KONCPT NEET PG

GRAND TEST MAY 6, 2020

Total Questions: 200

Part 1 (50 questions)

1. Groove sign is seen in?

a. LGV
b. Syphilis
c. Chancroid
d. Donovanosis
2. Donovanosis is produced by?
a. Hemophilus ducreyi
b. Leishmania donovani
c. Treponema pallidum
d. Klebsiella granulomatis
3. What does the lines of Blaschko represent?
a. Lines of embryological development
b. Lines along blood vessels
c. Lines along lymph vessels
d. Lines along nerves
4. What is the probable diagnosis in a child presenting with fever and multiple
skin lesions over face and histopathology showing neutrophilic infiltrate of the
dermis?
a. Erythema multiforme
b. Fixed drug eruptions
c. Sweet syndrome
d. Pyoderma gangrenosum
5. What is the probable diagnosis in a 7 yr old boy from Bihar with a 7 month
history of ill-defined slightly raised atrophic macules on the face?
a. Indeterminate leprosy
b. Pityriasis rosea

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c. Morphea
d. Pityriasis alba
6. Lucio reaction is seen in which of the following?
a. Cutaneous TB
b. Leprosy
c. Syphilis
d. Donovanosis
7. In a leprosy patient, smear showing 1 to 10 bacilli per field, Bacteriologic
Index is?
a. 1+
b. 2+
c. 3+
d. 4+
8. About Pityriasis Rosea which of the following statements is false?
a. Acute self-limiting eruption
b. Branny scales
c. Herald Patch
d. HHV-7 induced
9. A patient from Jaipur present with a erythematous lesion on the face with
central crusting, the most probable diagnosis is?
a. SLE
b. Cutaneous TB
c. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
d. Lichen planus
10. Which of the following anti acne medication causes blue black pigmentation
of nails?
a. Metronidazole

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b. Minocycline
c. Doxycycline
d. Azithromycin
11. What is the most common side effect of isotretinoin in acne vulgaris?
a. Diarrhoea
b. Teratogenicity
c. Fixed drug eruption
d. Cheilitis
12. Non scarring alopecia is seen in?
a. Lichen planus
b. Alopecia areata
c. Discoid lupus erythematosus
d. Dissecting folliculitis
13. Not true about skin tags:
a. Is associated with seborrheic dermatitis
b. Pedunculated
c. Most commonly seen in neck and axilla
d. Are premalignant
14. Pautrier Micro abscesses are seen in which of the following?
a. Psoriasis
b. Dermatitis herpetiformis
c. Mycoses fungoides
d. Lichen Planus
15. In which of the following dermatologic conditions Propranolol is used?
a. Lymphangioma circumscriptum
b. Port wine stain
c. Infantile Haemangioma
d. Melanoma

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16. Nagayama spots are a feature of?

a. Measles
b. Rubella
c. Erythema infectiosum
d. Exanthem subitum
17. Which of the following is not associated with atopic dermatitis?
a. Lisch nodules
b. Anterior subcapsular cataract
c. Keratoconus
d. Hertoghe’s sign
18. 3 days after unprotected intercourse a 27yr male presents with complaints of
burning micturition. There is no frank pus but on milking urethra some
discharge was collected. Gram’s stain of the discharge shows multiple gram
negative diplococci both within the polymorphs. The diagnosis is:
a. Mycoplasma urethritis
b. Chlamydia urethritis
c. Traumatic urethritis
d. Gonococcal urethritis
19. A patient of Parkinsonism presents with erythema and scaling over
widespread areas of body. The scales are likely to be
a. Greasy, yellow and semi- adherent
b. Adherent with follicular plugs
c. Silvery white and Auspitz sign positive
d. Furfuraceous and bran like

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20. A suspected case of pemphigus vulgaris is best investigated with

a. Gram stain
b. Tzanck Smear
c. Histopathology
d. Direct Immunofluorescence
21. Differential diagnoses of multiple hypopigmented patches of the trunk should
include
a. Lichen planus
b. Mastocytosis
c. Post Kala azar dermal leishmaniasis
d. Pityriasis rubra pilaris
22. The Ridley-Jopling classification for leprosy is based on which of the
following parameters?
a. Histopathological, clinical, bacteriological, therapeutic
b. Clinical, Histopathological, immunological, bacteriological
c. Histopathological, bacteriological, epidemiological, therapeutic
d. Epidemiological, Histopathological, bacteriological, clinical
23. Skin tuberculosis secondary to underlying lymph nodes is called
a) Lupus vulgaris
b) Scrofuloderma
c) Tuberculous verrucosa cutis
d) Tb gumma
24. All of the following diseases are caused by Herpes virus except:

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a) Kaposi varicelliform eruption

b) Cold Sores
c) Herpes Gestationis
d) Herpes Gladiatorum
25. All are true about Pediculosis corporis except?
a. Disinfection of clothes is the mainstay treatment
b. The excoriations seen are called Morbus errorum
c. The other name for this condition is Vagabonds disease
d. Lower abdomen shows blue coloured macules called Macula cerulean
26. Which of the following is a bacterial skin infection?
a. Pyoderma gangrenosum
b. Ecthyma contagiosum
c. Botryomycosis
d. Impetigo herpetiformis
27. A 30yr old male has a large, spreading and exuberant ulcer with bright, red
granulation tissue over the glans penis. No lymphadenopathy. Most likely
causative organism?
a. Treponema pallidum
b. HSV-2
c. Klebsiella granulomatis
d. Chlamydia trachomatis L1
28. What is Max–Joseph space associated with?
a. Psoriasis vulgaris

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b. Lichen planus
c. Pityriasis rosea
d. Parapsoriasis
29. Ground substance contains all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Glycosaminoglycans
b. Proteoglycans
c. Hyaluronic acid
d. Collagen
30. Terry nails are seen in?
a. Chronic Arsenic poisoning
b. Darier disease
c. Lichen planus
d. Liver Cirrhosis
31. Patch test is read after
a. 2 hours
b. 2 days
c. 2 weeks
d. 4 weeks
32. Keratoderma blenorrhagicum is a feature of which of the following diseases:
a. Behcets disease
b. Pyoderma gangrenosum
c. Sweets syndrome
d. Reactive arthritis

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33. Eccrine sweat glands are innervated by

a. Sympathetic fibers with Acetylcholine as neurotransmitter
b. Parasympathetic fibers with Acetylcholine as neurotransmitter
c. Sympathetic fibers with Adrenaline as neurotransmitter
d. Both Sympathetic & Parasympathetic fibers with Acetylcholine as neurotransmitter
34. About Acrodermatitis enteropathica which is not true:
a. Autosomal Recessive inheritance
b. Symptoms relieved by zinc supplementation
c. Triad to Diarrhea, dermatitis and dementia
d. Periorificial and acral distribution
35. A patient with Diabetes mellitus has noticed orange-yellow pretibial plaques
for the past few months. Examination reveals central atrophy with few vessels
passing over the lesion. What is the most probable diagnosis?

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a. Lupus vulgaris
b. Granuloma annulare
c. Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum
d. Leishmaniasis
36. All of the following are side effects of Clofazimine therapy except?
a. Peripheral neuropathy
b. Pigmentation
c. Ichthyosis
d. Subacute intestinal obstruction
37. The allergen implicated in Bindi dermatitis is ?
a) Hydroquinone
b) Mono Benzyl Ether of Hydroquinone
c) Para Tertiary Butyl Phenol
d) Para Tertiary Butyl Catechol
38. A 28-yr. old female presents with complaints of tightness of fingers. There is
also history of dysphagia. Most likely diagnosis
a) Dermatomyositis
b) Systemic Sclerosis
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Systemic lupus erythematosus
39. Inheritance of Incontinentia pigmentii is which above the following?
a. AD
b. AR

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c. XD
d. XR
40. A child presents with multiple, discrete, skin-colored, 1- to 3-mm dome-
shaped smooth papules on the face with central umbilication. The most likely
diagnosis is:
a. Verruca vulgaris
b. Verruca plana
c. Condyloma acuminata
d. Molluscum contagiosum
41. Hypopigmented lesions are common presentation of:
a. Pityriasis rosea
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Melanoma
d. Pityriasis versicolor
42. The treatment of choice for erythrodermic psoriasis is:
a. Methotrexate
b. Coal tar
c. Topical corticosteroids
d. Systemic steroids
43. All of the following are features of Norwegian scabies except?
a. Hyperkeratotic plaques
b. Itching is mild or absent
c. Parasites are difficult to demonstrate
d. Occurs with HIV

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44. Tinea Mannum affects which part of the body?

a. Nail bed
b. Nail plate
c. Glabrous dorsal skin of hand
d. Palmar skin of hand
45. Which direct immunofluorescence finding is incorrectly matched?
a. Pemphigus vulgaris: Fishnet pattern of IgG in intercellular spaces
b. Bullous pemphigoid: Linear IgG and C3 at dermo epidermal junction
c. Chronic bullous disease of childhood: Linear IgA at dermo epidermal junction
d. Dermatitis herpetiformis: Granular IgG deposits at the dermal papillary tips
46. Lichenified skin has all of the following features except
a. Thickening
b. Hyperpigmentation
c. Wheal on stroking
d. Accentuation of normal skin markings
47. Shagreen patch is
a. Neurofibroma
b. Neuroma
c. Collagenoma
d. Angiofibroma
48. White forelock is a feature of?
a. Piebaldism
b. Albinism

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c. Vitiligo
d. Contact Leukoderma
49. Mechanism of action of Secukinumab in Psoriasis:
a. Phosphodiesterase 4 Inhibitor
b. IL-17A Inhibitor
c. IL-17 Receptor Blocker
d. IL-12/23 Inhibitor
50. Aminoacid deficiency implicated in Pellagra
a. Glycine
b. Tyrosine
c. Tryptophan
d. Alanine

Part 2 (50 questions)

51. Which form of anaesthesia is preferred so that it can be extended and used in
post operative period to provide analgesia ?
a) Spinal anaesthesia
b) Caudal anaesthesia
c) Epidural anaesthesia
d) All

52. A patient was scheduled for removal of small sebaceous cyst in his back. He
wanted to go back home in the evening. What is the best agent combination that
can be given to him?
a) Thiopentone+fentanyl+pancuronium
b) Propofol+ morphine+ vecuronium
c) Ketamine+ fentanyl + atracurium
d)Propofol + fentanyl + mivacurium

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53. Post-operative vomiting is most common with which of the following agent?
a) Propofol b) Etomidate
c) Ketamine d) Thiopentone

54. Thiopentone dose for induction is?

a) 1-2 mg/kg b) 3-5 mg/kg
c) 6-8 mg/kg d) 8-10 mg/kg

55. Term anesthesia was coined by?

a) William Morton b) Wendell Holmes
c) JohnLundy d) Ralph Waters

56)Which of the following has longest duration of action?

a) Pancuronium
b) Vecuronium
c) Succinyl choline
d) Atracurium

57. Intra-arterial thiopentone injection leads to?

a) Ischemia b) Vasodilatation
c) Vomiting d) Hypertension

58. Anesthetic agent contraindicated in acute hepatitis is?

a) Sevoflurane b) Halothane
c) Ketamine d) Isoflurane

59. Site of action of vecuronium is?

a) Cerebrum b) Reticular formation
c) Motor neuron d) Neuro-muscular junction

60. Methemoglobinemia is associated with which anesthetic agent?

a) Procaine b) Prilocaine
c) Lignocaine d) Bupivacaine

61. Size of LMA for a 15kg child is?

a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4

62. Effects of d-tubocurarine are reversed by?

a) Atropine b) Neostigmine
c) Succinylcholine d) Barbiturates

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63. Malignant hyperthermia is associated with all of the following except?

a) Succinyl choline b) Dantrolene
c) Halothane d) lignocai

64.) A child who was scheduled for correction of squint surgery. His family history is
significant for muscular dystrophies. Which of the following agent should be avoided
while anaesthetizing?
a) Pancuronium
b) Atracurium
c) Succinyl choline
d) Rocuronium

65. Most cardiotoxic local anesthetic agent is?

a) Lignocaine b) Procaine
c) Mepivacaine d) Bupivacaine

66. Which one of the lead is more specific to find ischemic changes?
a) Lead 2
b) Lead 3
c) Lead V5
d) Lead 1

67. Anesthetic agent of choice in asthma patient is?

a) Thiopentone b) Methexitone
c) Ketamine d) Propofol

68. Cormack lehrnane grading is used for

a) Assesing mouth opening for intubation
b) Assesing for C.spine mobility
c) Grading on visibility of vocal cords based on laryngoscopy
d) none

69. Which circuit is best for controlled ventilation?

a) Jackson Rees modification of Ayre's T piece
b) Mapleson A or Magill's circuit
c) Mapleson C or water's to & fro canister
d) Bain's circuit

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70. MAC stands for?

a) Minimum alveolar concentration
b) Minimal analgesic concentration
c) Minimal anesthetic concentration
d) Maximum alveolar concentration

71. Anesthetic agent which can lead to bone marrow depression is?
a) Halothene b) N20
c) Ether d) Isoflurane

72. Which of the following agent is associated with maximum histamine release?
a) d-Tubocurarine b) Cisatracurium
c) Pancronium d) Rocuronium

73. CNS affection of a local anesthetic agent leads to?

a) Convulsion b) Perioral numbness
c) Depression d) All of the above

74. American anesthetic association says that clopidogrel should be withheld how many
days before surgery?
a) 1 day b) 1 week
c) 3 weeks d) 4 weeks

75. Mallampatti's classification is for?

a) Mobility of cervical spine
b) Mobility of atlanto axial joint
c) Assessment of free rotation of neck before intubation
d) Inspection of oral cavity before intubation

76. Soda lime circuit should not be used with which of the following agent?
a) Ether b) Halothane
c) Trilene d) NzO

77. Blue cylinder with blue and white collar is for?

a) Oxygen b) Air
c) Nitrogen d) Entonox

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78. A patient met with road traffic accident, and he is unconscious. Immediately
paramedics arrive and want to intubate the patient. What is the best position to
intubate?
a) Turn patient to lateral side and intubate
b) Turn patient to supine and intubate
c) Turn patient to supine and stabilize his upper body and intubate
d) Turn patient to supine and stabilize his neck and intubate

79. A patient with normal succinylcholine metabolism will have Dibucaine number
between?
a) 20-30 b) 40-45
c) 50-60 d) 70-80

80. Succinylcholine is contraindicated in?

a) Hyperkalemia b) Hypokalemia
c) Hypercalcemia d) Hypocalcemia

81. Bispectral index is used in?

a) To know the potency of general anesthesia
b) To know the speed of induction
c) To monitor the depth of general anesthesia
d) None of the above

82. Safest anesthetic agent in porphyria patient is?

a) Pentazocine b) Etomidate
c) Propofol d) Thiopentone

83. Local anesthetic act by?

a) Na+ channel inhibition
b) Ca++ channel inhibition
c) Mg++ channel inhibition
d) K+ channel inhibition

84. Inhalational anesthetic agent of choice in children is?

a) Sevoflurane b) Methoxyflurane
c) Desflurane d) Isoflurane

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85. Anesthetic agent leading to bradycardia is?

a) Pancuronium b) Vecuronium
c) Atracurium d) Propofol

86. Muscle relaxant associated with increased ICP is?

a) Mivacurium b) Atracurium
c) Suxamethonium d) Vecuronium

87. Which of the following agents used to prolong the duration of action of local
anaesthetics?
a) Addition of NaHCO3- to it.
b) Addition of adrenaline to it
c) Addition of fellypressin to it.
d) All the above

88. Anesthetic of choice for day care procedures is?

a) Morphine b) Ketamine
c) Propofol d) Diazepam

89. Type E circuit is used for?

a) Spontaneous ventilation
b) Controlled ventilation
c) Children
d) An used for all of the above indications

90. Ketamine is contraindicated in?

a) Status asthmaticus
b) Obstetric hemorrhage
c) Glaucoma
d) Shock

91. Anesthetic that can be given on full stomach is?

a) Thiopentone b) Methohexitone
c) Etomidate d) Ketamine

92. Hypotension following spinal anesthesia can be best prevented by?

a) Preloading with colloids
b) Using small size needle

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c) Preloading with crystalloids

d) All of the above

93. which of the following is included in composition of sodalime ?

a) NAHCO3 b) CACO3 c) CAOH d) H2CO3

94. Most common complication of central venous line insertion is?

a) Lung apex injury
b) Infection at catheter site
c) Cardiac tamponade
d) Pneumothorax

95. Lithium should be stopped how many days before anaesthesia?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
96. True about capnography is?
a) It cannot detect esophageal intubation
b) It cannot detect mechanical ventilation failure
c) It is used to detect correct intubation in patients
d) It cannot detect saddle embolism

97. Which of the following prevents aspiration?

a) LMA
b) Oropharyngeal airway
c) Nasopharyngeal airway d) Proseal LMA

98. Not true about CPR?

a) Chest compressions at 120/min
b) Ratio 30:2
c) Chest compression > 6 inches
d) Breathing rate 8-10 breaths/min

99. Appropriate post operative urine output is?

a) lml/min b) 2ml/min c) 3 ml/min d) 4ml/min

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100. Ideal inhalational induction agent of choice is?

a) Halothane b) Desflurane
c) Sevoflurane d) Isoflurane

Part 3 (50 questions)

101. Following appearance on Chest X ray is seen in:

a. Fallot’s Tetralogy
b. TAPVC
c. TGA
d. Ebstein’s anomaly

102. A 50 years old male presented in the emergency with high BP (160/100 mm Hg)
and heart rate of 120. A CECT is done which is given
below. What is the management of the given condition?

a. Surgical repair
b. Low molecular weight heparin
c. Beta blocker medication
d. Vitamin k inhibitors

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103. Identify the structure with marked borders:

a. Acromion process
b. Posterior 2nd rib
c. Anterior 2nd rib
d. Posterior 1st rib

104. Left border of heart is formed by all except:

a. Left ventricle
b. Left atrium
c. Pulmonary artery
d. Aortic knuckle

105. Empty thecal sac sign is seen in:

a. Arachnoiditis
b. Tethered cord syndrome
c. Vertebral osteomyelitis
d. Discitis

106. All of the following are seen in an X-ray of LV failure except?

a. Cephalization of blood flow
b. Kerley B lines

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c. Cardiomegaly
d. Oligemic lung fields

107. Linear filling defect on ERCP is seen in:

a. Bile duct stone
b. Chronic pancreatitis
c. Worm in biliary tree
d. Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis

108. Identify the pathology on following x-ray:

a. Pneumothorax
b. Pericardial effusion
c. Normal Chest X ray
d. Constrictive pericarditis

109. Radioisotope preferred for myocardial infarct imaging is:

a. Thallium-201
b. Tc-Tetrofosmin
c. Tc-Sestamibi
d. Tc-Pyrophosphate

110. A 40 years old male involved in a bike accident presents to emergency department
with cough, dyspnea and chest discomfort. On evaluation, BP was 130/80 mm Hg, Pulse

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rate 88/min and respiratory rate 22/min. On auscultation, there was decreased air entry
on one side with absent breath sounds. Pulse oximeter shows saturation of 98%. Chest
X-ray is given below. Most probable diagnosis is:

a. Left sided pneumothorax with lung collapse

b. Rupture of esophagus compressing the pericardium
c. Flail chest due to fracture of ribs 5, 6, 7 & 8
d. Normal chest X-ray
111.25 year old asymptomatic male underwent chest X-ray as part of routine health
checkup. Diagnosis?

a. Pneumomediastinum
b. Pneumoperitoneum
c. Toxic megacolon
d. Chilaiditi syndrome

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112. Best investigation for pericardial calcifications is:

a. MRI
b. Transesphageal echocardiography
c. X-ray
d. CT
113. Identify the modality

a. Barium meal follow through

b. CT enterography
c. MR enterography
d. Barium meal
114. Tigroid white matter on MRI Brain is seen in:
a. Pantothenate kinase deficiency

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b. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease
c. Neuroferritinopathy
d. Aceruloplasminemia
115. Following color doppler image on TVS is usually seen in:

a. Corpus luteum
b. Molar pregnancy
c. OHSS
d. Ca ovary

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116. Which artery is most commonly involved in bleeding in peptic ulcer?

a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 11
117. What orbit pathology is demonstrated here?

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a. Optic nerve glioma

b. Optic nerve meningioma
c. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
d. Retinoblastoma
118. Bear Paw sign is seen in:
a. Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
b. Extraperitoneal bladder rupture
c. Emphysematous pyelonephritis
d. Horseshoe kidney
119. Half-life of 18-Fluorine is:
a. 110 min
b. 6 hours
c. 13 hours
d. 5.2 years
120. I-131 emits:
a. Alpha raya
b. Gamma rays

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c. Beta + gamma rays

d. Alpha + beta rays
121. Hounsfield unit value of CSF in ventricles is:
a. -1000 HU
b. -100 HU
c. 0 HU
d. 50-60 HU
122. Selenium methionine scan is used in:
a. Parathyroid adenoma
b. Pancreatic carcinoma
c. Bone metastasis
d. Meckel’s diverticulum
123. Iodine : Particle ratio is maximum for:
a. Ionic monomers
b. Ionic dimers
c. Non-ionic dimers
d. Non-ionic monomers
124. A 22 year old woman presents to casualty with history of RTA with complaint
of LUQ abdominal pain. Her BP is 110/70, PR is 85 bpm and respiratory rate is
24/min. The best investigation to establish a diagnosis is:
a. 4-quadrant FAST
b. FAST + eFAST
c. CECT Abdomen
d. Diagnostic tap of abdomen

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125. Probably benign lesion comes under which BIRADS staging?

a. BIRADS 2
b. BIRADS 3
c. BIRADS 4
d. BIRADS 1
126. What is the diagnosis based on the barium swallow image shown below?

a. Achalasia cardia
b. Schatzki ring
c. Ca esophagus
d. Hiatus hernia

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127. A person has an injury in the forefinger with glass and is suspected to have a
retained piece of glass in his finger. What is the first investigation you will do?
a. MRI
b. CT
c. Plain Radiograph
d. USG
128. Humming bird sign is seen in:
a. Progressive supranuclear palsy
b. Multiple system atrophy
c. TB meningitis
d. Creutzfeld Jacob disease
129. A 14 year old boy presents with headache and visual disturbances. CT image is
shown. What is the likely diagnosis?

a. Pituitary apoplexy
b. Craniopharyngioma
c. Glioblastoma multiforme
d. Astrocytoma

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130. Identify the given X-ray image.

a. Cervical rib
b. Costochondritis
c. Spondylolisthesis
d. Fracture 2nd rib
131. The relationship of femoral artery, femoral vein and saphenous vein at
saphenofemoral junction is known as:
a. Mickey mouse sign
b. Stemmers sign

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c. Tillaux sign
d. String sign
132. A 52 year old woman presents with exertional dyspnea and recurrent transient
ischemic attacks. She gives history of significant weight loss over last 6 months. CT
image is shown. Identify the diagnosis.

a. Right atrial myxoma

b. Left atrial myxoma
c. RV Rhabdomyoma
d. LV thrombus
133. Occipitomental view is known as?
a. Water’s view
b. Caldwell’s view

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c. Pierre’s view
d. Rhese view

134. Identify the diagnosis on this plain abdominal X-ray.

a. Pneumoperitoneum
b. Chronic pancreatitis
c. Renal calculus
d. Acute appendicitis
135. Posterior acoustic shadowing is seen in:
a. Air
b. GB calculus
c. Calcification
d. All of the above

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136. An elderly patient presented with severe headache and neck rigidity. NCCT is
shown below. What is the diagnosis?

a. SDH
b. EDH
c. SAH
d. Meningitis
137. A 40 year old male with history of chronic steroid therapy for systemic
autoimmune disease, presents with acute onset pain in right hip. Investigation of
choice in this patient is:
a. X-ray Pelvis
b. CT scan
c. MRI
d. DEXA

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138. Iodine isotope used for Radioimmunoassay:

a. I-131
b. I-123
c. I-125
d. I-124
139. Flowing anterior longitudinal ligament ossification is seen in:
a. Ankylosing spondylitis
b. Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis (DISH)
c. Melorrheostosis
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
140. Identify the marked structure.

a. SVC
b. IVC

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c. Pulmonary artery
d. Thoracic duct
141. All lung carcinomas for diagnosis requires CECT thorax but MRI is useful in
which of the following?
a. Small cell lung carcinoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Carcinoid
d. Pancoast tumor
142. Hyperlucent hemithorax is due to all of the following except:
a. Rotated film
b. Swyer-James-Mcleod syndrome
c. Foreign body
d. Collapse
143. Perihilar opacities on chest X ray is seen in:
a. Sarcoidosis
b. Pulmonary edema
c. Asbestosis
d. Pulmonary fibrosis
144. Annual recommended radiation dose limit for general public is:
a. 20mSv
b. 2 mSv
c. 1 mSv
d. 5 mSv
145. Chief source of X-ray generation in diagnostic radiology:
a. Characteristic radiation

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b. Bremsstrahlung radiation
c. Compton scattering
d. Photoelectric effect
146. A 65 year old smoker with history of dry cough and dyspnea for past 2 years.
HRCT image is shown. What is the diagnosis?

a. NSIP
b. UIP
c. Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
d. Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis
147. Gray is a unit of:
a. Exposure dose
b. Radio-activity
c. Absorbed dose
d. Equivalent dose
148. Alanine peak on MR spectroscopy is seen in:

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a. Tuberculoma
b. Canavan’s disease
c. Meningioma
d. Medulloblastoma
149. Identify the imaging technique.

a. MRCP
b. ERCP
c. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram
d. T-tube cholangiogram
150. Tc-Pertechnetate is used in imaging of:
a. Bone metastases
b. Parathyroid
c. Stomach and salivary glands
d. Neuroendocrine tumors

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Part 4 (50 questions)

151. True about mooren’s ulcer

a) Bilateral involvement with severe pain more common in young adults
b) A more malignant ulcer is there in elderly
c) Central ulcer with peripheral spread is the commonest pattern
d) Concentrated antibiotics are given for treatment

152. Macular corneal dystrophy is diagnosed by which staining on histology

a) Congo red stain
b) Colloidal iron
c) Masson trichrome
d) Gential voilet

153. Phototherapeutic keratectomy is done by which laser

a) Femtosecond
b) Nd YAG double frequency
c) Excimer
d) Argon

154. Inverse hypopyon is seen in

a) Still’s disease
b) Mooren’s ulcer
c) Post cataract surgery
d) Post silicon filled eyes

155. Common infection in xerophthalmia

a) Staphylococcus
b) Streptococcus
c) Corynebacterium
d) Pnuemococcus

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156. True about gonococcal conjuctivitis

a) Most common is fomite spread
b) Prognosis depends upon corneal involvement
c) Intracellular gram negative bacilli are seen in scraping
d) Endocarditis and arthritis are always associated with it

157. Shifting fluid is seen in

a. RRD
b. TRD
c. Exudative RD
d. Retinal dialysis
158) Pupillary margin is supplied by
a) Central retinal artery
b) Circulus iridis major
c) Circulus iridis minor
d) Posterior ciliary artery

159) Not a manifestation of RB

a. Uveitis
b. Hyphema
c. Squint
d. Ptosis

160) True regarding congenital ptosis ( PGI type)

a.Lid lag
b. Lagophthalmos
c. LPS resection
d. Amblyopia can occur
e.Absent lid crease

161. A young male presented to your clinic with sudden onset of painful transient
loss of vision. On further check up you saw rubeosis iridis, few cells in AC, retinal
haemorhhage and dilated veins. Most common cause is

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a) CRAO
b) Cilioretinal occlusion
c) Ocular ischemic syndrome
d) CRVO

162)All are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except

a.Ptosis
b. Diplopia
c. Miosis
d. Outward deviation of eye

163. Refractive status is unaffected by

a) Axial length
b) Lens thickness
c) Anterior chamber dephth
d) Vitrectomy

164. Economic blindness is

a) VA< 3/60
b) VA< 6/60
c) VA<1/60
d) PL negative
165. Which of the following will have a high IOP
a) Suprachoroidal hemorrhage
b) Bleb leak
c) Hypotonic maculopathy
d) Papilledema
166. With the rule astigmatism is
a) Vertical meridian more flat
b) Vertical median more curved
c) Vertical diameter is more
d) + 90 at horizontal axis

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167. Least common complication seen after Nd YAG capsulotomy is

a) Corneal edema
b) Inflammation
c) CME
d) Glaucoma
168. Iris transillumination defects are seen in all except
a) Ocular albinism
b) Pigmentary glaucoma
c) Pseudoexfoliation syndrome
d) Plateau iris
169. False about adie pupil is
a) Slow to react
b) Absent deep tendon reflex
c) Hypersensitive to pilocarpine
d) Small pupil

Match the following

170
STRUCTURE IN EYE ORIGIN
1. Primary vitreous a. Mesoderm
2. Lacrimal gland b. Surface ectoderm
3. Ciliary ganglion c. Neural crest
4. Retinal pigment epithelium d. Neuroectoderm
a. 1- b, 2- c, 3- d , 4- a
b. 1- a, 2- b, 3- c, 4- d
c. 1- b, 2- d, 3- a, 4- c
d. 1-d, 2- a, 3- c, 4- b

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171.
PATHOLOGIES ORGANISM
1. Stye a. Chlamydia
2. Endophthalmitis b. Staph aureus
3. Nummular keratitis c. Staph epidermidis
4. Swimming pool conjunctivitis d. Herpes zoster
a. 1- b, 2- c, 3- d , 4- a
b. 1- a, 2- b, 3- c, 4- d
c. 1- b, 2- d, 3- a, 4- c
d. 1-d, 2- a, 3- c, 4- b

172.
PATHOLOGIES FINDINGS
1. Corectopia a. Cogan Reese syndrome
2. Iris nevus b. Acute uveitis
3. Sampaolesi line c. Essential iris atophy
4. Festooned pupil d. Pigmentary glaucoma
a. 1- b, 2- c, 3- d , 4- a
b. 1- d, 2- c, 3- a, 4- d
c. 1- b, 2- d, 3- a, 4- c
d. 1-c, 2- a, 3- d, 4- b
173 . Write the correct sequence of events in phaco surgery
a. Hyrdo -- nucleotomy -- cortex aspiration -- capsulorhexis
b. Hydro -- nucleotomy -- capsulorhexis -- cortex aspiration
c. Capsulorhexis -- nucleotomy -- hydro -- cortex aspiration
d. Capsulorhexis -- hydro -- nucelotomy -- cortex aspiration

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174. Correct sequence of progression of field defects in glaucoma

a. Ring scotoma – Seidel scotoma – baring of blind spot – temporal island
b. Seidel scotoma – baring of blind spot—Ring scotoma – temporal island
c. Temporal island -- Ring scotoma – Baring of blind spot – baring of blind spot
d. Baring of blind spot – Seidel scotoma – Ring scotoma -- Temporal island
175. Arrange the corneal layers form inner to out
a. Epithelium – Endothelium – Dua – Stroma
b. Endothelium – Dua – Stroma – Epithelium
c. Endothelium – Stroma – Dua – Epithelium
d. Dua – Endothelium – Stroma – Epithelium

176 All are true about soft contact lenses except (multiple answers)
a. Less chances of infections
b. Less tolerated
c. Tend to tear
d. More deposits as compared to semi soft lens

177. BRVO what is true

a. Laser done for macular edema
b. IT most common
c. Vision loss in <FC
d. Disc edema can be seen
178. Not true about endophthalmitis ( Multiple answers )
a. Late endophthalmitis cases may show IOL plaque
b. In drug abusers streptococcus is the most common cause
c. Systemic antibiotics are given
d. Vitrectomy is the 1st treatment

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179. True about chemical injuries of eye ( multiple answers)

a. Alkali burns are more severe
b. Topical steroids are given in 1st week of injury
c. High IOP can be there
d. Vit C acts are anti inflammatory agent

180. Assertion: Most cases of retinoblastoma are hereditary

Reasoning : bilateral presentation is seen mostly in hereditary cases
A. Both a and b are correct and b is correct explanation of a
B .Both a and b are correct and b is not correct explanation of a
C. A is correct and b is not
D. B is correct but a is not

181) Length of intraobital part of optic nerve is

a.1mm
b. 6mm
c. 20mm
d. 30mm

182) All are seen in papilledema after a head injury except

a.Blurring of disc margin
b. Hyperemia
c. RAPD
d. Filling of cup

183) Fundoscopy of a patient shows chalky white optic disc with well defined
margins. Retinal vessels and surrounding Retina appears normal. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis
a. Primary OA
b. Post – neuritic secondary OA
c. Glaucomatous OA
d. Consecutive OA

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184) Homonymous hemianopia is seen in all except

a.Optic nerve lesion
b. Optic tract lesion
c. Lesions of LGB
d. Visual cortex lesion

185) A middle aged female came to your OPD with breathlessness, joint pain and
blurred vision. On examination granulomatous uveitis was seen. What is the most
probable diagnosis
a. HLA B 27 uveitis
b. Ocular leprosy
c. Syphillitic uveitis
d. Ocular sarcoidosis

186) Which of the following statements is incorrect about phthisis bulbi

a. The intraocular pressure is increased
b. Calcification of the lens is common
c. Sclera is thickened
d. Size of the globe is reduced

187) False ablout episcleritis ( multiple ans)

a. Inflammation of sclera
b. Superficial vascular plexus involve
c. MC in elderly
d. Ocular complications are more as compared to scleritis

188) Ciliary staphyloma is seen after

a.High myopia
b. Episcleritis
c. Absolute glaucoma
d. Corneal ulcer
189) A person is able to read 6/6 . At what distance he should be able to read 6/ 36
a.6 mtr
b. 36 mtr
c. 60 mtr
d. 100 cm

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190) Pseudopapillitis is seen in

a. Myopia
b. Hypermetropia
c. Squint
d. Presbyopia

191) Shortening of 2 mm of axial length of eye ball causes

a.3D myopia
b. 6D myopia
c. 3D hypermetropia
d. 6D hypermetropia

192) Ophthalmoscope ( PGI types)

a. Holding in right hand to left eye of patient
b. Blurred nasal margin is normal
c. Vitamin A toxicity leads to disc swelling
d. Distant direct ophthalmoscopy done at 25 cm

193) All are uses of stenopic slit except

a. Finding best axis for cylindrical power
b. Fincham test
c. Corneal tatooing
d. Before peripheral iridectomy

194) Not a feature of NPCB

a.Aims at reducing backlog of cataract surgery
b. Strengthening RIO
c.Reach out approach
d. Increasing awareness about treatments

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195) Disease not included in vision 2020 programme

a.Corneal blindness
b. DR
c. Trachoma
d. ARMD

196) Mark the wrong statement regarding conjunctiva

a.Blood supply is through posterior ciliary artery
b. Pre auricular lymph node
c.Goblet cells are mucous secreting cells
d. Wolfring are accessory lacrimal glands

197) Which of the following step is not done by femtolaser in modern robotic
surgery
a.IOL implantation
b. Nucleotomy
c. Main incision
d. Anterior capsulotomy
198) True about concentration of proteins in senile cataract
a. More soluble
b. Less insoluble
c. Equal
d. None

199) Which of the following is highest in vitreous

a. Potassium
b. Sodium
c. Protein
d. Ascorbate

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200) Which of the following drug is not responsible for CME

a.Epinephrine
b.Latanoprost
c.Steroids
d.Tamoxifen

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