On a helicopter, what is vortex ring state?

a) Tip vortex interference at high forward speed

b) Ground vortex interference when hovering close to the ground
Ans c) Tip vortex build-up during hover

What controls are used in response to PVD display?

Ans a) Nose wheel steering or rudder pedals
b) Control wheel
c) PVD control unit

DME transponder transmits on receipt

a) of any interrogation
b) of pilot input command request
Ans c) of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds

The best design of a MRB is where the C of P

Ans a) does not move
b) moves freely along the length of the blade
c) is insignificant

The RAD alt electrical length for an helicopter is

a) 16ft
b) 12ft
Ans c) 28ft

Mode S transponders transmits a binary code of

a) 12bits
b) 64bits
Ans c) 24bits

The rotor cone is formed by

a) blade alignment
Ans b) centrifugal force and lift
c) centrifugal force only

Tracking is carried out to_____________the MRB tip path

a) balance
b) restore
Ans c) align

Artificial feel is gained by using a

a) hydraulic damper
Ans b) spring bias unit
c) 'feel' generator

The ground run monitor presents information

Ans a) of distance to go and ground speed
b) duration of ground run
c) angle of crosstrack on ground

A mode C transponder
a) can be used for TCAS
Ans b) cannot be used for TCAS
c) can be used for TCAS on ILS approach only

The audio select panel allows the crew to

Ans a) transmit on one channel, listen on one
b) transmit on one channel, listen on multiple others
c) receive on one channel, transmit on multiple others
The crew select DH on
a) the altimeter
b) the DH annunciator panel
Ans c) the rad alt display

When substituting the radio altimeter antenna cables, you should consider
a) power requirements
Ans b) the speed of propagation of rad alt signal
c) the diameter of cables

GPS has
Ans a) 24 satellites, 6 orbits of 4
b) 24 satellites, 4 orbits of 6
c) 27 satellites, 3 orbits of 9

Audio select panel voice switch

a) allows voice ident of DME
Ans b) cuts "beeps" from DME signal
c) disables DME voice ident

GPS frequency is
a) 1575 GHz
Ans b) 1575 MHz
c) 1525 MHz

Radio switches are normally

Ans a) sprung on R/T, latched on I/C
b) latched on R/T, sprung on I/C
c) latched on R/T, latched on I/C
On GPWS, with aircraft below 1700ft
Ans a) systems is disabled
b) no traffic will be shown
c) all traffic produces aural alert

Mode S pulses. Which are used?

a) F1,F2,F4,F5
Ans b) s1,p1,p3,p4
c) s1,s2,p1,p2

In a superhet receiver, the advantage of an RF amplifier is

a) it amplifies output stages
Ans b) it improves signal to noise ratio
c) it couples noise factors

Fluorescent tubes for the cabin lighting are powered from

a) 115 volts from ac bus
b) 200 volts from ac bus
Ans c) high voltage produced by transformer ballast units

The advancing blade of a helicopter is the one moving

a) one moving in direction of relative air flow
b) highest blade
Ans c) one moving forward into relative airflow

In air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight director pitch command bar
signifies
a) speed increase
Ans b) speed decrease
c) height decrease
Back beam is captured
Ans a) by manually selecting the back beam mode
b) this automatically trips the L NAV mode
c) by manually selecting the L NAV mode

With an insulation tester

a) the long lead is attached to the aircraft air frame and short lead to item
b) the short lead to the aircraft airframe and long lead to the item
Ans c) it does not matter which lead goes where

DME reply pulses are 63MHZ

a) higher
b) lower
Ans c) higher or lower

Flight director incompatible modes are

a) VOR and glideslope
b) heading and altitude hold
c) VOR and altitude hold

What is VHF comm range at 9000 feet?

a) 110 nm
Ans b) 120 nm
c) 130 nm

GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1?

a) c/a code only
b) c/a code and P code
c) P code only
Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per revolution is experienced on a helicopter. The
primary control method is
a) inspect loose fixtures and fittings
Ans b) design of engine and gearbox supports
c) inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft

Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings from

a) rad alt to barometric
b) rad alt decrease
c) approach along localiser with reference to runway threshold

On power up, the IRS obtains position

a) latitude from previous position
b) longitude from previous position
c) latitude and longitude from previous position

Krueger flaps make up part of the

a) wing upper surface leading edge
b) wing lower surface trailing edge
Ans c) wing lower surface leading edge

Electronic stab trim switches are found on the

Ans a) control column
b) flight control panel
c) behind thrust levers

Deviation from the HSI lubber line is known as

a) apparent A
b) real A
c) true A
Emergency electronic equipment for the cabin is referred to in
a) BCARs
Ans b) JAR OPS subpart M
c) maintenance manual

Carbon microphones require

Ans a) DC supply
b) AC supply
c) no supply

Microwave landing systems are modulated with

a) FM
b) phase drift keying
c) Manchester code

A CVR is found to be unserviceable

a) flight can continue with serviceable FDR provided they are not combined
b) flights must not continue after four days
Ans c) flights must not continue after 72 hours

The maximum azimuth coverage by a MLS facility is

a) +/- 35 degrees
Ans b) +/-40 degrees
c) +/-60 degrees

The bearing of a NDB measured by ADF is 060 degrees relative to aircraft heading of
030 degrees. The RMI pointer indicates
a) 30 degrees
b) 90 degrees
c) 60 degrees
Fibre glass parts are protected from lightning strikes and dangerous voltages by
a) non conductive paint
b) conductive paint
Ans c) earth primary conductors

In MLS, the 12 bit preamble consists of

a) carrier and 5 bits time reference and 7 bits information
b) 5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function
c) 7 bits function and 5 bits time reference and carrier

The pseudo-random code used by all civilian GPS users is

a) the y code
b) the p code
Ans c) the c/a code

The respective band widths for a radar IF amplifier and video amplifier should be for
good pulse shape are
a) wide and narrow
b) narrow and wide
c) wide and wide

On localiser approach the radio deviation signal is lost

a) the aircraft flies in a circle
Ans b) aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set heading
c) aircraft flies heading with increasing drift angle

'Q' feel for the stabiliser requires

a) pitot only
b) static only
Ans c) pitot and static
When the aircraft nose yaws to the left, the yaw damper will apply corrective rudder to
Ans a) the right
b) the left
c) the left with some aileron assistance

A yaw damper will apply rudder proportional to

a) amount of aircraft disturbance
b) attitude of aircraft
Ans c) rate of yaw

In a turn, wing spoilers may be deployed

a) to act as an airbrake, interacting with the ailerons
b) in unison with both the up going and down going ailerons
Ans c) to assist the up going aileron

Glideslope deviation signals are

Ans a) DC polarity sensitive
b) AC phase sensitive
c) DC positive going only

A triplex system loses one channel

Ans a) pilot can continue with autoland
b) pilot can use auto approach
c) pilot must make a full manual approach and land

In an Autoland, autothrottle is disengaged

Ans a) after reverse thrust is applied
b) after affixed period of the time after landing
c) manually after landing

What is the maximum limit of the artificial horizon?

Ans a) 85 degrees in pitch and 360 degrees in roll
b) 360 degrees in pitch and roll
c) 85 degrees pitch and 110 degrees in roll

Acceleration error produces

a) a false indication of left bank
Ans b) a false indication of right bank
c) a false indication of climb

The normal axis of a helicopter passes through

a) the centre of rotor disc
b) through the centre of intersection of longitudinal and lateral axis
c) a line parallel to rotor axis

Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100

a) Door
Ans b) Left wing
c) Right wing

Shock stall
a) is a flap down stall
Ans b) occurs at high speeds
c) occurs at low speeds

Drooping of helicopter blades is compensated by

a) flapping
b) dragging
Ans c) centrifugal force

During a turn
a) left rudder to be used
b) right rudder to be used
Ans c) rudder to be maintained in centre position

Align light flashes during alignment

Ans a) A fault has occurred and system needs to be turned off
b) It is attracting operators attention
c) It is indicating progress of alignment

During decent with power on in a helicopter

a) lift, drag and thrust are acting on the helicopter
Ans b) lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the helicopter
c) lift, weight and thrust are acting on the helicopter

To transmit position feedback for actuators of roll and pitch control surfaces, in a fly by
wire system
Ans a) LVDT is used hence ensuring interchangeability
b) LVDT and RVDT are used for pitch and roll
c) Synchros are used

The compensator in a fuel tank measures

a) specific gravity of fuel
Ans b) K value of fuel
c) fuel quantity

What is the error signal used for in a fixed angle approach in LOC coupling?entrifugal
force
a) Heading and Deviation
Ans b) Course error and Deviation
c) Heading ,Course error and Deviation

In modern aircraft, power distribution of Generators are controlled by

Ans a) BPCU
b) PCDU (power control distribution unit)
c) SPCU

As you approach supersonic

Ans a) total drag is increased
b) lift is reduced
c) thrust is reduced

Range resolution is obtained by

a) High PRF
Ans b) Shorter pulse width
c) Shorter beam width

In weather radar, short range targets are missed by

Ans a) Larger pulse width
b) Larger beam width
c) Larger frequency

When the trailing edge flap is

a) The CP moves forward and the pitching moment changes to nose up
b) The CP moves forward but the CG does not change
Ans c) CP move rearward

During take off if an input to auto throttle is fails

a) Auto throttle disengages
Ans b) Throttle hold is annunciated
c) Fail light illuminates

Flight director command bars indicate

Ans a) Direction in which aircraft is to be manoeuvred
b) Direction in which aircraft is flying
c) Direction in which the beacon is

Mode S has
a) 12 address bits
Ans b) 24 address bits
c) 36 address bits

If an aircraft is on east of VOR beacon, the reference and variable phases are
a) In phase
b) Opposite phase
Ans c) Phase quadrature

RVSM, Vertical minimum separation error allowed is

a) 80 ft
b) 300 ft
c) 500 ft

In a radio altimeter system if you decide to increase the TX cable and RX cable each by
3 inch the total correction factor is
a) 3 inch
b) 6 inch
Ans c) 9 inch

If you momentarily short the two spikes of bonding tester

a) tester reads zero
Ans b) tester reads full scale
c) tester would be zero centred

For bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by

a) a thick metallic bonding strip
Ans b) a corrugated bonding jumper
c) a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends

What is the minimum resistance between all isolated electrostatic conducting parts
which may be subjected to appreciable charge and main earth system
a) 0.5 ohm
b) 1 ohm
Ans c) 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.ft. surface area which ever is less

Mach trim in some aircraft assists

Ans a) longitudinal stability
b) lateral stability
c) vertical stability

In case the airplane is wired for dual installation of the Central Maintenance Computers
and only one computer is to be installed
Ans a) it must be installed on LH side
b) it must be installed on RH side
c) it may be installed either on LH or RH side

Main electric trim is controlled by

a) a switch on control wheel
b) a switch installed on centre pedestal panel
c)

If the static line is disconnected in the cabin, the Mach meter reading would be
a) higher mach number
Ans b) lower mach number
c) not effected
In a dual FMC installation, if one FMC is defective
a) one CDU blanks
b) both CDU blanks
Ans c) not be affected as automatic transfer takes place

While carrying out a leak check of the altimeter, if the static is leaking, the VSI would
a) indicate climb
Ans b) indicate decent
c) not be affected

In a combined pitot-static probe, while carrying out a leak check, which instrument is
most likely to be effected by over pressure?
a) ASI
b) VSI
c) Altimeter

The correction for a positive error for coefficient A in a compass

a) is to rotate clockwise
b) is to rotate anticlockwise
c) It may be rotated either direction

Radiated interference of current carrying cables can be minimized by

a) Having filters in power supply lines
b) Separating the affected and affecting cables
c) Putting the affected cable in a single conduit

During compass swing, using a datum compass, the error permitted in aligning the
aircraft is
a) 1 degree
b) 5 degree
c) 10 degree
If two aircraft decide to issue the same RA for a potential conflict, which aircraft changes
the decision?
a) The one with the higher address
b) The one with the smaller address
c) Neither changes the decision

What is the authority of series actuator on an helicopters autopilot?

Ans a) 10%
b) 50%
c) 100%

In helicopter autopilots, while operating the actuator, the movement of the cockpit
control is prevented by
a) synchros attached to the control
Ans b) a compressed spring attached to the cockpit control
c) a lock on the cockpit control

Helicopter blades are

a) highly cambered
b) reverse cambered
Ans c) Symmetrical

GPS antenna is
a) vertically polarized
b) horizontally polarized
c) lincomp polarization

The cyclic stick in an helicopter is

a) to the left
b) to the right
Ans c) in the centre

An autopilot computer
Ans a) is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR
b) is more sensitive to VOR than to ILS
c) is the same sensitivity for VOR and ILS

What type of flap is this?

Ans a) Split flap
b) Fowler flap
c) Plain flap

Purpose of the bellcrank is to

a) transmit motion
Ans b) reverse direction and transmit motion
c) adjust friction

In an FDS, the attitude gyro is coupled with the FD computer by means of transformer
coupling. The purpose of this arrangement is
a) to protect the attitude gyro in case of failure of FD computer
b) to protect FD computer in case of attitude gyro failure
c) to minimise power losses

DH is based on
a) aircraft characteristics
b) experience of the crew
c) RVR transmitted by ATC

In a horizontal gyro the random precession of the inner ring is corrected by

a) mercury switches on the inner ring
b) mercury switches on the outer ring
c) flux valve slaving

Index error is
a) coefficient B
b) Coefficient P
Ans c) misalignment of compass lubber line

Helicopter derives its lift from

Ans a) the blade of the helicopter creates a low pressure above it
b) rotor acts as a airscrew
c) air is pushed downward

A two bladed helicopter rotor on a central gimbal is called

a) rigid rotor
Ans b) semi rigid rotor
c) fully articulated rotor

Use of a diplexer in a receiver is

a) to enable signals to be distributed to different receivers
b) to amplify the RF signal
c) to impedance match the aerial and receivers

If the 'Q' feel in a powered control system fails

a) the failed system stops and it remains in this position
b) the pilot feels air loads higher than normal
Ans c) the pilot feels air loads lower than normal

Doppler flag comes on when it receives

a) excessive ground clutter
b) no signal
c) excess signals
When the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot , it means
a) the max aileron angle that can be commanded
Ans b) the max roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot
c) maximum rudder deflection

Servo tabs
a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral
Ans b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface
c) provide artificial feel

Spring Tabs
a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral
Ans b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface
c) provide artificial feel

Back beam scanning in an MLS is at a rate of

a) 20 degrees per second
b) 30 degrees per second
c) 15 degrees per second

Omega ground stations

Ans a) transmit pulses of CW
b) carrier modulated by three audio tones
c) series of CW

During testing of ATC altitude function the pressure altimeter is set

a) 1013.25 mb
b) sea level pressure
c) prevailing pressure
When secondary stops are utilized in control surfaces, they come in contact
a) before the primary stops
Ans b) after the primary stops
c) at the same time as the primary stops

EICAS indicates
Ans a) engine performance and aircraft system malfunctions
b) engine performance only
c) engine performance and aircraft status

Helicopter cyclic stick is turned to the right

Ans a) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right
b) pitch operating arms lengthen in one direction and shorten in another
c) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right

Magnetic heading errors will be

Ans a) positive if easterly
b) negative if easterly
c) negative if northerly

What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?

a) It moves once the aircraft is established on a new heading
Ans b) It move as the aircraft moves
c) It stays fixed on magnetic north

When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?

Ans a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1
b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1
c) If P2 is before P1

An aircraft with autoland is fitted with a CMC

a) records all faults in volatile memory
Ans b) records all faults in non-volatile memory

A helicopter autopilot uses

Ans a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold
b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold
c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold

On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?
a) Radio deviation
b) Glideslope deviation
Ans c) Course deviation

Which of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence?

a) Flare, attitude, rollout
Ans b) Attitude, flare, rollout
c) Rollout, attitude, flare

When can other autopilot modes be select once Go Around has been selected?
a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft
b) When reached a desired altitude
c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system

Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available?
a) No other pitch modes are available
b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam
c) All are continuously available

If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, viewed from above where would a
pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what?
a) In front of the lateral axis
Ans b) Right of the longitudinal axis
c) Left of the longitudinal axis

A spring balance control system you

Ans a) can move the control surface on the ground
b) can move the control surface only by moving the tab
c) cannot move the control surface on the ground

Why is a wire HF antenna covered in polythene?

a) To prevent corrosion
Ans b) To prevent precipitation static
c) To provide lightning protection

What is a versine signal attenuated with?

a) Increase in airspeed
b) Increase in altitude
c) Decrease in altitude

If you carry out a VSWR check of a SSB HF system what should you do with the control
switch? Select it to
a) OFF
b) AM
c) either USB or LSB

How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2
pulse length?
a) 21 micro seconds
b) 8 micro seconds
c) 17 micro seconds

If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000 degrees what will
the TO/FROM indicator indicate?
a) TO
b) FROM
Ans c) Neither

What does the Radar contour button do?

Ans a) Alter the beam shape
b) Alter the transmitter power
c) Alter the video amplifier

A radar response takes 329 micro seconds how far away is the target?
a) 12 miles
b) 25 miles
c) 40 miles

The aeroplanes autopilot is programmed to leave the glide slope at

a) 300 ft
b) the decrab phase
Ans c) start of flare phase

Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated

Ans a) only when the autopilot is engaged
b) at any time after autoland has been engaged
c) at any time

The following modes may be retained when overshoot has been initiated after the
selection of autoland
a) ILS localiser an IAS
b) IAS and glide slope
Ans c) IAS and steering or heading
If go-around has been initiated after autoland has been selected, the aeroplane will
a) increase speed
b) rotate nose up
Ans c) increase speed and rotate nose up

V NAV can be selected

a) alone
b) only if A/P and F/D selected
c) only if A/T selected

If during autoland the LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in final approach

a) system degrade to CAT II
b) autoland is continued
Ans c) go-around is initiated

The order of autoland approach is

Ans a) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE
b) GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE
c) LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLD

Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to

a) assist with localiser tracking
b) assist with glide slope tracking
Ans c) point the aircraft down the runway at touch down

An autoland failure monitoring system must ensure that

a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected
b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is
detected
c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of signal failure
The effective gain of the glide path receiver
a) is increased as the aircraft descends
b) remains constant as the aircraft descends
Ans c) is decreased as the aircraft descends

During an automatic landing , the aircraft descent rate is sensed by

a) pitch rate gyros
Ans b) radio altimeters
c) vertical accelerometers

An autopilot with two separate power supplies is

a) fail passive
Ans b) fail operational
c) fail redundant

On touchdown, auto pilot

Ans a) remains engaged ready for G/A
b) drives the throttles forward
c) disconnects after a short time

When will the decision height aural warning sound

a) at D.H.
Ans b) before D.H.
c) after D.H.

Automatic steering of the aircraft after touch down is affected by

a) the area navigation system
Ans b)the runway localiser
c) the airfield marker beacon

The flare manoeuvre may be controlled by signals from

Ans a) radio altimeter
b) the glide slope receiver
c) the localiser receiver

A triplex system looses one channel, the system is now,

a) fail passive
Ans b) fail operational
c) fail redundant

A fail passive system in the event of failure will

a) produce a significant out of trim condition
Ans b) produce no significant out of trim condition
c) ensure the aircraft can still land automatically

A triplex system loses one channel, the system becomes a

a) simplex system
Ans b) duplex system
c) dual-dual system

The two parameters used for category classification are

a) radio height/runway visual range
b) localiser and glideslope
Ans c) decision height and runway visual range

What is the controlling factor in the automatic flare mode?

a) Decision height
Ans b) Radio altimeter
c) Glideslope signal

CAT-3b allows
a) approach land and runway guidance with zero DH and RVR
Ans b) approach land and RVR in the order of 50 meters
c) approach land and runway guidance with taxing visibility in the order of 50 meters

The definition of fail operational is the ability of a system to

a) disconnect and leave the aircraft in trim
Ans b) continue to control after any first fault
c) disconnect but leave the aircraft out of trim

What is added to the flare computation at touchdown?

Ans a) Nose down bias
b) Nose up bias
c) No signal

What controls are used in response to the PVD displays?

a) Ailerons
b) Throttles
Ans c) Nosewheel steering or rudder pedals

The ground run monitor (GRM) presents

a) distance to go
Ans b) ground speed and distance to go
c) take off speed and distance to go

For a vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the
pitch movement?
a) Lateral
Ans b) Longitudinal
c) Normal

Versine is used in which channel?

Ans a) Pitch
b) Roll
c) Yaw

With airspeed hold engaged whilst flying with Flight Director engaged, a down
command means your speed has
a) increased
Ans b) decreased
c) is the same

A Master Warning is issued when

Ans a) overspeed and low cabin altitude occurs
b) cargo smoke and a low oil quantity occurs
c) engine fire and generator trip occurs

The total static resistance along the length of an aircraft is

Ans a) 50 milliohms
b) 1 ohms
c) 1M - 100,000 ohms

In the ATA zoning where is section 100 in on an aircraft

a) in the undercarriage bay including the doors
Ans b) at the lower section of the cabin up to the pressure bulkhead
c) at the rear of the fuselage behind the bulkhead

Sparking in a generator would be caused by

Ans a) low spring tension
b) bedding of brushes
c) brushes on the Magnetic Neutral Axis

Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations?

Ans a) Visual inspections
b) Insulation testing
c) CMC fault indications

What should be done to a transformer secondary connections which are open circuit?
a) Short the terminals together
b) Put a set resistance across the terminals
Ans c) Leave the terminals open circuit

An RMI in VOR mode, it's Pointer is showing a course of 000, if the course knob is
adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer?
a) Move left
b) Move right
c) Moves left then hard right

If a fault is detected during an autoland approach the system will totally disconnect if it is
a
a) Triplex system
b) Duplex system
Ans c) Simplex system

A Glass Reinforced Plastic surface on an aircraft, to reduce the risk of high potential
differences would be
Ans a) painted in a conductive paint
b) painted in a non-conductive paint
c) bonded to the primary structure

The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is

Ans a) 50 ohms
b) 20 ohms
c) 20 and 50 ohms respectively

TAS uses which inputs

a) Pitot and Static
b) Pitot and Static, Mach and Temperature
Ans c) Mach and Temp

Other than spoilers, where are speed brakes located?

a) On the wing
b) Under the Fuselage
Ans c) Either side of the Fuselage

With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts what will happen to the angle
of attack?
Ans a) Tend to increase
b) Tend to decrease
c) Stay the same

If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder

a) remains at the neutral position
b) controls the aircraft in trim
c) remains in the previous position

A poor oscillator in a receiver would cause

a) poor channel selectivity
b) poor audio output
c) poor volume output

The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4 would use which inputs to issue a
warning?
a) A low range altimeter and rate of change of low range altimeter
Ans b) A low range altimeter and configuration of aircraft
c) A low range altimeter and GPS
Alert Height is when
a) a decision of whether to land is made
Ans b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made
c) an alert of the ground proximity is made

When downgrading an Autoland system what needs to be done?

a) Placards in the cockpit
Ans b) An entry in the log book and cockpit placarding
c) Crew retraining

If a drain trap in a pitot static system is removed but nothing was found
a) no leak test is required unless the drain trap contains water
b) a leak test must be carried out even if nothing found
c) a leak test is never required

TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency of

Ans a) 1030 MHz and 1090mhz respectively
b) 1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively
c) 1090 MHz

When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check to be carried out it will be aligned
with an error of plus or minus
a) 1 degree
Ans b) 3 degree
c) 5 degree

The quadrantal error in ADF is maximum at a heading of

a) 000
Ans b) 045
c) 090
Circulating currents is caused by an unbalanced
a) DC generators
Ans b) AC generators
c) AC & DC generators

A device used do dump lift from an aircraft is the

Ans a) spoiler
b) leading edge flaps
c) trailing edge flaps

Runway turn of lights have a beam width of

a) 10 degree
b) 110 degree
Ans c) 50 degree

Stall warning will be given at speeds

Ans a) that are higher than stall speed
b) that are lower than stall speed
c) at the actual stall speed

When a helicopter lands how does the pilot signal to the ground staff that it is safe to
approach the aircraft?
a) Turning on and off the NAV lights
Ans b) Turning off the anti-collision lights
c) Flashing the landing light

An aircraft will capture the auto land system at

Ans a) 1500 ft
b) 2500 ft
c) 3500 ft
FADEC system gets its power supply from
a) channel A and B from the same windings of a dedicated Generator
Ans b) channel A and B from separate windings of a dedicated Generator
c) emergency Batt bus

Loss of an electrolyte in a battery is due to

Ans a) excessive charging current
b) insufficient charging current
c) excessive charging voltage

An autopilot interlock circuit is to

a) prevent the system engagement if a fault exists
b) disconnect the system if a fault appears
Ans c) both a & b

A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated in the WXR by a

a) green colour
Ans b) amber
c) red colour

The international emergency frequency used in VHF Comms is

a) 131.55
Ans b) 121.5
c) 118.00

In a modern aircraft a BITE is carried out

a) on the ground only
b) continuously when the systems are working
c) only in the air

The electrical A/H has a movement of

a) 85 degree in pitch and roll
b) 360 in roll and 110 in pitch
Ans c) 360 in roll and 85 in pitch

When working on a hydraulic operated flight control it is sensible to

Ans a) remove/disconnect hydraulic power
b) remove/disconnect electrical power
c) pull the appropriate CB

Emergency electronic equipment requirement will be found in

a) CAAIPs
b) Maintenance Manual
Ans c) JAR OPS

When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500 ft what is the distance that
VHF Com cover?
a) 100 nm
Ans b) 120 nm
c) 140 nm

When the VOR ref and Vari phase are in phase quadrature, the aircraft is at the
a) 180 degree radial
Ans b) 090 degree radial
c) 275 degree radial

A unit with two springs and a mass pick off is

Ans a) an accelerometer
b) a gyroscope
c) a tachogenerator

The units of vibration are measured in

a) phons
b) decibels
Ans c) relative amplitude

A fuel flow system can be adjusted for

a) maximum flow rate
b) minimum flow rate
c) cannot be adjusted

Magnetic variation is the difference in angle between

Ans a) true north and magnetic north
b) magnetic heading and aircraft heading
c) the compass north and magnetic north

GPWS mode 1 is excessive

a) terrain closure
b) rate of ascent
Ans c) rate of descent

How many bits make up the mode "S" address

a) 12
b) 24
c) 36

The applied pressure to an ASI varies with the

Ans a) square of the speed
b) square root of the speed
c) cube root of the speed

Temperature compensation is required on an altimeter because of

Ans a) capsule elasticity
b) capsule shape
c) non linear pressure/height relationship

The loss of the vertical gyro signal to the flight director system would cause
a) aircraft to underbank
Ans b) aircraft to overbank
c) aircraft to remain in level flight

The doppler VOR beacon reference signal

Ans a) amplitude modulates the carrier frequency
b) amplitude modulates the sub carrier frequency
c) frequency modulates the sub carrier frequency

During flare mode autothrottle will

Ans a) retard throttles to idle
b) disconnect autothrottle
c) select reverse thrust

A CSD is monitored for

a) low temp and high oil pressure
Ans b) high temp and low oil pressure

As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward what happens to the reward travelling blades
pitch angle?
Ans a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) No change

In a fully fly by wire system if the rudder becomes disconnected

a) it is centralized by a spring
b) its control is maintained by electric trim
What is the power supply to cabin flow tubes?
a) 115v ac
b) 200v ac
Ans c) High voltage stepped up

When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the output reading is
Ans a) zero
b) full scale deflection
c) centre scale

In a capacitive fuel gauging system an increase in fuel level would

a) increase capacitive reactance
Ans b) increase capacitance
c) decrease capacitance

Float fuel gauge system is

a) adjusted when tanks are full
b) adjusted when tanks are empty
c) cannot be adjusted

A vertical structural member forming part or full walls are

Ans a) bulkheads
b) longerons
c) frame

Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused by

Ans a) excessive electrical loading
b) high charge current
c) low charge current
With engine stopped, EPR indicator read slightly above 1.
a) This is normal
b) You would change the Tx as the datum is shifted
c) You would adjust the Tx

To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation you would carry out
a) damping and periodicity checks
Ans b) damping and pivot friction check
c) damping and alignment checks

The specific gravity readings of a lead-acid cell taken twice after charging shows
substantially lower value.
a) Cell is defective
b) You top up the cell with distilled water
c) You replace the cell

Suppressor line is required for

a) ATC and DME only
b) TCAs only
Ans c) all L band equipments including TCAS

Differential GPS requires

a) 3 satellites and two ground based transmitters
b) 4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters
c) 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitters

GPS has
a) 6 satellites in 4 orbits
b) 4 satellites in 6 orbits
c) 7 satellites in 3 orbits
When the captain calls attendant
a) a high low chine and pink light comes on
b) a low chine and blue light comes on
c) a high chine and pink light comes on

In ACRS, if an upcoming message is received

a) a designated light comes on
b) a selcall light along with chine comes on
c) a chime sounds in the cockpit

A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction of tail

a) the authority of elevators not effected
Ans b) the up movement authority is effected
c) the down movement authority is effected

If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is lost

a) aircraft continues to descent with an accumulating drift
Ans b) aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway
c) aircraft moves in a circle

IDG output voltage

a) does not require voltage regulation as RPM is constant.
Ans b) voltage is regulated by GCU
c) voltage is regulated by IDG

The over-station sensor is activated by

a) radio deviation signal
Ans b) rate of radio deviation signal
c) deviation and course error

When moving the control column

Ans a) sensors located under the control column produces a signal
b) sensor located along the control run produces a signal
c) sensor in the AFCS computer produces a signal

In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer as shown

a) the elevator causes tail down movement i.e. increases tail plane down force
b) there is an increases tail plane up-force
Ans c) there is an increased tailplane down-force

Equivalent airspeed is
a) indicated airspeed corrected for IE and PE
b) rectified airspeed corrected for compressibility

Ans c) calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility

Flaps at landing position

a) decrease take off and landing speed

b) decrease take off speed
Ans c) decrease landing speed

Lowering of the flaps

Ans a) increases drag and lift
b) increases drag
c) increases lift

Pushing the left rudder pedal

Ans a) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the right wing will rise
b) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the left wing will rise
c) yaws the aircraft left but has no effect on the wing

What preventative maintenance can be carried out in case of HIRF?

a) Check of aircraft structure
b) Bonding and insulation tests
Ans c) Shielding of all sensitive equipment

What do ruddervators do?

Ans a) Control pitch and yaw
b) Control pitch and roll
c) Control yaw and roll

On a helicopter what is dragging?

a) Movement of each blade vertically about their lateral hinges
Ans b) Movement of each blade horizontally about their vertical hinge
c) Contact of the blade tips on the ground

What controls pitch and roll on a delta wing aircraft?

a) Elevators
b) Ailerons
Ans c) Elevons

If you add an aerial, to strengthen the airframe you add

Ans a) an internal doubler
b) external doubler
c) an intercostals

What does a trim tab do?

Ans a) Eases control loading for pilot
b) Allows the C of G to be outside the normal limit
c) Provides finer control movements by the pilot

How does a balance tab move?

a) In the same direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to
b) In the same direction a small amount
Ans c) In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to

Satellite transmits updates on every

a) 13th orbit
b) 9th orbit
c) 2nd orbit

Galley and cabin lighting operate on

a) DC bus
b) AC bus
Ans c) GND services

Buffer amp on transmitter is between

a) modulator and power amp
Ans b) local oscillator and modulator
c) local oscillator and demodulator

Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI pointer points to

a) 0
b) 090
Ans c) 180

What is power at pulse?

a) Peak power
b) Pulsed power
c) Average power

What frequency increases radar relative range

a) Long
Ans b) Short
c) Radar relative range cannot be increased by frequency change

If radar pulse is reduced there is

a) increased relative range
b) reduced relative range
Ans c) no effect

If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial, resistance would be

a) 80 ohm
b) 160 ohm
c) 0 ohm

Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials on rad alt would give you

Ans a) 3 ft error
b) 6ft error
c) 12 foot error

Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the

a) widest width
Ans b) narrowest width
c) number of joints and bends

Which side of the pilot is the collective?

Ans a) Left
b) Right
c) In-between legs

What effect does the ground have on a helicopter?

Ans a) Increases lift
b) No effect
c) Increases thrust
What damps vibrations on a helicopter?
a) Pfifer damper
b) Swashplate
c) Scissor levers

What design factors govern RPM of a helicopter rotor?

Ans a) Weight of blade
b) Engine and gearbox
c) Fineness ratio

Relative velocity of rotor

Ans a) increases at fwd travelling blade
b) increases at retreating blade
c) is equal for all blades

When OAT increases what happens to an helicopter operating ceiling?

a) Increase
Ans b) Decrease
c) No effect

How many satellites required for GNS?

a) 8
Ans b) 4
c) 6 90o apart

If on a lead-acid battery, several cell checks of SG read consistently low. Battery needs
a) topping up with distilled water
b) replacing
Ans c) recharging
What happens when battery master is switched off in flight?
Ans a) Battery disconnected from charge circuit
b) No effect
c) Electrical systems shut down

In MLS, what is the beam angle away from runway

a) 20 degrees
b) 15 degrees
c) 10 degrees

A full operational autopilot system will ensure that

a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected
b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is
detected
Ans c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of a single failure

What is the 'Q' code for runway heading?

a) QDH
Ans b) QDM
c) QDR

During an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by

a) pitch rate gyros
Ans b) radio altimeters
c) vertical accelerometers

The aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from

a) roll errors
b) localiser deviation errors
Ans c) heading errors
An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will control
a) the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressure
b) the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration rate
Ans c) the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power setting

Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated

a) only when autopilot is engaged
Ans b) after glideslope capture
c) at any time

The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as
satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is known as the
Ans a) decision height
b) intercept height
c) alert height

The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is

a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference
b) operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters
Ans c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200 meters

Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by

a) information obtained the local Meteorological Office
b) three sets of instruments at the side of the runway
Ans c) one set of instruments the threshold of the runway

A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment which fail
operational control and roll out guidance will have
a) a decision height of about 50 feet
Ans b) no decision height
c) a decision height depending upon the RVR
The purpose of a yaw damper is to
a) assist the aerodynamic response
b) produce a co-ordinated turn
Ans c) block the Dutch roll frequency

In a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system will disconnect
a) all channels
Ans b) the failed system and carry on with an autoland
c) the failed system and continue with a manual approach

Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by

a) differentiating deviation signal
b) integrating deviation signal
Ans c) integrating course error

With autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE compatible autopilot modes are
a) VOR ARM and HDG HOLD
Ans b) IAS HOLD and ALT ARM
c) V/S and ALT ARM

Which modes are incompatible

a) VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD
Ans b) G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD
c) HDG + V/S HOLD

To carry out an autopilot check first

a) switch off all power
Ans b) ensure all control surfaces are unobstructed
c) switch on NAV receivers
FAIL PASSIVE means
a) system self monitors, failure does not affect system
Ans b) system self monitors, failure does affect system
c) system is duplicated, failure allows aircraft to continue
autoland

On the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the aircraft would
a) fly a circle
b) increase its drift angle
Ans c) fly parallel to the beam

The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland system are laid down in
Ans a) JAR AWO
b) CAIPs
c) BCARs

VOR capture can be determined by

a) a predetermined level of the course error signal away from the selected radial
Ans b) is computed from the vectorial summation of the course error and radio deviation
signals
c) a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from the selected radial

Versine is generated by
a) torque receiver synchros
Ans b) synchros resolvers
c) control synchro transformers

Automatic trim is used to

Ans a) maintain level flight
b) prevents standing loads on the elevator
c) allow full authority to be regained by the aileron
An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered by
a) measured radio deviation
Ans b) rate of change of radio deviation
c) rate of change of course

Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensure

a) that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagement
Ans b) that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions engagement
c) that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and level flight when the autopilot is
engaged

In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode the throttles are used for
Ans a) maintaining a computed EPR
b) controlling to a maximum thrust
c) correction minor speed deviations

The GA mode is usually initiated by

a) pressing a button on the control wheel
Ans b) pressing a button on thrust levers
c) making a selection on the mode control panel

On selection of the Turbulence Mode

a) the gain is doubled to reduce oscillation
b) the gain remains the same but signals are phase advanced
Ans c) the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframe

To know the valid data base on the FMS

a) perform a BITE check
Ans b) call up the relevant page on the CDU
c) call up the relevant current status
Co-ordinated autopilot turns are achieved by
Ans a) yaw rate gyro signals
b) aileron to rudder crossfeed
c) aileron to elevator crossfeed

A yaw damper system operates on

a) all yaw frequencies
b) only mid range frequencies
Ans c) low range frequencies

A GCR will trip if what is detected?

a) Under frequency and over frequency
b) Over frequency and under current
c) Over current and over frequency

What is the impedance of VOR or HF aerial cables?

a) 75 ohms and 25 ohms
b) 25 ohms
Ans c) 50 ohms

To improve the image or picture when using the WRX (weather radar receiver)
a) scan at a lower rate
b) use shorter bursts
c) use longer bursts

In a vibrator type voltage regulator

Ans a) the resistor is in series with the field
b) parallel with the field
c) in series with the voltage coil
Where does it state what emergency equipment and what levels of emergency
equipment should be carried on an aircraft
Ans a) BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4
b) JAR OPS
c) Maintenance Manual

If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are inoperative

a) the aircraft cannot fly i.e. grounded until the defect is fixed
b) the aircraft can fly but the section with the problem is not used/ shut off
Ans c) the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect can be fixed

The tail nav light. What angle of divergence should it have?

a) 180 degrees
b) 120 degrees
Ans c) 140 degrees

When changing the brushes on a DC generator the brushes must be bedded first, this
can be done
Ans a) with the generator fitted to the aircraft
b) the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the bench
c) at the manufacturers only

What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or relative density of a lead
acid battery?
Ans a) The temperature
b) The ambient pressure
c) The ambient humidity

The polythene coating on a HF antenna wire is provided

Ans a) to prevent precipitation static build up
b) to prevent the wire from corroding
c) to prevent the wire from chafing
Weather radar domes are protected from lightning strikes by
a) the use of special conductive paint
Ans b) bonding strips
c) special conducting or non-conducting grease

An elevator tab moves down

Ans a) to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy
b) to make the nose go down
c) to counteract for the aircraft flying tail heavy

The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be checked by checking

Ans a) one cell at a time until all cells are completed
b) only the end cell as all the others will be the same
c) any single cell as all the others will be the same

In a RVSM system what is the tolerance level of separation i.e.. + or - feet

a) 400ft
b) 160ft
c) 80ft

In a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by using
a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch control surfaces
Ans b) LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces

In a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed and provided by
a) the central warning computer (CWC)
b) the electronic interface units (EIU)
Ans c) the engine indicatig and crew alert system (EICAS)
What type of memory do CMCs have?
a) Volatile
Ans b) Non-volatile
c) Hard

What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters?

a) To provide a balance for CofG
Ans b) To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor
c) To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor

An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's true airspeed?
Ans a) Higher than its IAS
b) Lower than its IAS
c) The same as its IAS

The stall margin is controlled by

Ans a) EPR limits
b) speed bug cursor
c) angle of attack and flap position

When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle

a) only with the Flight Director selected
b) With either the Flight Director or the Digital Control System (DFCS) engaged
Ans c) only after take off

A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC) consists of

a) electronic engine control unit only
Ans b) electronic engine control unit and all its sensors
c) electronic engine control unit and throttle position transmitter

A FADEC system does not have the following system?

a) An automatic starting capability
b) Control of thrust reverser operation
Ans c) Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers

Which is the correct sequence for an autoland?

a) Glideslope capture, altitude hold and flare
Ans b) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, attitude hold and flare
c) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, flare and attitude hold

The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as
satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is know as the
Ans a) decision height
b) intercept height
c) alert height

The ICAO weather category 3A is

a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference
b) operation down to 60 m and 800 m
Ans c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200m

A category 11 facility performance ILS has an intercept height of

a) 15 m
Ans b) 60 m
c) 0 m

The facility performance ILS intersect height is the point

Ans a) where the aeroplane receives the first glide path signal
b) the localiser and glide path signals cross each other
c) where the aeroplanes first receives both the localiser and glide path signals
The average risk of autoland should not contribute a rate of fatal accidents per landing
greater than
a) 1 x 10-6
Ans b) 1 x 10-7
c) 1 x 10-8

Before an aeroplane is able to make an automatic landing the

a) ground radio aids must be at least CAT II
b) ground radio aids must be at CAT III
Ans c) ILS system must be working

For an aeroplane to be certified for automatic landing an autothrottle system is

a) mandatory
b) a matter of choice for the operator
c) dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speed

The overshoot or go around mode is initiated

a) automatically
b) by a selector on the throttle control panel
Ans c) by pushing the throttles forward to maximum

Dutch Roll affects

a) pitch and roll simultaneously
b) pitch and yaw simultaneously
Ans c) yaw and roll simultaneously

A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the vertical gyro to simulate a
right bank, the antenna
a) will move up
b) will move down
c) will not move
Standing waves in a Co-Axial feeder cable are proportional to
a) length of the cable
b) transmitter power output
c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna

When more than one D.R. compass is fitted on an aircraft or where a D.R. compass
serves as a standby to a remote reading compass
a) only the master compass readings and adjustments carried out and remaining
compasses are adjusted with master compass
Ans b) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made simultaneously
on each heading
c) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made at any one heading
only

Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on the
deviation card should not exceed
a) 2 degrees
Ans b) 3 degrees
c) 5 degrees

Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called

a) apparent error
Ans b) residual error
c) index error

Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with cover glasses whose
surfaces are bloomed to reduce
a) Parallax error
Ans b) Surface reflection
c) Static to avoid dust attraction
Versine signal is governed by
a) roll
Ans b) pitch
c) yaw

Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by

a) 4%
Ans b) 7%
c) 10.321%

A D.R. compass fitted on an aircraft. The safe distance for electrical cables carrying
electrical current is
a) 20 inches
Ans b) 24 inches
c) 28 inches

The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with
a) an inclinometer
b) micrometer
c) spirit level

Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by

Ans a) Tachogenerator
b) Feedback from control surface
c) Feedback from servo motor

When an hydraulic system is un pressurized, the position of flight control surfaces are
a) down
b) neutral
c) droop
Radar beamwidth improves
a) range resolution
b) range accuracy
Ans c) bearing resolution

A transformer has a power input of 115V AC. What is the output voltage?
a) 115V
b) 345V
Ans c) 460V

The manufacturer of a pitot head gave a specification indicating 2 inches dia. This is the
a) opening dia. of pitot head
b) internal dia of pitot head where air stagnates
c) external dia of pitot head

On a VSI fitted on an aircraft, for climb and descent indication

Ans a) a set screw is provided for zero adjustment
b) it does not have any adjustment
c) a set screw is provided for climb/descent increments

A shunt wound generator fitted on an aircraft,a preset potentiometer is fitted

a) in series with the field winding
b) in parallel with the field winding
c) in series with the generator output

When can wing spoilers be used?

a) To assist the respective down going aileron in a turn
b) As ground spoilers on landing
c) To assist the elevators
When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder
a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure
b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb
c) set the rad alt to 0 feet

Dutch Roll affects

a) pitch and roll simultaneously
b) pitch and yaw simultaneously
c) yaw and roll simultaneously

A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the vertical gyro to simulate a
right bank, the antenna
a) will move up
b) will move down
c) will not move

Standing waves in a Co-Axial feeder cable are proportional to

a) length of the cable
b) transmitter power output
c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna

When more than one D.R.Compass is fitted on an aircraft or where

a D.R.compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass
a) Only the master compass reading and adjustment carried out and remaining
compasses are adjusted with master compass.
Ans b) All reading and adjustments fo reach compass should be made simultaneously
on each heading.
c) All reading and adjustment for each compass should be made at any one heading
only.

Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on the
deviation card should not exceed
a) 2 Degree
Ans b) 3 Degree
c) 5 Degree

Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called

a) apparent error
Ans b) residual error
c) index error

Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with cover glasses whose
surfaces are bloomed to reduce
a) parallax error.
Ans b) surface reflection.
c) static to avoid dust attraction.

Versine signal is governed by

a) roll
Ans b) pitch
c) yaw

Increasing the real load primarily

a) decreases frequency
b) decreases output voltage
Ans c) increases output voltage and increases frequency

Inductive reactive load causes

a) no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated
b) increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated
Ans c) increase in torque only

The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of

a) apparent power from the generator that does work
b) reactive power from the generator that does work
Ans c) real power from the generator that does work

The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by

Ans a) angle of swash plate
b) IDG
c) restriction valve

Differential protection in an AC system protects against

a) A reverse current flowing from the battery
b) short circuits
Ans c) line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults

When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be

Ans a) stationary
b) rotating at idle
c) rotating at Nsync

One of the main purposes of a CSD is to

Ans a) enable generators to be paralleled
b) prevent engine overload
c) maintain constant load on the generator

In a undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is

Ans a) activation of the time delay circuit
b) de-activation of the field regulatory TRs
c) energise the bus tie relay

If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication
that the
Ans a) CSD drives shaft had sheared
b) phase sequence detection circuit has operated
c) bus tie interlock is inoperative

Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases,
generator output voltage will
a) decrease and amperage output increases
b) increases and amperage output increases
Ans c) remain constant and amperage output increases

Battery trays are

a) metal for earthing purposes
Ans b) metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint
c) absorbent to soak up electrolyte

When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they are connected in

a) parallel
b) series
Ans c) either parallel or series and switched between as an option

What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?

a) Ground or earth
b) Positive to battery relay
Ans c) Positive to external power relay

Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is

a) 71 degrees F
Ans b) 144 Degrees F
c) 144 Degrees C

If an aircraft has no battery charger the battery is charged by

Ans a) constant voltage
b) constant current
c) constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant
voltage

Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA

a) Chapter 24 Section 21
Ans b) Chapter 24 Section 31
c) Chapter 31 Section 21

In a carbon pile regulator the resistive element is

a) in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length
Ans b) in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact
c) in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length

The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is

Ans a) stationary
b) fluctuating
c) pulse width modulating

In a transistor voltage regulator the voltage output is controlled by

a) transformers and transistors
b) diodes and transformers
Ans c) zeners and transistors

Paralleled relay for DC system is energised and connected by

a) voltage coil
b) current coil
Ans c) voltage and current coil
Radio signals chance of penetration of ionosphere
a) increase with the frequency
b) decrease with frequency
c) is not affected by frequency

What is lapse rate?

a) Pressure changes with altitude
Ans b) Temperature changes with altitude
c) Density changes with altitude

Increase in speed of spoilers is needed when

a) the flaps are lowered
b) at higher speeds
c) the landing gear is extended

What should be taken into account when measuring the SG of a battery?

a) The outside temperature
b) Electrolyte temperature
c) Charge state of the battery

What happens when a control stick is pulled back and to the left?
a) Elevator up, left aileron down
b) Elevator down, right aileron down
c) Elevator up, right aileron down

Where is the placement of a mercury switch?

a) Outer gimbal
b) Gyro case
c) Instrument case

DC power into the GCU comes from

a) main battery bus
b) main battery bus and ground service
c) ground service

In a boost gauge system the sensing element contains

a) 1 capsule
Ans b) 2 capsules
c) 3 capsules

If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab in the down position, the control surface will
a) move up
b) move down
c) remain at the same place

Spring tabs
a) cannot be adjusted in flight
b) can be adjusted in the flight deck
c) cannot be adjusted

Rising gust in front of the leading edge with flaps lowered, AoA will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain

If an aircraft moves in roll it is moving about the

a) normal axis
b) lateral axis
Ans c) longitudinal axis

LOC signal modulation is

a) 50 %
Ans b) 20 %
c) 10 %

After a roll to the left of a statically stable helicopter , the helicopter would
a) continue to roll
b) increases roll
c) come back to level flight

What instrument uses ram air pressure and atmospheric pressure?

a) ASI
b) Machmeter
c) VSI

If increasing altitude at constant IAS, TAS will

a) decrease
Ans b) increase
c) remain the same

A Master Warning is issued when

a) overspeed and low cabin attitude occurs
b) cargo smoke and low oil quantity occurs
c) engine fire & trip occurs

How does a delta wing aircraft move about the pitch and roll axis?
a) Elevator s
Ans b) Elevons
c) Ailerons

If a roll was commenced, what command would the versine generator give?
Ans a) Up Elevator
b) Left rudder
c) Down elevator

What effect does lowering the flaps for takeoff have?

a) Increases lift & reduces drag
Ans b) Increases lift and drag
c) Increase lift only

What effect does lowering flaps for takeoff have?

Ans a) Reduces takeoff and landing speeds
b) Reduces takeoff speeds only
c) Reduces landing speeds only

Which signal would be integrated to get onto Localiser centreline?

a) Heading error
b) Course error
c) Radio deviation

What does a vibration type sensor measure?

a) Maximum deflection
Ans b) Frequency of deflections
c) Direction of flexing

On a Ground Power unit which pins are allocated for interlock circuit?
a) A and B
b) B and C
c) E and F

Which is used for compass damping fluid compensation?

a) Bellows or diaphragm
b) No damping due to alcohol low temperature co-efficient
c) Piston and oil
The result of the equation (Dev E - Dev W)/2 is known as
Ans a) Coefficient B
b) Coefficient A
c) Coefficient C

If the torque were increased on a vertical gyro, what would happen to the precession?
a) Increase
b) Remain unaffected
c) Decrease

A 'q' feel system supplies

a) aerodynamic damping
b) the pilot with ever increasing awareness of speed
c) control movement effort relief

ADF operates within which frequencies?

Ans a) 200 KHz - 1000 KHz
b) 118 MHz - 132 MHz
c) 32 KHz - 64 KHz

Cat IIIB landing, up to what phase is LOC signal used?

a) Roll out
Ans b) Flare
c) Touchdown

FMC mode that can be selected through the CDU is

a) DME Freq
b) LNAV
Ans c) CRZ
Mode C response is
a) 21microseconds
b) 12 microseconds
c) 8 microseconds

Which would you use to test an aircraft transponder altitude reporting system?
Ans a) Read the altitude directly from ATC-600 panel
b) Transfer the code displayed by the ATC-600 into binary
c) Check the altitude code with the correct alt/code table

An uncorrected ADI is affected by

a) climb
b) descent
c) roll

A DGPS system installed on an aircraft requires

a) 1 ground station and 4 satellites
b) 2 ground stations and 4 satellites
c) 1 ground station and 6 satellites

The term `circling current' refers to

a) AC generators
b) AC and DC Generators
c) DC generators

Aircraft normally fitted with 2 central maintenance computers and you only have one to
dispatch the aircraft.
Where do you fit it?
a) LH side
b) RH side
c) LH or RH side (i.e. doesn't matter)
If the localiser signal is only applied to the A/P roll channel
a) aircraft flies parallel to the runway centre line
b) aircraft flies along the runway centre line
Ans c) aircraft flies in circles

Speed control on an emergency hydraulic driven generator is via the

a) IDG
b) CSD
c) swash plate

WX radar display the time base is

Ans a) saw tooth wave form
b) trapezoidal wave form
c) rectangular wave form

Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal is lost, following the FD
commands. Aircraft will
a) stay on centre of course
b) stay parallel to course
c) follow the course with scalloping or bracketing

Flight director on G/S capture, the pitch integration is

a) to increase GS signal
b) to decrease GS signal
c) to maintain GS signal

A helicopter needs to re-trim

Ans a) indication is shown on the API
b) indication is shown on the command bars of the EHSI
c) indication is shown on the command bars of the attitude indicator
API Trim pointers are fed by
a) a synchro
b) an RVDT
c) an LVDT

VHF transmitter output impedance to match with antenna for maximum power transfer
is
a) 50 ohms
b) 25 to 75 ohms
c) 129 ohms

Transformer coupling between an ADI and a flight director computer is

a) to protect the ADI in event of a FD computer failure
b) to protect the FD computer in case of an ADI failure
c) to protect the FD computer in case of an HSI failure

In audio clipping
a) vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signal
b) vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal
c) there is no change in relative strength of vowels

Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses

Ans a) attenuation first then amplification
b) amplification first then attenuation
c) no attenuation but amplification

DME - how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid?
a) Decoder
b) Blocking oscillator
c) Integrator
Co-axial transmission line of impedance 80 ohms is connected dipole of 120 ohms.
While checking with ohm meter the reading will be
a) 80 ohms
b) 200 ohms
c) more than 20 mega ohms

Transformer coupling between ADI and Flight director is to protect

a) ADI
b) Flight director computer
c) both of the above

A HUMS in a helicopter is
a) a vibration analysis system
b) a system which monitors time period of components in service and warns of a
premature failure
c) a system which indicates a crack in the blade

When the flaps are lowered

a) the lift vector moves forward
b) the lift vector moves rearward
c) there is no effect on the lift vector

At take off, if the flaps are lowered there is a

Ans a) large increase in lift and drag
b) small increase in lift and drag
c) large increase in lift and small increase in drag

In a large transport aircraft to check VSWR of a HF system with a long aerial feeder the
VSWR meter has to be connected
a) between the transmitter and the ATU (transmitter end)
b) between the aerial and ATU
c) between the transmitter and the ATU (ATU end)

With power applied to the autopilot but not engaged, the trim indicator will indicate
a) a standby electrical signal in the servo loop
b) that the gyro is out of the null and needs aligning
c) the trim system is out of datum

Control loop gain with an autopilot is usually

a) dependent on aircraft altitude
b) 100%
c) chosen as a compromise

With no.1 h.f. system transmitting the interlock circuit

a) allows no.2 h.f. to receive only
b) allows no.2 h.f. to transmit and receive
Ans c) does not allow no.2 to transmit or receive

MLS azimuth range is

a) +/- 30
b) +/- 42
c) +/- 62

Aircraft is north of VOR beacon, course is set to 90 degrees, RMI indicates

a) 90
Ans b) 180
c) 0

In an auto trim horizontal stabiliser, 'low' speed mode is when

Ans a) flaps are retracted
b) landing gear up and locked
c) flaps extended
An aircraft receives a response from a DME station, 1236 microseconds after
transmitting the interrogation. What is the slant range to the station?
Ans a) 96 nautical miles
b) 100 nautical miles
c) 104 nautical miles

If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off track is the aircraft?
Ans a) 10
b) 5
c) 2.5

What frequency range does ACARS operate in?

a) 2-30 MHz
Ans b) 118-136 MHz
c) 4-5 GHz

An FM signal would have it's sideband signals

a) above the carrier signal
b) below the carrier signal
Ans c) No sidebands present

On an Autoland coupled approach, a GPWS warning

a) would initiate a Go Around
b) audio and Visual warning
c) visual warning only

A Doppler VOR station's transmissions

Ans a) can be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver
b) can not be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver
c) can be received but not processed with a conventional VOR receiver
Direction of normal flight is changed by the pilot by applying pressure
a) to the control wheel
b) to the control column
c) to the rudder pedals

On a modern aircraft about to stall

a) the outboard slats extend automatically
b) engine power increases automatically
c) the flaps retract automatically

Wing can spoilers be used?

a) To assist the respective down going aileron in a turn
b) As ground spoilers on landing
Ans c) To assist the elevators

When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder

a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure
b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb

c) set the rad alt to 0 feet

How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2
pulse length?
Ans a) 21 micro seconds
b) 8 micro seconds
c) 17 micro seconds

What does the Radar contour button do?

Ans a) Alter the beam shape
b) Alter the transmitter power
c) Alter the video amplifier

A radar response takes 329 micro seconds. How far away is the target?
a) 12 miles
Ans b) 25 miles
c) 40 miles

With a spring balance control system you can

a) move the control surface on the ground
b) move the control surface only by moving the tab
c) not move the control surface on the ground

The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is

Ans a) 50 ohms
b) 20 ohms
c) 20 ohms and 50 ohms respectively

Alert Height is when

a) a decision of whether to land is made
Ans b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made
c) an alert of the position of the aircraft is made

If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder

a) remains at the neutral position
b) controls the aircraft in trim
c) remains in the previous position

For a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the
pitch movement?
a) Lateral
b) Longitudinal
c) Normal

Versine is used in which channel?

Ans a) Pitch
b) Roll
c) Yaw

A Master Warning is issued when

Ans a) overspeed & low cabin altitude occurs
b) cargo smoke & low oil quantity occurs
c) engine fire & generator trip occurs

Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations?

Ans a) Visual inspections
b) Insulation testing
c) CMC fault indications

An RMI in VOR mode, it's pointer is showing a course of 000. If the course knob is
adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer?
a) Move left
b) Move right
c) Moves left then hard right

An aircraft flying on a heading of 030 receives an ADF signal 030 relative to the aircraft,
what is the ADF pointer indicating?
a) 030
b) 060
c) 090

When does the pressure in the standard atmosphere halve?

a) 12,000ft
b) 5,000ft
Ans c) 18,000ft

If an aircraft is entering a turn to the left, what input would the aileron to rudder
crossfeed be?
Ans a) Left Rudder
b) Right Rudder
c) No Rudder

If a control surface that is fitted with a balance tab is moved, what will happen to the
tab?
a) It is moved manually in the opposite direction to the surface
b) It is moved automatically in the same direction as the surface
Ans c) It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the surface

At which two points on a gas turbine engine is EPR measured?

Ans a) Compressor inlet and jet pipe
b) Combustion chamber and jet pipe
c) Jet pipe and combustion chamber

If a stall is approaching, what indication does the pilot get?

Ans a) Stick Shaker
b) Stick Nudger
c) EICAS warning

Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to

a) nose up
b) go one wing down
c) nose down

On a coupled approach what happens to the aircraft if it looses the localiser signal?
Ans a) It will fly straight down the original course but will drift
b) It will fly in circles
c) It will fly on the heading the aircraft was on

If an autopilot is fed with radio deviation

a) it will stand off the centre line by a fixed amount
Ans b) it will fly in circles
c) it will fly on the heading the aircraft was on

What colour are the autoland indication lights next to the pilots instruments with excess
deviation?
a) Red
b) Amber
c) White

In what type of Doppler System do altitude holes appear?

Ans a) FM
b) Pulse
c) FM and Pulse

What happens to the F/D command bars if the roll gyro fails in a turn?
a) They stay in the same place as nothing is there to null the input signal
b) They return back to neutral when the turn is complete
c) They Disappear out of view

If an aircraft moves in yaw what axis is it moving about?

Ans a) Normal
b) Longitudinal
c) Lateral

The neutral shift system augments control of the

a) stabiliser
Ans b) elevator
c) spoilers

On a full time Fly-by-wire system a nose up command causes

Ans a) the two elevator surfaces on each side of the stabiliser to move up
b) all the elevators on each wing to move up
c) the two Ailerons on each wing to move up

What are ground spoilers used for?

Ans a) To dump lift
b) To assist the aircraft coming to a stop
c) To slow the aircraft

If the aircraft is to be rolled to the right where does the pilot feed in this command?
Ans a) Control Wheel
b) Control Column
c) Rudder Pedals

What is the typical aircraft hydraulic system pressure?

Ans a) 3000 psi
b) 1000 psi
c) 300 psi

If a bonding lead is found to be broken and a spare is unavailable you must

Ans a) replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but larger
b) defer the defect until correct spares are available
c) splice the broken lead

What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry all the current from a
primary structure?
a) 0.5inch wide by 26AWG cable
b) 0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable
c) No smaller than 18AWG

What is the bonding value between secondary structure?

a) 0.5
Ans b) 1 ohm
c) Between 1Megohm and 500,000

What is the diagonal part of the landing gear called?

Ans a) Drag Strut
b) Drag Wire
c) Shock Absorber

What is the advancing blade on a helicopter doing?

Ans a) Increasing in lift
b) Going to the highest point
c) Increasing in drag

In a series actuator fitted to a helicopter how much authority does it have?

Ans a) 10% approximately
b) 100%
c) 50%

What is the output of a localiser NAV receiver?

a) Polarity sensitive AC
Ans b) Polarity sensitive DC
c) Either

What does an INS calculate on power up?

a) Last Known Longitude
Ans b) Last Known Latitude
c) Last Known Longitude & Latitude

If a series actuator is fitted in the cyclic control circuit of a helicopter what effect will an
autopilot input have?
a) The cyclic lever will move in proportion to the autopilot input
Ans b) The cyclic lever will not move
c) The flight director bars only will move

On an aircraft fitted with a CMC how do you get to the system pages?
Ans a) Through the ground test function
b) Through the Existing faults function
c) Through the Present Leg faults function

What is the purpose of the autopilot trim indication?

Ans a) The voltage activity in the servo amp
b) Trim tab position
c) Control surface position

What is the entry angle of an MLS installation +/-?

a) 62
Ans b) 42
c) 20

When using a bonding tester you

Ans a) use the 6ft lead for testing different points
b) use the 60ft lead for testing different points
c) use either leads for the testing

What is the swash plate on a helicopter used for?

Ans a) Control of the pitch of the rotor blades
b) Control of the speed of the rotor blades
c) Control of the flap of the rotor blades

What does a piezo electric type vibration sensor detect?

a) Disturbances
b) Velocity
Ans c) Pressure changes

With a control surface tab in the neutral position, what happens when the control
surface is moved?
a) It remains in the neutral position
b) It moves in the same direction as the control surface
c) It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface

What should be carried out prior to working on or near control surfaces?

Ans a) Ensure Hydraulics are selected off
b) Pull & tag circuit breakers
c) Wear ear protection

Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator has instant values of Vertical Speed by

Ans a) blocking off static and by using an accelerometer
b) using a plunger to correct any lagging of the indicator
c) blocking off pitot pressure and by using an accelerometer

What is the glide slope frequency range?

a) 108 - 112 Mhz
b) 108 - 112 Ghz
Ans c) 329 - 335 Mhz

What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery?

a) Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyte
Ans b) Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte
c) Fluctuations in the terminal voltage

Upwash on a helicopter would result in

a) increase in lift without an increase in power
b) decrease in lift
c) decrease in speed

What is the aural warning of an aircraft overspeed?

a) Bell sound
Ans b) Clacking sound
c) Horn sound

What is a slot used for?

Ans a) To reinforce the boundary layer
b) Increased angle of attack during approach
c) Increase the speed of the airflow

ADF is
a) Rho
b) Theta
c) Rho-Theta

A Boost Gauge reads

a) above or below ambient atmospheric pressure
Ans b) absolute pressure
c) above or below ISA atmospheric pressure

Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and

Ans a) relative air flow
b) tip path plane
c) horizontal axis

If cyclic is moved to the right

a) POM shortens on one side and lengthens on another
b) the rotor blades on the right flap down
c) the rotor blades on the left flap down

What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system

a) 2.3 - 23 Mhz
b) 2 - 6 GHz
Ans c) 100 KHz

What would happen to an aircraft at low speed at high angle of attack had an aileron
going down?
a) Decrease stall speed
b) Increase stall speed
c) Have no effect on the stall speed

A high lift device is used for

Ans a) take off and landing
b) take off only
c) landing only

What is the major vertical component of an airframe that is a load bearing part of the
structure that can be used as walls or partial walls?
a) Frame
b) Bulkhead
c) Stringer

What is jitter used for in a DME transmission?

Ans a) To make an installation recognise it's own transmission
b) To make sure only strong signals are replied to in a dense area
c) To make an aircraft recognise a DME in a quiet area

What is the minimum candela of an anti-collision beacon?

a) 100
b) 50
c) 20

What is the calibration law of a Ratiometer?

a) Material of the coil
b) Material of the sensing element
c) Material of the indicator needle

After a roll to the left of a statically unstable helicopter, the helicopter would
a) roll back to the horizontal
b) continue to roll further
c) remain at the position that it had rolled to

How is a spoiler interconnected to other flight control systems?

a) Spoiler to aileron
b) Spoiler to flap
c) Spoiler to elevator

What is audio clipping used for in voice communication?

a) To enable vowels to be heard better
b) To enable consonants to be heard better
c) To enable numbers to be heard better

The difference between transient droop and static droop is

Ans a) underswing
b) overswing
c) a hole in one

If a QFE is set at an airfield and flown to another airfield at the same level above sea
level then
a) it will not need resetting and will read zero
b) it will display the airfield height above sea level
c) it will probably not need resetting and will read zero

Capacitance fuel quantity indication test set is connected

a) by replacing capacitance probes
b) in parallel with capacitance probes
c) in series with capacitance probes

What is aileron droop?

a) The leading edge of both ailerons presented to the airflow
b) One aileron lowered
c) The drop of ailerons with no hydraulics on

How is the output of a constant speed drive fed AC generator controlled?

a) Hydraulic feedback to a governor
b) No control as the generator is fed via a constant speed drive
c) By a swashplate

What happens to a helicopter in autorotative flight?

a) The cabin goes in the direction of rotation
b) The rotor goes in the normal direction of rotation
c) The rotor goes the opposite direction to the normal direction of rotation

With a helicopter with a twin blade same gimbal it is

Ans a) semi rigid
b) rigid
c) fully articulating

Earths atmosphere is
a) 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen
b) 4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen
c) 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen

A thermocouple
a) capacitance and inductance cannot be added
b) cannot be shortened
c) can be shortened

How is temperature compensation achieved in the fluid of a compass?

a) Bellows and diaphragm
b) Alcohol is used as it does not get effect by temperature
c) Press relief valve

When installing an aerial ,added support is needed for the structure. This is achieved by
a) webs
b) outer plate
c) inner plate

What is the difference between transmit and receive pulse frequency?

a) 60
b) 63
c) 1000

Relative airflow over a helicopter blade

a) increases at the tip
b) increases at the root
c) is unaffected by blade position
TCAS II is
a) 10 aircraft per square mile
b) 25 aircraft per square 5 miles
c) 100 aircraft per 5 miles square

RMI in ADF mode, the pointer is moved by a

a) servomotor
b) loop voltage
c) Chinaman

FMC changes movement via

a) A/P actuator
b) flight control computer
c) straight to the actuator

Aircraft condition monitoring monitors

a) certain parameters
b) with a fault detector and tells master warning computer
c) and compares the faults on the aircraft with the CMC

A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot system has

a) full authority
b) 50% authority
Ans c) 10% authority

Stall warning will be given

Ans a) before stall
b) after stall
c) at stall
With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of central maintenance
function (CMF) is to
Ans a) log relevant maintenance data
b) transmits to the CMC
c) provides details of defect action

How are spoilers normally operated?

Ans a) Hydraulic actuator
b) Air pistons
c) Electrical motors

The purpose of a force trim release system in an helicopter is to permit the

Ans a) pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain desired new attitude without having to
maintain the opposing forces of the artificial feel system forces
b) pilot to move the collective to obtain a power change
c) appropriate cyclic actuator to be over powered

A differential relay in a twin generator system will cause

a) only one generator can supply a bus bar at a time
b) one generator always comes on line before the other
Ans c) the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are paralleled

Distilled or demineralised water would be added to an alkaline battery

a) in the aircraft
b) when the battery is fully charged
Ans c) in the charging room only

When removing the load from a current transformer

Ans a) short the terminals
b) place a resistor across each terminal
c) leave the terminals open
Wing steady light must be visible through
a) 70 degrees
Ans b) 110 degrees
c) 180 degrees

On AC ground power the interlock system is operated by pins

a) a and b
b) c and d
Ans c) e and f

When paralleling two AC generators

Ans a) it is important that they are in phase, and should be brought on in sequence ABC
b) it is important that they are in phase, and can be brought on in either ABC or CBA
c) they do not need to be in phase

The neutral shift sensor ensures that

Ans a) after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align with the stabiliser
b) after a mach trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator
c) after an auto trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator

Aileron to rudder crossfeed is applied in autopilot systems to

a) assist the aircraft back to datum after disturbance in yaw
b) prevents slip and skid in yaw
Ans c) prevents aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to the turn

Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by

a) differentiating deviation signals
b) integrating deviation signals
Ans c) integrating course error signals
An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the DC ratiometer would cause
a) the pointer to read zero
b) the pointer to read mid scale
Ans c) the pointer to read full scale

The instantaneous VSI is designed to

Ans a) overcome the inherent lag by utilising an accelerometer
b) use an accelerometer to give a rate of climb/descent
c) improve the VSI output during acceleration greater than 1g

With a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession will

a) increase with a higher rotor speed
Ans b) decrease with a higher rotor speed
c) decrease with a lower rotor speed

A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor located about the
gyroscope's
a) lateral axis
Ans b) longitudinal axis
c) vertical axis

The glideslope equipment operates in the

a) HF band
Ans b) UHF band
c) VHF band

The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director system would cause
a) aircraft to underbank
b) aircraft to overbank
Ans c) aircraft to remain in level flight
In a flight director system the radio signal outputs from the navigation receiver are
Ans a) DC
b) AC
c) pulsed DC

Fuel quantity test set consists of

a) resistance decade
b) capacitance bridge
c) inductance decade

EICAS provides the following

a) engine parameters
Ans b) engine parameters and system warnings
c) engine warnings and engine parameters

The stabiliser is set to high setting when

Ans a) the flaps are moving down
b) the flap are moving up
c) the flap are moving up or down

An auto land system displays Land 2 another failure will make the system
a) operational
b) passive
Ans c) simplex

DSR TK (desired track) means

Ans a) the bearing to capture the track
b) a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way points
c) distance left or right from desired track

In helicopter Alt Hold uses a signal from

Ans a) the barometric alt capsule
b) a rad alt output
c) a rad alt or capsule output depend on height

In a doppler VOR the 30Hz reference signal is

a) FM Modulated
Ans b) AM Modulated
c) modulated with a 9960Hz

On aircraft an auto land during auto flare the auto throttle will
Ans a) retard the throttle
b) reverse thrust
c) control throttle for a IAS

If an FM signal modulated by an audio signal the frequency of the audio would relate to
the
a) amplitude
b) frequency
Ans c) rate of frequency change

The normal axis on a helicopter is

Ans a) straight down the rotor head
b) at 90o to the C of G
c) at 90o to the rotor head

On a HF radio set the clarifier control is used

Ans a) to adjust the reinserted carrier due to instability in the RX
b) make the audio signal clearer
c) an Americanisum for volume

A GPS aerial is polarised

a) vertically
b) horizontally
Ans c) right hand circular

Mach trim threshold are set by the

a) pilot
b) engineer using aircraft maintenance manual
Ans c) manufacture

An O ring in a wave guide is used to

a) correct the VSWR
b) stop arcing between the wave guide
Ans c) stop moisture entering the wave guide

An RMI requires the following inputs:

Ans a) Heading and radio deviation
b) Course and radio deviation
c) Radio deviation only

The versine signal is used in the

Ans a) pitch channel only
b) roll channel only
c) pitch and roll channel

After a change in collective pitch the Rotor rpm will rise and fall. This is called
Ans a) transient droop
b) static droop
c) under swing

Loran C Uses
a) 16 KHz
b) 20 Mhz
Ans c) 100 Khz

The amount of travel of a series actuator is

Ans a) 50% of control movement
b) 10% of control movement
c) full control movement

GPS Telemetry consists of

a) week number and time label
b) satellite position information
c) 8 bits of preamble and position information

After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at maximum flap at
Ans a) 90o
b) 180o
c) 0o

Emergency Electronic equipment is approved by

a) Aircraft Maintenance Manual
Ans b) JAR (OPS) M
c) BCAR A4-8

The rotor disc is

Ans a) the distance between tip to tip
b) the rotor head hub
c) the ground cushion

A DME is in auto stand by when

a) the ATC transponder is transmitting
Ans b) the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a second
c) the TCAS is transmitting

The aircraft is due north of a VOR station on a heading of 90 o What is a RMI display?
a) 90o
b) 0o
Ans c) 180o

The flight director is on a localizer when the radio deviation signal is lost the aircraft
would
a) continue on flying on the localizer
Ans b) fly parallel to the localizer
c) drift of from the localizer on the same heading

Cat-2 autoland DH limits are

Ans a) below 200 feet but not less than 100 ft
b) below 500 feet but not less than 400 ft.
c) below 300 feet and not less than 200 ft.

Cat-1 autoland DH limits are

a) not less than 100 ft.
Ans b) not less than 200 ft.
c) below 200 ft but not less than 100 ft.

When GA is initiated?
a) Auto throttle disengages at 2000 ft/min rate and wings will level
b) Auto throttle remains engaged allowing pilot to control the throttles
Ans c) Auto throttle remains engaged giving correct G/A thrust

The controlling signal in pitch channel in the Flare mode are

Ans a) integrated pitch and radio altitude.
b) G/S deviation and radio altitude.
c) integrated pitch and G/S deviation

Rollout guidance after touch down is by

a) automatic rudder control and nosewheel steering
b) visual indication and nosewheel steering
c) visual indication and rudder control

During autoland failure of one channel is detected

a) all channels will disconnect in triplex system.
Ans b) all channels will disconnect in dulpex system.
c) all channels will disconnect in dual-dual system.

In triplex autoland system failure of one channel will

a) disconnect all channels
Ans b) disconnect the failure channel and continue autoland approach
c) disconnect the failure channel and continue with a manual approach

During the flair mode the A/T throttle will

Ans a) retard throttle to idle.
b) disconnect autothrottle
c) select reverse thrust.

Roll out mode occurs

Ans a) after flare
b) before flare
c) at alert height

High and low signal to voter are

a) average
b) removed
c) added
Basic monitoring is function of
a) voting
Ans b) signal comparison
c) signal summing

In series rudder system

a) the pilot cannot input to the system
Ans b) the pilot can input to the system
c) yaw damping is only possible signal input

If a pointer is not centralised on a trim indicators, it means that

a) the indicator is not serviceable
b) the control system is out of trim
c) the system is trimmed

In parallel rudder system,

a) the pilot can input on rudder pedals
Ans b) The rudder pedals move in response to rudder movement
c) The rudder pedals are disconnected

The aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder channel amplifier. This means it
is
a) AC
b) DC
Ans c) DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input

An increase in mach number will cause the

Ans a) Cof P to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail plane
b) Cof P to move rearwards giving more downwash on the tail plane
c) Cof P to move forwards giving less downwash on the tail plane
If one FMS fails in a duel system
a) system operation will not be affected
b) FMS CDU on fail side goes blank
Ans c) FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer

To carry out FMS database update on FMS

Ans a) use database loader
b) insert new EPROM
c) insert new data on CDU

To know the valid database on FMS

a) perform bite check
Ans b) call up relevant page on CDU
c) call up relevant current status

Magnetic heading errors will be

Ans a) positive if easterly
b) negative if easterly
c) negative if northerly

What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?

a) It will move once the aircraft is established on a new heading
Ans b) Move as the aircraft moves
c) Stay fixed on magnetic north

When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?

a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1
b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1
c) If P2 is before P1
A helicopter autopilot uses
Ans a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold
b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold
c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold

On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?
a) Height Deviation
b) Radio deviation
Ans c) Course deviation

What of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence?

a) Flare, attitude, rollout
Ans b) Attitude, flare, rollout
c) Rollout, attitude, flare

When can other autopilot modes can be select once Go-Around has been selected?
a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft
Ans b) When reached a desired altitude
c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system

Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available?
a) No other pitch modes are available
b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam
c) All are continuously available

If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, view from above where would a pitch
input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what?
a) In front of the lateral axis
Ans b) Right of the longitudinal axis
c) Left of the longitudinal axis
Forces on a helicopter in a power-on descent are
Ans a) lift, drag thrust, weight
b) lift, drag, thrust
c) weight, drag, lift

What is the primary purpose of a helicopter tail arm?

Ans a) Provide a structure for mounting the stabiliser and anti torque rotor
b) Acts to help balance the centre of gravity of the helicopter
c) Provide directional control