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LICENSURE
EXAMINATIO
N FOR
TEACHERS
REFRESHER COURSE 2013
COMPETENCY-BASED PRACTICE
TEST IN PHYSICAL EDUCATION
ST. LOUIS REVIEW CENTER

General Santos City
Focus: PHYSICAL FITNESS AND GYMNASTICS 5%
Competencies: Evaluate movement skills in educational gymnastics and sports activities

(rhythmic and artistic gymnastics and sports aerobics)
Competency-Based Practice Test 1
1. A student’s health screening should administered prior to

A. any physical activity by the student at your facility.
B. any contact with the student.
C. fitness assessment or programming.
D. the initial “walk-through” showing of a facility.
2. Which of the following is a strategy to improve the accuracy of a fitness assessment?

A. Ensure appropriate pretest preparation of the student.
B. Ensure physician supervision of all assessments.
C. Use checklists of pretest procedures.
D. Use only certified staff.
3. When performing multiple assessments of health related fitness in a single session,

resting measurements should be allowed in order by
A. body composition, flexibility, muscular fitness, cardiorespiratory fitness.
B. cardiorespiratory fitness, flexibility, muscular fitness, body composition.
C. Cardiorespiratory fitness, muscular fitness, body composition, flexibility
D. body composition, cardiorespiratory fitness, muscular fitness, flexibility.
4. Flexibility is a measure of the

A. disease-free range of motion about a joint.
B. pain-free range of motion about a joint.
C. habitually used range of motion about a joint.
D. Effort-free range of motion about a joint.
5. In order to maximize safety during a fitness assessment, the room layout should address
which of the following issues?
A. The equipment and floor space should be arranged to allow safe exit from the
facility in an emergency situation and to prevent accidental upsetting of
equipment.
B. The equipment and floor space should be arranged so that although exits are
clearly marked, it is not essential for students to be near the exit, and equipment
can be moved from in front of exits in an emergency.
C. The equipment and floor space should be arranged to allow students the
opportunity to move equipment away from exits should an emergency develop.
D. Annual drills announced early in the year allow the staff to properly prepare for
any type of emergency.
6. Body composition is determined by which of the following formulae?

A. Total weight – fat weight
B. Total weight – fat-free weight
C. Fat-free mass + fat mass
D. Fat weight + fat free weight
7. Physical Fitness battery test are conducted at the start of each year. What is the purpose
of these tests?
A. To comply with content requirements.
B. To choose elite athletes.
C. To give grade for fitness assessment.
D. To identify the strengths and weaknesses of student.
8. The best predictor of one’s cardiorespiratory fitness is

A. the mile run C. 50 yard dash
B. 200 yard run D. 400 meter run
9. Which of the following fitness tests measure the strength of the abdominal muscles?
A. Sit-ups C. Sit and Reach
B. Flexed Arm Hang d. Shuttle Run
10. Which among these Physical Fitness Tests measure flexibility?

A. Chair push-up C. Standing Long Jump
B. . Sit and Reach D. Flexed Arm Hang
11. About certain exercises:

A. forward bending should occur from the waist.
B. sit-ups should be done with leg straight.
C. when stretching, hyperextend the knees.
D. bouncing stretches are the best.
11. The American College of Sports Medicine recommendation for intensity, duration, and
frequency of physical activity for apparently healthy individuals includes
A. intensity of 60% to 90% maximal heart rat, duration of 20 to 60 minutes,
frequency of 3 to 5 days a week.
B. Intensity of 85% to 90% maximal heart rate, duration of 30 minutes, frequency of
3 days to 5 days a week.
C. Intensity of 50% to 70% maximal heart rate, duration of 15 to 45 minutes,
frequency of 5 days a week.
D. Intensity of 60% to 90% maximal heart rate reserve, duration of 20 to 60 minutes,
frequency of 7 days a week
12. A method of strength and power training that involves an eccentric loading of muscles
and tendons followed immediately by an explosive concentric contraction is called
A. periodization
B. ployemetrics
C. super-sets
D. isotonic reversals
13. Which of the following exercise modes allows buoyancy to reduce the potential for
musculoskeletal injury and even allow injured person an opportunity to exercise
without further injury?
A. Skiing C. Water Exercise
B. Walking D. Cycling
14. Which of the following activities provides for the greatest improvement in aerobic
fitness for someone who is beginning an exercise program?
A. Dieting C. Walking
B. Downhill Skiing D. Weight Training
15. Exercises to prepare the body for a strenuous workout

A. Warm-up C. Cool-down
B. Peak aerobics D. Isotonic exercise
16. Which of the following is a true statement about physical exercise?

A. Physical exercise usually involves repetitive movements.
B. Physical exercise includes only movement that results in expenditure of energy.
C. Physical exercise requires at least 10 minutes at an activity.
D. Physical exercise produces muscle stress, which leads to muscle growth.
17. Weight training programs which emphasize building muscular endurance should
include
A. many repetitions with a low to moderate weight load.
B. only isokinetic exercises.
C. few repetitions with a heavy weight load.
D. only exercises exceeding 10 minutes.
18. The primary difference between aerobic exercise and anaerobic exercise is
A. demand on muscle tissue C. fatigue factor.
B. oxygen consumption. D. overload.
19.This principle states that the specific type of exercise you do determines the specific benefit
you receive.
A. Principle of Specificity C. Principle of Overload
B. Principle of Progression D. Principle of Reversibility
20.Apparatus activity, stunts, and tumbling are most closely associated with
A.body management attainment
B.higher skill attainment
C. specialized skills
D. fundamental skills
21. Which of the following is not a standing position in gymnastics?

A. feet together C. half knee bend
B. full knees bend D. hurdle position
22. Stunts that test the ability of the performer to fight with other
A. combative stunts C. dual stunts
B. individual stunts D. group stunts
23. Which is not a skill in manipulating the ball in rhythmic gymnastics?

a. throwing and catching
b. tapping in different planes
c. balancing the ball on different parts of the body
d. bouncing in different surfaces
22. It is a gymnastic position where the head and knees are held in contact from curved
trunk.
A. Tuck C. Hook
B. Pike D. Stride
23. It is a gymnastic position or shape when the body and legs are extended upward while
the head, shoulder and the bent elbow supports the extended body.
A. Shoulder stand C. Headstand
B. Handstand D. Stride Stand
24. Chinese get-up, Wheelbarrow, Wring the dishcloth are stunts that help develop body
coordination among children. These stunts are categorized as
A. Dual stunt C. Acrobatics
B. Individual Stunt D. Group Stunts
25. It is a gymnastic position or shape where one leg is extended forward while the other
leg is extended backward with or without hand support on the floor
A. Split C. Knee Scale
B. Front Scale D. Bridge Stand
26. What is the most essential factor when participating in gymnastics?

A. precision C. confidence
B. safety D. power
27. Which of the following tumbling skills dominantly used in any apparatus events for
both men and women?
A. Handstand C. Forward Roll
B. Backward Roll D. Cartwheel
28. It is the preparatory position in backward roll where the feet are held together with
knees straight and trunk bent forward towards the legs
A. Squat C. Tuck
B. Pike D. Straddle
31.Which gymnastic move uses a tripod?
A. forward roll C. headstand
B. handstand D. backward roll
32. Which phrase in this descriptive statement is incorrect?

When coming out of a straddle forward roll, the performer should reach forward with
the body from the hips, place the hands close to the crotch, shoulders far out in front of the
body, head tucked close to the chest, arms straight and in line with the shoulders.
a. head tucked close to the chest
b. reach forward with the body from the hips
c. place the hands close to the crotch
d. shoulders far out in front of the body.
33. Which lead-up move should a beginning tumbler must execute before attempting for a
dive forward roll?
A. backward roll C. shoulder roll
B. forward roll D. wrestle’s bridge
34. Where should be the head be placed in a forward roll?

a. with chin tucked to chest and head on mat
b. with the forehand on the mat
c. outside the hands
d. facedown on the mat
35. Choose two factors that are most crucial in executing a headstand
1. strenght
2. flexibility
3. balance
4. agility
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 3 and 4
36. In which position should the knees be kept during execution of the backward roll in a
tuck position?
A. pike position C. arch position
B. jackknife position D. close to the chest
37. Which of the following will likely show the correct rhythm of a cartwheel?
A. hand, hand, foot, foot C. hand, foot, hand, foot
B. foot, foot, hand, hand D. foot, hand, foot, hand
38. Your student in your gymnastic class is having a difficulty with a handstand. What
exercise might help?
a. wall push-ups C. crab walk
b. duck waddle D. elephant walk
39. Which move is a lead-up to the standing backward roll

A. Handstand C. back extension
B. cartwheel D. backward roll from squat
40. What contributes most to produce good balance in a headstand?

A. a broad base of support C. the toes pointed
B. the elbows bent at a 90% angle D. the head in the same line with the hands
41. How long should an exerciser wait after eating a meal before working out?
A. 2 hours C. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes D. no wait necessary
42. The recommended way to increase flexibility is a safe manner is through a carefully
planned activity. Which among the exercises is the safest?
A. ballistic stretching C. static stretching
B. rapid stretching D. bouncing
43. The recommended solution to decrease body fats include

a. diet
b. increase physical activity
c. medical guidance
i. 1 and 2
ii. 1 and 3
iii. 2 and 3
iv. 1, 2, and 3
44. Progressive resistance is applied when the muscles becomes stronger as they work
against a corresponding grater resistance. Which of the following approaches does not
contribute to this method of increasing strength?
A. daily and simple exercises
B. heavy resistance exercises using weight training
C. specific exercises against body weight as in pull-ups
D. vigorous athletic performance
45. Interval training is one of the most effective training approaches in the preparation of
athletes. Which of the practices contributes to this type of training?
A. medium to high intensity and vice versa for each activity
B. continuous performance of an activity
C. untimed and unlimited training activity
D.any activity desired and enjoyed by the performer
1. It refers to the harmonious relation between body and mind where parts and segments of
the body move in different ways and directions in a gymnastics routine.
A. Cooperation
B. Coordination
C. Concentration
D. Collaboration
2. A regulated external force acting to produce a greater range of flexibility in a relatively

inactive muscle.
A. Active Stretching
B. Inactive Stretching
C. Passive Stretching
D. Proactive Stretching
3. It means bending or reducing length. It decreases the angle of the joint.

A. Extension
B. Contraction
C. Flexion
D. Reduction
4. Being the first to conduct gymnastics as part of education. He was the first modern writer
and teacher of organized gymnastics for whom records survive.
A. Per Henrik Ling
B. Franz Nachtegall
C. Johann Basedow
D. Gerhard Vieth
5. It is a self-motivating activity, where one can manipulate the different parts of the body
into varied positions or movements.
A. Physical Education
B. Physical Fitness
C. Gymnastics
D. Movements
6. A person who helps a performer to go about a skill for the first time.
A. Helper
B. Spotter
C. Assistant
D. Spotting
7. This locomotor movement, which is a combination of a step and a cut that shows shifting
of weight or displacement of the other foot.
A. Leap
B. Skip
C. Gallop
D. Hop
8. The Great Grandfather of Gymnastics wrote many influential books including carefully
chosen gymnastics exercises for girls in 1818. He wrote Gymnastics for Youth, the first
book on modern gymnastics in 1793. He describes the use of sloping beams, climbing
poles, ladders and ropes along with the balancing beam and the swinging beam.
A. Johann Guts Muth
B. Johann Pestalow
C. Friedrich Ludwig Jahn
D. Adolph Spiess
9. The muscles move a limb away from the vertical mid–line of the body.
A. Abduction
B. Extension
C. Adduction
D. Rotation
10. Which of these body parts keeps one in state of equilibrium during a one leg balance?
A. Legs
B. Arms
C. Trunk
D. Head
11. He formed a gymnastics club, opened a private gymnasium and through his success
encouraged the government to incorporate training into its school curriculum. His
gymnastics program in Denmark emphasized mass calisthenics, mass vaulting, and drills
using dumbbells and balls.
A. Johann Pestalow
B. Adolph Spiess
C. Gerhard Vieth
D. Franz Nachtegall
12. A series of selected exercises that help relieve physical discomfort or restore function to
disabled people.
A. Creative Gymnastics
B. Competitive Gymnastics
C. Therapeutic or Remedial Gymnastics
D. Educational Gymnastics
13. Type of “stretching,” when the gymnast uses her own strength to manipulate the stretch
movements produced by muscle contraction.
A. Active Stretching
B. Inactive Stretching
C. Passive Stretching
D. Proactive Stretching
14. He was one of the great gymnastics leaders and called the “Father of Swedish gymnastics.”
A. Friedrich Ludwig Jahn
B. Johann Pestalow
C. Per Henrik Ling
D. Adolph Spiess
15. It consists of prescribed sets of events for men and women, each of which is scored
separately in order to determine a winner.
A. Therapeutic or Remedial Gymnastics
B. Competitive Gymnastics
C. Creative Gymnastics
D. Educational Gymnastics
16. The “Father of School Gymnastics” who taught gymnastics to his classes in Switzerland
and added marching and free exercises to music.
A. Adolph Spiess
B. Franz Nachtegall
C. Johann Basedow
D. Gerhard Vieth
17. Women’s Artistic Gymnastics (WAG) is a Gymnastics discipline played in four (4) events,
except one of the following.
A. Horse Vault
B. Asymmetrical Bars
C. Balance Beam
D. Horizontal Bar
18. He was the first American contributor to gymnastics because he was instrumental in
including gymnastics in the school curriculum.
A. Johann Pestalow
B. Dr. Dudley Sargent
C. Franz Nachtegall
D. Gerhard Vieth
19. Men’s Artistic Gymnastics (MAG) is a Gymnastics discipline played in six (6) events
except one of the following.
A. Pommel Horse
B. Asymmetrical Bars
C. Parallel Bars
D. Ring
20. A planned series of dance skills, locomotor skills, gymnastics skills, and tumbling skills
performed with or without music.
A. Movements
B. Aerobics
C. Exercises or Routine
D. Rhythmic Activities
21. “The Father of Gymnastics.”

A. Friedrich Ludwig Jahn
B. Johann Pestalow
C. Franz Nachtegall
D. `Adolph Spiess
22. It is a quality of plasticity which gives the ability to do a wide range of movement
A. Strength
B. Balance
C. Flexibility / Suppleness
D. Agility
23. This is a mild activity used as the body movement slow down until the pulse and breathing
rates return to normal.
A. Cool Down
B. Relaxation
C. Warm – up
D. Aerobics
24. An imaginary straight line around which the hand apparatus or body rotates.
A. Axis
B. Bloc
C. Union
D. Coalition
25. Ability to keep the center of gravity over the base of support and to maintain equilibrium.
A. Balance
B. Stability
C. Solidity
D. Poise
Focus: Philippine Folk Dance 5%
Competencies: Interpret dance movements in the historical and sociological context of

Philippine Folk Dance with the end in view of preserving legacy of Filipino heritage.
1. Mr. Rioflorido instructed his students to do the kumintang. What will be the correct
movements execution of his students in doing the kumintang?
A. The students will move their hand from the wrist in a clockwise or
counterclockwise direction.
B. The students will move their hand from the elbow in a clockwise or
C. The students will move their hand from the shoulder in a clockwise or
D. The students will move their hand from the upper extremities in a clockwise or
2. The class of Mr. Cruz is dancing the Polkabal. One of the basic steps in the dance is the
contraganza. If Mr. Cruz will demonstrate the step pattern of the dance step, which of the
following will show the correct movement pattern?
A. Step, close, step C. Slide, cut, cut
B. Cross-step, close, step D. Leap, cross-step, step
3. Which of the following is a dance step in 4/4 time music?

A. Espunti C. Mudansa
B. Mazurka D. Escotis
4 . All of the following are correct except _________.

A. waltz – ¾ time signature
B. mazurka – ¾ time signature
C. polka – ¾ time signature
D. sway balance – ¾ time signature
5. It is a work-dance of Kalinga women where they carry baskets on their heads.

A. Idudu C. Bumayah
B. Ragragsakan D. Bendian
6. Of the following patterns of movements, the one that best describes the mazurka step is
______.
A. slide, cut, hop C. slide, slide, hop
B. hop, slide, close D. hop, cut, and slide
7. Which of the following associations is incorrect?
A. Cordillera dances of Luzon C. Mangyan dances of Nueva Viscaya
B. Tausug dances of Mindanao D. Ibanag dances of Cagayan
8. Each of the following pairs of folk dance steps can be performed in combination except the
_________.
A. waltz and reboda C. waltz balance and paso español
B. polka and mazurka D. cross waltz and step, swing, hop
9. Which of the following dance steps has an incorrect time signature in 2/4 time music?
A. haplik C. polka
B. contraganza D. sagamantica
10. All are four measures of music and beyond except ____________.
A. double sway balance C. haplik
B. mudansa D. mazurka
11. Common among rural or countryside dances are the use of implements in their dance. They
offer the glass of wine, a hanky, a hat, or even their own hands to somebody as a sign of
invitation or love. This characterizes to a dance term which means ___________.
A. salok C. hapay
B. sarok D. bilao
12. Which of the following dance steps has eight measures?

A. bacui C. haplik
B. chotis D. sagamantica
13. Masiwak is a common dance term among the ___________.

A. Ilocano C. Tagalog
B. Ibanag D. VIsayan
14. Joseph is demonstrating the correct movement of hayon-hayon. Which of the following is the
correct movement pattern that King June Four will show?
A. He will place his forearm in front and the other at the back of his waist.
B. He will cross his arms in front and open it to second position.
C. He will place both his arms at one side.
D. He will scoop his one arm up to fifth position.
15. Romeo is instructed by his PE teacher to do the habanera step. The step pattern that he will
use is step, close, step, step and the counting to follow is __________.
A. 1 and 2 C. 1 2 and
B. 1 2 D. 1 2 3
16. Kheeno is performing a sway balance with a waltz in his dance class. The counting that he
will use when doing the sway balance with a waltz is __________.
A. 1, 2 3/1 2 3 C. 1,2 3/ 1,2 3
B. 1, 2 3/ 1 2, 3 D. 1,2 3/ 1,2,3
17. Mr. Reyes asked his students to do a combination of the following dance steps; change, step,
heel and toe change step, polka, heel and toe polka. He advises his students to get a folk dance
music to accompany the combinations. What time signature the students will look for?
A. 2/4 time music C. 4/4 time music
B. ¾ time music D. 6/8 time music
18. Which of the following is a Visayan d ance term?

A. Bilao C. Salok
B. Jaleo D. Sarok
19. Which is called the unit of formation?

A. cabaceras C. home position
B. costados D. set
20. Of the following folk dances, which has a combined rhythm?

A. Alitaptap C. Lanceros de Negros
B. Tiklos D. Los Bailes de Ayer
21. Which of the following folk dances can be performed in ¾ time music?
A. Cariñosa C. Polka sa Nayon
B. Tiklos D. Polka Antigo
22. What is the rythm pattern of escotis?

A. uneven C. broken
B. even D. syncopated
23. Which of the following is an occupational dance?

A. Polka sa Nayon C. Biniganbigat
B. Lanceros de Negros D. Mananguete
24. You are instructing your class to do one sway balance with a waltz right and left alternately,
two waltz steps right and left, and one waltz turn. How many measures are there in the
combination?
A. 6 measures C. 12 measures
B. 8 measures D. 16 measures
25. Which dance is very popular in the Bicol Region that is commonly performed during
wedding celebrations?
A. Kuratsa C. Sinakiki
B. Pandango D. Pantomina
1. The waltz is done in what tempo?

A. slow C. moderate
B. marching D. fast
2. This is a kind of movement wherein the dancer glides one foot forcibly on the floor with or
without
transfer of weight. It is called _______.
A. step C. pivot
B. tap D. slide
3. Which type of dance is performed in social gathering to honor the guest?

A. Pantomina C. Papuri
B. Pandanggo D. Putritos
4. What is a Samal dance class of noble women which shows off women’s dexterity and
flexibility of the
shoulders, elbows and wrist joints?
A. Sua-ko-Sua C. Janngay
B. Maglanka D. Kancingan
5. What is the national dance of the Philippines?

A. Singkil C. Rigodon
B. Cariñosa D. Tinikling
6. Which of the following dances use fighting implements?

A. Lanceros C. Rigodon
B. Sagayan D. Pabo
7. A dance step of sixteen measures is ______________.
A. haplik C. papuri
B. sagamantica D. mudansa
8.What is an Ibanag dance term wherein the dancers turn their hands from the wrists halfway
clockwise then raise and lower wrist once or twice?
A. panadyak C. free hand
B. masiwak D. kumintang
9. This is done by bending halfway the knees and body slightly with a bow of the head. It is
called ____.
A. curtsy C. Dip
B. do-si-do D. Draw
10. This dance term is executed by swinging the arm downward passing infront of the body as if
scooping with the trunk bending forward following the movement of the arm. The term for this
is __________.
A. slide C. salok
B. swing D. sarok
11. When two people walk toward each other, pass by right shoulder, step sideward to the right
and return to position, walking backward, passing left shoulder the movement is called _______.
A. cross-over C. counterclockwise
B. do-si-do D. clockwise
12. The toe or ball or free foot is placed momentarily on floor and lifted again immediately again
is called ________.
A. touch C. pivot
B. step D. tap
13. The free foot is drawn toward the foot which supports the body weight by pressing the toes
against the floor as the close is made is called _________.
A. bow C. brush
B. draw D. cut
14. Subli is a dance honoring the wooden cross. It originates from _______.
A. Bohol C. Cavite
B. Batangas D. Mindoro
15. It is a dance among the Apayaos imitating the high – flying bird and is called ________.
A. Bendian C. Say - yam
B. Pattong D. Turayen
16. Who are called “Peacocks of the mountain”?

A. Bontocs C. Kalingas
B. Benguets D. Apayaos
17. Which is a dance among the Maranaos which displays the women’s simplicity and elegant
walk with the use of beautifully decorated umbrellas?
A. Sagayan C. Pag-aper
B. Kapamalong D. Kakulangan
18. This is Palawan’s famous ceremonial rite of healing the sick, imploring and thanksgiving for
a good and bountiful harvest. Its name is _______.
A. Pagdidiwata C. Binaylan
B. Blit-Blaan D. Sohten
19. Which of the following folk dances are classified as ceremonial dances?
1. Dugso
2. Putong
3. Pandang-Pandang
4. Daling-Daling
A. 1 and 2 C. 3 only
B. 3 and 4 D. 4 only
20. The National Artist in dance who is also known as the Mother of Folk Dance is ______.
A. Lucrecia Urtula C. Leonor Orosa Goquingco
B. Corazon Iñigo D. Francisca Reyes Aquino
21. Which steps have the same time signature?

A. polka and redoba C. kuradang and contraganza
B. change step and waltz balance D. espunti and sangig
Read the paragraph below and answer the questions that follow.
You are teaching a unit of folk dance to your first year students. They will be learning the
dance Subli. Answer the following questions that will help your class understand thoroughly the
nature and characteristics of the dance.
22. What is the sociological context of the dance?

A. Subli is a festival dance from Quezon.
B. The dance comes from two tagalog words “sumubsob” at “bumali”.
C. It is a dance in honor of the Mahal na Poong Sta. Krus.
D. The dance showcases the use of bamboo sticks.
23. What is the correct time signature of the music used in the dance?
A. 2/2 time signature C. ¾ time signature
B. 2/4 time signature D. 4/4 time signature
24. Which of the following steps are common to the dance?

A. Change step C. Mincing steps
B. Mazurka D. Polka steps
25. What are the basic arm movements used in the dance?
A. Bilao and Hayon-hayon C. Hapay and Salok
B. Sarok and Kewet D. Masiwak and Forearm turn
Focus: International Folk Dance and other Dance Forms 5%
Competencies: 1. Apply dance skills and techniques of other dances from Asia , Europe and
America
2. Recognize dance forms and social ballroom dances of South American
influence
1. Bharata Natyam is the oldest dance in the world, originally performed in the temples of
India. It combines rhythmically complicated dancing with Hindu legends told in song and
pantomime. Like other Indian dance forms, this temple dance uses hand gestures that have
recognized meanings that often stand for animals, plants, or feelings. This hand gestures are
called ______.
a. Natya c. Nritya
b. Mudras d. Nritta
2. One of the rare indications about the earliest and unique dance has to do with the use of a
long sleeve known as “water sleeve” as a technical and expressive side of the dance and
appears to be part of shamanistic worship. Sleeve dancing was widespread in ______.
a. China c. Korea
b. Burma d. Indonesia
3. The European folk dances contain memories and references to religious or magical dances.
These dances are traces of the ancient worship of the sun .
a. Maypole dances c. Ring dances
b. Bonfire dances d. Sword dances
4. Cotillion was in vogue in the 18th century. Its name was derived from the French cotte, which
was a short petticoat worn by peasants. Which of the following square dances that emerged
during the Napoleonic years in France at about 1740 was the descendant of the Cotillion?
a. Quadrille c. Virginia Reel
b. Minuet d. Basse Danse
5. This is a maypole dance which is performed in May is presided over by the “senior” (Our
Lord) of Chalma, and offerings of eggs, necklaces, beads and flowers can be made after each
dance.
a. Los Inditos c. Los Moros
b. Los Viejetos d. La Costilla
6. Cha Cha Cha is a descendant of the -

a. Samba c. Rumba
b. Cuban Mambo d. Tango
7. In the 14th century, Carole which involved song and simple dance steps was the perpetuation
of the most ancient of the social dance forms. In its linked form in single file, it evolved into
–
a. Farandole c. Branle
b. Estampie d. Basse Danse
8. Important and significant adaptations from folk elements were the Contredanses, the
linguistic adaptation of the English – country dances. Later on, it was transformed into
French contredanses. The dance figures were grouped into a general title which was in vogue
in the 18th century. Its name was derived from the French cotte, which was a short petticoat
worn by peasants. This was –
a. Quadrille c. Cotillion
b. Waltz d. Polka
9. The dance that provided a release from wartime pressures.

a. Jitterbugging c. Discoing
b. Boogie-Woogieing d. Break dancing
10. One of the most spirited pioneers of modern dance who did not permit scenery onstage which
might draw attention from her dancing, ignored the formal, set movements of ballet.
a. Ruth St. Dennis c. Isadora Duncan
b. Doris Humphrey d. Martha Graham
11. He founded the Royal Academy of Dancing to train professional dancers to perform for him
and his court. Professional ballets began in the king’s dancing academy.
a. Balthazar de Beaujoyeuolx, c. King Louis XIV
b. Rudolf Von Laban d. Ted Shawn
12. What is the “capital” of the ballet world as established by the Ballet Comique de la Reine
which was considered to be the first ballet with spectacular costumes and scenery to impress
the audience, ran for 51/2 hours performed in 1581 in honor of a royal wedding?
a. Italy c. United States
b. Germany d. Paris
13. A style of dance in which rhythmic sounds are produced by moving the feet.
a. Tap dance c. Modern dance
b. Zapateado d. Stampas
14. This is one of the types of FOXTROT, which a graceful foxtrot and the music is played at a
moderate tempo and combines a quick – quick- slow rhythm with frequent use of the outside
position .
a. Peabody c. International quickstep
b. Roseland foxtrot d. Slow-to-medium foxtrot
15. The basic technique of this so-called “a new form of sexual display typified by the gigolo
image of the sultry Southern male was accepted by the public in 1930.
a. Rumba c. Barn dance
b. Samba d. Rock n’ Roll
16. This term also known as Mill or Wheel Right and Left.
a. Allemande Right and left c. Grand Right and Left
b. Star Right and Left d. Cadena
17. Break Legs is executed in a 24 time music and the counting is –

a. 1 and 2 and c. 1 2
b. 1 and 2 d. 1 2 and
18. How many measures will it take to execute two (2) Box Square Waltzes?
a. 1 measure c. 3 measures
b. 2 measures d. 4 measures
19. The Dutch step is executed in 34 time signature, and the step pattern is –
a. Slide Cut Hop c. Step Heel-brush Hop
b. Heel-place Close d. Deep-knee Bend Jump (feet apart)
20. Half-foot circle in the air with the L ( R) foot and leap sideward (ct. 1), slide R (L),slide R
(L) to
fourth position (ct. 2), cut R (L) forward with the L ( R ) foot (ct. 3). This is the step pattern
for
–
a. Varsouvienne step c. Rheinlander step
b. Pas de Basque step d. Hopsa step
21. The dance step pattern “Step L across R in front, and twist R foot so that the sole is off the
floor facing outward (ct. 1), transfer weight to R foot and twist the left foot so that the sole
is
off the floor facing outward (ct. 2).” is the pattern for –
a. Hopsa c. Rubber Legs
b. Prysiadka d. Dutch step
22. How many measures will it take to execute four (4) Minuet step moving forward?
a. 4 measures c. 6 measures
b. 7 measures d. 8 measures
23. Which of the following dance steps is executed in 44 time signature?

a. Jumping Jack c. Russian Polka
b. Hungarian turn d. Rheinlander Step
24. In the dance Samba, this is executed, where the entire body sways opposite to the feet (step
forward, sway back; step right, sway left and so forth).
a. Swaying motion c. Pendulum motion
b. Contra body motion d. Rise-and-fall motion
25. The timing effect “Slow Slow Quick Quick Slow “ can be dance counted as-
a. 1 and, 2, 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 3 and, 4
b. 1, 2 and, 3, 4 d. 1, 2 and, 3, 4 and
1. This Japanese word means play and was believed to be the main idea of Oriental Dances.
a. Hara Kiri c. Asobi
b. Sakura d. Kabuki
2. In the ethnic tradition of Philippine dance, what dances transform defenses and livelihood
activities to celebratory dances?
a. Life-cycle dances c. Imitative dances
b. Occupational dances d. Ritual dances
3. Became extremely popular in the 19th century in Europe was a form of quadrille which
combined contredanses and cotillions.
a. Square Dance c. Rigodon
b. Virginia Reel d. French Quadrille
4. In Central Europe, this dance originally from Bohemia and introduced in Paris in 1840 was
feverishly welcomed as a fashionable ballroom dance of tremendous energy.
a. Mazurka c. Polka
b. Waltz d. Galop
5. . In the Cuban tradition, the verb rumbiar simply means -

a. to dance c. to move
b. to turn d. to glide
6. This is a Mexican hat dance of Mexico.

a. Joropo c. Zapateado
b. Jarabe Tapatio d. Cuenca
7. This was a lively dance in triple meter that gained popularity during the time of King Louis
XIV,
the Sun King. The small steps were essential part of the dance.
a. Courante c. Sarabande
b. Pavane d. Minuet
8. John Philip Sousa, the King of March produced many popular marches. This dance was
basically a marching step with interpolated skips became popular.
a. One-step c. Twist
b. Boston Two-step d. Mambo
9. In 1900, this jerky Negro rhythms challenged the smoothly gliding waltz.
a. Cakewalk c. Jitterbug
b. Bunny Hug d. Boogie-Woogie
10. This was classical ballet choreographed in 1890 by Petipa and first performed in Russia.
a. Sleeping Beauty c. Fierbird
b. Midsummer Night’s Dream d. Swan Lake
11. The Russian choreographer who defected to America in 1933 was one of ballet’s greatest
innovators and is considered by many to be the greatest contemporary ballet choreographer.
a. Marius Petipa c. George Balanchine
b. Lev Ivanov d. Michel Fokine
12. She became Europe’s first great modern dancer. She founded an influential dance school in
her native Germany in 1920.
a. Martha Graham c. Ruth St. Denis
b. Mary Wigman d. Doris Humphrey
13. Dance in the ballroom maintained its continuing identity as a polite art. Standard four dances
had been codified in England. Which of the following options contain the standard four
dances?
a. Foxtrot, Rumba, Tango, Quickstep
b. Foxtrot, Waltz, Tango, Quickstep
c. Jive, Paso Doble, Rumba, Cha Cha Cha
d. Cha Cha Cha, Waltz, Foxtrot, Jive
14. The dance Samba is innately –

a. an Argentinian dance c. a Cuban dance
b. a Spanish dance d. a Brazilian dance
15. What dance imitated of the bull fight which stemmed from Spain but was refined for the
ballroom in the Southern region in France, The man represents the matador, the lady his
cape.
a. Paso Doble c. Mambo
b. Samba d. Swing
16. This is the dance term used, when the boy turns to the girl at his left and takes her L hand in
his L hand and turns her once around counterclockwise, then both falling back to places in
a
square formation.
a. Allemande Left c. Allemande Right
b. Circle Left d. Circle Right
17. The couple’s original position in a set.

a. Corner position c. Home position
b. Opposite position d. Costado
18. Leap sideward R(L) (ct. 1), step L ( R ) across R(L) (ct. and), close R(L) to L ( R ) (ct. 2),
pause (ct. and) is the dance pattern of what dance step?
a. Pas de Basque c. Leap step
b. Hopsa d. Polka step
19. All of the following international dance steps can be executed in 24 and 34 time signatures,
EXCEPT –
a. Grapevine c. Bleking
b. Shuffling d. Hopsa
20. Which of the following is the step pattern for Ballroom Waltz/
a. Step close step c. Slide close step
b. Step slide close d. Step step close
21. What makes Russian polka distinct from other polkas?

a. There is the hop on count and of the previous measure.
b. There is an inward foot circle on the air and a hop on count and of the previous
measure.
c. There is the heel brushing first on count and of the previous measure before putting
weight on it.
d. There is the heel-place in front and a toe touch in rear.
22. Which of the following is the step pattern for Prysiadka?

a. Full-knees bend with knees apart, crosshands down in front (ct. 1), jump to standing
position, with feet apart sideward, toes pointed upward and fling arms obliquely
upward, palms facing front (ct. 2).
b. Step R sideward (ct. 1), close L to R (ct. 2) step R sideward (ct. 3), hop on R, swing
the L foot in front (ct. 4).
c. With an inward foot circle in the air of the R (L) foot, hop on L (R) (ct. and of
previous M) and execute the polka step forward crossing the R (L) foot over the L (R)
first (cts. 1 and 2).
d. Full-knee bend on R (L) and stretch L ( R ) leg forward (ct. 1), with a spring reverse
the position of the feet (ct. 2).
23. Richie is tasked to execute four (4) varsouvienne steps by his professor. How many
measures will it take for Richie to complete the task?
a. five measures c. seven measures
b. six measures d. eight measures
24. The 1 –Bar step construction of Jive is “Step Step Jive Chasse”. Which of the following
is its timing?
a. Quick Quick Slow c. Slow Slow Quick Quick Slow
b. Quick Quick Quick a Quick d. Slow Quick Quick
25. The rhythm “Slow Slow Quick Quick Slow “ or “ 2 3 4 and 1” is an off-beat rhythm
for –
a. Rumba c. Cha Cha Cha
b. Samba d. Paso Doble
Focus: Art Education 14%
Competencies: 1. Visual Arts and Its Elements

1.1 Analyze visual arts and its elements
2. Great Philippine Works in Visual Arts
2.1 Recognize and appreciate great Philippine works of arts
3. Asian and Master Works of Arts
3.1 Recognize Asian and master works of national and international artists
1. In Architecture, needs of people are provided for by high-rise buildings through efficient
utilization of limited spaces. How is space maximized in the most comprehensive manner?
A. Reinforced concrete, structural and pre-fabricated units are used for the structure and
plastic, glass and other synthetic materials are used for finishing touches.
B. High-rise structures contain mechanical equipment like air-conditioning units,
elevators, and fire protection systems.
C. A building is built with all functional needs like commercial establishments, offices,
residential areas, parking spaces, and other multi-functional features.
D. Massive and monumental structures are evidences of progress and modernization.
2. When a painting is labeled as “Art for the People”, what particular issue(s) is the main focus
of the artist?
A. Early religious art commissioned by the early church, for believers and pilgrims
B. Art which is commissioned by the ruling powers, for mass propaganda
C. Art which is centered on, or inspired from familiar images of popular culture, such as
advertisements, comics, and commercial products.
D. The connection of art works to various nationalistic struggles, social realism and
activism.
3. From the different techniques in sculpting, carving is considered the most painstaking and
time consuming process. What makes it so?
A. Different tools are used as the artist chips off pieces of the medium little by little until
the desired image is achieved.
B. It involves adding or building up pieces of the medium little by little to form the
desired image
C. A finishing method of firing and glazing is needed at the end of the whole process.
D. The process is composed of two stages: creating a negative, then a positive
4. In technical drawing, perspective is used to locate an object in a space. Which kind of

perspective represents distance by means of converging lines?
A. Foreshortening perspective C. One point perspective
B. Aerial perspective D. Two-point perspective
5. A Javanese term used for particular kinds of theater. It may include shadow puppets, or
wooden rod puppets.
A. Wayang Kulit C. Wayang Golek
B. Wayang D. Wayang Orang
6. Which of the following beliefs/philosophies did not have a great influence on Chinese arts?
A. Buddhism C. Taoism
B. Confucianism D. Shintoism
7. Lines, when used by an artist, may suggest meanings. What meaning/s may be associated with
a vertical line?
A. Depression C. Motion and mobilization
B. Dominance D. Continuity and grace
8. What is the resulting color if we combine of all primary-colored lights?

A. gray C. white
B. black D. brown
9. If an artist uses yellow and violet for his painting, what type of color harmony is he using?
A. Triad C. Double complementary
B. Complementary D. Split complementary
10. The use of one color with different tints or shades is seen in some works of art. What is the
term for using one color with different shades?
A. Light and shadow C. Monochromatic
B. Analogous D. Complementary
11. Which of the following statements about art is false?

A. Art is readily appreciated by all people, regardless of culture.
B. Art refers to a process or product of creative skill.
C. Art reflects the characteristic of a certain period in mankind’s history.
D. Art may be a ‘mimesis’, a representation of reality.
12. When an architect designs a building, he wants to answer ____________________.

A. the needs of men C. the demands of men
B. the satisfaction of men D. all can be considered
13. There are many mediums used in painting. What kind of traditional paint uses egg yolk as its
binder?
A. water color C. oil paint
B. fresco D. tempera
14. Two processes are used in sculpting. One is additive and the other is subtractive. What type
of additive technique is used if you put together different objects or scraps?
A. assemblage C. welding
B. molding D. casting
15. What kind of style in the arts is an unembellished, naturalistic approach to subject matter?
A. Impressionism C. Realism
B. Modernism D. Expressionism
16. After World War I, there were artists who started an aggressive reaction against established
conventions in art and aesthetics. What is the name of this “art movement”?
A. Fauvism C. Expressionism
B. Modernism D. Dadaism
17. Which western art movement was inspired from familiar images of popular culture, such as
advertisements, comics, and commercial products?
A. Expressionism C. Romanticism
B. Pop art D. Commercialism
18. Philippine modern sculptors use different mediums and styles in their pieces. Who is the
sculptor who usually finished his welded sculpture without polishing its surface, as seen in his
works “Tikbakang” and “Penitensiya”?
A. Napoleon Abueva C. Solomon Saprid
B. Arturo Luz D. Eduardo Castrillo
19. A painter/muralist from Angono, Rizal, who is fond of folk scenes. He is also known as
“Botong”.
A. Fernando Amorsolo C. Vicente Manansala
B. Victorio Edades D. Carlos Francisco
20. A sculptor and National Artist from Mindanao known for his sculpture “Sarimanok”.
A. Abdul Mohammed C. Ismail Acar
B. Abdulmari Imao D. Abed Abdi
21. The small figurines for sale in malls are identically produced sculptures. What process is
used to create these items?
A. welding C. casting
B. modeling D. carving
22. The Triumvirate of Modern Art is composed of three popular artists who are promoters of
mural painting. Two of whom are Carlos Francisco and Victorio Edades, Who is the third one?
A. Fabian dela Rosa C. Arturo Luz
B. Galo Ocampo D. Vicente Manansala
23. A tiered tower with several eaves. Its structure is derived from the Indian stupa and is most
commonly Buddhist.
A. Wat C. Pagoda
B. Temple D. Minaret
24. Which Filipino sculptor was known for the Bonifacio Monument in Caloocan, and the UP
Oblation?
A. Napoleon Abueva C. Guillermo Tolentino
B. Solomon Saprid D. Ramon Orlina
25. Painting in China is popularized with the use of two painting instruments/media. What are
these media?
A. watercolor and paper C. wooden panel and tempera
B. oil and canvas D. brush and ink
1. When you create a three-dimensional artwork through different processes such as carving,
modeling, assembling, or casting, the visual art being considered is___________.
A. sculpture C. painting
B. architecture D. printmaking
2. Lines may be used to create an impression of flow and gracefulness. When one is drawing,
which line best suits the characteristic mentioned?
A. diagonal C. straight
B. horizontal D. curved
3. A genre of art in Japan, mainly in the medium of woodblock print. It is an old and common art
form and its subjects include narratives from history, landscapes, and townscapes.
A. Bunraku C. Butsuga
B. Suibokuga D. Ukiyo-e
4. In Hindu and Buddhist mythology, this symbol refers to a female spirit of the clouds and
waters, or a nymph of the sky.
A. Avadana C. Apsara
B. Mandala D. Jataka
5. If you want to make your subject appear to have depth and seem realistic, which element of art
should you focus on?
A. shape C. texture
B. value D. line
6. This principle of design is the most important of all. It refers to the coherence of the elements
of a work to the whole.
A. rhythm C. balance
B. proportion D. unity
7. We like to see things in proper scale. When we see objects having the proper relationships to
each other (in size), the principle of art that we are referring to is_____________.
A. rhythm C. balance
B. proportion D. harmony
8. To attract attention, the emphasis should rest or lie on the subject. The space that helps to
intensify focus on the emphasis is called______________.
A. interest C. action
B. subordinate D. attraction
9. This painting medium is a mixture of pigment and water, applied to wet or dry plaster.
A. fresco C. oil
B. tempera D. water color
10. Some contemporary artists prefer this new painting medium because of its ease of use. It is
synthetic and uses emulsion as its binder. What medium in painting are we referring to?
A. encaustic C. watercolor
B. acrylic D. charcoal
11. This refers to a broad movement in the arts and social sciences which encompasses the
activities and output of those who felt that "traditional" forms of art are outdated.
A. Realism C. Surrealism
B. Cubism D. Modernism
12. Jackson Pollock typically drips or aggressively splashes paint on his canvas. This refers to
which style of painting?
A. Impressionism C. Abstract expressionism
B. Expressionism D. Popular Art or Pop Art
13. After classical trends in Philippine sculpture, later sculptors began to embrace the styles of
modernism in their artworks. Which modern sculptor was known for his works Judas' Kiss and
Transfiguration and Kagampanan?
A. Eduardo Castrillo C. Napoleon Abueva
B. Guillermo Tolentino D. Roberto Feleo
14. Juan Luna's painting, Spoliarium, shows the ill fate of fallen Gladiators after a brutal
tournament. By saying so, what aspect of an artwork are we referring to?
A. Form C. Content
B. Medium D. Context
15. Styles and designs of architectural works reflect the demands of different aspects in life.
Which are considered before designing a structure?
A. Social and economic C. Technological and geographical
B. Political and ideological D. All of the above
16. The Miag-ao, San Agustin, and Paoay church’s architectural designs are in accordance with
which western style?
A. Renaissance C. Neo-Classical
B. Baroque D. Gothic
17. Some native Philippine architecture possesses motifs, like the naga, which may be seen in
other countries. Where did we get this influence?
A. Southeast Asia C. America
B. Spain D. Japan
18. Numerous monumental structures possessing Greco-Roman motifs were built in Manila
during the American occupation. These include the City Hall, the former Legislative building,
and the Post Office. What is the dominant style of these architectural icons?
A. Baroque C. Gothic
B. Renaissance D. Neo-Classical
19. One of the pioneers in Philippine architecture; he was responsible for the rebuilding of the
Quiapo Church in 1930. He is ___________.
A. Juan Arellano C. Jose Mañosa
B. Juan Nakpil D. Leandro Locsin
20. In painting, what is the term in art used for a technique in painting which is utilized to
illustrate a striking contrast between light and dark?
A. Contrapposto C. Caravaggio
B. Chiaroscuro D. Sfumato
21. Which among these Filipino painters is not a modernist?

A. Victorio Edades C. Damian Domingo
B. Arturo Luz D. Vicente Manansala
22. In the 1840s, Jose Honorato Lozano was known for this unique Filipino art form, wherein a
name is painted with letters contrived with people and objects.
A. Miniaturismo C. Genre painting
B. Letras y Figuras D. Modernist painting
23. If you were to build a structure in accordance with the Modernist style, which of the
following would best describe your design?
A. It possesses Greco-Roman motifs. C. It is energetic and ornamented.
B. It is straightforward and minimal. D. All of the above
24. This is a kind of woven fabric made by the T’boli tribe in South Cotabato.
A. hagabi C. bulul
B. t’nalak D. kulintang
25. Some artists paint images from their dreams. Which is a Western art movement where artists
gathered inspiration from the depths of the subconscious mind?
A. Surrealism C. Abstract
B. Expressionism D. Cubism
Focus: Foundations of MAPEH 2%
Competencies: Relate the historical, philosophical, sociological and psychological theories and
principles to the teaching of MAPEH
1. Article XIV, section 19 of the 1987 constitution says, “ The state shall promote physical
education and sports and encourage sports programs and league competitions.” What is
the implication of this constitutional mandate?
a. Physical Education is an important subject in the curriculum and its promotion is
a function of the government.
b. Physical Education is not an optional subject.
c. Physical Education should be separated from sports programs and league
competitions.
d. Physical Education is a dynamic tool for professional competition.
2. Who was the philosopher that emphasized the importance of Physical Education in
attaining health?
a. Plato c. Aristotle
b. Socrates d. Johann Guths Muths
3. The year when Physical Education made a required subject in the curriculum of all public
schools.
a. 1920 c. 1914
b. 1928 d. 1910
4. The Olympic games was revived by the Frenchman Baron Pierre de Ferdy de Coubertin
in
a. 1896 c. 1898
b. 1897 d. 1900
5. When Physical Education teachers want to examine the how and want to know
everything about Physical Education, they use
a. metaphysics c. ontology
b. epistemology d. axiology
6. When we reason or argue in relation to Physical Education, we use

a. logic c. aesthetics
b. linguistics d. aesthetics
7. When the general principles of idealism are applied to the area of physical education and
sport they result in which of the following concepts?
a. Physical Education and Sport involves more than the physical.
b. The curriculum of Physical Education should be varied to provide the diversity of
experiences for learning.
c. Physical activity is important for the development of the total person.
d. Physical Education activities provide opportunities for students to develop self-
awareness and self-responsibility.
8. When the physical education teacher serves as a counselor, promotes reflective thinking
while allowing students to make choices and deal responsibly with the consequences of
those choices, the PE teacher follows what philosophy?
a. Realism c. Idealism
b. Naturalism d. Existentialism
9. When Physical Education teacher seeks to determine the nature of values in Physical
Education, he uses
a. ontology c. metaphysics
b. axiology d.epistemology
10. The physical world is the central focus of the philosophy of realism. Which of the
following does not support the idea of realism in relation to physical education?
I – Education is for life
II – Physical Education should focus to the development of the total person
III – Physical Education is valuable because of its contribution to health
IV – Physical Education involves more than the physical
a. IV only
b. I and II
c. II and IV
d. I only
11. What applies force to the bone to create movement?

a. Muscles c. ligaments
b. tendons d. levers
12. Which organ system has, as its main function, transportation of materials to all cells of
the body?
a. Circulatory (cardiovascular) system
b. Muscular system
c. Excretory system
d. Endocrine system
13. Which of the following statements is/are true?

1. The metatarsals are examples of long bones.
2. Flat bones have a middle layer of spongy bone between two layers of compact
bone
3. Irregular bones consist of compact bone only.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 only
c. 2 only
d. 3 only
14. It controls and modulates all the activities in the body?

a. Bones c. Brain
b. Heart d. Muscles
15. The lymphatic system has the important function (s) of

a. returning fluid and proteins to the blood circulation system
b. controlling body temperature by evaporation of sweat
c. manufacturing all of the white blood cells.
d. transporting fluids out to, and back from, the body tissues.
16. . In addition to unique contributions in the area of fitness and skill development, physical
education is also concerned with
a. cognitive learning c. self-concept
b. affective learning d. all of the above
17. In order to develop positive attitudes in Physical Education, students should

encourage observing the conventions of fair play, honest competition and good sporting
behavior. The outcomes of these objectives are
a. personal and social development c.personal and emotional development

b. personal and physical development d. personal and mental development
1. When the physical education teacher assists a student in making personal and group
adjustments as well as adjustments as a member of society, which of the following
objectives does he want to attain?
a. Physical Fitness Development objective
b. Cognitive Development Objective
c. Motor Skills development objective
d. Social-Emotional-Affective Development Objective
2. Which of the following ally of physical education concerns itself on aesthetic expression
through movements?
a. Sport c. Dance
b. Health d. Games
3. All of the following are attributes of the philosophy of existentialism that influence learning
experiences in physical education, EXCEPT –
a. Competition c. Self-responsibility
b. Creativity d. Self-awareness
4. Self-direction and individualized learning are important in the teaching and learning process
in
physical education. These aspects are emphasized in this philosophical approach.
a. Idealism c. Realism
b. Pragmatism d. Naturalism
5. Although physical activities in the primitive society were practical in nature, primitive men
still
had to participate in recreational activities. Which of the following provided children in the
primitive society preparation for adult responsibilities?
a. Dancing c. Physical exercise
b. Mimetic games d. Chanting
6. A strong Persian army meant a healthy and physically fit army. Persian physical education
was
____.
a. The modality to lift weights, shoots the bow, and handles the sword.
b. Personified by iron discipline, obedient to authority, indifference to pain and suffering,
and obsession to victory in battle.
c. The modality for brutal method of training the body for war which was a prestige
profession.
d. The modality used to develop military skills, high moral standards, and
patriotism.
7. Dancing was popular that a man’s prestige depended on his prowess in it. This could be
traced back from this ancient nation.
a. ancient China c. ancient Egypt
b. ancient India d. ancient Greece
8. Greek sport manifested itself in the concept of the amateur athlete, whose primary goal is
to compete in a “circuit” of four major national games that were designated as the ____.
a. Capitoline Games c. Funeral Games
b. Heraean Games d. Pan-Hellenic Games
9. When was the first recorded Olympic Game that was held at the foot of Mt Olympus and had
a
single event, the stade, a 192-yrd foot race?
a. 476 A.D. c. 776 B.C.
b. 394 A.D. d. 724 B.C.
10. A Greek medical man who used physical education as an aid to medicine as early as
the 5th century.
a. Herodotus c. Galen
b. Hippocrates d. Xenophon
11. Aside from the warriors, Rome grew into a nation of spectators. Spectacular and bloody
gladiatorial combats became popular and were a favorite of the Romans. Where were these
bloody spectacles held?
a. Circus Maximus c. Colosseum
b. Campus Martinus d. Thermae
12. This was a kind of education for the sons of the nobility that was physical, social, and
military
in nature that emerged after the fall of the Western Roman Empire.
a. Asceticism c. Feudalism
b. Scholasticism d. Chivalry
13. With the emergence of this philosophy and its concepts of the “universal man”, physical
education became more valued during the Renaissance period.
a. Realism c. Monism
b. Existentialism d. Humanism
14. “Understanding the influence of feedback, practice, and individual differences especially
how
they relate to the retention and transfer of motor skill” are goals of -
a. Transfer of Learning c. Motor development
b. Motor Control d. Motor Learning
15. What important factor should physical educators be interested of that motivates the
formation of groups?
a. The belief that the child is liked by the other members
b. The belief that the child is accepted.
c. The drive action that is inherent in a child.
d. The child’s self-esteem
16. This philosophical approach assesses dance performance in terms of graceful and expressive
movements.
a. Metaphysics c. Aesthetics
b. Linguistics d. Ethics
17. In teaching for psychomotor learning, the physical educator is concerned with –
a. the acquisition of motor skills.
b. the understanding of concepts presented.
c. the instilling of qualities and values.
d. the realization of learning potentials.
18. During this stage of learning, the physical education teacher provides the learner to work on
mastering the timing needed for the skill.
a. Autonomous stage c. Associative stage
b. Cognitive stage d. Motor development
19. What is the concern of the physical educator in teaching for skill learning?
a. The physical educator is concerned with attitudes, appreciations, and values toward
physical activity.
b. The physical educators is concerned in increasing the individual’s knowledge,
improving problem-solving abilities, clarifying, understanding, and developing and
identifying concepts.
c. The physical educator is concerned with motor learning and motor control.
d. The physical educator is concerned with the development of motor skills.
20. The physical education teacher grouped the students in his class and gave important task to
be accomplished. One of his objectives is to give opportunity to each member of the group
to make his own decision. This is opportunity for the students to –
a. acquire the need for affection
b. feel the sense of belongingness
c. be independent
d. achieve social approval
21. Which of the following statement reflects a pragmatic teacher of physical education?
a. Provides activities that give students the opportunity to develop the qualities of
honesty, courage, creativity, and sportsmanship.
b. When the physical educator uses the problem-solving method in teaching an activity
to effect learning.
c. Provides individualized learning through self-activity that leads to the attainment of
individual goals.
d. Uses drills extensively after instructions.
22. All of the following statements are naturalistic view of physical education EXCEPT
a. Developmentally appropriate physical activities at all levels of instruction are
used.
b. Activities are socializing in nature
c. Physical educators emphasize individualized learning.
d. The physical educator allows normal growth.
23. This refers to a condition within an individual that initiates activity directed toward a goal.
Needs and drives form its basic framework.
a. Reinforcement c. Individual Differences
b. Motivation d. Readiness
24. It is using events, actions, and behaviors to increase the likelihood of a certain response.
a. Reinforcement c. Level of Development
b. Motivation d. Independence
25. In any learning situation, what must the physical educator understand in terms of social and
economic backgrounds, physical abilities, intelligence and preferred learning styles, and
personality among students.
a. Individual Differences c. Need for Affection
b. Cooperation d. Responsibility
1. The legal basis of physical education and sport is stipulated in what article and section of the
1986 Constitution?
a. Article XI, Section 19 c. Article XIII, Section 19
b. Article XII, Section 19 d. Article XIV, Section 19
2. Motor skill development objective of Physical Education is concerned with –

a. The development of the various organic system of the body is necessary for an
individual to have the ability to sustain adaptive efforts, to recover and to resist fatigue.
b. Developing body awareness, making purposeful physical movement with a little
expenditure of energy as possible, and being proficient, graceful, and aesthetic in this
movement.
c. The accumulation of knowledge and the ability to think and interpret this knowledge.
d. Assisting an individual in making personal and group adjustments as well as adjustments
as a member of society.
3. This philosophy influenced the teaching of physical education in terms of problem-solving,

consideration of individuals’ needs and interest, development of individuals’ social skills, and
cooperation.
a. Idealism c. Naturalism
b. Realism d. Pragmatism
4. Understanding concepts and self-development in physical education is influenced by the

philosophy of –
a. Idealism c. Naturalism
5. He established the German Turnverein movement, where his members led the drive toward a
unified democracy and social change in the German states. He was then considered the father
of physical education.
a. Richard Mulcaster c. Friedrich Jahn
b. Johann Gutsmuths d. Franz Nachtegall
6. The Secondary Education Development Program (SEDP) is a response to continue pupil

development started by the Program for Decentralized Educational Development in 1982.,
The New Secondary Education Curriculum (NSEC) of SEDP is cognitive-affective-
manipulative-based and is student-centered and community-oriented. One of the 8 subject
areas in the NSEC is Physical Education, Health and Music (PEHM). This is based on what
order?
a. DECS Order No. 11, s. 1989
b. Department Order No. 20 s. 1973
c. MEC Order No. 6 s. 1982
d. DECS Order No. 53 s. 1994
7. Romans believed that exercise was only for health and military purposes. All of the following
had no value or had little appeal to the Romans, EXCEPT –
a. Greek formal athletic competition and training.
b. The Greek concept of health gymnastics.
c. Greek nudity and development of the body beautiful.
d. Athleticism
8. Greek sport manifested itself in the concept of the amateur athlete, whose primary goal is to
compete in a “circuit” of four major national festivals that were designated as the Pan-
Hellenic
Festivals. What is the most popular among the four?
a. Isthmia Festival c. Nemea Festival
b. Olympic Festival d. Pythia Festival
9. In the Philippines, this is autonomous in character have exclusive technical control over the
promotion and development of the particular sport for which they are organized.
c. Philippine Olympic Committee c. National Sports Associations
d. SEAP Games Federation d. Olympic Council of Asia
10. The Romans developed their own system of physical training. They demanded the
promotion
of –
c. athleticism c. individualism
d. team unity d. agon
11. The Philippines joined the 1924 Olympic Games in Paris for the first time. It was a two-
man delegation sent by the Philippine Amateur Athletic Federation. Dr. Regino R. Ylanan
was the representative official and coach. The athlete who was a Philippine scout and
competed in the 100 m. and 200 m. dash, but was eliminated in the trial heats .
a. Teofilo Yldefonso c. Simeon Toribio
b. David Nepomuceno d. Jose Villanueva
12. She brought home the gold medals twice in a row in the Asian Games in the 100-meter dash
and the silver medal in 200-meters. She earned the title Asia’s fastest woman in the 1980s.
a. Elma Muros c. Lydia de Vega
b. Bong Coo d. Jennifer Rosales
13. “What is the highest standard of behavior each person should strive to attain?” is a
philosophical question that is emphasized in the teaching of physical education, especially
in
sport. This philosophical question pertains to –
a. Axiology c. Aesthetics
b. Ethics d. Logic
14. Understanding how the muscles and joints are coordinated during movement, how a
sequence of movements is controlled, and how to use environmental information to plan
and
adjust movement are goals of –
a. Motor Development c. Motor learning
b. Motor Skill d. Motor Control
15. A theory developed by Guts Muths that emphasizes the recreative values of play, and play
as a means of revitalization.
a. Spencer theory c. Social-expression theory
b. Instinct theory d. Recreation theory
16. When coaches select training techniques based on the scientific evidence of their
effectiveness, and would use systematic, progressive approach in designing practices, he is
an advocate of the philosophy of –
a. Idealism c. Existentialism
17. What does the physical education teacher consider in deciding whether to teach the skill by
the whole or by part method.
a. the task to be learned
b. the nature of the task and the background of the learner
c. the requirement of the skill
d. the plateaus
18. In teaching the folk dance, Mr. Redondo’s concern is to develop a proper attitude towards
folkdance, appreciation and values. These factors are attributed to –
a. Cognitive learning c. Affective learning
b. Psychomotor learning d. Transfer of learning
19. Miss Demonstrador wanted to effect learning among her students most rapidly when
she
gave them instructional experiences that geared to individual’s physical and intellectual
abilities. This means that she believes in –
a. Piaget c. Schiller
b. Freud d. Manson
20. A recreation leader emphasizes the benefits of play for the development of both the sense of
self and social self of the students. With this in mind, he believes in -
a. G. Stanley Hall c. Karl Groos
b. Herbert Spencer d. Luther Halsey Gulick
21. The philosophical question “ What process should a researcher use to determine the value
of physical education to program participants?” is related to the philosophy of –
a. Axiology c. Epistemology
b. Ethics d. Logic
22. The physical education teacher uses this philosophical approach when he validates the
knowledge pertaining to physical activity and its influence on the development of the
individual.
a. Axiology c. Epistemology
b. Ethics d. Logic
23. It is the study of the origins of and changes in movement behavior throughout lifespan.
a. Motor Learning c. Motor Control
b. Motor Development d. Skill Learning
24. The desire and willingness to learn a particular skill will depend on this factor that influence
learning.
a. Readiness c. Level of Development
b. Physical abilities d. Reinforcement
25. He viewed play and its natural extensions (games and sport) as ideal mechanisms of
development, an ideal type of exercise for the young, most favorable for the growth, and
most
self-regulating.
a. Thomas Dennison Wood c. Jessie Bancroft
b. Jacob Riis d. G. Stanley Hall
Focus: Methods and Strategies in PE 3%

Competencies: 1. Apply teaching techniques and approaches with emphasis on classroom and
outdoor/field class management
2. Develop and prepare instructional materials and motivational aids
ON PHYSICAL EDUCATION
1. When you include the physical fitness levels, physical skills, knowledge, socio-emotional
behaviors, and attitudes toward the activity in your teaching style, it means that you are
analyzing the style of teaching in terms of –
a. Teacher planning and set up
b. Student behavior during the lesson
c. Teacher behavior during the lesson
d. Student outcome variable
2. A direct teaching activity that allows students to imitate from demonstration or infer from
observation the behavior to be learned.
a. Lecturing c. Modeling
b. Discovering d. Inquiring
3. After discussing the parts of the body that are important in making movements, Miss Garcia
proceeded to the next activity for her to find out how aware her students are with their body.
“Find a way to make your body crooked”, she said. There were many elicited responses. This
teaching style is a type of-
a. Guided Discovery c. Creative Work
b. Movement Interpretation d. Exploration
4. For the station approach in a task style of teaching, the following are considered , EXCEPT-
a. Use task cards and tape them on the wall or to boundary cones or place them on the
floor.
b. Give a copy of the tasks on a sheet of paper to take them to each station.
c. The tasks should cover all the basic skills of an activity.
d. Give an in-depth lecture on the tasks, and then proceed to the activity.
5. In using the convergent style of teaching, which of the following is a complex problem?
a. What are the different ways of tossing the volleyball to your spiker?
b. How can you make your back as close as possible to the floor with your legs on the
air?
c. What is the best offensive solution when a defender is playing a very tight defense in
basketball?
d. In shot put, what is the best angle of release for maximum distance?
6. Ms. Lopez was successful in dealing with exploration when she taught movement skills in
her class. When asked how she did it, she answered “ I took advantage of the students’ love
of movement experimentation and allowed among them the free exercise of natural curiosity.
Above all, I avoided something that will lead them to imitation and noncreative behavior.”
What did Ms. Lopez avoid?
a. Encouraging, clarifying, and answering questions individually.
b. Demonstrations and praising results early.
c. Motivating efforts, since the student is responsible for being self-directed learner.
d. Offering the students opportunity for self-direction in small doses.
7. Which of the following subject matters can creative work be applied?

a. Folk dance c. Social dance
b. Interpretative dance d. Square dance
8. After all the physical activities have been done in the class, Mr. Robles assessed the affective
learning of his students. Which of the following assessment procedure did Mr. Robles
possibly use?
a. Journal entries to monitor feelings c. Peer assessment
b. Paper-and-pencil test d. Performance checklist
9. If the physical education teacher is assessing the students’ ability to skip with a mature
movement pattern, he is using –
a. Physical fitness test c. Psychomotor skill assessment
b. cognitive assessment d. Affective assessment
10. What is the responsibility of the physical education teacher in an inquiry instruction?
a. Helps the students converge on one right answer.
b. Stimulates the students’ curiosity about the subject matter to enhance their
involvement.
c. Explains and demonstrates the activity.
d. Command and tell students to imitate.
11. Miss Regala allowed time for her students to play games, upon observation she stopped them
to offer helpful feedback and refined their play strategies, and she let them return
immediately to play. Miss Regala applied the-
a. Creative work c. Mastery Learning
b. Command style d. Play-teach-play method
12. Mr. Samson is assessing the step-by-step sequence of underhand serve of his students. What
appropriate assessment can he use?
a. Peer assessment c. Process assessment
b. Performance assessment d. Self assessment
13. When you assess how the students understood the movement concepts, you employ –
a. Written test c. Performance checklist
b. Affective paper-and-pencil survey d. Task sheet as rubrics
ON HEALTH EDUCATION
14. The following are postulates of successful teaching EXCEPT

a. The most important factor in the educational process is the teacher
b. There is no one best way to teach
c. Adherence to the diagnostic/prescriptive approach is essential
d. The most important factor in the educational process is the student
15. As a health educator, Miss Cruz is in-charge of the school clinic the absence of a school
nurse and physician. She gives first aid to students and teachers who encounter minor
injuries, sends students to the nearest health center when needed, and assists the MAPEH
teachers in appraising the nutritional status of the students by taking their height and weight.
Which role of Miss Cruz was not mentioned as a part of the school health team?
a. Counseling c. Referrals
b. Screening d. Coordination
16. Mr. dela Cruz is planning to demonstrate the ill effects of cigarette smoking to a person’s
health. Which of the following strategy is best suited to achieve his objectives?
a. Shield Activity c. Dilemma
b. Experiment d. Open-ended statements
17. Verbal and Discussion –Oriented strategies have been proven effective in health instruction
except for topics in
a. Family Planning c. First Aid
b. Drug Education d. Consumer Health
18. Teacher Joyce is using socialized recitation to motivate students to speak out their views
about early marriage. When she called Mario to stand-up and give his view, he stuttered.
Teacher Joyce did not give up and waited until Mario was able to give his view. The interval
between asking a question and the student’s response is referred to as
a. directing c. commenting/paising
b. probing d. wait time
19. A group of students are planning to address the garbage problem in their community. During
their brainstorming several measures were suggested by all the members. Soon after, they
divided the work among themselves to accomplish the task. Which of the following
techniques is illustrated in this type of activity?
a. limited exploration style c. problem-solving style
b. unlimited exploration style d. cooperative learning style
20. Most school systems have access to educational television programs. These include
“Bayani”, “Sine Eskwela”. “National Geographic ”,and the like. To which type of Media
instruction do they fall?
a. Television and videotape c. Records and Tape Recording
b. Computer-Assisted Instruction d. Films and slide
21. Good places for health-related field trips away from the school include the following except
a. local health department c. a food processing plant
b. resort facilities d. sewage treatment facility
22. To personalize health concepts, students must relate to health instruction from the affective
domain. An excellent strategy for achieving this goal is through the use of
a. verbal and discussion-oriented strategies
b. values clarification strategies
c. action-oriented strategies
d. use of media
23. The class of Mr. Reyes is composed of drop-outs and regular students whose age ranges from
16 to30 years old. What could be a better way of organizing them for a team project?
a. group them according to age so they can work well
b. let them select their own group so they will not have a problem
c. mix them in a group for cooperative learning
d. let them work as one group with the teacher as the facilitator
24. Miss Santos wants to reinforce health concepts through vocabulary building. Which of the
following can she include as part of her activities?
a. Bulletin boards c. Debate
b. Lecture-discussion d. Crossword puzzles
25. In order to present clearly the different systems of the body, which of the following can
Teacher Tess prepare for her lecture?
a. flip chart c. overlays
b. specimens d. exhibits
ON PHYSICAL EDUCATION
1. The teacher directs the students, “Step right foot across the left foot in front, step the left foot
close to the right foot, and step right foot in place!”. The student complied and participated.
a. Inquiry style of instruction c. Command style of instruction
b. Exploration d. Task style of instruction
2. When the physical education teacher uses problem-solving strategy dance class, his
assessment may be in the form of –
a. Task sheet as a rubrics c. Performance checklist
b. Rubrics for movement skills d. Process evaluation
3. What are the appropriate assessments for gymnastic skills?
a. Physical fitness testing c. Sharing of thoughts and feelings
b. Affective questionnaire d. Journal entries to monitor feelings
4. When you give the students activities on movement, exploring the movement possibilities of
“moving as if…” and “moving like…’, you are giving your students the opportunities for –
a. Mastery Learning c. Movement exploration
b. Movement interpretation d. Creative work
5. “Which way seems to give you the most control of the ball?”, “”Use a roll of your choice to
smoothly link two balances.”, and “How can you best protect the ball while dribbling down
the court?” are some examples of an alternative ways to address issues of critical thinking
when you use this style of teaching.
a. Indirect style c. Direct style
b. Exploration d. Interpretation
6. In this style a specific external reward system is attached to the accomplishment of the task,
and this arrangement increases the motivational level of the students. The tasks are arranged
progressively so that they increase in difficulty. This type is especially effective with
physical activities that require the development of individual skills.
a. Task instruction c. Inquiry instruction
b. Contract Instruction d. Problem-Solving
7. The physical education teacher employed this strategy by arranging her class with variety of
groupings. She lets her students work alone, focusing on the specific task given. The students
rotated through each learning station and work on the assigned tasks.
a. Problem-Solving c. Contract Instruction
b. Inquiry Instruction d. Task Instruction
8. This teaching strategy is used by physical educators because they want to elicit synchronize
response from the class.
a. Task instruction c. Command style
b. Inquiry d. Exploration
9. This provides instructional strategies that encouraged the processes of generalization and
discrimination for the purpose of forming concepts, patterns, and abstractions.
a. Deductive Method c. Inductive Method
b. Direct Model d. Indirect Model
10. Mr. Beltran is developing the individual skills of his students. It is possible that he is using
the-
a. Individualized style c. Guided Discovery
b. Prpblem –solving method d. Movement Interpretation
11. When Miss Rodriguez wants her students to create dance movements, allowing them fully to
discover for themselves dance patterns out of the learned motor skills, she is utilizing –
a. Exploration technique c. Guided-discovery technique
b. Problem-solving d. Inquiry
12. What assessment will Mrs. Alonso use, if she wants to focus on performance outcome in
terms of measurable increments of what her students accomplished.
a. Process assessment c. Written test
b. Product assessment d. Performance checklist
ON HEALTH EDUCATION
13. When engaging in any value clarification activity the teacher must consider the following
except:
a. to allow the students to assess their own feelings about the issue under examination
b. to allow the students to feel free to assess their values without fear of being ridiculed
c. to teach own personal values or the “correct” values
d. to allow students to decline from speaking
14. Which of the following objectives is correctly stated in affective domain

a. The student will be able to demonstrate positive attitude towards health situations
b. The student will demonstrate an understanding of cooperation in a given situation.
c. The student will be able to develop positive self concept through relevant and positive
experiences.
d. The student will be able to help others develop a desirable self-concept.
15. Which of the following is not true in the teaching of values in health education?
a. Values are learned through a variety of experiences and interaction with the
environment
b. A teacher’s job is to impose his values on the student so that they will develop the
values expected of them
c. Students will learn values when teachers provide factual information about health
and allowing them to clarify their feelings
d. teachers can help students understand how information, attitudes an behavior affect
quality of life
16. Which of the following does not belong to values clarification strategies used in health
education?
a. dramatization c. decision stories
b. educational games d. shield activities
17. The class of Mr. San Pedro is composed of irregular students whose age ranges from 14 -18
years old. What could be a better way of organizing them for a team project?
a. group them according to age so they can work well
b. let them select their own group so they will not have a problem
c. mix them in a group for cooperative learning
d. let them work as one group with the teacher as the facilitator
18. Discussion strategies have been proven effective in health instruction except for topics in
a. Family Planning c. First Aid
b. Drug Education d. Consumer Health
19. A variety of action-oriented or student-centered strategies can be used to make health

instruction livelier. Which of the following best describes these types of activities
a. These strategies help students discover concepts
b. The strategies incorporate at least two of the senses can greatly facilitate learning
c. These strategies include computers, television and videotape, films, filmstrips, slides,
overhead transparencies, and records and audiotapes.
d. These activities range from seatwork activities to field trips.
20. Teaching in content areas such as family life, drug education, and HIV education can be a
difficult task. To avoid controversies and heated arguments on sensitive subject matters, a
health educator must do the following except
a. present an accurate and factual information
b. present results of studies obtained from health journals
c. present information from authorities in health
d. present religious beliefs, personal values and attitudes
21. Regardless of the strategy employed, the teacher must strive to create a classroom
environment that is conducive for learning. the following are things that a teacher can do to
facilitate a positive learning climate, EXCEPT –
a. Identify instructional objectives and discuss them with the students so that the intent is
clear concerning what is expected.
b. give careful attention to the physical condition of the classroom.
c. Show familiarity with evaluation devices, instruments and techniques.
d. Handle disciplinary problems with tact and good judgment.
22. One of the simplest and most appropriate values-related activities for younger students is the
Shield Activity. Which of the following describes the correct procedure?
1. Have the students fill out the shield.
2. Thoroughly introduce the experience.
3. Carry out the task.
4. Go over the experience.
a. 2,1,3,4 c. 2,4,3,1
b. 1,2,3,4 d. 3,1,4,2
23. Teacher Stephanie invited the school physician to talk about sensitive topics on reproductive
health. In contacting the resource, the following information must be provided by teacher
Stephanie, EXCEPT –
a. The audio-visual aids to use for the lecture.
b. The time allotted for the open forum for the question and answer session.
c. Information about the class including the developmental level.
d. the specific topic to be discussed.
24. Computers have great potential in the teaching of health education. However, there are
concerns of which the teacher must be aware such as the availability of the c
computer in the classroom, the high cost of software and the incompatibility of different
systems. Which of the following is not true pertaining to the use of computer assisted
instruction?
a. The development of personal computers and CD-ROMs has led to an increasing use of
computers in the classroom.
b. Computer instructional programs tend to make use any of the six types which include
drill and practice, tutorial, demonstration, simulations, instructional games, and problem
solving.
c. The Computer Assisted Instruction helps make verbal explanations more meaningful
because they involve senses.
d. One of the benefits of CAI is the student involvement in the selection and evaluation of
information.
25. Which of the following can assess the health practices of the students?
a. Objective type of test c. practical test
b. Inventory checklist d. Demonstration
Focus: Organization and Management 2%
Competencies: 1. Relate concepts of organization and management of the different

areas/issues/concerns of MAPEH activities (Personnel/facilities/budget/liabilities etc.)
Competency-Based Practice Test
1. Which of the following objectives were enhanced through participation in the intramural
program resulted from the knowledge learned from the regular class program in physical
education.
1. Health objectives
2. Social Objectives
3. Skill Objectives
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 3 only
2. One of the factors that is not consider for effective administration of intramural activities
is
A. testing for purposes of study and research.
B. conference of coaches and officials.
C. ground rules to serve as guidelines.
D. funds to run the competition.
3. Which of the following is an objective of intramural management?
A. Desirable qualities are develop
B. Contribute to the development of individual
C. Knowledge of the game is enhance
D. Nurture a healthy spirit of competition, sportsmanship and teamwork
4. The effective administration of intramural activities takes into account several factors.
Which of the following factors clarifies any aspect of the activity?
A. Ground rules to serve as guidelines for everyone
B. Funds to run the competition
C. Coaches and Managers
D. Schedule of games
5. Which of the following functions of management pertains to identifying, subdividing,

grouping and coordinating the various activities in running the intramural program?
A. Organizing C. Staffing
B. Planning D. Directing
6. Professional training in physical education is the most appropriate qualification for

persons selected to provide intramural leadership in the school setting. Which of the
following competencies one must acquire?
1. Understanding of growth, psychological, and motor development of individuals
2. Knowledge of sports safety and first aid
3. Knowledge of tournament planning and methods of establishing leagues
4. A sense of fun.
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 D. 3 and 4
7. Which of the following is an essential quality of an official?

A. Physical Fitness C. Knowledge of the game
B. Official-Player rapport D. Physical Fitness
8. If you are given the task to run your intramural program in your school, which of the
following management functions will you apply in terms of identifying the objective to
be pursued, the means to achieve it, and allocating the resources of your program?
A. Planning C. Controlling
B. Directing D. Staffing
9. Intramural games are part of the extra-class activities of students. Which type of
tournament must be used if the best team is expected to win the championship?
A. Round Robin C. Double Elimination
B. Single Elimination D. Ladder Type
10. In identifying the number of games to be played, what formula should be used for a
single round robin type of tournament?
A. N (N-1)/2 C. G=N-1
B. 2 (10-1) D. (N-1) 2
11. What basic formula determines the number of byes?

A. P2-N C. G=N-1
B. (N-1) 2 D. N (N-1)/2
12. How many numbers of byes are there in a double elimination tournament when there are
9 teams competing?
A. 7 C. 4
B. 2 D. 6
13. It is the type of tournament being use when there are big number of participants and less
number of facilities and time available.
A. Single Elimination C. Round Robing
B. Double Elimination D. Pyramid
14. The formula for getting the total number of games in double elimination is
A. 2 (N-1) C. N-1
B. N(N-1)/2 D. N(N-2
15. When there are 6 teams competing in a double elimination tournament, the number of
byes in the first round is
A. 2 C. 6
B. 4 D. 8
16. Which of these systems is used to resolve a tie between two teams?
A. win-over-the other C. quotient system
B. win-lose system D. point system
17. What is the primary reason that a manager or director should conduct a needs
assessment?
A. To determine the specific needs and interests of the target market.

B. To determine the quality of potential applicant for a position that could be hire in
the area
C. To determine the needs of management before developing the budgets
D. To determine the need for new or different equipment.
18. Program description, resource availability, and student interest are examples of
A. a business plan C. budget categories
B. a survey D. management factors.
19. The training of athletes involves a program that takes into consideration the principles of
progression, overload and specificity. Which of the following aspects of training does not
take care of these principles?
A. conditioning exercises C. psychology of coaching
B. warm-up variations D. rigid training
20. Which of the following committees take the initial planning in an athletic meet?
A. Organizing committee C. Committee on arrangements
B. Equipment committee D. Finance committee
Focus: Special Education in MAPEH 2%
Competencies: Apply teaching competencies, skills, techniques and approaches for specific
special need of students
Competency-Based Practice 1
1. An Act providing for the rehabilitation, self-development, and self-reliance of disabled

persons and their integration into the mainstream of society is known as
A. RA 7277
B. RA 7394
C. RA 8749
D. RA 344
2. Mrs. Pablo handles a regular class with one mainstreamed blind student. What can she do
during PE class
A. Exempt the student
B. Modify instruction
C. Modify activity
D. Give other classroom work
3. A MAPEH teacher happens to handle an ADHD student. What can the teacher do during
the PE period when he starts to bully other classmates
A. Reprimand him and take him out of the activity
B. Make him in-charge of the distribution and retrieval of sports equipment
C. Group him with other bullies
D. Make him a leader of a group
4. A partially sighted student would like to join the dance club. What could the dance
adviser do to accommodate the special student
A. Allow the student to audition together with the other normal students
B. Give special consideration to a special student
C. Do not allow him to join the club because it will difficult for him to adjust
D. Let other dancers tutor him
5. Teacher Joyce is a MAPEH teacher who has five students with special needs in her Art
class. One of the students has emotional and behavior disorders and has difficulty staying
on task, not disrupting others and raising his hand when he has something to say.
Unfortunately, several students seemed to be learning his "bad" behavior instead of him
learning the good behavior of the other students. Which of the following measures should
teacher Joyce use to solve the problem:
A. use peer recognition
B. ignore the situation on purpose
C. use punishment
D. time out
6. An important factor that positively affects students with physical and health handicapping
situation in Music and Art class is the extent to which they are busy in purposeful,
authentic activities. Which of the following does not describe adapting for instruction:
A. Look for opportunities for rewards and punishments
B. Use different groupings to give students the opportunity to acquire the skills
C. Modify instruction or the activity
D. Get students interests in accomplishing the task
7. Severe disabilities are often described as a condition in which typical life activities are
significantly affected. Which of the following is not a severe disability?
A. deaf-blind
B. autism
C. hard of hearing
D. speech disorder
8. Tests are a way to find out what students have learned. The best way to discover
what students have learned is
A. to use standardized test
B. to use teacher-made tests
C. to use assessment portfolio
D. to use student-friendly tests
9. This law aims to fully integrate differently-abled persons into the mainstream of
Philippine society. It reinforces the rights and privileges of PWDs, who are now entitled
to a minimum of 20 percent discount on various services such as hotel and lodging,
restaurants, recreation centers, theaters, cinemas, carnivals, and concerts, among others.
A. RA 9442
B. RA 344
C. RA 9165
D. RA 772
10. Accessibility law is an act that enhances the following except:

A. mobility of disabled persons
B. establishment of public utilities
C. Installation of Devices
D. twenty percent discount for products and services
11. All of the following statements pertaining to mainstreaming are correct except.
A. Mainstreaming allows special students to interact with regular class peers and reduces
the effects of labeling.
B. Most special students receive the majority of their education in the special school.
C. Regular class teacher contributes to the success of mainstreaming by participating in
the assessment, program planning, IEP development and placement decisions
D. Most special students can succeed in the mainstream.
12. Students are referred to special education if they have special needs which interfere with
their school performance and if their needs cannot be adequately met within the regular
educational program. If a student has difficulty with one or more senses and mobility,
what need must be addressed by the special school?
A. Classroom behavior needs
B. Physical needs
C. Academic needs
D. Social needs
13. These students are characterized by above average performance on measures of

intellectual performance; they may excel academically in all subjects or be particularly
advanced in one.
A. Talented students
B. Gifted students
C. Excellent students
D. Advanced students
14. Reinforcements have strong effects upon a preferred behavior if done in appropriate
timing. What type of reinforcement makes use of hugs, positive comments, and a pat on
the back?
A. Tangible reinforcement
B. Edible reinforcement
C. Social reinforcement
D. Activity reinforcement
15. Many special students encounter difficulty in social interactions with regular class peers
and teachers. Most common sources of the problem are the following except
A. The behavior of the special student
B. The attitudes and behavior of the regular students
C. School staff and administration’s lack of knowledge about special students
D. Parents of special students who are overly protective
16. The following statements about disabilities and handicaps are correct except
A. A student may be disabled without being handicapped.
B. A disability is some sort of impairment.
C. Male students with special needs are more common than female students.
D. Physical disability is directly related to intelligence.
17. Which of the following statement best explains modification for special students?
A. When regular students have questions regarding the mainstreamed students, the
teacher must answer them promptly and honestly.
B. Before a special student becomes a member of the class, the regular teacher prepares
the other students by not only talking about the special student’s disability but also
about his/her interests, hobbies and talents.
C. Regular classroom teachers must group students with special needs with other
students with learning needs.
D. Call special attention to mainstreamed students. There should be a special treatment,
special assignment and must be given privately.
18. Identify the correct sequence of activities when a regular classroom teacher wants an
individualized instruction
1. selection of the learning task
2. apply skills from the previous concepts
3. present the materials for the task
4. master the learning task
5. practice the learning task
A. 1,2,3,4,5
B. 1,3,4,5,2
C. 1,3,5,4,2
D. 1,2,4,3,5
19. Which of the following is not true about the use of drugs in management of
hyperactivity?
A. Drug treatment should be considered a permanent solution to a youngster’s problem.
B. During the course of drug treatment, the child should periodically be drug free.
C. Drugs should be considered only when there is a demonstration of inordinately
inappropriate behavior.
D. Before drug treatment is implemented, behavior modification procedures or remedial
techniques should be attempted.
20. When is the right time to prepare the IEP?

A. When the resource room is ready
B. When assessment is complete
C. When remediation is completed
D. When the child is enrolled
21. Special students can earn time to use media such as film, film strips, videotapes, and
television as
A. Rewards for appropriate behavior
B. Direct instruction in interpersonal skill
C. An aid in the presentation
D. An aid to monitor independent practice
22. Mildly retarded students have special needs in academic, classroom behavior, physical
needs and social performance. Which of the following are indicators of mild retardation?
A. Acting out or withdrawn behavior
B. Sensory impairment
C. Slow rate of learning
D. Excels in one or two areas
23. The following are descriptions of language disorder except

A. The inability to communicate using symbols
B. Inability to use appropriate grammatical pattern
C. Difficulty in producing sounds
D. Proper use of speech sounds
24. Which of the following government agencies is in-charge of the special education
program in the Philippines?
A. Commission on Higher Education
B. Bureau of Elementary Education
C. Bureau of Secondary Education
D. Department of Education
25. The following classification of special students have physical needs except
A. Learning disabilities
B. Mental retardation
C. Vision/Hearing Impaired
D. Speech/Language disorder
1. Which of the following statements is true about special students?

A. Children with special needs can be effectively integrated in the regular PE
program.
B. Children with special needs are educated in the least restrictive environment.
C. Students with mental retardation, physical and health disabilities, and autism are
admitted in the mainstream.
D. The Bureau of Secondary Education takes care of the SPED programs in the
DepEd.
2. Children with the following disability constitute the greatest percentage of exceptional
children in the public school
A. Learning disability
B. Mental retardation
C. Physical and Health handicapped
D. Visual Impairment
3. Students with mild mental retardation has an IQ of

A. 40-50
B. 50-70
C. 70-80
D. 80-90
4. Ten percent of all persons with mental disability are born with a chromosomal
abnormality which results to
A. Cerebral Palsy
B. Hearing Impairment
C. Down Syndrome
D. Epilepsy
5. It is a condition of recurring seizures that is initiated by abnormal electrical charges in the

brain.
A. Cerebral Palsy
B. Down Syndrome
C. Seizure Disorder
D. Perceptual-Motor Deficiencies
6. Sensory impairment and neurological disorders include all of the following except
A. Perceptual-Motor Deficiencies
B. Hearing Impairment
C. Seizure Disorders
D. Visual Impairment
7. The following are contents of the Individualized Education Program (IEP) except
A. Summary of present level performance
B. Annual goals
C. IEP committee members Agreement
D. Daily goals
8. The following are symptoms of perceptual-motor deficiencies except

A. Body image
B. Balance
C. Hand-eye and foot-eye coordination
D. Tactile awareness
9. Eating disorders associated with obesity among special students include anorexia nervosa
and bulimia. The criteria for obesity depend upon the assessment approach used which is
A. Physical Fitness test
B. Skinfold caliper
C. Treadmill test
D. Food Intake Analysis
10. This type of impairment denotes any congenital or acquired impairment that has
produced a motor disability.
A. Traumatic brain injury
B. Orthopedic impairments
C. Postural deviations
D. Cardio-respiratory disorders
11. The term physically awkward refers to children who do not suffer from a known
neurological or physical disability, yet have difficulty learning and performing basic
motor skills. The following are common warning signs except
A. Late in walking
B. Poor catching skills
C. Difficulty coping with friends
D. Dislike of climbing equipment
12. The following descriptors are inherent in physically awkward children except
A. Poor school achievement
B. Reading difficulties
C. Low self-esteem and self-concept
D. Balance and spatial orientation
13. Parents, teachers, and school officials have always been concerned about children’s
posture because it has something to do with a child’s personality. Which of the following
is the primary cause postural problems
A. Chronic television watching
B. Inadequate daily exercise
C. Slanting desks
D. Poor lighting
14. The organizational structure of station work for special students in physical education is
more effective with the use of
A. Task cards
B. Peer tutor
C. Circuit training
D. Obstacle course
15. Stations are particularly useful when attempting to individualized the instruction program
for the different physical activities. Which of the following activities is appropriate for
three children with moderate limitations and cannot participate in rigorous activities?
A. Rope climbing
B. Small equipment use
C. Mat activities
D. Vaulting box
16. One major challenge in the field of special education program is inclusion. Inclusion is
originally called
A. Streamlining
B. Mainstreaming
C. Integration
D. Individualizing
17. Students with rheumatic fever can be dealt with which of the following guidelines?
A. The amount and type of physical activity must be prescribed by a physician.
B. Teachers should not allow students to participate in physical activities.
C. Parents should report to the teachers the early signs of fatigue.
D. Take the child’s pulse before any physical activity is started.
18. Two most common respiratory impairments are asthma and cystic fibrosis. Most
asthmatic children can participate in the regular activities except when any of these
situations is present except
A. Heavy coughing
B. Heavy wheezing
C. Tightening of chest
D. High Fever
19. The State shall therefore promote and maintain equality of access to education as well as
the enjoyment of benefits of education by all its citizens. Which is the legal basis for this?
A. RA 9165
B. BP 232
C. BP 344
D. RA 7277
20. Studies of the most accommodating teaching and participation effects for various
children with special needs who require great amounts of assistance emphasize the use of
A. Individualized instruction
B. Peer tutor
C. Collaborative work
D. Group approach
21. In terms of the public school system, students who possess this level of mental disability
are classified as educable.
A. Mild or moderate
B. Moderate or severe
C. Mild or profound
D. Profound or moderate
22. The following guidelines will help teachers integrate students with visual impairments
into the regular physical education program except
A. Use bright colored objects to encourage children to use their residual vision
B. Use tactile and auditory boundary
C. Use peers to guide children with visual impairment
D. Use children with visual impairments as posts in the given activity
23. Which of the following can be done to help children with special needs?
A. Early identification of the disability
B. Consultation with parents
C. Consultation with medical practitioners
D. Early intervention for the disability
24. Which of the following types of postural defects belong to the first type of functional
deviation?
A. Kyphosis (Round upper back)
B. Lordosis (hollow back)
C. C-shaped Scoliosis (lateral curvature)
D. S-shaped Scoliosis (Lateral curvature)
25. The intramural program provides an excellent opportunity to integrate children with
special needs. This can be accomplished by
A. Modifying games
B. Modifying instruction
C. Modifying equipment
D. Modifying facilities
Focus: Team Sports 5%
Competencies: Evaluate playing skills and performances in actual play/game
Competency-based Practice Test 1
1. Who created the game of basketball?

A. Walter A. Hakanson C. Kareem Abdul Jabbar
C. James A. Naismith D. William J. Morgan
2. What equipment is worn by the catcher in softball for safety?

A. Mask and body protector C. Mask and Mitt
B. Glove and Uniform D. Spikes and Mask
3. What is the position of the spiker’s hand at the beginning of the forward swing to hit the
ball?
A. Over the spiker’s head
B. Over the spiker’s right shoulder
C. Out to the side of the spiker’s shoulder
D. Above and slightly behind the spiker’s head
BASKETBALL
4. What was the original type of basket used for basketball?

A. peach basket B. sewing basket
C. fish basket D. trash basket
5. Which is used for timing periods of play and intervals between them?
A. 24-second device B. Game clock
C. Stopwatch D. Wristwatch
6. Which movement would be most efficient when shooting a lay-up from the right side of the
basket?
A. Take off from the left foot, shoot with right hand.
B. Take off from right foot, shoot with right hand.
C. Take off from left foot, shoot with both hands.
D. Stand on both feet, shoot with right hand.
7. Which statement concerning the pivot is untrue?

A. It is an offensive maneuver.
B. It is a defensive maneuver.
C. It is a method of evading an opponent.
D. It is executed by lifting both feet from the floor.
8. What is the most significant factor to stress when executing a pass?

A. handling the ball with the fingers
B. using a wrist snap upon release
C. stepping into the pass
D. keeping the elbows in
9. What is the most executed factor in the execution of an accurate bounce pass?
A. Lowering the release point
B. Rotating the wrists inward
C. Initiating the pass with a stride
D. Having correct point of contact on the floor
10. Where should a player’s eyes be focused when dribbling?

A. downward in order to control the ball
B. forward in order to pass to a teammate
C. forward in order to alternate hands quickly
D. downward in order to see the feet of a defensive player.
SOFTBALL
11. In what city did softball originate?

A. Springfield, Massachussetts
B. Detroit, Michigan
C. Chicago, Illinois
D. Cleveland, Ohio
12. What equipment is worn by the catcher for safety?

A. mask and mitt
B. cleats and mask
C. glove and uniform
D. mask and body protector
13. When is the sidearm throw used most often?
A. When the pitcher is pitching
B. when the infielders used to make a good throw
C. When the right fielder is attempting to throw out a base runner at the first base
D. When the catcher is attempting to throw out a runner stealing second base
14. Which grip should be used if the batter wants to hit a long ball?
A. hands spread about 2 inches
B. hands together at the bottom of the bat
C. hands together about 1 inch from the bottom of the bat
D. hands together about 3 inches from the bottom of the bat
15. What is the most important consideration for an infielder when fielding a ground ball?
A. Charging the ball
B. Getting in front of the ball
C. Getting the glove down immediately
D. Keeping the weight on the balls of the feet
16. What technique is used to pitch an incurve?

A. rotate wrist upward
B. rotate wrist to the left
C. rotate wrist downward
D. rotate wrist to the right
17. What is the correct procedure for a right- handed person to use on an overhead throw?
A. Face the target, step ahead on the left foot.
B. Face the target, step ahead on the right foot.
C. Left shoulder toward target, step ahead on the right foot.
D. Left shoulder toward target, step ahead on the left foot.
VOLLEYBALL
18. William G. Morgan invented a game in 1895. What team sport is this?
A. Volleyball
B. Basketball
C. Softball
D. Soccer Football
19. What is the dimension of the volleyball playing court?

A. 28 meters x 15 meters
B. 225 feet x 220 feet
C. 9 meters x 18 meters
D. 22 feet x 40 feet
20. In hitting the forearm pass, what is the reason for hitting the ball on the inner part of the
forearms?
A. So the pass will be legal.
B. So the ball can be hit below the waist.
C. So there is a flat surface for rebounding the ball.
D. So the speed of the oncoming ball can be absorbed.
21. What movements contribute to the height of the jump in hitting a spike?
A. leg extension
B. arching the back
C. upward movement of the arms
D. leg extension and upward movement of the arms
22. What parts of the hands should contact the ball in hitting the overhand pass?
A. the finger pads and thumbs
B. the heels of the hands, finger pads, and thumbs
C. the palms of the hands, finger pads, and thumbs
D. the thumbs and finger pads of the first two fingers
23. When should the blocker extend his or her arms upward for the block?
A. just before reaching the peak of the jump
B. as he or she jumps upward to block the ball
C. as he or she moves into position to jump for the block
D. as the spiker begins the forward motion for the spike
24. What direction should a player face when preparing to jump to block a spike?
A. sideways to the net
B. squarely facing the net
C. facing the opposing team’s setter
D. facing the line of the spiker’s approach
25. Where is the ball held when the server is going to hit an overhand serve?
A. Waist high, diagonal to the right side line
B. Waist high, directly toward the right side line
C. chest high, toward the net and in line with the right shoulder
D. Chest high, toward the net and in line with the left shoulder
1. When does the timer stop the clock?

A. When the official gives the hand signal.
B. When the scorers’ buzz alerts the official of a substitution.
C. When the official’s whistle blows.
D. When two opposing players collide attempting to get a loose ball.
2. How many seconds may a defensive player stay in the lane?

A. 3 seconds
B. 5 seconds
C. 10 seconds
D. No time limit
3. If after receiving a pass a player makes a two-step stop, what is he permitted to do?
A. Pivot in any directions on the front foot.
B. Pivot in any directions on the back foot.
C. Pivot in any directions on either foot.
D. Pivot in any directions on both feet.
4. A foul is committed against a player who is able to make the goal in spite of the
fouls. Does the shot counts?
A. No, a free throw is awarded.
B. No, a jump ball is called.
C. Yes, a free throw is awarded.
D. Yes, the other team takes the ball out of bounds
5. The offensive team plays a fast break, what is the best shot for the player close to the
basket do?
A. Lay-up shot
B. Set shot
C. Jump shot
D. Fall away shot
6. A violation is committed by the defensive team and the ball is out of play. The ball
situation is called
A. Jump ball
B. Dead ball
C. Time-out
D. Delay of game
7. Player A is cutting for the basket and runs into Player B who has established a guarding
position. What is the official’s decision?
A. Blocking on Player A
B. Blocking on Player B
C. Charging on Player B
D. Charging on Player A
8. An offensive player happened to return the ball to the back court and a violation
occurs. What is the penalty for the violation?
A. Jump ball
B. One free throw
C. Two free throws
D. Opponent’s ball out-of-bounds
9. An inning is that portion of a game within which the teams alternate on offense and
defense. For an official game the minimum number of innings is
A. Seven
B. Six
C. Five
D. Four
10. For a pitch ball to be counted as a strike it must pass over the strike zone. Where is the
batter’s strike zone?
A. Between the shoulders and ankles and over the home plate.
B. Between the neck and the top of the knees and over the home plate.
C. Between the armpits and the top of the knees and over the home plate.
D. Between the waist and the top of the knees and over the home plate.
11. A legally batted ball is said to be fair when it

A. settles in fair territory in the infield.
B. touches fair territory and rolls foul in the infield.
C. rolls outside third base into the outfield.
D. hits foul territory in the outfield and bounces fair.
12. A batter-runner successfully hit a fair ball and reaches first base. The next batter in the
line-up hits a fly ball and was caught by a fielder. When does the base-runner advance
to another base?
A. As soon as the ball is hit
B. As soon as the ball is caught
C. As soon as the ball leaves the pitcher’s hand
D. The base runner may not advance to another base on a fly ball
13. The bases are loaded and the on-deck batter interferes with the defensive player’s
opportunity to make a play on the runner. Who is called out?
A. The batter
B. The runner on first
C. The runner on second
D. The runner on third
14. Softball is played in innings and run is the unit in scoring. What determines the winner of
a game?
A. The team that scores five runs first
B. The team that makes the fewest errors
C. The team that has the most hits in a regulation game
D. The team that scores the most runs in a regulation game
15. The outfielders support the basemen in fielding balls. Which base is usually not backed
up by the pitcher?
A. First base
B. Second base
C. Third base
D. Home
16. The bases are loaded with no outs. The batter swings and misses a third strike. How is
the batter put out?
A. The catcher must hold the ball to put the batter out.
B. The catcher must tag the batter to make the out.
C. The catcher must throw to first to put the batter out.
D. The batter is automatically out.
17. What position in the serving order a player takes if he/she re-enters the game?
A. His or her original position
B. The serving position
C. The left front position
D. Any position
18. A toss coin is performed by the first referee between the two team captains before the
match. What choices does the winner of the toss coin have?
A. First serve or team area in that game
B. First serve in the first or second game
C. First serve and team area in that game
D. First serve in the first and second game
19. A hit is any contact with the ball by a player in play. When a player may hit the ball twice
in a row?
A. Never
B. When the first hit was an attempted block
C. When the hits are made with different body parts
D. When the first hit was a ball recovered from the net
20. A back row player on the serving team spikes the ball into the opponent’s court. The
spike was behind the attack line when jumping to make the spike. What was the
decision?
A. Legal play
B. Point
C. Side-out
D. Replay
21. The service is the act of putting the ball in play. What is the most important aspect of the
serve?
A. The placement of the ball
B. The height of the ball
C. The speed of the ball
D. The spin on the ball
22. A block attempt is the action of blocking without touching the ball. If two or more
players
attempt to block a spike at the same time what is this called?
A. A team block
B. An attack block
C. A multiple block
D. A simultaneous block
23. The officiating officials cause the game to progress with as little interference as possible.
Which of these directs the match from the start until the end?
A. Head official
B. First referee
C. Umpire
D. Head Referee
24. A playing area does not have the required clearance above the court. A serve hits the
ceiling. What is the ruling?
A. Play continues
B. Reserve
C. Second serve
D. Side-out
25. A player is permitted to penetrate into the opponent’s space under the net, provided that
this does not interfere with the opponent’s play. Which event is a center line violation?
A. Stepping on the center line
B. Touching the opponent’s playing area with the hands
C. Stepping on center line and opponent’s playing area
D. Having one or both feet on or above the center line
Focus: Athletics/Individual/Dual/Combative 5%
Competencies: Evaluate playing skills and performances in actual play/game
Athletics
1. 5,000 M.R is _____ lap in the oval.

a. 25 b.13 c.7 d.4
2. There are ____ water jumps in steeplechase.

a.5 b.12 c.7 d.14
3. One round in the oval is ____

a. 100 M b.500 M c.600 M d.400M
4. Triple jump is done by a ____, step, and jump.

a. hop b. walk c. run d. skip
5. There are ____ hurdles in the hurdling events.

a.10 b.12 c.14 d.16
6. Heptathlon is composed of _____ events.

a.6 b.7 c.8 d.9
7. Decathlon is composed of ____ running events.

a.8 b.4 c.6 d.3
8. 100 M, 400 M and ____ meter are all sprint events.

a.800M b.1,500 M c.200 M d.300 M
9. There are ____ obstacles including the water jump in the steeplechase
a.3 b.4 c.5 d.6
10. The official responsible for the proper carrying out of the program in an
Athletic meeting is the ____.
a. Technical Manager b. Clerk of Court
c. Field Manager d. Meet Manager
Badminton
11. A game is played to ____ points?
a. 11
b. 15
c. 20
d. 21
12. Any infraction of the rules where the resulting penalty is loss of serve?
a. Fault
b. Rally
c. Side Out
13. An overhead stroke hit downward with force - usually used to score a point?
a. Clear
b. Drive
c. Drop Shot
d. Smash
14. Playing singles, your score is 4, the opponent 3, which serving court do you serve from?
a. Left
b. Right
c. Center
d. either right or left
15. A high shot that travels to the back of your opponents court?
a. Clear
b. Drive
c. Drop Shot
d. Smash
16. The service box in a singles game is:

a. short and narrow
b. long and narrow
c. long and wide
d. short and wide
17. A legal service is done by hitting the shuttle

a. between your waist and shoulders
b. anywhere from your shoulders down
c. anywhere below your wrist
d. below the knee
18. Your score is 8, where you going to serve?

a. left service box across to the right
b. left service box straight across to the left
c. right service box straight across to the right
d. right service box across to the left.
19. Before the start of the game, the winners of the racquet spin or shuttle toss may choose:
a. to serve or to receive
b. to serve and side of court
c. to serve or side of court
d. to give the options to your opponent
20. The most common service being used in doubles games is:
a. short and low
b. long and low
c. high and long
d. short and high
Table Tennis
21. When the ball hits permanent fixtures during play it is called:
a. A ‘let’ and the point are replayed.
b. A good hit and play continues.
c. Fault by the player who strikes it
d. A dead ball
22. In a game of doubles the serve is taken from –

a. Behind the back line.
b. The service court of the serving teams choice.
c. The left service court.
d. The right service court.
23. What happens if the ball touches the net during the serve but continues to land in the correct
service area?
a. It is referred to as a ‘let’ and the serve is taken again.
b. It is a fault and service is awarded to the opponent.
c. Play continues, as it is a correct serve.
d. The point is awarded to the receiver.
24. If the player in the act of service misses the ball completely –
a. They may serve again from the same area.
b. They may serve again but from the other service court.
c. They lose the serve.
d. Their opponent receives a point but they continue to serve.
25. An overhead stroke hit downward with force - usually used to score a point?
a. Clear
b. Drive
c. Drop Shot
d. Smash
26. A game is played up to ____

a. 11 points
b. 15 points
c. 20 points
d. 21 points
27. If a player in the act of service misses the ball completely –

a. he may serve again from the same area.
b. he may serve again but from the other service end.
c. he lose a point
d. he lose a point but continue to serve
28. The length of the table is ___

a. 9 ft.
b. 7 ft.
c. 8 ft.
d. 10 ft.
29. The winner of the toss has the option:

a. to serve or to receive
b. to serve, not to serve, or side of court
c. to serve or side of court
d. to serve or to give the opponent the option
30. In serving the ball must:

a. be nearer to the table than server’s body
b. be dropped before being hit
c. be place on the palm of the server’s free hand
d. be anywhere at the end of the table of the server
ARNIS
31. What is the Filipino martial art of stick fighting?

a. Kali b. Kuntao c. Arnis d. Escrima
32. Who is the father of modern arnis?

a. Ernie A. Presas b. A. Soteca c. Remy A. Presas d. Roberto Presas
33. Tjakalele is a native Indonesian fencing art with technique closely similar to_____.
a. Kali b. Arnis c. Espada y Daga d. Redonda
34. This is a system of fighting with bladed weapons among maharlikas known as_______
a. Kali b. Arnis c. Espada y Daga e. Redonda
35. What school is teaching kali to the children as part of the curriculum during the reign of the
datus of Panay?
a. Both b. Kuntao c. Moro-moro d. Maojapahit
oan
SWIMMING
36. The stroke that is being interchangeably known as freestyle

a. Crawl b. Breast c. fly
37. Almost all mammals can swim by instinct excerpt:

a. kangaroos b. bats c. porcupines
38. A standard Olympic pool measure:

a. 50 m b. 75 m c. 100 m
39. The official who looks if the swimmers do the correct strokes in competition is:
a. Turn judge b. Stroke judge c. referee
40. The fastest stroke use in competitive swimming is the:

a. Backstroke b. Crawl c. Butterfly
Competency-based Practice 2
ATHLETICS
1. The athletic meet official who is responsible for the preparation of the Result cards,
timekeeping cards and all other implements for competition Is the ____.
a. recorder b. meet manager c. technical manager d. referee
2. Who is the official responsible for allowing only officials on duty and competitors taking part
in the events that are in progress to be in the area?
a. the referee b. announcer c. the marshal d. manager of the meet
3. The officials on duty at the change-over zones is relay races are the ____
a. Track Judges b. umpires’ c. Marshals d. Asst. Technical Manager
4. In all National & International Meetings, starting blocks must be used for all races up to and
including.
a.400M b.200M c.800M d.110M
5. Any breach of the rules that is observed by the ____ should be indicated immediately by the
raising of a red flag.
a. technical manager b. meet manager
c. chief judge d. referee
6. The official who is responsible to allocate duties to the judges is the

a. technical manager b. meet manager
c. chief judge d. jury of appeal
7. A distinctive flag or marker may be used to mark the best throw of each competitor in the
following events.
a. javelin only b. hammer & discus only
c. for all throwing event d. for all throwing event except shot put
8. A throw made by a competitor in the discuss event is disqualified because
a. The competitor leaves the circle before the discus has landed
b. The discus breaks after landing
c. He has put rising powder on his hands
d. The discuss lands within the landing area and rolled out.
BADMINTON
9. If the serving player misses the shuttle he:

a. may serve again from the same area.
b. may serve again but from the other service court.
c. lose the serve.
d. may reserve again
10. During service when the shuttle touches the net but continues to land in the proper service
box it is:
a. a ‘let’ and the serve is taken again.
b. a fault and service is lost to the opponent.
c. a good serve.
d. A fault and a point is awarded to the receiver.
11. A player shouts “out” to prevent his partner to hit the shuttle is a:
a. Form of assistance from a team member.
b. Communication between partners that is not allowed.
c. Technical violation of team members.
d. Stoppage of game and warning should be given to the team.
12. One of the following is a serving violation:

a. The foot of the server is toeing the short service line
b. One foot is not in contact to the ground.
c. Feet are far apart
d. The feet are in contact to the ground.
13. In a game of doubles the first serve is taken from –

a. The long service line of the right service box
b. The doubles alley of the serving teams choice.
c. The left service box.
d. The right service box.
14. When a shuttle touches a permanent fixture it is:

a. a ‘let’.
b. a good return
c. a fault.
d. a must for the opponent to reach for it.
15. When serving, the racket head should:

a. be pointing to the floor.
b. be higher than the waist
c. be below the knees at impact.
d. be below the racket hand at impact.
TABLE TENNIS
16. The ball is ____ from the last moment at which it is stationary on the palm of the free hand
before being intentionally projected in service until the rally is decided as a let or a point.
a. Dead
b. Alive
c. Let
d. Serve
17. A ____ is the period during which the ball is in play.
a. rally
b. Alive
c. Let
d. Serve
18. A ____ is a rally of which the result is not scored.

a. Dead
b. Alive
c. Let
d. Serve
19. The player due to strike the ball second in a rally.

a. Server
b. Receiver
c. Server’s partner
d. Receiver’s partner
20. A ____ is a rally of which the result is scored.
a. Dead
b. Alive
c. Let
d. Point
21. Anything that a player ____ includes anything that he was wearing or carrying, other than the
ball, at the start of the rally.
a Used
b Wear
c Bear
d Bring
22. The ____ is the hand carrying the racket.

a Left hand
b Right hand
c Racket hand
d Free hand
23. The ball shall be regarded as passing ____ the net assembly if it passes anywhere other than
between the net and the net post or between the net and the playing surface.
a Over
b Under
c Around
d About
24. The ____ is the hand not carrying the racket; the free arm is the arm of the free hand.
a Left hand
b Right hand
c Racket hand
d Free hand
25. A player ____ the ball if he touches it in play with his racket, held in the hand, or with his
racket hand below the wrist.
a Strike
b Hit
c Smash
d Drive
ARNIS
26. A sharp pointed hardwood stick hardened by fire called

a. Muton b. Espada y Daga c. Kali d. Dolo-dolo
27. Depict the traditional striking technique of arnis in a form of free hand exercise.
a. Sinawali b. Anyo c. Doblete d. Redonda
28. In what aspect of arnis does the learner taught the how and where to deliver a strike?
a. Blocking Technique b. Stances c. Striking Techniques d. Body shifting
29. Double stick striking criss-across fashion and strike called:

a. Sinawali b. Redonda c. Banday-banday d. Palis-palis
30. What is the target vital area of single sinawali?

a. Temple/Knee b. Shoulder/hip c. Forehead/leg d. Chest/abdomen
Focus: Research in MAPEH 2%
Competencies: Apply theories and principles in conducting MAPEH research
1. Enrico Rosales wanted to discover the origins of a sport way back the time of Modern
Olympics in 1896. What type of research method will Mr. Rosales use?
A. Normative Study
B. Analytic Study
C. Philosophic Research
D. Historical Research
2. In the selection of subjects in a problem of who plays the violin better between male or
female, the subjects’ characteristics are extremely pertinent. What method can be best
utilized to select the subjects?
A. Random sampling
B. Fish-bowl sample
C. Draw lots sampling
D. Purposive sampling
3. Which is research subjects rights must be considered in the following?

Identification number is used rather than the name.
A. Right to remain anonymous
B. Right to privacy and nonparticipation
C. Right to confidentiality
D. Right to human dignity
4. The researcher does not ask unnecessary information and should even ask consent from
parents.
A. Right to remain anonymous

B. Right to privacy and nonparticipation
C. Right to confidentiality
D. Right to human dignity
5. The researcher’s questioning is well meaning and sensitive to the person or subject.
A. The right to remain anonymous
B. The right to privacy and nonparticipation
C. The right to confidentiality
D. The right to human dignity
6. The researcher has to tell honestly the subjects of his intention not to divulge identities
and data.
A. The right to privacy and nonparticipation
B. The right to remain anonymous
C. The right to confidentiality
D. The right to human dignity
7. In the conduct of experiments using the different meaning instruments in measuring
sports skills,
attitude, and habit, the researcher bears the following:
To generate accurate information in a sport psychology study regarding the influence of
steroid usage which test is more appropriately selected.
A. Steroid Knowledge Test
B. Responsible Drug Test
C. Personality Trait Measure Test
D. All of the above
8. Motor behavior is conducted to test the subjects.

A. Reaction and Movement Time
B. Reaction Time
C. Movement Tine
D. Measured Time
9. Vincent is conducting a research to find out the cause and effect of his newly developed
exercise routine. What type of research will he use?
A. Correlational Studies
B. Experimenting Research
C. Development Studies
D. Documentary Analysis
10. In the descriptive type of research, what is the most commonly utilized instrument to
obtain factual data?
A. Survey
B. Questionnaire
C. Interview
D. Essay
11. The artifacts found in the Mangyan culture are well described in their artworks inscribed
in wood and bamboo carvings. Which type of research study can be used to validate the
information?
A. Experimental Research
B. Quantitative Research
C. Historical Research
D. Qualitative Research
12. Triangulation of data is appropriately utilized in

A. Experimental Research
B. Quantitative Research
C. Historical Research
D. Qualitative Research
13. The best technique employed in a survey using a series of questionnaires in order for the
subjects to arrive to a decision is
A. Open-ended Survey
B. Delphi Survey Method
C. Nero-Interview Method
D. Normative Survey
14. In experimental research the type of questioning is applied. Which type of questions is
best used for the following question:
What it would be like in my first day of teaching?
A. Ideal Question
B. Hypothetical Question
C. Interpretive Question
D. Subjective Question
15. What it would be like if I handle the best or least section of grade six pupils?
A. Ideal
B. Hypothesis
C. Interpretive
D. Subjective
16. What it would be like if I make my students feel comfortable and happy?
A. Hypothetical
B. Ideal
C. Interpretive
D. Subjective
17. In the descriptive type of research several observations are made. There are commonly
used procedures for recording observational data.
Which type of observation recording can be utilized in the difficulty of counting
movement occurrences?
A. Narrative or continual recording
B. Tallying or frequency counting
C. Interval Method
D. Duration Method
18. The recording is done in a series of occurrences on movement happening.

C. Interval Method
D. Duration Method
19. The recording is done each time the movement occurs

C. Interval Method
D. Duration Method
20. The recording is done in a time device on how much time a movement occurs.
C. Interval Method
D. Duration Method
21. Research characterizes scientific search for result or findings. In order to protect the study
one material must possess a characteristic which is valid. What kind of technique will
one utilize on this principle?
A. Cross Validation
B. Internal Validation
C. External Validation
D. All of the above
22. Historical Research involves different types of research methods for accuracy of
reporting. Which of the following best describe the type of historical report?
A good map locates roads and landmarks including the time, place, and person involved.
What type of historical report is applied?
A. Analytic Historical Report
B. Descriptive Historical Report
C. Experimental Historical Report
D. Methodological Historical Report
23. To compare the Inter-collegiate intramurals in 2005 at the Philippine Normal University
and today what type of historical report can be used?
A. Analytic Historical Report
B. Descriptive Historical Report
C. Experimental Historical Report
D. Methodological Historical Report
24. Writing the research report is both prepared in a scientific procedure. The written report
follows an appropriate format and the oral report or defense is well patterned.
When preparing for a oral defense which is a more attractive presentation via PowerPoint
presentation of numerical data?
A. Graphical Presentation
B. Word Text Presentation
C. Puzzle Type Presentation
D. Audio-Visual Presentation
25. In a big conference or meetings of scholars which has the most usable method of research
presentations?
A. Oral Presentation
B. Poster Presentation
C. Plenary Presentation
D. Group Presentation
1. One characteristic of strong research follows an examination of the procedures which

allows the researcher to evaluate the necessary conclusion. This characteristic pertains to
what principle?
A. Systematic C. Empirical
B. Logical D. Replicable
2. There are Humans self method are sometimes attempted to influence research findings.
Which of the following options dictate doubts of reliability using common sense?
A. Authority type of solving problem C. Empirical
B. Intuition D. Rationalistic
3. In developing a problem, one basic requirement is to clearly spell out what the intention is
all about. Which option below can be applied?
A. Formulating Hypothesis C. Analyzing Result
B. Gathering Data D. Defining and Delimiting
4. Jun Posadas is a political celebrity in the ZTE Deal scandal. To find out more of the
details of this person, one can apply which type of research?
A. Correlational Studies C. Developmental Study
B. Case Study D. Interview
5. Music and dance of the ethnic groups vary in many aspects of interpretations on how they
were gathered. To protect the integrity of the ethnic group, one should utilize what type of
research?
A. Qualitative Research C. Experimental Research
B. Quantitative Research D. Analytical Research
6. A hypothesis is established prior to the conduct of actual research. This is done to test the
reliability of the result that says there are no differences on relationship among variables.
Which of the following is appropriately used?
A. The hypothesis is true and valid C. The hypothesis is null
B. The hypotheses is null and valid D. The hypotheses is not true and valid
7. When two variables are measured on their degree of association a simple correlation is
used known as
A. Pearson r C. Z - test
B. T – test D. Central Tendency
8. A Statistical computation is used whether the independent variable (weight training vs.
regular activity) produces a change in the dependent variable (standing long jump score).
The test to be used is
A. Pearson r C. Central Tendency
B. Z – test D. T – test
9. To select subjects to represent a larger population is known as:

A. Sampling C. Subject Sampling
B. Random Sampling D. Sample Sampling
10. A concept that deals with certain things to happen is called.

A. Frequency C. Tendency
B. Equally likely event D. Probability
11. When a researcher wants to determine the average of two or more correlation he will use a
tool called
A. Z – test C. Correlation Test
B. T – test D. Prediction test
12. The degree to which a test or instrument measures what it intends to measure is known as
A. Reliability C. Stability
B. Validity D. Probability
13. In measuring physical fitness, the most valid test for cardio-vascular fitness is called
A. Step test C. VO2 Max
B. Flex-Arm Hang D. Distance Run
14. Skinfold thickness with the use of calipers or the accuracy of predicting percent of fat is
an anthropometric measure also known as
A. Density C. Body Composition
B. Density Volume D. Body Fat
15. Which of the following is an open-ended question?

A. How do you like your job? C. Where do you work?
B. What is your job? D. What is your work?
16. Which part of the process is developing the problem of the study relates the bulk of
reviews and attempting compare similarities and differences?
A. Identifying the problem C. Review of related literature
B. Developing Hypothesis D. Background of the study
17. A study on teacher pedagogical skills to handle the piano lessons are capable in terms of
knowledge and skills. What type of research activity is being considered?
A. Basic assumptions and limitations C. Basic Procedure
B. Basic and applied research D. Basic Understanding
18. The most common tool for research in striving to secure information about practices,
conditions, and demographic data is called:
A. Questionnaire C. Documentary Analysis
B. Interview D. Background of the study
19. The subjects of the study or respondents must feel secured and can trust the researcher.
Which of this type of character is a requirement?
A. Kind and Cheerful C. Cooperative and Hardworking
B. Trustworthy and honest D. Joyful and smart
20. Which of the process is applicable to value the new works of research?
A. Public Bidding C. Public Broadcasting
B. Pilot Testing D. Investigating
Scales of measurement are established to determine the validity and reliability of results.
Which of the following are appropriately used?
21. When scores are grouped into categories or classes like gender and race:
A. Ordinal Scale C. Interval Scale
B. Normal Scale D. Ratio
22. It provides more information or data that determine the highest to lowest.
A. Interval Scale C. Nominal
B. Ratio D. Ordinal
23. Scores are interpreted to find out the difference of in-between scores.
A. Ratio C. Nominal Scale
B. Interval Scale D. Ordinal Scale
24. A way to measure force, time, and distance with true zero points is called
A. Ratio C. Nominal
B. Interval D. Ordinal
25. Terms used in the study may come in different interpretations. If terms are observational
and on actual usage, the definitions may be called as
A. Preferable Term C. Operational Terms
B. Conditional Term D. Dictionary Terms

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LICENSURE

ST. LOUIS REVIEW CENTER

Competencies: Evaluate movement skills in educational gymnastics and sports activities

Competency-Based Practice Test 1

1. A student’s health screening should administered prior to

2. Which of the following is a strategy to improve the accuracy of a fitness assessment?

3. When performing multiple assessments of health related fitness in a single session,

4. Flexibility is a measure of the

6. Body composition is determined by which of the following formulae?

8. The best predictor of one’s cardiorespiratory fitness is

10. Which among these Physical Fitness Tests measure flexibility?

11. About certain exercises:

15. Exercises to prepare the body for a strenuous workout

16. Which of the following is a true statement about physical exercise?

21. Which of the following is not a standing position in gymnastics?

23. Which is not a skill in manipulating the ball in rhythmic gymnastics?

26. What is the most essential factor when participating in gymnastics?

32. Which phrase in this descriptive statement is incorrect?

34. Where should be the head be placed in a forward roll?

39. Which move is a lead-up to the standing backward roll

40. What contributes most to produce good balance in a headstand?

43. The recommended solution to decrease body fats include

Competency-Based Practice Test 2

2. A regulated external force acting to produce a greater range of flexibility in a relatively

3. It means bending or reducing length. It decreases the angle of the joint.

21. “The Father of Gymnastics.”

Focus: Philippine Folk Dance 5%

Competencies: Interpret dance movements in the historical and sociological context of

Competency-Based Practice Test 1

3. Which of the following is a dance step in 4/4 time music?

4 . All of the following are correct except _________.

5. It is a work-dance of Kalinga women where they carry baskets on their heads.

12. Which of the following dance steps has eight measures?

13. Masiwak is a common dance term among the ___________.

18. Which of the following is a Visayan d ance term?

19. Which is called the unit of formation?

20. Of the following folk dances, which has a combined rhythm?

22. What is the rythm pattern of escotis?

23. Which of the following is an occupational dance?

Competency-Based Practice Test 2

1. The waltz is done in what tempo?

3. Which type of dance is performed in social gathering to honor the guest?

5. What is the national dance of the Philippines?

6. Which of the following dances use fighting implements?

16. Who are called “Peacocks of the mountain”?

21. Which steps have the same time signature?

22. What is the sociological context of the dance?

24. Which of the following steps are common to the dance?

Focus: International Folk Dance and other Dance Forms 5%

Competency-Based Practice Test 1

6. Cha Cha Cha is a descendant of the -

9. The dance that provided a release from wartime pressures.

17. Break Legs is executed in a 24 time music and the counting is –

23. Which of the following dance steps is executed in 44 time signature?

5. . In the Cuban tradition, the verb rumbiar simply means -

6. This is a Mexican hat dance of Mexico.

14. The dance Samba is innately –

17. The couple’s original position in a set.

21. What makes Russian polka distinct from other polkas?