Dams and Hydraulic Structure MCQ

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 1 Multiple Choice Questions
Estimation and costing (Quantity surveying contracts and tenders)
Q.1 Which of the following componat of buttress dam is also call a counterfort
a Corbel b Buttress
c Lateral brece d Sloping deck [Ans. : b]
Q.2 No reinforcement is necessary in the

a Multiple arch buttress dam
b Mushroom head buttress dam
c Massive head buttress dam
d Free head buttress dam [Ans. : d]
Q.3 In a syphon aqueduct

a Drainage passes over the canal and F.S.L. of the canal is below the bottom of
the drainage trough
b Drainage passes over the canal and F.S.L. of the canal is above the bottom of
the drainage trough
c Canal passes over the drainage and H.F.L. of the drainage is above the
bottom of the canal trough
d Canal passes over the drainage and H.F.L. of the drainage is below the
bottom of the canal trough [Ans. : c]
Q.4 If the height of the hydraulic gradient line above the floor of thickness t is h
and the specific gravity of the material of the floor is G, the minimum
thickness t of the floor downstream of the crest-wall, is given by the equation
a t = (h + 1)/(G + t) b t = (h - 1)/(G + t)
c t = (h - 1)/(G - t) d t = (h + 1)/G [Ans. : c]
Q.5 To hold hydraulic jumps, baffle walls are provided in

a Sarda type falls b English type falls
c Montague type falls d Vertical type falls [Ans. : b]
Q.6 Pick up the correct sequence of the part of a canal system from the following
a Head work-distributary-branch canal-minor
b Head works-main canal-branch canal-distributary-minor
c Head works-main canal-branch canal-minor-distributary
d Heads works-branch canal-main canal distributary, minor [Ans. : b]
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Q.7 Pick up the correct statement from the following

a Escapes are essential safety valves in a canal system
b The escapes must lead the surplus water to natural drainages
c The escapes are aligned to take advantage of contours of lower values
d All the above [Ans. : d]
Q.8 For a unique design of a channel by Kennedy's theory

a Its breadth must only be known
b Its depth must only be known
c Its breadth and depth ratio must only be known
d All the above [Ans. : c]
Q.9 Which of the following gate is also called flush boards?

a Dropping shutters b Tainter gates
c Drum gates d Vertical lift gates [Ans. : a]
Q.10 The main cause of silting up a channel,

a Non-regime section b Inadequate slope
c Defective head regulator d All the above [Ans. : d]

a In a level crossing, a crest with its top at the canal F.S.L. is provided across
the drainage at its up-stream junction with canal
b In a level crossing a regulator is provided across the drainage at its down-
stream
c In a level crossing, a cross regulator is provided on the canal below the
crossing
Q.12 In a Sarda type fall, the rectangular crest, may be used for discharge up to
a 6 cumecs b 10 cumecs
c 14 cumecs d 20 cumecs [Ans. : c]
Q.13 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

a If the flexibility is more than one, the outlet is hyper-proportional
b If the setting of an outlet is higher than that required for proportionality, the
outlet is hyper-proportional

c If the flexibility is zero, it is a rigid module

Q.14 According to Khosla, the exits gradient of surface flow

a Depends upon the b/d ratio
b Is independent of the b/d ratio
c Is independent of the depths of d/s cut off walls
d None of these [Ans. : a]
Q.15 A hydraulic structure is designed to withstand

a Seepage forces b Hydraulic jump
c Hydraulic pressure d All the above [Ans. : d]
Q.16 In Montague type fall

a A straight glacis is provided b A circular glacis is provided
c A parabolic glacis is provided d No glacis is provided [Ans. : c]
Q.17 Cross regulators in main canals are provided

a To regulate water supply in the distributaries
b To increase water head upstream when a main canal is running with low
supplies
c To overflow excessive flow water
d None of these [Ans. : b]
Q.18 Which of the following gate works on the principle of counterweights against
the water pressure?
a Dropping shutters b Stop logs and needles
c Stoney roller gate d Drum gates [Ans. : a]
Q.19 According to Lacey, in regime conditions

a Silt is kept in suspension by vertical components of eddies
b Entire cross-section of the channel is generated at all points by the forces
normal to the wetted perimeter
c Both (a) and (b)
d Neither (a) nor (b) [Ans. : c]

Q.20 The most suitable section of a lined canal, is

a Triangular section with circular bottom for small canals
b Trapezoidal section with rounded corners for large canals
c Both (a) and (b)
d None of these [Ans. : c]
Q.21 An outlet is said to be proportional if its flexibility, is

a Zero b Less than one
c More than one d One [Ans. : d]
Q.22 The level of the floor of a syphon aqueduct can be obtained

a By subtracting the depth of the culvert from the canal bed level
b By subtracting the thickness of culvert plus the depth of the culvert from the
canal bed level
c Both (a) and (b)
Q.23 If the straight sides of a triangular section of a lined canal with circular
bottom of radius D, make an angle ? with horizontal, the hydraulic mean
depth is
a D b D/2
c D/3 d D/5 [Ans. : b]
Q.24 According to Bligh's creep theory, percolating water flows along

a Straight path under the foundation of the dam
b Circular path under the foundation of the dam
c The outline of the base of the foundation of the dam
Q.25 In a simple deck slab buttress dam of given height the buttress spacing can be
increased by
a Increasing the upstream Slope.
b Decreasing the upstream Slope.
c either A or B

Q.26 ________________ are used only for very minor works.

a Dropping gates b Stop logs and needles
c Rectangular gates d Drum gates [Ans. : b]
Q.27 For the design of major hydraulic structures on the canals, the method
generally preferred to, is based on
a Bligh's theory b Electrical analogy method
c The relaxation method
d Khosla's method of independent variables [Ans. : d]
Q.28 Pick up the incorrect statement from the following
a Side walls of a venturi head flume are splayed out from the end of the throat
at 1 : 10 for a length of 4.5 m
b Length of side walls should be such that the width of the flume is made
equal to 2/3rd the bed width of the distributary
c Once the width of the flume becomes 2/3rd of the width of the distributary,
the splayed walls are increased to 1 in 3 to get full bed width
d None of these [Ans. : d]
Q.29 Irrigation canals are generally aligned along
a Ridge line b Contour line
c Valley line d Straight line [Ans. : a]
Q.30 In a canal syphon, the flow is
a Under atmospheric pressure b Pipe flow
c With critical velocity d Under negative pressure [Ans. : b]
Q.31 The main function of a diversion head works of a canal from a river, is
a To remove silt b To control floods
c To store water d To raise water level [Ans. : d]
a The full supply level of a canal should be above ground level
b According to Lacey, regime conditions require a particular slope for a given
discharge and silt factor
c In case the ground slope is less than the required bed slope, the silt factor
must be reduced by permitting the entry of coarse silt

Q.33 If d1 is the depth of cutting, d2 is the height of the bank from bed level r2 : 1
and r1 : 1 are the slopes in filling and cutting respectively, the horizontal
distance n between the bed and bank, is
a x = r1 d1 b x = r2 d2
c x = d1 / r1 d x = d2 / r2 [Ans. : b]
Q.34 The ratio of the rate of change of discharge of an outlet and parent channel, is
known as
a Efficiency b Sensitivity
c Flexibility d Modular limit [Ans. : c]
Q.35 The width of a dowla is generally kept between 30 to 60 cm and its height
above the road level should invariably be more than
a 10 cm b 20 cm
c 30 cm d 40 cm [Ans. : c]

a Water table generally follows the ground surface above it with a few
exceptions
b Static level of water in an open well indicates the position of the water table
c At water table, hydrostatic pressure is zero
Q.37 Side slopes generally kept for canals in loam soil, are:
a 1 : 1 in cutting and 11/2 : 1 in filling
b 11/2 : 1 in cutting and 2 : 1 in filling
c Neither (a) nor (b) d Both (a) and (b) [Ans. : d]
Q.38 For the stability of a structure against seepage pressure according to Khosla's
creep theory, the critical gradient is
a Zero b 0.25
c 0.50 d 1.00 [Ans. : d]
Q.39 The length of a meander is the distance along the river between the tangent
point of one curve to the tangent point of
a Reverse curve b Next curve of the same order
c Reverse curve plus the width of the river
d None of these [Ans. : d]

Q.40 In a barrage, the crest level is kept

a Low with large gates b High with large gates
c High with no gates d Low with no gates [Ans. : a]
Q.41 An outlet which maintains a constant discharge irrespective of fluctuation in

the water levels of the supplying channel or water course, is known as
a Non-modular outlet b Semi-modular outlet
c Flexible modular outlet d Right modular outlet [Ans. : d]
Q.42 Process of meandering is due to

a Sediment load of streams
b Discharge and hydraulic properties of streams
c Relative erodibility of the bed and banks
Q.43 The ratio of the head recovered to the head put in, is known as
a Efficiency b Sensitivity
c Flexibility d Modular limit [Ans. : a]
Q.44 If H and d are the water depth and drop in the bed level at a Sarda fall, the
width B of the trapezoidal crest, is given by
a B = 0.22 v(H + d) b B = 0.33 v(H + d)
c B = 0.44 v(H + d) d B = 0.55 v(H + d) [Ans. : d]
Q.45 When a canal and a drainage approach each other at the same level, the
structure so provided, is
a An aqueduct b A syphon
c A level crossing d Inlet and outlet [Ans. : c]
Q.46 The difference in level between the top of a bank and supply level in a canal,
is called
a Berm b Free board
c Height of bank d None of these [Ans. : b]
Q.47 The crest level of a canal diversion head work, depends upon
a F.S.L. of the canal b Discharge perimeters
c Pond level d All the above [Ans. : d]

Q.48 The most suitable location of a canal head work, is

a Boulders stage of the river b Delta stage of the river
c Rock stage of the river d Trough stage of the river [Ans. : d]
Q.49 While deciding the alignment of a proposed canal taking off from a river at B,
three alignments of approximately equal lengths are available. These cross a
drainages at C1, C2 and C3 where drainage bed levels C1 > C2 > C3, you will
provide at site C3
a An aqueduct b A syphon aqueduct
c A super passage d A syphon [Ans. : a]
Q.50 Canals constructed for draining off water from water logged areas, are
known
a Drains b Inundation canals
c Valley canals d Contour canals [Ans. : a]
Q.51 A fall in a canal bed is generally provided, if

a Ground slope exceeds the designed bed slope
b Designed bed slope exceeds the ground slope
c Ground slope is practically the same as the designed bed slope
Q.52 The depth of the crest of a scouring sluice below the crest of a head regulator,
is generally kept
a 0.20 m b 1.20 m
c 2.20 m d 3.20 m [Ans. : b]
Q.53 Bligh's theory of seepage assumes

a Equal weightage to the horizontal and vertical creep
b More weightage to horizontal creep than vertical creep
c Less weightage to horizontal creep than vertical creep
d Loss of head follows the sine curve [Ans. : a]
Q.54 During the construction of an earthen dam by hydraulic fill method,
development of pore pressure becomes important in the __________________
a Central impervious core b Pervious outer shell
c ransition zone d Both central core and outer shell
[Ans. : a]

Q.55 The process of laying and compacting earth in layers by power rollers under
OMC for construction of earthen dams is known as ______________________
a Rolled fill method b Hydraulic fill method
c OMC method d Compaction [Ans. : a]
Q.56 For diversion of flood water of rivers, the type of canal constructed, is
a Ridge canal b Perennial canal
c Inundation canal d Canal [Ans. : c]
Q.57 The blanket in earth dam is provided ___________________

a At the ground level on u/s side
b At the ground level on the d/s side
c At the ground level of the D/s side of the dam
d On the D/s slope [Ans. : a]
Q.58 Which embankment has the thickness of the diaphragm at an elevation less
than 10 meters or the height of the embankment above the corresponding
elevation?
a Diaphragm type dam b Zoned type dam
c Non-homogenous earth dam d Homogenous earth dam [Ans. : a]
Q.59 If D is the depth of water upstream of the throat above its sill, B is the width
of the throat, to achieve critical flow in an open venturi flume, the theoretical
maximum flow Q, is
a Q = 1.71 BD1/2 b Q = 1.71 BD
c Q = 1.71 BD3/2 d Q = 1/71 BD2/3 [Ans. : c]
Q.60 Retrogression of the bed level of a river downstream a weir, occurs due to
a Heavy impact of water b Increase of the bed level
c Less percentage of silt d Soft soil strata [Ans. : c]
Q.61 In a concrete canal the approximate permissible velocity of water should not
exceed
a 0.5 m/sec b 1 m/sec
c 1.5 m/sec d 2 m/sec [Ans. : d]

Q.62 A hydraulic jump is generally formed when a stream moving with

a A hyper-critical velocity meets a stream moving with a critical velocity
b A hyper-critical velocity meets a stream moving with a hyper-critical
velocity
c A hyper-critical velocity meets a stream moving with a sub-critical velocity
d A sub-critical velocity meets a stream moving with a hyper-critical velocity
[Ans. : c]
Q.63 A fall which maintains its depth, is

a A trapezoidal notch fall b A low weir fall
c A rectangular notch fall d All the above [Ans. : d]
Q.64 Presence of tail-water in a gravity dam ____________________

a Increases the principal stress and decreases the shear stress
b Increases both the principal stress and the shear stress
c Decreases the principal stress and increases the shear stress
d Decreases both the principal stress and the shear stress [Ans. : d]
Q.65 The saturation line is the line up to which banks get saturated after the canal
runs for some time. The saturation gradient in ordinary loam soil, is generally
a 2:1 b 3:1
c 4:1 d 5:1 [Ans. : c]
Q.66 The uplift pressure on the roof of an inverted syphon, is maximum when
a Drain in running dry b Canal is running dry
c Canal is running with F.S.L. d Drain is running with H.F.L. [Ans. : d]
Q.67 The ratio of the discharge over a trapezoidal crest to a rectangular crest of
Sarda falls of identical parameters, is
a 1.084 b 1.074
c 1.064 d 1.054 [Ans. : a]
Q.68 Pond level in a canal regulator is the level of water

a at highest flood level b at the crest level
c at the lowest level d none of these. [Ans. : d]

Q.69 The crest level of a canal diversion head work, depends upon
a F.S.L. of the canal b discharge perimeters
c pond level d all the above [Ans. : d]
Q.70 Retrogression of the bed level of a river downstream a weir, occurs due to
a heavy impact of water b increase of the bed level
c less percentage of silt d soft soil strata. [Ans. : c]
Q.71 According to Khosla, the exist gradient of surface flow

a depends upon the bid ratio b is independent of the bid ratio
c is independent of the depths of the cut off walls
d none of these. [Ans. : a]
Q.72 The uplift pressure on the roof of an inverted siphon is maximum when
a drain is running dry b canal is running dry
c drain is running with H.S.L. d canal is running with F.S.L. [Ans. : c]
Q.73 The uplift pressure on the roof of an inverted syphon, is maximum when
a drain in running dry b canal is running dry
c canal is running with F.S.L. d drain is running with H.F.L. [Ans. : d]
Q.74 The main function of a diversion head works of a canal from a river, is
a to remove silt b to control floods
c to store water d to raise water level [Ans. : d]
Q.75 The most suitable location of a canal head work, is

a boulders stage of the river b delta stage of the river
c rock stage of the river d trough stage of the river [Ans. : d]
Q.76 A canal head work in the boulder stage of a river is not suitable because
a subsoil flow exists in the river bed
b there are heavy seepage losses
c very few cross drainage works are required
d all the above [Ans. : d]
Q.77 In a barrage, the crest level is kept

a low with large gates b high with large gates
c high with no gates d low with no gates [Ans. : a]

Q.78 A concrete gravity dam having a maximum reservoir level at 200 m and the
RL of the bottom of the dam 100 m. The maximum allowable compressive
stress in concrete is 3000 KN/m2 and the specific gravity of concrete is 2.4.
Calculate the height of the dam and check whether it is a high dam or low
dam.
a H = 90 m High gravity dam b H = 90 m Low gravity dam
c H = 214.2 m High gravity dam d H = 214.2 m Low gravity dam
[Ans. : a]

a In a level crossing, a crest with its top at the canal F.S.L. is provided across
the drainage at its up-stream junction with canal
b In a level crossing a regulator Is provided across the drainage at its down-
stream
c In a level crossing, a cross regulator is provided on the canal below the
crossing
d All the above. [Ans. : d]
Q.80 While deciding the alignment of a proposed canal taking off from a river at B,
three alignments of approximately equal lengths are available. These cross a
drainages at C1, C2 and C3 where drainage bed levels C1 > C2 > C3, you will
provide at site C3
a an aqueduct b a syphon aqueduct
c a super passage d a syphon. [Ans. : a]
Q.81 Which of the following zone in Zoned type embankment prevents piping
through cracks?
a Central core b Transition zone
c Outer zone d Core wall [Ans. : b]
Q.82 The level of the floor of a syphon aqueduct can be obtained

a by subtracting the depth of the culvert from the canal bed level
b by subtracting the thickness of culvert plus the depth of the culvert from the
canal level
c both (a) and (b)
d none of these. [Ans. : b]


a Approach of the water line in a flumed channel section should not be
steeper than 22.5 degree
b Departure of the water line from a flumed channel section should not be
steeper than 30 degree
c Approach of the water line should not be steeper than and departure line
not steeper than 22.5 degree in a flumed channel section
d Approach and departure of the water line in a flumed channel section,
should not be steeper than 22.5 degree. [Ans. : c]
Q.84 The base width of a solid gravity dam is 35 m and the specific gravity of dam
material is 2.45. What is the approximate allowable height of the dam having
an elementary profile without considering the uplift?
a 64.68 m b 54.80 m
c 164 m d 80 m [Ans. : b]

a Escapes are essential safety valves in a canal system
b The capacity of escapes should not be less than the capacity of the canal at
its location
c The escapes must lead the surplus water to natural drainages
d All the above. [Ans. : d]
Q.86 In an arch dam the extrodos cures refer to the arch rings corresponding to the
a Upstream face of the Dam b Downstream face of the Dam
c Either A or B d None of these above [Ans. : a]
Q.87 The constant radius arch dam is also sum times called as
a Constant centre arch dam b Constant angle arch dam
c Variable angle arch dam d None of these above [Ans. : a]
Q.88 What is the recommended value of shear friction factor against sliding?
a More than unity b Less than unity
c More than 3 to 5 d Less than 3 [Ans. : c]
Q.89 Which of the following earth dam is suitable only on impervious foundation?
a Zoned embankment type b Homogenous embankment type

c Non-homogenous type d Diaphragm type [Ans. : b]
Q.90 The axis of a gravity dam is the ______________________

a Line of the crown of the dam on the downstream side
b Line of the crown of the dam on the upstream side
c Centre-line of the top width of the dam
d The line joining mid-points of the base [Ans. : b]
Q.91 Which of the following soil material is most preferred for the central core
material of zoned embankment type dam?
a Highly impervious clay b Sands or silty clays
c Coarse sands d Gravels [Ans. : b]
Q.92 Attracting groynes are built

a perpendicular to the bank b inclined down stream
c inclined up stream d none of these. [Ans. : b]
Q.93 Which of following forces is the least important in the design of arch Dam
a Reservoir water force b Uplift pressure
c Temprature stresses d Ice Load [Ans. : b]
Q.94 The width of a meander belt is the transverse distance between

a apex point of one curve and apex point of the reserve curve
b apex point and the crossing
c two banks of meandering river
d none of these. [Ans. : a]
Q.95 The length of a meander is the distance along the river between the tangent
point of one curve to the tangent point of
a reverse curve
b next curve of the same order
c reverse curve plus the width of the river
d none of these. [Ans. : b]
Q.96 The length and width of a meander and also the width of the river, vary
roughly as
a square root of the discharge b discharge
c square of the discharge d cube of the discharge. [Ans. : a]

Q.97 The sinuosity of a meander is the ratio of

a meander length and the width of meander
b meander length and half width of the river
c curved length and the straight distance
d none of these. [Ans. : c]
Q.98 Process of meandering is due to

a sediment load of streams
b discharge and hydraulic properties of streams
c relative erodibility of the bed and banks
d all the above [Ans. : d]
Q.99 A non vertical arch dam is known as a

a Buttress Dam b Double curvature arch Dam
c Shell arch Dam d Both B & C Above [Ans. : d]
Q.100 An Arch Dam looks like a single arch in

a Plan b side elevation
c Front elevation d None of these. [Ans. : a]
Dams categories, particular dam type selections, important and various types of dams in
india.
Q.101 Aswan dam on Nile River in Egypt was perhaps the first modern dam of the
world. Its construction was completed in the year _________
a 1664 b 1798
c 1902 d 1931 [Ans. : c]
Q.102 Which of the following is the only modern dam that has failed?
a Koyna dam in India
b Vega de Tera dam in Spain
c Mauvoision dam in Switzerland
d Trinity dam in California, USA [Ans. : b]
Q.103 Earthen dams are _________________

a rigid dams b non-rigid dams
c overflow dams d diversion dams [Ans. : b]

Q.104 The prominent modern dam which has changed its name several times is
_____________
a Nagarjuna dam b Hoover dam
c Bhakra dam d Idukki dam [Ans. : b]
Q.105 The famous Roosevelt dam in USA is of the type __________________

a Rock-fill dam b Solid Masonry Gravity Dam
c RCC arch bridge d hollow masonry gravity dam [Ans. : b]
Q.106 A _________________ dam is generally called as a weir or barrage.

a storage dam b detention dam
c diversion dam d rigid dam [Ans. : c]
Q.107 Multiple arch dam is an example of _______________

a Arch dam b Shell-arch dams
c Buttress dams d Coffer dam [Ans. : c]
Q.108 Which type of dam design gives a wider choice of materials including earth-
fill and rock-fill dams?
a Non-overflow dams b Overflow dams
c Rigid dams d Non-rigid dams [Ans. : a]
Q.109 The highest concrete gravity dam of the world is the Grand Dixene dam in
Switzerland whose height is ____________
a 325 m b 317 m
c 285 m d 272 m [Ans. : c]
Q.110 Which of the following is known as a debris dam?

a Storage dam b Detention dam
c Diversion dam d Rigid dam [Ans. : b]
Q.111 Topography dictates the first choice of the type of dam. A narrow U-shaped
valley would suggest a ________________________
a concrete overflow dam b spillway
c arch dam d earth dam [Ans. : a]
Q.112 A narrow V-shaped valley indicates the choice of _________________
a concrete overflow dam b spillway
c arch dam d earth dam [Ans. : c]

Q.113 Which of the following foundations are suitable for earthen and rock-fill
dams?
a Solid rock foundation b Gravel foundation
c Silt and fine sand foundation d Clay foundation [Ans. : b]
Q.114 Which foundation suggests the adoption of an earth dam or very low gravity
dam?
c Silt and fine sand foundation d Clay foundation [Ans. : c]
Q.115 Which foundation is not fit for concrete gravity dam or for rock-fill dams?
c Silt and fine sand foundation d Clay foundation [Ans. : d]
Q.116 Which dam is a better choice when the raw materials are not available and
have to be transported from far off distances?
a Earthen dam b Rock-fill dam
c Concrete gravity dam d Hollow concrete dam [Ans. : d]
Q.117 For any width of the valley with any foundation and low height of water to be
stored, the best-suited dam is _____________
a steel dam b buttress dam
c timber dam d solid gravity dam [Ans. : c]
Q.118 Arch dams are constructed in _____________
a wide valleys with flat side slopes
b narrow valley with weak abutments
c moderate valleys with strong abutments
d narrow valleys with strong abutments [Ans. : d]
Q.119 Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the selection of dam
site?
a For economy, the length of the dam should be as small as possible
b For a given height, it should store the maximum volume of water
c The river valley at the dam site should be narrow but should open out
upstream to provide a large basin for a reservoir
d The general bed level at the dam site should preferably be lower than that of
the river basin [Ans. : d]

Q.120 Which structures are best suited to resist earthquake shocks without danger?
a Earthen dams b Concrete gravity dams
c Timber dam d Both earthen and concrete gravity dams
[Ans. : d]
Q.121 Nangal Dam is an example of ___________
a diversion dam b storage dam
c detention dam d arch dam [Ans. : a]
Q.122 Which of the following dam is partly earthen and partly rockfill?
a Tehri dam b Koyna dam
c Sardar Sarovar dam d Bhakra dam [Ans. : a]
Q.123 Bhakra dam of India is located in the state of ________________
a Punjab b Himachal Pradesh
c Uttar Pradesh d Madhya Pradesh [Ans. : b]
Q.124 The highest concrete gravity dam of India which is also the 2nd highest such
dam of the world is _______________
a Indira Sagar Dam b Cheruthoni Dam
c Bhakra Nangal dam d Tehri Dam [Ans. : c]
Q.125 Which of the following is the highest stone masonry gravity dam of India as
well as of the world?
a Ramganga dam b Nagarjuna Sagar dam
c Hirakud dam d Mettur dam [Ans. : a]
Q.126 Which project ranks first in the man-power utilization among the gigantic
projects of its own kind in the world?
a Nagarjuna Sagar Project b Bhakra Nangal Project
c Damodar Valley Project d Indira Gandhi Canal [Ans. : a]
Q.127 Which of the following is a stone masonry dam?

a Bhakra dam b Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
c Hirakud dam d Tehri dam [Ans. : b]
Q.128 The only arch dam of India is Idukki dam across Periyar River in Kerala state
whose height is _____
a 81 m b 143 m
c 149 m d 169 m [Ans. : d]

Q.129 The highest dam of India is built on _______________

a Jhelum River b Musi River
c Kaveri River d Bhagirathi River [Ans. : d]
Q.130 The oldest dam of India is built on which river?

a Krishna River b Kaveri River
c Damodar River d Kallada River [Ans. : b]
Q.131 Gravity dam is most suitable when the foundation is _______________

a weak b strong
c with heavy overburden d rocky but cracked [Ans. : b]
Q.132 Which of the following type of dam is built in areas where the foundation is not
strong enough to bear the weight of concrete?
a Rock-fill dam b Earth dam
c Gravity dam d Arch dam [Ans. : b]
Q.133 Which of the following dam is partly earthen and partly rockfill?
a Tehri dam b Koyna dam
c Sardar Sarovar dam d Bhakra dam [Ans. : a]
Q.134 Idukki dam is a type of ________________

a rockfill dam b a hollow masonry gravity dam
c arch dam d steel dam [Ans. : c]
Q.135 In which of the following dam the weight of water is carried by a deck of
RCC or by arches that share the weight burden?
a Earth dams b Rockfill dams
c A hollow masonry gravity dam d Timber dam [Ans. : c]
Q.136 It is possible to construct steel dam only up to a height of ____________

a 5m b 10 m
c 20 m d 50 m [Ans. : c]
Q.137 The temporary structures that are built to enclose certain worksite is
______________
a storage dam b coffer dam
c timber dam d steel dam [Ans. : b]

Q.138 Which of the following dam is suitable for narrow valleys?

a Arch dam b Steel dam
c Coffer dam d Timber dam [Ans. : a]
Q.139 When sand and gravel foundation strata are available at a proposed dam site
of moderate height, the dam may be of the type ________________
a earthen or rockfill dam b masonry gravity dam
c concrete gravity dam d double arch dam [Ans. : a]
Q.140 According to the Hydraulic design, the dams are classified as _________
a diversion and detention Dams b storage and diversion dams
c overflow and non-overflow dam d arch and buttress dam [Ans. : c]
Q.141 A dam reservoir which is not provided with gate controls on its spillway and
other sluices is called ________________
a detention dam b storage reservoir
c retarding basin d flood control reservoir [Ans. : c]
Q.142 A hydel power project has been envisaged to serve the water supply and
irrigation needs of the area at its inception stage. The dam reservoir so
constructed is known as __________________
a multipurpose reservoir b single-purpose reservoir
c distribution reservoir d retarding reservoir [Ans. : a]
Q.143 A dam reservoir catering to flood control, irrigation, and water supply
basically designed for irrigation alone is a _______________-
a multipurpose reservoir b single-purpose reservoir
c distribution reservoir d retarding basins [Ans. : b]
Q.144 Which reservoir is also known as Mitigation reservoir?

a Conservation reservoir b Flood control reservoir
c Multipurpose dam d Storage reservoir [Ans. : b]
Q.145 A reservoir having gates and valves installation at its spillway and at its
sluice outlets ___________
a storage reservoir b retarding basin
c both storage and retarding reservoir d distribution reservoir [Ans. : a]

Q.146 Which reservoir is helpful in permitting the pumps or the water treatment
plants to work at a uniform rate?
a Storage reservoir b Detention reservoir
c Multipurpose reservoir d Distribution reservoir [Ans. : d]
Q.147 In which of the following reservoir the flood crest downstream can be better
controlled and regulated properly?
a Distribution reservoir b Multipurpose reservoir
c Storage reservoir d Retarding reservoir [Ans. : c]
Q.148 What are the types of flood control reservoirs?
a Multipurpose reservoir and Single purpose reservoir
b Storage reservoir and retarding reservoirs
c Distribution reservoir and Storage reservoir
d Distribution reservoir and multipurpose reservoir [Ans. : b]
Q.149 As the reservoir elevation increases, the outflow discharge increases.
a True b False [Ans. : a]
Q.150 The maximum discharging capacity of a retarding reservoir should not be

equal to the maximum safe carrying capacity of the channel downstream.
a True b False [Ans. : b]
Q.151 What is the most important physical characteristic of a reservoir?

a Storage capacity b Annual Yield
c Average yield d Reservoir water level [Ans. : a]
Q.152 In general practice adopted for capacity computations is to actually survey

the site contours only at vertical distances of __________________
a 5 m or more b Less than 5 m
c 0.5 m or more d Less than 0.5 m [Ans. : a]
Q.153 The area-elevation curve when integrated will yield the capacity-elevation
curve.
Q.154 Which of the following method does not give more than 3% error in the
determination of the capacity of a reservoir?
a Prismoidal formula b Trapezoidal method
c Average formula d Integration method [Ans. : d]

Q.155 The surcharge storage in a dam reservoir is the volume of water stored
________________
a between the minimum and maximum reservoir levels
b between the minimum and normal reservoir levels
c between normal and maximum reservoir levels
d below the minimum pool level [Ans. : c]
Q.156 The useful storage in a dam reservoir is the volume of water stored
__________________
a between the minimum and maximum reservoir levels
b between the minimum and normal reservoir levels
c between normal and maximum reservoir levels
d below the minimum pool level [Ans. : b]
Q.157 The dead storage in a dam reservoir is the available volume for collection of
silt and sediment between _______________
a bed level of the reservoir and minimum reservoir level
b bed level of the reservoir and the silt level in the reservoir
c bed level of the reservoir and the normal pool level
d above the minimum pool level [Ans. : a]
Q.158 Bank storage in a dam reservoir _________________

a increases the compound reservoir capacity
b decreases the computed reservoir capacity
c sometimes increases and sometimes decreases the computed reservoir
capacity
d has no effect on computed reservoir capacity [Ans. : a]
Q.159 The valley storage reduces the effective storage capacity of a reservoir.
Q.160 The maximum level to which the water rises during the worst design flood is
known as _________________________
a full Reservoir level b maximum conservation level
c minimum pool level d surcharge storage [Ans. : a]

Q.161 Which of the following formula can be used to determine the storage when
three consecutive sections at equal height are taken?
a Prismoidal formula b Trapezoidal method
c Average formula d Integration method [Ans. : a]
Dam Safety and Instrumentation
Q.162 The factor of safety against overturning generally varies between ___________
a 2 to 3 b 1.5 to 2
c 0.5 to 1.5 d 1 to 2 [Ans. : a]
Q.163 What is the maximum permissible tensile stress for high concrete gravity dam
under worst conditions?
a 500 KN/m2 b 500 kg/cm2
c 5 kg/m2 d 50 KN/m2 [Ans. : a]
Q.164 Which failure occurs when the net horizontal force above any plane in the
dam or at the base of the dam exceeds the frictional resistance developed at
that level?
a Overturning b Crushing
c Sliding d BY development of tension [Ans. : c]
Q.165 Which failure occurs when the minimum stress exceeds the allowable
compressive stress of the dam material?
a Overturning b Crushing
d Sliding d By development of tension [Ans. : b]
Q.166 Tension cracks in the dam may sometimes lead to the failure of the structure
by?
a Sliding of the dam at the cracked section
b Overturning about the toe
c Crushing of concrete starting from the toe
d Both overturning and crushing [Ans. : c]
Q.167 Which of the following criteria has to be satisfied for no tension at any point
on a gravity dam?
a The resultant of all the forces must always pass through the mid-point of the
base of the dam

b The resultant force for all conditions of loading must pass through the
middle third of the base
c The resultant of all the forces must pass through the upstream extremity of
the middle third of the base
d The resultant of all the forces must pass through the downstream extremity
of the middle third of the base [Ans. : b]
Q.168 The bottom portion of a concrete or a masonry gravity dam is usually stepped
in order to _______
a increase the overturning resistance of the dam
b increase the shear strength
c decrease the shear strength
d increase the frictional resistance [Ans. : b]
Q.169 The governing compressive stress in a concrete gravity dam which should not
be allowed to exceed the permissible value of about 3000 KN/m2 while
analyzing full reservoir case is ____________________
a the vertical maximum stress at the toe
b the major principal stress at toe
c the shear stress at the toe
d the principal stress at the heel [Ans. : b]
Q.170 If the uplift increases and the net effective downward force reduces, the
resultant will shift towards the toe.
Q.171 What are the two main causes of failure of hydraulic structure on the pervious
foundation?
a Seepage and Over-turning b Undermining and Uplift
c Over-turning and Piping d Overturning and Uplift [Ans. : b]
Q.172 The structure finally subsides in the hollow formed in the foundation in which
failure?
a Collapse b Overturning
c Undermining d Uplift [Ans. : c]

Q.173 Heave piping may occur on the _______________

a downstream of sheet pile or cut off wall
b upstream of sheet pile or cut off wall
c body of earth structure d below the foundation [Ans. : a]
Q.174 "The safety of a hydraulic structure founded on a pervious foundation can be

ensured by :
i. Provision sufficient length of its concrete floor.
ii. Providing sufficient depth of its concrete floor.
iii. Provision a downstream cutoff of some reasonable depth."
a i and ii b i and iii
c i, ii and iii d ii and iii [Ans. : c]
Gravity Dams
Q.175 The vertical component of the earthquake wave which produces adverse
effects on the stability of a dam when is acting in ____________________
a upward direction
b downward direction
c both upward and downward direction
d any direction [Ans. : b]
Q.176 The horizontal component of an earthquake wave producing instability in a

dam is the one which acts __________________
a towards the reservoir b towards the dam
c away from the reservoir d away from the dam [Ans. : a]
Q.177 The vertical downward earthquake acceleration av = 0.1g acting on a gravity

dam will ________________________
a increase the resisting weight of the dam by 10%
b decrease the resisting weight of the dam by 10%
c increase the uplift by 10%
d decrease the uplift by 10% [Ans. : b]
Q.178 A gravity dam is subjected to hydrodynamic pressure caused by __________

a the rising waves of the reservoir when a flood wave enters into it
b the rising waves in the reservoir due to high winds

c the increase in water pressure momentarily caused by the horizontal

earthquake acting towards the reservoir
d the increase in water pressure momentarily caused by the horizontal
earthquake acting towards the dam [Ans. : c]
Q.179 In a concrete gravity dam with a vertical upstream face the stabilising force is
provided by the ___________________
a weight of the dam
b the water supported against the upstream slope
c uplift pressure d water pressure at the tail end [Ans. : a]
Q.180 What is the value of horizontal destabilizing force caused by the formation of
waves in a storage reservoir having a fetch of 52 km due to high wind of 172
km/h?
a 30 KN b 60 KN
c 130 KN d 180 KN [Ans. : d]
Q.181 Calculate the value of free-board that should be provided for a reservoir
having a wind velocity of 92 km/h and it extends up to 18 km upstream.
a 1.2 m b 1.6 m
c 2.25 m d 2.5 m [Ans. : c]
Q.182 The upward acceleration of dam due to seismic activity will

________________________
a increase the base pressure b decrease the base pressure
c not affect the effective weight of the dam
d increase the horizontal dynamic force [Ans. : a]
Q.183 What is the average value of acceleration that is sufficient for high dams in
seismic zones?
a 0.1g to 0.15g b 0.05g to 0.1g
c 0.3gs
d 0.15g (where g is the acceleration due to gravity) [Ans. : a]
Q.184 What is Von Karman’s formula for hydrodynamic force (Pe)?

a Pe = 0.726 pe H b Pe = 0.424 pe H
c Pe = 0.555 pe H d Pe = 0.555.Kh. Yw H^2 [Ans. : d]

Q.185 When the reservoir is empty, the single force acting on it is the self-weight of
the dam which acts at a distance of ____________
a B/2 from the heel b B/6 from the heel
c B/3 from the heel d B/4 from the heel [Ans. : c]
Q.186 When the reservoir is empty, the maximum vertical stress equal to
________________
a At heel = 2W/B and at toe = 0 b At heel = 0 and at toe = 2W/B
c At heel = toe = zero d At heel = toe = 2W/B [Ans. : a]
Q.187 The two-dimensional stability analysis of gravity dams proves better for U-
shaped valleys than for V-shaped valleys.
Q.188 Calculate the value of minimum base width for an elementary triangular
concrete gravity dam supporting 72 m height of reservoir water and full
uplift? (Take specific gravity of concrete as 2.4 and coefficient of friction as
0.7)
a 36.28 m b 39.77 m
c 51.5 m d 73.5 m [Ans. : d]
Q.189 For usual values of permissible compressive stress and specific gravity of
concrete, a high concrete gravity is the one whose height exceeds
______________
a 48 m b 70 m
c 88 m d 98 m [Ans. : c]
Q.190 For triangular dam section of height H for just no tension under the action of
water pressure, self-weight and uplift pressure, the minimum base width
required is _____________
a H / (S-1) b H / S^1/2
c H / (S – 1)^-1 d H / (S-1)^1/2 [Ans. : d]
Q.191 If the eccentricity of the resultant falls outside the middle third, the ultimate
failure of the dam occurs by ______________
a tension b crushing
c sliding d overturning [Ans. : a]

Q.192 What is the value of eccentricity for no tension condition in the dam?
a e < B/6 b e > B/6
c e > B/3 d e < B/3 [Ans. : a]
Q.193 What is the formula for limiting height of a gravity dam?

a Hmax = f / (Sc + 1) γw b Hmax = f / (Sc – 1) γw
c Hmax = f / (Sc + C) γw d Hmax = f / (Sc – 1) γw [Ans. : a]
Q.194 Calculate the top width of the dam if the height of water stored is 84m.
a 5m b 2.5 m
c 5.55 m d 7.75 m [Ans. : a]
Q.195 In high dams, the safety against sliding should be checked only for friction.
Q.196 The safety against sliding should be checked only for friction in case of low
dams and in high dams, the shear strength of the joint
Q.197 For full reservoir condition in a gravity dam, the critical combination of
vertical and horizontal earthquake accelerations to be considered for
checking the stability is ________________________
a vertically upward and horizontally downstream
b vertically downward and horizontally downstream
c vertically upward and horizontally upstream
d vertically downward and horizontally upstream [Ans. : b]
Q.198 The base width of a solid gravity dam is 35 m and the specific gravity of dam
material is 2.45. What is the approximate allowable height of the dam having
an elementary profile without considering the uplift?
a 64.68 m b 54.80 m
c 164 m d 80 m [Ans. : b]
Q.199 A low gravity dam of elementary profile made up of concrete of relative

density 2.57 and safe allowable stress of foundation material 4.2 MPa. What is
the maximum height of the dam without considering the uplift force?
a 120 m b 217 m
c 279 m d 325 m [Ans. : a]

Q.200 The vertical stress at the toe was found to be 3.44 MPa at the base of the
gravity dam section. If the downstream face of the dam has a slope of 0.617
horizontal: 1 vertical, the maximum principal stress at the toe of the dam
when there is no tailwater is _______________
a 1.7 MPa b 2.4 MPa
c 3.6 MPa d 4.8 MPa [Ans. : d]
Q.201 What is the recommended value of shear friction factor against sliding?
a More than unity b Less than unity
c More than 3 to 5 d Less than 3 [Ans. : c]
Q.202 The small openings made in the huge body of a concrete gravity dam such as
sluices and inspection galleries can be assumed to be causing only local
effects without any appreciable effect on the distribution of stresses as per the
principle of_____________________
a Laplace b St. Venant
c Reynold d St. Francis [Ans. : b]
Q.203 A concrete gravity dam having a maximum reservoir level at 200 m and the
RL of the bottom of the dam 100 m. The maximum allowable compressive
stress in concrete is 3000 KN/m2 and the specific gravity of concrete is 2.4.
Calculate the height of the dam and check whether it is a high dam or low
dam.
a H = 90 m High gravity dam
b H = 90 m Low gravity dam
c H = 214.2 m High gravity dam
d H = 214.2 m Low gravity dam [Ans. : a]
Q.204 The axis of a gravity dam is the ______________________

a line of the crown of the dam on the downstream side
b line of the crown of the dam on the upstream side
c centre-line of the top width of the dam
d line joining mid-points of the base [Ans. : b]
Q.205 Presence of tail-water in a gravity dam ____________________

a increases the principal stress and decreases the shear stress
b increases both the principal stress and the shear stress

c decreases the principal stress and increases the shear stress

d decreases both the principal stress and the shear stress [Ans. : d]
Q.206 The provision of drainage gallery in a gravity dam helps in reducing

____________________
a hydrostatic pressure b seepage pressure
c silt pressure
d both hydrostatic pressure and seepage pressure [Ans. : b]
Q.207 "Which of the following attempts are made to reduce the uplift in order to
economize on the provided section of a concrete gravity dam?
i. Providing drainage gallery to collect seepage water
ii. Constructing cut-off under upstream face
iii. Pressure grouting in dam foundation
iv. Provision of shear keys or keyways"
a i and ii b i, ii and iii
c i, ii and iv d i, ii, iii and iv [Ans. : b]
Q.208 Transverse joints in concrete gravity dams are the ______________________

a horizontal construction joints at each lift height
b vertical construction joints of full height and width
c diagonal construction joints for torsion
d longitudinal construction joints of full width [Ans. : b]
Q.209 Leakage through the transverse joints in a gravity dam is prevented by

____________
a shear keys b keyways
c water stops d galleries [Ans. : c]
Q.210 In order to reduce uplift on a gravity dam, the type of grouting done is
____________________
a curtain grouting near the heel
b consolidation grouting near the heel
c curtain grouting near the toe
d consolidation grouting near the toe [Ans. : a]

Q.211 The general value of lift for concrete is taken as __________________

a 1.5 m b 2.5 m
c 3m d 4m [Ans. : a]
Q.212 The horizontal joints that extends through the entire width of the dam section
and are developed at each lift height is called as ___________________
a transverse joints b longitudinal joints
c construction joints d contraction joints [Ans. : b]
Q.213 Which of the following joints justifies the two-dimensional analysis of gravity
dams?
a Longitudinal joints b Transverse joints
c Construction joints d Contraction joints [Ans. : b]
Q.214 The foundation pressure used in the pressure grouting is equal to

_________________
a 2.0 D N/cm2 b 2.5 D N/cm2
c 5.0 D N/cm2 d 3.0 D N/cm2 [Ans. : b]
Arch Dam and Other Dams
Q.215 An arch dam looks like a single arch in _________________

a plan b front elevation
c side elevation d both plan and front elevation [Ans. : a]
Q.216 A non-vertical arch dam is known as a _______________

a buttress dam b double curvature arch dam
c shell arch dam
d both double curvature and shell arch dams [Ans. : d]
Q.217 Greater is the wall curvature in an arch dam, greater will be the economy in
the dam thickness.
Q.218 Which of the following is the most economical type of arch dam?
a Constant radius type b Variable radius type
c Constant angle type d Variable angle type [Ans. : c]

Q.219 A constant angle arch dam when compared to constant radius arch dam
utilizes concrete quality of about ______________
a 43% b 130%
c 230% d 113% [Ans. : a]
Q.220 Which among the following type of dam section is expected to be the thinnest
and the most economical?
a Constant angle arch dam b Shell-arch dam
c Constant radius arch dam d Concrete gravity dam [Ans. : b]
Q.221 The most economical central angle of the arch rings of an arch dam can be
adopted only at one place preferably at mid-height in an arch dam is of the
type __________________
a constant angle arch dam b constant radius arch dam
c both constant angle and constant radius arch dam
d variable radius arch dam [Ans. : b]
Q.222 In an arch dam, the extrados curve refer to the arch rings corresponding to the
____________________
a the upstream face of the dam
b downstream face of the dam
c side face of the dam
d either upstream or downstream face of the dam [Ans. : a]
Q.223 A V-shaped valley with stronger foundations can suggest the choice of an
arch dam is of the type ___________________________
a constant radius arch dam b variable radius arch dam
c constant angle arch dam d variable angle arch dam [Ans. : c]
Q.224 A constant radius arch dam is also sometimes called as _______________

a constant centre arch dam b constant angle arch dam
c variable angle arch dam d variable centre arch dam [Ans. : a]
Q.225 The type of arch dam which generally requires overhangs at abutments is of
________________________
a constant radius type b variable radius type
c constant angle type d variable angle type [Ans. : c]

Q.226 Which of the following forces is the least important in the design of arch
dams?
a Reservoir water force b Uplift pressure
c Temperature stresses d Ice load [Ans. : b]
Q.227 Which of the following theory is the most accurate method to design arch?
a The thin cylinder theory b The theory of elastic arches
c The trial load method d Creep theory [Ans. : c]
Q.228 Which among the following is not an assumption of the ‘Trial Load Analysis’
method of design of arch dams?
a Plane sections normal to the axis remain plane after flexure
b Any horizontal arch ring is independent of the arch rings below and above
c Modulus of elasticity of concrete and rock foundation is equal for
compression and tension
d Stresses are proportional to strains [Ans. : b]
Q.229 The thin cylinder theory for designing arch dams is based only on
___________________
a temperature stresses b ice pressures
c yield stresses d hydrostatic water pressure [Ans. : d]
Q.230 The temperature stresses producing worst effects in the design of arch dams
are caused by ______________
a rise in temperature b fall in temperature
c both rise and fall d no effect in the design [Ans. : b]
Q.231 The stresses due to rib-shortening become quite important in the case of
_____________
a long thin arch dams b thick arch dams of small angle
c both thin and thick arch dams
d all types of arch dams [Ans. : b]
Q.232 Which of the following is not the basis for the design of an arch dam?
a Thin cylinder theory b Trial load theory
c Unit column theory d Elastic theory [Ans. : c]

Q.233 According to thin cylinder theory, the volume of concrete required for an arch
dam would be minimum if the central angle is ____________
a 130° 34’ b 133° 34’
c 143° 34’ d 153° 34’ [Ans. : b]
Q.234 The best design of an arch dam is when __________________

a all horizontal water loads are transferred horizontally to the abutments
b the dam is safe against sliding at various levels
c the load is divided between the arches and cantilevers and the deflections at
the conjugal points being equal
d the deflections of the cantilevers are equal at different points [Ans. : c]
Q.235 At a given elevation, the thickness of the arch ring is proportional to the
radius of the arch.
Q.236 The load from the deck of a buttress dam is transmitted to the foundations
through the ______
a corbels b buttresses
c lateral braces d sloping deck [Ans. : b]
Q.237 Multiple arch dams are generally used for ______________

a high heights b low heights
c medium heights d any height [Ans. : a]
Q.238 Which of the following dam requires no reinforcement?

a Fixed deck buttress dam b Simple deck buttress dam
c Cantilever deck buttress dam d Massive head buttress dam [Ans. : d]
Q.239 Which of the following dam is also known as the Amberson dam?
a Multiple arch buttress dam b Mushroom head buttress dam
c Massive head buttress dam d Free deck buttress dam [Ans. : d]
Q.240 Which of the following component of a buttress dam is also called

counterfort?
a Corbel b Buttress
c Lateral brace d Sloping deck [Ans. : b]

Q.241 Which of the following type of dam requires very strong and stable
foundations and is not in use as much as the other types?
a Multiple dome-type dams
b Massive head type dam
c Columnar buttress type dam
d Deck slab type dam [Ans. : c]
Q.242 Which of the following is the earliest recorded multiple arch buttress dam?
a Meer Alam dam in India
b The Coolidge dam in Arizona
c Rodriguez dam in Mexico
d Idduki dam in Kerela, India [Ans. : a]
Q.243 In a simple deck slab buttress dam of a given height, the buttress spacing can
be increased by increasing the upstream slope.
Q.244 The buttresses of a free deck buttress dam are provided at ‘x’ m clear spacing
and buttress thickness is proposed to be ‘t’ m. The buttress section can then
be designed like the section of a concrete gravity dam by considering the
effective unit weight of water = Surcharge factor (S) x actual unit weight of
water. The value of this surcharge factor is given as _____________
a S = (x + t)/x b S = (x + t)/t
c S = (x + t)/(x + 1) d S = (x + t)/(t + 1) [Ans. : b]
Q.245 What is the suggested economic buttress spacing for a mean dam height of
greater than 45 m?
a 4.5 b 4.5 to 7.5
c 7.5 to 12 d 12 to 15 [Ans. : d]
Q.246 What is the suggested slenderness ratio for simply supported RCC decks?
a 4.5 to 7.5 b 7.5 to 12
c 12 to 15 d 15 to 18 [Ans. : c]
Q.247 What is suggested massiveness factor for simply supported RCC Decks?
a 2.5 to 3 b 3 to 4.5
c 4.5 to 7.5 d 7.5 to 12 [Ans. : a]

Spillway and Gates
Q.248 The safety valve of a dam is its __________________

a drainage gallery b inspection gallery
c spillway d outlet sluices [Ans. : c]
Q.249 An ungated spillway starts functioning as soon as the water level in the
reservoir crosses the __________________
a maximum reservoir level b minimum reservoir level
c maximum conservation level d full Supply level [Ans. : c]
Q.250 Which of the following is the simplest type of spillway and may be
constructed on small bunds or thin arch dams?
a Straight drop spillway b Ogee spillway
c Shaft spillway d Siphon spillway [Ans. : a]
Q.251 The spillway can be best built independently of the dam when there is
_________________________
a deep narrow gorge with steep slopes
b deep narrow gorge with gradual slopes
c wide gorge with a gradual slope
d wide valley with moderate slopes [Ans. : a]
Q.252 Which of the following is a secondary safety arrangement?

a Safety valves b Spillway gates
c Subsidiary spillway d Energy dissipaters [Ans. : c]
Q.253 Which of the following spillway is least suitable to earthen dams?

a Ogee spillway b Chute spillway
c Side-channel spillways d Shaft spillway [Ans. : a]
Q.254 If the operating head on an ogee spillway is more than the design head then
________________
a the pressure on the crest will be zero
b the pressure on the crest will be negative causing cavitation
c the pressure on the crest will be positive
d the discharge coefficient of the spillway will be reduced [Ans. : b]

Q.255 In the functioning of an ogee spillway, the operating head

______________________
a frequently exceeds the design head
b rarely exceeds the design head
c never exceeds the design head
d has no connection with the design head [Ans. : b]
Q.256 Which of the following spillway is an improvement over free overflow

spillway?
a Straight drop spillway b Open channel spillway
c Overflow spillway d Siphon spillway [Ans. : c]
Q.257 If the head of the water over the spillway is less than the design head, then
________________
a the pressure on the crest will be zero
b the pressure on the crest will be negative causing cavitation
c he discharge coefficient of the spillway is increased
d the discharge coefficient of the spillway will be reduced [Ans. : d]
Q.258 The spillway which can be called as an overflow spillway is essentially

___________________
a an ogee spillway b a shaft spillway
c a chute spillway d a syphon spillway [Ans. : a]
Q.259 The W.E.S downstream profile of an ogee spillway can be represented by an

equation:X^n = K Hd ^ n-1 * Y Where x and y are the coordinates of the
points on the crest profile and K and n for a vertical upstream spillway
would respectively be___________________
a 2.0 and 1.85 b 0.5 and 1.85
c 2.0 and 0.85 d 0.5 and 0.85 [Ans. : a]
Q.260 According to US Army Corps, the u/s profile of ogee spillway extends up to
_______________
a x = 1.27 Hd b x = -1.27 Hd
c x = 0.431 Hd d x = -0.431 Hd [Ans. : b]

Q.261 Which of the following plot is useful in determining the clearance for the
spillway deck bridge and the top levels of walls on the side of the spillway?
a The coordinates of the lower nappe
b The coordinates of the upper nappe
c Both the coordinates of upper and lower nappe
d The origin or apex of crest [Ans. : b]
Q.262 What is the satisfactory radius for the reverse bottom curve which is provided
at the downstream end of the spillway?
a One-fourth of the spillway height
b Equal to the spillway height
c Half the value of the spillway height
d One-third of the spillway height [Ans. : a]
Q.263 What is Bazin’s profile?

a Profile for the lower nappe of a free-falling jet
b The profile obtained for the upper nappe of a free-falling jet
c Crest profile
d Profile of both upper and lower nappe [Ans. : a]
Q.264 If the upstream face of the spillway is kept vertical, the crest shape should also
confirm to the lower nappe of an inclined sharp-crested weir.
Q.265 The discharge passing over an ogee spillway per unit length of its apex line is
proportional ___________________
a H b H2
c H1/2 d H3/2 [Ans. : d]
Q.266 When the crest of an ogee spillway is designed to be in accordance with the
lower nappe of a free-falling water jet over a duly ventilated sharp-crested
weir then theoretically
a The pressure on the spillway crest will be zero at design head only
b The pressure on the spillway crest will always be zero
c The pressure on the spillway crest will always be negative
d The pressure on the spillway crest will be always positive [Ans. : a]

Q.267 When the gated sluices are provided through the body of the dam spillway
then the ogee spillway structure shall normally be of Corbel type.
Q.268 The extra concrete is required for thickening of the section at the d/s end
which can be saved by shifting the curve of the nappe in a backward
direction until it becomes tangential to the d/s face.
Q.269 The velocity of approach has found to be negligible effect upon discharge if
____________
a the ratio H/Hd is more than 1.33
b the ratio H/Hd is less than 1.33
c the ratio H/Hd is equal to zero
d the ratio H/Hd is more than 1 [Ans. : a]
Q.270 If a flood enters a dam reservoir at F.R.L, the efficiency of its ogee spillway
will ______________
a increase with the increasing head
b reduce with the increasing head
c remain constant with the increasing head
d vary with the increasing head [Ans. : a]
Q.271 The downstream apron of the ogee spillway is found to have a negligible
effect on the coefficient of discharge when the value of ________________
a (Hd + d) / He is less than 1.7 b (Hd + d) / He exceeds 1.7
c (Hd + d) / He is equal to 1 d (Hd + d) / He is less than 1.33
[Ans. : b]
Q.272 What is the value of the pier abutment coefficient for pointed nose piers?
a 0.1 b 0.02
c 0.01 d 0.0 [Ans. : d]
Q.273 What is the value of abutment contraction coefficient for square abutment
with headwall perpendicular to the direction of flow?
a 0.2 b 0.1
c 0.02 d 0.01 [Ans. : a]

Q.274 What is the assumption that is taken during the entire design of an overflow
spillway?
a The upper and lower nappe is subjected to negative pressures
b The upper and lower nappe is subjected to full atmospheric pressure
c The upper and lower nappe is subjected to zero atmospheric pressure
d The upper and lower nappe is subjected to both positive and negative
pressure [Ans. : b]
Q.275 The greater is the divergence from the streamline flow, greater is the
contraction coefficient.
Q.276 Calculate the effective length of the spillway which consists of 6 spans having
a clear width of 10 m each. The thickness of each pier may be taken as 2.5 m
and the total design head on the crest including velocity head is 16.3 m.
Assuming 90° cut water nose piers and rounded abutments.
a 55 m b 60 m
c 65 m d 75 m [Ans. : a]
Q.277 Which of the following is the simplest type of spillway which can be provided
independently and at low costs?
a Ogee spillway b Trough spillway
c Siphon spillway d Saddle spillway [Ans. : b]
Q.278 If the spillway is constructed in continuation to the dam at one end, it may be
called as ________
a saddle weir b flank weir
c waste weir d temporary weir [Ans. : b]
Q.279 The spillway which can be adopted with ease on gravity as well as earthen
dams is _________________
a ogee spillway b chute spillway
c both ogee and chute spillway d straight drop spillway [Ans. : b]
Q.280 The famous Bhakra dam of India is provided with ________________

a trough spillway b ogee spillway
c shaft spillway d siphon spillway [Ans. : a]

Q.281 The surplus reservoir water after spilling over the crest of the spillway flows
on the chute is __________________
a parallel to the crest in a trough spillway
b parallel to the crest in a side-channel spillway
c perpendicular to the crest in a side-channel spillway
d obliquely to the crest in a chute spillway [Ans. : b]
Q.282 Whenever the slope of chute changes from steeper to milder

____________________ curve shall be provided.
a a concave vertical curve b a convex vertical curve
c a hyperbolic curve d a parabolic curve [Ans. : a]
Q.283 The side slope of approach channel of chute spillway is ___________________

a 1:1 b 1:1.5
c 1:3 d 1:2.5 [Ans. : a]
Q.284 The spillway which may sometimes be called as a waste weir is

______________________
a an ogee spillway b a trough spillway
c a shaft spillway d a siphon spillway [Ans. : b]
Q.285 The portion of a chute spillway which is known as its control structure is
________________
a low ogee weir b chute channel
c approach channel leading the water from the reservoir to the ogee weir
d silting basin at its bottom [Ans. : a]
Q.286 The type of spillway which is provided on narrow valleys where no side
flanks are available is ____________________
a ogee spillway b chute spillway
c side-channel spillway d straight drop spillway [Ans. : c]
Q.287 Which of the following curve is provided when the slope of the chute changes
from milder to steeper?
a Concave vertical curve b Hyperbolic curve
c Convex vertical curve d Straight plan [Ans. : c]

Q.288 Calculate the freeboard for the top levels of the side walls if the mean velocity
of water in the chute reach is 3.5 m/s and the mean depth of water in the
chute reach under consideration is 4.7 m.
a 0.60 m b 1m
c 0.85 m d 0.55 m [Ans. : c]
Q.289 The minimum slope of the chute is governed by the condition that
_____________
a the subcritical flow must be maintained
b the supercritical flow must be maintained
c a critical flow must be maintained
d maybe supercritical or subcritical flow is possible [Ans. : b]
Q.290 What is the approximate percentage of light reinforcement that is provided in

the top of the reinforced concrete slabs at the base?
a 0.50% of the concrete area b 0.45% of the concrete area
c 0.30% of the concrete area d 0.25% of the concrete area [Ans. : d]
Q.291 A shaft spillway is located _______________________

a inside the body of a gravity dam
b inside the upstream reservoir
c inside the downstream reservoir
d on the side flanks of the main dam [Ans. : b]
Q.292 The siphons installed within a gravity dam to spill the surplus reservoir water
are known as ______________________
a hooded type siphon spillway
b tilted outlet type siphon spillway
c both hooded and titled type siphon spillway
d shaft spillway [Ans. : b]
Q293 The siphons installed over overflow dams constitute what are known as
__________________
a hooded type siphon spillway
b tilted outlet type siphon spillway
c discharge carriers
d baby siphons [Ans. : a]

Q.294 The only spillway among the following through which the discharge does not
increase as fast as it increases in all others is _________________
a chute spillway b side-channel spillway
c ogee spillway d shaft spillway [Ans. : d]
Q.295 The only spillway among the following through which the discharge is almost
at its capacity rate even from the start of its functioning is ________________
a chute spillway b side-channel spillway
c ogee spillway d siphon spillway [Ans. : d]
Q.296 An air vent is provided at FRL to break the siphoning action at that level in a
___________________
a hooded type of siphon spillway
b tilted outlet type of siphon spillway
c saddle siphon spillway
d volute siphon spillway [Ans. : c]
Q.297 Which of the following spillway is designed in India by Ganesh Iyer?

a Saddle siphon spillway b Saddle spillway
c Glory hole spillway d Volute Siphon spillway [Ans. : d]
Q.298 The crest of a siphon spillway is fixed at ________________

a full reservoir level b dead storage level
c maximum water level d top of the dam [Ans. : a]
Q.299 A siphon spillway is sufficiently independent of the water surface elevation of

the reservoir.
Q.300 The allowable maximum negative head on an average is equal to __________

a 2.5 m or so b 5 m or so
c 7.5 m or so d 10 m or so [Ans. : c]
Q.301 The structure which is not used in a shaft spillway is ________________

a tunnel b bridge
c radial gates d radial piers [Ans. : c]
Q.302 Morning glory is the _____________________________

a special flared inlet of the shaft spillway of a dam of very small height

b special flared inlet of the shaft spillway of a large dam project

c a horizontal tunnel constructed in a shaft spillway across the body of a
gravity dam to carry surplus reservoir water to the d/s river
d a horizontal tunnel constructed in a shaft spillway of an earthen dam
through its foundation to carry surplus reservoir water to the d/s river
[Ans. : b]
Q.303 For a saddle siphon, the maximum operative head is 4.53 m. The width and
height of the throat of the siphon are 5 m and 2.25 m respectively. The
coefficient of discharge is 0.90. How many units are required to pass a flood
of 350 cumecs? (Assume g = 10 m/s2)
a One b Two
c Three d Four [Ans. : d]
Q.304 A siphon spillway in a concrete gravity dam is in the shape of

________________
a U-shape b Inverted U-shape
c Horizontal bend through the abutment
d Any straight line [Ans. : b]
Q.305 The energy dissipation at the toe of the spillway is affected basically by the
use of hydraulic jump in _______________________
a roller bucket b a ski-jump bucket [Ans. : c]
c a sloping apron below the downstream river bed
d both roller and ski-jump bucket
Q.306 The most ideal condition for energy dissipation in the design of spillways is
the one when the tail-water rating curve coincides with the jump rating curve
at all discharge.
Q.307 When the tail-water depths in the river downstream of a spillway are quite
low such that the tail-water curve at all discharges lies below the post jump
depth curve, then the energy dissipation can be affected best by
___________________
a a roller bucket b a ski-jump bucket
c either roller or ski-jump bucket d a sloping apron [Ans. : b]

Q.308 The device which does not help in energy dissipation at the bottom of a
hydraulic structure over which water spills is ________________
a chute block b dentated sill
c morning glory d baffle piers [Ans. : c]
Q.309 The formation of hydraulic jump at the foot of a spillway is one of the
common methods of energy dissipation because ______________________
a it destroys more than 90% of total energy by the turbulence produced in the
jump
b it reduces the kinetic energy by increasing the depth of flow
c its action is not understood
d it reduces the kinetic energy by decreasing the depth of flow [Ans. : a]
Q.310 A ski-jump bucket is also known as _____________________

a flip bucket b solid roller bucket
c slotted roller bucket d flexible bucket [Ans. : a]
Q.311 A ski-jump bucket is also known as _____________________

a flip bucket b solid roller bucket
c slotted roller bucket d flexible bucket [Ans. : a]
Q.312 The percentage of energy dissipation in a hydraulic jump increases with the
increase in the Froude number.
Q.313 Which of the following stilling basin help in stabilizing the flow and improve
the jump performance?
a dentated sills b chute blocks
c baffle piers d friction blocks [Ans. : a]
Q.314 What is the expected solution for the case when the T.W.C is lying above the
J.H.C curve at all discharges?
a By providing a simple concrete apron of length 5(Y1 – Y2)
b By providing a sloping apron above the river bed
c By providing a sloping apron below the river bed
d Provision of a ski-jump bucket [Ans. : b]

Q.315 A sloping apron is provided partly above the river bed and partly below the
river bed in case of ____________________________
a when TWC coincides with the JHC at all discharges
b when TWC lies above the JHC at all discharges
c when TWC lies below the JHC at all discharges
d when TWC lies above the JHC at low discharges and below the JHC at high
discharges [Ans. : d]
Q.316 " When the TWC lies below the JHC at all discharges, the problem can be
solved by which of the following provisions?
i. Constructing a sloping apron above the river bed
ii. Provision of roller bucket type of energy dissipator
iii. Provision of a ski-jump bucket
iv. A sloping apron below the river bed
v. Construction of a subsidiary dam
vi. A sloping apron partly above and partly below the river bed"
a i, iii and v b i, ii and vi
c iii, iv and v d i, iii, iv and v [Ans. : c]
Q.317 A troublesome and oscillating hydraulic jump is normally met in cases of

_____________
a weirs and barrages b overflow spillways of dams
c weirs d large spillways [Ans. : a]
Q.318 A very steady and stable hydraulic jump is usually formed in the flows
involving the approaching Froude number in the range of
_____________________
a less than 2.5 b 2.5 to 4.5
c 4.5 to 9.0 d more than 9.0 [Ans. : c]
Q.319 Standard USBR stilling basin-II is useful for energy dissipation at the bottom
of the overflow structure, if the approaching Froude number is
________________
a less than 4.5 b more than 4.5
c less than 2.5 d more than 2.5 [Ans. : b]

Q.320 When the Froude number is in the range of 2.5 to 4.5, the jump is
____________________
a weak and energy loss is low b troublesome and oscillating
c steady jump d strong jump [Ans. : b]
Q.321 Which of the following stilling basin is applicable to only rectangular cross-
sections?
a U.S.B.R stilling basin-II b U.S.B.R stilling basin-IV
c U.S.B.R stilling basin-I d U.S.B.R stilling basin-III [Ans. : b]
Q.322 The Froude number of a hydraulic jump is 5.5. The jump can be classified as
____________
a a weak jump b an oscillating jump
c rough and choppy jump d steady jump [Ans. : d]
Q.323 Standard stilling basin is provided at the toe of a dam spillway for energy
dissipation is usually provided with auxiliary devices like chute blocks and
dentated sills for the basic purpose of reducing the length of the stilling basin
from about ________________
a 6 y2 to 4 y2 b 4 y2 to 2 y2
c 6 y2 to 2 y2 d 3 y2 to y2 [Ans. : a]
Q.324 In the case of dam spillways, the approaching Froude number usually lies in
the range of __________
a less than 2.5 m b 2.5 – 4.5
c 4.5 – 9.0 d more than 9.0 [Ans. : c]
Q.325 _____________________ are suitable only for low spillways or weirs.

a Chute blocks b Sloping aprons
c Baffle wall or friction blocks d Roller buckets [Ans. : c]
Q.326 Which of the following helps in dissipating the residual energy and to reduce
the length of the jump or the basin?
a Dentated sills b Chute blocks
c Roller bucket d Baffle piers [Ans. : a]

Q.327 In a fixed roller of a spillway gate, the rollers are attached to the
__________________
a gate b groove gate
c either gate or groove gate d guide grooves [Ans. : a]
Q.328 In the vertical Stoney spillway gate, the rollers are placed between the
______________
a gate and u/s groove guide b gate and the d/s groove guide
c u/s and d/s groove guide d attached to the gate and groove guides
[Ans. : b]
Q.329 The spillway gate which when lowered cannot be seen from a distance is of
the type ______________________
a Sliding gate b Roller gate
c Tainter gate d USBR drum gate [Ans. : d]
Q.330 An ogee spillway of a concrete gravity dam having FRL of 328 m and MWL
of 340 m is provided with vertical gates between piers erected on the
spillway. The effective length of the spillway is 60 m. The discharge through
the spillway when gates are opened up to the actual reservoir level of 331.0 m
will be_____________
c 2800 cumecs d 1000 cumecs [Ans. : b]
Q.331 The most common vertical lift gates in modern days is _________________
a sliding gates b free-roller gates
c stoney gates d fixed wheel gates [Ans. : d]
Q.332 The working of Reinold’s gate is automatic.

Q.333 Which of the following gate is also called flush boards?

a Dropping shutters b Tainter gates
Q.334 Which one of the following gate is not suitable for curved crests?
a Flush boards b Tainter gates

Q.335 Which one of the following gate is not suitable for curved crests?
a Flush boards b Tainter gates
Q.336 Which of the following gate works on the principle of counterweights against
the water pressure?
a Dropping shutters b Stop logs and needles
c Stoney roller gate d Drum gates [Ans. : a]
Q.337 ________________ are used only for very minor works.

a Dropping gates b Stop logs and needles
c Rectangular gates d Drum gates [Ans. : b]
Q.338 Which of the following gate is not suitable for smaller spillways?
a Drum gates b Radial gates
c Needles and stop logs d Fixed roller gates [Ans. : a]
Q.339 The bar screens used to cover the dam outlets to prevent entry of debris, or
ice into the spillway conduits are called __________________
a gate controlled ports b projecting collars
c trash racks d intakes [Ans. : c]
Q.340 Projecting collars are provided on sides of a rectangular tunnel of length L

made through an earthen dam to increase the seepage path. Their projection
length (X) and numbers (N) are decided so as to provide increased seepage
path equal to 2NX where 2NX should generally be ______________________
a greater than L/4 b greater than L/3
c greater than L/2 d greater than L [Ans. : a]
Q.341 The outlet provided in a dam body to release water for the downstream water
demand is known as ______________________
a spillway b sluiceway
c under-sluice d waterway [Ans. : b]

Q.342 A 2 m diameter sluiceway at RL 300 m is provided through a concrete

overflow dam section to release water to the downstream where tail water
level is not more than 275 m. The discharge through this outlet when the
water level in the reservoir is at FRL of 330 m is of the order
of_________________
Q.343 A 4 m diameter tunnel has been constructed through an earthen dam with a
bell mouth entry. The water levels on the U/s and D/s sides of the dam are at
RL 226 m and 210 m respectively. What will be the discharge through this
outlet?
Q.344 Which of the following entrance of the sluiceway is most superior?

a A square-edged entrance b A Bell-mouthed entrance
c A rectangular entrance d A circular entrance [Ans. : b]
Q.345 What is the value of head loss for the fully open gate and butterfly valves?
a 0.5 V^2 / 2g b V^2 / 2g
c 0.2 V^2 / 2g d 0.04 V^2 / 2g [Ans. : c]
Hydropower Structures
Q.346 A hydropower plant developed at the site of a drop in an irrigation canal is of

the type ________
a runoff river plant b storage plant
c pumped storage plant d tidal plant [Ans. : a]
Q.347 A nuclear power development scheme is essentially a _____________________

a thermal power scheme b hydropower scheme
c both thermal and hydropower scheme
d atomic power scheme [Ans. : a]
Q.348 Fossil fuels are used in _____________________

a a nuclear power plant b an ordinary thermal power plant
c a hydropower plant d atomic power plant [Ans. : b]

Q.349 A runoff river plant for hydropower generation is essentially a

________________________
a high head scheme b medium head scheme
c low head scheme d any of the schemes [Ans. : c]
Q.350 A storage hydro plant essentially involves ________________
a a barrage or a weir b a dam
c either barrage or a dam d check dams [Ans. : b]
Q.351 The natural high waterfalls may be used for generation of
____________________
a hydro-power b water-power
c both hydropower and water power d thermal power [Ans. : c]
Q.352 Which among the following is an example of a tidal plant?
a Rance power station in France
b Ganguwal powerhouse located on Nangal hydel channel in India
c Sarda powerhouse located on Sarda canal in UP in India
d Mohammad Pur and Pathri powerhouses on Ganga Canal [Ans. : a]
Q.353 When the powerhouse is located near the dam as is done in the low head
installations, it is known as _________________
a concentrated fall hydroelectric development
b divided fall hydroelectric development
c concentrated fall thermal power development
d divided fall thermal power development [Ans. : a]
Q.354 Which of the following plants utilize the minimum flow in a river having no
appreciable pondage on its upstream side?
a Storage plant b Run-off river plant
c Pumped storage plants d Tidal plants [Ans. : b]
Q.355 Which among the following plant generates power during peak hours?
a Storage plant b Run-off river plant
c Pumped storage plants d Tidal plants [Ans. : c]
Q.356 Which of the following dam is not an example of High head scheme?
a Bhakra dam in Punjab b Rihand dam In UP
c Hoover Dam in the USA d Sarda canal [Ans. : d]

Q.357 Pondage in a hydropower station is _________________________________

a pond level
b temporary storage to meet peak demands
c excess runoff to last for years
d excess runoff for a few hours only [Ans. : b]
Q.358 In a low head scheme, a weir or barrage is constructed to raise the water
level.
Q.359 Which of the following plant uses a reversible turbine that can work at
relatively high efficiencies and helps in reducing the cost of such a plant?
a Run-off river plant b Storage plant
c Pumped storage plant d Tidal plant [Ans. : c]
Q.360 Which of the following plant uses a reversible turbine that can work at
relatively high efficiencies and helps in reducing the cost of such a plant?
a Run-off river plant b Storage plant
c Pumped storage plant d Tidal plant [Ans. : c]
Q.361 As per estimate made by the Central Electricity Authority, the potential of the
country is accessed at 84 GW at load factor value of _________________
a 40% b 60%
c 80% d 20% [Ans. : b]
Q.362 The first power station of India was installed at _________________
a Mysore b Bombay
c Darjeeling d Bangalore [Ans. : c]
Q.363 What is the correct expansion of DAE?
a The Department of Atomic Energy
b The Discipline of Atomic Energy
c The Division of Atomic Energy
d The Domain of Atomic Energy [Ans. : a]
Q.364 In India, the nuclear power generation is about ____________ of the total
power generation.
a 3% b 4%
c 5% d 6% [Ans. : a]

Q.365 Which one is the first nuclear power plant in India?

a Tarapur atomic power station
b Kaiga atomic power station
c Rawatbhata Atomic power station
d Narora atomic power station [Ans. : a]
Q.366 Convert the hydropower potential of 84 GW at 60% load factor into Trillion
watts hour.
a 441 TWh b 735 TWh
c 553 TWh d 345 TWh [Ans. : a]
Q.367 The minimum power which a hydropower plant can generate throughout the
year is called as ________________
a power plant capacity b power plant load
c firm power d water power [Ans. : c]
Q.368 If the peak load for a power plant equals the plant capacity then the ratio of
the capacity factor to load factor will be _________________
a 1 b 0
c <1 d >1 [Ans. : a]
Q.369 If the peak load on a power plant having a capacity of 100 MW is 70 MW

during a given week and the energy produced is 58, 80,000 kWh, the capacity
factor for the plant for the week will be ___________________
a 35% b 50%
c 70% d 65% [Ans. : a]
Q.370 During a certain week a power plant turns out 84,00,000 kWh and the peak
load during the week is 100,000 kW. What is the load factor during the week?
a 40% b 45%
c 50% d 60% [Ans. : c]
Q.371 A canal drop is 6 meters and discharges available through the turbine is 50
cumec. Find the electrical energy available.
a 2352 KW b 2352 MW
c 2.352 kW d 235.2 kW [Ans. : a]

Q.372 The ratio of maximum power utilised to the maximum power available is
_____________
a power factor b plant use factor
c reserve capacity d capacity factor [Ans. : b]
Q.373 The net amount of power which is continuously available from a plant
without any break is known as _____________
a firm power b secondary power
c power factor d utilization factor [Ans. : a]
Q.374 The value of power factor is generally _____________________

a equal to unity b less than unity
c greater than unity d equal to zero [Ans. : b]
Q.375 To ensure maximum overall plant efficiency, the rated head should be equal
to ______________
a the design head b the gross head
c the operating head d effective head [Ans. : a]
Q.376 The difference of head at the point of entry and exit of turbine is
_______________
a design head b gross head
c effective head d rated head [Ans. : c]
Q.377 The load on a hydel plant varies from a minimum of 10,000 kW to a maximum
of 35,000 kW. Two turbo-generators of capacities 20,000 kW each have been
installed. Calculate Plant factor.
a 50% b 51%
c 56.2% d 59.7% [Ans. : c]
Q.378 Calculate utilisation factor if the maximum power utilised is 40,000 kW and
two turbo generators installed each of capacity 23,000 kW.
a 73% b 87%
c 57.5% d 63% [Ans. : b]
Q.379 If the peak load on a power plant having a capacity of 100 MW is 70 MW
during a given week. Calculate the utilization factor.
a 0.35 b 0.50
c 0.70 d 0.60 [Ans. : c]

Q.380 400 cumecs of water are being released from dam storage to meet the
downstream demand through the turbines of the connected hydro plant. The
effective head of water acting on the turbines is 50 m. The efficiency of the
hydro plant is 0.8. The electrical power generated from this plant is
__________________
a 1,56,800 MW b 156.8 M kW
c 156.8 MW d 156.8 kW [Ans. : c]
Q.381 What is the highest elevation of water level that can be maintained in the
reservoir without any spillway discharge either with gated or non-gated
spillway?
a Normal Water level b Minimum Water level
c Weighted average level d Operating head [Ans. : a]
Q.382 Which of the following is an example of an impulse turbine?

a Pelton turbine b Francis turbine
c Kaplan turbine d Propeller turbine [Ans. : a]
Q.383 Which of the following is turbine is used for medium heads ranging from 25
to 150 meters?
a Pelton turbine b Kaplan turbine
c Francis turbine d Propeller turbine [Ans. : c]
Q.384 An impulse turbine is essentially a __________________

a low-speed turbine and is used for high heads
b low-speed turbine and is used for low heads
c high-speed turbine and is used for high heads
d high-speed turbine and is used for low heads [Ans. : a]
Q.385 Kaplan turbines are found to be more versatile and costly in their initial cost
as compared to propeller turbines.
Q.386 An impulse turbine like a Pelton’s turbine is __________________________

a an open body exposed to the atmosphere
b a closed body not exposed to the atmosphere
c a partially open and partially closed body
d depends on the design requirements [Ans. : a]

Q.387 In a reaction turbine like a Francis turbine or a Kaplan turbine ______________

a the potential head of water is totally changed into the kinetic head
b the potential head of water is partially changed into the kinetic head
c the potential head of water is not at all changed into the kinetic head
d the change of potential head of water totally or partially depends on other
factors as well [Ans. : b]
Q.388 In a Francis turbine, the water flows through a closed draft tube.
Q.389 For a hydropower plant having 150 m head of stored water behind the dam.
The water in the reservoir is clear and load on the powerhouse is not likely to
fluctuate much. Which type of turbine will be suitable for the same?
c Kaplan turbine d Propeller turbine [Ans. : b]
Q.390 For a hydropower plant working on 150 m head, the water is sandy and the
load on the plant is highly variable. Which type of turbine will generally be
recommended?
a Pelton Turbine b Francis turbine
c Kaplan turbine d Propeller turbine [Ans. : a]
Q.391 If two identical pumps each capable to deliver a discharge Q against a head H
are connected ___________________________
a in parallel, the resulting discharge is 2Q against a head H
b in parallel, the resulting discharge is Q against a head of 2H
c in series, the resulting discharge is 2Q against a head H
d in series, the resulting discharge is Q against a head 2H [Ans. : a]
Q.392 If the specific speed in revolution per minute of a turbine is in between 60 to

300, the type of the turbine is ________________
c Propeller turbine d Kaplan turbine [Ans. : b]
Q.393 A draft tube is essentially required for impulse type turbines.


Q.394 Pick the correct choice of turbine required to generate 10,000 HP under a head
of 81 m while working at a speed of 500 rpm.
a Pelton b Kaplan
c Bulb d Francis [Ans. : d]
Q.395 "Consider the following statements.

i. Runoff river plants can be located on any river
ii. Runaway speed of a turbine is generally 180% of normal speed
iii. Underground power stations are suited to areas susceptible to landslides
iv. Higher the specific speed, higher will be the discharge and the head,
Which of these statements are correct?"
a i and ii b ii and iii
c i and iv d ii and iv [Ans. : b]
Q.396 The Pumps in series operation allow the head to increase and the pumps in
parallel operation increase the flow rate.
Q.397 Forebay provides temporary storage before the water goes to the turbine.
Following perform the function of forebay ____________________
a river b tailrace channel
c reservoir d approach channel [Ans. : c]
Q.398 "The surge tank serves which of the following purposes?
i. It allows the sediment to settle down
ii. It prevents debris from entering powerhouse
iii. It controls pressure variations in pipelines
iv. It regulates flow in the pipelines"
a i and ii b ii and iii
c iii and iv d i, ii and iii [Ans. : c]
Q.399 Identify the correct statement in regard to hydropower.
a Hydropower stations are generally labour-oriented
b The gestation period for hydro-power plant is usually small
c The hydro generators give high efficiency over a wide range of load
d In a hydropower scheme, the firm power is usually high as compared to
tidal power [Ans. : c]

Q.400 To avoid the possible damage to the wicket gates and turbine runners
_________________ is provided.
a trash racks b surge chamber
c floating boom d racks and trolley arrangement [Ans. : a]
Q.401 Sharp bends must be avoided in penstocks while designing components of the
hydroelectric scheme.
Q.402 The retarding and accelerating heads are developed more promptly in
________________
a simple surge tank b restricted orifice surge chamber
c differential surge chamber d multi surge chamber [Ans. : c]
Q.403 The correct sequence in the direction of the flow of water for installations in a
hydropower plant is _______________________
a Reservoir, Surge tank, Turbine, Penstock
b Reservoir, Penstock, Surge tank, Turbine
c Reservoir, Penstock, Turbine, Surge tank
d Reservoir, Surge tank, Penstock, Turbine [Ans. : b]
Earthen and Rock Fill Dams
Q.404 Which of the following earth dam is suitable only on impervious foundation?
a Zoned embankment type
b Homogenous embankment type
c Non-homogenous type
d Diaphragm type [Ans. : b]
Q.405 Which of the following zone in Zoned type embankment prevents piping
through cracks?
a Central core b Transition zone
c Outer zone d Core wall [Ans. : b]
Q.406 Which of the following soil material is most preferred for the central core
material of zoned embankment type dam?
a Highly impervious clay b Sands or silty clays
c Coarse sands d Gravels [Ans. : b]

Q.407 Which embankment has the thickness of the diaphragm at an elevation less
than 10 meters or the height of the embankment above the corresponding
elevation?
a Diaphragm type dam b Zoned type dam
c Non-homogenous earth dam d Homogenous earth dam
[Ans. : a]
Q.408 The blanket in earth dam is provided ___________________

a at the ground level on u/s side
b at the ground level on the d/s side
c at the ground level of the D/s side of the dam
d on the D/s slope [Ans. : a]
Q.409 Which of the following statement is correct with reference to earthen dams?
a These dams are very costly as compared to other types
b Gravity dams are less susceptible to failure as compared to rigid dams
c These dams are suitable for construction on almost every type of foundation
d Highly skilled labor is generally not required [Ans. : c]
Q.410 During the construction of an earthen dam by hydraulic fill method,

development of pore pressure becomes important in the __________________
a central impervious core b pervious outer shell
c transition zone d both central core and outer shell
[Ans. : a]
Q.411 The process of laying and compacting earth in layers by power rollers under
OMC for construction of earthen dams is known as ______________________
a Rolled fill method b Hydraulic fill method
c OMC method d Compaction [Ans. : a]
Q.412 The central core of the zoned embankment type earth dam
________________________
a checks the seepage b prevents piping
c gives stability to the central impervious fill
d distribute the load over a large area [Ans. : a]

Q.413 Which type of dam is suitable on shallow pervious foundations?

a Zoned embankment type b Homogenous embankment type
c Both Non-homogenous type and homogenous type
d Diaphragm type [Ans. : a]
Q.414 What is the U.S.B.R recommended value for freeboard when the height of the
dam is more than 60 m?
a 2 m to 3 m b 2.5 m above the top of gates
c 3 m above the top of gates d More than 3 m [Ans. : c]
Q.415 What is the recommended formula for top width of a very low dam?
a H+3 b 0.2H + 3
c 0.2 H d H+5 [Ans. : b]
Q.416 What is the Terzaghi’s recommended value of U/s side slope for earth dam of
height less than 15m of homogenous silty clay?
a 2: 1 b 2.5: 1
c 3: 1 d 3.5: 1 [Ans. : b]
Q.417 If the height of the dam is 10 m, then the value of top width (A) according to
Strange’s recommendations is _________________
a 1.85 m b 2.5 m
c 3.0 m d 4.0 m [Ans. : b]
Q.418 When the height of the dam is in between 7.5 to 15, the Strange’s
recommended value for maximum freeboard of low earth dams is
______________
a 1.2 to 1.5 b 1.5 to 1.8
c 1.85 d 2.1 [Ans. : c]
Q.419 Calculate the top width (A) of the earth dam of height 50 m.
a 5.0 m b 4.75 m
c 6.10 m d 3m [Ans. : c]
Q.420 A phreatic line in seepage analysis is defined as the line on which pressure is
_______________
a equal to the atmosphere b greater than atmosphere
c lower than atmosphere d varying [Ans. : a]

Q.421 Provision of horizontal berms at suitable vertical intervals may be provided in

the downstream face of an earthen dam in order to _________________
a allow the movement of cattle
b allow the inspection of vehicles to move
c reduce the erosion caused by the flowing rainwater
d increase the erosion [Ans. : c]
Q.422 During seepage through an earthen mass, the direction of seepage is

________________ to the equipotential lines.
a perpendicular b parallel
c not defined d diagonal [Ans. : a]
Q.423 The upstream face of the earth dam is considered as _____________________

a equipotential line b streamline
c streak line d path line [Ans. : a]
Q.424 The effects of capillary fringe are on the slightly safer side and are neglected.
Q.425 Which of the following line acts as a dividing line between dry (or moist) and
submerged line?
a Equipotential line b Path line
c Seepage line d Streak line [Ans. : c]
Q.426 Stone pitching or riprap is generally provided to avoid _______________

a over-topping b erosion of U/s and d/s face
c cracking due to frost action d gully formation [Ans. : b]
Q.427 "Provision of sufficient freeboard eliminates _______________

i. Over-topping failure
ii. Erosion of U/s face
iii. Erosion of D/s face
iv. Cracking due to frost action
v. Gully formation
Which of the following is/are correct?"
a i and v b ii and iii
c iv and v d i and iv [Ans. : d]

Q.428 The collection and removal of water before it acquires high downward
velocities is ensured by provision of ____________________
a berms b freeboard
c burrow pits d spoil banks [Ans. : a]
Q.429 In order to prevent the possibility of the cross-flow towards the earthen
embankments, it is necessary to provide _____________________
a counter berms b sides walls of sufficient height and length
c spoil banks d sufficient freeboard [Ans. : b]
Q.430 Sloughing is the process of _________________

a progressive erosion
b subsequent removal of soil grains from within the dam
c uncontrolled seepage through the dam body
d progressive removal of soil from the D/s face [Ans. : d]
Q.431 In foundation slide failure___________________________

a top of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves outward forming
large mud waves near the heel
b top of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves inward forming
large mud waves near the heel
c bottom of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves outward
forming large mud waves near the heel
d bottom of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves inward
forming large mud waves near the heel [Ans. : a]
Q.432 What is the most critical condition of slide of the U/s slope?
a The sudden drawdown of the reservoir
b Reservoir full condition
c Steady seepage condition
d Sudden drawdown and reservoir full condition [Ans. : a]
Q.433 When the reservoir is full, the slope which is most likely to slide is
_____________________
a the upstream slope b the downstream slope
c both upstream and downstream slope d no effect [Ans. : b]

Q.434 In order to keep the saturation line in a canal embankment well within the toe,
it is necessary to provide _____________________
a spoil bank b counter berm
c freeboard d berm [Ans. : b]
Q.435 Which of the following failures generally occur due to the development of
unaccounted pore pressures?
a Hydraulic failures b Piping through the dam body
c Sliding in embankments d Sloughing of the d/s toe [Ans. : c]
Q.436 Which of the following method is also called as the Slices method?
a Fellenius method b Swedish slip circle method
c Bishop’s simplified method d Spencer’s method [Ans. : b]
Q.437 In Fellenius method for small values of angle of internal friction of soil, the
critical arc passes ________________
a through the toe of the slope b above the toe of the slope
c below the toe of the slope d anywhere near the toe of the slope
[Ans. : c]
Q.438 Calculate the maximum shear-stress induced if the horizontal average shear
stress induced in u/s portion of the dam at the base is 36.45 kN/m2.
a 43.74 kN/m2 b 47.38 kN/m2
c 51.03 kN/m2 d 54.67 kN/m2 [Ans. : c]
Q.439 Calculate the factor of safety at the point of maximum shear if unit shearing
resistance is 97.9 kN/m2 and the maximum shear-stress induced is 55.72
kN/m2. Check whether the dam is safe or unsafe.
a F.O.S = 1.93 and safe b F.O.S = 1.75 and unsafe
c F.O.S = 0.569 and safe d F.O.S = 1.75 and safe [Ans. : d]
Q.440 A rock toe and a horizontal filter is provided on the downstream base of an
earthen dam in order to _________________
a prevent piping action in the dam body
b prevent piping action in the dam foundation
c reduce the seepage quantity by blocking its flow
d collect and drain out the seepage flow [Ans. : d]

Q.441 What is provided in the form of a transition zone between the homogenous
embankments-fill and rock toe?
a Toe filter b Horizontal blanket
c Chimney drain d Trenches [Ans. : a]
Q.442 The length of horizontal blanket should be equal to _________________

a 3 times the height of the dam
b 4 times the height of the dam
c 5 times the height of the dam
d 6 times the height of the dam [Ans. : a]
Q.443 ____________________ is provided when large scale stratification occurs.

a Chimney drain b Cut-off
c Relief wells d Trenches [Ans. : a]
Q.444 The only provision among the following which can help control the seepage
through the body of an earthen dam and thus to keep the phreatic line well
within the dam width is _________________
a upstream impervious cut-off
b drain trench along the downstream toe
c relief wells
d chimney drain [Ans. : d]
Diversion head works
Q.445 Into how many groups the gravity weir is sub-divided?

a 5 b 4
c 3 d 2 [Ans. : c]
Q.446 In gravity weir, the uplift pressure is due to the seepage of water.
Q.447 The uplift pressure in non-gravity weir is resisted by the bending action.
a False b True [Ans. : b]
Q.448 Which type of weir is suitable for any type of foundation?

a Sloping Weir b Vertical Drop Weir
c Parabolic Weir d Masonry Sloping Weir [Ans. : b]

Q.449 What is the main difference between a dam and weir?

a Height and Duration of Storage b Capacity of Water
c Material used for Construction d Location of the Structure [Ans. : a]
Q.450 What is the difference between a weir and a barrage?

a Discharge Capacity b No Solid Obstruction
c Storage Capacity d Velocity of Flow [Ans. : b]
Q.451 In which type of weir energy dissipation takes place?

a Barrage b Vertical Drop Weir
c Sloping Weir d Parabolic Weir [Ans. : d]
Q.452 Which type of weir is of recent origin?

a Vertical Drop Weir
b Masonry or Concrete Sloping Weir
c Parabolic Weir
d Barrage [Ans. : b]
Q.453 What number of causes is responsible for the failure of weirs?

a 2 b 4
c 3 d 1 [Ans. : b]
Q.454 When the weight of the weir balances the uplift pressure caused by the head
of water seeping below the weir, it is called as ____________
a gravity weir b non-gravity weir
c vertical drop masonry weir d concrete glacis weir [Ans. : a]
Q.455 Which weir is also called Dry Stone Slope Weir?

a Masonry weir b Gravity weir
c Rock-fill weir d Concrete weir [Ans. : c]
Q.456 Which type of weir is suitable for hard clay and consolidated gravel
foundations?
a Gravity weir
b Non-gravity weir
c Masonry weir with a vertical drop
d Rock-fill weirs with sloping aprons [Ans. : c]

Q.457 Which weir is of recent origin and their design is based on modern concepts of
sub-surface flow?
a Gravity weir
b Non-gravity weir
c Masonry dam with a vertical drop
d Concrete weir with sloping glacis [Ans. : d]
Q.458 Which weir is now extensively used especially on pervious foundations?

a Vertical drop masonry weir
b Rock-fill weirs with sloping aprons
c Concrete weirs with sloping glacis
d Non-gravity weirs [Ans. : c]
Q.459 Which of the following statement is incorrect about Non-gravity weir?

a The weir floor is designed continuous with the divide piers as a reinforced
structure
b The weight of the concrete slab balances the uplift pressure
c The weight of the divide piers also keep the structure against uplift
d Brick piers have to be used in place of RCC [Ans. : d]
Q.460 Into how many components the diversion headwork is divided?

a 8 b 5
c 4 d 7 [Ans. : a]
Q.461 In order to find the proper location for the head works on the river, the river is
divided into how many stages?
a 5 b 2
c 3 d 4 [Ans. : d]
Q.462 Divide wall helps in concentrating scouring action.

Q.463 Head regulator helps in controlling the flow in the canal.

Q.464 By constructing which structure we can help the fish in their migration?
a Scouring Sluices b Silt Excluder
c Fish Ladder d Divide Wall [Ans. : c]

Q.465 What device is placed in front of head regulator for silt removal?
a Weir b Silt Extractor
c Silt Excluder d Barrage [Ans. : c]
Q.466 Which device is used for silt removal after it enters the canal?
a Silt Excluder b Silt Ejector
c Weir d Barrage [Ans. : b]
Q.467 Depending on how many considerations the capacity of under sluices is fixed?
a 5 b 4
c 2 d 3 [Ans. : d]
Q.468 How many river training works are needed on the canal head works?
a 5 b 3
c 4 d 2 [Ans. : b]
Q.469 When the depth is small, the name for the jump?
a Undular Jump b Direct Jump
c Strong Jump d Oscillating Jump [Ans. : a]
Q.470 For what limits of Froude number, the jump is said to be weak jump?
a 1.1 to 2.4 b 1.9 to 2.9
c 1.5 to 2.2 d 1.7 to 2.5 [Ans. : d]
Q.471 How many assumptions are made for the derivation of momentum formula?
a 6 b 3
c 4 d 5 [Ans. : c]
Q.472 Depending upon the Froude number, into how many groups the jumps are
classified?
a 8 b 6
c 7 d 4 [Ans. : b]
Q.473 On which surface the energy dissipation is less efficient?
a Horizontal Bed b Freeboard
c Level Floor d Sloping Glacis [Ans. : d]
Q.474 For what value of Froude number the jump is steady jump?
a F1 = 1 b F1 = 1.7 to 4.5
c F1 = 4.5 to 9 d F1 = 9 [Ans. : c]

Q.475 What are the two main causes of failure of hydraulic structure on the pervious
foundation?
a Seepage and Over-turning b Undermining and Uplift
c Over-turning and Piping d Overturning and Uplift [Ans. : b]
Q.476 The structure finally subsides in the hollow formed in the foundation in which
failure?
a Collapse b Overturning
c Undermining d Uplift [Ans. : c]
Q.477 Heave piping may occur on the _______________
a downstream of sheet pile or cut off wall
b upstream of sheet pile or cut off wall
c body of earth structure
d below the foundation [Ans. : a]
Q.478 "The safety of a hydraulic structure founded on a pervious foundation can be
ensured by:
i. Provision sufficient length of its concrete floor.
ii. Providing sufficient depth of its concrete floor.
iii. Provision a downstream cutoff of some reasonable depth."
a i and ii b i and iii
c i, ii and iii d ii and iii [Ans. : c]
Q.479 What is the value of Bligh’s coefficient for coarse-grained soil?
a 15 b 12
c 5 to 9 d 8 [Ans. : b]
Q.480 For sand mixed with boulder and gravel and for loam soil, the safe hydraulic
gradient should be ___________
a 1/15 b 1/12
c 1/5 to 1/9 d 1/8 [Ans. : c]
Q.481 Which of the following is not a limitation of creep theory?
a No distinction between the vertical and horizontal creep
b No distinction between effectiveness of outer and inner faces of sheet pile
c Significance of exit gradient is not considered
d Only a nominal floor thickness is required on the upstream side so as to
resist water [Ans. : d]

Q.482 If the value of Bligh’s coefficient for a particular soil is equal to 12 then, what
is the safe hydraulic gradient for that soil?
a 1/12 b 1/9
c 1/15 d 1/5 [Ans. : a]
Q.483 In Lane’s weighted creep theory, he suggested a weightage factor _________

a 1/3 for horizontal creep and 1.0 for vertical creep
b 1/3 for vertical creep and 1.0 for horizontal creep
c 2/3 for horizontal creep and 1/3 for horizontal creep
d 2/3 for vertical creep and 1/3 for horizontal creep [Ans. : a]
Q.484 Which of the following limitation of Bligh’s theory forms the basis of Lane’s
creep theory?
a No distinction between the vertical and horizontal creep
b No distinction between effectiveness of outer and inner faces of sheet pile
c Significance of exit gradient is not considered
d Bligh’s theory holds good when the length of the horizontal floor is greater
than or equal to twice the depth of the deepest pile [Ans. : a]
Q.485 What is the value of Lane’s coefficient for fine sand and coarse sand?
a 7 and 5 b 5 and 7
c 7 and 8.5 d 7 and 9 [Ans. : a]
Q.486 What is the range of Lane’s coefficient for clayey soils?

a 3.0 to 3.5 b 2.5 to 3.0
c 1.6 to 3.0 d > 3.0 [Ans. : c]
Q.487 The laplacian equation represents two sets of curves intersecting orthogonally.
a False b True [Ans. : b]
Q.488 What is the path represented by the streamlines?

a Hydraulic Jump b Flow Net
c Energy Dissipation d Water Flow [Ans. : c]
Q.489 How many corrections are needed for the complex profile broken from simple
forms, to be valid?
a 1 b 2
c 3 d 4 [Ans. : c]

Q.490 By how many considerations the depth downstream vertical cutoff is

governed?
a 2 b 1
c 3 d 4 [Ans. : a]
Q.491 What type of points is needed to be joined to form an equipotential line?

a Equal Pressure Points
b Residual Heads which still need Energy Dissipation
c Velocity Gradient Points
d Points of intersection of Streamlines and Velocity Components [Ans. : b]
Q.492 The component of which force is to be counterbalanced so that the soil grains
remain stable?
a Upthrust Pressure Forces b Forces due to Velocity Components
c Pressure Force d Seepage Water Force [Ans. : d]
Q.493 What is the name of the gradient pressure at the exit end?
a Gradient of Pressure b Exit Gradient
c Streamline Gradient d Equipotential Gradient [Ans. : b]
Q.494 Which method is evolved by khosla for designing of hydraulic structures?

a Method of Gradients b Method of Variables
c Method of Independent Variables d Method of Flow Nets [Ans. : c]
Canal
Q.495 On what term does the construction of a fall in the case of the main canal
depend?
a Discharge Capacity of the Canal b Length of the Canal
c Topography
d Cost of Excavation and Filling versus Cost of fall [Ans. : d]
Q.496 On what factor in case of branch canals, the construction site for a fall
depends?
a Cost of Excavation b Topography
c Commanded Area d Cost of fall [Ans. : c]

Q.497 How many types of falls are present?

a 4 b 5
c 7 d 8 [Ans. : d]
Q.498 What number of major defects does the ogee fall have?
a 1 b 2
c 3 d 4 [Ans. : b]
Q.499 In which fall the depth discharge relationship is unaffected?

a Trapezoidal Notch Fall b Ogee Fall
c Rapids d Straight Glacis Fall [Ans. : a]
Q.500 Which type of fall is suitable for 60 cumecs discharge and 1.5 m drop?
a Montague Type Fall b Rapids
c Straight Glacis Fall d Baffle Fall [Ans. : c]
Q.501 What is the reason for the construction of baffle wall in baffle fall?
a To Maintain Uniform Velocity Flow
b To Ensure Formation of Jump
c To Reduce Soil Erosion
d To Ensure Uniform Discharge of the Flow [Ans. : b]
Q.502 Which type of fall is not adopted in India?

a Ogee Fall b Rapids
c Inglis Fall d Montague Type Fall [Ans. : d]
Q.503 Canal drops are provided to _______________

a dissipate the excess energy
b increase the driving head of flow of water
c dissipate excess land slope
d dissipate inadequate land slope [Ans. : c]
Q.504 In case of branch canals and distributary channels, the falls are located with
consideration to _________________
a command area b topography
c cost economy d availability of earth material
[Ans. : a]

Q.505 By providing a natural drop in one drop _______________________

a the quantity of unbalanced earthwork decreases
b the quantity of unbalanced earthwork increases
c the quantity of balanced earthwork increases
d number of fall increases [Ans. : b]
Q.506 "Consider the following statements.

I. Possibility of combining some other structure with a fall eg. regulator, road
bridge etc.
II. Cutting and filling are required below and above the fall should not be
necessarily equal.
III. The command should not be reduced due to the lowering of F.S.L and the
fall may be located below the outlets.
Which of the following statement is correct for site selection of a fall?"
a I only b III only
c I and II d I and III [Ans. : d]
Q.507 ______________ fall is adopted for smaller discharges and larger drops.
a Ogee fall b Sarda fall
c Glacis fall d Well-type fall [Ans. : ]
Q.508 Calculate the velocity over the notch (V1) and the velocity through the pipe
(V3) if the full supply discharge is 2 cumecs. The area of flow over the
trapezoidal notch is 0.58 m2. Assume the value of diameter of the pipe used
as 1 m.
a V1 = 3.44 m/sec and V3 = 2.54 m/sec
b V1 = 2.54 m/sec and V3 = 3.44 m/sec
c V1 = 3.44 m/sec and V3 = 3.44 m/sec
d V1 = 0.44 m/sec and V3 = 2.04 m/sec [Ans. : a]
Q.509 Calculate the diameter of the inlet well if the X and Y coordinate of the jet
(issuing from the centre of pressure) w.r.t the water surface in the inlet well is
1.05 m and 1.88 m respectively.
a 1.575 m b 2.82 m
c 1.79 m d 0.83 m [Ans. : a]

Q.510 Which of the following loss is not considered while calculating the total head
loss between the inlet well and D/s FSL?
a Entry and exit losses
b Loss due to friction
c Loss due to enlargement of the section
d Loss due to contraction of section [Ans. : d]
Q.511 Which of the following statement is wrong?

a In a trapezoidal notch fall, the top width of the notch is kept between 3/4th
to full water depth above the sill of the notch
b The syphon fall is designed to maintain a fixed supply level in the channel
c A cylinder fall is popularly known as syphon well drop
d Energy dissipators are provided for small discharges [Ans. : d]
Q.512 Which type of canal does not need cross drainage structures?
a Side Slope Canal b Contour Canal
c Watershed Canal d Field Channel [Ans. : a]
Q.513 What is the name given to the junction of two streams?

a Ridge b Area of Mixture
c Merging d Area of Mingling [Ans. : a]
Area of Mingling
Q.514 On flatlands what type of canal alignment is used?

c Watershed Canal d Field Channel [Ans. : c]
Q.515 Which type of canal is most useful in hilly areas?

c Watershed Canal d Field Channel [Ans. : b]
Q.516 If a looping is present in the ridge line they how can that area be irrigated
with?
a Distributary b Tributary
c Weir d Canal [Ans. : a]

Q.517 A curve in channel results in _____________

a silting on inside (convex side) and scouring on outside (concave side)
b scouring on inside (convex side) and scouring on outside (concave side)
c both silting and scouring on inside
d both silting and scouring on outside [Ans. : a]
Q.518 If the discharging capacity of the channel is less than 0.5 cumecs then, the
minimum recommended value for curve radius is _________
a 150 m b 100 m
c 300 m d 600 m [Ans. : b]
Q.519 What is the Annual Intensity of irrigation (AII)?

a Gross Irrigated Area/Cultivable Command Area
b Cultivable Command Area/Gross Irrigated Area
c Net Irrigated Area/Cultivable Command Area
d Cultivable Command Area/Net Irrigated Area [Ans. : a]
Q.520 What is Gross Cropped Area?

a Net irrigated area + Area irrigated more than once during the same year
b Net cropped area + Area sown more than once during the same year
c Net irrigated area + Net cropped area
d Total area irrigated once a year + area irrigated more than once in that year
[Ans. : b]
Q.521 The Gross Command Area for a distributary is 8000 hectares 80% of which is
culturable irrigable. The intensity of irrigation for Rabi season is 50% and the
average duty at the head of the distributary is 2000 hectares/cumec.
Determine the discharge required at the head of the distributary.
a 1.33 cumec b 1.60 cumec
c 1.40 cumec d 1.44 cumec [Ans. : b]
Q.522 Loss of canal discharge occurs mainly due to?

a Seepage and Percolation b Percolation and Absorption
c Seepage and Evaporation d Seepage and Absorption [Ans. : c]

Q.523 Which of the following factor do not affect seepage loss?

a Underground water-table condition
b The porosity of the soil
c Physical properties of the canal water
d Prevailing wind velocity in the region [Ans. : d]
Q.524 In which of the following phenomenon there is a continuous direct flow

between the canal and the underground water table?
a Absorption b Seepage
c Percolation
d Both Absorption and Percolation [Ans. : c]
Q.525 Which of the following factor have no influence on evaporation loss?

a The temperature of the region
b Prevailing wind velocity in the region
c Area of water surface exposed to the atmosphere
d The porosity of the soil [Ans. : d]
Q.526 According to Etcheverry and Harding, the range of conveyance loss is highest
in which soil?
a Sandy Loam b Loose sandy soil
c Clay Loam d Rocks [Ans. : b]
Q.527 Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a The seepage loss is very high in black cotton soils and heavy clay as
compared to sandy porous soil
b The seepage through a new canal is more than from a silted canal
c The more the silt, the lesser are the losses
d The more the velocity, the lesser will be the losses [Ans. : a]
Q.528 Inflow and Outflow method is generally used to measure ____________
a transpiration loss b seepage loss
c evaporation loss d percolation loss [Ans. : b]
Q.529 Which soil has the least range of conveyance loss according to Etcheverry and
Harding?
a Sandy Loam b Clay Loam
c Loose sandy soil d Impervious clay loam [Ans. : d]

Q.530 The quantity of water that can be diverted from the river into the main canal
has no dependency on which of the following factor?
a The water available in the river
b The capacity of the main canal
c Water demand of the branch canals
d The capacity of the branch canal [Ans. : d]
Q.531 Which of the following combination is wrong?
a Roster – Indication of allotted supplies to different channels
b Flexible regulation – Allocation of supplies with anticipated demand
c Head regulator – Regulation of discharge in the canal
d Chak – Command area of an inlet [Ans. : d]
Q.532 Which of the following characteristics is wrong about extensive irrigation?
a The irrigation extends to a large area with the lowest available supply
b Agricultural production and protection against famine will be at optimum
levels
c The crop production will be minimal per unit of available water
d It creates a perpetual scarcity of water [Ans. : c]
Q.533 What are the categories of the entire water conveyance system?
a The primary distribution system and secondary distribution system
b The primary distribution system, the secondary distribution system, and
Water allowance
c The primary distribution system, secondary distribution system, and
tertiary distribution system
d The primary distribution system, secondary distribution system, tertiary
distribution system, and Water allowance [Ans. : c]
a The primary and secondary distribution system is fully controlled by the
State Irrigation Department
b The tertiary system is managed by farmers
c The distribution of water managed by farmers is done on a seven-day
rotation basis
d Water allowance is not a compromise between the likely demand and the
supply for a given project [Ans. : d]

Q.535 What is the correct formula for Flow Time in an hour for an individual
farmer?
a (FT for the unit area) x (area of farmer’s fields) + (his bharai – his jharai)
b (FT for the unit area) x (area of farmer’s fields) – (his bharai – his jharai)
c FT for the unit area + (his bharai – his jharai)
d FT for the unit area – (his bharai – his jharai) [Ans. : a]
Q.536 What is the formula for the Flow Time for the unit area in hours?
a 168 – (total Bharai – total Jharai) / Total area to be irrigated by the water-
course
b 168 + (total Bharai – total Jharai) / Total area to be irrigated by the water-
course
c 168 – (total Bharai – total Jharai)
d 168 + (total Bharai – total Jharai) [Ans. : a]
Q.537 What is the most important point to be considered while fixing the canal
capacity?
a Keenest Demand b Average Demand
c Water Demand d Demand [Ans. : a]
Q.538 A pump was installed in a field to supply water to the crops. The duty for this
crop is 432 hectares/cumec on the field and the efficiency of pump is 50%. The
sown area of the field is 5 hectares. Determine the maximum output required
(H.P) of the pump, if the highest water level is 4 meters below the highest
portion of the field. Assume negligible field channel losses.
a 0.77H.P b 0.85H.P
c 0.80H.P d 0.31H.P [Ans. : d]
Q.539 Let us take the gross commanded area of a watercourse is 2000 hectares, 80%
of which is culturable irrigable. Intensities of sugarcane and paddy are 30%
and 50%. The duties of the crops at the head of the watercourse are 850
hectares/cumec and 1900 hectares/cumec. Find the discharge required at the
head of the watercourse?
a 0.98 cumec b 0.97 cumec
c 0.9 cumec d 0.986 cumec [Ans. : d]

Q.540 By how much percentage canal capacity is increased to meet peak demands?
a 30 to 35% b 20 to 25%
c 15 to 20% d 20 to 30% [Ans. : b]
Q.541 What are the types of sediment load?

a Bedload and Suspended load
b Bedload and Dissolved load
c Bedload, Dissolved load and Suspended load
d Suspended load and Dissolved load [Ans. : c]
Q.542 On increasing velocity beyond the threshold stage of motion, the bed develops
____________ shape.
a dunes with ripples b saw-tooth ripples
c anti-dunes d flat surface [Ans. : b]

a Ripples do not occur if the size of the bed particles is coarser than 0.6 mm
b Dunes are much larger in length and height than ripples
c Crests of both ripples and dunes extend across the entire width of the stream
d Ripples are less rounded than Dunes [Ans. : c]
Cross Drainage work and River Training Structures
Q.544 Which of the following CD works carry drainage over the canal?
a Aqueduct and Syphon Aqueduct
b Super passage and Syphon
c Level-crossing and inlets outlets
d Canal Syphon and Aqueduct [Ans. : b]
Q.545 The canal water flows freely under gravity in which of the following CD
works?
a Aqueduct and Super passage
b Super passage and Syphon
c Canal Syphon and Aqueduct
d Level-crossing and inlets outlets [Ans. : a]

Q.546 A Super passage is the reverse of ______________

a syphon b aqueduct
c inlets and outlets d syphon Aqueduct [Ans. : b]
Q.547 Which of the following statement is not correct about canal syphon?
a FSL of the canal is much above than the bed level of the drainage trough
b To minimize the trouble of silting, a ramp is provided at the exit
c The canal water flows under symphonic action
d For siphoning small discharges, barrels are adopted [Ans. : d]
Q.548 Which CD work is generally adopted when the drainage discharge is small
and the drain crosses the canal with its bed level equal to or slightly higher
than the canal FSL?
a Syphon Aqueduct b Level crossing
c Inlets and outlets d Aqueduct [Ans. : c]
Q.549 The drainage water is sometimes allowed to join the canal water to augment
canal supplies through a hydraulic structure is called as ________________
a canal outlet b canal inlet
c module d level crossing [Ans. : b]
Q.550 The crossing arrangement preferably made at the junction of a huge canal and
a river stream carrying a short-lived high flood discharge at almost equal bed
levels is a __________
a super passage b aqueduct
c level crossing d canal syphon [Ans. : c]
Q.551 In a syphon aqueduct provided with a pucca bottom floor, the uplift will
occur on __________
a the roof slab b the bottom floor [Ans. : b]
c both the roof slab as well as the bottom floor
d nowhere since the flow is free in the canal as well as in the drainage channel
Q.552 Which of the following is a disadvantage of CD works carrying the canal over
the discharge?
a The damage caused by floods is not rare
b The canal is not open for inspection and maintenance

c The CD works are less liable to damage than the earthwork of the canal
d During heavy floods, the foundations are susceptible to scour or waterway
of the drain may get choked [Ans. : d]
Q.553 In which of the following arrangement, the perennial drainage discharge is

advantageously used?
a Level crossing b Inlets and Outlets
c Syphon d Aqueduct [Ans. : a]
Q.554 Which of the following is a disadvantage of CD works carrying drainage over

the canal?
a The arrangement is generally constructed when the drain is very big as
compared to the section of the canal
b The damage caused by floods is not rare
c The CD works are more liable to damage than the earthwork of the canal
d The perennial canal is not open to inspection or maintenance [Ans. : d]
Q.555 The relative bed levels of the canal and the drainage may be changed and
manipulated by _________________
a changing the alignment
b changing the positions of the water table
c altering the head level
d use of dewatering equipment [Ans. : a]
Q.556 " The selection of the CD works depends on?

i. Selecting canal alignment
ii. Position of water-table and availability of dewatering equipment
iii. Suitability of soil for embankment
iv. Availability of funds"
a i and ii b i, ii and iv
c i, ii and iii d i, ii, iii and iv [Ans. : d]
Q.557 The type of canal alignment which involves maximum CD works is a

______________
a ridge canal b contour canal
c side slope canal d both ridge and contour canal [Ans. : b]

Q.558 What is Lacey’s equation for fixing the approximate value of the required
waterway for the drain?
a P = 4.75 Q b P = 4.57 Q
c P = 4.75 Q^1/2 d P = 4.57 Q^1/2 [Ans. : c]
Q.559 The maximum permissible reduction in the waterway from Lacey’s perimeter
is _______
a 15% b 20%
c 25% d 30% [Ans. : b]
Q.560 The permissible velocity through the barrels is generally limited to
_____________
a 1.5 to 2 m/sec b 2 to 3 m/sec
c 2.5 to 3 m/sec d 1 to 2 m/sec [Ans. : b]
Q.561 Which of the following method is applicable for the design of channel
transition when the water depths of the flumed and unflumed section are the
same or maybe different?
a Mitra’s method of design of transitions
b Chaturvedi’s method of design of transitions
c Hind’s method of design of transitions
d The general method of design of transitions [Ans. : c]
Q.562 In a siphon aqueduct, the worst condition of uplift on the floor occurs when
________
a the canal is full and the drainage empty with the water table at drainage bed
b the canal and drainage are flowing full
c the canal is empty and the drainage full with the water table at drainage bed
d the canal is full and the drainage empty with water table below the floor
[Ans. : c]
Q.563 To reduce the cost of the CD works we resort to _____
a fluming b blocking of drain
c cut-off d lifting of canal water [Ans. : a]
Q.564 Which of the following wings protect the earthen slopes of the canal and also
guide the drainage water?
a Canal wings b Land wings
c River wings d Side wings [Ans. : c]

Q.565 The most appropriate and economical CD work at the above site will be:
a An aqueduct b A super-passage
c A siphon aqueduct d A siphon [Ans. : d]
Q.566 Which of the following is not a movement joint?

a Contraction joint b Expansion joint
c Sliding joint d Construction joints [Ans. : d]
Q.567 A partial contraction joint is the one in which?

a both the concrete and reinforcing steel are interrupted
b only the concrete is interrupted
c only the reinforcement is interrupted
d none of them is interrupted [Ans. : b]
Q.568 In reinforced concrete floors, the movement joints should normally be spaced
at a maximum spacing of ____________
a 6m b 4.5 m
c 7.5 m d 9m [Ans. : c]
Q.569 The expansion joints in floors and walls should normally be provided at a
spacing of not more than ___________
a 30 m b 45 m
c 50 m d 55 m [Ans. : a]
Q.570 Which of the following is sometimes used in expansion joints to avoid the risk
of fault in an embedded water bar?
a Joint fillers b Joint sealers
c Joint covers plates d Water stops [Ans. : c]
Q.571 What is the most common metal used for water stops?
a Monel metal b Annealed copper
c Galvanised iron d Steel [Ans. : b]
Q.572 Into how many categories the river training works are classified?
a 2 b 4
c 3 d 5 [Ans. : c]

Q.573 Which category of river training work deals with flood control?
a Training for Sediment b Low Water Training
c Training for Depth d Training for Discharge [Ans. : d]
Q.574 Which category of river training work helps in navigation of the channels?
a Mean Water Training b Training for Depth
c Training for Discharge d Training for Sediment [Ans. : b]
Q.575 What is the main aim of mean water training?

a Effective Disposal of Suspended and Bed Loads
b To Constant Velocity
c Flood Control
d Provide Sufficient Water Depth [Ans. : a]
Q.576 How types of methods are adopted for the training of rivers?
a 7 b 8
c 5 d 6 [Ans. : a]
Q.577 How types of groynes are there?

a 4 b 2
c 3 d 5 [Ans. : b]
Q.578 Onto how many groups groynes are classified according to the function they
serve?
a 2 b 4
c 3 d 5 [Ans. : b]

Dams and Hydraulic Structure MCQ

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Dams and Hydraulic Structures 1 Multiple Choice Questions

Estimation and costing (Quantity surveying contracts and tenders)

Q.2 No reinforcement is necessary in the

Q.3 In a syphon aqueduct

Q.5 To hold hydraulic jumps, baffle walls are provided in

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Q.7 Pick up the correct statement from the following

Q.8 For a unique design of a channel by Kennedy's theory

Q.9 Which of the following gate is also called flush boards?

Q.10 The main cause of silting up a channel,

Q.11 Pick up the correct statement from the following

Q.13 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

c If the flexibility is zero, it is a rigid module

Q.14 According to Khosla, the exits gradient of surface flow

Q.15 A hydraulic structure is designed to withstand

Q.16 In Montague type fall

Q.17 Cross regulators in main canals are provided

Q.19 According to Lacey, in regime conditions

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Q.20 The most suitable section of a lined canal, is

Q.21 An outlet is said to be proportional if its flexibility, is

Q.22 The level of the floor of a syphon aqueduct can be obtained

Q.24 According to Bligh's creep theory, percolating water flows along

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Q.26 ________________ are used only for very minor works.

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Q.36 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Q.40 In a barrage, the crest level is kept

Q.41 An outlet which maintains a constant discharge irrespective of fluctuation in

Q.42 Process of meandering is due to

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Q.48 The most suitable location of a canal head work, is

Q.51 A fall in a canal bed is generally provided, if

Q.53 Bligh's theory of seepage assumes

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Q.57 The blanket in earth dam is provided ___________________

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Q.62 A hydraulic jump is generally formed when a stream moving with

Q.63 A fall which maintains its depth, is

Q.64 Presence of tail-water in a gravity dam ____________________

Q.68 Pond level in a canal regulator is the level of water

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Q.71 According to Khosla, the exist gradient of surface flow

Q.75 The most suitable location of a canal head work, is

Q.77 In a barrage, the crest level is kept

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Q.79 Pick up the correct statement from the following

Q.82 The level of the floor of a syphon aqueduct can be obtained

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Q.83 Pick up the correct statement from the following

Q.85 Pick up the correct statement from the following

a Zoned embankment type b Homogenous embankment type

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

c Non-homogenous type d Diaphragm type [Ans. : b]

Q.90 The axis of a gravity dam is the ______________________

Q.92 Attracting groynes are built

Q.94 The width of a meander belt is the transverse distance between