12.

 What  comes  next  in  the  given  pattern  ?

6,  24,  60,  120,  210,  ___ ?
(A)   336 (B)   307 (C)  301 (D)   299

13.  If  5 * 4  =  3;  13 * 12  =  5.  What  is  the  value  of  10 * 8  =  ?
(A)   2 (B)   5 (C)  6 (D)   21

14.  10  friends meet  at new year party. Everyone of  10  friends shook hands with each  other  only once
and  say  hello  to  each  other.  Then  how  many  times  "Hello"  is  spoken  by  them  ? 

(A)   400 (B)   380 (C)  40 (D)   90

15.  Nihal  remembers  that  his  father's  birthday  is  after  25 th  but  before  28 th  March  whereas  his  sister 

Niharika  remembers  that  her  father's  birthday  is  after  26 th  but  before  29 th  March.  On  which  day  is 

Nihal's father's  birthday  ?
(A)   26th  (B)   27th  (C)  28 th  (D)   29th 


SCIENCE
16.  Figure  shows  the  speed  time  graph  of  a  train. 

Study  it  carefully  and  choose  the  correct  statement.
(A)   As PQ is parallel to time axis, it shows that the train is at L P Q

rest in this portion.

(B)   The train has same speed at points O  and  R.
(C)   Slope of graph OP gives distance travelled by the train 
 Speed O M N R
Time
(D)   The graph depicts a uniform motion.

17.  In  which  of  the  following  cases  will  the  work  done  be  maximum  by  force  F  ?  The  body  is  moved
through  a  distance  S  on  the  ground.
(A)   (i) F
F
(B)   (ii) F

(C)   (iii) 
 30° 60° 45° F

(D)   (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

18.  A ball of mass 100 g moving with velocity 10 m s –1  is stopped by a boy in 0.2 s. The force applied
by  the  boy  to  stop  the  ball  is
(A)   3 N (B)   2 N (C)  5 N (D)  7 N.

19.  A  ball  is  dropped  in  two  different  liquids  one  by  one,  in  which  it  rests  as  shown  below.
From this we can conclude that
(A)   Density of liquid (i) is greater than that of ball. 

(B)   Density of liquid (ii) is equal to that of ball.
(C)   Density of liquid (ii) is greater than that of liquid (i).
(D)   None of these. (i) (ii)

20.  Read  the  given  statements  and  mark  the  correct  option. 

Statement 1 : Any two bodies  in the universe attract each other.
Statement  2  :  Mass  of  a  body  keeps  changing  with  place,  in  the  universe.
(A)   Both statements  1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct  explanation of statement 1. 

(B)   Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. 

(C)   Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false. (D)  Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

3 13 th  NSO | LevelII | Class 9

21.   Match  the  Column  I  and  Column  II  and  mark  the  correct  option  from  the  codes  given  below.
Column I Column II
(a)   Inertia (i)    Product  of  force  and  time. 

(b)   Product  of  mass  and  velocity (ii)    Uniform  velocity 

(c)   Zero acceleration (iii)  Mass  of  a  body
(a) (b) (c) 

(A)   (i) (iii) (ii) 

(B)  (ii) (iii) (i) 

(C)  (iii) (i) (ii) 

(D)   (i) (ii) (iii)

22.   When  a  body  falls  from  an  aeroplane  there  is  increase  in  its
(A)   Acceleration (B)   Potential energy (C)   Kinetic energy (D)   Rest  mass.

23.   Which  of  the  following  graphs  shows  an  accelerated  motion?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Velocity
Velocity
Distance
Distance

O Time Time Time Time

DIRECTION  :  Read  the  passage  carefully  and  answer  question  numbers  24  and  25.
A person A does 500 J of work in 10 min and another person B does 600 J of work in 20 min. Let the
power delivered by A and B be P1  and P2  respectively.

24.  P1  and  P2  are  related  as

(A)   P1  = P2 (B)   P1  > P2

(C)   P1  < P2
 (D)   P1  and P2 are undefined.

25.  P1  and  P2  respectively  are

(A)   0.83 W, 0.5 W (B)   8.3 W, 5 W (C)   2.8 W, 2.9 W (D)   4 W, 6 W.

26.   In an orchestra, the musical sounds of different instruments are distinguished from one another by
which of  the following  characteristics.
(A)   Pitch (B)   Loudness (C)   Quality (D)   Overtones.

27.   The  size  of  an  air  bubble  rising  up  in  water
(A)   Decreases (B)  Increases
(C)   Remains same (D)   May increase or decrease.

28.   The  figure  represents  the  process  of Thermometer

(A)   Distillation Water outlet

flask
Clamp
(B)  Sublimation
Water
Acetone condenser
(C)  Chromatography + water
Cold water in Acetone
(D)   Filtration

13 th  NSO | LevelII | Class 9 4

29.  A chemist took 23 crystals of KMnO 4 and dissolved them in water. The particles of KMnO 4 got evenly
distributed  in  water. This  shows  that
(A)   There is space between the particles of matter (B)  Particles of matter attract each other 

(C)   Particles of matter are very small (D)  Particles of matter have energy.

30.  Given is the graphical representation of number of molecules

6.023 × 10 23
of  different  gases.

Number of molecules
Which  is/are  placed  at  correct  position  ? 3.01 × 10 23
(A)   H2 ,
 He
1.50 × 10 23
(B)   N2 , CH4 
 H2 He N2 CH 4
(C)   He, CH4 1 2 3 4
Mass(g)
(D)   H2 , CH4

31.  I. The  number  of  electrons  gained,  lost  or  shared  by  an  element  to  complete  its  octet  is  called
its   A  .
II.     Electrons  were  discovered  by    B  .
III.    The  maximum  number  of  electrons  present  in  a  shell  is    C  .
A,  B  and  C  are
(A)   A = electronic configuration, B = Chadwick, C = 2n2 , where n = 1, 2, 3.... 

(B)   A = electronic configuration, B = J.J.Thomson, C = 2n2 , where n = 1, 2, 3 

(C)   A = valency, B = Chadwick, C = 2n2 , where n = 1, 2, 3 

(D)   A = valency, B = J.J.Thomson, C = 2n2 , where n = 1, 2, 3....

32.  The  average  atomic  mass  of  a  sample  X  is  16.2  u.  The  %ages  of8  16X and18
8  X in  it  are 


(A)   90% and 10% (B)   91.5% and 8.5% (C)  90.4% and 9.6% (D)   10% and 90%.

33.  Read  the  given  statements  and  mark  the  correct  option.
Statement I : Separation/identification of different components of a mixture by paper chromatography 

is  based  upon  their  solubilities  in  the  same  solvent.
Statement II : The substance which is more soluble in the solvent moves faster and gets separated 

from  the  substance  which  moves  slowly.
(A)   Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. 

(B)   Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. 

(C)   Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (D)  Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

34.    If we remove the glass plate, the process taking place is Jar B

(A)   Condensation Air

Glass 

(B)   Sublimation plate

(C)   Diffusion Redbrown 


gas
(D)   Evaporation. Jar A

35.  The  correct  increasing  order  (lowest  first)  for  the  values  of  e/m  (charge/mass)  is 

(A)   e, p, n, a (B)   n, p, e, a (C)  n, p, a, e (D)   n, a, p, e.

36.  What  is  the  amount  of  water  required  to  prepare  500  g  of  2.5%  solution  of  sugar  ? 

(A)   500 g (B)   400 g (C)  487.5 g (D)   328.5 g

5 13 th  NSO | LevelII | Class 9

37.   Read  the  given  statements  and  mark  the  correct  option.
Statement  I  :  Pure  water  obtained  from  different  sources  such  as  river,  well,  spring,  etc.  always 

contain  hydrogen  and  oxygen  combined  in  the  ratio  of  1:8  by  mass.
Statement  II: A  chemical  compound  always  contains  elements  combined  in  same  proportions  by 

mass.  This  is  in  accordance  with  law  of  constant  composition.

(A)   Statement I and II are true and statement II is correct explanation of statement I. 

(B)   Statement I and II are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I. 

(C)   Statement I is true but statement II is false. 

(D)   Statement I is false but statement II is true.

38.   Which of the following statements regarding the given figure of microscope
is  incorrect  ?

(A)   It was developed during 1930 to 1946.

(B)   A beam of electrons is used in this microscope.

(C)   Magnification is upto 200,000 times than the original size of particle.

(D)   It uses visible light.

39.   The  energy  required for various  chemical activities  needed  for life  is released by  mitochondria in
the  form  of  ________.
(A)   ADP (B)   AMP (C)   ATP (D)   CTP

40.   What  is  common  to  all  the  tissues  shown  in  the  given  figures  ?

(A)   These are complex permanent tissues.

(B)   They provide mechanical strength and elasticity to the growing stems.

(C)   They divide continuously and help in increasing the length and girth of the plant. 

(D)   These are dead cells with thick secondary walls impermeable to water.

41.   Which  of  the  following  statements  is  incorrect  ?

(A)   Matrix of cartilage does not have calcium salts whereas these salts, mainly calcium phosphates, are always
present in the matrix of bone.

(B)   Blood consists of only erythrocytes and leucocytes whereas lymph consists of plasma and platelets. 

(C)   Simple tissue is made up of similar cells whereas complex tissue is made up of two or more than two types
of cells.
(D)   Phloem transports photosynthetically prepared food materials from the leaves to the storage organs.

42.   Earthworms  and  leeches  belong  to  the  phylum

(A)   Coelenterata (B)   Nematoda (C)   Annelida (D)   Arthropoda

13 th  NSO | LevelII | Class 9 6

Direction  :  Refer  the  given  figure  and  answer  Q.nos.  43  and  44. 

43.  Identify  the  plant  and  the  division  to  which  it  belongs.
Plant Division
(A)   Chara Thallophyta 

(B)   Funaria Bryophyta 

(C)   Equisetum Pteridophyta 

(D)   Marsilea Pteridophyta

44.  Which  of  the  following  statements  is  incorrect  for  the  given  plant  ?
(A)   It belongs to a plant group with hidden reproductive organs. 

(B)   It possesses a specialised tissue for the conduction of water.
(C)   It possesses naked embryos called spores. (D)  It possesses flowers  and produce seeds.

45.  Edward Jenner was the first to develop vaccines, by using live organisms. The term vaccination has
been  derived  by  the  use  of  ______  virus  as  vaccine.
(A)   Small pox (B)   Chicken pox (C)  Cow pox (D)   Measles

46.  On  which  of  the  following  diseases,  antibiotics  will  not  be  effective  ?
(i)    Typhoid (ii)   Tuberculosis (iii)  Dengue fever (iv)  Cholera 

(v)   AIDS
(A)   (i), (ii) & (v) (B)  (iii) & (v) (C)  (iv) & (v) (D)  (ii), (iii) & (iv)

47.  Study  the  given  figure  of  nitrogen  cycle.

Nitrogen in
the air
P
Herbivore Q

Dead organic 

matter Bean plant with 

root nodules
S
Nitrate

Identify the location of decay causers, nitrifiers, denitrifiers and nitrogen fixers in the cycle and select the 

correct option from the codes given below ?
P Q R S
(A)   Nitrifiers Denitrifiers Decay causers Nitrogen fixers 

(B)   Denitrifiers     Nitrogen fixers Decay causers Nitrifiers 

(C)   Denitrifiers     Decay causers Nitrogen fixers Nitrifiers 

(D)   Nitrifiers Nitrogen fixers Denitrifiers Decay causers.

48.  Which  of  the  following  are  the  harmful  effects  of  air  pollution  ? 

(i)    Global warming (ii)   Eutrophication
(iii)  Carbon monoxide poisoning (iv)  Diseases like cholera & dysentery 

(v)   Biomagnification of chemicals (vi)  Respiratory problems like asthma & brochitis 

(vii)  Acid rain
(A)   (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) (B)   (iv), (v) (vi) & (vii) (C)  (ii), (iii), (v) & (vii) (D)   (i), (iii), (vi) & (vii).

7 13 th  NSO | LevelII | Class 9

49.   Read  the  following  statements  and  mark  the  correct  option.
Statement I : Mixed cropping is the practice of growing of two or more crops simultaneously on the 

same  piece  of  land.
Statement II : The basic objective in mixed cropping is to minimise the crop failure due to abnormal 

weather conditions.

(A)   Both statements I and II are true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. 

(B)   Both statements I and II are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I. 

(C)   Statement I is true but statement II is false. (D)   Statement I is false but statement II is true.

50.   Which of the following weeds is one of the ten worst weeds of the world and is called 'Gajar Ghas'?
(A)   Chenopodium (B)   Parthenium (C)   Amaranthus (D)   Convolvulus.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

13 th  NSO | LevelII | Class 9 8

 3 14 th  NSO | LevelII | Class 9 |
10.  Find  the  value  of  p,  if  the  mean  of  the  following  distribution  is  20.
x   15   17   19   20 + p   23
f 2 3 4 5p 6
(A)   1 (B)   –1 (C)  0 (D)   Both (A) and (B)

1 1
11.   If  x 4  + = 47,  then  the  value  of  x 3  + is  _____.
x 4 x  3
(A)   18 (B)   27 (C)  14 (D)   12

12.  P,  Q,  R,  S,  T, V,  W, Y  and  Z  are sitting  around a  circle facing  the  centre.  V  is second  to  the left  of 

P who is third to  the  left of  Y.  S  is  fourth to  the left  of  P.  T  is  third  to  the  right  of  Q  who is  to  the 

immediate  right  of  V.  W  is  fourth  to  the  right  of  Z.  Who  is  third  to  the  left  of  S  ?
(A)   Y (B)   W (C)  T (D)   Data inadequate

13.  A  bag  contains  50  coins  and  each  coin  is  marked  from  51  to  100.  One  coin  is  picked  at  random.
The  probability  that  the  number  on  the  coin  is  not  a  prime  number,  is  ____.
3 2 4

(A)    1
5 (B) 5 (C) 5 (D) 5

14.  In  the given  figure,  QP  II  ML  and  other  angles  are  shown.  Find  the A
P M
value  of  x. 
 35°
(A)   60° 
 10°
15°
(B)   35°
(C)   20° 
 x
(D)   30° Q L
B

15.  Let  p  and  q  be the  remainders, when the polynomials  x3  +  2x2  –  5ax  –  7 and  x3  +  ax2  –  12x  + 6 are
divided  by  (x  +  1)  and  (x  –  2)  respectively.  If  2p  +  q  =  6,  then  value  of  a  is  ____. 

(A)   1 (B)   2 (C)  4 (D)   3

SCIENCE
DIRECTION  :  Study  the  diagram  given  below  and  answer  questions  16  and  17.  (The  diagrams  are  not 

drawn  to  scale).
16.  What  is  the  extension  of  spring  P  in  figure (iii)?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)   6 cm (B)   9 cm
(C)   12 cm (D)   15 cm P 3 cm
P 6 cm P P Q
17.  Springs  P  and  Q  are  similar.  What  is  the
length  of  spring  P  in  figure  (iv)? 2N
(A)   6 cm (B)   9 cm 8N
8N
(C)   12 cm (D)   15 cm

18.  Which  of  the  following  statements  is  correct?

(A)   Kinetic energy of a system can be changed without changing the momentum. 

(B)   Kinetic energy of a system cannot be changed without changing its momentum. 

(C)   Momentum of a system cannot be changed without changing its kinetic energy. 

(D)   A system cannot have energy without having momentum.

19.  In which of the following figures, the ball will have the most kinetic energy when each ball is released
from  the  top  of  the  ramp  ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

 | 14 th  NSO | LevelII | Class 9 4
20.   A microphone  is  connected to an  oscilloscope.  The diagram  shows  the trace on the  screen  when
the  microphone  receives  a  pure  note.

Which trace can be obtained when a musical instrument produces a note of the same pitch but of 

a different  quality?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

21.   A  barometer  is  carried  from  the  1 st  floor  to  the  20 th  floor  of  a  building.
Why  does  the  reading  on  the  barometer  fall?
(A)   Air pressure has increased. (B)   Gravity has decreased.
(C)   Temperature has increased. (D)   There is less air above the barometer.

22.   One  man  takes  one  minute  to  raise  a  box  to  a  height  of  1  metre  and  another  man  takes
1/2  minute  to  do  so.  The  energy  of  the  two  is  _____.
(A)   Different (B)   Same
(C)   Energy of the first is more (D)   Energy of the second is more

23.   A  tennis  ball is  dropped  on  to a  horizontal  surface. As  the ball  bounces  up  and down,  the  height
of  each  bounce  gradually  decreases.  During  the  motion  of  the  ball  ____.
(A)   Kinetic energy of the ball is constant (B)   The potential energy of the ball is constant 

(C)   The sum of the kinetic and potential energies of the ball is constant 

(D)   The total energy of the ball, ground and air is constant

24.   Match  the  following  and  select  the  correct  option.

A  boy  of mass  55  kg,  runs  up  a flight  of  40  stairs,  each measuring  0.15  m  in  5  s.  Column  II  gives 

numerical  value  for  quantities  described  in  Column  I.
Column I Column II 

(a)   Force  acting  on  the  boy (p)   550 

(b)   Work  done  by  the  boy (q)   3300 

(c)   Gain  of  potential  energy  by  the  boy (r)    33000 

(d)   Power  developed  by  the  boy (s)   220
(A)   (a)–(p), (b)–(q), (c)–(q), (d)–(s) (B)   (a)–(s), (b)–(p), (c)–(q), (d)–(r) 

(C)   (a)–(r), (b)–(s), (c)–(p), (d)–(q) (D)   (a)–(q), (b)–(r), (c)–(s), (d)–(p)

25.   Two mirrors are arranged as shown in the figure. Light is incident on the 
 A
first mirror at an angle of 30° and it reflects towards a second mirror. The 

value  of  angle q is  ______. 30°
(A)   15° (B)   20° 40°
O q
(C)   25° (D)   30° B

26.   The sliding frictional force between 4 kg box and the floor is 15 N. It is pushed across the floor with
a  constant  force  such  that  it  accelerates  at  0.8  ms –2 .  What  is  the  force  applied  to  the  box  ? 

(A)   16.6 N (B)   18.2 N (C)   20 N (D)   Zero

27.   Which  of  these  generalizations  seems  true?

(A)   The larger the planet, the longer its day.
(B)   The larger the planet, the longer it takes to revolve around the sun. 

(C)   The farther away the planet from the sun, the longer is its year.
(D)   The closer the planet is to the sun, the longer it takes to spin on its axis.
 5 14 th  NSO | LevelII | Class 9 |

DIRECTION  (Q.Nos.  28  &  29)  :  Look  at  the  given  heating  curve  for  a 
 T U
pure  substance  carefully  and answer  the  following  questions  : 

28.  What  is  the  physical  state  of  the  substance  at  point  S ? S

Temperature
Q
(A)   Solid (B)   Gas R
(C)   Liquid (D)   Liquid & gas both
P    Time
29.  Which  points  on  the  graph  show  no  change  in  state?
(A)   QR (B)   RT (C)  TU (D)   (A) & (C) both

30.  The  flow  chart  of  separation  of  a  mixture  is  given  below  :
Mixture

Dissolution and filtration

(A few millilitre of hot water is added,
stirred and filtered)

Residue Filtrate
Dissolution and filtration
(A few millilitre of carbon disulphide Evaporation
is added, stirred and filtered)
Residue (X)
White solid
Residue (Y) Filtrate
Evaporation

Residue (Z) 

Yellow solid
Identify  X, Y  and  Z
(A)   X = Nitre, Y = Charcoal, Z = Sulphur (B)  X = Sulphur, Y = Sand, Z = Iodine 

(C)   X = Potassium Chloride, Y = Carbon, Z = Sulphur    (D)  Both (A) and (C) are possible

31.  State  which  of  the  following  is  not  likely  to  be  an  element.
I. On  heating  gives  off  a  gas  and  leaves  a  residue. 

II.    Burns  in  air  to  form  carbon  dioxide  and  water. 

III.   Changes  into  solid  at  273  K  and  to  a  gas  at  373  K.
(A)   I (B)   II and III (C)  I and III (D)   I, II, III

32.  Which  one  of  the  following  is  not  a  property  of  solution?
(A)   Solution is a homogeneous mixture. (B)  Solution does not scatter light. 

(C)   Path of light is visible in solution.
(D)   Solute particles do not settle down when left undisturbed.

33.  Observe the given figure  carefully  and select

the  correct  option.

(A)   W = 55.8, X = 16, Y = 2.016, Z = 58.5 YgH 1 mole W g Fe




 
 .. ..... ... ..................
...
....... ......
....... ......
....... ........ ... ......... ....
...
    
 
   
  
.. ...
.....
.. ... . .........
..... ...
.... ............
...
... ......
.... ...... ...
.. .....
... ..... .... ..
.....
(B)   W = 55.8, X = 32, Y = 1.008, Z = 58.5 ...
.....
... ...
. .. . ..
. ...
..
..
.. .
... ...
.
.. .. ..
. ...
..
. ..........
.. .. .. . .
Z g NaCl XgO2
(C)   W = 55.8, X = 16, Y = 1.008, Z = 58.5
18 g H2 O
(D)   W = 55.8, X = 32, Y = 2.016, Z = 58.5

34.  A flask P contains 0.5 moles of oxygen gas. Another flask Q contains 0.4 moles of ozone gas. Which
flask  contains  greater  number  of  oxygen  atoms?
(A)   Flask P (B)  Flask Q
(C)   Both contain same number of atoms (D)  Incomplete information
 | 14 th  NSO | LevelII | Class 9 6

35.   The  composition  of  three  atomic  particles  is  given  :

X Y Z

Protons 8 7 7

Neutrons 8 9 9

Electrons 8 8 7
What is the relation between X and Y and between Y and Z ?
(A)   X and Y are isotopes, Y and Z are isotopes (B)   X and Y are isobars, Z is an ion of Y
(C)   X and Y are isobars, Y is an ion of Z (D)   No relation between X and Y, Y and Z are same

36.   The  given  diagram  represents  _____.

(A)   S 

(B)   S– 

(C)   Cl 

(D)   Cl–

37.   The  given  figure  demonstrates  _____. 


(A)   Cathode rays consist of material particles
(B)   Cathode rays consist of negatively charged particles
(C)   Cathode rays produce fluorescence Gas at low pressure
(D)   Cathode rays travel in straight line To vacuum

38.   Shefali  classified  the  functions  of  cell  organelles  as  given  in  the  table  below.
Group A Group B Group C Group D
Endocytosis  &  Freely permeable. Storage,   modification   &    Synthesis and transport
exocytosis. Provides shape and rigidity   packaging  of   secretory of proteins & fats.
products. 


Which of the following have the correct headings for the given table ? 

Group A Group B Group C Group D
(A)   Cell wall Cell membrane Golgi body Endoplasmic reticulum 

(B)   Cell membrane     Cell wall Endoplasmic reticulum     Golgi body 

(C)   Cell wall Cell membrane Endoplasmic reticulum     Golgi body
(D)   Cell membrane     Cell wall Golgi body Endoplasmic reticulum

39.   Which  of  the  following  statements  is/are  incorrect  ?

(i)    Anthrax is a viral disease. (ii)   Pneumonia is caused by virus. 

(iii)  Both syphilis and AIDS are sexually transmitted diseases. 

(iv)  Cancer and hepatitis are noncommunicable diseases.
(A)   (iv) only (B)   (i), (ii) & (iv) (C)   (ii) & (iv) (D)   (iii) only

40.   Given below are four groups (iiv), with some examples in each. In each group there is one example 

that does not fit into it. Identify the odd one in each of these groups and select the correct option. 

(i)    Euplectella, Euspongia, Spongilla, Metridium (ii)   Physalia, Antedon, Metridium, Aurelia 

(iii)  Aphrodite, Asterias, Echinus, Antedon (iv)  Chiton, Pila, Euplectella, Mussels
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)   Euplectella     Antedon Aphrodite Mussels 

(B)   Metridium Aurelia Aphrodite Euplectella 

(C)   Euplectella     Metridium Antedon Mussels 

(D)   Metridium Antedon Aphrodite Euplectella
 7 14 th  NSO | LevelII | Class 9 |
41.  The given flow chart is a representation of human activities which can have negative effects on the
environment.
b Soil exposed to rain

Fewer trees
c
a More carbon dioxide

Trapping more heat

from the Sun Soil no longer
suitable for crops
d

Rapid melting of glaciers and polar ice caps

Which of the following could be a, b, c and d ?
a b c d
(A)   Soil erosion Deforestation Global warming Burning fossil fuel 

(B)   Deforestation Global warming   Burning fossil fuel   Soil erosion 

(C)   Global warming Soil erosion Deforestation Burning fossil fuel 

(D)   Burning fossil fuel   Deforestation Soil erosion Global warming
Start
42.  Refer the given flow chart and select the correct
option.
Do they have No Do they have 
 No
a
a b c d flowers ? chlorophyll ?

(A)   Agaricus    Algae Cycas     Deodar Yes Yes

b
(B)   Fucus Rhizopus     Pinus Deodar Are their seeds 
 No
enclosed in the c
fruits ?
(C)   Agaricus    Algae Cycas     Strawberry
Yes
(D)   Fucus Rhizopus     Pinus Strawberry d

43.  Which  of  the  following  are  correctly  paired?

(i)    Growth – Cambium (ii)   Protection – Hypodermis 

(iii)  Transport of food – Phloem (iv)  Support – Collenchyma 

(A)   (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) (B)   (i), (iii) & (iv) (C)  (i) & (iii) (D)   (i), (ii) & (iii)

44.  The  aim  of  plant  breeding  programme  is  to  produce  _____.
(A)   Disease–free varieties (B)  High–yielding varieties 

(C)   Early–maturing varieties (D)  All of these

45.  SARS is caused by  (i)  which affects lungs.  (ii)  is caused by Leishmania which lives as intracellular 

parasite in cells of spleen and bone marrow. Sleeping sickness is caused by Trypanosoma  and its 

target  organ  is    (iii)   .
Select the correct sequence of terms to complete the above paragraph.
(i) (ii) (iii)
(A)   Coronavirus     Kalaazar Brain 

(B)   Ribovirus Hepatitis Liver 

(C)   Adenovirus Jaundice Spleen 

(D)   Coronavirus     Filariasis Brain
 | 14 th  NSO | LevelII | Class 9 8

46.   Which of the following parts in the given figure are Mast cell
labelled incorrectly ?
(A)   Mast cell and fibrocyte 
 Bundles of white fibres 

Fibrocyte
(B)   Mast cell and histiocyte 

Yellow fibres
(C)   White fibres and mast cell Histiocyte
(D)   Yellow fibres and fibrocyte

47.   Which  of  the  following  is  an  incorrect  match  ?

(A)   Oil spills – Physical water pollutants (B)   Detergents – Particulate matter
(C)   Plastics – Nondegradable soil pollutants (D)   Domestic wastes – Degradable soil pollutants

48.   Some species of fishes can be cultured in a single fish pond. These fishes do not compete for food
as  they  have  different  food  habits.  Select  the  incorrect  pair  of  fish  and  its  food  habit. 

(A)   Labeo rohita – Column feeder (B)   Catla catla – Surface feeder 

(C)   Cirrhinus mrigala – Bottom feeder (D)   Common carp – Surface feeder

49.   Which  of  the  following  statements  is/are  true  and  false  ?
(i)    The body of Cladophora is differentiated into roots, stem and leaves. 

(ii)   Marsilea is devoid of specialised vascular tissue and produce seeds. 

(iii)  Cycas has differentiated body and produce seeds.
(iv)  Both Marsilea and horsetails possess vascular tissue and produce seeds.
(A)   (iii) is true; (i), (ii) & (iv) are false (B)   (iii) & (iv) are true; (i) & (ii) are false 

(C)   (i) & (ii) are true; (iii) & (iv) are false (D)   (iv) is true; (i), (ii) & (iii) are false

50.   Which  of  the  following  match  is  incorrect  ?

(i)    Diffusion – Movement of substances from higher concentration to lower concentration 

(ii)   Osmosis – Occurs in only one direction
(iii)  Semipermeable  – Prevents passage of solute molecules
membrane
(iv)  Endosmosis – Withdrawal of water from the vacuole
(v)   Plasmolysis – Shrinkage of protoplasm when kept in hypotonic solution 

(A)   (ii), (iv) & (v) (B)   (iv) & (v) (C)   (i), (iii) & (iv) (D)   (iv) only

SPACE  FOR  ROUGH  WORK

 3 15th NSO | Level-II | Class 9 |

10.   ABCD is a parallelogram. If AB = 2 AD and P is the mid-point of AB, then
∠CPD is  equal  to  _______.
(A)   100° (B)   135°

(C)   45° (D)   90°

11.   If ax3 + bx2 + x – 6 has x +  2  as  a  factor  and  leaves  a  remainder  4  when  divided  by  (x –  2),  find
the values of a and b respectively.
(A)   0, 2 (B)   3, 2 (C)   1, 5 (D)   2, 0

12.   The slant height of a conical tent made of canvas is  14
3  m . The radius of tent is 2.5 m. The width
of the canvas is 1.25 m. If the rate of canvas per metre is ` 33,  then  the  total  cost  of  the  canvas 

required  for  the  tent  (in  `) is ______.
(A)   726 (B)   950 (C)   960 (D)   968

13.  Find  the  value  of  ∠DCE in  the  given  figure.

(A)   100°

(B)   80°

(C)   90°

(D)   75°

14.  The line graph shows the masses of a container when different 

marbles are placed in it. What is the mass of marble C and

D respectively ?

(A)   35 grams, 25 grams


(B)   10 grams, 15 grams


(C)   25 grams, 10 grams


(D)   30 grams, 10 grams

15.  Which  pattern  will  have  406  dots?

(A)   100

(B)   81

(C)   52
(D)   149

Science
16.  The  kinetic  energy  of  a  particle  continuously  increases  with  time,  then  _______.
(A)   The resultant force on the particle must be parallel to the velocity at all instant

(B)   The resultant force on the particle must be at an angle less than 90° all the time

(C)   Its height above the ground level must continuously decrease

(D)   The magnitude of its linear momentum is increasing continuously

17.  A  rock  is  thrown  downward  from  an  unknown  height  above  the  ground  with  an  initial  speed  of
10 m s–1.  it  strikes  the  ground  3.0  s  later.  Find  the  initial  height  of  the  rock  above  ground.

(A)   44 m (B)   14 m (C)   75 m (D)   30 m

18.  A  500  kg  rocket  sled  can  be  accelerated  at  a  constant  rate  from  rest  of  1600  km  h–1  in  1.8  s.
What  is  the  magnitude  of  the  required  net  force?
(A)   1.2 × 105 N (B)   1.2 × 104 N (C)   2.4 × 105 N (D)   2.4 × 104 N
 | 15th NSO | Level-II | Class 9 4

19.   The weight of a balloon is W1 when empty and W2 when  filled  with  air.  Both  are  weighed  in  air  by
the same sensitive spring balance and under identical condition. Then

(A)   W1 = W2, as the weight of air in the balloon is offset by the force of buoyancy on it.

(B)   W2 < W1, due to the force of buoyancy acting on the filled balloon
(C)   W2 > W1 as the air inside is of a greater pressure and hence has greater density than the air outside.

(D)   W2 = W1 + weight of the air inside it.

20.  An  electrically  maintained  tuning  fork  vibrates  with  constant  frequency  and  constant  amplitude. 

If  the  temperature  of  the  surrounding  air  increases  but  pressure  remains  constant,  the  sound

produced will have ______.
(A)   Larger frequency (B)   Smaller time period (C)   Larger velocity (D)   Smaller wavelength

21.   The energy absorbed by a solar panel is used to charge a battery. During the day, the battery

stores 1.6 J of energy each second. At night, the battery is used to light a 1.2 W lamp for 18000 s.

What is the minimum time for which the battery must be charged during the day?

(A)   9375 s (B)   13500 s (C)   24000 s (D)   34560 s

22.   A  jet  plane  starts  from  rest  on  the  runway  and  accelerates  for  takeoff  at  2.30  m s–2.  it  has  two  jet
engines,  each  of  which  exerts  a  thrust  of  1.40  ×  105 N. What is the weight of the plane?

(A)   1.19 × 106 N (B)   2.80 × 105 N (C)   2.38 × 106 N (D)   4.17 × 105 N

23.  The  diagram  shows  a  right-angled  prism  being  used  to  turn  a  ray  of  light
through 90°. What is the critical angle for the light in the glass?
(A)   Less than 45° 45°
(B)   Equal to 45° 45°

(C)   Greater than 45°

(D)   Equal to 90°

24.   The  diagram  shows  a  part  of  a  spring  that  is  shaken  from  side-to-side  to  produce  a  wave.

The  distance  between  successive  peaks  is  0.60  m  and  the  frequency  is  2.5  Hz.

How  long  does  it  take  for  a  wave  to  travel  3.0  m  along  the  spring?
(A)   0.20 s (B)   0.50 s (C)   2.0 s (D)   5.0 s

25.  Objects  A and B are separated by a distance r. The magnitude of the force of gravity on A by B


is given as FAB, and the magnitude of the force of gravity on B by A is FBA. If the mass of A is

doubled while that of B is unchanged, then _______.
(A)   FAB will double while FBA will remain the same. (B)   FAB will remain the same while FBA will double.

(C)   Both FAB and FBA will double. (D)   Both FAB and FBA will remain unchanged.

26.   A  5.0  kg  block  moves  in  a  straight  line  on  a  horizontal  frictionless  surface 

under  the  influence  of  a  force  that  varies  with  position  as  shown.  How  much 

work  is  done  by  the  force  as  the  block  moves  from  the  origin  to  x = 8.0 m?

(A)   25 J (B)   50 J

(C)   100 J (D)   125 J

27.   According to the chart, on which planet would a ball fall the fastest?
Planet Earth    Jupiter   Neptune   Saturn

Acceleration due to gravity 10 26 14 12
(A)   Jupiter (B)   Saturn (C)   Neptune (D)   Earth
 5 15th NSO | Level-II | Class 9 |

28.  Suppose  that  figures  1  and  2  represent  the  heating  curves  for  substances  P  and  Q  respectively.

What conclusion can be drawn regarding the melting points and boiling points of substance P and

substance  Q?
(A)   Substance P has a higher melting point and a higher boiling point than substance Q.

(B)   Substance Q has a higher melting point and a higher boiling point than substance P.

(C)   Substance P has the higher melting point but substance Q has the higher boiling point.

(D)   Substance Q has the higher melting point but substance P has the higher boiling point.

29.   Which of the following pairs has elements with same number of neutrons ?

(A)   Ne and Na (B)   Al and Si (C)   C and F (D)   Mg and S

30.  choose  the  incorrect  statement(s)  among  the  following.

1. The maximum number of electrons present in L and N shells are 8 and 18 respectively.

2. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the outermost orbit is 8.
3.    Shells  are  filled  in  a  step-wise  manner.
(A)   1 (B)   2 (C)   1 and 2 (D)   None of these

31.  chemical  formulae  of  few  compounds  are  given.

(i)    Zn3(PO4)2 (ii)   SFe (iii)   Aln3 (iv)   ca(HcO3)2 (v) K2SO4
The wrong chemical formulae are
(A)   (ii) and (iii) (B)   (i), (iv) and (v) (C)   (i) and (iv) (D)   (i), (ii) and (iv)

32.  The given table contains information about the various 


Fraction Boiling point (°C)

fractions  obtained  when  crude  oil  is  fractionally
 Bitumen over  359

distilled. Fuel gas below  40

The fraction X would be distilled over first and fraction 
 Gasoline 40–100

Y will be collected at the bottom of the column. Identify
 Heavy  gas  oil 300–350

Kerosene 160–250

X and Y respectively.
Light gas oil 250–300

(A)   Bitumen, Naphtha (B)   Bitumen, Fuel gas

Naphtha 75–150
(C)   Fuel gas, Bitumen (D)   Gasoline, Heavy gas oil

33.  The  microscopic  view  of  three  different  substances  are T1 T2 T3

shown in the given diagram.
Where T1, T2 and T3 are temperatures and F1, F2 and F3 are
the forces of attraction of the particles of the respective
states. Choose the correct order among the following.
F1 F2 F3
(A)   T1 < T2 < T3 and F1 < F2 < F3 (B)   T1 > T2 > T3 and F1 > F2 > F3

(C)   T1 < T2 < T3 and F1 > F2 > F3 (D)   T1 > T2 > T3 and F1 < F2 < F3
 | 15th NSO | Level-II | Class 9 6

34.  Which  of  the  following  students  have  the  maximum  number  of  atoms ?
Raman : 56  g  of  Fe; Vijay : 18.9  g  of  HnO3

niharika : 1  mol  of  cO2; Abhinav : 8  g  of  He
(A)   Raman (B)   Niharika (C)   Vijay (D)   Abhinav

35.  crystallisation  technique  is  better  than  simple  evaporation  technique  as  ________.
(A)   Some solids are evaporated with solvent
(B)   Some solids decompose or some may get charred on heating to dryness
(C)  Some impurities may remain dissolved in the solution even after filtration, which on evaporation contaminate
the solid
(D)   Both (B) and (C)

36.  Shobha  dissolved  42  g  of  sugar  in  150  g  water.  She  stirred  the  solution  well  and  then  filtered  it.
She  obtained  12  g  of  sugar  as  the  residue.  Find  the  solubility  of  sugar.
(A)   2.4% (B)   16.7% (C)   21.1% (D)   36%

37.  There  are  three  elements,  X,  Y  and  Z.

X  :  it  is  the  smallest  element  with  zero  valency. 

Y  :  it  has  four  neutrons  more  than  that  of  X.
Z  :  it  has  one  shell  and  three  valence  electrons  more  than  that  of  Y. 

By using the given hints, identify elements, X, Y and Z respectively.
(A)   H, Cl, Si (B)   Ne, Al, S (C)   He, B, S (D)   H, N, P

38.  categorise  the  following  functions  respectively  associated

with  the  given  cell  organelles  P  and  Q.
(i)    Works  as  a  seat  of  protein  synthesis.
(ii)    Helps  in  secretion  of  mucus,  enzymes  and  hormones.

(iii)  Helps  in  storage  of  secretory  products.
(iv)  Helps  in  development  of  acrosome  of  sperm.
 P Q
(v)   Helps  in  membrane  biogenesis.
(vi)  Forms a continuous transport channel with nuclear membrane.
(A)   P - (i), (ii), (v); Q - (iii), (iv), (vi) (B)   P - (iii), (iv), (v);  Q - (i), (ii), (vi)

(C)   P - (ii), (iii), (iv); Q - (i), (v), (vi) (D)   P - (i), (ii), (iii), (iv); Q - (v), (vi)

39.  identify  the  blood  cells  in  the  given  figure  and  select
the correct option regarding them.
(A)   P represents basophil which releases histamine and
heparin.
(B)   Q represents eosinophil whose number increases in asthmatic people.

(C)   R represents neutrophil which is phagocytic in nature.

(D)   All of these

40.  The  given  figure  shows  four  different  types  of  epithelium  P,  Q,  R  and  S.  Select  the  correct  option
regarding this.

(A)   P is found in organs involved in secretion such as stomach.

(B)   R is found in respiratory tract and helps in gaseous exchange.
(C)   Q is found in outer skin layer of sole and palms and is protective in function.

(D)   S is ciliated columnar epithelium and is found in inner surface of eyelids.
 7 15th NSO | Level-II | Class 9 |

41.  Refer  the  given  table.  Which  of  the  following  options  correctly  identifies  P,  Q,  R  and  S  in  the
table?
Disease Causative agent Vaccine

1.   Tuberculosis   Mycobacterium tuberculosis P

2.   Measles Q MMR

3. R Bordetella pertussis S

P Q R S
(A)   DPT Flavi virus Chicken pox Varicella vaccine

(B)   DPT Rubeolla virus Whooping cough BCG

(C)   BCG Rubeolla virus Whooping cough DPT
(D)   BCG Flavi virus Polio Salk vaccine

42.  Study  the  given  chart  and  select  the  option  which  incorrectly 
 Animal possesses bilateral   No
symmetry P
identifies  any  of  the  animals,  P,  Q,  R  and  S.
Yes
(A)   P is Aurelia and Q is Ascaris. Animal possesses true
coelom and organ No
Q
differentiation
(B)   Q is Ascaris and R is Nereis. Yes
Body of animal is divisible
(C)   R is Pheretima and S is Obelia. into head, thorax and No R
abdomen
Yes
(D)   S is Periplaneta and P is Spongilla. S

43.  Read  the  following  statements.

(i)    W causes peptic ulcers. (ii)   X is a non-heritable, communicable disease.

(iii)   Disease  Y  is  transmitted  through  a  vector  in  which  human  RBcs  and  liver  cells  are  affected.

(iv)  Z  is  a  disease  caused  by  a  protozoan  and  damages  the  nervous  system.
Which of the following is correct regarding W, X, Y and Z?
(A)   W is a protozoan and X is diabetes. (B)   X is thalassaemia and Y is malaria.

(C)   W is a bacterium and Z is kala-azar. (D)   W is a bacterium and Z is sleeping sickness.

44.  Refer the given biogeochemical cycle of 'P' and select W

the correct option regarding it. Effect of increased concentration
Atmosphere
(A)   P is carbon dioxide, X is photosynthesis and W is acid rain. X
Forest
fires
Plants
(B)   P is nitrogen, Y is combustion and W is acid rain. Z

Con

me

Y
(C)   P is carbon dioxide, X is photosynthesis and Animals
su

W is global warming. Death
Death

Organic matter
Death

(D)   P is nitrogen, X is photosynthesis and Z is respiration. Fossil fuels

45.   The  given  diagram  shows  a  tropical  forest  before  and after the

clearance, for agricultural use. Which of the following could

be the outcome of this clearance?
(A)   Soil will turn saline because minerals present in soil
will be used less.
(B)   Desertification will occur because all plants are removed.
(C)   Soil erosion will speed up because larger trees hold more soil than small plants.

(D)   Soil will become waterlogged because crop fields are regularly irrigated.
 | 15th NSO | Level-II | Class 9 8

46.  Read  the  given  statements.

(a)   ____ are collectively called ____ as all of these are seedless plants and have inconspicuous
reproductive organs.
(b)   ____ are collectively called ____ as they are seeded plants and possess conspicuous reproductive
organs.
(c)    The  scientific  nomenclature  of  organisms  used  today,  was  developed  by  ____  and  consists  of
____ and species name.
(d)   class  Aves  consists  of  ____  animals  while  class  Reptilia  consists  of  ____  animals.

Select  the  option  which  correctly  fills  the  blanks  in  any  two  of  the  above  statements.
(A)   (a) - Bryophytes and pteridophytes; Cryptogams (B)   (c) - Bentham; Genus
(b) - Gymnosperms and angiosperms; Phanerogams (d) - Warm blooded; Cold blooded
(C)   (b) - Gymnosperms and angiosperms; Cryptogams
(c) - Carolus Linnaeus; Class
(D)   (a) - Algae, bryophytes and pteridophytes; Cryptogams.
(d) - Warm blooded; Cold blooded

47.  Some  garden  soil  is  put  into  a  beaker  containing  water,  stirred  well  and  left  steady  to  settle  down. 

After  sometime,  different  layers  of  soil  components,  P,  Q,  R  and  S  can  be  seen  in  the  beaker.
Select  the  option  which  correctly  identifies  different  soil  components.

P Q R S (A)   Gravel SandSilt Suspended clay

(B)   Sand Gravel Silt Suspended clay

(C)   Gravel Silt Sand Suspended clay

(D)   Gravel Silt Suspended clay Sand

48.  Refer  the  given  diagram  which  shows  a  root  hair  cell,
surrounded by a dilute solution of mineral ions.

The mineral ions will move ______.
(A)    Against the concentration gradient by diffusion or osmosis

(B)   Against the concentration gradient by active transport

(C)   Along the concentration gradient by diffusion or osmosis

(D)   Along the concentration gradient by active transport

49.  X  =  An  indigenous  milch  breed  of  cow,  Y = An exotic milch breed of cow

Z  =  A  high  milk–yielding  cross-breed  of  cow.  identify  X,  Y  and  Z  and  select  the  correct  option.
(A)   X - Murrah; Y - Ayrshire; Z - Karan-Fries (B)   X - Surti; Y - Jersey; Z - Frieswal
(C)   X - Sahiwal; Y - Karan-Swiss; Z - Ayrshire (D)   X - Red Sindhi; Y - Ayrshire; Z - Karan-Fries

50.  Refer  the  given  figure  showing  plant  meristems  and  select  the  incorrect X
option regarding this.
(A)   If part X is removed, side branches will grow well and plant will become short and Y
bushy in appearance.
(B)   If part Y is removed, internode elongation will not occur and leaves and flowers
will not be produced at all.
(C)   If part Z is removed, a mango tree stem will remain as thin as a mustard plant.
Z
(D)   Both (A) and (C)
SPAce FOR ROUGH WORK
 ANSWER KEY
13 th  NSO

1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (C) 


8. (C) 9. (A) 10.    (A) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (D) 

15. (B) 16. (B) 17.    (D) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (C) 

22. (C) 23. (D) 24.    (B) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (A) 

29. (A) 30. (C) 31.    (D) 32. (A) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (D) 

36. (C) 37. (A) 38.    (D) 39. (C) 40. (D) 41. (B) 42. (C) 

43. (D) 44. (D) 45.    (C) 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (B) 

50. (B)

14 th  NSO

1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (D) 


8. (B) 9. (B) 10.    (A) 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (D) 

15. (B) 16. (C) 17.    (B) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (B) 21. (D) 

22. (B) 23. (D) 24.    (A) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (C) 

29. (B) 30. (D) 31.    (D) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (C) 

36. (B) 37. (D) 38.    (D) 39. (B) 40. (D) 41. (D) 42. (C) 

43. (B) 44. (D) 45.    (A) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (A) 

50. (B)

15 th  NSO

1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (A) 


8. (C) 9. (B) 10.    (D) 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (C) 

15. (B) 16. (D) 17.    (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (B) 

22. (B) 23. (A) 24.    (C) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (D) 

29. (B) 30. (A) 31.    (A) 32. (C) 33. (D) 34. (B) 35. (D) 

36. (B) 37. (C) 38.    (B) 39. (B) 40. (A) 41. (C) 42. (C) 

43. (D) 44. (C) 45.    (C) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (D) 

50. (B)