This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “WiMAX”.

1. WiMAX stands for ___________

a) wireless maximum communication
b) worldwide interoperability for microwave access
c) worldwide international standard for microwave access
d) wireless internet maximum communication
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: WiMAX or worldwide interoperability for microwave access is a set of wireless
communication standards. It provides support for multiple physical layer (PHY) and Media Access
Control (MAC) options. It is based on IEEE 802.16 standards.

2. WiMAX provides ________

a) simplex communication
b) half duplex communication
c) full duplex communication
d) no communication
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: WiMax was developed to provide wireless broadband access to buildings. It can also be
used to connect WLAN hotspots to the Internet. It is based on IEEE 802.16 standards.

3. WiMAX uses the _________

a) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
b) time division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: WiMAX physical layer uses orthogonal frequency division multiplexing as it provides
simplified reception in multipath and allows WiMAX to operate in NLOS conditions.

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4. Which of the following modulation schemes is supported by WiMAX?

a) binary phase shift keying modulation
b) quadrature phase shift keying modulation
c) quadrature amplitude modulation
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: WiMAX supports a variety of modulation schemes such as binary phase shift keying
modulation, quadrature phase shift keying modulation, and quadrature amplitude modulation and
allows for the scheme to change on a burst-by-burst basis per link, depending on channel conditions.

5. WiMAX MAC layer provides an interface between ___________

a) higher transport layers and physical layer
b) application layer and network layer
c) data link layer and network layer
d) session layer and application layer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: WiMAX provides support for multiple physical layer (PHY) on the physical layer and Media
Access Control (MAC) options for higher layers to provide wireless broadband access to buildings.

6. For encryption, WiMAX supports _______

a) advanced encryption standard
b) triple data encryption standard
c) advanced encryption standard and triple data encryption standard
d) double data encryption standard
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Both advanced encryption standard and triple data encryption standard are block cipher
techniques and are popularly used in WiMAX and other applications for secure encryption.

7. WiMAX provides _______

a) VoIP services
b) IPTV services
c) Both VoIP and IPTV services
d) no IPTV services
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: IPTV can be transmitted over WiMAX, and relies on packet-switching to offer reliable
delivery. VoIP can be operated over a WiMax network with no special hardware or software.

8. Devices that provide the connectivity to a WiMAX network are known as _________
a) subscriber stations
b) base stations
c) gateway
d) switch stations
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Subscriber stations in WiMAX are transceivers (transmitter and receivers). They are used to
convert radio signals into digital signals that can be routed to and from communication devices. There is
a variety of types of WiMAX subscriber stations like portable PCMCIA cards and fixed stations that
provide service to multiple users.
9. WiMAX is mostly used for __________
a) local area network
b) metropolitan area network
c) personal area network
d) wide area network
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: WiMAX provides Wi-Fi connectivity within the home or business for computers and
smartphones. WiMAX network operators typically provide a WiMAX Subscriber Unit to do so. The
subscriber unit is used to connect to the metropolitan WiMAX network.

10. Which of the following frequencies is not used in WiMAX for communication?
a) 2.3 GHz
b) 2.4 GHz
c) 2.5 GHz
d) 3.5 GHz
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The 2.4GHz ISM frequency band is used for personal area network technologies such as
Bluetooth and hence is not suitable for WiMAX which is mostly used for Metropolitan Area Networks.

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Bluetooth”.

1. An interconnected collection of piconet is called ___________

a) scatternet
b) micronet
c) mininet
d) multinet
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Piconet is the basic unit of a bluetooth system having a master node and upto seven active
slave nodes. A collection of piconets is called scatternet and a slave node of a piconet may act as a
master in a piconet that is part of the scatternet.

2. In a piconet, there can be up to ________ parked nodes in the network.

a) 63
b) 127
c) 255
d) 511
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A slave node in a piconet can be instructed by the master node to go into parked mode.
Then the slave node enters the parked mode in which the node is not disconnected from the network
but is inactive unless the master wakes it up.

3. Bluetooth is the wireless technology for __________

a) local area network
b) personal area network
c) metropolitan area network
d) wide area network
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Bluetooth is a wireless technology used to create a wireless personal area network for data
transfer up to a distance of 10 meters. It operates on 2.45 GHz frequency band for transmission.

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4. Bluetooth uses __________

a) frequency hopping spread spectrum
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) time division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Frequency hopping spread spectrum is a method of transmitting radio signals by rapidly
changing the carrier frequency and is controlled by the codes known to the sender and receiver only.

5. Unauthorised access of information from a wireless device through a bluetooth connection is called
_________
a) bluemaking
b) bluesnarfing
c) bluestring
d) bluescoping
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Unauthorised access of information from a wireless device through a bluetooth connection
is called Bluesnarfing. It is done through exploiting the vulnerabilities of the Bluetooth device to steal
the transmitted information.

6. What is A2DP (advanced audio distribution profile)?

a) a bluetooth profile for streaming audio
b) a bluetooth profile for streaming video
c) a bluetooth profile for security
d) a bluetooth profile for file management
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A2DP stands for Advanced Audio Distribution Profile is a transfer standard use to transmit
high definition audio through Bluetooth. It is mainly used in Bluetooth speakers and wireless
headphones.

7. In a piconet, one master device ________

a) can not be slave
b) can be slave in another piconet
c) can be slave in the same piconet
d) can be master in another piconet
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In a scatternet, a slave node of one piconet may act as a master in a piconet that is part of
the scatternet. The scatternet uses this property to connect many piconets together to create a larger
network.

8. Bluetooth transceiver devices operate in ______ band.

a) 2.4 GHz ISM
b) 2.5 GHz ISM
c) 2.6 GHz ISM
d) 2.7 GHz ISM
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Bluetooth operates on 2.45 GHz frequency ISM band for transmission. It is used to create a
wireless personal area network for data transfer up to a distance of 10 meters.

9. Bluetooth supports _______

a) point-to-point connections
b) point-to-multipoint connection
c) both point-to-point connections and point-to-multipoint connection
d) multipoint to point connection
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In Bluetooth, each slave node communicates with the master of the piconet independently
i.e. each master-slave connection is independent. The slave is not allowed to communicate with other
slaves directly.

10. A scatternet can have maximum __________

a) 10 piconets
b) 20 piconets
c) 30 piconets
d) 40 piconets
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A scatternet can have maximum of 10 piconets and minimum of 2 piconets. To connect
these piconets, a slave node of one piconet may act as a master in a piconet that is part of the
scatternet.

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Wireless
LAN”.

1. What is the access point (AP) in a wireless LAN?

a) device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network
b) wireless devices itself
c) both device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network and wireless devices itself
d) all the nodes in the network
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Access point in a wireless network is any device that will allow the wireless devices to a
wired network. A router is the best example of an Access Point.

2. In wireless ad-hoc network _________

a) access point is not required
b) access point is must
c) nodes are not required
d) all nodes are access points
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: An ad-hoc wireless network is a decentralized kind of a wireless network. An access point is
usually a central device and it would go against the rules of the ad-hoc network to use one. Hence it is
not required.

3. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
a) CDMA
b) CSMA/CA
c) ALOHA
d) CSMA/CD
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: CSMA/CA stands for Carrier-sense multiple access/collision avoidance. It is a multiple
access protocol used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN. It’s based on the principle of collision
avoidance by using different algorithms to avoid collisions between channels.

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4. In wireless distribution system __________

a) multiple access point are inter-connected with each other
b) there is no access point
c) only one access point exists
d) access points are not required
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A Wireless Distribution System allows the connection of multiple access points together. It
is used to expand a wireless network to a larger network.

5. A wireless network interface controller can work in _______

a) infrastructure mode
b) ad-hoc mode
c) both infrastructure mode and ad-hoc mode
d) WDS mode
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A wireless network interface controller works on the physical layer and the data link layer
of the OSI model. Infrastructure mode WNIC needs access point but in ad-hoc mode access point is not
required.

6. In wireless network an extended service set is a set of ________

a) connected basic service sets
b) all stations
c) all access points
d) connected access points
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The extended service set is a part of the IEEE 802.11 WLAN architecture and is used to
expand the range of the basic service set by allowing connection of multiple basic service sets.

7. Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN.

a) time division multiplexing
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In orthogonal frequency division multiplexing, digital data is encoded on multiple carrier
frequencies. It is also used in digital television and audio broadcasting in addition to Wireless LANs.

8. Which one of the following event is not possible in wireless LAN?

a) collision detection
b) acknowledgement of data frames
c) multi-mode data transmission
d) connection to wired networks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Collision detection is not possible in wireless LAN with no extensions. Collision detection
techniques for multiple access like CSMA/CD are used to detect collisions in Wireless LANs.

9. What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)?

a) security algorithm for ethernet
b) security algorithm for wireless networks
c) security algorithm for usb communication
d) security algorithm for emails
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: WEP is a security algorithm for wireless network which intended to provide data
confidentiality comparable to that of traditional wired networks. It was introduced in 1997.

10. What is WPA?

a) wi-fi protected access
b) wired protected access
c) wired process access
d) wi-fi process access
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: WPA or WiFi Protected Access is a security protocol used to provide users and firms with
strong data security and protection for their wireless networks (WiFi) to give them confidence that only
authorized users can access their network.

Let see some important MCQs on WIFI.

1.Wifi stand for____.
A. wireless function
B.wireless fidelity
C.wireless functioning
D.none of above
ANS:B
2.13 channels have_______frequency.
A.1.0 GHz
B.2.0 GHz
C.2.4 GHz
D.none of above
3.Wifi does not support roaming.Is that statement is____.
A.TRUE
B.FALE
ANS.B
4.Router device sends and receive______signals in a wireless.network.
A.radio
B.digital
C.analog
ANS.A
5. Channel 6 is the default for commercially sold_______.
A.modem
B.routers
C.both of them
ANS.B
6.MAC security is impossible to crack.Is this statement is___?
A.TRUE
B.FALSE
ANS.A
7.wifi uses which kind of multiplexing?
A.TDM
B.OFDM
C.FDM
D.WDM
E.ALL OF ABOVE
8._______ Mbps is the rate of Gigabit Ethernet
A.1000
B.1200C.100
D.600
E.none of above
ANS.A
9.Which of the statement is true about signal/noise or SNR?
A. This is a signal that sends noise in a building
B.This is what means the quality of the transmission of information in relation to parasites (Correct
Answer)
C. It is a calculation that determines who makes the most noise in the Office 4001
Ans: B

10.For transmitting signals_____ waves are uses in a wireless network.

A. sound
B. mechanical
C. radio
Ans: C

1. Wireless networking, or Wi-Fi, can be used to connect computers in a home, and many cities
are using the technology to offer free or low-cost Internet access to residents. What's another name
for Wi-Fi? | Wifi mcqs

A. 801.12 networking

B. 801.22 networking
C. 802.11 networking

Ans: C

2. A wireless network uses ___ waves to transmit signals. | Wifi mcqs

A. mechanical

B. radio

C. sound

Ans: B

3. What device sends and receives radio signals in a wireless network? | Wifi mcqs

A. modem

B. digital translator

C. router

Ans: C

4. At what frequencies do Wi-Fi radios make transmissions? | Wifi mcqs

A. 3 GHz or 8 GHz

B. 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz

C. 2 GHz or 7.3 GHz

Ans: B
5. ______ Of the following networking standards, which is not used in Wi-Fi data transmissions?
| Wifi mcqs

A. 802.11g

B. 802.11q

C. 802.11b

Ans: B

6. Which networking standard is the slowest and least expensive? | Wifi mcqs

A. 802.11a

B. 802.11b

C. 802.11n

Ans: B

7. Which networking standard was the first to use orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing
(OFDM) as a coding technique? | Wifi mcqs

A. 802.11g

B. 802.11a

C. 802.11n

Ans: B

8. Which short-range wireless standard is used for Wireless Personal Area Networks (WPANs)? |
Wifi mcqs

A. 802.16

B. 802.15

C. 802.13

Ans: B

9. You can change the settings on your wireless router through a Web interface. One option you
can change is channel. What channel do routers use by default? | Wifi mcqs

A. 2
B. 7

C. 6

Ans: C

10. Which Operates in the 2.4-GHz Industrial, Scientific and Measurement (ISM) band (2.4 GHz to
2.4835 GHz) and provides signaling rates of up to 11Mbit/sec. | Wifi mcqs

A. 802.11a

B. 802.11b

C. 802.11e

D. 802.11g

E. 802.11i

F. 802.11k

G. 802.11n

Ans: B

11. Which is Expected to be ratified sometime in 2005, this Radio Resource Management standard will
provide measurement information for access points and switches to make WLANs run more
efficiently. | Wifi mcqs

A. 802.11a

B. 802.11b

C. 802.11e

D. 802.11g

E. 802.11i

F. 802.11k

G. 802.11n

Ans: F

12. Which is Expected to be ratified in mid-2005, this quality-of-service specification is designed to

guarantee the quality of voice and video traffic. | Wifi mcqs

A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b

C. 802.11e

D. 802.11g

E. 802.11i

F. 802.11k

G. 802.11n

Ans: C

13. Which Wi-Fi security is impossible to crack? | Wifi mcqs

A. WEP

B. WPA

C. MAC Filtering

D. None of the above

Ans: D

14. What should you do to keep unauthorized users from changing your home router settings? | Wifi
mcqs

A. Change the firewall settings on your computer

B. Change the default administrator password and SSID

C. Change the MAC address of the router

D. Nothing, only the administrator can change router settings

Ans: B

15. What are the two components necessary to have a wireless network? | Wifi mcqs

A. A laptop and the internet

B. An access point and a WNIC

C. A router and an internet connection

D. A dual layer DVD reader and a LAN

Ans: B
16. What channel is the default for commercially sold routers? | Wifi mcqs

A. Channel 5

B. Channel 6

C. Channel 7

D. Channel 2

Ans: B

17. Which of the following is a sign that you might be on an unsafe network? | Wifi mcqs

A. The connection requires you to sign up for an account

B. There is no password needed to access the internet

C. You get free access with every fifth frappe

D. None of the above

Ans: B

18. Why is WEP security not as strong as WPA or WPA2 even though the code key is longer? | Wifi
mcqs

A. WPA uses tunneling protocols

B. WEP sends authentication codes with each packet

C. WEP lacks the ability to use special characters

D. WEP is not compatible with Windows 7 or Mac OS

Ans: B

19. Which wireless protocol uses TKIP? | Wifi mcqs

A. WEP

B. WPA

C. WPA2

D. WPS

Ans: B
20. What is an Evil Twin Attack? | Wifi mcqs

A. An attack that mimics your MAC address to enter your network

B. An attack that denies service to your router

C. An attack that creates a mock website to trick a user into divulging secure information

D. An attack that copies all of the files from your router to a secondary hard drive on a hacker
computer and then harvest information continuously on your browsing activity

Ans: C

21. wifi stands for_________

A. Wireless Fidelity

B. Wireless functioning

C. Wireless function

D. None of the above

Ans: A

22. A Wi-fi enabled device can be_____

A. PC

B. Game Console

C. Mobile phone

D. All of the above

Ans: D

23. Wifi uses which kind of multiplexing?

A. OFDM

B. TDM

C. WDM

D. FDM

Ans: A
24. Wifi Alliance for certified products based on the

A. IEEE 802.3

B. IEEE 802.5

C. IEEE 802.11

Ans: C

25. Does wifi support roaming?

A. Yes

B. No

Ans: A

26. What is the "acceptable" limit for the attenuation of a wifi signal (threshold before breaking
signal)

A. 75 dB

B. 20 db

C. -75 DB (Correct Answer)

D. - 75 GHz

E. - 20 dB

Ans: C

27. What are the different wireless controllers Motorola

A. RFS1000

B. RFS4000 (Missed)

C. RFS6000 (Missed)

D. RFS7000 (Missed)

E. RFS8000
Ans: B,C,D

28. How many channels has 2.4 GHz frequency?

A. 8

B. 10

C. 13 (Correct Answer)

D. 16

Ans: C

29. To offer IPAD, it is mandatory to go through access Quickspot

A. Real

B. False (Correct Answer)

Ans: B

30. The signal / noise ratio or SNR:

A. It is a calculation that determines who makes the most noise in the Office 4001

B. This is what means the quality of the transmission of information in relation to

parasites (Correct Answer)

C. This is a signal that sends noise in a building

Ans: B

This set of Wireless & Mobile Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs)”.

1. What is the full form of WLAN?

a) Wide Local Area Network
b) Wireless Local Area Network
c) Wireless Land Access Network
d) Wireless Local Area Node
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: WLAN stands for Wireless Local Area Network. Wireless networks is increasingly used as a
replacement for wires within homes, buildings, and office settings through the deployment of wireless
local area networks (WLANs).

2. WLANs use high power levels and generally require a license for spectrum use.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: WLANs use low power and generally do not require a license for spectrum. They provide ad
hoc high data transmission rate connections deployed by individuals. In the late 1980s, FCC provided
licence free bands for low power spread spectrum devices in ISM band, which is used by WLAN.

3. What is the name of 300 MHz of unlicensed spectrum allocated by FCC in ISM band?
a) UNII
b) Unlicensed PCS
c) Millimetre wave
d) Bluetooth
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: FCC allocated 300 MHz of unlicensed spectrum in the ISM bands. This allocation is called
the Unlicensed National Information Infrastructure (UNII) band. It was allocated for the express purpose
of supporting low power license free spread spectrum data communication.

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4. Which of the following specifies a set of media access control (MAC) and physical layer specifications
for implementing WLANs?
a) IEEE 802.16
b) IEEE 802.3
c) IEEE 802.11
d) IEEE 802.15
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: IEEE 802.11 is a set of media access control and physical layer specification for
implementing WLAN computer communication. It was founded in 1987 to begin standardization of
spread spectrum WLANs for use in the ISM bands.

5. Which of the following is not a standard of WLAN?

a) HIPER-LAN
b) HIPERLAN/2
c) IEEE 802.11b
d) AMPS
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: AMPS is a standard of first generation network. HIPERLAN is a WLAN standard developed in
Europe in mid 1990s. HIPERLAN/2 is also developed in Europe that provides upto 54 Mbps of user data.

6. Which of the following is the 802.11 High Rate Standard?

a) IEEE 802.15
b) IEEE 802.15.4
c) IEEE 802.11g
d) IEEE 802.11b
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: IEEE 802.11b was a high rate standard approved in 1999. It provided new data rate
capabilities of 11 Mbps, 5.5 Mbps in addition to the original 2 Mbps and 1 Mbps user rates of IEEE
802.11.

7. Which of the following spread spectrum techniques were used in the original IEEE 802.11 standard?
a) FHSS and DSSS
b) THSS and FHSS
c) THSS and DSSS
d) Hybrid technique
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Original IEEE 802.11 used both the approaches of FHSS (Frequency Hopping Spread
Spectrum) and DSSS (Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum). But from late 2001s, only DSSS modems are
used within IEEE 802.11.

8. Which of the following WLAN standard has been named Wi-Fi?

a) IEEE 802.6
b) IEEE 802.15.4
c) DSSS IEEE 802.11b
d) IEEE 802.11g
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The DSSS IEEE 802.11b standard has been named Wi-Fi by the Wireless Ethernet
Compatibility Alliance. It is a group that promotes adoption of 802.11 DSSS WLAN.

9. Which of the following is developing CCK-OFDM?

a) IEEE 802.11a
b) IEEE 802.11b
c) IEEE 802.15.4
d) IEEE 802.11g
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: IEEE 802.11g is developing CCK-OFDM (Complementary Code Keying Orthogonal Frequency
Division Multiplexing) standards. It will support roaming capabilities and dual band use for public WLAN
networks. It also has backward compatibility with 802.11b technologies.

10. What is the data rate of HomeRF 2.0?

a) 10 Mbps
b) 54 Mbps
c) 200 Mbps
d) 1 Mbps
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: HomeRF 2.0 has data rate of the order of 10 Mbps. The FHSS proponents of IEEE 802.11
have formed the HomeRF standard that supports the frequency hopping equipment. In 2001, HomeRF
developed a 10 Mbps FHSS standard called HomeRF 2.0.

11. HIPER-LAN stands for ____________

a) High Precision Radio Local Area Network
b) High Performance Radio Local Area Network
c) High Precision Radio Land Area Network
d) Huge Performance Radio Link Access Node
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: HIPER-LAN stands for High Performance Radio Local Area Network. It was developed in
Europe in mid 1990s. It was intended to provide individual wireless LANs for computer communication.

12. What is the range of asynchronous user data rates provided by HIPER-LAN?
a) 1-100 Mbps
b) 50-100 Mbps
c) 1-20 Mbps
d) 500 Mbps to 1 Gbps
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: HIPER-LAN provides asynchronous user data rates of between 1 to 20 Mbps, as well as time
bounded messaging of rates of 64 kbps to 2.048 Mbps. It uses 5.2 GHz and 17.1 GHz frequency bands.

13. What is the name of the European WLAN standard that provides user data rate upto 54 Mbps?
a) UNII
b) WISP
c) MMAC
d) HIPERLAN/2
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: HIPERLAN/2 has emerged as the next generation European WLAN standard. It provides
upto 54 Mbps of user data to a variety of networks. The networks includes the ATM backbone, IP based
networks and the UMTS network.
14. What is WISP?
a) Wideband Internet Service Protocol
b) Wireless Internet Service Provider
c) Wireless Instantaneous Source Provider
d) Wideband Internet Source Protocol
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: WISP is wireless Internet Service Provider used to explore public LANs (publican). It builds a
nationwide infrastructure of WLAN access points in selected hotels, restaurants or airports. It then
charges a monthly subscription fee to users who wish to have always on Internet access in those
selected locations.

15. The price of WLAN hardware is more than 3G telephones and fixed wireless equipment.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: As, WLAN could be used to provide access for the last 100 meters into homes and
businesses. Therefore, the price of WLAN hardware is far below 3G telephones and fixed wireless
equipment

This set of Wireless & Mobile Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Cellular Telephone Systems”.

1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cellular telephone system?

a) Accommodate a large number of users
b) Large geographic area
c) Limited frequency spectrum
d) Large frequency spectrum
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Cellular systems accommodate a large number of users within a limited frequency
spectrum over a large geographic area.

2. What is the responsibility of MSC in cellular telephone system?

a) Connection of mobile to base stations
b) Connection of mobile to PSTN
c) Connection of base station to PSTN
d) Connection of base station to MSC
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mobile Switching Center (MSC) is responsible for connecting all mobiles to the PSTN (Public
Switched Telephone Network) in a cellular system.

3. Who has the responsibility of billing and system maintenance function in cellular system?
a) Base Station
b) PSTN
c) MSC
d) Mobile system
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Mobile switching center (MSC) accommodates 100,000 subscribers and 5,000 simultaneous
conversations at a time and handles all billing and system maintenance functions.

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4. What is the function of FVC (Forward Voice Channel)?

a) Voice transmission from base station to mobiles
b) Voice transmission from mobile to base station
c) Initiating mobile calls
d) Broadcast all traffic request for all mobile
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: FVC (Forward Voice Channel) and RVC (Reverse Voice Channel) are responsible for voice
transmission. FVC is used for voice transmission from base station to mobile and RVC is used for voice
transmission from mobile to base station.

5. Which two channels are responsible for initiating mobile calls?

a) FVC and FCC
b) FVC and RVC
c) FCC and RCC
d) FCC and RVC
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: FCC (Forward Control Channel) and RCC (Reverse Control Channel) are control channels
responsible for initiating mobile calls.

6. Of the total channels present in the cellular system, what is the percentage of voice and control
channels?
a) 95% voice channels, 5% control channels
b) 5% voice channels, 95% control channels
c) 50% voice channels, 50% control channels
d) 25% voice channels, 75% control channels
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In each cellular system, control channels are 5% of the total channels available and
remaining 95% are dedicated to voice and data traffic.

7. What is MIN?
a) Subscriber’s telephone number
b) Paging message
c) Traffic request number
d) Mobile Internet
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: MIN (Mobile Identification Number) is a 10 digit unique number which represents the
telephone number of subscriber.

8. What is transmitted along with the call initiation request during the origin of call by a mobile?
a) MIN
b) ESN
c) ESN and SCM
d) MIN, ESN and SCM
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: When a mobile originates the call, it sends the MIN (mobile identification number), ESN
(electronic serial number) and SCM (station class mark) along with the call initiation request.

9. What does SCM indicates?

a) Maximum receiver power level for a particular user
b) Maximum transmitter power level for a particular user
c) Minimum receiver power level for a particular user
d) Minimum transmitter power level for a particular user
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: SCM (Station Class Mark) indicates the maximum transmitter power level for a particular
user.

10. What is the shape of the cell present in the cellular system?
a) Circular
b) Square
c) Hexagonal
d) Triangular
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The shape of the cell present in the cellular network is hexagonal since it can cover the
entire geographical area without any gap and overlapping.
11. Why the size of the cell is kept small in cellular network?
a) Increase capacity
b) Decrease capacity
c) Increased size of base station electronics
d) Slow process of handoffs
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The size of the cells in cellular network is kept small because of the need of high capacity in
areas with high user density and reduced size and cost of base station electronics.

12. What is handoff?

a) Forward channel
b) Switching technique
c) Roamer
d) Guard channel
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Handoff is a switching technique which refers to the process of transferring an active call or
data session from one cell in a cellular network to another.

13. Which one is not an advantage of using frequency reuse?

a) Increased capacity
b) Limited spectrum is required
c) Same spectrum may be allocated to other network
d) Number of base stations is reduced
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Frequency reuse is a technique of reusing frequencies and channels within a cellular system
to improve capacity and spectral efficiency.

14. The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to another is ____________
a) MSC
b) Roamer
c) Handoff
d) Forward channel
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Handoff is the process of changing the channel associated with current connection while a
call is in progress.

15. The interference between the neighbouring base stations is avoided by ____________
a) Assigning different group of channels
b) Using transmitters with different power level
c) Using different antennas
d) Using different base stations
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The interference between the neighbouring base stations is avoided by assigning different
group of channels and reusing the same channel after a certain amount of distance.

This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Satellite Communication
Systems”.

1. The satellite that is used as a relay to extend communication distance is called as __________
a) Relay satellites
b) Communication satellites
c) Repeater satellites
d) Geosynchronous satellites
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Communication satellites are not originators of information to be transmitted. If a
transmitting station cannot communicate directly with one or more receiving stations because of line-
of-sight restrictions, a satellite can be used. The transmitting station sends the information to the
satellite, which in turn re-transmits it to the receiving stations.

2. The transmitter-receiver combination in the satellite is known as a _______

a) Relay
b) Repeater
c) Transponder
d) Duplexer
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The transmitter-receiver combination in the satellite is known as a transponder. The basic
functions of a transponder are amplification and frequency translation. The reason for frequency
translation is that the transponder cannot transmit and receive on the same frequency.

3. The downlink frequency is lower than the uplink frequency.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The original signal being transmitted from the earth station to the satellite is called the
uplink, and the re-transmitted signal from the satellite to the receiving stations is called the downlink.
Usually, the downlink frequency is lower than the uplink frequency. A typical uplink frequency is 6 GHz,
and a common downlink frequency is 4 GHz.

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4. What is the reason for carrying multiple transponders in a satellite?
a) More number of operating channel
b) Better reception
c) More gain
d) Redundancy
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: To be economically feasible, a satellite must be capable of handling several channels. As a
result, most satellites contain multiple transponders, each operating at a different frequency. Each
transponder represents an individual communication channel.

5. Why are VHF, UHF, and microwave signals used in satellite communication?
a) More bandwidth
b) More spectrum space
c) Are not diffracted by the ionosphere
d) Economically viable
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: VHF, UHF, and microwave signals penetrate the ionosphere with little or no attenuation
and are not refracted to earth. Lower frequencies undergo total internal refraction and get reflected
back to earth.

6. What is the reason for shifting from c band to ku band in satellite communication?
a) Lesser attenuation
b) Less power requirements
c) More bandwidth
d) Overcrowding
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Most new communication satellites will operate in the Ku band. This upward shift in
frequency is happening because the C band is overcrowded. Many communication satellites are in orbit
now, most of them operating in the C band. However, there is some difficulty with interference because
of the heavy usage. The only way this interference will be minimized is to shift all future satellite
communication to higher frequencies.

7. Which of the following bands cannot be used for satellite communication?

a) MF
b) Ku
c) X
d) C
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: MF is a lower frequency band than Ku, C and X bands and does not lie in the microwave
spectrum. Microwaves are used for satellite communication since the lower bands get reflected by the
ionosphere.

8. What is the maximum theoretical data rate if a transponder is used for binary transmission and has a
bandwidth of 36MHz?
a) 32Mpbs
b) 72Mpbs
c) 36Mpbs
d) 12Mpbs
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: For binary transmission, the maximum theoretical data rate or channel capacity C for a
given bandwidth B is C = 2B = 2(36) =72Mpbs.

9. Why are techniques like frequency reuse and spatial isolation carried out?
a) Reduce traffic load
b) More gain
c) High speed
d) Error detection
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: at times there is more traffic than there are transponders to handle it. For that reason,
numerous techniques have been developed to effectively increase the bandwidth and signal-carrying
capacity of the satellite. Two of these techniques are known as frequency reuse and spatial isolation.

10. Which technique uses two different antennas to reduce traffic on the same frequency?
a) Spatial isolation
b) Frequency reuse
c) Multiplexing
d) Modulation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In the frequency reuse technique two systems use the same frequency, although operating
on exactly the same frequencies, they are isolated from each other by the use of special antenna
techniques. For example, a vertically polarized antenna will not respond to a horizontally polarized
signal and vice versa. Or a left-hand circularly polarized (LHCP) antenna will not respond to a right-hand
circularly polarized (RHCP) signal and vice versa.

11. Which technique uses spot beam antennas to divide the area covered by the satellite into smaller
segments?
a) Spatial isolation
b) Frequency reuse
c) Multiplexing
d) Modulation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: By using narrow beam or spot beam antennas, the area on the earth covered by the
satellite can be divided up into smaller segments. Earth stations in each segment may actually use the
same frequency, but because of the very narrow beam widths of the antennas, there is no interference
between adjacent segments.

12. Spatial-division multiple access (SDMA) depends on satellite location and not frequency.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Spatial-division multiple access uses spatial isolation technique. Earth stations in each
segment may actually use the same frequency, but because of the very narrow beam widths of the
antennas, there is no interference between adjacent segments. This technique is referred to a spatial-
division multiple access (SDMA) in that access to the satellite depends on location and not frequency.

This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Satellite Orbits”.

1. What happens if a satellite is launched vertically and released at its design altitude?
a) Continue to orbit the earth
b) Fall back
c) Overshoots the altitude and moves at a constant speed
d) Stays where it was released
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: If a satellite were launched vertically from the earth and then released, it would fall back to
earth because of gravity. For the satellite to go into orbit around the earth, it must have some forward
motion. For that reason, when the satellite is launched, it is given both vertical and forward motion.

2. The satellite is accelerating as it orbits the earth.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Although the speed of the satellite is constant its direction keeps on changing as the orbit is
circular or elliptical. The rate of change of velocity vector is acceleration and hence its direction changes,
the satellite is under acceleration.
3. Why does the orbit take the shape of an ellipse or circle?
a) Position can be easily determined
b) Consume less fuel
c) Most efficient geometry
d) Better coverage on earth
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A satellite rotates about the earth in either a circular or an elliptical path. Circles and
ellipses are geometric figures that can be accurately described mathematically. Because the orbit is
either circular or elliptical, it is possible to calculate the position of a satellite at any given time.

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4. The direction of orbit in the same direction of earth rotation is called ______
a) Retrograde
b) Posigrade
c) Perigee
d) Apogee
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The direction of satellite rotation may be either in the same direction as the earth’s
rotation or against the direction of earth’s rotation. In the former case, the orbit is said to be posigrade,
and in the latter case, retrograde. Most orbits are posigrade.

5. When is the speed of the satellite maximum in an elliptical orbit?

a) Retrograde
b) Posigrade
c) Perigee
d) Apogee
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In an elliptical orbit, the speed changes depending upon the height of the satellite above
the earth. Naturally, the speed of the satellite is greater when it is close to the earth than when it is far
away. The closest point is called the perigee.

6. Satellites closer to the earth travel at lower speeds than satellites that are far away from earth.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Satellites that are near earth have to move at higher speeds to sustain their orbit since the
gravitational pull is much higher. Since the effect of gravity is less at higher altitudes, satellites that far
away require less speeds.
7. The time period taken by the satellite to complete one orbit is called ________
a) Lapsed time
b) Time period
c) Sidereal period
d) Unit frequency
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The period is the time it takes for a satellite to complete one orbit. It is also called the
sidereal period. A sidereal orbit uses some external fixed or apparently motionless object such as the
sun or star for reference in determining a sidereal period.

8. The period of time that elapses between the successive passes of the satellite over a given meridian
of earth longitude is called as _____________
a) synodic period
b) Lapsed time
c) Time period
d) Sidereal period
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Another method of expressing the time for one orbit is the revolution or synodic period.
One revolution (1 r) is the period of time that elapses between the successive passes of the satellite over
a given meridian of earth longitude. Naturally, the synodic and sidereal periods differ from each other
because of the earth’s rotation.

9. What is the angle of inclination for a satellite following an equatorial orbit?

a) 0°
b) 180°
c) 45°
d) 90°
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Another definition of inclination is the angle between the equatorial plane and the satellite
orbital plane as the satellite enters the northern hemisphere. When the angle of inclination is 0°, the
satellite is directly above the equator. Orbits with 0° inclination are generally called equatorial orbits.

10. The angle between the line from the earth station’s antenna to the satellite and the line between
the earth station’s antenna and the earth’s horizon is called as ___________
a) Angle of inclination
b) Angle of elevation
c) Apogee angle
d) LOS angle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The angle of elevation of a satellite is the angle that appears between the line from the
earth station’s antenna to the satellite and the line between the earth station’s antenna and the earth’s
horizon. If the angle of elevation is too small, the signals between the earth station and the satellite
have to pass through much more of the earth’s atmosphere. Because of the very low powers used and
the high absorption of the earth’s atmosphere.

11. To use a satellite for communication relay or repeater purposes what type of orbit will be the best?
a) Circular orbit
b) Elliptical orbit
c) Geosynchronous orbit
d) Triangular orbit
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The best solution is to launch a synchronous or geostationary satellite. In a geosynchronous
earth orbit. Since the satellite remains apparently fixed, no special earth station tracking antennas are
required. The antenna is simply pointed at the satellite and remains in a fixed position. With this
arrangement, continuous communication is possible.

12. What percentage of the earth can communication satellites see?

a) 20
b) 50
c) 70
d) 40
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Most communication satellites in use today are of the geosynchronous variety.
Approximately 40 percent of the earth’s surface can be “seen” or accessed from such a satellite. Users
inside that area can use the satellite for communication.

13. What is the point on the surface of the earth that is directly below the satellite called?
a) Satellite point
b) Subsatellite point
c) Supersatellite point
d) Overhead point
View Answer

Answer:b
Explanation: The satellite location is specified by a point on the surface of the earth directly below the
satellite. This point is known as the subsatellite point (SSP). The subsatellite point is then located by
using conventional latitude and longitude designations.
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “TCP-1”.

1. Which of the following is false with respect to TCP?

a) Connection-oriented
b) Process-to-process
c) Transport layer protocol
d) Unreliable
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: TCP is a transport layer protocol that provides reliable and ordered delivery of a stream of
bytes between hosts communicating via an IP network.

2. In TCP, sending and receiving data is done as _______

a) Stream of bytes
b) Sequence of characters
c) Lines of data
d) Packets
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: TCP provides stream oriented delivery between hosts communicating via an IP network and
there are no message boundaries. TCP can concatenate data from a number of send () commands into
one stream of data and still transmit it reliably.

3. TCP process may not write and read data at the same speed. So we need __________ for storage.
a) Packets
b) Buffers
c) Segments
d) Stacks
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A TCP receiver has a receive buffer that is used to store the unprocessed incoming packets
in case the sender is sending packets faster than the processing rate of the received packets.

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4. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called _______

a) Packet
b) Buffer
c) Segment
d) Stack
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A segment may be collection of data from many send () statements. TCP transmits each
segment as a stream of bytes.
5. Communication offered by TCP is ________
a) Full-duplex
b) Half-duplex
c) Semi-duplex
d) Byte by byte
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Data can flow both the directions at the same time during a TCP communication hence, it is
full-duplex. This is the reason why TCP is used in systems that require full-duplex operation such as e-
mail systems.

6. To achieve reliable transport in TCP, ___________ is used to check the safe and sound arrival of data.
a) Packet
b) Buffer
c) Segment
d) Acknowledgment
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Acknowledgment mechanism is used to check the safe and sound arrival of data. The
sender actively checks for acknowledgement from the receiver and once a specific time period has
passed, it retransmits the data.

7. In segment header, sequence number and acknowledgement number fields refer to _______
a) Byte number
b) Buffer number
c) Segment number
d) Acknowledgment
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: As TCP has to ensure ordered delivery of packets, sequence number and acknowledgement
number are used to identify the byte number of the packet in the stream of bytes being transmitted.

8. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file of 1000 bytes. The first byte is numbered 10001. What
is the sequence number of the segment if all data is sent in only one segment?
a) 10000
b) 10001
c) 12001
d) 11001
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The sequence number given to first byte of a segment, with respect to its order among the
previous segments, is the sequence number of that segment.
9. Bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. These numbers start with a
_________
a) Fixed number
b) Random sequence of 0’s and 1’s
c) One
d) Sequence of zero’s and one’s
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: One might expect the sequence number of the first byte in the stream to be 0, or 1. But
that does not happen in TCP, Instead, the sender has to choose an Initial Sequence Number (ISN), which
is basically a random 32 bit sequence of 0’s and 1’s, during the connection handshake.

10. The value of acknowledgement field in a segment defines _______

a) sequence number of the byte received previously
b) total number of bytes to receive
c) sequence number of the next byte to be received
d) sequence of zeros and ones
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The acknowledgement field in a segment defines the sequence number of the byte which is
to be received next i.e. sequence number of byte that the sender should transmit next.

This set of Computer Networks Interview Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on “TCP – 2”.

1. The receiver of the data controls the amount of data that are to be sent by the sender is referred to as
___________
a) Flow control
b) Error control
c) Congestion control
d) Error detection
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Flow control is done to prevent the receiver from being overflowed with data. It is done
using various open-loop (prevention) methods and closed-loop (recovery) methods.

2. Size of TCP segment header ranges between ___________

a) 16 and 32 bytes
b) 16 and 32 bits
c) 20 and 60 bytes
d) 20 and 60 bits
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The size of the header can be 20 bytes at a minimum if there are no options and can go up
to 60 bytes at maximum with 40 bytes in the options field. The header contains all the control
information required to ensure ordered, error-free and reliable delivery of the segment.

3. Connection establishment in TCP is done by which mechanism?

a) Flow control
b) Three-Way Handshaking
c) Forwarding
d) Synchronization
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A three-way handshake allows both, the server and the client to choose their Initial
Sequence Number and inform about it to the other party. This won’t be possible using the two-way
handshake mechanism.

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4. The server program tells its TCP that it is ready to accept a connection. This process is called
___________
a) Active open
b) Active close
c) Passive close
d) Passive open
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: This is the first step in the Three-Way Handshaking process and is started by the server.
Then the Client picks an ISN (Initial Sequence Number) and synchronizes (shares) it with the Server
requesting a connection. The Server acknowledges the clients ISN, and then picks an ISN and
synchronizes it with the Client. At last, the Client acknowledges the servers ISN.

5. A client that wishes to connect to an open server tells its TCP that it needs to be connected to that
particular server. The process is called ___________
a) Active open
b) Active close
c) Passive close
d) Passive open
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: This is the second step in the Three-Way Handshaking process and is done by the client
once it finds the open server and picks an ISN. The Server acknowledges the clients request, and then
picks an ISN and synchronizes it with the Client. At last, the Client acknowledges the servers ISN.

6. In Three-Way Handshaking process, the situation where both the TCP’s issue an active open is
___________
a) Mutual open
b) Mutual Close
c) Simultaneous open
d) Simultaneous close
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In simultaneous open situation, two nodes send an SYN signal to each other and start a TCP
connection. Here, both TCP nodes transmit a SYNC+ACK segment to each other and a connection is
established between them. This doesn’t happen usually, because both sides have to know which port on
the other side to send to.

7. A malicious attacker sends a large number of SYNC segments to a server, pretending that each of
them is coming from a different client by faking the source IP address in the datagram. Which type of
attack is being performed in this situation?
a) SYNC flooding attack
b) Active attack
c) Passive attack
d) Denial-of-service attack
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: SYNC flooding attack is a form of Denial of Service attack. Due to the overflow of SYNC
segments sent to the server, the victims are not able to request for a connection to the server, thus
resulting in Denial of Service.

8. SYNC flooding attack belongs to a type of security attack known as ___________

a) SYNC flooding attack
b) Active attack
c) Passive attack
d) Denial-of-service attack
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: During SYNC flooding the system collapses and denies service to every request, making it a
DoS attack. Some other DoS attacks are bandwidth flooding, connection flooding and UDP flooding.

9. The sizes of source and destination port address in TCP header are ___________ respectively.
a) 16-bits and 32-bits
b) 16-bits and 16-bits
c) 32-bits and 16-bits
d) 32-bits and 32-bits
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: All port addresses are of 16 bits and they specify the type of service being used by the
network entity. For example, port 21 is used for FTP connections and port 25 is used for ICMP
connections.
10. What allows TCP to detect lost segments and in turn recover from that loss?
a) Sequence number
b) Acknowledgment number
c) Checksum
d) Both Sequence & Acknowledgment number
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: TCP header contains separate fields for sequence number and acknowledgment number.
Comparing these values is what allows TCP to detect lost segments and in turn recover from that loss.
After detecting the lost segments, the recovery may require retransmission of the lost segments of data.

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “UDP”.

1. Which of the following is false with respect to UDP?

a) Connection-oriented
b) Unreliable
c) Transport layer protocol
d) Low overhead
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: UDP is an unreliable, connectionless transport layer protocol that provides message-based
data transmission. TCP is an example of connection-oriented protocols.

2. Return value of the UDP port “Chargen” is _______

a) String of characters
b) String of integers
c) Array of characters with integers
d) Array of zero’s and one’s
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Using Chargen with UDP on port 19, the server sends a UDP datagram containing a random
number of characters every time it receives a datagram from the connecting host. The number of
characters is between 0 and 512.

3. Beyond IP, UDP provides additional services such as _______

a) Routing and switching
b) Sending and receiving of packets
c) Multiplexing and demultiplexing
d) Demultiplexing and error checking
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: De-multiplexing is the delivering of received segments to the correct application layer
processes at the recipients end using UDP. Error checking is done through checksum in UDP.

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4. What is the main advantage of UDP?

a) More overload
b) Reliable
c) Low overhead
d) Fast
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: As UDP does not provide assurance of delivery of packet, reliability and other services, the
overhead taken to provide these services is reduced in UDP’s operation. Thus, UDP provides low
overhead, and higher speed.

5. Port number used by Network Time Protocol (NTP) with UDP is ________
a) 161
b) 123
c) 162
d) 124
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Network Time Protocol is a clock synchronization network protocol implemented by
using UDP port number 123 to send and receive time stamps.

6. What is the header size of a UDP packet?

a) 8 bytes
b) 8 bits
c) 16 bytes
d) 124 bytes
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The fixed size of the UDP packet header is 8 bytes. It contains four two-byte fields: Source
port address, Destination port address, Length of packet, and checksum.

7. The port number is “ephemeral port number”, if the source host is _______
a) NTP
b) Echo
c) Server
d) Client
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Port numbers from 1025 to 5000 are used as ephemeral port numbers in Windows
Operating System. Ephemeral port numbers are short-lived port numbers which can be used for clients
in a UDP system where there are temporary clients all the time.

8. “Total length” field in UDP packet header is the length of _________

a) Only UDP header
b) Only data
c) Only checksum
d) UDP header plus data
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Total length is the 16 bit field which contains the length of UDP header and the data. The
maximum value of the Total length field and the maximum size of a UDP datagram is 65,535 bytes (8
byte header + 65,527 bytes of data).

9. Which is the correct expression for the length of UDP datagram?

a) UDP length = IP length – IP header’s length
b) UDP length = UDP length – UDP header’s length
c) UDP length = IP length + IP header’s length
d) UDP length = UDP length + UDP header’s length
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A user datagram is encapsulated in an IP datagram. There is a field in the IP header that
defines the total length of the IP packet. There is another field in the IP header that defines the length of
the header. So if we subtract the length of the IP header that is encapsulated in the IP packet, we get
the length of UDP datagram.

10. The ______ field is used to detect errors over the entire user datagram.
a) udp header
b) checksum
c) source port
d) destination port
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Checksum field is used to detect errors over the entire user datagram. Though it is not as
efficient as CRC which is used in TCP, it gets the job done for the UDP datagram as UDP doesn’t have to
ensure the delivery of the packet.

Flow Measurement - MCQs with answers

Q1. The rate at which fluid flows through a closed pipe can be determined by
A. Determining the mass flow rate
B. Determining the volume flow rate
C. Either (a) or (b)
D. None of these

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: C. Either (a) or (b)

Q2. Conveyor-based methods is used for the measurement of the flow of

A. Solids
B. Liquid
C. Gas
D. All of these

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: A. Solids

Q3. For the measurement of flow rate of liquid, the method used is

A. Conveyor-based methods
B. Bourdon tube
C. Coriolis method
D. Thermal mass flow measurement

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: C. Coriolis method

Q4. The devices used for flow obstruction is/are

A. Orifice plate
B. Venturi tube
C. Flow nozzle and dall flow tube
D. All of these

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: D. All of these

Q5. The device which is used for making temporary measurements of flow is

A. Venturi
B. Dull flow tube
C. Orifice plate
D. Pitot static tube

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: C. Orifice plate

Q6. For the measurement of flow the cheapest device is

A. Venturi
B. Dall flow tube
C. Flow nozzle
D. Pitot static tube

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: C. Flow nozzle

Q7. The instrument which is not suitable for the application in automatic control scheme

A. Rotameters
B. Pitot static tube
C. Rotary piston meter
D. Orifice plate

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: A. Rotameters

Q8. Example for positive displacement meter is

A. Variable area flow meter

B. Turbine meters
C. Rotary piston meter
D. Venturi

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: C. Rotary piston meter

Q9. Turbine meters are generally preferred for

A. Low-viscosity and high flow measurements

B. High viscosity and low flow measurements
C. High viscosity and high flow measurements
D. Low viscosity and low flow measurements

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: A. Low-viscosity and high flow measurements

Q10. The flow meter which is replacing the differential pressure meters in its applications is

A. Vortex-shedding flow meter

B. Electromagnetic flow meters
C. Ultrasonic flow meters
D. All of these
View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: A. Vortex-shedding flow meter

This set of Fluid Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Types of Fluid
Flow”.

1. Which method is used exclusively in fluid mechanics?

a) Lagrangian method
b) Eulerian method
c) Both Lagrangian and Eulerian methods
d) Neither Lagrangian nor Eulerian method
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In Fluid Mechanics, the matter of concern is the general state of motion at various points in
the fluid system (as in Eulerian approach) rather than the motion of each particle (as in Lagrangian
approach). Hence, the Eulerian method is extensively used in Fluid Mechanics.

2. A beaker contains water up to a certain height as shown. If the water is allowed to get discharged
through a small pipe (of a uniform diameter), what type of flow will it be in the pipe?

a) steady and uniform

b) unsteady and uniform
c) steady and non-uniform
d) unsteady and non-uniform
View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The velocity in which the water is discharged with a velocity With time as
the water gets discharged,v decreases as H decreases. Hence, it will be an unsteady flow.
According to the continuity equation, ρAV =constant, where ρ= density, A= cross-sectional area of flow,
V = velocity of flow. Since water is treated as an incompressible liquid (ρ =constant) and the pipe has a
uniform diameter (A =constant) at a given instant, V will remain constant throughout the whole cross-
section of the pipe. Hence, it will be a uniform flow.

3. A beaker contains water up to a certain height as shown. If the water is allowed to get discharged
through a small nozzle, what type of flow will it be in the pipe?

a) steady and uniform

b) unsteady and uniform
c) steady and non-uniform
d) unsteady and non-uniform
View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The velocity in which the water is discharged with a velocity With time as
the water gets discharged,v decreases as H decreases. Hence, it will be an unsteady flow.
According to the continuity equation, ρAV =constant, where ρ= density, A= cross-sectional area of flow,
V = velocity of flow. In this case, water is treated as an incompressible liquid (ρ = constant) but the
nozzle has a gradually decreasing diameter (A decreases). At a given instant, V at the exit of the nozzle
will be more than that at it’s entrance. Hence, it will be a non-uniform flow.

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4. A beaker contains water up to a certain height as shown. If the water is allowed to get discharged
through a small diffuser, what type of flow will it be in the pipe?
a) steady and uniform
b) unsteady and uniform
c) steady and non-uniform
d) unsteady and non-uniform
View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The velocity in which the water is discharged with a velocity With time as
the water gets discharged,v decreases as H decreases. Hence, it will be an unsteady flow.
According to the continuity equation, ρAV =constant, where ρ= density, A= cross-sectional area of flow,
V = velocity of flow. In this case, water is treated as an incompressible liquid (ρ =constant) but the nozzle
has a gradually increasing diameter (A increases). At a given instant, V at the exit of the nozzle will be
less than that at it’s entrance. Hence, it will be a non-uniform flow.

5. What type of flow can be taken for granted in a pipe of a uniform cross-section?
a) steady
b) unsteady
c) uniform
d) non-uniform
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: According to the continuity equation, ρAV =constant, where ρ= density, A= cross-sectional
area of flow, V = velocity of flow. For a pipe of a uniform cross-section, no matter what the rate of flow
is, the velocity of flow inside the pipe will always remain constant. Hence, it’ll always be a uniform flow.
It’ll be a steady flow if and only if the water level is maintained at a constant level by supplying water at
the same rate as it gets discharged, else the water level will keep decreasing with time leading to an
unsteady flow.

6. Can the flow inside a nozzle be steady and uniform?

a) yes
b) never
c) it can be steady but never uniform
d) it can be uniform but never steady
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: According to the continuity equation, ρAV =constant, where ρ= density, A= cross-sectional
area of flow, V = velocity of flow. For a nozzle, the area gradually decreases towards it’s exit. Thus, no
matter what the rate of flow is, the velocity of flow at the nozzle exit will always be greater than that at
it’s entrance. Hence, it’ll always be an unsteady flow. It can be a steady flow if and only if the water level
is maintained at a constant level by supplying water at the same rate as it gets discharged, else the
water level will keep decreasing with time leading to an unsteady flow.

7. Which of the following statements is true regarding one and two-dimensional flows?
a) Flow in a pipe is always taken as one-dimensional flow
b) Flow in a pipe is always taken as two-dimensional flow
c) Flow in a pipe is taken as one-dimensional flow when average flow parameters are considered
d) Flow in a pipe is taken as two-dimensional flow when average flow parameters are considered
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The flow inside a pipe can be described by the cylindrical co-ordinate system (r; θ; z), where
r is in the radial direction, θ in the angular direction and z in the axial direction. For a circular cross-
sections, the flow can be taken to be independent of θ. Hence, it can be taken aa a two-dimensional
flow. Again if aerage flow parameters are considered to account for the variation in the radial direction,
the flow can be taken as an one-dimensional flow.

8. Which of the following is true?

a) Flow is rotational inside the boundary layer and irrotational outside
b) Flow is irrotational inside the boundary layer and rotational outside
c) Flow is rotational both inside and outside of the boundary layer
d) Flow is irrotational both inside and outside of the boundary layer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: When a torque is applied to a fluid particle, it undergoes a rotation. Thus, the rotation of a
fluid particle will alwayds be associated with shear stress. Shear stress is in turn dependent on the
viscosity. Hence, rotational flow occurs where the viscosity effects are predominant. Since, viscosity
effects are predominant inside the blundary layer, the flow will be rotational in this region. However,
outside the boundary layer, the viscosity effects are negligible. Hence, flow can be treated as irrotational
outside the boundary layer.

9. Which of the following is true?

a) Flow is laminar inside the boundary layer and turbulent outside
b) Flow is turbulent inside the boundary layer and laminar outside
c) Flow is laminar both inside and outside of the boundary layer
d) Flow is turbulent both inside and outside of the boundary layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flows can be characterized as laminar or turbulent on the basis of Reynold’s number Re =
ρvd / μ, where ρ is the density, d is the pipe diameter and μ is the viscosity. For Re < 2000, the flow will
be laminar and Re > 4000, the ow will be turbulent. For laminar flow, the viscosity effects must be high
(μ should be high) as inside the boundary layer. Outside the boundary layer, the viscosity effects are
negligible. Hence, the flow will be turbulent.

10. “The velocity of entrance and exit through a nozzle remains the same.” Is this ever possible?
a) only if the flow is compressible
b) only if the flow is laminar
c) only if the flow is rotational
d) never possible
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: According to the continuity equation, ρAV =constant, where ρ= density, A= cross sectional
area of flow, V = velocity of flow. If v =constant, ρA =constant. Thus a change is A will mean a change in
ρ. Hence, the flow is possible only if the fluid is compressible.

11. Three flows named as 1,2 and 3 are observed. The Reynold’s number for the three are 100, 1000 and
10000. Which of the flows will be laminar?
a) only 1
b) only 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) only 3
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Flows can be characterized as laminar or turbulent on the basis of Reynold’s number Re =
ρvd / μ, where ρ is the density, d is the pipe diameter and μ is the viscosity. For Re < 2000, the flow will
be laminar and Re > 4000, the flow will be turbulent. Thus, flow 1 and 2 will be laminar.

12. Three flows named as 1,2 and 3 are observed. The flow velocities are v1 and v2. If all other
geometrical factors remain the same along with the fluid considered, flow is more likely to be laminar?
a) flow 1 if v1 > v2
b) flow 2 if v1 > v2
c) always flow 1
d) always flow 2
View Answer

Answer:
Explanation: Flows can be characterized as laminar or turbulent on the basis of Reynold’s number Re =
ρvd / μ, where ρ is the density, d is the pipe diameter and μ is the viscosity. If all other geometrical
factors remain the same along with the fluid considered, v1 > v2 implies Re1 > Re2. Thus, flow 2 is more
likely to be laminar.
See discussions, stats, and author profiles for this publication at: https://www.researchgate.net/publication/237145393

satellite communication MCQ bank

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 Satellite Communication
Multiple Choice Question Bank
Q1. A television (TV) transmission is an example of which type of transmission?
a) Simplex
b) Half duplex
c) Full duplex
d) None of the above

Q2. INTELSAT stands?

a) International Telecommunications Satellite

b) India Telecommunications Satellite
c) Inter Telecommunications Satellite
d) None of the above

Q3. Kepler’s first law states?

a) The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an ellipse.

b) The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an circle.
c) The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an sphere
d) None of the above

Q4. The eccentricity e is given by?

a) e 1 b2
a2
b) e 1 a2
b2
c) e 1 b2 cos
a2
d) None of the above

Q5. For an elliptical orbit?

a) 0 e 1.
b) e 0
c) e 1
d) None of the above

Q6. Kepler’s second law states?

a) If t2-t1=t4-t3 , then A12=A34.

b) If t2+t1 = t4+t3, then A12=A34.
c) If t2/t1=t4/t3 , then A12=A34.
 d) None of the above

Q7. Kepler’s third law states?

a) T2 a3 .
b) T3 a 2
c) T2 a 3/ 2
d) None of the above

Q8. The orbital period in seconds?

a) P 2 /n .
b) P 2 / n2
c) P /n
d) None of the above

Q9. Calculate the radius of a circular orbit for which the period is 1 day?

a) 42.241Km
b) 42.241m
c) 4.241Km
d) 2.241Km

Q10. Apogee?

a) The point farthest from earth

b) The point nearest from earth
c) The point smallest from earth
d) None of the above

Q11. Perigee?

a) The point farthest from earth

b) The point longest from earth
c) The point closest approach to earth
d) None of the above

Q11. Ascending node?

a) The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from south to
north
b) The point longest from earth
c) The point closest approach to earth
d) None of the above

Q12. Argument of perigee?

 a) The angle from ascending node to perigee, measured in the orbital plane at
the earth’s center, in the direction of satellite motion.
b) The point longest from earth
c) The point closest approach to earth
d) None of the above

Q13. True anomaly?

a) The true anomaly is the angle from perigee to the satellite position, measured
at the earth’s center.
b) The point longest from earth
c) The point closest approach to earth
d) None of the above

Q14. The down link frequency in the C band transponder is

(A) 6 GHz (B) 4 GHz

(C) 14 GHz (D) 11 GHz

Q15. The carrier to noise ratio for a satellite depends upon

(A) Effective Isotropic Radiated power

(B) Bandwidth.

(C) Free space path losses

(D) All of them

Q16. The multiple access technique suitable only for digital transmission is

(A) TDMA (B)FDMA

(C)Both (A)and (B) (D)Packet Access

Q17. What is application of satellite systems?

a) whether forecasting
b) Terrestrial communication
c) point to point communication
d) None of the above

18. Mention the different services of satellite systems.

a) Broadcasting satellite services

b) Signal transmission
c) Information transmission
d) None of the above
19. Define Polar-orbiting Satellites.

(a) Polar orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the north & south Polar
Regions.
b) Orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the east & west Polar Regions
c) Either (a) & (b)
d) None of the above

20. Mention the apogee height.

(a) ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-ra

(b) ) ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-rp

(c) ) ra = a(1+e), Ha = ra-R

(d) None of above

21. Mention the perigee height.

(a) rp = a(1+e), Hp =R-rp

(b) ) rp = a(1+e), Ha =R-ra

(c) ) rp = a(1+e), Ha = rp-R

(d) None of above

22. Define Universal time.

(a) It is the time used for all civil time keeping purposes & it is the time reference which is
broadcast by the national bureau of standards as a standard for setting clocks.

(b) It is the time used for all private time keeping purposes & it is the time reference which is broadcast
by the national bureau of standards as a standard for setting clocks.

(c) It is the time used for all civil time keeping purposes & it is the time reference which is not broadcast
by the national bureau of standards as a standard for setting clocks.

(d) None of above

23. Define Universal time day.

(a) UT day =1/24(hours+minutes/60+seconds/3600)

(b) UT day =1/24(hours+minutes+seconds/3600)

(c) UT day =1/24(hours+minutes/6+seconds/360)

(d) None of above

24. Mention the Julian dates.

(a) JD = JD010 + day number + Utday

(a) JD = JD010 + Utday

(a) JD = JD010 + day number

(d) None of above

25. what is sideral time?

(a) Sideral time is time measured relative to the fixed stars. It will be seen that one complete
rotation sideral time relative to the sun .This is because the earth moves in its orbit around the sun.

(b) Sideral time is time measured relative to the variable stars. It will be seen that one complete rotation
sideral time relative to the sun .This is because the earth moves in its orbit around the sun.

(c) Sideral time is time measured relative to the fixed stars. It will be seen that one complete rotation
sideral time relative to the moon .This is because the earth moves in its orbit around the moon.

(d) None of above

26. Define Sideral day.

(a) It is defined as one complete rotation rotation of the earth relative to the fixed stars. It is
measured as 23h56m04s mean solar time.

(b) It is defined as one and half rotation of the earth relative to the fixed stars. It is measured as 23h56m04s
mean solar time.

(c) It is defined as one complete rotation of the earth relative to the fixed stars. It is measured as 24h mean
solar time.

(d) None of above

27. Define Greenwich hour angle(GHA).

(a) The angular distance from the I axis to the Greenwich merdian is measured directly as
Greenwich sideral time, also known as the Greenwich hour angle.

(b) (a) The angular distance from the I axis to the Greenwich median is measured directly as Greenwich
sideral time, also known as the Greenwich hour angle.

(c) (a) The angular distance from the I axis to the Greenwich sideral time, also known as the Greenwich
hour angle.

(d) None of above

28.Write the formula for GST.

(a) GST = 99.6910+ 36000.7689Xt +0.0004Xt +2+UT deg

(b) GST = 9.6910+ 36000.7689Xt +0.0004Xt +2+UT deg

(c) GST = 99.6910+ 36000.7689Xt +0.0004Xt +2

(d) None of above

29.Define geocentric latitude.

(a) A a point of interest for zero height, the angle e (h 0) (1 Ee 2 ) tan E

(a) A a point of interest for one height, the angle e (h 0) (1 Ee 2 ) tan E

(a) A a point of interest for zero height, the angle e (h 0) (1 Ee 2 ) tan

(d) None of above

30.what are the difference between the geodetic & geocentric latitudes?

(a) The latitudes reaches a maximum at a geocentric latitude of 45deg, when the geodetic latitude is
45.192deg.

(a) The latitudes reaches a maximum at a geocentric latitude of 30deg, when the geodetic latitude is
45.192deg.

(a) The latitudes reaches a maximum at a geocentric latitude of 45deg, when the geodetic latitude is
4.192deg.

(d) None of above

31.What is meant by azimuth angle?

(a) It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local horizontal plane & the plane passing
through the earth station ,the satellite & center of earth.

(b) It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local vertical plane & the plane passing through
the earth station ,the satellite & center of earth.

(c) It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local horizontal plane & center of earth.

(d) None of above

32. What is an attitude control system.

(a) It is the system that achieves & maintains the required attitudes. The main functions of attitude
control system include maintaining accurate satellite position throughout the life span of the
system.
(b) The main functions of attitude control system include maintaining accurate satellite velocity
throughout the life span of the system.

(c) It is the system that achieves & maintains the required attitudes. The main functions of attitude control
system include maintaining accurate satellite acceleration throughout the life span of the system.

(d) None of above

33. What is an polar antenna?

(a) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in a circular arc ie known as polar mount
antenna.

(b) An double actuator is used which moves the antenna in a circular arc ie known as polar mount
antenna.

(c) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in a elliptical arc ie known as polar mount antenna.

(d) None of above

34. What is declination?

(a) The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must not be confused with the
magnetic declination used in correcting compass readings.

(b) The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must be confused with the magnetic
declination used in correcting compass readings.

(c) The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must not be confused with the electric
declination used in correcting compass readings.

(d) None of above

35. Define the terms in Eclipse.

(a) During equinox periods, the earth the sun & the satellite are in alignment with the result that
earth’ s shadow eclipses that satellite & the sunlight fails to reach the satellite solar cells.

(b) During equinox periods, the earth the sun & the satellite are in alignment with the result that earth’ s
shadow eclipses that satellite & the sunlight success to reach the satellite solar cells.

(c) a & b

(d) None of above

36. The eclipse effect is noticeable for periods………….

(a) The eclipse effect is noticeable for periods of about four weeks & the maximum daily eclipse
duration is about 1.20hours.
(b) The eclipse effect is noticeable for periods of about one weeks & the maximum daily eclipse duration
is about 12 hours.

(c) a & b

(d) None of above

37. What is meant by payload?

(a) The payload refers to the equipment used to provide the service for which the satellite has been
launched.

(b) The payload refers to the equipment used to provide the service for which the satellite has been
stabilize in orbit.

(c) a & b

(d) None of above

38. What is meant by transponder?

(a) In a communication satellite, the equipment which provides the connecting link between the
satellite’s transmit & receive antennas is referred to as the transponder.

(b) In a communication satellite, the equipment which provides the power supply is referred to as the
transponder.

(c) a & b

(d) None of above

39. Describe the spin stabilized satellites.

(a) In a, spin stabilized satellites, the body of the satellite spins at about 30 to 100rpm about the axis
perpendicular to the orbital plane.

(b) In a, spin stabilized satellites, the body of the satellite spins at about 300 to 1000 rpm about the axis
perpendicular to the orbital plane.

(c) a & b

(d) None of above

40. What is meant by frequency reuse?

(a) The carrier with opposite senses of polarization may overlap in frequency this technique is
known as frequency reuse.

(b) The carrier with same senses of depolarization may overlap in frequency this technique is known as
frequency reuse.
(c) a & b

(d) None of above

41. What is meant by spot beam antenna?

(a) A beam generated by a communication satellite antenna of sufficient size that the angular
spread of sufficient size that the angular spread of the energy in the beam is very small with the
result that a region that is only a few hundred km in diameter is illuminated on earth.

(b) A beam generated by a communication satellite antenna of sufficient size that the angular spread of
sufficient size that the angular spread of the energy in the beam is very slarge with the result that a region
that is only a few hundred mm in diameter is illuminated on earth.

(c) Either a or b.

(d) None of above

42. What is an TWTA?

(a) The TWTAS are widely used in transponder to provide the final output power required to the
trans tube & its power supplies.

(b) The TWTAS are widely used in transponder to provide the final input power required to the trans tube
& its power supplies.

(c) Either a or b.

(d) None of above

43. What is meant by Inter modulation distortion?

(a) The AM/PM conversion is then a complicated function of carrier amplitudes, but in addition,
the nonlinear transfer characteristic introduces a more serious form of distortion known as
intermodulation distortion.

(b) The AM/PM conversion is then a complicated function of carrier amplitudes, but in addition, the
nonlinear transfer characteristic introduces a less distortion known as inter-modulation distortion.

(c) Either a or b.

(d) None of above

44. Define input backoff.

(a) In order to reduce the intermodulation distortion, the operating point of the TWT must be
shifted closer to the linear portion of the curve, the reduction in input power being referred to as i/p
backoff.
(b) In order to reduce the inter-modulation distortion, the operating point of the TWT must be shifted
closer to the linear portion of the curve, the reduction in output power being referred to as i/p back-off.

(c) Either a or b.

(d) None of above

45.Define diplexer.

(a) The transmit & receives signals are separated in a device known as diplexer.

(b) The transmit & receives signals are separated in a device known as diplexer

(c) Either a or b.

(d) None of above

46. What is an OMT?

(a) The polarization seperation takes place in a device known as an ortho-coupler or orthogonal
mode transducer.

(b) The polarization combiner takes place in a device known as an ortho-coupler or orthogonal mode
transducer.

(c) Either a or b.

(d) None of above

47. What is an polarization interleaving?

(a) Overlap occurs between channels, but these are alternating polarized left hand circular & right
hand circular to reduce interference to acceptable levels. This is referred to as polarization
interleaving.

(b) Overlap occurs between channels, but these are alternating polarized left hand flat & right hand
elliptical to reduce interference to acceptable levels. This is referred to as polarization interleaving.

(c) Either a or b.

(d) None of above

48. What is an SCPC?

(a) In a thin route circuit, a transponder channel (36MHz) may be occupied by a no. of single
carriers, each associated with its own voice circuit.
(b) In a thin route circuit, a transponder channel (36mhz) may be occupied by a no. of double carriers,
each associated with its own voice circuit.

(c) Either a or b.

(d) None of above

49. Define S/N ratio.

(a) The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio of signal power to noise
power at the receiver output.This ratio is sometimes referred to as the post detector.

(b) The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio of signal power to noise
power at the receiver input. This ratio is sometimes referred to as the post detector.

(c) Either a or b.

(d) None of above

50. What is noise weighting?

(a) Improve the post detection signal to noise ratio is referred to as noise weighting.

(b) Improve the pre detection signal to noise ratio is referred to as noise weighting.

(c) Either a or b.

(d) None of above

Improve the post detection signal to noise ratio is referred to as noise weighting.

51. What is an EIRP?

(a) It is a measure of radiated or transmitted power of an antenna. It can be completed from the
antenna gain & the power fed to the antenna input.

(b) It is a measure of radiated or transmitted power of an antenna. It can be completed from the antenna
gain & the power fed from the antenna output.

(c) Either a or b.

(d) None of above

52. Write the equations of losses for clear sky conditions.

(a) Losses=(FSL)+(RFL)+(AML)+(AA)+(PL)
(b) Losses=(FSL)+(RFL)

(c) Losses=(FSL+(AML)+(AA)+(PL)

(d) None of above

53.What is an noise power spectral density?

(a) N0 = PN/BN=KTN joules

(b) N0 = BN/PN

(c) N0 = BN/PN =KTNB0 joules

(d) None of above

54. What is an Intermodulation noise?

(a) Intermodulation distortion in high power amplifier can result in signal products which appear
as noise & in fact is referred to as Intermodulation noise.

(b) Intermodulation distortion in LNA can result in signal products which appear as noise & in fact is
referred to as Intermodulation noise.

(c) Intermodulation distortion in LNA & HPA can result in signal products which appear as noise & in
fact is referred to as Intermodulation noise.

(d) None of above

55. What are the types of antenna losses?

(a) sky noise

(b) Antenna losses

(c) sky noise , Antenna losses

(d) all of these

56. What is an antenna losses?

(a) It is add to noise received as radiation & the total antenna noise temperature is in the sum of the
equivalent noise temperature of all these sources.

(b) It is add to noise received as radiation & the total antenna noise temperature is in the divider of the
equivalent noise temperature of all these sources.

(c) It is add to noise received as radiation is in the sum of the equivalent noise temperature of all these
sources.

(d) None of above

57. Define sky noise.

(a) It is a term used to describe the microwave radiation which is present throught out universe &
which appears to originate from matter in any form ,at finite temperature.

(b) It is a term used to describe the microwave radiation which is present throught out universe & which
appears to originate to matter in any form , at infinite temperature.

(c) It is a term used to describe the microwave radiation which appears to originate from matter from any
form , at infinite temperature.

(d) None of above

58.Define noise factor.

(a) An alternative way of representing amplifier noise is by means of its noise-factor. In defining the
NF of an amplifier, denoted by to usually taken as 290k, N0,out = FGKT0

(b) In defining the NF of an amplifier, denoted by to usually taken as 290k, N0,out = KT0

(c) In defining the NF of an amplifier, denoted by to usually taken as 290k , N0,out = KKT0

(d) None of above

59. What is an Apsorptive n/w?

(a) It is one which contains resistive elements. These introduce losses by absorbing energy from the
signal& converting it to heat.

(b) It is one which contains active elements. These introduce losses by absorbing energy from the signal&
converting it to heat.

(c) It is one which contains amplifier elements. These introduce losses by absorbing energy from the
signal& converting it to heat.

(d) None of above

60. All examples of Apsorptive networks?

(a) Resistive attenuators.

(b) Transmission lines.

(c) Waveguides

(d) all of these

61. Write the equation of system noise factor.

(a) TS =Tant+ Te1+ (L-1)T0/G1+L(F-1)T0/G1

(b) TS =Tant+ Te1+(L-1)T0/G1

(c) TS =Tant+ L(F-1)T0/G1

(d) None of above

62. Define saturation flux density.

(a) The flux density required at the receiving antenna to produce saturation of TWTA is termed the
saturation flux density.

(b) The flux density required at the transmitting antenna to produce saturation of TWTA is termed the
saturation flux density.

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

63. A satellite downlink at 12GHZ operates with a transmit power of 6w & an antenna gain of
48.2db. Calculate the EIRP in dBw.

(a) 56dBw

(b) 16dBw

(c) 56dB

(d) None of above

64. Calculate the gain of a 3m parabolidal antenna operating at a frequency of 12GHZ. Assume an
aperture efficiency of 0.5.

(a) 48.9dB

(b) 4.9dB

(c) 48.9dBHz

(d) None of above

65.The range between a ground station & a satellite is 42000km. Calculate the free space loss a
frequency of 6GHZ.

(a) 200.4db.

(b) 20.4db.

(c) 2.4db.

(d) None of above

66. An antenna has a noise temperature of 35k & its matched into a receiver which has a noise temp
of 100k. Calculate the noise power densit.

(a) 1.86*10-21J

(b) 1.6*10-25J

(c) 186*10-21J

(d) None of above

67. An antenna has a noise temperature of 35k & its matched into a receiver which has a noise temp
of 100k. Calculate the noise power density & the noise power for a BW of 36MHZ.

(a) 0.067pw

(b) 0.07pw

(c) 67pw

(d) None of above

68.What is a single mode of operation?

(a) A transponder channel aboard a satellite may be fully loaded by a single transmission from an
earth-station. This is referred to as a single access mode of operation.

(b) A transponder channel aboard a satellite may be fully loaded by a full duplex transmission channel
from an earth-station. This is referred to as a single access mode of operation.

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

69. What are the methods of multiple acess techniques?

(a) TDMA

(b) FDMA

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

70. What is in CDMA?& its types?

 (a) In this method each signal is associated with a particular code that is used to spread the signal
in frequency & or time.

(b) In this method all signal is associated with a particular code that is used to spread the signal in
frequency & or time.

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

71. Types of CDMA?

(a) Spread spectrum multiple acess

(b) pulse address multiple acess

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

72.What is a thin route service?

(a) SCPC systems are widely used on lightly loaded routes, this type of service being referred to as a
thin route service.

(b) SCPC systems are widely used on heavily loaded routes, this type of service being referred to as a
thin route service.

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

73. What is an important feature of Intelsat SCPC system?

(a) The system is that each channel is voice activated. This means that on a two way telephone
conversation only one carrier is operative at any one time.

(b) The system is that each channel is video activated. This means that on a two way telephone
conversation only one carrier is operative at any one time.

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

74.What is an TDMA?What are the Advantage?

(a) Only one carrier uses the transponder at anyone time,& therefore intermodulation products,
which results from the nonlinear amplification of multiple carriers are absent.

(b) Only one carrier uses the transponder at anyone time, & therefore inter-modulation products, which
results from the nonlinear amplification of multiple carriers are present.
(c) a&b

(d) None of above

75. What is Advantage of a TDMA?

(a) The transponder traveling wave tube can be operated at maximum power o/p.

(b) The transponder traveling wave tube can be operated at saturation power o/p

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

76. What is preamble?

(a) Certain time slots at the beginning of each burst are used to carry timing &synchronizing
information. These time slots collectively are referred to as preamble.

(b) Certain time slots at the beginning of two burst are used to carry timing & synchronizing information.
These time slots collectively are referred to as preamble.

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

77. Define guard time.

(a). It is necessary to between bursts to prevent the bursts from overlapping.

(b). the guard time will vary from burst to burst depending on the accuracy with which the various bursts
can be positioned within each frame.

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

78. What is meant by decoding quenching?

(a). It In certain phase detection systems the phase detector must be allowed time to recover from
one burst before the next burst is received by it. This is known as decoding quenching.

(b). In certain phase detection systems the phase detector must be allowed phase to recover from one burst
before the next burst is received by it. This is known as decoding quenching.

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

79. What is meant by direct closed loop feedback?

(a). The timing positions are reckoned from the last bit of the unique word in the preamble .The
loop method is also known as direct closed loop feedback.

(b). The timing positions are reckoned from the last bit of the unique word in the postamble. The loop
method is also known as direct closed loop feedback.

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

80. What is meant by feedback closed loop control?

(a). The synchronization information is transmitted back to an earth station from a distant, that is
termed feedback closed loop control.

(b). The synchronization information is transmitted forth to an earth station from a distant, that is termed
feedback closed loop control.

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

81. Define frame efficiency.

a). It is a measure of the fraction of frame time used for the transmission of Traffic

(b). It is a measure of the fraction of information time used for the transmission of Traffic.

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

82. What is meant by telephone load activity factor?

a). The fraction of time a transmission channel is active is known as the telephone load activity
factor.

(b). The fraction of time a transmission channel is paasive is known as the telephone load activity factor.

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

83. What is meant by digital speech interpolation?

a). The point is that for a significant fraction of the time the channel is available for other
transmissions,& advantages is taken of this in a form of demand assignment known as digital
speech interpolation.
 (b). The point is that for a significant fraction of the time the channel is available for peer
transmissions,& advantages is taken of this in a form of predefined assignment known as digital speech
interpolation.

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

84. What are the type of digital speech interpolation?

a). Digital time assignment speech interpolation

(b). Analog time assignment speech interpolation

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

85. What are the type of digital speech interpolation?

a). Speech predictive encoded communications

(b). video predictive encoded communications

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

86. What is meant by freeze out?

a). It has assumed that a free satellite channel will be found for any incoming speech spurt, but of
course there is a finite probability that all channels will be occupied & the speech spurt lost. Losing
a speech spurt in this manner is referred to as freeze out.

(b). The point is that for a significant fraction of the time the channel is available for peer transmissions,&
advantages is taken of this in a form of predefined assignment referred to as freeze out.

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

87. What is DSI?

a). The DSI gain is the ratio of the number of terrestrial channels to number of satellite channels. It
depends on the number of satellite channels provided as well the design objectives stated above.

(b). The DSI gain is the ratio of the number of satellite channels to number of terrestrial channels. It
depends on the number of satellite channels provided as well the design objectives stated above.

(c) a&b
(d) None of above

88. What are the advantage of SPEC method over DSI method?

a). The SPEC method over DSI method is that freez-out does not occur during overload conditions.

(b). The SPEC method over DSI method is that freez-out does occur during overload conditions.

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

89.What is ratio of bit rate IF bandwidth?

a). Rb/BH=m/(1+p)

(b). Rb/BH=m2/(1+p)

(c) Rb/BH=m/(1+p)2

(d) None of above

90.What are the demerits of conventional approach method?

a). Excessive size&weight

(b). Power consumption.

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

91.Define space division multiplexing.

a). The satellites in Geostationary orbit can be achieved through the use of antenna spot beams. The
use of spot beam is also known as space division multiplexing.

(b). The satellites in non-Geostationary orbit can be achieved through the use of antenna spot beams.The
use of spot beam is also known as space division multiplexing.

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

92.Define satellite switched TDMA?

a). Space division multiplexing can be realized by switching the antenna interconnections in
synchronism with the TDMA frame rate, this being know as satellite switched TDMA
(b). Space division multiplexing can be realized by switching the antenna interconnections in
synchronism with the FDMA frame rate, this being know as satellite switched TDMA

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

93. What is SS/TDMA?

a). A modern pattern is a repetitive sequence of satellite switch modes,also referred to as SS/TDMA

(b). A modern pattern is a non-repetitive sequence of satellite switch modes,also referred to as SS/TDMA

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

94.What is processing gain?

a). The jamming or interference signal energy is reduced by a factor known as the processing gain.

(b). The jamming or interference signal energy is increased by a factor known as the processing gain.

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

95. What are the applications of Radarsat?

a). Shipping & fisheries

(b). Ocean feature mapping

(c) a&b

(d) None of above

96. What are the applications of Radarsat?

a). Oil pollution monitoring

(b). Iceberg detection

(c) Crop monitoring

(d) a, b & c

97. What is ECEF?

a). The geocentric equatorial coordinate system is used with the GPS system, where it is called the
earth centered, earth fixed coordinate system.
(b). The geocentric equatorial coordinate system is used with the GPS system, where it is called the earth
circular, earth first coordinate system.

(c) a&b

(d) None of these

98. What is dilution of precision?

a). Position calculations involve range differences,& where the ranges are nearly equal,any error is
greatly magnified in the difference.This effect,brought about as known as a result of the satellite
geometry is known as dilution of precision.

(b). Position calculations involve range differences,& where the ranges are nearly unequal, any error is
greatly magnified in the difference. This effect, brought about as known as a result of the satellite
geometry is known as dilution of precision.

(c) a & b

(d) None of these

100. What is PDOP?

a). With the GPS system, dilution of position is taken into account through a factor known as the
position dilution of precision.

(b). With the GPS system, dilution of power is taken into account through a factor known as the power
dilution of precision.

(c) a & b

(d) None of these

101. What is burst code word?

(a). It is a binary word , a copy of which is stored at each earth station.

(b). It is a digital word, a copy of which is stored at each earth station.

(c) a & b

(d) None of these

102. Defin SIC.

(a). The identifies the Transmitting station.

(b). The identifies the Receiving station.

(c) a & b
(d) None of these

103. What is a start of receiving frame?

(a). At any given traffic station, detection of the unique word in the reference burst signals the start
of receiving frame.

(b). Detection of the letter in the reference burst signals the start of receiving frame.

(c) a & b

(d) None of these

104. What is meant by burst position acquisition & burst position synchronization?

(a). A station just entering ,or reentering after a long delay to acquire its correct slot position.

(b). A station just entering , or reentering after a long delay to acquire its un-correct slot position.

(c) a & b

(d) None of these

105. What is a single access?

(a). A transponder channel aboard a satellite may be fully loaded by a single transmission from
earth station.

(b). A transponder channel aboard a satellite may be fully loaded by a double transmission from earth
station.

(c) a & b

(d) None of these

106. What is an multiple access technique?

(a). A transponder to be loaded by a number of carriers. These may originate from a number of
earth station may transmit one or more of the carriers. This mode of operation known as multiple
access technique.

(b). A transponder to be loaded by a number of carriers.

(c) a & b

(d) None of these

107. What are types of multiple access technique?

(a). FDMA

(b). TDMA

(c) a & b

(d) None of these

108. What is meant by frequency reuse?

(a). The satellite as a whole to be accessed by earth stations widely separated geographically but
transmitting on the same frequency i.e. , known as frequency reuse.

(b). The satellite as a whole to be accessed by earth stations widely separated geographically but
transmitting on the different frequency i.e. , known as frequency reuse.

(c) a & b

(d) None of these

109. What is meant by space division multiple access?

(a). The satellite as a whole to be accessed by earth stations widely separated geographically but
transmitting on the same frequency i.e. ,known as frequency reuse. This method of access known as
space division multiple access.

(b). The satellite as a whole to be accessed by earth stations widely separated geographically but
transmitting on the different frequency i.e. , known as frequency reuse. This method of access known as
space division multiple access.

(c) a & b

(d) None of these

110. Write the equations of C/N ratio.

(a). C/N0=(EIRP)+(G/T)-LOSSES-(K) dBHz.

(b). C/N0=(EIRP)-LOSSES-(K) dBHz.

(c) C/N0=(EIRP)-LOSSES-(K) dB.

(d) None of these

111. What is an error detecting code?

(a). A code which allows for the detection of errors is termed an error detecting code.

(b). A code which allows for the correcting of errors is termed an error detecting code.
(c) a&b.

(d) None of these

112. Primary component of uplink section of satellite is

a) transformer

b) transistor

c) earth station transmitter

d) power station transmitter

113. Sound signals in TV are

a) amplitude modulated

b) dc modulated

c) frequency modulated

d) a and c

114. Video signals in TV are

a) Amplitude modulated

b) de-modulated

c) Frequency modulated

d) None of these

Q115. In a communication satellite if the beam width required for national coverage is 1°,
then the beam width required for full global coverage may be around

a) 360°

b) 180°

c) 72°

d) 18°
Q116. With reference to satellite communication, the anti-jamming technique preferred is

a) key leverage

b) Frequency hopping

c) Once-only key

d) Frequency-spectrum modulation

Q117. MODEM is

a) A circuit which carries out modulation and demodulation of a carrier frequency

b) An automatic repeat request a device for correcting errors

c) A system for transmitting high speed bursts

d) Anti-jamming technique invariably installed on all communication satellites

Q118. DAMA stands for

a) Data accessibility master aerial

b) Digital attenuators microwave antenna

c) Dual accessibility mode antenna

d) Demand assigned multiple access

Q119. PCM system is used in satellite communications for transmission of

a) TV signal

b) Telegraph signal

c) Speech signal

d) All the above

Q120. An antenna can be made moredirectional by

a) Increseing its diameter

b) Increaseing frequency of transmission

c) Either of (a) or (b) above

d) None of the above

Q121. In satellite communication modulation is used

a) AM

b) FM

c) PWM

d) PAM

Q122. FM is preferred for satellite communication because

a) Satellite channel has large bandwidth and severe noise

b) It give high modulation index

c) Low bandwidth is essentialiy requerment

d) Non of the above

Q123. As on-line, real time data transmission system is most likely to require a connection that is

a) Time shared

b) Frequency shared

c) Simplex

d) Duplex

Q124. ARQ stands for

a) Accelerated redirection facility

b) Amplitude ratiodetector quantizing noise

c) Automatic repeat request

d) Aerial range quartz crystel

Q125. For globle communication, the minimum number of satellites needed is

a) 1

b) 3

c) 7

d) 11
Q126. The frequency band used by most satellites is

a) UHF

b) VHF

c) SHF

d) EHF

Q127. The total noise of a satellite earth station receiving system consists of

a) Sky noise

b) Antenna and feeder noise

c) Parametric amplifier noise

d) All of the above

Q128. The optimum working frequency for satellite systems lies between

a) 20 MHz and 100 MHz

b) 2 GHz and 12 GHz

c) 20 GHz and 100 GHz

d) 100 GHz and 200 GHz

Q129. Compander

a) Give a poor ratio of signal to duantizing error, for weaker signals

b) Give preferential treatment to stronger parts of the signal

c) Compresses the higher amplitude parts of a signal before modulation and expand them back
to normal again after demodulation

d) None of the above

Q130. In TV broadcast via satellite the TV signal from the main broadcast station is routed to the
earth station via

a) Low power transmitters

b) Microwave links

c) TV relay stations
 d) Microwave repeater stations

Q 131. A telephone communication link between two countries is established throu a composite
system using submarine cable and satellite when

a) Two countries are far apart

b) Political links between two countries have been severed

c) Two countiees are not facing common satellite

d) Two countries are not different continents

Q132. A synchronous satellite orbits the earth once in

a) 24 hours

b) 12 hours

c) 6 hours

d) 1 hours

Q133. The velocity of a geostationary satellite is nearly

a) 1255 km/hr

b) 6757 km/hr

c) 9422 km/hr

d) 12644 km/hr

Q134. Geostationary satellites are located at a height of

a) 3600 km from earth’s surface

b) 36000 km from earth’s surface

c) 360,000 km from earth’s surface

d) 3600,000 km from earth’s surface

Q135. Geostationary satellite follow

a) Circular path

b) Elliptical path

c) Inclined path
 d) Cycloidal path

Q136. Geostationary satellite are generally put in……..orbit and domestic satellite in …….orbit

a) Polar, inclined orbit

b) Polar, equatorial

c) Equatorial, polar

d) Inclined , polar

Q137. Which area is least effectively coverd by geostationary satellites?

a) Equatorial region

b) Polar region

c) A and C

d) None of the above

Q 138. Satellite used for intercontinental communications are known as

a) COMAT

b) DOMSAT

c) INTELSAT

d) EARSAT

Q139. A satellite earth station has

a) Receiving facilites only

b) Transmitting only

c) A and C

d) A , c and attenuating

Q140. Satellite recieves signal from

a) Microwave repeater stations

b) TV relay station

c) Appropriate earth station

 d) All of the above

Q141. The main advantage of satelliite comminication is

a) Low cost

b) Low distortion

c) High reliability

d) High band width

Q 141. A communication satellite is a repeater between

a) one transmitting and one receiving station

b) one transmitting and many receiving station

c) many transmitting and one receiving station

d) many transmitting and many receiving station

Q143. The angle subtended by earth at a geostationary communication satellite is nearly

a) 66.5

b) 47.34

c) 17.34

d) 7.34

Q144. In analog technique of modulation in satellite, the most commonly employed system is

a) AM

b) FM

c) PAM

d) PWM

Q145. Which is the most commanly employed modulation technique in the commercial
communication satellite syatem?

a) FM

b) Digital modulation

c) Analoge modulation
 d) All of the above

Q146. Transmission bandwidth for satellite system least depends on

a) Modulation method

b) Overall costs

c) Available technology

d) Ionospheric characteristics

Q147. A certain sound has 1000 times more eneergy then another sound. The number of
times it would sound stronger to a listener will be

a) 1000

b) 100

c) 30

d) 3

Q148. Shannon’s law relates

a) Antenna gain to bandwidth

b) Frequency to antenna gain

c) Antenna gain to transmission losses

d) Information carring capacity to S/N ratio

Q149. The orbital period of a satellite is proportional to (r-> radius)

a) r

b) r

c) r3 / 2

d) r2

Q150. Primary source of power for satellite is

a) lead acid battery

b) nickel-cadmium battery
 c) solar cells

d) regulated power supply

Q151. A 20 meter antenna give a certain up-link gain at 5 GHz. For getting the same gain
at 25 GHz ate antenna size required will be

a) 100 m

b) 80 m

c) 20 m

d) 4 m

Q152. Which antenna is used for sending back signals from satellite to earth?

a) Dipole antenna

b) Horn antenna

c) Yagi antenna

d) Chicken-mash antenna

Q153. The signal to noise ratio for a satellite signal least depends on

a) Satellite surface area

b) Bandwidth

c) Free space path losses

d) Effective isotropically radiated power

Q154. In a communication satellite, the telephone channels are assembled in

a) AM

b) FM

c) TDM

d) FDM
155. One technique to enable a TV subscriber to interact is to provide an optional data
channel from which a variety of information may be selected.

a) true

b) false

c) equal

d) none of these

156. A satellite transponder receives a ___ beam width to ___ the amount of energy
received. In the downlink direction a ___ beam width is used to provide an adequately
sized ___.

a) narrow; maximize; wide; footprint

b) narrow; minimize wide; footprint

c) wide; maximize; wide; footprint

d) none of these

157. An offset focus receiving antenna has the advantage that the LNB/C is so mounted as
to not block any of the incoming radio waves.

a) true

b) false

c) equal

d) none of these

158. In satellite communication, a signal received by an antenna is fed directly into the
receiving equipment via a suitable transmission medium.

a) true

b) false

c) equal

d) none of these
159. Geostationery satellites, once placed in their correct orbit, remain correctly positioned
until the lifetime of their equipment expires.

a) true

b) false

c) equal

d) none of these

160. Atmospheric drag has negligible effect on

(a). geostationary satellites

(b). MEO

(c). LEO

(d) None of these

161. Atmospheric drag has effect on

(a). geostationary satellites

(b). MEO

(c). LEO satellites below about 1000 km.

(d) None of these

162. An oblate spheroid is

(a). The earth is not perfectly spherical, there being an equatorial bulge and a flattening at the
poles, a shape described as an oblate spheroid

(b). The earth is perfectly spherical, there being an equatorial bulge and a flattening at the poles, a shape
described as an oblate spheroid

(c). LEO satellites.

(d) None of these

163. The earth is not perfectly spherical?

(a). The earth is not perfectly spherical, there being an equatorial bulge and a flattening at the poles
(b). The earth is perfectly spherical, there being an equatorial bulge and a flattening at the poles

(c). LEO satellites.

(d) None of these

Q164. A satellite is orbiting in the equatorial plane with a period from perigee to perigee of 12 h.
Given that the eccentricity is 0.002, calculate the semi-major axis. The earth’s equatorial radius is
6378.1414 km.

(a) 26610Km (b) 2660Km

(c) 6610m (d) 266Km

165. The drag is greatest at the perigee?

(a) Because the drag is greatest at the perigee, the drag acts to reduce the velocity at this point,
with the result that the satellite does not reach the same apogee height on successive revolutions.

(b) Because the drag is greatest at the perigee, the drag acts to increase the velocity at this point, with the
result that the satellite does reach the same apogee height on successive revolutions.

(c). LEO satellites.

(d) None of these

Q166. A tropical year contains?

(a) 365.2422 days (b) 365days

(c) 366days (d) none of these

Q167. Determine which of the following years are leap years?

(a) 1987 (b) 1988

(c) 1986 (d) none of these

Q168. Cconditions are required for an orbit to be geostationary:

(a) The satellite must travel eastward at the same rotational speed as the earth.

(b). The orbit must be circular.

(c). The inclination of the orbit must be zero.

(d). all of these

Q169. A key parameter in link-budget calculations is

(a) the equivalent isotropic radiated power

 (b) FSL
(c) AA
(d) None of these

Q170. [EIRP] is

(a) [EIRP] = [PS]+[G]dBW

(b). [EIRP] = [PS]+[G]dB

(c). The inclination of the orbit must be zero.

(d). none of these

Q171. For a paraboloidal antenna, the isotropic power gain is given by

(a) G (10.472fD) 2

(b) G (10.472fD) 2

(c) G (10.472fD)

(d) none of these

Q172. For a paraboloidal antenna, the isotropic power gain is given by (with the diameter D in feet)

(a) G (3.192fD) 2

(b) G (10.472fD) 2

(c) G (10.472fD)

(d) none of these

Q173. [FSL]=?

(a) [FSL] =32.4+20 log r+20 log f

(b) [FSL] = 20 log r+20 log f

(c) [FSL] =32.4+20 log r+20 log (wavelength)

(d) none of these

Q174. [PR]=?

(a) [PR]=[EIRP]+[GR]-[FSL]

(b) [PR]=[EIRP]+[GR]
(c) [PR]=[EIRP]+[ FSL]

(d) none of these

Q175. The losses for clear-sky conditions are

(a) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[RFL] +[AML] +[AA] +[PL]

(b) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[AA] +[PL]

(c) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[RFL] +[AML]

(d) none of these

Q176. The Link-Power Budget Equation?

(a) [PR] =[EIRP] +[GR] -[LOSSES]

(b) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[AA] +[PL]

(c) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[RFL] +[AML]

(d) none of these

Q177. A satellite link operating at 14 GHz has receiver feeder losses of 1.5 dB and a free-space loss
of 207 dB. The atmospheric absorption loss is 0.5 dB, and the antenna pointing loss is 0.5 dB.
Depolarization losses may be neglected. Calculate the total link loss for clear-sky conditions.

(a) 209.5dB (b) 29.5dB

(c) 209.5 (d) none of these

Q177. The main characteristic of thermal noise is that

(a) It has a flat frequency spectrum.

(b) It has a slot frequency spectrum

(c) It has a thick frequency spectrum

(d) none of these

Q178. The direct equivalence between noise factor and noise temperature:

(a ) Te= (F -1) T0

(b) Te= (F -10) T0

(c) Te= (F+1) T0

(d) none of these

Q179. An LNA is connected to a receiver which has a noise figure of 12 dB. The gain of the LNA is
40 dB, and its noise temperature is 120 K. Calculate the overall noise temperature referred to the
LNA input.

a)120.43K

(b) 12.43K

(c) 20.43K

(d) none of these

Q180. The uplink?

(a) The uplink of a satellite circuit is the one in which the earth station is transmitting the signal
and the satellite is receiving it.

(b) The uplink of a satellite circuit is the one in which the earth station is receiving the signal and the
satellite is transmitting it.

(c) signal transmission

(d) none of these

C
Q181. =
N

C
(a) [EIRP ] [G R ] [LOSSES ] [k ] [TS ] [B N ]
N

C
(b) [EIRP ] [G R ] [LOSSES ] [TS ] [B N ]
N

C
(c) [EIRP ] [G R ] [LOSSES ] [k ] [TS ]
N

(d) none of these

Q182. The uplink?

(a) The uplink of a satellite circuit is the one in which the earth station is transmitting the signal and the
satellite is receiving it.
Q183. For a satellite circuit the individual link carrier-to-noise spectral density ratios are: uplink
100 dBHz; downlink 87 dBHz. Calculate the combined (C/N0) ratio.

(a) 86.79 dBHz

(b) 86.79 dB

(c) 6.79 dBHz

(d) none of these

Q184. Intermodulation noise.:

(a) Intermodulation occurs where multiple carriers pass through any device with nonlinear characteristics.

(b) Where a large number of modulated carriers are present, the inter-modulation products are not
distinguishable separately but instead appear as a type of noise which is termed intermodulation
noise.

(c) Intermodulation occurs where single carriers pass through any device with nonlinear characteristics.

(d) none of these

Q185. For a satellite circuit the carrier-to-noise ratios are uplink 23 dB, downlink 20 dB,
intermodulation 24 dB. Calculate the overall carrier- to-noise ratio in decibels.

(a) 17.2dBHz

(b) 86.79 dB

(c) 6.79 dBHz

(d) none of these

Q186. In order to reduce intermodulation noise:

(a) In order to reduce intermodulation noise, the TWT must be operated in a BO condition.

(b) In order to increase intermodulation noise, the TWT must be operated in a BO condition

(c) In order to reduce intermodulation noise, the TWT must be operated in a saturation condition

(d) In order to reduce intermodulation noise, the TWT must be operated in a BO condition

Q187. The space segment will obviously include the satellites, but it also includes the ground
facilities needed to keep the satellites operational, these being referred to:

(a) As the tracking, telemetry, and command (TT&C) facilities.

(b) The earth station is receiving the signal and the satellite is transmitting it.
(c) signal transmission

(d) none of these

Q188. The transponder forms one of the main sections of the payload, the other being:

(a) The antenna subsystems.

(b) The earth station is receiving the signal and the satellite is transmitting it.

(c) signal transmission

(d) none of these

Q189. In the C band and, more especially, the Ku band, rainfall is the most significant cause of:

(a) Signal fading.

(b) Signal spreading

(c) Attenuation

(d) none of these.

Q190. The period of a satellite, the time required for a satellite to make a complete trip around the
Earth, is determined by _________ law.

A) Kepler's

B) Newton's

C) Ohm's

D) none of the above

Q191. The signal from a satellite is normally aimed at a specific area called the _________.

A) path

B) effect

C) footprint

D) none of the above

Q192. There is (are) _____ orbit(s) for a GEO satellite.

A) one

B) two
 C) many

D) none of the above

Q193. MEO satellites are located at altitudes between km.

A) 3000 and 5000

B) 5000 and 10,000

C) 5000 and 15,000

D) none of the above

Q194. LEO satellites are normally below an altitude of ________ km.

A) 1000

B) 2000

C) 3000

D) none of the above

Q195. ______ is based on a principle called trilateration.

A) GPS

B) Teledesic

C) Iridium

D) none of the above

Q196. Low-Earth-orbit (LEO) satellites have _____ orbits.

A) equatorial

B) polar

C) inclined

D) none of the above

Q197. A GEO is at the ________ orbit and revolves in phase with Earth.

A) equatorial

B) polar
 C) inclined

D) none of the above

Q198. GPS satellites are ________ satellites.

A) GEO

B) MEO

C) LEO

D) none of the above

Q199. ________ satellites provide time and location information for vehicles and ships.

A) GPS

B) Iridium

C) Teledesic

D) none of the above

Q200. Iridium satellites are ________satellites.

A) GEO

B) MEO

C) LEO

D) none of the above

Q201. ________ Satellites can provide direct universal voice and data communications for handheld
terminals.

A) GPS

B) Iridium

C) Teledesic

D) none of the above

Q202. Teledesic satellites are _________satellites.

A) GEO

B) MEO
 C) LEO

D) none of the above

Q203. ________ satellites will provide universal broadband Internet access.

A) GPS

B) Iridium

C) Teledesic

D) none of the above

Q204. The payload refers to:

A) The payload refers to the equipment used to pro-vide the service for which the satellite has been
launched.

B) Satellites can provide direct universal voice and data communications for handheld terminals.

C) data communications

D) none of the above

Q205. The bus refers to:

A) The payload refers to the equipment used to pro-vide the service for which the satellite has been
launched.

B) The bus refers not only to the vehicle which carries the payload but also to the various subsystems
which provide the power, attitude control, orbital control, thermal control, and command and
telemetry functions required to service the payload.

C) data communications

D) none of the above

Q206. The primary electrical power for operating the electronic equipment in satellite is obtained from:

A) The payload refers to the equipment used to pro-vide the service for which the satellite has been
launched.

B) The bus refers not only to the vehicle which carries the payload.

C) solar cells

D) none of the above

Q207. At the beginning of life, the panels produce ________ dc power, which may drop to ______ at
the end of 10 years.

(a) 940 W, 760 W

(b) 900 W, 760 W

(c) 940 W, 70 W

(d) None of these

Q207. During eclipse, power is provided by two nickel-cadmium (Ni-Cd) long-life batteries, which
will deliver _______.

(a) 800 W

(b) 830 W

(c) 880 W

(d) None of these

Q208. At the end of life, battery recharge time is less than ________.

(a) 200h

(b) 700h

(c) 16h

(d) None of these

Q209. The HS 601 can be designed to provide dc power from __________.

(a) 2 to 4 kW

(b) 1 to 1.4 kW

(c) 2 to 6 kW

(d) None of these

Q210. Attitude control is necessary, for example________.

(a) To ensure that directional antennas point in the proper directions.

(b) Proper gain

(c) Proper moment

(d) None of these

Q211. Infrared sensors, referred to as horizon detectors, are used ________.

(a) To ensure that directional antennas point in the proper directions.

(b) To detect the rim of the earth against the background of space.

(c) Proper moment

(d) None of these

Q212. Passive attitude control ________.

(a) To ensure that directional antennas point in the proper directions.

(b) Passive attitude control refers to the use of mechanisms which stabilize the satellite without
putting a drain on the satellite’s energy supplies.

(c) Proper moment

(d) None of these

Q213. Active attitude control ________.

(a) To ensure that directional antennas point in the proper directions.

(b) With active atti-tude control, there is no overall stabilizing torque present to resist the
disturbance torques.

(c) Proper moment

(d) None of these

Q214. The INTELSAT VI satellite used ________.

(a) The INTELSAT VI satellite used heaters to maintain propulsion thrusters and line
temperatures.

(b) With active atti-tude control, there is no overall stabilizing torque present to resist the disturbance
torques.

(c) Proper moment

(d) None of these

Q215. The earth segment of a satellite communications system consists of ________.

(a) The earth segment of a satellite communications system consists of the transmit and receive
earth stations.
(b) With active attitude control, there is no overall stabilizing torque present to resist the disturbance
torques.

(c) Proper moment

(d) None of these

Q216. Direct broadcast satellite (DBS) service ________.

(a) Planned broadcasting directly to home TV receivers

(b) With active attitude control, there is no overall stabilizing torque present to resist the disturbance
torques.

(c) Proper moment

(d) None of these

Q217. Planned broadcasting directly to home TV receivers takes place in ________.

(a) Planned broadcasting directly to home TV receivers

(b) With active attitude control, there is no overall stabilizing torque present to resist the disturbance
torques.

(c) The Ku (12-GHz) band

(d) None of these

Q218. In the Americas, for example, the down-link band is ________.

(a) 12.2 to 12.7 GHz

(b) With active attitude control, there is no overall stabilizing torque present to resist the disturbance
torques.

(c) The Ku (12-GHz) band

(d) None of these

Q219. In The comparatively large satellite receiving dishes [ranging in diame-ter from about 1.83 m (6 ft)
to about 3-m (10 ft) in some locations], which may be seen in some “_______” are used to receive
downlink TV signals.
.
(a) Backyards
(b) With active attitude control, there is no overall stabilizing torque present to resist the disturbance
torques.

(c) The Ku (12-GHz) band

(d) None of these

Q220. In The comparatively large satellite receiving dishes [ranging in diame-ter from about 1.83 m (6 ft)
to about 3-m (10 ft) in some locations], which may be seen in some “_______” are used to receive
downlink TV signals at _________.
.
(a) Backyards, C-band

(b) With active attitude control, there is no overall stabilizing torque present to resist the disturbance
torques.

(c) Backyards, The Ku (12-GHz) band

(d) None of these

Q221. One of the advantages claimed by sellers of ______ equipment for home reception is that there is
no loss of quality compared with the compressed digital signals.

(a) C-band

(b) Ka band

(c) Ku (12-GHz) band

(d) None of these

Q222. The most widely advertised receiving system for C-band system appears to be 4DTV manufactured
by Motorola. This enables reception of:

(a) Free, analog signals and “wild feeds”

(b) With active attitude control, there is no overall stabilizing torque present to resist the disturbance
torques.

(c) Free DigiCipher 2 services

(d) a and c.

Q223. The most widely advertised receiving system for C-band system appears to be 4DTV manufactured
by Motorola. This enables reception of:

(a) Subscription DigiCipher 2 services

(b) Video-Cipher ll plus subscription services

(c) Free DigiCipher 2 services

(d) all of these

Q224. VideoCipher is the brand name for the equipment used to ________.

(a) scramble analog TV signals

(b) With active attitude control, there is no overall stabilizing torque present to resist the disturbance
torques.

(c) The Ku (12-GHz) band

(d) None of these

Q225. The major difference between the Ku-band and the C-band receive-only systems lie in the
frequency of operation of ________.

(a) 12.2 to 12.7 GHz

(b) The indoor unit

(c) The outdoor unit

(d) None of these

Q226. The major difference between the Ku-band and the C-band that satellites intended for DBS have
much ________.

(a) higher equivalent isotropic radiated power(EIRP)

(b) The indoor unit

(c) The home unit

(d) None of these

Q227. The signal fed to the indoor unit is normally a wideband signal covering the range ________.

(a) 12.2 to 12.7 GHz

(b) 950 to 1450 MHz.

(c) 12-GHz

(d) None of these

Q228. A major difference between DBS TV and conventional TV is that with DBS, ___________ is used,
whereas with con-ventional TV, ___________in the form of vestigial single side-band (VSSB) is used.

(a) Frequency modulation, amplitude modulation

(b) Frequency modulation, digital modulation

(c) Phase modulation, amplitude modulation

(d) None of these

Q229. A major difference between DBS TV and conventional TV is that with DBS, FM is used, whereas
with con-ventional TV, AM in the form of _______is used.

(a) Vestigial single side-band (VSSB)

(b) Frequency modulation

(c) Phase modulation

(d) None of these

Q230. MATV stand as________.

(a) Master antenna TV ( MATV)

(b) Maximum Angular TV

(c) Multi amplitude TV

(d) None of these

Q231. A master antenna TV(MATV) system is used to provide reception of DBS TV/FM channels to a
small group of users, for example_____________.

(a) To the tenants in an apartment building

(b) With attitude control, there is no overall stabilizing torque present to resist the disturbance torques.

(c) The Ku (12-GHz) band

(d) None of these

Q232. A master antenna TV(MATV) system is used to provide reception of __________to a small group
of users, for example to the tenants in an apartment building.

(a) DBS TV/FM channels

(b) FM channels
(c) The Ku (12-GHz) band

(d) None of these

Q233. CATV stands as ________.

(a) Community antenna TV ( MATV)

(b) Carrier Angular TV

(c) Cost amplitude TV

(d) None of these

Q234. The CATV system employs a single_________, with separate feeds available for each sense of
polarization.

(a) Outdoor unit

(b) Indoor unit

(c) TV unit

(d) None of these

Q235. In remote areas where a cable distribution system may not be installed, the signal can be
rebroadcast from____________.

(a) EHF TV transmitter

(b) A low-power VHF TV transmitter

(c) TV transmitter

(d) None of these

Q236. With the CATV system, local programming material also may be distributed to subscribers, an
option which is _________in the MATV system.

(a) Not permitted

(b) Permitted

(c) Transmitted

(d) None of these

Q237. In a 6/4-GHz heavy-route system, each satellite channel (bandwidth 36 MHz) is capable of
carrying ________________simultaneously or a single-color analog TV signal with associated audio.

(a) Under 960 one way voice circuits

(b) Over 960 one-way voice circuits

(c) Over 960 two way voice circuits

(d) None of these

Q238. DBS services stands as________.

(a) Direct broadcast satellite

(b) Distance broadcast satellite

(c) Distributed broadcast satellite

(d) None of these

Q239. Broadcast services include______________.

(a) Audio services

(b) Television services

(c) Internet services

(d) All of these

Q240. Direct broadcast television ________.

(a) Digital TV

(b) Double TV

(c) Analog TV

(d) None of these

Q241. The orbital spacing is ______ for the high-power satellites, so adjacent satellite interference is
considered nonexistent.

(a) 18°
(b) 9°
(c) 27°
(d) None of these
Q242. A satellite may carry ______ transponders.

(a) 32

(b) 41

(c) 24

(d) None of these

Q243. If all 32 transponders are in use, each will operate at the lower power rating of__________.

(a) 12 W

(b) 120 W

(c) 1200 W

(d) None of these

Q244. By doubling up the high-power amplifiers, the number of transponders is_________.

(a) Increased by half to 48

(b) Reduced by half to 16

(c) same

(d) None of these

Q245. By doubling up the high-power amplifiers, the number of transponders is reduced by half to 16, but
each transponder operates at____________.

(a) The higher power rating of 120 W

(b) The higher power rating of 240 W

(c) Same

(d) None of these

Q246. The frequencies for direct broadcast satellites vary from region to region throughout the world,
although these are generally in the_____________.

(a) Ku band

(b) Ka band

(c) C-band
(d) None of these

Q247. The primary use of which is for DBS, the uplink frequency range is_________, and the downlink
range is 12.2 to 12.7 GHz.

(a) 17.3 to 17.8 GHz

(b) 17.3 to 19.8 GHz

(c) 15.3 to 17.8 GHz

(d) None of these

Q248. The primary use of these satellites, however, is for point-to-point applications, with an allowed
additional use in the__________.

(a) DBS service

(b) Communication service

(c) Satellite

(d) None of these

Q249. The total of 32 transponders requires the use of both right-hand circular polarization (RHCP) and
left-hand circular polarization (LHCP) in order to permit_______, and guard bands are inserted between
channels of a given polarization.

(a) Frequency reuse

(b) Channel
(c) Transmit information
(d) None of these

Q250. The 24-MHz bandwidth of a transponder is capable of carrying__________.

(a) One analog television channel

(b) Two analog television channel

(c) Four analog television channel

(d) None of these

Q251. DTH stands as________.

(a) Direct-to-home (DTH)

(b) Distance-to-home (DTH)

(c) Double-to-home (DTH)

(d) None of these

Q252. The bit rate for digital television depends very much on the___________.

(a) Picture format

(b) Information format
(c) Voice format
(d) None of these

Q253. Using the HDTV format having a pixel count per frame of _____and a refresh rate of 30 frames
per second

(a) 192 * 108

(b) 1920 * 1080

(c) 920 * 1000

(d) None of these

Q254. In the broadcast raster for studio-quality television, when digitized according to the international
CCIR-601 television standard, requires a bit rate of___________.

(a) 216 Mb/s

(b) 26 Mb/s

(c) 2006 Mb/s

(d) None of these

Q255. Single DBS transponder has to carry somewhere between ___________TV programs to be
commercially viable.

(a) Four and eight

(b) Two and eight

(c) Six and eight

(d) None of these

Q256. MPEG stands as______.

(a) Moving Pictures Expert Group

(b) Most Pictures Expert Group

(c) Moving Pictures Enhance Group

(d) None of these

Q257. In DBS systems.

(a) MPEG-2 is used for video compression

(b) MPEG-2 is used for video enhancing
(c) MPEG-2 is used for audio compression
(d) None of these

Q258. As a first or preprocessing step, the analog outputs from the red (R), green (G), and blue (B) color
cameras are converted to________.

(a) A luminance component (Y) and two chrominance components (Cr) and (Cb)

(b) Two luminance component (Y) and (Cb) and one chrominance components (Cr)

(c) Two luminance component (Y), (Cb) and (Cr)

(d) None of these

Q259. MPEG-2 uses:

(a) 4:2:0 sampling

(b) ) 2:0:0 sampling

(c) ) 3:2:0 sampling

(d) None of these

Q260. 4:4:4 sampling means that_______.

(a) The sampling rates of Y, Cb, and Cr are equal

(b) The sampling rates of Y, Cb, and Cr are unequal

(c) a&b

(d) None of these

Q261. 4:2:2 sampling means that ________.

(a) The Cb and Cr signals are sampled at half the rate of the Y signal component.
(b) The Cb and Cr signals are sampled at double the rate of the Y signal component.
(c) a&b
(d) None of these
Q262. 4:2:0 sampling means that______.

(a) Cb and Cr are sampled at half the Y sampling rate, but they are sampled only on alternate scan
lines.
(b) Cb and Cr are sampled at double the Y sampling rate, but they are sampled only on alternate scan
lines.
(c) Cb and Cr are sampled at full the Y sampling rate, but they are sampled only on alternate scan lines.

(d) None of these

Q263. A macro-block consists of ________.

(a) 16 * 16 pixels

(b) 8 * 8 pixels

(c) 2 * 2 pixels

(d) None of these

Q264. In DBS system.

(a) MPEG-1 is used for video compression

(b) MPEG-1 is used for audio compression

(c) MPEG-1 is used for picture compression

(d) None of these

Q265. MPEG-4 is________.

(a) MPEG-4 provides many features not present with other compression schemes, such as interactivity for
viewers, where objects within a scene can be manipulated.

(b) MPEG-4 provides the major advantage is the reduction in bit rate offered in satellite television.

(c) a&b

(d) None of these

Q266. MPEG-4 provides the major advantage is the ________in bit rate offered in satellite television.

(a) Reduction
(b)Increment
(c) double
(d) None of these
Q267. ODU stands as_____.

(a) The Home Receiver Outdoor Unit

(b) The Home Receiver outside Unit

(c) The Home Receiver opposite Unit

(d) None of these

Q268. IDU stands as______.

(a) The Home Receiver input Unit

(b) The Home Receiver Indoor Unit

(c) The Home Receiver induce Unit

(d) None of these

Q269. Because of the highly compressed nature of the DBS signal, there is little ___________in the
information being transmitted, and bit errors affect the signal much more severely than they would in a
noncom-pressed bit stream.

(a) Redundancy

(b) Disturbance

(c) Noise

(d) None of these

Q270. In Because of the highly compressed nature of the DBS signal, there is little redundancy in the
information being transmitted, and bit errors affect the signal much ____severely than they would in a
non-compressed bit stream.

(a) More

(b) Less

(c) Same

(d) None of these

Q271. The use of turbo codes, and LDPC codes currently being introduced for high definition TV will
provide a much greater________ in transponder capacity.

(a) Increase

(b) Decrease

(c) Same

(d) None of these

Q272. The IDU must be able to receive any of the 32 transponders, although only _____ of these will be
available for a single polarization.

(a) 16

(b) 8

(c) 24

(d) None of these

Q273. The main factor governing performance of a DBS system will be the [Eb/N0] of the______.

(a) Uplink

(b) Downlink

(c) Up-downlink

(d) None of these

Q274. HDTV stands as________.

(a) High Definition Television

(b) Half Definition Television

(c) Huge Definition Television

(d) None of these

Q275. DirecTV plans to use _________in its HDTV satellite broadcasts and all HDTV services in Europe
are expected to use this rather than the MPEG-2.

(a) H.264/AVC

(b) H.24/AVC
(c) H.64/AVC

(d) None of these

Q276. CRT stands as_________.

(a) Combine ray tube

(b) Cathode ray tube

(c) Cathode rise tube

(d) None of these

Q277. The familiar direct view cathode ray tube (CRT) used for analog TV is _____of displaying HDTV.

(a) Not capable

(b) Capable

(c) Accept

(d) None of these

Q278. Types of display:

(a) Plasma displays

(b) Liquid crystal displays (LCD)

(c) Digital light processing (DLP) displays

(d) all of these

Q279. Plasma displays are made up of tiny______________. The video signal stimulates a gas inside the
cells, which impacts the phosphors causing them to glow.

(a) Cells coated with red, green, and black phosphors

(b) Cells coated with red, green, and blue phosphors

(c) Cells coated with white, green, and blue phosphors

(d) None of these

Q280. DLP displays utilize a digital micro-mirror device (DMD) invented by_______.

(a) Texas Instruments

(b) IBM
(c) STMicroelectronics

(d) None of these

Q281. The DMD contains approximately_________, each micro-mirror representing one pixel. The
micro-mirrors can be mechanically pivoted up to 5000 times a second, the pivoting being activated by the
video signal.

(a) 5.1 million micro-mirrors

(b) 10.3 million micro-mirrors

(c) 1.3 million micro-mirrors

(d) None of these

Q282. For NTSC analog TV, (see Sec. 9.5) Lact=483, L=525,a= 4/3, F lfb = 1.19 and F =30. With K =0.7.
Calculate the highest video frequency.

(a) 2.2 MHz

(b) 4.2 MHz

(c) 3.2 MHz

(d) None of these

Q283. Calculate the highest video frequency for HDTV 1080i. Assume a Kell factor of 0.7.

(a) 2.6 MHz

(b) 206 MHz
(c) 26 MHz
(d) None of these

Q284. VSAT stands as______.

(a) Very small aperture terminal system

(b) Vast small aperture terminal system

(c) Virtual small aperture terminal system

(d) None of these

Q285. The basic structure of a VSAT network consists of a hub station which provides a broadcast
facility to all the VSATs in the network and the VSATs themselves which access the satellite in some
form of___________.
(a) Multiple-access mode

(b) Multiplexing

(c) Channel

(d) None of these

Q286. ____________is the normal downlink mode of transmission from hub to the VSATs, and the
transmission can be broadcast for reception by all the VSATs in a network, or address coding can be used
to direct messages to selected VSATs.

(a) Space division multiplex

(b) Frequency division multiplex

(c) Time division multiplex

(d) None of these

Q287. The most popular access method is________, which allows the use of comparatively low-power
VSAT terminals

(a) FDMA

(b) TDMA

(c) CDMA

(d) None of these

Q288. DAMA can be used with______________.

.

(a) FDMA

(b) TDMA

(c) FDMA as well as TDMA

(d) None of these

Q289. DAMA can be used with FDMA as well as TDMA, but the disadvantage of the method is that a
______________through which the VSATs can make requests for channel allocation.

(a) Reserve channel must be instituted

(b) Un-reserve channel must be instituted

(c) Channel allocation

(d) None of these

Q290. Most VSAT systems operate in the ________, although there are some C-band systems in
existence.

(a) Ka band

(b) Ku band

(c) L- band

(d) None of these

Q291. Radarsat is ________________, which is part of the Canadian space program.

(a) An earth-resources remote-sensing satellite

(b) An satellite-resources remote-sensing s

(c) An radar satellite

(d) None of these

Q292. In the GPS system, a constellation of 24 satellites circles the earth in near-circular________.

(a) GEO

(b) MEO

(c) Inclined orbits

(d) None of these

Q293. The GPS system uses_____________, from satellites to users, so that the user does not require a
transmitter, only a GPS receiver.

(a) One-way transmissions

(b) Two-way transmissions

(c) Half-way transmissions

(d) None of these

Q294. The GPS system uses one-way transmissions, from satellites to users, so that the user_________.

(a) Does not require a transmitter

(b) Does require a transmitter

(c) Require only a GPS receiver

(d) a & c

Q295. The Orbital Communications Corporation (Orbcomm) system is a___________, which provides
two-way message and data communications services and position determination.

(a) MEO satellite system

(b) GEO satellite system

(c) LEO satellite system

(d) None of these

Q296. The Orbital Communications Corporation (Orbcomm) system is a LEO satellite system, which
provides __________message and data communications services and position determination.

(a) Two-way

(b) One-way

(c) Half-way

(d) None of these

Q297. The Asian Cellular System, or AceS, utilizes one _________covering the Asia Pacific area, an area
of over 11 million square miles.

(a) Garuda MEO satellite

(b) Garuda geosynchronous satellite

(c) Garuda LEO satellite

(d) None of these

Q298. Indentifies the diagram:

(a) MPEG-1

(b) MPEG-2

(c) MPEG-4

(d) None of these

Q299. Indentifies the diagram:

(a) Block schematic for the Indoor unit (IDU)

(b) Block schematic for the outdoor unit (ODU)

(c) Block schematic for the In-outdoor unit (ODU)

(d) None of these

Q300. Indentifies the diagram:

(a) A polar view of the Iridium satellite orbits

(b) A polar view of the Orbsat satellite orbits

(c) A polar view of the radarsat satellite orbits

(d) None of these

Q301. Indentifies the diagram:

(a) MPEG-1 encoder paths.

(b) MPEG-2 encoder paths.

(c) MPEG-4 encoder paths.

(d) None of these

 Q102. The uplink Frequency of C-band?

(a) 4GHz (b) 6GHz

(c) 8GHz (d) none of these

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QOS

1 )The communication structure that we need in socket programming is called as._________

a. System calls

b. Socket

c. Procedure

d. Table space

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Socket

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

2 )What is the use of TPDU in socket programming?

a. It creates new socket in the transport entity when it requests for a connection.

b. It allocates the table space within the transport entity.

c. It is used for establishing the connection.

d. None of the above.

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: It creates new socket in the transport entity when it requests for a connection.

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

3 )Abbreviate the term TPDU in socket programming.

a. Transport Protocol Distribution Unit

b. Transcranial Pulsed Doppler Ultrasound

c. Transport Protocol Data Unit

d. Terminal Power Distribution Unit

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Transport Protocol Data Unit

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

4 )Which of the following is true about “Threshold?”

a. Threshold is a value.

b. Threshold has value levels, such as minimum level, maximum level, equal level.

c. If the data value doesn't suit the threshold value, then it indicates that this data value might lead to
poor performance of the network.

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: All of the above

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

5 )What is Quality of Service?

a. It is the capability of a network to provide better service to selected network traffic over various
technologies.

b. It is a priority network that provides dedicated bandwidth, controlled jitter and latency.

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Both a and b

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

6 )Which of the following is true about Manchester encoding?

a. Each bit period is divided into two equal intervals.

b. It requires more bandwidth than 8B/10B encoding.

c. It is a form of digital encoding.

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: All of the above

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

7 )Differential Manchester encoding is also known as. ___________

a. Clock Signals

b. Condition Diphase encoding

c. Bipolar encoding

d. Biphase mark code

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Condition Diphase encoding

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

8 )What is the difference between Token Ring and Ethernet?

a. Ethernet network interface cards cannot operate on a passive hub but Token ring can operate on a
passive hub.

b. Ethernet does have an access for priority system but Token ring doesn't have any access for priority
system on the token.

c. Ethernet supports a direct cable connection while Token ring doesn't support a direct cable
connection as it requires additional hardware and software to operate on a direct cable connection
setup.

d. Ethernet can support MAC address. Token ring cannot support MAC address.

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Ethernet supports a direct cable connection while Token ring doesn't support a direct cable
connection as it requires additional hardware and software to operate on a direct cable connection
setup.

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

9 )What is/are the advantages of Token ring?

a. It doesn't provide a priority system that allow administrators to use the network more frequently.

b. Multiple identical MAC addresses are supported on Token ring.

c. All of the above

d. None of the above.

Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Multiple identical MAC addresses are supported on Token ring.

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

10 )Which of the following is/are the disadvantages of fragmentation?

a. All the packets should exit via the same gateway

b. Overhead doesn't required to repeatedly fragment.

c. Dos attack will encounter.

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: All the packets should exit via the same gateway

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

11 )Why was the Ipv6 protocol introduced?

a. IP security

b. Better Quality of Service support

c. Larger address space (128-bit in Ipv6, compared to the 32-bit address space in Ipv4)

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: All of the above

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

12 )Why Ipv6 replaces ARP by using the ND protocol?

a. The ARP address statically bound.

b. The security issues are apply.

c. Both a and b

d. The interface identifier portion of an Ipv6 address is directly derived from MAC address.

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: The interface identifier portion of an Ipv6 address is directly derived from MAC address.

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

13 )What is the difference between Delay and Jitter?

a. Delay takes less time for buffering while jitter takes more time for buffering.

b. Delay is defined as the end to end time required for the signal to travel from transmitter to receiver
and Jitter is defined as the variation of delay for packets belonging to the same flow.

c. Time delay is a variable in delay but not in jitter.

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Delay is defined as the end to end time required for the signal to travel from transmitter to
receiver and Jitter is defined as the variation of delay for packets belonging to the same flow.

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

14 )Which cell does Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) use?

a. Bridges
b. Switches

c. Routers

d. Hubs

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Switches

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

15 )Both HDLC and PPP both are Data link layer protocol.

a. True

b. False

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: True

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

16 )Which of the following is the communication protocol developed by ISO?

a. MPLS

b. PPP

c. HDLC

d. CRC

Answer Explanation
17 )Which protocol does the PPP protocol provide for handling the capabilities of the connection/link
on the network?

a. LCP

b. NCP

c. Both a and b

d. TCP

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Both a and b

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

18 )What does the Link Control Protocol (LCP) do in PPP?

a. Set-up configure

b. Maintaining a link

c. Terminating a link

d. Both b and c

e. All of the above

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: All of the above

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

19 )Which of the following protocol is used to allow the encapsulation of data coming from the
network layer protocol?
a. TCP

b. NCP

c. LCP

d. HDLC

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: NCP

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

20 )Which protocol is used after authentication has been completed?

a. User Datagram Protocol

b. PPP Protocol

c. Transmission Control Protocol

d. Network Control Protocol

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Network Control Protocol

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

21 )Which of the following is true about Network Control Protocol (NCP?)

a. It is strictly used for data authentication.

b. It decides the encapsulation of network layer data into the data link frame

c. It is useful to set-up configure, maintain and terminate a link connection.

d. All of the above.

Answer Explanation
ANSWER: It decides the encapsulation of network layer data into the data link frame

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

22 )What is Frame Check Sequence (FCS?)

a. FCS is an error recovery process.

b. FCS is an upper layer data.

c. FCS is an error detecting code.

d. FCS is a communication protocol.

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: FCS is an error detecting code.

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

23 )What is/are the characteristics of Connection Oriented Service?

a. The connection oriented services are reliable because there is a minimization of data loss and
retransmission of lost bits is possible.

b. Connection oriented service is suitable for short communication.

c. Both a and b

d. The connection is not established in the connection oriented service.

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: The connection oriented services are reliable because there is a minimization of data loss and
retransmission of lost bits is possible.

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

24 )Which of the following statement is true about Connectionless service?

a. The connection is established in connectionless service.

b. Connectionless service is suitable for bursty transmission.

c. Connectionless services can give services guarantees.

d. Connectionless services can avoid bottleneck problem.

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Connectionless service is suitable for bursty transmission.

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

25 )What is the difference between MPLS and Virtual Circuit?

a. The forwarding table is mostly used in MPLS but not in Virtual Circuit.

b. The forwarding table is not constructed in Virtual Circuit but it is constructed in MPLS.

c. In virtual-circuit, the user establishes new connection and launches a set up packet and created the
path while there is no set up for each connection in MPLS.

d. All of the above.

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: In virtual-circuit, the user establishes new connection and launches a set up packet and
created the path while there is no set up for each connection in MPLS.

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

26 )Both HDLC and PPP are data link layer protocols.

a. True

b. False

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: True

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

27 )HDLC is developed by. ________

a. ISI

b. ISO

c. FPO

d. ITC

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: ISO

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

28 )Which of the following are the HTTP methods (request types?)

I. GET

II. POST

III. PATCH

IV. BODY
V. CREATE

VI. OPTION

a. I, II, III, IV, V

b. I, II

c. IV, V, VI

d. I, II, III, VI

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: I, II, III, VI

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

29 )Define the term DHCP server.

a. administrator requires to add an entry for each computer in DHCP.

b. assigned a permanent address to the server software.

c. doesn't allow a computer to join a new network.

d. None of the above.

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: assigned a permanent address to the server software.

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

30 )What type of addresses does DHCP server use?

a. Permanent address

b. Local address
c. Pool address

d. Both a and b

e. Both a and c

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Both a and c

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

31 )Which of the following protocol is widely used in Dynamic assignment?

a. BOOTP

b. DHCP

c. RARP

d. DCHP

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: DHCP

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

32 )Match the following List 1 to List 2

1 .DHCP Server ------------ i) works as a virtual post office

2 .Proxy Server ------------- ii) automatically provides an internet protocol.

3 .Mail Server ---------------- iii) make indirect network connections to other network services.

a. 1-iii, 2i-, 3-ii

b. 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i

c. 1-ii, 2-iii-, 3-i

d. 1-ii, 2i-, 3-iii

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: 1-ii, 2-iii-, 3-i

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

33 )Which of the following statements is/are correct about the UDP header?

a. application programs use to send data to other application programs.

b. distinguish port numbers between multiple programs on a single device.

c. UDP have limited size header of 8 bytes.

d. Both a and b

e. Both a and c

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Both a and b

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

34 )What is the purpose of using pseudo header in UDP?

a. The data packets are delivered sequentially.

b. Find out the destination port number and source port number.

c. Sends the context of a particular internet destination address to UDP.

d. Verifying the UDP packet has reached its correct destination.

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Verifying the UDP packet has reached its correct destination.
Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

35 )When too many packets are present in a part of a subnet the performance degrades, this situation
is called as Congestion.

a. True

b. False

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: True

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

36 )Which architectures is/are required to QoS?

a. Integrated Services

b. Differentiated Services

c. Reserved Services

d. Both a and b

e. Both b and c

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Both a and b

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

37 )Match the following List 1 to List 2

1 .Ping ------------ i) discover the routes

2.Traceroute ----- ii) method for troubleshooting the accessibility of devices

3 .Netstat --------- iii) control the network connections on Windows NT/XP

4 .Ipconfig -------- iv) finding problems in the network

a. 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii

b. 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii

c. 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv

d. 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-ii

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

38 )ICMP stands for. ______________

a. Internet Component Mail Protocol

b. Internet Control Mail Protocol

c. Information Component Mail Protocol

d. Internet Control Message Protocol

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Internet Control Message Protocol

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

39 )Consider the following types,

I. Destination unreachable

II. Source quench

III. Query Messages

IV. Time exceeded

V . Redirection

In the above, which is/are the error reporting types?

a. I, II, III

b. I, II, IV, V

c. III, IV, V

d. III, II, IV, V

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: I, II, IV, V

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

40 )Which of the following statements is/are correct about distance vector?

a. Router don’t knows the identity of other router.

b. Cost of each couple is not equal to destination.

c. Each router maintains a distance vector.

d. All of the above.

Answer Explanation

41 )What is the use of LAN bridges in the network?

a. Provides real time and non real time services.

b. Checks the MAC address of source and destination.

c. Provides broadband ISDN for the data packets.

d. None of the above

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Checks the MAC address of source and destination.

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

42 )Abbreviate TDMA.

a. Time Division Multiple Access

b. Tree Diagonal Matrix Algorithm

c. Transmission Devices Media Access

d. Transport Devices Multiple Algorithm

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Time Division Multiple Access

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

43 )What is/are the advantages of TDMA?

a. provide entire bandwidth but not simultaneously

b. cost effective technology

c. offer personal communication

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: All of the above

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

44 )What is the difference between TDMA and CDMA?

a. In CDMA only one user is allowed to share a channel or sub channel . while it is allowed in TDMA.

b. CDMA offers higher transmission quality than TDMA.

c. CDMA is a dominant technology in the wireless market than TDMA.

d. Both a and b

e. Both b and c

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: CDMA offers higher transmission quality than TDMA.

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

45 )Ethernet is a multi-access network and most successful local area networking technology.

a. True

b. False

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: True

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

46 )What is the default port of SMTP?

a. 85

b. 70

c. 80

d. 25

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: 25

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

47 )What is a path vector routing?

a. network routing protocol

b. inter-domain routing

c. exterior gateway protocol

d. None of the above

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: network routing protocol

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

48 )Which of the following statements is/are true about path vector routing?

a. Path vector routing is similar to the link state router.

b. Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) is used in Path Vector.

c. Maintains the path information and gets updated dynamically.

d. Not flexible in selecting the path while hiding the information.

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Maintains the path information and gets updated dynamically.

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

49 )Which of the following is/are the advantages of hierarchical routing?

a. Portability

b. Scalability

c. Reliability

d. Flexibility

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Scalability

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

50 )Match the following List 1 to List 2

1 .Open message --------------- i. To close an active session

2 .Update message ------------ ii. Opens a BGP communications session

3 .Keep-alive message -------- iii. Provide routing updates to other BGP system

4 .Notification message ------- iv. Notifies BGP peers device is active

a. 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii

b. 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii

c. 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i

d. 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

51 )What is the difference between forwarding and routing?

a. Forwarding does not transmit data on outgoing links, but routing does.

b. Forwarding finds suitable path for a packet than routing.

c. Forwarding is a part of decision making while routing is not.

d. Forwarding is used in telephony while routing is used in all networks.

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Forwarding is used in telephony while routing is used in all networks.

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

52 )Why ATM was developed?

a. To handle both traditional high-throughput data traffic and real-time,low-latency content.

b. Designed to unify telecommunication and computer networks.

c. To meet the needs of the Broadband Integrated Services Digital Network.

d. All of the above.

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: All of the above.

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

53 )All networks require a central location to bring media segments together. These central locations
are called. _________

a. Bridges

b. Switches

c. Hubs

d. Routers

Answer Explanation

ANSWER: Hubs

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

54 )Which of the following is/are functions of header subfields?

I. Router change flag

II. Virtual path identifier

III. Header error control

IV. Cell loss priority

a. III, IV

b. II, III, IV

c. I, II

d. I, III, II

Answer Explanation
ANSWER: II, III, IV

Explanation:

No explanation is available for this question!

Q. What is Quality of Service?

a. It is the capability of a network to provide better service to selected network traffic over various
technologies.

b. It is a priority network that provides dedicated bandwidth, controlled jitter and latency.

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

ANSWER: Both a and b

21a ‘queuing packets wait in 2 buffer (queue) until che node (router or switch) is ready to process them.

A.FIFO

B. priority

C. weighted fair

D.none of the above

A FIFO

2a quening, packets are first assigned ta prorisy cats, Each class as its own queue.

ALFIFO

B. priority

C.weighted fir
D. none ofthe above

B priority

2a ‘we ty to avoid wrafic congestion,

A. congestion control

B. quality of service

C.either (@) or (b)

D. both (2) and (b)

View Answer

‘A. congestion contral

2a ‘queuing, the packets are assigned to different classes and admired to different queues. The queues,

however, are weighted based on the priority of che queues; higher priority means a higher weight. The
system

processes packets in each queue in a round-robin fashion with the mumber of packets slected from exch
queue based

on che carvesponding weight

ALFIFO

B. priority

C.weighted fair
D. none of the above

View Answer

C weighted fair

2a swe ty to create an appropriate environment for the traffic

Ac congestion control

B. quality of service

C.cither (2) or (b)

D. both (a) and (b)

View Answer

B, quality of service

,16In Frame Relay, the __bit is used to: warn the receiver of congestion in the natwork

ALBECY

B.FECN

Goeither (a) or)&(

D. neither (2) nor (b)

|Mew Answer|

,17Teadisionally, “pes of characteristics are auibured to Bow’

|Mew Answer|
LP

retransmission.

A. Reliabiliy

5‘B. Delay

C. Jitter

D. Bandwidth

6‘characteristic that a flow needs. Lack of it means losing 2 packer or acknowledgment, which

|Miewansner|

{___s flow charactrisic chat applications ean tolerate in diffrent degrees.

A. Relinbilicy

‘B. Delay

ister

D. Bandwidth

|Miewansner|

ts the variation in delay for packets belonging ro the same flow.

A. Relinbilicy
‘B. Delay

Ciser

D. Bandwidth

a]=

,12Inthe

hrechold

algorithm of TCP, the size of the congestion window increases exponentially until it reaches a

Acdlow-sart

BB. congestion avoidance

C. congestion detection

D. none of the shove

‘View Answer

A:dlow-nan

,13Inthe algorithm of TCP, the size of the congestion window increases additively until congestion is

detecred

Acdlow-sar

B. congestion avoidance

C. congestion detection

D. none of the above

B. congestion avoidance

1d Inthe algorishm of TCP, the size of the threshold is dropped ro one-half a mubiplicative decrease

Acdow-sart

BB. congestion avoidance

C. congestion detection

D. none ofthe above

‘C.congestion detection

,15In Frame Relay, the

ALBEGN

BLFECN

either (3) or (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b)

bbe wares the sender of congestion in che network:

ALBECN
 ,8The technique of. Tefers to a congestion control mechanism in which a congested node stops
receiving

data from the immediate upstream node or nodes

A. backpressure

B. choke packet

C. implicit signaling

D, explicit signaling

View Answer

A, backpressure

9A is a packet sent by a node to the source to inform it of congestion

A. backpressure

B. choke packet

C. implicit signaling

D, explicit signaling

View Answer

B. choke packet

.10In . there is no communication between the congested node or nodes and the source. The source

guesses that there is a congestion somewhere in the network from other symptoms

A. backpressure
B. choke packet

G. implicit signaling

D. explicit signaling

View Answer

.implicit signaling

.11In the

A. backpressure

B. choke packet

C. implicit signaling

D. explicit signaling

method, the signal is included in the packets that carry data.

View Answer

D. explicit signaling

,5Ina network, after the load reaches the capacity, throughput

A. increases sharply

B. increases proportionally with the load

C. declines sharply

D. declines proportionally with the load

View Answer

G. declines sharply
6In congestion control, policies are applied to prevent congestion before it happens

A. open-loop

B. closed-loop

C. either (a) or (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b)

View Answer

‘A. open-loop

Tin congestion control, mechanisms are used to alleviate congestion after it happens

A. open-loop

B. closed-loop

C. either (a) or (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b)

View Answer

B, closed-loop
.1Congestion in a network or intemetwork occurs because routers and switches have

Acubles

B. queues

C. crosspains

D. none of the above

B. queues

2In a networks when the load is much lass than the capacity of the network, the delay is

Actamaximum

Baraminimum

Cconstant

D. none of the above

Boataminimem

.3In a network when the load reaches the network capacity, the delay

‘Ac increaser sharply

'B. decrenses sharply

C. remains constant

D. cannot be predicted

Acinerenses sharply

:4In ag network, when the load is below she capacity of the network, the throughput

‘Ac increnses sharply

BB. increases proportionally with the load

.declines sharply

'D, daclines proportionally with the load

5B increases proportionally with the losd

.5In a network, after the load reaches the capacity, throughput

‘Ac increases sharply

BB. increases proportionally with the load

declines sharply

‘D, daclines proportionally with the load

declines charpy

View Answer

,1Congestion in a network or internetwork occurs because routers and switches have

A. tables

B. queues

C. crosspoints
D. none of the above

View Answer

B. queues

.2Ina network, when the load is much less than the capacity of the network, the delay is.

A.ata maximum:

B.ata minimum

C. constant

D. none of the above

View Answer

Bata minimum

.3Ina network, when the load reaches the network capacity, the delay

A. increases sharply

B, decreases sharply

G. remains constant

D. cannot be predicted

View Answer

A. increases sharply

,4Ina network, when the load is below the capacity of the network, the throughput

‘A. increases sharply

B. increases proportionally with the load

.declines sharply

D. declines proportionally with the load

View Answer

B. increases proportionally with the load

,36In Frame Relay, 2 {is the maximum number of bits in a predefined time that the network is

committed to transfer without discarding any frame or setting the DE bit.

Avsocess rate

B. committed burst size

C. committed information rate

D, excess burst size

'B. committed burst size

.37Inthe traffic model, the rate of the dats flow changes in time, with the changes smooth instead of

sudden and shaxp,

Avconstant bit rate

B. variable bitrate
bury

D.none of the above

B variable bitrate

,38In Frame Relay, the defines an average rate in bits per second

Avsccens mate

B. committed burst size

committed information rate

D. excess burst size

(C. committed information rate

,39Inthe ____traflic model, the data sate changes suddenly in a very short ime,

Avconstant bitrate

B. variable bie sate

C. bursey

D. none of the above.

Co burssy

.40Jhappens in any system that involves waiting,

A. Congestion

5Jamming

CEmor

Di none of the above

A. Congestion

.31The normally refers to che maximum length of time che trafic is generated atthe peskerate,

Ac pase data te

‘B, maximum burst size

C effective bandwidch

D. none of the above

View Answer

1B. maximum burst size

__.32is.a class-based QoS model designed for IP

A. Integrated Services

B, Differentiated Services

C. Connectionless

1D. Connection-Oriented

View Answer

1B, Differentiated Services

.33The

2fanccion of three values: average data rate, peak dara rate, and maximum burst size.

Acpask dacs te

‘B, maximum burst size

C. effective bandwidth,

D.none of the above

effective bandweideh

,34In Frame Relay, the user can never exceed che,

Acaccess rate

'B, committed burst size

C. committed information rate

D, excess burst size

BA safc model has 3 daca rate chat doss not change,

Ac consant bit rate

.26In the _ bucket algorithm, bursty chunks are stored in the bucket and sent out at an average rate,

Avlealey

Broken

.sisher (@) or (b)

D. neither (3) nar (b)

View Answer

Alleaky

.7Teaiic__ are ve values that represent a data Bow.

A-contsole

B. descriptors

values

D.none of the above

View Answer

B. descriptors

.28The Dacket algorithm allows i

Aclealey
Broken

.sither (@) or (b)

D. neither (2) nor (b)

le hosts to accumulate credit for che future in the form of tokens

View Answer

Broken

.29The Gefines the maximum data rate of the traffic

Acpesk data rate

B. maximum burst size

.effective bandwideh

D.none of the above

View Arona

Acpesk data rte

,30.15when s source makes a reservation, ie needs to define a How specification

‘A Integrated Services

B, Differentiated Services

C. Comnectionless

D. Connection-Oriented

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‘A Integrated Services