Ophthalmology ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- D.

CN6 palsy

SINGLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 10. Essential feature of glaucoma is

A. Optic neuropathy
1. 10 weeks old child with persistent unilateral eye discharge responding B. Raised intraocular pressure
to antibiotics but recurring: C. Reduced vision
A. Nasolacrimal duct obstruction D. Painful eye
B. Gonococcus
C. Chlamydia
TERMS
2. An elderly woman can read the newspaper, but has halos in bright
sunlight: 1. Trachoma
A. Cataract 2. Amblyopia
B. Glaucoma 3. Glaucoma
C. Presbyopia 4. Siderosis Bulbi
D. Macular degeneration 5. Uveitis
6. Keratic precipitates
3. Conjunctival injection, dilated fixed pupil, which of the following is 7. Aqueous flow cycle
true? 8. Cataract
A. Glaucoma 9. Posterior vitreous detachment
B. Central vein occlusion 10. Relative afferent pupillary defect
C. Cataract 11. Retinal detachment
12. Macular
4. A 45-year-old lady complains of difficulty in reading address book, the 13. Low vision
likely disease is? 14. 3 layers of the eyeball
A. Presbyopia 15. Accommodation
B. Myopia 16. Astigmatism
C. Hyperopia 17. Strabismus
D. Cataract 18. Myopia
19. Hyperopia
5. A 70-year-old woman has complained of seeing colored ring around the 20. Presbyopia
street at night time and is admitted to hospital late at night with loss of 21. Red eye
vision and a painful red eye, the most likely diagnosis is? 22. Age-related Macular degeneration
A. Conjunctivitis 23. Dry eye
B. Angle closure glaucoma 24. Keratoconus
C. Chronic simple glaucoma 25. Aqueous outflow cycle
D. Blepharitis

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

6. Lateral rectus is innervated by?
A. CN2 1. Etiological classification of cataract
B. CN3 2. Common causes of vitreous hemorrhage
C. CN4 3. Eye anatomy and their function
D. CN6 A. Tunics of the eye
B. Internal ocular structures
7. A patient presents with bilateral temporal hemianopia, where is the 4. Visual pathway
lesion? 5. The association between uveitis, glaucoma and cataract
A. Pituitary fossa 6. The eye complications of diabetes mellitus
B. Optic chiasma 7. Stages of PDR and NPDR
C. Parietal lobe 8. Layers of the cornea and their function
D. Optic nerve 9. Function of the 3 layers of tear film
10. ARMD
8. The Retina Goal 11. Stages of senile cataract
A. Receptors 12. Central venous retinal block
B. Rods 13. Orbital cellulitis
C. Cones 14. The effects of blunt trauma to the eye
D. Wavelengths of light 15. Why alkali burns are more severe than acid?
E. Sensory pathway to the Brain 16. Strabismus
17. Amblyopia
9. Patient with ptosis, dilated pupil, loss of corneal reflex, all the 18. Diagnosis of diabetic retinopathy
movement of the eye, the most possible lesion is? 19. Papilledema vs pseudo-papilledema
A. CN2 palsy
B. CN3 palsy
C. CN4 palsy
Obstetrics and gynecology ------------------------------------------------------------- B. Damage
C. Increased abdominal pressure for a long time
SINGLE CHOICE QUESTIONS D. Decreased ovarian function

1. Single type BBT shows? 11. Which of the following is intrauterine device placing contraindication:
A. Abortion A. Menstrual quantity more
B. Onset of labour B. Uterine prolapse
C. Ovulation C. Genital tract infection
D. Anovulation D. Above all

2. Which of the following about threatened uterine rupture is correct? 12. Abortion pressure suction is applicable to:
A. Often seen in uterine hypotonic dysfunction A. 4 weeks pregnancy
B. Present pathologic retraction ring B. 6-10 weeks gestation
C. The fetal presentation could be engaged in the pelvic inlet C. 11-14 weeks gestation
D. Fetal heart tone is clear D. 20 weeks gestation

3. Which of the following management fits for choriocarcinoma best? 13. Main symptoms for submucosal uterine fibroids are:
A. Hysterectomy A. Low back pain
B. Chinese medicine B. To urinate
C. Immunotherapy C. Menorrhagia
D. Chemotherapy D. Bowel problems

4. Which of the following does early pregnancy have in common? 14. The most common transfer site for Invasive hydatidiform mole and
A. Morning sickness chorionic carcinoma is:
B. Breast enlargement A. Brain metastasis
C. Abdomen enlargement B. Lung metastasis
D. Amenorrhea(cease of menses) C. Vaginal metastasis
D. Pelvic metastasis
5. Which hormone(s) can increase body temperature after ovulation?
A. Testosterone 15. Amenorrhea refers to the menopause
B. Estrogen A. At least 3 months
C. Dexamethasone B. At least 3 cycles
D. Progesterone C. At least 2 years
D. At least 12 months
6. Female, 26 years old, G1P0, regular menstrual period, period 28 day,
the last menstrual period (LMP) is: 2000.07.10. The expected date of 16. Uterine artery is from:
delivery (EDD) is: A. External iliac artery
A.25/04/2001 B. Internal iliac artery
B. 22/12/2001 C. Iliac artery
C. 17/04/2001 D. Abdominal aorta
D. 03/10/2001
17. From inside to outside, the fallopian tube can be divided into:
7. The most common pelvic inflammation is A. Stroma, spondylosis, pot belly, umbrella
A. Endometritis B. Interstitial department, pot belly, spondylosis, umbrella
B. Uterus myositis C. Spondylosis, interstitial, pot belly, umbrella
C. Salpingitis and tubal oophoritis D. Spondylosis, pot belly interstitial, umbrella
D. Pelvic connective tissue inflammation
18. G1P0, at 38 weeks, regular contractions 4 hours to the hospital.
8. The most common sites for genital tuberculosis is: Maternity check: palace expansion in 3cm, heart rate 140 bpm, and
A. Endometrial tuberculosis fetal head has cohesion. Sudden convulsions, then consciousness
B. Tubal tuberculosis disappear, blood pressure is 170/120mmHg, urine protein (+++). First
C. Ovarian tuberculosis diagnosis should be:
D. Pelvic peritoneum tuberculosis A. Hypertensive crisis
B. Cerebral hemorrhage
9. Which of the following is the best basis for the diagnosis of C. Pre-eclampsia
endometriosis? D. Eclampsia
A. Laparoscopy and biopsy
B. CA125 measurements 19. The effective blood concentration of magnesium for treatment of
C. Ultrasound gestational hypertension disease is:
D. Hysteroscopy check A. 0.75-1.0 mmol/L
B. 0.5-0.75 mmol/L
10. The main cause of uterine prolapse is: C. 1.0-1.7 mmol/L
A. Birth injury D. 1.7-3.0 mmol/L
 20. Pregnant women, abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding in late
pregnancy, the most likely diagnosis is:
A. Placental abruption
B. Pregnancy with the cervical polyp
C. Placenta previa
D. Uterine rupture
21. In mechanism of labor, internal rotation of the fetal head takes place:
A. Pelvis inlet plane
B. Pelvis outlet plane
C. Mid plane of pelvis
D. Big pelvis
22. The structure of the placenta does not include which of the following:
A. The amnion
B. The chorion
C. The basal decidua
D. The umbilical cord

23. A prolonged second stage of labor in the primigravid patient lasts

longer than:
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 4 hours

24. Kallman’s syndrome is

A. Hypothalamic amenorrhea
B. Pituitary amenorrhea
C. Uterine amenorrhea
D. Ovarian amenorrhea

25. Which of the following choice is the effective management for CIN III?
A. Total hysterectomy
B. Radical hysterectomy
C. Radiotherapy
D. Chemotherapy

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. Describe the causes of post-partum hemorrhage

2. Classification of gestational hypertension disease
3. Diagnosis of Bacterial Vaginosis
4. The characteristic of uterine contractivity
5. What is APGAR Score?
6. Causes of infertility
7. What are the other systems (non-reproductive) affected by syphilis?
8. Categories of dystocia

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. How to evaluate placental function?

2. The classification of AUB and principle of treatment of AUB
3. Describe the causes and treatment of uterine atony.
Psychiatry ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- B. Increased excitability
C. Weight gain
SINGLE CHOICE QUESTIONS D. Agranulocytosis
E. Development of cataracts
1. Because the patient did not take the perphenazine, you decide to try
fluphenazine (Prolixin). After 5 days, he is no longer afraid to look at the 6. A 33-year-old woman with a diagnosis of chronic paranoid schizophrenia
television but he spends much of the day pacing the floor. He claims he has been maintained on Haloperidol since she was diagnosed at age 24.
paces the floor because he does not like sitting in his room. His family In your office, she says she has not had her period in several months, has
informs you that he often walked the streets of his neighborhood when diminished sex drive, has been unable to conceive, has been discharging
he was taking perphenazine. After reducing the fluphenazine to the milk from her breasts, and has suffered pain on sexual intercourse.
lowest dose you feel he needs, he still paces the halls. Next, you do which Assuming that these complaints are caused by her anti-psychotic
of the following? medication, which of the following is most likely to explain her symptoms?
A. Discontinue fluphenazine and try another agent A. Increased adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B. Add propranolol B. Decreased prolactin levels
C. Add lorazepam C. Increased prolactin levels
D. Add benztropine (Cogentin) D. Increased serotonin levels
E. Add diphenhydramine (Benadryl) E. Increased dopamine levels

2. The long-term consequence of high-dose Thioridazine use that probably 7. A 76-year-old man who has felt depressed for several months presents
caused his physician to switch to Haloperidol is which of the following? to your office for evaluation. He has had weight loss, decreased appetite,
A. Tardive dyskinesia (TD) and no interest in his hobbies, and cannot concentrate on your cognitive
B. Priapism examination. He has passing thoughts of dying. He admits that he
C. Retinal pigmentation frequently hears voices telling him that he is going to die soon. You have
D. Hyperprolactinemia decided to start an anti-depressant and Risperidone at 0.5mb bid. As his
E. Agranulocytosis dose of Risperidone increases, the likelihood of which of the following
can also be expected to increase?
3. You have been treating a 55-year-old man with schizophrenia for 20 A. Extrapyramidal side effects
years with Haloperidol and Benztropine. Generally, he has done well and B. Leukocytosis
has not required major medication changes or hospitalizations. About 2 C. Anti-cholinergic effects
years ago, you noticed some lip smacking and tongue protrusions that D. Agranulocytosis
did not bother him; however, now he also has odd, irregular movements E. Weight loss
of his arms that make it difficult for him to eat. The syndrome that best
describes these symptoms is which of the following? 8. A 36-year-old patient you have seen twice is brought to your walk-in
A. Meige syndrome department by family members. On previous occasions, he presented
B. Anti-cholinergic toxicity with delusions, hallucinations, and prominent negative symptoms.
C. TD During the visit, he exhibits motoric, waxy flexibility and resistance to all
D. Huntington disease instructions. He methodically repeats words and phrases and appears to
E. Sydenham chorea crudely mimic your movements. The most likely diagnosis is which of the
following?
4. A 22-year-old woman is admitted to a psychiatric unit after a serious A. Elective mutism
suicide attempt. She has had many suicide attempts in the past with B. Malingering
varying severity. Her arms are scarred by other prior attempts at hurting C. Schizophrenia, disorganized type
herself. She had been a good student until high school, when she took D. Schizophrenia, catatonic type
up with a “fast” crowd, began abusing alcohol and marijuana, and ran E. Drug-induced psychosis
away from home several times. She has had several intense, stormy
relationships with men. Outpatient treatment has mostly consisted of 9. A 26-year-old computer programmer without a past psychiatric history
her complaints to her therapist about her family. She usually calls her has been married for 4 years. His wife is expecting their first child. She
therapist daily about crises; however, her therapist was on vacation reports that 3 months ago the patient became pre-occupied with the
during her most recent crisis. Which of the following classes of agents idea that she became pregnant by another man. During this time, he
have been shown to be helpful for this patient? began missing work and isolated himself in his bedroom. His affect has
A. Tricyclic anti-depressants (TCAs) progressively become more blunted. Recently, he believes that his wife
B. SSRIs and anti-psychotics is carrying a child conceived by “extraterrestrial forces”. He urged her to
C. Anti-psychotics and benzodiazepines have an abortion and she refused. The patient denies any history of
D. Anti-convulsants and stimulants substance abuse and his recent medical evaluation was within normal
E. Stimulants and SSRIs limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?
A. Brief psychotic disorder
5. A 33-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia has recently started B. Delusional disorder
treatment with Olanzapine. She has tolerated the medication well and is C. Psychosis not otherwise specified
living in a group home, anticipating moving into her own apartment. She D. Schizophreniform disorder
no longer hears voices and no longer has a desire to hurt herself. Which E. Schizophrenia
of the following side effects of Olanzapine is most likely to interfere with
her continued use of the drug? 10. Exposure therapy is not helpful in___________
A. Increased prolactin A. OCD
 B. PTSD Use the list below to identify the proper term for each question.
C. GAD
D. Agoraphobia A. Lability
E. Panic disorder B. Irritability
C. Dyscalculia
11. Which disorder is not commonly associated with OCD? D. Verbigeration
A. Depression E. Dysarthria
B. Substance misuse F. Gustation
C. Social phobia G. Glossolalia
D. Mania H. Hypochondriasis
E. Agoraphobia
19. A 24-year-old man whom you have been seeing for 2 years in
12. Panic disorder typically begins in__________ psychotherapy tells you that he was startled to learn that he could speak
A. Young individuals Spanish, which he never could before.
B. Children
C. Aged individuals 20. A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia repeats the words “wong, wong,
D. Infants wong”, followed by “raizon, raizon, raizon”
E. Adolescents

13. Which one is not the common features of social phobia? 21. A 79-year old woman who has suffered a stroke is frustrated by her
A. Hypersensitivity to criticism difficulty to form words
B. High self-esteem
C. Negative evaluation 22. A 23-year-old man is startled that he cannot taste chocolate. What
D. Lack of assertiveness sensation has he lost?
E. Poor social skills
Questions 23 and 24
14. Panic disorder must have the presence of ___________ A 21-year-old woman is brought to the psychiatric emergency department after
A. Palpitations calling the police to turn herself in. She claims that she was responsible for the loss
B. Hyperventilation of her neighbor’s pregnancy. She believes her negative thoughts toward the woman
C. Sweating caused her miscarriage. On further questioning, she tells you that she felt
D. Panic attack threatened by her neighbor because she believed her thoughts could be heard
E. Fear of dying through the walls. She feels that this is an invasion of her privacy.

15. In the course of a psychiatric diagnostic interview, which one is wrong? 23. The delusion that the patient’s thoughts towards the neighbor were the
A. Making eye contact throughout the interview responsible factors for the lost pregnancy is best termed which of the
B. Making facilitatory noises when listening following?
C. Pick up verbal and non-verbal cues of distress A. Magical thinking
D. Dealing with over-talkativeness B. Ideas of reference
E. Offering information soon C. Displacement
D. Projection
16. Which one is the most important in contents of the psychiatric history? E. Reaction formation
A. History of the present illness
B. Past psychiatric history 24. Which of the following is the best term for the patient’s fear that her
C. Medical history thoughts could be overheard?
D. Family history A. Thought broadcasting
E. Personal history (including developmental history) B. Thought insertion
C. Thought control
17. In the following selections, which one is NOT a section of the Mental D. Transference
Status Examination? E. Echolalia
A. Emotional expression
B. Pathologic reflex
C. Thinking and perception
D. Sensorium
E. Insight SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS/TERMS

18. The most important evidence in diagnosing functional psychosis 1. Hallucination

is_______ 2. Psychiatry
A. Mental symptom 3. Substance intoxication
B. Positive sign 4. Substance withdrawal
C. Laboratory evaluation 5. Psychological dependence
D. Social function 6. Bleuler’s Four As
E. All of the above 7. Dementia
8. Mood disorders
 9. Panic disorders/ panic attacks
10. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
11. Delusion
12. Autistic disorder
13. Separation Anxiety Disorder
14. Extrapyramidal syndrome
15. Rapid cycling mood
16. First generation anti-psychotics
17. 2nd generation anti-psychotics
18. Cyclothymia
19. Dysthymia
20. Schneider’s first rank symptoms
21. Manic speech
22. Mood congruent delusion
23. Mixed states of bipolar disorder symptoms
24. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)
25. Child psychiatry assessment
26. Features of schizophrenia
27. Features of alcohol withdrawal
28. Differentiate dementia and delirium
29. Difference between dementia and pseudo-dementia
30. What are the perpetuating factors/predisposing factors?
31. Indications and contraindications of ECT
32. Indications for rTMS
33. How to treat panic attack?
34. Define anxiety disorder; what are the types of anxiety disorders and the
treatment?
35. Gerstmann syndrome
36. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome- clinical features and treatment
37. Diagnostic criteria for substance abuse and dependence
38. Good and bad prognostic factors for schizophrenia
39. Diagnostic Criteria for Major Depressive Disorder
40. Diagnostic Criteria for Bipolar disorder
41. Define delirium and write any 5 causes of delirium
42. Define delusion; characteristics of delusion
43. Psychomotor retardation in depression
44. The first criteria of grouping substance use

CASE

1. Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)

i. What is the diagnosis? Why?
ii. What is your short-term management plan?
iii. Write any 3 differential diagnosis?
iv. What is your long-term management plan?
2. Bipolar disorder
3. Schizophrenia
i. What is the probably diagnosis?
ii. How do you manage the patient?

Internal Medicine 1 ----------------------------------------------------------------

SINGLE CHOICE QUESTIONS emergency room stretcher. On physical examination, he has a rigid
abdomen and decreased bowel sounds. He has localized left upper
1. A 19-year-old woman attending school in Massachusetts presents with quadrant guarding and rebound tenderness. There is referred rebound
the chief complaint of bloody diarrhea for 2 months. She has abdominal tenderness on palpation of the right upper quadrant. Rectal
discomfort and feels she has lost some weight. She also complains of examination is FOBT negative. Which of the following is the best
tenesmus. Abdominal examination is normal. The rectal exam reveals method of confirming the diagnosis in this patient?
stool containing blood and pus. Which of the following is the most likely A. Barium swallow
diagnosis? B. Leukocytosis
A. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Upper endoscopy
B. Ulcerative colitis D. Abdominal radiograph
C. Giardiasis E. Colonoscopy
D. Hemorrhoids
E. Diverticulitis 7. The best test to establish a diagnosis of cirrhosis of the liver is?
A. Liver biopsy
2. A 42-year-old man with no history of use of NSAIDs presents with B. CT
recurrent gastritis. Infection with Helicobacter pylori is suspected. C. Upper endoscopy
Which of the following statements is true? D. Abdominal radiograph
A. Morphologically, the bacteria is a gram-positive, tennis-racket-
shaped organism 8. A 19-year-old with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is taking 30 U of
B. Diagnosis can be made by serological testing or urea breath test NPH insulin each morning and 15 U at night. Because of persistent
C. Diagnosis is most routinely achieved via culturing endoscopic morning glycosuria with some ketonuria, the evening dose is increased
scrapings to 20 U. This worsens the morning glycosuria and now moderate
D. The most effective way to treat and prevent recurrence of this ketones are noted in urine. The patient complains of sweats and
patient’s gastritis is through the use of single drug therapy aimed headaches at night. The next step in management is?
at eradicating H.pylori. A. Increasing the evening dose of insulin
E. The organism is easily eradicated B. Increasing the morning dose of insulin
C. Switching from human NPH to pork insulin
3. Which of the following is most prevalent in China? D. Obtaining blood sugar levels between 2 and 5AM
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B 9. A 50-year-old woman is 5ft 7 inches tall and weighs 165lbs. There is a
C. Hepatitis C family history of diabetes mellitus. Fasting blood glucose is 150mg/dL
D. Hepatitis D on two occasions. The patient is asymptomatic and physical exam
shows no abnormalities. The treatment of choice is?
4. A 50-year old black man with a history of alcohol and tobacco abuse A. Observation
has complained of difficulty swallowing solid food for the past 2 B. Diet and weight reduction
months. More recently, swallowing fluids has also become a problem. C. Insulin
The patient has noted black, tarry stools on occasion and has lost 10lbs. D. Oral hypoglycemic agents
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The patient’s prognosis is good 10. Which is not the secretion of hormones by the pituitary gland?
B. Barium contrast study is indicated A. Thyroid stimulating hormone
C. The most likely tumor is an adenocarcinoma B. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
D. The patient has achalasia C. Follicle stimulating hormone
D. Calcitonin
5. A 27-year-old man who is in excellent health present for a routine
physical examination. Family history reveals that the patient’s mother 11. Where does the thyroid gland lie in the neck?
died of colon cancer at the age of 40 years and that a brother, who is 36 A. In front of the upper part of the trachea
years old, was recently diagnosed with colon cancer. The patient also B. In the front of the chest
has two maternal aunts with ovarian cancer. Physical examination is C. Below the pituitary gland
normal and fecal occult blood test (FOBT) is negative. Laboratory data is D. Behind the parathyroid gland
normal. Which of the following statements is true in this patient?
A. He most likely has the BRCA2 mutation 12. Which is the “mixed” gland (endocrine and exocrine)?
B. He needs an annual colonoscopy A. The thyroid gland
C. He should have a prophylactic colectomy B. The pancreas
D. If he develops colon cancer, it will most likely be in the proximal C. The pineal gland
colon D. The parathyroid glands
E. If he develops colon cancer, it will most likely be in the distal
colon 13. On routine physical examination, a young woman is found to have a
thyroid nodule. There is no pain, hoarseness, hemoptysis, or local
6. A 32-year-old man presents with severe abdominal pain. He describes symptoms. TSH is normal. The next step in evaluation is?
the pain as sharp and diffuse. He does not drink alcohol or take any A. Ultrasonography
medications. He has a past medical history significant of peptic ulcer B. Thyroid scan
disease over 5 years ago. The patient has stable vital signs and has no C. Surgical resection
orthostatic changes. You observe the patient to be lying very still on the D. Fine-needle aspiration of the thyroid
 10. Clinical presentation of Leukemia
14. A 30-year-old woman complains of fatigue, constipation and weight 11. SLEDAI (activity assessment of SLE)
gain. There is no prior history of neck surgery or radiation. The patient’s 12. Stages of Hepatic Encephalopathy
voice is hoarse and her skin is dry. Serum TSH is elevated and T4 low. 13. What are the causes and pathogenesis of peptic ulcer?
The most likely cause of these findings is? 14. Describe the WHO definition of blast crisis of CML. What is the
A. Autoimmune disease characteristic cytogenic of CML?
B. Post-ablative hypothyroidism
C. Pituitary hypofunction
D. Thyroid carcinoma

15. A 60-year-old woman complains of dry mouth and a gritty sensation in

her yes. She sometimes finds it difficult to speak for more than a few
minutes. There is no history of diabetes mellitus and no history of
neurologic disease. The patient is on no medications. On examination,
the buccal mucosa appears dry and the salivary glands are enlarged
bilaterally. The next step in evaluation is?
A. Lip biopsy
B. Schirmer test and measurement of auto-antibodies
C. IgG antibody to mumps virus
D. Use of corticosteroids

16. A 45-year-old woman has pain in her fingers on exposure to cold,

arthralgia and difficulty swallowing solid food. The most useful test to
make a definitive diagnosis would be?
A. Rheumatoid factor
B. Anti-nucleolar antibody
C. ECG
D. BUN and Creatinine

17. A 60-year-old asymptomatic man is found to have a leukocytosis when

a routine complete blood count (CBC) is obtained. Physical examination
shows no abnormalities. The spleen is normal in size. Lab data includes:
hemoglobin 9g/dL, leukocyte count 40,000/uL. Peripheral blood smear
shows a differential that includes 97% small lymphocytes. The most
likely diagnosis is?
A. Acute monocytic leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. Tuberculosis

18. The following is the feature of the leukemia cell except:

A. Over-proliferation
B. Poor differentiation
C. Low apoptosis
D. Hypermetabolism

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. Rheumatoid Arthritis-2010 Classification criteria

2. Type I vs. Type II Diabetes Mellitus
3. Acute intravascular hemolysis and chronic extravascular hemolysis
4. Treatment of severe Acute Pancreatitis
5. Organophosphate poisoning- muscarinic and nicotinic signs and the
antidotes
6. Characteristics of abdominal pain in peptic ulcer
7. Acute poisoning management
8. SLE Classification criteria
9. Etiology of cirrhosis Surgery 1 ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SINGLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
19. Best test for gallstones diagnosis?

1. Presumptive diagnosis of appendicitis? Sonography? CT? ERCP?

20. Anatomy of the peritoneal surface?

2. Most common non-obstetric surgical emergency that happens in
pregnancy?

21. Best imaging technique for pancreatic cancer?

3. Oral contraceptive- 6cm hepatic adenoma formation.What is your
22. Diabetic patient, pulsating abdominal mass? What is the probable
management?
diagnosis?
4. most common benign tumor of brain?

5. CNIX is which one? 23. Most important complication of deep vein thrombosis?

6. Which is not part of essential diagnosis of intestinal obstruction?

7. Acute cholangitis symptoms? 24. Which are used to treat hepatocellular carcinoma?

8. Big gallstone in common bile duct, plus polypoid mass in fundus of 25. Screening tool for breast cancer
gallbladder. What is the indication for cholecystectomy?

26. What is the best screening for early gastric cancer?

9. Which is not used for viewing gallstones?

27. Most important clinical manifestation of liver abscess?

10. Which is not a causative factor of acute pancreatitis?
28. Which one is not benign breast disease?

11. In splenectomy for ITP, what is most likely going to give long term
remission? 29. Pregnant woman, enlarged thyroid, shaking, what management?

High reticulocyte count? Enlarged spleen? CRP? Anti-thyroid drugs? Surgery? Radioiodine

12. Which is not part of child pugh score? 30. Main peritoneal lymphatic drainage?

Left thoracic duct?

13. What determines TBI severity? TERMS

Mechanism? Acute symptoms? Number and size of lesion on scans? 1.Calot’s triangle

14. A 70 year old man presents with reducible inguinal mass, what is not a 2.Sentinel pile
causative factor?
3.Early gastric carcinoma
Congenital? Smoking? Age?
4.Hesselbach’s triangle
15. An elderly man complains of no bowel movement for a few days; no
other major symptoms. What is your management? 5.Charcot’s triad

Laxative and enema? Abdominal CT? Digital examination? 6. Virchow’s triad

16. Gastric cancer, last year T1N0M0, cramping pain, relieves in supine 7. Recto-anal ring
position and on right side, extreme pain on examination. What is the
diagnostic test you would do? 8. Main syndrome of increased ICP

X-ray? Abdomen with IV contrast? Contrast abdominal CT? 9. Late dumping syndrome
Gastroscopy
10. Wallerian degeneration
17. Right hemicolectomy done, develops dilation, pain, tenderness, dilated
loops on X-ray, late vomiting. What is the cause? 11. Ankle brachial index (ABI)

Distal small bowel obstruction? Proximal small bowel obstruction? 12. Mirrize’s Disease
Closed loop bowel obstruction?
13. Pancreatic pseudocyst
18. Underwent a surgery recently, develops leg edema, what is the cause?
14. Lucid interval 1. Cholecystitis:
i. What is the most likely diagnosis?
15. Familiar Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP) ii. What are the differential diagnosis?
iii. How do you manage the patient?
16. 5 P signs
iv. What are the complications associated with surgery if
17. Subclavian Steal syndrome indicated in this case?

18. OPSI 2. Appendicitis:

i. What is the most likely diagnosis?
ii. What are the differential diagnosis?
iii. How do you manage the patient?
iv. What are the complications associated with surgery if
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS indicated in this case?

1. Management of increased ICP 3. Femoral hernia

2. Most likely cause of massive upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage and its
management.
3. Damage control surgery
4. Evaluation of arterial occlusion of limb
5. Causes of pancreatitis
6. Non-surgical management of gastroduodenal perforation
7. Pathology of abdominal hernia
8. Describe the types of gastric reconstruction after distal gastrectomy
9. Clinical features of strangulated intestinal obstruction
10. Complications of Thyroid surgery
11. What are the investigative ways of the biliary tract?
12. Blood supply of the stomach
13. Investigations of Thyroid cancer
14. Treatment of intestinal obstructions
15. Significance of dentate line
16. DAI: diffuse axonal injury
17. Symptoms of rectal prolapse
18. Contents of intracranial and 3 main symptoms for increased ICP
19. Complications of Appendectomy
20. Complications of hemorrhoids
21. Diagnosis of acute suppurative cholangitis
22. Investigation of thyroid nodule
23. Common causes of strangulated intestinal obstruction
24. Symptoms of ulcerative colitis
25. Etiology and pathogenesis of appendicitis
26. Liver trauma management
27. Treatment of pancreatic cancer
28. What are the differences between viable and non-viable intestine?
29. TNM Staging of gastric carcinoma. What is the TNM indicating
respectively?
30. Principle of pancreatic cancer
31. Symptoms of esophageal varices bleeding

CASE