OPENMAT (XIII) ENTRANCE TEST FOR

MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2003

TEST I
General Awareness

1. What is the minimum age laid down for a person to 8. Seedless fruits are developed by the technique of
seek election to the Lok Sabha ? (1) Tissue culture
(1) 18 years (2) 21 years (2) Hybridisation
(3) 25 years (4) 30 years (3) Clonal selection
(4) Pure-line selection
2. The chronological order of the three dynasties that
ruled India is
9. Out of the following, the velocity of sound is maxi-
(1) Slave, Khilji, Tughlaq mum in
(2) Tughlaq, Slave, Khilji (1) Water (2) Air
(3) Khilji Tughlaq, Slave (3) Steel (4) Wood
(4) Slave, Tughlaq, Khilji

10. A liquid drop tends to assume a spherical shape be-

3. Human Genome Project endeavours to cause of the
(1) Decode DNA (1) Viscous force (2) Gravitational force
(2) Invent AIDS treatement (3) Elastic force (4) Surface tension
(3) Study evolution of humans
(4) Study fingerprints
11. The stethoscope used by doctors works on the prin-
ciple of
4. Which sport has been nominated for the Nobel Peace
(1) Interference of sound
Prize 2001 for promoting understanding among na-
tions ? (2) Reflection of sound
(1) Basketball (2) Tennis (3) Refraction of sound
(3) Soccer (4) Hockey (4) Superposition of sound

5. In India, what fraction of the members of the State 12. Modern powerful magnets are made from
Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishads) are elected (1) Iron compounds
by the local bodies ? (2) Ferromagnetic materials
(1) One-third (2) One-fourth (3) Alloys containing aluminium, cobalt and nickel
(3) One-sixth (4) One-twelfth (4) Alloys containing iron, cobalt and nickel

6. The President of the UN General Assemby is elected 13. When any foreign body enters in the human blood
for a period of system then the reaction is initiated by
(1) One year (2) Two years (1) R.B.Cs. (2) W.B.Cs.
(3) Three years (4) Four years (3) Blood Platelets (4) Plasma

7. The acid rains usually contain large amounts of 14. ‘Athlete’s foot’ is caused by
(1) Carbonic acid (2) Hydrochloric acid (1) Bacterial infection (2) Allergy
(3) Nitric acid (4) Sulphuric acid (3) Virus (4) Fungus

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15. Ethnobotany is a branch of Botany dealing with the 24. Who among the following was the creator of Barbie,
study of the world’s most popular doll ?
(1) Crop plants (1) Elliot Handler (2) Daniela Ullyett
(2) Old and Extinct plants (3) Ruth Handler (4) Ann Johnson
(3) Ether forming plants
(4) Plants in relation to tribal medicine 25. Names of which of the following airports were
changed in 2002 to Raja Bhoj Airport and Veer
16. Which of the following states accounted for the high- Sawarkar Airport respectively ?
est share of total Foreign Direct Investment in India (1) Jaipur and Bhopal
between August 1991 and October 2001? (2) Indore and Bhopal
(1) Tamil Nadu (2) Karnataka (3) Nagpur and Port Blair
(3) Delhi (4) Maharashtra (4) Bhopal and Port Blair

17. Which among the following is the Mascot of the

150th year of Railways in India ? 26. During April 2002, the five brightest planets visible
from the Earth lined up to form a dramatic celestial
(1) Teju, the driver
array. Which of the following was not part of this
(2) Bholu, the guard array ?
(3) Chintu, the signalman (1) Jupiter (2) Saturn
(4) Sonu, the securityman (3) Venus (4) Uranus

18. What is the first country in the world to adopt

Euthansia (mercy killing) legally ? 27. Mohammad Zahir Shah, deposed monarch, returned
to Afghanistan in April 2002 after ––––– years of
(1) Belgium (2) Australia
exile in Italy.
(3) Norway (4) The Netherlands
(1) 26 years (2) 29 years
19. Who among the following was the first lady Gover- (3) 32 years (4) 35 years
nor of any state in India ?
(1) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur 28. Who among the following Indians has been elected
(2) Padmaja Naidu as Chairman of the UN Panel on Climate Change ?
(3) Sarojini Naidu (1) Dr. S.R. Nadig
(4) Sarla Grewal (2) Narendra Sharma
(3) Rajendra K. Pachauri
20. In India the first Television Programme was broad- (4) M. Damodaran
casted in
(1) 1959 (2) 1965 29. Who among the following is the world’s second space
(3) 1976 (4) 1957 tourist ?
(1) Yuri Gidzenka
21. Who wrote ‘Dragon’s Seed’ ?
(2) Roberto Vittori
(1) Pearl S. Buck (2) Shakespeare
(3) Johnny Koroma
(3) Shelley (4) Keats
(4) Mark Shuttleworth
22. The largest organ in the human body is
(1) Brain (2) Liver 30. On the path of disinvestment, the Government of
(3) Kidney (4) Heart India has given the management control of IPCL to
which of the following companies ?
23. The Golden Jubilee of the Indian Parliament was (1) Indian Oil Corporation
celebrated on (2) Tata Chemicals Ltd.
(1) April 26, 2002 (2) May 8, 2002 (3) IBP
(3) May 13, 2002 (4) May 18, 2002 (4) Reliance Industries

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 TEST II
ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions for Questions 31 to 45. Read the two passages given below carefully. Each passage is followed by questions based
on the contents of the passage. Answer the questions by selecting the best alternative from among those given in the questions.

PASSAGE I

Anybody could be excused for slipping over bananas. But fighting over them ? Consider the current spat between the
EU and USA over the pulpy fruit. The EU imports about 3.75 million tonnes of this commodity every year, but restricts the
supply from US companies to 2.35 million tonnes. The remainder is acquired largely from countries from Africa and South-
east Asia, mostly from former colonies. US firms would like to increase their share and are prepared to supply bananas nearly
15 per cent cheaper than their competitors. However, they are constrained by banana quotas imposed by the EU.

The US has challenged these restrictions three times before the WTO, winning twice. The new ruling is expected soon.
In 1996 and 1997 the WTO’s Dispute Settlement Body ruled that the EU’s quota barriers be dismantled. To arm twist, or to
pre-empt this judgement, the US has declared a trade offensive against the EU. On 3rd March, it announced the use of the
controversial Section 301 of the US Trade Act against 16 types of EU exports including biscuits, war products, fine woollen
clothing, coffee percolators and more. These goods have been placed under a 100 per cent import duty regime. As it turns out,
such EU exports as have been targeted by the US do not amount to much. In 1998, the value of such imports into the US was
under $ 600 million. Not surprisingly, the US administration has held out the threat of extending this regime to a wide range
of dairy and agricultural products.

There is baser aspect to the story as well. The EU banana imports from African and Asian countries are primarily in the
hands of Western firms who had established themselves as traders in the former colonies. In contrast, almost the entire US
exports of bananas to the EU markets are controlled by just one business, Carl Linder’s Chiqita Inc., and the two sides have
been exerting great preassure on their respective governments.

On a surface view the conflict might mean little for India. While it is the largest producer of bananas involved — it
trades little of that commodity internationally. Last year India exported a meagre 28 tonnes to the US, and 18 tonnes to EU.
However, analysts and policy makers would do well to consider the spat from three perspectives. First, it sharply highlights the
manner in which the industrialised countries violate and stretch the rules of the WTO whenever convenient. This reality is in
complete contrast to the impression that these countries are the real upholders of the fine principles of international trade.
Second, the US and the EU could use the banana precedent to bypass the WTO, or ignore it altogether, for many more goods
and services. The US is also fretting for retaliatory action against the EU’s ban on hormone-treated beef from the US, which
itself could be extended to other genetically modified foods. It has also been fuming over the manner in which several large
European airlines are subsidised by their respective governments. There are also signs of a long-lasting war over steel beween
the EU and the US, which will have a definite impact on producers in developing countries as well.

The third aspect is perhaps the most important. The arbitrary ways of banana war being used by the big boys of global
trade are very often used against the developing countries as well. This is particularly true for imports of commodities,
manufactures or services from the developing countries. In lip service to the WTO, the industrialised countries have reduced
many of their general tariff barriers to imports from developing countries. In real content, exporters from developing countries
repeatedly run non-tariff barriers including discretionary countervailing duties. Many of these barriers have to be combated
not at the WTO but in the national courts of US and Western Europe, involving huge legal expenses. Indian exporters will
readily testify that these non-tariff barriers are the biggest obstacles that they face in their business.

It is very much in the interest of India and other countries to make efforts to prevail upon the industrialised countries to
conduct their trading practices entirely within the ambit of WTO. In this regard, the Indian Government’s request to be granted
third-party status in the US-EU dispute over bananas is a praiseworthy move.

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31. This passage is most likely to be an excerpt from 35. The gravest fallout of the banana war could be that
(1) a research paper on International Trade trends (1) the banana imports in EU from African coun-
(2) a communique from the US Trade Consulate tries could be badly hit
(3) the text of the EU Chairman’s speech (2) Chiqita Inc. may bring severe lobbying pressure
(4) a business publication on the US government
(3) the unprincipled ways being used may be used
32. The author’s main aim is to against the developing countries to affect the
(1) highlight the potential that exists for exporting imports of commodities, products and services
bananas from India from them
(2) portray the grave portents for India and the de- (4) a long lasting steel war between US and EU may
veloping world that conflicts like the one over get activated
banana exports to EU carry
(3) show that the WTO is an ineffective body
36. Which is not mentioned as a serious trade dispute by
(4) show that advanced industrialised nations have the author, between the EU and the US ?
scant respect for any international convention
(1) steel
(2) Genetically modified food
33. The percentage of India’s total produce of bananas
that is exported is (3) Euro money
(1) 28% (2) 18% (4) Airlines
(3) 21% (4) not given in the passage
37. Which option, according to the author, are the
34. According to the passage, the US is unhappy with industrialised countries using to restrict imports from
the EU for the developing countries in lieu of tariff barriers ?
(1) the ban that EU has put on hormone-treated (1) Discretionary non-tariff barriers
American beef
(2) Ordinance against imports from developing
(2) the subsidies given by European governments countries
to their airlines
(3) Specifying minimum quality criterion
(3) the targetting of American exports by the US
(4) Both (1) and (2) above (4) Specifying quantity criterion

PASSAGE II

Getting the facts and thinking — that is a fairly good five-word definition of creativity. Every worthwhile thing in the
world was created by getting the facts and thinking. Thinking is mental manufacturing. Facts are the raw materials. And the
products are ideas, methods and things. Every improvement in civilization began in some man’s brain. It was a thought before
it became a thing.
The progress of every nation depends upon the development of thinkers — men who have creative thoughts. It does not
at all depend on great armies because militarists have only destructive thoughts. An army is only an organization of men who
are trained to kill and destroy.
The man who thinks of a better way to do some useful work — he is the man who ought to have the medals and
honours. Some day, history will be re-written. It will tell the story of the creative men, not the destructionists. It will tell the
story of thinking.
In every nation, in every business form and even in every small shop, success depends more upon ideas than upon any
other thing. Every businessman should have more or less thinking time every week. A business that is run only by memory will
soon be stuck fast in a rut. We must get facts and ideas from others, by reading and by conversation, and we should try to
originate as many ideas as we can.
All this seems self-evident when it is written down, but the last thing that most men do is to get the facts and think.
Edison had this sign hung up on the wall of his workshop — “It is remarkable to what lengths people will go to avoid thought.”
Some of us think, more of us think we think, and most of us don’t even think of thinking. How many firms try to stimulate their
employees to think — offer rewards for useful suggestions ? Not one out of twenty.

27
 No firm can afford to pay attention only to the automaticality of its routine. Sooner or later, a thinking competitor will
push ahead and leave it in the rear. There can be no progress without thought. The firm that winns is the one that gives the most
time to getting the facts and thinking.

38. Which of the following is true about thinking ? 42. Which of the following, in the context of the passage,
(1) Most people are fond of thinking is a desirable course of action ?
(2) Thinking improves memory (1) Organisations should give reward for useful
suggestions
(3) People think only when in trouble
(2) Routine matters should not be paid any
(4) Most people avoid thinking
attention
(3) Thinking men should hold administrative
39. Which, according to the passage, is the most posi tions in the firm
important competitive edge for a firm ? (4) Irrational ideas should not be encouraged
(1) Mechanisation
(2) Market knowledge 43. The two basic elements of creativity, as per the
passage, are
(3) Ideas
(1) Facts and thinking (2) Thinking and rewards
(4) Automation
(3) Thinking and ideas (4) Facts and analysis

40. Which of the following should be followed by a 44. According to the passage, which of the following is
businessman in order to be successful ? common among firms ?
(1) Get all the ideas from his people (1) They encourage ideas from all levels of
employees
(2) Memorise every detail of his business
(2) All firms look for thinking employees
(3) Keep some time for thinking
(3) Most of them do not provide incentives for good
(4) Try to automate operations
suggestions
(4) They do not pay attention to routine matters
41. According to the passage, when history will be re-
written, which of the following will be the hero ? 45. The main purpose of the above passage is to
(1) Businessman (1) Highlight the difference between individuals
(2) Creative man (2) Develop skills of thinking
(3) Politician (3) Establish relationship between thinking and cre
(4) Military leader ativity
(4) Emphasise importance of thinking

Directions for questions 46 to 50. Each of these questions consists of a capitalized word followed by 4 alternatives. From the
given alternatives, choose the one that is most similar in meaning to the capitalized word.

46. ABASE 49. FULMINATE

(1) incur (2) estimate (1) fulfil
(3) elope (4) humiliate (2) contemplate
(3) talk nonsense
47. BALEFUL (4) protest loudly
(1) doubtful (2) virtual
(3) deadly (4) virtuous 50. INDUBITABLY
(1) flagrantly
48. CHOLERIC (2) doubtfully
(1) episodic (2) global (3) carefully
(3) hot headed (4) seasonal (4) certainly

28
Directions for questions 51 to 55. These questions consist of a capitalized word followed by four alternatives. Select from
among the alternatives, the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the capitalized word.

51. LACONIC 54. DIMINUTION

(1) verbose (2) wicked (1) expectation
(3) flagrant (4) derelict (2) validity
(3) appreciation
52. OBDURATE (4) difficulty
(1) yielding (2) fleeting
(3) finite (4) permanent 55. CAPTIOUS
(1) tolerant
53. EXCORIATE (2) capable
(1) scandalize (2) encourage (3) frivolous
(3) praise (4) vanquish (4) winning

Directions for questions 56 to 60. Each of the questions below consists of a sentence with one or two blank spaces. Each
sentence is followed by four alternative sets of words. Choose the words or set of words from among the alternatives given,
which when inserted in the sentence best fit(s) the meaning of the sentence.

56. The mind of the bigot is like the _____ of the eye, 59. No act of _____ was more pronounced than his _____
the more light you pour upon it the more it will _____ of any awards for his discovery.
(1) cornea, blink (2) eyelid, veer (1) abeyance, renunciation
(3) eyeball, reflect (4) pupil, contract
(2) submission, avarice
57. A _____ statement is an _____ comparison; it does (3) egoism, portrayal
not compare things explicitly, but suggests a like-
(4) abnegation, refusal
ness between them.
(1) sarcastic, unfair
(2) blatant, overt 60. As _____ head of the company, he attended social
(3) metaphorical, implied functions and civic meetings, but had no _____ in
(4) sanguine, inherent the formulation of the company policy.
(1) titular, voice
58. We must try to understand his momentary ___ for he
has ___ more strain and anxiety than any among us. (2) hypothetical, vote
(1) senility, understood (2) generosity, desired (3) actual, say
(3) aberration, undergone (4) nominal, competition
(4) anger, unvisioned

Directions for questions 61 to 65. In each of the following sentences, four words or phrases have been underlined. Choose the
underlined word or phrase that has been used inappropriately.

61. A man may like to go alone for a walk but hate to stand alone in his opinions.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

62. The opposite of to skirt something is address directly or to deal directly.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

63. Some firms merge to attain economy of scale, others to expand and diversify.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

29
64. The plane stood on its belly for a second, flipped down and came to rest on its spine.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
65. The task of educating children rests in the state, but others can make a contribution towards it.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

Directions for questions 66 to 70. Find the odd man out among each of the following.

66. (1) connoisseur (2) expert 69. (1) illusive (2) chimeral
(3) gourmand (4) gourmet (3) obvious (4) mirage

67. (1) garnish (2) paint 70. (1) guffaw

(3) adorn (4) banish (2) smirk
68. (1) summary (2) gist (3) laughter
(3) precis (4) commentary (4) merriment

Directions for questions 71 to 75. Each of these questions has a sentence with a highlighted word or phrase which can be
correctly substituted by one of the alternative choices that follow the sentence. Choose the alternative which can most appro-
priately substitute the highlighted phrase, without changing the meaning of the sentence.

71. He is naive, simple and without deceit; he cannot be 74. Her great fear was that she might by oversight omit a
guilty of fraud. question on the exam and mismark her whole an-
(1) guileless (2) clueless swer sheet.
(3) ignorant (4) artless (1) inalienably
(2) inadvertently
72. The man was hoary and wrinkled when he was sev-
enty. (3) improperly
(1) bent over (2) white with age (4) impulsively
(3) weak and feeble (4) enfeebled

75. From the way the rich get away with everything, you
73. The delicate skill and adroitness of the surgeon im-
might think we are a society ruled by the wealthy
pressed all the observers in the operating room.
rather than a democracy.
(1) exactitude (2) finesse
(1) oligarchy (2) plutocracy
(3) intricacy (4) sagacity
(3) aristocracy (4) hierarchy

Directions for questions 76 to 80. Each of these questions consists of a related pair of capitalized words, followed by four
alternative pairs of words. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair of capitalized
words.

76. AVER : AFFIRMATION 79. SCOTCH : RUMOUR

(1) proclaim : objection (2) demur : protest (1) divert : traffic (2) broach : topic
(3) nonplus : resistance (4) refuse : distress (3) quash : riot (4) singe : fire

77. DEFLECT : MISSILE

80. QUALIFY : PARTICULAR
(1) defend : fortress (2) relect : mirror
(3) distract : attention (4) diversify : protfolio (1) restrain : effusive
(2) flout : arbitrary
78. GLINT : LIGHT
(3) mollify : agreeable
(1) whiff : scent (2) blare : sound
(4) burnish : dull
(3) shade : colour (4) wave : tide

30
 TEST III
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

81. Rs. 275 is required to arrange a party for a cricket 89. The average temperature of all 7 days of the week is
o o
team of 11 players. What amount will be required if 30 that of the first 3 days is 28 and of the next 3
o
2 umpires and 5 extra players are also to be invited days is 31 . What is the temperature on the last day
to the party? of the week?
o o
(1) Rs. 400 (2) Rs. 410 (1) 28 (2) 30
o o
(3) Rs. 440 (4) Rs. 450. (3) 31 (4) 33
82. 5 men, 3 women and 8 boys share Rs. 580 between 90. How much above cost should the marked price be, if
them. Each woman gets twice what each boy gets even after a discount of 10%, a profit of 10% is to be
and each man gets what a boy and a woman get. How made?
much does each man get?
(1) 20% (2) 21%
(1) Rs. 55 (2) Rs. 60
2 1
(3) Rs. 64 (4) Rs. 75. (3) 22 % (4) 33 %
9 3
2 2
83. 100.5 – 99.5 = ?
(0.3)2 + (0.03)2
(1) 0.50 (2) 1 91. =?
(0.1)2 + (0.01)2
(3) 100 (4) 200
(1) 27 (2) 9
 3 7    10 4 
84. 1 −  × of  1 − 1 − ÷ 4   = ? (3) 3 (4) 0.3
 4 9    3 9   
92. If the pass percentage at an examination is 35 and a
(1) 0 (2) 1 candidate securing 150 marks fails by 25 marks, what
is the maximum number of marks?
11
(3) 10 (4) (1) 400 (2) 500
36
(3) 600 (4) 750
85. The compound interest on a certain sum at 5% p.a.
for 2 years is Rs. 102.50. What is the compound in- 93. What part of 1 sq m is 1 sq cm?
terest at 4% p.a.?
(1) Rs. 75.00 (2) Rs. 79.60 1 1
(1) th (2) th
100 1000
(3) Rs. 80.00 (4) Rs. 81.60 th th
(3) 100 (4) 10000
86. What is the least number when divided by 35 leaves
a remainder of 25 and when divided by 46 leaves a 94. A’s and B’s investments in a business are in the ratio
remainder of 35? of 2 : 1. If A’s share of the profit increases by Rs. 400
(1) 115 (2) 210 when the rate of profit increases from 5% to 10%,
what is B’s capital?
(3) 305 (4) 345
(1) Rs. 4,000 (2) Rs. 6,000
87. Two equal glasses filled with mixtures of alcohol and
water in the proportions of 2 : 1 and 1 : 1 respec- (3) Rs. 7,200 (4) Rs. 9,600
tively are emptied into a third glass. What is the pro- 95. When a rebate of 20% was given on cloth, the sales
portion of alcohol and water in the third glass? went up by 25%. What was the effect on receipts?
(1) 7 : 5 (2) 7 : 3 (1) Same as before (2) Increased by 5%
(3) 3 : 7 (4) 5 : 7
(3) Decreased by 5% (4) Increased by 1%
88. To obtain 30% of a number, the number should be
96. Rs. 180 contained in a box is made up of Rs. 1, 50 p
10 100 and 25 p coins in the proportion of 2 : 3 : 4. What is
(1) multiplied by (2) divided by the number of 50 p coins?
3 3
3 3 (1) 60 (2) 100
(3) multiplied by (4) divided by .
10 10 (3) 120 (4) 150

31
97. 1 − [8 + {15 − (6 − 2 − 20)}] = ?] 105. Two numbers are respectively 20% and 10% lower
than the third. What percentage is the first number of
(1) 0 (2) 2 the second ?
(3) 4 (4) 5 (1) 45 (2) 50
98. How long will a train 150 m long travelling at 40 (3) 66.67 (4) 88.88
kmph, take to pass a man walking in the same direc-
tion at 4 kmph ? 106. 10% less students pass in Mathematics than in En-
(1) 12.22 sec (2) 15 sec glish. If totally 304 students pass in both the sub-
(3) 18 (4) 20 sec jects, how many students pass in Mathematics ?
(1) 112 (2) 114
99. At how many minutes past 5 p.m. are the hands of a (3) 144 (4) 176
clock at right angles to one another between 5 p.m.
and 6 p.m. ?
107. If the figure below, ABC is right angled triangle with
(1) 10 mins and 40 mins
AB = 2 units and BC = 6 units; ∠ CAF = ∠ FAE
1 4 and the area of the triangle ABE is equal to 2 sq units.
(2) 11 mins and 43 mins
10 11 What is the legth of AF ?
10
(3) 10 mins A
11
7 10
(4) 43 mins and 10 mins
11 11

100. 8.32 x 0.999 = ?

(1) 0.831168 (2) 0.831866
(3) 8.31618 (4) 8.31168

101. A cricketer has an average score of 30 runs for 42 B E F C

innings. His highest score exceeds his lowest score
by 100 runs. If these 2 innings are excluded, his av-
erage is 28 runs. What was his highest score ? (1) 2 units (2) 4 units
(1) 120 (2) 125 (3) 2 5 units (4) 41 units
(3) 100 (4) 105

102. What is the length of the longest rod which can be

accommodated in a room 8 m long, 6 m broad and 5
108. =?
10 m high ? 5+ 3
(1) 10 m (2) 8 2 m (1) 0.4845 (2) 0.5635
(3) 10 2 m (4) 18 m (3) 1.581 (4) 4.4365

0.1 0.1 1
103. : :: : ? 1848 × 8604 + 7392 × 349
0 .3 0 .2 6 109. =?
77 × 24
1 1
(1) (2) (1) 100 (2) 500
5 4
(3) 1000 (4) 10000
1 1
(3) (4)
3 2 6
110. X = ?
2 4
(1) X .X
8 2 × 16 4 3 3
104. =? (2) (X )
216
(1) 8 (2) 64 (3) X 22 .X 2 .X
3 2
(3) 512 (4) 1024 (4) X .X

32
 1 1 1 1
111. In the accompanying figure, AE = BE and ÷ of
2 5 5 5 =?
114. 1 1 1
1 of ÷
AD = AG. What is the ratio of the areas of rect- 5 5 5
2
angle AEFG and ABCD ? 1
(1) 1 (2)
25
G F 1
(3) (4) 25
25

Rs.12 paisa 20
115. is equal to
C Rs.36 paisa 60
D
1 2
(1) (2)
3 3
1 2
(3) (4)
2 5
A E B
116. The wheels of a bus are 1 m in diameter. What is the
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 number of revolutions made by the wheels per minute
when the bus is travelling at 33 kmph ?
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 4 : 9
(1) 175 (2) 200
(3) 1050 (4) 1750
112. 0.01 x 0.01 + 0.01 x 99.99 = ?
(1) 0.01 117. 0.1 x 0.1 + 0.99 is equal to
(2) 0.1 (1) 0.01 (2) 2
(3) 1 (3) 0.109 (4) 1
(4) 100
118. A man covers ‘d’ miles in ‘t’ hours. At that rate how
long (in hours) will it take him to cover ‘m’ miles ?
113. What is the value of x if
mt
2x – y = 20 and (1) dmt (2)
t
x – 2y = 4 ?
mt dt
3 (3) (4)
(1) d m
16

16 119. In a right triangle ABC, if ∠ A > ∠ B and

(2)
3 ∠ B > ∠ C then
(3) 6 (1) ∠ C > 45° (2) ∠ B = 90°
(4) 12
(3) ∠ A = 170° (4) ∠ A = 90°

Directions : For questions 120 to 124 refer to the following table.

Relative sweetness of different substances

Lactose 0.16
Maltose 0.32
Glucose 0.74
Sucrose 1.00
Fructose 1.70
Saccharin 67.50

33
120. About how many times sweeter than lactose is fruc- 127. C is the midpoint of line AE. B and D are on line AE
tose ? so that AB = BC and CD = DE. What per cent of AC
(1) 0.09 (2) 0.1 is AD ?
(3) 1.86 (4) 10.6 (1) 33
(2) 50
121. What per cent increase in sweetness is obtained by (3) 133
substituting equal amounts of maltose for lactose ? (4) 150
(1) 16 (2) 50
(3) 100 (4) 200 128. AD = 14, EF = 6, BC = ?

122. How many grams of sucrose (to the nearest gram) A E D

must be added to one gram of saccharin to make a
mixture that will be 100 times as sweet as glucose ?
45° 45°
(1) 7 (2) 8
B F C
(3) 9 (4) 10
(1) 8 (2) 12
123. What is the ratio of glucose to lactose in a mixture as (3) 20 (4) 26
sweet as maltose ?
(1) 8 : 21 (2) 21 : 8 129. BA = 2BC
(3) 25 : 9 (4) 29 : 8 BE = 14
EA = 2DE
124. Approximately how many times sweeter than sucrose DC = ?
is a mixture of glucose, sucrose and fructose in the
ratio of 1 : 2 : 3 : ? D
(1) 0.6 (2) 1
(3) 1.3 (4) 2.9
E

6 3
125. The expression ÷ is equivalent to
x x

1
(1) (2) 2x A
2 C B

x2 (1) 7 (2) 18
(3) (4) 2
18 (3) 21 (4) 24

126. Using formulae 130. Angles a, b, c are in ratio of 1 : 3 : 2. How many

Circumference = 2 π r degrees is angle b ?
2
Area = π r
where r = radius, find the area of a circle whose cir-
cumference is x.

x2 a
b c
(1) π x 2
(2)
4π 2

x2 (1) 30º (2) 50º

(3) (4) π x
4π (3) 90º (4) 100º

34
 TEST IV
REASONING

Directions for questions 131-134. Consider the following information

Seven offices in an office building are to be painted. The offices, which are on one side of a hallway, are numbered consecu-
tively, one to seven, from the front of the building to the back. Each office is to be painted one colour only according to the
following conditions:

(i) Two offices must be painted white; two offices must be painted blue; two offices must be painted green; and one
office must be painted yellow.
(ii) The two offices painted green must be next to each other.
(iii) The two offices painted blue cannot be next to each other.
(iv) The office painted yellow cannot be next to an office painted white.
(v) Office 3 must be painted white.

131. If office 2 is painted green, which of the following 133. If office 4 is painted white and an office that is painted
offices must also be painted green? green is next to an office that is painted white, which
of the following must be true?
(1) 1
(1) Office 1 is painted yellow
(2) 3
(2) Office 5 is painted blue
(3) 4 (3) Office 6 is painted yellow
(4) 5 (4) Office 7 is painted blue

134. Which of the following conditions, when combined

132. If office 5 is painted white, which of the following with the original conditions, has the consequence of
could be true? completely determining the colour that each office is
painted?
(1) Office 2 is painted yellow
(1) Office 6 must be painted white
(2) Office 4 is painted green
(2) Office 1 must be painted yellow
(3) Office 4 is painted yellow (3) Office 1 must be painted green
(4) Office 6 is painted blue (4) Office 4 must be painted blue

Directions for questions 135–139. Unscramble the letters in the following words and find the odd man out.

135. (1) OLOTLABF (2) YKEOCH 140. My watch is 8 minutes slow and my train leaves at
(3) TBAMNDONIO (4) TASL 10:45, but it is 5 minutes late. I reached the station at
10:45 by my watch.
(1) I am just in time
136. (1) DOLNNO (2) OLMOBCO
(2) I missed the train by 3 minutes
(3) IAFOS (4) LOOHSC
(3) I have to wait for 13 minutes
(4) I have to wait for 3 minutes
137. (1) RGAEN (2) RDHATE
(3) LCENPI (4) WROOSR 141. Which number should replace both the question
49 ?
marks in =
138. (1) SHAPSNI (2) MNALIA ? 64
(3) TIINLAA (4) CFENRH (1) 28
(2) 38
139. (1) RICHA (2) TISHR (3) 48
(3) BLATE (4) EDB (4) 56

35
142. If x is less than 10 and y is less than 30, it follows 143. One number is wrong in the following series. Find
that out the wrong number.
(1) y is greater than x (2) y is equal to x 4, 10, 28, 82, 243
(1) 10 (2) 28
1 (3) 82 (4) 243
(3) x is equal to y (4) x + y is less than 40
3

Directions for questions 144 – 147. In each of the following groups of letters, three follow a particular pattern while one does
not. Find the odd one out.

144. (1) MNO (2) NOP 146. (1) EV (2) IZ

(3) PQR (4) RQP (3) WX (4) AF

145. (1) IF (2) ZX 147. (1) QRP (2) IOU

(3) TR (4) OM (3) TUS (4) KLJ

Directions for questions 148 – 153. Consider the following information.

The consumer complaint department of a firm employs exactly six people who answer letter : G, H, I, J, K and L. Every
complaint letter received by the department is classified as either red or blue. The following procedures for answering the
letters are used :
(a) Red letters are given first to G or H.
(b) Blue letters are given first to any one of the following : G, J or I.

If a letter raises a problem that cannot be resolved by the persons to whom it is given, it must be forwarded until it reaches
someone who can resolve the problem and answer the letter. A letter must be forwarded as follow :
(i) By G to I if the letter is red, but to J if the letter is blue;
(ii) By H to either G or I’
(iii) By I to J if the letter is red, but to K if the letter is blue;
(iv) By J to either I or K whether the letter is red or blue;
(v) By K to L whether the letter is red or blue;
(vi) L answers every letter given to him.

148. Any of the following can be true except 151. Which of the following could be given to each of the
(1) G forwards a red letter to I six members of the consumer complaint department
in turn ?
(2) H forwards a red letter to G
(1) A red letter that is first given to H
(3) H forwards a red letter to I
(2) A red letter that is first given to G
(4) I forwards a red letter to K
(3) A blue letter that is first given to G
(4) A blue letter that is first given to I
149. A blue letter could reach L via which of the follow-
ing sequences of people ?
(1) G to H to K (2) G to I to J 152. Any letter that reaches L must have been given to a
minimum of how many members of the consumer
(3) G to J to K (4) I to H to J
complaint department before reaching L ?
(1) 1
150. Any letter that reaches L must have been previously
given to (2) 2
(1) K (2) G (3) 3
(3) H (4) I (4) 4

36
153. If a member of the consumer complaint department
5
is given a letter that he or she had previously given to 155. A boy was asked to multiply a number by
some other member of the department, the person 7
who is given the letter a second time could be 5
Instead, he divided the number by and got the
(1) G (2) H 7
(3) J (4) K 25
answer more than what he should have got if he
5
154. 20% of a number when added to 20 becomes the num-
ber itself. Find the number. 5
had multiplied the number by . The number is
7
(1) 20 (2) 25
(3) 50 (4) 80 (1) 5 (2) 7
(3) 17 (4) 24

Directions for questions 156–159.

Two children are playing a game with marbles of three colours — white, blue and red. One child calls ‘one’, ‘two’, ‘three’ and
‘four’; when he calls ‘one’ the ohter child puts one white marble in a box, when he calls ‘two’ one marble of blue colour is put
is the box and when he calls ‘three’one red coloured marble is put is the box. On calling ‘four’ one white and one blue marble
is taken out from the box. The numbers called are in the following sequence:
12332142314223314113234

156. How many marbles will be in the box when all the 158. How many white coloured marbles were in the box
numbers have been called? at the end of the game?
(1) 8 (2) 9 (1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 10 (4) 11 (3) 7 (4) 9

157. How many blue colured marbles were in the box at 159. How many red coloured marbles were in the box at
the end of the game? the end of the game?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 7 (2) 9
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 11 (4) 13

Directions for questions 160–163. Numbers in questions 160 to 163 follow the same arrangement. Find out the missing
number. (Study the pattern in all the four questions before attempting the answers)

160. ? 162. 121

4 2 10 22 11 154
5 ?

(1) 12 (2) 4 (1) 1 (2) 77

(3) 6 (4) 7 (3) 308 (4) 33

161. 49 157. 25
14 ? 70 10 5 ?
35 20

(1) 7 (2) 84 (1) 20 (2) 15

(3) 42 (4) 21 (3) 30 (4) 40

37
164. If 5.4 = 2025 166. If 5 x 4 = 171
3.2 = 69
15 x 6 = 189
1.4 = 41
7 x 16 = 207
then the value of 2.1 is
(1) 42 (2) 24 then the value of 5 x 4 is
(3) 12 (4) 21
(1) 9
165. If 12.14 = 76 (2) – 9
20.12 = 610 (3) 11
4.8 = 42
(4) 216
then the value of 16.8 is
(1) 42 (2) 36
(3) 84 (4) 48

Directions for questions 167 – 170. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
Four girls — A, B, C and D have studied French, German, Persian and Russian. Each girl has studied two languages and each
language has been studied by two candidates only. A and B do not know Persian. C and D do not know French. A and C do not
know Russian.

167. Which two languages does ‘A’ know ? 169. Which two candidates know Russian ?
(1) German and Russian (1) B and D
(2) French and Persian (2) B and C
(3) French and German (3) C and D
(4) Russian and French (4) A and C

168. Which two languages does ‘C’ know ? 170. Which two candidates know German ?
(1) Russian and German (1) B and A
(2) German and Persian (2) A and D
(3) German and French (3) C and D
(4) French and Russian (4) A and C

Directions for questions 171 – 175. Unscramble the letters in the following words, form a sentence/question, and find the last
word of the same.

171. (1) NIME (2) SSRED 174. (1) PISSATUR

(3) TSIH (4) SI (2) YM
(3) SI
172. (1) OTO (2) TI (4) RINFED
(3) SI (4) ALET

173. (1) HET (2) HES

175. (1) TI (2) IDD
(3) ZIPER (4) NOW
(3) UOY (4) EKIL

38
Directions for questions 176 – 179. Consider the following information.
Seven meetings — J, K, L, M, N, O and P — are to be scheduled, one on each day of a week that begins on Sunday.
(i) Meeting J must take place on Sunday.
(ii) Meeting K must take place after both meeting L and meeting M.
(iii) Meetings N, O and P must take place on three consecutive days, not necessarily in that order.

176. Which is the latest day of the week on which meet- 179. Which of the following represents a possible order-
ing L can take place ? ing of meetings on three consecutive days ?
(1) Tuesday (2) Wednesday (1) POM
(3) Thursday (4) Friday (2) JMK
(3) KLO
177. Which of the following must be true about the order
(4) MNJ
of meetings ?
(1) L takes place after J
(2) L takes place after O 180. A man moves 4 kms towards east and turns to his
right 2 kms. He now turns to west 8 kms and then
(3) N takes place after O
turns to his right 2 kms. How far is he from the start-
(4) N takes place after P ing point ?
(1) 16 kms
178. If meeting O is on Saturday, then meeting K must
take place on (2) 8 kms
(1) Monday (2) Tuesday (3) 4 kms
(3) Wednesday (4) Friday (4) 6 kms

Directions for questions 181 – 184. Consider the following information.

Eight adjacent offices completely enclose a circular central courtyard. The offices are numbered consecutively, beginning at
one fo the offices with 1 and proceeding clockwise to 8. Eight junior executives — J, K, L, M, N, O, P and R — are to occupy
the offices, one to an office. The assignment of offices is subject to the following restrictions:
(i) J is allowed first choice of any of the offices.
(ii) K and P must be assigned to adjacent offices.
(iii) L and P must be assigned to adjacent offices.
(iv) M and O must be assigned to adjacent offices.
(v) M and N cannot be assigned to adjacent offices.
(vi) O is assigned to office 2 unless J chooses it; in that case, O will be assigned to office 3
(vii) K is assigned to office 7 unless J chooses it; in that case, K will be assigned to office 5.

181. Which of the following is an assignment of execu- 183. P could be assigned to which of the following of-
tives to offices, beginning with office 1 and proceed- fices ?
ing consecutively to office 8, that conforms to the (1) 1
restrictions above ?
(2) 2
(1) J, O, M, R, L, P, K, N
(3) 3
(2) J, R, O, M, L, P, K, N
(4) 4
(3) M, O, N, K, P, L, R, J
(4) M, O, R, J, L, K, P, N
184. If N is assigned to office 5, which of the following
182. If J chooses office 8, which of the following must be
can be true ?
true ?
(1) M is assigned to office 4
(1) L is assigned to office 5
(2) M is assigned to office 1 (2) O is assigned to office 3
(3) M is assigned to office 3 (3) P is assigned to office 1
(4) N is assigned to office 1 (4) R is assigned to office 6

39
185. Sum the following series upto 300 terms : 186. Sum of the series
2 + 3 – 5 + 2 + 3 – 5 + 2 + 3 – 5 + .... 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 – 15 + 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 – 15 + ....
(1) 0 (2) 200 upto 50 terms is
(3) 400 (4) 800 (1) 0 (2) 30
(3) 20 (4) 10

Directions for questions 187 to 190. Consider the following information.

The membership of two committees, designated X and Y, must be drawn exclusively from a group of seven people : F,
G, H, I, J, K and L.
(i) Each of the seven people must serve on X or Y.
(ii) No one can serve on both X and Y.
(iii) F cannot serve on a committee with G or with J.
(iv) H cannot serve on a committee with I.

187. If H serves on X, which of the following must be 190. There would be only one possible distribution of
true ? people on the committees if which of the following
(1) F serves on X (2) G serves on Y restrictions were added to the original set of condi-
(3) I serves on Y (4) K serves on X tions ?
(1) F and L must serve on X, and H must serve on Y
188. If exactly two people serve on X, which of the fol-
lowing can be one of the two ? (2) J must serve on X, and K and L must serve on Y
(1) G (2) H (3) G and L must serve on X
(3) J (4) K
(4) H and four other people must serve on X
189. If L does not serve with K or I, which of the follow-
ing cannot be true
(1) F serves with I (2) G serves with H
(3) H serves with K (4) I serves with K

Directions for questions 191 – 200.

The following words are coded by the secret code used by a group. The group had little sense of sequence, so they often
changed the order of the letters in the coded form. Thus, POUR is coded as SEKO, but S does not necessarily denote P, but one
of the four letters P, O, U and R. Study the table given below and answer the questions that follow.

Word Coded as

POUR SEKO
BALL PJRP
TIME CYGA
LATE YPCR
PURE SOCK
PEEP KCKC
RAIN ROGT

191. What is the code letter for L ?

(1) J (2) L
(3) P (4) R

40
192. What is the code letter for A ? 197. Which of the following could possibly be the code
(1) P (2) R word for WET ?
(3) Y (4) Z (1) CXG (2) CUY
(3) PCS (4) RSC
193. What is the code letter for E ?
(1) C (2) F 198. Which of the following could possibly be the code
(3) I (4) L word for CURE ?
(1) SCAI (2) CISO
194. What is the code letter for U ? (3) KSCL (4) LOSK
(1) O (2) S
(3) C (4) K
199. Which of the following words could TOS denote ?
(1) NUN (2) RUN
195. What is the code letter for N ?
(1) G (2) O (3) RUT (2) ROT
(3) T (4) R
200. Which of the following words could EPB possibly
196. What is the code letter for O ? denote ?
(1) K (2) O (1) LAW (2) CAT
(3) S (4) E (3) OWL (4) WOO

41