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Test Booklet Code

No. :
KANHA
E1 This Booklet contains 24 pages.

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

Important Instructions :
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on side-1 and side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen
only.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be
deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator
before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet
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same as that on this Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the
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E1 2
1. Which of the following is not an attribute of a 7. Choose the correct pair from the following :
population ?
(1) Ligases - Join the two DNA
(1) Sex ratio
molecules
(2) Natality
(3) Mortality (2) Polymerases - Break the DNA into
(4) Species interaction fragments

2. The process of growth is maximum during : (3) Nucleases - Separate the two strands
(1) Log phase of DNA
(2) Lag phase
(4) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific
(3) Senescence
positions within DNA
(4) Dormancy

3. The roots that originate from the base of the stem 8. Select the correct match.
are :
(1) Haemophilia - Y linked
(1) Fibrous roots
(2) Primary roots (2) Phenylketonuria - Autosomal
dominant trait
(3) Prop roots
(4) Lateral roots (3) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal
recessive trait,
4. Match the following diseases with the causative chromosome-11
organism and select the correct option. (4) Thalassemia - X linked
Column - I Column - II
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria 9. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella Column - I Column - II

(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus (a) Gregarious, polyphagous (i) Asterias

pest
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion
symmetry and larva
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
with bilateral symmetry
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
5. In which of the following techniques, the embryos
are transferred to assist those females who cannot (a) (b) (c) (d)
conceive ? (1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(1) ZIFT and IUT
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) GIFT and ZIFT
(3) ICSI and ZIFT (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) GIFT and ICSI (4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

6. Identify the wrong statement with reference to

the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups. 10. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters
the human body is :
(1) The gene (I) has three alleles.
(2) A person will have only two of the three (1) Trophozoites
alleles. (2) Sporozoites
(3) When IA and IB are present together, they
(3) Female gametocytes
express same type of sugar.
(4) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar. (4) Male gametocytes

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3 E1
11. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and 16. Which of the following statements about inclusion
peptide bond, respectively in their structure : bodies is incorrect ?
(1) Chitin, cholesterol (1) They are not bound by any membrane.
(2) These are involved in ingestion of food
(2) Glycerol, trypsin
particles.
(3) Cellulose, lecithin (3) They lie free in the cytoplasm.
(4) Inulin, insulin (4) These represent reserve material in
cytoplasm.
12. The plant parts which consist of two generations -
17. Which is the important site of formation of
one within the other :
glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells ?
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther (1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Peroxisomes
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male
(3) Golgi bodies
gametes
(4) Polysomes
(c) Seed inside the fruit
18. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule can be visualized with the help of :
(1) (a) only (1) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
(2) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
(4) (a) and (d)
19. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
transport of oxygen.
13. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase
in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are : (1) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is
mainly related to partial pressure of O2.
(1) Ammonia alone
(2) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with
(2) Nitrate alone O2 binding with haemoglobin.
(3) Ammonia and oxygen (3) Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the
formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
(4) Ammonia and hydrogen
(4) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation
of oxyhaemoglobin.
14. Identify the correct statement with regard to
G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase. 20. Ray florets have :
(1) DNA synthesis or replication takes place. (1) Inferior ovary
(2) Superior ovary
(2) Reorganisation of all cell components takes
place. (3) Hypogynous ovary
(4) Half inferior ovary
(3) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does
not replicate its DNA. 21. The specific palindromic sequence which is
(4) Nuclear Division takes place. recognized by EcoRI is :
(1) 5' - GAATTC - 3'
15. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli 3' - CTTAAG - 5'
is found in : (2) 5' - GGAACC - 3'
(1) lining of intestine 3' - CCTTGG - 5'
(3) 5' - CTTAAG - 3'
(2) ducts of salivary glands
3' - GAATTC - 5'
(3) proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(4) 5' - GGATCC - 3'
(4) eustachian tube 3' - CCTAGG - 5'

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E1 4
22. Identify the wrong statement with regard to 26. Which of the following statements are true for
Restriction Enzymes. the phylum-Chordata ?
(1) Each restriction enzyme functions by (a) In Urochordata notochord extends from
inspecting the length of a DNA sequence. head to tail and it is present throughout
their life.
(2) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic (b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during
sites. the embryonic period only.
(3) They are useful in genetic engineering. (c) Central nervous system is dorsal and
hollow.
(4) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA (d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla :
ligases. Hemichordata, Tunicata and
Cephalochordata.
23. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge (1) (d) and (c)
digester for further sewage treatment ? (2) (c) and (a)
(1) Primary sludge (3) (a) and (b)
(4) (b) and (c)
(2) Floating debris
(3) Effluents of primary treatment 27. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.
(a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector
(4) Activated sludge
thuringiensis
(b) Thermus (ii) Construction of
24. Select the correct events that occur during
inspiration. aquaticus first rDNA
molecule
(a) Contraction of diaphragm
(c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles tumefaciens
(d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases
typhimurium
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases Select the correct option from the following :
(1) (a) and (b) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (c) and (d)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) only (d) (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

28. Match the following concerning essential elements

25. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for
and their functions in plants :
few days because :
(a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water
(1) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the
(b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination
cockroach are situated in ventral part of
abdomen. (c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll
biosynthesis
(2) the cockroach does not have nervous system. (d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis
(3) the head holds a small proportion of a nervous Select the correct option :
system while the rest is situated along the (a) (b) (c) (d)
ventral part of its body. (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
while the rest is situated along the dorsal (3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
part of its body.
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

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5 E1
29. Identify the incorrect statement. 34. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits
(1) Heart wood does not conduct water but gives highest species diversity ?
mechanical support. (1) Western Ghats of India
(2) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water (2) Madagascar
and minerals from root to leaf. (3) Himalayas
(3) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem (4) Amazon forests
and is lighter in colour.
(4) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., 35. Which of the following statements is not
heart wood is dark in colour. correct ?
(1) In man insulin is synthesised as a
30. Match the following : proinsulin.
(a) Inhibitor of catalytic (i) Ricin (2) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called
C-peptide.
activity
(3) The functional insulin has A and B chains
(b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate linked together by hydrogen bonds.
(c) Cell wall material in (iii) Chitin (4) Genetically engineered insulin is produced
fungi in E-Coli.
(d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen
Choose the correct option from the following : 36. The transverse section of a plant shows following
anatomical features :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) surrounded by bundle sheath.
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) tissue.
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed.
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent.
31. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is Identify the category of plant and its part :
completed : (1) Monocotyledonous stem
(1) Prior to ovulation (2) Monocotyledonous root
(2) At the time of copulation (3) Dicotyledonous stem
(3) After zygote formation (4) Dicotyledonous root

(4) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an

ovum 37. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
Column - I Column - II
32. According to Robert May, the global species
diversity is about : (a) 6 - 15 pairs of (i) Trygon
(1) 1.5 million gill slits
(2) 20 million (b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes
(3) 50 million caudal fin
(4) 7 million (c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes
(d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
33. The first phase of translation is :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Binding of mRNA to ribosome (1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) Recognition of DNA molecule (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) Aminoacylation of tRNA (3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) Recognition of an anti-codon (4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

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E1 6
38. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino 44. Which of the following refer to correct example(s)
acids by mixing the following in a closed flask : of organisms which have evolved due to changes
in environment brought about by anthropogenic
(1) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 8008C
action ?
(2) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 8008C
(a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
(3) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(4) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
39. Embryological support for evolution was
disapproved by : (d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals
like dogs.
(1) Karl Ernst von Baer
(2) Alfred Wallace
(1) only (a)
(3) Charles Darwin
(2) (a) and (c)
(4) Oparin
(3) (b), (c) and (d)

40. The process responsible for facilitating loss of water (4) only (d)
in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night
and in early morning is :
45. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
(1) Transpiration immunity.
(2) Root pressure (1) When exposed to antigen (living or dead)
(3) Imbibition antibodies are produced in the host’s body.
It is called “Active immunity”.
(4) Plasmolysis
(2) When ready-made antibodies are directly
given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
41. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine
and caffeine are produced by plants for their : (3) Active immunity is quick and gives full
response.
(1) Nutritive value
(4) Foetus receives some antibodies from
(2) Growth response
mother, it is an example for passive
(3) Defence action immunity.
(4) Effect on reproduction
46. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of
42. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino
photorespiration leads to the formation of : rams ?
(1) 2 molecules of 3-C compound (1) Out crossing
(2) 1 molecule of 3-C compound (2) Mutational breeding
(3) 1 molecule of 6-C compound (3) Cross breeding
(4) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule (4) Inbreeding
of 2-C compound

43. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the 47. Identify the correct statement with reference to
introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis human digestive system.
(Bt) is resistant to :
(1) Ileum opens into small intestine.
(1) Insect pests
(2) Serosa is the innermost layer of the
(2) Fungal diseases alimentary canal.
(3) Plant nematodes (3) Ileum is a highly coiled part.
(4) Insect predators (4) Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum.

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7 E1
48. Match the following columns and select the 52. Match the following with respect to meiosis :
correct option.
(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization
Column - I Column - II (b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata

(a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A (c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over

butylicum (d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis

(b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid Select the correct option from the following :
polysporum (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
purpureus
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol (4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
lowering agent
53. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular
(a) (b) (c) (d) algae ?
(1) Laminaria and Sargassum
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) Anabaena and Volvox
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (4) Chlorella and Spirulina
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
54. Which of the following hormone levels will cause
release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian
49. Presence of which of the following conditions in follicle ?
urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus ? (1) High concentration of Estrogen
(1) Uremia and Ketonuria (2) High concentration of Progesterone
(3) Low concentration of LH
(2) Uremia and Renal Calculi
(4) Low concentration of FSH
(3) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
55. Match the following columns and select the
(4) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
correct option.
Column - I Column - II
50. Floridean starch has structure similar to :
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
(1) Starch and cellulose
(b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence
(2) Amylopectin and glycogen deaminase
(3) Mannitol and algin deficiency

(4) Laminarin and cellulose (c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV

infection

51. Select the option including all sexually transmitted (d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
diseases. thuringiensis

(1) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

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E1 8
56. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control 61. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did
of : Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except
in one character with contrasting traits ?
(1) Transport of Genetically modified organisms
from one country to another (1) 4
(2) 2
(2) Emission of ozone depleting substances
(3) 14
(3) Release of Green House gases (4) 8
(4) Disposal of e-wastes
62. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
57. Which of the following is correct about viroids ?
Column - I Column - II
(1) They have RNA with protein coat.
(a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle
(2) They have free RNA without protein coat. ear and pharynx
(3) They have DNA with protein coat. (b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the
(4) They have free DNA without protein coat. labyrinth
(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the
58. The ovary is half inferior in : oval window
(d) Stapes (iv) Located on the
(1) Brinjal
basilar
(2) Mustard
membrane
(3) Sunflower (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Plum (1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
59. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of :
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(1) protein into polypeptides
63. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes
(2) trypsinogen into trypsin
place by :
(3) caseinogen into casein (1) insects or wind
(4) pepsinogen into pepsin (2) water currents only
(3) wind and water
60. Match the trophic levels with their correct species (4) insects and water
examples in grassland ecosystem.
64. Name the plant growth regulator which upon
(a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length
of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane
(b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture crop.
(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit (1) Cytokinin
(2) Gibberellin
(d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass
(3) Ethylene
Select the correct option : (4) Abscisic acid
(a) (b) (c) (d)
65. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) transfer of electrons from :
(1) PS-II to Cytb6f complex
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) Cytb6f complex to PS-I
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) PS-I to NADP+
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (4) PS-I to ATP synthase

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9 E1
66. Which of the following is not an inhibitory 70. Match the following columns and select the
substance governing seed dormancy ? correct option.
Column - I Column - II
(1) Gibberellic acid
(a) Placenta (i) Androgens
(2) Abscisic acid
(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic
(3) Phenolic acid Gonadotropin
(hCG)
(4) Para-ascorbic acid
(c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum
glands
67. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA (d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the
helix during transcription. Penis
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) DNA ligase
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) DNA helicase (2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) DNA polymerase
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) RNA polymerase
71. Strobili or cones are found in :
(1) Salvinia
68. Which of the following would help in prevention of (2) Pteris
diuresis ? (3) Marchantia
(4) Equisetum
(1) More water reabsorption due to
undersecretion of ADH 72. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter
vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent
(2) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of :
tubules due to aldosterone
(1) M phase
(3) Atrial natriuretic factor causes (2) G1 phase
vasoconstriction (3) S phase
(4) G2 phase
(4) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
73. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples
of :
69. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net (1) Adaptive radiation
primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one
of the following statements is correct ? (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Industrial melanism
(1) Gross primary productivity is always less (4) Natural selection
than net primary productivity.
74. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs
(2) Gross primary productivity is always more is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a
than net primary productivity. DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is
6.6×10 9 bp, then the length of the DNA is
(3) Gross primary productivity and Net primary approximately :
productivity are one and same.
(1) 2.0 meters
(4) There is no relationship between Gross (2) 2.5 meters
primary productivity and Net primary (3) 2.2 meters
productivity. (4) 2.7 meters

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E1 10
75. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents : 80. Match the following columns and select the
(1) Repolarisation of auricles correct option.
(2) Depolarisation of auricles Column - I Column - II
(3) Depolarisation of ventricles
(4) Repolarisation of ventricles (a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease

76. Match the following columns and select the (b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
correct option.
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus
Column - I Column - II
(a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response (d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
(b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) Neutrophils (iii) Release
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
histaminase,
destructive (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
enzymes
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules
containing (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
histamine
(a) (b) (c) (d) 81. Select the correct statement.
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(1) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (2) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and
adipocytes.
77. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(4) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
(1) Adenine pairs with thymine through two
H-bonds.
(2) Adenine pairs with thymine through one 82. Which one of the following is the most abundant
H-bond. protein in the animals ?
(3) Adenine pairs with thymine through three
H-bonds. (1) Haemoglobin
(4) Adenine does not pair with thymine. (2) Collagen
78. The sequence that controls the copy number of the (3) Lectin
linked DNA in the vector, is termed :
(1) Selectable marker (4) Insulin
(2) Ori site
(3) Palindromic sequence 83. Experimental verification of the chromosomal
(4) Recognition site theory of inheritance was done by :

79. Identify the basic amino acid from the following. (1) Mendel
(1) Tyrosine (2) Sutton
(2) Glutamic Acid
(3) Boveri
(3) Lysine
(4) Valine (4) Morgan

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84. Match the following columns and select the 89. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified
correct option. from :
Column - I Column - II (1) Squamous epithelial cells
(a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between (2) Columnar epithelial cells
second and (3) Chondrocytes
seventh ribs (4) Compound epithelial cells
(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the
Humerus 90. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to :
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle (1) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low
temperature
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect
(2) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of
with the sternum
UV-B radiation
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) High reflection of light from snow
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 91. Identify a molecule which does not exist.
(1) He2
85. The number of substrate level phosphorylations (2) Li2
in one turn of citric acid cycle is :
(3) C2
(1) Zero
(4) O2
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three 92. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH.
Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is
2×10−15.
86. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs
(1) 2×10−13 M
during :
(2) 2×10−8 M
(1) Pachytene
(2) Zygotene (3) 1×10−13 M
(3) Diplotene (4) 1×108 M
(4) Leptotene
93. Identify the correct statements from the
87. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals following :
are exemplified by : (a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream
(1) Ctenophora and frozen food.
(2) Platyhelminthes (b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six
(3) Aschelminthes carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
(4) Annelida (c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert
alcohols into gasoline.
88. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle (d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.
at :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(1) Hilum
(2) Micropyle (2) (a) and (c) only
(3) Nucellus (3) (b) and (c) only
(4) Chalaza (4) (c) and (d) only

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94. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following 96. Identify the incorrect match.
reaction. Name IUPAC Official Name
Sucrose+H2O ⇌ Glucose+Fructose (a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2×1013 at
(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
300 K, the value of ∆rGs at the same temperature
will be : (c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
(1) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013) (d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
(2) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013) (1) (a), (i)
(3) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(3×1013) (2) (b), (ii)
(4) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(4×1013) (3) (c), (iii)
(4) (d), (iv)
95. Identify compound X in the following sequence of
reactions :
97. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc)
structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic
radius is :

3
(1) × 288 pm
4

2
(2) × 288 pm
4
4
(3) × 288 pm
3
(1)
4
(4) × 288 pm
2

98. Which of the following set of molecules will have

zero dipole moment ?
(1) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water,
(2) 1,4-dichlorobenzene
(2) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon
dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(3) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(4) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
(3) carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene

99. On electrolysis of dil.sulphuric acid using

Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at
anode will be :
(1) Hydrogen gas
(2) Oxygen gas
(4)
(3) H2S gas
(4) SO2 gas

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100. Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium 103. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+
chloride followed by hydrolysis will give : ion is :
(1) Isopropyl alcohol (1) 3.87 BM
(2) 4.90 BM
(2) Sec. butyl alcohol
(3) 5.92 BM
(3) Tert. butyl alcohol
(4) 2.84 BM
(4) Isobutyl alcohol
104. The correct option for free expansion of an ideal
101. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has gas under adiabatic condition is :
−O−O− linkage ? (1) q=0, ∆T=0 and w=0
(1) H2SO3, sulphurous acid (2) q=0, ∆T < 0 and w > 0

(2) H2SO4, sulphuric acid (3) q < 0, ∆T=0 and w=0

(4) q > 0, ∆T > 0 and w > 0
(3) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
(4) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
105. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of
benzene is 5.12 K kg mol−1. The freezing point
102. Which of the following amine will give the depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m
carbylamine test ? containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is
(rounded off upto two decimal places) :
(1) 0.20 K
(2) 0.80 K
(3) 0.40 K
(1)
(4) 0.60 K

106. The number of Faradays(F) required to produce

20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass
of Ca=40 g mol−1) is :
(1) 1
(2) 2
(2)
(3) 3
(4) 4

107. Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone

in presence of dilute NaOH is known as :
(1) Aldol condensation
(3) (2) Cannizzaro’s reaction
(3) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
(4) Cross Aldol condensation

108. Paper chromatography is an example of :

(1) Adsorption chromatography
(4) (2) Partition chromatography
(3) Thin layer chromatography
(4) Column chromatography

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109. An increase in the concentration of the reactants 114. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form
of a reaction leads to change in : pent-2-ene is :
(1) activation energy (a) β-Elimination reaction
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule
(2) heat of reaction
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(3) threshold energy
(d) Dehydration reaction
(4) collision frequency (1) (a), (b), (c)
(2) (a), (c), (d)
110. A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains (3) (b), (c), (d)
7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the
(4) (a), (b), (d)
mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the
partial pressure of N2 is :
115. The mixture which shows positive deviation from
[Use atomic masses (in g mol−1) : N=14, Ar=40] Raoult’s law is :
(1) Ethanol+Acetone
(1) 9 bar
(2) Benzene+Toluene
(2) 12 bar
(3) Acetone+Chloroform
(3) 15 bar (4) Chloroethane+Bromoethane
(4) 18 bar
116. Which of the following is the correct order of
111. Identify the correct statement from the increasing field strength of ligands to form
following : coordination compounds ?
(1) Wrought iron is impure iron with (1) SCN− < F− < C2O42− < CN−
4% carbon.
(2) SCN− < F− < CN− < C2O42−
(2) Blister copper has blistered appearance due
to evolution of CO2. (3) F− < SCN− < C2O42−< CN−
(3) Vapour phase refining is carried out for (4) CN− < C2O42−< SCN− < F−
Nickel by Van Arkel method.
(4) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of 117. Which of the following is a basic amino acid ?
shapes. (1) Serine
(2) Alanine

112. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a (3) Tyrosine

secondary butyl carbocation because of which of (4) Lysine
the following ?
118. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2
(1) −I effect of −CH3 groups and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s)
(2) +R effect of −CH3 groups crystallise(s) ?
(1) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
(3) −R effect of −CH3 groups
(2) Only NaCl
(4) Hyperconjugation
(3) Only MgCl2
(4) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
113. Which of the following is a cationic detergent ?
(1) Sodium lauryl sulphate 119. Which of the following is a natural polymer ?
(1) cis-1,4-polyisoprene
(2) Sodium stearate
(2) poly (Butadiene-styrene)
(3) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide (3) polybutadiene
(4) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate (4) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)

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15 E1
120. Which of the following is not correct about carbon 125. What is the change in oxidation number of carbon
monoxide ? in the following reaction ?

(1) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin. CH4(g)+4Cl2(g) → CCl4(l)+4HCl(g)

(2) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
(1) +4 to +4
(3) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin
bound to CO) is less stable than (2) 0 to +4
oxyhaemoglobin.
(3) −4 to +4
(4) It is produced due to incomplete combustion.
(4) 0 to −4

121. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :

(1) β-D-Glucose+α-D-Fructose 126. Identify the incorrect statement.

(2) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Glucose (1) Cr2+(d4) is a stronger reducing agent than

Fe2+(d6) in water.
(3) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Fructose

(4) α-D-Fructose+β-D-Fructose (2) The transition metals and their compounds

are known for their catalytic activity due to
their ability to adopt multiple oxidation
122. The following metal ion activates many enzymes, states and to form complexes.
participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce
ATP and with Na, is responsible for the (3) Interstitial compounds are those that are
transmission of nerve signals. formed when small atoms like H, C or N
are trapped inside the crystal lattices of
(1) Iron metals.
(2) Copper
(4) The oxidation states of chromium in CrO24−
(3) Calcium
and Cr2O72− are not the same.
(4) Potassium

127. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct

123. Which one of the followings has maximum number option is :
of atoms ?
(1) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0
(1) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag=108]
(2) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS < 0
(2) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg=24]

(3) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O=16] (3) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS > 0

(4) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li=7] (4) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0

124. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in 128. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining
175 which property of colloidal solution ?
71 Lu , respectively, are :

(1) 71, 104 and 71 (1) Viscosity

(2) 104, 71 and 71 (2) Solubility

(3) 71, 71 and 104 (3) Stability of the colloidal particles

(4) 175, 104 and 71 (4) Size of the colloidal particles

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129. Urea reacts with water to form A which will 133. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of
decompose to form B. B when passed through the product. Its structure is :
Cu2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed.
What is the formula of C from the following ?
(1) CuSO4
(2) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(3) Cu(OH)2
(4) CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2 (1)

130. Match the following and identify the correct

option.
(a) CO(g)+H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2+
Ca(HCO3)2
(b) Temporary (ii) An electron
hardness of deficient hydride
water (2)
(c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas
(d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar
structure
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3)
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

131. Match the following :

Oxide Nature
(a) CO (i) Basic
(b) BaO (ii) Neutral
(c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic (4)
(d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
Which of the following is correct option ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
134. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) good yield by Wurtz reaction ?
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) n-Hexane
132. The rate constant for a first order reaction is
4.606×10−3 s−1. The time required to reduce
2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is : (2) 2,3-Dimethylbutane
(1) 100 s
(2) 200 s (3) n-Heptane
(3) 500 s
(4) 1000 s (4) n-Butane

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17 E1
135. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives : 139. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of
249 kPa and temperature 278C.
Its density is : (R=8.3 J mol−1 K−1)
(1) 0.5 kg/m3
(1) (2) 0.2 kg/m3
(3) 0.1 kg/m3
(4) 0.02 kg/m3

140. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one

surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism
A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface.
(2)
If the refractive index of the material of the prism
is µ, then the angle of incidence is nearly equal
to :
A
(1)
2µ
2A
(3) (2)
µ
(3) µA
µA
(4)
2

141. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are

(4) connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains
an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure.
B is completely evacuated. The entire system is
thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly
opened. The process is :
136. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not (1) isothermal
valid ?
(2) adiabatic
(1) Hydrogen atom
(2) Singly ionised helium atom (He+) (3) isochoric
(3) Deuteron atom (4) isobaric
(4) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
142. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is :
137. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field
(1) 4.5×1016 J
and magnetic field components to the intensity of
an electromagnetic wave is : (c=speed of (2) 4.5×1013 J
electromagnetic waves) (3) 1.5×1013 J
(1) c:1 (4) 0.5×1013 J
(2) 1:1
(3) 1:c 143. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth.
(4) 1 : c2 What is the gravitational force on it, at a height
equal to half the radius of the earth ?
138. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be :
(1) 48 N
(1) 08 < ib < 308
(2) 32 N
(2) 308 < ib < 458
(3) 458 < ib < 908 (3) 30 N
(4) ib = 908 (4) 24 N

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E1 18
144. The solids which have the negative temperature 149. Find the torque about the origin when a force of
coefficient of resistance are : ∧
3 j N acts on a particle whose position vector is
(1) metals ∧
2k m .
(2) insulators only
∧
(3) semiconductors only (1) 6i N m
∧
(4) insulators and semiconductors (2) 6j Nm
∧
145. The phase difference between displacement and (3) −6 i N m
∧
acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic (4) 6k N m
motion is :
(1) π rad 150. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a
non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having
3π surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the
(2) rad
2 surface during time span of 1 minute is :
π (1) 10×103 J
(3) rad
2 (2) 12×103 J
(4) zero
(3) 24×103 J

146. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and (4) 48×103 J
there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.
The pitch of the screw gauge is : 151. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge
(1) 0.01 mm of 3.2×10−7 C distributed uniformly. What is
the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm
(2) 0.25 mm
from the centre of the sphere ?
(3) 0.5 mm
(4) 1.0 mm  1 
 = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
 4 π 0 
147. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same (1) 1.28×104 N/C
material are slightly out of tune and produce beats
(2) 1.28×105 N/C
of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly
decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. (3) 1.28×106 N/C
If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original (4) 1.28×107 N/C
frequency of B will be :
(1) 523 Hz 152. In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3,
(2) 524 Hz the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout.
The magnitude of electric field in this region is :
(3) 536 Hz
(1) zero
(4) 537 Hz
(2) 0.5 N/C

148. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively (3) 1 N/C

are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length (4) 5 N/C
1 m with negligible mass.
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg 153. The increase in the width of the depletion region
particle is nearly at a distance of : in a p-n junction diode is due to :
(1) 33 cm (1) forward bias only
(2) 50 cm (2) reverse bias only
(3) 67 cm (3) both forward bias and reverse bias

(4) 80 cm (4) increase in forward current

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19 E1
154. A 40 µF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz 159. The energy required to break one bond in DNA is
ac supply. The rms value of the current in the 10−20 J. This value in eV is nearly :
circuit is, nearly : (1) 6
(1) 1.7 A (2) 0.6
(2) 2.05 A (3) 0.06
(3) 2.5 A (4) 0.006
(4) 25.1 A
160. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the
155. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular ends of a massless string. The string passes over
diameter d and number density n can be expressed a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The
as : acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration
1 due to gravity (g) is :
(1)
2 n πd
1
(2)
2 n πd2
1
(3)
2 n2 πd2
1
(4)
2 n2 π2 d2 (1) g
(2) g/2
156. For transistor action, which of the following
(3) g/5
statements is correct ?
(4) g/10
(1) Base, emitter and collector regions should
have same doping concentrations.
(2) Base, emitter and collector regions should 161. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging
have same size. from a fixed support. The length of the wire
(3) Both emitter junction as well as the collector changes to L1 when mass M is suspended from its
junction are forward biased. free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is :
(4) The base region must be very thin and lightly MgL1
doped. (1)
AL
157. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold Mg(L1 − L)
(2)
frequency is incident on a photosensitive material. AL
What will be the photoelectric current if the MgL
frequency is halved and intensity is doubled ? (3) AL1
(1) doubled MgL
(2) four times (4) A(L1 − L)
(3) one-fourth
(4) zero 162. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas
is : (kB is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute
235 temperature)
158. When a uranium isotope 92 U is bombarded with
a neutron, it generates 89
36 Kr , three neutrons 1
(1) kBT
and : 2
144 3
(1) 56 Ba (2) kBT
2
91
(2) 40 Zr 5
(3) kBT
(3) 101 2
36 Kr
7
(4) 103 (4) kBT
36 Kr 2

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E1 20
163. Which of the following graph represents the 166. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with
variation of resistivity (ρ) with temperature (T) for air as medium is 6 µF. With the introduction of a
dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 µF.
copper ? The permittivity of the medium is :
(e0=8.85×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2)
(1) 0.44×10−13 C2 N−1 m−2
(1)
(2) 1.77×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2
(3) 0.44×10−10 C2 N−1 m−2
(4) 5.00 C2 N−1 m−2

167. Dimensions of stress are :

(2)
(1) [ M L T−2 ]
(2) [ M L2 T−2 ]
(3) [ M L0T−2 ]
(4) [ M L−1 T−2 ]
(3)
168. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming
from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope
whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is :
(1) 3.66×10−7 rad
(2) 1.83×10−7 rad
(4)
(3) 7.32×10−7 rad
(4) 6.00×10−7 rad

169. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage

164. The color code of a resistance is given below : source. When L is removed from the circuit, the
phase difference between current and voltage
π
is . If instead C is removed from the circuit,
3
π
the phase difference is again between current
3
and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is :
The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively, (1) zero
are : (2) 0.5
(1) 470 kΩ, 5% (3) 1.0
(4) −1.0
(2) 47 kΩ, 10%
(3) 4.7 kΩ, 5% 170. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of
(4) 470 Ω, 5% 16×10−9 C m. The electric potential due to the
dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the
centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an
165. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation
between coherent sources is halved and the angle of 608 with the dipole axis is :
distance of the screen from the coherent sources is  1 
doubled, then the fringe width becomes :  = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
 4 π0 
(1) double
(1) 50 V
(2) half (2) 200 V
(3) four times (3) 400 V
(4) one-fourth (4) zero

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21 E1
171. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a 177. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a
magnetising field of 1200 A m −1 . The velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits
permeability of the material of the rod is : the ground after some time with a velocity of
(µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1) 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g=10 m/s2)
(1) 2.4π×10−4 T m A−1 (1) 360 m
(2) 340 m
(2) 8.0×10−5 T m A−1
(3) 320 m
(3) 2.4π×10−5 T m A−1
(4) 300 m
(4) 2.4π×10−7 T m A−1
178. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water
172. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of
carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary
the centre of the solenoid is : tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass
(µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1) of water that will rise in this tube is :
(1) 6.28×10−4 T (1) 2.5 g
(2) 3.14×10−4 T (2) 5.0 g
(3) 6.28×10−5 T (3) 10.0 g
(4) 3.14×10−5 T (4) 20.0 g
179. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a
173. A charged particle having drift velocity of
metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the
7.5×10 −4 m s −1 in an electric field of
right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire
3×10−10 Vm−1, has a mobility in m2 V−1 s−1
in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance
of :
wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the
(1) 2.25×1015
resistance wire is :
(2) 2.5×106 (1) 1.0×10−2 m
(3) 2.5×10−6 (2) 1.0×10−1 m
(4) 2.25×10−15 (3) 1.5×10−1 m
(4) 1.5×10−2 m
174. The quantities of heat required to raise the
180. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is :
temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii
r1 and r2 (r1=1.5 r2) through 1 K are in the
ratio :
27
(1)
8
9 (1) A B Y
(2) 0 0 0
4
0 1 0
3
(3) 1 0 0
2 1 1 1
5 (2) A B Y
(4)
3 0 0 0
175. An electron is accelerated from rest through a 0 1 1
potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie 1 0 1
wavelength of the electron is 1.227×10−2 nm, the 1 1 1
potential difference is : (3) A B Y
(1) 10 V 0 0 1
(2) 102 V 0 1 1
(3) 103 V 1 0 1
1 1 0
(4) 104 V
(4) A B Y
176. Taking into account of the significant figures, what 0 0 1
is the value of 9.99 m−0.0099 m ? 0 1 0
(1) 9.9801 m 1 0 0
(2) 9.98 m 1 1 0
(3) 9.980 m
(4) 9.9 m -o0o-

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