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Appleton Practice Test Part I-D; 5 edition Question

1. The advantages of beam restriction include

1. Less scattered radiation is produced.
2. Less biologic material is irradiated.
3. Less total filtration will be necessary.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

2. Pulmonary fibrosis can result from the inhalation of dust particles; this is characteristic of:

(A) cystic fibrosis.

(B) chronic asthma.
(C) pneumoconiosis.
(D) pleural effusion.

3. Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys?

(A) Lateral abdomen

(B) AP abdomen
(C) Dorsal decubitus abdomen
(D) Ventral decubitus abdomen

4. A test radiograph like the one pictured in Figure 3-5 would be made by the radiation safety
officer (RSO) or equipment service person and is used to evaluate:

(A) focal spot size.

(B) linearity.
(C) collimator alignment.
(D) spatial resolution.

5. A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals may be

found guilty of
(A) invasion of privacy.
(B) slander.
(C) libel.
(D) defamation.
6. All of the following are associated with the anode except:

(A) the line focus principle.

(B) the heel effect.
(C) the focal track.
(D) thermionic emission.

7. If one rectifier were malfunctioning, the resulting mAs would be:

(A) one-fourth that expected.

(B) one-half that expected.
(C) twice that expected.
(D) four times that expected.

8. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for patient consent to be valid?
1. The patient must sign the consent form before receiving sedation.
2. The physician named on the consent form must perform the procedure.
3. All the blanks on the consent form must be filled in before the patient signs the form.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

9. During chest radiography, the act of inspiration

1. elevates the diaphragm.
2. raises the ribs.
3. depresses the abdominal viscera.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

10. What component of the x-ray tube is a graphite disc with a tungsten-rhenium track at its
periphery?

(A) Filament
(B) Focusing cup
(C) Anode
(D) Stator

11. You receive a patient who is complaining of pain in the area of the left fourth and fifth
metatarsals; however, the requisition asks for a left ankle exam. What should you do?

(A) Perform a left foot exam.

(B) Perform a left ankle exam.
(C) Perform both a left foot and a left ankle exam.
(D) Check with the referring physician.

12. When a slow screen / film system is used with a fast screen / film automatic exposure control
system, the resulting images:
(A) are too light.
(B) are too dark.
(C) have improved detail.
(D) have poor detail.
13. Protective devices such as lead aprons function to protect the user from
1. scattered radiation.
2. the primary beam.
3. remnant radiation.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

14. Image receptors / cassettes frequently have a lead foil layer behind the rear screen that
functions to:

(A) improve penetration.

(B) absorb backscatter.
(C) preserve resolution.
(D) increase the screen speed.

15. Posterior displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the:

(A) AP projection.
(B) lateral projection.
(C) medial oblique projection.
(D) lateral oblique projection.

16. When radiographing the elderly, it is helpful to

1. move quickly.
2. address them by their full name.
3. give straightforward instructions.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

17. An AP radiograph of the hip was made using 400 mA, 0.05 s, 76 kVp, 40-in SID, 1.2-mm focal
spot, and a 400-speed film / screen system. With all other factors remaining constant, which of
the following exposure times would be required in order to maintainradiographic density at a 36-in
SID using the 500-mA station, and with an increase to 87 kVp?

(A) 0.04 s
(B) 0.08 s
(C) 0.016 s
(D) 0.032 s

18. Which of the following tests is performed to evaluate screen contact?

(A) Spinning top test
(B) Wire mesh test
(C) Penetrometer test
(D) Star pattern test

19. Which of the following criteria are used to evaluate a PA projection of the chest?
1. Ten posterior ribs should be visualized.
2. Sternoclavicular joints should be symmetrical.
3. The scapulae should be lateral to the lung fields.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

20. Symptoms associated with a respiratory reaction to contrast media include

1. sneezing.
2. dyspnea.
3. asthma attack.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

21. To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in:

(A) the recumbent position.

(B) the erect position.
(C) the anatomic position.
(D) Fowler's position.

22. In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the central ray should be directed:

(A) parallel to C4.

(B) perpendicular to C4.
(C) 15º cephalad to C4.
(D) 15º caudad to C4.

23. If a 4-in collimated field is changed to a 14-in collimated field, with no other changes, the
radiographic image will possess:

(A) more density.

(B) less density.
(C) more detail.
(D) less detail.

24. The radiographer must perform which of the following procedures prior to entering a contact
isolation room with a mobile x-ray unit?
1. Put on gown and gloves only.
2. Put on gown, gloves, mask, and cap.
3. Clean the mobile x-ray unit.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
25. All of the following statements regarding osteoarthritis are true except:

(A) Osteoarthritis is a progressive disorder.

(B) Osteoarthritis is an inflammatory disorder.
(C) Osteoarthritis involves deterioration of the articular cartilage.
(D) Osteoarthritis involves the formation of bony spurs.

26. An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations?

(A) IVP
(B) Retrograde pyelogram
(C) Myelogram
(D) Arthrogram

27. You and a fellow radiographer have received an unconscious patient from a motor vehicle
accident. As you perform the examination, it is important that you
1. refer to the patient by name.
2. make only those statements that you would make with a conscious patient.
3. reassure the patient about what you are doing.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

28. Exposure-type artifacts include

1. motion
2. static electricity marks.
3. pi lines

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

29. All of the following statements regarding large-bowel radiography are true except:

(A) The large bowel must be completely empty prior to examination.

(B) Retained fecal material can simulate pathology.
(C) Single-contrast studies help to demonstrate polyps.
(D) Double-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions.

30. Which of the following is (are) features of fluoroscopic equipment that are designed especially
to eliminate unnecessary radiation to patient and personnel?
1. Protective curtain
2. Filtration
3. Collimation

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
31. Tracheostomy and intubation are effective techniques used to restore breathing when there is
(are):

(A) respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx.

(B) crushed tracheal rings due to trauma.
(C) lower respiratory pathway closure due to inflammation and swelling.
(D) respiratory pathway obstruction below the larynx.

32. Radiographic recorded detail is directly related to

1. SID.
2. OID.
3. imaging-system speed.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

33. If a radiograph exposed using a 12:1 ratio grid exhibits a loss of density at its lateral edges, it
is probably because the:

(A) SID was too great.

(B) grid failed to move during the exposure.
(C) x-ray tube was angled in the direction of the lead strips.
(D) central ray was off-center.

34. Symptoms of impending diabetic coma include

1. increased urination.
2. sweet-smelling breath.
3. extreme thirst.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

35. In the AP projection of the ankle, the

1. plantar surface of the foot is vertical.
2. fibula projects more distally than the tibia.
3. calcaneus is well visualized.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

36. A satisfactory radiograph was made using a 40-in SID, 10 mAs, and a 12:1 grid. If the exam
will be repeated at a distance of 48 in and using an 8:1 grid, what should be the new mAs in order
to maintain the original density?

(A) 5.6 mAs

(B) 8.8 mAs
(C) 11.5 mAs
(D) 14.4 mAs
37. An informed consent is required before performing which of the following exams?

(A) Upper GI
(B) Lower GI
(C) Sialogram
(D) Renal arteriogram

38. The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?

(A) Scapular Y
(B) AP scapula
(C) Medial oblique elbow
(D) Lateral oblique elbow

39. All of the following rules regarding proper handwashing technique are correct except:

(A) Keep hands and forearms lower than elbows.

(B) Use paper towels to turn water on.
(C) Avoid using hand lotions whenever possible.
(D) Carefully wash all surfaces and between fingers.

40. Radiation that passes through the tube housing in directions other than that of the useful
beam is termed:

(A) scattered radiation.

(B) secondary radiation.
(C) leakage radiation.
(D) remnant radiation.

41. The unit of absorbed dose is the:

(A) roentgen (C/kg).

(B) rad (Gy).
(C) rem (Sv).
(D) RBE.

42. The letter C in Figure 2-11 indicates

(A) the left cardiophrenic angle.

(B) the right cardiophrenic angle.
(C) the left costophrenic angle.
(D) the right costophrenic angle.
43. A parallel-plate ionization chamber receives a particular charge as x-ray photons travel
through it. This is the operating principle of which of the following devices?

(A) Automatic exposure control

(B) Image intensifier
(C) Cine film camera
(D) Spot film camera

44. Under what circumstances might a radiographer be required to wear two dosimeters?
1. During pregnancy
2. While performing vascular procedures
3. While performing mobile radiography

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

45. Which of the positions illustrated in Figure 2-21 will best demonstrate the lumbar apophyseal
joints closest to the film?

(A) Number 1
(B) Number 2
(C) Number 3
(D) Number 4

47. Which of the following terms is used to describe unsharp edges of tiny radiographic details?

(A) Diffusion
(B) Mottle
(C) Blur
(D) Umbra

48. Which of the following focal spot sizes should be employed for magnification radiography?

(A) 0.2 mm
(B) 0.6 mm
(C) 1.2 mm
(D) 2.0 mm
49. In order to be used more efficiently by the x-ray tube, alternating current is changed to
unidirectional current by the:

(A) filament transformer.

(B) autotransformer.
(C) high-voltage transformer.
(D) rectifiers.

50. Anaphylactic shock manifests early symptoms that include

1. dysphagia.
2. itching of palms and soles.
3. constriction of the throat.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

51. The type of shock associated with pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels is classified as:

(A) neurogenic.
(B) cardiogenic.
(C) hypovolemic.
(D) septic.

52. What apparatus is needed for the construction of a sensitometric curve?

1. Penetrometer
2. Densitometer
3. Electrolytic canister

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
53. What is the device that directs the light emitted from the image intensifier to various viewing
and imaging apparatus?

(A) Output phosphor

(B) Beam splitter
(C) Spot film changer
(D) Automatic brightness control

54. Primary radiation barriers must be at least how high?

(A) 5 ft
(B) 6 ft
(C) 7 ft
(D) 8 ft

55. Treelike, branching black marks on a radiograph are usually the result of:

(A) bending the film acutely.

(B) improper development.
(C) improper film storage.
(D) static electricity.

56. Which of the following positions demonstrates all the paranasal sinuses?

(A) Parietoacanthial
(B) PA axial
(C) Lateral
(D) True PA

57. Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the dose-response curve shown
in Figure 3-4?

1. The quantity of radiation is directly related to the dose received.

2. No threshold is required for effects to occur.
3. A minimum amount of radiation is required for manifestation of effects.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
58. Which of the following are recommended for the pregnant radiographer?
1. Continue monthly dosimeter readings.
2. Wear a second dosimeter under the lead apron.
3. Wear two dosimeters and switch their position periodically.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

59. Which of the following will serve to increase the effective energy of the x-ray beam?
1. Increase in added filtration
2. Increase in kilovoltage
3. Increase in milliamperage

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

60. Irradiation of water molecules within the body, and their resulting breakdown, is termed:

(A) epilation.
(B) radiolysis.
(C) proliferation.
(D) repopulation.

61. An exposure was made at a 38-in SID using 300 mA, a 0.03-s exposure, and 80 kVp with a
400 film / screen combination and an 8:1 grid. It is desired to repeat the radiograph and, in order
to improve recorded detail, to use a 42-in SID and a 200 film / screen combination. With all other
factors remaining constant, what exposure time will be required to maintain the original
radiographic density?

(A) 0.03 s
(B) 0.07 s
(C) 0.14 s
(D) 0.36 s

62. The transition of orbital electrons from outer to inner shells gives rise to:

(A) Compton scatter.

(B) pair production.
(C) bremsstrahlung radiation.
(D) characteristic radiation.

63. What is the annual dose-equivalent limit for the skin and hands of an occupationally exposed
individual?

(A) 5 rem
(B) 25 rem
(C) 50 rem
(D) 100 rem
64. Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture?
1. Fractured lateral malleolus
2. Fractured medial malleolus
3. Fractured posterior tibia

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

65. Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of mammography film emulsion?

1. High contrast
2. Fine grain
3. Single emulsion

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

66. Moving the image intensifier closer to the patient during fluoroscopy

1. decreases the source-image distance (SID).

2. decreases patient dose.
3. improves image quality.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

67. Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or
subcoracoid dislocation?

(A) Tangential
(B) AP axial
(C) Transthoracic lateral
(D) PA oblique scapular Y
68. When radiographing young children, it is helpful to
1. let them bring a toy.
2. tell them it will not hurt.
3. be cheerful and unhurried.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

69. The most efficient type of male gonadal shielding for use during fluoroscopy is:

(A) flat contact.

(B) shaped contact (contour).
(C) shadow.
(D) cylindrical.

70. Which of the following radiation situations is potentially the most harmful?

(A) A large dose to a specific area all at once

(B) A small dose to the whole body over a period of time
(C) A large dose to the whole body all at one time
(D) A small dose to a specific area over a period of time

71. The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and
relaxation of the heart is called:

(A) hypertension.
(B) elasticity.
(C) pulse.
(D) pressure.

72. Grid cutoff due to off-centering would result in:

(A) overall loss of density.

(B) both sides of the film being underexposed.
(C) overexposure under the anode end.
(D) underexposure under the anode end.

73. Which of the following is a vasopressor and may be used for an anaphylactic reaction or
cardiac arrest?

(A) Nitroglycerin
(B) Epinephrine
(C) Hydrocortisone
(D) Digitoxin

74. In which of the following positions was the radiograph in Figure 2-23 probably made?
(A) AP recumbent
(B) PA recumbent
(C) PA upright
(D) AP Trendelenburg

75. Which of the following are part of the bony thorax?

1. 12 thoracic vertebrae
2. Scapulae
3. 24 ribs

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

76. The area of blurriness seen in the upper part of the radiograph shown in Figure 4-15 is most
likely due to

(A) scatter radiation fog.

(B) patient motion.
(C) poor screen / film contact.
(D) grid cutoff.
77. Which of the following can be used to determine the sensitivity of a particular film emulsion?

(A) Sensitometric curve

(B) Dose-response curve
(C) Reciprocity law
(D) Inverse square law

78. How is the mAs adjusted in an AEC system as the film / screen combination is decreased?

(A) The mAs increases as film / screen speed decreases.

(B) Both the mAs and the kVp increase as film / screen speed decreases.
(C) The mAs decreases as film / screen speed decreases.
(D) The mAs remains unchanged as film / screen speed decreases.

79. In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the central ray is directed:

(A) 1/2 in posterior to the anterior nasal spine.

(B) 3/4 in posterior to the glabella.
(C) 3/4 in distal to the nasion.
(D) 1/2 in anterior to the EAM.

80. The scapula pictured in Figure 2-27 demonstrates

1. its posterior aspect.

2. its costal surface.
3. its sternal articular surface.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

81. Slow-speed screens are used:

(A) to minimize patient dose.

(B) to keep exposure time to a minimum.
(C) to image fine anatomic details.
(D) in pediatric radiography.
82. During a fluoroscopic exam, x-ray photons exiting the patient then travel to which of the
following?

(A) output phosphor

(B) focusing lens
(C) input phosphor
(D) photocathode

83. Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a
portion of the lungs?

(A) Pneumothorax
(B) Atelectasis
(C) Pulmonary embolism
(D) Hypoxia

84. The NCRP recommends an annual effective occupational dose equivalent limit of:

(A) 2.5 rem (25 mSv).

(B) 5 rem (50 mSv).
(C) 10 rem (100 mSv).
(D) 20 rem (200 mSv).

85. The dose-response curve that appears to be valid for genetic and some somatic effects is the
1. linear.
2. sigmoidal.
3. nonthreshold.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

86. If 300 mA has been selected for a particular exposure, what exposure time would be required
to produce 60 mAs?

(A) 1/60 s
(B) 1/30 s
(C) 1/10 s
(D) 1/5 s

87. An exposure was made of a part using 300 mA and 0.06s and using a 100-speed film /
screen combination. An additional radiograph is requested using a 400-speed system in order to
reduce motion unsharpness. Using 200 mA, all other factors remaining constant, what should be
the new exposure time?

(A) 0.02 s
(B) 0.04 s
(C) 0.45 s
(D) 0.80 s

88. T-tube cholangiography is performed:

(A) preoperatively.
(B) during surgery.
(C) postoperatively.
(D) with a Chiba needle.
89. The presence of ionizing radiation may be detected in which of the following ways?
1. Ionizing effect on air
2. Photographic effect on film emulsion
3. Fluorescent effect on certain crystals

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

90. The interaction between x-ray photons and tissue that is responsible for radiographic contrast
but that also contributes significantly to patient dose is:

(A) the photoelectric effect.

(B) Compton scatter.
(C) coherent scatter.
(D) pair production.

91. Which of the following are well demonstrated in the lumbar spine pictured in Figure 2-33?

1. Apophyseal articulations
2. Intervertebral foramina
3. Inferior articular processes

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

92. Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to demonstrate
1. pneumothorax.
2. foreign body.
3. atelectasis.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
93. Which of the following pathologic conditions will probably require a decrease in exposure
factors?

(A) Osteomyelitis
(B) Osteoporosis
(C) Osteosclerosis
(D) Osteochondritis

94. Target angle will have an effect on the:

1. severity of the heel effect.
2. focal spot size.
3. heat load capacity.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

95. Which of the following can cause poor screen / film contact?
1. Damaged image receptor frame
2. Foreign body in image receptor
3. Warped image receptor front

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

96. Which of the localization lines seen in Figure 2-35 are separated by 7º?

(A) Lines 1 and 3

(B) Lines 2 and 3
(C) Lines 1 and 4
(D) Lines 3 and 4
97. Using fixed-mAs and variable-kVp technical factors, each centimeter increase in patient
thickness requires what adjustment in kilovoltage?

(A) Increase 2 kVp

(B) Decrease 2 kVp
(C) Increase 4 kVp
(D) Decrease 4 kVp

98. The least toxic contrast medium listed below is:

(A) barium sulfate.

(B) metrizamide.
(C) ethiodized oil.
(D) meglumine diatrizoate.

99. Which of the following would best evaluate the structure labeled 4 in Figure 2-12?

(A) PA axial projection (Caldwell method)

(B) Parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method)
(C) Lateral projection
(D) Submentovertical projection

100. The source of electrons within the x-ray tube is:

(A) electrolysis.
(B) thermionic emission.
(C) rectification.
(D) induction.