SBA Part 1 MRCOG
SBA Part 1 MRCOG
SBA Part 1 MRCOG
www.cambridge.org
Information on this title: www.cambridge.org/9781906985585
ISBN 978-I-906985-58-5
Nigel Davies
Chair, Examination and Assessment
Committee, RCOG
How to use this book
Chapter I of this book provides an overview of
the new syllabus and curriculum for the Part 1
MRCOG examination, and also explains the struc-
ture of single best answer questions (SBAs) and
the rationale for using this question format in the
Part 1 MRCOG examination.
Chapter 2 outlines the syllabus topics in the Part
1 MRCOG blueprinting matrix for paper I of the
examination and provides example questions from
all relevant areas; that is, from the logbook core
modules and the subject domains. Chapter 3 is
identical in format to chapter 2, but covers the syl-
labus areas relevant to paper 2 of the examination.
Chapter 4 provides a mock paper for paper I of
the examination, and chapter 5 provides a mock
paper for paper 2 of the examination.
Appendix I contains the blueprinting matrix for
the examination. Appendix 2 contains an example
answer sheet for the SBA component of the ex-
amination. Appendix 3 provides answers to the
sample questions in chapter 2, appendix 4
provides answers to the questions in chapter 3,
appendix 5 provides answers to the questions in
chapter 4 and appendix 6 provides answers to the
questions in chapter 5.
1 | Structure and content
of the Part 1 MRCOG
examination
From March 2012, there will be some significant
changes to both the syllabus and examination style
for the Part 1 MRCOG examination. These
changes have been ratified by the General Medical
Council and aim to produce an examination that is
more relevant to the 21st century trainee aspiring
to have a career in obstetrics and gynaecology.
Essentially, the changes to the Part 1 MRCOG
entail a shift of emphasis to ensure that the ex-
amination continues to provide a relevant found-
ation for the continuation of learning and the de-
velopment objectives of the specialty training pro-
gramme. This change has required a realignment
of the proportional contribution of existing areas
of the Part 1 MRCOG syllabus and a revised
blueprinting exercise that references explicitly
the modules of the core curriculum against the
existing global question domains. The modifica-
tion of the existing examination format will en-
sure that this revised syllabus coverage can be
tested appropriately to reflect the new desired
emphasis of the Part 1 MRCOG.
The new Part 1 MRCOG contains questions
that are clearly relevant to an applied sciences
examination in obstetrics and gynaecology, with
less of a focus on de-contextualised fundamental
science. In essence, the new examination still re-
quires candidates to have a robust understanding
of fundamental science, both physical and bio-
medical, which will serve as a foundation on
which to build subsequent clinical knowledge.
The major difference from the previous examina-
tion is that knowledge is tested in a more clinical
context to ensure candidates have the appropriate
knowledge to function as specialty trainees on a
daily basis. This knowledge is tested using a mix-
ture of single best answer questions (SBAs) and
true/false multiple choice questions (MCQs).
Anatomy domain
Core module 8
SBA 2
The lactating breast is divided into lobules, each
of which contains a lactiferous duct. Approxim-
ately how many lobules does each breast contain?
A 1
B 2
C 5
D 10
E 20
Core module 10
SBA 3
What type of joint is formed at the symphysis pu-
bis?
A Cartilaginous
B Condyloid
C Fibrous
D Synarthrodial
E Synovial
Core module 12
SBA 4
Closure of the ductus arteriosus following lung
inflation shortly after birth is mediated by which
vasoactive substance?
A Bradykinin
B Prostacyclin
C Substance P
D Vasopressin
E VEGF
Core module 13
Syllabus topic: Gynaecological anatomy.
SBA 5
The uterine artery is a direct branch of which ma-
jor artery in the pelvis?
A External iliac
B Internal iliac
C Femoral
D Obturator
E Pudendal
SBA 6
The pituitary gland sits in a small bony cavity in
the skull known as . . . ?
A Diaphragma sellae
B Optic chiasm
C Sella turcica
D Sphenoid sinus
E Third ventricle
Core module 17
SBA 7
A woman with advanced cervical cancer presents
to hospital with worsening left loin pain. Which
structure is most likely to have become obstruc-
ted?
A Cervix
B Ureter
C Urethra
D Uterine artery
E Vagina
Core module 18
SBA 8
The motor supply of the levator ani muscle is de-
rived predominantly from which spinal segment?
A L5
B S1
C S2
D S3
E S4
Endocrinology domain
SBA 9
Which signalling mechanism involves the release
of hormone from cells to act locally on other
cells?
A Autocrine
B Endocrine
C Exocrine
D Metacrine
E Paracrine
Core module 8
A Dehydroepiandrosterone
B Estradiol
C Estriol
D Estrone
E Ethinylestradiol
Core module 9
SBA 11
What percentage of pregnancies are complicated
by gestational diabetes mellitus?
A < 1%
B 1–5%
C 10–15%
D 20%
E 25%
SBA 12
A 6/40
B 10/40
C 16/40
D 24/40
E 30/40
Core module 12
SBA 13
Hyperplasia and hypertrophy of alveolar cells in
the breast during pregnancy are stimulated by
which hormones?
Core module 13
SBA 14
A premature menopause is said to occur when the
ovaries cease functioning before what age?
A 20 years
B 30 years
C 40 years
D 50 years
E 60 years
Core module 14
SBA 15
A woman with schizophrenia presents to the clin-
ic with galactorrhoea. What is the most likely
cause of her hyperprolactinaemia?
A Hypothyroidism
B Macroprolactinoma
C Microprolactinoma
D Renal failure
E Use of phenothiazine drugs
Core module 15
SBA 16
A woman with polycystic ovaries and oligomen-
orrhoea commences the combined oral contra-
ceptive pill to induce regular withdrawal bleeds.
What will happen to her serum levels of FSH and
SHBG?
FSH SHBG
A Fall Rise
B Rise Fall
C Rise Rise
D Fall Fall
E No change No change
Core module 16
SBA 17
What are the two major steroid hormones pro-
duced by the corpus luteum?
Core module 17
SBA 18
Which substance has been used as a tumour
marker for granulosa cell tumour of the ovary?
A Alphafetoprotein
B Estrone
C hCG
D Inhibin
E Progesterone
Physiology domain
Core module I
SBA 19
A woman attending the antenatal clinic is con-
cerned about a dark line that has appeared on her
skin between the umbilicus and the pubic sym-
physis. You reassure her that this is a normal fea-
ture of pregnancy and is known as:
A Chloasma
B Linea alba
C Linea nigra
D Striae gravidarum
E Striae nigricans
SBA 20
A woman who was known to be anaemic in preg-
nancy is noted to be pale and tachycardic after de-
livery. Her haemoglobin level is 6.2 g/dl. What is
the most appropriate blood product for her?
Core module 8
SBA 21
By what percentage does cardiac output increase
in pregnancy?
A 5%
B 10%
C 20%
D 40%
E 80%
Core module 9
SBA 22
A woman with a twin pregnancy attends an
antenatal clinic at 35/40 gestation. She is exper-
iencing intense itching but has no rash, pain or
fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Core module 10
Syllabus topics: Physiology of parturition,
myometrial contractility and cervical dilatation.
Fetal physiology in late pregnancy and during la-
bour, including methods of assessment of fetal
wellbeing.
SBA 23
Towards the end of pregnancy, the cervix be-
comes softer owing to the action of collagenase.
Which cell type congregates in the cervix to re-
lease collagenase?
A Basophils
B Eosinophils
C Macrophages
D Neutrophils
E NK cells
Core module 11
A Cyclooxygenase
B Ergometrine
C Prostacyclin
D Prostaglandin F2α
E Oxytocin
Core module 12
SBA 25
Approximately how many weeks does it take for
complete uterine involution following delivery?
A 1
B 2
C 6
D 12
E 24
Core module 13
SBA 26
What is considered to be the normal maximum
blood loss during menstruation?
A 10 ml
B 50 ml
C 80 ml
D 120 ml
E 500 ml
Core module 14
Syllabus topics: Physiology of the reproductive
tract in men and women. Regulation of gamet-
ogenesis, fertilisation and establishment of early
pregnancy.
SBA 27
The glycoprotein layer surrounding a metaphase
II oocyte is known as the:
A Acrosome
B Corona radiata
C Cumulus oophorus
D Polar body
E Zona pellucida
Core module 15
SBA 28
What effect does the progesterone-only pill have
on the cervical mucus?
Core module 16
SBA 29
At what gestation does the corpus luteum cease to
be essential for pregnancy maintenance?
A 4/40
B 6/40
C 12/40
D 16/40
E 20/40
Core module 17
SBA 30
What percentage of women with a malignancy
have hypercalcaemia?
A 1%
B 2%
C 5%
D 10%
E 20%
Core module 18
Syllabus topic: Physiology of the kidney and
renal tract.
SBA 31
Where in the kidney is the majority of bicarbon-
ate reabsorbed?
A Bowman’s capsule
B Collecting duct
C Distal convoluted tubule
D Loop of Henle
E Proximal convoluted tubule
Biochemistry domain
A Golgi complex
B Mitochondria
C Nucleus
D Rough endoplasmic reticulum
E Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Core module 8
SBA 33
Which fetal gland is responsible for generating
dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) during estro-
gen synthesis?
A Adrenal
B Pancreas
C Parathroid
D Pituiary
E Thyroid
Core module 9
SBA 34
Which compound inhibits hormone-sensitive
lipase-mediated hydrolysis of triacylglycerol into
fatty acids and glycerol?
A Adrenaline
B Gastrin
C Glucagon
D Insulin
E Noradrenaline
Core module 10
Syllabus topics: Biochemistry of prostaglandins
and steroid hormones. Hormones, receptors and
intracellular signalling. Biochemistry of
myometrial contractility.
SBA 35
Which cellular ‘second messenger’ signalling
molecule is generated by oxytocin stimulation of
myometrial myocytes and stimulates intracellular
calcium release?
Core module II
SBA 36
What type of acid–base disturbance may result
from the chronic use of spironolactone (an aldos-
terone antagonist)?
A Metabolic acidosis
B Metabolic alkalosis
C No effect
D Respiratory acidosis
E Respiratory alkalosis
Core module 16
SBA 37
A woman undergoes a surgical evacuation of re-
tained products of conception following a miscar-
riage. She telephones two days later to say that
her pregnancy test is still positive. What would
you advise her about the length of time for which
her test may remain positive? Choose the single
best answer.
A 5 days
B 10 days
C 12 days
D 15 days
E 21 days
Core module 17
SBA 38
Which tumour suppressor protein is mutated in
the majority of cancers?
A APC
B INK4a
C p53
D p57
E TGFβ
Embryology domain
SBA 39
Which structure in the embryo develops into the
kidney and renal tract?
A Mesonephros
B Metanephros
C Müllerian duct
D Pronephros
E Wolffian duct
Core module 8
Syllabus topic: Fetal embryology.
SBA 40
The epithelium of the gastrointestinal tract devel-
ops from which germ cell layer?
A Amnion
B Ectoderm
C Endoderm
D Extraembryonic coelom
E Mesoderm
Core module 9
SBA 41
From which germ cell layer derivative do the
autonomic ganglia develop?
A Endoderm
B Neural crest
C Neural tube
D Paraxial mesoderm
E Surface ectoderm
Core module 13
SBA 42
A bicornuate uterus is the result of the failure of
which embryonic structures to correctly fuse?
A Genital tubercles
B Mesonephric ducts
C Metanephric ducts
D Paramesonephric ducts
E Pronephric ducts
Core module 14
SBA 43
Which embryonic cell type secretes hCG?
A Amnion
B Cytotrophoblast
C Mesoderm
D Syncytiotrophoblast
E Yolk sac
Core module 16
SBA 44
What percentage of fetuses with Turner syn-
drome (45XO) will miscarry in the first tri-
mester?
A 1%
B 5%
C 10%
D 50%
E 99%
Core module 18
SBA 45
Adult polycystic kidney disease follows which
pattern of inheritance?
A Autosomal dominant
B Autosomal recessive
C X-linked dominant
D X-linked recessive
E Y-linked
Core module I
SBA 46
The table below shows the results of a new test
for the detection of a disease:
A a/a+d
B a/a+c
C b/b+c
D b/b+d
E d/a+b+c
Core module 3
SBA 47
In evidence-based medicine, what level of evid-
ence is provided by meta-analyses of randomised
controlled trials?
A 1a
B 1b
C 2a
D 2b
E 3
Core module 5
SBA 48
Obesity in pregnancy (BMI >30kg/m2) increases
the risk of deep vein thrombosis by approxim-
ately how many times?
A 1.2
B 2.5
C 4.4
D 14.3
E 27.1
Core module 6
SBA 49
A hospital appoints a new consultant with skills
in endometrial ablative techniques. The manage-
ment are hoping to see a decline in the overall
numbers of which operation?
A Colposuspension
B Hysterectomy
C Hysteroscopy
D Laparoscopy
E Myomectomy
Core module 8
SBA 50
What is the World Health Organization definition
of perinatal mortality?
A Number of neonatal deaths per 1000 births
B Number of stillbirths and early neonatal
deaths per 1000 births
C Number of stillbirths and early neonatal
deaths per 10 000 births
D Number of stillbirths per 1000 births
E Number of stillbirths per year
Core module 9
SBA 51
What is the maternal mortality ratio?
Core module 13
SBA 52
Women from which continent are most likely to
develop uterine fibroids (leiomyomata)?
A Africa
B Asia
C Australasia
D Europe
E Latin America
Core module 14
Syllabus topic: Epidemiology of infertility.
SBA 53
Which organism is responsible for the majority of
cases of tubal disease leading to infertility?
A Chlamydia trachomatis
B Group B Streptococcus
C Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D Staphylococcus aureus
E Treponema pallidum
Core module 15
SBA 54
Which age group of girls is most likely to present
with Chlamydia trachomatis infection?
A <15 years
B 15–19 years
C 20–24 years
D 25–29 years
E 30 years and above
Core module 16
SBA 55
What is the risk of miscarriage in women becom-
ing pregnant at 45 years of age or older?
A 25%
B 37%
C 43%
D 72%
E 93%
Core module 17
Syllabus topic: Epidemiology of cancers affect-
ing women.
SBA 56
Among women diagnosed with ovarian cancer,
what is the median age at diagnosis?
A 30 years
B 38 years
C 43 years
D 55 years
E 63 years
Genetics domain
Core module I
SBA 57
Nitrogenous bases make up cellular nucleic acids
including DNA and RNA. Which base pairs with
thymine in the standard DNA helix?
A Adenine
B Guanine
C Inosine
D Uracil
E Uranine
Core module 5
SBA 58
A normal human cell contains how many pairs of
chromosomes?
A 20
B 23
C 36
D 43
E 46
Core module 7
SBA 59
What is the quoted procedure-related risk of mis-
carriage following amniocentesis?
A 1%
B 3%
C 5%
D 10%
E 15%
Core module 8
SBA 60
What is the incidence of phenylketonuria in ba-
bies born in the UK?
A 1 in 100
B 1 in 1000
C 1 in 10 000
D 1 in 100 000
E 1 in 1 000 000
Core module 9
SBA 61
What percentage of fetuses with trisomy 21
would be expected to be detected by a nuchal
translucency scan alone (assuming a 5% false-
positive rate)?
A 10%
B 25–30%
C 50–55%
D 70–75%
E 90–95%
Core module 13
SBA 62
A fetus with Edwards’ syndrome contains an ex-
tra copy of which chromosome?
A 13
B 14
C 18
D 21
E X
Core module 14
SBA 63
A man presents to the fertility clinic with his part-
ner. He is found to be azoospermic. He is tall and
has been treated for gynaecomastia in the past. A
blood sample is sent for cytogenetics. What is the
most likely karyotype?
A 45XO
B 46XX
C 46XY
D 47XXX
E 47XXY
Core module 17
Syllabus topics: Genetic origins of cancer and
DNA mutations. Principles of molecular testing
for gynaecological cancers.
SBA 64
A woman is found to have a mutation in the
BRCA1 gene. She is at increased risk of develop-
ing which cancers?
Core module I
SBA 65
What is the most important cation in the extracel-
lular fluid?
A C 2+a
B C-l
C HCO3-
D K+
E Na+
Core module 3
SBA 66
One hundred patients with heavy postmenopausal
bleeding had a pipelle endometrial biopsy taken
prior to a hysterectomy to test the ability of the
biopsy to detect endometrial cancer.
What is the specificity of the endometrial
biopsy?
A 20%
B 40%
C 50%
D 80%
E 100%
Core module 5
SBA 67
A preoperative woman with emphysema under-
goes spirometry. Which lung volume is indicated
by the arrows on the spirometry tracing?
Core module 8
Syllabus topics: Interpret commonly performed
tests in pregnancy including screening tests. In-
terpret data on maternal mortality.
SBA 68
An anxious 38-year-old pregnant woman under-
goes a combined test for Down syndrome screen-
ing. The risk comes back as 1 in 1000. What is
the appropriate course of action?
Core module 9
A Diabetic ketoacidosis
B Gestational diabetes mellitus
C Normal glucose tolerance
D Type 1 diabetes mellitus
E Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Core module 10
SBA 70
A 27-year-old primagravida has failure to pro-
gress in the first stage of labour and is com-
menced on an oxytocin infusion. The midwife
calls the registrar because of a suspicious CTG.
The woman is found to be 6 cm dilated and the
registrar performs fetal blood sampling. The
sample has a pH of 7.15. What is the appropriate
course of action?
Core module II
SBA 71
A category 1 caesarean section is undertaken for
fetal distress in labour. Paired cord blood samples
are taken for blood gas analysis and the results
are as follows:
Arterial Venous
pH 7.10 7.15
Base excess –10 –8
A Metabolic acidosis
B Metabolic alkalosis
C No disturbance
D Respiratory acidosis
E Respiratory alkalosis
Core module 13
A Dermoid cyst
B Endometrioma
C Mucinous cystadenoma
D Ovulatory follicle
E Serous cystadenoma
Core module 14
SBA 73
A couple with secondary infertility is referred to
the fertility clinic. The woman is confirmed to be
ovulating and the man’s semen analysis is satis-
factory.
Core module 15
SBA 74
A woman is referred to the genitourinary medi-
cine clinic with a three-day history of vaginal
itching, offensive vaginal discharge and dysuria.
A speculum examination is performed and the
cervix is noted to be inflamed. There is a mod-
erate amount of frothy offensive discharge and
swabs are sent to the laboratory. The wet film
of the high vaginal swab yields a positive result.
What is the most likely organism to be detected?
A Candida albicans
B Chlamydia trachomatis
C Neisseria gonorrhoea
D Treponema pallidum
E Trichomonas vaginalis
Core module 16
SBA 75
A woman attends the early pregnancy unit with
heavy vaginal bleeding and crampy lower ab-
dominal pain. It is six weeks since her last men-
strual period. An ultrasound scan is performed
which shows an empty uterus, normal ovaries and
no free fluid in the pelvis. A serum β\-hCG level
is taken, which comes back at 1120 i.u./l. When
the test is repeated 48 hours later, the serum β-
hCG level is 580 i.u./l. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A Complete miscarriage
B Ectopic pregnancy
C Heterotopic pregnancy
D Incomplete miscarriage
E Missed miscarriage
Pathology domain
Core module I
SBA 76
A young woman in late pregnancy presents with
swelling around her ankles that indents on pres-
sure. She is otherwise well. The single best cause
for the pathological basis of this physical symp-
tom is:
SBA 77
What is the single best description for the histo-
logical appearance of the endometrium soon after
ovulation?
Core module 8
SBA 78
A woman who is 28 weeks pregnant with a
fibroid uterus is admitted to the antenatal ward
with severe abdominal pain. An ultrasound scan
is arranged with shows a normally grown fetus
and placenta, with no evidence of bleeding.
Several large fibroids are noted. What is the
pathological change in fibroids that can occur in
pregnancy?
A Decidual degeneration
B Fibrous degeneration
C Hyaline degeneration
D Macular degeneration
E Red degeneration
Core module II
SBA 79
A 33-year-old woman is undergoing an elective
repeat caesarean section at term. The infant is de-
livered without any difficulties, but the placenta
cannot be removed easily because a clear plane
between the placenta and uterine wall cannot be
identified. The placenta is removed in pieces.
What is the single most likely placental abnor-
mality here?
A Membranaceus placenta
B Placenta accreta
C Placenta praevia
D Placental abruption
E Succenturiate lobe
Core module 13
Syllabus topics: Congenital abnormalities of the
genital tract. Osteopenia/osteoporosis. Patholo-
gical conditions of the uterus (endometrium and
myometrium), tubes and ovaries.
SBA 80
A 25-year-old woman presents as an emergency
with severe left-sided pelvic pain and vomiting.
An ultrasound scan is arranged which shows a 5
cm cystic lesion in the left adnexa with mixed
echoes. A laparotomy is performed and an ovari-
an cyst that has undergone torsion is removed.
The histology of the cyst is reported as:
Core module 14
SBA 81
A 32-year-old woman attends the fertility clinic.
She has a four-year history of infertility, severe
dysmenorrhoea and increasing pain with sexual
intercourse. On pelvic examination, an adnexal
mass is felt and nodules are palpated along the
uterosacral ligaments. The single most likely
cause for the pathological basis of these physical
symptoms is:
Core module 15
Syllabus topics: Pathological features of STD
and female genital infections. Endometrial effects
of contraceptive steroids.
SBA 82
A 28-year-old woman is referred to the early
pregnancy unit. She had been taking norethister-
one for several weeks to delay a menstrual period
while she went on holiday. She has since stopped
the medication and has experienced some bleed-
ing. She is concerned as she has passed a ‘preg-
nancy sac’ vaginally, although her pregnancy test
is negative. The tissue is sent for histopathologic-
al analysis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Complete miscarriage
B Decidual cast
C Ectopic pregnancy
D Incomplete miscarriage
E Molar pregnancy
Core modules 16
SBA 83
A 20-year-old woman is admitted to the gynaeco-
logy ward. It is six weeks since her last menstru-
al period and her pregnancy test is strongly posit-
ive. She is vomiting profusely and has had some
vaginal bleeding. An ultrasound scan is organised
and the report is as follows:
The uterus is very enlarged. No gestational sac
is seen but the cavity is filled with tissue with a
honeycombed texture. Cysts are noted on both
ovaries.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Choriocarcinoma
B Complete hydatidiform mole
C Endometrial carcinoma
D Endometrial hyperplasia
E Partial hydatidiform mole
Core module 17
Syllabus topics: Pathology, histology and classi-
fication of gynaecological cancers and premalig-
nant conditions. Field change effects. Aetiologic-
al factors. Cervical cytology. Pathology of pain
and transmission of pain signals centrally.
SBA 84
Which two HPV types are found in 70% of cer-
vical cancers and are targeted in HPV vaccines?
A 6 and 11
B 16 and 18
C 31 and 35
D 31 and 45
E 73 and 82
Core module 18
SBA 85
What type of epithelial tissue undergoes malig-
nant change in the majority of bladder cancers?
A Columnar
B Pseudostratified
C Squamous
D Stratified
E Transitional
Pharmacology domain
Core module I
SBA 86
A woman who has been taking the combined oral
contraceptive pill for many years is commenced
on phenytoin following a seizure. She then be-
comes pregnant. Through what mechanism is the
contraceptive pill likely to have failed?
SBA 87
For an ideal drug, where everyone improves with
treatment and no-one improves with placebo,
what is the number needed to treat?
A 1
B 2
C 5
D 10
E 100
Core module 5
SBA 88
Renal clearance of most drugs is altered in preg-
nancy. In the table below, which option correctly
identifies the normal physiological changes in
pregnancy that have an impact on pharmacokin-
etics?
Core module 6
SBA 89
To reduce surgical-site infections, prophylactic
antibiotics are often used. When is the ideal time
to administer such prophylaxis?
Core module 7
SBA 90
What is the most common drug used for induc-
tion of anaesthesia in non-obstetric patients in the
UK?
A Halothane
B Lidocaine
C Propofol
D Suxamethonium
E Thiopentone
Core module 8
SBA 91
A woman is admitted with threatened preterm
labour. Two doses of corticosteroids are admin-
istered to promote fetal lung maturity. Over what
time period after the second dose are the corticos-
teroids most effective in reducing respiratory dis-
tress syndrome if delivery occurs?
A 10–15 hours
B 18–24 hours
C 24 hours to 7 days
D 7–10 days
E 10–14 days
Core module 9
SBA 92
A 28-year-old asthmatic woman develops pre-
eclampsia at 34 weeks of gestation and a decision
is made to commence antihypertensive therapy.
She has previously experienced adverse effects
with nifedipine and wishes to avoid this drug.
Which antihypertensive agent will be suitable for
her?
A Atenolol
B Bendroflumethazide
C Labetalol
D Lisinopril
E Methyldopa
Core module 10
Syllabus topics: Tocolysis and stimulants of
uterine contractility. Pain relief in labour and the
puerperium.
SBA 93
A woman is admitted with threatened preterm la-
bour and is commenced on atosiban. What is the
mechanism of action of atosiban?
Core module 11
SBA 94
A woman experiences a postpartum haemorrhage
after delivery and is administered ergometrine to
promote uterine contraction. What class of com-
pound is ergometrine?
A Alkaloid
B Eicosanoid
C Polypepetide
D Protein
E Steroid
Core module 12
SBA 95
Cabergoline may be used to suppress lactation in
women who have suffered a stillbirth. Through
which mechanism of action and which receptor
does cabergonline suppress lactation?
A Agonist at β receptor
B Agonist at D1 receptor
C Agonist at D2 receptor
D Antagonist at D1 receptor
E Antagonist at D2 receptor
Core module 13
SBA 96
Tranexamic acid is a first-line treatment for men-
orrhagia. What is the mechanism of action of
tranexamic acid?
A Antifibrinolytic
B Cyclooxygenase inhibitor
C GnRH analogue
D Oxytocin antagonist
E Progestogen
Core module 14
SBA 97
Clomifene is a commonly used drug for the in-
duction of ovulation. By which mechanism does
clomifene promote follicular development?
Core module 15
SBA 98
Mifepristone is a drug used in the medical termin-
ation of pregnancy. What is mifepristone’s mode
of action?
A Estrogen agonist
B Estrogen antagonist
C Oxytocin antagonist
D Progesterone agonist
E Progesterone antagonist
Core module 16
Syllabus topic: Medical management of miscar-
riage, trophoblastic disease and ectopic preg-
nancy.
SBA 99
Misoprostol is a commonly used drug in the med-
ical management of miscarriage. What type of
drug is misoprostol?
A Cyclooxygenase inhibitor
B Oxytocin antagonist
C Progesterone antagonist
D Progestogen
E Synthetic prostaglandin
Core module 17
A One month
B Two months
C Three months
D Six months
E 12 months
Core module 18
SBA 101
A 75-year-old woman attends the gynaecology
clinic. She has been receiving medical treatment
for overactive bladder for many years, but her
notes are not available today and she has forgot-
ten to bring the medication with her. On question-
ing, she reveals that the medication gives her a
terrible dry mouth, dry eyes, blurred vision and
constipation. Which drug is she most likely to be
taking?
A Duloxetine
B Oxybutynin
C Phenoxybenzamine
D Sertraline
E Sibutramine
Biophysics domain
Core module 5
SBA 102
The QRS complex in a normal electrocardiogram
represents:
Core module 9
SBA 103
The lateral resolution of an ultrasound image/sys-
tem depends on:
Core module 14
SBA 104
X-rays have frequencies in the range:
A 2 × 103 Hz to 2 × 104 Hz
B 1 × 106 Hz to 20 × 106 Hz
C 5 × 1010 Hz to 5 × 1011 Hz
D 4 × 1014 Hz to 8 × 1014 Hz
E 5 × 1018 Hz to 50 × 1018 Hz
Core module 16
A 10
B 50
C 100
D 500
E 1000
Core module 17
SBA 106
Magnetic resonance imaging uses the following
physical principle to form an image:
A Acceleration of electrons
B Conversion of low-frequency current to high-
frequency current
C Stimulated emission of radiation
D The alignment of protons in water
E Vibration of a piezo-electric crystal
Core module 18
SBA 107
What is the main muscle being evaluated during
urodynamic testing?
A Detrusor
B Levator ani
C Pyramidalis
D Pyriformis
E Rectus abdominis
Clinical management domain
Core module I
SBA 108
The Fraser guidelines require doctors to be sat-
isfied that certain criteria are met before offering
treatment to minors under 16 years of age without
parental consent. To which type of treatment do
they specifically refer?
A Abortion
B Antibiotic treatment
C Contraception
D Sexually transmitted infections
E Surgery
Core module 5
SBA 109
Following a routine hysterectomy, a woman is
prescribed intravenous fluids. Unfortunately, an
infusion pump is not available and the fluid-giv-
ing set is incorrectly set up, resulting in the wo-
man receiving six litres of fluid in 24 hours. The
following day on the ward round she is noted to
be breathless with low oxygen saturation. What is
the most likely complication she has suffered?
Core module 6
SBA 110
Regarding laparoscopic entry technique, which
type of injury is likely to be reduced by the open
(Hasson) technique as opposed to the closed
(Veress needle) technique?
A Bladder injury
B Large bowel injury
C Major vessel injury
D Small bowel injury
E Uterine injury
Core module 7
Syllabus topic: Principles of procedures used in
surgical practice.
SBA 111
What is the risk of uterine perforation at hystero-
scopy?
A 0.01%
B 0.1%
C 1%
D 10%
E 15%
Core module 8
Syllabus topic: Principles underlying the man-
agement of common disorders of pregnancy.
SBA 112
A woman who is 11 weeks pregnant is referred
to the gynaecology ward with a two-week history
of vomiting. She is prescribed intravenous rehyd-
ration and antiemetics. She should also be pre-
scribed which vitamin to reduce the chance of
Wernicke’s encephalopathy?
A Vitamin A
B Vitamin B1
C Vitamin B6
D Vitamin B12
E Vitamin C
Core module 9
SBA 113
A 25-year-old primagravida presents at 34 weeks
of pregnancy with intense itching, which is worse
on the palms of her hands and soles of her feet.
A set of liver function tests is requested, with the
following results:
Albumin 29 g/l (35–50)
Serum alkaline phosphatase 279 u/l (40–120)
Alanine transaminase 80 u/l (0–45)
Gamma GT 50 u/l (0–45)
Bilirubin 19mol/l (0–21)
A Bile acids
B Calcium and phosphate levels
C Full blood count
D Urea and electrolytes
E Viral hepatitis screen
Core module 10
SBA 114
A midwife calls the obstetric registrar to review a
labouring woman. The partogram shows no pro-
gress of cervical dilatation for the past four hours.
The cervix is currently 7 cm dilated and the mem-
branes are intact. The midwife is also concerned
that the CTG is suspicious. What is the next
course of action?
Core module 1 I
SBA 115
Following a forceps delivery, a woman is found
to have extensive vaginal and perineal tears.
When she is examined in theatre by the obstetric
registrar, it is noted that approximately 40% of
the external anal sphincter is torn, although the
internal anal sphincter is intact. What degree of
tear is this?
A 2
B 3a
C 3b
D 3c
E 4
Core module 12
SBA 116
Following a water birth, a woman elects not to
have oxytocics for the management of the third
stage of labour. Thirty minutes later, she is
brought to the consultant unit with a postpartum
haemorrhage owing to an atonic uterus. If she had
received standard oxytocic management for the
third stage of labour, by what amount would she
have reduced her risk of a postpartum haemor-
rhage?
A 10%
B 20%
C 30%
D 60%
E 90%
Core module 13
SBA 117
An overweight 80-year-old woman with type 2
diabetes mellitus and atrial fibrillation is referred
to the gynaecology clinic with a ‘lump down be-
low’ which is troubling her. She is examined by
the registrar, who finds a moderate-sized cysto-
cele but no rectocele. What would be the most ap-
propriate first-line management?
Core module 14
SBA 118
A 45-year-old woman who is fit and well is re-
ferred to the fertility clinic as she would like to
become pregnant. She has marked oligomenor-
rhoea. Basic tests are organised for the woman
and her husband with the following results:
FSH: 22.3 i.u./l (1–11 i.u./l)
Progesterone (mid-luteal): <2 nmol/l (>30
nmol/l)
Ultrasound: Normal uterus. Ovaries not clearly
seen.
Hysterosalpingogram: Normal uterine cavity.
Both tubes patent.
Semen analysis × 2: Normal
What treatment will give them the greatest
chance of achieving a pregnancy?
A Clomifene citrate
B Intrauterine insemination
C IVF
D IVF with donor eggs
E IVF with donor sperm
Core module 15
Syllabus topics: Understand the principles of
management of STD. Understand the prescribing
of contraception.
SBA 119
A 21-year-old woman with a new sexual partner
attends the Accident and Emergency department
with fever, lower abdominal pain and vaginal dis-
charge. She is otherwise well. She is examined
and appropriate swabs are taken. A pregnancy
test is negative and an ultrasound scan is organ-
ised which is unremarkable. What is the appropri-
ate course of action?
SBA 120
Following early pregnancy loss, women can be
offered expectant, medical or surgical manage-
ment. What percentage of women express a
strong preference for surgical evacuation of the
uterus?
A 12%
B 19%
C 34%
D 64%
E 82%
Core module 17
Core module 18
SBA 122
A 60-year-old woman is referred to the gynae-
cology clinic with symptoms of urinary urgency
and frequency, nocturia and urge incontinence.
She also leaks urine when coughing or sneezing.
Physical examination is unremarkable, with no
evidence of pelvic floor prolapse, and a mid-
stream urine sample is clear. What is the most ap-
propriate course of action?
Immunology domain
SBA 123
Which immunoglobulin class has a pentameric
structure and is unable to cross the placenta?
A IgA
B IgD
C IgE
D IgG
E IgM
Core module 8
SBA 124
What is the immunological basis of haemolytic
disease of the newborn (rhesus disease) and the
correct associated therapy?
A RhD-negative mother carries RhD-negative
fetus: administer D+ serum
B RhD-negative mother carries RhD-positive
fetus: administer anti-D serum
C RhD-positiv e mother carries Rh-negative
fetus: administer D+ serum
D RhD-positive mother carries RhD-positive
fetus: administer anti-D serum
E RhD-positive mother, RhD-positive father:
administer anti-D serum
Core module 9
SBA 125
The pregnant uterus is viewed as immune priv-
ileged. What is the cellular basis for this phe-
nomenon?
A Extravillous trophoblasts do not express high-
er levels of the MHC-1 antigens HLA-A and
HLA-B but do express HLA-E and HLA-G
B Extravillous trophoblasts express higher
levels of the highly polymorphic MHC-1 anti-
gen HLA-G
C Extravillous trophoblasts express higher
levels of the MHC-1 antigens HLA-A, HLA-
B, HLA-C and HLA-G
D Syncytiotrophoblasts do not express higher
levels of the MHC-1 antigens HLA-A and
HLA-B but do express HLA-C and HLA-G
E Syncytiotrophoblasts express higher levels of
the MHC-1 antigens HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-
E and HLA-G
Core module 13
SBA 126
What type of immune hypersensitivity reaction
best describes haemolytic disease of the newborn
(rhesus disease)?
Core module 14
SBA 127
Naive CD4-positive T cells can polarise to be-
come either Th1 or Th2 phenotypes depending
upon the nature of the signals they receive. What
is the balance between Th1 and Th2 cells during
pregnancy and which signal is involved?
Core module 16
SBA 128
The conversion of prothrombin to thrombin can
be inhibited by lupus anticoagulant antibodies.
What is the frequency of these antibodies in the
normal UK obstetric population and the risk of
fetal mortality associated with such antisera?
Core module 17
SBA 129
Biochemical markers can be used to indicate the
presence of a tumour. Which serum marker is
used to screen for trophoblastic tumours?
A Activin-A
B α-FP
C BRCA1
D CA125
E hC G
Microbiology domain
SBA 130
It is estimated that surgical-site infections ac-
count for 9% of all hospital-acquired infections.
Which bacteria are most commonly associated
with such infections?
A Candida albicans
B Cryptococcus neoformans
C Plasmodium falciparum
D Staphylococcus aureus
E Trichomonas vaginalis
Core module 8
SBA 131
Roughly 60% of babies born to mothers who
carry group B Streptococcus (GBS) will also be-
come colonised as they pass through the vagina at
birth. Which strain of Streptococcus is respons-
ible for the majority of GBS infections?
A Streptococcus agalactiae
B Streptococcus angiosus
C Streptococcus bovis
D Streptococcus pneumoniae
E Streptococcus pyogenes
Core module 9
SBA 132
Ascending infection of the vagina can induce pre-
mature labour. Which pathogen is most com-
monly associated with bacterial vaginosis?
A Candida albicans
B Chlamyidia trachomatis
C Gardnerella vaginalis
D Listeria monocytogenes
E Neisseria meningitidis
Core modules 10–11
SBA 133
In the UK obstetric population, a risk-based ap-
proach is employed to determine which women
will benefit from prophylactic antibiotic treat-
ment for group B Streptococcus infection. As-
suming the woman does not have an allergy to
penicillin-based antibiotics, which antibiotic is
used for prophylaxis during labour?
A Ampicillin
B Benzylpenicillin
C Cefalexin
D Clindamycin
E Flucloxacillin
Core module 12
Syllabus topics: Puerperal sepsis. Infection and
its management in the postpartum period.
SBA 134
A woman who had prolonged rupture of mem-
branes presents to hospital three days after a
spontaneous vaginal delivery with abdominal
pain, fever and vaginal bleeding. On examination
the uterus is tender. The cervix is closed but
bleeding is noted with an offensive odour. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
A Endometriosis
B Endometritis
C Pelvic inflammatory disease
D Retained products of conception
E Urinary tract infection
Core module 13
A Bartholin’s gland
B Nabothian gland
C Sebaceous gland
D Skene’s gland
E Sweat gland
Core module 14
SBA 136
Which organism causes tubal infection that is re-
sponsible for the majority of cases of secondary
infertility?
A Chlamydia trachomatis
B Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D Treponema pallidum pallidum
E Treponema pallidum pertenue
SBA 137
Which pathogen underlies late congenital infec-
tion during childhood and presents with eighth-
nerve deafness, interstitial keratitis and abnormal
teeth?
A Chlamydia trachomatis
B Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D Treponema pallidum pallidum
E Treponema pallidum pertenue
Core module 16
SBA 138
Chorioamnionitis infections increase the risk of
preterm birth by two- to three-fold. What is the
azithromycin-sensitive pathogen which can cause
chorioamnionitis?
A Chlamydia trachomatis
B Clostridium botulinum
C Listeria monocytogenes
D Streptococcus mutans
E Vibrio cholerae
Core module 17
Core module 18
SBA 140
Which organism is implicated in the majority of
urinary tract infections in pregnancy?
A Escherichia coli
B Group B Streptococcus
C Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D Staphylococcus aureus
E Trichomonas vaginalis
4 | Mock paper: paper I
Answers to the questions in this chapter can be
found in appendix 5.
A Ectoderm
B Endoderm
C Mesoderm
D Trophoblast
E Yolk sac
A Falciform ligament
B Lateral umbilical ligament
C Ligamentum teres
D Medial umbilical ligament
E Median umbilical ligament
A L4–5
B L5, S1
C S2–4
D S3–5
E S4–5
A Broad ligament
B Ovarian ligament
C Round ligament
D Transverse cervical ligament
E Uterosacral ligament
A Axillary nodes
B Inguinal nodes
C Para-aortic nodes
D Superficial cervical nodes
E Supraclavicular nodes
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
E 5
7 The inferior epigastric artery is a branch of
which artery?
A Femoral nerve
B Ilioinguinal nerve
C Inferior rectal nerve
D Pelvic splanchnic nerves
E Superior rectal nerve
A Calcium ions
B Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
C Cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP)
D Inositol 1,4,5,-trisphosphate
E Nitric oxide (NO)
A Acetyl coenzyme A
B Lactic acid
C L-ascorbic acid
D Glucose
E Glucuronic acid
A Carbonic anhydrase
B Cyclooxygenase 2
C Hormone-sensitive lipase
D Lipoxygenase
E UDP-glucuronyl transferase
A 8–11 mmol/l
B 12–18 mmol/l
C 19–22 mmol/l
D 23–28 mmol/l
E 29–33 mmol/l
20 Primordial germ cells originate in which
structure in the embryo?
A Amniotic cavity
B Genital ridge
C Paramesonephric duct
D Pronephros
E Yolk sac
A Genital fold
B Genital swelling
C Genital tubercle
D Paramesonephric duct
E Urogenital sinus
A Endoderm
B Mesonephros
C Metanephric mesoderm
D Pronephros
E Ureteric bud
Genotype Phenotype
A 46XY Female
B 46XY Male
C 46XX Female
D 46XX Male
E 46XO Female
A Coeliac trunk
B Common iliac artery
C Femoral artery
D Inferior mesenteric artery
E Superior mesenteric artery
A Carbohydrate
B Fatty acid
C Prostaglandin
D Protein
E Steroid
A Infundibulum
B Median eminence
C Pars distalis
D Pars nervosa
E Pars tuberalis
27 Which pituitary hormone in the non-pregnant
adult is structurally most similar to prolactin?
A FSH
B GnRH
C Growth hormone
D LH
E TSH
A Cushing syndrome
B Diabetes mellitus
C Premature ovarian failure
D Prolactinoma
E Sheehan syndrome
A Arginine vasopressin
B Growth hormone
C Insulin
D Insulin-like growth factor
E Oxytocin
A 17-hydroxyprogesterone
B Aldosterone
C Corticosterone
D Cortisol
E Pregnenolone
A Graves’ disease
B Thyroid follicular carcinoma
C Thyroiditis
D Toxic adenoma
E Toxic multinodular goitre
A Alpha cells
B Beta cells
C Delta cells
D Epsilon cells
E PP cells
A Coefficient of variation
B Confidence interval
C Standard deviation
D Standard error of the mean
E Variance around the mean
A P=1
B P = 0.5
C P = 0.1
D P = 0.01
E P = 0.001
A Down syndrome
B Edwards’ syndrome
C Klinefelter syndrome
D Lorain–Levi syndrome
E Patau syndrome
A Adenine
B Guanine
C Inosine
D Uracil
E Uranine
A Frameshift mutation
B Nonsense mutation
C Reciprocal translocation
D Robertsonian translocation
E Triplet repeat expansion
A One in two
B One in four
C One in eight
D One in 16
E One in 32
A One in two
B One in four
C One in eight
D One in 16
E One in 32
A Basal lamina
B Granulosa
C Theca externa
D Theca interna
E Zona pellucida
A Anaphase I
B Metaphase I
C Metaphase II
D Prophase I
E Prophase II
A Primary spermatocytes
B Secondary spermatocytes
C Sertoli cells
D Spermatids
E Spermatogonia
A C 2+a
B C-l
C HCO3-
D K+
E Na+
A Ductus arteriosus
B Ductus venosus
C Foramen ovale
D Ligamentum teres
E Pulmonary trunk
A Dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine
B Surfactant-associated protein A
C Surfactant-associated protein D
D Phosphatidylcholine
E Phosphatidylglycerol
A Bohr test
B Coombs test
C Guthrie test
D Hamburger test
E Kleihauer test
A Bowman’s capsule
B Collecting ducts
C Distal convoluted tubule
D Juxtaglomerular cells
E Proximal convoluted tubule
A Leydig cells
B Myofibroblasts
C Sertoli cells
D Spermatocytes
E Spermatogonia
5 | Mock paper: paper 2
Answers to the questions in this chapter can be
found in appendix 6.
A Curie
B Gray
C Joule
D Rad
E Sievert
Resolution Penetration
A Better Greater
B Better Less
C Worse Greater
D Worse Less
E Same Same
A Hypercalcaemia
B Hyperkalaemia
C Hypernatraemia
D Hypokalaemia
E Hyponatraemia
A 1%
B 2%
C 10%
D 20%
E 50%
A Air
B Argon
C Carbon dioxide
D Nitrogen
E Oxygen
A Magnesium chloride
B Magnesium hydroxide
C Magnesium sulphate
D Potassium chloride
E Potassium hydroxide
A 2
B 3a
C 3b
D 3c
E 4
11 A 38-year-old woman has been referred to the
gynaecology clinic with heavy menstrual
bleeding. She has a BMI of 32 kg/m2 and a
previous history of a DVT. She has one child
and is not sure if her family is complete. Her
GP has prescribed tranexamic acid, but after
reading the information leaflet she does not
wish to take this drug. What is the most ap-
propriate management?
A Cyclical norethisterone
B Insert a levonorgestrel-containing in-
trauterine system
C Mefenamic acid
D Transcervical resection of endometrium
E Vaginal hysterectomy
A 20%
B 40%
C 50%
D 60%
E 80%
Protein +
Ketones –
Nitrites +
Glucose –
A 1l
B 5l
C 10 l
D 25 l
E 100 l
A Dermoid cyst
B Ectopic pregnancy
C Haemorrhagic cyst
D Ovarian carcinoma
E Ovarian torsion
19 In the new WHO manual for semen analysis,
what is the minimum normal total sperm in
the ejaculate?
A 15 × 106
B 20 × 106
C 32 × 106
D 39 × 106
E 50 × 106
A Conjoined twins
B Dizygotic dichorionic diamniotic
C Monochorionic diamniotic
D Monozygotic dichorionic diamniotic
E Monochorionic monoamniotic
24 A 30-year-old woman attends the early preg-
nancy unit. It is six weeks since her last men-
strual period and a pregnancy test is positive.
She has had mild lower abdominal pain and
has passed some brown vaginal discharge.
The woman suffers with Crohn’s disease and
has a midline scar from a previous bowel re-
section. An ultrasound scan is arranged with
the following report:
A IgA
B IgD
C IgE
D IgG
E IgM
A Erythrocytes
B Macrophages
C Mast cells
D Mesangial cells
E Neutrophils
A HLA-A
B HLA-B
C HLA-C
D HLA-F
E HLA-G
A Candida albicans
B Chlamydia trachomatis
C Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E Treponema pallidum
A Definitive aerobe
B Definitive anaerobe
C Facultative anaerobe
D Obligate aerobe
E Obligate anaerobe
A Cytomegalovirus
B Herpes simplex virus
C HIV
D Parvovirus B19
E Varicella-zoster virus
A Breastfeeding
B Contact with saliva
C Sexual contact
D Sneezing
E Social contact
A Adenoviruses
B Herpesviruses
C Poxviruses
D Retroviruses
E Togaviruses
35 Which animal is the primary host for the
parasite Toxoplasma gondii?
A Bat
B Cta
C Cow
D Dog
E Pig
A Atrophy
B Dysplasia
C Hyperplasia
D Hypertrophy
E Metaplasia
A Caseous necrosis
B Coagulative necrosis
C Fibrinoid necrosis
D Gangrenous necrosis
E Liquefactive necrosis
A Apoptosis
B Atrophy
C Karyolysis
D Karyorrhexis
E Necrosis
A Fibroblasts
B Lymphocytes
C Macrophages
D Monocytes
E Neutrophils
A Glycoprotein
B Leucotriene
C Peptide
D Prostaglandin
E Steroid
A Carcinoma
B Choristoma
C Hamartoma
D Sarcoma
E Teratoma
A Haematogenous
B Implantation
C Lymphatic
D Transcoelomic
E Transplantation
A Autosomal dominant
B Autosomal recessive
C X-linked dominant
D X-linked recessive
E Y-linked dominant
A Cervical
B Intramural
C Pedunculated
D Submucous
E Subserous
47 Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor
modulator that is used in the treatment of
breast cancer. Prolonged tamoxifen use is as-
sociated with an increased risk of which gyn-
aecological cancer?
A Cervical
B Endometrial
C Fallopian tube
D Ovarian
E Vulval
A Estradiol
B Estriol
C Estrone
D Ethinylestradiol
E Tibolone
A Aromatase inhibitor
B Estrogen antagonist
C Progesterone antagonist
D Selective estrogen receptor modulator
E Selective progesterone receptor modulator
A α2 agonist
B Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
C Antimuscarinic
D β2 agonist
E Direct-acting smooth-muscle relaxant
A 6–9/40
B 12–14/40
C 18–20/40
D 24–26/40
E 32–36/40
53 Clavulanic acid and sulbactam are examples
of which class of drugs?
A Aminoglycosides
B Betalactamase inhibitors
C Cephalosporins
D Macrolides
E Penicillins
A α (alpha)
B δ (delta)
C к (kappa)
D (mu)
E Nociceptin receptor
A 5-HT1a
B 5-HT3
C D2
D H1
E H2
A Bicarbonate
B Calcium
C Chloride
D Potassium
E Sodium
A Angiotensin-converting enzyme
B Carbonic anhydrase
C Cyclooxygenase
D Glutaminase
E Penicillinase
58 Which class of drugs is antagonised by flu-
mazenil?
A Antiemetics
B Antipsychotics
C Benzodiazepines
D Neuroleptics
E Opiates
A Carbamazepine
B Gabapentin
C Lamotrigine
D Levetiracetam
E Sodium valproate
A Vitamin A
B Vitamin B12
C Vitamin C
D Vitamin E
E Vitamin K
Appendix 1 Blueprinting
matrix for the Part 1
MRCOG examination
Appendix 2 Example
SBA answer sheet
Appendix 3 Answers to
chapter 2 questions
SBA I A
SBA 2 E
SBA 3 A
SBA 4 A
SBA 5 B
SBA 6 C
SBA 7 B
SBA 8 E
SBA 9 E
SBA 10 C
SBA 1 I B
SBA 12 B
SBA 13 D
SBA 14 C
SBA 15 E
SBA 169 A
SBA 17 B
SBA 18 D
SBA 19 C
SBA 20 C
SBA 321 D
SBA 22 E
SBA 23 D
SBA 24 E
SBA 25 C
SBA 26 C
SBA 27 E
SBA 28 B
SBA 29 B
SBA 30 E
SBA 31 E
SBA 32 A
SBA 33 A
SBA 34 D
SBA 35 D
SBA 36 A
SBA 37 E
SBA 38 C
SBA 39 B
SBA 40 C
SBA 41 B
SBA 42 D
SBA 43 D
SBA 44 E
SBA 45 A
SBA 46 B
SBA 47 A
SBA 48 C
SBA 49 B
SBA 50 B
SBA 5 I C
SBA 52 A
SBA 53 A
SBA 54 C
SBA 55 E
SBA 56 E
SBA 57 A
SBA 58 B
SBA 59 A
SBA 60 C
SBA 61 D
SBA 62 C
SBA 63 E
SBA 64 A
Appendix 4 Answers to
chapter 3 questions
SBA 65 E
SBA 66 D
SBA 67 E
SBA 68 A
SBA 69 B
SBA 70 A
SBA 71 A
SBA 72 D
SBA 73 C
SBA 74 E
SBA 75 A
SBA 76 D
SBA 77 B
SBA 78 E
SBA 79 B
SBA 80 A
SBA 8 1 B
SBA 82 B
SBA 83 B
SBA 84 B
SBA 85 E
SBA 86 D
SBA 87 A
SBA 88 B
SBA 89 C
SBA 90 C
SBA 91 C
SBA 92 E
SBA 93 E
SBA 94 A
SBA 95 C
SBA 96 A
SBA 97 C
SBA 98 E
SBA 99 E
SBA 100 E
SBA 101 B
SBA 102 D
SBA 103 C
SBA 104 E
SBA 105 E
SBA 106 D
SBA 107 A
SBA 108 C
SBA 109 E
SBA 110 C
SBA 111 C
SBA 112 B
SBA 113 A
SBA 114 D
SBA 115 B
SBA 116 D
SBA 117 A
SBA 118 D
SBA 119 D
SBA 120 C
SBA 121 D
SBA 122 D
SBA 123 E
SBA 124 B
SBA 125 A
SBA 126 B
SBA 127 C
SBA 128 C
SBA 129 E
SBA 130 D
SBA 131 A
SBA 132 C
SBA 133 B
SBA 134 B
SBA 135 A
SBA 136 A
SBA 137 D
SBA 138 A
SBA 139 E
SBA 140 A
Appendix 5 Answers to
mock paper I (chapter 4)
1 C
2 E
3 C
4 D
5 A
6 C
7 A
8 A
9 B
10 C
11 D
12 C
13 A
14 D
15 E
16 C
17 D
18 C
19 D
20 E
21 C
22 C
23 A
24 E
25 D
26 C
27 C
28 B
29 A
30 E
31 A
32 B
33 A
34 A
35 D
36 B
37 C
38 D
39 C
40 A
41 D
42 E
43 B
44 D
45 E
46 B
47 A
48 B
49 B
50 C
51 E
52 A
53 E
54 E
55 D
56 C
57 A
58 E
59 D
60 A
Appendix 6 Answers to
mock paper 2 (chapter 5)
1 E
2 B
3 D
4 B
5 D
6 C
7 C
8 C
9 C
10 E
11 B
12 D
13 E
14 B
15 D
16 A
17 B
18 C
19 D
20 A
21 A
22 E
23 C
24 D
25 A
26 C
27 B
28 E
29 E
30 D
31 C
32 E
33 A
34 E
35 B
36 E
37 A
38 E
39 A
40 A
41 C
42 D
43 A
44 A
45 E
46 D
47 B
48 E
49 D
50 E
51 E
52 A
53 B
54 D
55 B
56 B
57 B
58 C
59 E
60 A
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