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School of Environment and Sciences (ESC)

1001NSC Human Biology

PASS PRACTICE EXAM – TRIMESTER 1, 2021 (Modules 1, 2 & 3)

There is only ONE correct answer for each question.
Each question is worth 1 mark, there are a total of 90 marks

Module 1
1. A patient comes into hospital with signs of cirrhosis and a history of chronic alcohol abuse. Using
the nine (9) abdominopelvic regional scheme, in what region is the right lobe of the liver situated?
a) Epigastric region
b) Right lumber region
c) Right hypochondriac region
d) Hypogastric region
e) Right iliac region

2. Which of the following responses is controlled by positive feedback?

a) Blood sugar levels
b) Inflammatory response
c) Breathing rate
d) Body temperature
e) Blood pressure

3. Which one of the following cells, tissues or structures is not considered as a connective tissue?
a) An erythrocyte
b) Calcaneal tendon
c) An intervertebral disc
d) Patella
e) Myocardium

4. The fluid mosaic model describes the plasma membrane as consisting of:
a) Two layers of phospholipids with protein sandwiched between them
b) A protein bilayer with embedded phospholipids
c) A phospholipid bilayer with proteins bound only to the outside by covalent bonds
d) A phospholipid single layer with embedded proteins
e) A phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins.

5. Which one of the following process could result in the net movement of a substance into a cell, if the
substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surroundings?
a) Active transport
b) Diffusion
c) Osmosis
d) Facilitated diffusion
e) None of the above choices are correct
6. The bursting of cells due to osmosis occurs in a _____________ solution.
a) isotonic
b) hypertonic
c) hypotonic
d) aqueous
e) Homogeneous

7. Functions of membrane proteins include all of the following except

a) Receptors for signal transduction
b) Cell identity marker
c) Transport substances into and out of the cell
d) Catalyse chemical reactions
e) Maintain membrane rigidity

8. Exocytosis is
a) The movement of ions down a concentration gradient
b) A specific type of phagocytosis
c) A specific type of pinocytosis
d) Used to eject wastes and to secrete cellular products
e) Not involved with the cell membrane

9. A person who just received a large knock on the head is placed face-up, flat on the floor (on their
back) with a blanket over their legs. They are said to be in the
a) Supine position
b) Prone position
c) Anatomical position
d) Semi-prone position
e) Unconscious position

10. Acts as the digestive system inside a cell. It helps to break down old or unneeded parts of the cell,
and substances that have been brought into the cell from the outside.
a) Centriole
b) Ribosome
c) Lysosome
d) Cytochrome
e) Mitochondria

11. Epithelium that appears layered due to the varying levels at which nuclei are found in cells, but in
reality, is not layered, is ____________.
a) Transitional epithelium
b) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
c) Stratified squamous epithelium
d) Stratified columnar epithelium
e) Simple columnar epithelium

12. The cells that directly and specifically secrete mucus are called ___________ cells.
a) Epithelial
b) Endocrine
c) Exocrine
d) Goblet
e) Glandular
13. Which of the following would not be classified as a clinical ‘sign’?
a) A person is sweating, and their skin is flushed and hot to touch.
b) A person has slurred speech.
c) A person is complaining of feeling nauseous and wants to vomit.
d) A person is incontinent of urine.
e) A person has an elbow that is swollen and bruised.

14. Which plane is perpendicular to the spine and divides the body into superior and inferior halves?
a) Frontal
b) Sagittal
c) Mid-sagittal
d) Transverse
e) Oblique

15. In anatomical position, palmar surface of the hands:

a) Faces posteriorly
b) Faces anteriorly
c) Faces inferiorly
d) Faces superiorly
e) None of the above because the hands and feet use different terminology.

16. Which of the following is most inferior in location?

a) Pelvic cavity
b) Mediastinum
c) Diaphragm
d) Pleural cavity
e) Cranial cavity

17. A parietal membrane __________________, whereas a visceral membrane ________________.

a) Lines cavities; covers organs
b) Covers organs; lines cavities
c) Produces mucus; secretes serous fluid
d) Secretes serous fluid; produces mucus
e) None of the above

18. The thoracic cavity holds all but which of the following.
a) Mediastinum
b) Trachea
c) Heart
d) Diaphragm
e) Oesophagus

19. ATP is used in which of these types of cell membrane transportation?

a) Facilitated diffusion
b) Osmosis
c) Primary active transport
d) Simple diffusion
e) Both c and d

20. Which of the following statements regarding medical imaging is incorrect?

a) MRI can be used on patients with metal implants in the body
b) Sonography is safe, invasive and painless
c) A swallowed coin is best seen in an X-ray
d) PET scans measure cell activity and metabolism
e) Both a and b are incorrect
21. The function of ADH (anti-diuretic hormone) is to conserve water by decreasing urine output.
According to the negative feedback mechanism, ADH will be secreted when the
a) Body is running low on water
b) Body is submerged in water
c) Body has an excess amount of water
d) Pituitary gland is extremely dry
e) Kidneys are not functioning properly

22. Which of the following is NOT a function of the cell membrane?

a) Controls the flow of substances into and out of the cells
b) Participates in intracellular signalling
c) Helps in the cell identification
d) All of the above
e) Only b and c

23. A communicating junction that allows ions and small molecules to pass from the cytoplasm of one
cell to the cytoplasm of the next is called a:
a) Desmosome
b) Gap junction
c) Tight junction
d) Adherens junction
e) Hemidesmosome

True/False Questions
24. A mature cell of the human body stores all of its DNA in the nucleus.
a) True
b) False

25. Epithelial cells usually receive nutrients from underlying tissues.

a) True
b) False

26. A single cilium is found on the end of a sperm cell and is used for movement.
a) True
b) False

27. Helical DNA wraps twice around eight (8) histone proteins to form a “bead” called a nucleotide.
a) True
b) False

28. During computerized tomography, the computer screen depicts highlighted regions of increased
metabolic rate.
a) True
b) False

29. Liver cells contain an abnormal abundance of rough endoplasmic reticulum.

a) True
b) False
30. Microtubules are hollow structures of the cytoskeleton and are composed of repeating units of actin
subunits.
a) True
b) False

Module 2
31. Which of these are a basic function of the skin?
a) Provide a physical and chemical barrier
b) Maintain body temperature
c) Vitamin D synthesis
d) All of the above

32. What do Langerhans’ cells do?

a) Present antigens to the immune system
b) Produce fibrous intermediate filament proteins
c) Secrete pigment
d) Provide structure to the rest of the tissue

33. Which best describes the stratum corneum?

a) The spiny layer
b) The granular layer
c) The horny layer
d) The clear layer

34. In what type of skin is stratum lucidum found?

a) Thin skin
b) Thick skin
c) All skin types
d) No skin types

35. Which two layers make up the dermis?

a) Papillary – loose connective tissue and dermal papillae; and reticular – dense connective tissue and
elastin
b) Reticular – loose connective tissue and dermal papillae; and papillary – dense connective tissue and
elastin
c) Elastic – dense connective tissue and elastin; and papillary – loose connective tissue and dermal
papillae
d) Reticular – dense connective tissue and elastin; and areolar – loose connective tissue and dermal
papillae

36. What are the distinguishing features of eccrine sweat glands?

a) Secretes ‘true’ sweat via ducts that lead to pores in the skin
b) Located on palms of hands, soles of feet and forehead
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

37. Where are hair follicles found in the skin?

a) In the stratum corneum, lucidum, granulosum, and spinosum
b) In the stratum corneum and lucidum
c) In the epidermis
d) In the dermis and epidermis
38. Which coat of hair is lost before birth?
a) Lanugo
b) Lunago
c) Luango
d) Lonagu

39. What type of bone is the sternum?

a) Long
b) Short
c) Flat
d) Irregular

40. Where is the yellow bone marrow found in a long bone?

a) Diaphysis
b) Medullary cavity
c) Epiphysis
d) Periosteum

41. Which of the following are structural components of spongy bone?

a) Lamella
b) Lacunae
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

42. Why do collagen fibres run in different directions in each lamella?

a) To resist torsion
b) To resist tension
c) To increase flexibility
d) To decrease rigidity

43. What is the name of the bone structure composed of concentric lamellae?
a) Trabeculae
b) Osteon
c) Spongy bone
d) Canaliculi

44. Which gland/s is/are in control of bone remodelling, and what does this remodelling lead to?
a) The parathyroid glands – leads to increased blood calcium levels
b) The thyroid gland – leads to increased blood calcium levels
c) The adrenal glands – leads to decreased blood calcium levels
d) The thyroid gland – leads to decreased blood calcium levels

45. Cartilage consists of:

a) Collagen and elastin fibres
b) Fibral fibres, elastin fibres and chondroitin sulphate
c) Fibral fibres, collagen fibres and chondroitin sulphate
d) Collagen fibres, elastin fibres and chondroitin sulphate

46. What joint structure’s purpose is to provide strength and support?

a) A tight junction
b) Cartilage
c) Fibrous connective tissue
d) A synovial joint
47. What type of joint connects the fibula and tibia in the ankle?
a) Gomphosis (fibrous Joint)
b) Syndesmosis (fibrous Joint)
c) Symphyses (cartilaginous Joint)
d) Synchondroses (cartilaginous Joint)

48. What is a bursa?

a) A section of protective cartilage
b) The end of a long bone which is encased in cartilage
c) The membrane surrounding the articular cartilage
d) A bag of lubricant which rests between surfaces to reduce friction

49. The shoulder joint has what kind of mobility?

a) Synarthroses
b) Diarthroses
c) Amphiarthroses
d) Synchondroses

50. Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early adolescence?
a) Lacunae
b) Haversian system
c) Epiphyseal plate
d) Canaliculi

51. Which type of muscle tissue can be found in the stomach?

a) Skeletal muscle
b) Stomach muscle
c) Cardiac muscle
d) Smooth muscle

52. What is the name of the membrane that surrounds each fascicle in skeletal muscles?
a) Epimysium
b) Endomysium
c) Perimysium
d) Sarcomysium

53. Which of the following are muscle fibre components?

a) Myofilaments
b) Mitochondria
c) Cytoplasm
d) Endoplasmic reticulum

54. Troponin and tropomyosin are examples of what kind of protein?

a) Contractile
b) Regulatory
c) Structural
d) Sarcomere

55. Which protein does calcium bind to in order to stimulate muscle contraction?
a) Myosin
b) Actin
c) Tropomyosin
d) Troponin
56. What type of nervous system structure stimulates skeletal muscle cells to contract?
a) Motor neurons
b) Sensory neurons
c) Schwann cells
d) The neuromuscular junction

57. What are intercalated discs?

a) The junctions between cardiac muscle cells
b) The junctions between smooth muscle cells
c) The junctions between skeletal muscle cells
d) None of the above

58. Smooth muscle tissue has how many layers?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) One, two or three

59. What differences are there between smooth muscle and skeletal muscle?
a) Actin and myosin diagonally criss-cross the cell in skeletal muscle and run parallel to the cell in
smooth muscle
b) There are fewer thick filaments in smooth muscle cells than skeletal ones
c) Smooth muscle cell contraction doesn’t require interaction between myosin heads and actin
filaments
d) Skeletal muscle contraction is slow and sustained, unlike smooth muscle

60. Rigor mortis occurs because ____________?

a) The cells are dead
b) Sodium ions leak into the muscle causing continued contractions
c) No ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
d) Proteins are beginning to break down, this preventing a flow of calcium ions

Module 3
61. At the neuromuscular junction the __________ of the post-synaptic neuron receives the
neurotransmitter
a) The dendrites
b) A node of Rangier
c) The synaptic endbulbs
d) The soma

62. Schwann cells are present in

a) All types of nerve axons
b) Central Nervous System myelinated axons
c) Unmyelinated axons
d) Peripheral Nervous System myelinated axons

63. In the spinal cord, the white matter is centre of the spinal cord.
a) True
b) False
Refer to the graph below to answer questions 62-68:

64. Site “C” corresponds to the resting membrane potential

a) True
b) False

65. At site “A,” the voltage-gated sodium channels start to close

a) True
b) False

66. Potassium ions are entering the axon at site “D.”

a) True
b) False

67. The sodium-potassium pump is primarily responsible for the resting membrane potential at site
“E.”
a) True
b) False

68. Site “B” is typically referred to as “Threshold.”

a) True
b) False

69. How many ventricles are there in the brain?

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

70. The parietal lobe

a) contains the primary motor cortex
b) contains the primary sensory cortex
c) contains the primary vision centre
d) contains the primary olfactory centre

71. The occipital lobe of the brain controls which function

a) Eyesight
b) Auditory
c) Memory
d) Emotional Expression
72. The area of the brain that regulates posture and balance (i.e. walking and arm-swing) is the
a) limbic system
b) cerebrum
c) cerebellum
d) thalamus

73. Which of the following is a function of the medulla oblongata

a) the control of the posterior pituitary gland
b) the control of the vomit and cough reflexes
c) the regulation of body temperature
d) the regulation of water balance and thirst sensation

74. The subarachnoid space is found between

a) arachnoid mater and pia mater
b) dura mater and skull bone
c) pia mater and the cerebrum surface
d) none of the above

75. What is the term for the “crossing over” of nerve fibres as they pass through the medulla?
a) precipitation
b) commissural
c) condensation
d) decussation

76. Which of the following is NOT myelinated

a) all somatic motor neurons
b) pre-ganglionic neurons of the Autonomic NS
c) post-ganglionic neurons of the Autonomic NS
d) none of the above
77. From deep to superficial, the layers of connective tissue surrounding a peripheral nerve are:
a) perineurium, epineurium, endoneurium
b) endoneurium, perineurium, epineurium
c) epineurium, perineurium, endoneurium
d) endoneurium, epineurium, perineurium

78. Sensory information is transmitted through the:

a) dorsal horn
b) ventral horn
c) lateral horn
d) All of the above
79. Auditory receptors are _________ that detect ___________.
a) mechanoreceptors; sound
b) chemoreceptors; taste
c) chemoreceptors; sound
d) photoreceptors; vision

80. _________ detect mechanical stimuli and _________ detect pain stimuli.
a) mechanoreceptors; photoreceptors
b) thermoreceptors; nocireceptors
c) mechanoreceptors; nocireceptors
d) thermoreceptors; chemoreceptors
81. Olfactory receptors are _________ that detect _________.
a) mechanoreceptors; sound
b) chemoreceptors; taste
c) chemoreceptors; smell
d) photoreceptors; vision
82. There are ____ pairs of cranial nerves and ____ of spinal nerves.
a) 10; 21
b) 11; 20
c) 15; 31
d) 12; 31
83. Which type of response are pupil and airway constriction?
a) central
b) somatic
c) sympathetic
d) parasympathetic

84. A humeral stimulus for hormone release is caused by:

a) nervous input
b) the release of a different hormone
c) changes in the level of a certain substance in the blood
d) a good joke

85. The actions of hormones are _____ and _______ than neurons.
a) faster; longer lasting
b) faster; shorter lasting
c) slower; longer lasting
d) slower; shorter lasting
86. The posterior pituitary gland secretes...
a) Oxytocin
b) hGH
c) TSH
d) ACTH
87. Hyperthyroidism has all the following characteristics except...
a) increased metabolic rate
b) decreased heart rate
c) sweating
d) weight loss
88. The parathyroid hormone stimulates the...
a) osteoblasts
b) osteocytes
c) osteoclasts
d) osteogenesis
89. The corticosteroids include hydrocortisone. Its purpose is to...
a) decrease inflammatory response
b) control blood pressure by increasing sodium re-absorption from kidneys
c) play a role in onset of puberty
d) None of the above
90. Steroid hormones...
a) are water soluble
b) act on receptors in the plasma membrane that initiate signaling cascades
c) act on receptors inside the cell that directly promote transcription
d) both a & b

END OF EXAM