IFR Comms

01 Definitions
1. Q(6434) VMC is:
A. Concerns the way in which instrument flight rules may be interpreted.
B. Short for Very Marginal Conditions as broadcast by VOLMET.
C. Only to be used under direct air traffic control.
D. Short for Visual Meteorological conditions.
2. Q(75) What does the term "broadcast" mean?
A. A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station.
B. A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific
station or stations.
C. A radiotelephony transmission from ground station to aircraft in flight.
D. A transmission containing meteorological and operational information to aircraft engaged
in flights over remote and oceanic areas out of rangen of VHF ground stations.
3. Q(468) What does the abbreviation "SAR" mean?
A. Standard arrival route.
B. Search and rescue.
C. Secondary altimeter responder.
D. Surveillance airport radar.
4. Q(6435) The Q code for height is:
A. QFE
B. QUJ
C. QDM
D. QNH
5. Q(583) What does the term "way point" mean:
A. A signal indicating the direction of the runway-in-use
B. A general term meaning the taxiway- and the runway-system of an international airport
C. A specified geographical position used to define an area navigation route or the flight path
of an aircraft employing area navigation
D. A defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation
system
6. Q(76) What does the term "air-ground communication" mean?
A. Any communication from aircraft to ground station requiring handling by the Aeronautical
Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN)
B. Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface of the
earth
C. One-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the earth
D. One-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the earth
7. Q(586) What does "SELCAL" mean:
A. A system in which radiotelephony communication between two stations can take place in
both directions simultaneously
B. A system which permits the selective calling of individual aircraft over radiotelephone
channels linking a ground station with the aircraft
C. A system provided for direct exchange of information between air traffic services (ATS)
units
D. A system in which radiotelephony communication can be established between aircraft only
8. Q(470) What does the abbreviation "ATIS" mean?
A. Air traffic information service.
B. Airport terminal information service.
C. Automatic terminal information system.
D. Automatic terminal information service.
9. Q(1314) QFE is the RTF Q-code to indicate:
A. The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).
B. The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain the flight level reference datum.
C. The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest fixed obstacle located on the surface of an
aerodrome.
D. The atmospheric pressure corrected to the aircraft cockpit height.
10. Q(6433) The abbreviation for a control zone is:
A. CTZ
B. CTA
C. CTR
D. ATZ
11. Q(589) What does the abbreviation "RVR" mean:
A. Radar vectors requested
B. Runway visibility report
C. Recleared via route...
D. Runway visual range
12. Q(587) What does the abbreviation "SSR" mean:
A. Standard snow report
B. Search and surveillance radar
C. Secondary surveillance radar
D. Surface strength of runway
13. Q(588) What does the abbrevation "RNAV" mean:
A. Radar aided navigation
B. Radio navigation
C. Route navigation
D. Area navigation
14. Q(464) What does the abbreviation "H24" mean?
A. Sunrise to sunset.
B. No specific working hours.
C. Continuous day and night service.
D. Sunset to sunrise.
15. Q(584) What does the abbrevation "INS" mean:
A. Instrument navigation system
B. International NOTAM system
C. Inertial navigation system
D. International navigation service
16. Q(579) What does the term "Expected Approach Time" mean:
A. The holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for
a landing will be initiated
B. The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated
navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome
C. The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination
aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing
D. The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the
holding point to complete its approach for a landing
17. Q(6430) A FIR is defined as:
A. A region containing only uncontrolled airspace.
B. A portion of airspace where flight information and alerting service is provided.
C. Airspace outside airways.
D. A region containing only controlled airspace.
18. Q(461) What does the abbreviation "IMC" mean?
A. International meteorological channel.
B. Instrument meteorological conditions.
C. In most cases.
D. In meteorological conditions.
19. Q(6432) The abbreviation HJ in the operating hours column for an aerodrome means that
the aerodrome:
A. Opens from sunrise to sunset.
B. Requires prior permission from inbound aircraft.
C. Open from sunset to sunrise.
D. Unspecified opening hours.
20. Q(581) What does the term "clearance limit" mean:
A. The time after which an air traffic control clearance will be automatically cancelled if the
flight has not been commenced
B. The time of expiry of an air traffic control clearance
C. The time at which an aircraft is given an air traffic control clearance
D. The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance
21. Q(6436) A Flight Safety message is one that:
A. Concerns direction finding and aircraft navigation.
B. Is of immediate concern to an aircraft in flight or preparing to depart.
C. Concerns the operation and maintenance of the facilities at an aerodrome.
D. Concerns the safety of an aircraft but does not require immediate assistance.
22. Q(585) What does the abbrevation "MLS" mean:
A. Mean sea level
B. Microwave landing system
C. Minimum sector level
D. Minimum safe level
23. Q(6437) The priority of the message LINE UP is:
A. Same as WORK IN PROGRESS IN TAXIWAY.
B. Greater than REQUEST QDM.
C. Less than CLEAR TO LAND.
D. Same as TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20.
24. Q(580) When flying in accordance with IFR, which of the following best describes the
term "Visual approach" ?
A. An approach executed by an IFR flight unable to maintain VMC
B. A visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather conditions at the
aerodrome of destination are equal to or better than required
VMC minima
C. An extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring an aircraft into position for
landing on a runway which is not suitably located for
straight-in-approach
D. An approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure
is not completed and the approach is executed in
visual reference to terrain
25. Q(6431) The abbreviation HX in operating hours of an aerodrome means that the airfield:
A. Open between sunset and sunrise.
B. Open on request.
C. Open between sunrise and sunset.
D. Opening hours are not specified.
26. Q(467) What does the abbreviation "AIS" mean?
A. Aerodrome identification signal-area.
B. Aerodrome information service.
C. Aeronautical information service.
D. Airport information system.
27. Q(1315) QNH is the Q-code to indicate:
A. The atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP).
B. The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).
C. The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground.
D. The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an
aerodrome.
02 General Operating Procedures
1. Q(3009) What does the word "recleared" mean?
A. Permission for proposed action granted.
B. A change has been made to your last clearance.
C. An error has been made in my last transmission.
D. Consider that transmission as not sent.
2. Q(1326) What does the word "disregard" mean?
A. Consider that transmission as not sent.
B. Wait and I will call you.
C. An error has been made in this transmission.
D. Annul the previously transmitted clearance.
3. Q(2913) What does the word "check" mean?
A. I understand your message.
B. Confirm your last transmission.
C. Examine a system or procedure.
D. Read back my last instruction.
4. Q(592) Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency
118,0. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this
instruction:
A. Changing to ARRIVAL Fastair 345
B. 118,0 Fastair 345
C. Changing over Fastair 345
D. Stephenville ARRIVAL Fastair 345
5. Q(1793) What does the word "approved" mean?
A. Authorized to proceed under the conditions specified.
B. That is correct.
C. I repeat for clarity or emphasis.
D. Permission for proposed action granted.
6. Q(595) What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating area
control centre (no radar):
A. ...APPROACH
B. ...RADAR
C. ...CENTRE
D. ...CONTROL
7. Q(597) What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach
control radar arrivals:
A. ...DIRECTOR
B. ...RADAR
C. ...ARRIVAL
D. ...APPROACH
8. Q(1794) Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate a separation between portions of a
message?
A. I say again.
B. Break.
C. Over.
D. Stop.
9. Q(507) What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing approach
control (no radar service) ?
A. ARRIVAL
B. APPROACH
C. RADAR
D. CONTROL
10. Q(2916) What does the word "contact" mean?
A. Radar contact established.
B. Establish radio contact with... .
C. Listen out on (frequency) .
D. That is correct.
11. Q(6439) When flying on a SW heading at 3500 ft you would report your heading and
level as:
A. HEADING 225 AT THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED
B. SOUTHWEST AT THREE FIVE ZERO ZERO
C. HEADING 225 AT THIRTY FIVE HUNDRED
D. HEADING 045 AT THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED
12. Q(6444) The callsign for a station providing flight information service is:
A. INFORMATION
B. CLEARANCE
C. TOWER
D. CONTROL
13. Q(605) Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted?
A. Aircraft identification, position, level
B. Aircraft identification, position, next position
C. Aircraft identification, position, time, level
D. Aircraft identification, position, time
14. Q(604) ATC clears Fastair 345 to descend from FL 100 to FL 80. What is the correct
readback by the pilot:
A. Leaving 100 to 80, Fastair 345
B. Down to flight level 80, Fastair 345
C. Leaving flight level 100 descending to flight level 80, Fastair 345
D. Descending to 80, Fastair 345
15. Q(5613) To indicate that he is no longer occupying the active runway a pilot shall report
to the controller:
A. Runway free.
B. Clear of runway.
C. Runway vacated.
D. Runway cleared.
16. Q(1792) What does the word "acknowledge" mean?
A. Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received.
B. Let me know that you have received and understood this message.
C. Repeat all of your last transmission.
D. Pass me the following information.
17. Q(1795) What does the word "cancel" mean?
A. A change has been made to your last clearance.
B. Wait and I will call you.
C. Consider that transmission as not sent.
D. Annul the previously transmitted clearance.
18. Q(6441) Which phraseology should a pilot use to inform ATC that he is initiating a
missed approach procedure:
A. Pulling up
B. Going around
C. Missed approach
D. Overshooting
19. Q(11587) After the Resolution Advisory (RA) response is completed and a return to the
ATC clearance or instruction is initiated, pilots should use
the following phraseology:
A. "Clear of conflict, returning to (assigned clearance)"
B. "Roger RA"
C. "Clear of RA, returning to (assigned clearance)"
D. "Clear of conflict"
20. Q(5618) When an aeronautical station broadcasts information to more than one station,
the call starts with:
A. "Message to all aircraft on this frequency"
B. "Please listen"
C. "General broadcast"
D. "All stations"
21. Q(596) What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating
approach control radar departures:
A. ...DEPARTURE
B. ...RADAR
C. ...CONTROL
D. ...APPROACH
22. Q(603) What shall the pilot's readback be for "climb to 2500 feet":
A. Climbing to two point five
B. Up to two thousand five hundred
C. Climbing to two thousand five hundred feet
D. Climbing to two thousand five hundred
23. Q(1327) What phrase shall be used when asking for the readability of a transmission?
A. Read you loud and clear.
B. How do you read?
C. Report readability.
D. Read back.
24. Q(6447) On the readability scale what does "read you 1" mean?
A. Unreadable.
B. Readable but with difficulty.
C. Perfectly readable.
D. Readable.
25. Q(3007) What does the word "negative" mean?
A. Consider that transmission as not sent.
B. That is not correct.
C. I say again.
D. Annul the previously transmitted clearance.
26. Q(602) What shall the pilot's readback be for "Climb to FL 280":
A. Climbing to two eighty
B. Climbing to flight level two eighty
C. Climbing to flight level two eight zero
D. Climbing two eight zero
27. Q(1328) What does the word "negative" mean?
A. Permission not granted.
B. Consider that transmission as not sent.
C. Proposed action granted.
D. Disregard last instruction.
28. Q(2917) Which word or phrase shall be used in order to repeat for clarity or emphasis?
A. I say again.
B. Confirm.
C. Verify.
D. Read back.
29. Q(593) Which phraseology shall a pilot use if he receives an instruction from ATC which
he cannot carry out:
A. Unable to comply
B. Impossible to make it
C. Disregard
D. Negative instruction
30. Q(498) How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to abandon the take-off
manoeuvre:
A. Cancelling take-off
B. Stopping
C. Aborting take-off
D. Abandoning take-off
take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy
champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ
31. Q(263) The time is 4.15 P.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is
any possibility of confusion about the hour?
A. One six one five
B. Four fifteen P.M.
C. Sixteen fifteen
D. Four fifteen in the afternoon
32. Q(1788) Must a "general call" be acknowledged"?
A. No.
B. Yes, from all stations in the sequence they have been adressed.
C. Yes, but only from the station first called.
D. Yes, from all stations in a random sequence.
33. Q(2918) What does the word "correct" mean?
A. That is correct.
B. An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is... .
C. Negative, the correct version is... .
D. Permission for proposed action not granted.
34. Q(3011) Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say : "Reduce your rate of
speech" ?
A. Say again.
B. Speak slower.
C. Words twice.
D. Repeat.
35. Q(2919) Which word shall be used to indicate that an error has been made in a
transmission or message?
A. Disregard.
B. Correct.
C. Negative.
D. Correction.
36. Q(2914) Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed under
specified conditions?
A. I say again: proceed.
B. Go ahead.
C. Approved.
D. Cleared.
37. Q(590) What does the word "Monitor" mean:
A. Listen out on (frequency).
B. Establish radio contact with...
C. Examine a system or procedure
D. Wait and I will call you
38. Q(599) What is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial call to the aerodrome
control tower and the approach control unit, if the aircraft has
a maximum take-off weight of more than 136 tonnes:
A. Fastair 345 heavy
B. Fastair 345
C. Heavy Fastair 345
D. Fastair 345 widebody
39. Q(503) What is the correct way for the pilot to acknowledge that ATIS Information Golf
has been received:
A. We have the ATIS Golf
B. Information Golf
C. We have the information
D. Weather Golf received
40. Q(598) What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Fastair 2345?
A. No abbreviated form
B. 2345
C. Fastair 345
D. Fastair 45
41. Q(6438) When reporting a frequency the use of the word DECIMAL can be omitted:
A. When there is no likelihood of confusion.
B. Never.
C. By the ground station only.
D. After the initial call.
42. Q(5614) During radar vectoring, the controller asks the pilot of XY-ABC to turn on to
heading 360°. The correct read back of this instruction is:
A. A read back is not necessary as XY-ABC has been identified
B. Heading three hundred sixty, X-BC.
C. Heading three six zero, X-BC.
D. Heading north, X-BC.
43. Q(6440) The correct phrase to use when you want some information or approval for an
action is:
A. REQUEST
B. PASS
C. ROGER
D. REPORT
44. Q(3014) What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating
clearance delivery?
A. CLEARANCE.
B. RADIO.
C. DELIVERY.
D. CLEARANCE DELIVERY.
45. Q(6450) "Which of the following messages sent by ATC to an aircraft in flight must be
read back? 1- ""Descend altitude 3.000 ft"" 2- ""Wind 240°,
15 knots, gusts 30 knots."" 3- ""Turn right heading 210"" 4- ""reduce speed to 160 knots"" 5-
""squawk 1723"" 6- ""braking action poor"""
A. All
B. 1.3.4.5.6
C. 1,3,4,5
D. 1.2.3.5
46. Q(3012) What does the word "wilco" mean?
A. I read you five.
B. As communication is difficult, I will call you later.
C. I understand your message and will comply with it.
D. I have received all of your last transmission.
47. Q(4883) Which phrase shall be used if you want to say : ''Communication is difficult.
Please send every word or group of words twice'' ?
A. Words twice
B. Repeat twice
C. Say again, say again
D. Message second time
48. Q(601) Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back?
A. ATC clearance, speed instructions, runway state information
B. QNH, weather information, runway-in-use
C. QNH, SSR code, approach aid serviceability
D. SSR code, QNH, take-off clearance, speed instructions
49. Q(6448) What is meant by the phrase "read you 4"?
A. Readable.
B. Readable but with difficulty.
C. Perfectly readable.
D. Readable now and then.
50. Q(6451) Your action in response to the instruction from ATC to RECYCLE SQUAWK is
to?
A. Reselect the numbers on the control unit.
B. Press the IDENT button.
C. Set the numbers to 7000.
D. Switch to standby and back to ON.
51. Q(6442) The name or suffix on the callsign of an aeronautical station may be omitted:
A. Only when first used by the ground station.
B. Once satisfactory communications have been established and providing there will be no
confusion.
C. Never.
D. Provided that the aircraft is in visual contact with the aerodrome.
52. Q(6446) What is meant by the phrase "read you 2"?
A. Readable now and then.
B. Readable but with difficulty.
C. Readable.
D. Unreadable.
53. Q(1787) Which of the following calls is a "general call" ?
A. YX-DEF Stephenville CONTROL.
B. YX-ABC, YX-BCD, YX-CDE Stephenville CONTROL.
C. YX-EFG, YX-FGH over.
D. ALL STATIONS Stephenville CONTROL.
54. Q(11588) When a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA) requires deviation from an ATC
clearance, pilots should report to the controller, as soon as
practicable after he starts to deviate, with his callsign plus the phraseology:
A. "TCAS RA"
B. "TCAS Alert"
C. "TCAS TA"
D. "Clear of Conflict"
55. Q(6454) If your readback clearance is correct, ATC will say:
A. ROGER
B. GOOD
C. CONFIRMED
D. CORRECT
56. Q(6453) If a radar station says B-LOGG IDENTIFIED it means that aircraft callsign B-
LOGG:
A. Is receiving radar service.
B. Is under radar control.
C. Has been visually identified.
D. Has been identified on radar.
57. Q(489) What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13500 to indicate an altitude or
cloud height?
A. one three thousand five hundred
B. one three five hundred
C. one three five zero zero
D. thirteen thousand five hundred
58. Q(6445) When told by ATC to listen for ATIS on 123,45, you should reply with:
A. CHANGING TO ATIS
B. ROGER
C. WILCO
D. MONITORING 123,45
59. Q(6452) You are flying from an aircraft without a transponder than the reply to an
instruction to SQUAWK should be:
A. NEGATIVE
B. NO SQUAWK
C. SQUAWK NOT POSSIBLE
D. NEGATIVE TRANSPONDER
60. Q(2911) What does the phrase "break break" mean?
A. It indicates the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft in a very busy
environment.
B. The exchange of transmissions is ended and no response is expected.
C. My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.
D. It indicates the separation between portions of a message transmitted to an aircraft station.
take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy
champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ
61. Q(2909) Before transmitting the pilot should.
A. Make sure that the aircraft is levelled off.
B. Make sure that the emergency frequency is tuned in at the same time.
C. Always write the message and read it during the transmission.
D. Listen out on the frequency to ensure no interference with another station already
transmitting will occur.
62. Q(591) What does the instruction:"Fastair 345 standby 118,9 for TOWER" mean:
A. Fastair 345 should standby on the current frequency
B. Fastair 345 should contact TOWER on 118.9
C. Fastair 345 should listen on frequency 118.9 on which TOWER will initiate further
communications
D. Fastair 345 should change frequency to 118.9, on which aerodrome data are being
broadcast
63. Q(2910) What is the consequence of a microphone button stuck on transmit (switched
"on") ?
A. Other stations will have to use the "words twice" technique.
B. None.
C. The frequency can not be used by others.
D. Readability will improve for all stations.
64. Q(3013) What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station providing
radar service (in general) ?
A. CONTROL.
B. RADAR.
C. RADAR-SERVICE.
D. RADAR-CONTROL.
65. Q(496) When shall the phrase "Take-off" be used by a pilot:
A. To acknowledge take-off clearance only
B. Never, it is used only by the control tower
C. Only when the aircraft has already moved onto the active runway
D. To inform TOWER when ready for departure
66. Q(6449) An example of a Conditional clearance is:
A. AFTER THE LANDING LEARJET LINE UP
B. TAXI TO HOLDING POINT DELTA AND AWAIT FURTHER INSTRUCTIONS
C. CONTINUE PAST INTERSECTION OF RUNWAYS THEN VACATE FIRST LEFT
D. MAKE HEADING 240° AND CLIMB TO FL60
67. Q(493) Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message:
"Consider that transmission as not sent":
A. Forget it
B. Disregard
C. Cancel my last message
D. My last transmission is cancelled
68. Q(6443) Who do you talk to on the manoeuvring area?
A. TOWER
B. APPROACH
C. CLEARANCE
D. GROUND
69. Q(488) What is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency?
A. one one eight point one
B. one one eight one
C. one eighteen one
D. one one eight decimal one
70. Q(600) When shall an aircraft in the heavy-wake-turbulence category include the word
"Heavy" immediately after its call sign e.g. Fastair 345
heavy:
A. In all calls
B. Never
C. In the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit
D. In all calls to the aerodrome tower and the approach control unit
71. Q(11591) The controller shall not attempt to modify the flight control path, unless the
pilot announces:
A. "Clear of RA, returning to (assigned clearance)"
B. "Clear of conflict, returning to (assigned clearance)"
C. "Roger RA"
D. "Clear of conflict"
72. Q(2915) Which word shall be used to ask a station whether you have correctly received a
message, clearance, instruction, etc?
A. Verify.
B. Acknowledge.
C. Confirm.
D. Correct.
73. Q(269) What does the phrase "Verify" mean:
A. Repeat your last transmission
B. Check and confirm with originator
C. Consider that transmission as not sent
D. Read back VDF bearing
74. Q(3008) Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate that a change has been made to
your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes
your previous clearance or part thereof?
A. Recleared.
B. Break break.
C. Approved.
D. Cleared.
03 Communication Failure Actions
1. Q(613) Within the European Region, an aircraft experiencing radio communication failure
on an IFR departure has to squawk 7600 and:
A. Climb immediately to the cruising level indicated in the flight plan
B. Maintain the altitude last assigned by ATC for a period of 5 minutes and then continue in
accordance with the flight plan
C. Maintain the level last assigned by the ATC for a period of 7 minutes and then climb in
accordance with the flight plan
D. Land at the departure aerodrome in any case
2. Q(616) In case the transponder fails before the departure for an IFR flight, the pilot shall:
A. Inform ATC after departure
B. Insert under item 18 of the flight plan "transponder unserviceable"
C. Obtain prior permission by ATC to conduct the flight
D. Inform FIS for relay to AIS
3. Q(607) An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is
assumed to:
A. Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report its arrival
B. Leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace
C. Squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodrome
D. Continue the flight to destination aerodrome in any case
4. Q(612) An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has
to land, if possible, within:
A. 30 minutes after ETA or the last EAT, whichever is later
B. 15 minutes after vacating the transition layer
C. 30 minutes after waiting for the EAT
D. 30 minutes after noticing the radio failure
5. Q(609) An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC is
assumed to:
A. Divert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of flight
B. Proceed in accordance with the current flight plan to the designated navigation aid serving
the destination aerodrome
C. Proceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to the visual flight
rules
D. Execute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome
6. Q(614) A departing aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight
under radar vectors has to:
A. Squawk 7600, maintain present heading for 1 minute and thereafter return to the route
indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way
B. Squawk 7600 and thereafter, regardless of any limitation instructed by ATC, return to the
route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way
C. Squawk 7600 and maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for a period of 3 minutes and
then return to the flight path in accordance with the current flight plan
D. Squawk 7600 and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan in the
most direct manner
7. Q(606) Blind transmission shall be made:
A. On regional guard frequencies only
B. To all available aeronautical stations
C. On the designated frequency (frequency in use)
D. During IFR flights only
8. Q(615) In case of a SSR transponder failure occuring after departure of an IFR flight, the
pilot shall:
A. Squawk 7600
B. Inform the competent ATC unit immediately
C. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome for repair
D. Continue the flight in VMC
9. Q(611) An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has
to commence descent over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome
(no EAT received):
A. at or as close as possible to the Estimated Time of Arrival (ETA) resulting from the
Current Flight Plan (CPL).
B. 4 minutes after reaching the Initial Approach Fix (IAP).
C. at or as close as possible to the Estimated Time of Arrival (ETA) based on the Filed Flight
Plan (FPO).
D. immediately after reaching the navigation aid in any case.
10. Q(5617) The expression " transmitting blind due to receiver failure" implies that no
answer is expected. It shall be used by:
A. A radar controller performing a PAR or SRE final approach.
B. An aircraft station being aware of receiver failure
C. A ground station broadcasting information to all listening stations.
D. An aircraft station doing blind transmissions at a "non-towered" airfield
11. Q(608) An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure.
The aircraft is assumed to:
A. Return to the aerodrome of departure
B. Land at the alternate aerodrome
B. Land at the alternate aerodrome
C. Land at the destination aerodrome
D. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
12. Q(610) An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has
to hold over the designated navigation aid serving the
destination aerodrome:
A. Under no circumstances
B. Until the expected approach time last received and acknowledged
C. 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged
D. 5 minutes in any case
04Distress And Urgency Procedures
1. Q(562) The frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as:
A. A regional UHF frequency
B. An airline operation frequency
C. An international emergency frequency
D. A frequency for air-to-air communication
2. Q(6457) The condition that defines the state of an aircraft in imminent danger is:
A. Urgency
B. Pan Pan
C. Distress
D. Mayday
3. Q(4885) The urgency message to be sent by an aircraft reporting an urgency condition shall
contain at least the following elements/details:
A. Aircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, pilot's intention, present position, level
and heading
B. Name of the station addressed, present position, assistance required
C. Aircraft call sign, destination airport, ETA at destination, route of flight
D. Aircraft identification, aerodrome of departure, level and heading
4. Q(4886) Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The urgency communications have priority over all the other communications, except
distress
B. There is no difference regarding priority between distress communications and urgency
communications
C. ATC clearances have the same priority as urgency communications
D. The urgency communications have priority over all the other communications
5. Q(6456) A protected medical transport is identified by the prefix:
A. MEDICAL
B. PAN PAN PAN MEDICAL
C. AIR AMBULANCE
D. PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN
6. Q(3015) When an aircraft station receives the call "ALL STATIONS Stephenville
RADAR, stop transmitting MAYDAY" it is requested:
A. To leave the frequency in use.
B. Not to interfere with the distress communication.
C. To continue normal communication on the frequency in use.
D. To assist Stephenville RADAR in handling the distress traffic.
7. Q(617) What do the spoken words '' PAN PAN MEDICAL '' mean?
A. The aircraft has an urgent need of medical care upon landing at destination airport
B. The phrase/signal is inadmissible in radiotelephony
C. The aircraft has a sick passenger on board and requests priority to land
D. The message which follows concerns a protected medical transport operated by aircraft
assigned exclusively to medical transportation
8. Q(564) An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the ground station that:
A. There is a sick passenger on board
B. The aircraft is being hijacked
C. The aircraft's transceiver is unserviceable
D. The aircraft is in distress
9. Q(6460) You would set 7700 on the transponder when you:
A. Are being hi-jacked.
B. Suffer communications failure.
C. Are in an emergency condition.
D. Enter the UK FIR.
10. Q(4882) The distress communication and silence conditions shall be terminated by
transmitting a message. Which words shall this message include?
A. Distress traffic ended
B. Disregard distress communication, OUT
C. MAYDAY traffic ended
D. Emergency communication finished
11. Q(6461) The condition that defines the state of Urgency is that:
A. There is an emergency on the ground.
B. There is concern about the safety of the aircraft or a person on board but it does not require
immediate assistance.
C. There are warnings of severe weather that is likely to affect the aircraft.
D. The aircraft is threatened by serious or imminent danger and requires immediate
assistance.
12. Q(558) The distress signal and the distress message to be sent by an aircraft in distress be
on:
A. The regional guard frequency
B. The FIS frequency designated for the airspace concerned
C. The air-ground frequency in use at the time
D. The emergency frequency in any case
13. Q(6458) The frequency to use in the event of a Distress condition is the:
A. Frequency of the nearest Area Control Centre.
B. 121.5KHz
C. Air-ground frequency currently in use.
D. Frequency of the nearest radar station.
14. Q(582) An "Automatic Terminal Information Service" provides:
A. Information concerning en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety of
aircraft operation.
B. Routine information to arriving and departing aircraft by means of continuous and
repetitive broadcast.
C. Weather reports relating a specific number of aerodromes located within a flight
information region (FIR).
D. Current meteorological and operational information essential for the safety of the air
navigation within a FIR.
15. Q(570) On hearing an urgency message a pilot shall:
A. Monitor the frequency to ensure assistance if required
B. Impose radio silence on the frequency in use
C. Acknowledge the message immediately
D. Change the frequency, because radio silence will be imposed on the frequency in use
16. Q(6459) Setting a Squawk of 7700 indicates that you:
A. Have an emergency.
B. Are in controlled airspace.
C. Have a radio failure.
D. Are not receiving a radar service.
17. Q(618) A message concerning a protected medical transport operated by aircraft assigned
exclusively to medical transportation shall be preceded
by the signal:
A. PROTECTED TRANSPORT
B. PAN PAN TRANSPORT
C. PAN PAN MEDICAL
D. MEDICAL TRANSPORT
18. Q(567) A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN PAN, PAN
PAN, PAN PAN means:
A. An aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure
B. The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft
or other vehicle, but immediate assistance is not required
C. The aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for
immediate reclearance
D. Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required
19. Q(4881) Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to
impose silence?
A. All stations in this frequency, MAYDAY traffic
B. Stop transmitting, MAYDAY
C. Stop transmitting, DISTRESS
D. Stop transmitting, EMERGENCY
20. Q(3016) When an aircraft station receives the call "ALL STATIONS Stephenville
RADAR, distress traffic ended" it is requested:
A. To impose silence to other stations in its vicinity.
B. Discontinue communication with Stephenville RADAR.
C. Acknowledge receipt of this message.
D. To resume normal communication with Stephenville RADAR.
21. Q(556) A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY
MAYDAY MAYDAY means:
A. The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft
or vehicle
B. The aircraft is forced to perform a fuel dumping procedure
C. Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required
D. The aircraft has a message to transmit concerning adverse weather conditions along its
route of flight
22. Q(5615) Radio silence can be imposed by an aeronautical station in case of:
A. Distress traffic.
B. Overload of the frequency.
C. Technical difficulties.
D. Urgency communication.
23. Q(4884) When an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling
the distress condition. Which words shall this message
include?
A. ... distress condition terminated
B. ... cancel distress
C. ... MAYDAY, resuming normal operations
D. ... MAYDAY cancelled
24. Q(6455) The call PAN PAN MEDICAL indicates that:
A. The crew require medical aid.
B. The flight is concerning a protected medical transport pursuant to 1949 Geneva
Convention.
C. There is concern about the safety of the aircraft or a person on board but does no require
immediate assistance.
D. One of the flight crew has taken ill.
05 Relevant Weather Information Terms
1. Q(538) What does "Friction coefficient 45" in a runway report mean:
A. Braking action poor
B. Braking action not measurable
C. Braking action medium
D. Braking action good
2. Q(540) Under what runway conditions is the braking action reported to be "Unreliable":
A. Runway covered with wet snow and slush
B. Runway conditions normal
C. Runway covered with ice
D. Runway covered with dry snow
3. Q(539) What does "Friction coefficient 20" in a runway report mean:
A. Braking action poor
B. Braking action good
C. Braking action medium
D. Braking action unreliable
4. Q(6465) The VOLMET broadcasts include information about:
A. QNHs for all airfields.
B. METARs for selected airfields.
C. TAFs for selected airfields.
D. Arrival and departure details for selected airfields.
5. Q(537) When transmitting runway visual range (RVR) for runway 16 ATC will use the
following phrase:
A. The values of the transmissometer are: ... metres and ... metres
B. RVR runway 16 ... metres diagonal ... metres diagonal ... metres
C. RVR at the beginning of runway 16 is ... metres
D. RVR runway 16 touchdown ... metres, mid-point ... metres, stop end ... metres
6. Q(6463) In METARs SCATTERED means cloud cover of:
A. 5-7 octas
B. 1-2 octas
C. 3-4 octas
D. no significant cloud.
7. Q(541) If you are requested to "Report flight conditions", what does that mean:
A. Indicate whether you are flying in IMC or in VMC
B. Indicate if visibility is sufficient for landing
C. Indicate weather conditions as wind, visibility, temperature
D. Indicate whether you are flying IFR or VFR
8. Q(6462) On a METAR BROKEN means a cloud cover of:
A. 8 octas
B. 1-2 octas
C. 5-7 octas
D. 3-4 octas
9. Q(6464) The message from ATC saying VISBILITY 1200 means that the visibility is:
A. 1,2 nm
B. 1200 m
C. 1200 ft
D. 12 km
06 VHF Propagation And Allocation Of Frequencies
1. Q(6466) The band for frequencies between 118.0 to 136.975 MHz is known as the:
A. VHF band
B. HF band
C. SHF band
D. UHF band
07 Morse Code
1. Q(11589) What does TCAS mean?
A. Traffic Collision Addressing System
B. Traffic Alert System
C. Traffic Collision Avoidance System
D. Traffic Control Aircraft System
2. Q(11590) What do the initals ACARS stand for?
A. Alert Communications Addressing & Reporting System
B. Aircraft Communications Addressing & Reporting System
C. Aircraft Alert System
D. Aircraft Communication Alerting System
3. Q(11592) In the event that a controller issued a clearance or an instruction contradictory to
the TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA), the flight crew will follow the RA and inform the
controller:
A. "Unable Now"
B. "Unable to Comply"
C. "Wilco after TCAS RA"
D. "Unable, TCAS RA"