the same data type. B
C. An array is not a collection of variables that are of the same data type.
D. None of the above.
9. What is right way to Initialization array?
A. intnum[6] = { 2, 4, 12, 5, 45, 5 } ;
8) B. intn{} = { 2, 4, 12, 5, 45, 5 } ; A
C. intn{6} = { 2, 4, 12 } ;
D. intn(6) = { 2, 4, 12, 5, 45, 5 };

1 P.T.O.
 An array elements are always stored in _________ memory locations.
A. Sequential
9) B. Random A
C. Sequential and Random
D. None of the above
What is the right way to access value of structure variable book{ price, page }?
A. printf("%d%d", book.price, book.page);
10) B. printf("%d%d", price.book, page.book); A
C. printf("%d%d", price::book, page::book);
D. printf("%d%d", price->book, page->book);
Which keyword can be used for coming out of recursion?
A. break
B. return B
11)
C. exit
D. Both (a) and (b)

Bitwise operators can operate upon?

A. double and chars
12) B. floats and doubles D
C. ints and floats
D. ints and chars
What is C Tokens?
A. The smallest individual units of c program
13) B. The basic element recognized by the compiler D
C. The largest individual units of program
D. A & B Both
What is Keywords?
A. Keywords have some predefine meanings and these meanings can be changed.
B. Keywords have some unknown meanings and these meanings cannot be
14) changed. C
C. Keywords have some predefine meanings and these meanings cannot be
changed.
D. None of the above
What is constant?
A. Constants have fixed values that do not change during the execution of a
program
15) B. Constants have fixed values that change during the execution of a program A
C. Constants have unknown values that may be change during the execution of a
program
D. None of the above
Which is the right way to declare constant in C?
A. int constant var =10;
16) B. intconstvar = 10; D
C. constintvar = 10;
D. B & C Both

2
 Which operators are known as Ternary Operator?
A. ::, ?
17) B.?,: B
C.?,;;
D. None of the above
In switch statement, each case instance value must be _______?
A. Constant
18) B. Variable A
C. Special Symbol
D. None of the above
What is the work of break keyword?
A. Halt execution of program
19) B. Restart execution of program C
C. Exit from loop or switch statement
D. None of the above
For the below definition what is the data type of ‘PI’
#define PI 3.141
A - Its float C
20)
B - Its double
C - There is no type associated with PI, as it’s just a text substitution
D - Syntax error, semi colon is missing with the definition of PI
The statement printf("%c", 100); will print?
A. prints 100
21) B. print garbage C
C. prints ASCII equivalent of 100
D. None of the above
The _______ memory allocation function modifies the previous allocated
space.
A. calloc D
22)
B. free
C. malloc
D. realloc
The following code ‘for(;;)’ represents an infinite loop. It can be terminated
by.

23) A. break A
B. exit(0)
C. abort()
D. All of the mentioned
Which is the correct syntax to declare constant pointer?
A. int *constconstPtr;
24) B. *int constant constPtr; D
C. constint *constPtr;
D. A and C both

3 P.T.O.
 What will be the output of the following program ?

void main()
{
int a = 2;
switch(a)
{
case 1:
printf("goodbye"); break;
case 2:
25) continue; A
case 3:
printf("bye");
}
}

A)error
B)goodbye
C)bye
D)byegoodby
What is the use of getchar()?

A. The next input character each time it is called C

26)
B. EOF when it encounters end of file.
C. Both a & b
D. None of the mentioned
Which operator connects the structure name to its member name?
a) –
27) b) <- C
c) .
d) Both <- and .
What will be output if you will compile and execute the following c code?

void main()
{
if(printf("cquestionbank"))
printf("I know c");
else C
28)
printf("I know c++");
}

A) I know c
B) I know c++
C) cquestionbankI know c
D) cquestionbankI know c++

4
 What will be output if you will compile and execute the following c code?
#define message "union is power of c"
void main()
{
clrscr();
printf("%s",message);
29) getch(); A
}

A) union is power of c
B) union is Power of c
C) Compiler error
D) None of these
Bitwise operators can operate upon?

A. double and chars

30) B. floats and doubles D
C. ints and floats
D. ints and chars

What will be the output of the following C code?

#include <stdio.h>
void main()
{
char *s = "hello";
char *p = s; B
31)
printf("%p\t%p", p, s);
}

A) Different address is printed

B) Same address is printed
C) Run time error
D) Nothing

5 P.T.O.
 What is the output of the following code?
main()
{
int x = 5;

if(x=5)
{
if(x=5) break;
32) printf("Hello"); A
}
printf("Hi");
}

A - Compile error
B - Hi
C - HelloHi
D - Compiler warning
What is the built in library function to adjust the allocated dynamic memory
size.

A - malloc B
33)
B - calloc
C - realloc
D –resize

What will be the output of the following C code?

#include <stdio.h>
void main()
{
int x = 5;
if (true);
printf("hello");
34) } B

A) It will display hello

B) It will throw an error
C) Nothing will be displayed
D) Compiler dependent

Which keyword can be used for coming out of recursion?

A) break B
35)
B) return
C) exit
D) both break and return

6
 A character variable can at a time store ?

A. 1 character A
36)
B. 8 charactCr
C. 254 character
D. None of above
Which of the following is false in C ?

A. Keywords cannot be used as variable names A

37)
B. Variable names can contain a digit
C. Variable names do not contain a blank space
D. Capital letters can be used in variable names
The single character input/output functions are ?
A.scanf( ) and printf( )
38) B.getchar( ) and printf( ) B
C.scanf( ) and putchar( )
D.getchar( ) and putchar( )
In which header file Null macro is defined?

A. stdio.h A
39)
B. iostream.h
C. string.h
D. pre-processor
Null macro is ?

A. A macro with name Null B

40)
B. A macro which represents Null pointer
C. A macro defined with no name
D. None of Above
How many times CppBuzz.com is printed?
int main()
{
int a = 0;
while(a++);
{
printf("CppBuzz.com");
41) } B
return 0;
}

(A) 0 time
(B) 1 time
(C) Compilation Error
(D) Infinite times

7 P.T.O.
 How many times CppBuzz.com is printed on console?
int main()
{
int a = 0;
while(a++)
{
printf("CppBuzz.com");
42) } A
return 0;
}

(A) Nothing is printed on screen

(B) 0 time
(C) 1 time
(D) Infinite times
When C Language was invented?
(A) 1970
43) (B) 1972 B
(C) 1978
(D) 1979
Name the function whose definition can be substituted at a place where its
function call is made _________
a) friends function B
44)
b) inline function
c) volatile function
d) external function
What is the following is invalid header file in C?
(A) math.h
45) (B) mathio.h B
(C) string.h
(D) ctype.h
Libray function getch() belongs to which header file?
(A) stdio.h
46) (B) conio.h B
(C) stdlib.h
(D) stdlibio.h
Library function pow() belongs to which header file?
(A) mathio.h
47) (B) math.h B
(C) square.h
(D) stdio.h
Is it possible to run program without main() function?
48) (A) Yes B
(B) No

8
 What is sizeof() in C?
(A) Operator
49) (B) Function B
(C) Macro
(D) None of these
What is the output of following code?
int main()
{
int a = 5;
int b = 10;
int c = a+b;
50) printf("%i",c); B
}

(A) 0
(B) 15
(C) Undefined i
(D) Any other Compiler Error
Which of the following ways are correct to include header file in C program?
(A) #include<stdio.h>
51) (B) #include"stdio.h" D
(C) # stdio.h
(D) Both A & B
Will compiler produce any compilation error if same header file is included
two times?
52) B
(A) Yes
(B) No
How does the string is stored in the memory?
A) Contiguous
53) B) Non-contiguous A
C) Null
D) sequence
What is the output of the following code?
#include "stdio.h"
int a = 20;
int main()
{
int a = 10;
printf("%d", a); C
54)
return 0;
}

(A) 20
(B) Ambiguity Error
(C) 10
(D) 0

9 P.T.O.
 What is the output of the following code?

#include "stdio.h"
int main()
{
int a = 10, b = 20;
if(a=b)
{
printf("Easy");
}
else A
55)
{
printf("Hard");
}

return 0;
}

(A) Easy
(B) Hard
(C) EasyHard
(D) Error in program
Does this program get compiled successfully?
#include stdio.h

int main()
{
printf("CppBuzz.com");
return 0; B
56)
}

(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Depend on processor
(D) Error in program
The format identifier ‘%i’ is also used for _____ data type.
A) char
57) B) int B
C) float
D) double
Which of the following is a logical AND operator?
A) !
58) B) && B
C) ||
D) &

10
 Prototype of a function means _____
A. Name of Function C
59) B. Output of Function
C. Declaration of Function
D. Input of a Function
Name the loop that executes at least once.
A. For C
60) B. If
C. do-while
D. while
What is a null pointer?

a. Null pointer is a pointer which is pointing to nothing D

61)
b. Null pointer points the base address of segment
c. Pointer which is initialized with NULL value is considered as NULL pointer.
d. All of the above
C language was invented in which laboratories.?
A) Uniliver Labs
62) B) IBM Labs C
C) AT&T Bell Labs
D) Verizon Labs
Each statement in a C program should end with.?

A) Semicolon ; A
63)
B) Colon :
C) Period . (dot symbol)
D) None of the above.
Types of Integers are.?
A) short
64) B) int D
C) long
D) All the above
Which of the following cannot be a structure member?
a) Another structure
65) b) Function B
c) Array
d) None of the mentioned
Which of the following correctly shows the hierarchy of arithmetic operations in
C?

66) A. / + * - D
B. * - / +
C. + - / *
D. / * + -

11 P.T.O.
 What characters are allowed in a C function name identifier? B
A) Alphabets, Numbers, %, $, _
67) B) Alphabets, Numbers, Underscore ( _ )
C) Alphabets, Numbers, dollar $
D) Alphabets, Numbers, %
Arguments passed to a function in C language are called ___ arguments.
A) Formal arguments
68) B) Actual Arguments B
C) Definite Arguments
D) Ideal Arguments
Arguments received by a function in C language are called ___ arguments.
A) Definite arguments
69) B) Formal arguments B
C) Actual arguments
D) Ideal arguments
Choose a non Library C function below.
A) printf()
70) B) scanf() D
C) fprintf()
D) printf2()
What is the dimension of the C array int ary[10][5].?
A) 1
71) B) 2 B
C) 5
D) 10
What is the dimension of the below C Array.
int ary[]={1,3,5,7};
A) 1 A
72)
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
Array of Arrays is also called.
A) Multi Data Array
73) B) Multi Size Array C
C) Multi Dimensional Array
D) Multi Byte Array
What is the minimum number of functions to be present in a C Program.
A) 1
74) B) 2 A
C) 3
D) 4
How do you accept a Multi Word Input in C Language.
A) SCANF
75) B) GETS C
C) GETC
D) FINDS

12
 Processor Directive in C language starts with.?
A) $ symbol (DOLLAR)
76) B) @ symbol (At The Rate) D
C) & symbol (Ampersand)
D) # symbol (HASH)
What is the abbreviation of C STDIO in stdio.h.?
A) Standard Input Output
77) B) String Terminating Operations Input Output A
C) Store Input Output
D) None of the above
If the two strings are identical, then strcmp() function returns
A) -1
78) B) 1 C
C) 0
D) Yes
A pointer pointing to a memory location of the variable even after deletion of
the variable is known as _____

79) A. far pointer B

B. dangling pointer
C. null pointer
D. void pointer
Which standard library function will you use to find the last occurance of a
character in a string in C?

80) A) strnchar() D
B) strchar()
C) strrchar()
D) strrchr()
What is the output of this program?

#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
printf("value is = %d", (10 ++)); C
81)
return 0;
}

a) 10
b) 11
c) Compile time error
d) run time error
In C Programming strcmp() function is used for

A. Convert String to Char C

82)
B. Copy two Strings
C. Compare two Strings
D. None of these
13 P.T.O.
 In C Programming ‘\a’ is used for
A. Form feed
83) B. Line Brake D
C. Select All
D. Alarm
Which of the following function sets first n characters of a string to a given
character?

84) A.strinit() B
B.strnset()
C.strset()
D.strcset()
How will you free the allocated memory ?

A. remove(var-name); B
85)
B. free(var-name);
C. delete(var-name);
D. dalloc(var-name);
What will happen if in a C program you assign a value to an array element
whose subscript exceeds the size of array?
A. The element will be set to 0. C
86)
B. The compiler would report an error.
C. The program may crash if some important data gets overwritten.
D. The array size would appropriately grow.
What is the maximum length of a C String.
A) 32 characters
87) B) 64 characters D
C) 256 characters
D) None of the above
C programming : Match the following:
a. calloc( ) ------- i. Frees previouslyallocated space.
b. free( ) ----------- ii. Modifiespreviouslyallocated space.
c. malloc( ) ------- iii. Allocates spacefor array.
d. realloc( ) ------- iv. Allocatesrequested size ofspace. A
88)
A. a-iii, b-i, c –iv, d -ii
B. a-iii, b-ii, c –i, d -iv
C. a-iii, b-iv, c –i, d -ii
D. a-iv, b-ii, c –iii, d -i
A pointer pointing to a memory location of the variable even after deletion of
the variable is known as _____
89) A. far pointer B
B. dangling pointer
C. null pointer
D. void pointer

14
 How will you print \n on the screen?
A)printf("\n");
90) B)echo "\\n"; D
C)printf('\n');
D)printf("\\n");
The Default Parameter Passing Mechanism is called as
A. Call by Value
91) B. Call by Reference A
C. Call by Address
D. Call by Name
Which operator connects the structure name to its member name?
a) –
92) b) <- C
c) .
d) Both <- and .
Array index always start from (C programming)

a. 0 A
93)
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
C programming: Which is not a storage class?

a. Auto B
94)
b. Struct
c. Typedef
d. Static
What is printed when the sample code is executed?
int y[4] = {6, 7, 8, 9};
int *ptr = y + 2;
printf("%d\n", ptr[ 1 ] );
95) D
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9
Which of the following operator can be used to access value at address stored
in a pointer variable?

96) A. * A
B. #
C. &&
D. @
22. Which one of the following sentences is true?
A. The body of a while loop is executed at least once.
97) B. The body of a do ... while loop is executed at least once. B
C. The body of a do ... while loop is executed zero or more times.
D. A for loop can never be used in place of a while loop.

15 P.T.O.
 perror( ) function used to ?
A. Work same as printf()
98) B. prints the error message specified by the compiler B
C. prints the garbage value assigned by the compiler
D. None of the above
signed and unsigned representation is available for.?
A) short, int, long, char
99) B) float, double, long double C
C) A & B
D) None of the above
C programming: To use the function tolower(), which of the following header
file should be used

a. string.h C
100)
b. conio.h
c. ctype.h
d. None of the mentioned

**********

16
 CA-305 Java Programming A
N
S
1) Which class allows parsing of command line arguments? B
a) Args
b) JCommander
c) Command Line
d) Input
2) Which of the following is not a Java features? C
a)Dynamic
b)Architecture Neutral
c)Use of pointers
d)Object-oriented
3) How do we pass command line argument in Eclipse? A
a) Arguments tab
b) Variable tab
c) Cannot pass command line argument in eclipse
d) Environment variable tab
4) Which package contains the Random class? A
a)java.util package
b)java.lang package
c)java.awt package
d)java.io package
5) Can command line arguments be converted into int automatically if required? B
a) Yes
b) No
c) Compiler Dependent
d) Only ASCII characters can be converted
6) Which of the following is an immediate subclass of the Panel class? A
a)Applet class
b)Window class
c)Frame class
d)Dialog class
7) Which of these is a correct statement about args in the following line of code? C

public static void main(String args[])

a) args is a String
b) args is a Character
c) args is an array of String
d) args in an array of Character
1 P.T.O.
8) Which of these data types is used to store command line arguments? C
a) Array
b) Stack
c) String
d) Integer
9) Which keyword is used for accessing the features of a package? B
a)package
b)import
c)extends
d)export
10) How many threads can be executed at a time? B
a)Only one thread
b)Multiple threads
c)Only main (main() method) thread
d)Two threads
11) Which of these selection statements test only for equality? B
a) if
b) switch
c) if & switch
d) none of the mentioned
12) Which of these keywords is used to define interfaces in Java? A
a) class
b) Interface
c) cls
d) var
13) Which of the following can be operands of arithmetic operators? D
a) Numeric
b) Boolean
c) Characters
d) Both Numeric & Characters
14) Which of the following is not OOPS concept in Java? D
a) Inheritance
b) Encapsulation
c) Polymorphism
d) Compilation

2
15) What will be the output of the following Java program? D

class Output
{
static void main(String args[])
{
int x , y = 1;
x = 10;
if(x != 10 && x / 0 == 0)
System.out.println(y);
else
System.out.println(++y);
}
}

a) 1
b) 2
c) Runtime Error
d) Compilation Error
16) Which of these can be used to differentiate two or more methods having the D
same name?
a) Parameters data type
b) Number of parameters
c) Return type of method
d) All of the mentioned
17) What is the process of defining more than one method in a class differentiated B
by parameters?
a) Function overriding
b) Function overloading
c) Function doubling
d) None of the mentioned
18) Which of the following statements are incorrect? B
a) String is a class
b) Strings in java are mutable
c) Every string is an object of class String
d) Java defines a peer class of String, called StringBuffer, which allows string
to be altered
19) Which of these method of String class can be used to test to strings for D
equality?
a) isequal()
b) isequals()
c) equal()
d) equals()

3 P.T.O.
20) Which of these keywords is used to refer to member of base class from a B
subclass?
a) upper
b) super
c) this
d) none of the mentioned
21) String in Java is a? A
a) class
b) object
c) variable
d) character array
22) What will be the output of the following Java program? C

class access
{
static int x;
void increment()
{
x++;
}
}
class static_use
{
public static void main(String args[])
{
access obj1 = new access();
access obj2 = new access();
obj1.x = 0;
obj1.increment();
obj2.increment();
System.out.println(obj1.x + " " + obj2.x);
}
}

a) 1 2
b) 1 1
c) 2 2
d) Compilation Error
23) Which of these methods must be made static? A
a) main()
b) delete()
c) run()
d) finalize()
4
24) Which of the following statements are incorrect? A
a) Variables declared as final occupy memory
b) final variable must be initialized at the time of declaration
c) Arrays in java are implemented as an object
d) All arrays contain an attribute-length which contains the number of
elements stored in the array
25) Which of these cannot be declared static? B
a) class
b) object
c) variable
d) method
26) Which of these keywords is used to prevent content of a variable from being A
modified?
a) final
b) last
c) constant
d) static
27) Arrays in Java are implemented as? B
a) class
b) object
c) variable
d) none of the mentioned
28) Which component is responsible for converting bytecode into machine specific A
code?
a) JVM
b) JDK
c) JIT
d) JRE
29) Which is the modifier when there is none mentioned explicitly? D
a) protected
b) private
c) public
d) default
30) Which of these values is returned by read() method is end of file (EOF) is C
encountered?
a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) Null

5 P.T.O.
31) What is true about a break? B
a) Break stops the execution of entire program
b) Break halts the execution and forces the control out of the loop
c) Break forces the control out of the loop and starts the execution of next iteration
d) Break halts the execution of the loop for certain time frame
32) How can a protected modifier be accessed? C
a) accessible only within the class
b) accessible only within package
c) accessible within package and outside the package but through inheritance
only
d) accessible by all
33) Which of these method of String class can be used to test to strings for equality? D
a) isequal()
b) isequals()
c) equal()
d) equals()
34) What is the process by which we can control what parts of a program can C
access the members of a class?
a) Polymorphism
b) Abstraction
c) Encapsulation
d) Recursion
35) Which of these packages contains all the classes and methods required for even D
handling in Java?
a) java.applet
b) java.awt
c) java.event
d) java.awt.event
36) What is the process of defining a method in terms of itself, that is a method D
that calls itself?
a) Polymorphism
b) Abstraction
c) Encapsulation
d) Recursion
37) Which of this keyword can be used in a subclass to call the constructor of A
superclass?
a) super
b) this
c) extent
d) extends

6
38) Which of these can be overloaded? C
a) Methods
b) Constructors
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
39) Which of these methods is used to write() into a file? C
a) put()
b) putFile()
c) write()
d) writeFile()
40) Which exception is thrown when java is out of memory? C
a) MemoryFullException
b) MemoryOutOfBoundsException
c) OutOfMemoryError
d) MemoryError
41) Which of these keywords can be used to prevent Method overriding? D
a) static
b) constant
c) protected
d) final
42) Which of the following has the highest memory requirement? C
a) Heap
b) Stack
c) JVM
d) Class
43) What is the return type of Constructors? D
a) int
b) float
c) void
d) none of the mentioned
44) What would be the behaviour if this() and super() used in a method? C
a) Runtime error
b) Throws exception
c) compile time error
d) Runs successfully
45) Which class is used to generate random number? C
a) java.lang.Object
b) java.util.randomNumber
c) java.util.Random
d) java.util.Object

7 P.T.O.
46) Which of the following is a method having same name as that of its class? D
a) finalize
b) delete
c) class
d) constructor
47) When does Exceptions in Java arises in code sequence? A
a) Run Time
b) Compilation Time
c) Can Occur Any Time
d) None of the mentioned
48) What is the return type of Constructors? D
a) int
b) float
c) void
d) none of the mentioned
49) Which of the following is a method having same name as that of its class? D
a) finalize
b) delete
c) class
d) constructor
50) What will be the output of the following Java program? D

class Output
{
public static void main(String args[])
{
final int a=10,b=20;
while(a<b)
{

System.out.println("Hello");
}
System.out.println("World");

}
}

a) Hello
b) run time error
c) Hello world
d) compile time error

8
51) Which method can be defined only once in a program? A
a) main method
b) finalize method
c) static method
d) private method
52) Which of this statement is incorrect? B
a) switch statement is more efficient than a set of nested ifs
b) two case constants in the same switch can have identical values
c) switch statement can only test for equality, whereas if statement can
evaluate any type of boolean expression
d) it is possible to create a nested switch statements
53) What will be the output of the following Java program? B

class comma_operator
{
public static void main(String args[])
{
int sum = 0;
for (int i = 0, j = 0; i < 5 & j < 5; ++i, j = i + 1)
sum += i;
System.out.println(sum);
}
}

a) 5
b) 6
c) 14
d) compilation error
54) Which of these keywords must be used to monitor for exceptions? A
a) try
b) finally
c) throw
d) catch
55) Which of these access specifiers can be used for an interface? C
a) private
b) Protected
c) Public
d) All of the mentioned

9 P.T.O.
56) Which of the following loops will execute the body of loop even when condition A
controlling the loop is initially false?
a) do-while
b) while
c) for
d) none of the mentioned
57) Which of these keywords is used by a class to use an interface defined previously? C
a) import
b) Import
c) implements
d) Implements
58) Which of these selection statements test only for equality? B
a) if
b) switch
c) if & switch
d) none of the mentioned
59) Which of these keywords is used to define interfaces in Java? A
a) interface
b) Interface
c) intf
d) Intf
60) Decrement operator, −−, decreases the value of variable by what number? A
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
61) Which of the following option leads to the portability and security of Java? A
a)Bytecode is executed by JVM
b)The applet makes the Java code secure and portable
c)Use of exception handling
d)Dynamic binding between objects
62) Which of the following is true about the anonymous inner class? D
a)It has only methods
b)Objects can't be created
c)It has a fixed class name
d)It has no class name
63) What do you mean by nameless objects? D
a)An object created by using the new keyword.
b)An object of a superclass created in the subclass.
c)An object without having any name but having a reference.
d)An object that has no reference.

10
64) Which option is false about the final keyword? A
a)A final method cannot be overridden in its subclasses.
b)A final class cannot be extended.
c)A final class cannot extend other classes.
d)A final method can be inherited.
65) Which of these classes are the direct subclasses of the Throwable class? C
a) RuntimeException and Error class
b) Exception and VirtualMachineError class
c) Error and Exception class
d) IOException and VirtualMachineError class
66) Which of these operators is used to allocate memory for an object? C
a) malloc
b) alloc
c) new
d) give
67) Which of these data types is used to store command line arguments? C
a) Array
b) Stack
c) String
d) Integer
68) Which of these method of String class is used to obtain character at specified D
index?
a) char()
b) Charat()
c) charat()
d) charAt()
69) Which component is responsible to optimize bytecode to machine code? C
a) JVM
b) JDK
c) JIT
d) JRE
70) Which concept of Java is a way of converting real world objects in terms of class? C
a) Polymorphism
b) Encapsulation
c) Abstraction
d) Inheritance
71) Which of these keywords is used to manually throw an exception? C
a) try
b) finally
c) throw
d) catch

11 P.T.O.
72) Which of these class is super class of all the events? A
a) EventObject
b) EventClass
c) ActionEvent
d) ItemEvent
73) Which of these methods is a part of Abstract Window Toolkit (AWT) ? B
a) display()
b) paint()
c) drawString()
d) transient()
74) Which of the following is the correct way of implementing an interface A by class B
B?
a) class B extends A{}
b) class B implements A{}
c) class B imports A{}
d) None of the mentioned
75) Arrays in Java are implemented as? B
a) class
b) object
c) variable
d) none of the mentioned
76) Which of these is supported by method overriding in Java? C
a) Abstraction
b) Encapsulation
c) Polymorphism
d) None of the mentioned
77) Which of these is necessary to specify at time of array initialization? A
a) Row
b) Column
c) Both Row and Column
d) None of the mentioned
78) Which of the following statements are incorrect? B
a) String is a class
b) Strings in java are mutable
c) Every string is an object of class String
d) Java defines a peer class of String, called StringBuffer, which allows string to
be altered
79) Which of these cannot be declared static? B
a) class
b) object
c) variable
d) method
12
80) Which of these functions is called to display the output of an applet? B
a) display()
b) paint()
c) displayApplet()
d) PrintApplet()
81)
82) What is the process of defining more than one method in a class differentiated by B
parameters?
a) Function overriding
b) Function overloading
c) Function doubling
d) None of the mentioned
83) Which of these methods must be made static? A
a) main()
b) delete()
c) run()
d) finalize()
84) Which of these are selection statements in Java? A
a) if()
b) for()
c) continue
d) break
85) Which of these keywords must be used to handle the exception thrown by try D
block in some rational manner?
a) try
b) finally
c) throw
d) catch
86) Which of these operators is used to allocate memory for an object? C
a) malloc
b) alloc
c) new
d) give
87) What is the process of defining more than one method in a class differentiated B
by method signature?
a) Function overriding
b) Function overloading
c) Function doubling
d) None of the mentioned

13 P.T.O.
88) Which of the following is a method having same name as that of it’s class? D
a) finalize
b) delete
c) class
d) constructor
89) Which of this statement is incorrect? D
a) All object of a class are allotted memory for the all the variables defined in
the class
b) If a function is defined public it can be accessed by object of other class by
inheritation
c) main() method must be made public
d) All object of a class are allotted memory for the methods defined in the
class
90) Which annotation is used to represent command line input and assigned to D
correct data type?
a) @Input
b) @Variable
c) @Command Line
d) @Parameter
91) What is the use of @syntax? B
a) Allows multiple parameters to be passed
b) Allows one to put all your options into a file and pass this file as a
parameter
c) Allows one to pass only one parameter
d) Allows one to pass one file containing only one parameter
92) What would be the output of the following code snippet if variable a=10? D

if(a<=0)
{
if(a==0)
{
System.out.println("1 ");
}
else
{
System.out.println("2 ");
}
}
System.out.println("3 ");

a) 1 2
b) 2 3
c) 1 3
d) 3
14
93) What is true about a break? B
a) Break stops the execution of entire program
b) Break halts the execution and forces the control out of the loop
c) Break forces the control out of the loop and starts the execution of next
iteration
d) Break halts the execution of the loop for certain time frame
94) What is true about do statement? A
a) do statement executes the code of a loop at least once
b) do statement does not get execute if condition is not matched in the first
iteration
c) do statement checks the condition at the beginning of the loop
d) do statement executes the code more than once always
95) Which of the following is used with the switch statement? C
a) Continue
b) Exit
c) break
d) do
96) Which of the following is not a decision making statement? D
a) if
b) if-else
c) switch
d) do-while
97) Which of the following is not a valid flow control statement? A
a) exit()
b) break
c) continue
d) return
98) In order to restrict a variable of a class from inheriting to subclass, how B
variable should be declared?
a) Protected
b) Private
c) Public
d) Static
99) Which of the following is used for implementing inheritance through an D
interface?
a) inherited
b) using
c) extends
d) implements

15 P.T.O.
100) What would be the result if a class extends two interfaces and both have a B
method with same name and signature? Lets assume that the class is not
implementing that method.
a) Runtime error
b) Compile time error
c) Code runs successfully
d) First called method is executed successfully

**********

16
QNo. MCA CA-302 Design and Analysis of Algorithm (312251) (251312) ANS
Which of the following is incorrect?
Algorithms can be represented:
A) as pseudo codes
1 B) as syntax B
C) as programs
D) as flowcharts

A data structure that follows the FIFO principle.

A) Queue
2 B) LL A
C) Stack
D) Union
Steps of Divide and Conquer approach Select one:
A) Divide, Conquer and Combine
3 B) Combine, Conquer and Divide A
C) Combine, Divide and Conquer
D) Divide, Combine and Conquer
The complexity of searching an element from a set of n elements using Binary
search algorithm is Select one:
A) O(n log n)
4 B
B) O(log n)
C) O(n2)
D) O(n)
Which of the following algorithms is NOT a divide & conquer algorithm by
nature?
A MAXMIN
5 B Heap Sort B
C Merge Sort
D Quick Sort

Merge sort uses which of the following technique to implement sorting?

A) backtracking
B) greedy algorithm
6 C
C) divide and conquer
D) dynamic programming

Which of the following method is used for sorting in merge sort?

A) merging
B) partitioning
7 A
C) selection
D) exchanging

Which is the common method to choose a pivot element?

A) choosing a random element as pivot
8 B) choosing the first element as pivot B
C) choosing the last element as pivot
D) median-of-three partitioning method
 To Sort the element in ascending order using Heap Sort we should
create_____ tree.
a) MaxHeap
9 b) MinHeap A
c) Heap
d) None of the above

Which of the following statements is true about recursion?

A) Recursion is always better than iteration
B) Recursion uses more memory compared to iteration
10. B
C) Recursion uses less memory compared to iteration
D) Iteration is always better and simpler than recursion

Path Compression algorithm performs in which of the following operations?

A) Create operation
11 B) Insert operation C
C) Find operation
D) Delete operation
In the Union/Find algorithm, the ranks of the nodes on a path will increase
monotonically from?
A) leaf to root
12 B) root to node A
C) root to leaf
D) left subtree to right subtree

Which of the following asymptotic notations is used to represent worst case

complexity?
a) Theta
13 b) Big-O B
c) Omega
d) None of the above

Strassen’s algorithm for 2X2 Matrix Multiplication is a/an_____________

algorithm.
A) Non- recursive
14 A
B) Recursive
C) Approximation
D) Accurate
Strassen’s matrix multiplication algorithm follows ___________ technique.
A) Greedy technique
B) Dynamic Programming
15 C
C) Divide and Conquer
D) Backtracking

The number of edges from the root to the node is called __________ of the
tree.
A) Height
16 B
B) Depth
C) Length
D) Width
 What is a full binary tree?
A) Each node has exactly zero or two children
17 B) Each node has exactly two children B
C) All the leaves are at the same level
D) Each node has exactly one or two children
What is a complete binary tree?
A) Each node has exactly zero or two children
B) A binary tree, which is completely filled, with the possible exception of the
18 bottom level, which is filled from right to left C
C) A binary tree, which is completely filled, with the possible exception of
the bottom level, which is filled from left to right
D) A tree In which all nodes have degree 2
Which of the following properties does a simple graph not hold?
A) Must be connected
19 B) Must be unweighted A
C) Must have no loops or multiple edges
D) Must have no multiple edges
For a given graph G having v vertices and e edges which is connected and has
no cycles, which of the following statements is true?
A) v=e
20 B) v = e+1 B
C) v + 1 = e
D) v = e-1

How many rules are there for Removal of Recursion

a) 10
21 b) 11 D
c) 12
d) 13
The worst case complexity of quick sort is _________
A) O(n)
22 B) O(log n) C
C) O(n2)
D) O(n log n)
In a max-heap, element with the greatest key is always in the which node?
A) Leaf node
B) First node of left sub tree
23 C
C) root node
D) First node of right sub tree

The main measure for efficiency algorithm are-

A) Processor and Memory

24 B) Complexity and Capacity D

C) Data and Space
D) Time and space
Heap can be used as ________________
25 A) Priority queue A
B) Stack
 C) A decreasing order array
D) Normal Array

What will be the position of 5, when a max heap is constructed on the input
elements 5, 70, 45, 7, 12, 15, 13, 65, 30, 25?
A) 5 will be at root
26 B
B) 5 will be at last level
C) 5 will be at second level
D) 5 can be anywhere in heap
What is the worst case time complexity of merge sort?
A) O(n log n)
B) O(n2)
27 A
C) O(n2 log n)
D) O(n log n2)

Which of the following case does not exist in complexity theory?

A) Best case
B) Worst case
28 D
C) Average case
D) Null case

Which of the following is true?

A) Prim’s algorithm initializes with a vertex
29 B) Prim’s algorithm initializes with a edge A
C) Prim’s algorithm initializes with a vertex which has smallest edge
D) Prim’s algorithm initializes with a forest
Prim’s algorithm is a ______
A) Divide and conquer algorithm
B) Greedy algorithm
30 B
C) Dynamic Programming
D) Approximation algorithm

Prim’s algorithm resembles Dijkstra’s algorithm.

A) True
31 A
B) False

Kruskal’s algorithm is best suited for the sparse graphs than the prim’s
algorithm.
32 A
A) True
B) False
Which of the following is false about Prim’s algorithm?
A) It is a greedy algorithm
33 B) It constructs MST by selecting edges in increasing order of their weights B
C) It never accepts cycles in the MST
D) It can be implemented using the Fibonacci heap
Every graph has only one minimum spanning tree.
34 A) True B
B) False
 Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____ spanning
trees.
A) 15
35 B) 8 C
C) 16
D) 13

Kruskal’s algorithm is used to ______

A) find minimum spanning tree
36 B) find single source shortest path A
C) find all pair shortest path algorithm
D) traverse the graph
Kruskal’s algorithm is a ______
A) divide and conquer algorithm
37 B) dynamic programming algorithm C
C) greedy algorithm
D) approximation algorithm
Which of the following is true?
A) Prim’s algorithm can also be used for disconnected graphs
B) Kruskal’s algorithm can also run on the disconnected graphs
38 B
C) Prim’s algorithm is simpler than Kruskal’s algorithm
D) In Kruskal’s sort edges are added to MST in decreasing order of their
weights
Which of the following is false about the Kruskal’s algorithm?
A) It is a greedy algorithm
B) It constructs MST by selecting edges in increasing order of their weights
39 C
C) It can accept cycles in the MST
D) It uses union-find data structure

Consider the following statements.

S1. Kruskal’s algorithm might produce a non-minimal spanning tree.
S2. Kruskal’s algorithm can efficiently implemented using the disjoint-set data
structure.
40 D
A) S1 is true but S2 is false
B) Both S1 and S2 are false
C) Both S1 and S2 are true
D) S2 is true but S1 is false
Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ problems.
A) All pair shortest path
41 B) Single source shortest path B
C) Network flow
D) Sorting
Which of the following is the most commonly used data structure for
implementing Dijkstra’s Algorithm?
A) Max priority queue
42 D
B) Stack
C) Circular queue
D) Min priority queue
What is the time complexity of Dijikstra’s algorithm?
43 C
A) O(N)
 B) O(N3)
C) O(N2)
D) O(logN)

Dijkstra’s Algorithm cannot be applied on ______________

A) Directed and weighted graphs
44 B) Graphs having negative weight function B
C) Weighted graphs
D) Undirected and unweighted graphs
How many priority queue operations are involved in Dijkstra’s Algorithm?
A) 1
B) 3
45 B
C) 2
D) 4

Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________

A) Greedy algorithm
46 B) Branch and bound A
C) Back tracking
D) Dynamic programming
Which of the problems cannot be solved by backtracking method?
A) n-queen problem
47 B) subset sum problem D
C) hamiltonian circuit problem
D) travelling salesman problem
Backtracking algorithm is implemented by constructing a tree of choices called
as?
A) State-space tree
48 A
B) State-chart tree
C) Node tree
D) Backtracking tree
What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete solution?
A) It backtracks to the root
49 B) It continues searching for other possible solutions B
C) It traverses from a different route
D) Recursively traverses through the same route
A node is said to be ____________ if it has a possibility of reaching a complete
solution.
A) Non-promising
50 B) Promising B
C) Succeeding
D) Preceding

In what manner is a state-space tree for a backtracking algorithm constructed?

A) Depth-first search
51 B) Breadth-first search A
C) Twice around the tree
D) nearest neighbor first
In general, backtracking can be used to solve?
52 C
A) Numerical problems
 B) Exhaustive search
C) Combinatorial problems
D) Graph coloring problems
How many solutions are there for 8 queens on 8*8 board?
A) 12
B) 91
53 C
C) 92
D) 93

In how many directions do queens attack each other?

A) 1
B) 2
54 C
C) 3
D) 4

Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A) n-queen’s problem
55 B) 8-queen’s problem A
C) Hamiltonian circuit problem
D) subset sum problem
Where is the n-queens problem implemented?
A) carom
B) chess
56 B
C) ludo
D) cards

Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a graph is

called?
A) vertex matching
57 C
B) chromatic index
C) chromatic number
D) color number
How many unique colors will be required for proper vertex coloring of an
empty graph having n vertices?
A) 0
58 B) 1 B
C) 2
D) n

What will be the chromatic number for a complete graph having n vertices?
A) 0
B) 1
59 C
C) n
D) n!

The 0/1 Knapsack problem is an example of ____________

A) Greedy algorithm
60 B) Dynamic programming B
C) Graph coloring problems
D) Divide and conquer
 The Fractional Knapsack problem is an example of ____________
A) Greedy algorithm
61 B) Dynamic programming A
C) Graph coloring problems
D) Divide and conquer
. If a problem can be solved by combining optimal solutions to non-
overlapping problems, the strategy is called _____________
A) Dynamic programming
62 B) Greedy C
C) Divide and conquer
D) Recursion

Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic

programming?
A) Mergesort
63 B) Binary search C
C) Longest common subsequence
D) Quicksort

Which of the following problems is NOT solved using dynamic programming?

A) 0/1 knapsack problem
64 B) Matrix chain multiplication problem D
C) All Pairs shortest Path
D) Fractional knapsack problem
When a top-down approach of dynamic programming is applied to a problem,
it usually _____________
A) Decreases both, the time complexity and the space complexity
65 B
B) Decreases the time complexity and increases the space complexity
C) Increases the time complexity and decreases the space complexity
D) Increases both, the time complexity and the space complexity
The Breadth First Search traversal of a graph will result into?
A) Linked List
B) Tree
66 B
C) Graph with back edges
D) Arrays

The Data structure used in standard implementation of Depth First Search is?
A) Stack
B) Queue
67 A
C) Linked List
D) Tree

The Data structure used in standard implementation of Breadth First Search

is?
A) Stack
68 B) Queue B
C) Linked List
D) Tree
 The Depth First Search traversal of a graph will result into?
A) Linked List
B) Tree
69 B
C) Graph with back edges
D) Array

Topological sort can be applied to which of the following graphs?

A) Undirected Cyclic graph
B) Directed Cyclic graph
70 D
C) Undirected Acyclic graph
D) Directed Acyclic graph

Most Efficient Time Complexity of Topological Sorting is? (V - number of

vertices, E - number of edges)
A) O(V+E)
71 B) O(V) A
C) O(E)
D) None of the above

Topological sort starts from a node which has?

A) Maximum degree
B) Minimum degree
72 B
C) Any degree
D) None of the above

What can be the applications of topological sorting?

A) Finding prerequisite of a task
73 B) Finding deadlock in operating system D
C) Finding cycle in graph
D) All of the above
Topological sort can be implemented by?
A) using Depth First Search
B) using Breath First Search
74 C
C) Both DFS & BFS
D) None of the above

Topological sort is equivalent to which of the traversals in trees?

A) Preorder
75 B) Postorder B
C) Inorder
D) Level Order
Branch and bound is a __________
A) problem solving technique
76 B) data structure A
C) sorting algorithm
D) type of tree
To which of the following class does a CNF-satisfiability problem belong?
77 A) NP class C
B) P class
 C) NP complete
D) NP hard
How many steps are required to prove that a decision problem is NP
complete?
A) 1
78 B
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Which of the following problems is not NP complete?
A) Hamiltonian circuit
79 B) Bin packing D
C) Partition problem
D) Halting problem
What does NP stands for in complexity classes theory?
A) Non polynomial
80 B) Non-deterministic polynomial B
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) None of the mentioned
The hardest of NP problems can be:
A) NP-complete
81 B) NP-hard A
C) P
D) None of the mentioned
Travelling sales man problem belongs to which of the class?
A) P
82 B) NP B
C) Linear
D) None of the mentioned
A problem which is both _______ and _________ is said to be NP complete.
A) NP, P
83 B) NP, NP hard A
C) P, P complete
D) None of the mentioned
The problem 3-SAT and 2-SAT are
A) both in P
84 B) both NP Complete C
C) NP Complete and in P respectively
D) undecidable
An important application of binary tree is ______
A) Huffman coding
85 B) stack implementation A
C) queue implementation
D) traverse a cyclic graph
In a binary search tree, which of the following traversals would print the
numbers in the ascending order?
A) Level-order traversal
86 D
B) Pre-order traversal
C) Post-order traversal
D) In-order traversal
 Which of the following methods can be used to solve the longest common
subsequence problem?
A) Recursion
87 C
B) Dynamic programming
C) Both recursion and dynamic programming
D) Greedy algorithm
Consider the strings “PQRSTPQRS” and “PRATPBRQRPS”. What is the length of
the longest common subsequence?
A) 9
88 B) 8 C
C) 7
D) 6

Consider the two matrices P and Q which are 10 x 20 and 20 x 30 matrices

respectively. What is the number of multiplications required to multiply the
two matrices?
89 A) 10 * 20 D
B) 20 * 30
C) 10 * 30
D) 10 * 20 * 30
Which of the following algorithms is the best approach for solving Huffman
codes?
A) Exhaustive search
90 B
B) greedy algorithm
C) brute force algorithm
D) divide and conquer algorithm
In Huffman coding, data in a tree always occur?
A) roots
91 B) leaves B
C) left sub trees
D) right sub trees
Strassen’s Matrix multiplication is performed on which order of matrices?
A) 3 X 3
B) 4X4
92 C
C) 2X2
D) None of the above

Algorithm is a ________________.
A) Processing of problem
93 B) Step by Step method to solve a problem B
C) Graphical method
D) None of the above
Algorithm should have _______________ or more output.
A) Zero
B) One
94 B
C) Two
D) Three

Big O(O) notation looks for____________ value.

95 A
A)Maximum
 B)Minimum
C) Average
D) Mean
A function which calls itself is called __________ function.
A) Null
B) Default
96 C
C) Recursive
D) Non Recursive

The running time of quick sort depends on the selection of:

A) Selection of pivot elements
97 B) Number of input
C) Number of passes
D) Arrangements of the elements
Merge Sort divides the list in:
A) N equal parts Incorrect
98 B) Two equal parts B
C) Two parts, may not be equal
D) N parts, may not be equal
Time complexity of matrix chain multiplication Select one:
A) O(n2)
99 B) O(n) D
C) O(nlogn)
D) O(n3)
In dynamic programming, the output to stage n become the input to:
A) Objective function
100 B) Feasible solution C
C) Decision stages
D) Optimum solution
Time complexity of LCS:
A) O(m!)
101 B) O(mn) B
C) O(n!)
D) O(m/n)
The number of subtrees of a node is called as -------- of that node
a) Degree
102 b) Root A
c) Node
None of the above
Specification of What are the valid inputs? & what are the acceptable outputs?
For each valid input is called as ________.
a) Function
103 C
b) Instance
c) Problem
Algorithm
Node with Degree-0 is called as _______.
a) Leaf Node
104 b) Terminal Node C
c) Both A or B
d) None of the above
 Which of the following is/are the operation(s) on disjoint sets?
a) MakeSet
105 b) Union D
c) Find
D) All the above
The formula for calculating MID in Binary Search is _______.
a) MID = LOW + HIGH / 2
106 b) MID = LOW + (HIGH / 2) D
c) MID = HIGH + LOW / 2
d) MID = ( HIGH + LOW) / 2
Like Merge Sort, Quick Sort does not need__________.
a) PIVOT Element
107 b) An auxiliary array B
c) PARTIONING
d) All the above
How many solutions are there for 4 queens on 4*4 board?
A) 1
B) 2
108 B
C) 3
D) 4

In Topological Sort _______ is useD)

a) Stack
109 b) Queue B
c) DE-Queue
LinkList
In CODE1, We consider that Machine-A has ____ number of registers.
a) 1
110 b) 2 A
c) 3
d) 4
In a binary search tree, which of the following traversals would print the numbers in
the ascending order?
A) Level-order traversal
111 D
B) Pre-order traversal
C) Post-order traversal
D) In-order traversal
Consider the two matrices A and B which are of size 5 x 6 and 6 x 4 matrices
respectively. What is the number of multiplications required to multiply the
two matrices?
112 A) 100 C
B) 110
C) 120
D) 130
Topological sort can be implemented by?
A) using Depth First Search
113 B) using Breath First Search C
C) Both DFS & BFS
D) None of the above
114 Time complexity of matrix chain multiplication Select one: D
 A) O(n2)
B) O(n)
C) O(nlogn)
D) O(n3)
Longest common subsequence is an example of ____________
A) Greedy algorithm
115 B) Dynamic programming B
C) Traversing Algorithm
D) Divide and conquer
Algorithm should may have __ input(s).
A) Zero
116 B) One A
C) Two
D) Three
MAXMIN Algorithm divides the list in till the number of elements in the list are
<= ____:
A) 1
117 B
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
To Sort the element in descending order using Heap Sort we should
create_____ tree.
a) MaxHeap
118 B
b) MinHeap
c) Heap
d) None of the above
Longest common subsequence is an example of ____________
A) Greedy algorithm
119 B) Dynamic programming B
C) Traversing Algorithm
D) Divide and conquer
______ is a condition that is always true at a particular point in an
algorithm.
a. assertion
120 D
b. constant
c. exception
d. invariant
______ is a condition that is always true at a particular point in an
algorithm.
a. assertion
121 D
b. constant
c. exception
d. invariant
Division Pattern of Problems in Divide and Conquer approach
a. Iterative
122 b. Recursive B
c. Parallel
d. Random
123 Data Structure used for the Merge Sort D
 a. Two Pointers
b. Two pointers and N Extra Arrays
c. 2N/2 pointers and N/2 Extra Arrays Incorrect
d. Two Pointers and an Extra Array
Descending priority queue can be implemented using ______
a) max heap
b) min heap
124 A
c) min-max heap
d) trie

Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has .....

spanning trees.
a) 15
125 b) 8 C
c) 16
d) 13

Which of the following is false?

a) The spanning trees do not have any cycles
b) The spanning trees do not have any cycles
c) Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than
126 D
any other edge in the same cut, then the edge e is present in all the MSTs
of the graph
d) Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the
graph disconnected
. In …………………., a directed graph G is acylic if and only if a DFS
of G yields no back edge.
A) Graph transpose problem
127 C
B) Strongly connected components problem
C) Topological sort problem
D) Euler path problem
. In …………… input is a directed acyclic graph (DAG)G=(V,E).
A) Graph transpose problem
B) Strongly connected components problem
128 C
C) Topological sort problem
D) Euler path problem

Rather than build a subgraph one edge at a time ………………………….

builds a tree one vertex at a time.
A) kruskal’s algorithm
129 B
B) prim’s algorithm
C) dijkstra algorithm
D) bellman ford algorithm
……………… is known as a greedy algorithm, because it chooses at
each step the cheapest edge to add to subgraph S.
A) Kruskal’s algorithm
130 A
B) Prim’s algorithm
C) Dijkstra algorithm
D) Bellman ford algorithm
 . In preorder traversal of a binary tree the second step is ____________
a) traverse the right subtree
131 b) traverse the left subtree B
c) traverse right subtree and visit the root
d) visit the root
An important application of binary tree is ______
a) Huffman coding
132 b) stack implementation A
c) queue implementation
d) traverse a cyclic graph
What is the minimum height for a binary search tree with 60 nodes?
a) 1
b) 3
133 c) 4
D
d) 2

An immediate application of a Depth First Search traversal is

__________
a) count the number of leaf nodes
134 A
b) perform Inorder traversal in easy way
c) count number of nodes
d) implement preorder traversal
Subject Code CA 303

Subject Automata Theory and computability

Paper Code 313251

QUE.
QUESTION ANS
NO.
Arden’s theorem is true for:
1. (A) More than one initial states (B) Null transitions C
(C) Non-null transitions (D) None of the mentioned

What is the Regular Expression Matching Zero or More Specific Characters

2. C
(A) x (B) # (C) * (D) &

There are ________ tuples in finite state machine.

3. B
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) Unlimited

P, O, R be regular expression over ∑, P is not ε, then

4. R=Q + RP has a unique solution: B
(A) Q*P (B) QP* (C) Q*P* (D) (P*O*) *

€-closure of state is combination of self-state and_______

5. A
(A) € reachable state (B) Initial State (C) Final State (D) All
The following move of a PDA is on the basis of:
6. (A) Present state (B) Input Symbol C
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the mentioned
€-transitions are
7. (A) Conditional (B) Unconditional B
(C) Input dependent (D) None of the mentioned

Simplify the following regular expression:

ε+1*(011) *(1*(011) *) *
8. A
(A) (1+011) * (B) (1*(011) *)
(C) (1+(011) *) * (D) (1011) *

The value of n if turing machine is defined using n-tuples:

9. B
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 5
Which among the following are incorrect regular identities?
10. D
(A) εR=R (B) ε*=ε (C) Ф*=ε (D) RФ=R
Which among the following is the format of unit production?
11. (A) A->B (B) A->b
A
(C) B->Aa (D) None of the
mentioned
Conversion of a DFA to an NFA
12.
(A) Is impossible (B) Requires the subset construction B
(C) Is Chancy (D) Is nondeterministic
 If L1 and L2 are context free languages, L1-L2 are context free:
13. (A) Always (B) Sometimes C
(C) Never (D) None of the mentioned

The class of recursively ennumerable language is known as:

14. (A) Turing Class (B) Recursive Languages D
(C) Universal Languages (D) RE
Suppose a language L1 has 2 states and L2 has 2 states. After using the cross
product construction method, we have a machine M that accepts L1 ∩ L2. The
15. B
total number of states in M:
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 8
Which of the following a turing machine does not consist of?
16.
(A) Input tape (B) Head D
(C) State register (D) None of the mentioned

Halting states are of two types. They are:

17.
(A) Accept and Reject (B) Reject and Allow A
(C) Start and Reject (D) None of the mentioned

In the principle of mathematical induction, which of the following steps is

mandatory?
18. A
(A) Induction hypothesis (B) Inductive reference
(C) Induction set assumption (D) Minimal set representation
Which of the following recognizes the same formal language as of DFA and
19. NFA?
D
(A) Power set Construction (B) Subset Construction
(C) Robin-Scott Construction (D) All of the mentioned
Which of the following is an application of Finite Automaton?
20.
(A) Compiler Design (B) Grammar Parsers D
(C) Text Search (D) All of the mentioned
21. Which among the following is not a part of the Context free grammar tuple?
A
(A) End symbol (B) Start symbol (C) Variable (D) Production
The total number of states to build the given language using DFA:
22.
L= {w | w has exactly 2 a’s and at least 2 b’s} A
(A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 13
Given Grammar: S->A, A->aA, A->e, B->bA
23.
Which among the following productions are Useless productions? D
(A) S->A (B) A->aA (C) A->e (D) B->Ba

Subset Construction method refers to:

24.
(A) Conversion of NFA to DFA (B) DFA minimization A
(C) Eliminating Null references (D) ε-NFA to NFA

Regular expression for all strings starts with ab and ends with bba is.
25.
(A) aba*b*bba (B) ab(ab)*bba C
(C) ab(a+b)*bba (D) All of the mentioned
 A Language L may not be accepted by a Turing Machine if:
(A) It it is recursively ennumerable
26. (B) It is recursive B
(C) L can be ennumerated by some turing machine
(D) None of the mentioned
Which of the technique can be used to prove that a language is non regular?
27.
(A) Arden’s theorem (B) Pumping Lemma B
(C) Ogden’s Lemma (D) None of the mentioned

The production Grammar is {S->aSbb, S->abb} is

28.
(A) Type-3 grammar (B) Type-2 grammar B
(C) Type-1 grammar (D) Type-0 grammar

Which of the following properties does a simple graph not hold?

29.
(A) Must be connected (B) Must be unweighted A
(C) Must have no loops or multiple edges (D) Must have no multiple edges
Which of the following option is correct?
(A) NFA is slower to process and its representation uses more memory than
30. DFA
C
(B) DFA is faster to process and its representation uses less memory than NFA
(C) NFA is slower to process and its representation uses less memory than DFA
(D) DFA is slower to process and its representation uses less memory than NFA
A pushdown automata can be defined as: (Q, ∑, G, q0, z0, A, d)
31. What does the symbol z0 represents?
D
(A) An element of G (B) Initial stack symbol
(C) Top stack alphabet (D) All of the mentioned
Let ∑={0,1}* and the grammar G be:
S->ε
S->SS
S->0S1|1S0
32.
State which of the following is true for the given D
(A) Language of all and only Balanced strings
(B) It contains equal number of 0’s and 1’s
(C) Ambiguous Grammar
(D) All of the mentioned
The sum of minimum and maximum number of final states for a DFA n states is
33.
equal to: A
(A) n+1 (B) n (C) n-1 (D) n+2
Which of the following statement is true?
(A)Every language that is defined by regular expression can also be defined
by finite automata
34.
(B)Every language defined by finite automata can also be defined by regular D
expression
(C)We can convert regular expressions into finite automata
(D) All of the mentioned
35. The number of edges from the root to the node is called __________ of the tree.
B
(A) Height (B) Depth (C) Length (D) Width
 Let L denotes the language generated by the grammar S – OSO/00. Which of
36. the following is true? B
(A) L = O (B) L is regular but not O
(C) L is context free but not regular (D) L is not context free

The maximum number of transition which can be performed over a state in a

37. DFA?
C
∑= {a, b, c}
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
38. Number of final state require to accept Φ in minimal finite automata.
D
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) None of the mentioned
Let Z denote the set of all integers.
Define f : Z —> Z by
f(x) = {x / 2 (x is even)
39.
0 (x is odd) A
then f is
(A) Onto but not one-one (B) One-one but not onto
(C) One-one and onto (D) Neither one-one nor-onto
Given grammar:
S->aA
A->a
A->B
40.
B-> A B
B->bb
Which of the following is the production of B after simplification by removal
of unit productions?
(A) A (B) bb (C) aA (D) A| bb
While applying Pumping lemma over a language, we consider a string w that
41. belong to L and fragment it into _________ parts. C
(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 6
Which of the following is true?
(A) (01)*0 = 0(10)*
42.
(B) (0+1)*0(0+1)*1(0+1) = (0+1)*01(0+1)* D
(C) (0+1)*01(0+1)*+1*0* = (0+1)*
(D) All of the mentioned
43. Push down automata accepts _________ languages.
B
(A) Type 3 (B) Type 2 (C) Type 1 (D) Type 0
Suppose A-> xBz and B-> y, then the simplified grammar would be:
44.
(A) A-> xyz (B) A-> xBz | xyz A
(C) A-> xBz |B |y (D) None of the mentioned
Following context free grammar
S —> aB | bA
A —>b | aS | bAA
B —> b | bS | aBB
45.
generates strings of terminals that have A
(A) Equal number of a's and b's
(B) Odd number of a's and odd number b's
(C) Even number of a's and even number of b's
(D) Odd number of a's and even number of a's
 Which of the following CFG's can't be simulated by an FSM ?
46.
(A) S --> Sa | b (B) S --> aSb | ab B
(C) S --> abX, X --> cY, Y --> d | aX (D) None of these

Languages of a automata is
(A) If it is accepted by automata
47.
(B) If it halts A
(C) If automata touch final state in its life time
(D) All language are language of automata
Statement 1: A Finite automata can be represented graphically; Statement 2:
The nodes can be its states; Statement 3: The edges or arcs can be used for
transitions
Hint: Nodes and Edges are for trees and forests too.
48.
Which of the following make the correct combination? D
(A) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 and 3 are correct
(B) Statement 1 and 2 are correct while 3 is wrong
(C) None of the mentioned statements are correct
(D) All of the mentioned
Moore Machine is an application of:
49.
(A) Finite automata without input (B) Finite automata with output B
(C) Non- Finite automata with output (D) None of the mentioned
Which of the following is a correct statement?
(A) Moore machine has no accepting states
50.
(B) Mealy machine has accepting states A
(C) We can convert Mealy to Moore but not vice versa
(D) All of the mentioned

What is the output for the given language?

51. Language: A set of strings over ∑= {a, b} is taken as input and it prints 1 as an
A
output “for every occurrence of a, b as its substring. (INPUT: abaaab)
(A 0010001 (B) 0101010 (C) 0111010 (D) 0010000
Mealy and Moore machine can be categorized as
52.
(A) Inducers (B) Transducers B
(C) Turing Machines (D) Linearly Bounder Automata
Which of the following strings is not generated by the following grammar?
53.
S → SaSbS|ε D
(A) aabb (B) abab (C) aababb (D) aaabbb
54. Which among the following is not notated as infinite language?
C
(A) Palindrome (B) Reverse (C) Factorial (D) L={ab}*

55. A push down automaton employs ________ data structure.

D
(A) Queue (B) Linked List (C) Hash Table (D) Stack
Which one among the following is true?
56. A mealy machine
D
(A) produces a language (B) produces a grammar
(C) can be converted to NFA (D) has less circuit delays
 A DFA cannot be represented in the following format
57.
(A) Transition graph (B) Transition Table D
(C) C code (D) None of the mentioned

The productions
E—>E+E
E—>E—E
E-->E*E
E —> E / E
E —> id
58. (A) Generate an inherently ambiguous language C
(B) Generate an ambiguous language but not inherently so
(C) Are unambiguous
(D) Can generate all possible fixed length valid computation for carrying
out addition, subtraction, multiplication and division, which can be
expressed in one expression

Context free languages are not closed under:

59.
(A) Intersection (B) Intersection with Regular Language D
(C) Complement (D) All of the mentioned
Regular Expression denote precisely the ________ of Regular Language.
(A) Class
60. (B) Power Set A
(C) Super Set
(D) None of the mentioned
If ∑= {0,1}, then Ф* will result to:
(A) ε
61.
(B) Ф A
(C) ∑
(D) None of the mentioned
(a + b*c) most correctly represents:
(A) (a +b) *c
62.
(B) (a)+((b)*.c) A
(C) (a + (b*)).c
(D) a+ ((b*).c)

A language is regular if and only if

63.
(A) Accepted by DFA (B) Accepted by PDA A
(C) Accepted by LBA (D) Accepted by Turing machine

The password to the admins account=”administrator”. The total number of

states required to make a password-pass system using DFA would be
64.
__________ A
(A) 14 states (B) 13 states
(C) 12 states (D) A password pass system cannot be created using DFA
NFA, in its name has ’non-deterministic’ because of :
(A)The result is undetermined
65. (B) The choice of path is non-deterministic B
(C) The state to be transited next is non-deterministic
(D) All of the mentioned
 Which do not contain a substring ‘rt’ if ∑= {r, t}
(A) (rt)*
66.
(B) (tr)* D
(C) (r*t*)
(D) (t*r*)
Which among the following is equivalent to the given regular expression?
01*+1
67. (A) (01)*+1
C
(B) 0((1)*+1)
(C) (0(1)*)+1
(D) ((0*1)1*)*
For S->0S1|e for ∑={0,1}*, which of the following is wrong for the language
68. produced?
D
(A) Non regular language (B) 0n1n | n>=0
(C) 0n1n | n>=1 (D) None of the mentioned
Generate a regular expression for the given language:l
L(x): {xÎ{0,1}*| x ends with 1 nd does not contain a substring 01}
69. (A) (0+01)*
C
(B) (0+01)*1
(C) (0+01)*(1+01)
(D) All of the mentioned
The transitional function of a DFA is
70.
(A) Q X Σ→Q (B) Q X Σ→2Q A
(C) Q X Σ→2n (D) Q X Σ→Qn
If we have more than one accepting states or an accepting state with an
outdegree, which of the following actions will be taken?
(A) addition of new state
71. D
(B) removal of a state
(C) make the newly added state as final
(D) more than one option is correct
The minimum number of transitions to pass to reach the final state as per the
following regular expression is:
72. A
{a,b}*{baaa}
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 3

P, Q, R are three languages, if P and R are regular and if PQ = R, then

73. (A)Q has to be regular (B) Q cannot be regular C
(C) Q need not be regular (D) Q cannot be a CFL

Regular expression {0,1} is equivalent to

(A) 0 U 1
74. (B) 0 / 1 D
(C) 0 + 1
(D) All of the mentioned

The number of final states we need as per the given language?

75. Language L: {a^n| n is even or divisible by 3} B
(A)1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
 (a+b)* is equivalent to
(A) b*a*
76. (B) (a*b*)* B
(C) a*b*
(D) none of the mentioned
A grammar G = (V, T, P, S) is __________ if every production taken one of the
two forms:
B->aC
77. B
B->a
(A) Ambiguous (B) Regular
(C) Non Regular (D) None of the mentioned
Which of the following the given language belongs to?
L={ambmcm| m>=1}
78. D
(A) Context free language (B) Regular language
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the mentioned
Consider following regular expression
i) (a/b)* ii) (a*/b*)* iii) ((ϵ/a)b*)*
Which of the following statements is correct
79. (A) i,ii are equal and ii,iii are not D
(B) i,ii are equal and i,iii are not
(C) ii,iii are equal and i,ii are not
(D) all are equal

Which of the production rule can be accepted by Chomsky grammar?

80. (A) A->BC (B) A->a D
(C) S->e (D) All of the mentioned

L and ~L are recursive enumerable then L is

(A) Regular
81. (B) Context free D
(C) Context sensitive
(D) Recursive
In Mealy Machine O/P is associated with
82. (A)Present state (B) Next state B
(C) Input (D) None of the above
Which of the following sets are null sets ?
83. D
(A) {0} (B) ø (C) { } (D) Both (B) & (C)
Can a DFA simulate NDFA
84. B
(A)No (B) Yes (C) Sometimes (D) Depends on NDFA
If we select a string w such that w∈L, and w=xyz. Which of the following
portions cannot be an empty string?
(A) x
85. B
(B) y
(C) z
(D) all of the mentioned
Which kind of proof is used to prove the regularity of a language?
(A) Proof by contradiction
86. (B) Direct proof A
(C) Proof by induction
(D) None of the mentioned
 In Moore machine, output is produced over the change of:
87. (A) Transitions (B) States B
(C) Both (D) None of the mentioned
Which among the following cannot be accepted by a regular grammar?
(A) L is a set of numbers divisible by 2
88. (B) L is a set of binary complement D
(C) L is a set of string with odd number of 0
(D) L is a set of 0n1n
Production Rule: aAb->agb belongs to which of the following category?
(A) Regular Language
89. (B) Context free Language C
(C) Context Sensitive Language
(D) Recursively Ennumerable Language

The format: A->aB refers to which of the following?

90. (A) Chomsky Normal Form (B) Greibach Normal Form B
(C) Backus Naur Form (D) None of the mentioned

The language accepted by Push down Automaton:

(A) Recursive Language
91. (B) Context free language B
(C) Linearly Bounded language
(D) All of the mentioned

Production Rule: aAb->agb belongs to which of the following category?

92. (A) Regular Language (B) Context free Language C
(C) Context Sensitive Language (D) Recursively Ennumerable Language

Regular grammar is
93. (A) Context free grammar (B) Non context free grammar A
(C) English grammar (D) None of the mentioned
Which among the following is the correct option for the given grammar?
G->X111|G1,X->X0|00
(A) {0a1b|a=2,b=3}
94. A
(B) {0a1b|a=1,b=5}
(C) {0a1b|a=b}
(D) More than one of the mentioned is correct
The format: A->aB refers to which of the following?
95. (A) Chomsky Normal Form (B) Greibach Normal Form B
(C) Backus Naur Form (D) None of the mentioned
If L1 and L2 are context free languages, which of the following is context free?
(A) L1*
96. (B) L2UL1 D
(C) L1.L2
(D) All of the mentioned
The Tuples for NDFA
97. (A) Q, ∑,,δ,q0,F (B) Q,q0,F,δ A
(C) Θ,Q,q0,F,δ (D) F,Q,Δ,q0, δ
 Consider G=({S,A,B,E}, {a,b,c},P,S), where P consists of S →AB, A →a, B
→b and E →c.
98. B
Number of productions in P’ after removal of useless symbols:
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 5

L={0i1j2k | j>i+k}
Which of the following satisfies the language?
(A) 0111100
99. A
(B) 011100
(C) 0001100
(D) 0101010

If R = ((1, 1), (3, 1), (2, 3), (4, 2)), then which of the following represents R2,
where R2 is R composite R?
100. D
(A) ((1, 1), (3, 1), (2, 3), (4, 2)) (B) f(1, 1), (9, 1), (4, 9), (16, 4))
(C) 1(1, 3), (3, 3), (3, 4), (3, 2)) (D) ((1, 1), (2, 1), (4, 3), (3, 1))
 CA 304 Artificial Intelligence MCQs
Sr.No Questions Answer
.
1 What is Artificial intelligence? C
A. Putting your intelligence into Computer
B. Programming with your own intelligence
C. Making a Machine intelligent
D. Playing a Game
2 Which of the following is not an application of AI? D
A. Intelligent Robots
B. Handwriting Recognition
C. Speech Recognition
D. Content mining
3 Which of the following definitions correctly defines the State-space in an A
AI system?
A. A state space can be defined as the collection of all the problem states
B. A state space is a state which exists in environment which is in outer
space
C .A state space is the total space available for the agent in the state
D. All of the above
4 A* algorithm is based on C
A. Breadth-First-Search
B. Depth-First –Search
C. Best-First-Search
D. Hill climbing.
5 How do you represent “All dogs have tails”. A
A. ٧x: dog(x)->hastail(x)
B. ٧x: dog(x)->hastail(y)
C. ٧x: dog(y)->hastail(x)
D. ٧x: dog(x)->has->tail(x)
6 Which search method takes less memory? A
A. Depth-First Search
B. Breadth-First search
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Optimal search
7 What is state space? D
A. The whole problem
B. Your Definition to a problem
C. Problem you design
D. Representing your problem with variable and parameter
a space where You know the solution.
8 Which is not a property of representation of knowledge? A
A. Representational Verification
 B. Representational Adequacy
C. Inferential Adequacy
D. Inferential Efficiency
9 A production rule consists of C
A. A set of Rule
B. A sequence of steps
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Arbitrary representation to problem
10 Which of the following is also called First order Logic? D
A. Lower Order Calculus
B. First Order Predicate Calculus
C. Quantification Theory
D. All of these
11 Single inference rule also called… A
A. Resolution
B. Reference
C. Reference
D. None of these
12 Which of the following are the example of the intelligent agents… D
A. robot
B. human
C. Autonomous Spacecraft
D. All of these
13 Important AI Techniques are
A. Search D
B. Use of knowledge
C. Abstraction
D. All of the above
14 In Travel salesman problem, If there are N cities, then the number of A
different paths among them is ………
A. 1.2….(N-1) or (N-1)!= N!
B. (N-1)!
C. N!-2
D. None of the above
15 Which search method takes less memory? A
A. Depth-First Search
B. Breadth-First search
C. Optimal search
D. Linear Search
16 Treatment chosen by doctor for a patient for a disease is based on C
A. Only current symptoms
B. Current symptoms plus some knowledge from the textbooks
C. Current symptoms plus some knowledge from the textbooks plus
experience
D. All of the mentioned
17 Which is not Familiar Connectives in First Order Logic? D
 A. and
B. iff
C. or
D. not
18 The truth values of traditional set theory is and that of fuzzy set is A
A. Either 0 or 1, between 0 & 1
B. Between 0 & 1, either 0 or 1
C. Between 0 & 1, between 0 & 1
D. Either 0 or 1, either 0 or 1
19 ________ is/are the way/s to represent uncertainty. D
A. Fuzzy Logic
B. Probability
C. Entropy
D. All of the mentioned
20 What does the Bayesian network provides? A
A. Complete description of the domain
B. Partial description of the domain
C. Complete description of the problem
D. None of the mentioned
21 What is the goal of artificial intelligence? C
A. To solve real-world problems
B. To solve artificial problems
C. To explain various sorts of intelligence
D. To extract scientific causes
22 Which is true regarding BFS (Breadth First Search)? B
A. BFS will get trapped exploring a single path
B. The entire tree so far been generated must be stored in BFS
C. BFS is not guaranteed to find a solution if exists
D. BFS is nothing but Binary First Search

23 What is the problem space of means-end analysis? A

A. An initial state and one or more goal states
B. One or more initial states and one goal state
C. One or more initial states and one or more goal state
D. One initial state and one goal state
24 What is another type of default reasoning? D
A. Monotonic reasoning
B. Analogical reasoning
C. Bitonic reasoning
D. Non-monotonic reasoning
25 The process of removing detail from a given state representation is called B
A Extraction
B Abstraction
C Information retrieval
D Mining of data
26 A robot’s “arm” is also known as its C
 A End effector
B Actuator
C Manipulator
D Servomechanism
27 In default logic, which of the following inference rules of the form is A
allowed?
A. (a : b) / c
B. A / (b : c)
C. A / b
D. A / b : c
28 The room temperature is hot. Here the hot (use of linguistic variable is A
used) can be represented by
A. Fuzzy Set
B. Crisp Set
C. Fuzzy & Crisp Set
D. None of the mentioned
29 How many states are available in state-space search? D
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
30 A game can be formally defined as a kind of search problem with the D
following components.
A. Initial State
B. Successor Function
C. Terminal Test
D. All of the mentioned
31 What is a heuristic function? D
A. A function to solve mathematical problems
B. A function which takes parameters of type string and returns an integer
value
C. A function whose return type is nothing
D. A function that maps from problem state descriptions to measures of
desirability
32 The “Turing machine” showed that you could use a/an system to program A
any algorithmic task.
A. Binary
B. Electro-chemical
C. Recursive
D. Semantic
33 What is transposition rule? D
A. From p → q, infer ~q → p
B. From p → q, infer q → ~p
C. From p → q, infer q → p
D. From p → q, infer ~q → ~p
34 Which action sequences are used to achieve the agent’s goal? D
 A. Search
B. Plan
C. Retrieve
D. Both search & plan
35 The set of actions for a problem in a state space is formulated by a C
A. Intermediate states
B. Initial state
C. Successor function, which takes current action and returns next
immediate state
D. None of the mentioned
36 First order logic is also known as C
A. First order predicate calculus
B. Quantification theory
C. All of the mentioned
D..None
37 A production rule consists of ____________ C
A. A set of Rule
B.A sequence of steps
C. Set of Rule & sequence of steps
D.Arbitrary representation to problem
38 What are Semantic Networks? A
A. A way of representing knowledge
B. Data Structure
C. Data Type
D. None of the mentioned
39 Which is a refutation complete inference procedure for propositional logic? C
A. Clauses
B. Variables
C. Propositional resolution
D. Proposition
40 Which algorithm are in more similar to backward chaining algorithm? A
A. Depth-first search algorithm
B. Breadth-first search algorithm
C. Hill-climbing search algorithm
D. All of the mentioned
41 Which is also called single inference rule? B
A. Reference
B. Resolution
C. Reform
D. None of the mentioned
42 Which of the following elements constitutes the frame structure? A
A. Facts or Data
B. Procedures and default values
C. Frame names
D. Frame reference in hierarchy
43 What does the Bayesian network provides? A
A. Complete description of the domain
B. Partial description of the domain
C. Complete description of the problem
D. None of the mentioned
44 Translate the following statement into First Order Logic. A
“For every a, if a is a PhD student, then a has a master degree”
A. ∀ a PhD(a) -> Master(a)
B. ∃ a PhD(a) -> Master(a)
C. A is true, B is true
D. A is false, B is false
45 Constraint satisfaction problems on finite domains are typically solved D
using a form of ___________
A. Search Algorithms
B. Heuristic Search Algorithms
C. Greedy Search Algorithms
D. All of the mentioned
46 Web Crawler is a/an ____________ A
A. Intelligent goal-based agent
B. Problem-solving agent
C. Simple reflex agent
D. Model based agent
47 What was originally called the “imitation game” by its creator? A
A. The Turing Test
B. LISP
C. The Logic Theorist
D. Cybernetics
48 Which algorithm takes two sentences and returns a unifier? D
A. Inference
B. Hill-climbing search
C. Depth-first search
D. Unify algorithm
49 What is the process of capturing the inference process as a single inference C
rule?
A. Ponens
B. Clauses
C. Generalized Modus Ponens
D. Variables
50 What is the heuristic function of greedy best-first search? C
A. f(n) != h(n)
B. f(n) < h(n)
C. f(n) = h(n)
D. f(n) > h(n)
51 Which search is complete and optimal when h(n) is consistent? D
A. Best-first search
B. Depth-first search
 C. Both Best-first & Depth-first search
D. A* search
52 Which of the following is the knowledge representation technique used to C
represent knowledge about stereotype situation?
A. Semantic Network
B. Frames
C. Scripts
D. Conceptual Dependency
53 Forward chaining systems are _____________ where as backward C
chaining systems are ___________
A. Goal-driven, goal-driven
B. Goal-driven, data-driven
C. Data-driven, goal-driven
D. Data-driven, data-driven
54 ___________ trees can be used to infer in Horn clause systems. B
A. Min/Max Tree
B. And /Or Trees
C. Minimum Spanning Trees
D. Binary Search Trees

55 How many types of quantification are available in artificial intelligence? B

A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
56 Which of the following is not the style of inference? D
A. Forward Chaining
B. Backward Chaining
C. Resolution refutation
D. Modus Ponen
57 Which is the best way to go for Game playing problem? B
A. Linear approach
B. Heuristic approach
C. Random approach
D. Optimal approach
58 Logic reasoning is the process of drawing conclusions from B
A. Symbolic Rules
B. Inference Rules
C. Logic Rules
D. All of the mentioned
59 Which data structure conveniently used to implement BFS? B
A. Stacks
B. Queues
C. Priority Queues
D. None of the Above
60 Which of the following are uninformed search technique/techniques? D
 A. BFS
B. DFS
C. Bidirectional Search
D. All of the above mentioned
61 The goals of AI systems can be described in terms of cognitive tasks like D
A. Recognizing objects
B. Answering questions
C. Manipulating robotic devices
D. All of the above
62 Blind searching is general term for B
A. Informed Search
B. Uninformed Search
C. Informed & Unformed Search
D. Heuristic Search
63 Which data structure conveniently used to implement DFS? A
A. Stacks
B. Queues
C. Priority Queues
D. All of the mentioned
64 Backtracking is based on, D
A. Last in first out
B. First in first out
C. Recursion
D. Both Last in first out & Recursion
65 Which is the most straightforward approach for planning algorithm? B
A. Best-first search
B. State-space search
C. Depth-first search
D. Hill-climbing search
66 Which of the following is not an application of AI? D
A. Intelligent Robots
B. Handwriting Recognition
C. Speech Recognition
D. Content mining
67 Which is the first AI programming language? D
a) BASIC
b) FORTRAN
c) IPL(Inductive logic programming)
d) LISP
68 What is the space complexity of Depth-first search? D
a) O(b)
b) O(bl)
c) O(m)
d) O(bm)
69 Which search method will expand the node that is closest to the goal? B
a) Best-first search
 b) Greedy best-first search
c) A* search
d) None of the mentioned
70 ………………. are means for transforming the problem from one state to B
another.
A. States
B. Operators
C. Heuristic
D. None of the above
71 One method of programming a computer to exhibit human intelligence is A
called modeling or
A. Simulation
B. Cognitization
C. Duplication
D. None
72 Computers normally solve problem by breaking them down into a series of B
yes-or-no decisions represented by 1s and 0s. What is the name of the logic
that allows computers to assign numerical values that fail somewhere
between 0 and 1?
A. Human logic
B. Fuzzy Logic
C. Boolean Logic
D. Operational Logic
73 Which particular generation of computers is associated with artificial C
intelligence?
A. Second
B. Fourth
C. Fifth
D. Third
74 ………….. is called the father of AI. C
A. James C Gosling
B. Dennis Ritchie
C. Alan Turing
D. Isaac Newton
75 We also use knowledge about what we know, called …………………….. A
A. Meta-Knowledge
B. Performance Knowledge
C. Standard knowledge
D. Specific knowledge
76 The goals of AI systems can be described in terms of cognitive tasks like D
A. Recognizing objects
B. Answering questions
C. Manipulating robotic devices
D. All of the above
77 Monotonic Reasoning is a process in which D
A. A reasoning process that moves in one direction only
 B. The conclusions derived are valid deductions and they remain so.
C. The number of facts in the knowledge base is always increasing
D. All of the mentioned
78 The existing conclusions may be invalidated if we add some more C
information to our knowledge base.
A. Monotonic Reasoning
B. Common Sense Reasoning
C. Non-monotonic Reasoning
D. Heuristics
79 What among the following constitutes the representation of the knowledge D
in different forms?
A. Relational method where each fact is set out systematically in columns
B. Inheritable knowledge where relational knowledge is made up of
objects
C. Inferential knowledge
D. All of the mentioned
80 A semantic network is used when one has knowledge that is best A
understood as a set of concepts that are related to one another.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
81 Which of the following is not a part of fuzzy logic Systems Architecture D
A. Fuzzification Module
B. Knowledge Base
C. Defuzzification Module
D. Interference base
82 Which of the following elements constitutes the frame structure? A
A. Facts or Data
B. Procedures and default values
C. Frame names
D. Frame reference in hierarchy
83 Frames in artificial intelligence is derived from semantic nets. A
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
84 Fuzzy Set theory defines fuzzy operators. Choose the fuzzy operators from D
the following.
A. AND
B. OR
C. NOT
D. All of the mentioned
85 What among the following is/are the best example of semantic networks? A
A. Wordnet
B. Human Food Chain
C. MYSIN
D. Autonomous car driver
86 Fuzzy logic is usually represented as ___________ B
A. IF-THEN-ELSE rules
 B. IF-THEN rules
C. Both IF-THEN-ELSE rules & IF-THEN rules
D. None of the mentioned
87 ______________ is/are the way/s to represent uncertainty. D
A. Fuzzy Logic
B. Probability
C. Entropy
D. All of the mentioned
88 Fuzzy Computing D
A. doesn't deal with 2 valued logic
B. mimics human behaviour
C. deals with information which is vague, imprecise, uncertain, ambiguous,
inexact, or probabilistic
D. All of the above
89 The basic inference mechanism in semantic network in which knowledge A
is represented as Frames is to follow the links between the nodes.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
90 A ___________________ is a probabilistic graphical model which B
represents a set of variables and their conditional dependencies using a
directed acyclic graph
A. Neural Network
B. Bayesian Network
C. Genetic Algorithm
D. None of the mentioned
91 What are the limitations of the semantic networks? B
A. Intractability
B. Lack in expressing some of the properties
C. Incomplete
D. Has memory constraints
92 The truth values of traditional set theory is ____________ and that of A
fuzzy set is __________
A. Either 0 or 1, between 0 & 1
B. Between 0 & 1, either 0 or 1
C. Between 0 & 1, between 0 & 1
D. Either 0 or 1, either 0 or 1
93 Semantic Network represents _____________ B
A. Syntactic relation between concepts
B. Semantic relations between concepts
C. All of the mentioned
D. None of the mentioned
94 Which of the following is an extension of the semantic network? D
A. Expert Systems
B. Rule Based Expert Systems
C. Decision Tree Based networks
D. Partitioned Networks
95 Which of the following statements correctly define knowledge A
representation in AI?
A. It is the way in which facts and information are stored in the storage
system of the agent
B. It is the way in which we feed the knowledge in machine
understandable form
C. We modify the knowledge and convert it into the format which is
acceptable by the machine
D. All of the above
96 Which problem can frequently occur in backward chaining algorithm? D
A. Repeated states
B. Incompleteness
C. Complexity
D. Both Repeated states & Incompleteness
97 What are the types of knowledge? D
A. Declarative Knowledge
B. Procedural Knowledge
C. Heuristic knowledge
D. all of the above
98 What will happen if two literals are identical? C
A. Remains the same
B. Added as three
C. Reduced to one
D. None of the mentioned
99 "Translate the following statement into FOL. “For every a, if a is a PhD A
student, then a has a master degree”"
A. ∀ a PhD(a) -> Master(a)
B. ∃ a PhD(a) -> Master(a)
C. A is true, B is true
D. A is false, B is false
100 A representation in which the control information necessary to use the A
knowledge is embedded in the knowledge itself
A. Procedural Knowledge
B. Declarative Knowledge
C. Symbolic Knowledge
D. All of the mentioned
Subject Code CA-305

Subject Data Warehousing and Mining

Paper Code 315251

QUE.
QUESTION ANS
NO.
A data warehouse is which of the following?

A. Can be updated by end users.

B. Contains numerous naming conventions and formats.
1 C
C. Organized around important subject areas.
D. Contains only current data.

A star schema has what type of relationship between a dimension and

fact table?

A. Many-to-many
2 B. One-to-one C
C. One-to-many
D. All of the above.

Which of the following statement is true?

A. The data warehouse consists of data marts and operational data

B. The data warehouse is used as a source for the operational data
3 C
C. The operational data are used as a source for the data warehouse
D. All of the above

The following is true of three-tier data warehouses:

A. Once created, the data marts will keep on being updated from the data
warehouse at periodic times
4 A
B. Once created, the data marts will directly receive their new data from the
operational databases
C. The data marts are different groups of tables in the data warehouse
D.A data mart becomes a data warehouse when it reaches a critical size
 The following technology is not well-suited for data mining:

A. Expert system technology

B. Data visualization
5 C
C. Technology limited to specific data types such as numeric data types
D. Parallel architecture

What is true of the multidimensional model?

A. It typically requires less disk storage

B. It typically requires more disk storage
6 B
C. Typical business queries requiring aggregate functions take more time
D. Increasing the size of a dimension is difficult

Which is the right approach of Data Mining?

A. Infrastructure, exploration, analysis, interpretation, exploitation

B. Infrastructure, exploration, analysis, exploitation, interpretation
7 A
C. Infrastructure, analysis, exploration, interpretation, exploitation
D. Infrastructure, analysis, exploration, exploitation, interpretation

Which of the following issue is considered before investing in Data

Mining?

A. Functionality
8 D
B. Vendor consideration
C. Compatibility
D. All of the above

Cluster is?

A. Group of similar objects that differ significantly from other objects

B. Operations on a database to transform or simplify data in order to prepare it
9 for a machine-learning algorithm A
C. Symbolic representation of facts or ideas from which information can
potentially be extracted
D. None of these
 Black boxes are

A. This takes only two values. In general, these values will be 0 and 1
and they can be coded as one bit.
10 C
B. The natural environment of a certain species
C. Systems that can be used without knowledge of internal operations
D. None of these

A definition of a concept is if it recognizes all the instances of that concept

A. Complete
11 B. Consistent A
C. Constant
D. None of these

Data mining is

A. The actual discovery phase of a knowledge discovery process

B. The stage of selecting the right data for a KDD process
12 A
C. A subject-oriented integrated time variant non-volatile collection of data in
support of management
D. None of these

A definition or a concept is if it classifies any examples as coming within

the concept

A. Complete
13 B
B. Consistent
C. Constant
D. None of these

Data independence means

A. Data is defined separately and not included in programs

14 B. Programs are not dependent on the physical attributes of data. D
C. Programs are not dependent on the logical attributes of data
D. Both (B) and (C).

E-R model uses this symbol to represent weak entity set?

A. Dotted rectangle
15 B. Diamond C
C. Doubly outlined rectangle
D. None of these
 OLAP stands for

a) Online analytical processing

16 A
b) Online analysis processing
c) Online transaction processing
d) Online aggregate processing
Data that can be modeled as dimension attributes and measure attributes
are called _______ data.

17 a) Multidimensional A
b) Single dimensional
c) Measured
d) Dimensional
What do data warehouses support?

a) OLAP
18 A
b) OLTP
c) OLAP and OLTP
d) Operational databases
The full form of OLAP is

A) Online Analytical Processing

19 A
B) Online Advanced Processing
C) Online Advanced Preparation
D) Online Analytical Performance
Data can be store , retrive and updated in …

a) SMTOP
20 b) OLTP B
c) FTP
d) OLAP

Which of the following is a good alternative to the star schema?

a) snow flake schema

21 b) star schema D
c) star snow flake schema
d) fact constellation

——- is not a data mining functionality?

A) Clustering and Analysis

22 B) Selection and interpretation B
C) Classification and regression
D) Characterization and Discrimination
 Which of the following can also applied to other forms?

a) Data streams & Sequence data

23 b) Networked data D
c) Text & Spatial data
d) All of these

What is noise?

a) component of a network
24 b) context of KDD and data mining B
c) aspects of a data warehouse
d) None of these

Data mining is?

a) time variant non-volatile collection of data

25 b) The actual discovery phase of a knowledge B
c) The stage of selecting the right data
d) None of these

__________ is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, nonvolatile

collection of data in support of management decisions.

26 A. Data Mining. B
B. Data Warehousing.
C. Web Mining.
D. Text Mining.
The data Warehouse is__________.

A. read only.
27 A
B. write only.
C. read write only.
D. none.
Expansion for DSS in DW is__________.

A. Decision Support system.

28 A
B. Decision Single System.
C. Data Storable System.
D. Data Support System.
The important aspect of the data warehouse environment is that data
found within the data
Warehouse is___________.
29 D
A. subject-oriented.
B. time-variant.
 C. integrated.
D. All of the above.

The time horizon in Data warehouse is usually __________.

A. 1-2 years.
30 D
B. 3-4years.
C. 5-6 years.
D. 5-10 years.
The data is stored, retrieved & updated in ____________.

A. OLAP.
31 B. OLTP. B
C. SMTP.
D. FTP.

__________describes the data contained in the data warehouse.

A. Relational data.
32 B. Operational data. C
C. Metadata.
D. Informational data.

____________predicts future trends & behaviors, allowing business

managers to make proactive, knowledge-driven decisions.

A. Data warehouse.
33 B
B. Data mining.
C. Datamarts.
D. Metadata.

__________ is the heart of the warehouse.

A. Data mining database servers.

34 B. Data warehouse database servers. B
C. Data mart database servers.
D. Relational data base servers.

________________ is the specialized data warehouse database.

35 A. Oracle. D
B. DBZ.
C. Informix.
 D. Redbrick.

_____________consists of information in the enterprise that is not in

classical form.

A. Mushy metadata.
36 A
B. Differential metadata.
C. Data warehouse.
D. Data mining.

______________databases are owned by particular departments or

business groups.

37 A. Informational. B
B. Operational.
C. Both informational and operational.
D. Flat.

The star schema is composed of __________ fact table.

A. one.
38 B. two. A
C. three.
D. four.

The time horizon in operational environment is ___________.

A. 30-60 days.
39 B. 60-90 days. B
C. 90-120 days.
D. 120-150 days.

The key used in operational environment may not have an element

of__________.

A. time.
40 A
B. cost.
C. frequency.
D. quality.
 Data can be updated in _____environment.

A. data warehouse.
41 C
B. data mining.
C. operational.
D. informational.

Record cannot be updated in _____________.

A. OLTP
42 D
B. files
C. RDBMS
D. data warehouse

Data warehouse contains_____________data that is never found in the

operational environment.

43 A. normalized. C
B. informational.
C. summary.
D. denormalized.

Data redundancy between the environments results in less than

____________percent.

44 A. one. A
B. two.
C. three.
D. four.

Detail data in single fact table is otherwise known as__________.

A. monoatomic data.
45 C
B. diatomic data.
C. atomic data.
D. multiatomic data.
 A data warehouse is _____________.

A. updated by end users.

46 B. contains numerous naming conventions and formats C
C. organized around important subject areas.
D. contains only current data.

The load and index is ______________.

A. a process to reject data from the data warehouse and to create the necessary
indexes.
B. a process to load the data in the data warehouse and to create the necessary
47 B
indexes.
C. a process to upgrade the quality of data after it is moved into a data
warehouse.
D. a process to upgrade the quality of data before it is moved into a data
warehouse.

The type of relationship in star schema is __________________.

A. many-to-many.
48 B. one-to-one. C
C. one-to-many.
D. many-to-one.

Fact tables are ___________.

A. completely demoralized.
49 C
B. partially demoralized.
C. completely normalized.
D. partially normalized.

MDDB stands for ___________.

A. multiple data doubling.

50 B. multidimensional databases. B
C. multiple double dimension.
D. multi-dimension doubling.
 Which of the following statement is true?

A. The data warehouse consists of data marts and operational data

B. The data warehouse is used as a source for the operational data
51 C
C. The operational data are used as a source for the data warehouse
D. All of the above

The following is true of three-tier data warehouses:

A. Once created, the data marts will keep on being updated from the data
warehouse at periodic times
52 B. Once created, the data marts will directly receive their new data from the A
operational databases
C. The data marts are different groups of tables in the data warehouse
D. A data mart becomes a data warehouse when it reaches a critical size

What is true of the multidimensional model?

A. It typically requires less disk storage

B. It typically requires more disk storage
53 B
C. Typical business queries requiring aggregate functions take more time
D. Increasing the size of a dimension is difficult

Data warehouse architecture is based on ______________.

A. DBMS.
B. RDBMS.
54 C. Sybase. B
D. SQL Server.

.A goal of data mining includes which of the following?

A. To explain some observed event or condition

B. To confirm that data exists
55 A
C. To analyze data for expected relationships
D. To create a new data warehouse
 Which of the following statements does not apply to relational databases?

A. Relational databases are simple to understand

B. Tables are one of the basic components of relational databases
56 C
C. Relational databases have a strong procedural orientation
D. Relational databases have a strong mathematical foundation

In the relational database terminology, a table is synonymous with:

A. A column
B. A row
57 D
C. An attribute
D. A relation

A null value indicates:

A. A numeric value with value 0

B. The absence of a value
58 B
C. A very small value
D. An erroneous value

Which of the following features usually applies to data in a data

warehouse?

A. Data are often deleted

59 B. Most applications consist of transactions C
C .Data are rarely deleted
D. Relatively few records are processed by applications

Data warehouse architecture is based on ______________.

A. DBMS.
B. RDBMS.
60 C. Sybase. B
D. SQL Server.
 The time horizon in Data warehouse is usually __________.

A. 1-2 years.
61 D
B. 3-4years.
C. 5-6 years.
D. 5-10 years.
The data is stored, retrieved & updated in ____________.

A. OLAP.
62 B
B. OLTP.
C. SMTP.
D. FTP.
____________predicts future trends & behaviors, allowing business
managers to make proactive, Knowledge-driven decisions.

63 A. Data warehouse. B
B. Data mining.
C. Datamarts.
D. Metadata.
__________ is the heart of the warehouse.

A. Data mining database servers.

64 B
B. Data warehouse database servers.
C. Data mart database servers.
D. Relational data base servers.
________________ is the specialized data warehouse database.

A. Oracle.
65 D
B. DBZ.
C. Informix.
D. Redbrick.
________________defines the structure of the data held in operational
databases and used by operational applications.

66 A. User-level metadata. C
B. Data warehouse metadata.
C. Operational metadata.
D. Data mining metadata
_________maps the core warehouse metadata to business concepts,
familiar and useful to end users.

67 A. Application level metadata. A

B. User level metadata.
C. Enduser level metadata.
D. Core level metadata.
 _____________consists of information in the enterprise that is not in
classical form.

68 A. Mushy metadata. A
B. Differential metadata.
C. Data warehouse.
D. Data mining
The star schema is composed of __________ fact table.

A. one.
69 A
B. two.
C. three.
D. four.
The time horizon in operational environment is ___________.

A. 30-60 days.
70 B
B. 60-90 days.
C. 90-120 days.
D. 120-150 days.
The key used in operational environment may not have an element
of__________.

71 A. time. A
B. cost.
C. frequency.
D. quality.
Data can be updated in _____environment.

A. data warehouse.
72 C
B. data mining.
C. operational.
D. informational.
Record cannot be updated in _____________.

A. OLTP
73 D
B. files
C. RDBMS
D. data warehouse
The source of all data warehouse data is the____________.

A. operational environment.
74 A
B. informal environment.
C. formal environment.
D. technology environment.
 Data redundancy between the environments results in less than
____________percent.

75 A. one. A
B. two.
C. three.
D. four.
Fact tables are ___________.
A. completely demoralized.
76 B. partially demoralized. C
C. completely normalized.
D. partially normalized.
_______________ is the goal of data mining.

A. To explain some observed event or condition.

77 A
B. To confirm that data exists.
C. To analyze data for expected relationships.
D. To create a new data warehouse.
The data administration subsystem helps you perform all of the
following, except__________.

78 A. backups and recovery. D

B. query optimization.
C. security management.
D. create, change, and delete information.
The most common source of change data in refreshing a data warehouse
is _______.

79 A. queryable change data. A

B. cooperative change data.
C. logged change data.
D. snapshot change data.
Classification rules are extracted from _____________.

A. root node.
80 B
B. decision tree.
C. siblings.
D. branches.
The main organizational justification for implementing a data warehouse
is to provide ______.

81 A. cheaper ways of handling transportation. C

B. decision support.
C. storing large volume of data.
D. access to data.
 Data warehouse architecture is based on ______________.

A. DBMS.
82 B
B. RDBMS.
C. Sybase.
D. SQL Server
Source data from the warehouse comes from _______________.

A. ODS.
83 A
B. TDS.
C. MDDB.
D. ORDBMS.
________________ is a data transformation process.

A. Comparison.
84 D
B. Projection.
C. Selection.
D. Filtering.
The technology area associated with CRM is _______________.

A. specialization.
85 C
B. generalization.
C. personalization.
D. summarization.
MDDB stands for ___________.

A. multiple data doubling.

86 B
B. multidimensional databases.
C. multiple double dimension.
D. multi-dimension doubling.
___________ is an important functional component of the metadata.

A. Digital directory.
87 C
B. Repository.
C. Information directory.
D. Data dictionary.
___________ is data collected from natural systems.

A. MRI scan.
88 A
B. ODS data.
C. Statistical data.
D. Historical data.
 ____________ are some popular OLAP tools.

A. Metacube, Informix.
89 A
B. Oracle Express, Essbase.
C. HOLAP.
D. MOLAP.
Capability of data mining is to build ___________ models.

A. retrospective.
90 C
B. interrogative.
C. predictive.
D. imperative.
Strategic value of data mining is ______________.

A. cost-sensitive.
91 C
B. work-sensitive.
C. time-sensitive.
D. technical-sensitive.
The terms equality and roll up are associated with ____________.

A. OLAP.
92 C
B. visualization.
C. data mart.
D. decision tree.
Exceptional reporting in data warehousing is otherwise called as
__________.

93 A. exception. B
B. alerts.
C. errors.
D. bugs.
____________ is a metadata repository.

A. Prism solution directory manager.

94 A
B. CORBA.
C. STUNT.
D. COBWEB.
________________ is an expensive process in building an expert system.

A. Analysis.
95 D
B. Study.
C. Design.
D. Information collection.
 Removing duplicate records is a process called _____________.

A. recovery.
96 B
B. data cleaning.
C. data cleansing.
D. data pruning.
How many components are there in a data warehouse?

A. two.
97 D
B. three.
C. four.
D. five.
Metadata contains atleast _________.

A. the structure of the data.

98 D
B. the algorithms used for summarization.
C. the mapping from the operational environment to the data warehouse.
D. all of the above.
Which of the following is the other name of Data mining?

A. Exploratory data analysis.

99 D
B. Data driven discovery.
C. Deductive learning.
D. All of the above
Which of the following is a descriptive model?

A. Classification.
100 C
B. Regression.
C. Sequence discovery.
D. Association rules.
 CA 301 Internet Computing - I (HTML,PHP and MYSQL) MCQs
Sr.No. Questions Answer
1 The attribute of form tag is C
A. Method
B. Action
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
2 Which of these tags are all <table> tags? B
A. <table><head><tfoot>
B. <table><tr><td>
C. <table><tr><tt>
D. <thead><body><tr>
3 Which is the correct CSS syntax? D
A. body:color=black
B. {body;color:black}
C. {body:color=black(body}
D. body {color: black}
4 Which CSS property sets a background image for an element? D
A. background
B. background - attachment
C. background - color
D. background - image
5 Which HTML tag is used to define an internal style sheet? A
A.<style>
B.<css>
C.<script>
D. None
6 Where in an HTML document is the correct place to refer to an external B
style sheet?
A. At the end of the document
B. In the <head> section
C. At the top of the document
D. In the <body> section
7 How do you make a list that lists its items with squares? D
A. list-type: square
B. type: square
C. type: 2
D.list-style-type: square
8 <SCRIPT> … </SCRIPT> tag can be placed within ________ C
a. Header
b. Body
c. both A and B
d. none of the above
9 Marquee is a tag in HTML to C
a. mark the list of items to maintain in queue
 b. Mark the text so that it is hidden in browser
c. Display text with scrolling effect
d. None of above
10 In CSS what does “color:blue” can be called as B
A. Selector
B. Declaration
C. Rule
D. Value
11 What should be the correct syntax to write a PHP code? C
A. < php >
B < ? php ?>
C. <? ?>
D. <?php ?>
12 How should we add a single line comment in our PHP code? C
i) /?
ii) //
iii) #
iv) /* */
A.Only ii)
B.i), iii) and iv)
C. ii), iii) and iv)
D. Both ii) and iv)
13 What will be the output of the following PHP code? A
<?php
$num = "1";
$num1 = "2";
print $num+$num1;
?>
A. 3
B. 1+2
C. Error
D. 12
14 PHP’s numerically indexed array begin with position ___________ C
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0
D. -1
15 Which of the following PHP function will return true if a variable is an B
array or false if it is not an array?
A. this_array()
B. is_array()
C. do_array()
D. in_array()
16 Which one of the following PHP functions can be used to find files? A
A. glob()
B. file()
 C. fold()
D. get_file()
17 Which of the following is used to get information sent via get method in A
PHP?
A. $_GET
B. $GET
C. $GETREQUEST
D.None of these
18 Which of the following method returns a formatted string representing a C
date?
A. time()
B. getdate()
C. date()
D. None of the above
19 Which of the following function returns the number of characters in a D
string variable?
A. count($variable)
B. len($variable)
C. strcount($variable)
D. strlen($variable)
20 Which variable is used to collect form data sent with both the GET and D
POST methods?
A. $BOTH
B. $_BOTH
C. $REQUEST
D. $_REQUEST
21 A cookie is created with which function. B
A.cookie()
B.setcookie()
C.cookieset()
D.createcookie()
22 To destroy the session, use A
A.session_destroy()
B.$destroy()
C.#destroy()
D.destroy_session()
23 The is a super global variable that returns the filename of the currently A
executing script.
A.$_SERVER["PHP_SELF"]
B.#_SERVER["SELF_PHP"]
C.$_SERVER["SELF"]
D.$_SERVER["PHP"]
24 Which of the following is not true? D
A.PHP can be used to develop web applications.
B.PHP makes a website dynamic
C.PHP applications can not be compile
 D.PHP can not be embedded into html.
25 Which one of the following keyword is used in conjunction with C
an Exception object?
A. throws
B. exception
C. throw
D. final
26 Which is the Concatenation Operator in PHP? A
A. Dot (.)
B. Plus (+)
C. Ampersand (&)
D. Percentage (%)
27 What does fopen() function do in PHP? B
A. It used to open folders in PHP
B. It used to open files in PHP
C. It used to open Remote Computer
D. It used to open Remote Server
28 Which one of the following statements instantiates the mysqli class? B
A. $mysqli = new mysqli()
B. $mysqli = new mysqli()
C. $mysqli->new.mysqli()
D. mysqli->new.mysqli()
29 Which one of the following methods is responsible for sending the A
query to the database?
A. query()
B. send_query()
C. sendquery()
D. query_send()
30 Which one of the following statement can be used to select the D
database?
$mysqli=select_db(‘databasename’);
mysqli=select_db(‘databasename’);
mysqli->select_db(‘databasename’);
$mysqli->select_db(‘databasename’);
31 The updated mysql extension released with PHP 5 is typically referred C
to as
A.MySQL
B.mysql
C.mysqli
D.mysqly
32 PHP is a ____________ language? C
A. user-side scripting
B. client-side scripting
C. server-side scripting
D. Both B and C
33 Which statement will output $lfc on the screen? A
A. echo "$lfc";
B. echo "$$lfc";
C. echo "/$lfc";
D. echo "$lfc;";
34 PHP can create, open, read, write, delete, and close files on the server. A
A. True
B. False
C. PHP can only create, open and close files on the server
D. PHP can read, write and delete files on the server
35 PHP can send and receive cookies? A
A. True
B. False
C. PHP older version can not send and receive cookies but new
version can.
D. PHP new version can not send and receive cookies but old version
can
36 The PHP syntax is most similar to: C
A. VBScript
B. JavaScript
C. Perl and C
D. All of the above
37 Which one is not a data type in PHP? D
A. Resources
B. Objects
C. Null
D. Void
38 Which function returns an array consisting of associative key/value C
pairs?
A. count()
B. array_count()
C. array_count_values()
D. count_values()
39 As compared to associative arrays vector arrays are much A
A. Faster
B. Slower
C. Stable
D. None of the above
40 What is the description of Error level E_ERROR? A
A. Fatal run-time error
B. Near-fatal error
C. Compile-time error
D. Fatal Compile-time error

41 Which of the following is not a Built-in String functions in php? D

 A. strlen()
B. str_replace()
C. strpos()
D. strreverse()
42 Which type of string can processes special characters inside quotes? B
A. single quote string
B. double quote string
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
43 What is the function file_get_contents() do? A
A. Read
B. Save
C. Delete
D. Write
44 Arrow functions support the same features as …………. except that using C
variables from the parent scope is always automatic.
A) Variable functions
B) Static functions
C) Anonymous functions
D) Both A and C
45 Writing 2**3; will return the following result in PHP. C
A) 5
B) 6
C) 8
D) NAN
46 State Whether the following statements are True or False.
i. Anonymous functions are also known as closures.
ii. Closures can also be used as the value of variables
iii. Closures can not inherit variables from the parent scope.
A) i-True, ii-False, iii-False
B) i-True, ii-True, iii-True
C) i-True, ii-False, iii-True
D) i-True, ii-True, iii-False
47 Which of the following is not PHP Loops? D
A. while
B. do while
C. for
D. do for
48 In PHP Language variables are case sensitive A
A. True
B. False
C. Depends on website
D. Depends on server
49 Data for a cookie stored in _________ in PHP? B
A. In ISP Computer
B. In User’s Computer
 C. In Server Computer
D. It depends on PHP Coding
50 How PHP files can be accessed? C
A. Through Web Browser
B. Through HTML files
C. Through Web Server
D. All of Above
51 In php string data are D
A. delimited by single quote
B. delimited by double quote
C. delimited by <<< identifier
D. All of above
52 Which function includes the specified file even the statement evaluates B
to false in which block the function is placed.
A. include ()
B. require ()
C. both of above
D. None of above
53 Casting operator introduced in PHP 6 is B
A. (array)
B. (int64)
C. (real) or (double) or (float)
D. (object)
54 Which datatypes are treaded as arrays C
A. Integer
B. Float
C. String
D. Booleans
C
55 When defining identifier in PHP you should remember that
A. Identifier are case sensitive. So $result is different than $ result
B. Identifiers can be any length
C. Both of above
D. None of above

56 Which of folowiing variable assignment is 'by value' assignment in PHP A

A. $value1= $value?
B. $value1= & $value?
C. $value1= & $value?
D. None

57 Identify the variable scope that is not supported by PHP C

A. Local variables
B. Function parameters
C. Hidden variables
D. Global variables
58 The output of ofllowing script would be B
$somerar=15;
function ad it () {
GLOBAL $somevar;
$somerar++ ;
echo "somerar is $somerar";
}
addit ();
A. somerar is 15
B. somerar is 16
C. somerar is 1
D. somerar is $ somerar
59 The left association operator % is used in PHP for D
A. percentage
B. bitwise or
C. division
D. modulus
60 Trace the function that does continue the script execution even if the file A
inclusion fails
A. include ()
B. require ()
C. both of above
D. None of above
61 Which one of the following statements can be used to select the D
database?
A.$mysqli=select_db('databasename');
B. mysqli=select_db('databasename');
C. mysqli->select_db('databasename');
D. $mysqli->select_db('databasename');
62 Which one of the following function is capable of reading a specific A
number of characters from a file?
A. fgets()
B. fget()
C. fileget()
D. filegets()
63 Which one of the following function outputs the contents of a string B
variable to the specified resource?
A. filewrite()
B. fwrite()
C. filewrites()
D. fwrites()
64 Which one of the following function reads a directory into an Array? A
A. scandir()
B. readdir()
 C. scandirectory()
D. readdirectory()
65 Which function is used to erase all session variables stored in the D
current session?
A. session_destroy()
B. session_change()
C. session_remove()
D. session_unset()
66 What is the return type of session_set_save_handler() function? A
A. boolean
B. integer
C. float
D. character
67 Which one of the following functions will convert a string to all A
uppercase?
A. strtoupper()
B. uppercase()
C. str_uppercase()
D. struppercase()
68 When you use the $_GET variable to collect data, the data is visible to C
___________
A. none
B. only you
C. everyone
D. selected few
69 Which one of the following functions can be used to concatenate array B
elements to form a single delimited string?
A. explode()
B. implode()
C. concat()
D. concatenate()
70 Which variable is used to collect form data sent with both the GET and D
POST methods?
A. $BOTH
B. $_BOTH
C. $REQUEST
D. $_REQUEST
71 To validate an email address, which flag is to be passed to the function A
filter_var()?
A. FILTER_VALIDATE_EMAIL
B. FILTER_VALIDATE_MAIL
C. VALIDATE_EMAIL
D. VALIDATE_MAIL
72 Which two predefined variables are used to retrieve information from B
forms?
A. $GET & $SET
 B. $_GET & $_SET
C. $__GET & $__SET
D. GET & SET
73 Which one of the following is the default PHP session name? A
A. PHPSESSID
B. PHPSESID
C. PHPSESSIONID
D. PHPIDSESS
74 What is the default time(in seconds) for which session data is C
considered valid?
A. 1800
B. 3600
C. 1440
D. 1540
75 Which directive determines whether PHP scripts on the server can A
accept file uploads?
A. file_uploads B. file_upload C. file_input D. file_intake
76 Which function is used to verify whether a variable contains a value? D
A. header()
B. footer()
C. inset()
D. isset()
77 Which function is used to split a string into a series of substrings, with C
each string boundary is determined by a specific separator?
A. break()
B. divide()
C. explode()
D. md5()
78 Which is the most powerful authentication method among the four? C
A. Hard-coding a login pair directly into the script
B. File-based authentication
C. Data-based authentication
D. PEAR’S HTTP authentication
79 Which statement will output $x on the screen? A
A. echo “\$x”;
B. echo “$$x”;
C. echo “/$x”;
D. echo “$x;”;
80 Which of the below statements is equivalent to $add += $add? B
A. $add = $add
B. $add = $add +$add
C. $add = $add + 1
D. $add = $add + $add + 1
81 Which of the following PHP functions accepts any number of B
parameters?
A. func_get_argv()
 B. func_get_args()
C. get_argv()
D. get_argc()
82 When you’re uploading files you need to set the enctype of the form to C
__________
A. text
B. text/file
C. multipart/form-data
D. multimedia/form-data
83 To check whether a file was uploaded, you look in the _______ A
superglobal array.
A. $_FILES
B. $_DOCS
C. $_DOCUMENTS
D. $_FOLDERS
84 Which function do you have to use to check whether the $path you’ve C
stored exists?
A. path_dir()
B. path()
C. is_dir()
D. path_dir()
85 Before you can start processing images with PHP, you must first add the D
ability to upload images to your administrative form on ________
A. .htaccess
B. function.inc.php
C. index.php
D. admin.php
86 What will be the output of the following PHP code? B
<?php
$color1 = "1";
$color2 = "1";
echo "$color1" + "$color2";
?>
A.11
B. 2
C. 0
D. 1
87 What will be the output of the following PHP code? A
<?php
$color1 = "red";
$color2 = "1";
$color3 = "grey"
echo "$color1" + "$color2" . "$color3";
?>
A.1grey
B. grey
 C. 0
D. red1grey
88 What will be the output of the following PHP code? C
<?php
$color = red;
echo "$color" . red ;
?>
A. red red
B. red
C. error
D. nothing
89 What will be the output of the following PHP code? A
<?php
for ($count = 1; $count != 20;$count++)
{
print $count;
$count++;
}
?>
A.Infinite
B.123…….20
C.1357…19
D. 13579…21
90 What will be the output of the following PHP code? B
<?php
define("GREETING", "PHP is a scripting language");
echo $GREETING;
?>
A. $GREETING
B. no output
C. PHP is a scripting language
D. GREETING
91 What will be the output of the following PHP code? D
<?php
while()
{
print "hi";
}
?>
A. infinite loop
B. hi
C. no output
D. error
92 In PHP in order to access MySQL database you will use: C
A. mysqlconnect() function
B. mysql-connect() function
 C. mysql_connect() function
D. sql_connect() function
93 The getdate() function returns C
A. An integer
B. A floating-point number
C. An array
D. A string
94 What elements will the following script output? D
<?php
$array = array (true => 'a', 1 => 'b');
var_dump ($array);
?>
A. 1 => 'b'
B. True => 'a', 1 => 'b'
C. 0 => 'a', 1 => 'b'
D. It will output NULL
95 Sessions allow you to D
A. store persistent user preference on a site
B. save user authentication information from page to page
C. create multipage forms
D. all of above
96 Which of the following is not valid PHP code? D
A. $_10
B. ${“MyVar”}
C. &$something
D. $10_somethings
97 Which of the following is correct print statement? D
A. print "<h2>PHP is Fun!</h2>";
B. print "PHP is Fun!<br>";
C. print "PHP ", "is ", "Fun!";
D. All of the above
98 PHP variables are case-sensitive? A
A. True
B. False
C. For "sum" variable it is case-sensitive
D. None of the above
99 Why Exception Handling in PHP used? C
A. Separation of error handling code from normal code
B. Grouping of error types
C. Both A And B
D. None of the above
100 foreach loop is used to iterate over ____? D
A. number
B. object
C. function
D. array