MOMENTUM

Q. Water is pumped through hose-pipe at a rate of 90 kg per minute. It emerges from the hosepipe horizontally with
speed of 20 m s−1 . Which force is required from a person holding the hose-pipe to prevent it moving backwards?

A 30 N B 270 N C 1800 N D 10 800 N

Q. An ice-hockey puck slides along horizontal, frictionless ice-rink surface. It collides inelastically with wall at right
angles to its path, and then rebounds along its original path. Which graph shows variation with time t of the
momentum p of the puck?

Q. The diagram shows two spherical masses approaching each other head-on at an equal speed u. One has mass 2m
and the other has mass m.

Which diagram, shwoing the situation after the collision, shows the
result o an elastic collision?

Q. An objects of mass m travelling with speed v has a head on collision with another object of mass m travelling with
speed v in opposite direction. The two object stick together after the collision. What is the loss of kinetic energy in
the collision?

A. 0 B. 1 m v 2 C. D.
m v2
2
2 m v2
Q. Two train carriages each of mass 5000 kg roll toward one another on level track. One is travelling at 2.00 m s−1 and
other at 1.00 m s−1 , as shown.

They collide and join together. What is the kinetic energy lost during collision?

A. 1250 J B. 7500 J C. 11 250 J D. 12 500 J

Q. Stationary nucleus has nucleon number A. Nucleus decays by emitting proton with speed v to form new nucleus
with speed u. New nucleus and proton move away from one another in opposite directions. Which equation gives v in
terms of A and u?

A. v = (A/4 – 1)u B. v = (A – 1)u C. v = Au D. v = (A + 1)u

Q. The diagram shows two spherical masses approaching each other head-on at
an equal speed u. One is of mass m and the other of mass 2m

Which diagram, showing the situation after the collision, is not consistent with the principle of conservation of
momentum?

Q. A group of students investigating the principle of conservation of

momentum use a small truck travelling over a frictionless surface.
Sand is dropped into the truck as it passes X. At Y, a trapdoor in the
bottom of the truck opens and the sand falls out.

How does the velocity of the truck change when the sand is added
to the truck at X and then leaves the truck at Y?

At X At Y
A Decreases Increases
B Decreases Stays the same
C Stays the same Increases
D Stays the same Stays the same

Q. A body of massm, moving at velocity v, collides with a staionary body of the same mass and stick to it. Which row
describes the momentum and kinetic energy of the wo vodies after the collision?

Momentum Kinetic energy

A mv 1
m v2
4
B mv 1
m v2
8
C 2 mv 1
m v2
2
D 2 mv m v2
Q. Particle of mass 2m and velocity v strikes a wall. The particle rebounds along same path after
colliding with the wall. The collision is inelastic. What is a possible change in momentum of
the ball during the collision?

A. mv B. 2mv C. 3mv D. 4mv

Q. Golf ball of mass m is dropped onto a hard surface from height h and rebounds to a
height h . Momentum of the golf ball just as it reaches the surface is different from its momentum just as it leaves the
surface. What is total change in the momentum of the golf ball between these two instants? (Ignore air resistance.)

A. m √ 2 g h1−m √ 2 g h2 C. m √ 2 g(h ¿ ¿1−h2 )¿

B. m √ 2 g h1 +m √ 2 g h2 D. m √ 2 g(h ¿ ¿1+ h2)¿
 Force, Density & Pressure
Q. Diagrams show two ways of hanging same picture.

In both cases, string is attached to same points on the picture and looped
symmetrically over a nail in a wall. Forces shown are those that act on the nail.
In diagram 1, string loop is shorter than in diagram 2. Which information about
magnitude of the forces is correct?

A . R 1=R2 T 1=T 2 B . R1 > R2 T 1 <T 2

B . R1 =R 2 T 1> T 2 D. R1 < R2 T 1=T 2

Q. A car with front-wheel drive accelerates in the direction shown.

Which diagram best shows the direction of the total force exerted by the road on
the front wheels?

Q. Two blocks X and Y, of masses m and 3m respectively, are accelerated along

smooth horizontal surface by force F applied to block X as shown.

What is the magnitude of force exerted by block X on block Y during this acceleration?

F F F 3F
A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D 4
Q. A trailer of weight 30kN is hitched to a cab at X, as shown in the diagram.

What is the upward force exerted by cab on trailer at X?

A. 3kN B. 15kN C. 30kN D. 60kN

Q. A rigid cross-shaped structure having four arms PO, SO, QO and RO, each 1.00m long, is pivoted at O. Forces act on
the ends of the arms and on the midpoints of the arms as shown.

What is the magnitude of the resultant moment on the structure about O?

A. 45Nm B. 90Nm C. 120Nm D. 190Nm

Q. Which pair of forces acts only as a couple on the circular object?

Q. Uniform ladder rests against vertical wall where there is negligible friction. The bottom of ladder rests on rough
ground where there is friction. The top of ladder is at a height h above the ground and the foot of the ladder is at a
distance 2a from the wall. The diagram shows the forces which act on the ladder. Which equation is formed by taking
moments?

A . Wa+ F h=2Wa
B . Fa+Wa=F h
C . Wa+2 Wa=F h
D .Wa−2Wa=2 F h
Q. Spindle is attached at one end to centre of lever of length 1.20 m and at its other end to centre of disc of radius
0.20 m. String is wrapped round disc, passes over a pulley and is attached to 900 N weight.

What is the minimum force F, applied to each end of the lever that could lift the weight?

A. 75N B. 150N C. 300N D. 950N

Q. A uniform rod XY of weight 10.0 N is freely hinged to a wall at X. It is held horizontal by a force F acting from Y at
an angle of 30° to the horizontal, as shown.

What is the value of F?

A. 5.0N B. 8.7N C. 10.0N D. 20.0N

Q. Spanner is used to tighten nut as shown.

Force F is applied at right-angles to spanner at a distance of 0.25 m from centre of the nut. When nut is fully
tightened, the applied force is 200 N. What is resistive torque, in an anticlockwise direction, preventing further
tightening?

A. 8Nm B. 42Nm C. 50Nm D. 1250Nm

Q. A light rigid rod XY has an object of weight W fixed at one end. The rod is
in equilibrium, resting on a roller at Z and a vertical wall at X. The roller
exerts a force R on the rod as shown. The diagram shows the directions,
but not the magnitudes, of the forces R and W.

What is the direction of the force on the rod at X?

Q. All external forces on a body cancel out. Which statement must be correct?

A. The body does not move.

B. The momentum of the body remains unchanged.
C. The speed of the body remains unchanged.
D. The total energy (kinetic and potential) of the body remains unchanged.

Q. A ladder is positioned on icy (frictionless) ground and is leant against a rough wall. At the instant of release it
begins to slide. Which diagram correctly shows the directions of the forces P, W and R acting on the ladder as it
slides?

Q. The diagram shows the brake system of a car.

The pipes are filled with incompressible liquid. When a force is

applied to the brake pedal, the pressure in the liquid increases
and applies a force to each of the four wheels. The area of the
piston connected to the brake pedal is 8cm 2.The area of each
piston connected to the brakes is 12cm 2. A force of 800N is
applied by the foot to the brake pedal. What is the force
applied to each brake?
 A. 300N B. 530N C. 1200N D. 4800N

Q. The density of air on the Earth decreases almost linearly with height from 1.22 kg m at sea level to 0.74 kg m at an
altitude of 5000 m.
Atmospheric pressure at the Earth’s surface on a particular day is 100 000 Pa. The value of g between the Earth’s
surface and an altitude of 5000 m can be considered to have a constant value of 9.7 ms -1.
What will be the atmospheric pressure at an altitude of 5000 m?

A. 36 000 Pa B. 48 000 Pa C. 52 000 Pa D. 59 000 Pa

Q. For a change in depth ∆h in a liquid of density ρ, the change in pressure ∆p is given by ∆p = ∆hρg where g is the
acceleration of free fall.
What is the equation, or principle of physics, used in the derivation of this formula?

A. atmospheric pressure decreases with height

B. change in gravitational potential energy = mass × g∆h
C. ρ = volume/mass
D. the density of a fluid increases with depth

Q. A W-shaped tube contains two amounts of mercury, each open to the atmosphere. Air at pressure P is trapped in
between them. The diagram shows two vertical distances x and y.

Atmospheric pressure is equal to the pressure that would be exerted by a column of mercury of height 760 mm. The
pressure P is expressed in this way. Which values of x, y and P are possible?

x/mm y/mm P/mm of

mercury
A 20 20 780
B 20 30 780
C 30 20 810
D 30 30 790
 Q. Two bulbs X and Y containing air at different pressures are connected by a tube P which contains two mercury
threads.

The density of mercury is 13 600 kgm-3. Which pair of values of h1 and h2 is possible?

h1/cm h2/cm
A 4.0 2.0
B 6.0 6.0
C 12.0 18.0
D 18.0 12.0

Q. Diagram shows two pulley wheels connected by a belt.

Wheel Q is driven by motor and rotates clockwise at constant rate. Wheel Q puts
tension in the top portion of belt, which in turn drives wheel P. Lower portion of belt is slack and has no tension.
Weight of the belt and frictional forces are negligible.
Diameter of P is 150 mm. Diameter of Q is 100 mm. Torque applied to Q
is 3.0 N m. What is the tension in belt and the torque on wheel P?
 Work, Energy & Power
Q. In which situation is no work done?
A. The air in a bicycle tyre is released because of a puncture.
B. A ball is dropped and falls to the ground.
C. A box moves at constant speed across a smooth horizontal surface.
D. A crane lifts a steel girder at constant speed.

Q. Which statement is correct?

A. A ball lands on the ground and bounces. The kinetic energy changes sign, because the ball changes direction.
B. A car drives up a slope at a steady speed. The power generated by the engine equals the potential energy gained
CCC per unit time.
C. An electric heater can be 100% efficient.
D. It is impossible for momentum to be conserved in a collision.

Q. The diagram shows a pump called a hydraulic ram.

In one such pump the long approach pipe holds 500kg of water. A valve shuts when the speed of this water reaches
2.0ms–1 and the kinetic energy of this water is used to lift a small quantity of water by a height of 15m.
The efficiency of the pump is 10%. Which mass of water could be lifted 15m?

A. 0.15kg B. 0.68kg C. 1.5kg D. 6.8kg

Q. An electric motor has an input power Pin, useful output power Pout and efficiency η.
How much power is lost by motor?

1 1
A. η P¿ B. [ ]
η
−1 P¿ C. η Pout [ ]
D. −1 Pout
η

Q. A constant force F, acting on a car of mass m, moves the car up a slope through a distance s at constant velocity v.
The angle of the slope to the horizontal is α.

Which expression gives the efficiency of the process?

mgs sin α mv m v2 mgsin α

A. Fv
B. Fs
C. 2 Fs
D. F
Q. A uniform solid block has weight 500N, width 0.4m and height 0.6m. The block rests on the edge of a step of depth
0.8m, as shown.

The block is knocked over the edge of the step and rotates through 90° before coming to rest with the 0.6m edge
horizontal. What is the change in gravitational potential energy of the block?

A. 300J B. 400J C. 450J D. 550J

Q. The diagram shows a hydroelectric power station. The reservoir is linked to the turbines by a pipe of uniform
cross-sectional area.

Water flows from X to Y at constant speed. Which statement about the change of energy of the water as it moves
from X to Y is correct?

A. It gains both gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy. B.

It loses both elastic potential energy and kinetic energy. C. It
loses both elastic potential energy and gravitational potential energy. D. It
loses gravitational potential energy and gains elastic potential energy.
Q. A trolley runs from P to Q along a track. At Q its potential energy is 50kJ less than at P.

At P, the kinetic energy of the trolley is 5kJ. Between P and Q, the work the trolley does against friction is 10kJ. What
is the kinetic energy of the trolley at Q?

A. 35kJ B. 45kJ C. 55kJ D. 65kJ

Q. A car travels at a constant speed of 25ms –1 up a slope. The wheels driven by the engine exert a forward force of
3000N. There is a drag force due to air resistance and friction of 2100N. The weight of the car has a component down
the slope of 900N. What is the rate at which thermal energy is dissipated?

A. zero B. 2.3 × 104W C. 5.3 × 104W D. 7.5 × 104W

Q. A conveyor belt is driven at velocity v by a motor. Sand drops vertically on to the belt at a rate of mkgs –1.
What is the additional power needed to keep the conveyor belt moving at a steady speed when the sand starts to fall
on it?

A. 1 mv B. mv C. 1 m v 2
2 2
D. m v 2

Q. An escalator is 60m long and lifts passengers through a vertical height of

30m, as shown.

To drive the escalator against the forces of friction when there are no
passengers requires a power of 2.0kW. The escalator is used by passengers of
average mass 60kg and the power to overcome friction remains constant.
How much power is required to drive the escalator when it is carrying 20
passengers and is travelling at 0.75ms–1?

A. 4.4kW B. 6.4kW C. 8.8kW D. 10.8kW

Q. The force resisting the motion of a car is taken as being proportional to the square of the car’s speed. The
magnitude of the force at a speed of 20ms–1 is 800N.

What effective power is required from the car’s engine to maintain a steady speed of 40ms–1?

A. 32kW B. 64kW C. 128kW D. 512kW

*FIND TORN PAGE*

 Work, Energy & Power
Q. The Young modulus of steel is twice that of copper.
A 50 cm length of copper wire of diameter 2.0 mm is joined to a 50 cm length of steel wire of diameter 1.0 mm,
making a combination wire of length 1.0 m, as shown. The combination wire is stretched by a weight added to its
end. Both the copper and the steel wires obey Hooke’s law.
extension of steel wire
What is the ratio
extension of copper wire
A. 4 B. 2 C. 1 D. 0.5

Q. Young modulus of steel is determined using length of steel wire and is found to have the value E.
Another experiment is carried out using a wire of same steel, but of twice the length and half the diameter.
What value is obtained for Young modulus in the second experiment?

A. ¼ E B. ½ E C. E D. 2E

Q. A wire has a final length of 6.0 m after undergoing a strain of 200%.

What is the original length of the wire?

A. 1.5m B. 2.0m C. 3.0m D. 4.0m

Q. The diagram represents a steel tube with wall thickness w which is small in
comparison with the diameter of the tube.
The tube is under tension, caused by a force T, parallel to the axis of the tube. To reduce the stress in the material of
the tube, it is proposed to thicken the wall. The tube diameter and the tension being constant, which wall thickness
gives half the stress?

w
A. B. √ 2 w A. 2 w A. 4 w
2
Q. A composite rod is made by attaching a glass-reinforced plastic rod and a nylon rod end to end, as shown.

The rods have the same cross-sectional area and each rod is 1.00m in length. The Young modulus Ep of the plastic is
40GPa and the Young modulus En of the nylon is 2.0GPa.

The composite rod will break when its total extension reaches 3.0mm.
What is the greatest tensile stress that can be applied to the composite rod before it breaks?

A. 7.1 ×10−14 Pa C. 5.7 ×106 Pa

B. 7.1 ×10−2 Pa D. 5.7 ×10 9 Pa

Q. Two springs, one with spring constant k1 = 4 kNm–1 and the other with spring constant k 2 = 2kN m–1, are connected
as shown.

What is the total extension of the springs when supporting a load of 80N?

A. 1.3cm B. 4 cm C. 6 cm D. 60cm

Q. Diagram shows a large crane on construction site lifting a cube-shaped load.

Model is made of crane, its load and cable supporting the load. Material used for each part of model is the same as
that in full-size crane, cable and load. Model is one tenth full-size in all linear dimensions.
What is ratio of stress in the cable on the full size crane to stress in the cable on the model crane?

A. 100 B. 101 C. 102 D. 10−1

Q. Which property of a metal wire depends on its Young Modulus?

A. ductility B. elastic limit C. spring constant D. ultimate tensile stress

Q. To determine mass of food in a pan, a scale is used that has high sensitivity for small masses but low sensitivity for
large masses. To do this, two springs are used, each with different spring constant k. One of the springs has a low
spring constant and the other has a high spring constant. Which arrangement of springs would be suitable?
Q. A beam, the weight of which may be neglected, is supported by three
identical springs. When a weight W is hung from the middle of the beam, the
extension of each spring is x.

The middle spring and the weight are removed. What is the extension when a
weight of 2W is hung from the middle of the beam?

3x 4x
A. B. C. 2 x D. x
2 3
Q. A sample of material is stretched by a tensile force to a point beyond its
elastic limit. The tensile force is then reduced to zero. The graph of force
against extension is shown below.

Which area represents the net work done on the sample?

A. X B. X + Y C. Y + Z D. Z

Q. The graph shows the behaviour of a sample of a metal when it is stretched until it starts to undergo plastic
deformation.

What is the total work done in stretching the sample from zero to 12.0mm extension? Simplify the calculation by
treating the curve XY as a straight line.

A. 3.30J B. 3.55J s C. 3.60J D. 6.60J

Q. A spring of original length 100mm is compressed by a force. The graph shows the variation of the length L of the
spring with the compressing force F.

What is the energy stored in the spring when the length is 70mm?

A. 0.090J B. 0.21J C. 0.27J D. 0.63J

Q. Two springs P and Q both obey Hooke’s law. They have spring constants 2k and k respectively.

The springs are stretched, separately, by a force that is gradually increased from zero up to a certain maximum value,
the same for each spring. The work done in stretching spring P is W P, and the work done in stretching spring Q is W Q.

How is WP related to WQ?

1 1
A. W P= W Q B. W P= W Q C. W P=2 W Q D. W P=4 W Q
4 2

Q. The tension in a spring of natural length l 0 is first increased from zero toT 1, causing the length to increase to l 1.

The tension is then reduced toT 2

, causing the length to decrease to l 2 (as shown).

Which area of the graph represents the work done by the spring during this reduction in length?

A. MLP B. MNQP C. MNSR D. MPLU

Q. An elastic material with a Young modulus E is subjected to a tensile stress S. Hooke’s Law is obeyed.

What is the expression for the elastic energy stored per unit volume of the material?

S2 S2 E 2E
A. B. C. D.
2E E 2 S2 S2
Q. The variation with applied force of the extension of a spring is shown in the graph.

When there is no force applied to the spring, it has a length of 1.0cm.

What is the increase in the strain energy stored in the spring when its length is increased from 2.0cm to 3.0cm?

A. 0.020J B. 0.030J C. 0.040J D. 0.050J

 Waves
Q. A wave pulse moves along a stretched rope in the direction shown.

Which diagram correctly shows the variation with time t of the displacement s of the particle P in the rope?

Q. A sound wave consists of a series of moving pressure variations from the normal, constant air pressure

The graph shows these pressure variations for two waves at one instant in time.

Wave 1 has an intensity of 1.6 × 10–6 Wm–2. What is the intensity of wave 2?

A. 2.4 × 10−6 W m−2 B. 3.0 ×10−6 W m−2 C. 3.6 ×10−6 W m −2 D. 4.5 × 10−6 W m−2

Q. The intensity I of a sound at a point P is inversely proportional to the square

of the distance x of P from the source of the sound.
Air molecules at P, a distance r from S, oscillate with amplitude 8.0µm. Point Q is
situated a distance 2r from S. What is the amplitude of oscillation of air
molecules at Q?
A. 1.4µm B. 2.0µm C. 2.8µm D. 4.0µm

Q. The intensity of a progressive wave is proportional to the square of the amplitude of the wave. It is also
proportional to the square of the frequency.

The variation with time t of displacement x of particles in a medium, when two progressive waves P and Q pass
separately through the medium, are shown on the graphs.

The intensity of wave P is I 0. What is the intensity of wave Q?

A. ½ I 0 B. I 0 C. 8 I 0 D. 16 I 0

Q. The graph shows how the displacement of a particle in a wave varies with time.

Which statement is correct?

A. The wave has an amplitude of 2cm and could be either transverse or longitudinal.
B. The wave has an amplitude of 2cm and must be transverse.
C. The wave has an amplitude of 4cm and could be either transverse or longitudinal.
D. The wave has an amplitude of 4cm and must be transverse.

Q. A displacement-time graph for a transverse wave is shown in the diagram.

The phase difference between X and Y can be expressed as nπ. What is the value of n?

Q. High-frequency sound waves with frequency 2.0 MHz travel with a speed of 2.0kms –1 through a liquid.

What is the shortest distance between a compression and a rarefaction (expansion) in the liquid?
A. 0.5mm B. 1.0mm C. 5.0mm D. 10.0mm

Q. A transverse progressive wave of wavelength λ is set up on a stretched string. The graph shows the variation of

λ
displacement y with distance x at a particular instant of time. The displacement where distance x = is y1.
8
What are the next two values of x where the displacement y is again equal to y 1?

3λ 5λ 3λ 9λ 5λ 9λ 9λ 17 λ
A. and B. and C. and D. and
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
Q. Two light waves of the same frequency are represented by the diagram.

What could be the phase difference between the two waves?

A. 150° B. 220° C. 260° D. 330°

Q. When sound travels through air, the air particles vibrate. A graph of displacement against time for a single air
particle is shown.

Which graph best shows how the kinetic energy of the air particle varies with time?
Q. A light wave of amplitude A is incident normally on a surface of area S. The power per unit area reaching the
1
surface is P. The amplitude of the light wave is increased to 2A. The light is then focussed on to a smaller area s.
3
What is the power per unit area on this smaller area?

A. 36P B. 18P C. 12P D. 6P

Q. A small source emits spherical waves.

The wave intensity I at any point P, a distance r from the source, is inversely proportional tor 2. What is the

relationship between the wave amplitude a and the distance r?

2 1 1 1 1
A. a ∝ B.a ∝ C. a ∝ D. a ∝
r r r2 r4
Q. The diagram shows two sinusoidal waveforms.

At time t = 0 the waves are in phase. At the dotted line, t = 18s.

1
At which time is the phase difference between the two oscillations of a cycle?
8
A. 4.0s B. 4.5s C. 8.0s D. 9.0s

Q. The graph shows the shape at a particular instant of part of a transverse wave travelling along a string.

Which statement about the motion of points in the string is correct?

A. The speed at point P is a maximum. C. The energy at point R is entirely kinetic

B. The displacement at point Q is always zero. D. The acceleration at point S is a maximum

Q. A loudspeaker emitting sound of frequency f is placed at the open end of a pipe of length l which is closed at the
other end. A standing wave is set up in the pipe.

A series of pipes are then set up with either one or two loudspeakers of frequency f. The pairs of loudspeakers

vibrate in phase with each other. Which pipe contains a standing wave?

Q. A stationary wave is set up on a stretched string, as shown.

Which statement about the points on the string is correct?

A. Point Q vibrates with the largest amplitude.

B. Points P and R vibrate in phase.
C. Point S is an antinode.
D. The horizontal distance between R and S is half the wavelength.

Q. The speed of a transverse wave on a stretched string can be changed by adjusting the tension of the string. A
stationary wave pattern is set up on a stretched string using an oscillator set at a frequency of 650Hz.
How must the wave be changed to maintain the same stationary wave pattern if the applied frequency is increased to
750Hz?

A Decrease the speed of the wave on the string.

B Decrease the wavelength of the wave on the string.
C Increase the speed of the wave on the string.
D Increase the wavelength of the wave on the string.
Q. A transmitter of electromagnetic waves is placed 45cm from a reflective surface.

The emitted waves have a frequency of 1.00GHz. A stationary wave is produced with a node at the transmitter and a
node at the surface. How many antinodes are in the space between the transmitter and the surface?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Q. The diagram shows two tubes.

The tubes are identical except tube X is closed at its lower end while tube Y is open at its lower end. Both tubes have
open upper ends. A tuning fork placed above tube X causes resonance of the air at frequency f. No resonance is
found at any lower frequency than f with tube X. Which tuning fork will produce resonance when placed just above
tube Y?

f 3f
A. a fork of frequency C. a fork of frequency
2 2
2f
B. a fork of frequency D. a fork of frequency 2 f
3
Q. Diffraction is a term used to describe one aspect of wave behaviour.
What does diffraction make possible
A. the ability to hear around corner C. the ability to hear loud and quiet sounds
B. the ability to hear sound through a brick wall. D. the ability to hear high and low frequency sound waves
Q. Water waves of wavelength λ are diffracted as they pass through a
gap of width d in a barrier.
Which combination of wavelength and gap width would produce the
greatest angle of diffraction?
Q. Plane wavefronts in a ripple tank pass through a gap as shown.

Which property of the wave will be different at Q compared with P?

A. velocity B. frequency
C. amplitude D. wavelength

Fringes of separation x are observed on a screen 1.00 m from a double slit that is
illuminated by yellow light of wavelength 600nm.

Q. A monochromatic plane wave of speed c and wavelength λ is diffracted at a small

aperture. The diagram illustrates successive wavefronts. After what time will some
portion of the wavefront XY reach point P?

3λ 2λ 3λ 4λ
A. B. C. D.
2c c c c
Q. Fringes of separation x are observed on a screen 1.00 m from a double slit that is illuminated by yellow light of
wavelength 600nm. At which distance from the slits would fringes of the same separation x be observed when using
blue light of wavelength 400nm?

A. 0.33m B. 0.67m C. 0.75m D, 1.50m

Q. Source S emits microwaves with a constant amplitude. The microwaves hit a

metal screen P and are reflected. A stationary wave is formed between S and P.
The wavelength of the microwaves is much smaller than the distance between S
and P. A detector Q is moved at a slow, constant speed from S to P. What happens
to the amplitude of the signal detected by Q?

A. decreases steadily B. increases and decreases regularly

C. increases steadily D. remains constant

Q. Two identical loudspeakers are connected in series to an a.c. supply, as shown.

Which graph best shows the variation of the intensity of the sound with distance along the line XY?
Q. The diagram shows two identical loudspeakers driven in phase by a
common audio-frequency source.

When a student moves along line XY, she notices that there are variations in
the loudness of the sound. The regions in which the sound is heard are
alternately loud and quiet as indicated on the diagram.
How may the distance between loud regions be reduced?

A. decreasing the distance a between the speakers

B. increasing distance d
C. increasing the frequency of the audio-frequency source
D. increasing the power output from the audio-frequency source

Q. Coherent waves are produced at P and at Q and travel outwards in all

directions. The line RS is halfway between P and Q and perpendicular to the
line joining P and Q. The distance RS is much greater than the distance PQ.

Along which line, or lines, is an interference pattern observed?

A. both RS and XY B. RS only C. XY only

D. neither RS nor XY

In an interference experiment, two slits are illuminated with white light.

What is seen on the screen?

A. The central fringe is black with black and white fringes on each side.
B. The central fringe is black with coloured fringes on each side.
C. The central fringe is white with black and white fringes on each side.
D. The central fringe is white with coloured fringes on each side.

Q. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 450nm is incident normally on a diffraction grating which has 300
lines/mm. What is the total number of intensity maxima observed?
A. 7 B. 8 C. 14 D. 15
Q. Monochromatic light of wavelength 5.30 × 10 –7m is incident normally on a diffraction grating. The first order
maximum is observed at an angle of 15.4° to the direction of the incident light. What is the angle between the first
and second order diffraction maxima?

A. 7.6° B. 15.4° C. 16.7° D. 32.0°

Q. Monochromatic light of wavelength 590 nm is incident normally on a diffraction grating. The angle between the
two second-order diffracted beams is 43°. What is the spacing of the lines on the grating?
A. 0.87 µm B. 1.6 µm C. 1.7 µm D. 3.2 µm

Q. Monochromatic light is directed at a diffraction grating as shown.

Which diagram shows all the possible directions of the light, after passing through the grating, which give maximum

intensity?

Q. The three waves shown in each diagram have the same amplitude and frequency but differ in phase.
They are added together to give a resultant wave. In which case is the resultant wave zero?

Q. The diagram shows a view from above of a double slit interference demonstration
L is a monochromatic light source with a vertical filament. B is a barrier with two narrow vertical slits and S is a screen
upon which interference fringes form.

The intensity is I at a point on the screen where the centre of the fringe pattern forms.
What is the intensity, at the same point, when one of the slits is covered up?
 I I I I
A. B. C. D.
√2 2 2√ 2 4

Electric Field
Q. Which diagram could represent the electric field lines between two oppositely charged conducting surfaces?

Q. A potential difference is applied between two metal plates that are not parallel.

Which diagram shows the electric field between the plates?

Q. A small charge q is placed in the electric field of a large charge Q. Both charges experience a force F. What is the
electric field strength of the charge Q at the position of the charge q?

F F F
A. B. C. FqQ D.
Qq Q q
Q. A dipole is a pair of one negative charge and one positive charge of equal magnitude. The electric field of a dipole
is shown below. In which direction does the force act on an electron when at point X?
Two parallel, conducting plates with air between them are placed close to one another. The top plate is given a
negative charge and the bottom one is earthed.
Which diagram best represents the distribution of charges and the field between the plates?

Q. Which path shows a possible movement of an electron in the electric field shown?

Q. Two large horizontal metal plates are separated by 4 mm. The lower plate is at a potential of –80V.

Which potential should be applied to the upper plate to create an electric field of strength 60 000Vm–1 upwards in
the space between the plates?

A. –320V B. –160V C. +160V D. +320V

Q. Three parallel metal plates of the same area are fixed with a separation of 2.0cm between the top plate and the
centre plate, and 1.0cm between the centre plate and the bottom plate. The top plate is held at a potential of +500V,
the middle plate at +200V and the bottom plate is earthed, as shown.

magnitude of force on an electron at X

What is the value of the ratio ?
magnitude of force on an electronat y
A. 0.75 B. 1.00 C. 1.25 D. 1.50

Q. The path of an electron with initial speed v in the uniform electric field between two parallel plates is shown.

The vertical deflection x is measured at the right-hand edge of the plates. The distance between the plates is halved.
The potential difference between the plates remains the same. What will be the new deflection of the electron with
the same initial speed v?

A. x B. 2x C. 2x D. 4x

Q. A positive charge experiences a force F when placed at point X in a uniform electric field. The charge is then moved
from point X to point Y. Distances r and s are shown on the diagram.
What is the change in the potential energy of the charge?

A. decreases by Fs B. increases by Fs C. decreases by Fr D. increases by F

Q. The diagram shows the path of a charged particle through a uniform electric field, having vertical field lines.

What could give a path of this shape?

A. a positive charge travelling left to right in a field directed downwards

B. a positive charge travelling right to left in a field directed downward
C. a negative charge travelling right to left in a field directed upwards
D. a negative charge travelling left to right in a field directed downwards

Q. Electrons are accelerated and then directed into the uniform electric field between two parallel plates in a vacuum.

What best describes the shape of the path followed by the electrons in the field?

A. a downwards curve along a line that is part of a circle

B. a downwards curve along a line that is not part of a circle
C. an upwards curve along a line that is part of a circle
D. an upwards curve along a line that is not part of a circle

Q. The diagram shows a vertical uniform electric field in a vacuum.

An electron gun injects a beam of electrons horizontally into the field. Which
changes, if any, have occurred to the path and speed of the electrons by the time
the beam leaves the field?

Q. In the diagram, the shaded area represents a uniform electric field directed away from the observer (at right-
angles into the plane of the paper).

A horizontal beam of electrons enters the field, travelling from left to right. In which direction is this beam deflected
by the field?

A. upwards (in the plane of the paper) C. away from the observer
B. downwards (in the plane of the paper) D. towards the observer

Q. The diagram shows an electron, with charge e, mass m, and velocity v, entering a uniform electric field of strength E.
The direction of the field and the electron’s motion are both horizontal and to the right. Which expression gives the
distance x through which the electron travels before it stops momentarily?

mv mv m v2 mv 2
A. x= B. x= C. x= D. x=
E Ee 2E 2 Ee
Q. Before a thunderstorm, the hairs on your head sometimes stand on end.
A hair with mass 0.50mg and charge 1.0pC is supported by a force due to an electric field. Ignore any forces other
than the weight of the hair and the electric force. What is the electric field strength?

A. 4.9 × 103NC–1 B. 4.9 × 105NC–1 C. 4.9 × 106NC–1 D. 4.9 × 109NC–1

Electric Current
Q. A thick copper wire is connected to a thin copper wire in series with a cell, as shown

What is significantly less in the thick wire than in the thin wire?

A. the charge passing a point per unit time B. the drift speed of the electrons
C. the number density of the free electrons D. the number of free electrons passing a point per unit time

Q. The current in a component is reduced uniformly from 100mA to 20 mA over a period of 8.0s.
What is the charge that flows during this time?

A. 160mC B. 320mC C 480mC D. 640mC

Q. When there is no current in a wire, which statement about the conduction electrons in that wire is correct?

A. Electrons in the wire are moving totally randomly within the wire.
B. Equal numbers of electrons move at the same speed, but in opposite directions, along the wire.
C. No current is flowing therefore the electrons in the wire are stationary.
D. No current is flowing therefore the electrons in the wire are vibrating around a fixed point.

Q. The current in the circuit shown is 4.8A

What is the direction of flow and the rate of flow of electrons through the resistor R?

Q. There is a current in a resistor for an unknown time.

Which two quantities can be used to calculate the energy dissipated by the resistor?

A. the current in the resistor and the potential difference across the resistor
B. the resistance of the resistor and the current in the resistor
C. the total charge passing through the resistor and the potential difference across the resistor
D. the total charge passing through the resistor and the resistance of the resistor

Q. A 100Ω resistor conducts a current with changing direction and magnitude, as shown.

What is the mean power dissipated in the resistor?

A. 100W B. 150W C. 250W D. 400W

Q. The Atlantic torpedo is a large electric fish capable of generating a voltage of 220V between its tail and its head.
This drives a pulse of current of 15A lasting for a time of 2.0ms. The fish produces 200 pulses per second.
What is the average power output of the fish?

A. 33W B. 1.3kW C. 3.3kW D. 6.6kW

Q. What is a typical value for the order of magnitude of the resistivity of copper?
A. 10–13 Ωm B. 10–8 Ωm C. 10–3 Ωm D. 102 Ωm

Q. The graph shows the variation with potential difference V of the current I in components X, Y and Z.
Which row correctly identifies the components?

Metallic conductor at Semiconductor Filament lamp

constant temperature diode
A X Z Y
B Y X Z
C Y Z X
D Z Y X

Q. When a thin metal wire is stretched, it becomes longer and thinner. This causes a change in the resistance of the
wire. The volume of the wire remains constant.
Which graph could represent the variation with extension x of the resistance R of the wire?

Q. A conductor consists of three wires connected in series. The wires are all made of the same metal but have

different cross-sectional areas. There is a current I in the conductor.

Point Y on the conductor is at zero potential. Which graph best shows the variation of potential V with distance along
the conductor?
Q. The graph shows how the electric current I through a conducting liquid varies with the potential difference V
across it. At which point on the graph does the liquid have the smallest resistance?

Q. A wire RST is connected to another wire XY as shown.

Each wire is 100cm long with a resistance per unit length of 10Ω m –1. What is the total resistance between X and Y?

A. 3.3Ω B. 5.0Ω C. 8.3Ω D. 13.3Ω

Q. The diagram shows an electric pump for a garden fountain connected by an 18m cable to a 230V mains electrical
supply.

The performance of the pump is acceptable if the potential difference (p.d.) across it is at least 218V. The current
through it is then 0.83A. What is the maximum resistance per metre of each of the two wires in the cable if the pump
is to perform acceptably?

A. 0.40Ω m–1 B. 0.80Ω m–1 C. 1.3Ωm–1 D. 1.4Ωm–1

Q. An electric power cable consists of six copper wires c surrounding a steel core s. A length of
1.0km of one of the copper wires has a resistance of 10Ω and 1.0km of the steel core has a
resistance of 100Ω. What is the approximate resistance of a 1.0km length of the power cable?

A. 0.61Ω B. 1.6Ω C. 160Ω D.

610Ω

Q. Which statement about electrical resistivity is correct?

A. The resistivity of a material is numerically equal to the resistance in ohms of a cube of that material, the cube
being of side length one metre and the resistance being measured between opposite faces.
B. The resistivity of a material is numerically equal to the resistance in ohms of a one metre length of wire of that
material, the area of cross-section of the wire being one square millimetre and the resistance being measured
between the ends of the wire.
C. The resistivity of a material is proportional to the cross-sectional area of the sample of the material used in the
measurement.
D. The resistivity of a material is proportional to the length of the sample of the material used in the measurement.

Q. Which graph best represents the way in which the current I through a thermistor depends upon the potential
difference V across it?
Q. A relay is required to operate 800 m from its power supply. The power supply has negligible internal resistance.
The relay requires 16.0V and a current of 0.60A to operate.
A cable connects the relay to the power supply and two of the wires in the cable are used to supply power to the
relay. The resistance of each of these wires is 0.0050Ω per metre. What is the minimum output e.m.f. of the power supply?

A. 16.6V B. 18.4V C. 20.8V D. 29.3V

Q. A researcher has two pieces of copper of the same volume. All of the first piece is made into a cylindrical resistor P
of length x.

All of the second piece is made into uniform wires each of the same length x
which he connects between two bars of negligible resistance to form a
resistor Q. How do the electrical resistances of P and Q compare?

A. P has a larger resistance than Q. B. Q has a larger resistance than P.

C. P and Q have equal resistance. D. Q may have a larger or smaller resistance than P, depending on
the number of wires made.

Q. The resistance of a thermistor decreases significantly as its temperature increases. The thermistor is kept in air.
The air is at room temperature. Which graph best represents the way in which the current I in the thermistor
depends upon the potential differenceV across it?

Q. An electrical component has a potential difference V across it and a current I through it. A graph of I against V is

drawn and is marked in three sections WX, XY and YZ.

In which ways does the resistance of the component vary within each of the three sections?

Q. A 110V d.c. supply is connected to a heater, a fuse and a switch, as shown.

Owing to a fault in the system, power is not supplied to the heater. A technician diagnoses the fault using a
voltmeter. He closes the switch and connects his meter between the positive supply terminal S+ and the fuse
terminal F2. The voltmeter reads 110V. Which diagnosis is correct?
A. The fuse has melted.
B. The fuse has not melted and there is a short circuit in the heater.
C. The fuse has not melted and there is no path for current through the heater.
D. The fuse has not melted and the switch has operated correctly.

Q. The diagram shows a graph.

For a uniform metallic wire, what could the graph not represent?

Q. A small electric motor is mounted on a bench, as shown. The motor is connected to a 6.0V
supply and the current in the motor is 0.50A. The motor is 50% efficient. What is the time
taken to lift a mass of 200 g up through a height of 90cm?

A. 0.59s B. 0.85s C. 1.2s D. 2.7s

Q. A 2Ω resistor and a 4Ω resistor are connected to a cell.

Which graph shows how the potential V varies with distance between X and Y?

Q. The diagram shows a length of track from a model railway connected to a battery, a resistor and a relay coil.

With no train present, there is a current in the relay coil which operates a switch to turn on a light. When a train
occupies the section of track, most of the current flows through the wheels and axles of the train in preference to the
relay coil. The switch in the relay turns off the light. Why is a resistor placed between the battery and the track?

A. to limit the heating of the wheels of the train

B. to limit the energy lost in the relay coil when a train is present
C. to prevent a short circuit of the battery when a train is present
D. to protect the relay when a train is present
Q. A battery has an e.m.f. of 3.0V and an internal resistance of 2.0Ω.

The battery is connected to a load of 4.0Ω. What are the terminal potential difference V and
output power P?

Q. A student found two unmarked resistors. To determine the resistance of the resistors, the
circuit below was set up. The resistors were connected in turn between P and Q, noting the
current readings. The voltage readings were noted without the resistors and with each
resistor in turn.

The results were entered into a spreadsheet as shown.

The student forgot to enter the column headings. Which order of the headings would be correct?