Practice Test-02 For AIATS-04: Chemistry
Practice Test-02 For AIATS-04: Chemistry
Practice Test-02 For AIATS-04: Chemistry
CODE
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Topics Covered :
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Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.
CHEMISTRY
Choose the correct answer :
(1)
Practice Test-02 for AIATS-04 (Code A) One Year Medical - 2021
7. Which of the following is the least reactive in 13. Benzotrichloride on alkaline hydrolysis gives
nucleophilic addition reaction?
(1) Phenol (2) Benzoic acid
(1) Formaldehyde (2) Propanone
(3) Benzaldehyde (4) Benzophenone
(3) Benzaldehyde (4) Acetic acid
14. Which of the following aldehyde gives Cannizzaro
Mo2O3
8. In the reaction CH4 + O2 A + H2O reaction?
, Pressure
Compound A in the above reaction is (1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO
(3) CH3CHCHO (4) CH3COOH 16. The strongest acid among the following is
(1) CH3COOH (2) C6H5COOH
CH3
(3) C6H5CH2COOH (4) C2H5COOH
10. Which of the following is formed when acetone is
condensed with chloroform in alkaline medium? 17. Which of the following is the weakest acid?
COOH COOH
CH3 CH3 OH
(1) C = CHCI (2) C (1) OCH3 (2)
CH3 CH3 CCl3 OCH3
CCl3 COOH
Cl COOH
(3) CH3 – C – CH3 (4)
(3) (4)
Cl CCl3 CCl3
C(CH3)3 OCH3
– 18. Choose the correct decreasing order of rate of
11. KMnO4/OH esterification of the following carboxylic acids
(1) HCOOH > CH 3COOH > (CH 3)2CHCOOH >
What is produced in the above reaction? (CH3)3CCOOH
COOH (2) (CH3)3CCOOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > CH3COOH >
HCOOH
(1) (3) (CH3)2CHCOOH > (CH3)3CCOOH > CH3COOH >
HCOOH
CHO (4) CH 3COOH > HCOOH > (CH 3 ) 3 CCOOH >
(CH3)2CHCOOH
(2)
19. Which of the following reduces Fehling solution?
(1) C6H5CHO (2) HCOOH
COCH3
(3) CH3COOH (4) C6H5COCH3
(3) 20. Which of the following is called glacial acetic acid?
(1) Solidified aqueous acetic acid
(4) Reaction does not take place
(2) Solidified pure acetic acid
Anhy. AlCl3 (3) Ice + acetic acid
12. C6H6 + COCl2 A
(4) Solidified vinegar
The product A in the above reaction is
21. Which of the following undergoes nucleophilic
(1) C6H5COC6H5 (2) C6H5COOH substitution most readily?
(3) C6H5CHO (4) C6H5COCH3
(1) CH3COOH (2) CH3CHO
(3) CH3COCI (4) (CH3CO)2O
(2)
One Year Medical - 2021 Practice Test-02 for AIATS-04 (Code A)
P2O5 H
+ COCH3 CH2CH3
22. CH3CONH2 A B
H2O A
32. . The reagent A is
The products A and B are respectively
(1) CH3NH2, CH3OH (1) LiAlH4 (2) NaBH4
(2) CH3CN, CH3COOH (3) H2, Ni (4) Zn-Hg, conc. HCl
(3) (CH3)2NH, CH3COCH3 34. In the Wolff-Kisher reduction, acetaldehyde is first
(4) CH3CH2NC, CH3CH2NH2 converted into
23. Which of the following does not reduce carboxylic (1) Imine (2) Oxime
acid to alcohols? (3) Hydrazone (4) Semicarbazone
(1) LiAlH4 (2) NaBH4 35. Which of the following reagents can distinguish
(3) B2H6 (4) H2 between acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde?
24. Benzoic acid on heating with soda lime gives (1) NaOH (2) Tollen’s reagent
(1) Phenol (2) Benzene (3) I2 + NaOH (4) NaHCO3
(3) Salicylic acid (4) Soda ash 36. Aldol condensation of acetaldehyde gives
25. Calcium formate on dry distillation gives (1) Crotonaldehyde (2) Cinnamaldehyde
(1) Formaldehyde (2) Formic acid (3) Cinnamic acid (4) Butyraldehyde
(3) Urea (4) Tartaric acid 37. W hich of the following can oxidise toluene to
26. Formic acid and benzoic acid may be distinguished benzaldehyde?
by the reaction with (1) Chromyl chloride (2) KMnO4/OH–
(1) NaOH (2) NaHCO3 (3) H2O2 (4) All of these
(3) [Ag(NH3)2]+ (4) Na2CO3 38. When acetaldehyde is treated with hydroxylamine,
27. Reaction of RCN with Grignard reagent followed by the medium should be moderately acidic because?
acidic hydrolysis gives (1) Salt formation takes place
(1) Ketone (2) Primary amine (2) Electrophilicity of carbonyl carbon is increased
(3) Alkyl isocyanide (4) Acidamide (3) Basicity of hydroxylamine is increased
28. Which of the following acids does not form dimer in (4) All of these
vapour phase?
39. Which of the following is most easily attacked by a
(1) Benzoic acid (2) Propionic acid nucleophile?
(3) Picric acid (4) Butyric acid (1) Acetone (2) Benzaldehyde
29. Which of the following is not a dibasic acid in water? (3) Propionaldehyde (4) Acetophenone
(1) Isophthalic acid (2) Succinic acid
40. A compound (X) C6H12O forms DNP derivative and
(3) Fumaric acid (4) Benzoic acid gives negative Tollen’s test but positive iodoform test.
30. Salicylic acid is industrially prepared by treating X (1) Hexan-2-one (2) 2-methylpentan-3-one
with CO2 at 4-7 atm pressure and 400 K. X is
(3) Hexan-3-one (4) 2-methylpentanal
(1) Phenol (2) Anisole
41. Cyclic ketal is formed on reacting a ketone in the
(3) Phenetole (4) Toluene presence of dry HCl with
31. Acetophenone on reduction with NaBH4 gives (1) Ethanol (2) Ethanal
(1) Allylic alcohol (2) Benzylic alcohol (3) Glycol (4) Glyceraldehyde
(3) Aryl alcohol (4) Vinylic alcohol 42. Aldehydes on reduction with HI give
32. Which of the following gives pink colour with Schiff’s
(1) Alcohols (2) Alkanes
reagent?
(3) Ketones (4) Alkynes
(1) CH3CHO (2) CH3CH2COOH
43. Reaction of acetylchloride with diethylcadmium gives
(3) C3H5COOH (4) C6H5COC6H5
(1) Acetone (2) Butanone
(3) Butanal (4) Butanoic acid
(3)
Practice Test-02 for AIATS-04 (Code A) One Year Medical - 2021
44. For the reaction, 2 I
(2) CH3 CHO
NaOH
Ag red hot Fe tube CO, HCl
CHCl3 A B C CH OH
873 K 3
anh, AlCl3/CuCl (3) CH3 CHO
H
The final product C in the above reaction is
HI
(1) Benzophenone (2) Benzaldehyde (4) CH3 COCH3
Red P
(3) Reduction
(3) (4)
(4) Oxidation
81. W hich of the f ollowing compound is a
88. Vinegar is a solution of
monocarboxylic acid stabilized by intramolecular
hydrogen bonding and is used to prepare an (1) Benzoic acid (2) Acetic acid
analgesic? (3) Formic acid (4) Formaldehyde
(1) Picric acid (2) Salicylic acid 89. The correct decreasing acidic order is
(3) Succinic acid (4) Fumaric acid (1) CH 3COOH > C 6 H 5 COOH > C 2 H 5 COOH >
82. Consider the sequence C6H5CH2COOH
(2) C6H5COOH > C6H5CH2COOH > CH3COOH >
CH3 Cl CrO2 Cl2 H , H2 O
C6H6 A B C C2H5COOH
aq.AlCl3 CS2
(3) C6H5CH2COOH > C6H5COOH > C2H5COOH >
Product C is CH3COOH
(1) Benzaldehyde (2) Benzoic acid (4) C 2 H 5 COOH > CH 3 COOH > C 6 H 5 COOH >
(3) Phenylethanol (4) Diphenyl ketone C6H5CH2COOH
83. Which of the following acids has highest pKa value? 90. For the reaction
(6)
One Year Medical - 2021 Practice Test-02 for AIATS-04 (Code A)
BOTANY
91. Select the wrong option w.r.t. biodiversity 96. India has only ______ of the world’s land area, its
(1) Immense diversity exists only at the species share of the global species diversity is 8.1 percent.
level (1) 24% (2) 8.1%
(2) This term was popularised by Edward Wilson (3) 2.4% (4) 12%
(3) Heterogeneity exists at all levels of biological 97. How many animal species recorded from India?
organisation (1) More than 45,000 (2) More than 90,000
(4) Studied at all the levels of biological organisation (3) Less than 45,000 (4) Less than 90,000
92. Consider the following statements w.r.t. genetic 98. Number of bird species recorded from India and
diversity Amazon rain forest respectively.
a. A single species might show low diversity at the (1) 1200 and 1300 (2) 1300 and 1200
genetic level.
(3) 1300 and 1400 (4) 1400 and 1300
b. Rauwolfia vomitoria show variation in the terms 99. Midwest of USA represents
of potency.
(1) Tropical rain forest
c. Rauwolfia vomitoria show variation in the terms
of concentration of active chemical reserpine. (2) Tropical deciduous forest
(3) Grassland
d. India has 1000 varieties of mango.
(4) Temperate forest
How many are correct?
100. Extinction of more than 200 species of Cichlid fish
(1) Three (2) Two
in a lake of East Africa occurred because of
(3) Four (4) One introduction of
93. According to IUCN (2004), the total number of plant (1) Carrot grass (2) Clarias
and animal species described are (3) Nile Perch (4) Eupatorium
(1) Slightly less than 1.5 million 101. World Summit on sustainable development was held
(2) 17-18 million in
(3) 20-50 million (1) Johannesburg in year 2002
(4) Slightly more than 1.5 million (2) Rio-de-Janeiro in year 1992
94. According to Robert May the global species diversity (3) New York in year 2002
at about (4) Canada in year 1987
(1) 1.7 million (2) 20-50 million 102. Which statement is wrong w.r.t. biodiversity?
(3) 70 million (4) 7 million (1) Amphibians species are endemic to Western
Ghats
95. Identify A, B, C and D in the given pie chart.
(2) Amazonian rain f orest has the greatest
biodiversity on earth
A
(3) Diversity decreases from high to low altitudes
B (4) Genetic diversity helps in the formation of
Fishes ecotype
C 103. Which is wrong option about biosphere reserve?
D
(1) Biosphere reserves were launched in 1975 under
Man and Biosphere programme (MAB)
(1) A – Birds B – Mammals (2) There are 13 biosphere reserves in India
C – Reptiles D – Amphibians (3) Buffer zone surrounds the core zone
(2) A – Amphibians B – Birds (4) Transition zone is an area of active cooperation
between reserve management and local peoples
C – Reptiles D – Mammals
104. Exploring molecular genetic and species level
(3) A – Mammals B – Birds diversity for products of economic importance is
C – Reptiles D – Mammals called
(4) A – Reptiles B – Mammals (1) Agroforestry (2) Phytoremediation
C – Amphibians D – Birds (3) Bioprospecting (4) Bioremediation
(7)
Practice Test-02 for AIATS-04 (Code A) One Year Medical - 2021
105. In the given below figure what does A and B indicate 112. Within a region, species richness increases with
w.r.t. invertebrate? increasing explored area but only up to a limit, was
given by
(1) Alexander von Humboldt
B (2) Paul Ehrlich
(3) David Tilman
A
(4) Gause
113. The two main criteria for determination of a hot spot
of biodiversity include
(1) A – Insects B – Poriferan (1) Sacredness of biota and decline of biodiversity
(2) A – Crustacean B – Insect (2) Endemism and degree of threat to species
(3) A – Insect B – Crustacean (3) Topography and endemism
(4) A – Insect B – Coelenterants (4) Economic importance of species and level of
106. Mark the correct one w.r.t. hot spots threat
(1) They cover more than 2% of the earth’s land area 114. Just downstream from the point of sewage discharge
but if they are properly conserved, they will there is a
reduce extinction by about 30% (1) Sharp decline in dissolved oxygen
(2) As many as six hot spots are located in the (2) Sharp increase in dissolved oxygen
tropics
(3) Decrease in biochemical oxygen demand
(3) Three hot spots in India are Indo-Burma, Western
(4) Decrease in chemical oxygen demand
ghats and Sri Lanka and Himalaya
115. National forest policy of India has recommended
(4) The key criteria for determining a hot spot are
____ forest cover for hilly areas
low endemism and high level of species richness
(1) 33 (2) 67
107. Mark the incorrect match
(3) 19.4 (4) 30
(1) Lungs of the planet – Amazon rain forest
(2) Alien species – Lantana, Parthenium 116. If the amount of DDT in water of a lake is 0.003 ppb
the amount may be _____ ppm in small fishes of
(3) Recent extinctions – Dodo, Steller’s sea cow that lake due to biomagnification
(4) Cryopreservation – In-situ conservation (1) 0.04 (2) 0.5
108. Sample plot with maximum biodiversity is (3) 2 (4) 0.003
(1) Parrot = 16, Beetles = 8, Crow = 16 , Deer = 8 117. Catalytic converters fitted into automobiles for
(2) Pigeon = 8, Crow = 12, Lizard = 10 reducing emission of poisonous gases like carbon
(3) Elephant = 4, Insect = 4, Lizard = 4, Crow = 4 monoxide and nitric oxides have expensive metals,
except
(4) Lion = 8, Aphids = 8, Deer = 20
(1) Platinum (2) Palladium
109. Value of Z for frugivorous birds in tropical forests of
different continents is (3) Rhodium (4) Thorium
(1) 1.15 (2) 0.6 to 1.2 118. Mark the incorrect statement
(3) 0.1 to 0.2 (4) 1.2 (1) CFC is most effective ODS
110. Which of the following is not a reason for the loss (2) Global warming will push tropics into temperate
of biodiversity? areas
(1) Habitat fragmentation (3) All the buses of Delhi were converted to run on
CNG by the end of 2004
(2) Over harvesting of many marine fishes
(4) Industrial waste waters harm living organisms
(3) Introduction of Nile perch into lake Victoria
119. Persistent pesticides are more hazardous to
(4) Coevolution
(1) Herbivores
111. What percentage of mammals species are facing
threat of extinction? (2) Producers
(1) 32 (2) 31 (3) Primary carnivores
(3) 23 (4) 12 (4) Top carnivores
(8)
One Year Medical - 2021 Practice Test-02 for AIATS-04 (Code A)
120. Consider the following statements (3) CO2 = 60%, CH4 = 20%, CFC = 14%, N2O = 6%
a. According to CPCB the value of silent zone is (4) CO2 = 30%, CH4 = 30%, CFC = 24%, N2O = 16%
150 dB during day time. 127. Find the incorrect statement in relation to
b. Jhum cultivation in south western states of India, eutrophication
has contributed to deforestation. (1) It starts with introduction of nitrates and
c. In India, the Air (Prevention and Control of phosphate in the water body
Pollution) Act came into force in 1987. (2) Results in increasing fertility of water body due
d. The Government of India in 1980s has introduced to which plant and animal life burgeons
the concept of JFM so as to work closely with (3) Silt and organic debris pile up making the lake
the local communities for protecting and shallower and colder
managing forests.
(4) Cultural eutrophication occurs due to human
How many are incorrect? activity
(1) Four (2) Three 128. Recognising the deleterious effects of ozone
(3) Two (4) One depletion, on international treaty, effective in 1989
121. Identify the incorrect statement which was signed to control the emission of ozone
(1) Taxon facing extremely high risk of extinction in depleting substances is
the wild in the immediate future is called (1) Montreal protocol (2) Kyoto protocol
critically endangered (3) Earth summit (4) World summit
(2) Taxon facing very high risk of extinction in wild 129. Impurities in sewage is ________ which make
in near future is called endangered domestic sewage unfit for human use.
(3) Presently 23% of all amphibian species in the (1) 10% (2) 0.01%
world face the threat of extinction (3) 1% (4) 0.1%
(4) A taxon which has not yet been assessed is 130. All solid waste that we generate can be categorised
known as not evaluated into
122. Species area relationship is represented by equation (1) Two types (2) Three types
log S = log C + z log A (3) Four types (4) Five types
in the equation, regression coefficient is represented
131. Temperature increased in 20th century, of earth is
by
_____, most of it during the last three decades.
(1) S (2) A
(1) 0.6°C (2) 6°C
(3) Z (4) C
(3) 1.6°C (4) 16°C
123. Which among the following acts as ozone depleting
132. The ozone hole over Antarctica develops each year
substance?
between
(1) CFC
(1) July and Early September
(2) CH4
(2) August and September
(3) Halons
(3) August and Early October
(4) More than one option is correct
(4) February and March
124. Which statement is incorrect about jhum cultivation?
133. Which one of the following is not a primary cause of
(1) Also known as shifting cultivation air pollution?
(2) Reforestation which allows soil conservation (1) Burning of fossil fuel (2) Industries
(3) Destroys forests and causes soil erosion (3) Automobiles (4) Soil erosion
(4) This practice done by many tribal communities 134. The most common source of pollution of water
of north eastern states of India bodies
125. Which of the following is not an effect of global (1) Discharge from thermal power plant
warming?
(2) Sewage
(1) El Nino
(3) Industries
(2) Temperature inversion in atmospheric layers
(4) Eichhornia
(3) Skin cancer
135. Water logging brings
(4) Shifting of climate zones
(1) Formation of alkaline soil
126. Relative contribution of various Greenhouse gases to
total global warming is (2) Formation of mild acidic soil
(1) CO2 = 40%, CH4 = 30%, CFC = 24%, N2O = 6% (3) Formation of marshes
(2) CO2 = 60%, CFC = 20%, CH4 = 14%, N2O = 6% (4) Formation of strong acidic soil
(9)
Practice Test-02 for AIATS-04 (Code A) One Year Medical - 2021
136. Find the correct match (w.r.t. threatened species in (2) Relatively more constant and predictable
the world) environment
(1) Birds – 31% (3) Few and generalized niches
(2) Amphibians – 32% (4) Greater seasonal changes
(3) Gymnosperms – 23% 146. Which is incorrect w.r.t. biosphere reserve?
(4) Mammals – 12%
(1) India has 14 biosphere reserves
137. Which of the following is the example of recent
extincitions from Australia? (2) Research activity is allowed in buffer zone
(1) Dodo (2) Quagga (3) Core zone is allowed for tribal settlements
(3) Thylacine (4) Steller’s sea cow (4) Human activities are allowed in transition zone
138. Wild life (Protection) act was amended in 147. A table of species diversity in different areas is given
below
(1) 1972 (2) 1991
Taxonomic group
(3) 1980 (4) 1927
139. Biogeographic region in India having maximum A B C D E
endemism for amphibians is I 3 3 9
(1) Western ghat (2) Himalaya II 10 4 3 2
III 5 4 4 5 6 Number of individuals
(3) Deccan Peninsula (4) Gangetic plain
IV 4 3 2 2
140. The “Evil quartet” factor resulting in extinction of
passenger pigeon and cichlid fish respectively are Which area is seemingly more diverse?
(1) Habitat loss and Alien species invasion (1) III (2) I
(2) Habitat fragmentation and over-exploitation (3) II (4) IV
(3) Co-extinction and alien species invasion 148. What is the relative contribution of CFCs to global
(4) Over-exploitation and alien species invasion warming?
141. Which of the following may not be a reason for (1) 6% (2) 14%
extinction of biodiversity?
(3) 20% (4) 60%
(1) Habitat fragmentation
149. A. Species richness increases with increasing
(2) Habitat destruction explored area, but only upto a limit
(3) Over-exploitation B. Dodo, Quagga, Thylacine and Steller’s sea cow
(4) Proto-cooperation are some examples of recent extinctions
142. Tropical amazonian rain forest in South America has C. Tropical latitude had a long evolutionary time for
greatest biodiversity on earth which harbours the fish species diversification
species nearly
(1) All are correct (2) Only B is correct
(1) 1300 (2) 427
(3) Only C is incorrect (4) Only A is correct
(3) 3000 (4) 378
150. The IUCN Red list (2004) documents the extinction
143. The colonisation of tropical pacific islands by humans
of 784 species, including
caused the extinction of more than 2000 species of
(1) 338 vertebrates, 359 invertebrates and 87 plants
(1) Insects (2) Native birds
(2) 359 vertebrates, 338 invertebrates and 87 plants
(3) Native fishes (4) Vascular plants
(3) 338 vertebrates, 259 invertebrates and 187 plants
144. Select incorrect match w.r.t. sacred grooves
(4) 359 vertebrates, 238 invertebrates, 187 plants
(1) Jaintia hills – Meghalaya
151. Which is the correct option w.r.t. remedy for plastic
(2) Aravalli hills – Rajasthan
waste?
(3) Bastar area – Karnataka
A. Polyblend is a fine powder of recycled modified
(4) Western Ghat – Maharashtra plastic.
145. Greater species diversity in tropics is due to B. Zero waste procedure.
(1) Absence of pests
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One Year Medical - 2021 Practice Test-02 for AIATS-04 (Code A)
C. It was due to collaboration of town people of 160. W hich one is the characteristic of artif icial
Arcata and biologists of Humboldt State ecosystem?
University.
(1) High productivity
D. Khan offers ` 6 to rag pickers for plastic waste,
(2) Highly complex food chain
against ` 0.4 per kg.
(3) Cycling of nutrients is more
(1) All are correct
(4) More diversity
(2) All are correct, except B
161. Most efficient and productive ecosystem is
(3) A and D are correct
(1) Coniferous forest (2) Grassland
(4) Only D is correct
(3) Sugarcane field (4) Aquatic ecosystem
152. Which is not associated with water pollution?
162. Rate of organic matter synthesized by producers
(1) Algal bloom (2) Biomagnification per unit area per unit time is
(3) Stratification (4) Eutrophication (1) Gross primary productivity
153. Snow blindness is due to (2) Net primary productivity
(1) A high dose of UV-B rays (3) Secondary productivity
(2) A high dose of heavy metal (4) Community productivity
(3) A high dose of greenhouse gases 163. Select the incorrect statement
(4) A high dose of nitrate and phosphate (1) Source of energy is sun in detritus food chain
154. The last twenty years alone have witnessed the (2) Jackals are both carnivores and scavengers
disappearance of
(3) Ecological pyramid does not accommodate a
(1) 784 species (2) 27 species food web
(3) 338 species (4) 359 species (4) Carbon constitutes 49% of dry weight of
organisms
155. The IUCN Red List (2004) documents the extinction
of how many plant species? 164. Each trophic level has a certain mass of nonliving
material at a particular time which is called
(1) 87 species (2) 784 species
(1) Standing state
(3) 27 species (4) 338 species
156. How much drugs currently sold in the market (2) Standing crop
worldwide are derived from plants? (3) Standing quality
(1) >50% (2) 50% (4) More than one option is correct
(3) <20% (4) >25% 165. Which of the following factor decrease rate of
157. There are many reasons to conserve biodiversity decomposition?
some obvious and others not so obvious.
(1) High temperature
They can be grouped into _______ categories.
(2) Nitrogen rich detritus
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Moisture
(3) Three (4) Four
158. Hot spots could reduce the ongoing mass extinction (4) Anaerobic condition
by almost 166. Choose odd one w.r.t. primary consumer
(1) 20% (2) 25% (1) Zooplankton (2) Phytoplankton
(3) 30% (4) 35%
(3) Grasshopper (4) Cow
159. Which of the following is not functional aspect of
ecosystem? 167. Most stable ecosystem is
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Practice Test-02 for AIATS-04 (Code A) One Year Medical - 2021
168. Pyramid for biomass in tree ecosystem is 176. Insectivorous plants are
(1) Inverted (2) Upright (1) Primary producer
(2) Submerged free floating (2) Size of organism commonly increase at higher
trophic level
(3) Marsh meadow
(3) Source of energy is Sun
(4) Forest
(4) Always begins with producers
171. Pioneer species for lithosere is
178. Maximum contribution out of the total cost of various
(1) Phytoplanktons (2) Lichens ecosystem services is for
(3) Zooplanktons (4) Mosses (1) Soil formation
172. Chief reservoir is Earth’s crust for ________ cycling. (2) Nutrient cycling
(1) Carbon (2) Oxygen (3) Climate regulation
(3) Phosphorus (4) Nitrogen (4) Habitat for wildlife
173. Find the correct statement w.r.t. secondary 179. NPP is higher in
succession.
(1) C4 plants
(1) Has more seral stages
(2) C3 plants
(2) Rate of succession is much slower
(3) CAM plants
(3) Since some soil or sediment is present, it is
faster (4) C2 plants
(4) Lichen is pioneer species 180. “Only one species benefits and the interaction is
174. W hich of the f ollowing is a shortcomings of detrimental to the other species”
ecological pyramid? How many of the given population interaction may
(1) Does not assume a simple food chain explain this statement?
(2) Saprophytes are not given any place Mutualism, Commensalism, Predation,
(3) Species belonging to more than one trophic Parasitism, Ammensalism, Competition
levels are considered
(1) Six
(4) Both (2) & (3) (2) Four
175. Nutrient cycles are of ________ types. (3) Three
(1) Seven (2) Four (4) Two
(3) Six (4) Two
(12)
One Year Medical - 2021 Practice Test-02 for AIATS-04 (Code A)
A
CODE
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456
ANSWERS
1. (2) 37. (1) 73. (1) 109. (1) 145. (2)
2. (1) 38. (2) 74. (1) 110. (4) 146. (3)
3. (3) 39. (3) 75. (1) 111. (3) 147. (1)
4. (3) 40. (1) 76. (1) 112. (1) 148. (2)
5. (1) 41. (3) 77. (1) 113. (2) 149. (1)
6. (3) 42. (2) 78. (3) 114. (1) 150. (1)
7. (4) 43. (2) 79. (2) 115. (2) 151. (3)
8. (1) 44. (2) 80. (1) 116. (2) 152. (3)
9. (2) 45. (3) 81. (2) 117. (4) 153. (1)
10. (2) 46. (1) 82. (3) 118. (3) 154. (2)
11. (4) 47. (2) 83. (2) 119. (4) 155. (1)
12. (1) 48. (2) 84. (1) 120. (2) 156 (4)
13. (2) 49. (1) 85. (3) 121. (3) 157. (3)
14. (1) 50. (1) 86. (1) 122. (3) 158. (3)
15. (4) 51. (2) 87. (2) 123. (4) 159. (4)
16. (2) 52. (2) 88. (2) 124. (2) 160. (1)
17. (3) 53. (2) 89. (2) 125. (3) 161. (3)
18. (1) 54. (2) 90. (4) 126. (3) 162. (1)
19. (2) 55. (3) 91. (1) 127. (3) 163. (1)
20. (2) 56. (2) 92. (1) 128. (1) 164. (4)
21. (3) 57. (4) 93. (4) 129. (4) 165. (4)
22. (2) 58. (3) 94. (4) 130. (2) 166. (2)
23. (2) 59. (2) 95. (3) 131. (1) 167. (2)
24. (2) 60. (4) 96. (3) 132. (3) 168. (2)
25. (1) 61. (3) 97. (2) 133. (4) 169. (1)
26. (3) 62. (1) 98. (1) 134. (2)
170. (3)
27. (1) 63. (4) 99. (4) 135. (1) 171. (2)
28. (3) 64. (2) 100. (3) 136. (2) 172. (3)
29. (4) 65. (3) 101. (1) 137. (3) 173. (3)
30. (1) 66. (2) 102. (3) 138. (2) 174. (2)
31. (2) 67. (3) 103. (2) 139. (1) 175. (4)
32. (1) 68. (1) 104. (3) 140. (4)
176. (4)
33. (4) 69. (3) 105. (3) 141. (4)
177. (2)
34. (3) 70. (3) 106. (3) 142. (3) 178. (1)
35. (3) 71. (2) 107. (4) 143. (2) 179. (1)
36. (1) 72. (2) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (4)
(13)