1. The coronary vessels, unlike any other blood vessels in C.

Eosinophil
the body, respond to sympathetic stimulation by D. Monocytes

A. Vasoconstriction 10. Icheanne, ask you, her Nurse, about WBC Components.
B. Vasodilatation She got an injury yesterday after she twisted her ankle
C. Decreases force of contractility accidentally at her gymnastic class. She asked you, which
D. Decreases cardiac output WBC Component is responsible for proliferation at the
injured site immediately following an injury. You answer:
2. What stress response can you expect from a patient with
blood sugar of 50 mg / dl? A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
A. Body will try to decrease the glucose level C. Eosinophils
B. There will be a halt in release of sex hormones D. Monocytes
C. Client will appear restless
D. Blood pressure will increase 11. Icheanne then asked you, what is the first process that
occurs in the inflammatory response after injury, you tell
3. All of the following are purpose of inflammation except her:

A. Increase heat, thereby produce abatement of A. Phagocytosis

phagocytosis B. Emigration
B. Localized tissue injury by increasing capillary permeability C. Pavementation
C. Protect the issue from injury by producing pain D. Chemotaxis
D. Prepare for tissue repair
12. Icheanne asked you again, what is that term that
4. The initial response of tissue after injury is describes the magnetic attraction of injured tissue to bring
phagocytes to the site of injury?
A. Immediate Vasodilation
B. Transient Vasoconstriction A. Icheanne, you better sleep now, you asked a lot of
C. Immediate Vasoconstriction questions
D. Transient Vasodilation B. It is Diapedesis
C. We call that Emigration
5. The last expected process in the stages of inflammation is D. I don’t know the answer, perhaps I can tell you after I
characterized by find it out later

A. There will be sudden redness of the affected part 13. This type of healing occurs when there is a delayed
B. Heat will increase on the affected part surgical closure of infected wound
C. The affected part will lose its normal function
D. Exudates will flow from the injured site A. First intention
B. Second intention
6. What kind of exudates is expected when there is an C. Third intention
antibody-antigen reaction as a result of microorganism D. Fourth intention
infection?
14. Type of healing when scars are minimal due to careful
A. Serous surgical incision and good healing
B. Serosanguinous
C. Purulent A. First intention
D. Sanguineous B. Second intention
C. Third intention
7. The first manifestation of inflammation is D. Fourth intention

A. Redness on the affected area 15. Imelda was slashed and hacked by an unknown suspect.
B. Swelling of the affected area She suffered massive tissue loss and laceration on her arms
C. Pain, which causes guarding of the area and elbow in an attempt to evade the criminal. As a nurse,
D. Increase heat due to transient vasodilation you know that the type of healing that will most likely occur
to Miss Imelda is
8. The client has a chronic tissue injury. Upon examining the
client’s antibody for a particular cellular response, which of A. First intention
the following WBC component is responsible for B. Second intention
phagocytosis in chronic tissue injury? C. Third intention
D. Fourth intention
A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils 16. Imelda is in the recovery stage after the incident. As a
C. Eosinophils nurse, you know that the diet that will be prescribed to Miss
D. Monocytes Imelda is

9. Which of the following WBC component proliferates in A. Low calorie, High protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods
cases of Anaphylaxis? B. High protein, High calorie with Vitamin A and C rich foods
C. High calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods
A. Neutrophils D. Low calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods
B. Basophils
17. Miss Imelda asked you, what is WET TO DRY Dressing C. Rogers
method? Your best response is D. Travelbee

A. It is a type of mechanical debridement using Wet dressing 24. In what phase of Nurse patient relationship does a nurse
that is applied and left to dry to remove dead tissues review the client’s medical records thereby learning as much
B. It is a type of surgical debridement with the use of Wet as possible about the client?
dressing to remove the necrotic tissues
C. It is a type of dressing where in, the wound is covered A. Pre Orientation
with Wet or Dry dressing to prevent contamination B. Orientation
D. It is a type of dressing where in, A cellophane or plastic is C. Working
placed on the wound over a wet dressing to stimulate D. Termination
healing of the wound in a wet medium
25. Nurse Aida has seen her patient, Roger for the first time.
18. The primary cause of pain in inflammation is She establishes a contract about the frequency of meeting
and introduce to Roger the expected termination. She
A. Release of pain mediators started taking baseline assessment and set interventions and
B. Injury to the nerve endings outcomes. On what phase of NPR Does Nurse Aida and
C. Compression of the local nerve endings by the edema Roger belong?
fluids
D. Circulation is lessened; Supply of oxygen is insufficient A. Pre Orientation
B. Orientation
19. The client is in stress because he was told by the C. Working
physician he needs to undergo surgery for removal of tumor D. Termination
in his bladder. Which of the following are effects of
sympatho-adreno-medullary response by the client? 26. Roger has been seen agitated, shouting, and running. As
Nurse Aida approaches, he shouts and swear, calling Aida
1. Constipation names. Nurse Aida told Roger “That is an unacceptable
2. Urinary frequency behavior Roger, Stop and go to your room now.” The
3. Hyperglycemia situation is most likely in what phase of NPR?
4. Increased blood pressure
A. Pre Orientation
A. 3,4 B. Orientation
B. 1,3,4 C. Working
C.1,2,4 D. Termination
D.1,4
27. Nurse Aida, in spite of the incident, still consider Roger
20. The client is on NPO post-midnight. Which of the as worthwhile simply because he is a human being. What
following, if done by the client, is sufficient to cancel the major ingredient of a therapeutic communication is Nurse
operation in the morning? Aida using?

A. Eat a full meal at 10:00 P.M A. Empathy

B. Drink fluids at 11:50 P.M B. Positive regard
C. Brush his teeth the morning before operation C. Comfortable sense of self
D. Smoke cigarette around 3:00 A.M D. Self awareness

21. The client place on NPO for preparation of the blood 28. Nurse Irma saw Roger and told Nurse Aida “Oh look at
test. Adreno-cortical response is activated and which of the that psychotic patient “Nurse Aida should intervene and
following below is an expected response? correct Nurse Irma because her statement shows that she is
lacking?
A. Low BP
B. Decrease Urine output A. Empathy
C. Warm, flushed, dry skin B. Positive regard
D. Low serum sodium levels C. Comfortable sense of self
D. Self awareness
22. Which of the following is true about therapeutic
relationship? 29. Which of the following statement is not true about
stress?
A. Directed towards helping an individual both physically and
emotionally A. It is a nervous energy
B. Bases on friendship and mutual trust B. It is an essential aspect of existence
C. Goals are set by the solely nurse C. It has been always a part of human experience
D. Maintained even after the client doesn’t need any more of D. It is something each person has to cope
the Nurse’s help
30. Martina, a Tennis champ was devastated after many new
23. According to her, A nurse patient relationship is competitors outpaced her in the Wimbledon event.
composed of 4 stages: Orientation, Identification, She became depressed and always seen crying. Martina is
Exploitation and Resolution clearly on what kind of situation?

A. Roy A. Martina is just stressed out

B. Peplau B. Martina is Anxious
C. Martina is in the exhaustion stage of GAS
D. Martina is in Crisis A. “How did you deal with your anxiety before?”
B. “It must be awful to feel anxious.”
31. Which of the following statement is not true with regards C. “How does it feel to be anxious?”
to anxiety? D. “What makes you feel anxious?”

A. It has physiologic component 39. Marissa Salva, Uses Benson’s relaxation. How is it done?
B. It has psychologic component
C. The source of dread or uneasiness is from an A. Systematically tensing muscle groups from top to bottom
unrecognized entity for 5 seconds, and then releasing them
D. The source of dread or uneasiness is from a recognized B. Concentrating on breathing without tensing the muscle,
entity Letting go and repeating a word or sound after each
exhalation
32. Lorraine, a 27 year old executive was brought to the ER C. Using a strong positive, feeling-rich statement about a
for an unknown reason. She is starting to speak but her desired change
speech is disorganized and cannot be understood. On what D. Exercise combined with meditation to foster relaxation
level of anxiety does this features belongs? and mental alacrity

A. Mild 40. What type of relaxation technique does Lyza uses if a

B. Moderate machine is showing her pulse rate, temperature, and muscle
C. Severe tension which she can visualize and assess?
D. Panic
A. Biofeedback
33. Elton, 21 year old nursing student is taking the board B. Massage
examination. She is sweating profusely, has decreased C. Autogenic training
awareness of his environment, and is purely focused on the D. Visualization and Imagery
exam questions characterized by his selective attentiveness.
What anxiety level is Elton exemplifying? 41. This is also known as Self-suggestion or Self-hypnosis

A. Mild A. Biofeedback
B. Moderate B. Meditation
C. Severe C. Autogenic training
D. Panic D. Visualization and Imagery

34. You noticed the patient chart: ANXIETY +3 What will you 42. Which among these drugs is NOT an anxiolytic?
expect to see in this client?
A. Valium
A. An optimal time for learning, Hearing and perception is B. Ativan
greatly increased C. Milltown
B. Dilated pupils D. Luvox
C. Unable to communicate
D. Palliative Coping Mechanism 43. Kenneth, 25 year old diagnosed with HIV felt that he had
not lived up with God’s expectation. He fears that in the
35. When should the nurse starts giving XANAX? course of his illness, God will be punitive and not be
supportive. What kind of spiritual crisis is Kenneth
A. When anxiety is +1 experiencing?
B. When the client starts to have a narrow perceptual field
and selective inattentiveness 1. Spiritual Pain
C. When problem solving is not possible 2. Spiritual Anxiety
D. When the client is immobile and disorganized 3. Spiritual Guilt
4. Spiritual Despair
36. Which of the following behavior is not a sign or a
symptom of Anxiety? A. 1,2
B. 2,3
A. Frequent hand movement C. 3,4
B. Somatization D. 1,4
C. The client asks a question
D. The client is acting out 44. Grace believes that her relationship with God is broken.
She tried to go to church to ask forgiveness everyday to
37. Which of the following intervention is inappropriate for remedy her feelings. What kind of spiritual distress is Grace
client’s with anxiety? experiencing?

A. Offer choices A. Spiritual Pan

B. Provide a quiet and calm environment B. Spiritual Alienation
C. Provide detailed explanation on each and every C. Spiritual Guilt
procedures and equipments D. Spiritual Despair
D. Bring anxiety down to a controllable level
45. Remedios felt “EMPTY” She felt that she has already lost
38. Which of the following statement, if made by the nurse, God’s favor and love because of her sins. This is a type of
is considered not therapeutic? what spiritual crisis?
 a PE Teacher, not a Nurse. I am Glen, Your nurse.”
A. Spiritual Anger B. “Oh hail GOD Tadle, everyone bow or face his wrath!”
B. Spiritual Loss C. “Hello Mr. Tadle, You are here in the hospital, I am your
C. Spiritual Despair nurse and you are a patient here”
D. Spiritual Anxiety D. “How can you be a GOD Mr. Tadle? Can you tell me more
about it?”
46. Budek is working with a schizophrenic patient. He
noticed that the client is agitated, pacing back and forth, 53. Erik John Senna, Told Nurse Budek “ I don’t want to
restless and experiencing Anxiety +3. Budek said “You that, I don’t want that thing.. that’s too painful!” Which of
appear restless” What therapeutic technique did Budek the following response is NON THERAPEUTIC
used?
A. “ This must be difficult for you, But I need to inject you
A. Offering general leads this for your own good”
B. Seeking clarification B. “ You sound afraid”
C. Making observation C. “Are you telling me you don’t want this injection?”
D. Encouraging description of perception D. “Why are you so anxious? Please tell me more about your
feelings Erik”
47. Rommel told Budek “ I SEE DEAD PEOPLE “ Budek
responded “You see dead people?” This Is an example of 54. Legrande De Salvaje Y Cobrador La Jueteng, was caught
therapeutic communication technique? by the bacolod police because of his illegal activities. When
he got home after paying for the bail, He shouted at his son.
A. Reflecting What defense mechanism did Mr. La Jueteng used?
B. Restating
C. Exploring A. Restitution
D. Seeking clarification B. Projection
C. Displacement
48. Rommel told Budek, “Do you think Im crazy?” Budek D. Undoing
responded, “Do you think your crazy?” Budek uses what
example of therapeutic communication? 55. Later that day, he bought his son ice cream and food.
What defense mechanism is Legrande unconsciously doing?
A. Reflecting
B. Restating A. Restitution
C. Exploring B. Conversion
D. Seeking clarification C. Redoing
D. Reaction formation
49. Myra, 21 year old nursing student has difficulty sleeping.
She told Nurse Budek “I really think a lot about my x 56. Crisis is a sudden event in ones life that disturbs a
boyfriend recently” Budek told Myra “And that causes you person’s homeostasis. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in
difficulty sleeping?” Which therapeutic technique is used in crisis?
this situation?
A. The person experiences heightened feeling of stress
A. Reflecting B. Inability to function in the usual organized manner
B. Restating C. Lasts for 4 months
C. Exploring D. Indicates unpleasant emotional feelings
D. Seeking clarification
57. Which of the following is a characteristic of crisis?
50. Myra told Budek “I cannot sleep, I stay away all night”
Budek told her “You have difficulty sleeping” This is what A. Lasts for an unlimited period of time
type of therapeutic communication technique? B. There is a triggering event
C. Situation is not dangerous to the person
A. Reflecting D. Person totality is not involved
B. Restating
C. Exploring 58. Levito Devin, The Italian prime minister, is due to retire
D. Seeking clarification next week. He feels depressed due to the enormous loss of
influence, power, fame, and fortune. What type of crisis is
51. Myra said “I saw my dead grandmother here at my Devin experiencing?
bedside a while ago” Budek responded “Really? That is hard
to believe, How do you feel about it?” What technique did A. Situational
Budek used? B. Maturational
C. Social
A. Disproving D. Phenomenal
B. Disagreeing
C. Voicing Doubt 59. Estrada, The Philippine president, has been unexpectedly
D. Presenting Reality impeached and was out of office before the end of his term.
He is in what type of crisis?
52. Which of the following is a therapeutic communication in
response to “I am a GOD, bow before me Or ill summon the A. Situational
dreaded thunder to burn you and purge you to pieces!” B. Maturational
C. Social
A. “You are not a GOD, you are Professor Tadle and you are D. Phenomenal
60. The tsunami in Thailand and Indonesia took thousands 67. Whitney verbalizes that she is anxious that the diagnostic
of people and change million lives. The people affected by test might reveal laryngeal cancer. Which of the following is
the Tsunami are saddened and do not know how to start all the most appropriate nursing intervention?
over again. What type of crisis is this?
A. Tell the client not to worry until the results are in
A. Situational B. Ask the client to express feelings and concern
B. Maturational C. Reassure the client everything will be alright
C. Social D. Advice the client to divert his attention by watching
D. Phenomenal television and reading newspapers

61. Which of the following is the BEST goal for crisis 68. Considered as the most accurate expression of person’s
intervention? thought and feelings

A. Bring back the client in the pre crisis state A. Verbal communication
B. Make sure that the client becomes better B. Non verbal communication
C. Achieve independence C. Written communication
D. Provide alternate coping mechanism D. Oral communication

62. What is the best intervention when the client has just 69. Represents inner feeling that a person do not like talking
experienced the crisis and still at the first phase of the crisis? about.

A. Behavior therapy A. Overt communication

B. Gestalt therapy B. Covert communication
C. Cognitive therapy C. Verbal communication
D. Milieu Therapy D. Non verbal communication

63. Therapeutic nurse client relationship is describes as 70. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an
follows effective Nurse-Client relationship?

1. Based on friendship and mutual interest A. Focused on the patient

2. It is a professional relationship B. Based on mutual trust
3. It is focused on helping the patient solve problems and C. Conveys acceptance
achieve health-related goals D. Discourages emotional bond
4. Maintained only as long as the patient requires
professional help 71. A type of record wherein , each person or department
makes notation in separate records. A nurse will use the
A. 1,2,3 nursing notes, The doctor will use the Physician’s order sheet
B. 1,2,4 etc. Data is arranged according to information source.
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,3,4 A. POMR
B. POR
64. The client is scheduled to have surgical removal of the C. Traditional
tumor on her left breast. Which of the following D. Resource oriented
manifestation indicates that she is experiencing Mild Anxiety?
72. Type of recording that integrates all data about the
A. She has increased awareness of her environmental details problem, gathered by members of the health team.
B. She focused on selected aspect of her illness
C. She experiences incongruence of action, thoughts, and A. POMR
feelings B. Traditional
D. She experiences random motor activities C. Resource oriented
D. Source oriented
65. Which of the following nursing intervention would least
likely be effective when dealing with a client with aggressive 73. These are data that are monitored by using graphic
behavior? charts or graphs that indicated the progression or fluctuation
of client’s Temperature and Blood pressure.
A. Approach him in a calm manner
B. Provide opportunities to express feelings A. Progress notes
C. Maintain eye contact with the client B. Kardex
D. Isolate the client from others C. Flow chart
D. Flow sheet
66. Whitney, a patient of nurse Budek, verbalizes… “I have
nothing, nothing… nothing! Don't make me close one more 74. Provides a concise method of organizing and recording
door, I don't wanna hurt anymore!” Which of the following is data about the client. It is a series of flip cards kept in
the most appropriate response by Budek? portable file used in change of shift reports.

A. Why are you singing? A. Kardex

B. What makes you say that? B. Progress Notes
C. Ofcourse you are everything! C. SOAPIE
D. What is that you said? D. Change of shift report
 C. one half
75. You are about to write an information on the Kardex. D. With one half dose
There are 4 available writing instruments to use. Which of
the following should you use? 84. Which of the following indicates that learning has been
achieved?
A. Mongol #2
B. Permanent Ink A. Matuts starts exercising every morning and eating a
C. A felt or fountain pen balance diet after you taught her mag HL tayo program
D. Pilot Pentel Pen marker B. Donya Delilah has been able to repeat the steps of insulin
administration after you taught it to her
76. The client has an allergy to Iodine based dye. Where C. Marsha said “ I understand “ after you a health teaching
should you put this vital information in the client’s chart? about family planning
D. John rated 100% on your given quiz about smoking and
A. In the first page of the client’s chart alcoholism
B. At the last page of the client’s chart
C. At the front metal plate of the chart 85. In his theory of learning as a BEHAVIORISM, he stated
D. In the Kardex that transfer of knowledge occurs if a new situation closely
resembles an old one.
77. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the Kardex
A. Bloom
A. It provides readily available information B. Lewin
B. It is a tool of end of shift reports C. Thorndike
C. The primary basis of endorsement D. Skinner
D. Where Allergies information are written
86. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to learning?
78. Which of the following, if seen on the Nurses notes,
violates characteristic of good recording? A. Start from complex to simple
B. Goals should be hard to achieve so patient can strive to
A. The client has a blood pressure of 120/80, Temperature attain unrealistic goals
of 36.6 C Pulse rate of 120 and Respiratory rate of 22 C. Visual learning is the best for every individual
B. Ate 50% of food served D. Do not teach a client when he is in pain
C. Refused administration of betaxolol
D. Visited and seen By Dr. Santiago 87. According to Bloom, there are 3 domains in learning.
Which of these domains is responsible for the ability of
79. The physician ordered : Mannerix a.c , what does a.c Donya Delilah to inject insulin?
means?
A. Cognitive
A. As desired B. Affective
B. Before meals C. Psychomotor
C. After meals D. Motivative
D. Before bed time
88. Which domains of learning is responsible for making
80. The physician ordered, Maalox, 2 hours p.c, what does John and Marsha understand the different kinds of family
p.c means? planning methods?
A. As desired
B. Before meals A. Cognitive
C. After meals B. Affective
D. Before bed time C. Psychomotor
D. Motivative
81. The physician ordered, Maxitrol, Od. What does Od
means? 89. Which of the following statement clearly defines
therapeutic communication?
A. Left eye
B. Right eye A. Therapeutic communication is an interaction process
C. Both eye which is primarily directed by the nurse
D. Once a day B. It conveys feeling of warmth, acceptance, and empathy
from the nurse to a patient in relaxed atmosphere
82. The physician orderd, Magnesium Hydroxide cc C. Therapeutic communication is a reciprocal interaction
Aluminum Hydroxide. What does cc means? based on trust and aimed at identifying patient needs and
developing mutual goals
A. without D. Therapeutic communication is an assessment component
B. with of the nursing process
C. one half
D. With one half dose 90. Which of the following concept is most important in
establishing a therapeutic nurse patient relationship?
83. Physician ordered, Paracetamol tablet ss. What does ss
means? A. The nurse must fully understand the patient’s feelings,
perception and reactions before goals can be established
A. without B. The nurse must be a role model for health fostering
B. with behavior
C. The nurse must recognize that the patient may manifest 98. An adult client is on extreme pain. He is moaning and
maladaptive behavior after illness grimacing. What is the best way to assess the client’s pain?
D. The nurse should understand that patients might test her
before trust is established A. Perform physical assessment
B. Have the client rate his pain on the smiley pain rating
91. Which of the following communication skill is most scale
effective in dealing with covert communication? C. Active listening on what the patient says
D. Observe the client’s behavior
A. Validation
B. Listening 99. Therapeutic communication begins with?
C. Evaluation
D. Clarification A. Knowing your client
B. Knowing yourself
92. Which of the following are qualities of a good recording? C. Showing empathy
D. Encoding
1. Brevity
2. Completeness and chronology 100. The PCS gave new guidelines including leaflets to
3. Appropriateness educate cancer patients. As a nurse, When using materials
4. Accuracy like this, what is your responsibility?

A. 1,2 A. Read it for the patient

B. 3,4 B. Give it for the patient to read himself
C. 1,2,3 C. Let the family member read the material for the patient
D. 1,2,3,4 D. Read it yourself then, Have the client read the material

93. All of the following chart entries are correct except

A. V/S 36.8 C,80,16,120/80

B. Complained of chest pain
C. Seems agitated
D. Able to ambulate without assistance

94. Which of the following teaching method is effective in

client who needs to be educated about self injection of
insulin?

A. Detailed explanation
B. Demonstration
C. Use of pamphlets
D. Film showing

95. What is the most important characteristic of a nurse

patient relationship?

A. It is growth facilitating
B. Based on mutual understanding
C. Fosters hope and confidence
D. Involves primarily emotional bond

96. Which of the following nursing intervention is needed

before teaching a client post spleenectomy deep breathing
and coughing exercises?

A. Tell the patient that deep breathing and coughing

exercises is needed to promote good breathing, circulation
and prevent complication
B. Tell the client that deep breathing and coughing exercises
is needed to prevent Thrombophlebitis, hydrostatic
pneumonia and atelectasis
C. Medicate client for pain
D. Tell client that cooperation is vital to improve recovery

97. The client has an allergy with penicillin. What is the best
way to communicate this information?

A. Place an allergy alert in the Kardex

B. Notify the attending physician
C. Write it on the patient’s chart
D. Take note when giving medications
00 Item Exam On Fundamentals Of Nursing : Nursing
Process, Physical and Health Assessment and Routine 5. Which characteristic of nursing process addresses the
Procedures Answer Key INDIVIDUALIZED care a client must receive?
A. Organized and Systematic
100 Item Exam On Fundamentals Of Nursing : Nursing B. Humanistic
Process, Physical and Health Assessment and Routine C. Efficient
Procedures Answer Key D. Effective

FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST IV 6. A characteristic of the nursing process that is essential to

promote client satisfaction and progress. The care should
By : Budek also be relevant with the client’s needs.
http://www.pinoybsn.tk
A. Organized and Systematic
Content Outline B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
1. The nursing process D. Effective
2. Physical Assessment
3. Health Assessment 7. Rhina, who has Menieres disease, said that her
3.a Temperature environment is moving. Which of the following is a valid
3.b Pulse assessment?
3.c Respiration
3.d Blood pressure 1. Rhina is giving an objective data
4. Routine Procedures 2. Rhina is giving a subjective data
4.a Urinalysis specimen collection 3. The source of the data is primary
4.b Sputum specimen collection 4. The source of the data is secondary
4.c Urine examination
4.d Positioning pre-procedure A. 1,3
4.e Stool specimen collection B. 2,3
C. 2.4
1. She is the first one to coin the term “NURSING PROCESS” D. 1,4
She introduced 3 steps of nursing process which are
Observation, Ministration and Validation. 8. Nurse Angela, observe Joel who is very apprehensive over
the impending operation. The client is experiencing dyspnea,
A. Nightingale diaphoresis and asks lots of questions. Angela made a
B. Johnson diagnosis of ANXIETY R/T INTRUSIVE PROCEDURE. This is
C. Rogers what type of Nursing Diagnosis?
D. Hall
A. Actual
2. The American Nurses association formulated an B. Probable
innovation of the Nursing process. Today, how many distinct C. Possible
steps are there in the nursing process? D. Risk

A. APIE – 4 9. Nurse Angela diagnosed Mrs. Delgado, who have

B. ADPIE – 5 undergone a BKA. Her diagnosis is SELF ESTEEM
C. ADOPIE – 6 DISTURBANCE R/T CHANGE IN BODY IMAGE. Although the
D. ADOPIER – 7 client has not yet seen her lost leg, Angela already
anticipated the diagnosis. This is what type of Diagnosis?
3. They are the first one to suggest a 4 step nursing process
which are : APIE , or assessment, planning, implementation A. Actual
and evaluation. B. Probable
C. Possible
1. Yura D. Risk
2. Walsh
3. Roy 10. Nurse Angela is about to make a diagnosis but very
4. Knowles unsure because the S/S the client is experiencing is not
specific with her diagnosis of POWERLESSNESS R/T
A. 1,2 DIFFICULTY ACCEPTING LOSS OF LOVED ONE. She then
B. 1,3 focus on gathering data to refute or prove her diagnosis but
C. 3,4 her plans and interventions are already ongoing for the
D. 2,3 diagnosis. Which type of Diagnosis is this?

4. Which characteristic of nursing process is responsible for A. Actual

proper utilization of human resources, time, and cost B. Probable
resources? C. Possible
D. Risk
A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic 11. Nurse Angela knew that Stephen Lee Mu Chin, has just
C. Efficient undergone an operation with an incision near the diaphragm.
D. Effective She knew that this will contribute to some complications
later on. She then should develop what type of Nursing
diagnosis? 19. All of the following are characteristic of the Nursing
process except
A. Actual
B. Probable A. Dynamic
C. Possible B. Cyclical
D. Risk C. Universal
D. Intrapersonal
12. Which of the following Nursing diagnosis is INCORRECT?
20. Which of the following is true about the NURSING CARE
A. Fluid volume deficit R/T Diarrhea PLAN?
B. High risk for injury R/T Absence of side rails
C. Possible ineffective coping R/T Loss of loved one A. It is nursing centered
D. Self esteem disturbance R/T Effects of surgical removal of B. Rationales are supported by interventions
the leg C. Verbal
D. Atleast 2 goals are needed for every nursing diagnosis
13. Among the following statements, which should be given
the HIGHEST priority? 21. A framework for health assessment that evaluates the
effects of stressors to the mind, body, and environment in
A. Client is in extreme pain relation with the ability of the client to perform ADL.
B. Client’s blood pressure is 60/40
C. Client’s temperature is 40 deg. Centigrade A. Functional health framework
D. Client is cyanotic B. Head to toe framework
C. Body system framework
14. Which of the following need is given a higher priority D. Cephalocaudal framework
among others?
22. Client has undergone Upper GI and Lower GI series.
A. The client has attempted suicide and safety precaution is Which type of health assessment framework is used in this
needed situation?
B. The client has disturbance in his body image because of
the recent operation A. Functional health framework
C. The client is depressed because her boyfriend left her all B. Head to toe framework
alone C. Body system framework
D. The client is thirsty and dehydrated D. Cephalocaudal framework

15. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to Client 23. Which of the following statement is true regarding
Goals? temperature?

A. They are specific, measurable, attainable and time A. Oral temperature is more accurate than rectal
bounded temperature
B. They are general and broadly stated B. The bulb used in Rectal temperature reading is pear
C. They should answer for WHO, WHAT ACTIONS, WHAT shaped or round
CIRCUMSTANCES, HOW WELL and WHEN. C. The older the person, the higher his BMR
D. Example is : After discharge planning, Client D. When the client is swimming, BMR Decreases
demonstrated the proper psychomotor skills for insulin
injection. 24. A type of heat loss that occurs when the heat is
dissipated by air current
16. Which of the following is a NOT a correct statement of
an Outcome criteria? A. Convection
B. Conduction
A. Ambulates 30 feet with a cane before discharge C. Radiation
B. Discusses fears and concerns regarding the surgical D. Evaporation
procedure
C. Demonstrates proper coughing and breathing technique 25. Which of the following is TRUE about temperature?
after a teaching session
D. Reestablishes a normal pattern of elimination A. The highest temperature usually occurs later in a day,
around 8 P.M to 12 M.N
17. Which of the following is a OBJECTIVE data? B. The lowest temperature is usually in the Afternoon,
Around 12 P.M
A. Dizziness C. Thyroxin decreases body temperature
B. Chest pain D. Elderly people are risk for hyperthermia due to the
C. Anxiety absence of fats, Decreased thermoregulatory control and
D. Blue nails sedentary lifestyle.

18. A patient’s chart is what type of data source? 26. Hyperpyrexia is a condition in which the temperature is
greater than
A. Primary
B. Secondary A. 40 degree Celsius
C. Tertiary B. 39 degree Celsius
D. Can be A and B C. 100 degree Fahrenheit
D. 105.8 degree Fahrenheit
34. Marianne is now at the Defervescence stage of the fever,
27. Tympanic temperature is taken from John, A client who which of the following is expected?
was brought recently into the ER due to frequent barking
cough. The temperature reads 37.9 Degrees Celsius. As a A. Delirium
nurse, you conclude that this temperature is B. Goose flesh
C. Cyanotic nail beds
A. High D. Sweating
B. Low
C. At the low end of the normal range 35. Considered as the most accessible and convenient
D. At the high end of the normal range method for temperature taking

28. John has a fever of 38.5 Deg. Celsius. It surges at A. Oral

around 40 Degrees and go back to 38.5 degrees 6 times B. Rectal
today in a typical pattern. What kind of fever is John having? C. Tympanic
D. Axillary
A. Relapsing
B. Intermittent 36. Considered as Safest and most non invasive method of
C. Remittent temperature taking
D. Constant
A. Oral
29. John has a fever of 39.5 degrees 2 days ago, But B. Rectal
yesterday, he has a normal temperature of 36.5 degrees. C. Tympanic
Today, his temperature surges to 40 degrees. What type of D. Axillary
fever is John having?
37. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication in
A. Relapsing taking ORAL temperature?
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent A. Quadriplegic
D. Constant B. Presence of NGT
C. Dyspnea
30. John’s temperature 10 hours ago is a normal 36.5 D. Nausea and Vomitting
degrees. 4 hours ago, He has a fever with a temperature of
38.9 Degrees. Right now, his temperature is back to normal. 38. Which of the following is a contraindication in taking
Which of the following best describe the fever john is RECTAL temperature?
having?
A. Unconscious
A. Relapsing B. Neutropenic
B. Intermittent C. NPO
C. Remittent D. Very young children
D. Constant
39. How long should the Rectal Thermometer be inserted to
the clients anus?
31. The characteristic fever in Dengue Virus is characterized
as: A. 1 to 2 inches
B. .5 to 1.5 inches
A. Tricyclic C. 3 to 5 inches
B. Bicyclic D. 2 to 3 inches
C. Biphasic
D. Triphasic 40. In cleaning the thermometer after use, The direction of
the cleaning to follow Medical Asepsis is :
32. When John has been given paracetamol, his fever was A. From bulb to stem
brought down dramatically from 40 degrees Celsius to 36.7 B. From stem to bulb
degrees in a matter of 10 minutes. The nurse would assess C. From stem to stem
this event as: D. From bulb to bulb

A. The goal of reducing john’s fever has been met with full 41. How long should the thermometer stay in the Client’s
satisfaction of the outcome criteria Axilla?
B. The desired goal has been partially met
C. The goal is not completely met A. 3 minutes
D. The goal has been met but not with the desired outcome B. 4 minutes
criteria C. 7 minutes
D. 10 minutes
33. What can you expect from Marianne, who is currently at
the ONSET stage of fever? 42. Which of the following statement is TRUE about pulse?

A. Hot, flushed skin A. Young person have higher pulse than older persons
B. Increase thirst B. Males have higher pulse rate than females after puberty
C. Convulsion C. Digitalis has a positive chronotropic effect
D. Pale,cold skin D. In lying position, Pulse rate is higher
43. The following are correct actions when taking radial A. If the BP is elevated, the RR increases
pulse except: B. If the BP is elevated, the RR decreases
C. Elevated BP leads to Metabolic alkalosis
A. Put the palms downward D. Low BP leads to Metabolic acidosis
B. Use the thumb to palpate the artery
C. Use two or three fingers to palpate the pulse at the inner 52. All of the following factors correctly influence respiration
wrist except one. Which of the following is incorrect?
D. Assess the pulse rate, rhythm, volume, and bilateral
quality A. Hydrocodone decreases RR
B. Stress increases RR
44. The difference between the systolic and diastolic C. Increase temperature of the environment, Increase RR
pressure is termed as D. Increase altitude, Increase RR

A. Apical rate 53. When does the heart receives blood from the coronary
B. Cardiac rate artery?
C. Pulse deficit
D. Pulse pressure A. Systole
B. Diastole
45. Which of the following completely describes PULSUS C. When the valves opens
PARADOXICUS? D. When the valves closes

A. A greater-than-normal increase in systolic blood pressure 54. Which of the following is more life threatening?
with inspiration
B. A greater-than-normal decrease in systolic blood pressure A. BP = 180/100
with inspiration B. BP = 160/120
C. Pulse is paradoxically low when client is in standing C. BP = 90/60
position and high when supine. D. BP = 80/50
D. Pulse is paradoxically high when client is in standing
position and low when supine. 55. Refers to the pressure when the ventricles are at rest

46. Which of the following is TRUE about respiration? A. Diastole

B. Systole
A. I:E 2:1 C. Preload
B. I:E : 4:3 D. Pulse pressure
C I:E 1:1
D. I:E 1:2 56. Which of the following is TRUE about the blood pressure
determinants?
47. Contains the pneumotaxic and the apneutic centers
A. Hypervolemia lowers BP
A. Medulla oblongata B. Hypervolemia increases GFR
B. Pons C. HCT of 70% might decrease or increase BP
C. Carotid bodies D. Epinephrine decreases BP
D. Aortic bodies
57. Which of the following do not correctly correlates the
48. Which of the following is responsible for deep and increase BP of Ms. Aida, a 70 year old diabetic?
prolonged inspiration
A. Females, after the age 65 tends to have lower BP than
A. Medulla oblongata males
B. Pons B. Disease process like Diabetes increase BP
C. Carotid bodies C. BP is highest in the morning, and lowest during the night
D. Aortic bodies D. Africans, have a greater risk of hypertension than
Caucasian and Asians.
49. Which of the following is responsible for the rhythm and
quality of breathing? 58. How many minutes are allowed to pass if the client had
engaged in strenuous activities, smoked, or ingested caffeine
A. Medulla oblongata before taking his/her BP?
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies A. 5
D. Aortic bodies B. 10
C. 15
50. The primary respiratory center D. 30

A. Medulla oblongata 59. Too narrow cuff will cause what change in the Client’s
B. Pons BP?
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies A. True high reading
B. True low reading
51. Which of the following is TRUE about the mechanism of C. False high reading
action of the Aortic and Carotid bodies? D. False low reading
 C. The best position in assessing the abdomen is Dorsal
60. Which is a preferable arm for BP taking? recumbent
D. The knees and legs are externally rotated
A. An arm with the most contraptions
B. The left arm of the client with a CVA affecting the right 68. Dr. Fabian De Las Santas, is about to conduct an
brain ophthalmoscope examination. Which of the following, if done
C. The right arm by a nurse, is a Correct preparation before the procedure?
D. The left arm
A. Provide the necessary draping to ensure privacy
61. Which of the following is INCORRECT in assessing B. Open the windows, curtains, and light to allow better
client’s BP? illumination
C. Pour warm water over the ophthalmoscope to ensure
A. Read the mercury at the upper meniscus, preferably at comfort
the eye level to prevent error of parallax D. Darken the room to provide better illumination
B. Inflate and deflate slowly, 2-3 mmHg at a time
C. The sound heard during taking BP is known as 69. If the client is female, and the doctor is a male and the
KOROTKOFF sound patient is about to undergo a vaginal and cervical
D. If the BP is taken on the left leg using the popliteal artery examination, why is it necessary to have a female nurse in
pressure, a BP of 160/80 is normal. attendance?

62. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of the A. To ensure that the doctor performs the procedure safely
ERROR OF PARALLAX B. To assist the doctor
C. To assess the client’s response to examination
A. If the eye level is higher than the level of the meniscus, it D. To ensure that the procedure is done in an ethical
will cause a false high reading manner
B. If the eye level is higher than the level of the meniscus, it
will cause a false low reading 70. In palpating the client’s breast, Which of the following
C. If the eye level is lower than the level of the meniscus, it position is necessary for the patient to assume before the
will cause a false low reading start of the procedure?
D. If the eye level is equal to that of the level of the upper
meniscus, the reading is accurate A. Supine
B. Dorsal recumbent
63. How many minute/s is/are allowed to pass before C. Sitting
making a re-reading after the first one? D. Lithotomy

A. 1 71. When is the best time to collect urine specimen for

B. 5 routine urinalysis and C/S?
C. 15
D. 30 A. Early morning
B. Later afternoon
64. Which of the following is TRUE about the auscultation of C. Midnight
blood pressure? D. Before breakfast

A. Pulse + 4 is considered as FULL 72. Which of the following is among an ideal way of
B. The bell of the stethoscope is use in auscultating BP collecting a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity?
C. Sound produced by BP is considered as HIGH frequency
sound A. Use a clean container
D. Pulse +1 is considered as NORMAL B. Discard the first flow of urine to ensure that the urine is
not contaminated
65. In assessing the abdomen, Which of the following is the C. Collect around 30-50 ml of urine
correct sequence of the physical assessment? D. Add preservatives, refrigerate the specimen, or add ice
according to the agency’s protocol
A. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
B. Palpation, Auscultation, Percussion, Inspection 73. In a 24 hour urine specimen started Friday, 9:00 A.M,
C. Inspection, Palpation, Auscultation, Percussion which of the following if done by a Nurse indicate a NEED for
D. Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation, Percussion further procedural debriefing?

66. The sequence in examining the quadrants of the A. The nurse ask the client to urinate at 9:00 A.M, Friday
abdomen is: and she included the urine in the 24 hour urine specimen
B. The nurse discards the Friday 9:00 A M urine of the client
A. RUQ,RLQ,LUQ,LLQ C. The nurse included the Saturday 9:00 A.M urine of the
B. RLQ,RUQ,LLQ,LUQ client to the specimen collection
C. RUQ,RLQ,LLQ,LUQ D. The nurse added preservatives as per protocol and
D. RLQ,RUQ,LUQ,LLQ refrigerates the specimen

67. In inspecting the abdomen, which of the following is 74. This specimen is required to assess glucose levels and
NOT DONE? for the presence of albumin the the urine

A. Ask the client to void first A. Midstream clean catch urine

B. Knees and legs are straighten to relax the abdomen B. 24 hours urine collection
C. Postprandial urine collection A. Specimen is collected after meals
D. Second voided urine B. The nurse puts 1 clinitest tablet into a test tube
C. She added 5 drops of urine and 10 drops of water
75. When should the client test his blood sugar levels for D. If the color becomes orange or red, It is considered
greater accuracy? postitive

A. During meals 82. Which of the following nursing intervention is important

B. In between meals for a client scheduled to have a Guaiac Test?
C. Before meals
D. 2 Hours after meals A. Avoid turnips, radish, and horseradish 3 days before
procedure
76. In collecting a urine from a catheterized patient, Which B. Continue iron preparation to prevent further loss of Iron
of the following statement indicates an accurate C. Do not eat read meat 12 hours before procedure
performance of the procedure? D. Encourage caffeine and dark colored foods to produce
accurate results
A. Clamp above the port for 30 to 60 minutes before drawing
the urine from the port 83. In collecting a routine specimen for fecalysis, Which of
B. Clamp below the port for 30 to 60 minutes before drawing the following, if done by a nurse, indicates inadequate
the urine from the port knowledge and skills about the procedure?
C. Clamp above the port for 5 to 10 minutes before drawing
the urine from the port A. The nurse scoop the specimen specifically at the site with
D. Clamp below the port for 5 to 10 minutes before drawing blood and mucus
the urine from the port B. She took around 1 inch of specimen or a teaspoonful
C. Ask the client to call her for the specimen after the client
77. A community health nurse should be resourceful and wiped off his anus with a tissue
meet the needs of the client. A villager ask him, Can you test D. Ask the client to defecate in a bedpan, Secure a sterile
my urine for glucose? Which of the following technique container
allows the nurse to test a client’s urine for glucose without
the need for intricate instruments. 84. In a routine sputum analysis, Which of the following
indicates proper nursing action before sputum collection?
A. Acetic Acid test
B. Nitrazine paper test A. Secure a clean container
C. Benedict’s test B. Discard the container if the outside becomes
D. Litmus paper test contaminated with the sputum
C. Rinse the client’s mouth with Listerine after collection
78. A community health nurse is assessing client’s urine D. Tell the client that 4 tablespoon of sputum is needed for
using the Acetic Acid solution. Which of the following, if done each specimen for a routine sputum analysis
by a nurse, indicates lack of correct knowledge with the
procedure? 85. Who collects Blood specimen?

A. The nurse added the Urine as the 2/3 part of the solution A. The nurse
B. The nurse heats the test tube after adding 1/3 part acetic B. Medical technologist
acid C. Physician
C. The nurse heats the test tube after adding 2/3 part of D. Physical therapist
Urine
D. The nurse determines abnormal result if she noticed that 86. David, 68 year old male client is scheduled for Serum
the test tube becomes cloudy Lipid analysis. Which of the following health teaching is
important to ensure accurate reading?
79. Which of the following is incorrect with regards to proper
urine testing using Benedict’s Solution? A. Tell the patient to eat fatty meals 3 days prior to the
procedure
A. Heat around 5ml of Benedict’s solution together with the B. NPO for 12 hours pre procedure
urine in a test tube C. Ask the client to drink 1 glass of water 1 hour prior to the
B. Add 8 to 10 drops of urine procedure
C. Heat the Benedict’s solution without the urine to check if D. Tell the client that the normal serum lipase level is 50 to
the solution is contaminated 140 U/L
D. If the color remains BLUE, the result is POSITIVE
87. The primary factor responsible for body heat production
80. +++ Positive result after Benedicts test is depicted by is the
what color?
A. Metabolism
A. Blue B. Release of thyroxin
B. Green C. Muscle activity
C. Yellow D. Stress
D. Orange
88. The heat regulating center is found in the
81. Clinitest is used in testing the urine of a client for
glucose. Which of the following, If committed by a nurse A. Medulla oblongata
indicates error? B. Thalamus
C. Hypothalamus
D. Pons
A. Collect early in the morning, First voided specimen
89. A process of heat loss which involves the transfer of heat B. Do perineal care before specimen collection
from one surface to another is C. Collect 5 to 10 ml for urine
D. Discard the first flow of the urine
A. Radiation
B. Conduction 98. When palpating the client’s neck for lymphadenopathy,
C. Convection where should the nurse position himself?
D. Evaporation
A. At the client’s back
90. Which of the following is a primary factor that affects the B. At the client’s right side
BP? C. At the client’s left side
D. In front of a sitting client
A. Obesity
B. Age 99. Which of the following is the best position for the client
C. Stress to assume if the back is to be examined by the nurse?
D. Gender
A. Standing
91. The following are social data about the client except B. Sitting
C. Side lying
A. Patient’s lifestyle D. Prone
B. Religious practices
C. Family home situation 100. In assessing the client’s chest, which position best show
D. Usual health status chest expansion as well as its movements?

92. The best position for any procedure that involves vaginal A. Sitting
and cervical examination is B. Prone
C. Sidelying
A. Dorsal recumbent D. Supine
B. Side lying
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy

93. Measure the leg circumference of a client with bipedal

edema is best done in what position?

A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Sitting
C. Standing
D. Supine

94. In palpating the client’s abdomen, Which of the following

is the best position for the client to assume?

A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Side lying
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy

95. Rectal examination is done with a client in what position?

A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Sims position
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy

96. Which of the following is a correct nursing action when

collecting urine specimen from a client with an Indwelling
catheter?

A. Collect urine specimen from the drainage bag

B. Detach catheter from the connecting tube and draw the
specimen from the port
C. Use sterile syringe to aspirate urine specimen from the
drainage port
D. Insert the syringe straight to the port to allow self sealing
of the port

97. Which of the following is inappropriate in collecting mid

stream clean catch urine specimen for urine analysis?
Fundamentals Of Nursing : Infection, Asepsis, Basic concept every aspect of digestion that is controlled by
of stress and Illness Correct Answers and Rationales Parasympathetic nervous system is inhibited when the SNS
dominates.
Fundamentals Of Nursing : Infection, Asepsis, Basic concept
of stress and Illness 3. State in which a person’s physical, emotional, intellectual,
By : Budek and social development or spiritual functioning is diminished
http://www.pinoybsn.tk or impaired compared with a previous experience.

FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST II A. Illness

B. Disease
CONTENT OUTLINE C. Health
D. Wellness
1. Illness
2. Infection and Asepsis * Disease is a PROVEN FACT based on a medical theory,
3. Basic concept of Stress and Adaptation standards, diagnosis, and clinical feature while ILLNESS Is a
subjective state of not feeling well based on subjective
appraisal, previous experience, peer advice etc.
1. When the General adaptation syndrome is activated,
FLIGHT OR FIGHT response sets in. Sympathetic nervous 4. This is the first stage of illness wherein; the person starts
system releases norepinephrine while the adrenal medulla to believe that something is wrong. Also known as the
secretes epinephrine. Which of the following is true with transition phase from wellness to illness.
regards to that statement?
A. Symptom Experience
A. Pupils will constrict B. Assumption of sick role
B. Client will be lethargic C. Medical care contact
C. Lungs will bronchodilate D. Dependent patient role
D. Gastric motility will increase
* A favorite board question are Stages of Illness. When a
* To better understand the concept : The autonomic nervous person starts to believe something is wrong, that person is
system is composed of SYMPATHETIC and experiencing signs and symptoms of an illness. The patient
PARASYMPATHETIC Nervous system. It is called will then ASSUME that he is sick. This is called assumption of
AUTONOMIC Because it is Involuntary and stimuli based. the sick role where the patient accepts he is Ill and try to
You cannot tell your heart to kindly beat for 60 per minute, give up some activities. Since the client only ASSUMES his
Nor, Tell your blood vessels, Please constrict, because you illness, he will try to ask someone to validate if what he is
need to wear skirt today and your varicosities are bulging. experiencing is a disease, this is now called as MEDICAL
Sympathetic Nervous system is the FIGHT or FLIGHT CARE CONTACT. The client seeks professional advice for
mechanism. When people FIGHT or RUN, we tend to validation, reassurance, clarification, and explanation of the
stimulate the ANS and dominate over SNS. Just Imagine a symptoms he is experiencing. client will then start his
person FIGHTING and RUNNING to get the idea on the signs dependent patient role of receiving care from the health care
of SNS Domination. Imagine a resting and digesting person providers. The last stage of Illness is the RECOVERY stage
to get a picture of PNS Domination. A person RUNNING or where the patient gives up the sick role and assumes the
FIGHTING Needs to bronchodilate, because the oxygen need previous normal gunctions.
is increased due to higher demand of the body. Pupils will
DILATE to be able to see the enemy clearly. Client will be 5. In this stage of illness, the person accepts or rejects a
fully alert to dodge attacks and leap through obstacles professional’s suggestion. The person also becomes passive
during running. The client's gastric motility will DECREASE and may regress to an earlier stage.
Because you cannot afford to urinate or defecate during
fighting nor running. A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
2. Which of the following response is not expected to a C. Medical care contact
person whose GAS is activated and the FIGHT OR FLIGHT D. Dependent patient role
response sets in?
* In the dependent patient role stage, Client needs
A. The client will not urinate due to relaxation of the professionals for help. They have a choice either to accept or
detrusor muscle reject the professional's decisions but patients are usually
B. The client will be restless and alert passive and accepting. Regression tends to occur more in
C. Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilation this period.
D. There will be increase glycogenolysis, Pancrease will
decrease insulin secretion 6. In this stage of illness, the person learns to accept the
illness.
* If vasodilation will occur, The BP will not increase but
decrease. It is true that Blood pressure increases during SNS A. Symptom Experience
Stimulation due to the fact that we need more BLOOD to B. Assumption of sick role
circulate during the FIGHT or FLIGHT Response because the C. Medical care contact
oxygen demand has increased, but this is facilitated by D. Dependent patient role
vasoconstriction and not vasodilation. A,B and D are all
correct. The liver will increase glycogenolysis or glycogen * Acceptance of illness occurs in the Assumption of sick role
store utilization due to a heightened demand for energy. phase of illness.
Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion because almost
7. In this stage, the person tries to find answers for his occurs together to characterize a certain disease. Tics with
illness. He wants his illness to be validated, his symptoms coprolalia, echolalia, palilalia, choreas or other movement
explained and the outcome reassured or predicted disorders are characteristics of TOURETTE SYNDROME.

A. Symptom Experience 12. A woman undergoing radiation therapy developed

B. Assumption of sick role redness and burning of the skin around the best. This is best
C. Medical care contact classified as what type of disease?
D. Dependent patient role
A. Neoplastic
* At this stage, the patient seeks for validation of his B. Traumatic
symptom experience. He wants to find out if what he feels C. Nosocomial
are normal or not normal. He wants someone to explain why D. Iatrogenic
he is feeling these signs and symptoms and wants to know
the probable outcome of this experience. * Iatrogenic diseases refer to those that resulted from
treatment of a certain disease. For example, A child
8. The following are true with regards to aspect of the sick frequently exposed to the X-RAY Machine develops redness
role except and partial thickness burns over the chest area. Neoplastic
are malignant diseases cause by proliferation of abnormally
A. One should be held responsible for his condition growing cells. Traumatic are brought about by injuries like
B. One is excused from his societal role Motor vehicular accidents. Nosocomial are infections that
C. One is obliged to get well as soon as possible acquired INSIDE the hospital. Example is UTI Because of
D. One is obliged to seek competent help catheterization, This is commonly caused by E. Coli.

* The nurse should not judge the patient and not view the 13. The classification of CANCER according to its etiology Is
patient as the cause or someone responsible for his illness. A best described as
sick client is excused from his societal roles, oblige to get
well as soon as possible, and Obliged to seek competent 1. Nosocomial
help. 2. Idiopathic
3. Neoplastic
9. Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of 4. Traumatic
individual or group to illness or accident 5. Congenital
6. Degenrative
A. Predisposing factor
B. Etiology A. 5 and 2
C. Risk factor B. 2 and 3
D. Modifiable Risks C. 3 and 4
D. 3 and 5
10. Refers to the degree of resistance the potential host has
against a certain pathogen * Aside from being NEOPLASTIC, Cancer is considered as
IDIOPATHIC because the cause is UNKNOWN.
A. Susceptibility
B. Immunity 14. Term to describe the reactiviation and recurrence of
C. Virulence pronounced symptoms of a disease
D. Etiology
A. Remission
* Immunity is the ABSOLUTE Resistance to a pathogen B. Emission
considering that person has an INTACT IMMUNITY while C. Exacerbation
susceptibility is the DEGREE of resistance. Degree of D. Subacute
resistance means how well would the individual combat the
pathogens and repel infection or invasion of these disease- 15. A type of illness characterized by periods of remission
causing organisms. A susceptible person is someone who and exacerbation
has a very low degree of resistance to combat pathogens.
An Immune person is someone that can easily repel specific A. Chronic
pathogens. However, Remember that even if a person is B. Acute
IMMUNE [ Vaccination] Immunity can always be impaired in C. Subacute
cases of chemotherapy, HIV, Burns, etc. D. Sub chronic

11. A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a * A good example is Multiple sclerosis that characterized by
disease periods of remissions and exacerbation and it is a CHRONIC
Disease. An acute and subacute diseases occur too short to
A. Syndrome manifest remissions. Chronic diseases persists longer than 6
B. Symptoms months that is why remissions and exacerbation are
C. Signs observable.
D. Etiology
16. Diseases that result from changes in the normal
* Symptoms are individual manifestation of a certain structure, from recognizable anatomical changes in an organ
disease. For example, In Tourette syndrome, patient will or body tissue is termed as
manifest TICS, but this alone is not enough to diagnose the
patient as other diseases has the same tic manifestation. A. Functional
Syndrome means COLLECTION of these symptoms that B. Occupational
C. Inorganic in the NLE. Primary refers to preventions that aims in
D. Organic preventing the disease. Examples are healthy lifestyle, good
nutrition, knowledge seeking behaviors etc. Secondary
* As the word implies, ORGANIC Diseases are those that prevention is those that deals with early diagnostics, case
causes a CHANGE in the structure of the organs and finding and treatments. Examples are monthly breast self-
systems. Inorganic diseases are synonymous with exam, Chest X-RAY, Antibiotic treatment to cure infection,
FUNCTIONAL diseases wherein, There is no evident Iron therapy to treat anemia etc. Tertiary prevention aims on
structural, anatomical or physical change in the structure of maintaining optimum level of functioning during or after the
the organ or system but function is altered due to other impact of a disease that threatens to alter the normal body
causes, which is usually due to abnormal response of the functioning. Examples are prosthetis fitting for an amputated
organ to stressors. Therefore, ORGANIC BRAIN SYNDROME leg after an accident, Self-monitoring of glucose among
is anatomic and physiologic change in the BRAIN that is NON diabetics, TPA Therapy after stroke etc.
PROGRESSIVE BUT IRREVERSIBLE caused by alteration in
structure of the brain and it's supporting structure which The confusing part is between the treatment in secondary
manifests different sign and symptoms of neurological, and treatment in tertiary. To best differentiate the two, A
physiologic and psychologic alterations. Mental disorders client with ANEMIA that is being treated with ferrous sulfate
manifesting symptoms of psychoses without any evident is considered being in the SECONDARY PREVENTION
organic or structural damage are termed as INORGANIC because ANEMIA once treated, will move the client on PRE-
PSYCHOSES while alteration in the organ structures that ILLNESS STATE again. However, in cases of ASPIRING
causes symptoms of bizaare pyschotic behavior is termed as Therapy in cases of stroke, ASPIRING no longer cure the
ORGANIC PSYCHOSES. patient or PUT HIM IN THE PRE ILLNESS STATE. ASA
therapy is done in order to prevent coagulation of the blood
17. It is the science of organism as affected by factors in that can lead to thrombus formation and another possible
their environment. It deals with the relationship between stroke. You might wonder why I spelled ASPIRIN as
disease and geographical environment. ASPIRING, Its side effect is OTOTOXICITY [ CN VIII] that
leads to TINNITUS or ringing of the ears.
A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology 21. In what level of prevention does the nurse encourage
C. Statistics optimal health and increases person’s susceptibility to
D. Geography illness?

* Ecology is the science that deals with the ECOSYSTEM and A. Primary
its effects on living things in the biosphere. It deals with B. Secondary
diseases in relationship with the environment. Epidimiology C. Tertiary
is simply the Study of diseases and its occurence and D. None of the above
distribution in man for the purpose of controlling and
preventing diseases. This was asked during the previous * The nurse never increases the person's susceptibility to
boards. illness but rather, LESSEN the person's susceptibility to
illness.
18. This is the study of the patterns of health and disease.
Its occurrence and distribution in man, for the purpose of 22. Also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE prevention.
control and prevention of disease.
A. Primary
A. Epidemiology B. Secondary
B. Ecology C. Tertiary
C. Statistics D. None of the above
D. Geography
* Secondary prevention is also known as HEALTH
* Refer to number 17. MAINTENANCE Prevention. Here, the person feels signs and
symptoms and seeks Diagnosis and treatment in order to
19. Refers to diseases that produced no anatomic changes prevent deblitating complications. Even if the person feels
but as a result from abnormal response to a stimulus. healthy, we are required to MAINTAIN our health by monthly
check-ups, Physical examinations, Diagnostics etc.
A. Functional
B. Occupational 23. PPD In occupational health nursing is what type of
C. Inorganic prevention?
D. Organic
A. Primary
* Refer to number 16. B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
20. In what level of prevention according to Leavell and D. None of the above
Clark does the nurse support the client in obtaining OPTIMAL
HEALTH STATUS after a disease or injury? * PPD or PERSONAL PROTECTIVE DEVICES are worn by the
workes in a hazardous environment to protect them from
A. Primary injuries and hazards. This is considered as a PRIMARY
B. Secondary prevention because the nurse prevents occurence of
C. Tertiary diseases and injuries.
D. None of the above
24. BCG in community health nursing is what type of
* Perhaps one of the easiest concepts but asked frequently prevention?
 Claude Bernard's concept of Health as Internal Milieu and
A. Primary the last one is Neuman's Theory.
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary 30. The theorist the advocated that health is the ability to
D. None of the above maintain dynamic equilibrium is

25. A regular pap smear for woman every 3 years after A. Bernard
establishing normal pap smear for 3 consecutive years Is B. Selye
advocated. What level of prevention does this belongs? C. Cannon
D. Rogers
A. Primary
B. Secondary * Walter Cannon advocated health as HOMEOSTASIS or the
C. Tertiary ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium. Hans Selye
D. None of the above postulated Concepts about Stress and Adaptation. Bernard
defined health as the ability to maintain internal milieu and
26. Self-monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is on Rogers defined Health as Wellness that is influenced by
what level of prevention? individual's culture.

A. Primary 31. Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?

B. Secondary
C. Tertiary A. Genetics
D. None of the above B. Age
C. Environment
27. Which is the best way to disseminate information to the D. Lifestyle
public?
32. Osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like
A. Newspaper Osteoarthritis belongs to what type of risk factor?
B. School bulletins
C. Community billboards A. Genetics
D. Radio and Television B. Age
C. Environment
* An actual board question, The best way to disseminate D. Lifestyle
information to the public is by TELEVISION followed by
RADIO. This is how the DOH establish its IEC Programs 33. Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE
other than publising posters, leaflets, and brochures. An
emerging new way to disseminate is through the internet. A. Surgical Asepsis
B. Medical Asepsis
28. Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and C. Sepsis
subparts of an individual? D. Asepsis

A. Newman * Surgical Asepsis is also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE

B. Neuman while Medical Asepsis is synonymous with CLEAN
C. Watson TECHNIQUE.
D. Rogers
34. This is a person or animal, who is without signs of illness
* The supra and subsystems are theories of Martha Rogers but harbors pathogen within his body and can be transferred
but the parts and subparts are Betty Neuman's. She stated to another
that HEALTH is a state where in all parts and subparts of an
individual are in harmony with the whole system. Margarex A. Host
Newman defined health as an EXPANDING B. Agent
CONSCIOUSNESS. Her name is Margaret not Margarex, I just C. Environment
used that to help you remember her theory of health. D. Carrier

29. The following are concept of health: 35. Refers to a person or animal, known or believed to have
been exposed to a disease.
1. Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social
wellbeing and not merely an absence of disease or infirmity. A. Carrier
2. Health is the ability to maintain balance B. Contact
3. Health is the ability to maintain internal milieu C. Agent
4. Health is integration of all parts and subparts of an D. Host
individual
36. A substance usually intended for use on inanimate
A. 1,2,3 objects, that destroys pathogens but not the spores.
B. 1,3,4
C. 2,3,4 A. Sterilization
D. 1,2,3,4 B. Disinfectant
C. Antiseptic
* All of the following are correct statement about health. The D. Autoclave
first one is the definition by WHO, the second one is from
Walter Cannon's homeostasis theory. Third one is from * Disinfectants are used on inanimate objects while
Antiseptics are intended for use on persons and other living D. Convalescent period
things. Both can kill and inhibit growth of microorganism but
cannot kill their spores. That is when autoclaving or steam * Anthrax can have an incubation period of hours to 7 days
under pressure gets in, Autoclaving can kill almost ALL type with an average of 48 hours. Since the question stated
of microoganism including their spores. exposure, we can now assume that the mailman is in the
incubation period.
37. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their
spores 41. Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in the chain of
infection that nurses can manipulate to prevent spread of
A. Sterilization infection and diseases
B. Auto claving
C. Disinfection A. Etiologic/Infectious agent
D. Medical asepsis B. Portal of Entry
C. Susceptible host
* Both A and B are capable on killing spores. Autoclaving is a D. Mode of transmission
form of Sterilization. Medical Asepsis is a PRACTICE designed
to minimize or reduce the transfer of pathogens, also known * Mode of transmission is the weakest link in the chain of
as your CLEAN TECHNIQUE. Disinfection is the PROCESS of infection. It is easily manipulated by the Nurses using the
removing pathogens but not their spores. tiers of prevention, either by instituting transmission-based
precautions, Universal precaution, or Isolation techniques.
38. The third period of infectious processes characterized by
development of specific signs and symptoms 42. Which of the following is the exact order of the infection
chain?
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period 1. Susceptible host
C. Illness period 2. Portal of entry
D. Convalescent period 3. Portal of exit
4. Etiologic agent
* In incubation period, the disease has been introduced to 5. Reservoir
the body but no sign and symptom appear because the 6. Mode of transmission
pathogen is not yet strong enough to cause it and may still
need to multiply. The second period is called prodromal A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
period. This is when the appearance of nonspecific signs and B. 5,4,2,3,6,1
symptoms sets in, This is when the sign and symptoms C. 4,5,3,6,2,1
starts to appear. Illness period is characterized by the D. 6,5,4,3,2,1
appearance of specific signs and symptoms or refer tp as
time with the greatest symptom experience. Acme is the * Chain of infection starts with the SOURCE: The etiologic
PEAK of illness intensity while the convalescent period is agent itself. It will first proliferate on a RESERVOIR and will
characterized by the abatement of the disease process or it's need a PORTAL OF EXIT to be able to TRANSMIT irslef using
gradual disappearance. a PORTAL OF ENTRY to a SUSCEPTIBLE HOST. A simple way
to understand the process is by looking at the lives of a
39. A child with measles developed fever and general young queen ant that is starting to build her colony. Imagine
weakness after being exposed to another child with rubella. the QUEEN ANT as a SOURCE or the ETIOLOGIC AGENT.
In what stage of infectious process does this child belongs? She first needs to build a COLONY, OR the RESERVOIR
where she will start to lay the first eggs to be able to
A. Incubation period produce her worker ants and soldier ants to be able to
B. Prodromal period defend and sustain the new colony. They need to EXIT
C. Illness period [PORTAL OF EXIT] their colony and crawl [MODE OF
D. Convalescent period TRANSMISSION] in search of foods by ENTERING /
INVADING [PORTAL OF ENTRY] our HOUSE [SUSCEPTIBLE
* To be able to categorize MEASLES in the Illness period, the HOST]. By imagining the Ant's life cycle, we can easily
specific signs of Fever, Koplik's Spot and Rashes must arrange the chain of infection.
appear. In the situation above, only general signs and
symptoms appeared and the Specific signs and symptoms is 43. Markee, A 15-year-old high school student asked you.
yet to appear, therefore, the illness is still in the Prodromal What is the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. You
period. Signs and symptoms of measles during the correctly answered him that Lyme disease is transmitted via
prodromal phase are Fever, fatigue, runny nose, cough, and
conjunctivitis. Koplik's spot heralds the Illness period and A. Direct contact transmission
cough is the last symptom to disappear. All of these B. Vehicle borne transmission
processes take place in 10 days that is why, Measles is also C. Air borne transmission
known as 10 day measles. D. Vector borne transmission

40. A 50-year-old mailman carried a mail with anthrax * Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia Burdorferi and is
powder in it. A minute after exposure, he still hasn’t transmitted by a TICK BITE.
developed any signs and symptoms of anthrax. In what
stage of infectious process does this man belongs? 44. The ability of the infectious agent to cause a disease
primarily depends on all of the following except
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period A. Pathogenicity
C. Illness period B. Virulence
C. Invasiveness saying Tetanus toxoid immunization is a/an
D. Non-Specificity
A. Natural active immunity
* To be able to cause a disease, A pathogen should have a B. Natural passive immunity
TARGET ORGAN/S. The pathogen should be specific to these C. Artificial active immunity
organs to cause an infection. Mycobacterium Avium is NON- D. Artificial passive immunity
SPECIFIC to human organs and therefore, not infective to
humans but deadly to birds. An immunocompromised * TT1 ti TT2 are considered the primary dose, while TT3 to
individual, especially AIDS Patient, could be infected with TT5 are the booster dose. A woman with completed
these NON-SPECIFIC diseases due to impaired immune immunization of DPT need not receive TT1 and TT2. Tetanus
system. toxoid is the actual toxin produce by clostridium tetani but
on its WEAK and INACTIVATED form. It is Artificial because
45. Contact transmission of infectious organism in the it did not occur in the course of actual illness or infection, it
hospital is usually cause by is Active because what has been passed is an actual toxin
and not a readymade immunoglobulin.
A. Urinary catheterization
B. Spread from patient to patient 50. Agatha was hacked and slashed by a psychotic man
C. Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiver while she was crossing the railway. She suffered multiple
D. Cause by unclean instruments used by doctors and nurses injuries and was injected Tetanus toxoid Immunoglobulin.
Agatha asked you, what immunity does TTIg provides? You
* The hands of the caregiver like nurses, is the main cause best answered her by saying TTIg provides
of cross contamination in hospital setting. That is why
HANDWASHING is the single most important procedure to A. Natural active immunity
prevent the occurence of cross contamination and B. Natural passive immunity
nosocomial infection. D refers to Nosocomial infection and C. Artificial active immunity
UTI is the most common noscomial infection in the hospital D. Artificial passive immunity
caused by urinary catheterization. E. Coli seems to be the
major cause of this incident. B best fits Cross Contamination, * In this scenario, Agatha was already wounded and has
it is the spread of microogranisms from patient to patient. injuries. Giving the toxin [TT Vaccine] itself would not help
Agatha because it will take time before the immune system
46. Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, produce antitoxin. What agatha needs now is a readymade
coughs or laugh that is usually projected at a distance of 3 anti toxin in the form of ATS or TTIg. This is artificial
feet. because the body of agatha did not produce it. It is passive
because her immune system is not stimulated but rather, a
A. Droplet transmission readymade Immune globulin is given to immediately supress
B. Airborne transmission the invasion.
C. Vehicle transmission
D. Vector borne transmission 51. This is the single most important procedure that
prevents cross contamination and infection
47. Considered as the first line of defense of the body
against infection A. Cleaning
B. Disinfecting
A. Skin C. Sterilizing
B. WBC D. Handwashing
C. Leukocytes
D. Immunization * When you see the word HANDWASHING as one of the
options, 90% Chance it is the correct answer in the local
* Remember that intact skin and mucus membrane is our board. Or should I say, 100% because I have yet to see
first line of defense against infection. question from 1988 to 2005 board questions that has option
HANDWASHING on it but is not the correct answer.
48. All of the following contributes to host susceptibility
except 52. This is considered as the most important aspect of
handwashing
A. Creed
B. Immunization A. Time
C. Current medication being taken B. Friction
D. Color of the skin C. Water
D. Soap
* Creed, Faith or religious belief do not affect person's
susceptibility to illness. Medication like corticosteroids could * The most important aspect of handwashing is FRICTION.
supress a person's immune system that will lead to increase The rest will just enhance friction. The use of soap lowers
susceptibility. Color of the skin could affect person's the surface tension thereby increasing the effectiveness of
susceptibility to certain skin diseases. A dark-skinned person friction. Water helps remove transient bacteria by working
has lower risk of skin cancer than a fair skinned person. Fair with soap to create the lather that reduces surface tension.
skinned person also has a higher risk for cholecystitis and Time is of essence but friction is the most essential aspect of
cholelithiasis. handwashing.

49. Graciel has been injected TT5, her last dosed for tetanus 53. In handwashing by medical asepsis, Hands are held ….
toxoid immunization. Graciel asked you, what type of
immunity is TT Injections? You correctly answer her by A. Above the elbow, The hands must always be above the
waist minutes
B. Above the elbow, The hands are cleaner than the elbow C. For boiling to be effective, a minimum of 15 minutes is
C. Below the elbow, Medical asepsis do not require hands to required
be above the waist D. It doesn’t matter how long you boil the articles, as long as
D. Below the elbow, Hands are dirtier than the lower arms the water reached 100 degree Celsius

* Hands are held BELOW the elbow in medical asepsis in * Boiling is the most common and least expensive method of
contrast with surgical asepsis, wherein, nurses are required sterilization used in home. For it to be effective, you should
to keep the hands above the waist. The rationale is because boil articles for atleast 15 minutes.
in medical asepsis, Hands are considered dirtier than the
elbow and therefore, to limit contamination of the lower 59. This type of disinfection is best done in sterilizing drugs,
arm, the hands should always be below the elbow. foods and other things that are required to be sterilized
before taken in by the human body
54. The suggested time per hand on handwashing using the
time method is A. Boiling Water
B. Gas sterilization
A. 5 to 10 seconds each hand C. Steam under pressure
B. 10 to 15 seconds each hand D. Radiation
C. 15 to 30 seconds each hand
D. 30 to 60 seconds each hand * Imagine foods and drugs that are being sterilized by a
boiling water, ethylene oxide gas and autoclave or steam
* Each hands require atleast 15 to 30 seconds of under pressure, they will be inactivated by these methods.
handwashing to effectively remove transient Ethylene oxide gas used in gas sterlization is TOXIC to
microorganisms. humans. Boiling the food will alter its consistency and
nutrients. Autoclaving the food is never performed. Radiation
55. The minimum time in washing each hand should never using microwave oven or Ionizing radiation penetrates to
be below foods and drugs thus, sterilizing them.

A. 5 seconds 60. A TB patient was discharged in the hospital. A UV Lamp

B. 10 seconds was placed in the room where he stayed for a week. What
C. 15 seconds type of disinfection is this?
D. 30 seconds
A. Concurrent disinfection
* According to Kozier, the minimum time required for B. Terminal disinfection
watching each hands is 10 seconds and should not be lower C. Regular disinfection
than that. The recommended time, again, is 15 to 30 D. Routine disinfection
seconds.
* Terminal disinfection refers to practices to remove
56. How many ml of liquid soap is recommended for pathogens that stayed in the belongings or immediate
handwashing procedure? environemnt of an infected client who has been discharged.
An example would be Killing airborne TB Bacilli using UV
A. 1-2 ml Light. Concurrent disinfection refers to ongoing efforts
B. 2-3 ml implented during the client's stay to remove or limit
C. 2-4 ml pathogens in his supplies, belongings, immediate
D. 5-10 ml environment in order to control the spread of the disease. An
example is cleaning the bedside commode of a client with
* If a liquid soap is to be used, 1 tsp [ 5ml] of liquid soap is radium implant on her cervix with a bleach disinfectant after
recommended for handwashing procedure. each voiding.

61. Which of the following is not true in implementing

medical asepsis
57. Which of the following is not true about sterilization, A. Wash hand before and after patient contact
cleaning, and disinfection? B. Keep soiled linens from touching the clothings
C. Shake the linens to remove dust
A. Equipment with small lumen are easier to clean D. Practice good hygiene
B. Sterilization is the complete destruction of all viable
microorganism including spores * NEVER shake the linens. Once soiled, fold it inwards clean
C. Some organisms are easily destroyed, while other, with surface out. Shaking the linen will further spread pathogens
coagulated protein requires longer time that has been harbored by the fabric.
D. The number of organisms is directly proportional to the
length of time required for sterilization 62. Which of the following is true about autoclaving or steam
under pressure?
* Equipments with LARGE LUMEN are easier to clean than
those with small lumen. B C and D are all correct. A. All kinds of microorganism and their spores are destroyed
by autoclave machine
58. Karlita asked you, how long should she boil her glass B. The autoclaved instruments can be used for 1 month
baby bottle in water? You correctly answered her by saying considering the bags are still intact
C. The instruments are put into unlocked position, on their
A. The minimum time for boiling articles is 5 minutes hinge, during the autoclave
B. Boil the glass baby bottler and other articles for atleast 10 D. Autoclaving different kinds of metals at one time is
advisable 67. After leech therapy, where should you put the leeches?

* Only C is correct. Metals with locks, like clamps and A. In specially marked BIOHAZARD Containers
scissors should be UNLOCKED in order to minimize stiffening B. Yellow trashcan
caused by autoclave to the hinges of these metals. NOT ALL C. Black trashcan
microorganism is destroyed by autoclaving. There are D. Leeches are brought back to the culture room, they are
recently discovered microorganism that is invulnarable to not thrown away for they are reusable
extreme heat. Autoclaved instruments are to be used within
2 weeks. Only the same type of metals should be autoclaved * Leeches, in leech therapy or LEECH PHLEBOTOMY are to
as this will alteration in plating of these metals. be disposed on a BIO HAZARD container. They are never re
used as this could cause transfer of infection. These leeches
63. Which of the following is true about masks? are hospital grown and not the usual leeches found in
swamps.
A. Mask should only cover the nose
B. Mask functions better if they are wet with alcohol 68. Which of the following should the nurse AVOID doing in
C. Masks can provide durable protection even when worn for preventing spread of infection?
a long time and after each and every patient care
D. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter organism as A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent injuries
small as 1 micromillimeter B. Never pointing a needle towards a body part
C. Using only Standard precaution to AIDS Patients
* only D is correct. Mask should cover both nose and mouth. D. Do not give fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables to
Masks will not function optimally when wet. Masks should be Mr. Gatchie, with Neutropenia
worn not greater than 4 hours, as it will lose effectiveness
after 4 hours. N95 mask or particulate mask can filter * Never recap needles. They are directly disposed in a
organism as small as 1 micromillimeter. puncture proof container after used. Recapping the needles
could cause injury to the nurse and spread of infection. B C
64. Where should you put a wet adult diaper? and D are all appropriate. Standard precaution is sufficient
for an HIV patient. A client with neutropenia is not given
A. Green trashcan fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables for even the non-
B. Black trashcan infective organisms found in these foods could cause severe
C. Orange trashcan infection on an immunocompromised patients.
D. Yellow trashcan
69. Where should you put Mr. Alejar, with Category II TB?
* Infectious waste like blood and blood products, wet
diapers and dressings are thrown in yellow trashcans. A. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 3 air
exchanges an hour
65. Needles, scalpels, broken glass, and lancets are B. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 6 air
considered as injurious wastes. As a nurse, it is correct to exchanges an hour
put them at disposal via a/an C. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 3 air
exchanges an hour
A. Puncture proof container D. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 air
B. Reused PET Bottles exchanges an hour
C. Black trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan with a tag “INJURIOUS WASTES” * TB patients should have a private room with negative air
pressure and atleast 6 to 12 air exhanges per hour. Negative
* Needles, scalpels and other sharps are to be disposed in a pressure room will prevent air inside the room from
puncture proof container. escaping. Air exchanges are necessary since the client's
room do not allow air to get out of the room.
66. Miranda Priestly, an executive of RAMP magazine, was
diagnosed with cancer of the cervix. You noticed that the 70. A client has been diagnosed with RUBELLA. What
radioactive internal implant protrudes to her vagina were precaution is used for this patient?
supposedly, it should be in her cervix. What should be your
initial action? A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
A. Using a long forceps, push it back towards the cervix then C. Droplet precaution
call the physician D. Contact precaution
B. Wear gloves, remove it gently and place it on a lead
container * Droplet precaution is sufficient on clients with RUBELLA or
C. Using a long forceps, remove it and place it on a lead german measles.
container
D. Call the physician, You are not allowed to touch, re insert 71. A client has been diagnosed with MEASLES. What
or remove it precaution is used for this patient?

* A dislodged radioactive cervical implant in brachytherapy A. Standard precaution

are to be picked by a LONG FORCEP and stored in a LEAD B. Airborne precaution
CONTAINER in order to prevent damage on the client's C. Droplet precaution
normal tissue. Calling the physician is the second most D. Contact precaution
appropriate action among the choices. A nurse should never
attempt to put it back nor, touch it with her bare hands. * Measles is highly communicable and more contagious than
Rubella, it requires airborne precaution as it is spread by
small particle droplets that remains suspended in air and D. No specific order, it’s up to the nurse for her own
disperesed by air movements. convenience

72. A client has been diagnosed with IMPETIGO. What * Gloves are put on the non-dominant hands first and then,
precaution is used for this patient? the dominant hand. The rationale is simply because humans
tend to use the dominant hand first before the non-dominant
A. Standard precaution hand. Out of 10 humans that will put on their sterile gloves,
B. Airborne precaution 8 of them will put the gloves on their non-dominant hands
C. Droplet precaution first.
D. Contact precaution
77. As the scrubbed nurse, when should you apply the
* Impetigo causes blisters or sores in the skin. It is generally goggles, shoe cap and mask prior to the operation?
caused by GABS or Staph Aureaus. It is spread by skin to
skin contact or by scratching the lesions and touching A. Immediately after entering the sterile field
another person's skin. B. After surgical hand scrub
C. Before surgical hand scrub
73. The nurse is to insert an NG Tube when suddenly, she D. Before entering the sterile field
accidentally dips the end of the tube in the client’s glass
containing distilled drinking water which is definitely not * The nurse should put his goggles, cap, and mask prior to
sterile. As a nurse, what should you do? washing the hands. If he washes his hands prior to putting
all these equipments, he must wash his hands again as
A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG Tube these equipments are said to be UNSTERILE.
B. Obtain a new NG Tube for the client
C. Disinfect the NG Tube before reinserting it again 78. Which of the following should the nurse do when
D. Ask your senior nurse what to do applying gloves prior to a surgical procedure?

* The digestive tract is not sterile, and therefore, simple A. Slipping gloved hand with all fingers when picking up the
errors like this would not cause harm to the patient. NGT second glove
tube need not be sterile, and so is colostomy and rectal B. Grasping the first glove by inserting four fingers, with
tubes. Clean technique is sufficient during NGT and thumbs up underneath the cuff
colostomy care. C. Putting the gloves into the dominant hand first
D. Adjust only the fitting of the gloves after both gloves are
74. All of the following are principle of SURGICAL ASEPSIS on
except
* The nurse should only adjust fitting of the gloves when
A. Microorganism travels to moist surfaces faster than with they are both on the hands. Not doing so will break the
dry surfaces sterile technique. Only 4 gingers are slipped when picking up
B. When in doubt about the sterility of an object, consider it the second gloves. You cannot slip all of your fingers as the
not sterile cuff is limited and the thumb would not be able to enter the
C. Once the skin has been sterilized, considered it sterile cuff. The first glove is grasp by simply picking it up with the
D. If you can reach the object by overreaching, just move first 2 fingers and a thumb in a pinching motion. Gloves are
around the sterile field to pick it rather than reaching for it put on the non-dominant hands first.

* Human skin is impossible to be sterilized. It contains 79. Which gloves should you remove first?
normal flora of microorganism. A B and D are all correct.
A. The glove of the non-dominant hand
75. Which of the following is true in SURGICAL ASEPSIS? B. The glove of the dominant hand
C. The glove of the left hand
A. Autoclaved linens and gowns are considered sterile for D. Order in removing the gloves Is unnecessary
about 4 months as long as the bagging is intact
B. Surgical technique is a sole effort of each nurse * Gloves are worn in the non-dominant hand first and is
C. Sterile conscience, is the best method to enhance sterile removed also from the non-dominant hand first. Rationale is
technique simply because in 10 people removing gloves, 8 of them will
D. If a scrubbed person leaves the area of the sterile field, use the dominant hand first and remove the gloves of the
He/she must do handwashing and gloving again, but the non-dominant hand.
gown need not be changed.
80. Before a surgical procedure, Give the sequence on
* Sterile conscience, or the moral imperative of a nurse to be applying the protective items listed below
honest in practicing sterile technique, is the best method to
enhance sterile technique. Autoclaved linens are considered 1. Eye wear or goggles
sterile only within 2 weeks even if the bagging is intact. 2. Cap
Surgical technique is a team effort of each nurse. If a 3. Mask
scrubbed person leaves the sterile field and area, he must do 4. Gloves
the process all over again. 5. Gown

76. In putting sterile gloves, which should be gloved first? A. 3,2,1,5,4

B. 3,2,1,4,5
A. The dominant hand C. 2,3,1,5,4
B. The non-dominant hand D. 2,3,1,4,5
C. The left hand
* The nurse should use CaMEy Hand and Body Lotion in
moisturizing his hand before surgical procedure and after 84. The nurse enters the room of the client on airborne
handwashing. Ca stands for CAP, M stands for MASK, Ey precaution due to tuberculosis. Which of the following are
stands for eye goggles. The nurse will do handwashing and appropriate actions by the nurse?
then [HAND], Don the gloves first and wear the Gown
[BODY]. I created this mnemonic and I advise you use it 1. She wears mask, covering the nose and mouth
because you can never forget Camey hand and body lotion. [ 2. She washes her hands before and after removing gloves,
Yes, I know it is spelled as CAMAY ]] after suctioning the client’s secretion
3. She removes gloves and hands before leaving the client’s
81. In removing protective devices, which should be the room
exact sequence? 4. She discards contaminated suction catheter tip in trashcan
found in the clients room
1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap A. 1,2
3. Mask B. 1,2,3
4. Gloves C. 1,2,3,4
5. Gown D. 1,3

A. 4,3,5,1,2 * All soiled equipments use in an infectious client are

B. 2,3,1,5,4 disposed INSIDE the client's room to prevent contamination
C. 5,4,3,2,1 outside the client's room. The nurse is correct in using Mask
D. 1,2,3,4,5 the covers both nose and mouth. Hands are washed before
and after removing the gloves and before and after you
* When the nurse is about to remove his protective devices, enter the client's room. Gloves and contaminated suction tip
the nurse will remove the GLOVES first followed by the are thrown in trashcan found in the clients room.
MASK and GOWN then, other devices like cap, shoe cover,
etc. This is to prevent contamination of hair, neck, and face 85. When performing surgical hand scrub, which of the
area. following nursing action is required to prevent
contamination?
82. In pouring a plain NSS into a receptacle located in a
sterile field, how high should the nurse hold the bottle above 1. Keep fingernail short, clean and with nail polish
the receptacle? 2. Open faucet with knee or foot control
3. Keep hands above the elbow when washing and rinsing
A. 1 inch 4. Wear cap, mask, shoe cover after you scrubbed
B. 3 inches
C. 6 inches A. 1,2
D. 10 inches B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
* Even if you do not know the answer to this question, you D. 2,3,4
can answer it correctly by imagining. If you pour the NSS
into a receptacle 1 to 3 inch above it, Chances are, the * Cap, mask and shoe cover are worn BEFORE scrubbing.
mouth of the NSS bottle would dip into the receptacle as you
fill it, making it contaminated. If you pour the NSS bottle into 86. When removing gloves, which of the following is an
a receptacle 10 inches above it, that is too high, chances inappropriate nursing action?
are, as you pour the NSS, most will spill out because the
force will be too much for the buoyant force to handle. It will A. Wash gloved hand first
also be difficult to pour something precisely into a receptacle B. Peel off gloves inside out
as the height increases between the receptacle and the C. Use glove to glove skin to skin technique
bottle. 6 inches is the correct answer. It is not to low nor too D. Remove mask and gown before removing gloves
high.
* Gloves are the dirtiest protective item nurses are wearing
83. The tip of the sterile forceps is considered sterile. It is and therefore, the first to be removed to prevent spread of
used to manipulate the objects in the sterile field using the microorganism as you remove the mask and gown.
non-sterile hands. How should the nurse hold a sterile
forceps? 87. Which of the following is TRUE in the concept of stress?

A. The tip should always be lower than the handle A. Stress is not always present in diseases and illnesses
B. The tip should always be above the handle B. Stress are only psychological and manifests psychological
C. The handle and the tip should be at the same level symptoms
D. The handle should point downward and the tip, always C. All stressors evoke common adaptive response
upward D. Hemostasis refers to the dynamic state of equilibrium

* A sterile forcep is usually dipped into a disinfectant or * All stressors evoke common adaptive response. A
germicidal solution. Imagine, if the tip is HIGHER than the psychologic fear like nightmare and a real fear or real
handle, the solution will go into the handle and into your perceive threat evokes common manifestation like
hands and as you use the forcep, you will eventually lower tachycardia, tachypnea, sweating, increase muscle tension
its tip making the solution in your hand go BACK into the tip etc. ALL diseases and illness causes stress. Stress can be
thus contaminating the sterile area of the forcep. To prevent both REAL or IMAGINARY. Hemostasis refers to the ARREST
this, the tip should always be lower than the handle. In of blood flowing abnormally through a damage vessel.
situation questions like this, IMAGINATION is very important. Homeostasis is the one that refers to dynamic state of
equilibrium according to Walter Cannon. D. Death can ensue

88. According to this theorist, in his modern stress theory, * Death can ensue as early as the stage of alarm.
Stress is the non specific response of the body to any Exhaustion results to a prolonged exposure to stress.
demand made upon it. Resistance is when the levels of resistance increases and
characterized by being able to adapt.
A. Hans Selye
B. Walter Cannon 92. The stage of GAS where the adaptation mechanism
C. Claude Bernard begins
D. Martha Rogers
A. Stage of Alarm
* Hans Selye is the only theorist who proposed an intriguing B. Stage of Resistance
theory about stress that has been widely used and accepted C. Stage of Homeostasis
by professionals today. He conceptualized two types of D. Stage of Exhaustion
human response to stress, The GAS or general adaptation
syndrome which is characterized by stages of ALARM, * Adaptation mechanisms begin in the stage of alarm. This is
RESISTANCE and EXHAUSTION. The Local adaptation when the adaptive mechanism are mobilized. When
syndrome controls stress through a particular body part. someone shouts SUNOG!!! your heart will begin to beat
Example is when you have been wounded in your finger, it faster, you vessels constricted and bp increased.
will produce PAIN to let you know that you should protect
that particular damaged area, it will also produce 93. Stage of GAS Characterized by adaptation
inflammation to limit and control the spread of injury and
facilitate healing process. Another example is when you are A. Stage of Alarm
frequently lifting heavy objects, eventually, you arm, back B. Stage of Resistance
and leg muscles hypertorphies to adapt to the stress of C. Stage of Homeostasis
heavy lifting. D. Stage of Exhaustion

89. Which of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to the 94. Stage of GAS wherein, the Level of resistance are
concept of Modern Stress Theory? decreased

A. Stress is not a nervous energy A. Stage of Alarm

B. Man, whenever he encounters stresses, always adapts to B. Stage of Resistance
it C. Stage of Homeostasis
C. Stress is not always something to be avoided D. Stage of Exhaustion
D. Stress does not always lead to distress
* Resistance are decreased in the stage of alarm. Resistance
* Man, do not always adapt to stress. Sometimes, stress can is absent in the stage of exhaustion. Resistance is increased
lead to exhaustion and eventually, death. A,C and D are all in the stage of resistance.
correct.
95. Where in stages of GAS does a person moves back into
90. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the HOMEOSTASIS?
concept of Modern Stress Theory?
A. Stage of Alarm
A. Stress is essential B. Stage of Resistance
B. Man does not encounter stress if he is asleep C. Stage of Homeostasis
C. A single stress can cause a disease D. Stage of Exhaustion
D. Stress always leads to distress
96. Stage of GAS that results from prolonged exposure to
* Stress is ESSENTIAL. No man can live normally without stress. Here, death will ensue unless extra adaptive
stress. It is essential because it is evoked by the body's mechanisms are utilized
normal pattern of response and leads to a favorable adaptive
mechanism that are utilized in the future when more A. Stage of Alarm
stressors are encountered by the body. Man can encounter B. Stage of Resistance
stress even while asleep, example is nightmare. Disease are C. Stage of Homeostasis
multifactorial, No diseases are caused by a single stressors. D. Stage of Exhaustion
Stress are sometimes favorable and are not always a cause
for distress. An example of favorable stress is when a 97. All but one is a characteristic of adaptive response
carpenter meets the demand and stress of everyday work.
He then develops calluses on the hand to lessen the A. This is an attempt to maintain homeostasis
pressure of the hammer against the tissues of his hand. He B. There is a totality of response
also develop larger muscle and more dense bones in the C. Adaptive response is immediately mobilized, doesn’t
arm, thus, a stress will lead to adaptations to decrease that require time
particular stress. D. Response varies from person to person

91. Which of the following is TRUE in the stage of alarm of * Aside from having limits that leads to exhaustion. Adaptive
general adaptation syndrome? response requires time for it to act. It requires energy,
physical and psychological taxes that needs time for our
A. Results from the prolonged exposure to stress body to mobilize and utilize.
B. Levels or resistance is increased
C. Characterized by adaptation 98. Andy, a newly hired nurse, starts to learn the new
technology and electronic devices at the hospital. Which of
the following mode of adaptation is Andy experiencing?

A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode

B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode

99. Andy is not yet fluent in French, but he works in Quebec

where majority speaks French. He is starting to learn the
language of the people. What type of adaptation is Andy
experiencing?

A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode

B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode

* Sociocultural adaptive modes include language,

communication, dressing, acting, and socializing in line with
the social and cultural standard of the people around the
adapting individual.

100. Andy made an error and his senior nurse issued a

written warning. Andy arrived in his house mad and kicked
the door hard to shut it off. What adaptation mode is this?

A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode

B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode

* Andy uses a defense mechanism called DISPLACEMENT.

All DMs are categorized as PSYCHOLOGIC ADAPTIVE
RESPONSE to stressors.