18/12/2020

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 NEET BOOSTER TEST SERIES (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 1

Topics covered :
Physics : Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom
Botany : The Living World, Biological Classification
Zoology : Animal Kingdom

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer : C1 C2

Technology Scientific principle
1. Which among the given statements may be
(1) Aeroplane – Archimede’s
incorrect?
principle
(1) Law of conservation of energy is valid across (2) Electron – Wave nature of
all domains of nature. microscope electron
(3) Fusion test – Magnetic
(2) The electromagnetic and weak nuclear forces
reactor confinement of
have been unified, and are seen as aspects plasma
of single electroweak force (4) Production of – Superconductivity
ultra high
(3) The strong nuclear force is strongest of all magnetic fields
fundamental forces
3. The angular diameter of near planet is found to
(4) Symmetry of nature with respect to be 2000′′ from earth. The distance of the planet
translation in time is equivalent to law of from earth is 1.6 × 1011 m. Then diameter of the
conservation of linear momentum planet is
2. In two columns C1 and C2 below which one is (1) 1.55 × 1010 m (2) 1.55 × 109 m
mismatched. (3) 2.4 × 109 m (4) 1.95 × 108 m

(1)
Test-1 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021

4. True length of a rod is 3.652 cm. In one 9. Van der Waal’s equation is
experiment, the measured value is found to be  n 2a 
3.6 cm while in another experiment the length is  P + 2  (V − nb ) =
nRT , where P, V, R, T and
 V 
determined as 3.48 cm then
n represents the pressure, volume, universal gas
(1) First measurement is more accurate and
constant, absolute temperature and number of
more precise
moles of the gas respectively. Then dimensions
(2) Second measurement is more accurate and a
more precise of  2  is of
b 
(3) First measurement is more accurate but less
(1) Force (2) Momentum
precise
(3) Energy (4) Pressure
(4) Second measurement is less accurate and
10. Which of the following pairs have same
less precise
dimensional formula for both the quantities?
5. Which among the following statements may be
(A) Resistance and inductance
incorrect?
(B) Kinetic energy and torque
(1) Systematic errors can be minimised by
improving experimental techniques (C) Planck’s constant and momentum

(2) Error arising due to imperfect calibration of (D) Pressure and Bulk modulus
instrument is a systematic error (1) (B) only
(3) The random errors are those errors which (2) (C) only
occur irregularly. (3) (B) and (D) only
(4) Least count errors always belong to category (4) (A), (B) and (D) only
of random errors 11. A person walks along a circular path of radius
6. The time period of oscillation of a simple 150 m at a constant pace. He complete one
L circle in 10 minutes. In any 5 minutes of duration,
pendulum is T = 2π . Measured value of
g his average velocity is
length is 40.0 cm known to 2 mm accuracy and (1) 2 m s–1 (2) 2π m s–1
time for 100 oscillation of a pendulum is found to π
be 80 s using a wrist watch of 1 second (3) m s−1 (4) 1 m s–1
2
resolution. The accuracy in determination of g is
12. A body is projected upwards with a velocity of 98
(1) 2% (2) 2.5% m/s. Its speed at a height of 196 m from the point
(3) 3% (4) 4.5% of projection is nearly (g = 9.8 m s–2)
7. 9.85 g of substance occupies volume of 1.2 cm3. (1) 40 m s–1
The density of the substance is (with significant (2) 76 m s–1
figures in view) (3) 96 m s–1
(1) 8.2 g cm–3 (2) 8.21 g cm–3 (4) Zero
(3) 8.20 g cm–3 (4) 8.208 g cm–3 13. A particle starting from rest has a velocity that
8. A physical quantity Q is related to three t
increases linearly with time v = , where v is
x y 2
observable quantity x, y, z as follows Q = .
z2 in m s–1 and t in s. The distance travelled in first
The percentage error in measurement of x, y, z four seconds is
are 5%, 4% and 1% respectively. The maximum (1) 9 m
percentage error in the quantity Q is (2) 4 m
(1) 9% (2) 7% (3) 8 m
(3) 5% (4) 3% (4) 32 m

(2)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-1

14. From a 100 m high tower, a ball is thrown 20. The position-time graph for two objects during
upwards with a speed of 15 m s–1 and another is motion is shown in diagram. The magnitude of
thrown vertically downward at same speed relative velocity of A w.r.t. B is
simultaneously. The time difference of their
reaching the ground will be (g = 10 m s–2)
(1) 2 s (2) 4 s
(3) 1 s (4) 3 s
15. A train of length 300 m travelling at 30 m s–1
crosses another train of length 200 m travelling at
20 m s–1 in opposite direction. Time taken by first
train to pass the second train is
(1) 10 s (2) 30 s
(1) 7.5 m s–1
(3) 50 s (4) 2 s
(2) 17.5 m s–1
16. Speed-time graph of a particle moving along a
fixed direction is as shown in figure. The distance (3) 2.5 m s–1
travelled by particle in first 7 s is (4) 20 m s–1
21. Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 35 m s–1.
Wind starts blowing after sometimes from south
to north with a speed of 12 m s–1. The speed with
which rain drops hit a boy waiting at open bus
stop, is
(1) 47 m s–1
(2) 37 m s–1

(1) 40 m (2) 75 m (3) 42 m s–1

(3) 61.5 m (4) 55.5 m (4) 43.7 m s–1

17. The position of a particle with respect to time 22. The position of a particle in two dimensional

along x-axis is given by x = 6t2 – t3, where x in r 4t i + 4t 2 j , where t is in
motion is given as =
metre and t in s. What will be position of particle second and r in metre, then direction of motion of
when it achieves maximum velocity? particle at t = 1 second with x-axis is
(1) 24 m (2) 32 m
(1) θ =tan−1(4)
(3) 9 m (4) 16 m
18. A car moving along a straight track with speed of (2) θ =tan−1(3)
108 km/h is brought to stop within a distance of
(3) θ =tan−1(2)
105 m. How long does it take for the car to stop
under constant retardation? (4) θ =tan−1(1/ 2)
(1) 7 s (2) 9 s 23. A particle starts from origin at t = 0 with velocity
(3) 10 s (4) 12 s of 2 i m s–1 and moves in x-y plane under a
19. The position of an object moving along x-axis is
constant acceleration of (3i + 2 j ) m s−2 . What is
given by x = 8.5 + 2.5 t2, x in metre and t in
second. The average velocity of object between t x co-ordinate of the particle where its y
= 2 s and t = 4 s is co-ordinate is 16 m?
(1) 10 m s–1 (1) 28 m
(2) 12 m s–1 (2) 32 m
(3) 15 m s–1 (3) 16 m
(4) 18 m s–1 (4) 48 m

(3)
Test-1 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021

24. The acceleration-time graph for an object in (1) Same direction

motion along a straight line is shown in figure. (2) Same magnitude
The corresponding position-time graph may be (3) Different magnitude
represented by
(4) Same magnitude and direction
29. The (x, y, z) co-ordinates of two points A and
B are given respectively as (0, 4, –2) and
(–2, 8, –4). The displacement vector from B to A
is
(1) 2i − 4 j + k

(2) −2i + 4 j − 2k

(3) 2i − 4 j + 2k

(1) (2) (4) 2i − 4 j − 2k

30. A river is flowing from west to east with speed of
4 m s–1. A swimmer can swim in still water at a
speed of 4 m s–1. If he wants to starts from a
(3) (4) point P on south bank and reach exactly a point
Q opposite on north bank, in what direction
should he swim?
25. Stopping distance of moving vehicle is directly (1) 30° east to north
proportional to (2) 45° east to north
(1) Square of its acceleration (3) Towards north
(2) Square of its initial velocity (4) He will never reach point Q by swimming
(3) Initial velocity 31. A stone is thrown horizontally from a cliff of
(4) Initial velocity and acceleration height 490 m above ground with initial speed of
15 m s–1. The speed with which stone will hit the
26. A ball A is dropped from a building of height
ground, is nearly (g = 9.8 m s–2)
78.4 m, simultaneously another identical ball B is
thrown up with speed of 49.0 m s–1. The relative (1) 98 m s–1 (2) 99 m s–1
velocity of ball B w.r.t. ball A, 3 second later is (3) 110 m s–1 (4) 15 m s–1
(g = 9.8 m s–2) 32. A football is kicked at a speed of 28 m s–1 in a
(1) 19.6 m s–1 (2) 29.4 m s–1 direction 30° above the horizontal. Its speed
1.4 second later is (g = 10 m s–2)
(3) 49.0 m s–1 (4) Zero
(1) 24.2 m s–1
27. At a metro mall, a girl walks up a stationary
(2) 16.4 m s–1
escalator in 120 second. If she remains
stationary on the escalator then the escalator (3) 9.6 m s–1
take her up in 4 minute. The time taken by her to (4) 22.6 m s–1
walk up on the moving escalator will be 33. An insect is moving on a circular path of radius
(1) 140 s (2) 200 s 25 cm. It moves steadily and completes 7
revolutions in 44 seconds. What is magnitude of
(3) 100 s (4) 80 s
  acceleration of its motion?
28. Two vectors A and B are inclined at an angle θ (1) 1 m s–2

have their resultant R which makes an angle α (2) 0.75 m s–2
  
with A . If the direction of A and B are (3) 1.5 m s–2
interchanged then the resultant will have (4) 0.25 m s–2

(4)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-1

34. A gun shot is fired horizontally above ground with 39. A ball is thrown from a point on ground at
initial speed of 300 m s–1. When it falls through a different angles with same speed of 30 m s–1 and
vertical distance of 5 cm, the horizontal distance has the same range in two cases. If h1 and h2 are
covered is (g = 10 m s–2) maximum heights attained in these cases then
(1) 15 m (2) 30 m (h1 + h2) is equal to (g = 10 m s–2)
(3) 32 m (4) 18 m (1) 45 m
35. A pebble is released into a well of depth h. The (2) 90 m
splash is heard after time t second of release. If v (3) 22.5 m
is velocity of sound in air, then
(4) 60 m
2
gh 2h h 40. A cyclist is riding with speed of 27 km h–1. As he
(1) t = (2)
= t +
v g v approaches a circular turn on the road of radius
90 m, he applies brakes and reduces his speed
h 2h 2h
(3) + (4) at a constant rate of 1 m s–2. What is the
g v v
magnitude of acceleration of the cyclist on just
36. Figure shows the position of particle moving entering circular turn?
along x-axis as a function of time. Which of the (1) 0.375 m s–2
following statement is correct?
(2) 1.625 m s–2
(3) 1.18 m s–2
(4) 1.72 m s–2
41. If the time of flight of a projectile is doubled, the
maximum height attained will be (initial speed
remains same)
(1) Doubled
(1) The particle has come to rest 3 times (2) Four times
(2) The maximum speed is at C (3) One fourth
(3) The average velocity for total period shown is (4) Remains same
positive 42. What is magnitude of resultant of three coplanar
(4) Velocity remains positive for first 4 second of forces F1 = 300 N at 0°, F2 = 400 N at 30°, F3 =
motion 400 N at 150° with x-axis?
37. A point from where a ball is projected is taken as (1) 700 N
origin of co-ordinate axis. x and y component of
(2) 500 N
its displacement are given by x = 6t and
y = 10t – 5t2, where x and y are in meter and t in (3) 1100 N
second. What is the range of this projectile? (4) 300 N
(1) 12 m 43. Taking horizontal direction as x-axis and vertical
(2) 18 m upwards as positive y-axis. A ball is projected
from origin with initial velocity of
(3) 60 m 
u 20 i + 10 j m s−1 . The magnitude of change
=
(4) 30 m
of velocity of ball till it reaches back the level of
38. What is angle of projection of a body with the
projection is (g = 10 m s–2)
4
horizontal when its horizontal range is times (1) 40 m s–1
3
the maximum height reached? (2) 20 m s–1
(1) tan–1 (2) (2) tan–1 (3) (3) 60 m s–1
(3) tan–1 (1/3) (4) tan–1 (1/2) (4) 0 m s–1

(5)
Test-1 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021

44. Acceleration-time graph for an object during 45. Position-time graph for four objects A, B, C, and
motion is shown below. D during their motion are shown in figures below.
In which case the object has constant negative
acceleration throughout its motion.

A. B.

In which time duration, magnitude of change of

C. D.
velocity will be maximum?
(1) t = 0 till t = 10 s
(2) t = 10 s till t = 18 s
(1) A (2) C
(3) t = 18 s till t = 20 s
(3) D (4) B
(4) More information is required

CHEMISTRY

46. Number of atoms present in 0.2 g molecule of 51. What is the mass of the precipitate formed when
H2SO4 is (NA represents Avogadro’s number) 50 ml of 20.8% (w/v) solution of BaCl2 is mixed
(1) 1.4 (2) 1.4 NA with 50 ml of 14.2 % (w/v) Na2SO4 solution? (g
atomic mass of barium = 137 g mol–1)
(3) 2.8 (4) 2.8 NA
(1) 10 g (2) 11.65 g
47. Molarity of the solution in which 4 g NaOH is
(3) 23.3 g (4) 5.825 g
present in 250 ml solution, is
52. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form
(1) 0.4 M (2) 0.2 M
two compounds XY and X2Y3. When 0.1 mol of
(3) 0.3 M (4) 0.8 M XY weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X2Y3 weighs
48. Volume of water added to convert 0.5 L aqueous 12 g, then the atomic weights of X and Y
solution of 0.3 M glucose into 0.2 M glucose, is respectively are

(1) 0.75 L (2) 0.5 L (1) 50, 50 (2) 20, 80

(3) 0.25 L (4) 0.4 L (3) 60, 40 (4) 30, 70

53. 4 g of calcium is burnt with 0.64 g of oxygen gas
49. In an aqueous solution, mole fraction of C6H12O6
in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in
is 0.2. Molality of this solution is
excess and how much?
(1) 11.33 m
(1) Ca, 1.2 g (2) Ca, 2.4 g
(2) 13.89 m
(3) Ca, 3.2 g (4) O2, 0.32 g
(3) 26.55 m 54. Volume occupied by one molecule of a liquid
(4) 1.75 m (density of liquid = 1.2 g cm–3 and molar mass of
50. If phosphoric acid (H3PO4) on reaction with liquid is 60 g mol–1) will be
NaOH forms Na2HPO4; then equivalent mass of (1) 3 × 10–24 cm3
phosphoric acid in the reaction will be (2) 3.33 × 10–24 cm3
(1) 50 (2) 49 (3) 8.33 × 10–23 cm3
(3) 98 (4) 196 (4) 8.33 × 10–29 cm3

(6)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-1

55. What volume of air measured at 0°C and 1 atm, 63. If 1.5 L of 0.4 M NaOH solution is mixed with
is needed to burn completely 1 L of butane gas another 2 L of 0.3 M NaOH solution, then final
(C4H10) measured under the same conditions? molarity of resultant solution is
(Assume air has 20% oxygen) (1) 0.02 M (2) 0.34 M
(1) 16.5 L (2) 3.25 L (3) 0.04 M (4) 0.93 M
(3) 32.5 L (4) 1.65 L 64. From 230 mg of N2O4, x molecules are removed,
56. If percentage abundance of three isotopes of an 5 × 10–4 mole of N2O4 is left, then x will be
atom A of atomic masses 20, 18 and 22 (1) 2 × 10–3 (2) 1.2 × 1021
respectively are 95%, 4% and 1%, then the
(3) 4 × 10–3 (4) 2.4 × 1021
weighted average atomic mass of the naturally
occurring element A will be 65. If x g of metal sulphate contains y g of metal,
then equivalent mass of metal will be
(1) 15 amu (2) 16.5 amu
48 x 48 y
(3) 19.94 amu (4) 21.34 amu (1) (2)
y (x + y)
57. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 73.5%
H2SO4 by mass and has a density of 1.2 g ml–1. 48 x 48 y
(3) (4)
Volume of this acid solution required to form x−y x−y
0.81 L of 2 M H2SO4 is 66. Concentration term which depends on
(1) 120 ml (2) 150 ml temperature, is
(3) 180 ml (4) 90 ml (1) Molality (2) Mole fraction
58. The total number of valence electrons in 4.8 g of (3) % w/v (4) % w/w
O2– ion is (NA is Avogadro’s number) 67. In a compound, mass of carbon present is four
(1) 0.2 NA (2) 0.3 NA times of hydrogen while mass of oxygen present
is 1.5 times of carbon. Empirical formula of the
(3) 2 NA (4) 2.4 NA
compound will be
59. Change in volume when 200 ml HI decomposed
(1) C4H2O
on gold surface into H2(g) and I2(g) is
(2) C8H16O
(1) Increase by 20 ml
(3) C8H24O9
(2) Increase by 100 ml
(4) C8H30O2
(3) Zero
68. 30 g of a calcium carbonate sample decomposes
(4) Decreased by 50 ml
on heating to give 12 g calcium oxide. What will
60. In vulcanised rubber, sulphur is present by be the percentage purity of calcium carbonate in
0.016% by weight, then minimum molecular the sample? (At. Wt. Ca = 40)
weight of vulcanised rubber will be
(1) 40% (2) 71.4%
(1) 2 × 104 (2) 2 × 105
(3) 52.2% (4) 24.2%
(3) 1 × 104 (4) 4 × 105
69. Which set of orbitals will have electron density
61. Mole fraction of urea in aqueous solution of 10% along the axes?
by mass of urea, is
(1) px, py (2) dxy, dyz
(1) 0.079 (2) 0.032
(3) dyz, dzx (4) dx2 − y2 ,dxy
(3) 0.095 (4) 0.735
70. Maximum number of electrons that can fit in the
62. Number of significant figures in the addition of
3.24, 4.263 and 4.3 is orbital(s) for which n = 4 and  = 1?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 4 (2) 10

(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 6 (4) 14

(7)
Test-1 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021

71. Among the following the orbital angular moment 79. If the energy of second Bohr orbital of Li2+ ion
of which orbital will be highest? is –x kJ/mol then energy of third Bohr orbit of
(1) 2 s (2) 3p Be3+ ion (in kJ/mol) will be

(3) 5 p (4) 3d 64
(1) –64 x (2) − x
9
72. If the uncertainity in position is 4 times of
uncertainity in momentum then uncertainity in 64
(3) –2x (4) − x
velocity is 81

1 h 1 h 80. Select the orbital which will be filled first (in

(1) (2) multielectron species)
2 π 2m π
(1) 6s (2) 4f
1 h 1 h2
(3) (4) (3) 3d (4) 5p
4m π 4m π
81. Which of the following species is isoelectronic
73. Correct set of quantum numbers for last electron with CO?
in potassium atom is
(1) NO (2) CN–
(1) n = 4,  = 1, m = 0, s = +1/2
(3) O2+ (4) N2+
(2) n = 4,  = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2 82. If the energy given by photons to a metal is 40%
higher than its threshold energy then maximum
(3) n = 3,  = 1, m = 0, s = +1/2
kinetic energy of photoelectrons will be
(4) n = 4,  = 0, m = –1, s = +1/2 (1) 4 times of work function
(2) 0.286 times of energy of photons
74. Among the following which transition in the
hydrogen atom will give rise to the highest (3) 0.5 times of energy of photons
energetic photon? (4) 0.75 times of work function
(1) n = 6 to n = 5 (2) n = 5 to n = 4 83. An ion Mx+ (atomic number of 27) has magnetic
moment equal to 3.87 BM. The value of x is
(3) n = 4 to n = 3 (4) n = 3 to n = 1
equal to
75. de-Broglie wavelength associated with a
(1) 2 (2) 3
microscopic particle of 10–20 mg mass and having
speed of 50 m/s, is (h = 6 × 10–34 J-s) (3) 4 (4) 6

(1) 12 Å (2) 120 Å 84. If radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom is x Å then
wavelength associated with electron in 3rd orbit of
(3) 20 Å (4) 200 Å
He+ ion is
76. The radius ratio of 3rd orbit of Li2+ ion to 4th orbit
(1) 2πx (2) 4πx
of Be3+ ion is
(3) 3πx (4) 6πx
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
85. Series limit wavelength of Paschen series in H-
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 1 : 3
atom is
77. Number of spectral lines of Balmer series
(1) 9R (2) R/9
obtained when electrons are de-excited from nth
shell to ground state in sample of H-atoms is (3) 9/R (4) 81R

(1) n – 1 (2) n – 2 86. Correct order of energy of 2s orbital in the

following monovalent cationic species is
(3) n – 3 (4) n – 4
(1) E2s (Be+) > E2s (Mg+) > E2s (Ca+) > E2s (Sr+)
78. Which one of the following ion has electronic
configuration of [Ar] 3d8? (2) E2s (Be+) > E2s (Sr+) > E2s (Ca+) > E2s (Mg+)

(1) Cr3+ (2) Fe2+ (3) E2s (Sr+) > E2s (Ca+) > E2s (Mg+) > E2s (Be+)

(3) Co3+ (4) Ni2+ (4) E2s (Sr+) > E2s (Be+) > E2s (Mg+) > E2s (Ca+)

(8)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-1

87. Number of radial and angular nodes associated 89. Correct order of frequency of electromagnetic
with 3dxy orbital respectively are radiations is
(1) 2, 2 (1) γ-rays > X-rays > UV > IR > Microwave
(2) 0, 2 (2) γ-rays > UV > IR > Microwave > X-rays
(3) 3, 2 (3) X-rays > UV > IR > Microwave > γ-rays
(4) 2, 1 (4) X-rays > IR > Microwave > γ -rays > UV
88. Wave number (in cm–1)
associated with yellow 90. Select the correct statement among the following
radiation having wavelength of 6000 Å is
(1) s-orbital has one nodal plane
(1) 1.67 × 106
(2) p-orbital has one nodal plane
(2) 1.67 × 104
(3) d-orbitals have dumbbell shape
(3) 2.82 × 104
2
(4) 2.82 × 106 (4) f-orbitals are spherically symmetric
7

BOTANY
91. Defining feature exclusive to human beings is 96. According to binomial nomenclature, scientific
(1) Metabolism names
(2) Cellular organisation (a) Are generally taken from Latin language
(3) Self consciousness (b) Consist of two words
(4) Intrinsic growth (c) Have first word denoting specific epithet
92. A binomial epithet of a species includes all, The correct one(s) is/are
except
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(1) Genus name
(3) (a) and (b) (4) (b) and (c)
(2) Specific epithet
97. Three genera Datura, Petunia and Solanum
(3) Author name in abbreviated form share common vegetative and reproductive
(4) Sub species name characteristics. On this basis they are placed in
93. The common taxonomic category shared by both same
wheat and brinjal is (1) Order (2) Family
(1) Class (3) Class (4) Division
(2) Order
98. The taxonomic aid called store house of
(3) Division preserved plant specimens is
(4) Family (1) Flora
94. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. classification of (2) Herbarium
man.
(3) Botanical garden
(1) Family – Hominidae
(4) Manual
(2) Phylum – Mammalia
99. Keys are
(3) Order – Primata
(1) Used for identification of plants only
(4) Genus – Homo
95. Scientific names of prokaryotes are standardized (2) Based on contrasting characters
by (3) Collections of specimens of organisms
(1) ICBN (2) ICNCP (4) Useful to have complete description along
(3) ICNB (4) ICVCN with detail classification of an organism

(9)
Test-1 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021
100. _____ provide index to the plant species found in 106. Generally Nostoc lacks
a particular area. (1) Heterocysts
Choose the correct option to fill up the above (2) Gelatinous sheath
blank.
(3) Photosynthetic pigments
(1) Manual (2) Monograph
(4) Heterotrophic mode of nutrition
(3) Flora (4) Museum
107. All of the following are due to activities of
101. According to five kingdom classification system, heterotrophic bacteria, except
how many kingdoms do /does not include(s) any
(1) Conversion of milk to curd
autotrophic organism?
(2) Fixing nitrogen in pea
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) Antibiotic production
(3) 1 (4) 2
(4) Release of oxygen during metabolism
102. Mark these statements as true (T) or false (F)
and select the correct option. 108. Wall-less moneran is

A. In three domain system, all eukaryotes are (1) Anabaena (2) Mycoplasma
divided into two domains. (3) Halophiles (4) E. coli
B. Comma-shaped bacteria are called vibrio. 109. Flagella are absent in
C. Kingdom Monera shows the most extensive (1) Gonyaulax (2) Euglena
metabolic diversity. (3) Trypanosoma (4) Entamoeba
(1) A(T), B(T), C(T) (2) A(T), B(T), C(F) 110. Paramoecium does not have
(3) A(F), B(T), C(T) (4) A(F), B(F), C(T) (1) Gullet for taking up food
103. Which of the given statements is not true for (2) Two types of nuclei
methanogens?
(3) Cilia on surface of cell
(1) Responsible for production of biogas
(4) Silica shell on its surface
(2) Have different cell wall structure than that of
111. A. Slime moulds form fruiting bodies under
other bacteria
unfavourable conditions.
(3) Found in gut of several ruminants
B. Euglenoids may predate on smaller
(4) These are considered as true bacteria organisms.
104. “Chlorophyll a appeared first in the group called Read above statements and choose the option
A and pigments identical to higher plants are accordingly.
found in B . (1) Only A is correct
Complete above statement by choosing correct (2) Only B is correct
option for A and B. (3) Both A and B are correct
(1) A-Diatoms, B-Cyanobacteria (4) Both A and B are incorrect
(2) A-Purple bacteria, B-BGA 112. Fungus which causes white rust disease on
(3) A-Cyanobacteria, B-Euglenoids mustard leaves.
(4) A-Euglenoids, B-Golden algae (a) Is a sac fungus
105. Chief producers in oceans (b) Has coenocytic mycelium
(1) Have soap box like body (c) Lacks dikaryophase in its life cycle
(2) Are found in marine environment only The correct ones are
(3) Lack cell wall (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(4) Have flagella in their body (3) (a) and (c) only (4) All (a), (b), (c)

(10)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-1

113. The fungus called bread mould is 120. Select the wrong match.
(1) Mucor (2) Rhizopus (1) Zoospores – Asexual spores
(3) Penicillium (4) Yeast
(2) Conidia – Aplanospores
114. Match column I with column II and select the
correct option. (3) Sporangiospores – Endogenously
produced
Column-I Column-II
(4) Ascospores – Exogenously
a. Puccinia (i) Parasitic produced
phycomycetes asexual spores
b. Colletotrichum (ii) Club fungus 121. Members of Basidiomycetes lack
c. Albugo (iii) Smut fungus (1) Sex organs
(2) Plasmogamy and karyogamy
d. Ustilago (iv) Imperfect fungus
(3) Fruiting bodies
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(4) Meiospores
(2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
122. Read the following features.
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(a) Help in mineral cycling.
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (b) Lack karyogamy and meiosis
115. Edible members of Ascomycetes group are (c) Conidia are asexual spores.
(1) Agaricus and yeast Above given features are true for the member of
(2) Morels and truffles group
(3) Yeast and Ustilago (1) Ascomycetes
(4) Trichoderma and truffles (2) Basidiomycetes

116. Choose the odd one w.r.t. Basidiomycetes. (3) Phycomycetes

(1) Puffball (4) Deuteromycetes

123. Agaricus has/possesses
(2) Bracket fungi
(1) Edible fruiting bodies
(3) Puccinia
(2) Aseptate mycelium
(4) Claviceps
(3) Motile asexual spores
117. All of the following are means of vegetative
reproduction in fungi, except (4) Motile meiospores
124. Members of kingdom plantae
(1) Fission (2) Budding
(1) May include some prokaryotes
(3) Fragmentation (4) Regeneration
(2) Can be partial heterotroph
118. Which of the given fungus is used extensively in
biochemical and genetic work? (3) Lack cellulosic cell wall
(4) Always have equal lengths of diploid and
(1) Neurospora (2) Alternaria
haploid phases in their life
(3) Puccinia (4) Penicillium
125. Who called the extract of the infected plant of
119. Toadstools are tobacco as Contagium vivum fluidum?
(1) Known as common mushrooms (1) Stanley
(2) Edible mushrooms (2) Ivanowsky
(3) Members of Basidiomycetes (3) Beijerinck
(4) Unicellular (4) Pasteur
(11)
Test-1 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021
126. Bacterial viruses (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) only
(a) Have polyhedral head. (3) (b) and (c) only (4) All (a), (b) and (c)
(b) Usually possess dsDNA. 131. Who showed that viruses could be crystallised?
(c) Have 6 tail fibres. (1) Ivanowsky
The correct ones are (2) Leeuwenhoeck
(1) (a) and (b) only (3) Stanley
(2) (b) and (c) only (4) Randle
(3) (a) and (c) only 132. Choose the odd one w.r.t. viral diseases.
(4) All (a), (b) and (c) (1) Herpes
127. Choose the incorrect one for viroids. (2) Mumps
(1) Discovered by Diener (3) Small pox
(2) Smaller than viruses (4) Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease
(3) Have free DNA or RNA 133. A parasitic protozoan that has flagella is
(4) Can cause diseases in plants (1) Gonyaulax
128. Mutually beneficial relation between algae and (2) A malaria causing organism
fungi is (3) Amoeba
(1) Known as lichen (4) A sleeping sickness causing organism
(2) Easily found in air polluted area 134. Under unfavourable conditions bacteria
(3) Considered as a single organism reproduce by means of
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) Binary fission
129. Prions are causal organisms of (2) Spores
(1) Mad cow disease (3) Zoospores
(2) Potato spindle tuber disease (4) Sexual recombination
(3) Influenza 135. Linnaeus kept all the organisms algae, bacteria,
(4) Tobacco mosaic disease fungi, bryophytes, angiosperms together in single
kingdom Plantae because of the presence of
130. Prions are
(1) Eukaryotic cell
(a) Similar in size to viruses
(2) Chlorophyll
(b) Abnormally folded proteins
(3) Cell wall
(c) Infectious to humans only
(4) Locomotory structure
The correct one(s) is/are

ZOOLOGY
136. One of the representative of phylum (3) Apple snail, Cuttlefish, King carb
Echinodermata is (4) Earthworm, Hookworm, Roundworm
(1) Echinus (2) Ascidia 138. Metameric segmentation and true coelom are
(3) Balanoglossus (4) Pila characteristic of phylum
137. Which group of animals belong to the same (1) Annelida and Arthropoda
phylum? (2) Mollusca and Chordata
(1) Lancelet, Hagfish, Vulture (3) Aschelminthes and Annelida
(2) Dog, Cat, Starfish (4) Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda

(12)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-1

139. Reproduction only by sexual means is 144. Match the name of the animal (Column-I), with
characteristic of one characteristic (Column-II), and the
(1) Physalia (2) Adamsia phylum/class (Column-III) to which it belongs

(3) Pleurobrachia (4) Euspongia Column-I Column-II Column-III

140. What is true about Betta, Myxine and Chelone? (1) Corvus Poikilotherms Aves
(1) They all possess dorsal heart
(2) Vipera External ear Reptilia
(2) They all exhibit internal fertilisation and direct
openings are
development
present
(3) They all possess paired fins/limbs
(3) Panthera Notochord is Mammalia
(4) They all lack the capacity to regulate their
persistent
body temperature
throughout
141. Identify the given diagram and select the life
statement which is correct for it.
(4) Bufo External Chordata
fertilisation

145. Sexes are separate and fertilisation is internal in

all of the following organisms except
(1) Hippocampus
(2) Scoliodon
(1) It possess notochord from head to tail in both
(3) Psittacula
larval and adult stage
(4) Naja
(2) It has a pair of kidneys for excretion and
osmoregulation 146. Choose the mismatch.
(3) It exhibits bilateral symmetry and (1) Labeo – Sub-phylum
metamerism Chordata
(4) It belongs to phylum Chordata and super
(2) Salamandra – Super class Pisces
class Tetrapoda
142. Which of the following characteristic is shared by (3) Testudo – Division Agnatha
Penguin and Turtle? (4) Macaca – Sub-phylum
(1) Oviparity and indirect development Vertebrata
(2) Homoiothermy 147. Mantle cavity contains a structure ctenidia, which
(3) Pneumatic bones is helpful in respiration. It is a characteristic of
(4) Cranium and vertebral column is bony (1) Aedes (2) Echinus
143. Which of the following animal is correctly (3) Loligo (4) Salpa
matched with its zoological name and taxonomic 148. Which of the following characteristic features
category? hold true for the corresponding group of
(1) Angelfish – Pterophyllum, a animals?
class (1) A small group of Arthropoda
(2) Lamprey – Petromyzon, a worm-like marine
division animals with
organ-system
(3) Sawfish – Pristis, a genus level of
(4) Tree frog – Hyla, a species organisation

(13)
Test-1 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021

(2) The adults are Hemichordata 153. Choose the correct statement.
radially (1) Aquatic annelids like Pila possess lateral
symmetrical but appendages, parapodia, which help in
larvae are swimming
bilaterally (2) The body of arthropods are covered by
symmetrical calcareous shell
(3) Notochord Cephalochordata (3) In sponges, the body is supported by
extends from head skeleton made up of spicules or spongin
to tail region and fibres
is persistent (4) Hydra exhibits metagenesis
throughout their 154. Meandrina belongs to phylum
life
(1) Platyhelminthes
(4) Dorsal muscular Vertebrata (2) Ctenophora
heart with, two,
(3) Cnidaria
three or four
(4) Porifera
chambers
155. Which of the following statement is not correct
149. Which characteristic is not shared by
for Taenia?
hemichordates and chordates?
(1) Flame cells help in excretion and
(1) True coelom
osmoregulation
(2) Bilateral symmetry
(2) They absorb nutrients from host directly
(3) Organ system level of organisation
through their body surface
(4) True segmentation
(3) Hooks and suckers are absent
150. Which of the following characteristic is not
(4) Fertilisation is internal and development is
applicable to Antedon?
through many larval stages
(1) Complete digestive system with mouth on
156. Bioluminescence is the characteristic of
dorsal side and anus of ventral side
members of phylum
(2) Indirect development with free swimming
(1) Ctenophora (2) Mollusca
larva
(3) Annelida (4) Chordata
(3) Presence of water vascular system
157. Excretion takes place through Malpighian tubules
(4) Endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles
in the members of phylum which includes
151. How many animals given in the box belong to
(1) King crab (2) Earthworm
division Gnathostomata?
(3) Hookworm (4) Chiton
Doliolum, Branchiostoma, Clarias, Myxine,
Macropus, Salpa, Saccoglossus 158. Which of the following possess closed circulatory
system?
(1) Two
(1) Cucumaria
(2) Three
(2) Chaetopleura
(3) Four
(3) Aplysia
(4) Five
(4) Petromyzon
152. Mark the option in which all the mentioned
159. Which is common among Catla and Naja?
animals show external fertilisation?
(1) Balanoglossus, Labeo, Bufo (1) Viviparity

(2) Charcharodon, Scoliodon, Betta (2) Homoiothermy

(3) Ichthyophis, Myxine, Struthio (3) Internal fertilisation

(4) Hemidactylus, Pristis, Echinus (4) Scales on their body

(14)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-1

160. A are marine but migrate for B to fresh 166. Match the column-I with column-II and mark the
water. Choose the option that correctly fill the correct answer.
blanks A and B. Column-I Column-II
(1) Urochordates, metamorphosis
a. Pteropus (i) Possess beak
(2) Cyclostomes, spawning
b. Struthio (ii) 6-15 pairs of gill
(3) Coelenterates, metagenesis
slits
(4) Arthropods, moulting
c. Myxine (iii) Pinnae are
161. Compared to Amphioxus the Pheretima
present
(1) Possess notochord during embryonic
development d. Antedon (iv) Water vascular
system
(2) Possess heart in dorsal side of the body
(3) Possess true coelom and segmentation (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(4) Possess closed circulatory system (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
162. Select the organism where its mouth contains a (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
file-like rasping organ for feeding? (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) Nereis 167. Identify the statements as true (T) or false (F)
(2) Saccoglossus and select the correct option.
(3) Ophiura (i) Poriferans possess characteristic flagellated
(4) Sepia choanocytes.

163. Metamerism, enterocoelom and close circulatory (ii) Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomate and
system are characteristic of included parasitic as well as non-parasitic
roundworms.
(1) Ancyclostoma
(iii) All chordates possess notochord either
(2) Culex
throughout their life or during early embryonic
(3) Asterias life.
(4) Bungarus (iv) Most of the vertebrates do not possess jaws
164. Choose the mismatch. in their mouth.

(1) Protonephridia – Tunicata (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) Probocis – Hemichordates (1) T T F F

gland
(2) T T T F
(3) Visceral hump – Molluscs
(3) T F T F
(4) Corals – Coelenterata
(4) T F T T
165. Read the following statements and choose the
168. Which one is not related with coelenterates?
correct answer.
(1) Gastrovascular cavity
A. The members of Chondrichthyes are mostly
predaceous and possess powerful jaws. (2) Mesolea

B. True fishes possess paired fins. (3) Chidoblast

(1) Both statements are correct (4) Comb plates

(2) Both statements are incorrect 169. Choose the odd one w.r.t. bisexual animals.

(3) Only statement A is correct (1) Ctenoplana (2) Spongilla

(4) Only statement B is correct (3) Fasciola (4) Wuchereria

(15)
Test-1 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021
170. Identify the animal in the given diagram and 174. Members of which of the following phylums do
select the incorrect description about it not exhibit similar symmetry in their adult stage?
(1) Annelida, Arthropoda
(2) Arthropoda, Echinodermata
(3) Hemichordata, Chordata
(4) Mollusca, Aschelminthes
175. In which of the following phylums, most of the
members are asymmetrical?
(1) It possess two pairs of limbs
(2) It’s skin is moist and suitable for cutaneous (1) Coelenterata
respiration (2) Ctenophora
(3) It can live in aquatic as well as terrestrial (3) Platyhelminthes
habitat
(4) Porifera
(4) It’s alimentary canal opens to exterior by
176. Select the organism which is non-poisonous to
anus
humans?
171. Bony fishes possess all of the following features
except (1) Vipera (2) Krait
(1) Terminal mouth (3) Hemidactylus (4) Trygon
(2) Scales 177. Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular, in
(3) Three chambered heart all of following except
(4) Kidneys for osmoregulation and excretion (1) Ctenoplana (2) Gorgonia
172. Which of the following is incorrect for sea (3) Adamsia (4) Scypha
cucumber?
178. Which of the following phylum has organisms
(1) Belongs to phylum Echinodermata
with a soft body surrounded by an external
(2) Triploblastic and coelomate
calcareous shell?
(3) Possess water canal system
(1) Molluscs (2) Arthropods
(4) Undergoes external fertilisation
(3) Echinoderms (4) Hemichordates
173. Read the following statements and select the
correct option. 179. Heart pumps mixed blood in systemic aorta in
Statement (A) : Sponges exhibit cellular level of (1) Reptiles (2) Mammals
organisation and some division of labour occur (3) Aves (4) Fishes
among the cells.
180. What is not true about Balanoglossus, Pinctada
Statement (B) : When any plane passing
and Laccifer?
through the central axis of the body divides the
organism into two identical halves, it is called (1) All possess dorsal, hollow and single central
radial symmetry nervous system
(1) Both statements are correct (2) All possess bilateral symmetry
(2) Both statements are incorrect (3) All possess true coelom
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) All possess organ system level of
(4) Only statement B is correct organisation

  

(16)
Edition: 2020-21