Criminologists Licensure Examination

First Day - 12:30 p.m. – 3:30 p.m.

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REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET TWO

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark
only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your
choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil
no. 1 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A Chinese Philosopher who once said: “If you know your enemy and know
yourself, you need not fear the result of a hundred battles”.
A. Confucius
B. Chiang Kai Shek
C. Sun Tzu
D. Wong Mhan Fei Hong

2. Maybe defined as the product resulting from the collecting information

concerning an actual and potential situation and condition relating to foreign
activities and to foreign or enemy held areas.
A. Interrogation
B. Information
C. Intelligence
D. Investigation

3. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information concerning organized

crime and other major police problems.
A. Military Intelligence
B. Military Information
C. Police Intelligence
D. Police Investigation

4. It is the combination of two or more persons for the purpose of establishing

terror or corruption in the city/community or section of, either a monopoly, of
virtual monopoly or criminal activity in a field that provides a continuing financial
profit.
A. Organized Crime
B. Criminal Syndicate
C. Criminal World
D. Mafia

5. The social organization of criminals, having its own social classes from the hobo
to the moneyed gangsters or racketeers.
A. Criminal World
B. Mafia
C. Organized Crime
D. Criminal Syndicate

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6. It is the stable business with violence applied and directed at unwelcome
competitors.
A. Mafia
B. Criminal World
C. Criminal Syndicate
D. Organized Crime

7. A form of intelligence which concerns with the various types of confidential

information that filter into the possession of the police, and the techniques
employed in developing these lines of information.
A. Counter Intelligence
B. Departmental Intellignce
C. Undercover Intelligence
D. Strategic Intelligence

8. Which a Police Administrator must rely as one of the most indispensable tools of
management; it is derived from organized information available in the police
records division which concerned with the nature, size and distribution of the
police problems of crime, vice and traffic?
A. Strategic Intelligence
B. Counter Intelligence
C. Departmental Intelligence
D. Undercover Intelligence

9. Intelligence which primarily long-range in nature with little or no immediate

practical value.
A. Strategic Intelligence
B. Counter Intelligence
C. Departmental Intelligence
D. Undercover Intelligence

10. The type of intelligence activity that deals with the defending of the organization
against its criminal enemies.
A. Counter Intelligence
B. Strategic Intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. None of these

11. It is the evaluated and interpreted information concerning an actual or possible

enemy or theatre of operations, including weather and terrain, together with the
conclusions drawn there from.
A. Line Intelligence
B. Strategic Intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. Covert Operation

12. The type of intelligence that is immediate in nature and necessary for more
effective police planning.
A. Line Intelligence
B. Police Intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. Overt Operation

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13. If the information or documents are procured openly without regard as to
whether the subject of the investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose
or purposes for which it is being regarded.
A. Overt Operation
B. Evaluation
C. Covert Operation
D. Interpretation

14. It is a critical appraisal of information as a basis for its subsequent interpretation,

which includes determining the pertinence of information, the reliability of the
source and agency through which the information was derived and its accuracy.
A. Interpretation
B. Tasks
C. Evaluation
D. Operations

15. Is the proper, economical and most productive use of personnel, resources and
equipment employed and/or utilized in planning the collection of information,
processing of information and disseminations of intelligence.
A. Cardinal Principle of Intelligence
B. Assets and Liability Intelligence
C. Economic Intelligence
D. Income and expenditure Intelligence

16. Refer to the uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles, honesty and
freedom from moral delinquencies.
A. Integrity
B. Loyalty
C. Discretion
D. Moral

17. Principles or standards of conduct of an individual, his ethical judgment in human

relations and his respect to superiors.
A. Character
B. Reputation
C. Moral
D. Integrity

18. Interim clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the date of issuance.
A. 1 yr
B. 3 yrs
C. 2 yrs
D. 4 yrs

19. Maximum security measures applied to prevent possible decryption of encrypted

data on radio communication.
A. Transmission
B. Cryptographic security
C. Operation security
D. Computer security

20. Final security measures undertaken prior to the entry into a communication area.
A. control of operations area
B. control of communications area

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 C. area access control
D. perimeter control

21. An encrypted message complete with heading of a message written in an

intelligence text or language which conveys hidden meaning.
A. Cryptogram
B. Cryptography
C. Codes
D. Ciphers

22. The removal of the security classification from the classified matter.
A. Classify
B. Reclassify
C. Upgrading
D. Declassify

23. Security of the command is the responsibility of:

A. Headquarters commandant
B. Members of the Base Platoon
C. Regional Director
D. Everybody

24. The authority and responsibility for the classification of classified matter rest
exclusively with the:
A. head of office
B. receiving unit
C. Regional Director
D. originating unit

25. Information and material, the unauthorized disclosure of which would cause
exceptionally grave damage to the nation, politically, economically or militarily.
A. Restricted
B. Confidential
C. Top Secret
D. Secret

26. Among the following, who has authority to classify Top Secret matters?
A. Chief of Police
B. Regional Director
C. Sec of DND
D. Provincial Director

27. Investigation of the records and files of agencies in the area and residence of the
individual being investigated.
A. CBI
B. PBI
C. LAC
D. NAC

28. Applied methods of security for the purpose of super-imposing camouflage radio
transmission on communication network.
A. transmission security
B. physical security

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 C. cryptographic security
D. operation security

29. Final measures undertaken prior to the entry into an operating room.
A. Control of operations area
B. Area access control
C. perimeter control
D. control of communications area

30. It is a system in which individual letters of a message are represented.

A. Ciphers
B. Cryptogram
C. Codes
D. Cryptography

31. This motivation regarding agent control applies to those whose main desire is for
power.
A. ideological belief
B. material gain
C. revenge
D. personal prestige

32. Consist of LAC supplemented by investigation of the records and files of national
agencies.
A. LAC
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. NAC

33. The following are operational security methods except for:

A. cut-out device
B. communication
C. cover
D. proper operational planning

34. Maximum security measures undertaken to preserve secrecy of classified

operations.
A. transmission security
B. computer security
C. cryptographic security
D. operations security

35. Control measures undertaken to prevent entry of unauthorized persons inside

the premises of communication facility.
A. perimeter control
B. control of operations area
C. control of communications area
D. area access control

36. Among the following, who is not authorized to classify Top Secret matter?
A. Secretary of National Defense
B. Chief, PNP
C. Chief of Staff, AFP

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 D. Chief of Police Station

37. Top Secret matter shall not be transmitted through:

A. direct contact to officers concerned
B. thru DFA Diplomatic Pouch
C. official courier
D. mail

38. The barrier established to protect the surrounding of an installation.

A. Animal
B. Human
C. Energy
D. Structural

39. In the security industry and in large areas, the standard height of a fence is
A. 12 meters
B. 10 meters
C. 9 meters
D. 8 meters

40. The barrier that requires the employment of the guard and guard system is ___
barrier.
A. Energy
B. Animal
C. Structural
D. Human

41. Which of the following composed the PNP under its creation on R.A 6975?
A. member of the INP
B. members of the PC
C. jail guards
D. all of them

42. The largest organic unit with in large department is a __.

A. Bureau
B. Division
C. Section
D. Unit

43. What is the rank of the Chief Directorial Staff?

A. Deputy Dir General
B. Police Director
C. Police Chief Superintendent
D. Police Senior Superintendent

44. Which is known as the Police Act of 1966 and created the office of the
NAPOLCOM?
A. R.A. 6975
B. R.A. 8551
C. P.D. 765
D. R.A. 4864

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45. What is the kind of promotion granted to candidates who meet all the basic
qualification for promotion?
A. Special
B. Meritorious
C. Regular
D. Ordinary

46. The mandatory training course for SPO4 before they can be promoted to the
rank of Police Inspector is the __.
A. Officers Basic Course
B. Officer’s Advance Course
C. Officers Candidate Course
D. Senior Leadership Course

47. The nature of which the police officer is free from specific routine duty is called
A. on duty
B. special duty
C. leave of absence
D. off duty

48. PNP promotions are subject to the confirmation of the:

A. Civil Service Commission
B. NAPOLCOM
C. Commission on Appointment
D. President of the Philippines

49. How many deputies do the PNP has?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

50. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned such as designated desk
or office or spot is called
A. Post
B. Route
C. Beat
D. Sector

51. MNSA or Master’s in National Security in Administration is offered and

administered by this institution.
A. PPSC
B. NAPOLCOM
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. National Defense College

52. Describes the procedures and defines the duties of officers assigned to specific
post or position.
A. Department rule
B. Code of Ethical Standard
C. Duty Manual
D. Code of Conduct

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53. The staff directorate in charge of providing the necessary supplies and materials
to all PNP units is the
A. Research Development Office
B. Logistics Office
C. Plans
D. Comptrollership

54. In the history of our police force, who was the first Chief of the Philippine
Constabulary?
A. Capt. Henry T. Allen
B. Col. Lamberto Javallera
C. Gen. Rafael Crame
D. Capt. Nicholas Piatt

55. Among the following. he is known as the father of Modern Policing System.
A. William Norman
B. Sir Robert Peel
C. King Henry III
D. John Westminster

56. Japanese Military Police during the Japanese occupation in the Philippines were
known as
A. Kamikaze
B. Kempetai
C. Konichiwa
D. Okinana
E. Hara Kiri

57. How many years of satisfactory service must a PNP member renders before he
can apply for optional retirement?
A. 10 years
B. 20 years
C. 15 years
D. 25 years

58. Decision of the Chief, PNP in administrative cases where the penalty is dismissal,
demotion and forced resignation may be appealed before the
A. Regional Appellate Body
B. Office of the President
C. National Appellate Board
D. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
59. In the physical environment of the patrol division, the shift that receives most of
the call of the public which are directly related to police function are made on
the;
A. Afternoon shift
B. midnight shift
C. day shift
D. A and C only

60. The statistical reports of patrol officers regarding the rate of crime, types of
crime an d places of crimes in each beat is very important in the implementation
of the;
A. preventive enforcement
B. selective enforcement

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 C. traffic enforcement
D. emergency call for service

61. A patrol activity that is directed towards the elimination of hazards in each
respective beat is called
A. patrol and observation
B. called for service
C. attending to complaints
D. none of the above

62. According to the father of modern policing system, the soundest of all
criminological philosophies is
A. prevention of crime
B. elimination of crime
C. control of crime
D. suppression of crime

63. Patrol hazard would include the following except

A. Stress
B. Open manhole
C. suspicious persons
D. ordinances

64. In the history of patrol, the first recorded organized police that utilized dog patrol
was the so called _.
A. Medjays
B. Vigiles
C. Ancient police
D. Jacobians

65. The Chief magistrate at bow street in London that organized the Bow Street
Runners is
A. King Charles II of London
B. Henry Fielding of London
C. King Richard of London
D. none of the above

66. The responsibility of police that involves peacekeeping on community service role
or social services is referred to as
A. crime prevention
B. prevention of crime
C. order maintenance
D. crime investigation

67. The effort of reduction of elimination of desire and opportunity to commit crime
is known as
A. order maintenance
B. law enforcement
C. prevention of crime
D. arrest of criminals

68. In the history of patrol US, the first daytime and paid police service was
organized in

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 A. New York
B. Boston
C. San Francisco
D. Philadelphia

69. The government agency that issue license for private and government security
guard is __
A. the PNP SAGSD
B. Mayor’s Office
C. Security and Exchange Commission (SEC)
D. the Local Police Office

70. Which of the following is not a function of a Private Detective?

A. background investigation
B. locating missing persons
C. controlling traffic flow
D. surveillance work

71. It is a document issued by the chief PNP or his duly authorize representative
recognizing a person to be qualified to perform his duties as security guard or
detective?
A. Certificate of incorporation
B. License to Operate
C. Warrant
D. None of these

72. Perimeter fence is what type of perimeter defense?

A. first line
B. second line
C. third line
D. None of these

73. An additional overhang of barbed wires place on vertical perimeter fences is

commonly called __
A. Hangover
B. guard control
C. tower guard
D. none of these

74. The attempt to determine whether there are parties with in the police
candidate’s family who might negatively influence performance of official duties
can be best verified by conducting:
A. Performance Evaluation
B. Character Investigation
C. Written Examination
D. Oral Interview

75. In cases of altered marital status in the police selection procedure, careful
investigation on matters upon which such alteration should be conducted for
purpose of
A. Promotion
B. Appointment
C. Disqualification
D. Dismissal from Service

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76. The aspect of police selection can not be accurately assessed by other steps in
the selection process can be measured through the conduct of:
A. Polygraph Examination
B. Neigborhood Check
C. Oral Interview
D. Psychological Screening

77. To prevent hiatus (break in continuity) in the discharge of official police function
by authorizing a person to discharge the same pending the selection of another
appointee, is the main reason of:
A. Dismissal
B. Permanent Appointee
C. Temporary Appointment
D. Suspension

78. Verification of academic accomplishment, standardized exam and affiliation with

organization of police applicants are information required in the:
A. Written Examination Procedure
B. Character investigation procedures
C. Appointment Procedures
D. Eligibility Requirements

79. The following are information desired in verifying educational history of a police
applicant, except:
A. Courses Taken
B. Demonstrated Leadership
C. Debt, loans and savings
D. Anti – Social behaviors or Juvenile records.

80. The method by which testing procedures can be best insure job performance
predictability is through a process known as:
A. Test Validation
B. Job Performance
C. Job Analysis
D. Retesting

81. Physical and mental excellence is an essential quality for individuals who are to
be employed as police officers and this can only be determined by administering
rigid
A. Oral examination
B. Character Investigation
C. Vicinity Check
D. Medical Examination

82. Physical Test is designed to furnish data, which will indicate the extent to which
an applicant maybe able to perform required responsibilities. Applicants maybe
required climbing over a fence of 5 feet and 6 inches high without the aid of
another person. This physical test is called:
A. Body Drag
B. Obstacle Clearance
C. Foot Pursuit
D. Body Pull Ups

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83. Planning is a management function concerned with the following, except:
A. visualizing future situations
B. making estimates concerning them
C. making money
D. identifying issues

84. Police administrators sometimes do not appreciate the importance of planning

because
A. of their pattern of career development
B. people do not admire them
C. influential politicians involved in planning
D. of positive view about planning

85. Police Planning is an integral element of good management and

A. Business administration
B. good police decision-making
C. prediction
D. performance

86. According to Hudzik and Cordner, planning is

A. Visioning
B. All of these
C. thinking what is right and doing what is best
D. thinking about the future and what we need to do now to achieve it
87. In SWOT analysis, “W” means:
A. Vulnerabilities
B. Threats
C. Intelligence
D. Win

88. What is the principle which states that subordinate should be under the control
of only one superior?
A. Principle of Chain of Command
B. Principle of unity of command
C. Span of Control Principle
D. Principle of Objectivity

89. The right to exercise, decide and command by virtue of rank and position is
called
A. Command and Control
B. Authority
C. Order
D. All of these

90. Which among the following is not included in the 6 Master Plans of the PNP
A. Sandigang-Milenyo
B. Sandugo
C. Banat
D. Pagpapala

91. It refers to the production of plans, which determine the schedule of special
activity and addresses immediate need which are specific.
A. Operational Plan
B. Strategic Plan

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 C. Synoptic Plan
D. Guideline

92. To properly achieve the administrative planning responsibility within in the unit,
the commander shall develop unit plans relating to, except
A. Policies or procedure
B. Tactics and operations
C. Extra-office activities
D. Interpersonal problems

93. SOP in police parlance means

A. Standard Operation Procedure
B. Special Operating Procedure
C. Standard Operating procedure
D. Special Operation procedure

94. These are procedures intended to be used in all situations of all kinds shall be
outlined as a guide to officers and men in the field.
A. SOPs
B. HQ Procedures
C. Field Procedures
D. None of these

95. Strictly speaking, one of the following is not a police field operation
A. Patrol
B. Investigation
C. Intelligence
D. Traffic Operations

96. SOP Man Hunt Bravo refers to

A. Neutralization of wanted persons
B. Anti-illegal gambling
C. Anti-carnapping plan
D. None of the above

97. While covering his beat, PO1 Juan chased upon a pickpocket. What will be his
first action?
A. Arrest the pickpocket
B. Call for a criminal investigation
C. Bring the pickpocket to the police department
D. Just continue his beat

98. The police must endeavor to establish and impress upon the law abiding citizens
and would be criminals alike that the police are always available to respond to
any situation at a moment’s notice and he will just around the corner at all times.
What does this situation indicate?
A. Police Omnipresence
B. Police Discretion
C. Police Control
D. Police Interaction

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99. A person, thing or situation which possesses a high potential for criminal attack
or for creating a clamor for police service is considered as
A. Patrol Hazards
B. Patrol Effort
C. Police discretion
D. None of these

100. What is the new concept, police strategy which integrates the police and
community interests into a working relationship so as to produce the desired
organizational objectives of peacemaking?
A. Preventive patrol
B. Community Relation
C. Team policing
D. Directed Patrol

- End of Set Two -

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 Law Enforcement Administration

1. C 35. C 69. A
2. C 36. D 70. C
3. C 37. D 71. D
4. B 38. D 72. A
5. B 39. B 73. D
6. B 40. D 74. B
7. C 41. D 75. C
8. C 42. A 76. C
9. A 43. B 77. C
10. A 44. D 78. D
11. A 45. C 79. A
12. A 46. D 80. C
13. A 47. D 81. D
14. C 48. C 82. A
15. A 49. B 83. C
16. A 50. A 84. C
17. C 51. D 85. B
18. A 52. C 86. B
19. B 53. B 87. A
20. C 54. A 88. B
21. A 55. B 89. B
22. D 56. B 90. D
23. D 57. B 91. A
24. A 58. C 92. D
25. C 59. A 93. C
26. C 60. B 94. C
27. C 61. A 95. C
28. A 62. A 96. A
29. A 63. D 97. A
30. D 64. A 98. A
31. D 65. B 99. A
32. D 66. C 100. C
33. A 67. C
34. D 68. D

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