PREFACE

Congratulations for clearing the first hurdle!!

Now, that we move on to the last stage of preparation, the

preparation gets more intense. This module will give you the final
boost for your JEE preparation. We have divided this module on a
chapter by chapter basis. Each module has questions (based on
the JEE Advanced), followed by the hints and solutions to some
selected questions.

We would strongly recommend each student to make a day to day

plan before starting to solve this module. Keep the time constraint
in mind while solving these questions.

We wish you the very best in this last lap of the JEE marathon.

Happy Learning 

Team Chemistry @ IIT-ian’s PACE

 ATOMIC STRUCTURE FINAL LAP - 2019

ATOMIC STRUCTURE
Single correct :
Q.1 The MRI (magentic resonance imaging) body scanners used in hospitals operate with 400 MHz radio
frequency energy. The wavelength corresponding to this radio frequency is
(A) 0.75 m (B) 0.75 cm (C) 1.5 m (D) 2 cm

Q.2 Which is the correct relationship :

(A) E1 of H = 1/2 E2 of He = 1/3 E3 of Li2+ = 1/4 E4 of Be3+
+

(B) E1(H) = E2(He+) = E3 (Li2+) = E4(Be3+)

(C) E1(H) = 2E2(He+) = 3E3 (Li2+) = 4E4(Be3+)
(D) No relation

Q.3 The shortest wavelength of He atom in Balmer series is x, then longest wavelength in the Paschen series
of Li+2 is
36 x 16 x 9x 5x
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 7 5 9

Q.4 An electron in a hydrogen atom in its ground state absorbs energy equal to the ionisation energy of Li+2.
The wavelength of the emitted electron is:
(A) 3.32 ×10–10 m (B) 1.17 Å (C) 2.32 × 10–9 nm (D) 3.33 pm

Q.5 An electron, a proton and an alpha particle have kinetic energies of 16E, 4E and E respectively. What is
the qualitative order of their de Broglie wavelengths?
(A) e > p =  (B) p =  > e (C) p > e >  (D)  < e » p

Q.6 Given H for the process Li(g)  Li+3(g) + 3e– is 19800 kJ/mole & IE1 for Li is 520 then IE2 & IE3
of Li+ are respectively (approx, value)
(A) 7505, 11775 (B) 520, 19280 (C) 11775, 19280 (D) Data insufficient

Q.7 In a certain electronic transition in the hydrogen atoms from an initial state (1) to a final state (2), the
difference in the orbital radius (r1 – r2) is 24 times the first Bohr radius. Identify the transition.
(A) 5  1 (B) 25  1 (C) 8  3 (D) 6  5

Q.8  
The value of (n2 + n1) and n 22  n12 for He+ ion in atomic spectrum are 4 and 8 respectively. The
wavelength of emitted photon when electron jump from n2 to n1 is
32 9 9 32
(A) R (B) R (C) 32 R (D) 9 R
9 H 32 H H H

Q.9 The wavelength associated with a golf ball weighing 200g and moving at a speed of 5m/h is of the order
(A) 10–10m (B) 10–20m (C) 10–30m (D) 10–40m

Q.10 What is uncertainity in location of a photon of wavelength 5000Å if wavelength is known to an accuracy
of 1 pm?
(A) 7.96 × 10–14 m (B) 0.02 m (C) 3.9 ×10–8 m (D) none

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Q.11 Consider the following nuclear reactions involving X & Y.
X  Y + 42 He
Y  8O18 + 1H1
If both neutrons as well as protons in both the sides are conserved in nuclear reaction then moles
of neutrons in 4.6 gm of X
(A) 2.4 NA (B) 2.4 (C) 4.6 (D) 0.2 NA

Q.12 Assuming Heisenberg Uncertainity Principle to be true what could be the minimum uncertainty in de-broglie
wavelength of a moving electron accelerated by Potential Difference of 6 V whose uncertainty in position
7
is nm.
22
(A) 6.25 Å (B) 6 Å (C) 0.625 Å (D) 0.3125 Å

Q.13 Total no. of lines in Lyman series of H spectrum will be

(A) n (B) n – 1 (C) n – 2 (D) n (n + 1)
(where n = no. of orbits)

Q.14 In a sample of H-atom electrons make transition from 5th excited state to ground state, producing all
possible types of photons, then number of lines in infrared region are
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 3

Q.15 Suppose that a hypothetical atom gives a red, green, blue and violet line spectrum . Which jump according
to figure would give off the red spectral line.

(A) 3 
1 (B) 2 
1 (C) 4 
1 (D) 3 
2

Q.16 In which transition minimum energy is emitted -

(A)   1 (B) 2  1 (C) 3 
2 (D) n 
 (n – 1) (n  4)

Q.17 What possibly can the ratio be of the de Broglie wavelengths for two electrons having the same initial
energy and accelerated through 50 volts and 200 volts?
(A) 3 : 10 (B) 10 : 3 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1

More than one may be correct :

Q.18 Choose the correct statement among the following
(A) Radial distribution function (  2 ·4r 2dr ) give probability at a particular distance along
one chosen direction
(B)  2 ( r ) give probability density at a particular distance over a spherical surface
(C) For 's' orbitals  ( r )  ()  ()   ( x , y, z ) is independent of  and 
(D) '2p' orbital with quantum numbers. n = 2,  = 1, m = 0, also shows angular dependence
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Q.19 Correct statement(s) regarding 3Py orbital is/are
(A) Angular part of wave function is independent of angles ( and )
(B) No. of maxima when a curve is plotted between 4r2R2(r) vs r are '2'
(C) 'xz' plane acts as nodal plane
(D) Magnetic quantum number must be '–1'

Q.20 Choose the incorrect statement(s):

(A) Increasing order of wavelength is
Micro waves > Radio waves > IR waves > visible waves > UV waves
(B) The order of Bohr radius is (rn : where n is orbit number for a given atom)
r 1 < r2 < r3 < r4
(C) The order of total energy is (En : where n is orbit number for a given atom)
E 1 > E2 > E3 > E4
(D) The order of velocity of electron in H, He+, Li+, Be3+ species in second Bohr orbit is
Be3+ > Li+2 > He+ > H

Q.21 Select the correct curve(s):

If v = velocity of electron in Bohr's orbit
r = Radius of electron in Bohr's orbit
P.E. = Potential energy of electron in Bohr's orbit
K.E. = Kinetic energy of electron in Bohr's orbit.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.22 If element 25X+Y has spin magnetic moment 1.732 B.M then
(A) number of unpaired electron = 1 (B) number of unpaired electron = 2
(C) Y = 4 (D) Y = 6

Q.23 Which of the following statement (s) are wrong.

(A) Photons having energy 400 kJ/mole can break 4 mole bonds of a molecule A2 where A – A
bond dissociation energy is 100kJ/mol.
(B) Two bulbs are emitting light having wavelength 2000Å & 3000Å respectively if the bulbs
A & B are 40watt and 30watt respectively then the ratio of no. of photons emitted by
A & B per day is 1/2.
(C) When an electron make transition from lower to higher orbit photon is emitted.
(D) None of the above

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Match the column :
Q.24 Column I & column II contain data on Schrondinger Wave–Mechanical model, where symbols have
their usual meanings.Match the columns.
Column I Column II (Type of orbital)

(A) (P) 4s

(B) (Q) 5px

(C) (,) = K (independent of &) (R) 3s

(D) atleast one angular node is present (S) 6dxy

Q.25 Column-I Column-I

(A) Electron moving in 2nd orbit in He+ ion (P) Radius of orbit in which
electron is moving is 0.529 Å

(B) Electron moving in 3rd orbit in H-atom (Q) Total energy of electron is
(–)13.6 × 9eV

(C) Electron moving in 1st orbit in Li+2 ion (R) Velocity of electron is
2.188  106
m/sec
3
(D) Electron moving in 2nd orbit is Be+3 ion (S) De-broglie wavelength of
150
electron is Å
13.6

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Subjective:
ke 2
Q.1 Suppose the potential energy between electron and proton at a distance r is given by  . Use
3r 3
Bohr’s theory to obtain energy of such a hypothetical atom.

Q.2 Mr. James Bond has to decode a number "ABCDEF" where each alphabet is represented by a single
digit. Suppose an orbital whose radial wave function is represented as
(r) = k1 · e  r / k 2 (r2 – 5k3r + 6k 32 )
From the following information given about each alphabet then write down the answers in the form of
"ABCDEF", for above orbital.
Info A = Value of n where "n" is principal quantum number
Info B = No. of angular nodes
Info C = Azimuthal quantum number of subshell to orbital belongs
Info D = No. of subshells having energy between (n + 5)s to (n + 5)p where n is principal quantum
number
Info E = Orbital angular momentum of given orbital.
Info F = Radial distance of the spherical node which is farthest from the nucleus
(Assuming k3= 1)

Q.3 In the Bohr's model, for unielectronic species following symbols are used
rn,z  Radius of nth orbit with atomic number "z"
Un,z  Potential energy of electron in nth orbit with atomic number "z"
Kn,z  Kinetic energy of electron in nth orbit with atomic number "z"
vn,z  Velocity of electron in nth orbit with atomic number "z"
Tn,z  Time period of revolution of electron in nth orbit with atomic number "z"
Calculate z in all in cases.
(i) U1, 2 : K1,z = – 8 : 1 (ii) r1,z : r2, 1 = 1 : 8
(iii) v1, z : v3, 1 = 9 : 1 (iv) T1, 2 : T2, z = 9 : 32

Q.4 Calculate the distance of spherical nodes for '3s' orbital from nucleus?
1  2r

2
R3s = 9 3a 3 / 2 (6 – 6  +  ) e 2 where  = na
0 0

Q.5 An atomic orbital has radial wave function represented as

(r )  ke r / k ' r 2 [(r 2  5.5a 0 r  7a 02 )(r 2  8.5a 0 r  18a 02 )]
where k, k' & a0 are constants.
(a) How many radial nodes are present at what distance from the nucleus? (answer in terms of a0)
(b) Draw a radial probability distribution curve for the above orbital clearly highlighting the parameters
which are being plotted & nodes & antinodes.
(c) In which period of periodic table does the first element with last electron in this orbital is expected to
go. What will be the total number of elements which can be present in that period?

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Q.1 A Q.2 B Q.3 B Q.4 B Q.5 A Q.6 A Q.7 A

Q.8 C Q.9 C Q.10 B Q.11 B Q.12 C Q.13 B Q.14 C
Q.15 D Q.16 D Q.17 D Q.18 C,D Q.19 B,C Q.20 A,C
Q.21 B,C,D Q.22 A, D Q.23 A, B, C
Q.24 (A) P, (B) P,Q,S, (C) P, R (D) Q, S
Q.25 (A) S, (B) R, (C) Q, (D) P

Subjective:
n6 h 6
Q.1 E=
384 m 3 K 2 e 4 6
93 3 93 3
Q.2 300303 Q.3 1, 2, 3, 3 Q.4 a0, a0
2 2
Q.5 5s orbital

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 GASEOUS STATE FINAL LAP - 2019

GASEOUS STATE
Single correct

Q.1 A manometer attached to a flask contains NH3 gas have no difference in mercury level initially as shown
in diagram. After the sparking into the flask, it have difference of 19 cm in mercury level in two columns.
Calculate % dissociation of ammonia.

(A) 10 % (B) 25 % (C) 50 % (D) 75 %

Q.2 Two gases NO and O2 were introduced at the two ends of a one metre long tube simultaneously
(tube of uniform cross- section). At what distance from NO gas end , Brown fumes will be seen.
(A) 22.3 cm (B) 44.8 cm (C) 50.8 cm (D) 74 cm

Q.3 Determine final pressure after the valve is left opened for a long time in the apparatus represented in
figure. Assume that the temperature is fixed at 300 K. Under the given conditions assume no reaction of
CO & O2.

(A) 3.28 atm (B) 5.34 atm (C) 8.23 atm (D) 10.4 atm

Q.4 The r. m. s. velocity of hydrogen is 7 times the r.. m. s. velocity of nitrogen. If T is the temperature of
the gas :
(A) T(H2) = T(N2) (B) T(H2) > T(N2) (C) T(H2) < T(N2) (D) T(H2) = 7 T(N2)

Q.5 The root mean square velocity of an ideal gas at constant pressure varies with density as
(A) d2 (B) d (C) d1/2 (D) 1/d1/2

Q.6 If the pressure of a gas contained in a closed vessel is increased by 0.4 % when heated by 1 ºC its initial
temperature must be :
(A) 250 K (B) 250 ºC (C) 25 ºC (D) 25 K
Q.7 The ratio of the rate of diffusion of helium and methane under identical condition of pressure and
temperature will be
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0.5

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Q.8 Gas A (1 mol) dissociates in a closed rigid container of volume 0.16 lit. as per following reaction.
2A (g)  3B (g) + 2C (g)
If degree of dissociation of A is 0.4 and remains constant in entire range of temperature, then the correct
P vs T graph is [Given R = 0.08 lit-atm/mol/K]

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.9 Calculate the ratio of rate of effusion of O2 and H2 from a container containing 16gm O2 and 2gm H2 :
(A) 1 : 8 (B) 8 : 1 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 4 : 1

Q.10 The number of effusion steps required to convert a mixture of H2 and O2 from 240 : 1600 (by mass) to
3072 : 20 (by mass) is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

Q.11 Three footballs are respectively filled with nitrogen , hydrogen and helium. If the leaking of the gas occurs

with time from the filling hole, then the ratio of the rate of leaking of gases  rN2 : rH2 : rHe  from three
footballs (in equal time interval) is

(A) 1 : 14 : 7  (B)  14 : 7 :1  (C)  7 : 1 : 14  
(D) 1 : 7 : 14 
Q.12 A rigid container containing 10 gm gas at some pressure and temperature. The gas has been allowed to
escape (do not consider any effusion or diffusion) from the container due to which pressure of the gas
becomes half of its initial pressure and temperature become 2 3rd of its initial. The mass of gas escaped
(A) 7.5 g (B) 1.5 g (C) 2.5 g (D) 3.5 g

Q.13 Consider the following pairs of gases A and B.

A B
(a ) CO N2
( b) O2 O3
235 238
(c ) UF6 UF6

Relative rates of effusion of gases A to B under similar condition is in the order:

(A) a < b < c (B) a < c < b (C) a > b > c (D) a > c > b
Q.14 The pressure of mixture of equal weights of two gases of molecular weight 4 and 40 is 1.1 atm. The
partial pressure of the lighter gas in the gas mixture is
(A) 0.55 atm (B) 0.11 atm (C) 1 atm (D) 0.1 atm
Q.15 The density of gas A is twice that of B at the same temperature the molecular weight of gas B is thrice that
of A. The ratio of pressure of gas A and gas B will be
(A) 1 : 6 (B) 7 : 8 (C) 6 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
Q.16 For the reaction
2NH3(g)  N2(g) + 3H2(g),
what is the % of NH3 converted if the mixture diffuses twice as fast as that of SO2 under similar conditions.
(A) 3.125 % (B) 31.25 % (C) 6.25 % (D) 62.5 %

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Q.17 A gaseous reaction,
3A  2B
is carried out in a 0.0821 litre closed container initially containing 1 mole of gas A. After sufficient time
a curve of P (atm) vs T (K) is plotted and the angle with x-axis was found to be 42.95°. The degree
of association of gas A is [Given : tan 42.95 = 0.8]
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.8

Q.18 For a real gas the P-V curve was experimentally plotted, and it had the following appearance. With
respect to liquefaction. Choose the correct statement.

(A) at T = 500 K, P = 40 atm, the state will be liquid.

(B) at T = 300 K, P = 50 atm, the state will be gas
(C) at T < 300 K, P > 20 atm, the state will be gas
(D) at 300 K < T < 500 K, P > 50 atm, the state will be liquid.

Q.19 Consider the following statements: If the van der Waal’s parameters of two gases are given as a
(atm lit2 mol–2) b (lit mol–1)
Gas X: 6.5 0.056
Gas Y: 8.0 0.011
then a : VC (X) < VC (Y) b : PC (X) < PC (Y) c : TC (X) < TC(Y)
Select correct alternate:
(A) a alone (B) a and b (C) a, b and c (D) b and c

Q.20 The critical density of the gas CO2 is 0.44 g cm–3 at a certain temperature. If r is the radius of the
molecule, r3 in cm3 is approximately. (N is Avogadro number)
25 100 6.25 25
(A)  N (B)  N (C)  N (D) 

Q.21 The curve of pressure volume (PV) against pressure (P) of the gas at a particular temperature is as
shown, according to the graph which of the following is incorrect (in the low pressure region):

(A) H2 and He show +ve deviation from ideal gas equation.

(B) CO, CH4 and O2 show negative deviation from ideal gas equation.
(C) H2 and He show negative deviation while CO2, CH4 and O2 show positive deviation.
(D) H2 and He are less compressible than that of an ideal gas while CO2, CH4 and O2 more compressible
than that of ideal gas.

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More than one correct:
Q.22 Select the correct observation for a 8.21 lit container, filled with 2 moles of He at 300 K.,
(A) It has pressure 6 atm
(B) If it is an open rigid container, its pressure increases to 8 atm on heating to 400 K.
(C) If it is closed non-rigid (like thin skin balloon), its volume increases to 16.42 lit. on heating to 600 K
(D) When connected with another similar empty container maintained at 150 K while maintaining original
2
container at 300 K, pressure reduces to atm.
3
Q.23 Select the correct option for an ideal gas undergoing a process as shown
in diagram.
(A) If 'n' is changing , 'V' must also be changing.
(B) If 'n' is constant , 'V' must be constant.
(C) If 'n' is constant , 'V' must be changing.
(D) If 'n' is changing , 'V' must be constant.

Q.24 Select the correct option(s) for an ideal gas

(A) Most probable speed increases with increase in temperature
(B) Fraction of particles moving with most probable speed increases with increase in temperature
(C) Fraction of particles moving with most probable speed are more for Cl2 than H2 under
similar condition of T, P & V.
(D) Most probable speed is more for Cl2 than H2 at same temperature
Q.25 Select the correct option(s):

(A) Pressure in container-I is 3 atm before opening the valve.

(B) Pressure after opening the valve is 3.57 atm.
(C) Moles in each compartment are same after opening the valve.
(D) Pressure in each compartment are same after opening the valve.
Q.26 Select the correct option(s).
(A) Fraction of molecule in the range Uavg ± f Uavg is same for SO2 and O2 at same Temperature
(0 < f < 1).
(B) Fraction of molecule in the range Umps ± 100 (m/sec) is same for SO2 and O2 at same Temperature.
(C) Fraction of molecule in the range Uavg ± f Uavg is same for O2 at 300 K and at 200 K (0 < f < 1).
(D) None of these

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Q.27 A container fitted with frictionless massless piston consist of five valves–I, II, III, IV and V. These
valves open automatically if pressure exceed over 1.5, 2.2, 2.5, 4.4 and 4.8 atm respectively. Under the
given initial conditions (mentioned in given diagram) system is in state of equilibrium. Piston is now
pressed in downward direction very slowly.
[Note: Consider the diameter of valve tube negligible and temperature remain constant.]

Select the correct option(s):

(A) Valve –II will be opened first
(B) As the piston crosses the valve which will be opened first, the remaining number of moles in container
5
are .
3
(C) Valve–V will be the second valve which open
(D) Number of moles will zero as piston crosses Valve–V

Q.28 An open ended mercury manometer is used to measure the pressure exerted by a trapped gas as shown
in the figure. Initially manometer shows no difference in mercury level in both columns as shown in
diagram.

After sparking 'A' dissociates according to following reaction

2A(g)  3B(g) + 2C(g)
If pressure of Gas "A" decreases to 0.8 atm. Then (Assume temperature to be constant and is 300 K)
(A) total pressure increased by 1.3 atm
(B) total pressure increased by 0.3 atm
(C) total pressure increased by 22.3 cm of Hg
(D) difference in mercury level is 228 mm.

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Q.29 Following represents the Maxwell distribution curve for an ideal gas at two temperatures T1 & T2.
Which of the following option(s) are true?

(A) Total area under the two curves is independent of moles of gas
(B) If dU1= f Umps1 & dU2 = f Umps2 then A1 = A2
(C) T1 > T2 and hence higher the temperature, sharper the curve.
(D) The fraction of molecules having speed = Umps decreases as temperature increases.

Match the column:

Q.30 Match the entries in column I with entries in Column II and then pick out correct options.
Column I Column II

1
(A) vs P for ideal gas at (P)
V2
constant T and n.

1
(B) V vs for ideal gas at (Q)
T

constant P and n

(C) log P vs log V for ideal gas (R)

at constant T and n.

1
(D) V vs for ideal gas (S)
P2

at constant T and n.

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Q.31 Match the description in Column I with graph provided in Column II. For n moles of ideal gas at
temperature 'T'.
Column I Column II

P
(A) vs P (P)
V

P
(B) vs V (Q)
V

V
(C) vs P–2 (R)
P

P
(D) vs log P (S)
V

Comprehension

Q.32 and Q.33 are based on the following passage.

Under a given condition, it is found that two separate gases effuse out of two separate container in such
dN dN
a way that they follows the equation = – K1 N & = – K2N, K1=6.93 × 10–3 sec–1 ,
dt dt
K2=6.93 × 10–5sec–1, where N is no. of molecules remaining in the container.

Q.32 Which one of the following may represent fraction of no. of molecules present after the given interval for gas-I?
(A) t = 0 t = 100sec t = 200 sec (B) t = 0 t = 100 sec t = 200 sec
1 1 1 1
1 1
2 8 8 16
(C) t = 0 t = 100 sec t = 200 sec (D) t = 0 t = 100 sec t = 200 sec
1 1 1 1
1 1
2 4 4 16
Q.33 Identify the correct option regarding sequence of (True) & (False) statements
(i) The time required for moles of gas I to get reduced to half of original & that of gas II to reduced to half
of original is independent of initial moles of gas I & gas II.
(ii) The rate at which initially molecules will come out in gas I as compared to gas II will be greater in gas
II if initial no. of molecules are same.
(iii) The time required for moles to get reduced from 1 to 0.8 in gas I and 2 to 1.6 in gas II will be same
(iv) For the two gases, moles remaining on the container after same interval should be in Geometrical
Progression.
(A) TFFT (B) TFTT (C) FTFT (D) TTFF

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Q.34 and Q.35 are based on the following passage.

For a gaseous reaction,
2A(g)  3B(g) + C(g)
Whose extent of dissociation depends on temperature is performed in a
closed container, it is known that extent of dissociation of A is different
in different temperature range. With in a temperature range it is constant.
(Temperature range T0 – T1, T1 – T2, T2 – T).
A plot of P v/s T is drawn under the given condition.
Given : tan55 = 1.42, tan50 = 1.19, tan60 = 1.73

Q.34 If  Ti  Ti 1 is the degree of dissociation of A then in the temperature

range Ti  Ti + 1
(A)  T is lowest (B)  T is highest
0  T1 0  T1

(C)  T2 T = 1 (D)  T2 T = 0

Q.35 If initially 1 mole of A is taken in a 0.0821 l container then [R = 0.0821 atm lit / k]
(A)  T = 0.19 (B)  T = 0.095 (C)  T1  T2  0.42 (D)  T1  T2  0.73
0  T1 0  T1

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Q.1 B Q.2 C Q.3 A Q.4 C Q.5 D

Q.6 A Q.7 B Q.8 B Q.9 A Q.10 C

Q.11 A Q.12 C Q.13 B Q.14 C Q.15 C

Q.16 C Q.17 B Q.18 D Q.19 D Q.20 C

Q.21 C Q.22 A, C Q.23 A, B Q.24 A, C

Q.25 A, D Q.26 A, C Q.27 B, C Q.28 B, D

Q.29 A, B, D

Q.30 (A) R, (B) S, (C) P, (D) Q

Q.31 (A) S; (B) R, (C) Q; (D) P

Q.32 C Q.33 A Q.34 A Q.35 A, C

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CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

Only one is correct

Q.1 The reaction A + B C + D is studied in a one litre vessel at 250°C. The initial concentration of A was
3n and that of B was n. When equilibrium was attained, equilibrium concentration of C was found to be
equal to the equilibrium concentration of B. What is the concentration of D at equilibrium?
(A) n/2 (B) (3n – 1/2) (C) (n – n/3) (D) n

Q.2 What is the equilibrium constant for the reaction

P4(s) + 5O2(g) P4O10(s) :
1 P4O10  P4O10 
(A) Kc = 5 (B) Kc = 5[P ][O ]5 (C) Kc = [O2]5 (D) Kc = [P ][O ]5
O 2  4 2 4 2

Q.3 Equilibrium constant for the following equilibrium is given at 0ºC.

Na2HPO4 . 12H2O (s) Na2HPO4 . 7H2O (s) + 5H2O(g) KP = 31.25 × 10–13
the partial pressure of water is
1
(A) ×10–3 atm (B) 0.5 × 10–3 atm (C) 5 × 10–2 atm (D) 5 × 10–3 atm.
5

Q.4 The equilibrium constant for the given reaction :

1
SO3(g) SO2(g) + O (g) ; Kc = 4.9 × 10–2
2 2
The value of Kc for the reaction :
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g), will be
(A) 416 (B) 2.40 × 10–3 (C) 9.8 × 10–2 (D) 4.9 × 10–2

Q.5 For the following three reactions 1, 2 and 3, equilibrium constants are given :
(1) CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g) ; K1
(2) CH4(g) + H2O(g) CO(g) + 3H2(g) ; K2
(3) CH4(g) + 2H2O(g) CO2(g) + 4H2(g) ; K3
Which of the following relations is correct ?
(A) K1 K 2 = K3 (B) K2K3 = K1 (C) K3 = K1K2 (D) K3 · K23K12

Q.6 Consider following reactions in equilibrium with equilibrium concentration 0.01 M of every species
(I) PCl5 (g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) (II) 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2 (g)
(III) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
Extent of the reactions taking place is:
(A) I > II > III (B) I < II < III (C) II < III < I (D) III < I < II

Q.7 A definite amount of solid NH4HS is placed in a flask already containing ammonia gas at a certain
temperature and 0.50 atm pressure. NH4HS decomposes to give NH3 and H2S and at equilibrium total
pressure in flask is 0.84 atm. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is :
(A) 0.30 (B) 0.18 (C) 0.17 (D) 0.11

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Q.8 X2 + Y2 2XY reaction was studied at a certain temperature. In the beginning 1 mole of X2 was
taken in a one litre flask and 2 moles of Y2 was taken in another 2 litre flask and both these containers are
connected so equilibrium can be established. What is the equilibrium concentration of X2 and Y2? Given
Equilibrium concentration of [XY] = 0.6 moles/litre.
1  2  1  2 
(A)  3  0.3  ,  3  0.3  (B)  3  0.6  ,  3  0.6 
       
(C) (1 – 0.3) , (2 – 0.3) (D) (1 – 0.6) , (2 – 0.6)

Q.9 At a temp, T, a compound AB4(g) dissociates as 2AB4(g) A2(g) + 4B2(g) with a degree of dissociation
x, which is small compared with unity. The expression of Kp in terms of x and total pressure P is ;
(A) 8P3x5 (B) 256P3x5 (C) 4Px2 (D) None of these.

Q.10 1 mole N2 and 3 mol H2 are placed in a closed container at a pressure of 4 atm. The pressure falls to 3
atm at the same temperature when the following equilibrium is attained.
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g). The equilibrium constant KP for dissociation of NH3 is:
1 0.5  (1.5)3 3 3
(A) × (1.5)3 atm–2 (B) 0.5 ×(1.5)3 atm2 (C) atm2 (D) 3 atm
–2
0. 5 3 3 0 .5  (1 . 5)

Q.11 One mole of N2O4 (g) at 300 K is left in a closed container under one atm . It is heated to 600 K
when 20 % by mass of N2O4 (g) decomposes to NO2 (g) . The resultant pressure is :
(A) 1.2 atm (B) 2.4 atm (C) 2.0 atm (D) 1.0 atm

Q.12 For the following gases equilibrium. N2O4 (g) 2NO2 (g)
Kp is found to be equal to Kc. This is attained when temperature is
(A) 0°C (B) 273 K (C) 1 K (D) 12.19 K
1
Q.13 For the reaction : CO(g) + O (g) CO2(g), Kp/ Kc is :
2 2
(A) RT (B) (RT)–1 (C) (RT)–1/2 (D) (RT)1/2

Q.14 For the reaction; 2NO2(g) 2NO(g) + O2(g)

Kc = 1.8 × 10 at 184° C and R = 0.083 latmK–1 mol–1. When Kp and Kc are compared at 184°C,
–6

it is found that :
(A) Kp > Kc (B) Kp < Kc
(C) Kp = Kc (D) Kp  Kc depends upon pressure of gases

Q.15 PCl5 dissociation a closed container as :

PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
If total pressure at equilibrium of the reaction mixture is P and degree of dissociation of PCl5 is , the
partial pressure of PCl3 will be :
    2       
(A) P ·   (B) P ·   (C) P ·   (D) P ·  
   1 1       1 1   

Q.16 For the reaction : 2Hl (g) H2(g) + I2(g), the degree of dissociated () of Hl(g) is related to equilibrium
constant KP by the expression

1 2 Kp 1  2K p 2K p 2 Kp
(A) (B) (C) 1  2K p (D) 1  2 K
2 2 p

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Q.17 The equilibrium constant for the reaction

A(g) + 2B(g) C(g)
is 0.25 dm mol . In a volume of 5 dm3, what amount of A must be mixed with 4 mol of B to yield 1 mol
6 –2

of C at equilibrium.
(A) 3 moles (B) 24 moles (C) 26 moles (D) None of these

Q.18 For the reaction A(g) + 2B(g) C(g) + D(g) ; Kc = 1012 .

If the initial moles of A,B,C and D are 0.5, 1, 0.5 and 3.5 moles respectively in a one litre vessel. What
is the equilibrium concentration of B?
(A) 10–4 (B) 2 × 10–4 (C) 4 ×10–4 (D) 8 × 10–4

Q.19 The equilibrium constant KC for the reaction,

A(g) + 2B(g) 3C(g) is 2 × 10–3
What would be the equilibrium partial pressure of gas C if initial pressure of gas A & B are 1 & 2 atm
respectively.
(A) 0.0625 atm (B) 0.1875 atm (C) 0.21 atm (D) None of these

Q.20 A 20.0 litre vessel initially contains 0.50 mole each of H2 and I2 gases. These substances react and finally
reach an equilibrium condition. Calculate the equilibrium concentration of HI if Keq = 49 for the reaction
H2 + I2 2HI.
(A) 0.78 M (B) 0.039 M (C) 0.033 M (D) 0.021 M

Q.21 A vessel of 250 litre was filled with 0.01 mole of Sb2S3 and 0.01 mole of H2 to attain the equilibrium at
440°C as Sb2S3 (s) + 3H2 (g) 2Sb (s) + 3H2S (g).
After equilibrium the H2S formed was analysed by dissolving it in water and treating with excess of Pb2+
to give 1.195 g of PbS (Molecular weight = 239) precipitate.
What is value of Kc of the reaction at 440°C?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) None of these

Q.22 The equilibrium constant for the reaction CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g) is 3 at 500 K. In a 2 litre
vessel 60 gm of water gas [equimolar mixture of CO(g) and H2(g)] and 90 gm of steam is initially taken.
What is the equilibrium concentration of H2(g) at equilibrium (mole/L)?
(A) 1.75 (B) 3.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 0.75

Q.23 At 87°C, the following equilibrium is established

H2(g) + S(s) H2S (g) Kp = 7 × 10–2
If 0.50 mole of hydrogen and 1.0 mole of sulfur are heated to 87°C in 1.0 L vessel, what will be the
partial pressure of H2S at equilibrium?
(A) 0.966 atm (B) 1.38 atm (C) 0.0327 atm (D) 9.66 atm

Q.24 At certain temperature (T) for the gas phase reaction

2H2O(g) + 2Cl2 (g) 4HCl(g) + O2(g) Kp = 12 × 108 atm
If Cl2, HCl & O2 are mixed in such a manner that the partial pressure of each is 2 atm and the mixture is
brough into contact with excess of liquid water. What would be approximate partial pressure of Cl2
when equilibrium is attained at temperature (T)?
[Given : Vapour pressure of water is 380 mm Hg at temperature (T)]
(A) 3.6 ×10–5 atm (B) 10–4 atm (C) 3.6 ×10–3 atm (D) 0.01 atm

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Q.25 At 675 K, H2(g) and CO2 (g) react to form CO(g) and H2O (g), Kp for the reaction is 0.16.
If a mixture of 0.25 mole of H2(g) and 0.25 mol of CO2 is heated at 675 K, mole % of CO(g) in
equilibrium mixture is :
(A) 7.14 (B) 14.28 (C) 28.57 (D) 33.33

Q.26 In which of the following reactions, increase in the pressure at constant temperature does not affect the
moles at equliibrium :
1
(A) 2NH3(g) N2(g) + 3H2(g) (B) C(g) + O (g) CO(g)
2 2
1
(C) H2(g) + O (g) H2O(g) (D) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
2 2

Q.27 Change in volume of the system does not alter the number of moles in which of the following equilibrium
(A) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) (B) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(C) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) (D) SO2Cl2(g) SO2(g) + Cl2(g)

Q.28 The conditions favourable for the reaction :

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) ; H° = – 198 kJ
are :
(A) low temperature, high pressure (B) any value of T and P
(C) low temperature and low pressure (D) high temperature and high pressure

Q.29 The exothermic formation of ClF3 is represented by the equation :

Cl2(g) + 3F2(g)  2ClF3(g) H = – 329 kJ
Which of the following will increase the quantity of ClF3 in an equilibrium mixture of Cl2, F2 and ClF3 :
(A) Increasing the temperature (B) Removing Cl2
(C) Increasing the volume of container (D) Adding F2

Q.30 Densities of diamond and graphite are 3.5 and 2.3 gm/mL.
C (diamond) C (graphite) rH = –1.9 kJ/mole
favourable conditions for formation of diamond are
(A) high pressure and low temperature (B) low pressure and high temperature
(C) high pressure and high temperature (D) low pressure and low temperature

Q.31 The equilibrium SO2Cl2(g) SO2(g) + Cl2(g) is attained at 25°C in a closed rigid container and an
inert gas, helium is introduced. Which of the following statements is/are correct.
(A) concentrations of SO2, Cl2 and SO2Cl2 do not change
(B) more chlorine is formed
(C) concentration of SO2 is reduced
(D) more SO2Cl2 is formed

Q.32 Following two equilibrium is simultaneously established in a container

PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
CO(g) + Cl2(g) COCl2(g)
If some Ni(s) is introduced in the container forming Ni (CO)4 (g) then at new equilibrium
(A) PCl3 concentration will increase (B) PCl3 concentration will decrease
(C) Cl2 concentration will remain same (D) CO concentration will remain same
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Q.33 The yield of product in the reaction, 2A(g) + B(g) 2C(g) + Q kJ
would be lower at :
(A) low temperature and low pressure (B) high temperature & high pressure
(C) low temperature and to high pressure (D) high temperature & low pressure

Q.34 What is the effect of the reduction of the volume of the system for the equilibrium 2C(s) + O2(g) 2CO (g)?
(A) The equilibrium will be shifted to the left by the increased pressure caused by the reduction in
volume.
(B) The equilibrium will be shifted to the right by the decreased pressure caused by the reduction in
volume.
(C) The equilibrium will be shifted to the left by the increased pressure caused by the increase in volume.
(D) The equilibrium will be shifted to the right by the increased pressure caused by the reduction in
volume.

Q.35 The vapour density of N2O4 at a certain temperature is 30. What is the % dissociation of N2O4 at this
temperature?
(A) 53.3% (B) 106.6% (C) 26.7% (D) None

Q.36 The equilibrium constant KP for the reaction is 9 at 7 atm and 300 K for A2 (g) B2(g) + C2 (g)
Calculate the average molar mass (in gm/mol) of an equilibrium mixture.
Given : Molar mass of A2, B2 and C2 are 70, 49 & 21 gm/mol respectively.
(A) 50 (B) 45 (C) 40 (D) 37.5

Q.37 The equilibrium constants K P1 and K P2 for the reactions

X 2Y and Z P + Q, respectively are in the ratio of 1 : 9. If the degree of dissociation of X and
Z be equal then the ratio of total pressures at these equilibria is :
(A) 1 : 36 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 9

Q.38 When N2O5 is heated at temp. T, it dissociates as N 2 O5 N 2 O3  O 2 , Kc = 2.5. At the same time
N 2O3 also decomposes as : N2O3  N2O + O2. If initially 4.0 moles of N2O5 are taken in 1.0 litre flask
and allowed to attain equilibrium, concentration of O2 was formed to be 2.5 M. Equilibrium concentration
of N2O is
(A) 1.0 (B) 1.5 (C) 2.166 (D) 0.334

Q.39 An exothermic reaction is represented by the graph :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

More than one may be correct

Q.40 For the reaction PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), the forward reaction at constant temperature is favoured
by
(A) introducing an inert gas at constant volume (B) introducing chlorine gas at constant volume
(C) introducing an inert gas at constant pressure (D) introducing PCl5 at constant volume.

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Q.41 When NaNO3 is heated in a closed vessel, oxygen is liberated and NaNO2 is left behind. At equilibrium
(A) addition of NaNO2 favours reverse reaction
(B) addition of NaNO3 favours forward reaction
(C) increasing temperature favours forward reaction
(D) increasing pressure favours reverse reaction

Q.42 For the gas phase reaction, C2H4 + H2 C2H6 (H = – 32.7 kcal), carried out in a closed vessel, the
equilibrium moles of C2H4 can be increased by
(A) increasing the temperature (B) decreasing the pressure
(C) removing some H2 (D) adding some C2H6

Q.43 Phase diagram of CO2 is shown as following

73
Solid Liquid
67
P (atm)
5

1 Gas

195 217 298 304

T(K)
Based on above find the correct statement(s)
(A) 298K is the normal boiling point of liquid CO2
(B) At 1 atm & 190 K CO2 will exist as gas.
(C) CO2(s) will sublime above 195K under normal atmospheric pressure
(D) Melting point & boiling point of CO2 will increase on increasing pressure
Q.44 The equilibrium between, gaseous isomers A, B and C can be represented as
Reaction Equilibrium constant
A (g) B (g) : K1 = ?
B (g) C (g) : K2 = 0.4
C (g) A (g) : K3 = 0.6
If one mole of A is taken in a closed vessel of volume 1 litre, then
(A) [A] + [B] + [C] = 1 M at any time of the reactions
(B) Concentration of C is 4.1 M at the attainment equilibrium in all the reactions
1
(C) The value of K1 is (D) Isomer [A] is least stable as per thermodynamics.
0.24

Q.45 For the gas phase exothermic reaction, A2 + B2 C2, carried out in a closed vessel, the equilibrium
moles of A2 can be increased by
(A) increasing the temperature (B) decreasing the pressure
(C) adding inert gas at constant pressure (D) removing some C2
Q.46 Consider the equilibrium HgO(s) + 4I– (aq) + H2O (l) HgI42– (aq) + 2OH– (aq), which changes
will decrease the equilibrium concentration of HgI42–
(A) Addition of 0.1 M HI (aq) (B) Addition of HgO (s)
(C) Addition of H2O (l) (D) Addition of KOH (aq)

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Q.47 Decrease in the pressure for the following equilibria : H2O (s) H2O(l) result in the :
(A) formation of more H2O (s) (B) formation of more H2O(l)
(C) increase in melting point of H2O(s) (D) decrease in melting point of H2O(s)

Assertion Reason
Q.48 Statement -1 : Total number of moles in a closed system at new equilibrium is less than the old equilibrium
if some amount of a substance is removed from a system
(consider a reaction A(g) B(g) ) at equilibrium.
Statement -2 : The number of moles of the substance which is removed, is partially compensated as the
system reached to new equilibrium.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
(D) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.

Q.49 Statement-1 : Ammonia at a pressure of 10 atm and CO2 at a pressure of 20 atm are introduced
into an evacuated chamber. If Kp for the reaction
NH2COONH4 (s) 2NH3 (g) + CO2 (g) is 2020 atm3, the total pressure
after a long time is less than 30 atm.
Statement-2 : Equilibrium can be attained from both directions.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Comprehension :
Paragraph for Question Nos. 50 to 53
In a 7.0 L evacuated chamber , 0.50 mol H2 and 0.50 mol I2 react at 427°C .
H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) . At the given temperature, KC=49 for the reaction.

Q.50 What is the value of Kp ?

(A) 7 (B) 49 (C) 24.5 (D) None

Q.51 What is the total pressure (atm) in the chamber?

(A) 83.14 (B) 831.4 (C) 8.21 (D) None

Q.52 How many moles of the iodine remain unreacted at equilibrium?

(A) 0.388 (B) 0.112 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.125

Q.53 What is the partial pressure (atm) of HI in the equilibrium mixture?

(A) 6.385 (B) 12.77 (C) 40.768 (D) 646.58

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 54 to 56
If we know the equilibrium constant for a particular reaction, we can calculate the concentrations in the
equilibrium mixture from the initial concentrations. Commonly only the initial concentration of reactants
are given.

Q.54 In a study of equilibrium

H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI (g)
1 mol of H2 and 3 mol of I2 gave rise at equilibrium to x mol of HI.
Addition of a further 2 mol of H2 gave an additional x mol of HI. What is x?
(A) 0.5 (B) 1 (C) 1.5 (D) None of these

Q.55 In above problem, what is Kp at the temperature of the experiment.

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) None of these

Q.56 In a study of equilibrium

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g).
Starting with 2 mole SO2 and 1.5 mole O2 in 5 litre flask. Equilibrium mixture required 0.4 mole KMnO4
in acidic medium. Hence KC is :
(A) 0.2 (B) 5.0 (C) 675.0 (D) None of these

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Q.1 A Q.2 A Q.3 D Q.4 A Q.5 C Q.6 B Q.7 D

Q.8 A Q.9 B Q.10 B Q.11 B Q.12 D Q.13 C Q.14 A

Q.15 A Q.16 D Q.17 C Q.18 B Q.19 B Q.20 B Q.21 A

Q.22 A Q.23 A Q.24 C Q.25 B Q.26 D Q.27 A Q.28 A

Q.29 D Q.30 C Q.31 A Q.32 B Q.33 D Q.34 A Q.35 A

Q.36 C Q.37 A Q.38 D Q.39 A Q.40 C,D Q.41 C, D

Q.42 A, B, C, D Q.43 C, D Q.44 A, C, D Q.45 A, B, C

Q.46 C, D Q.47 A, C Q.48 B Q.49 D Q.50 B Q.51 C Q.52 B

Q.53 A Q.54 C Q.55 C Q.56 B

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IONIC EQUILIBRIUM
Single correct
Q.1 Which of the following solution will have a pH exactly equal to 8 ?
(A) 10–8 M HCl solution at 25ºC (B) 10–8 M H+ solution at 25ºC
(C) 2 × 10–6 M Ba(OH)2 solution at 25ºC (D) 10–6 M NaOH solution at 50ºC

Q.2 0.1mol HCl is dissolved in distilled water of volume V then V  lim

  (pH)solution is equal to
(A) zero (B) 1 (C) 7 (D) 14

Q.3 pH of an aqeous solution of NaCl at 85°C should be

(A) 7 (B) > 7 (C) < 7 (D) 0

Q.4 Which of the following is true

(A) pkb for OH¯ is – 1.74 at 25°C
(B) The equilibrium constant for the reaction between HA (pka = 4) and NaOH at 25°C will be
equal to 1010.
(C) The pH of a solution containing 0.1 M HCOOH (ka = 1.8 × 10–4 ) and 0.1 M HOCN.
(ka = 3.2 × 10–4 ) will be nearly (3 - log 7).
(D) all the above are correct.

M M
Q.5 10 ml of H2SO4 is mixed with 40 ml of H SO . The pH of the resulting solution is
200 200 2 4
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 2.3 (D) none of these

Q.6 If pKb for fluoride ion at 25° C is 10.83, the ionisation constant of hydrofluoric acid in water at this
temperature is :
(A) 1.74 × 105 (B) 3.52 × 103 (C) 6.75 × 104 (D) 5.38 × 102

Q.7 At what molar concentration of HCl will its aqueous solution have an [H+] to which equal contributions
come from HCl and H2O.
(A) 60 × 10–7 M (B) 50 × 10–8 M (C) 40 × 10–9 M (D) 30 × 10–8

Q.8 If K1 & K2 be first and second ionisation constant of H3PO4 and K1 >> K2 which is incorrect.
(A) [H+] = [ H 2 PO4 ] (B) [H+] = K1[ H 3PO 4 ]
(C) K2 = [HPO4  ] (D) [H+] = 3[ PO 34 ]

Q.9 If 50 ml of 0.2 (M) KOH is added to 40 ml of 0.5 (M) HCOOH. the pH of the resulting solution is:
(K = 1.8 × 10–4)
(A) 3.75 (B) 5.6 (C) 7.5 (D) 3.4

Q.10 A solution with pH 2.0 is more acidic than the one with pH 6.0 by a factor of:
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 3000 (D) 10000

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Q.11 What will be the pH at the equivalence point during the titration of a 100 mL 0.2 M solution of
CH3 COONa with 0.2 M solution of HCl ? Ka = 2 × 10–5 .
(A) 3 – log 2 (B) 3 + log 2 (C) 3 – log 2 (D) 3 + log 2

Q.12 An aqueous solution contains 0.01 M RNH2 (Kb = 2 ×10–6) & 10–4 M NaOH.
The concentration of OH¯ is nearly :
(A) 2.414 ×10–4 (B) 10–4 M (C) 1.414 × 10–4 (D) 2 × 10–4

Q.13 The degree of hydrolysis of a salt of weak acid and weak base in it’s 0.1 M solution is found to be 50%.
If the molarity of the solution is 0.2 M, the percentage hydrolysis of the salt should be
(A) 100% (B) 50% (C) 25% (D) none of these

Q.14 What is the percentage hydrolysis of NaCN in N/80 solution when the dissociation constant for HCN is
1.3 × 10–9 and Kw = 1.0 × 10–14
(A) 2.48 (B) 5.26 (C) 8.2 (D) 9.6

Q.15 The compound whose 0.1 M solution is basic is

(A) Ammonium acetate (B) Ammonium chloride
(C) Ammonium sulphate (D) Sodium acetate

Q.16 When a weak acid is titrated against a strong base. The pH of solution keeps on changing with amount
 v MOH 
of base added. In this titration there is a formation of buffer also. If the buffer capacity  H  (here
 
defined as the volume of base of a particular concentration added per unit change in pH), is plotted
against volume of base added for titration of 25 ml, 0.1 M HA (weak acid) solution with 0.1 M strong
base solution, then the most appropriate curve will be :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Q.17 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added to 60 mL of 0.15 M H3 PO4 solution (K1 , K2 and K3 is

10–3, 10–8 and 10–13 respectively). The pH of the mixture would be about
(A) 3.1 (B) 5.5 (C) 4.1 (D) 6.5

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Q.18 The pKa of a weak acid, HA, is 4.80. The pKb of a weak base, BOH, is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous
solution of the corresponding salt, BA, will be :
(A) 8.58 (B) 4.79 (C) 7.01 (D) 9.22

Q.19 A physician wishes to prepare a buffer solution at pH = 3.85 that efficiently resists changes in pH yet
contains only small concentration of the buffering agents. Which of the following weak acids together
with its sodium salt would be best to use
(A) m-chlorobenzoic acid (pKa = 3.98) (B) p-chlorocinnamic acid (pKa = 2.97)
(C) 2, 5-dihydroxy benzoic acid (pKa = 2.97) (D) Acetoacetic acid (pKa = 3.58)

Q.20 How many gm of solid NaOH must be added to 100 ml of a buffer solution which is 0.1 M each w.r.t.
Acid HA and salt Na+ A– to make the pH of solution 5.5. Given pka (HA) = 5.
(Use antilog (0.5) = 3.16)
(A) 2.08 × 10–1 (B) 3.05 × 10–3 (C) 2.01 × 10–2 (D) None of these

Q.21 If 40 ml of 0.2 M KOH is added to 160 ml of 0.1 M HCOOH [Ka = 2×10–4], the pOH of the resulting
solution is
(A) 3.4 (B) 3.7 (C) 7 (D) 10.3

Q.22 A buffer solution is prepared by mixing 'a' moles of CH3 COONa and 'b' moles of CH3 COOH
such that (a + b) = 1, into water to make 1L buffer solution. If the buffer capacity of this buffer
solution is plotted against moles of salt CH3COONa (with a) then the plot obtained will be (to
the scale) approximately.
0.55
0.50
0.25 0.45
Buffer capacity
Buffer capacity

0.20 0.40
(A) (B)
0.15 0.35

0.10 0.30
0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0
a a
0.55
0.50
Buffer capacity

0.25
Buffer capacity

0.45
0.20
0.40
0.15
(C) 0.35 (D)
0.10
0.30 0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0
0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0
a
a

Q.23 The pKa of a weak acid (HA) is 4.5. The pOH of an aqueous buffered solution of HA in which 50% of
the acid is ionized is :
(A) 4.5 (B) 2.5 (C) 9.5 (D) 7.0

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Q.24 The solubility product Mg(OH)2 in water at 250C is 8.9 x 10-13(mol dm-3)3 while that of Al(OH)3 is
5 x 10-33(mol dm-3)4. If S1 and S2 are the solubilities of Mg(OH)2 and Al(OH)3 in water in mol dm-3 at
250C, what is the order of magnitude of the ratio, S1/S2?
(A) 105 (B) 104 (C) 106 (D) 103

Q.25 If Ksp for HgSO4 is 6.4 ×10–5, then solubility of this substance in mole per m3 is
(A) 8 ×10–3 (B) 6.4 ×10–5 (C) 8 × 10–6 (D) None of these

Q.26 The solubility of a sparingly soluble salt AB2 in water is 1.0 × 10–5 mol L–1. Its solubility product is:
(A) 10–15 (B) 10–10 (C) 4 × 10–15 (D) 4 × 10–10

Q.27 Which of the following is most soluble in water?

(A) MnS (Ksp= 8×10–37) (B) ZnS (Ksp= 7×10–16)
(C) Bi2S3 (Ksp= 1×10 )–72 (D) Ag3(PO4) (Ksp= 1.8×10–18)

Q.28 What fraction of an indicator HIn is in the basic form at a pH of 6 if the pKa of the indicator is 5?
1 1 10 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) 10
2 11 11
Q.29 Which is/are correct statements :
(a) In any strong acid’s solution, the concentration of [OH–] will be zero.
(b) If Gº of a reaction is positive, then the reaction will not proceed at all, in the forward direction
for any concentrations of reactants and products.
(c) When titration curves are drawn for
(i) 1M HCl (50 mL) with 1 M NaOH and
(ii) 0.01 M HCl (50 mL) with 0.01 M NaOH on the same graph paper they look like:

(A) a & b (B) c only (C) b only (D) a & c

Q.30 50 litre of a solution containing 10–5 mole of AgBr is mixed with 50 litre of a 2 × 10–7 M HBr solution.
[Ag+] in resultant solution is : [Given : Ksp (AgBr) = 5 × 10–13]
(A) 10–5 M (B) 10–6 M (C) 10–7 M (D) None of these

Q.31 pH of a saturated solution of silver salt of monobasic acid HA is found to be 9.

Find the Ksp of sparingly soluble salt Ag A(s).
Given : Ka (HA) = 10–10
(A) 1.1 × 10–11 (B) 1.1 × 10–10 (C) 10–12 (D) None of these

Q.32 The solubility of metal sulphides in saturated solution of H2S {[H2S]= 0.1 M}can be represented by
[M 2 ][H 2S]
MS + 2H+  M2+
 + H2S ; Keq =
[H  ]2
The value of Keq is given for few metal sulphide. If conc. of each metal ion in solution is 0.01 M, which
metal sulphides are selectively ppt at total [H+]= 1M in saturated H2S solution.

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Metal sulphides MnS ZnS CoS PbS

[M 2 ][H 2S]
Keq = 3 × 1010 3 × 10–2 3 3 × 10–7
[H  ]2
(A) MnS, ZnS, CoS (B) PbS, ZnS, CoS (C) PbS, ZnS (D) PbS

Q.33 Solid Ba(NO3)2 is gradually dissolved in a 1.0 × 10–4 M Na2CO3 solution. At what concentration of Ba2+
will a precipitate begin to form ? (Ksp for BaCO3 = 5.1 × 10–9)
(A) 4.1 × 10–5 M (B) 5.1 × 10–5 M (C) 8.1 × 10–8 M (D) 8.1 × 10–7 M

Q.34 What is the difference in pH for 1/3 and 2/3 stages of neutralisation of 0.1 M CH3COOH with 0.1 M
NaOH.
(A) – 2 log 3 (B) 2 log (1/4) (C) 2 log (2/3) (D) – 2 log 2

More than one may be correct

Q.35 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?

(A) the pH of 1.0 × 108 M solution of HCl is 8
(B) the conjugate base of H2PO4 is HPO42
(C) autoprotolysis constant of water increases with temperature
(D) when a solution of a weak monoprotic acid is titrated again a strong base, at halfneutralization point
pH = (1/2) pKa .

Q.36 A 2.5 gm impure sample containing weak monoacidic base (Mol. wt. = 45) is dissolved in 100 ml water
th
1
and titrated with 0.5 M HCl when   of the base was neutralised the pH was found to be 9 and at
5
equivalent point pH of solution is 4.5 . Given : All data at 25°C & log 2 = 0.3.
Select correct statement(s) .
(A) Kb of base is less than 10–6
(B) Concentration of salt (C) at equivalent point is 0.25 M
(C) Volume of HCl is used at equivalent point is 100 ml
(D) Weight percentage of base in given sample is 80%.

Q.37 Which one is the correct graph for the corresponding acid base titration?

pH pH

(A) (B)
volume of strong base added volume of strong acid added
to a monobasic strong acid to a monoacidic weak base

pH pH

(C) (D)
volume of strong base volume of strong acid added
added to a weak dibasic acid to a weak diacidic base

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Q.38 Titration curves for 0.1M solutions of three weak acids HA1, HA2 and HA3 with ionization constants
K1, K2 and K3 respectively are plotted as shown in the figure. Which of the following is/are true?

(A) K2 = (K1 + K3)/2 (B) K1< K3 (C) K1 > K2 (D) K2 > K3

Assertion & Reasoning type questions

Q.39 Statement-1 : pH of 10–7 M NaOH solution is exist between 7 to 7.3 at 25°C.
Statement-2 : Due to common ion effect ionization of water is reduced.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.40 Statement-1 : In general phenolphthalein is used as an indicator for the titration of weak acid
(HA) against strong base (NaOH).
Statement-2 : At equivalent point solution is basic.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.41 Statement-1 : Moles of Sr2+ furnished by sparingly soluble substance Sr(OH)2 decreases due
to dilution in its saturated solution.
Statement-2 : Solubility product constant of Sr(OH)2 is not affected by dilution.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

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Comprehension
Paragraph for Question Nos. 42 to 44
1.2 g of a monoprotic acid HA, is titrated with 0.222 M NaOH solution. The pH of the solution is
monitored with pH meter. A portion of the titration curve is shown in the diagram.

Expanded titration
12.00 curve of
11.00 HA vs NaOH
10.00

pH 9.00
8.00
7.00
6.00
5.00
15 16 17 18 19 20
Volume of NaOH (mL)

Q.42 How many mL of NaOH is required to bring about the titration to its equivalence point ?
(A) 4.00 (B) 9.00 (C) 19.00 (D) None of these

Q.43 What is the pH of solution at the equivalence point ?

(A) 3.50 (B) 7.00 (C) 8.40 (D) 5.00

Q.44 What is the molar mass of HA ?

(A) 180 (B) 222 (C) 282 (D) None of these

Paragraph for Question Nos. 45 to 48

Potash alum is K Al(SO4)2·12H2O. As a strong electrolyte, it is considered to be 100 % dissociated
into K+, Al3+ and SO42–. The solution is acidic because of the hydrolysis of Al3+, but not so acidic as
might be expected, because the SO42– can sponge up some of the H3O+ by forming HSO4¯. Given a
solution made by dissolving 11.85 gm of K Al(SO4)2·12H2O in enough water to make 100 cm3 of
solution. What is [H3O+] of the solution if

Q.45 None of the ion is hydrolysing.

(A) 10–7 M (B) less than 10–7 M
(C) More than 10–7M (D) 0.0

Q.46 Only Al3+ is hydrolysing and its first hydrolysis constant is 1.4 × 10–5 M
(A) 1.87 × 10–3 M (B) 6.24 × 10–4 M (C) 0.09 M (D) None of these

Q.47 Only SO42– is hydrolysing and acid dissociation constant of HSO4¯ in water is 1.25× 10–2.
(A) 1.26 × 10–3 M (B) 6.32 × 10–7 M (C) 1.58 × 10–8 M (D) None of these

Q.48 Both Al3+ and SO42– are hydrolysing.

(A) 2.93 × 10–4 M (B) 0.0114 M (C) 5.43 × 10–6 M (D) None of these

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Match the column
Q.49 Column I Column II
(At 25°C)

(A)  10 litre of 0.03 N X(OH)2 (strong diacidic base) (P) pH ~
 3.7
 +

 5 litre of 0.08 M HNO3
 +
 485 litre of 0.01 M NaNO
 3


(B) –9 pH ~
 10 ml of 0.5 M RNH3Cl (Kh = 10 ) (Q)  111
 +

 40 ml of 0.125 M KOH




(C)  100 ml of 0.8 M HCO3 (R) pH ~
 7

 +
 2
 100 ml of 0.4 M CO 3

 (for H2CO3 , use K a1 = 4 × 10–7 & K a 2 = 4 × 10–11)


(D) Saturated aqueous solution of Co(OH)3 (Ksp = 2.7 × 10–43) (S) pH ~

 10

Q.50 Column I Column II

(pH of resultant solution) (Exist between Colour transition
range of an indicator)
(A) 200 ml of H2SO4 solution (P) Phenol Red (6.8 to 8.4)
(specific gravity 1.225 containing
25% H2SO4 by weight) + 800 ml
of 0.525 M strong triacidic base (Q) Propyl red (4.6 to 6.4)
X (OH)3

(B) 50 ml of 0.1 M HCO3 + (R) Phenolphtalein (8.3 to 10.1)

50 ml of 0.8 M CO 32

(H2CO3 : K a1 = 4 × 10–7 , K a 2 = 2 × 10–11 )

(C) 50 ml of 0.2 M HA (aq) (Ka = 10–5) (S) Malachite green (11.4 to 13)
+ 50 ml of 0.1 M HCl (aq)
+ 100 ml of 0.13 M NaOH (aq)

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Q.1 B Q.2 C Q.3 C Q.4 D Q.5 B

Q.6 C Q.7 B Q.8 D Q.9 A Q.10 D

Q.11 A Q.12 C Q.13 B Q.14 A Q.15 D

Q.16 B Q.17 A Q.18 C Q.19 A Q.20 A

Q.21 D Q.22 B Q.23 C Q.24 B Q.25 D

Q.26 C Q.27 D Q.28 C Q.29 B Q.30 C

Q.31 A Q.32 D Q.33 B Q.34 D Q.35 B, C

Q.36 B, C Q.37 A, B, C, D Q.38 C, D Q.39 A Q.40 B

Q.41 D Q.42 C Q.43 C Q.44 C Q.45 A

Q.46 A Q.47 C Q.48 A Q.49 (A) P, (B) Q, (C) S, (D) R

Q.50 (A) S, (B) S, (C) Q

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Only one correct :

Q.1 A block of ice at –10 °C is slowly heated and converted into steam at 100°C .Which of the following
curves represents the phenomenon qualitatively ?

R T
T
P
(A) Q (B) (C) (D)
X
O Heat supplied

Q.2 Consider the reaction at 300 K

H2 (g) + Cl2 (g)  2HCl (g) H = – 185 kJ/mol
Calculate U if 3 mole of H2 completely react with 3 mole of Cl2 to form HCl.
(A) 0 (B) – 185 kJ (C) 555 kJ (D) None of these

Q.3 If w1 , w2, w3 and w4 are work done by system in isothermal, adiabatic, isobaric and isochoric reversible
process, the correct order (for expansion) will be
(A) w1 > w2 > w3 > w4 (B) w3 > w2 > w1 > w4
(C) w3 > w2 > w4 > w1 (D) w3 > w1 > w2 > w4

Q.4 What is U for the process described by figure. Heat supplied during the process q = 100 kJ.

(A) + 50 kJ (B) – 50 kJ (C) –150 kJ (D) + 150 kJ

Q.5 What is the change in internal energy when a gas contracts from 377 ml to 177 ml under a constant
pressure of 1520 torr, while at the same time being cooled by removing 124 J heat?
(A) –24 J (B) – 84 J (C) – 164 J (D) –248 J

Q.6 The heat capacity of liquid water is 75.6 J / mol.K, while the enthalpy of fusion of ice is 6.0 kJ/mol. What
is the smallest number of ice cubes at 0°C, each containing 9.0 g of water, needed to cool 500 g of liquid
water from 20°C to 0°C?
(A) 1 (B) 7 (C) 14 (D) None of these

Q.7 An ideal gas is taken around the cycle ABCDA as shown in figure. The net work done during the cycle
is equal to :
P2 B D
P
P1
C
V1 V2
V
(A) zero (B) positive (C) negative (D) we cannot predict
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Q.8. A sample of 2 kg of helium (assumed ideal) is taken through the process
ABC and another sample of 2 kg of the same gas is taken through the
B C
process ADC. Then the temperature of the states A and B are 10

P(10 N/m )
2
(Given R = 8.3 joules/mol K) :

4
5 A D
(A) TA = 120.5 K, TB = 120. 5K (B) TA = 241 K, TB = 241 K
(C) TA = 120.5 K, TB = 241 K (D) TA = 241 K, TB = 482 K 10 20V(m3)

Q.9 A cyclic process ABCD is shown in PV diagram for an ideal gas. Which of the
following diagram represents the same process?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Q.10 One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas expanded irreversibly in two stage expansion.
State-1 (8.0 bar, 4.0 litre, 300 K)
State-2 (2.0 bar, 16 litre, 300 K)
State-3 (1.0 bar, 32 litre, 300 K)
Total heat absorbed by the gas in the process is :
(A) 116 J (B) 40 J (C) 4000 J (D) None of these

Q.11 What is the net work done (in calories) by 1 mole of monoatomic ideal gas in a process described by
1, 2, 3, 4 in given V–T graph.

Use : R = 2cal / mole K

ln 2 = 0.7
(A) – 600 cal (B) – 660 cal (C) + 660 cal (D) + 600 cal
Q.12 An insulated container of gas has two chambers separated by an insulating partition. One of the chambers
has volume V1 and contains ideal gas at pressure P1 and temperature T1. The other chamber has volume
V2 and contains same ideal gas at pressure P2 and temperature T2. If the partition is removed without
doing any work on the gas, the final equilibrium temperature of the gas in the container will be
T1T2 (P1V1  P2 V2 ) P1V1T1  P2 V2T2
(A) P V T  P V T (B) P1V1  P2 V2
1 1 2 2 2 1

P1V1T2  P2 V2 T1 T1T2 (P1V1  P2 V2 )

(C) P1V1  P2 V2 (D) P V T  P V T
1 1 1 2 2 2

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Q.13 One mole of ideal gas is allowed to expand reversibly and adiabatically from a temperature of 27°C. If
the work done by the gas in the process is 3 kJ, the final temperature will be equal to (CV=20 J/K mol)
(A) 100 K (B) 450 K (C) 150 K (D) 400 K

5
Q.14 A gas (Cv,m = R) behaving ideally was allowed to expand reversibly and adiabatically from 1 litre to
2
32 litre. It's initial temperature was 327°C. The molar enthalpy change (in J/mole) for the process is
(A) –1125 R (B) – 575 R (C) –1575 R (D) None of these

Q.15 An ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamics cycle as shown in figure.

Which of the following graphs represents the same cycle?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.16 A diatomic ideal gas initially at 273 K is given 100 cal heat due to which system did 209 J work.
Molar heat capacity (Cm) of gas for the process is :
3 5 5
(A) R (B) R (C) R (D) 5 R
2 2 4

Q.17 For an ideal monoatomic gas during any process T = kV, find out the molar heat capacity of the gas
during the process. (Assume vibrational degree of freedom to be active)
5 7
(A) R (B) 3R (C) (D) 4 R
2 2

Q.18 . One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is caused to go through the cycle shown in figure. Then the change
in the internal energy in expending the gas from a to c along the path abc is :

2P0 c
Pressure

T0
P0 b
a

V0 4V0
Volume

(A) 3 P0V0 (B) 6 RT0 (C) 4.5 RT0 (D) 10.5 RT0
Q.19 The expansion of an ideal gas of mass m at a constant pressure P is
given by the straight line B. Then the expansion of the same ideal gas of
mass 2 m at a pressure 2P is given by the straight line
(A) C (B) A (C) B (D) none

Q.20 One mole of an ideal diatomic gas is taken through the cycle as shown in the figure.
1  2 : isochoric process 2  3 : straight line on P-V diagram
3  1 : isobaric process
The average molecular speed of the gas in the states 1, 2 and 3 are in the ratio
(A) 1 : 2 : 2 (B) 1 : 2 : 2 (C) 1 : 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 2 : 4
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Q.21 An ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic process obeying the relation PV4/3 = constant. If its initial temperature
is 300 K and then its pressure is increased upto four times its initial value, then the final temperature is
(in Kelvin):
(A) 300 2 (B) 300 3 2 (C) 600 (D) 1200

Q.22 The figure, shows the graph of logarithmic reading of pressure and volume for two
ideal gases A and B undergoing adiabatic process. From figure it can be concluded
that
(A) gas B is diatomic (B) gas A and B both are diatomic
(C) gas A is monoatomic (D) gas B is monoatomic & gas A is diatomic

Q.23 If Hvaporisation of substance X (l) (molar mass : 30 g/mol) is 300 J/g at it's boiling point 300 K, then
molar entropy change for reversible condensation process is
(A) 30 J/mol.K (B) – 300 J/mol.K (C) –30 J/mol.K (D) None of these

Q.24 A process is shown in the diagram. Which of the following curves

may represent the same process ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.25 The change in entropy of 2 moles of an ideal gas upon isothermal expansion at 243.6 K from 20 litre until
the pressure becomes 1 atm, is :
(A) 1.385 cal / K (B) –1.2 cal / K (C) 1.2 cal / K (D) 2.77 cal / K

Q.26 Pressure of 10 moles of an ideal gas is changed from 2 atm to 1 atm against constant external pressure
without change in temperature. If surrounding temperature (300 K) and pressure (1 atm) always remains
constant then calculate total entropy change (Ssystem + Ssurrounding) for given process.
[Given : n2 = 0.70 and R = 8.0 J/mol/K]
(A) 56 J/K (B) 14 J/K (C) 16 J/K (D) None of these

Q.27 The enthalpy of tetramerization of X in gas phase (4X(g)  X4(g)) is – 100 kJ/mol at 300 K.
The enthalpy of vaporisation for liquid X and X4 are respectively 30 kJ/mol and 72 kJ/mol respectively.
S for tetramerization of X in liquid phase is – 125 J / K mol at 300 K.
What is the G at 300 K for tetramerization of X in liquid phase ?
(A) –52 kJ/mol (B) –89.5 kJ/mol (C) –14.5 kJ/mol (D) None of these

Q.28 Standard entropy of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50 JK–1mol–1, respectively. For the reaction,
1 3
X 2  Y2  XY3 , H  30kJ to be at equilibrium, the temperature will be
2 2
(A) 1250 K (B) 500 K (C) 750 K (D) 1000 K

Q.29 One mole of an ideal diatomic gas (Cv = 5 cal) was transformed from initial 25°C and 1 L to the state
when temperature is 100°C and volume 10 L. The entropy change of the process can be expressed as
(R = 2 calories/mol/K)
298 373 373 1 373 1
(A) 3 ln 373 + 2 ln10 (B) 5 ln 298 + 2 ln10 (C) 7 ln 298 + 2 ln 10 (D) 5 ln 298 + 2 ln 10

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Q.30 One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas expands isothermally against constant external pressure of 1
atm from initial volume of 1L to a state where its final pressure becomes equal to external pressure.
If initial temperature of gas is 300 K then total entropy change of system in the above process is :
[R = 0.082 L atm mol–1 K–1 = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1 ].
3
(A) 0 (B) Rln (24.6) (C) R ln (2490) (D) Rln (24.6)
2
o
Q.31 The value of G f of gaseous mercury is 31 K J/mole. At what total external pressure mercury start
boiling at 25°C. [R = 8.3 J/K mole]
(A) 10–5.44 (B) 10–12.5 (C) 10–6.52 (D) 10–3.12

Q.32 What is rG (KJ/mole) for synthesis of ammonia at 298 K at following sets of partial pressure:
 2NH3(g) ; rG° = –33 KJ/mole. [Take R = 8.3 J/K mole, log2 = 0.3; log3 = 0.48]
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 
Gas N2 H2 NH3
Pressure (atm) 1 3 0.02
(A) + 6.5 (B) – 6.5 (C) + 60.5 (D) – 60.5

 NH3(g) + H2S (g),

Q.33 For the reaction takes place at certain temperature NH4HS (s) 
if equilibrium pressure is X bar, then rG° would be
(A) –2 RT ln X (B) – RT ln (X – ln2) (C) – 2 RT (ln X–ln 2) (D) None of these

Q.34 Calculate log10 {[C]eq [A]eq } where [C] and [A] are equilibrium molar concentration of respective
species, when 2 mole each of A and B were allowed to come to equilibrium at 900 K.
A+B C+D ; G° = 460.6 Calorie
Take : lnX  2.303 log X
R  2 Cal / K mole
(A) – 5.56 × 10–2 (B) – 5.57 × 10–3
(C) –1.1 × 10–2 (D) – 1.1 × 10–3

Q.35 1 mole of an ideal gas at 25°C is subjected to expand reversibly ten times of its initial volume. The
change in entropy due to expansion is :
(A) 19.15 JK–1 mole–1 (B) 16.15 JK–1 mole–1 (C) 22.15 JK–1 mole–1 (D) none
Q.36 q, w, E and H for the following process ABCD on a monoatomic gas are :

(A) w = – 2 P0 V0 ln 2, q = 2 P0 V0 ln 2, E = 0, H = 0
(B) w = – 2 P0 V0 ln 2, q = 2 P0 V0 ln 2, E = 0, H = 2 P0 V0 ln 2
(C) w = – P0 V0 (1+ ln 2), q = P0 V0 (1+ ln 2) E = 0, H = 0
(D) w = – P0 V0 ln 2, q = P0 V0 ln 2, E = 0, H = 0

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More than one correct:
Q.37 Two moles of an ideal gas (Cv,m = 3/2R) is subjected to following change of state.
  B Isochoric
A (500 K, 5.0 bar) Reversible   C (250 K, 1.0 bar)
isothermal cooling
expansion Single stage
adiabatic
compression
D
(3 bar)
The correct statement is / are :
(A) The pressure at B is 2.0 bar
(B) The temperature at D is 450 K
(C) HCD = 1000 R
(D) UBC = 375 R

Q.38 Which of the following is true for reversible adiabatic process involving an ideal gas?
(A) Gas with higher  has high magnitude of slope in a P (y-axis) v/s T (x-axis) curve
(B) Gas with higher  has high magnitude of slope in a V (y-axis) v/s T (x-axis) curve
(C) Gas with higher  has high magnitude of slope in a P (y-axis) v/s V (x-axis) curve
(D) Gas with higher  has low magnitude of slope in a P (y-axis) v/s T (x-axis) curve

Q.39 An ideal gas is taken from state A (Pressure P, Volume V) to the state B
(Pressure P/2, Volume 2V) along a straight line path in PV diagram as
shown in the adjacent figure.
Select the correct statement(s) among the following.
(A) The work done by gas in the process A to B exceeds the work that
would be done by it if the system were taken from A to B along the
isotherm.
(B) In the T–V diagram, the path AB become part of parabola
(C) In the P–T diagram, the path AB becomes a part of hyperbola.
(D) In going from A to B, the temperature T of the gas first increases to a maximum value then decreases.

Q.40 If one mole monoatomic ideal gas was taken through process AB as shown in figure, then select correct
option(s).
Given : ln 1.5 = 0.4

(A) wAB = – 1496.52 J (B) qAB = 5237.82 J

(C) HAB = 3741.3 J (D) SAB is +ve

Q.41 The normal boiling point of a liquid 'A' is 350 K. Hvap at normal boiling point is 35 kJ/mole. Pick out
the correct statement(s). (Assume Hvap to be independent of pressure).
(A) Svaporisation > 100 J/Kmole at 350 K and 0.5 atm
(B) Svaporisation < 100 J/K mole at 350 K and 0.5 atm
(C) Svaporisation < 100 J/K mole at 350 K and 2 atm
(D) Svaporisation = 100 J/K mole at 350 K and 2 atm

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Q.42 Which statement is / are correct:
(A) Final temperature in reversible adiabatic expansion is lesser than in irreversible adiabatic expansion.
(B) When heat is supplied to an ideal gas in an isothermal process, kinetic energy of gas will increase
(C) When an ideal gas is subjected to adiabatic expansion it gets cooled
(D) Entropy increases in atomisation of dihydrogen

Q.43 Which is / are correct statement.

(A) wadiabatic > wisothermal in an ideal gas compression from same initial state to same final volume
 Cp 
(B) The value of     C  remains constant for diatomic gas at all temperature
 v 

(C) Entropy increases when an ideal gas expanded isothermally.

(D) rH & rS both are + ve for the decomposition of MgCO3(s) .

Q.44 In isothermal ideal gas compression:

(A) w is +ve (B) H is zero (C) Sgas is +ve (D) G is +ve

Q.45 Which of the following statement(s) is/are false :

1
(A) rS for N (g)  N(g) is positive
2 2
(B) Gsystem is always zero for a reversible process in a closed system
(C) G° for an ideal gas is a function of temperature and pressure
(D) entropy of a closed system is always maximized at equilibrium
Assertion Reason :
Q.46 Statement -1 : There is no change in enthalpy of an ideal gas during compression at constant temperature.
Statement -2 : Enthalpy of an ideal gas is a function of temperature and pressure.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.47 Statement-1: Due to adiabatic free expansion, temperature of a real gas always increases.
Statement-2: If a real gas is at inversion temperature then no change in temperature is observed
in adiabatic free expansion.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

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Comprehension-1
A cylindrical container of volume 44.8 litres is containing equal no. of moles (in integer no.) of an ideal
monoatomic gas in two sections A and B separated by an adiabatic frictionless piston as shown in figure.
The initial temperature and pressure of gas in both section is 27.3 K and 1 atm. Now gas in section 'A'
is slowly heated till the volume of section B becomes (1/8)th of initial volume.

3
Given : R = 2 cal/mol-K, Cv,m of monoatomic gas = R,
2
At 1 atm & 0°C ideal gas occupy 22.4 litre.
Q.48 What will be the final pressure in container B :
(A) 2 atm (B) 8 atm (C) 16 atm (D) 32 atm

Q.49 Find temperature in container A will be

(A) 1638 K (B) 6988 K (C)3274 K (D) 51 K

Q.50 Change in enthaly for section A in Kcal.

(A) 48.3 (B) 80.53 (C) 4.83 (D) 8.05

Comprehension-2
An ideal gas (CP/CV = ) is expanded so that the amount of heat transferred to the gas is equal to the
decrease in its internal energy.

Q.51 What is the molar heat capacity of gas in this process?

(A) CV (B) – CV (C) CP (D) 2 CV

Q.52 What is the relationship between temperature and volume of gas in this process ?
(A) T · V2(–1) = constant (B) T · V–1 = constant
(C) T · V(–1)/2 = constant (D) T · V = constant

Q.53 What is the magnitude of work performed by one mole of the gas when its volume increases eight times
if the initial temperature of the gas is 300 K ? CV for the gas is 1.5 R. (R = 2 Cal/mol/K)
(A) 900 Cal (B) 450 Cal (C) 1247.7 Cal (D) 623.8 Cal

Comprehension-3
Two moles of helium gas are taken over the cycle ABCDA, as shown in the P-T diagram.

5 A B
2×10
P(Pa)
5
1×10 D C
T
300K 500K

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Q.54 Assuming the gas to be ideal the work done on the gas in taking it from A to B is –
(A) 200 R (B) 300 R (C) – 400 R (D) 500 R

Q.55 The work done on the gas in taking it from D to A is –

(A) – 414 R (B) + 414 R (C) – 690 R (D) + 690 R

Q.56 The net work done on the gas in the cycle ABCDA is –
(A) Zero (B) – 276 R (C) 1076 R (D) 1904 R

Match the column :

Q.57 Match the column-I with column-II.

Note that column-I may have more than one matching options in column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Reversible adiabatic compression (P) Ssystem > 0
(B) Reversible vaporisation (Q) Ssystem < 0
(C) Adiabatic free expansion of ideal gas in vacuum (R) Ssurrounding < 0
(D) Dissociation of (S) Ssurrounding = 0
CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)

Q.58 Column I Column II

(A) For the process (P) – ve, + ve
A(l)  A(s),H & V may be

(B) A2(s) + B2(g)  C2(s) + D2(s) (Q) + ve, – ve

H & G may be

(C) For the given reaction (R) + ve, + ve

A2(g) B2(g) + C2(g),
Ea(forward)= 50 kJ/mol
and Ea(backward) = 40 kJ/mol ,
at very high temperature H & G are

(D) For the given reaction (S) – ve, – ve

A(g) B(g), at very low temperature
H & G may be

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Q.1 A Q.2 D Q.3 D Q.4 B Q.5 B Q.6 C Q.7 A

Q.8 C Q.9 C Q.10 C Q.11 B Q.12 A Q.13 C Q.14 C

Q.15 A Q.16 D Q.17 A Q.18 D Q.19 C Q.20 A Q.21 A

Q.22 D Q.23 C Q.24 C Q.25 D Q.26 C Q.27 C Q.28 C

Q.29 B Q.30 B Q.31 A Q.32 D Q.33 C Q.34 A Q.35 A

Q.36 A Q.37 A,B,C Q.38 C,D Q.39 A,B,D

Q.40 A,B,D Q.41 A,C Q.42 A,C,D

Q.43 A,C,D Q.44 A,B,D Q.45 B,C,D

Q.46 C Q.47 D Q.48 D Q.49 A Q.50 B Q.51 B Q.52 C

Q.53 A Q.54 C Q.55 B Q.56 B

Q.57 (A)  S (B)  P, R (C)  P, S (D)  P, R

Q.58 (A) P,S (B) P,R,S (C) Q, (D) R,S

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Single correct
Q.1 The rate of a reaction is expressed in different ways as follows :
1 d[C] 1 d[D] 1 d[A] d[B]
   
2 dt 3 dt 4 dt dt
The reaction is:
(A) 4 A + B  2C + 3D (B) B + 3 D  4 A + 2 C
(C) A + B  C + D (D) B + D A + C

Q.2 A reaction follows the given concentration (M)–time graph. The rate for this reaction at 20 seconds will
be:

0.5
0.4
0.3
0.2
0.1

0 20 40 60 80 100
Time/second

(A) 4 × 10–3 M s–1 (B) 8 × 10–2 M s–1 (C) 2 × 10–2 M s–1 (D) 7 × 10–3 M s–1

Q.3 The rate law for a reaction between the substances A and B is given by
rate = k [A]n [B]m
On doubling the concentration of A and halving the concentration of B, the ratio of the new rate to the
earlier rate of the reaction will be as
(A) 2 (n–m) (B) 1 / 2 (m+n) (C) (m + n) (D) (n – m)

Q.4 Two substances A (t 1/2 = 5 min) and B (t 1/2 = 15 min) are taken in such a way that initially
[A] = 4[B]. The time after which both the concentration will be equal is:
(A) 5 min (B) 15 min (C) 20 min (D) concentration can never be equal

Q.5 In a first order reaction, the concentration of the reactant, decreases from 0.8 to 0.4 M in 15 minutes.
The time taken for the concentration to change from 0.1 M to 0.025 M is
(A) 30 minutes (B) 15 minutes (C) 7.5 minutes (D) 60 minutes

Q.6 The rate equation for the reaction 2A + B  C is found to be : rate = k [A] [B]. The correct statement
in relation to this reaction is
(A) unit of k must be s–1
(B) t1/2 is a constant
(C) rate of formation of C is twice the rate of disappearance of A
(D) value of k is independent of the initial concentrations of A and B.

Q.7 t1/4 can be taken as the time taken for the concentration of a reactant to drop to 3/4 of its value. If the
rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the t1/4 can be written as [ln2 = 0.695, ln3 = 1.1]
(A) 0.69 / k (B) 0.75 / k (C) 0.10 / k (D) 0.29 / k

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Q.8 A reaction was found to be second order with respect to the concentration of carbon monoxide. If the
concentration of carbon monoxide is doubled, with everything else kept the same, the rate of reaction will
(A) Double (B) remain unchanged (C) Triple (D) Increase by a factor of 4

Q.9 The energies of activation for forward and reverse reactions for A2 + B2 2AB are 180 kJ mol–1
and 200 kJ mol–1 respectively. The presence of catalyst lowers the activation energies of both (forward
and reverse) reactions by 100 kJ mol–1 . The magnitude of enthalpy change of the reaction
(A2 + B2  2AB) in the presence of catalyst will be (in kJ mol–1).
(A) 300 (B) 120 (C) 20 (D) –20

Q.10 Which graph represents zero order reaction [A(g)  B(g)] :

d[B] t1/2 t3/4

[B] dt
(A) (B) (C) (D)
t t [A]0
[A]0

Q.11 For a hypothetical reaction,

A + 3B  P H = –2 x kJ/mole of A
& M  2Q + R H = + x kJ/mole of M
If these reactions are carried simultaneously in a reactor such that temperature is not changing. If rate of
disappearance of B is y M sec–1 then rate of formation (in M sec–1) of Q is :
2 3 4 3
(A) y (B) y (C) y (D) y
3 2 3 4

Q.12 Gaseous reaction A  B + C follows first order kinetics. Concentration of A changes from 1 M to
0.25 M in 138.6 minutes. Find the rate of reaction when concentration of A is 0.1 M.
(A) 2×10–3 M min–1 (B) 10–3 M min–1 (C) 10–4 M min–1 (D) 5 × 10–4 M min–1

Q.13 The reaction, X + 2Y + Z  N occurs by the following mechanism

(i) X + Y M ........very rapid equilibrium
(ii) M + Z  O ....... slow
(iii) O + Y  N ........ very fast
What is the rate law for this reaction
(A) Rate = k[Z] (B) Rate = k[X] [Y]2 [Z] (C) Rate = [N] (D) Rate = k[X] [Y] [Z]

Q.14 Consider the following first order competing reactions:

k1 2 k
X  A + B and Y  C+D
if 50% of the reaction of X was completed when 96% of the reaction of Y was completed, the ratio of
their rate constants (k2/k1) is
(A) 4.06 (B) 0.215 (C) 1.1 (D) 4.65

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Q.15 Consider the reaction A  B, graph between half life (t1/2) and initial concentration (a) of the
reactant is

t1/2

a
d[ A]
Hence graph between  and time will be
dt

d[ A] d[ A]
(A)  (B) 
dt dt
t

d[A] d[A]
(C)  (D) 
dt dt
t t

Q.16 At certain temperature, the half life period for the thermal decomposition of a gaseous substance depends
on the initial partial pressure of the substance as follows
P(mmHg) 500 250
t1 2 (in min.) 235 950
Find the order of reaction [Given log (23.5) = 1.37 ; log (95) = 1.97; log 2 = 0.30]
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 2.5 (D) 3
Q.17 Consider the reaction :
A  B + C
Initial concentration of A is 1 M. 20 minutes time is required for completion of 20 % reaction.
d[ B]
If = k[A], then half life (t1/2 ) is
dt
(A) 55.44 min. (B) 50 min (C) 62.13 min (D) None of these

Q.18 If decomposition reaction A (g)  B (g) follows first order kinetics then the graph of rate of formation
(R) of B against time t will be

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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Q.19 For the first order decomposition of SO2Cl2(g),
SO2Cl2(g)  SO2(g) + Cl2(g)
a graph of log (a0 – x) vs t is shown in figure. What is the rate constant (sec–1)?
Time (min) 
2 4 6 8 10
(0,0)
| | | | |

log (a0 – x)
-1–

-2–

-3–

(A) 0.2 (B) 4.6 × 10–1 (C) 7.7 × 10–3 (D) 1.15 × 10–2

Q.20 The rate constant for the forward reaction A (g) 2B(g) is 1.5 × 10–3 s–1 at 100 K. If 10–5
moles of A and 100 moles of B are present in a 10 litre vessel at equilibrium then rate constant for the
backward reaction at this temperature is
(A) 1.50× 104 L mol–1 s–1 (B) 1.5 × 1011 L mol–1 s–1
(C) 1.5 × 1010 L mol–1 s–1 (D) 1.5 × 10–11L mol–1 s–1
1 1

Q.21 Reaction A + B  C + D follows following rate law : rate = k [A] 2 [ B] 2 . Starting with initial conc.

of 1 M of A and B each, what is the time taken for concentration of A of become 0.25 M.
Given : k = 2.303 × 10–3 sec–1.
(A) 300 sec. (B) 600 sec. (C) 900 sec. (D) 1200 sec.

Q.22 The variation of concentration of A with time in two experiments starting with two different initial
concentration of A is given in the following graph. The reaction is represented as A(aq) B(aq).
What is the rate of reaction (M/min) when concentration of A in aqueous solution was 1.8 M?

(A) 0.072 M min–1

Concentration(M) 

1.5

(B) 0.036 M min–1

1.2

(C) 0.08 M min–1 1

0.8 Experiment-1
(D) 1 M min–1 0.6 Experiment-2
5 10 15 20
time(min.) 

(2  2 ) 1/ 2
Q.23 For a certain reaction of order n, the time for half change, t1/2 , is given by t 1/2 = C0
k
where k is constant and C0 is the initial concentration. What is n?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 0.5

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Q.24 Given that for a reaction of order n, the integrated form of the rate equation is
1  1 1 
k = t (n  1)  n1  n 1  where C0 and C are the values of the reactant concentration at the start
C C0 
and after time t. What is the relationship between t3/4 and t 1/2 where t 3/4 is the time required for C
to become 1/4 C0 ?
(A) t 3/4 = t 1/2 [2n-1 + 1] (B) t 3/4 = t 1/2 [2n-1 - 1]
n+1
(C) t 3/4 = t 1/2 [2 - 1] (D) t 3/4 = t 1/2 [2n+1 + 1]

Q.25 The time elapsed of a certain between 33% and 67% completion of a first order reaction is 30
minutes. What is the time needed for 25% completion?
(A) 150.5 minutes (B) 125 minutes (C) 180.5 minutes (D) 165.5 minutes

Q.26 A first order reaction is 50% completed in 20 minutes at 27°C and in 5 min at 47°C. The energy of
activation of the reaction is
(A) 43.85 kJ/mol (B) 55.14 kJ/mol (C) 11.97 kJ/mol (D) 6.65 kJ/mol

Q.27 For the first order reaction A — B + C, carried out at 27 ºC if 3.8 × 10–16 % of the reactant molecules
exists in the activated state, the Ea (activation energy) of the reaction is [log 3.8 = 0.58]
(A) 12 kJ/mole (B) 831.4 kJ/mole (C) 100 kJ/mole (D) 88.57 kJ/mole
K
Q.28 A reaction 2A + B  C + D is first order with respect to A and 2nd order with respect to B.
Initial conc. (t = 0) of A is C0 while B is 2C0. If at t as 30 minutes the conc. of C is C0 /4 then rate
expression at t = 30 minutes is :
(A) R = 7 C0 3 k/16 (B) R = 27 C0 3 k / 32
(C) R = 247 C0 3 k / 64 (D) R = 49 k C0 3 / 32

Q.29 The following mechanism has been proposed for the exothermic catalyzed complex reaction.
k k2
A+ B I AB  1 AB + I  P+A
If k1 is much smaller than k2. The most suitable qualitative plot of potential energy (P.E.) versus reaction
coordinate for the above reaction.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.30 The rate of a reaction gets doubled when the temperature changes from 70 C to 170 C. By what
factor will it change for the temperature change from 170 C to 270C?
(A) 1.81 (B) 1.71 (C) 1.91 (D) 1.76

Q.31 For the reaction A + 2B products(started with concentrations taken in stoichiometric proportion),
the experimentally deermined rate law is
d [A]
– = k [A] [B]
dt
The half time of the reaction would be
0.693 0.693 0.693
(A) (B) (C) 2k
(D) not defined
k 1/ k
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More than one may be correct
d[A]
Q.32 For the reaction A  B, the rate law expression is  d t = k [A]1/2. If initial concentration of [A] is

[A]0, then
2 1/ 2
(A) The integerated rate expression is k = ( A 0  A1 / 2 )
t

(B) The graph of A Vs t will be

K
(C) The half life period t1 / 2 =
2[A ]10/ 2
[A]0
(D) The time taken for 75% completion of reaction t 3 / 4 =
k

Q.33 Consider the reaction, –1

10
–2
m in B
k 1= 6.93×
A
k2 =1
3 .8 6 ×
10 –2m
C in –1
A, B and C all are optically active compound . If optical rotation per unit concentration of A, B and C are
60°, –72°, 42° and initial concentration of A is 2 M then select write statement(s).
(A) Solution will be optically active and dextro after very long time
(B) Solution will be optically active and levo after very long time
(C) Half life of reaction is 15 min
(D) After 75% conversion of A into B and C angle of rotation of solution will be 36°.

Q.34 Select incorrect statement(s):

(A) Unit of pre-exponential factor (A) for second order reaction is mol L–1 s–1.
(B) A zero order reaction must be a complex reaction.
(C) Molecularity is defined only for RDS in a complex reaction.
(D) Decay constant () of radioactive substance is affected by temperature.

Q.35 Which of the following is/are correct statement?

(A) Stoichiometry of a reaction tells about the order of the elementary reactions.
(B) For a zero order reaction, rate and the rate constant are identical.
(C) A zero order reaction is controlled by factors other than concentration of reactants.
(D) A zero order reaction is always elementary reaction.

Q.36 Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(A) The order of reaction is the sum of powers of all the concentration terms in the rate equation.
(B) The order of reaction with respect to one reactant is the ratio of the change of logarithm of the rate
of the reaction to the change in the logarithm of the concentration of the particular reactant, keeping the
concentrations of all other reactants constant.
(C) Orders of reactions can not be fractional.
(D) The order of a reaction can only be determined from the stoichiometric equation for the reaction.

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Assertion & Reasoning type questions
Q.37 Statement-1 : A fractional order reaction must be a complex reaction.
Statement-2 : Fractional order of RDS equals to overall order of a complex reaction.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.38 Statement-1 : The time of completion of reactions of type A  product (order <1) may be
determined.
Statement-2 : Reactions with order  1 are either too slow or too fast and hence the time of
completion can not be determined.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.39 Statement-1 : Temperature coefficient of an one step reaction may be negative.

Statement-2 : The rate of reaction having negative order with respect to a reactant decreases
with the increase in concentration of the reactant.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.40 Statement-1 : The overall rate of a reversible reaction may decrease with the increase in
temperature.
Statement-2 : When the activation energy of forward reaction is less than that of backward
reaction, then the increase in the rate of backward reaction is more than that of
forward reaction on increasing the temperature.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.41 Statement-1 : In a reversible endothermic reaction, Eact of forward reaction is higher than that
of backward reaction
Statement-2 : The threshold energy of forward reaction is more than that of backward reaction
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

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Q.42 Statement-1 : A catalyst provides an alternative path to the reaction in which conversion of
reactants into products takes place quickly
Statement-2 : The catalyst forms an activated complex of lower potential energy, with the
reactants by which more number of molecules are able to cross the barrier per
unit of time.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Comprehension
Paragraph for Question Nos. 43 & 44
Oxidation of metals is generally a slow electrochemical reaction involving many steps. These steps involve
electron transfer reactions. A particular type of oxidation involve overall first order kinetics with respect
to fraction of unoxidised metal (1– f ) surface thickness relative to maximum thickness (T) of oxidised
surface, when metal surface is exposed to air for considerable period of time
df
Rate law : = k(1 – f ), where f = x/T,,
dt
x = thickness of oxide film at time 't'
& T = thickness of oxide film at t = 
A graph of ln(1 – f ) vs t is shown in the adjacent figure.

Q.43 The time taken for thickness to grow 50% of 'T' is

(A) 23.1 hrs (B) 46.2 hrs (C) 100 hrs (D) 92.4 hrs

Q.44 The exponential variation of 'f' with t(hrs) is given by

(A) [1  e 3 t / 200 ] (B) e3t / 200  1 (C) e3t / 200 (D) e3t / 200

Paragraph for Question Nos. 45 & 46

k1 1
For a hypothetical elementary reaction where 
k2 2
Initially only 2 moles of A are present.
Q.45 The total number of moles of A, B & C at the end of 50% reaction are
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

Q.46 Number of moles of B are

(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 0.666 (D) 0.333

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 47 & 48
A reaction is said to be first order if it's rate is proportional to the concentration of reactant. Let us
consider a reaction
A(g)  B(g) + C(g)
At t = 0 a 0 0
At time t a–x x x
dx
The rate of reaction is given by the expression = k(a – x) and integrated rate equation for a given
dt

1  a 
reaction is represented as k = ln   where a = initial concentration and (a – x) = concentration
t ax
of A after time t.

Q.47 Thermal decomposition of compound X is a first order reaction. If 75% of X is decomposed in 100
min. How long will it take for 90% of the compound to decompose?
Given : log 2 = 0.30
(A) 190 min (B) 176.66 min (C) 166.66 min (D) 156.66 min

Q.48 Consider a reaction A(g)  3B(g) + 2C(g) with rate constant 1.386 × 10–2 min–1. Starting with
2 moles of A in 12.5 litre vessel initially, if reaction is allowed to takes place at constant pressure & at
298K then find the concentration of B after 100 min.
(A) 0.04 M (B) 0.36 M (C) 0.09 M (D) None of these

Paragraph for Question Nos. 49 to 51

The gaseous reaction : n1A (g)  n2B (g) is first order with respect to A. The true rate constant of
reaction is k. The reaction is studied at a constant pressure and temperature. Initially, the moles of A
were 'a' and no B were present.
Q.49 How many moles of A are present at time, t?
(A) a · e–kt (B) a · e  n1kt (C) a · e  n 2 kt (D) a (1  e  n1kt )

Q.50 If the initial volume of system were v0, then the volume of system after time, t, will be
n1 v 0 n 2v0
(A) n (B) n
2 1

 n 2  n 2  n1kt   n 2  n 2  n1kt 
(C) v 0  n  1  n  · e  (D) v 0  n   n  1 · e 
 1  1    1  1  

Q.51 What will be the concentration of A at time t, if n1 = 1 and n2 = 2?

 e  kt   e  kt 
(A) [A0] · e–kt (B) 0 
[ A ] 
 kt  (C) 0 
[ A ] 
 kt  (D) [A0] (1–2 · e–kt )
2e  1 e 

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 52 & 53
For the given sequential reaction
k1 k2
A  B  C
the concentration of A, B & C at any time 't' is given by
k1[A ]0
[A]t = [A]0 e  k1t ; 
[B]t = (k  k ) e  k1t  e  k 2 t
2 1

[C]t = [A0] – ( [A]t + [B]t )
Q.52 The time at which concentration of B is maximum is
k1 1 k1 1 k1 k2
(A) k  k (B) k  k ln k (C) k  k ln k (D) k  k
2 1 2 1 2 1 2 2 2 1
Q.53 Select the correct option if k1 = 1000 s–1 and k2 = 20 s–1.

[C]t

Conc.
[C]t
conc.

(A) [B]t
(B)
[B] t [A]t
[A]t
time time

[C]t [C]t
Conc.

Conc.

[B] t [B]t
(C) (D)
[A] t [A] t

time time
Q.54 For the reaction of type A(g)  2B(g)
Column-I contains four entries and column-II contains four entries. Entry of column-I are to be matched
with ONLY ONE ENTRY of column-II
Column I Column II

d[ B]  d[ A]
(A) vs for first order (P)
dt dt

(B) [A] vs t for first order (Q)

(C) [B] vs t for first order (R)

(D) [A] vs t for zero order (S)

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Q.55 Column-I and column-II. Entry of column-I are to be matched with ONE OR MORE THAN ONE
ENTRIES of column-II and vice versa.
Column I Column II
(Graphs reaction A Products) (Co-ordinates)

(A) (P) ln [A] (y-axis), t (x-axis) (order = 1)

(B) (Q) t1/2 (y-axis), [A0] (x-axis) (order = 1)

(C) (R) r (y-axis), t (x-axis) (order = 0)

(D) (S) t1/2 (y-axis), [A0] (x-axis) (order > 1)

(T) r (y-axis), [A] (x-axis) (order = 1)

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Q.1 B Q.2 D Q.3 A Q.4 B Q.5 A Q.6 D Q.7 D

Q.8 D Q.9 C Q.10 D Q.11 C Q.12 B Q.13 D Q.14 D

Q.15 C Q.16 D Q.17 C Q.18 C Q.19 C Q.20 D Q.21 B

Q.22 A Q.23 D Q.24 A Q.25 B Q.26 B Q.27 C Q.28 D

Q.29 A Q.30 C Q.31 C Q.32 A,B,D Q.33 A,D Q.34 A,C,D

Q.35 A,B,C Q.36 C,D Q.37 C Q.38 C Q.39 D Q.40 A Q.41 C

Q.42 A Q.43 B Q.44 A Q.45 B Q.46 C Q.47 C Q.48 C

Q.49 B Q.50 D Q.51 B Q.52 C Q.53 C

Q.54 (A) S, (B) R, (C) P, (D) Q Q.55 (A) P (B) Q,R (C) S (D) T

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Single correct
Q.1 One gm metal M+2 was discharged by the passage of 1.81 × 1022 electrons. What is the atomic weight
of metal?
(A) 33.35 (B) 133.4 (C) 66.7 (D) 55

Q.2 One mole of electron passes through each of the solution of AgNO3, CuSO4 and AlCl3 when Ag, Cu
and Al are deposited at cathode. The molar ratio of Ag, Cu and Al deposited are
(A) 1 : 1 : 1 (B) 6 : 3 : 2 (C) 6 : 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 3 : 6

Q.3 Salts of A (atomic weight = 7), B (atomic weight =27) and C (atomic weight = 48) were electrolysed
under identical conditions using the same quantity of electricity. It was found that when 2.1 g of Awas
deposited, the weights of B and C deposited were 2.7 and 7.2 g. The valencies of A, B and C
respectively are
(A) 3, 1 and 2 (B) 1, 3 and 2 (C) 3, 1 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 2

Q.4 The density of Cu is 8.94 g cm–3. The quantity of electricity needed to plate an area 10 cm × 10 cm to
a thickness of 10–2 cm using CuSO4 solution would be
(A) 13586 C (B) 27172 C (C) 40758 C (D) 20348 C

Q.5 The reduction potential values are given below

Al3+/Al = –1.67 volt,Mg2+/Mg = –2.34 volt Cu2+/Cu = +0.34 volt
I2/2I¯ = +0.53 volt. Which one is the best reducing agent ?
(A) Al (B) Mg (C) Cu (D) I2

Q.6 During electrolysis of an aqueous solution of CuSO4 using copper electrodes, if 2.5 g of Cu is deposited
at cathode, then at anode
(A) 890 ml of Cl2 at STP is liberated (B) 445 ml of O2 at STP is liberated
(C) 2.5 g of copper is deposited (D) a decrease of 2.5 g of mass takes place

Q.7 The charge required for the oxidation of one mole Mn3O4 into MnO 24 in presence of alkaline medium is
(A) 5 × 96500 C (B) 96500 C (C) 10 × 96500 C (D) 2 × 96500 C

Q.8 A current of 9.65 ampere is passed through the aqueous solution NaCl using suitable electrodes for
1000 s. The amount of NaOH formed during electrolysis is
(A) 2.0 g (B) 4.0 g (C) 6.0 g (D) 8.0 g

Q.9 When an aqueous solution of lithium chloride is electrolysed using graphite electrodes
(A) Cl2 is liberated at the anode.
(B) Li is deposited at the cathode
(C) as the current flows, pH of the solution around the cathode remains constant
(D) as the current flows, pH of the solution around the cathode decreases.

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Q.10 The standard reduction potentials E° of the following systems are
System E° (volts)
(i) MnO4¯ + 8H+ + 5e  2+
 Mn + 4H2O 1.51
(ii) Sn4+ + 2e 
 Sn
2+
0.15
(iii) Cr2 O72– + 14H+ + 6e  3+
 2Cr + 7H2O 1.33
(iv) Ce4+ + e   Ce
3+
1.61
The oxidising power of the various species decreases in the order
(A) Ce4+ > Cr2 O72– > Sn4+ > MnO4¯ (B) Ce4+ > MnO4¯ > Cr2 O72– > Sn4+
(C) Cr2O72– > Sn4+ > Ce4+ > MnO4¯ (D) MnO4¯ > Ce4+ > Sn4+ > Cr2 O72–

Q.11 If the pressure of H2 gas is increased from 1 atm to 100 atm keeping H+ concentration constant at 1 M,
the change in reduction potential of hydrogen half cell at 25°C will be
(A) 0.059 V (B) 0.59 V (C) 0.0295 V (D) 0.118 V

Q.12 The equilibrium constant for the reaction

 Sr+2 (aq) + Mg(s) is 2.69 × 1012 at 25°C
Sr(s) + Mg+2 (aq) 
The E° for a cell made up of the Sr/Sr+2 and Mg+2/Mg half cells
(A) 0.3667 V (B) 0.7346 V (C) 0.1836 V (D) 0.1349 V

Q.13 A silver wire dipped in 0.1 M HCl solution saturated with AgCl develops oxidation potential of –0.25 V.
If E  = – 0.799 V, the Ksp of AgCl in pure water will be
Ag / Ag 
(A) 2.95 × 10–11 (B) 5.1 × 10–11 (C) 3.95 × 10–11 (D) 1.95 × 10–11

Q.14 Consider the reaction of extraction of gold from its ore

1 1
Au + 2CN– (aq.) + O2 (g) + H2O  Au (CN ) 2 + OH–
4 2
Use the following data to calculate G° for the reaction
Kf {Au (CN ) 2 } = X
O2 + 2H2O + 4e–  4OH– ; E° = + 0.41 volt
Au3+ + 3e–  Au ; E° = + 1.5 volt
Au3+ + 2e–  Au+ ; E° = + 1.4 volt
(A) – RT ln X + 1.29 F (B) – RT ln X – 2.11 F
1
(C) – RT ln + 2.11 F (D) – RT ln X – 1.29 F
X
Q.15 Consider the following Galvanic cell.

By what value the cell voltage change when concentration of ions in anodic and cathodic compartments
both increased by factor of 10 at 298 K
(A) +0.0591 (B) –0.0591 (C) –0.1182 (D) 0
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Q.16 For the cell
Pt | H2(0.4 atm) | H+(pH=1) || H+(pH = 2) | H2 (0.1 atm) | Pt
The measured potential at 25°C is
(A) –0.1 V (B) –0.5 (C) –0.041 (D) none
o
Q.17 For the fuel cell reaction 2H2(g) + O2(g)  2H2O(l) ;  f H 298 (H 2O, l ) = –285.5 kJ/mol

What is So298 for the given fuel cell reaction?

Given: O2(g) + 4H+(aq) + 4e–  2H2O(l) E° = 1.23 V
(A) – 0.322 J/K (B) – 0.635 kJ/K (C) 3.51 kJ/K (D) – 0.322 kJ/K

Q.18 The standard reduction potentials of Cu2+/ Cu and Cu2+ / Cu+ are 0.337 and 0.153 V respectively. The
standard electrode potential of Cu+ / Cu half cell is
(A) 0.184 V (B) 0.827 V (C) 0.521 V (D) 0.490 V

Q.19 A hydrogen electrode X was placed in a buffer solution of sodium acetate and acetic acid in the ratio
a : b and another hydrogen electrode Y was placed in a buffer solution of sodium acetate and acetic acid
in the ratio b : a. If reduction potential values for two cells are found to be E1 and E2 respectively w.r.t.
standard hydrogen electrode, the pKa value of the acid can be given as
E1  E 2 E 2  E1 E1  E 2 E1  E 2
(A) (B) (C)  (D)
0.118 0.118 0.118 0.118

Q.20 The resistance of 0.5 M solution of an electrolyte in a cell was found to be 50 . If the electrodes in the
cell are 2.2 cm apart and have an area of 4.4 cm2 t hen the molar conductivity
(in S m2 mol–1) of the solution is
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.02 (C) 0.002 (D) None of these

Q.21 Equivalent conductance of 0.1 M HA(weak acid) solution is 10 Scm2equivalent–1 and that at infinite
dilution is 200 Scm2equivalent–1 Hence pH of HA solution is
(A) 1.3 (B) 1.7 (C) 2.3 (D) 3.7

Q.22 If x is specific resistance of the electrolyte solution and y is the molarity of the solution, then ^m is given
by
1000 x y 1000 xy
(A) (B) 1000 (C) (D)
y x xy 1000

Q.23 The dissociation constant of n-butyric acid is 1.6 × 10–5 and the molar conductivity at infinite dilution is
380 × 10–4 Sm2mol–1. The specific conductance of the 0.01 M acid solution is
(A) 1.52 × 10–5 Sm–1 (B) 1.52 × 10–2 Sm–1
–3
(C) 1.52 × 10 Sm –1 (D) None

Q.24 The conductivity of a saturated solution of Ag3PO4 is 9 × 10–6 S m–1 and its equivalent conductivity is
1.50 × 10–4 S m2 equivalent–1. The Ksp of Ag3PO4 is
(A) 4.32 × 10–18 (B) 1.8 ×10–9 (C) 8.64 × 10–13 (D) None of these

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Q.25 A saturated solution in AgA (Ksp = 3×10–14) and AgB (Ksp = 1×10–14) has conductivity of
375 × 10–10 Scm–1 and limiting molar conductivity of Ag+ and A¯ are 60 Scm2 mol–1 and
80 Scm2 mol–1 respectively then what will be the limiting molar conductivity of B¯ (in Scm2 mol–1)
(A) 150 (B) 180 (C) 190 (D) 270
Q.26 Equal volumes of 0.015 M CH3COOH & 0.015 M NaOH are mixed together. What would be molar
conductivity of mixture if conductivity of CH3COONa is 6.3 ×10–4 S cm–1
(A) 8.4 S cm2 mol–1 (B) 84 S cm2 mol–1
(C) 4.2 S cm2 mol–1 (D) 42 S cm2 mol–1

More than one may be correct

Q.27 During discharging of lead storage battery, which of the following is/are true ?
(A) H2SO4 is produced
(B) H2O is consumed
(C) PbSO4 is formed at both electrodes
(D) Density of electrolytic solution decreases

Q.28 Which of the following arrangement will produce oxygen at anode during electrolysis ?
(A) Dilute H2SO4 solution with Cu electrodes.
(B) Dilute H2SO4 solution with inert electrodes.
(C) Fused NaOH with inert electrodes.
(D) Dilute NaCl solution with inert electrodes.

Q.29 If 270.0 g of water is electrolysed during an experiment performed by miss Abhilasha with 75% current
efficiency then
(A) 168 L of O2 (g) will be evolved at anode at 1 atm & 273 K
(B) Total 504 L gases will be produced at 1 atm & 273 K.
(C) 336 L of H2 (g) will be evolved at anode at 1 atm & 273 K
(D) 45 F electricity will be consumed

Q.30 Pick out the correct statements among the following from inspection of standard reduction potentials
(Assume standard state conditions).
 2Cl–(aq.)
Cl 2 (aq.) + 2e  E oCl  = + 1.36 volt
2 / Cl

 2Br–(aq.)
Br2 (aq.) + 2e  E oBr  = + 1.09 volt
2 / Br

I2(s) + 2e  2I– (aq.)

 E oI  = + 0.54 volt
2 /I

 2SO 24  (aq.)

S2O82 (aq.) + 2e  ESo 2 2
= + 2.00 volt
2O8 / SO 4

(A) Cl2 can oxidise SO 24  from solution

(B) Cl2 can oxidise Br– and I– from aqueous solution
(C) S2O82 can oxidise Cl–, Br– and I– from aqueous solution
(D) S2O82– is added slowly, Br– can be reduce in presence of Cl–

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Q.31 The EMF of the following cell is 0.22 volt.
Ag(s) | AgCl(s) | KCl (1M) | H+(1M) | H2(g) (1atm) ; Pt(s).
Which of the following will decrease the EMF of cell.
(A) increasing pressure of H2(g) from 1 atm to 2 atm
(B) increasing Cl– concentration in Anodic compartment
(C) increasing H+ concentration in cathodic compartment
(D) decreasing KCl concentration in Anodic compartment.

Assertion & Reasoning type questions

Q.32 Statement -1 : The voltage of mercury cell remains constant for long period of time.
Statement -2 : It is because net cell reaction does not involve active species.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.33 Statement -1 : The SRP of three metallic ions A+,B2+, C3+ are –0.3, –0.5, 0.8 volt respectively, so
oxidising power of ions is C3+ > A+ > B2+.
Statement -2 : Higher the SRP, higher the oxidising power.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.34 Statement -1 : We can add the electrode potential in order to get electrode potential of net reaction.
Statement -2 : Electrode potential is an intensive property.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Comprehension
Paragraph for Question Nos. 35 to 37
A sample of water from a large swimming pool has a resistance of 10000  at 25°C when placed in a
certain conductance cell. When filled with 0.02 M KCl solution, the cell has a resistance of 100  at
25°C. 585 gm of NaCl were dissolved in the pool, which was throughly stirred. A sample of this solution
gave a resistance of 8000 . [Given : Molar conductance of NaCl at that concentration is 125  –1
cm2 mol–1 and molar conductivity of KCl at 0.02 M is 200  –1 cm2 mol–1.]

Q.35 Cell constant (in cm–1) of conductance cell is:

(A) 4 (B) 0.4 (C) 4 ×10–2 (D) 4 ×10–5

Q.36 Conductivity (Scm–1) of H2O is:

(A) 4 × 10–2 (B) 4 × 10–3 (C) 4 × 10–5 (D) None of these

Q.37 Volume (in Litres) of water in the pool is:

(A) 1.25 × 105 (B) 1250 (C) 12500 (D) None of these
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Paragraph for Question Nos. 38 & 39

Copper reduces NO3 into NO and NO2 depending upon conc. of HNO3 in solution. Assuming
[Cu2+] = 0.1 M, and PNO= PNO =10–3 atm and using given data answer the following questions:
2

Eo = + 0.34 volt
Cu 2  / Cu

Eo = + 0.96 volt
NO3 / NO

Eo = + 0.79 volt
NO3 / NO2

RT
at 298 K (2.303) = 0.06 volt
F

Q.38 ECell for reduction of NO3  NO by Cu(s), when [HNO3] = 1M is [At T = 298]
(A) ~ 0.61 (B) ~ 0.71 (C) ~ 0.51 (D) ~ 0.81

Q.39 At what HNO3 concentration thermodynamic tendency for reduction of NO 3 into NO and NO2 by
copper is same?
(A) 101.23 M (B) 100.56 M (C) 100.66 M (D) 100.12 M

Match the column

Q.40 Column I Column II
(Electrolysis product using inert electrode)

(A) Dilute solution of HCl (P) O2 evolved at anode

(B) Dilute solution of NaCl (Q) H2 evolved at cathode

(C) Concentrated solution of NaCl (R) Cl2 evolved at anode

(D) AgNO3 solution (S) Ag deposition at cathode

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Q.1 C Q.2 B Q.3 B Q.4 B Q.5 B Q.6 D Q.7 C

Q.8 B Q.9 A Q.10 B Q.11 A Q.12 A Q.13 B Q.14 A

Q.15 C Q.16 C Q.17 D Q.18 C Q.19 C Q.20 C Q.21 C

Q.22 C Q.23 B Q.24 A Q.25 D Q.26 B Q.27 C, D

Q.28 B, C, D Q.29 A, B Q.30 B, C Q.31 A, D Q.32 A Q.33 A

Q.34 D Q.35 B Q.36 C Q.37 A Q.38 B Q.39 C

Q.40 (A) P, Q (B) P, Q (C) Q, R, (D) P,S

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Single correct

Q.1 Osmotic pressure of 30% solution of glucose is 1.20 atm and that of 3.42% solution of cane sugar
is 2.5 atm. The osmotic pressure of the mixture containing equal volumes of the two solutions will
be
(A) 2.5 atm (B) 3.7 atm (C) 1.85 atm (D) 1.3 atm.

Q.2 Mole fraction of A vapours above the solution in mixture of A and B (XA = 0.4) will be
[Given : PA = 100 mm Hg and PB = 200 mm Hg]
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.8 (C) 0.25 (D) none of these
Q.3 The exact mathematical expression of Raoult’s law is

P 0  Ps n P 0  Ps N P 0  Ps n P 0  Ps
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) =n×N
P0 N P0 n Ps N P0

Q.4 A mixture contains 1 mole of volatile liquid A ( PA =100 mm Hg) and 3 moles of volatille liquid
B ( PB = 80 mm Hg). If solution behaves ideally, the total vapour pressure of the distillate is
(A) 85 mm Hg (B) 85.88 mm Hg (C) 90 mm Hg (D) 92 mm Hg
Q.5 Relative decrease in vapour pressure of an aqueous solution containing 2 moles [Cu(NH3)3 Cl] Cl in 3
moles H2O is 0.50. On reaction with AgNO3, this solution will form
(A) 1 mol AgCl (B) 0.25 mol AgCl (C) 2 mol AgCl (D) 0.40 mol AgCl

Q.6 The van't Hoff factor i for an infinitely dilute solution of NaHSO4 is
(A) 1/ 2 (B) 1/ 3 (C) 3 (D) 2

Q.7 Barium ions, CN¯ and Co2+ form an ionic complex. If that complex is supposed to be 75% ionised in
water with vant Hoff factor ‘ i ’ equal to four, then the coordination number of Co2+ in the complex can
be :
(A) Six (B) Five (C) Four (D) Six and Four both

Q.8 A 0.001 molal solution of a complex [MA8] in water has the freezing point of –0.0054°C. Assuming
100% ionization of the complex salt and Kf for H2O = 1.86 km–1, write the correct representation for
the complex
(A) [MA8] (B) [MA7]A (C) [MA6]A2 (D) [MA5]A3

Q.9 The vapour pressure of a solution of a non-volatile electrolyte B in a solvent A is 95% of the vapour
pressure of the solvent at the same temperature. If the molecular weight of the solvent is 0.3 times the
molecular weight of solute, the weight ratio of the solvent and solute are
(A) 0.15 (B) 5.7 (C) 0.2 (D) 4.0

Q.10 At a given temperature, total vapour pressure in Torr of a mixture of volatile components A and B is
given by
PTotal = 120 – 75 XB
hence, vapour pressure of pure A and B respectively (in Torr) are
(A) 120, 75 (B) 120, 195 (C) 120, 45 (D) 75, 45

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Q.11 Assuming each salt to be 90 % dissociated, which of the following will have highest boiling point?
(A) Decimolar Al2(SO4)3 (B) Decimolar BaCl2
(C) Decimolar Na2SO4
(D) A solution obtained by mixing equal volumes of (B) and (C)

Q.12 The vapour pressure of a solvent decreased by 10 mm of Hg when a non-volatile solute was added to
the solvent. The mole fraction of solute in solution is 0.2, what would be mole fraction of the solvent if
decrease in vapour pressure is 20 mm of Hg
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.4 (C) 0.6 (D) 0.8

Q.13 Elevation of boiling point of molar aqueous glucose solution (density = 1.2 g/ml) is
(A) Kb (B) 1.20 Kb (C) 1.02 Kb (D) 0.98 Kb

Q.14 A solute’S’ undergoes a reversible trimerization when dissolved in a certain solvent. The boiling
point elevation of its 0.1 molal solution was found to be identical to the boiling point elevation in
case of a 0.08 molal solution of a solute which neither undergoes association nor dissociation. To
what percent had the solute ‘S’ undergone trimerization?
(A) 30% (B) 40% (C) 50% (D) 60%

Q.15 1.0 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte A2B3 is 60% ionised. The boiling point of the solution at 1
1
atm is ( K b( H 2O)  0.52 K kg mol )
(A) 274.76 K (B) 377 K (C) 376.4 K (D) 374.76 K

Q.16 Which of the following plots represents an ideal binary mixture?

(A) Plot of Ptotal v/s 1/XB is linear (XB = mole fraction of 'B' in liquid phase).
(B) Plot of Ptotal v/s YA is linear (YB = mole fraction of 'A' in vapour phase)
1 1
(C) Plot of P v/s YA is linear (D) Plot of P v/s YB is non linear
total total
Q.17 x mole of KCI and y mole of BaCl2 are both dissolved in 1 kg of water. Given that x + y = 0.1 and Kf for
water is 1.85 K/molal, what is the observed range of Tf, if the ratio of x to y is varied ?
(A) 0.370 to 0.550 (B) 0.1850 to 0.930 (C) 0.560 to 0.930 (D) 0.370 to 0.930

Q.18 Two liquids A & B form an ideal solution. What is the vapour pressure of solution containing 2 moles of
A and 3 moles of B at 300 K? [Given : At 300 K, Vapour pr. of pure liquid A ( PAo ) = 100 torr,,
Vapour pr. of pure liquid B ( PBo ) = 300 torr ]
(A) 200 torr (B) 140 torr (C) 180 torr (D) None of these

Q.19 A solution of x moles of sucrose in 100 grams of water freezes at -0.20C. As ice separates the freezing
point goes down to -0.250C. How many grams of ice would have separated?
(A) 18 grams (B) 20 grams (C) 25 grams (D) 23 grams

Q.20 FeCl3 on reaction with K4[Fe(CN)6] in aqueous solution gives blue

colour. These are separated by a semipermeable membrane AB as
shown. Due to osmosis there is
(A) blue colour formation in side X.
(B) blue colour formation in side Y.
(C) blue colour formation in both of the sides X and Y.
(D) no blue colour formation.
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Q.21 A liquid mixture having composition corresponding to point z in the figure
shown is subjected to distillation at constant pressure. Which of the
following statement is correct about the process
(A) The composition of distillate differs from the mixture
(B) The boiling point goes on changing
(C) The mixture has highest vapour pressure than for any other
composition.
(D) Composition of an azeotrope alters on changing the external pressure.

Q.22 The vapour pressure of a saturated solution of sparingly soluble salt (XCl3) was 17.20 mm Hg at
27°C. If the vapour pressure of pure H2O is 17.25 mm Hg at 300 K, what is the solubility of
sparingly soluble salt XCl3 in mole/Litre.
(A) 4.04 × 10–2 (B) 8.08 ×10–2 (C) 2.02 × 10–2 (D) 4.04 × 10–3

Q.23 At 300 K, the vapour pressure of an ideal solution containing 3 mole of A and 2 mole of B is 600 torr. At
the same temperature, if 1.5 mole of A & 0.5 mole of C (non-volatile) are added to this solution the
vapour pressure of solution increases by 30 torr. What is the value of PBo ?
(A) 940 (B) 405 (C) 90 (D) none of these

Q.24 The following graph represents variation of boiling point with composition of liquid and vapours ofbinary
liquid mixture. The graph is plotted at constant pressure.
Which of the following statement(s) is incorrect. Here X & Y stands for mole fraction in liquid and
vapour phase respectively

(A) Xbenzene = 0.5 and Ytoluene = 0.2 (B) Xtoluene = 0.3 and Ybenzene = 0.6
(C) Xbenzene = 0.3 and Ytoluene = 0.4 (D) if Xbenzene = 0.7 than Ytoluene < 0.3

Q.25 The freezing point depression of a 0.1 M aq. solution of weak acid (HX) is –0.20°C.
What is the value of equilibrium constant for the reaction?
 H +(aq) + X¯ (aq)
HX (aq) 
[Given : Kf for water = 1.8 kg mol–1 K. & Molality = Molarity ]
(A) 1.46×10–4 (B) 1.35 × 10–3 (C) 1.21 × 10–2 (D) 1.35 × 10–4

Q.26 The vapour pressure of an aqueous solution is found to be 750 torr at certain temperature 'T'. If 'T' is the
temperature at which pure water boils under atmospheric pressure and same solution show elevation in
boiling point Tb = 1.04 K, find the atmospheric pressure (Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1 )
(A) 777 (B) 779 (C) 782 (D) 746

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Q.27 At 323 K, the vapour pressure in millimeters of mercury of a methanol-ethanol solution is represented by
pA
the equation p = 120 XA + 140, where XA is the mole fraction of methanol. Then the value of xlim
A 1 X
is
A

(A) 250 mm (B) 140 mm (C) 260 mm (D) 20 mm

Q.28 Assuming the formation of an ideal solution, determine the boiling point of a mixture containing
1560 g benzene (molar mass = 78) and 1125 g chlorobenzene (molar mass = 112.5) using the
following against an external pressure of 1000 Torr.

benzene
2200
1800
Vapour 1350 chlorobenzene
Pressure
1000
540
400
300
200
90 100 110 120
t(cº)

(A) 90ºC (B) 100ºC (C) 110º (D) 120ºC

Q.29 The vapor pressures of benzene, toluene and a xylene are 75 Torr, 22 Torr and 10 Torr at 20ºC.
Which of the following is not a possible value of the vapor pressure of an equimolar binary/ternary
solution of these at 20ºC ? Assume all form ideal solution with each other.
1 2 1
(A) 48 (B) 16 (C) 35 (D) 53
2 3 2

Q.30 Observe the P-T phase diagram for a given substance A. Then melting point of A(s), boiling point ofA(l),
critical point of A and triple point of A (at their respective pressures) are respectively.

(A) T1, T2, T3, T4 (B) T4, T3, T1, T2 (C) T3, T4, T2, T1 (D) T2, T1, T3, T4

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Q.31 Consider two liquids A & B having pure vapour pressures PA & PB forming an ideal solution.

1 1
The plot of v/s (where XA and YA are the mole fraction of liquid A in liquid and vapour phase
XA YA
respectively) is linear with slope and Y intercepts respectively :

(PAº  PBº ) (PBº  PAº )

(A) PAº / PBº and (B) PAº / PBº and
PBº PBº

(PAº  PBº ) (PBº  PAº )

(C) PBº / PAº and (D) PBº / PAº and
PBº PBº
Q.32 Given P-x curve for a non-ideal liquid mixture (Fig.1). Identify the correct T-x curve for the same
mixture.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.33 When 100 ml of 0.2M BaCl2 (aq) is added to 100ml of 0.2M K2SO4 solution, _______of K2SO4
solution is lowered. Assume 100% dissociation of soluble salts and 100% precipitation of insoluble
ones.
(A) Freezing point (B) Boiling point (C) Vapour pressure (D)Osmotic pressure

Q.34 Solubility curves of four ionic salts X, Y, Z, W are given below :

In which case the value of DHsol. < 0

(A) X (B) Y (C) Z (D) W.
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Q.35 The diagram given below represents boiling point composition diagram of solution of component A
and B, what is true among the following?

(A) The solution shows negative deviation

(B) A-B-interactions are stronger than A-A and B-B
(C) The solution is ideal solution
(D) The solution shows positive deviation.

Q.36 Two elements A and B form compounds having molecular formulae AB2 and AB4. When dissolved
in 20.0 g of Benzene, 1.00 g of AB2 lowers f.p. by 2.3ºC whereas 1.00 g of AB4 lowers f.p. by
1.3ºC. The molal depression constant for benzene is 5.1. The atomic masses of A and B are
respectively
(A) can't be predicted (B) 42.6, 25.5 (C) 30.60 (D) 25.5, 42.6

Q.37 Two beakers, one containing 20 ml of a 0.05 M aqueous solution of a non volatile, non electrolyte and
the other, the same volume of 0.03 M aqueous solution of NaCl, are placed side by side in a closed
enclose. What are the volumes in the two beakers when equation is attached ? Volume of the solution in
the first and second beaker are respectively.
(A) 21.8 ml and 18.2 mL (B) 18.2 mL and 21.8 mL
(C) 20 mL and 20 mL (D) 17.1 mL and 22.9 mL

Q.38 Insulin (C2H10O5)n is dissolved in a suitable solvent and the osmotic pressure p of the solution of
various concentration (in kg/m3) is measured at 20ºC. The slope of a plot of p against c is found to be
8.134 × 10–3 (SI units) The molecular weight of the insulin (in kg/mol) is :
(A) 4.8 × 105 (B) 9 × 105 (C) 293 × 103 (D) 8.314 × 105

Q.39 When only a little quantity of HgCl2(s) is added to excess KI(aq) to obtain a clear solution, which of the
following is true for this solution? (no volume change on mixing)
(A) Its boiling and freezing points remain same (B) Its boiling point is lowered
(C) Its freezing point is raised (D) Its boiling point is raised
(E) Its freezing point is lowered.

Q.40 An ideal mixture of liquids A and B with 2 moles of A and 2 moles of B has a total vapour pressure of 1
atm at a certain temperature. Another mixture with 1 mole of A and 3 moles of B has a vapour pressure
greater than 1 atm. But if 4 moles of C are added to the second mixture, the vapour pressure comes
down to 1 atm. Vapour pressure of C, Pc0 = 0.8 atm. Calculate the vapour pressures of pure A and pure B.
(A) PA0 = 1.4 atm, PB0 = 0.7 atm (B) PA0 = 1.2 atm, PB0 = 0.6 atm
0 0
(C) PA = 1.4 atm, PB = 0.6 atm (D) PA0 = 0.6 atm, PB0 = 1.4 atm

Question No. 41 to 43 (3 questions)

The partial vapour pressure of any volatile component of an ideal solution is equal to the vapour pressure
of the pure component multiplied by the mole fraction of that component in the solution

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Q.41 At a temperature, total pressure in Torr of a mixture of volatile components A and B is given by
P = 120 – 75 XB
hence, vapour pressure of pure A and B respectively (in Torr) are:
(A) 120, 75 (B) 120, 195 (C) 120, 45 (D) 75, 45

Q.42 A mixture contains 1 mol volatile liquid A ( p oA =100 mm Hg) and 3 mol volatile liquid B ( poB = 80 mm
Hg). If solution behave ideally, total vapour pressure of the distillate is approximately:
(A) 85 mm Hg (B) 86 mm Hg (C) 90 mm Hg (D) 92 mm Hg

Q.43 Moles of K2SO4 to be dissolved in 12 mol water to lower its vapour pressure by 10 mm Hg at a
temperature at which vapour pressure of pure water is 50 m Hg is:
(A) 3 mol (B) 2 mol (C) 1 mol (D) 0.5 mol

Question No. 44 to 50 (7 questions)

Figure explains elevation in boiling point when a non-volatile solute is added to a solvent.

Atmospheric Pressure
1 atm A B

PSolvent
Vapour Pressure

PSolution Tb
T0 T
Temperature

Variation of vapour pressure with temperature and showing elevation in boiling point.
Q.44 Given that Tb is the elevation in boiling point of the solvent in a solution of molality ‘m’ then

Lt  Tb  is equal to:

m 0  m 
 
(A) Kb (molal elevation constant) (B) Lv (latent heat of vaporisation)
(C) S (entropy change) (D) x (mole fraction of solute)

Q.45 Elevation in b.p. of an aqueous urea solution is 0.52°. (Kb = 0.52° mol–1 kg). Hence, mole fraction of
urea in this solution is:
(A) 0.982 (B) 0.0567 (C) 0.943 (D) 0.018

Q.46 A complex of iron and cyanide ions is 100% ionised at 1 m (molal). if its elevation in b.p. is 2.08°
(Kb = 0.52° mol–1 kg) then the complex is:
(A) K3[Fe(CN)6] (B) Fe(CN)2 (C) K4[Fe(CN)6] (D) Fe(CN)4

Q.47 Select correct statement:

(A) Heats of vaporisation for a pure solvent and for a solution are similar because similar intermolecular
forces between solvent molecules must be overcome in both cases.
(B) Entropy change between solution and vapour is similar than the entropy change between pure solvent
and vapour
(C) Boiling point of the solution is larger than that of the pure solvent
(D) All are correct statements

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Q.48 Consider following terms:
Tb
(I) mKb (II) mKbi (III) (IV) Kb
i
Terms which can be expressed in degree (temperature) are:
(A) III, IV (B) I, II (C) I, II, III (D) I, III

Q.49 Ratio of Tb/Kb of 6% AB2 and 9% A2B (AB2 and A2 B both are non-electrolytes) is 1 mol/kg in both
cases. Hence atomic masses of A and B are respectively:
(A) 60, 90 (B) 40, 40 (C) 40, 10 (D) 10, 40

Q.50 Which represents correct difference?

(I) (II)

(III)

(A) I, II, III (B) I, III (C) II, III (D) I, II

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Q.1 C Q.2 C Q.3 C Q.4 B Q.5 A Q.6 C Q.7 B

Q.8 C Q.9 B Q.10 C Q.11 A Q.12 C Q.13 D Q.14 A

Q.15 D Q.16 C Q.17 A Q.18 D Q.19 B Q.20 D Q.21 D

Q.22 A Q.23 C Q.24 B Q.25 B Q.26 A Q.27 C Q.28 B

Q.29 D Q.30 C Q.31 B Q.32 B Q.33 C Q.34 A Q.35 D

Q.36 D Q.37 A Q.38 C Q.39 B Q.40 D Q.41 C Q.42 B

Q.43 C Q.44 A Q.45 D Q.46 A Q.47 D Q.48 C Q.49 C

Q.50 A

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Single correct

Q.1 In a face centred lattice of X and Y, X atoms are present at the corners while Y atoms are at face centres.
Then the formula of the compound would be if one of the X atoms is missing from a corner in each unit
cell
(A) X7Y24 (B) X24Y7 (C) XY24 (D) X24Y

Q.2 The density of CaF2 (fluorite structure) is 3.18 g/cm3. The length of the side of the unit cell is
(A) 253 pm (B) 344 pm (C) 546 pm (D) 273 pm

Q.3 Which of the following statements is correct in the rock-salt structure of an ionic compounds?
(A) coordination number of cation is four whereas that of anion is six.
(B) coordination number of cation is six whereas that of anion is four.
(C) coordination number of each cation and anion is four.
(D) coordination number of each cation and anion is six.

Q.4 Which of the following are the correct axial distance and axial angles for rhombohedral system?
(A) a = b = c,  =  =   900 (B) a = b  c,  =  =  = 900
(C) a  b  c,  =  =  = 900 (D) a  b  c,       900

Q.5 Which of the following shaded plane in fcc lattice contains arrangement of atoms as shown by circles :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.6 The tetrahedral voids formed by ccp arrangement of Cl– ions in rock salt structure are
(A) Occupied by Na+ ions (B) Occupied by Cl– ions
(C) Occupied by either Na+ or Cl– ions (D) Vacant

Q.7 The number of nearest neighbours around each particle in a face-centred cubic lattice is
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 12

Q.8 If the anions (A) form hexagonal closest packing and cations (C) occupy only 2/3 octahedral voids in it,
then the general formula of the compound is
(A) CA (B) CA2 (C) C2A3 (D) C3A2

Q.9 A solid is formed and it has three types of atoms X, Y, Z. X forms a FCC lattice with Y atoms occupying
all the tetrahedral voids and Z atoms occupying half the octrahedral voids. The formula of the solid is:
(A) X2Y4Z (B) XY2Z4 (C) X4Y2Z (D) X4YZ2

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Q.10 The intermetallic compound LiAg crystallizes in cubic lattice in which both lithium and silver have
coordination number of eight. The crystal class is
(A) Simple cubic (B) Body centred cubic (C) Face centred cubic (D) None

Q.11 A compound XY crystallizes in BCC lattice with unit cell edge lenght of 480 pm. If the radius of Y– is
225 pm, then the radius of X+ is
(A) 127.5 pm (B) 190.68 pm (C) 225 pm (D) 255 pm

Q.12 You are given 6 identical balls.What is the maximum number of square voids and triangular voids
(in separete arrangements) that can be created?
(A) 2 , 4 (B) 4 , 2 (C) 4 , 3 (D) 3 , 4

Q.13 Square packed sheets are arranged on the top of other such that a sphere in the next layer rests on the
centre of a square in the previous layer. Identify the type of arrangement and find the the coordination
number.
(A) Simple Cubic, 6 (B) Face Centered Cubic, 8
(C) Face Centered Cubic, 12 (D) Body Centered Cubic, 8

Q.14 Consider a cube containing n unit cells of a cubic system consisting of the same types of atoms.

D B

A plane ABCD obtained by joining the mid points of the edges on one of its faces had atoms arranged as
shown. Let p be the packing fraction.Choose the correct option:
22 11
(A) n = 1 , p = (B) n = 8 , p =
21 2 21

11 11 3
(C) n = 8 , p = (D) n = 1 , p =
14 28
Q.15 An ionic compound AB has ZnS type structure. If the radius A+ is 22.5 pm, then the ideal radius of B–
would be
(A) 54.35 pm (B) 100 pm (C) 145.16 pm (D) none of these

Q.16 NH4Cl crystallizes in a body-centered cubic type lattice with a unit cell edge length of 387 pm. The
distance between the oppositively charged ions in the lattice is
(A) 335.1 pm (B) 83.77 pm (C) 274.46 pm (D) 137.23 pm

Q.17 In diamond, carbon atom occupy FCC lattice points as well as alternate tetrahedral voids. If edge length
of the unit cell is 356 pm, then radius of carbon atom is
(A) 77.07 pm (B) 154.14 pm (C) 251.7 pm (D) 89 pm

Q.18 Which of the following will show schottky defect

(A) CaF2 (B) ZnS (C) AgCl (D) CsCl

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Q.19 Copper metal crystallizes in FCC lattice. Edge length of unit cell is 362 pm. The radius of largest atom
that can fit into the voids of copper lattice without disturbing it.
(A) 53 pm (B) 45 pm (C) 93 pm (D) 60 pm

Q.20 In FCC unit cell, what fraction of edge is not covered by atoms?
(A) 0.134 (B) 0.24 (C) 0.293 (D) None of these

Q.21 Consider a Body Centered Cubic(BCC) arrangement, let de, dfd, dbd be the distances between succes-
sive atoms located along the edge, the face-diagonal, the body diagonal respectively in a unit cell.Their
order is given by:
(A) de < dfd < dbd (B) dfd > dbd > de (C) dfd > de > dbd (D) dbd > de > dfd,

Q.22 Figure shows a cube of unit cell of CCP arrangement with atoms are marked as 1, 2, 3.Which of the
following statements is true.
3

1
(A) Atom 3 is twice as far from 1 as from 2 (B) Atom 2 is equidistant from atoms 1 & 3.
(C) Atom 2 is nearer to 1 than to 3. (D) All atoms lie on a right angled triangle.

Q.23 In a hypothetical solid C atoms form CCP lattice with A atoms occupying all the Tetrahedral Voids and
B atoms occupying all the octahedral voids. A and B atoms are of the appropriate size such that there is
no distortion in the CCP lattice.Now if a plane is cut(as shown) then the cross section would like.
Plane

CCP unit cell

C B C C C C C C C C C C
A A A
B B B B B B B B B B B B
(A) A (B) (C) A A (D)
C B C C C C C C C C C C

Q.24 In an FCC unit cell a cube is formed by joining the centres of all the tertahedral voids to generate a new
cube.Then the new cube would contain voids as:

(A) 1 full Tetrahedral void, 1 full Octahedral void (B) 1 full Tetrahedral void only
(C) 8 full Tetrahedral voids and 1 full Octahedral void (D) 1 full Octahedral void only

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Q.25 Given an alloy of Cu, Ag and Au in which Cu atoms constitute the CCP arrangement.If the hypothetical
formula of the alloy is Cu4Ag3Au. What are the probable locations of Ag and Au atoms.
(A) Ag - all Tetrahedral voids; Au - all Octahedral voids
(B) Ag - 3/8th Tetrahedral voids; Au - 1/4th Octahedral voids
(C) Ag - 1/2 Octahedral voids; Au - 1/2 Tetrahedral voids
(D) Ag - all Octahedral voids; Au - all tetrahedral voids

Q.26 Consider a cube 1 of Body Centered Cubic unit cell of edge length a.Now atom at the body centre can
be viewed to be lying on the corner of another cube 2.Find the volume common to cube 1 and cube 2.
a3 a3 a3 a
3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
27 64 2 2 8

Q.27 Three lines are drawn from a single corner of an FCC unit cell to meet the other corner such that they are
found to pass through exactly 1 Octahedral void only, no voids of any type and exactly 2 tertahedral
voids with exactly 1 Octahedral void only.Identify the line in the same order.
(A) Edge, Face diagonal, Body diagonal (B) Face diagonal, Edge, Body diagonal
(C) Body diagonal, Face diagonal, Edge (D) Edge, Body diagonal, Face diagonal

Q.28 Following three planes( P1, P2, P3) in an FCC unit cell are shown:

Consider the following statements and choose the correct option that follow:
(i) P1 contains no voids of three dimensions.
(ii) P2 contains only Octahedral voids.
(iii) P3 conatins both Octahedral and Tertahedral voids.
(A) All are true (B)Only (i) & (ii) are true
(C) (i) & (iii) are true (D) Only (iii) is true.

Q.29 MgAl2O4, is found in the Spinel structure in which O2  ions constitute CCP lattice, Mg2+ ions occupy
1/8th of the Tetrahedral voids and Al3 ions occupy 1/2 of the Octahedral voids.
Find the total +ve charge contained in one unit cell.
(A) +7/4 electronic charge (B) +6 electronic charge
(C) +2 electronic charge (D) +8 electronic charge

Q.30 Consider the following staments and choose the correct option:
(i) Addition of CdCl2 to the Crystals of AgCl will produce Schottky defects.
(ii) Addition of NaCl to the crystals of AgCl would not produce Schottky defects.
(A) Both (i) and (ii) are true (B) Only (i) is true
(C) Only (ii) is true (D) Both are false

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Assertion & Reason

Q.31 Statement-1 : KCl is more likely to show schottky defect, while LiI is more likely to show Frenkel
defect.
Statement-2 : Schottky defect is more likely in ionic solids in which cations and anions are of
comparable size while Frenkel defect is more likely is which cations and anions have
large differences in their ionic sizes.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.32 Statement-1 : Increasing temperature increases the density of point defects

Statement-2 : The process of formation of point defects in solids in endothermic and has S > 0.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.33 Statement-1 : Increase in dielectric constant is observed in Frenkel defect.

Statement-2 : Only anions come in interstitial space in case of Frenkel defect.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.34 Statement-1 : Distance between nearest lattice points in BCC is greater than the same in FCC having
same edge length .
Statement-2 : FCC has greater packing efficiency than BCC.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

More than one may be correct

Q.35 Which of the following statements is/are correct :

(A) The coordination number of each type of ion in CsCl is 8.
(B)A metal that crystallises in BCC structure has a coordination number 12.
(C) A unit cell of an ionic crystal shares some of its ions with other unit cells
(D) The length of the unit cell in NaCl is 552 pm.
[ rNa = 95 pm ; rCl  = 181 pm ]

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Q.36 Which of the following statements is/are correct :
(A) In an anti-fluorite structure anions form FCC lattice and cations occupy all tetrahedral voids.
(B) If the radius of cations and anions are 0.2 Å and 0.95 Å then coordinate number of cation in the
crystal is 4.
(C) An atom/ion is transferred from a lattice site to an interstitial position in Frenkel defect.
(D) Density of crystal always increases due to substitutinal impurity defect.

Q.37 80.0 gm salt of weak base & strong acid XY is dissolved in water and formed 2 litre of aqueous solution.
The pH of the resultant solution was found to be 5 at 298 K. If XY forms CsCl type crystal having
rX  (radius of X+) = 1.6 Å & rY – (radius of Y¯) = 1.864 Å then select write statement(s).
(Given : Kb (XOH) = 4 × 10–5 ; NA = 6 × 1023)
(A) Molar mass of salt is 100 g/mol
(B) % Degree of hydrolysis of salt is 0.25
(C) Edge length of AB is 4Å
(D) Density of solid salt XY is 2 in gm/cc

Q.38 Select write statement(s)

(A) 8 Cs+ ions occupy the second nearest neighbour locations of a Cs+ ion
(B) Each sphere is surrounded by six voids in two dimensional hexagonal close packed layer
(C) If the radius of cations and anions are 0.3 Å and 0.4 Å then coordinate number of cation in the
crystal is 6.
(D) In AgCl, the silver ion is displaced from its lattice position to an interstitial position such a defect is
called a frenkel defect

Comprehension:
(Q.39 to Q.42)
Calcium crystallizes in a cubic unit cell with density 3.2 g/cc. Edge-length of the unit cell is 437picometre (pm)

Q.39 The type of unit cell is

(A) Simple cubic (B) BCC (C) FCC (D) Edge-centred

Q.40 The nearest neighbour distance is

(A) 154.5 pm (B) 309 pm (C) 218.5 pm (D) 260 pm

Q.41 The number of nearest neighbours of a Ca atom are

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 12

Q.42 If the metal is melted, density of the molten metal was found to be 3 g/cc. What will be the percentage of
empty space in the melt?
(A) 31% (B) 36% (C) 28% (D) 49%

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(Q.43 & Q.44)
Silicon carbide (SiC) and diamond are covalent solids which crystallize in cubic strucures. In SiC, carbon
atoms occupy points of the face centred cubic lattice (FCC positions) and silicon atoms occupy half of
the tetrahedral voids available. In diamonds, same position of the tetrahedral voids are occupied by
other carbon atoms.
Also the density of SiC and diamond are 3.2 and 3.6 g/cc respectively. Answer the following four
questions based on the above information: (M : Si = 28)

Q.43 The radius of silicon atom is

(A) 0.76 Å (B) 1.12 Å (C) 3.54 Å (D) 4.75 Å

Q.44 Which of the following will not change the density of SiC solid?
(A) Substitution of some Si atoms by some carbon atoms
(B) Schottky defects
(C) Interchange of some Si atom by some C atom
(D) None

Match the Column:

Q.45 Column I Column II

[Distance in terms of edge length of cube (a)]

(A) 0.866 a (P) Shortest distance between cation & anion in

CsCl structure.

(B) 0.707 a (Q) Shortest distance between two cation in CaF2

structure.

(C) 0.433 a (R) Shortest distance between carbon atoms in

diamond.

(S) Shortest distance between two cations in rock

salt structure.

Q.46 Match the column:

Column I Column II
(A) Rock salt structure (P) Co-ordination number of cation is 4

3a
(B) Zinc Blend structure (Q) = r+ + r–
4
(C) Flourite structure (R) Co-ordination number of cation and anion
are same

a
(S) Distance between two nearest anion is
2

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Q.1 A Q.2 C Q.3 D Q.4 A Q.5 C Q.6 D Q.7 D

Q.8 C Q.9 A Q.10 B Q.11 B Q.12 A Q.13 D Q.14 B

Q.15 B Q.16 A Q.17 A Q.18 D Q.19 A Q.20 C Q.21 C

Q.22 B Q.23 C Q.24 A Q.25 B Q.26 D Q.27 A Q.28 A

Q.29 D Q.30 A Q.31 A Q.32 A Q.33 C Q.34 A

Q.35 A,C,D Q.36 A,C Q.37 A,C Q.38 B,D Q.39 C Q.40 B

Q.41 D Q.42 A Q.43 B Q.44 C

Q.45 (A) P (B) Q,S (C) R Q.46 (A) R,S (B) P,Q,R,S (C)

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1. Ozone, on reaction with KI solution produces:

(A) Cl2 (B) I2 (C) HI (D) IO3

2. For the redox reaction

aMnO4 + bC2O42 + cH+  Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O,
the correct coefficients a, b, c of the reactants for the balanced reaction are
(A) 2, 5, 16 (B) 16, 5, 2 (C) 5, 16, 2 (D) 2, 16, 5

3. When 4.0 g of a metal oxide MxOy were reduced in hydrogen 02.8 g of the metal remained. What was the
formula of the metal oxide if the relative atomic mass of the metal M was 56 ?
(A) MO (B) M2O (C) M2O3 (D) M3O4

4. Given that [Au(SO3F)4-] ion always has (-1) charge. The equivalent weight of Br2 in
[Br3][Au(SO3F)4] + Br2  [Br5] [Au(SO3F)4] is
(A) 32 (B) 80 (C) 160 (D) 400

5. As2O3 is oxidised to H3AsO4 by KMnO4 in acidic medium. Volume of 0.02M KMnO4 required for this purpose by
1mmol of As2O3 will be
(A) 10 mL (B) 20 mL (C) 40 mL (D) 80 mL

6. Number of moles of electrons taken up when 1 mole of NO3 ions is reduced to 1 mole of NH2OH is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

7. Hydrazinium chloride (N2H5Cl) can precipitate copper mirror from CuSO4 and dinitrogen is liberated. Equivalent
weights of hydrazinium chloride and copper sulphate respectively, in this reaction are
(A) 17.13, 79.75 (B) 17.13, 159.5 (C) 34.25, 79.75 (D) 34.25, 159.5

8. In a redox reaction, the equivalent weight of HNO2 is found to be 23.5. The reaction products might contain
(A) N2O (B) NO (C) NH3 (D) HNO3

9. ClF3 (molecular weight, M1) can oxidize UF4(g) (molecular weight, M2) to UF6(g) and get reduced to Cl2 itself.
Equivalent weights of ClF3 and UF4 respectively in this reaction are
(A) M2/2, M1/6 (B) M1/3, M2/2 (C) M1/6, M2/2 (D) M1/6, M2/6

10. Sb2S3 is oxidized to SbF5 and SF6 by fluorine (F2). If meq of antimony (Sb), sulfur and fluorine in this redox
reaction are x, y and z respectively then
(A) x = y (B) x + y = z (C) x = y (D) 2x + 3y = z

11. 50g of pure CaCO3 is heated, liberated CO2 reacted 0.4 mol of moist ammonia to yield only (NH4)2CO3. Find the
volume of CO2 liberated at STP
(A) zero (B) 6.72 L
(C) 2.24 L (D) indeterminate from this data.

12. 100 ml of 0.1M NaAl(OH)2CO3 is neutralised by 0.25 N HCl to form NaCl, AlCl3 and CO2. Volume of HCl required is
(A) 10 mL (B) 40 mL (C) 100mL (D) 160 mL

13. Phenolphthalein will be pink in a 0.1M aqueous solution of

(A) NaOH (B) Na2CO3 (C) NaHCO3 (D) CO2

14. A small amount of HCl(aq) is added to an aqueous of NaHCO3 and K2CO3. Which of the following conditions,
when true, will ensure no evolution of CO2?
(A)mmol of HCl added are less than mmol of K2CO3
(B)mmol of HCl added are less than 2 x mmol of K2CO3
(C)mmol of HCl added are less than 0.5 x mmol of K2CO3
(D) none of these

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15. x ml and y ml of 0.1N HCl are required for two separate titrations against a given sample of NaOH using methyl
orange and phenolphthalein as indicators respectively. Which of the following is true?
(A) x =y (B) 2x = y (C) x = 2y
(D) no colour change in titration at equivalance point using methyl orange

16. The mixture of (Na2CO3 and NaHCO3) required x ml of HCl for titration using methyl orange as indicator and y
ml for titration using phenolphthalein as indicator. Volume of same sample of HCl required for complete titration
of the given mixture is
(A) x mL (B) y mL (C) (x+y) mL (D) (xy) mL

17. An aqueous solution of NaOH and Na2CO3 is titrated against 0.1N HCl using phenolphthalein as indicator and
‘x’ ml of HCl are required for titration. When the titration is continued using methyl orange, if ml of HCl are
required additionally. Which of the following is (are) true?
(A) x = y (B) x > y (C) y > 2x (D) x > 2y

18. x ml of 0.01N HCl are required for titration against a mixture of NaOH and Na2CO3 using phenolphthalein as
indicator. When the colour changed from pink to colourless, few drops of methyl orange were added and the
titration was continued. Additional y ml of 0.01N HCl were required. Which of the following values of x and y are
possible?
(A) x = 100, y = 130 (B) x = 148, y = 54 (C) x = 36, y = 63 (D) x = 420, y = 140

19. Equal volumes of two aqueous solutions A and B containing NaOH and NaHCO3 respectively are mixed. Half
of the resultant solution required 20 ml of decimolar HCl solution for exact titration using using phenolphthalein
as indicator and the other half required 30 ml of decimolar HCl solution for exact titration using methyl oragne
as indicator. Which of the following are correct?
(A) Molarity of NaOH in A > Molarity of NaHCO3 in B.
(B) Molarity of NaOH in A < Molarity of NaHCO3 in B.
(C) Molarity of NaOH in A = Molarity of NaHCO3 in B.
(D) No conclusion can be drawn from this data.

20. In the mysterious deserts of Egypt, large deposits of ‘Trona’ (Na2CO3·NaHCO3) are found. If a sample of ‘Trona’
(containing some inert impurities) is dissolved in water and titrated against 0.1M HCl, which of the following
readings are possible when x and y ml of HCl are required for titration against equal volumes of this solution,
one using phenolphthalein and the other using methyl orange respectively as indicators?
(A) x = 20, y = 20 (B) x = 20, y = 30 (C) x = 20, y = 60 (D) x = 20, y = 10

21. x mmol of KIO3 react completely with y mmol of K to give 2 quantitavely. Then
(A) x = y (B) 5x = y (C) x = 5y (D) x < y

22. Br2+ can be prepared by treating Br2 with S2O6F2 followed by treatment with SbF5 to form bright red [Br2][Sb3F16].
Equivalent weight of Br2 in this redox reaction is (Br = 80)
(A) 20 (B) 40 (C) 80 (D) 160

23. Reduction of V2O5, followed by addition of a strong base yields Na12V18O42·24H2O on crystallization. If the
addition of strong base causes no change in oxidation state of vanadium (obtained after reduction), the equivalent
weight for reduction of V2O5 in this case will be (if M denotes molecular weight of V2O5):
(A) M/5 (B) M/2 (C) M (D) Indeterminate

24. A sample of HCN yields potassium cyanide (KCN) on titration against 100mL of 1M KOH. What volume of 5M
KMnO4 may be required for titration against same amount of HCN in acidic medium yielding Mn2+, K+ and NO3
ions, alongwith liberation of CO2(g).
(A) 40 mL (B) 120 mL (C) 200 mL (D) 400 mL

25. Dichloroacetic acid (CHCl2COOH) is oxidized to CO2, H2O and Cl2 by 600 meq of an oxidizing agent. Same
amount of acid can neutralize how many moles of ammonia to form ammonium dichloroacetate?
(A) 0.0167 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.6

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26. 100 mL of 0.1N I2 oxidizes Na2S2O3 in 50 ml solution to Na2S4O6. The normality of this hypo solution against
KMnO4 (which oxidizes it to Na2SO4) would be
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.2 (C) 1.0 (D) 1.6

27. x mmol of XeF4 quantitatively oxidized KI to I2 and liberated Xe, alongwith formation of KF. This iodine required
20 ml of decinormal hypo solution for exact titration. The value of x is
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 2.0 (D) 5.0

28. 1 mole of chlorine reacts exactly with a given sample of HI to give ICl and HCl completely. If exactly same
amount of HI is dissolved in distilled water to give 10L solution, normality of this acid solution against NaOH will
be
(A) 0.05 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.4

29. m grams of a mixture of Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 yields oone mole of CO2 on treatment with HCl. After this
reaction the solution is evaporated and yields 1.4 mole of NaCl. What is the value of m?
(A) 95 gm (B) 101 gm (C) 97.2 gm (D) 92.4 gm

30. In the preceding problem what volume of CO2 measured at STP would be obtained if HCl is added only after
strongly heating and cooling the mixture?
(A) 15.68 litres (D) 13.44 litres (C) 14.52 litres (D) 12.36 litres

31. 20.0 g of H3PO4 are dissolved in water and made up to one litre. What is the normality of the solution, if titration
against NaOH is carried only up to the second stage of neutralization?
(A) 0.408 (B) 0.204 (C) 0.612 (D) 0.102

32. 2.2 g CH3(CH2)n COOH was burnt in excess air and the resultant gases (CO2 and H2O) were passes through a
solution of NaOH. The resulting solution was divided into two equal parts. One part required 30 mL of 2.5
N HCl for neutralization using phenolphthalein as indicator while the other titrated 70 mL of same HCl solution
using methyl orange as indicator. Find the value of n.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

33. A solution of KMnO4 is reduced to MnO2. The normality of solution is 0.6. The molarity is:
(A) 1.8M (B) 0.6M (C) 0.1M (D) 0.2M

34. Number of moles of electrons taken up when 1 mole of NO3 ions is reduced to 1 mole of NH2OH is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

35. The molecular mass of H3PO3 is 82. Its equivalent mass if it is completely neutralised, is :
(A) 82 (B) 27.3 (C) 41 (D) 246

36. 200 mL of 3 N HCl were mixed with 200 mL of 6 N H2SO4 solution. The final normality of H2SO4 in the resultant
solution will be :
(A) 9 N (B) 3 N (C) 6 N (D) 2 N

37. In an experiment 20 mL of a decinormal HCl solution was added to 15 mL of a decinormal AgNO3 solution. AgCl
was percipitated out and excess of acid was titrated with N/20 NaOH solution. The volume of NaOH required
was :
(A) 10 mL (B) 20 mL (C) 30 mL (D) 5 mL

38. The molar concentration of the chloride ion in the solution obtained by mixing 300 mL of 3.0 M NaCl and 200
mL of 4.0 M solution BaCl2 is :
(A) 1.6 M (B) 1.8 M (C) 5.0 M (D) 0.5 M

39. A 100 mL solution of 0.1 N HCl was titrated with 0.2 N NaOH solution. The tiration was discontinued after
adding 30 mL of NaOH solution. The titration was completed by adding 0.25 N KOH solution.. The volume of
KOH required for completing the titration is :
(A) 70 mL (B) 32 mL (C) 35 mL (D) 16 mL

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40. 3 g of an oxide of a metal is converted to chloride completely and it yielded 5 g of chloride. Equivalent weight
of the metal is :
(A) 33.25 (B) 3.325 (C) 12 (D) 20

41. Phosphoric acid H3PO4 can not be neutralised to :

(A) HPO42– (B) PO43– (C) H2PO4– (D) HPO32–

42. ‘a’ g KHC2O4 required to reduce 100 mL of 0.02 M KMnO4 in acid medium and ‘b’ g KHC2O4 neutralises 100 mL
of 0.05 M Ca(OH)2 then :
(A) a = b (B) 2a = b (C) a = 2b (D) None of these

43. 28 NO3– + 3As2S3 + 4H2O  6AsO43– + 28NO + 9SO42– + *H+.

What will be the equivalent mass of As2S3 in above reaction?
M.wt. M.wt. M.wt. M.wt.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4 24 28
44. For a balanced reaction:
a Na2TeO3 + 4NaI + b HCl  c NaCl + d Te + e H2O + f I2
Which of the following is (are) correct?
(A) a+b = c+d (B) a+b = c+d+e+f (C) d = 1 (D) f = 4

45. The sum of the coefficients of reactants and of products for the reaction
2MnO + PbO2 + HNO3  HMnO4 + Pb(NO3)2 + H2O is
(A) 4, 3 (B) 10, 18 (C) 19, 3 (D) 17, 11

46. Consider the unbalanced equation

4Ag + KCN + O2 + H2O  KAg(CN)2 + KOH
The correct sum of coefficients of all the reactants (including coefficient of Ag as ‘4’) is
(A) 11 (B) 15 (C) 23 (D) none of these

47. Consider the unbalanced equation:

SbCl3 + KIO3 + HCl  SbCl5 + ICl + KCl + H2O
If coefficient of KIO3 is maintained as 1, the sum of coefficients of all the products will be
(A) 8.5 (B) 16 (C) 7 (D) none of these

48. Consider the reaction H+ + O4 +   2 + H2O. The ratio of coefficients of O4,  and I2 is
(A) 1 : 7 : 4 (B) 1 : 7 : 8 (C) 7: 1 : 4 (D) 7 : 1 : 8

49. p Au + q KCN + r H2O + m O2  p KAu(CN)4 + n KOH. The values of p, q, r, m and n:

(A) p = 4, q = 16, r = 6, m = 3, n = 12 (B) p = 4, q = 12, r = 6, m = 3, n = 10
(C) p = 4, q = 12, r = 6, m = 4, n = 10 (D) p = 4, q = 16, r = 3, m = 6, n = 12

50. 25 ml of a solution containing 6.1 gL–1 an oxalate of formula KxHy(C2O4)2nH2O required 18 ml of 0.1 N NaOH and
24 ml of 0.1 N KMnO4 in two separate titrations. Then value of ‘n’ is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

51. If 0.5 mole of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.2 mole of Na3PO4 the maximum number of moles of Ba3(PO4)2 that can be
formed is -
(A) 0.7 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.1

52. The amount of oxalic acid (hydrated) required to prepare 500 ml of its 0.1 N solution is -
(A) 0.315 g (B) 6.3 g (C) 3.15 g (D) 63 g

53. What weight of sodium hydroxide is required to neutralise 100 ml of 0.1 N HCl
(A) 4.0 g (B) 0.04 g (C) 0.4 g (D) 2.0 g

54. It takes 2.56 × 10–3 equivalents of KOH to neutralise 0.1254 g H2XO4. The number of proton in X is -
(A) 16 (B) 8 (C) 7 (D) 32

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55. The number of moles of Cr2O72– needed to oxidise 0.136 equivalents of N2H5+ by the reaction.
N2H5+ + Cr2O72–  N2 + Cr3+ + H2O is
(A) 0.136 (B) 0.272 (C) 0.816 (D) 0.0227

56. 125 ml of Na2CO3 solution requires 100 ml of 0.1 N HCl to reach end point with phenolphthalein as indicator.
Molarity of resulting solution with respect to HCO3– ion
(A) 0.008 M (B) 0.004 M (C) 0.16 M (D) 0.044 M

57. 100 ml of 0.1 N KMnO4 reacts with 0.45 g of oxalic acid. The molecular weight of oxalic acid
(A) 45 (B) 90 (C) 180 (D) 22.5

58. 100 ml of 0.3 N HCl solution were mixed with 200 ml of 0.6 N H2SO4 solution. The final normality of mixture is
(A) 0.9 N (B) 0.6 N (C) 0.5 N (D) 0.4 N

59. 0.7 g of Na2CO3.xH2O were dissolved in water and the volume was made to 100 ml, 20 ml of this solution
required 19.8 ml of N/10 HCl for complete neutralisation. The value of x is -
(A 7 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 5

60. 0.84 g of a metal carbonate reacts with 40 ml of N/2 H2SO4. The equivalent weight of metal carbonate is -
(A) 84 g (B) 64 g (C) 42 g (D) 38 g

61. Three solutions (a) 12N (b) 6N and (c) 2N of HCl are available. If it is required to produce 4N HCl by mixing
them in the volumeratio x : y : z, which of the following ratios would be incorrect?
(A) 1 : 1 : 5 (B) 1: 2 : 6 (C) 2 : 1 : 9 (D) 1 : 2 : 4

62. The formula of the copper salt of a monobasic acid is CuA2.nH2O. (HA is the formula of the acid).1 gram of
the salt on strong heating leaves behind 0.331 gram of CuO. Given that the equivalent weight of the acid is
62.58. What is the value of n ?
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4

63. Volume V1 ml of 0.1 MK2Cr2O7 is needed for complete oxidation of 0.678g N2H4 in acidic medium. The volume
of 0.3 M KMnO4 needed for same oxidation in acidic medium will be
2 5
(A) V (B) V (C) 113 V1 (D) can't say
5 1 2 1

64. 0.62 g Na2CO3 × H2O completely neutralises 100 ml of N/10 H2SO4. The value of x muxt be
(A) 1 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10

65. How many litre of O3 at STP will be needed to completely oxidise 10 ml of 0.4M KI into I2
(A) 0.448 (B) 0.0448 (C) 4.48 (D) 2.24

66. How many moles of FeCr2O4 can be oxidised completely by 1 mole of KMnO4 in acidic medium.
(A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 7/5 (D) 5/7

67. A sample of Ca3(PO4)2 contains 3.1 g phosphorous, the weight of Ca in the sample is
(A) 6gm (B) 4gm (C) 2 gm (D) 5.56gm

68. In which of the following reaction equivalent weight of oxidant is not defined
(A) 2BrO3¯ + 12H+ + 10e¯  Br2 + 6H2O
(B) BrO3– + 6H+ + 6e¯  Br¯ + 3H2O
(C) 3Br2 + 6CO32 – + 3H2O  5Br¯ + BrO3– + 6HCO3–
(D) CaOCI2 + H2O  Ca(OH)2 + Cl2

69. How many mole of electron is needed for reduction of each mole of Cr in the reaction
CrO5 + H2SO4  Cr2(SO4)3 + H2O + O2
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 7

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70. The moles of Ammonium sulphate needed to react with one mole of MnO2 in acidic medium in a reaction giving
MnSO4 and (NH4)2S2O8 is
(A) 2 (B) 1/2 (C) 1 (D) 1/3

71. A 20 ml (specific gravity 1.02) of chlorine water is treated with excess of KI and liberated iodine required 25 ml
of 0.2N Na2S2O3. The percentage of free chlorine in chlorine water is
(A) 0.87 (B) 87 (C) 0.78 (D) 0.82

72. For 1.34 × 10–3 moles of KBrO3 to reduce into bromide 4.02 × 10–3 mole of Xn+ ion is needed. New oxidation
state of X is
(A) n + 2 (B) n – 2 (C) 2 (D) – 2

73. We have three separate solutions of KCl, MgCl2 and AlCl3 . The concentration of Cl¯ ion is same in all three
solution. Which solution will require the least volume to coagulate (precipitate) a negatively charged colloidal
solution.
(A) KCl solution (B) MgCl, solution (C) AlCl3 solution (D) All the same

74. What volume of 0.3 N Cr2O7¯ / H+ is needed for complete oxidation of 200 ml of 0.6M FeC2O4 soution.
(A) 1.2cc (B) 1.2 Litre (C) 120cc (D) 800 cc

75. 25 ml of Na2CO3 solution requires 100 ml of 0.1N HCl to reach end point with Phenolphthalein as indicator.
Molarity of resulting solution with respect to HCO3¯ ion
(A) 0.008M (B) 0.004M (C) 0.16M (D) 0.08M

76. 5 gm of a metal carbonate on heating strongly releases 1.51 litre CO2, gas at STP. The equivalent weight of
metal is
(A) 7 (B) 23 (C) 21 (D) 5

77. x g of the metal gave y g of its oxide. Hence equivalent weight of the metal
yx x x xy
(A) ×8 (B) ( y  x ) × 8 (C) y × 8 (D) ×8
x x
78. 1.2475g of CuSO4.xH2O was dissolved in water and H2S was passed through it till all the CuS was precipitated
completely. If the H2SO4 produced required 10mL of 1N NaOH for complete neutralisation, compute x.
(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 2 (D) 4

79. 25 ml of a 0.1 (M) solution of a stable cation of transition metal z reacts exactly with 25 ml of
0.04 (M) acidified KMnO4 solution. Which of the following is most likely to represent the charge in oxidation
state of z correctly?
(A) Z+  Z2+ (B) Z2+  Z3+ (C) Z3+  Z4+ (D) Z2+  Z4+

80. What is the equivalent weight of C12H22O11 in the following reaction?

C12H22O11+ 36 HNO3  6H2C2O4 + 36NO2 + 23H2O
342 342 342 342
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36 12 22 3

81. What is the equivalent weight of P4 in the following reaction?

P4 + NaOH  NaH2PO2 + PH3
31 31 31
(A) (B) (C) (D) 31 × 4/3
4 3 2

82. Equivalent weight of H3PO2 when it disproportionates into PH3 and H3PO3 is
3M M M
(A) M (B) (C) (D)
4 2 4

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83. The ratio of the equivalent weights of C2H5OH in the following reaction is
(a) C2H5OH  CH3 CHO + 2H+ + 2e (b) C2H5OH + Na  C2H5ONa + H
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 3

84. 0.05 moles of NaHCO3 will react with how many equivalents of Mg(OH)2?
(A) 0.2 equivalent (B) 0.05 equivalent (C) 0.02 equivalent (D) 0.01 equivalent

85. 0.078 gm Al (OH)3 is dehydrated to Al2O3. The Al2O3 so obtained reacted with 6 milli equiv of HCl, what will be
the equivalents of AlCl3 produced by this method?

10 3
(A) 6 × 10–3 (B) 2 × 10–3 (C) 4 × 10–3 (D)
2

86. In one litre of solution 2.7 gm Ca3(PO4)2, 1.11 gm CaCl2 and 1.61 gm of Na2SO4, 10 H2O. If the metal ions
present in the 50 ml of solution is to be reduced completely, how many number of electrons are required?
(A) 27 × 1020 (B) 10 × 1020 (C) 6 × 1023 (D) 5 × 1022

87. W rite down the basicity of H 3PO 4 for which equal weights of H 3PO 4 and H 2SO 4 neutralise the
100 ml of 0.1 (M) NaOH separately -
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) none of the given

88. In a compound Ax By
(A) mole of A = mole of B = mole of Ax By
(B) equiv of A = equiv = equiv of Ax By
(C) y × moles of A = y × mole of B = (x + y) mole of Ax By
(D) y × mole of A = y × mole of B

89. 2 gm of a base whose equivalent wt. is 40 reacts with 3 gm of an acid. The equivalent wt of the acid is
(A) 40 (B) 60 (C) 10 (D) 80

90. 1.575 gm of oxalic acid (COOH)2, xH2O are dissolved in water and the volume made up to 250 ml. On titration
N
16.68 ml of this solution requires 25 ml of   NaOH solution for complete reaction. What is value of x?
 15 
(A) x = 2 (B) x = 1 (C) x = 3 (D) x = 6

91. What volume of HNO3 solution 36% by strength is required to prepare 2 litres of 0.2 (N) solution?
(A) 67.66 ml (B) 50.25 ml (C) 99.85 ml (D) 70 ml

92. What is the strength in gm/litre of a solution of H2SO4, 12 ml of which neutralized 15 ml of N/10 NaOH solution?
(A) 9.233 gm/litre (B) 0.0923 gm/litre (C) 6.125 gm/litre (D) 4.9 gm/litre

93. 2 litres of ammonia at 13°C and 0.9 atm is neutralised by 134 ml of H2SO4 solution. Find the normality of the
acid.
(A) 0.57 (N) (B) 0.67 (N) (C) 0.87 (N) (D) 1.87 (N)

94. A solution of KCl and KOH was neutralised with 120 ml of 0.12 (N) HCl. What is the amount of KOH in the
mixture
(A) 1.5 gm (B) 0.806 gm (C) 1.2 gm (D) 0.88 gm

95. H3PO4 is a tribasic acid and one of its salt is NaH2PO4. What volume of 1 (M) NaOH solution should be added
to 12 gm of NaH2PO4 to convert it into Na3PO4?
(A) 100 ml (B) 200 ml (C) 80 ml (C) 300 ml

96. The normality of a “20 V” H2O2 is

(A) 1.79 (B) 3.57 (C) 60.86 (D) 6.086

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97. RH2 (ion exchange resin) can replace Ca2+ in hard water
RH2 + Ca+  RCa + 2H+
1 L of hard water after passing through RH2 has pH 2. Hence hardness in ppm of Ca2+ is -
(A) 200 (B) 100 (C) 50 (D) 125

98. In the mixture of NaHCO3 and Na2CO3, volume of a given HCl required is x mL with phenolphthalein indicator
and further y mL required with methyl orange indicator. Hence volume of HCl for complete reaction of NaHCO3
is -
(A) 2x (B) y (C) x/2 (D) (y – x)

99. 40 mL of 0.05 M solution of sodium sesquicarbonate (Na2CO3.NaHCO3. 2H2O) is titrated against 0.05 M HCl.
x mL of HCl is used when phenolphthalein is the indicator and y ml of HCl is used when methyl orange is the
indicator in two separate titrations. Hence ( y – x) is
(A) 80 ml (B) 30 ml (C) 120 ml (D) None

100. In the reaction

Br2 + Na2CO3  NaBr + NaBrO3 + CO2
The equivalent wt. of NaBrO3 is
Mol. wt Mol. wt Mol. wt Mol. wt
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1 10 5 4

101. The equivalent wt. of hypo in the reaction Na2S2O3 + Cl2 + H2O  KNa2SO4 + H2SO4 + HCl is-
Mol. wt Mol. wt Mol. wt Mol. wt
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4 1 8

102. In acting as a reducing agent, a piece of metal M weighing 16 grams gives up 2.25 × 1023 electrons, what is the
equivalent weight of the metal
(A) 42.83 (B) 21.33 (C) 83.32 (D) 32

103. The equivalent of the salt

KHC2O4, H2C2O4, 4H2O (to be used as a reducing agent) is
Mol. wt Mol. wt Mol. wt Mol. wt
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1 2 3 4
104. The equivalent wt of an element is 9. If it forms volatile chloride of vapour density 58.5. What is the approximate
at wt. of the element?
(A) 9 (B) 18 (C) 27 (D) 54

105. The equivalent wt of element is 5.33. If it forms oxychloride which is isomorphous with CrO2Cl2 the at wt. of
element is -
(A) 16 (B) 32 (C) 64 (D) 8

106. 6.90 gm of a metal carbonate were dissolved in 60 ml of 2(N). HCl. The excess acid was neutralized by 20 ml
of 1 (N) NaOH. What is the equivalent wt. of metal?
(A) 40 (B) 20 (C) 19 (D) 39

107. The normality of HCl solution with a density of 1.19 gm/ml containing 37% by weight is -
(A) 12.06 (B) 6.035 (C) 18.4 (D) 11.9

N N N

108. 10 ml of   HCl, 30 ml of   HNO3 and 75 ml of   HNO are mixed, the normality of H+ in the resulting
2
   10  5 3

solution is
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.25

109. What weight of H2C2O4, 2H2O (mol. wt. = 126) should be dissolved to prepare 250 ml of centinormal to be used
as a reducing agent?
(A) 0.63 gm (B) 0.1575 gm (C) 0.126 gm (D) 0.875 gm
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110. The NH3 evolved from 1.40 gm sample of protein was absorbed in 45.0 ml of 0.4 (N) HNO3. The excess acid
required 20 ml of 0.1 (N) NaOH. The % N in the sample is
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 24 (D) 14

111. Which of the following has the highest normality? (Consider each of the acid is 100% ionized.)
(A) 1 (M) H2SO4 (B) 1 (M) H3PO3 (C) 1 (M) H3PO4 (D) 1 (M) HNO3

112. 600 ml of a 0.1 (N) solution of AgNO3 is added to 500 ml of 0.1 (N) KCl solution. The concentration of nitrate in
the resulting solution is
(A) 0.0545 (N) (B) 0.0455 (N) (C) 0.05 (N) (D) 0.1 (N)

113. A metal chloride weighing 0.22 gm required 0.51 gm of AgNO3 to precipitate chloride completely. The sp. heat
of metal is 0.057 cal/gm. What is the formula of metal chloride?
(A) MCl3 (B) MCl2 (C) MCl (D) MCl4

114. The equivalent wt. of metal is double that of oxygen. How many times is weight of its oxide greater than the wt.
of metal?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 1.5 (D) 2.5

115. 100 ml of a sample of hard water required 25.1 ml of 0.02 (N) H2SO4 for complete reaction. What is the
hardness of the given water sample?
(A) 200 ppm (B) 250 ppm (C) 251 ppm (D) 258 ppm

116. You are given one litre of 0.183 (M) HCl and one litre of 0.381 (M). What maximum volume of 0.243 (M) HCl
which you can make from these two solution? (No water is added).
(A) 1434.78 ml (B) 1500.8 ml (C) 1800.77 ml (D) 2000 ml

117. 50 litre of hard water of 120 ppm temporary hardness is mixed with 1.62 kg of Ca(OH)2, what is the hardness
of the resulting water? (The sp gr of hard water = 1 gm/ml)
(A) 8.088 × 105 ppm (B) 8.088 × 104 ppm (C) 80 ppm (D) 808 ppm

118. 5 g of a sample of bleaching powder is treated with excess acetic acid and K solution. The liberated 2 required
50 ml of N/10 hypo. The % available chlorine in the sample is
(A) 3.55 (B) 7.0 (C) 35.5 (D) 28.2

119. What volume of 2N K2Cr2O7 solution is required to oxidise 0.81 g of H2S in acid medium?
(A) 47.8 ml (B) 23.8 ml (C) 40 ml (D) 72 ml

120. How many gram of KMnO4 are contained in 4 litres of 0.05 N solution. The KMnO4 is to be used as an oxidant
in acid medium?
(A) 1.58 g (B) 15.8 g (C) 6.32 g (D) 31.6 g

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1. B 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. D 7. A

8. A, D 9. B 10. B, C 11. B 12. D 13. A, B 14. A, C

15. D 16. A 17. B 18. B, D 19. A 20. C 21. B, D

22. D 23. B 24. A 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. B

29. D 30. A 31. A 32. B 33. D 34. D 35. C

36. B 37. A 38. C 39. D 40. A 41. D 42. B

43. D 44. A, C 45. D 46. B 47. C 48. A 49. A

50. B 51. D 52. C 53. C 54. A 55. D 56. D

57. B 58. C 59. C 60. C 61. D 62. A 63. A

64. A 65. B 66. D 67. A 68. C, D 69. B 70. A

71. A 72. A 73. D 74. B 75. D 76. A 77. B

78. B 79. D 80. A 81. D 82. B 83. C 84. B

85. A 86. A 87. C 88. B 89. B 90. A 91. D

92. C 93. A 94. B 95. B 96. B 97. A 98. D

99. A 100. C 101. D 102. A 103. D 104. C 105. B

106. D 107. A 108. A 109. B 110. B 111. C 112. A

113. A 114. C 115. C 116. A 117. B 118. A 119. B

120. C

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Q.1 Which gas will be adsorbed on a solid to greater extent.

(A) A gas having non polar molecule
(B) A gas having highest critical temperature (Tc)
(C) A gas having lowest critical temperature.
(D) A gas having highest critical pressure.

Q.2 Which of the following factors affects the adsorption of a gas on solid?
(A) Tc (B) Temperature of gas (C) Pressure of gas (D) All of them

Q.3 The volume of gases NH3, CO2 and CH4 adsorbed by one gram of charcoal at 298 K are in
(A) CH4 > CO2 > NH3 (B) NH3 > CH4 > CO2
(C) NH3 > CO2 > CH4 (D) CO2 > NH3 > CH4

Q.4 The heat of physisorption lie in the range of

(A) 1 – 10 kJ mol–1 (B) 20 to 40 kJ mol–1 (C) 40 to 200 kJ mol–1 (D) 200 to 400 kJ mol–1

Q.5 Which of the following will show maximum hydrophobic behaviour?

(A) Glycine (B) Stearic acid (C) Glucose (D) Adenine

Q.6 Which of the following is best protective colloid

(A) Gelatin (B) Albumin (C) Starch (D) Gum Arabic

Q.7 On addition of one mL of solution of 10% NaCl to 10 mL of red gold sol in presence of 0.025 g of
starch, the coagulation is just prevented. The gold number of starch is
(A) 0.025 (B) 0.25 (C) 2.5 (D) 25

Q.8 Which of the following are colloid

(A) Smoke (B) Ruby glass (C) Pumic Stone (D) Chlorophyll

Q.9 Which of the following are correct statements

(A) Hardy Schulz rule id related to coagulation
(B) Brownian movement and Tyndall effect are shown by colloids
(C) When liquid is dispersed in liquid, it is called gel.
(D) Gold number is a measure of protective power of lyophillic colloid.

Q.10 Colloidal solution can be purified by

(A) Dialysis (B) Electrodialysis (C) Electrophoresis (D) Ultrafiltration

Q.11 Which of the following is correct for lyophillic sols?

(A) Its surface tension is lower than that of H2O
(B) Its velocity is higher than that of water
(C) Its surface tension is higher than that of water
(D) Its viscosity is equal to that of water

Q.12 Coagulation of colloids can be achieved by

(A) Centrifugation (B) Adding electrolyte (C) Change in pH (D) Adding water

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Q.13 When –vely charged colloid like As2S3 sol is added to + vely charged Fe(OH)3 sol in suitable amounts
(A) Both the sols are precipitated simultaneously
(B) This process is called mutual coagulation
(C) They becomes + vely charged colloid
(D) They become – vely charged colloid

Q.14 Which of the following are based on Tyndall effect

(A) Ultramicroscope (B) Deltas (C) Blue colour of sky (D) Coagulation

Q.15 The origin of charge on colloidal solution is

(A) Frictional rubbing
(B) Electron capture during Bredig’s are method
(C) Selective adsorption of ion on their surface
(D) It is due to addition of protective colloids

Q.16 Which of the following is not lyophillic

(A) Gelatin sol (B) Silver sol (C) Sulphur sol (D) As2S3 sol

Q.17 Which of the following are multimolecular colloids

(A) Sulphur sol (B) Egg albumin in water
(C) Gold sol (D) Soap solution

Q.18 Colloidion
(A) It is cellulose nitrate dispersed in alcohol
(B) Used to decrease pore size of filter paper
(C) is not a colloidal solution
(D) is lyophobic sol

Q.19 Colloidal Gold can be prepared by

(A) Bredig’s are method (B) Reduction of AuCl3
(C) Hydrolysis (D) Peptization

Q.20 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct

(A) Higher the gold number, more protective power of colloid
(B) Lower the gold number, more the protective power
(C) Higher the coagulation value, more the coagulation power
(D) Lower the coagulation value, higher the coagulation power

Question No. 21 & 25 (5 questions)

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as assertion and reason, while answering these
questions you are required to choose any one of the following responses.
(A) If assertion is true but the reason is false.
(B) If assertion is false but the reason is true.
(C) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(D) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
Q.21 Assertion : Isoelectric point is pH at which colloidal can move towards either of electrode
Reason : At isoelectric point, colloidal solution become electrically neutral.

Q.22 Assertion : When AgNO3 is treated with excess of potassium iodide, colloidal particles gets
attracted towards anode.
Reason : Colloidal particles adsorb common ions and thus become charged.
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Q.23 Assertion : For adsorption DG, DH, DS all have –ve values
Reason : Adsorption is a spontaneous exothermic process in which randomness decreases
due to force of attraction between adsorbent and adsorbate.

Q.24 Assertion : A gas with higher critical temperature gets adsorbed to more extent than a gas
with lower critical temperature.
Reason : The easily liquifiable gases get adsorbed to more extent which have higher critical
temperature.

Q.25 Assertion : Fluorescein is an adsorption indicator.

Reason : Fluorescein is a dye.

Question No. 26 to 30 (5 questions)

Many lyophilic sols and a few lyophobic sols when coagulated under some special conditions, change
into semi rigid mass, enclosing whole amount of liquid within itself, it is called Gel process is called
gelation. Gelatin Agar-Agar, gum-Arabic can be converted into gels by cooling them under moderate
concentration conditions. Hydrophobic sols like silicic acid, Al(OH)3 are prepared by double
decomposition and exchange of solvent method.
Q.26 Which of the following is not a gel?
(A) Cheese (B) Jellies (C) Curd (D) Milk

Q.27 When liquid is dispersed in solid, it is called

(A) Sol (B) Emulsion (C) Gel (D) Aerosols

Q.28 Which of the following is used to adsorb water

(A) Silica gel (B) Calcium acetate (C) Hair gel (D) Cheese

Q.29 The process of imbibing water when elastic gels are placed in water is called
(A) Imbibation (B) Sybneresis (C) Coagulation (D) Thioxotropy

Q.30 Some types of gels like gelatin and silica liquify on shaking thereby changing into sols. The sols on
standing change back into gels. This process is known as:
(A) Syneresis (B) Thixotropy
(C) Double decomposition (D) Peptization
Question No. 31 to 35 (5 questions)
Whenever a mixture of gases is allowed to come in contact with a particular adsorbent under the same conditions,
the more strong adsorbate adsorbate is adsorbed to greater extent irrespective of its amount present, e.g. H2O
is adsorbed to more extent on silica gel than N2 and O2. This shows that some adsorbates are preferentially
adsorbed. It is also observed that preferentially adsorbable adsorbents can displace a weakly adsorbed substance
from the surface of an adsorbent.
Q.31 Which of the following gases is adsorbed to maximum extent:
(A) He (B) Ne (C) Ar (D) Xe

Q.32 Which of the gas can displace remaining all the gases
(A) O2 (B) N2 (C) CO (D) H2

Q.33 When temperature is increased

(A) extent of adsorption increases
(B) extent of adsorption decreases
(C) no effect on adsorption
(D) extent of adsorption first decreases, then increases
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Q.34 Chromatogarphic separations are based on

(A) differential solubility (B) differential adsorption
(C) differential adsorption (D) None of these

Q.35 Activated charcoal is prepared by

(A) heated charcoal with steam so that it becomes more porous
(B) adding Ca3(PO4)2 to charcoal
(C) adding impurity to charcoal
(D) reacted with conc. HNO3

Question No. 36 to 40 (5 questions)

The clouds consist of charged particles of water dispersed in air. Some of them are + vely charged,
others are negatively charged. When + vely charged clouds come closer they have cause lightening and
thundering whereas when + ve and –ve charged colloids come closer they cause heavy rain by aggregation
of minute particles. It is possible to cause artificial rain by throwing electrified sand or silver iodide from
an aeroplane and thus coagulation the mist hanging in air.

Q.36 When excess of AgNO3 is treated with KI solution, AgI forms

(A) +ve charged sol (B) –vely charged sol (C) neutral sol (D) true solution

Q.37 Clouds are colloidol solution of

(A) liquid in gas (B) gas in liquid (C) liquid in liquid (D) solid in liquid

Q.38 AgI helps in artificial rain because

(A) It helps in condensation process (B) It helps in dispersion process
(C) It helps in coagulation (D) All of them

Q.39 Electrical chimneys are made on the principle of

(A) Electroosmosis (B) Electrophoresis (C) Coagulation (D) All of these

Q.40 Smoke screens consist of

(A) Fine particles of TiO2 dispersed in air by aeroplanes
(B) Fine particle of AgI dispersed in air by aeroplanes
(C) Fine particle of Al2O3 dispersed in air by aeroplanes
(D) None of these
Question No. 41 to 45 (5 questions)
In macromolecular type of colloids, the dispersed particles are themselves large molecules (usually polymers).
Since these molecules have dimensions comparable to those of colloidal particles, their dispersions are called
macromolecular colloids. Most lyophilic sols belong to this category. There are certain colloids which behave as
normal strong electrolytes at low concentrations, but exhibit colloidal properties at higher concentrations due to
the formation of aggregated particles. These are known as micelles or associated colloids. Surface active agents
like soaps and synthetic detergents belong to this class.

· Critical micelle concentration (CMC) is the lowest concentration at which micelle formation
appears. CMC increases with the total surfactant concentration. At concentration higher than
CMC, they form extended parallel sheets known as lamellar micelles which resemble biological
membranes. With two molecules thick, the individual molecule is perpendicular to the sheets
such that hydrophilic groups are on the outside in aqueous solution and on the inside is a non-polar
medium.

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· In concentrated solutions, micelles take the form of long cylinders packed in hexagonal arrays
and are called lytotropic mesomorphs.
· In an aqueous solution (polar medium), the polar group points towards the periphery and the
hydrophobic hydrocarbon chains point towards the centre forming the core of the micelle.
· Micelles from the ionic surfactants can be formed only above a certain temperature called the
Kraft temperature.
· They are capable of forming ions
· Molecules of soaps and detergents consist of lyophilic as well as lyophilic parts which associate
together to form micelles.
· Micelles may contain as many as 100 molecules or more.

Q.41 Select incorrect statement(s):

(A) Surface active agent like soaps and synthetic detergents are micelles
(B) Soaps are emulsifying agents
(C) C17H35 (hydrocarbon part) and –COO– (carboxylate) part of stearate ion (C17H35COO–) both
are hydrophobic
(D) All are incorrect statements

Q.42 Which part of the soap (RCOO–) dissolves grease and forms micelle?

(A) R part (called tail of the anion) (B) –COO– part (called head of the anion)
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these

Q.43 In multimolecular colloidal sols, atoms or molecules are held together by:
(A) H-bonding (B) van der Waals forces
(C) ionic bonding (D) polar covalent bonding

Q.44 Select correct statement(s) about phospholipids:

(A) In aqueous solution, they form micelles
(B) They form bilayers
(C) They are principal components of cell membranes
(D) All of the above are correct statements

Q.45 Cleansing action of soap occurs because:

(A) oil and grease can be absorbed into the hydrophobic centres of soap micelles and washed away
(B) oil and grease can be absorbed into hydrophilic centres of soap micelles acid washed away
(C) oil and grease can be absorbed into both hydrophilic and hydrophobic centres but not washed away
(D) cleansing action is not related to micelles

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Q.1 B Q.2 D Q.3 C Q.4 B

Q.5 B Q.6 A Q.7 D Q.8 A,B

Q.9 A,B,D Q.10 A,B,D Q.11 A,B Q.12 A,B,C

Q.13 A,B Q.14 A,C Q.15 A,B,C Q.16 B,C,D

Q.17 A,C Q.18 A,B Q.19 A,B Q.20 B,D

Q.21 B Q.22 D Q.23 A Q.24 A

Q.25 B Q.26 D Q.27 C Q.28 A

Q.29 A Q.30 B Q.31 D Q.32 C

Q.33 B Q.34 B Q.35 A Q.36 A

Q.37 A Q.38 A Q.39 B Q.40 A

Q.41 C Q.42 C Q.43 B Q.44 D

Q.45 A

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RESONANCE & AROMATICITY

Q.1 Which of the following statements is (are) true about resonance.

(a) Resonance is an intramolecular process.
(b) Resonance involves delocalization of both s and p electrons.
(c) Resonance involves delocalization of p electrons only.
(d) Resonance decreases potential energy of a molecule.
(e) Resonance has no effect on the potential energy of a molecule.
(f) Resonance is the only way to increase molecular stability.
(g) Resonance is not the only way to increase molecular stability.
(h) Any resonating molecule is always more stable than any nonresonating molecule.
(i) The canonical structure explains all features of a molecule.
(j) The resonance hybrid explains all features of a molecule.
(k) Resonating structures are real and resonance hybrid is imaginary.
(l) Resonance hybrid is real and resonating structures are imaginary.
(m) Resonance hybrid is always more stable than all canonical structures.

Q.2 Consider structural formulas A, B and C:

(A) (B) (C)

(a) Are A, B and C constitutional isomers, or are they resonance forms?
(b) Which structures have a negatively charged carbon?
(c) Which structures have a positively charged carbon?
(d) Which structures have a positively charged nitrogen?
(e) Which structures have a negatively charged nitrogen?
(f) What is the net charge on each structure?
(g) Which is a more stable structure, A or B? Why?
(h) Which is a more stable structure, B or C? Why?

Q.3 In each of the following pairs, determine whether the two represent resonance forms of a single species
or depict different substances. If two structures are not resonance froms, explain why.
(a) and

(b) and

(c) and

Q.4 Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(A) Contributing structures contributes to the resonance hybrid in proportion of their energies.
(B) Equivalent contributing structure make the resonance very important.
(C) Contributing structures represent hypothetical molecules having no real existance.
(D) Contributing structures are less stable than the resonance hybrid.

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Q.5 Which one of the following pairs of structures does not represent the phenomenon of resonance?
O O¯
||  |
(A) H 2C  CH  C  H ; CH 2  CH  C  H
 
(B) CH 2  CH  CH Cl ; CH 2  CH  CH  Cl
O O¯
|| |
(C) (CH 3 ) 2 CH  C  O ¯ ; (CH 3 ) 2 CH  C  O
O O¯
|| |
(D) CH 3  CH 2  C  CH 3 ; CH 3  CH  C  CH 3

Q.6 In which of the following lone-pair indicated is involved in resonance :

(a) (b) (c) (d)


(e) CH2= CH – C H 2 (f) CH2 = CH – CH = N H

Q.7 In which of the following lone-pair indicated is not involved in resonance :

 
(a) CH2 = CH – N H – CH3 (b) CH2 = CH – CH = O

(c) CH2 = CH – O – CH = CH2 (d) CH2 = CH – C  N••


(e) (f)

Q.8 Which of the following is not a valid resonating structure of the other three?
+ + +
NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2
(i) (a) + (b) (c) (d)

  — 
(ii) (a) CH 2  N  O ¯ (b) CH 2  N  O ¯ (c) CH 2  N  O (d) CH 2  N  O
| | | |
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 CH 3

Q.9 Draw the resonance forms to show the delocalization of charges in the following ions
O O
  +
(a) CH3 – C – CH2 (b) H – C – CH = CH – CH2 (c) CH2

(d) (e) O¯ (f) + NH (g)

+ O

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

(h) (i) CH3 – CH = CH – CH = CH – CH – CH3

O

(j) CH3 – CH = CH – CH = CH – CH 2

Q.10 Write stability order of following intermediates:

CH 3
  |
(i) (a) CH 3  CH 2 (b) CH 3  CH  CH 3 (c) CH 3  C 
|
CH 3

(ii) (a) + (b) + (c) +


 
(iii) (a) (b) (c)


(iv) (a) (b)  (c)


  

(v) (a) (b) (c) (d)

  
(vi) (a) CF3  CH 2 (b) CCl3  CH 2 (c) CBr3  CH 2

Q.11 Write stability order of following intermediates:

CH 3
  |
(i) (a) CH 3  CH 2 (b) CH 3  CH  CH 3 (c) CH 3  C 
|
CH 3


 
(ii) (a) (b) (c)


(iii) (a) (b)  (c)

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  
(iv) (a) HC  C (b) CH2  CH (c) CH 3  CH 2

Q.12 Rank the following sets of intermediates in increasing order of their stability.

(i) (a) C6H5+ (b) p–NO2(C6H4)+ (c) p–CH3–(C6H4)+ (d) p–Cl–C6H4+

 
CH2 CH2 CH2

(ii) (a) (b) (c)

N OMe
O O

CH2 CH2 CH2

OH
(iii) (a) (b) (c)
OH
OH

  
(iv) (a) CF3  CH 2  CH 2 (b) CF3  CH 2 (c) CF3

 
(v) (a) CF3 (b) CCl3

Q.13 Write stability order of following intermediates:

CH 3
  |
(i) CH 3  CH 2 (b) CH 3  CH  CH 3 (c) CH 3  C 
|
CH 3

(ii) (a) (b) (c)

(iii) (a) (b) (c)

  
(iv) (a) HC  C (b) CH 2  CH (c) CH 3  CH 2

(v) (a) (b) (c)

Q.14 Among the following molecules, the correct order of C – C bond lenght is
(A) C2H6 > C2H4 > C6H6 > C2H2 (B) C2H6 > C6H6 > C2H4 > C2H2(C6H6 is benzene)
(C) C2H4 > C2H6 > C2H2 > C6H6 (D) C2H6 > C2H4 > C2H2 > C6H6

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Q.15 Which of the following is (are) the correct order of bond lengths :
(A) C – C > C = C > C  C > C  N (B) C = N > C = O > C = C
(C) C = C > C = N > C = O (D) C – C > C = C > C º C > C – H

Q.16 C1 – C2 bond is shortest in

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.17 In which of the following resonance is possible

(A) CH2 = CH – CH2 – CHO (B) CH2 = CH – CH = O
(C) CH3COCH3 (D) CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH = CH2

Q.18 Which of the following compounds have delocalised electrons ?

(A) (B)

(C) CH3CH2NH CH2 CH = CH2 (D) CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH = CH2

Q.19 Compare the C–N bond-length in the following species:

(i) (ii) (iii)

Q.20 Which of the following species are conjugated ?

(A) (B)
:

(C) CH 2 = C = CH – NH 2 (D) All of these

Q.21 Which of the following example has both the resonating structure contributing equal to the resonance
hybrid
 
(A) CH3 – C – CH  CH – CH3  CH3 – C  CH – C H – CH3
| |
CH3 CH3

+
(B) CH3 – C – NH2  CH 3 – C = NH 2
|| |
O
O-

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-
O O
(C) CH3 – C  CH3 – C
O- O
+ -
(D) CH2 = CH – CH = O  CH 2 – CH = CH – O

Q.22 In which of the following pairs, indicated bond having less bond dissociation energy :
(a) CH 3  CH 2  Br & CH 3  CH 2  Cl
 

(b) CH 3  CH  CH  Br & CH 3  CH  CH 3
 |
Br

(c) &

(d) &

(e) &

(f) &

Q.23 Discuss the following observations:

(a) C–Cl bond in vinyl chloride is stronger than in chloroethane.
(b) Carbon-carbon bond length in ethene is shorter than in CH2 = CHOCH3
(c) CH3SH is stronger acid than CH3OH
(d) CH3CH2NH2 is stronger base than CH2 = CHNH2.

Q.24 A canonical structure will be more stable if

(a) it has more number of p bonds than if it has less number of p bonds.
(b) the octets of all atoms are complete than if octets of all atoms are not complete.
(c) it involves cyclic delocalization of (4n + 2) p – electrons than if it involves acyclic delocalization of (4n +
2) p – electrons.
(d) it involves cyclic delocalization (4n) p – electrons than if it involves acyclic delocalizationof
(4n) p – electrons.
(e) +ve charge is on more electronegative atom than if +ve charge is on less electronegative atoms.
(f) –ve charge is on more electronegative atom than if –ve charge is on less electronegative atom.

Q.25 Resonance energy will be more if

(a) canonical structures are equivalent than if canonical structures are non-equivalent.
(b) molecule is aromatic than if molecule is not aromatic.

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Q.26 In each set of species select the aromatic species.

+ +
(i) (a)  (b) (c) (d)
S

+ 
(ii) (a) (b) (c)  (d)

+   
(iii) (a) (b) (c) (d)

N
H
Q.27 Consider the given reaction:

+ 3H2 Pd /C
 

In the above reaction which one of the given ring will undergo reduction?

Br
Q.28 AgNO
 3  A

Select the correct statement about product A.

(A) Product is aromatic (B) Product has high dipole moment.
(C) Product has less resonance energy (D) Product is soluble in polar solvent.

Q.29 Which of the following is incorrectly orderd for resonance stability

(A)

(B)

(C) (I > II)

(D) (II = I)

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Q.30 In which of the following pairs of resonating structures first resonating structure is more stable than
second.

(A)  (B)

(C)  (D) 

Q.31 Hyperconjugation is possible in

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.32 Which of the following molecule has longest C=C bond length.
(A) CH3–CH=CH–CH=CH–CH3 (B) CH2=CH–CH=CH2
(C) CH3–CH=CH–CH3 (D) CH2=CH2

Q.33 In which of the following molecule (s) , the resonance effect is present ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.34 Explain why which compound is aromatic, antiaromatic or nonaromatic.

H
+
(a) N (b) N S (c) (d)
O O O
isoxazole 1,3-thiazole pyran pyrylium ion

O NH2
N
(e) (f) (g)
O N N O
H
1,2-dihydropyridine H
-pyrone
cytosine

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Q.35 Resonance is possible/s in

(A) CH2 = N H2 (B) CH3CH = C =

(C) (D)

Q.36 Which one of following represents different molecules?

(A) and (B) and

(C) and (D) and

Q.37 Rank the following sets of intermediates in increasing order of their stability.
 
CH2 CH2

(i) (a) (b)

F Cl

CH2
 CH2 
CH2
CH2

(ii) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Cl N CN
O O
 
(iii) (a) CH 2  CH (b) CH 2  CH 3
||
O
Q.38 In each of the following pairs of ions which ion is more stable:
 
(a) (I ) C6H5– CH 2 and (II) CH2=CH– CH 2
 
(b) (I) CH3– CH 2 and (II) CH2 = CH

(c) (I) and (II)

(d) (I) CH 3  CH  CH 3 and (II) CH 3  N  CH 3

| |
CH 3  C  CH 3 CH 3  C  CH 3
 

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 GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY FINAL LAP - 2019

 
(e) CH2—CH=NH CH2=CH–NH

O¯ O¯
(f) +
CH3—C=CH–CH—CH3 CH3—C—CH=CH—CH3
+

O O O¯ O
(g) CH3—C–CH–C—CH3 CH3—C=CH–C—CH3

NH2 NH2
(h) +
CH3—CH2—C—NH2 CH3—CH2—C = NH2
+

Q.39 Select the least stable resonating structure in each of the following sets of carbocation.
O O
+ + +
(i) (a) CH2 = CH — N (b) CH2 – CH — N
O O
O O
+ + + +
(c) CH2 – CH — N (d) CH2 – CH = N
O O

 — — 
(ii) (a) CH 2  CH  CH  CH  NH 2 (b) CH 2  CH  CH  CH  NH 2
—  — 
(c) CH 2  CH  CH  CH  NH 2 (d) CH 2  CH  CH  CH  NH 2

   
(iii) (a) H 2 C — C H –CH = CH – O – CH3 (b) H 2 C — CH = CH – CH = O – CH3
   
(c) H2C = CH – CH – CH – O – CH3 (d) H2C = CH – C H – CH = O – CH3
Q.40 Rank the following sets of intermediates in increasing order of their stability.

(i) (a) (b) (c)

(ii) (a) (b)

 
CH2 CH2 CH2


H
(iii) (a) (b) H (c) C H
C H H
H
H C H
H

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CH
2 CH CH2 CH2
2

(iv) (a) (b) (c) (d)

CH3 CH2Me CH Me2 CMe3

Me Ph +
| | 
(v) (a) Me  C  (b) Ph — C  (c) Ph – CH 2 (d)
| |
Me Ph

+
+
(vi) (a) (b) (c)

+
+
(d) (e)
+

Q.41 Which one of the following molecules has all the effect, namely inductive, mesomeric and hyperconjugative?
(A) CH3Cl (B) CH3–CH = CH2
(C) CH 3  CH  CH  C  CH 3 (D) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
||
O
Q.42 Hyperconjugation is best described as:
(A) Delocalisation of p electrons into a nearby empty orbital.
(B) Delocalisation of s electrons into a nearby empty orbital.
(C) The effect of alkyl groups donating a small amount of electron density inductively into a carbocation.
(D) The migration of a carbon or hydrogen from one carbocation to another.

Q.43 Select the correct statement.

(i) Delocalisation of s-electron is hyperconjugation.
(ii) Delocalisation of p-electron is resonance.
(iii) Partial displacement of s-electron is inductive effect.
(A) i & iii (B) ii & iii (C) i & ii (D) i, ii, iii

Q.44 Arrange following compounds in decreasing order of electrophilic substitution.

CH3 CH3 H
CH3 H—C—CH3 CH3—C—CH3 H—C—CH3

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) i > ii > iii > iv (B) iii > iv > ii > i (C) i > iv > ii > iii (D) i > ii > iv > iii

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Q.45 Select correct statement:
(A) –NO2 and –COOH group deactivates benzene nucleus for attack of E+ at o– and p– sites.
(B) –NH2 and –OMe group activates benzene nucleous for attack of E+ at o– and p– sites.
(C) –NH2 and –COOH group activates benzene nucleous for attack of E+ at o– and p– sites.
(D) –NO2 and –OMe group activates benzene nucleous for attack of E+ at o– and p– sites.

Q.46 In which of the following pairs, indicated bond is of greater strength :

(a) and CH 2  CH 2 (b) CH3  C  CH and HC  CH

  

(c) and CH 3  CH 2  Cl

(d) CH 2  CH  CH  CH 2 and CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3
 

(e) CH 2  CH  CH  CH 2 and CH 2  CH  NO 2
 

(f) and

Q.47 Choose the more stable alkene in each of the following pairs. Explain your reasoning.
(a) 1-Methylcyclohexene or 3-methylcyclohexene
(b) Isopropenylcyclopentane or allylcyclopentane

(c) or

Q.48 Match each alkene with the appropriate heat of combustion:

Heats of combustion (kJ/mol) : 5293 ; 4658; 4650; 4638; 4632
(a) 1-Heptene (b) 2,4-Dimethyl-1-pentene
(c) 2,4-Dimethyl-2-pentene (d) 4,4-Dimethyl-2-pentene
(e) 2,4,4-Trimethyl-2-pentene
Q.49 Compare heat of hydrogenation (Decreasing order)

(i) &

(ii) &

(iii) &

CH3
(iv) CH2 = CH – CH & CH3 –CH = C
CH3

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Q.50 Compare heat of hydrogenation (Decreasing order)

(i)
A B D

(ii)

Q.51 (I) Stability order and (II) heat of hydrogenation orders.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q.52 Among the following pairs identify the one which gives higher heat of hydrogenation :

(a) and

(b) and

(c) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 and CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2

(d) and

Q.53 Write increasing order of heat of hydrogenation (HOH):

(i) (a) (b)

(ii) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(iii) (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(iv) (a) (b) (c)

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(v) (a) (b) (c) (Heat of hydrogenation per p bond)

(vi) (a) (b) (c) (HOH per benzene ring)

Q.54 Give decreasing order of heat of combustion (HOC):

(i) (a) (b) (c)

(ii) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(iii) (a) (b)

(iv) (a) (b) (c)

Q.55 Rank the following sets of intermediates in increasing order of their stability.
+
  
(i) (a) C (b) Ph  CH 2 (c) (d) Me  C Me
|
Me

 
(ii) (a) CH 2  CH (b) CH 2  CH  CH 2 (c) CH2 (d) CH3

CH2
CH2 CH2

(iii) (a) (b) (c)

Cl Cl

+ +
CH2 CH2 +
(iv) (a) (b) (c)

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+ + +
(v) (a) (b) (c)

  
(vi) (a) (b) (c)

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Q.1 (a), (c), (d), (g), (j), (l), (m)

Q.2 a = Resonance form, b= A, c = C, d= A & B, e=B&C, f = 0, g = B, h = B

Q.3 (a) is resonance form; (b) is not resonance form due to different number of l.p. and b.p.;
(c) is not resonance form due to different number of l.p. and b.p

Q.4 A Q.5 D Q.6 (b), (d), (e) Q.7 (b), (d), (e) Q.8 (i) a (ii) c

O¯ O¯
| |
Q.9 (a) CH 3  C  CH 2 (b) H  C  CH  CH  CH 2

+ +
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2
+ +
(c)
+

(d) + (e) O¯ O O O

+
(f) NH (g) (h)
O+
O¯
 
(i) CH3  CH  CH  CH  CH  CH  CH3 (j) CH3  CH  CH  CH  CH  CH 2 ]

Q.10 (i) c>b>a (ii) b>c>a (iii) c>b>a (iv) b>c>a

(v) d>c > b>a (vi) a<b<c

Q.11 (i) a>b>c (ii) a>b>c (iii) a>c>b (iv) a>b>c

Q.12 (i) b < d < a < c (ii) b>c>a (iii) c>a>b (iv) c>a>b
(v) a>b

Q.13 (i) c>b>a (ii) c>b>a (iii) b>c>a (iv) c>b>a

(v) a>c>b

Q.14 B Q.15 A, C, D Q.16 D Q.17 B Q.18 B Q.19 iii > ii > i

Q.20 D Q.21 C

Q.22 (a) I, (b) II, (c) II, (d) I, (e) I, (f) I

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—
Q.23 (a) Due to resonance C H 2 – CH = Cl+
(b) In CH2=CH–OCH3, there is single bond character due to resonance
—
C H 2 – CH = O+– CH3

(c) Conjugate base of CH3SH ie, CH3S is more stable than conjugate base of CH3OH, ie CH3O–
— 
(d) In CH2=CH–NH2 lone pair of N is delocalized C H 2 – CH = N H 2

Q.24 (a), (b), (c), (f) Q.25 (a), (b) Q.26 (i) a, b, d (ii) a, c (iii) b, c, d

Q.27 A Q.28 A, B, D Q.29 C

Q.30 C Q.31 A Q.32 A Q.33 A, D

Q.34 (a) A, (b) A, (c) N.A. (d) A, (e) A, (f) N.A. (g) A Q.35 A, B, C, D

Q.36 B

Q.37 (i) a< b (ii) b > c > a> d (iii) a> b

Q.38 (a) I, (b) I , (c) I I , (d) I I , (e) I I , (f) I, (g) II, (h) II Q.39 (i) c (ii) a (iii) c

Q.40 (i) a>b>c (ii) a>b (iii) c>a>b (iv) a>b>c>d

(v) d>b>a>c (vi) d>e>b>a>c

Q.41 C Q.42 B Q.43 D Q.44 C Q.45 A, B

Q.46 (a) II, (b) II, (c) I, (d) I, (e) II, (f) II Q.47 (a) i , (b) i , (c) ii

Q.48 (a) 4658, (b) 4638, (c) 4632, (d) 4650, (e) 5293 Q.49 (i) 2 > 1 (ii) 2 <1 (iii) 1 < 2 (iv) 1 > 2

Q.50 (i) D > C > B > A (ii) E > C > D > B > A Q.51 (I) d > c > b > a; (II) a > b > c > d

Q.52 (a) I, (b) I, (c) II, (d) I

Q.53 (i) b>a (ii) a>b>d>c (iii) a>b>c>d>e

(iv) b>c>a (v) a>b>c (vi) a>b>c

Q.54 (i) c > b > a (ii) a>b>c>d (iii) a>b (iv) c>b>a

Q.55 (i) a»c>d>b (ii) d>b>c>a (iii) b>a>c (iv) a>c>b

(v) b>c>a (vi) b>c>a

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Q.1 Write correct order of acidic strength of following compounds:

(i) (a) H–F (b) H–Cl (c) H–Br (d) H–I

(ii) (a) CH4 (b) NH3 (c) H2O (d) H–F

CH3
(iii) (a) CH3–CH2–O–H (b) CH 3  CH  O  H (c) CH3–C–O–H
|
CH 3 CH3

(iv) (a) F–CH2–CH2–O–H (b) NO2–CH2–CH2–O–H


(c) Br–CH2–CH2–O–H (d) NH3  CH2  CH2  O  H

Q.2 Write correct order of acidic strength of following compounds:

(i) (a) CH3COOH (b) CH3CH2OH (c) C6H5OH (d) C6H5SO3H

(ii) (a) (b) (c)

COOH COOH COOH

COOH COOH CH 2  COOH

(iii) (a) | (b) CH2 (c) |
COOH COOH CH 2  COOH

Q.3 Write correct order of acidic strength of following compounds:

O O Cl O
|| || | ||
(i) (a) Cl  CH 2  C  O  H (b) Cl  CH  C  O  H (c) Cl  C  C  O  H
| |
Cl Cl

O O
|| ||
(ii) (a) CH 3  CH 2  CH  C  O  H (b) CH 3  CH  CH 2  C  O  H
| |
F F
O
||
(c) CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  C  O  H
|
F
O O
|| ||
(iii) (a) NO 2  CH 2  C  O  H (b) F  CH  C  O  H
2

O O
|| ||
(c) Ph  CH 2  C  O  H (d) CH 3  CH 2  C  O  H

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Q.4 Write correct order of acidic strength of following compounds:

O–H O–H O–H

(i) (a) (b) (c)

NO2 Cl CH3

O–H O–H O–H

Cl
(ii) (a) (b) (c)
Cl
Cl

O–H O–H O–H O–H

(iii) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q.5 Write correct order of acidic strength of following compounds:

O–H O O–H O–H O–H

N
(i) (a) O (b) O (c) (d)
N
O N
O O

O–H
O–H O–H O–H
O
N NO2 NO2 NO2
(ii) (a) (b) O (c) (d)
NO2
NO2 NO2

Q.6 Write correct order of acidic strength of following compounds:

O O
C–O–H C–O–H
CH3
(i) (a) (b)

COOH COOH
Cl Br
(ii) (a) (b)

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O
O O
C–O–H
C–O–H C–O–H
OMe
(iii) (a) (b) (c)

OMe OMe

O
C–O–H O O
C–O–H C–O–H
(iv) (a) (b) (c) NO2

N NO2
O O

Q.7 Select the strongest acid in each of the following sets :

OH OH OH OH

(i) (a) (b) (c) (d)

CH3 NO2 Cl NH2

OH OH OH OH

(ii) (a) (b) (c) (d)

NO2 F CH3

OH OH OH OH
OMe
(iii) (a) (b) (c) (d)
OMe
OMe
Q.8 Arrange the given phenols in their decreasing order of acidity:

(I) C6H5–OH (II) F OH

(III) Cl OH (IV) O2N OH

Select the correct answer from the given code:
(A) IV > III > I > II (B) IV > II > III > I (C) IV > III > II > I (D) IV > I > III > II

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Q.9 Which one of the following is the most acidic?

(A) (B) (C) (D) CH2=CH–CH3

Q.10 Which one of the following phenols will show highest acidity?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.11 Which of the following is weakest acid?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.12 The correct pKa order of the follwoing acids is :

HO OH O HO OH

O O O O O O
(I) (II) (III)
(A) I > II > III (B) III > II > I (C) III > I > II (D) I > III > II

Q.13 Arrange pH of the given compounds in decreasing order:

(1) Phenol (2) Ethyl alcohol (3) Formic acid (4) Benzoic acid
(A) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (B) 2 > 1 > 4 > 3 (C)3 > 2 > 4 > 1 (D) 4 > 3 > 1 > 2

Q.14 Arrange acidity of given compounds in decreasing order:

(I) CH3–NH–CH2–CH2–OH (II) CH3–NH–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH

(III) (CH 3 )3 N  CH 2  CH 2  OH
(A) III > I > II (B) III > II > I (C) I > II > III (D) II > I > III

Q.15 Consider the following compound

O
(A) (B) (C) || (D)
CH 3CCOOH

Which of the above compounds reacts with NaHCO3 giving CO2

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Q.16 Say which pka belong to which functional group in case of following amino acids :

(i) cysteine : 1.8, 8.3 & 10.8

(ii) glutamic acid : : 2.19, 4.25, 9.67

Q.17 Record the following sets of compounds according to increasing pKa ( = – log Ka)

(a) , , cyclohexane carboxylic acid.

(b) 1-butyne, 1-butene, butane

(c) Propanoic acid, 3-bromopropanoic acid, 2-nitropropanoic acid
(d) Phenol,o-nitrophenol, o-cresol
(e) Hexylamine, aniline, methylamine

Q.18 Explain which is a stronger acid.

O O
|| ||
(a) CH3CH3 & BrCH2NO2 (b) CH 3  C  CH 3 & CH 3  C  CH 2CN
(c) CH3 – CHO & CH3 – NO2

Q.19 Explain which is a weaker acid.

OH OH

(a) or (c) or

O=C–CH3 O=C–CH3

(b) or

Q.20 Which of the following would you predict to be the stronger acid ?

(a) or

(b) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH or CH3 – CH = CH – OH

(c) CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – OH or CH3 – CH = CH – OH

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BASICITY
Q.1 Write increasing order of basic strength of following:
(i) (a) F  (b) Cl  (c) Br  (d) I 

(ii) (a) CH 3 (b) NH 2 (c) OH  (d) F 

(iii) (a) R–NH2 (b) Ph–NH2 (c) R  C  NH 2

||
O
(iv) (a) NH3 (b) MeNH2 (c) Me2NH (d) Me3N (Gas phase)
(v) (a) NH3 (b) MeNH2 (c) Me2NH (d) Me3N (in H2O)

Q.2 Write increasing order of basic strength of following:

O
(i) (a) (b) (c)
NH NH N

Me
NH2 NH2

(ii) (a) (b) (c)

NH
N N N
(iii) (a) (b) (c)
O2N Me F

NH2 NH2
NH2 NH2

(iv) (a) (b) (c) (d)


NH3 Cl CH 3 H

Q.3 Write increasing order of basic strength of following:

  
(i) (a) CH3–CH2– N H 2 (b) CH3–CH= NH (c) CH3–C N

        
(ii) (a) CH 3  C  NH 2 (b) CH3–CH2– NH 2 (c) CH 3  C  N H 2 (d) NH 2 C  N H 2
|| || ||
O N H N

H


NH2

(iii) (a) N (b) (c)

H N

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O
NH2 NH–CH2–CH3
NH–C–CH3
(iv) (a) (b) (c)

NH2 NH2
Me Me

(v) (a) (b) Me Me

N N
O O O O
Q.4 Write increasing order of basic strength of following:
NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2

(i) (a) (b) (c) (d)

NO2 CN OMe NH2

NH2 NH2
NH2 H
C H
(ii) (a) (b) H (c)
H C H
H C
H H
H
NH2
NH2 NH2
NO2
(iii) (a) (b) (c)
NO2 NO2

NH2 NH2 H NH2

C H
(iv) (a) (b) (c)
H

NMe2 Me Me
NMe2 N
OMe
(v) (a) (b) (c)
OMe OMe

Q.5 Select the strongest base in following compound :

O S
(i) (a) (b) (c) (d)
N N N N

H H H

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NH2

(ii) (a) (b) (c) (d)

NH N
N
H
N
(iii) (a) (b) (c) (d)
N N N N

H H CH3 H

H H Me
+
N¯Li N N N
(iv) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q.6 Arrange the following compound in decreasing order of their basicity.

(i) (a) H2C = CHNa (b) CH3CH2Na (c) CH3CH2ONa (d) HC  CNa

(ii) (a) NH2 (b) CH2 – NH2 (c) NH2 (d) C – NH2
NO2 O
(iii) (a) HO¯ (b) NH3 (c) H2O

Q.7 Basicity order in following compound is :

CH3 CH3
O
Nb
H2N– C – CH2 CH2 – NH – C – CH3
c
NH
a
N
CH3 d CH3

(A) b > d > a > c (B) a > b > d > c (C) a > b > c > d (D) a > c > b > d

Q.8 Consider the following bases:

(I) o-nitroaniline (II) m-nitroaniline (III) p-nitroaniline
The decreasing order of basicity is:
(A) II > III > I (B) II > I > III (C) I > II >III (D) I > III > II

Q.9 Consider the basicity of the following aromatic amines:

(I) aniline (II) p-nitroaniline (III) p-methoxyaniline (IV) p-methylaniline
The correct order of decreasing basicity is:
(A) III > IV > I > II (B) III > IV > II > I
(C) I > II > III > IV (D) IV > III > II > I

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Q.10 Which one of the following is least basic in character?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.11 In each of the following pair of compounds, which is more basic in aqueous solution? Give an explanation
for your choice:

(a) CH3NH2 or CF3NH2 (b) CH3CONH2 or H2N NH2

(c) n-PrNH2 or CH3CN (d) C6H5N(CH3)2 or 2,6-dimethyl-N-N-dimethylaniline
(e) m-nitroaniline or p-nitroaniline

Q.12 From the following pair, select the stronger base:

(a) p-methoxy aniline or p-cyanoaniline (b) pyridine or pyrrole
(c) CH 3CN or CH3CH2NH2

Q.13 Choose the member of each of the following pairs of compunds that is likely to be the weaker base.
(a) H2O or H3O (b) H2S, HS–, S2– (c) Cl–, SH–
(d) F–, OH–, NH2–, CH 3 (e) HF, H2O, NH3 (f) OH–, SH–, SeH–

Q.14 Explain which compound is the weaker base.

(a) or (b) CH2 = CH – CH = CH – CH2– or CH2 = CH – CH2–

O O O O
|| || || ||
(c) O   C  C  OH or HO  C  C  OH (d) or

Q.15 Rank the following amines in increasing basic nature.

(a)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(b)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Q.16 Arrange the basic strength of the following compounds.
(a) OH – CH3COO– Cl–
(i) (ii) (iii)
(b) CH  C– CH2 = CH– CH3 CH2 –
(i) (ii) (iii)
(c) CH2 = CHCH2NH2 CH3CH2 CH2NH2 CH  C – CH2NH2
(i) (ii) (iii)
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Q.17 Arrange the basic strength of the following compounds.

(a)

(i) (ii) (iii)

(b)

(i) (ii) (iii)

NH2 NH2 NH2
(c)
H3C O2N
(i) (ii) (iii)

Q.18 Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing basicity.

(a) CH3NH2, CH3 NH 3 , CH3NH— (b) CH3O—, CH3NH—, CH3 CH 2
(c) CH3CH = CH—, CH3CH2 CH 2 , CH3CC—

Q.19 Rank the amines in each set in order of increasing basicity.

H
NH2 NH2 N
(a)

H
H N
(b) N N

H H H
N N N N
(c)

Q.20

Pyrimidine Imidazole Purine

Among the following which statement(s) is/are ture:
(A) Both N of pyrimidine are of same basic strength
(B) In imidazole protonation takes places on N–3.
(C) Purine has 3 basic N.
(D) Pyrimidine imidazole and purine all are aromatic

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ACIDITY
Q.1 (i) d>c>b>a (ii) d>c>b>a (iii) a > b > c (iv) d>b>a>c

Q.2 (i) d > a > c> b (ii) c > b > a (iii) a > b > c

Q.3 (i) c > b > a (ii) a > b > c (iii) a > b > c > d

Q.4 (i) a > b > c (ii) a > b > c (iii) d > b > c > a
Q.5 (i) c > a > b > d (ii) d > c > a > b Q.6 (i) b > a, (ii) b > a, (iii) c > b > a, (iv) c > a > b
Q.7 (i) b (ii) a (iii) b
Q.8 C Q.9 B Q.10 C Q.11 B Q.12 B Q.13 B Q.14 A
Q.15 A, B, C, D

Q.16 (i) cysteine : (ii) glutamic acid :

Q.17 (a) 3<2<1; (b) 1<2<3; (c) 3<2<1; (d) 2<1<3; (e) 2<3<1
Q.18 (a) 2; (b) 2; (c) 2 Q.19 (a) 2; (b) 2; (c) 2 Q.20 (a) 2; (b) 2; (c) 2

BASICITY

Q.1 (i) a > b > c > d (ii) a > b> c> d (iii) a > b> c (iv) a < b< c< d
(v) c > b> d> a

Q.2 (i) a < b < c (ii) c > a > b (iii) b > c> a (iv) c > d> b > a
Q.3 (i) a > b > c (ii) d > c > b > a (iii) b > c > a (iv) c > b > a
(v) b > a
Q.4 (i) d > c > b > a (ii) c > b > a (iii) b > a > c (iv) a > b > c
(v) c > a > b
Q.5 (i) d (ii) b (iii) a (iv) a
Q.6 (i) b > a > d > c (ii) b > a > c > d (iii) a > b > c

Q.7 B Q.8 A Q.9 A Q.10 A

Q.11 (a) i, (b) ii, (c) i, (d) ii, (e) i Q.12 (a) i, (b) i, (c) ii

Q.13 (a) 2; (b) 1; (c) 1; (d) 1; (e) 1; (f) 3 Q.14 (a) 2; (b) 1; (c) 2; (d) 2

Q.15 (a) 3<2<1<4; (b) 1<2<3<4 Q.16 (a) 1>2>3; (b) 1<2<3; (c) 3<1<2

Q.17 (a) 2<1<3; (b) 1<2<3; (c) 2 > 1 > 3 Q.18 (a) 2<1<3; (b) 1<2<3; (c) 3<1<2

Q.19 (a) 2 > 1> 3, (b) 1 > 2> 3, (c) 1 > 3 > 2, Q.20 A, B, C, D

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Exercise-1
Q.1 Which will show geometrical isomerism.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.2 Configuration of is

(A) R (B) S (C) D (D) L

Q.3 is diastereomers of

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.4 Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is
false.
I. Me–CH=C=C=CH–Br is optically active.
II. All optically active compound are chiral.
III. All chiral pyramidal molecules are optically inactive.
IV CH3–CH2–CH2–COOH and CH 3  CH  CH 3 are positional isomers.
|
COOH
(A) TTTF (B) FTFT (C) FTFF (D) TFTT

Q.5 From the following four structures select:

(a) The optically active isomers (b) Optically inactive isomers
(c) Enantiomers pairs (d) Distereomer pairs

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

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Q.6 Discuss the optical activity of the following two compounds and also label them as polar and non-polar.

(I) (II)

Q.7 Consider the following six structures:

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

(V) (VI)

The stereochemical relationship between : (a) I and II, (b) III and IV, (c) II and III, (d) I and V, (e) IV and (VI)

Q.8 Indicate the stereo centres in the following molecule and total number of stereoisomers in the following
molecule.

Q.9 For each of the following pair, deduce the stereochemical relationship, i.e., whether they are enantiomers,
diastereomers or identical.

(a) and (b) and

(c) and

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(d) and

Q.10 For each of the following molecules, indicate, whether they are chiral, achiral or meso compound:

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(V) (VI) (VII)

Q.11 For each of the following pair of structures, indicate, if the compounds are identical, constitutional isomers,
enantiomers, distereomers, diffrerent.

(a) and (b) and

Q.12 How many stereoisomer may have this natural occuring compound.

(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 64 (D) 128

Q.13 How many optically active stereoisomers are possible for butane-2, 3-diol
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

Q.14 Identify whether each of following pair of compounds are identical or enantiomers, diastereoisomer or
constitutional isomers.

(a) and (b) and

(c) and (d) and

(e) and (f) and

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(g) (h)

(i) (j)

(k) (l)

(m) and (n) and

(o) and (p) and

Q.15 How many stereoisomers are possible for the molecule shown below:

Q.16 Discuss the type of isomerism exhibited by the following pairs:

(a) and

(b) and

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(c) and

(d) CH3– CH2– CH2– CN and CH 3  CH  CH 3

|
CN

(e) and

Q.17 Draw resonance structure of the amides shown below and select them which are stereoisomeric:

(a) (b) (c)

(d)

Q.18 Which of following will exhibit geometrical isomerism?

(A) 1-phenyl-2-butene (B) 3-phenyl-1-butene
(C) 2-phenyl-1-butene (D) 1,1-diphenyl-1-propene

Q.19 How many optical isomers are possible for butane-2, 3-diol
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

Q.20 MeCH=CH–CH=C=CH–CH=CH2
Total number of geometrical isomers possible for above compounds are:
(A) 16 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 2

Q.21 total stereoisomers of the given compound is___________.

Q.22 Which point on the potential energy diagram in represented by Newmann projection shown?

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Q.23 Truxillic acid can exist theretically in five stereosiomeric form all of which are known an optically inactive
explain,where a = – CO2H, b = – C6H5

Q.24 The most stable enol-form of compound is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.25(a) A cyclobutandicarboxylic acid exist in two stereo-isomeric forms in which one is polar but non-resolvable
while other is non-polar but resolvable into enantiomers. Deduce structures of all these compounds.
(b) Select resolvable compounds.

(i) (ii) (iii) Ph  S  O

|
CH 3

(iv) (v) MeCHBrCH2Me (vi)


(vii) (viii) (ix) Me N DH 2 Br 

(x) MeCH 2 CHCH 2Me (xi) (xii) C=C=CH2

|
OH

Q.26 Which of the Newman projections shown below represents the most stable conformation about the
C1–C2 bond of 1-iodo-2-methyl propane?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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Q.27 Select the pair of enantiomer and diastereomers out of the following:

Q.28 In each of the following molecules, indicate the presence of a centre of chirality with an asterisk (*)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

Q.29 Choose the correct option for the following molecule in view of chemical bonding

(A) non-planar (B)   0 (C) A & B both (D)  = 0

Q.30 Match the column-I with column-II. Note that column-I may have more than one matching options
in column-II.
Column–I (stability) Column-II (Reason)

(A) > CH 3 (P) Inductive effect

(B) < CH 3– (Q) Resonance

(C) > H3C– CH 2 (R) Hyperconjugation

(D) > (S) steric hindrance

Q.31

is dimethyl derivative of a compound 'A' and is fairly stable but most of the molecules of 'A'

gets converted into another compound 'B' on keeping. What are the structures of 'A' and 'B'. Explain the
reason of conversion A into B.

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Exercise-2
1. Which of the following are isomers

(A) I, II only (B) III, IV only (C) I, II, III (D) All

2. No. of functional groups present in the following compound is :

(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 6 (D) 8

3. Quinine is the most important alkaloid obtained from cinchona bark. It’s molecular formula is C20H24N2O2. It
may contain
(A) 5 double bond & 6 ring (B) 6 double bond & 4 ring
(C) 6 double bond & 3 ring (D) 7 double bond & 5 ring

4. In the structure of 4-Isopropyl-2,4,5-trimethylheptane, number of 10, 20 & 30 H’s are respectively

(A) 18, 5, 4 (B) 21, 4, 3 (C) 18, 4, 3 (D) 21, 5, 4

5. How many 1° amines are possiple for the molecular formula C7H9N which contain benzene ring also
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2

6. Find out the total number of geometrical isomers of the following compound
(CH3)CH = C = C(CH3)(C2H5)
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

7. Which of the following will not show geometrical isomerism

(A) (B) (C) (D)

CH3

8. How many products are formed by monochlorination of .

CH3
CH
H3C CH3
(A) 13 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 14

9. Which will show geometrical isomerism

CHCH3 CHCH3
CH2 CHCH3 CH3
(A) CH3 (B) CH3 (C) (D)

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10. How many stereoisomers are possible for Gorlic acid (C18H30O2)
CH=CH
CH(CH2)6CH=CH(CH2)4COOH
CH2-CH2
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 2

11. Molecular formula of Anthanthrone is

O
(A) C22H8O2 (B) C21H10O2 (C) C23H10O2 (D) C22H10O2

=
= =
12. = How many geometrical isomers the above compound will posses
O
(A) 2(4-3/2) (B) 26 (C) 25-22 (D) 25

13. Structure of Biotin, (C10H16N2O3S) is as follows

No. of chiral carbon & D.U. (degree of unsaturation) for Biotin are
(A) 4,3 (B) 3,3 (C) 4,4 (D) 3,4

14. Which of the following pairs are nonsuperimposable over each other ?
CH3 CH3

I H OH HO H

C2H5 C2H5
II CH3-O-CH3 CH3-CH2-OH

III

IV CH3-CH2-CHO CH3-CH2-CH2-CHO

V and

(A) I, II, III, IV (B) I, V (C) I, II, III (D) I, II, IV

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15. Which statement is correct about the following structures

CH3 C2H5 Cl
H Br H Br H3CO C2H5
Cl OCH3 H3CO Cl H Br
C2H5 CH3 CH3
I II III
(A) I & III are structural isomers
(B) I & II & I & III are enantiomers
(C) I, III are enantiomers and I, II are structural isomers
(D) I, II & III are stereoisomers

16. Indicate the number of chiral carbon atoms in the following molecule.

HO
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9

17. 3, 5-Dimethylcyclohexanol has total stereoisomers

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 12

18. 2, 4-Dimethylcyclohexanol has total stereoisomers

(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 8 (D) 12

19. In the number of stereoisomers are

(A) 26 (B) 25 (C) 24 (D) 23

2 Br
20. Ph – CH2 – CH2 – COOH 
  PhCH2CHBrCOOH
Re d P
The product is
(A) racemic mixture (B) pure (+) (C) pure (–) (D) none of these

21. and are

(A) enantiomers (B) diastereomers (C) mesomers (D) all of these

22. can have

(A) geometrical isomer (B) optical isomers (C) epimer (D) none of these

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23.

Which is more stable

(A) A > B (B) A = B (C) A < B (D) none
24. In the given conformation shown below

orientation of I and Br atoms are

(A) (a, e) (B) (e, e) (C) (e, a) (D) (a, a)

25. In the above conformation Br, Et are (geometrical relationship)

(A) cis (B) trans (C) both (D) none of these

26. In the above conformation Me, Et are

(A) trans (B) cis (C) both (D) none of these

27. Between &

(A) I is more stable than II (B) II is more stable than I

(C) I & II are equally stable (D) can’t say about their relative stability

28. 1-Bromo-2-chlorocyclohexane has several conformations. The stablest one has

(A) (1e – Br, 2e – Cl) (B) (1e – Br, 2a – Cl) (C) (1a – Br, 2a – Cl) (D) (1a – Br, 2e – Cl)

29. Among the 1, 3-dibromo cyclohexane conformations, the stablest one is

(A) (1a – Br, 3a – Br) (B) (1e – Br, 3e – Br) (C) (1a – Br, 3e – Br) (D) (1e – Br, 3a – Br)

30.

Between I, II the stable one is

(A) I (B) II (C) equally stable (D) none of these

31. Between and the stable one is

(A) I (B) II (C) both are equally stable (D) can’t be predicted

32. is

(A) optically active (B) optically inactive (C) meso in nature (D) none of these

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33. and are

(A) diastereomers (B) conformational enantiomers

(C) configurational enantiomers (D) racemic form

34. Between and the relationship is

(A) conformational enantiomer (B) identical

(C) conformational diastereomer (D) none of these

35. and are

(A) enantiomers (B) identical (C) optically inactive (D) all of these

36. The compound

(A) is opticaly acitve (B) is a meso compound

(C) has zero dipole moment (D) has all groups in cis form

37. Which name is correct for

(A) cis-(a)-2-Decalol (B) cis-(e)-2-Decalol (C) trans-(a)-2-decalol (D) trans-(e)-2-Decalol

38.

Select the correct statement/s

(A) All are identical compounds (B) III and IV are identical and meso compounds
(C) I and II are optically active compounds
(D) I and II are configurational isomers while II and IV are conformational isomers

39. Draw the most stable conformation of 1-Chloropropane. W hich statement is correct about this
conformation.
(A) It is the most polar form (B) It has maximum torsional strain
(C) It has minimum steric strain (D) A and C both

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40. The optically active alkyl chloride is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

41. Compound A (C6H12) does not absorb H2 in presence of Ni. It forms two monochloro isomers on photochemi-
cal chlorination. Its structure can be

(A) (B) (C) (D)

42. Which of the following molecule/s is / are chiral :

(A) CH3H2C  N  CH3 (B) (C) (D)

|
CH2  CH2  CH3
I II III IV
(A) I (B) I, II (C) III, IV (D) All

43. Which of the following species will be optically active :

C 2H5
|
(A) (B) H3 C  N  C 3H7

(C) (D)

44. How many spatial orientations are possible in the following compound ?

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

CH2OH
|
45. HO  C  H represents the Fischer projection formula :
|
CHO

(A) D (B) L (C) d (D) l

46. Hydrogenation of the adjoining compound in the presence of poisoned palladium catalyst gives.

(A) an optically active compound (B) an optically inactive compound

(C) a racemic mixture (D) a diastereomeric mixture

47. Mention the relationship between compounds of following pairs (isomers (type), Homologs, identicals)
(I) (II)

(A)

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(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

48. Which of the following is a meso isomer,

(A) (B) (C) (D)

49. How many optically active products can be formed in the following reaction

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

50. Which of the following compound has zero dipole moment in one of the stable conformations
(A) HO – CH2 – CH2 – OH (B) CH3 – CHCl – CHBr – CH3
(C) d-CH3 – CHCl – CHCl – CH3 (D) meso-CH3 – CHCl – CHCl – CH3

51. Which of the following are identical compounds

(A) I, II (B) I, III (C) I, IV (D) II, III

52. The following two compounds are

(A) conformational isomers (B) optical isomers

(C) structural isomers (D) identical compounds

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53. Establish the relationship between the following pairs, as enantiomers, identicals, diastereomers or struc-
tural isomers.

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

54. Observe the structures of compounds A, B, C and D. Write the relationship between the given pairs of
compounds.

(I) A and B are .......... (II) A and C are ............

(III) A and D are ......... (IV) C and D are ..........

55. Compounds with molecular formula C2H7N can be

(A) Functional isomers and metamers (B) Only functional isomers
(C) Functional and positional isomers (D) Chain, positional, functional and metamers

56. Total number of isomers having molecular formula C3H4O and only functional group can be,
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

57. How many products are formed by monochlorination of (Ignore stereoisomers)

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 3

58. The total number of 4° (quaternary) carbon atoms present in cholestanol is

(A) 3 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 2

59. Total number of phenol isomers of the compound C8H10O is

(A) 10 (B) 9 (C) 8 (D) 6

60. The following two compounds I and II are ...................... isomers.

and

(A) Geometrical (B) Geometrical and positional

(C) Positional (D) Geometrical, optical and positional

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61. Which of the following will not show geometrical isomerism

(A) (B) (C) (D)

62. Fill the correct type of isomerism

(A) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – NH2 (B) CH3 – CH2 – NH – CH2 – CH3
(C) CH3 – CH2 – N – CH3 (D) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – NH – CH3

CH3
(E) CH3 – CH2 – CH – NH2

CH3
(i) A & B are__________ (ii) B & C are__________
(iii) A & C are__________ (iv) B & D are__________
(v) A & E are__________ (vi) C & E are__________

63. For molecular formula C5H10 :

x  Total number of possible structural isomers.
y  How many of them can show geometrical isomerism.

(A) 10, 2 (B) 9, 2 (C) 9, 1 (D) 8, 4

64. Which of the following carbonyl compound will give two product after reaction with NH2OH :

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(5) (6) (7)

(A) 2, 3 , 4, 5, 6, 7 (B) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 (C) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 (D) 1, 3, 4, 6, 7

65. Which of the following will show geometrical isomerism.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(5) (6)

(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 1, 2, 5 (C) 1, 2, 4 (D) 3, 5, 6

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66.

Incorrect statement for the above structure :

(A) I, II & III have CnH2n-2 general formula (B) I , II & III have same empirical formula
(C) I, II & III have same molecular formula (D) I , II are identical and homologue of compound III.

67. Which of the following will show geometical isomer.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

68. Total number of geometrical isomers in the following compound,

Ph–CH=CH– –CH2–CH= –OH

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16

69. Which of the following will not show geometrical isomerism.

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5) (6)

(7) (8) (9)

(10) (11) (12) = CH – CH = CH – Ph

(13) (14)

(A) 1, 2, 5, 6, 8, 9, 14 (B) 3, 6, 7, 8, 9, 11, 14 (C) 3, 6, 10, 11, 12, 13

(D) Except 2, 10, 13

70. Which of the following is pair of geometrical isomerism :

(A) and

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(B) and

(C) and

(D) and

71. Write down total number of geometrical isomers after reaction with NH2OH.

(1)

(2)

72. Indicate the type of isomers for the following compounds :

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(v) (vi)

(vii)

73. In which option all compounds can show geometrical isomerism.

(A)

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(B) , C2FClBrI.

(C) , Ph – CH = N – OH, Ph2N2

(D) CH3–CH = N–OH , H2C = CH–CH = CH–CN.

74. Consider the following four statements

S1 : Geometrical isomers are not mirror image isomer.
S2 : A compound having double bond (restricted bond) always show geometrical isomerism
S3 : Acyclic compounds having single bond does not show geometrical isomerism
S4 : Cyclodecene can exist in cis & trans form

(A) T F F T (B) T T F T (C) F F F T (D) T F T T

75. Which will not show geometrical isomerism

(A) (B) (C) ClCH = CHCl (D) Ph—N=N—Ph

76. Which of the following compound posses plane of symmetry -

(A) (B) (C) (D)

77. Which of the following compounds are optically active ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

78. Well known pain killer Nurofen is an ibuprofen how many stereoisomers it would have ?

If we have a racemic mixture of ibuprofen which one of the following can be used to resolve the isomers.
Ph D
| |
(A) 4, CH3 – CH2 – OH (B) 8, CH3  C  OH (C) 4, CH3  C  OH (D) 8, CH3 – CH2 – OH
| |
Ph Ph

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79. Which of the following pairs can be separated by fractional distillation :

Me NH Me NH Me
H

(A) H NH H and Me NH H
O O

COOH OH

H OH HOOC H

(B) H OH and HO COOH

COOH H

O O

(C) CH3–C–O–C3H7 and CH3–O–C–C2H5

H H H H
COOH COOH
(D) NH2 and CH3
CH3 CH3
CH3 NH2
80. Arrange following in decreasing order of percantage enol content.

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) I > II > III > IV (B) II > I > III > IV (C) II > III > I > IV (D) III > II > IV > I

O
Ph || Ph - Fractional
OH / H2O distillation
81. Number of isomeric products (m) Number of fractions (n)
CH3 H
values of (m) and (n) are
(A) 2, 1 (B) 1, 1 (C) 2, 2 (D) 1, 2

82. Which of the following statement is/are correct about below newmann projection :

(A) I and II are functional isomers. (B) II and III are functional isomers
(C) II and III are metamers (D) I and III are metamers

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Exercise-1
Q.1 (A, B, C) Q.2 (A, C) Q.3 (D)
Q.4 (C)
(II) Cyclic chiral pyramidal molecules are optically active.
(IV) CH3–CH2–CH2–COOH and CH 3  CH  CH 3 are chain isomers.
|
COOH
Q.5 (a) II and IV are chiral, hence optically active, (b) I and III are achiral, posses plane of symmetry, hence
optically inactive, (c) There is no enantiomer pair, both II and IV are identical structure, (d) I and II, II
and III, I and III are pair of distereomers.

Q.6 Compound I is optically inactive since it contain a plane of symmetry. Compound II is enantiomeric since
it does not contain plane of symmetry, hence chiral. Also compound I is polar while II is non polar.]

Q.7 (a) Both I and II are optically, but they are not mirror image of one another, hence, they are distereomers
(b) Distereomers ,(c) Enantiomers,(d) I and V are enantiomers,
(e) IV and VI are distereomers]

Q.8 [8] Q.9 (a) Enantiomers, (b) Identical, (c) Identical, (d) Identical]

Q.10 (I) Achiral, (II) Achiral, (III) Meso, (IV) Meso, (V) Meso, (VI) Chiral, (VII) Chiral

Q.11 (a) Distereomers, (b) Identical and meso

Q.12 (C) Q.13 (B)

Q.14 (a) Enantiomer, (b) Constitutional, (c) Constitutional, (d) Identical, (e) Identical,
(f) Diastereomer, (g) Identical, (h) Enantiomer, (i) Enantiomer, (j) Enantiomer,
(k) Diastereomer, (l) Identical, (m) Enantiomer, (n) Enantiomer, (o) Enatiomer, (p) Identical

Q.15 This compound has two chiral carbon, and a double bond capable of showing geometrical isomerism
giving rise to total eight different configurations possible for the molecule as shown below:

Q.16 (a) Both are similar structures, (b) They are positional isomers, (c) They are enantiomers, (d) chain ,
(e) Metamers

Q.17 (a)

(b)

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(c)

(d) ]

Q.18 (A) Q.19 (C) Q.20 (D)

Q.21 [4] Q.22 [B]

Q.23 All isomer contain symmetry] Q.24 (D)

Q.25(a) The compound must be 1,2-cyclobutan-dicarboxylic acid since all other constitutional isomers are
non-resovable.

(b) (i) R, (ii) R, (iii) R, (iv) R, (v) R, (vi) R, (vii) N.R, (viii) R, (ix) N.R, (x) N. R., (xi) N.R. (xii) N.R

Q.26 (C)

Q.27 Enantiomer  (A,B) (C,D); Diastereomer (A,C)(A,D);(B,C)(B,D)

Q.29 (D) Q.30 (A) P,Q,R; (B) P; (C) P, R; (D) Q

Q.31 A is and it tautomerise into B as it is more stable because it is aromatic compound

B is

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Exercise-2

1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (B)

5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (D)

9. (B, D) 10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (D)

13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (C)

17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (A)

21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (A)

25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (A)

29. (B) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (A)

33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (B) 36. (B)

37. (C) 38. (B, C) 39. (D) 40. (C, D)

41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (D)

45. (A) 46. (B)

47. (A) Chain isomer

(B) Metamers
(C) Metamers
(D) Metamers
(E) Homologs

48. (B) 49. (C) 50. (D) 51. (D)

52. (C)

53. (i) Identical (ii) Structural (positional) isomers (iii) Identical (iv) Identical
54. (I) Functional isomers (II) Homologs
(III) Homologs (IV) Metamers

55. (B) 56. (C) 57. (D) 58. (D)

59. (B) 60. (C) 61. (D)

62. Functional isomer Functional isomer

Functional isomer Metamer
Position isomer

63. (A) 10, 2

C C
| |
(1) C = C – C – C – C (2) C – C = C – C – C (3) C  C – C – C (4) C  C – C – C

C
(5) | (6) (7) (8) (9) (10)
C–C  C–C

64. (C) 65. (D) 66. (D) 67. (A, C)

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68. (C) 69. (B) (B)

70. (A, B, D)

71. 8, 16

72. (i) Functional isomers (ii) Functional isomers (iii) Position isomers (iv) Functional isomers
(v) Position isomers (vi) Chain isomers (vii) Position isomers

73. (D) 74. (D) 75. (A) 76. (C)

77. (D) 78. (C) 79. (C)

80. (A, C) 81. (A) 82. (C) 83. (A, C)

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 REACTION MECHANISM FINAL LAP - 2019

Write the structure of more stable rearranged form of the following carbocations:
 +
(1) CH3CH2CH2+ (2) (CH 3 ) 2 CH CHCH 3 (3) (CH3 )3 CCHCH3

(4) (CH3CH2)3CCH2+ (5) (6)

 +
(7) C H 2  CH 2  CH 2 (8) (9)
|
CH 3  CH 2  O

H CH3 CH3

| |  |
(10) (11) CH3  C C  CH3 (12) CH2  C  C  C H  CH  CH3
| | | |
CH3 OH CH3 CH3

(13) (14) (15)

CH3 CH3
| |
(16) CH3  C  C  CH3 (17) (18) (19)
 |
OH


(20) CH3  CH  CH  C H2 (21) (22) (23)

(24) (25) (26) (27) (28)

(29) (30) (31) (32)

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
CH 3  CH 2  CH
(6) (7) | (8)
CH 3  CH 2  O

H CH3 CH3
|   | |
(10) (11) CH3  C  C  CH3 (12) CH2  C  C  CH  CH  CH3
| | | |
CH3 OH CH3 CH3

(13) (14) (15)

(16) (17) (18) (19)


(20) CH3  C H  CH  CH2 (21) (22)


(23) CH3  C  O (24) (25) (26)

(27) (28) (29)

(30) (31) (32)

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EXERCISE-I
Q.1 2-chloropentane on halogenation with chlorine gives 2,3, dichloropentane. What will be the structure of
free radical species formed in the reaction?
(A) Planar (B) Trigonal planar (C) Square planar (D) Pyramidal

Q.2 The correct order of rate of Wurtz recation.

Na
(I) CH2–F ether
 CH2–CH2

Na
(II) CH2–Cl ether
 CH2–CH2

Na
(III) CH2–Br ether
 CH2–CH2

Na
(IV) CH2–I ether
 CH2–CH2

(A) I > II > III > IV (B) II > I > III > IV
(C) IV > III > II > I (D) In all rate of Wurtz reaction is same

CH 3  CH  CO 2 K
electrolys
Q.3 is
|     (A) (Major)
CH 3  CH  CO 2 K

Major product (A) of above reaction

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.4 Consider the following reaction –

O
FeSO 4  H 2 O 2
Na
/ether
 Fenton
   P
OEt liq . NH 3 's
reagent
the major product P is:

O OH O O
(A) (B)

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H H
O O
(C) O (D) OH

Q.5 NBS
  Na /
ether
 (X)
CCl .Peroxide
4

X is

(A) (B)

(C) (D) None of these

Q.6 Find out the correct order of rate of reaction towards allylic substitution.

CH 3
|
(I) CH3–CH = CH2 (II) CH3–CH2–CH=CH2 (III) CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2
(A) I > II > III (B) II > I > III
(C) III > II > I (D) III > I > II

Q.7 What will be the major product, when 2-methyl butane undergoes bromination in presence of light?
(A) 1-bromo-2-methyl butane
(B) 2-bromo-2-methyl butane
(C) 2-bromo-3-methyl butane
(D) 1-bromo-3-methyl butane

Q.8 Which can not be the possible product of the given reaction
Br
CH 3  CH 2  C  OAg 2 
CCl4 ,  product(s)
||
O

(A) CH3 – CH2 – Br (B) CH 3  CH 2  C  O  CH 2  CH 3

||
O

(C) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3 (D) CH3 – CH2 – CH3

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Q.9 Pick the correct statement for monochlorination of R-secbutyl Bromide.

Me
Cl
Br 2
H 
300C

Et
(A) There are five possible product ; four are optically active one is optically inactive
(B) There are five possible product ; three are optically inactive & two are optically active
(C) There are five possible product ; two are optically inactive & three are optically active
(D) None of these

Q.10 Correct order of rate of photochlorination for following compounds is:

CH 3
|
CH3–CH3 CD3–CD3 CH 3  C  CH 3
|
CH 3

(I) (II) (III)

(A) II < I < III (B) I < II < III (C) III < I < II (D) II < III < I

Q.11 NBS
 Allylic brominated products
CCl 4 ,

Find out the incorrect statement.

(A) It gives total 9 allylic brominated products
(B) All allylic brominated products are optically active
(C) Substrate has 7 allylic hydrogens
(D) NBS gives Br2 constantly to reaction mixture.

Q.12 Which of the following carbocation is most stable?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Q.13 Which carbocation is least likely to form as an intermediate?

 
(A) (C6 H 5 )3 C (B) (C) (D) CH 2  CH

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Q.14 For the reactions

(I)  + Clr , H1o (II)  + Clr , H o2


(III)  + Cl , H3o (IV)  + Cl , H o4

The correct decreasing order of enthalpies of reaction for producing carbocation is

(A) H1o > H o2 > H3o > H o4 (B) H o4 > H1o > H o2 > H3o

(C) H3o > H o2 > H1o > H o4 (D) H o2 > H1o > H o4 > H3o

Br
Q.15 , which is not the correct statement
(I)
(A) I is more soluble than bromocyclopropane
(B) I gives pale yellow ppt. on addition with A gNO3
(C) I is having lower dipole moment than bromocyclopropane

(D) I is more ionic than

Q.16 Which one of the following carbocation would you expect to rearrange.


(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.17 How many 1,2-Shifts are involved during the course of following reaction:



(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

Q.18 How many 1,2-Shifts are involved during the course of following reaction:

conc . H SO
 24 

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

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
Q.19 H (X).


Product (X) is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.20 Among the given compounds, the correct dehydration order is:

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(A) I < II < III < IV (B) II < III < IV < I
(C) I < III < IV < II (D) I < II < III = IV


Q.21 H P. The product P is:
5 C

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.22 Rate of dehydration when given compounds are treated with conc. H2SO4.

(P) (Q) (R) (S)

(A) P > Q > R > S (B) Q > P > R > S (C) R > Q > P > S (D) R > Q > S > P

2 H SO
Q.23  4  X



X is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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
Q.24 H major product is


(A) (B) (C) (D)

H O
Q.25 3
  A, A is

(A) (B) (C) (D)


Q.26 H


(A) (B) (C) (D)

Conc . H SO
2
Q.27    4  A.


Product A is:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.28 How many products are obtained in the given reaction :

Et Ph CH3 Ph
H SO
HO OH + HO OH 2 4 

Et Ph CH3 Ph

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

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Q.29 Which of the following is not correct about P2.
O

Mg
 P H
 P2
H O 1
2 

(A) It is a spiro compound (B) It is a Ketone

(C) It can show tautomerism (D) It is an alkene

CH 3
|
Q.30 CH 3  CH — C — CH 2  NH 2 HNO
2  (X) (major)
| |
CH 3 CH 3

Major product of above reaction is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Q.31 Which will dehydrate at fastest rate by H3PO4:-

(A) 2-methyl butane-2-ol (B) 3-methyl butane-2-ol
(C) Butane-1-ol (D) 2-methyl butane-1-ol

Q.32 What is the order of reactivity with HBr.

(a) (b) (c)

(A) a > b > c (B) b > a > c

(C) c > b > a (D) b > c > a

CH = CH3
Q.33 HBr

H D CCl4

CH3

What is stereochemistry of product?

(A) Racemic mixture (B) Optically inactive
(C) Diastereomers (D) Meso product
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Q.34 In the given reaction:

Br2
 [X]


[X] is:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.35 Select the incorrect statement about the product mixture in the following reaction :

Br
2  Products
CCl 4

(A) it is optically active (B) it is racemic mixture

(C) it is a resolvable mixture (D) it is a mixture of erythro compounds

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EXERCISE-II
Q.1 Which of the following can be produced by Wurtz reaction in good yield.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.2 Select true statement(s):

(A) Instead of radical substitution, cyclopropane undergoes electrophilic addition reactions in sun light.
(B) In general, bromination is more selective than chlorination.
(C) The 2,4,6-tri-tert, butylphenoxy radical is resistant to dimerization.
(D) The radical-catalysed chlorination, ArCH3 ArCH2Cl, occurs faster when Ar = phenyl than when
Ar = p-nitrophenyl.

Q.3 Choose all alkane that give only one monochloro derivative upon reaction with chlorine in sun light.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.4 NBS
 HBr
 (X) + (Y) enantiomeric pair
CCl / h
4

Br Br

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Br Br

Q.5 Select correct statement about the product (P) of the reaction:

Br
2 /
CCl4
 P

(A) P is optically inactive due to internal compensation

(B) P is optically inactive due to the presence of plane of symmetry in the molecule
(C) The structure of P can have three optical isomers possible.
(D) P can have four possible optical isomers.
Q.6 Products formed when HCl adds to 2,4- hexadiene is:
(A) 4-chloro-2-hexene (B) 2-chloro-3-hexene
(C) 2-chloro-4-hexene (D) 1-chloro-2-hexene
Q.7 In the given reaction

C7H12 (A) HBr



(A) can be

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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Q.8 Which of following reaction product are diastereomer of each other.

Br
(
i ) NaCN
(A) 2
 (B) 
CCl 4 (ii ) H 

(C) HBr
 (D) CH 3  CH  CH  CH  Ph HCl

CCl4 peroxide
|
Et
Q.9 Which of the following can be formed during this reaction?


H
3O

OH
OH

(A) (B) (C) (D)

OH O O
OH

Q.10 Each of the compounds in column A is subjected to further chlorination. Match the following for them.
Column A Column B
(A) CHCl2–CH2–CH3 (P) Optically active original compound

(B) CH2Cl–CHCl–CH3 (Q) Only one trichloro product

(C) CH2Cl–CH2–CH2–Cl (R) Three trichloro product.

(D) CH3–CCl2–CH3 (S) Four trichloro product

Cl Cl
(E) | | (T) Atleast one of the trichloro product is
CH 3  C — C  CH 3 optically active.
| |
CH 3 CH 3 (U) Two trichloro products.

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EXERCISE-III
Q.1 Identify P1 to P8.
H H
CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 CH2 CH3 H
Br
 P1 + P2
D T
H
H Br
CH3 – CH =CH –CH2– CH  CH 2 CH3  P1 + P2 + P3 + P4
|
D T
H Br
CH3 – CH = CH – CH 2  CH  CH 2  CH  CH 3  P1 + P2 + P3 + P4 + P5 + P6 + P7 + P8
| |
D T

Q.2 Give the product of the following reaction.

O
Mg A CH=O Mg

(i) H 2O
(ii) CH=O H 2O B

O O
|| ||
(iii) Me  C  Et Mg
 H
2SO 4
 C (iv) Ph  C  Me Mg
 H
2SO 4
 D
H 2O  H 2O 

Q.3 Identify missing products in the given reaction sequence.

aq KOH
CH3 – CH2 – CH3 Br
2 /
hv
  (A)    (B) H2SO
4  (C) Br
2  (D) = ?
 CCl 4

Q.4 Find out the total no. of products (including stereo) in the given reaction :
CH3

NBS, CCl4 Products.

Peroxide, 

Q.5 With the help of following data show HBr exhibits the peroxide effect.
H10/kJ mol–1 H20/kJ mol–1
   
H–X X + CH2 = CH2  X CH2 – C H2 XCH2– C H2 + H–X  XCH2CH3 + X

HCl –67 + 12.6
HBr –25.1 – 50.2
HI +46 –117.1

Q.6 Addition of small amount of (C2H5)4Pb to a mixture of methane and chlorine, starts the reaction at
140°C instead of the usual minimum 250°C. Why?

Q.7 On chlorination, an equimolar mixture of ethane and neopentane yields neopentyl chloride and
ethyl chloride in the ratio 2.3 : 1. How does the reactivity of 1° hydrogen in neopentane compare with
that of a 1° hydrogen in ethane?

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Q.8 It required 0.7 g of a hydrocarbon (A) to react completely with Br2 (2.0 g) and form a non resolvable
product. On treatment of (A) with HBr it yielded monobromo alkane (B). The same compound (B) was
obtained when (A) was treated with HBr in presence of peroxide. Write down the structure formula of
(A) and (B) and explain the reactions involved.

Q.9 Give product(s) in each of the following reactions .

(a) CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH2– CH3 Br / hv

2  (A) (major)
|
CH 3

( C H5COO)2
(b) + NBS 6   (B)

hv
(c) CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2 + Me3COCl  (C) + (D)
CH 3
|
CH 3 C O Cl / 
|
CH 3
(d) C6H5 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3      (E) (major)

Q.10 We saw that acid-catalyzed dehydration of 2,2-dimethyl-cyclohexanol afforded 1,2-dimethylcyclohexene.

To explain this product we must write a mechanism for the reaction in which a methyl shift transforms a
secondary carbocation to a tertiary one. Another product of the dehydration of 2,2-dimethylcyclohexanol
is isopropylidencyclopentane. Write a mechanism to rationalize its formation.


H
heat
 + C(CH3)2

2,2-Dimethylcyclohexanol 1,2-Dimethylcyclohexene Isopropylidenecyclopentane

Q.11 (a) Write a reasonable and detailed mechanism for the following transformation.

conc
 . + H2O
H 2SO 4

H  / HOH
(b)  

-Terpeniol

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Q.12 Assuming that cation stability governs the barrier for protonation in H – X additions, predict which
compound in each of the pairs in parts (a) & (b) will be more rapidly hydrochlorinated in a polar solvent.
(I) (II)
(a) CH2 = CH2 or

(b) or

Q.13 Choose the member of the following pairs of unsaturated hydrocarbons that is more reactive towards
acid-catalysed hydration and predict the regiochemistry of the alcohols formed from thi s compound.

(a) or
(I)

(b) or

(c) or

Q.14 Give product in the following reaction.

(i) NaNO
 2  A (ii) NH2  NaNO2
 B
HCl HCl
NH2
CH2NH2 NH2

(iii) NaNO
 2  C (iv) NaNO
 2  D
HCl HCl

(v) NaNO
 2  E
HCl
OH NH2

Q.15 What are the products of the following reactions ?

(a) PhCH = CHCH3 + HBr A (b) + HI  B

(c) + HBr Peroxide

  C (d) + HCl D

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Q.16 Complete following reaction:

HCl
(a) 


Br
(b) 2

CCl 4
CH3

Cl
(c) 2

CS2

Total number of products obtained in this reaction is ?


Q.17 H
 Write the mechanism.


OH

Q.18 Compare rate of reaction towards pinacol pinacolone rearrangement.

CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 Ph CH 3 CH 3
| | | | | |
Ph — C — C — Ph CH 3 — C — C — Ph CH 3 — C — C — CH 3
| | | | | |
OH OH OH OH OH OH
( I) ( I I) ( I I I)

Q.19 Calculate the percentage of products i.e. P1, P2 & P3, if reactivity for chlorination with 1°H, 2°H & 3°H
is 1 : 3.8 : 4.5 respectively.
Cl
Cl
Cl
h
+ Cl2    + +
Monochlorination

(P1) (P2) (P3)

Q.20 Write all the monochlorinated products (including stereo) of isohexane.

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EXERCISE-I
Q.1 B Q.2 C Q.3 C Q.4 B Q.5 C Q.6 C Q.7 B
Q.8 D Q.9 D Q.10 A Q.11 B Q.12 C Q.13 C Q.14 B

Q.15 C Q.16 B Q.17 D Q.18 C Q.19 A Q.20 A Q.21 D

Q.22 C Q.23 D Q.24 C Q.25 B Q.26 D Q.27 D Q.28 B
Q.29 B Q.30 C Q.31 A Q.32 B Q.33 C Q.34 D Q.35 A

EXERCISE-II
Q.1 B, D Q.2 B, C, D Q.3 A, B, D Q.4 B, D
Q.5 A, B, C Q.6 A, B Q.7 A, B, C Q.8 A, B, D
Q.9 A, B, D Q.10 (A) S,T (B) P,S,T (C) U, (D) Q, (E) T,U

EXERCISE-III

H H H Br H H
| | | | | |
Q.1 P1 = CH 3  C  (CH 2 ) 2  C  CH 2  C  CH 3 P2 = CH 3  C  (CH 2 ) 2  C  CH 2  C  CH 3
| | | | | |
Br D T H D T

H D H Br D H
| | | | | |
P3 = CH 3  C  (CH 2 ) 2  C  CH 2  C  CH 3 P4 = CH 3  C  (CH 2 ) 2  C  CH 2  C  CH 3
| | | | | |
Br H T H H T

H D T Br D T
| | | | | |
P5 = CH 3  C  (CH 2 ) 2  C  CH 2  C  CH 3 P6 = CH 3  C  (CH 2 ) 2  C  CH 2  C  CH 3
| | | | | |
Br H H H H H

Br H T H H T
| | | | | |
P7 = CH 3  C  (CH 2 ) 2  C  CH 2  C  CH 3 P8 = CH 3  C  (CH 2 ) 2  C  CH 2  C  CH 3
| | | | | |
H D H Br D H

OH
* OH
Q.2 (i) (A) (ii) (B) RR, SS, RS (3 products)
OH * OH

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CH3 Ch3
(iii) (C) CH3 – C – C – Et (iv) (D) CH3 – C – C – Ph
|| Et || Ph
O O

Br OH
| |
Br2 / hv aq KOH
Q.3 CH3 – CH2 – CH3   CH 3  CH  CH 3    CH 3  CH  CH 3
( A) (B)

Br2
H2SO4
CH 2  CH  CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 3
| | CCl 4 (C)
Br Br
(D)

Q.4 9 Q.7 1.15 times more reaction Q.8 A=

Br
|
Q.9 (a) A: CH 3  C  CH 2CH 2CH 3 (b) B:
|
CH 3

(c) C: CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2 D: CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2 Cl
|
Cl

(d) E: Ph  CH  Et
|
Cl

Q.11 (b) H  HOH / H 

  

Q.12 (a) II, (b) I Q.13 (a) II, (b) I, (c) II ;

Q.15 (a) Ph  CH  Et , (b) Me2C(I)–Et, (c) , (d)

|
Br

CH3 Cl
H + H
Q.16 (a) Cl CH3 (diastereoisomers)
CH3 CH3

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(b) + (diastereoisomers)

Me Me
H Cl Cl H
(c) H + H (Enantiomers)
Cl Cl
Et Et


 
H –H2O –H
Q.17  H

OH OH2

Q.18 More stable the carbocation, more will be the rate of reaction. II > I > III

Q.19 P1 = 13.26 %, P2 = 66.96 %, P3 = 19.82 % Q.20 8 products

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Q.1 The order of reactivity of alkyl halide in the reaction R–X + Mg  RMgX is
(A) RI > RBr > RCl (B) RCl > RBr > RI (C) RBr > RCl > RI (D) RBr > RI> RCl

Q.2 Br–CH2–CC–CH2–Br Mg

 BrMg–CH2–CC–CH2–MgBr
( excess)
Et 2O

Product
The major product is:
(A) Br–Mg–CH2–CC–CH2–Br (B) Cyclobutyne
(C) —(CH 2  C  C  CH 2—
)n (D) CH2 = C=C=CH2

Q.3 On conversion into Grignard followed by treatment with ethanol, how many alkyl halides (excluding
stereoisomers) would yield 2-methyl butane.
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

Q.4 Which of the following reacts with Grignard reagent to give alkane?
(A) nitro ethane (B) acetyl acetone (C) acetaldehyde (D) acetone

Q.5 How many litres of methane would be produced when 0.595 g of CH3MgBr is treated with excess of
C4H9NH2
(A) 0.8 litre (B) 0.08 litre (C) 0.112 litre (D) 1.12 litre

Q.6 How many litres of ethene would be produced when 2.62 g of vinyl magnesium bromide is treated with
224 ml of ethyne at STP.
(A) 0.224 litre (B) 0.08 litre (C) 0.448 litre (D) 1.12 litre

MgBr OH

Q.7 +  A

O – Ph

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.8 In which of the following reactions 3°alcohol will be obtained as a product.

O
||
(A) MgBr (excess) + H  C  Cl  

H

O
||
(B) PhMgBr (excess) + CH 3  C  Cl  

H

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O O
|| ||
(C) CH3MgBr (excess) + CH 3  C  O  C  CH 3  

H

O
||
(D) CH3MgBr (excess) + Cl  C  O  Et  

H

Q.9 1
equivalent Mg
  X D2O
  Y; Y is
ether

(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these

Q.10 Compounds are shown with the no. of RMgX required for complete reaction, select the incorrect option
(A) CH3COOC2 H5 1
(B) CH3COCl 2
(C) HOCH2COOC2H5 3

(D) 4

Q.11 What will be the order of reactivity of the following carbonyl compounds with Grignard's reagent?
H H CH3 Me3C
(I) C=O (II) C=O (III) C=O (IV) C=O
H CH3 CH3 Me3C
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) IV > III > II > I
(C) II > I > IV > III (D) III > II > I > IV

OH
Q.12 Carbonyl compound (X) + Grignard reagent (Y) Me Ph
Et
X , Y will be
O O
|| ||
(A) Et  C  Ph , Me Mg Br (B) Me  C  Ph , Et Mg Br
O O
|| ||
(C) Me  C  Et , Ph Mg Br (D) Et  C  Ph , Et Mg Br

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Q.13 (R) - 2-Bromooctane (

i ) Mg
 X
(ii ) CO 2
(iii ) H 

X is

(A) (B)

(C) A and B both (D) None of these

Q.14 In which one of the following reaction products are not correctly matched in
(A) RMgX + CO2   
Carboxylic acid
(2) H

(B) RMgX + C2H5OH  Alkane

(C) RMgX + CH3CH2Cl  Alkene
(D) RMgX + Cl O  Ether

Q.15 The number of moles of grignard reagent consumed per mole of the compound

is:

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 1

Q.16 Select the correct statement:

(A) 1,4-dibromobutane react with excess of magnesium in ether to generate di-Grignard reagent.
(B) 1,2-dichlorocyclohexane treated with excess of Mg in ether produces cyclohexene.
(C) Vicinal dihalides undergo dehalogenation to give alkene when heated with Zn dust or Mg.
(D) 1,3-dichloropropane by treatment with Zn dust or Mg forms cyclopropane.
O
||
CH3  C CH3 
Q.17 CH3–CH=CH2 Br
2       H
Mg
Dry ether
 NH4 Cl 
End product of above reaction is
CH 2
||
(A) CH 2  CH  CH 2  C  CH 3 (B) H 2C  CH  CH  C  CH 3
|
OH CH 3
|
(C) H 2C  CH  CH 2  C  CH 3 (D) H 2C  CH  CH 2  CH  CH 2  OH
| |
CH 3 CH 3

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O
Q.18 MgBr + H–C–Cl  product.

O
||
(A) C  CH 3 (B) CH2CH=O

(C) CH = O (D) CH  CH 3
|
CH  O
Br
Q.19  1
. Mg / ether
    Product (s)

2. CH 3CHCH2 CH 3. H 3O
| ||
OH O
Select the product from the following

I: II : CH 3CHCH 2CH III :

| ||
OH O
(A) III (B) I, III (C) I, II (D) II, III

O
||
Q.20 C 2 H 5 O  C  OC 2 H 5 2
CH 3MgBr
  A. Product A formed
(A) is ethyl acetate
(B) further react with CH3MgBr/H2O+ to give acetone
(C) further react with CH3MgBr/H2O+ to give t-butyl alcohol
(D) Can give pinacol when treated with Mg followed by H2O

Q.21 Order of rate of reaction of following compound with phenyl magnesium bromide is:
O O O
|| || ||
Me  C  Cl Me  C  H Me  C  O  Et
I II III
(A) I > II > III (B) II > III > I (C) III > I > II (D) II > I > III

Q.22 Select the correct order of decreasing reactivity of the following compounds towards the attack of
Grignard reagent
(I) Methyl benzoate (II) Benzaldehyde (III) Benzoylchloride (IV) Acetophenone
(A) II > III > I > IV (B) III > IV > II > I
(C) III > II > IV > I (D) II > IV > I > III

CH3MgX
Q.23 O NH4Cl Product is
(A) Enantiomer (B) Diastereisomer (C) Meso (D) Achiral

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Q.24 Nucleophilic addition of Grignard reagent cannot occur in
O O O O
|| || || ||
(A) CH 3  C  C  CH 3 (B) CH 3  C  CH 2  C  CH 3

O O
|| || O
(C) CH 3  C  CH 2  CH 2  C  CH 3 (D)
O

CH MgBr
Q.25 CH 3CCH 2CH 2CH 2Cl 3 A, A is

||
O
CH 3
|
(A) CH 3 CCH 2 CH 2 CH 2 Cl (B) CH 3CCH 2CH 2CH 2CH 3
|
OH ||
O
(C) (D)

O O
|| ||
Q.26 CH 3CCH 2 CH 2 COCH 2 CH 3 (
i ) CH 3MgBr ( one mol )
     A, A formed in this reaction is
( ii ) H 3O 

OH O O O
| || || ||
(A) CH 3CCH 2CH 2COCH 2CH 3 (B) CH 3CCH 2CH 2CCH 3
|
CH 3

CH 3 CH 3
| |
(C) (D) CH 3CCH 2CH 2CCH 3
| |
OH OH

Cl2 Mg 3 CH CHO
Q.27 PhCH3  (A)  (B)    (C)
h ether NH4 Cl
CH3
OH
| OH CH3 OH
CH2 – CH – CH3 CH3 |
CH – CH3 C – CH3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CH CH3
HO CH3

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Q.28 Select the correct order of reactivity towards Grignard reagent for nucleophilic attack.
O O
|| ||
(A) R  C  R > R  C  H
(B) Cl  CH 2  C  H > CH 3CH 2  C  H
|| ||
O O

O O
|| ||
(C) CH 3  C  O NO2 < CH 3  C  O

O O
|| ||
(D) R  C  OR > R  C  NR 2

Q.29 In the reaction sequence:

( i ) CH MgBr / CuCl
 3    (X) Major + (Y)
( ii ) H 2O / H 

(X) & (Y) respectively are

OH CH3 OH
(A) , (B) ,
CH3

(C) , (D) ,

(2)
O OH
C
Q.30 O (3)
RMgX
( 2 moles)
 
H
H
(1)
S
C


CH
(4)

Deprotonation will occur from the following positions:

(A) 1,2 (B) 1,3 (C) any two positions (D) 1,4

Q.31 Which of the following reacts with 4 moles of RMgX.

COCl CH2–Cl
ROC
(A) (B)
CHO COOEt
OH

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CH=CH2
EtO CHO
O
O
(C) O (D) RN
H O
Et

Br
14
NaHCO
Q.32 Mg
 (A) (
i ) CO 2
 (B)  3  (C) gas
( ii ) H  / H 2O
Product C is
(A) CO (B) 14CO
2
(C) CO2 (D) A mixture of 14CO2 and CO2
3 ( i ) CH ONH
Q.33 2CH3 MgBr ( 2 
ii ) H 

(A) CH3 –O–NH–CH3 (B) CH3–NH–CH3

(C) CH3 –NH2 (D) CH3 –OH

O OH

Q.34 (
i ) CH 3MgBr
  (A)
( ii ) H  / H 2 O

CH3
(A) The product is optically active
(B) The product contains plane of symmetry
(C) The product shows geometrical isomerism.
(D) The product shows optical isomerism.

Q.35 Which of the following is incorrect.

O
O
C ||
CH3MgX
(A) Cl OC2H5     CH 3  C  OC2 H 5
(1 eq )

O
OC2H5 ||
C 2 H5MgX
(B) CH3–C OC2H5    CH 3  C  OC2 H 5
(1eq )
OC2H5
S S
||  ||
(C) CH3MgX + C = S H
3O
 CH 3  C  SH
O O
||  ||
(D) CH3MgX + C = O H
3O
 CH3  C  OH

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 GRIGNARD REAGENT FINAL LAP - 2019
Q.36 Which of the following reacts faster with RMgX.
O O O O
|| || || ||
(A) R  C  Br (B) R  C  H (C) R  C  OEt (D) R  C  NH 2

O
||

Q.37 CH3MgBr + CH2=CH  C  H H Product (1, 4 addition). It is
3O

OH
|
(A) CH 2  CH  C  H (B) CH 2CH  CH  CH 3
| |
CH 3 OH
(C) CH3CH2CH2CHO (D) none

Q.38 (
i ) PhMgBr
  Product.
(ii ) NH 4Cl

Me
Products in this reaction will be
(A) Stereoisomers (B) Enantiomer (C) Diastereomers (D) Geometrical isomers

CH MgBr (1 eq .)
Q.39 3   ?

The product is:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.40 CH2 = C = O (

i ) Br2
 C4H8O
(ii ) CH 3MgBr
( 2 equi )

(A) (B) (C) (D) All of these

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( i ) CH CN
Q.41 RMgX  3   (A) ( i ) RMgX
 (B) will be
( ii ) H 3O  ( ii ) aq. NH 4Cl
(A) 1° ROH (B) 2° ROH (C) 3° ROH (D) Alkene

Q.42 CH3—CH—CH2 CH

3MgCl

H 2O
O
(A) CH 3  CH  CH 2OH (B) CH 3  CH  CH 2  CH 3
| |
CH 3 OH
(C) CH 3  CH  CH 3 (D) HO – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH
|
CH 3

Q.43 The reaction of 1 mole each of p-hydroxy acetophenone and methyl magnesium iodide will give
O O
(A) CH4 + IMgO C—CH3 (B) CH3–O C—CH3

OMgI MgI
O
(C) CH3–C OH (D) CH3O C—CH3
CH3

r1
Q.44 (i) + Ph Mg Br 
 Ph CH2 CH2 OH
O

r2
(ii) + Ph Mg Br  Ph CH2 CH2 CH2 OH
O
(A) r2 > r1 (B) r1 > r2 (C) r1 = r2 (D) r1 = 2r2

Q.45 How many moles of Grignard reagent will be required by one mole of given compound?
O
SH
HO C – OEt

C – Cl
CH2–CH2 O
Cl
(A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 5

Q.46 Consider the given organometallic compound.

(I) (CH3)2Hg (II) (CH3)2Zn (III) (CH3)2Mg (IV) CH3Li
The correct decreasing order of ionic character is
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) II > I > III > IV (C) I > III > II > IV (D) IV > III > II > I

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O (i) CH3MgBr
|| + P
(ii) H3O
Q.47 CH3CH = CH  C  CH 3
(i) CuI,CH3MgBr
+ Q
(ii) H3O

OH OH
| |
(A) P is CH3CH = CH  C  Me Q is CH3CH = CH  C  Me
| |
Me Me

O OH
|| |
(B) P is CH 3CH  CH 2  C  CH 3 Q is CH3CH = CH  C  Me
| |
CH 3 Me

(C) P is CH 3CH  CH  C(CH 3 ) 2 Q is (CH 3 ) 2 CHCH 2C  CH 3

| ||
OH O

(D) P is (CH 3 ) 2 CHCH 2C  CH 3 Q is CH 3CH  CH  C(CH 3 ) 2

|| |
O OH
For Q. No.48 to Q. No. 50
Consider the given reaction and answer the following questions
COOCH3

MeMgBr
  Products
O OCH3 (excess)
O SH
||
O

Q.48 No. of RMgX consumed in the reaction is

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

Q.49 How many product will be fromed in given reaction (excluding stereo)
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

Q.50 Which of the following reaction will give the same Hydrocarbon formed as one of the product in the
above reaction.
(A) EtMgBr + Me – OH  (B) PhMgBr + Me – OH 
(C) MeMgBr + Ph – OH  (D) MeMgBr + CH3 – CHO 

Q.51 Compare the two methods shown for the preparation of carboxylic acids:
Mg (i ) CO 2
Method 1: RBr   RMgBr    RCO2H
diethyl ether (ii ) H3O 

H O , HCl
Method 2 : RBr NaCN 2
 RCN   RCO2H
heat

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Which of the following statements correctly describes this conversion?



(A) Both method 1 and method 2 are appropriate for carrying out this conversion.
(B) Neither method 1 nor method 2 is appropriate for carrying out this conversion.
(C) Method 1 will work well, but method 2 is not appropriate.
(D) Method 2 will work well, but method 1 is not appropriate.

Q.52 Which of the given compound can not show acid-base reaction with Grignard reagent.

(A) CH3–NO2 (B) (C) Cl (D)

Cl O
C
Cl O O

Q.53 (a) O RMgCl

 Number of moles of Grignard reagent consumed.
Cl ( excess )

OMe SH

(b) Number of mole of Grignard consumed in given molecule.(When Grignard reagent is in excess)
ONH2
O
O
O NHCl

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Q.1 A Q.2 D Q.3 C Q.4 A,B Q.5 C

Q.6 C Q.7 A Q.8 B,C,D Q.9 D Q.10 A

Q.11 A Q.12 A,B,C Q.13 C Q.14 C Q.15 A

Q.16 A,C,D Q.17 B Q.18 C Q.19 C Q.20 C,D

Q.21 A Q.22 C Q.23 A Q.24 B,D Q.25 C

Q.26 C Q.27 A,B,C Q.28 B,D Q.29 B Q.30 A

Q.31 D Q.32 C Q.33 C,D Q.34 B,C Q.35 B

Q.36 D Q.37 C Q.38 A,C,D Q.39 D Q.40 A

Q.41 C Q.42 B Q.43 A Q.44 B Q.45 A

Q.46 D Q.47 C Q.48 C Q.49 C Q.50 C

Q.51 C Q.52 D Q.53 (a)-7, (b)-7

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 OXIDATION & REDUCTION FINAL LAP - 2019

OXIDATION OF ALKENES, ALCOHOLS & CARBONYL COMPOUNDS

(I) OXIDATION OF ALKENES

OsO4
R–CH=CR2 R–CH—CR2
H2O
OH OH
Cold dil. R–CH—CR2
alkaline
KMnO4 OH OH
* Cold dil. alkaline KMnO4 is called as Bayer’s reagent.
* Overall syn addition
* Given by alkenes & alkynes
* Benzene & Cyclopropane can not give this reaction.
If we use acidic KMnO4 or warm KMnO4 or too concentrated KMnO4 the oxidative cleavage of
Glycol occurs resulting in mixture of Carboxylic acids & Ketones.

H ,KMnO 4
R–CH = CR2     RCOOH + R2C = O

Hot acidic KMnO4, Hot acidic K2Cr2O7 & hot acidic NaIO4 gives same result with alkene. The effect
is similar to that of oxidative ozonolysis on alkenes.

Preilschaive reaction :
Epoxidation of alkenes is reaction of alkenes with peroxyacids.
O O
|| ||
CH2=CH2 + CH 3  C  O  O  H  CH2–CH2 + CH 3  C  OH
O
 With the decrease in nucleophilicity of double bond, rate of reaction decreases.
 With the decrease in ewithdrawing substituents in leaving group, rate decreases.
+
R H R
R R
CH dil.H2SO4 CH + + –H+ HO–CH
O O–H H2O–CH
CH2 CH2
CH2–OH CH2–OH

H2O

RCO3H
O
RCO3H OH R R
H 3O CH + 1 O Ag
OH CH
2 2  O
HCO3H OH CH2 CH2
OH

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(II) OXIDATION OF ALCOHOLS
Oxidising agents

(1) Cu / 300°C (or Red hot Cu tube) (2) H /KMnO4,  (Strong oxidising agent)
(3) H/K2Cr2O7,  (Strong oxidising agent) (4) PCC (Pyridinium chloro chromate)


N CrO3 Cl or N
CrO3 + HCl
H
(5) Collin’s reagent (6) Sarett reagent (i.e. PCC in CH2Cl2)

( (2 mol) + CrO3 + CH2Cl2) + CrO3 + HCl + CH2Cl2

N N

(7) PDC (8) Jones reagent (H2CrO4 in Anhydrous acetone)

( Pyridinium dichromate )
Cr2O7
N or CrO3 + H2SO4 in acetone.
 2 Sufficiently mild so that it oxidises alcohols
without oxidising or rearranging double bonds
(8 or 9)
(9) TsCl + DMSO + NaHCO3 (10) MnO2-Oxidises only allylic or benzylic–OH.i.e.
TsCl
RCH2OH s DMSO
 RCH2OTs
  RCHO 1° Allylic or benzylic OH MnO
2  Aldehyde
NaHCO3

TsCl
R2CHOH s DMSO
 R2CH–OTs
  R2CO 2° Allylic or benzylic OH MnO
2  Ketone
NaHCO3

Ts
R3COH Cl  DMSO
s 
 R3C–OTs
NaHCO3
× No effect on 3° ROH and on Carbon-carbon
multiple bond.
(11) Periodic cleavage (12) NBS
A similar oxidation is obtained incase of HIO4
known as periodic cleavage. (13) Openaur oxidation
O
R – CH – R Al(OCMe3)3 R–C–R
O O O
OH CH3 –C – CH3
R–CH–OH HO–I=O R–CH
+ + 
R2C–OH R2C=O R2CH–OH + Al(OCMe3)3Me3COH + Al(OCHR2)3
O
+
O HIO3 (R2CH–O)2 Al–O
O CR2
R– CH — O – I = O H
3Me2C
R2C–O–H O
3R2C=O + (Me2C–O)3 Al
But reaction is only observed for Vic-diols. Oxidation of alcohol with aluminium tertiary
butoxide is Openaur oxidation.
OH O
Al (OCMe3)3
acetone

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Different oxidising agents are used to oxidise alcohols in corresponding carbonyl compounds and carboxylic
acids.
mild oxidising
e.g. (I) R  CH 2  OH   R  C  H (Aldehyde) eg. 1,4,5,6,7,8,9,12
1alcohol
agent ||
O
OH O
| mild oxidising
||
(II) R  CH  R '    R  C  R ' (Ketone) eg.1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,12,13
agent
2alcohol

strong oxidising
(III) R  CH 2  OH    R  C  OH eg. 2,3
agent ||
1alcohol
O

CH 3 CH2
| Cu 300C
(IV) CH 3  C  OH   C Dehydration takes place.
| CH3 CH3
CH 3
(V) Double bond or Tripple bond is not affected by 1,4,5,6,7,8,9,10
(VI) No effect on 3° alcohol by 2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,12,13

(III) OXIDATION OF CARBONYL COMPOUNDS.

1. RCHO + [Ag(NH3)2]OH   RCOOH + NH3 + Ag 

Aldehyde acts as reducing agent, they can reduce mild oxidizing agents like Tollen’s Reagent. Tollen’s
test Gentle Heating for 20 to 25 mins.

COONa
2. Fehling’s Solutions
H OH
Fehling’s A Fehling’s B
aq. CuSO4 Alk. solution of Roschelle H OH
salt (sodium potassium tartrate) COOK
It act’s a carrier for Cu2+ as it make reversible complex with Cu2+
This test is also used is Blood and Urine test.
H 2O
RCHO + Cu2+  RCOOH  Cu 
  
RCOO – Cu 2O ( red ppt.)

3. Benedict’s solution
Sodium Citrate + NaOH + NaHCO3 + CuSO4
H 2O
RCHO + Cu2+  RCOOH  Cu 
  
RCOO – Cu 2O ( red ppt.)

4. RCHO + HgCl2 + H2O  RCOOH + 2HCl + Hg2Cl2


RCHO + Hg2Cl2 + H2O  RCOOH + 2HCl + 2Hg  greyish solution

5. Schiff’s Reagent
Schiff’s Reagent is aq. solution of following base decolourised by passing SO2.
Aldehyde restore pink colour of Schiff’s reagent.
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NH2 NH2

SO 2 Colourless RCHO
C RCOOH + Pink colour
solution 
(Schiff’s Reagent)

+ NH
2Cl

p-Rosaniline Hydrochloride
Magenta colour (Fuschin)
Ketons are not easy to oxidize so they do not give these 5 tests. These five tests can be used to distinguish
aldehyde and ketones. Both gives 2,4 DNP test

KETONES ARE DIFFICULT TO OXIDIZE

Ketones can be oxidized from their enolic form at high temperature with very strong oxidizing agent.
Oxidation of ketones is sometimes governed by Popoff’s rule. According to this rule carbonyl group
remains with the smaller alkyl group. More electron rich alkene will be easy to oxidized.
O
[O]
Me – C – Me MeCOOH + CO2 + H2O

Allylic oxidation
SeO2 is a selective oxidizing agent with converts –CH2– group adjacent to carbonyl group into carbonyl
group.The reagent, in general, oxidises active methylene and methyl groups to ketonic and aldehydic
groups respectively.
O O O O O
|| SeO2
|| || || SeO2
||
 CH 2  C    C  C  ;  C  CH 3    C  CHO
Double bonds, triple bonds and aromatic rings may also activate the methylene group.The methylene or
methyl group  to the most highly substitued end of the double bond is hydroxylated according to the
order of preference of oxidation CH2 > CH3 > CH groups.
OH
|
SeO 2
CH3= CH–CH3  CH 2  CH  CH 2
2° C – H > 1° C – H > 3° C – H
Rate of reactivity order
CH3 – CH = CH – CH2–CH3 SeO
2  CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2  CH 3
|
OH
CH3 HO–CH2
SeO2
CH – CH3 CH – CH3
CH3 CH3

HO
SeO2

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
H / KMnO H  / KMnO
CH2 = CH2  CH3–CH= CH2 
4 4
Q.1 (i) (ii)
 

 
H / KMnO4 H / KMnO4
(iii)  (iv) 
 

 
H / KMnO4 H / KMnO4
(v)  (vi) 
 

 
H / KMnO4 H / KMnO4
(vii)  (viii) 
 

 
H / KMnO4 H / KMnO4
(ix)  (x) 
 


H / KMnO4
(xi) 


H  / KMnO
C10H10 
4
(xii) HOOC  C  C  C  COOH
 |
C  COOH

Q.2 A to F alkenes with minimum possible carbon.

H  / KMnO
A 
4
(i) MeCOOH as the only product


H  / KMnO
B 
4
(ii) O as the only organic product


H  / KMnO
C 
4
(iii) MeCH2COOH as the only organic product


H  / KMnO
D 
4
(iv)

O
O
H / KMnO4  ||
(v) E  HOOC  C  C  C  C  C  C  C  C  COOH
 ||
O
H  / KMnO
F 
4
(vi) acetone + ethanoic acid


1% alkaline mCPBA
Q.3 (i) (A) (ii)
KMnO4

mCPBA\hydrolysis

(B)

Me Me
mCPBA mCPBA
(iii) hydrolysis (iv) C=C hydrolysis
Me H H
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Me Me 1
H H Ag2O or 2Ag + O
mCPBA 2 2
(v) C=C (vi) C=C 
H Me hydrolysis H Ph

KMnO / OH ¯,
Q.4 (i) CH3– CH2 – CH2 – OH  4   ?

or KMnO 4 / H ,


K2Cr2O7 / H , 
?
or conc. HNO 3, 

OH
| KMnO ,H 
(ii) CH 3  CH  CH 2  CH 3  4  ?

or K 2Cr2O 7 , H

OH
HO (1)
?
(2) or (3)
?
(4) or (5) or (6)
(iii) OH ?
or (7) or (8) or (9)
HO
(10)
?

Q.5 (i) CH2 = CH – (CH2)3 – CH2 – OH PCC



(ii) C6H5 – CH = CH – CH2 –OH PCC



OH
| (i ) Dil NaOH
(iii) CH 3  CH  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  OH PCC
 (A)    (B)
( ii ) 

OH
(iv) PCC
 (v) CH2 = CH – CH2–OH MnO
2  ?

CH2OH

OH
MnO
(vi) CH3O CH–CH2 –CH2 –OH 2  ?
Acetone

CH3O

CH 3 OH
| MnO 2 |
(vii) CH  C  CH  C  CH 2  OH Acetone
 ? (viii) C 6 H 5  CH  CH 3 MnO
2  ?
CCl 4

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 OXIDATION & REDUCTION FINAL LAP - 2019

(ix) C 6 H 5  CH  CH  CH 2  CH  CH 2  OH DMSO
 TsCl  NaHCO3
  ?
|
CH 3

Q.6 (i) HO Aluminium

  tert butoxide
  ?
Acetone

OH
|
(ii) CH 2  CH  CH 2  CH  CH 3 Aluminium
  tert butoxide

OH

(iii) Aluminium
  tert butoxide
  ?
p  benzoquinone

Q.7 Which one of the following alcohols are oxidised by MnO2?

OH
|
(A) C6H5 – CH2 – CH2–OH (B) CH 2  CH  CH 2  CH  CH 3
OH
|
(C) CH 3  CH  CH  CH  CH 3 (D) CH3–CH2 – CH2 –OH

Q.8
HIO HIO
(i) Me  CH  CH 2  OH 4  (ii) Me 2 C — CH — Et 4 
 
| | |
OH OH OH
OH
(iv) HO  CH 2  CH 2  CH
(iii) HIO
4   CH 2  OH HIO 4
 | 
OH 
OH
(v) CH 2 — CH  CH 2  CH 3 HIO
4  (vi) CH 2 — CH  CH  CH 3 HIO 4 
 | | | 
| |
OH OH OH OH OH
(vii) CH 2 — CH  CH  CH 2 HIO
4  (viii) Me  C  CH  Me HIO
4 
| | | |  || | 
OH OH OH OH O OH
(ix) Me  C  C  Me HIO
4 
| | || 
O O

Q.9 Which will give the Tollen test.

O OH O OMe O OH HO
|| |
(i) H (ii) (iii) R  C  CH 2 (iv)
HO

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O O
[O] [O]
Q.10 (a) C – C – C –C (b) Me2CH–C–Me
 
O
O [O]
[O]
(c) Me3C–C–Me (d)
 

SeO2 SeO2
Q.11 (a) CH3–CHO (b) Me2CO
 

O
SeO2
(c) C – C – C –C CP1– C–mCPBA
C–C P2 LAH
 P3


O SeO
2
(d) (e) SeO2


O
CH3 C H

? Acrolein 2 step
(f) CH3 – CH = CH2 (g)
(1) step etard

O O O +
SeO2 conc. NaOH H /
(h) CH3 –C – H H–C–C–H P1 P2

Q.12 How will you differentiate HCHO and PhCHO ?

Q.13 How will you differentiate HCHO and MeCHO ?

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 OXIDATION & REDUCTION FINAL LAP - 2019
Reducing agents and their role

Group Product LAH in LiAlH(OCMe3)3 NaBH4 LiAH4 B2H6 H2+

ether in THF in EtOH +AlCl3 in THF catalyst

–CHO –CH2OH + – + + + +

>C=O >CH–OH + – + + + +

–CO2H –CH2OH + – – + + +

–CO2R –CH2OH + – – + + +

–COCl –CH2OH + +* + + – +

–CONH2 –CH2NH2 + – – + + +

(RCO)2O RCH2OH + – – + + +

–CN –CH2NH2 + – – + + +

>C=NOH –CH2NH 2 + – – + – +

>C=C< >CH–CH< – – – – + +

–CC– –CH=CH– – – – + + +

1° RX RH + – – + – +

* Product is RCHO

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Q.1 How many alkene on catalytic reduction give corresponding products.
(i) (A) H 2 / Pt
 n-butane (ii) (B) H 2 / Pt
 Iso-pentane
(iii) (C) H
2 / Pt
 Neo-pentane (iv) (D) H
2 / Pt
 Cyclopentane
H2
(v) (E) 
Pt

Q.2 Give the expected major product for each reaction, including stereochemistry where applicable.
H2 D2
(a) CH3–CH2–CH=CH2 
Pt
P1 (b) Pt P2

H3C H Me
C=C D2
 P
(c) Ni 3 (d) Ni
/ H2  P4
H CH3 Me
H 2/Pt
excess P5
(e) H 2/Pt
1 eq. P6
H 2/Pt H 2/Pt
excess P1 excess P3
Q.3 (i) CH2 = CH–CH2 – CH = O H 2/Pt (ii) CH2=CH–CH2–CN H 2/Pt
1 eq. P2 1 eq. P4
Q.4 Identify the product?
NaBH4 LiAlH4
(i)    Me–CHO LiAlH
 4  (ii) NaBH4
   Me2CO   
NaBH4
(iii)    Me–COCl LiAlH
 4  (iv) NaBH4

LiAlH4
  Me–COOEt   
NaBH4 LiAlH4 NaBH4
(v)    Me–COOH    (vi)    Me–COOMe LiAlH
 4 
NaBH4 LiAlH4
(vii)    Me–CONH2 LiAlH
 4  (viii) NaBH4
   Me–CONH–Me   
NaBH4 NaBH4 LiAlH4
(ix)    Me–CONMe2 LiAlH
4  (x)    Me–CH=NH   
NaBH4
(xi)    CH3–CH = CH2 LiAlH
 4 
Q.5 Give product in following reactions.
NaBH4 LiAlH4 NaBH4 LiAlH4
(i)   O    (ii)    H–N O   

LiAlH4
(iii) NaBH4
  O    (iv) NaBH4
  LiAlH
 4 
N N
H

(v) NaBH4
  O LiAlH
 4  (vi) NaBH4
 
LiAlH4
O   
O O
O

(vii) NaBH4
   Me–CO–N LiAlH
 4  (viii) NaBH4

LiAlH4
  CH2=CH–CHO   

LiAlH4
(ix) NaBH4
   Ph–CH=CH–CHO    (x) NaBH4
  LiAlH
 4 
O

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Q.6 Give product in following reactions.
O
O
(a) H Re
dP  HI
 (b) Re
dP  HI

OH
CHO
COCH3

(c) Re
dP  HI

HO CH 2OH

Q.7 Give product in following reactions.

(i) LAH
 (ii)
N O

H3CCOO COOCH3
LAH
(iii) CH3– CH – CH2 (iv) LiAlH
 4  (A) + (B) + (C)
O
LAH
AlCl3
O

(v)
O

Q.8 Give product in following reactions.

CHO
O
LAH
(i) NaBH4 (ii) C—OEt (A)NaOI
 (B)
O
COOEt

(iii) LiAlH 4, D 2O

LiAlH4
H2O

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Q.9

(a) O=C—CH3    (A) NBS

Zn ( Hg )
 (B) alc
 .
(C) HCl
 (D)
HCl KOH R 2O 2

O O
Zn ( Hg ) || Zn ( Hg )
(b)  
 (c) Ph  C  CH 3  

HCl ,  HCl

O O
(d) Zn
( Hg
) 
 (e) (
i ) H 2 NNH 2
 
HCl , H 2 O
(ii ) KOH ,heat

N2H4
KOH, heat
O O (excess)
(f) Zn(Hg)
O HCl
(excess)

Q.10 Suggest appropriate reagents for following conversion.

O OH
O
(i) ?
 O
C—H
C—H
O OH
O C—OEt ? O C—H
(ii) 

H

OH
A

O O

(iii) B

OH
C

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 OXIDATION & REDUCTION FINAL LAP - 2019

OXIDATION
Q.1 (i) CO 2 (ii) CH3–COOH + CO2

(iii) O + CO2 + HOOC – C – C – C–COOH (iv) O + CH3–COOH

COOH
(v) (vi) O
COOH COOH

O
(vii) (viii) 2CH3–COOH + CO2
O

COOH CH 2  COOH O CH 2  COOH

(ix) | + | (x) + |
COOH CH 2  COOH O CH 2  COOH
O COOH
(xi)
HOOC O
(xii) CH  C  CH 2  CH  CH 2  C  CH
|
CH 2
|
C  CH

Q.2 (i) Me–CH=CH–CH3 (ii)

(iii) Me–CH2–CH=CH–CH2–CH3 (iv)

(v) (vi)

OH
Q.3 (i) (A) OH (ii) O
(B)
OH
OH
OH Me Me
OH H OH HO H
(iii) (iv) HO H H OH
Me Me
OH OH Me Me
Me
H OH Me H
(v) H OH (vi) C—C
Me H O Ph

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Q.4 (i) CH3–CH2–COO , CH3–CH2–COOH

O
||
(ii) CH 3  C  CH 2  CH 3

O O OH O OH

(iii) (1) (2) or (3) O O
O O
O O
CHO O COOH

O OH

(4) or (5) or (6) or (7) or (8) or (9)

O
CHO

OH
HO

(10)
O
HO

Q.5 (i) CH2 = CH – (CH2)3 – CHO (ii) Ph – CH = CH – CHO

O
O
||
(iii) (A) H 3C  C  CH 2  CH 2  CHO (B)

(iv) (v) H2C = CH–CHO

CHO
O
CH 3
MeO C–CH2–CH2–OH |
(vi) (vii) CH  C  CH  C  CHO
MeO
O
||
(viii) Ph  C  CH 3 (ix) Ph  CH  CH  CH 2  CH  CHO
|
CH 3
O O
|| CHO
Q.6 (i) (ii) CH 2  CH  CH 2  C  CH 3 (iii)

Q.7 C

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Q.8 (i) Me–CHO + HCHO (ii) O + Et – CHO

CHO
(iii) (iv) HO–CH2–CH2–CHO + HCHO
CHO

(v) HCHO + CH3– CH2–CHO (vi) HCHO + HCOOH + CH3–CHO

(vii) 2HCHO + 2HCOOH (viii) Me–COOH + Me–CHO

(ix) 2 Me–COOH

Q.9 (i), (iii), (iv)

O O O
[O] Me CH–C–Me(c) Me3C–COOH + CO2 + H2O
Q.10 (a) Me CH–C–Me(b)
2C–COOH Me2CO + MeCOOH
COOH
(d) COOH
SeO SeO
Q.11 (a)
CH –CHO CH – CHO (b) Me – C – C – H
O O O
O O O O O
SeO2 | | || | | ||
(c) C – C – C –C mCPBA
CC–CC–CC–CC  C  C  O  C  C LAH
 CH3–CH2–OH


O SeO O HO
(d) (e)
O

O
CH3 C H

? Acrolein 2 step
(f) CH3 – CH = CH2 (g)
(1) step etard
SeO2
MnO2 SeO2
CH2 – CH = CH2 H – C – CH = CH2
CH2 OH MnO2
OH O

O O O +
SeO2 conc. NaOH H /
(h) CH3 –C – H H–C–C–H HCOONa HCOOH
+ CH3OH + CH3OH
Q.12 F and B test Q.13 Iodoform test

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 OXIDATION & REDUCTION FINAL LAP - 2019
REDUCTION
CCC  C CC  CC CCCC
Q.1 (i) cis & trans 2-butene & 1-butene; (ii) | ||
|
C C C
(iii) zero (Neo-pentane can not be prepared by catalytic hyrogenation of alkene); (iv) One

(v) Including optical = 4 , Excluding optical = 3

Q.2 (a) (b)

D
CH3 CH3
CH3
H D D H
H
(c) D H H D (d) CH3
CH3 CH3 H

(e) *

2 G.I.

Q.3 (i) P1 CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH

P2 CH2=CH–CH2–CH2–OH

(ii) P3 CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–NH2

P4 CH2=CH–CH2–CH = NH

Q.4 (i) MeCH2–OH, Me–CH2OH (ii) Me2CH–OH, Me2CH–OH

(iii) MeCH2–OH, Me–CH2OH (iv) No reaction , Me–CH2–OH + EtOH

(v) No reduction, MeCH2–OH (vi) No reaction, MeCH2–OH + MeOH

(vii) No reduction, MeCH2NH2 (viii) No reaction, Me–CH2–NH–Me

Me
(ix) No reduction, MeCH2–N (x) No reaction, Me–CH2–NH2
Me
(xi) No reaction, No reaction

Q.5 (i) OH , OH (ii) NH OH , NH OH

(iii) No reaction, (iv) No reaction,

NH NH

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(v) No reaction, CH2OH (vi) No reaction, CH2OH

OH OH

(vii) No reaction, Me–CH2–N (viii) CH 2=CH–CH2–OH, CH2=CH–CH2–OH

(ix) Ph–CH=CH–CH2–OH, Ph–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH

(x) ,
HO HO

Q.6 (a) (b) (c)

CH3

OH CH OH
2
Q.7 (i) (ii)
N

(iii) CH3– CH – CH3 , CH3–CH2–CH2OH

OH
HO CH2OH OH
NaOI
(iv) + MeOH (B) + Et–OH (C)   By only (C)
test
(v)
CH2OH
(A)
Q.8
CHO CH2OH
CH2OH
(i) NaBH4 OH + EtOH
OH O
COOEt CH CH2OH
CH COOEt
CH3
CH3

(ii) CH2OH + EtOHNaOI

 +Iodoform test

OD OH
(iii) H

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Q.9

(a)
O
H
C—CH3 CH2—CH3 CH=CH2 Cl—CH–CH3
Br—C—CH3
Zn
( Hg
) 
 NBS
 alc
.KOH

 HCl

HCl R 2O 2

(b) (c) Ph–CH2–CH3 (d) (e)

O O
(f) ,

R R O
HO—CH2
Q.10 (i) Protection Glycol C=O +  C cyclic-acetal
H HO—CH2 H O
Glycol is used for protection of aldehyde and Ketone.
O
O
CH2–OH OH
O CH2–OH
C—H H
 O LiAlH
 4  O
CH H 3O 
O C—H
(iii) (A) Ni will reduce alkene, aldehyde and all it is not specific ;(B) NH2 – NH2 / H2O2 ;(C) LiAlH4

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(1) ALDOL CONDENSATION

The -hydrogen of carbonyl compounds are acidic due to the fact that the anion (enolate ion) is stabilized
by resonance.

H
| OH (base) 
CH2 – C – H CH2 = C – H CH2 – C – H
|| | ||
O O O
(3 Hydrogens) (enolate anion) (enolate anion)

Base catalysed Aldol

In aqueous base, two acetaldehyde molecules react to form a -hydroxy aldehyde called aldol. The
reaction is called Aldol condensation. The enolate ion is the intermediate in the aldol condensation of
aldehyde and ketone. Acetaldehyde for instance, forms a dimeric product aldol in presence of a dilute
base (10% NaOH).

O H / HOH 
2CH3CHO    CH 3  CH  CH 2  CHO  CH3 – CH = CH – CHO
5 C |  H 2O
OH
-hydroxy butyraldehyde (Aldol)
Mechanism :
 O
OH
H H–C–CH3 O
H–O–H
H–C–CH H–C=CH rds H–C–CH –CH–CH
2 2 2 3

O O O
OH OH


H–C–CH=CH–CH3
–OH
H–C=CH–CH–CH3 H–C–CH–CH–CH3

OH O H
O O
Aldols are stable and may be isolated. They, however can be dehydrated easily by heating the basic
reaction mixture or by a separate acid catalyzed reaction. Thus if the above reaction is heated the
product is dehydrated to 2-butenal (crotonaldehyde).

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Acid catalysed Aldol
In acid catalysed aldol condensation enol form of carbonyl is the nucelophile in place of enolate.
Mechanism :
O +
O
H / H2O,
CH3–C–CH3 CH3–C=CH–C–CH3
CH3
( unsaturated

carbonyl compound)
O O–H OH
+
H
CH3–C–CH3 CH3–C–CH3 CH3–C=CH2
 
O–H O–H O–H OH

CH3–C=CH2 + CH3–C–CH3 CH3–C—CH2–C–CH3


–H
CH3


O O OH2 O OH

H
CH3–C–CH=C–CH3 CH3–C—CH–C–CH3 CH3–C—CH2–C–CH3
–H2O
CH3 H CH3 CH3
(Aldol)
Q.1 Write the product and mechanism for given reactions.


(I) CH 3  CH 2  C  H Dil
NaOH
 (A) 
 (B)
||
O
(II) O Dil
NaOH
 (C)

(III) C6H5 – CH2– CHO Dil

NaOH
 (D)

(IV) O Dil
NaOH
 (E) 
 (F)

(V) C 6 H 5  C  CH 3 Dil
NaOH
 (G)  (H)
||
O
Q.2 Identify the intramolecular aldol product?
O O
|| || 
(I) CH 3  C  CH 2  CH 2  C  CH 3 Dil
NaOH
 (A) 
 (B)

O O
|| ||
(II) CH 3  C  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  C  CH 3 Dil
NaOH
 (C)
O O
|| ||
(III) CH 3  C  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  C  CH 3 Dil
NaOH
 (D)

(IV) Dil
NaOH
 (E) 

(F)

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O O
|| ||
(V) CH 3  C  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  C  CH 3 Dil
 NaOH
 (G)


Q.3 Find out the total number of possible aldol products (including and excluding stereo products)
NaOH / HOH
(I) CH3–CHO + CH3–CH2–CHO  5 C


NaOH / HOH
(II) C6H5 –CHO + CH3–CHO  5 C


NaOH / HOH
(III) CH3–CHO + CH 3  C  CH 3  5 C

||
O
NaOH / HOH
(IV) CH3–CH = O + CH 3  CH 2  C  CH 3  5 C

||
O
NaOH / HOH
(V) C6H5 – CHO + CH 3  CH 2  C  CH 3  5 C

||
O
Q.4 Identify the structure of substrate?
O
Dil NaOH
(I) A   A=?
5 C

OH
OH
|
(II) A Dil
NaOH
 CH 3  C  CH 2 — C — CH 3 A=?
( 2 mole ) 5 C
|| |
O CH 3

Q.5 Complete reaction sequence:


(i ) OH
(i) (
i ) O 3 (1 eq )
  (a)  (b)
(ii ) Zn / H 2O (ii ) 


(i ) OH
(ii)  Product
( ii ) C6 H 5CHO
( iii ) 
O

Q.6 Complete the retro aldol and retro aldol condensation reactions :
O OH

OH CH3 CH–CH3
(i) (X) + (Y) 


O

OH
(ii) (X) 
CH3
OH
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 NAME REACTIONS FINAL LAP - 2019
O

(i ) OH
(iii) [X] 
(ii ) 

(2) CLAISEN CONDENSATION

Esters undergo SNAE Reaction, when attacked by a Nu generated by the interaction of a base
(usually base related to the Alkoxy anion of ester) with one of the molecule of ester and this Nu attacks
on another molecule. The reaction over all is considered as condensation of esters known as claisen
ester condensation.
O O O
|| ( i ) RONa
| | ||
2Me  C  OR     Me  C  CH 2  C  OR
(ii ) Acidification
(-keto ester)
Mechanism :

O
|| RO  Na

(rds)
CH 3  C  OR
 ROH

 
O O O

 RO Na
Na Me–C=CH–COOR Me–C–CH=C–OR
Acidification

O O
|| ||
Me  C  CH 2  C  OR

Some times, when two ester groups are present within the molecule then the condensation occurs
intramolecule then cyclization caused thus is known as Dieckmann cyclization or Dieckmann's
condensation.
(i ) EtOK
Q.1 MeCOOEt    A
( ii ) Acidificat ion

(i ) MeOK
Q.2 EtCOOMe     B
(ii ) Acidificat ion

( i ) MeOK
Q.3 MeCOOMe + EtCOOMe    C
( ii ) Acidificat ion

2 5 ( i ) C H ONa
Q.4 + CH3COOC2H5    D + D’
( ii ) Acidificat ion

COOC 2 H 5
( i ) C 2 H5ONa
Q.5 | + C6H5CH2COOC2H5    E
COOC 2 H 5 ( ii ) Acidificat ion

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(i ) PhONa
Q.6    F
( ii ) Acidificat ion

CH2CH2COOEt
(i ) C H ONa 
Q.7 C2H5 – N     G H
2 5 3O
 H (Piperidone derivative)
( ii ) Acidificat ion 
CH2CH2COOEt

( i ) NaOEt in EtOH
Q.8      I
(ii ) Acidificat ion


Q.9 NaOEt
 J H
3O
 K


COOC 2 H 5 COOC2H5

( i ) C 2 H5ONa H 3O
Q.10 | +    L   M
COOC 2 H 5 COOC2H5 ( ii ) Acidificat ion 

Diethyl-, -Dimethyl
Glutarate

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(3) PERKIN CONDENSATION

In Perkin reaction, condensation has been effected between aromatic aldehydes and aliphatic acid
anhydrides in the presence of sodium or potassium salt of corresponding acid of that anhydride, to yield
, -unsaturated aromatic acids.
C6H5–CHO + CH 3  C  O  C  CH 3 (
i ) CH 3COONa ,
   C6H5 – CH = CH – COOH + CH3COOH
|| || (ii ) H  / H 2O ,
O O

Mech.

( i ) ( CH CH CO ) O / CH CH COONa , 
Q.1 H3C CHO  3 
2
2  3  

2
  A
( ii ) H / H 2O , 

(
i ) ( CH 3CO ) 2 O / CH 3COONa , 
Q.2        B  
 C

( ii ) H 3O

Q.3 (
i ) ( CH 3CO ) 2 O / CH 3COONa ,
       D
( ii ) H  / H 2O ,

(
i ) Sodium Succinate ,
Q.4 C6 H5  C  H +      E
|| (ii ) H 3O 
O

( i ) MeCOONa
( ii ) H 3O  , 
Q.5 + F   

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(4) KNOEVENAGEL REACTION
Reaction of active methylene group with aldehyde & Ketones is known as knoevenagel reaction.


( i ) H 2O / H
RCHO+ Pyridine
  RCH = C(COOR)2     R  CH  CH  COOH
or piperidine (ii )  ,  CO 2

Z can be
O
||
CHO, COOMe, CN, NO2, C  R , SOR, SO2R, SO2OR etc.

Mechanism:
  
R 3 N + H2C(COOR)2  R 3 N H  HC(COOR ) 2


H 2O



( i ) H 2O / H
R–CH = C(COOR)2     R – CH = CHCOOH
(ii )  ,  CO 2

High reactivity of the methylene group of the active methylene compound prevents self-condensation of
the aldehyde.
( i ) Pip
Q.1 CH3CHO + H2C(COOR)2  A
(ii ) H 3O , 

( i ) Pip
Q.2 C6H5CHO + H2C(COOR)2  B
( ii ) H 3O , 

( i ) Pip
Q.3 HOOC  CHO + H2C(COOR)2  C
Glyoxalic acid (ii ) H 3O , 

O
||
Q.4 Ph  C  H + Et
2 NH
 D


O
|| n C H NH
Q.5 Ph  C  H + CH3–NO2 5112  E


O
||
CH 3C NH 2
Q.6 +  F
  
CH 3COOH ,

O
|| NaOEt
Q.7 + Ph  C  H  G

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(5) REFORMATSKY REACTION

-halo esters when treated with Zn in gives organometallic halo ester which provides the attacking Nu
for the another reactant, which is a carbonyl compound. When Nu attacks on carbonyl compound it
gives an intermediate which upon acidic hydrolysis followed by heating, results in formation of -
unsaturated acid. The overall reaction is known as Reformatsky reaction.
O
|| Zn
Ph – CHO + CH 2  C  OEt  Ph – CH = CH – COOH
| H 3O  / 
Br
Benzaldehyde Cinnamic acid
Mechanism :


O O ZnBr
|| |
Zn Ph–CH
CH 2  COOEt  CH2– COOEt Ph–CH–CH2–COOEt
| | 
Br ZnBr H3O
OH
Br |
EtOH + Zn + Ph–CH–CH2–COOH
OH /–H O 2

Ph–CH=CH–COOH
Cinnamic acid

1. Zn
Q.1 C6H5COCH3 + BrCH2COOEt  A
2. H 3 O , 

(i ) Zn
Q.2 (
ii ) PhCHO
  B
(iii ) H3O ,

Q.3 + CH3CHO (

i ) Zn / Ether
  C

( ii ) H 3O ,

1. Zn Se
Q.4 + BrCH2COOEt  
D  E
2. H3O 

Br
|
Se
Q.5 EtO  C  CH  CH 2CH 2CH 2  CH 2  CHO (
i ) Zn / Et 2 O
  F  G
|| ( ii ) H 3O  
O

Q.6 (
i ) Zn / Et 2O
  H
(ii ) CH2 O
(iii ) H3O ,

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(1) Zn + BrCHCH = CH – COOCH 3 (1) SOCl2 (1) Zn + BrCH2COOEt

Q.7  I (2) CH Li J  K
(2) H3O (3) , – H 2O 3 (2) H 3O (3) , – H 2O

LiAlH4
CH2OH

Vitamin A1

(6) CANNIZARO REACTION

This reaction is given by aldehyde having no  - hydrogens in the presence of conc. NaOH/ or KOH/.
O O
|| ||
KOH
H  C  H  H  C  O  K+ + CH3OH

Mechanism :
O O
O O || ||
r.d.s 
H–C–H C CH 3 – O + H–C–O–H  CH 3OH H – C – O 
+
OH H H
In the presence of a very strong concentration of alkali, aldehyde first forms a doubly charged anion (I)
from which a hydride anion is transferred to the second molecule of the aldehyde to form acid and an
alkoxide ion. Subsequently, the alkoxide ion acquires a proton from the solvent.
O 
O 
O
OH OH
H–C H–C–H H–C–H
(I)
H OH O


  H
O H O

H–C–H +C=O H–C + H–C–O
(I)
O H O H


 H2O 
HCH2O From solvent HCH2OH + OH

Q.1 Which of following will not undergo Cannizaro reaction

(A) (B) (C) (D) Cl3C–CHO

O
|| H2
Q.2 Ph – C  Cl  Ph – CHO HCHO
  (C) + (D)
Pd  BaSO 4  , KOH
Product (C) & (D) are
(A) Ph–CO2H, Ph–OH (B) Ph – CO 2– , HCO 2–

(C) Ph–CH2OH, H – CO 2– (D) Ph – CO 2– , CH3OH

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CHO H
conc . NaOH
Q.3 |   (A)  (B)

CHO
Product (B) is

O
||
CH 2  O  C
(A) H2C=CH–CO2H (B) (C) | | (D) H2C=C=O
CH 2  O  C
||
O
NaOD NaOD
Q.4 (i) HCHO  (ii) DCHO 

 18
Q.5 (i) Ph–CHO O D / DOD
   (ii) Ph–CHO OH


 

KOH KOH
Q.6 (i) Ph–CHO + HCHO 

(ii) Ph  C  C  H 

| | ||
O O
KOH conc. KOH
Q.7 (i) MeCH2 – CHO 

(ii) Me2CH–CHO  


Q.8 (i) Me–NO2 + HCHO KOH

 (ii) Me–CHO + HCHO KOH

(excess ) (excess )

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(7) BENZIL-BENZILIC REARRANGEMENT OR BENZILIC ACID REARRANGEMENT

The base catalysed reaction of 1, 2-diketones to a salt of -2-hydroxy carboxylic acid is known as
Benzilic acid rearrangement, this reaction is mainly applicable when aryl group is present on both carbonyl
carbons.
O OH
|| |
Ph – C – C – Ph (i ) OH ¯

 HO – C – C – Ph
|| (ii ) H  || |
O O Ph
(Benzil) (Benzilic acid)
Mechanism :

O OH O O
||  | ||
OH |
Ph – C – C – Ph Ph – C – C – Ph  HO – C – C – Ph
|| | || |
O O O Ph

OH OH
|  |
HO – C – C – Ph H 
O – C – C – Ph
|| | || |
O Ph O Ph
(Benzilic acid)

O O
|| ||
Q.1 CH3 C – C – C6H5 OH

O O
|| ||
1
. NaOH
C–C 
Q.2 O O 2, H 
(Furil)

O O
|| || (i) OH 
Q.3 Ph  CH 2  C  C  C6 H 5 
(ii) HOH / H
O OH
|| | Fenton (i) OH 
Q.4 C6 H 5  C  CH  C6 H 5    A  B.
reagent
(ii) HOH / H
O
(i) NaOH
Q.5 
(ii) H3O
O

O
(i) NaOH
Q.6 
O (ii) H3O

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(8) MICHAEL ADDITION
Michael Addition :  unsaturated carbonyl compound undergo michael reaction with compounds
having active methylene. Many different nucleophile can add to  unsaturated carbonyl compound.
When the nucleophile is an enolate the addition reaction has a special name MICHAEL REACTION.
Mechanism :

O
||
O O  O O R – CH= CH

– C –R
|| || OH (base) || || 

R – C – CH2 – C – R R – C – CH – C –R  unsaturated

– H2O 
carbonyl compound

O O 
O O
R–C R–C
HOH
CH – CH – CH2 – C – R CH – CH – CH = C – R
R–C – OH  R–C
R R
O O

O O O
|| 
|| || OH
Q.1 CH3 – C – CH2 – C – CH3 + CH2 = CH – CH ?
– H2O

O
|| COOEt
CH CH O 
Q.2 CH 3CH  CH  C  CH 3 + CH2 3 
2
 ?
COOEt
O O O
|| || ||
O
Q.3 CH 3CH  CH  C  NH 2 + CH 3  CH 2  C  CH 2  C  O  CH 3 CH
3  ?

O O
|| || CH O 
Q.4 CH 3CH 2 CH  CH  C  OCH 3 + CH 3  C  CH 2  C  N 3  ?

O COOR  
Q.5 CH–CH3 + CH2 EtO
 Na
 ?

(ii ) H 3O ,
COOR

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(9) TISCHENKO REACTION / TISCHENKO CONDENSATION
(1) This reaction takes place between two molecules of aldehydes.
(2) Reaction is catalysed by aluminium ethoxide.
(3) This is a two-step reaction, i.e., redox reaction followed by ester formation. Thus this reaction is
extension of Cannizzaro reaction.
O
( C 2 H5O )3 Al||
R – CHO + R – CHO    R  CH 2  O  C  R
Mechanism :

H H
|   |
R–CH=O  
R – C = O + Al(OC2 H5)3  R–C=O–Al (OC2H5)3 R–CH = O – C – O – Al(OC2 H5)3
|
H R
Hydride ion
transfer

O
||
R – CH2 – O – C – R + Al(OC2H5)3
Ester

( C 2 H 5O )3 Al
Q.1 CH3 – CHO   ?

( C 2H 5O ) 3 Al
Q.2 CH3–CH2–CHO   ?

( C 2 H 5O )3 Al
Q.3 OHC – CH2–CH2 – CH2 – CHO   ?
( C 2H 5O ) 3 Al
Q.4 CH3–CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CHO   ?

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(10) COREY HOUSE SYNTHESIS
Reaction of Gilman’s reagent with alkyl halide gives alkane as one of the product which is known as
Corey House synthesis,

  R' – X
[R2Cu] Li 
R' – R + RCu + LiX
Gilman reagent
(Lithium dialkyl cuprate)

To obtained good yield of alkane, the alkyl halide R’–X must be either a methyl halide, a primary alkyl
halide, or a secondary cycloalkyl halide.(Best CH 3X, if possible)

Preparation of Gilman reagent:

 
R – X 2
Li
 R Li Cu
X ,
 [R 2Cu] Li
 Li X (2 mole) Li X Gilman reagent
(alkyl Lith ium)

Complete the following reaction sequence :

Li CH CH CH CH CH I
Q.1 CH3– I  (A) CuI
 (B) 3 
 2 2
 2 
2
 (C)
Et 2O  

Li
CH3CH2CH2CH2Br  (D) CuI


Et 2O 

CH CH CH CH CH Br
(E) 3 
2 2
 22
 (F)


Li CH3Cl
Q.2 (A) Cl

CuCl
2  (B)  (C)  (D)   CH 3  CH  CH 2  CH 3
h   |
CH 3
( i ) Li CH 3 Cl
Q.3 CH3 – CH2 – Br  (A)    (B)
(ii ) CuBr ,  

(i ) Li 3 CH CH  Br
Q.4 I  (A)   2 (B)
(ii ) CuI 


CH3 CH CH3

|
Cl
(C)
CuBr O
Q.5 Li
CH3 – CH2 – Br  (A) (B)
(i)

(D)
(ii) H

Q.6 How can you prepare following compounds using corey house synthesis.

(i) CH3 (ii) CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH3

(iii) CH2

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14
Q.7 (CH3)2CuLi + CH 2  CH  C H 2  Cl 


Q.8 (CH3)2CuLi + CH3 – CH – CH2  (A) H
 (B)
O
O
||

Q.9 (CH3)2CuLi +  (A) H
 (B)

Q.10 (CH3)2CuLi + CH 2  CH  C  H  (A) H
 (B)
||
O
Q.11 Which of the combination of Gilman’s reagent & alkylhalide will be most suitable for preparation of
following compounds.

CH 3 CH 3
| |
(i) CH3 – CH2 – CH3 (ii) CH 3  C  CH 3 (iii) CH 3  C  Ph
| |
CH 3 CH 3

(iv) (v)

Q.12 Identify the product of following reactions:

CH 2
|| 
(a) CH 3  C  CH 2  Cl  (CH 3 ) 2 CuLi (b)
14

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(11) OZONOLYSIS

The reaction of alkene or Alkyne with ozone (O3) followed by hydrolysis is known as ozonolysis.
It is two types : (I) Reductive ozonolysis  In presence of reducing agent
(II) Oxidative ozonolysis  In presence of oxidising agent
Reducing agents : Zn, H2O or Zn, CH3COOH or (CH3)2S or (Ph)3P etc.
Oxidising agents : H2O2 or R  C  O  O  H or Ag2O etc.
||
O
R R’ R O R’ Zn / H O R
O3 2
C=C C C Reductive C=O + R’–C–H
step I
R H –70°C R H ozonolysis R
O O O

Oxidative [SCT- Cut the double bond

Example 1 : ozonolysis H2O2 and paste two oxgen atoms
and vice versa]
R–C–R + R’–C–OH
O O
Mechanism :
R
 R
R R O R C O R’
O
C 
O C O

+ C=O
+ O R 
C R’ C O H
R’ H O
H

R
R
O  R—C—O
C O
R  O
R’ R–C–R + R’–C–H
O
O=C C
H R’ O O
H
Note : In case of oxidative ozonolysis aldehyde (not ketone) further undergoes oxidation which gives
acid as product.

Q.1 Give the product of the following reaction.

(i) H2C = CH2 (
i ) O3
 (ii) CH3–CH = CH2 (
i ) O3

(ii ) Zn / H 2O (ii ) Zn / H 2O

CH 3
|
(iii) CH 3  C  CH 2 (
i ) O3
 (iv) (
i ) O3

(ii ) Zn / H 2O (ii ) Zn / H 2O

(v) (
i ) O3
 (vi) (
i ) O3

(ii ) Zn / H 2O (ii ) Zn / H 2O
H
(vii) H2C=CH–CH2–CH=CH–CH3 (
i ) O3

(ii ) Zn / H 2O

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Q.2 Find out the structure of reactant.
H
(i ) O3 (i ) O3 O + O
(i) X  CH 3  CH 2  C  H (ii) X 
(ii ) Zn / H 2O || (ii ) Zn / H 2O H
O
H O
O O
(i ) O3 (i ) O3
(iii) X  O+ (iv) X  +
(ii ) Zn / H 2O (ii ) Zn / H 2O
H H

O
CH3 H
(v) X (
i ) O3
 O (vi) X (
i ) O3
 + C=O + C=O
(ii ) Zn / H 2O (ii ) Zn / H 2O
H3C H
O
O
O
(vii) X (
i ) O3
 (viii) X ( i ) O3
 O + HCHO
(ii ) Zn / H 2O (ii ) Zn / H 2O
O C10 H12
O
O
O
(ix) X ( i ) O3
 + O=C=O + O + HCHO
(ii ) Zn / H 2O
C12 H18

O O
(x) C 6 H 4 ( i ) O3
 C3H2O3 (xi) X 3 
(i ) O
+ HCHO
( X) ( ii ) Zn / H 2O (ii ) Zn / H 2O
C12 H18
O
Q.3 Give the ozonolysis product of the following.
H
O3 (  ) O3
(i) X   3 O C H (ii)  ?
Zn Zn / H 2 O

O
How many species.

(iii) O
3/

Zn / H 2 O

How many species are found.

Q.4 How mnay ozonoids are possible in given reaction.

(i ) O3 (i ) O3
(i) CH2 = CH2  
(ii ) Zn / H O
(ii) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3  
(ii ) Zn / H O
2 2

(i ) O3
(iii) CH3 – CH = CH2  
(ii ) Zn / H O 2

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Q.5 The reactants that lead to product (a) and (b) on ozonolysis are

HCHO

(a) (b)

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Q.6 Which starting material should be used to produce the compound shown below?

3 O
? 
Zn  H 2O

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.7 This compound on ozonolysis gives which of the following compounds

O
||
(I) (II) OHC  C  C  CH 2  C  CHO
|| ||
O O

O
||
(III) CHO (IV) OHC  C  C  CH 2  CH  O
| ||
CHO O
(A) I, II, III & IV (B) I, III, IV (C) I, II, III (D) I, II, IV

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(12) OXYMERCURATION-DEMERCURATION
OMDM is a hydration process of alkene according to Markovnikov’s rule with no rearrangement of cyclic
mercuinium ion. When reaction with that reagent is complete, sodium borohydride and hydroxide ion are added
to the reaction mixture.
(i ) Hg ( OAC ) 2 , H 2O,THF
R–CH = CH2       R  CH  CH 3
(ii ) NaBH4 ,HO ¯
|
OH
(i)Hg(OAc)2, MeOH, THF
R  CH  CH 3
(ii) NaBH 4, HO¯ |
OMe
Mechanism for oxymercuration:

OAc
OAc +
Hg
H2 O
CH3CH = CH2 + Hg — OAc CH3CH — CH2 CH3CHCH2—Hg—OAc
+
OH
+ AcO¯
H
¯OAc

CH3CHCH2—Hg—OAc
OH + AcOH

Sodium borohydride (NaBH4) converts the carbon-mercury bond into a carbon-hydrogen bond. Because
the reaction results in the loss of mercury, it is called demercuration.
CH 3CHCH 2 —Hg—OAc NaBH
 4  CH 3CHCH 3 + Hg + AcO¯
HO ¯
| |
OH OH

Q.1 (
i ) Hg ( OCOCH 3 ) CH 3OH
     Q.2 (
i ) Hg ( OAc ) 2 , H 2O
   

(ii ) NaBH 4 ,OH (ii ) NaBH 4 ,OH 

CH3
(
i ) Hg (CF3COO )2 ,CH 3OH
    
Q.3 ( ii ) NaBH 4 , HO ¯ Q.4 (
i ) Hg (OAc ) 2 ,CH3  O H
    
(ii ) NaBH4 ,OH 

CCH
OH
Q.5 (
i ) Hg ( OAc ) 2 , H 2O
    Q.6 (
i ) Hg ( OAc ) 2 , H 2O
   

(ii ) NaBH 4 ,OH (ii ) NaBH 4 ,OH 

Q.7 How could each of the following compounds be synthesized from an alkene by OMDM?

OH OCH2CH3 CH 3 CH 3
| |
(i) (ii) (iii) CH 3CCH 2CH 3 (iv) CH 3CCH 2CH 3
| |
OH OCH 3

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(13) HYDROBORATION-OXIDATION

Hydroboration has been developed by brown as a reaction of tremendous synthetic utility because alkyl
boranes are able to undergo a variety of transformation. Hydroboration is a one step, four centre, cis
addition process in accordance with Markovnikov’s rule but after oxidation it seems to be appear to
violate Markovnikov’s rule.

OH¯ ,H2 O2 , H2 O
Hydroboration oxidation
CH3CH2CH 2OH
( i ) BH 3 ,THF
CH3CH = CH2     (CH3CH2CH2)3 B CH3 COOH
Hydroboration reduction
CH3CH2CH 3

AgNO3
Dimerisation, 
CH3CH2CH 2 CH2CH2CH 3

NH2Cl
CH3CH2CH 2–NH2

Cl2
CH3CH2CH 2–Cl

Mechanism of Hydroboration:

H H
+
CH3CH=CH2  CH3—C—C—H  CH 3CH 2CH 2 2
(CH3CH2CH2)3 B
|
H—BH2 H BH2 BH 2
—
an alkylboran e
More stable
transition state
Mechanism of oxidation :
HOOH + HO¯  HOO¯ + H2O

R R R repeat the two

preceding steps
OR
two times
R–B + O—OH R—B—O—OH R—B—OR RO—B—OR
R R HO¯
+ OH¯
OR

RO—B¯— OR

OH

repeat the two

preceding steps OR OR
3– two times
3 ROH + BO3 ROH + RO—B RO¯ + RO—B

O¯ O—H

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(i ) BH
Q.1 CH2 = CH2  3  Q.2 (
i ) BH3 ,THF
 
(ii ) HO ¯,H 2O 2 (ii ) H 2O / AcOH

(i ) BH
Q.3  3  Q.4 (
i ) BH 3 ,THF
 
(ii ) HO ¯,H 2O 2 (ii ) H 2O / AcOH

CCH
(i)BD3, THF
Q.5 (ii)CH3COOH, H2 O Q.6 (
i ) BH3 ,THF
 
(i)BH3, THF (ii ) H 2O2 / HO 

(ii) CH3COOD, D2O

(i) BT3, THF
(ii) CH3COOD, D2O

CH = CH2 CH = CH2

Q.7 (
i ) BH 3 ,THF
  Q.8 (
i ) BH 3 ,THF
 
(ii ) NH 2Cl (ii ) AgNO 3 ,

CH = CH2

Q.9 (
i ) BH3 ,THF
  (i ) BH ,THF
Q.10 CH3–C CH  3  
(ii ) Cl 2 (ii ) AgNO3 ,

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(14) RIEMMER TIEMENN REACTION

It is believed that chloroform and hydroxide ion react to produce an electron deficient intermediate
dichloro carbene : CCl2 (DCC)

—
OHH H2O + : :CCl2 + Cl

Treatment of phenol with DCC in basic medium introduces an aldehyde group, onto the aromatic ring.
This reaction is known as Reimmer Tiemenn reaction.


(i ) O H
   +
( ii ) :CCl 2 , ( iii ) H 

The Reimmer–Tiemenn reaction involves electrophilic substitution on highly reactive phenoxide ring. The
electrophilic reagent is dichloro carbene : CCl2

— 
+ :CCl2   O

H
  H

o-product is major product because :

(i) there are two o-positions available as compared to one para.
(ii) o-product is more stable due to the formation of six membered chelate formation.

If 1 ° amines (aliphatic and aromatic) react with DCC in basic medium it yield isocyanide or carbylamine.
This reaction is known as carbylamine reaction:

  



The product is known as isocyanide & it is a foul smelling substance.

Q.1 Step marked by is :

(A) Aromatization reaction (B) intramolecular acid base reaction
(C) both of the above (D) none of the above

Q.2 Addition of NaCl in aqueous solution will make Riemmer Tiemann reaction:
(A) slower (B) faster (C) no effect on rate (D) can't be predicted

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Q.3 If is used instead of during Riemmer Tiemenn reaction the product formed is:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.4 If CCl4 is used in place of CHCl3 during Riemmer Tiemenn reaction, the product formed is:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.5 o/p ratio in Riemmer Tiemenn reaction follows following order, if NaOH & KOH are used one by one
as base
(A) NaOH = KOH (B) NaOH > KOH
(C) NaOH < KOH (D) can't be decided on the basic of information given here

Q.6 Which of the following will not give carbylamine reaction

(A) t-butyl amine (B) aniline (C) sec. butylamine (D) N-methyl methanamine

Q.7 Correct order of rate of carbylamine reaction for following compounds is:

(I) (II) (III)

(A) I > II > III (B) II > I > III (C) II > III > I (D) III > I > II

Q.8 Rate of carbylamine reaction for Me–NH2 will be :

(A) CHF3 > CHCl3 (B) CHCl3 = CHF3 (C) CHCl3  CHF3 (D) CHF3 < CHCl3

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(1) ALDOL CONDENSATION

OH
|
Q.1 (I) (A) CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH  C  H
| ||
CH 3 O
(B) CH 3  CH 2  CH  C  C  H
| ||
CH 3 O
O OH
(II) (C)

Ph
|
(III) (D) Ph  CH 2  CH  CH  C  H
| ||
OH O
O OH O
(IV) (E) (F)

CH 3 CH 3
| |
(V) (G) Ph  C  CH 2  C  Ph (H) Ph  C  CH  C  Ph
| || ||
OH O O
O O

Q.2 (I) (A) (B)

HO
CH3 OH
(II) (C) C—CH3
O
O

(III) (D) OH
CH3
O O

(IV) (E) (F)

OH
CH3
(V) (G)
C—CH3
O

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Q.3 Excluding Stereo Including Stereo
(I) 4 12
(II) 2 4
(III) 4 6
(IV) 6 16
(V) 4 12

OH
|
(I) Me  CH  CH 2  CHO = 2
*
* *
Me  CH  CH  CHO
| | = 4
OH CH 3
*  CH  CHO
Et  CH 2
| = 2
OH
* *
Et  CH  CH  CHO
| | = 4
OH CH 3
OH
|
(II) Ph  CH  CH 2  CHO = 2
*
OH
|
Me  CH  CH 2  CHO = 2
*
OH
|
(III) CH 3  CH  CH 2  CHO = 2
*
OH
|
CH 3  C  CH 2  CHO
| = 1
CH 3
OH
|
CH 3  C  CH 2  COCH 3
| = 1
CH 3
OH
|
CH 3  CH  CH 2  COCH 3 = 2
*
OH
| *
(IV) CH 3  CH  CH  COCH 3 = 4
* |
CH 3

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OH
|
CH 3  CH  CH 2  CHO = 2
*
OH
| *
CH 3  C ——— CH  COCH 3 = 4
*| |
CH 2CH 3 CH 3
OH
|
CH 3  CH  CH 2  CO  CH 3 = 2
*
OH
|
CH 3  CH  CH 2  COCH 2CH 3 = 2
*|
CH 2CH 3
OH
|
CH 3  C  CH 2  CHO
*| = 2
CH 2  CH 3
OH
|
(V) *  COCH
Ph  CH  CH = 4
3
* |
CH 3
OH
|
Ph  CH  CH 2  COCH 2 CH 3 = 2
*
OH
|
Me  C  CH 2  CO  Et
|* = 2
Et
OH
| *
Me  C — CH – COCH 3
*| | = 4
Et CH 3
O
||

Q.4 (I) (II) CH 3  C  CH 3

|| ||
O O

O
||
C–H
Q.5 (i) (a) (b) C – H (ii) CH—C6H5
||
CH2 – CH2 – C – H O
|| O
O

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O
CH3 ||
Q.6 (i) X = Y = CH 3  C  H
||
O O O
|| ||
(ii) X = CH 3  C  CH 2  CH 2  C  CH 3
O
||
(iii) X = CH 3  C  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  CHO

(2) CLAISEN CONDENSATION

O O O O
|| || || * ||
Q.1 Me  C  CH 2  C  OEt Q.2 Et  C  CH  C  OMe
|
CH 3
(R / S)
Q.3 4 products Q.4 , CH3 COCH2 COOC2H5

O
* C—OPh
Q.5 Q.6
O
(R/S)

COOEt

Q.7 (G) C H – N O , (H)

2 5

O
COOH
C–O Et
O O
Q.8 Q.9 (J) (K)
C–O Et
COOH
O
O
O C–OC2H5 O
O
Q.10 (L) (M) 
H
O C–OC2H5 O O
O enol is more stable

(3) PERKIN CONDENSATION

OH O O
Q.1 H3C CH  C  COOH Q.2
|
CH–CH2–COOH
CH 3 |
(B) OH (C)

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OH O
Q.3 CH=CH–COOH Q.4 C6H5 – CH – CH C OH

H2 C C OH
O
O O
|| ||
Q.5 Me  C  O  C  Me

(4) KNOEVENAGEL REACTION

Q.1 CH 3  CH  CH  COOH Q.2 C 6 H 5  CH  CH  COOH
Crotonic acid Cinnamic acid

Q.3 HOOC  CH  CH  COOH Q.4 Ph – CH=

Maleic acid

Q.5 Ph – CH = CH – NO2 Q.6

Q.7 = CH–Ph

(5) REFORMATSKY REACTION

Ph  CH  C  COOH
Q.1 C6H5–C=CH–COOH Q.2 |
|
CH3 CH 3
(E/Z) ( E / Z)

HO CH2COOH
CH–CH3
Q.3 Ph Q.4 (D) , (E)
OH
O
COOH COOH
OH
Q.5 (F) (G)

Q.7 (I) , (J) ,

(K) ,

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(6) CANNIZARO REACTION

Q.1 D Q.2 C Q.3 B

Q.4 (i) CH3OD + HCOONa (ii) DCH2OD + DCOONa

18
Q.5 (i) PhCH2OD + PhCOONa (ii) Ph–CH2OH + PhCOONa

Q.6 (i) Ph–CH2OH + HCOOK (ii) Ph  CH  C  OK

| ||
OH O
O
||
Q.7 (i) MeCH 2  CH  C  C  H (ii) Me2CH – CH2OH + Me2CHCOOK
|
Me

OH OH
OH OH
NO2 + CH3OH + HCOOK
Q.8 (i) (ii)
HO + HCOOK HO OH

(7) BENZIL-BENZILIC REARRANGEMENT OR BENZILIC ACID REARRANGEMENT

OH
OH |
|  C
Q.1 CH3 C – COO Q.2 O | O
| COOH
C6H5
(Furilic acid)
O O OH
OH || || |
Q.3 Ph – CH2 – C Q.4 (A) Ph  C  C  Ph (B) Ph  C  COOH
| COOH |
C6H5 Ph

OH OH
Q.5 Q.6
COOH COOH

(8) MICHAEL ADDITION

O
|| O
CH2 – CH2 – CH
| CH3–CH–CH2–C–CH3
Q.1 CH3 – C – CH – C – CH3 Q.2 O
|| ||
O O CH(–C–OCH2CH3)2

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O O
CH3–CH–CH2–C–NH2 CH3–CH2–CH–CH2–C–O–CH3
Q.3 O O Q.4
CH3 – CH2 – C–CH–C–O–CH3 CH3–C–CH–CN
O
O
CH–CH2 – COOH
Q.5 CH3

(9) TISCHENKO REACTION / TISCHENKO CONDENSATION

O O
|| ||
Q.1 CH 3  C  O  C 2 H 5 Q.2 CH 3  CH 2  C  O  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3
O

Q.3 O

O
||
Q.4 CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  C  O  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3

(10) COREY HOUSE SYNTHESIS

Q.1 (A) CH3Li, (B) (CH3)2CuLi, (C) CH3–CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3, (D)CH3CH2CH2CH2Li,
(E) (CH3CH2CH2CH2)2CuLi , (F) CH3CH2CH2CH2– CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Q.2 (A) CH3–CH2–CH3 (B) CH 3  CH  CH 2  Cl

|
CH 3


 
(C) CH 3  CH  CH 2Li (D) CH 3  CH  CH 2  CuLi 
|  | 
CH 3  CH 3 3

Q.3 (A) [CH 3CH 2 ]2 Cu Li (B) CH3 – CH2 – CH3



Cu Li CH2–CH3
Q.4 (A) (B)
2

Et
  |
Q.5 (A) CH 3  CH 2 Li (B) [CH 3CH 2 ]
2 Cu Li

(C) CH 3  CH  CH 3

(D)
Et

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Q.6 (i) [Ph ]  CH 3 Cl
2 CuLi    Ph–CH3

  CH 3–Cl
(ii) [CH2=CH–CH2] CuLi CH2–CH–CH2–CH3
2

  Ph – CH2– Cl
(iii) [Ph] CuLi Ph–CH2–Ph
2

14
Q.7 CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 2

Q.8 (A) CH 3  CH  CH 2  CH 3 (B) CH 3  CH  CH 2  CH 3

| |
O  Li  OH

 
O Li O

Q.9 (A) (B)

CH3 CH3

Q.10 (A) CH 3  CH 2  CH  C  H (B) CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  C  H

| ||

OLi  O

Q.11 (i) [CH 3  CH 2 ]2 CuLi  + CH3 – Cl (ii) [ Me 3C]2 CuLi  + CH3 – Cl

Ph
(iii) Me C– CuLi + Me–Cl (iv) CuLi + Me–Cl
Me
2

(v) CuLi + Me–Cl

CH 3
|
Q.12 (a) CH 3  C  CH 2  CH 3 (b) CH 3  CH 2  C  CH  CH  CH 3
|| |
CH 2 OLi
14
(11) OZONOLYSIS

O H CH3
H H || H
Q.1 (i) O + O=C (ii) CH 3  C  H + C=O (iii) CH + C=O
H H H 3 H
O

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O O
H
(iv) H H (v)
O O

O O
H
(vi) +H (vii) C=O + O  C  CH 2  C  O + O  C  CH 3
O O H | | |
H H H

H
H H H
Q.2 (i) (ii) (iii)
H

(iv) H (v) (vi)

CH3
C=C—C=CH2
(vii) (viii) (ix) CH3

(x) (xi)

CH3 O O O
CH3 H
H O C C C
Q.3 (i) (ii) (iii) + +
C C C
O CH3 O H H
O O

Q.4 (i) 1
(ii) 3
(iii) 6

Q.5 (A, B, C) Q.6 (B) Q.7 (C)

(12) OXYMERCURATION-DEMERCURATION

OCH3 OH H3C OCH3

Q.1 Q.2 Q.3

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COCH3
OCH3
O
Q.4 Q.5 Q.6

OH OCH2CH3

Q.7 (i) (

i ) Hg ( OAc ) 2 , H 2O
    (ii) (
i ) Hg ( OAc ) 2 ,CH 3CH 2OH
    

(ii ) NaBH 4 ,OH (ii ) NaBH 4 ,OH 

CH 3
|
(iii) (
i ) Hg ( OAc ) 2 , H 2O
    CH 3CCH 2CH 3
(ii ) NaBH 4 ,OH  |
OH

CH 3
|
(iv) (
i ) Hg ( OAc ) 2 ,CH 3OH
     CH 3CCH 2CH 3
(ii ) NaBH 4 ,OH  |
OCH 3

(13) HYDROBORATION-OXIDATION

H H
Q.1 CH3CH2OH Q.2
H OH

CH3 H OH CH3
H CH3 CH3 OH
Q.3 OH , H ] Q.4 CH3 , H ]
H OH H CH3

CH2D CH2D
Q.5 (i) CH 3  CH  CH 2 , (ii) CH 3  CH  CH 2 , (iii) H T T H ]
| | | |
D H H D CH3 CH3

CH2CHO CH2–CH2–NH2

Q.6 Q.7 Q.8 (CH2)4

CH2–CH2–Cl

Q.9

Q.10 Z Z, E E, Z E of CH3–CH = CH–CH=CH–CH3

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(14) RIEMMER TIEMENN REACTION

Q.1 (C)
 
Q.2 (A) Common ion effect will decrease concentration of C Cl 2
Q.3 (A) Abnormal Riemmer Tiemann reaction
Q.4 (D)
Q.5 (B) Due to bigger size of K+ it cannot fit in chelate that well.

Q.6 (D) D is 2° amine

Q.7 (B) Based on order of nucleophilicity

   
Q.8 (D) Order of electrophilicity C Cl 2 > C F2

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EXERCISE-I

BIOMOLECULES
Q.1 The commonest disaccharide has the molecular formula
(A) C10H18O9 (B) C10H20O10 (C) C18H22O11 (D) C12H22O11

Q.2 On complete hydrolysis of starch, we finally get

(A) Glucose (B) Fructose
(C) Glucose and fructose (D) Sucrose

Q.3 The term anomers of glucose refers to

(A) Isomers of glucose that differ in configurations at carbons one and four (C–1 and C-4)
(B) A mixture of (D)-glucose and (L)-glucose
(C) Enantiomers of glucose
(D) Isomers of glucose that differ in configuration at carbon one (C–1)

Q.4 Which of the following is an example of aldopentose?

(A) Erythrose (B) Ribose (C) Fructose (D) Dihydroxyacetone

Q.5 Glucose and fructose form

(A) Same osazone (B) Same acid on oxidation
(C) Same alcohol when reduced (D) Different osazone

Q.6 The change of optical rotation of glucose solution with time is refered to as:
(A) Mutarotation (B) Inversion (C) Specific rotation (D) Autorotation

Q.7 To become a carbohydrate a compound must contain at least:

(A) 2 carbon atoms (B) 3 carbon atoms (C) 4 carbon atoms (D) 6 carbon atoms

Q.8 Methyl--D-glucoside and methyl--D-glucoside are

(A) Epimers (B) Anomers
(C) Enantiomers (D) Conformational diastereomers

Q.9 The correct name of 'sucrose' is

(A) -D-glucopyranosyl--D-fructofuranoside
(B) -D-glucopyranosyl--D-fructofuranoside
(C) -D-glucopyranosyl--D-fructofuranoside
(D) -D-glucopyranosyl--D-fructofuranoside

Q.10 Which one of the following is laevorotatory

(A) Glucose (B) Sucrose (C) Fructose (D) None of these

Q.11 Which of the following is a disaccharide

(A) Lactose (B) Starch (C) Cellulose (D) Glucose

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Q.12 The two functional groups present in a typical carbohydrate are
(A) – OH and – COOH (B) – CHO and – COOH
(C) > C = O and – OH (D) – OH and – CHO

Q.13 The monomer of cellulose is

(A) Fructose (B) Galactose (C) Glucose (D) None of these

Q.14 Glucose is a
(A) Monosaccharide (B) Disaccharide (C) Trisaccharide (D) Polysaccharide

Q.15 Which pair is different for reaction with Fehling solution:

(A) Glucose, Fructose (B) HCHO, CH3CHO
(C) CH3COCH3, C6H5CHO (D) Glucose, Sucrose

Q.16 Glucose contains in addition to aldehyde group

(A) One secondary OH and four primary OH groups
(B) One primary OH and four secondary OH groups
(C) Two primary OH and three secondary OH groups
(D) Three primary OH and two secondary OH groups

Q.17 Glucose reacts with excess of phenyl hydrazine and forms

(A) Glucosazone (B) Glucose phenyl hydrazine
(C) Glucose oxime (D) Sorbitol

Q.18 Which set of terms correctly identifies the carbohydrate shown

H O OH
OH H
HOH2C H
H OH
1. Pentose 2. Hexose
3. Aldose 4. Ketose
5. Pyranose 6. Furanose
(A) 1, 3 and 6 (B) 1, 3 and 5 (C) 1, 4 and 6 (D) 2, 3 and 6

Q.19 Hydrolysis of sucrose is called:

(A) Inhibition (B) Saponification (C) Inversion (D) Hydration

Q.20 Which of the following pentoses will be optically active

CHO CHO CHO

| | |
HCOH HCOH HCOH
| | |
HOCH HCOH HCOH
| | |
HCOH HOCH HCOH
| | |
H 2COH H 2COH H 2COH
I II III

(A) All (B) II and III (C) I (D) II

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Q.21 The secondary structure of a protein refers to
(A) -helical backbone (B) Hydrophobic interactions
(C) Sequence of -amino acids (D) Fixed configuration of the polypeptide backbone

Q.22 A tripeptide is written as Glycine-Alanine-Glycine. The correct structure of the tripeptide is

O CH3
NH
(A) NH2 NH COOH
O CH3

CH3 O CH3
NH
(B) NH2 NH COOH
O
O
NH
(C) NH2 NH COOH
O CH3

CH3 O
NH
(D) NH2 NH COOH
O CH3

Q.23 Which compound can exist in a dipolar (zwitter ion) state

(A) C6H5CH2CH(N = CH2) COOH (B) (CH3)2CH·CH(NH2)COOH
(C) C6H5CONHCH2COOH (D) HOOC·CH2CH2COCOOH

Q.24 Which of the following statement is incorrect for maltose.

(A) It is a disaccharide (B) It undergoes mutarotation
(C) It is a reducing sugar (D) It does not have hemiacetal group.

Q.25 Identify the correct statement about lactose.

(A) It consists of one galactose and one glucose unit
(B) Mutarotation is not possible
(C) Anomeric carbon of galactose is attached to 4' carbon of glucose which is –1, 4'-glycoside bond.
(D) Lactase is not used to cleave the –1, 4'-glycoside bond.

Q.26 Which of the following carbohydrates would be most abundant in the diet of strict vegetarian?
(A) Amylose (B) Glycogen (C) Cellulose (D) Maltose

Q.27 Naturally occuring (+) - sucrose is :

(A) -D-glucopyronoside--D-fructofuranoside
(B) -D-glucopyronoside--D-fructofuranoside
(C) -D-glucopyronoside--D-fructofuranoside
(D) -D-glucopyronoside--D-fructofuranoside

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Q.28 D-Ribose when treated with dilute HNO3 forms.

HO O
HO O
H OH
OH
(A) H , Achiral (B) HO H , Chiral
H OH
H OH
H OH
O O OH
HO
HO O HO O
H OH H OH
(C) HO H , Achiral (D) H OH , Chiral
H OH H OH
HO O O OH

Q.29 Consider the given process.

CHO CHOH CHO
H–C–OH C–OH HO–C–H
HO H OH¯ HO H OH¯ HO H
H OH H 2O H 2O
H OH H OH
H OH H OH H OH
CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH
(I) (II) (III)
and identify the incorrect statement.
(A) Configuration at C–2 is lost on enolisation
(B) I and III are epimers
(C) Proton transfer from water to C–1 converts ene diol to an aldose.
(D) D-glucose can isomerise to D-fructose through enol intermediate.


Q.30 Glucose (
i ) HCN / H 3O
   P
( ii ) P / HI
P is :
(A) n- heptanoic acid (B) 2-methyl hexanoic acid
(C) n-heptane (D) 2-methyl hexane

Q.31 When methyl D-glucopyranoside is treated with HIO4 how many moles of HIO4 are consumed with per
mole of the sugar ?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

Q.32 The configuration of the C-2 epimer of D-glucose is-

(A) 2R, 3S, 4R, 5S (B)2S, 3S, 4R, 5R
(C) 2S, 3R, 4S, 5R (D)2R, 3S, 4R, 5R

Q.33 Mutarotation involves

(A) Racemisation (B)Diastereomerisation
(C) Optical resolution (D)Conformational inversion

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Q.34 Same osazone derivative is obtained in case of D-glucose, D-Mannose and D-Fructose due to
(A) the same configuration at C-5
(B) the same constitution.
(C) the same constitution at C-1 and C-2
(D) The same constitution and same configuration at C-3, C-4, C-5 and C-6 but different constitution
and configuration at C-1 and C-2 which becomes identical by osazone formation.

NaBH4
Q.35 D(–) –Erythrose (P)
NaBH4
D(–) –Threose (R)
Which of the following statement is correct about P and R ?
(A) Both are optically active
(B) Both are optically inactive
(C) P is optically inactive and R is optically active
(D) Neither P nor R has asymmetric carbon.

Q.36 Which of the following compounds will not show mutarotation:

(A) -D (+) glucopyranose (B) -D(+) glucopyranose
(C) Methyl--D-glucopyranoside (D) -D(+) galactopyranose

Q.37 Amylose and cellulose both are linear polymers of glucose. The difference between them is:
(A) Amylose has  (1  4') linkage and cellulose has  (1  4') linkage
(B) Amylose has  (1  4') linkage and cellulose has  (1  4') linkage
(C) Amylose has  (1  4') linkage and cellulose has  (1  6') linkage
(D) Amylose has  (1  4') linkage and cellulose has  (1  6') linkage

Q.38 Glycogen on hydrolysis gives:

(A) Lactose and Glucose (B) Only Glucose
(C) Glucose and Fructose (D) Glucose and Maltose

Q.39 An example of disaccharide made up of two unit of the same monosaccharide.

(A) Maltose (B) Sucrose (C) lactose (D) None

Q.40 The colour of the precipitate formed when a reducing sugar is heated with Fehling solution is:
(A) Brown (B) Red (C) Blue (D) Green

Q.41 Osazone formation involves only 2 carbon atoms of glucose because of

(A) Oxidation (B) Chelation (C) Reduction (D) Hydrolysis

Q.42 Methyl--D-glucose and methyl --D-glucose are

(A) Epimers (B) Anomers (C) Enantiomers (D) Constitutional isomers

Q.43 Hydrolysis of lactose with dilute acid yield

(A) Equimolar mixture of D-glucose and D-glucose.
(B) Equimolar mixture of D-glucose and D-galactose.
(C) Equimolar mixture of D-glucose and D-fructose.
(D) Equimolar mixture of D-galactose and D-galactose.

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Q.44 Celluose is a straight chain polysaccharide composed of
(A) D-glucose units joined by -glycosidic linkage
(B) D-glucose units joined by -glycosidic linkage
(C) D-galactose units joined by -glycosidic linkage
(D) D-galactose units joined by -glycosidic linkage

Q.45  - amino acid when heated with BaO forms -

(A)  - unsaturated acid (B) - unsaturated amine
(C) Carboxylic acid (D)Amine
COO¯

Q.46 The pH of the solution containing following zwitter ion species is NH3 H

R
(A) 4 (B)6 (C) 8 (D)9

Q.47 Peptide linkage is -

O O O O
(A) –C – O – (B)–C – NH2 (C) –C – NH– (D)–C – NH–NH2

Q.48 The monomer of nucleic acids are held together by

(A) Phosphoester linkage (B) Amide linkage
(C) Glycosidic linkage (D) Ester linkage

Q.49 Test used to identify peptide linkage in protein is:

(A) Biuret (B) Ninhydrin test (C) Molisch test (D) 2,4-DNP test

Q.50 Which one of the following structures represents the peptide chain:
H O H O H O
(A) –N–C–C–C–N–C–C–N–C–C–C– (B) –N–C–N–C–NH–C–NH–
H O H

H H H H
(C) –N–C–C–C–C–NH–C–C–C (D) –N–C–C–N–C–C–N–C–C–
O O O
Q.51 Among the following L-serine is:

COOH COOH

(A) H2N CH 2OH (B) HOCH2 H

H NH2

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NH2 CH2OH

(C) H COOH (D) H2N H

CH2OH COOH
POLYMERS

Q.52 The monomer that undergo radical polymerisation most easily is

Me
(A) CH2=CH2 (B) C6H5CH=CH2 (C) CH2=C (D) CH3–CH=CH2
Me

Q.53 Select the incorrect statement about Nylon 2-nylon-6.

(A) It is a copolymer.
(B) It is biodegradable.
(C) It is an alternating polyamide.
(D) It is made up of CH 3  CH  COOH and H2N(CH2)5COOH.
|
NH 2

Q.54 The polymer formed as a result of following sequence of reaction is

Cu2Cl2 HCl (1 eq.) polymerisation
2HC  CH (A) (B) (C)
NH4Cl
(A) Saran (B) PVC (C) Neoprene (D) Chloroprene

Q.55 The monomer that can undergo radical, cationic and anionic polymerisation with equal ease -
(A) Me–C=CH2 (B) Ph–CH=CH2 (C) CH2 = CH2 (D) CH2=CH–CN
Me

Q.56 Protein is a polymer of:

(A) Glucose (B) Terephthalic acid (C) Amino acid (D) Glycol

Q.57 Enzymes are:

(A) Minerals (B) Oils (C) Fatty acids (D) Proteins

PRACTICAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

Q.58 Consider the reaction-
OH
(i) CHCl3+NaOH
+
P (major) + Q (Minor)
(ii) H3O
Mixture of P and Q can be best separated by -
(A) Steam distillation (B) Vacuum distillation
(C) Fractional distillation (D) Crystallisation

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Q.59 Which of the following compound(s) will give blue colour when it is converted into Lassaigne's extract
and FeSO4 is added followed by FeCl3.

O
||
(I) (II) (III) NH2–OH (IV) NH 2  NH  C  NH 2

(A) I and IV (B) IV only (C) I, III & IV (D) I, II, III & IV

Q.60 Select reagent which is used in laboratory to differentiate 1°, 2° and 3° amines from each other:
(A) NaOH, I2 (B) PhSO2Cl (C) CHCl3 , KOH (D) CS2, HgCl2

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EXERCISE II
BIOMOLEUCLES
Q.1 Carbohydrates may be :
(A) Sugars (B) Starch
(C) Polyhydroxy aldehyde/ ketones (D) Compounds that can be hydrolysed to sugar

Q.2 Select the correct statement:

(A) S-glyceraldehyde is also known as L-glyceraldehyde
(B) The configuration of the stereocenter most distant from the carbonyl group determines whether a
monosaccharide is D or L.
(C) Glucose and all naturally occurring sugars are D-sugars
(D) D-erythrose and D-threose are diastereomers.

Q.3 Select the incorrect statement.

(A) Monosaccharide are insoluble in organic solvents like diethyl ether.
(B) Anomers of a cyclic monosaccharides differ in the position of the OH group at the hemiacetal
carbon.
(C) D-ribose the OH group used to form the five membered furanose ring is located on C4.
(D) Aldopentoses and ketohexoses form pyranose rings in solution.

Q.4 The peptide bond is a key feature in :

(A) Vitamins (B) Proteins (C) Nucleotides (D) Polypeptides

Q.5 Which is not correct about monosaccharides.

(A) Optically active polyhydroxy carbonyl compounds.
(B) Fructose & glucose can not be distinguish by Br2/H2O
(C) Glucose and mannose are anomers
(D) Fructose & glucose can be distinguish by Fehling solution

Q.6 Which of the following is disaccharides ?

(A) Lactose (B) Sucrose (C) Cellulose (D) Maltose

Q.7 Select the correct statement.

(A) Proteins upon hydrolysis gives -amino acid only.
(B) Except glycine, all other naturally occuring -amino acids are optically active.
(C) In fibrous proteins polypeptide chains are held together by hydrogen and disulphide bonds.
(D) Fats upon hydrolysis gives -amino acids

Q.8 Select the correct statement.

(A) Coiling of polypeptide chain form fibrous protein.
(B) Quarternary structure of protein also exist.
(C) Lysine is an amino acid with basic side chain.

(D) The absolute configuration of H 3 N – CH(CH2OH)COO¯ (L-serine) is S.

Q.9 Select the correct statement.

(A) All proteins are polyamides formed by joining amino acids together.
(B) All L-amino acids except cysteine have the S-configuration.
(C) Proline is 1° amine consisting 6 membered ring.
(D) Proline is a 2° amine consisting of five membered ring.
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Q.10 Select the correct option.
(A) Isoelectric point is the pH at which an amino acid exists primarily in its neutral form.
(B) Isoelectric point is the average of pK a values of -COOH amino - NH 3 groups [valid only for
neutral amino acid]
(C) Glycine is characterised by two pKa values.
(D) For neutral amino acid the concentration of zwitter ion is maximum at its isoelectric point.

Q.11 Amino acids are synthesised from.

(A) -Halo acids by reaction with NH3.
(B) Aldehydes by reaction with NH3 and cyanide ion followed by hydrolysis.
(C) Alkyl halides by reaction with the enolate anion derived from diethyl acetamidomalonate & hydrolysis.
(D) Alcohols by reaction with NH3 and CN¯ ion followed by hydroysis.

Q.12 Which of the following carbohydrates developes blue colour on treatment with iodine solution ?
(A) Glucose (B) Amylose (C) Starch (D) Fructose

Q.13 Which of the following are correct.

(A) Br2/H2O can be used to differentiate between aldose & ketose.
(B) All monosaccharides are reducing sugar
(C) Osazone formation destroys the configuration about C2 of an aldose but not effect the rest of
molecule
(D) Mono saccharides undergoes mutarotation.

Q.14 Match the column :

Column I Column II
(A) Sucrose (P) Two acetals
(B) Maltose (Q) No hemiacetal
(C) Lactose (R) 1,4'-glycosidic bond
(D) Cellulose (S) Hydrolysis product is glucose

POLYMERS
Q.15 Select the correct statement.
(A) High density polythene is a linear polymer.
(B) Low density polythene is a branched chain polymer.
(C) Chain growth polymers are also known as addition polymer.
(D) Step growth polymer is also known condensation polymer.

Q.16 Select the correct statement.

(A) Elastomers have the weakest intermolecular forces.
(B) Buna-N is an elastomer with crosslinks.
(C) Some fibres have crystalline nature.
(D) Thermoplastic polymers have stronger intermolecular forces than fibres

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Q.17 Match the column.
Column I Column II

(A) (CH 2  C  CH  CH 2 
)n (P) Thermoplastic polymer
|
Cl
H H O O
| | || ||
(B) ( N  (CH 2 )6  N  C  (CH 2 ) 4  C)n (Q) Thermosetting polymers
Cl
|
(C) (CH 2  CH ) n (R) Fibres

OH OH

(D) (S) Elastomer

Q.18 Match the column.

Column I Column II

(A) Teflone (P) Natural Polymer

(B) Natural Rubber (Q) Condensation

(C) Terylene (R) Linear Polymer

(D) Proteins (S) Co-Polymer

POC
CHO
Q.19 AcONa (P)
+ AC2O
Before isolating (P) unreacted Ph–CHO is removed first. Select the correct statement.

(A) P is cinnamaldehyde
(B) Removal of PhCHO is done by passing steam into the mixture
(C) Removal is done by simple distillation
(D) P is cinnamic acid.

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Q.20 Match the column
Column I Column II
(component of mixture) (Reagent)

(A) Crystalline Na2CO3 + Sodium citrate + CuSO4(aq. sol.) (P) Fehling solution

(B) CuSO4 + Rochelle Salt + NaOH(aq. sol.) (Q) Nesseler's Reagent

(C) 10%  - naphthol in alcohol (R) Benedict's solution

(D) HgCl + KI + KOH (aq. sol.) (S) Molisch's Reagent

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EXERCISE III
Q.1 The pKa values for the three acidic group P,Q,R are 4.3, 9.7 and 2.2 respectively
(R) (P)
HOOC–CH –CH2–COOH
+
NH3
(Q)
Calculate the isoelectric point of the amino acid ?

Q.2 Statement 1 : Bromine water changes glucose to gluconic acid.

Statement 2 : Bromine water acts as oxidising agent.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Comprehension (3 to 5)
Consider the following reversible process for a reaction of D-glucose.
+
H
Y
CH2OH O -D-isomer
HO H  CH 3OH
OH  [X]
OH
HO
D-glucose Z
( or  form) + -D-isomer
H

Q.3 The structure of intermediate [X] is

 CH2OH O
CH2OH O
HO OH
(A) (B) OH
OH
HO O
CH 2OH O CH2OH O
HO HO
(C) (D) OH
O OH
HO HO

Q.4 Select the correct option.

CH2OH O CH2OH O
HO HO
(A) Y is H (B) Z is OCH3
OH OH
HO OMe HO H
CH2OH O
CH2OH O HO
H
(C) Y is OH (D) Z is OH
OH HO OCH3
H
OCH3

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Q.5 Which of the following is positional isomer of -D glucose?

CH2OH O
CH2OH O
HO
(A) OH (B) HO OCH3
HO OH
OCH3 HO

OH OH
CH2OH CH2OH

(C) HO OH (D) HO OCH3

OH OH
O O
Comprehension (Q.6 to Q.8)
G
The monomer (G = Me or Cl) when treated with Zieglar - Natta catalyst undergo polymerisation
in the manner given below -
Zieglar-Natta
n
Catalyst n
cis-poly-1,3-butadiene
Q.6 The Zieglar-Natta catalyst is
(A) TiCl4 (B) R3Al (C) R3 Al / TiCl4 (D) R3 B/TiCl4

Cl
Q.7 The polymer obtained when monomeric unit used is CH2=C–CH=CH2
(A) Neoprene (B) Stilbene (C) Styrene (D) Chloropicrin

Q.8 Which of the following statement is not true considering the process given above.
(A) The general class of polymer formed is known as homopolymer
(B) The polymer obtained is stereoregular
(C) Buna–N can be prepared using above process
(D) Synthetic rubber can be formed by above process using 1,3- butadiene.

Q.9 Match the column :

Column I Column II
(Carbohydrate) (Properties)

(A) Starch (P) Mutarotation

(B) Sucrose (Q) Non reducing sugar
(C) Lactose (R) -glycosidic bond
(D) Maltose (S) -glycosidic bond
(T) Reducing sugar
(U) Hemiacetal

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Q.10 Match the column :

Column I Column II
CH2OH O
HO H
CH2OH O
(A) HO OH O OH (P) -glycoside bonds
OH
HO H
H OH
O H
CH 2 O OH
HO
(B) OH O (Q) Reducing sugar
OH OH
HO HOCH2

CH2OH O H
HO
HO
HO
O
HOCH 2 O
(C) (R) Forms enediol intermediate
HO
CH2OH
OH
HOCH2 HOCH2
O O
(D) HO O OH (S) -glycoside bond
HO OH HO OH

Q.11 Match the column.

Column I Column II
(A) Addition polymer (P) Buna-S
(B) Condensation polymer (Q) Buna-N
(C) Homopolymer (R) Polythene
(D) Copolymers (S) Nylon 6,6

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Q.12 Match the column
Column I Column II
(Functional group) (Test used or complex formed during confirmatory test)

(A) Aldehydic (P) [(C6H5O)6Fe]–3 (violet)

–
CH — C–O
O O
Cu
(B) Phenolic (Q) O (blue)
O
–
CH — C–O

RCH(OH)OSONH
(C) Alcohol (R) C NH
RCH(OH)OSONH violet red

(S) (ROH)2Ce(NO3)4 (Red)

(T) Molisch's Test

Q.13 Read following statements.

(a) Protein on complete hydrolysis give.
(b) Hormons belong to the class of
(c) Carbohydrates are stored in the body as
(d) The excess of glucose is stored in the liver as
Which set of terms correctly identifies the statements given above.
(i) Lipids (ii) -amino acid (iii) Peptides (iv) Fats
(v) Proteins (vi) Cellulose (vii) Glycogen (viii) Peptones

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EXERCISE-I

Q.1 D Q.2 A Q.3 D Q.4 B Q.5 A Q.6 A Q.7 B

Q.8 B Q.9 A Q.10 C Q.11 A Q.12 D Q.13 C Q.14 A

Q.15 D Q.16 B Q.17 A Q.18 A Q.19 C Q.20 A Q.21 D

Q.22 C Q.23 B Q.24 D Q.25 A Q.26 C Q.27 A Q.28 A

Q.29 C Q.30 A Q.31 A Q.32 B Q.33 B Q.34 D Q.35 C

Q.36 C Q.37 B Q.38 B Q.39 A Q.40 B Q.41 B Q.42 B

Q.43 B Q.44 B Q.45 D Q.46 B Q.47 C Q.48 A Q.49 A

Q.50 D Q.51 C Q.52 B Q.53 D Q.54 C Q.55 B Q.56 C

Q.57 D Q.58 C Q.59 B Q.60 B

EXERCISE II

Q.1 A,B,C,D Q.2 A,B,C,D Q.3 A,B,C Q.4 B,D Q.5 B,C,D

Q.6 A,B,D Q.7 A,B,C Q.8 B,C,D Q.9 A,B,D Q.10 A,B,C,D

Q.11 A,B,C Q.12 B,C Q.13 A,B,C,D Q.14 (A) Q,S (B) S (C) R,S (D) R,S

Q.15 A,B,C,D Q.16 A,B,C Q.17 (A) S, (B)R, (C)P, (D) Q

Q.18 (A) R (B) P,R (C) Q,S (D) P,Q,S Q.19 B,D Q.20 (A)R (B) P (C) S (D) Q

EXERCISE III
Q.1 3.25 Q.2 A Q.3 A Q.4 D Q.5 C Q.6 C Q.7 A

Q.8 C Q.9 (A) Q,S (B) Q,S (C) P,R,T,U (D) P,S,T,U

Q.10 (A) P,Q,R (B) P (C) P (D) P,Q,R Q.11 (A) P,Q,R (B) S, (C) R, (D) P,Q,S

Q.12 (A) Q,P (B) P, (C) S (D) T Q.13 2577

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CHEMICAL BONDING
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS BASED ON FUNDAMENTALS

EXERCISE - 1(ONLY ONE ANSWER IS CORRECT)

Q.1 Which of the following diagram / statement is correct for the hybrid orbitals.
(A) s + py  z z
2
(B) s + py + pz  sp orbitals lie in the xy plane
(C) ns + np3 + (n-1)d2  results octahedral geometry of sp3d2 hybrid orbitals.
(D) None of these

Q.2 The type of overlap in the bridge bond existing in Al2(CH3)6 is

(A) sp3 – sp3d – sp3 (B) sp3 – sp2 – sp3
3
(C) sp – s – sp3 (D) sp3 – sp3 – sp3

Q.3 Write the maximum number of atoms having same hybridisation in 2, 5-di-N-chloridothioimino-3, 4-
diagonothiophene as shown below : N N
C C

C=C

C C
N S N

S S
Cl Cl

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8

Q.4 Which of the following statements are not correct?

(A) Hybridization is the mixing of atomic orbitals
(B) sp 2  hybrid orbitals are formed from two p - atomic orbitals and one s- atomic orbitals
(C) dsp 2  hybrid orbitals are at 90º to one another
(D) d 2 sp 3  hybrid orbitals are directed towards the corners of a regular octahedron

Q.5 Which of the following overlaps is incorrect [assuming z-axis to be the internuclear axis]
  2 py
(a) 2 py + 2 py   2 pz
(b) 2 pz + 2 pz 

 2 px
(c) 2 px + 2 px  1s2 py
(d) 1 s + 2 py 
(A) ‘a’ & ‘b’ (B) ‘b’ & ‘d’ (C) only ‘d’ (D) None of these

Q.6 The correct order of increasing X  O  X bond angle is ( X  H , F or Cl ) :

(A) H 2O  Cl 2O  F2 O (B) Cl 2O  H 2O  F2 O
(C) F2 O  Cl2 O  H 2 O (D) F2 O  H 2 O  Cl2O

Q.7 In the context of carbon, which of the following is arranged in the correct order of electronegativity :
(A) sp  sp 2  sp 3 (B) sp 3  sp 2  sp (C) sp 2  sp  sp 3 (D) sp 3  sp  sp 2

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Q.8 When 2s  2s, 2 p  2 p and 2 p  2s orbitals overlap, the bond strength decreases in the order :
(A) p  p  s  s  p  s (B) p  p  p  s  s  s
(C) s  s  p  p  p  s (D) s  s  p  s  p  p
Q.9 +
The bond energy order of He2 and HeH is +

(A) He2+ > HeH+ (B) HeH+ = He2+ (C) HeH+ > He2+ (D) Can't be predicted

Q.10 The maximum covalency is equal to

(A) the number of unpaired p-electrons
(B) the number of paired d-electrons
(C) the number of unpaired s and p-electrons
(D) total number of unpaired electron in ground state or in existence state

Q.11 Comment on the CNC and HNN in CH3NCS and HN3 respectively.
(A) less than 120° and less than 120° (B) Greater than 120° and less than 120°
(C) less than 120° and greater than 120° (D) Greater than 120° and greater than 120°

Q.12 Among the following, van der Waals forces are maximum in
(A) HBr (B) LiBr (C) LiCl (D) AgBr

Q.13 Among the following, the correct statement is :

(A) Between NH3 and PH3, NH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies
spherical ‘s’ orbital and is less directional
(B) Between NH3 and PH3, PH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies
sp3 orbital and is more directional
(C) Between NH3 and PH3, NH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies
sp3 orbital and is more directional
(D) Between NH3 and PH3, PH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies
spherical ‘s’ orbital and is less directional

Q.14 Oxidation state of ‘S’ in peroxodisulphuric acid and sodium tetrathionate

(A) + 6 , + 5 , 0 (B) + 6, + 6, + 6 (C) + 6, + 4, + 2 (D) + 6, + 2, + 0

Q.15 The bond angle in PH 3 is :

(A) Much lesser than NH 3 (B) Equal to that in NH 3
(C) Much greater than in NH 3 (D) Slightly more than in NH 3

Q.16 In a molecule of phosphorus (V)oxide, there are

(A) 4P–P, 10P–O and 4P=O bonds (B) 12P–O and 4P=O bonds
(C) 2P–O and 4P=P bonds (D) 6P–P, 12P–O and 4P=P bonds

Q.17 There is no S–S bond in:

(A) S2O42– (B) S2O52– (C) S2O32– (D) S2O72–

Q.18 The presence of lone pair in NH3 can change its :

(A) shape (B) angle as per hybridisation
(C) (A) & (B) both (D) Neither (A) nor (B)

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Q.19 In ICl -4 , the shape is square planar. The number of bond pair-lone pair repulsion at 90° are:
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 4

Q.20 Arrange the following in order of decreasing N  O bond length : NO2 , NO2 , NO3
(A) NO3  NO2  NO2 (B) NO3  NO2  NO2
  
(C) NO2  NO3  NO2 (D) NO2  NO3  NO2

Q.21 Which of the set of isomers of C6H4Cl2 is having equal dipole moment with C6H5Cl and C6H6 respectively
(A) ortho and meta (B) meta and para
(C) ortho and para (D) para and ortho

Q.22 In which of following cases C–C bond length will be highest.

(A) CH3–CF3 (B) FCH2–CH2F (C) F2CH–CHF2 (D) CF3–CF3

Q.23 The cationic part of solid Cl2O6 is having the "___________" shape.
(A) linear (B) angular (C) Tetrahedron (D) undefined

Q.24 Borax is actually made of two tetrahedra and two triangular units joined together and should be written
as: Na2[B4O5(OH)4]·8H2O
Consider the following statements about borax:
a. Each boron atom has four B–O bonds
b. Each boron atom has three B–O bonds
c. Two boron atoms have four B–O bonds while other two have three B–O bonds
d. Each boron atom has one –OH groups
Select correct statement(s):
(A) a, b (B) b, c (C) c, d (D) a, c

Q.25 Hybridization of carbon in C3O2 is :

(A) sp (B) sp 2 (C) sp 3 (D) sp 3d

Q.26 Which of the following has been arranged in order of decreasing bond length ?
(A) P  O  Cl  O  S  O (B) P  O  S  O  Cl  O
(C) S  O  Cl  O  P  O (D) Cl  O  S  O  P  O

Q.27 The shapes of PCl 4 , PCl 4 and AsCl 5 are respectively :

(A) square planar, tetrahedral and see-saw
(B) tetrahedral, see-saw and trigonal bipyramidal
(C) tetrahedral, square planar and pentagonal bipyramidal
(D) trigonal bipyramidal, tetrahedral and square pyramidal

Q.28 PCl 5 exists but NCl 5 does not because :

(A) Nitrogen has no vacant d-orbitals (B) NCl 5 is unstable
(C) Nitrogen atom is much smaller than p (D) Nitrogen is highly inert

Q.29 The correct order of increasing s-character (in percentage) in the hybrid orbitals of following molecules/
ions is:
(I) CO 32 (II) XeF4 (III) I3 (IV) NCl3 (V) BeCl2
(A) II < III < IV < I < V (B) II < IV < III < V < I
(C) III < II < I < V < IV (D) II < IV < III < I < V

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Q.30 Molecular shapes of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are:

(A) the same, with 2, 0 and1 lone pair of electrons respectively
(B) the same, with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively
(C) different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pair of electrons respectively
(D) different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pair of electrons respectively

Q.31 Which has higher bond energy :

(A) F2 (B) Cl 2 (C) Br2 (D) I 2

Q.32 C—H bond distance is the longest in:

(A) C2H2 (B) C2H4 (C) C2H6 (D) C2H2Br2

Q.33 Maximum bond energy is in :

(A) F2 (B) N 2 (C) O2 (D) equal

Q.34 In the cyanide ion the negative charge is on

(A) C (B) N (C) Both C and N (D) Resonate between C and N

Q.35 The bond angle and hybridization in ether (CH 3OCH 3 ) is :

(A) 106º51, sp 3 (B) 104º31, sp 3 (C) 110º , sp 3 (D) None of these

Q.36 A: tetracyanomethane B: Carbondioxide C: Benzene D: 1, 3–buta–di–ene

Ratio of  and  bonds is in order:
(A) A=B<C<D (B) A=B<D<C (C) A=B=C=D (D) C<D<A<B

Q.37 The enolic form of acetone contains :

(A) 9 sigma, 1 pi bond and 2 lone pairs (B) 8 sigma, 2 pi bond and 2 lone pairs
(C) 10 sigma, 1 pi bond and 1 lone pairs (D) 9 sigma, 2 pi bond and 1 lone pairs

Q.38 The number of -bond and -bond in HCP are respectively

(A) 2 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 1 (D) None

Q.39 (C—Cl) bond in CH2=CH–Cl (vinyl chloride) is stabilised in the same way as in:
(A) benzyl chloride (B) ethyl chloride (C) chlorobenzene (D) allyl chloride

Q.40 The correct order of acidic strength of oxy-acids of chlorine is

(A) HCIO < HCIO2 < HCIO3 < HCIO4 (B) HCIO4 < HCIO3 < HCIO2 < HCIO
(C) HCIO > HCIO4 > HCIO3 > HCIO2 (D) HCIO4 < HCIO2 > HCIO3 > HCIO

COOH
Q.41 CH2 P4O10 , 150C
   X
COOH
Compound (X) is
(A) malonic acid (B) carbon suboxide (C) tartaric acid (D) acetic acid

Q.42 Mg2C3 reacts with water forming propyne, C34– has:

(A) two sigma and two pi bonds (B) three sigma and one pi bonds
(C) two sigma and one pi bonds (D) two sigma and three pi bonds

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Q.43 How many sigma and pi bonds are present in tetracyanoethylene ?
(A) Nine  and nine  (B) Five  and nine 
(C) Nine  and seven  (D) Eight  and eight 

Q.44 H  B  H bond angle in BH 4 is :
(A) 180º (B) 120º (C) 109º (D) 90º

Q.45 The hydration of ionic compounds involves :

(A) Evolution of heat (B) Weakening of attractive forces
(C) Dissociation into ions (D) All of these

Q.46 For which of the following crystalline substances does the solubility in water increase upto 32º C and
then decrease rapidly ?
(A) CaCl2 .2H 2O (B) Na 2SO 4 .10H 2O (C) FeSO4 .7 H 2O (D) Alums

Q.47 Among KO2 , AlO2 , BaO2 and NO2 unpaired electron is present in :
(A) KO2 only (B) NO2 and BaO2 (C) KO2 and AlO2 (D) BaO2 only

Q.48 If a molecule MX 3 has zero dipole moment, the sigma bonding orbitals used by M (atm. no. < 21) are :
(A) pure p (B) sp hybrid (C) sp 2 hybrid (D) sp 3 hybrid

Q.49 Identify isostructural pairs from NF3(I) , NO3-(II) , BF3(III) , H3O+(IV), HN3 (V)
(A) I & II, III & IV (B) I & V, II & III (C) I & IV, II & III (D) I & IV, III & V

Q.50 Which of the following species are hypervalent?

1. ClO4–, 2. BF3, 3. SO42– , 4. CO32–
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 1, 3 (C) 3, 4 (D) 1, 2

Q.51 Boron forms BX3 type of halides. The correct increasing order of Lewis-acid strength of these halides is
(A) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3 (B) BI3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(C) BF3 > BI3 > BCl3 > BBr3 (D) BF3 > BCl3 > BI3 > BBr3

Q.52 Which one of the following statements is not true regarding diborane?
(A) It has two bridging hydrogens and four perpendicular to the rest.
(B) When methylated, the product is Me4B2H2.
(C) The bridging hydrogens are in a plane perpendicular to the rest.
(D) All the B–H bond distances are equal.

Q.53 The structure of diborane (B2H6) contains

(A) Four (2C–2e–) bonds and two (2C–3e–) bonds
(B) Two (2C–2e–) bonds and two (3C–2e–) bonds
(C) Four (2C–2e–) bonds and four (3C– 2e–) bonds
(D) None

Q.54 The molecular shapes of diborane is shown:

Consider the following statements for diborane:
1. Boron is approximately sp3 hybridised
2. B–H–B angle is 180°
3. There are two terminal B–H bonds for each boron atom
4. There are only 12 bonding electrons available
Of these statements:
(A) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (D) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
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Q.55 Select correct statement about hydrolysis of BCl3 and NCl3
(A) NCl3 is hydrolysed and gives HOCl but BCl3 is not hydrolysed.
(B) Both NCl3 and BCl3 on hydrolysis gives HCl
(C) NCl3 on hydrolysis gives HOCl but BCl3 gives HCl.
(D) Both NCl3 and BCl3 on hydrolysis gives HOCl.

Q.56 Which of the following properties describes the diagonal relationship between boron and slicon?
(A) BCl3 is not hydrolysed while SiCl4 can be hydrolysed
(B) Both form oxides; B2O3 is amphoteric; SiO2 is acidic
(C) Both dissolve in cold and dilute nitric acid
(D) Borides and silicides are hydrolysed by water

Q.57 Type of hybridisation in transition state of SeF4, when it undergoes in hydrolysis

(A) sp3d (B) sp3d2 (C) dsp3 (D) sp3

Q.58 Which of the following halides cannot be hydrolysed?

(I) TeF6 (II) SF6 (III) NCl3 (IV) NF3
Choose the correct code :
(A) III & IV (B) I, II & III (C) I, II & IV (D) II & IV

Q.59 The critical temperature of water is higher than that of O2 because the H 2 O molecule has :
(A) fewer electrons than O2 (B) two covalents bonds
(C) V - shape (D) dipole moment

Q.60 Ethanol has a higher boiling point than dimethyl ether though they have the same molecular weight. This
is due to :
(A) resonance (B) coordinate bonding
(C) hydrogen bonding (D) ionic bonding

Q.61 Arrange the following in order of decreasing boiling point :

(I) n-Butane (II) n-Butanol (III) n-Butyl chloride (IV) Isobutane
(A) IV  III  II  I (B) IV  II  III  I (C) I  II  III  IV (D) II  III  I  IV

Q.62 Which of the following compounds would have significant intermolecular hydrogen bonding ?
HF , CH 3OH , N 2O4 , CH 4
(A) HF , N 2O4 (B) HF , CH 4 , CH 3OH
(C) HF , CH 3OH (D) CH 3OH , CH 4
Q.63 Which of the following molecules are expected to exhibit intermolecular H–bonding
I. Acetic acid II. o-nitrophenol III. m–nitrophenol IV. o–boric acid
(A) I, II, III (B) I, II, IV (C) I, III, IV (D) II, III, IV
Q.64 Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is found in :
(A) Salicylaldehyde (B) Water (C) Acetaldehyde (D) Phenol

Q.65 The pairs of bases in DNA are held together by :

(A) Hydrogen bonds (B) Ionic bonds (C) Phosphate groups (D) Deoxyribose groups

Q.66 The volatility of HF is low because of :

(A) its low polarizability (B) the weak dispersion interaction between the molecules
(C) its small molecular mass (D) its strong hydrogen bonding

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Q.67 Which one of the following does not have intermolecular H-bonding?
(A) H2O (B) o-nitro phenol (C) HF (D) CH3COOH

Q.68 Which of the following exhibit/s H-bonding?

(A) CH4 (B) H2Se (C) N2H4 (D) H2S

Q.69 Two ice cubes are pressed over each other and unite to form one cube. Which force is responsible for
holding them together :
(A) van der Waal’s forces (B) Covalent attraction
(C) Hydrogen bond formation (D) Dipole-dipole attraction

Q.70 Which has maximum dipole moment?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.71 Which of the following has been arranged in order of decreasing dipole moment ?
(A) CH 3Cl  CH 3 F  CH 3 Br  CH 3 I (B) CH 3 F  CH 3Cl  CH 3 Br  CH 3 I
(C) CH 3Cl  CH 3 Br  CH 3 I  CH 3 F (D) CH 3 F  CH 3Cl  CH 3 I  CH 3 Br

Q.72 The experimental value of the dipole moment of HCl is 1.03 D. The length of the H  Cl bond is
1.275 Å . The percentage of ionic character in HCl is :
(A) 43 (B) 21 (C) 17 (D) 7

Q.73 The total number of valence electrons in 4.2g of N 3 ion are :

(A) 2.2 N (B) 4.2 N (C) 1.6 N (D) 3.2 N

Q.74 Which of the following has the least dipole moment

(A) NF3 (B) CO2 (C) SO2 (D) NH 3

Q.75 Amongst LiCl , RbCl , BeCl 2 and MgCl 2 , the compounds with the greatest and the least ionic character,,
respectively are :
(A) LiCl and RbCl (B) RbCl and BeCl 2 (C) RbCl and MgCl 2 (D) MgCl 2 and BeCl 2

Q.76 The polarizibility of the following compounds is/are

(A) I- > Br - > Cl- > F- (B) I- > Br - > F- > Cl-
- -
(C) I < Br < Cl < F- - (D) I- < Br - < F- < Cl-
Q.77 Compound with maximum ionic character is formed from :
(A) Na and Cl (B) Cs and F (C) Cs and I (D) Na and F

Q.78 The melting point of AlF3 is 104º C and that of SiF4 is - 77º C (it sublimes) because :
(A) there is a very large difference in the ionic character of the Al  F and Si  F bonds
(B) in AlF3 , Al 3 interacts very strongly with the neighbouring F  ions to give a three dimensional
structure but in SiF4 no such interaction is possible
(C) the silicon ion in the tetrahedral SiF4 is not shielded effectively from the fluoride ions whereas in
AlF3 , the Al 3 ion is shielded on all sides
(D) the attractive forces between the SiF4 molecules are strong whereas those between the AlF3 molecules
are weak
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Q.79 Which of the following equilibria would have the highest value of K p at a common temperature ?
(A) MgCO3  MgO  CO2 (B) CaCO3  CaO  CO2
(C) SrCO3  SrO  CO2 (D) BaCO3  BaO  CO2

Q.80 Which of the following sets of characteristics leads to the increase in solubility of ionic substances ?
(A) High dipole moment, strong attraction by an ion and large solvation energy
(B) Low dipole moment, weak attraction by an ion and high solvation energy
(C) High dipole moment, strong attraction by an ion and low solvation energy
(D) High dipole moment, weak attraction by an ion and large solvation energy

Q.81 The solubility of anhydrous AlCl3 and hydrous AlCl3 in diethyl ether are S1 and S2 respectively. Then
(A) S1 = S2 (B) S1 > S2 (C) S1 < S2 (D) S1 < S1 but not S1 = S2

Q.82 During the formation of a molecular orbital from atomic orbitals, probability of electron density is:
(A) minimum in the nodal plane (B) maximum in the nodal plane
(C) zero in the nodal plane (D) zero on the surface of the lobe

Q.83 Pick out the incorrect statement?

(A) N2 has greater dissociation energy than N2+
(B) O2 has lower dissociation energy than O2+
(C) Bond length in N2+ is less than N2
(D) Bond length in NO+ is less than in NO.

Q.84 Which of the following species is paramagnetic ?

(A) NO  (B) O22 (C) CN  (D) CO

Q.85 Bond order of Be2 is :

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0

Q.86 A simplified application of MO theory to the hypothetical ‘molecule’ OF would give its bond order as :
(A) 2 (B) 1.5 (C) 1.0 (D) 0.5

Q.87 Number of anti bonding electrons in N 2 is :

(A) 4 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14

Q.88 The bond order depends on the number of electrons in the bonding and antibonding orbitals. Which of
the following statements is /are correct about bond order?
(A)Bond order cannot have a negative value.
(B) It always has an integral value.
(C) It is a nonzero quantity.
(D) It can assume any value-positive or negative, integral or fractional, including zero.

Q.89 In the formation of N 2 from N 2 , the electron is removed from :

(A)  orbital (B)  orbital (C)  * orbital (D) * orbital

Q.90 Which of the following is true ?

1 1
(A) Bond order  bond length  bond energy (B) Bond order  bond length  bond energy
1 1
(C) Bond order  bond length  bond energy (D) Bond order  bond length  bond energy

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Q.91 Which of the following has fractional bond order :

(A) O22 (B) O22 (C) F22 (D) H 2

Q.92 How many unpaired electrons are present in N 2 :

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

Q.93 Si2O76– anion is obtained when

(A) no oxygen of a SiO4 tetrahedron is shared with another SiO4 tetrahedron.
(B) one oxygen of a SiO4 tetrahedron is shared with another SiO4 tetrahedron.
(C) two oxygen of a SiO4 tetrahedron are shared with another SiO4 tetrahedron.
(D) three or all four oxygens of a tetrahedron are shared with other SiO4 tetrahedron.

Q.94 Match list I with list II and select the correct answer:
List I (species) List II (O–N–O angle)
A. NO2 + 1. 180°
B. NO 2 2. 134°
C. NO 2 – 3. 120°
D. NO 3 – 4. 115°
5. 109°
A B C D A B C D
(A) 5 4 3 2 (B) 5 2 4 3
(C) 1 2 4 3 (D) 1 4 3 2

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MISCELLANEOUS QUESTIONS

EXERCISE - 2 (ONE & MORE ANSWER IS CORRECT)

Q.1 The experimental result says that two iodine atoms are in different environments and predict the all
possible incorrect arrangement for I2Cl4Br2.
Cl Cl Br Br Cl Br
(A) I I (B) I I
Cl Cl Br Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl Br Cl Br Cl
(C) I I (D) I I
Br Cl Cl Cl Br Cl
Q.2 Choose the correct order for the given properties.
(A) MgSO4 < SrSO4 < BaSO4 : Thermal stability order
(B) BeC2O4 < CaC2O4 < BaC2O4 : Solubility in water
(C) LiCl > NaCl > KCl : Melting point order
(D) BeF2 > CaF2 > SrF2 : Covalent character order

Q.3 Which have fractional bond order?

(A) O2+ (B) O2 (C) NO (D) H2+

Q.4 Which has (have) zero value of dipole moment?

(A) XeF4 (B) CHCl3 (C) CO2 (D) Cl Cl

Q.5 Which of the following have planar structure?

(A) I3 (B) H2O (C) PCl5 (D) XeF4

Q.6 Which of the following have dipole moment ?

(A) nitrobenzene (B) p-chloronitrobenzene
(C) m-dichlorobenzene (D) o-dichlorobenzene

Q.7 In the structure of H2CSF4, which of the following statement is/are correct?
(A) Two C–H bonds are in the same plane of axial S–F bonds.
(B) Two C–H bonds are in the same plane of equitorial S–F bonds.
(C) Total six atoms are in the same plane.
(D) Equitorial S–F plane is perpendicular to nodal plane of –bond.

Q.8 Which of the following compounds contain/s both ionic and covalent bonds?
(A) NH4Cl (B) KCN (C) CuSO4·5H2O (D) NaOH

Q.9 Which of the following statements are not correct?

(A) All C–O bonds in CO 32 are equal but not in H2CO3.

(B) All C–O bonds in HCO 2 are equal but not in HCO2H

(C) C–O bond length in HCO 2 is longer than C–O bond length in CO 32 .

(D) C–O bond length in HCO 2 and C–O bond length in CO 32 are equal.
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Q.10 Resonance occurs due to the
(A) delocalization of a lone pair of electrons (B) delocalization of sigma electrons
(C) delocalization of pi electrons (D) migration of protons

Q.11 Which of following stability order is/are correct due to inert pair effect.
(A) Hg° > Hg2+ (B) Bi3+ < Bi5+ (C) Pb2+ > Pb4+ (D) Fe2+ < Fe3+

Q.12 Which of the following statements is/are true?

(A) Covalent bonds are directional
(B) Ionic bonds are nondirectional
(C) A polar bond is formed between two atoms which have the same electronegativity value.
(D) The presence of polar bonds in a polyatomic molecule suggests that it has zero dipole moment

Q.13 Which of the following have identical bond order?

(A) O22 (B) NO  (C) CN  (D) CN 

Q.14 Which of the following statement is/are correct

(A) The peroxide ion has a bond order of 1 while the oxygen molecule has a bond order of 2
(B) The peroxide ion has a weaker bond than the dioxygen molecule has.
(C) The peroxide ion as well as the dioxygen molecules are paramagnetic
(D) The bond length of the peroxide ion is greater than that of the dioxygen molecule

Q.15 Given the species : N 2 , CO, CN  and NO  . Which of the following statements are true for these
(A) All species are paramagnetic (B) The species are isoelectronic
(C) All the species have dipole moment (D) All the species are linear

Q.16 Which of the following have unpaired electron(s)

(A) O2 (B) O2 (C) NO (D) H 2

Q.17 Colour of which of the following is attributed to charge transfer spectrum ?

(A) KMnO 4 (B) KO2 (C) K 2 Cr2 O7 (D) AgI

Q.18 What is the state of hybridisation of Xe in cationic part of solid XeF6.

(A) sp3d3 (B) sp3d2 (C) sp3d (D) sp3

Q.19 Rotation around the bond (between the underlined atoms) is restricted in :
(A) C 2 H 4 (B) H 2 O 2 (C) C 2 H 2 (D) C 2 H 6
Q.20 According to MOT (Molecular Orbital Theory), the molecular orbitals are formed by mixing of atomic
orbitals through LCAO (linear combination of atomic orbitals). The correct statement(s) about molecular
orbitals is/are
Statement (a) :bonding molecular orbitals are formed by addition of wave-functions of atomic
orbitals of same phase
Statement (b) : anti-bonding molecular orbitals are formed by subtraction of wave-functions of
atomic orbitals of same phase
Statement (c) : non-bonding molecular orbitals do not take part in bond formation because they
belong to inner shells
Statement (d) : anti-bonding molecular orbitals provide stability to molecules while bonding
molecular orbitals make the molecules unstable.
(A) Statement a, d (B) Statement a, b, c (C) Statement a, b, d (D) Statement a, b

Q.21 No X  X bond exists in which of the following compounds having general form of X 2 H 6 ?
(A) B2 H 6 (B) C 2 H 6 (C) Al 2 H 6 (D) Si2 H 6
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Q.22 Which of the following species is (are) isostructural with XeF4 ?

(A) ICl4 (B) I 5 (C) BrF4 (D) XeO4

Q.23 Which one of the following compounds has bond angle as nearly 90º ?
(A) NH 3 (B) H 2 S (C) H 2 O (D) SF6

Q.24 The linear structure is assumed by :

(A) SnCl 2 (B) NCO  (C) CS 2 (D) NO2

Q.25 Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

(A) NH 2 shows sp 2  hybridisation whereas NH 2 shows sp 3  hybridisation
(B) Al (OH ) 4 has a regular tetrahedral geometry
(C) sp 2  hybridized orbitals have equal s- and p- character
(D) Usually hybridized orbitals form  - bonds

Q.26 Choose the correct option for the following molecule in view of chemical bonding

(A) non-planar (B)   0 (C) A & B both (D)  = 0

Q.27 Of the following isoelectronic & isostructural species are

NO3—, ClO3—, SO3 & CO32—
(A) NO3— & CO32— (B) SO3 & CO32
(C) NO3 & ClO3— (D) CO32— & ClO3—

Q.28 Shape of NH 3 is very similar to :

(A) SeO32 (B) CH 3 (C) BH 3 (D) CH 3

Q.29 Polarization may be called the distortion of the shape of an anion by an adjacently placed cation. Which
of the following statements is/are incorrect:
(A) Minimum polarization is brought about by a cation of low radius
(B) A large cation is likely to bring about a large degree of polarization
(C) Maximum polarization is brought about by a cation of high charge
(D) A small anion is likely to undergo a large degree of polarization

Q.30 Pick out among the following species isoelectronic with CO2 :
(A) N 3 (B) (CNO)  (C) (NCN ) 2 (D) NO2

Q.31 Which is correct statement?

As the s-character of a hybrid orbital decreases
(I) The bond angle decreases (II) The bond strength increases
(III) The bond length increases (IV) Size of orbital increases
(A) (I), (III) and (IV) (B) (II), (III) and (IV)
(C) (I) and (II) (D) All are correct

Q.32 Resonating strctures of a molecule should have:

(A) identical bonding (B) identical ararngement of atoms
(C) nearly the same energy content (D) the same number of paired electrons

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Q.33 Which of the following conditions apply to resonating structures ?

(A) The contributing structures should have nearly similar energies
(B) The contributing structures should be represented such that like charges reside on atoms that are far
apart
(C) The more electropositive element should preferably have positive charge and the more electronegative
element have negative charge
(D) The contributing structures must have the same number of unpaired electrons
Q.34 A -bond may between two p x orbitals containing one unpaired electron each when they approach
each other appropriately along :
(A) x - axis (B) y - axis (C) z - axis (D) any direction
Q.35 During the complete combustion of methane CH4, what change in hybridisation does the carbon atom
undergo?
(A) sp3 to sp (B) sp3 to sp2 (C) sp2 to sp (D) sp2 to sp3
Q.36 The octet rule is not obeyed in :
(A) CO2 (B) BCl3 (C) PCl 5 (D) SiF4
Q.37 A, B, C are three substances. A does not conduct electricity in the soild, molten state and aqueous solution.
B conducts electricity both in the fused and aqueous states, while C conducts electricity only in the aqueous
state. In solid state neither B nor C conducts electricity. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding
A, B and C ?
(A) A has polar covalent linkage (B) A has nonpolar covalent linkage
(C) B is ionic in nature (D) Cation formed by C is highy polarizing
Q.38 Three centre – two electron bonds exist in :
(A) B2H6 (B) Al2(CH3)6 (C) BeH2(s) (D) BeCl2(s)
Q.39 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding ionic compounds ?
(A) They are good conductors of electricity at room temperature
(B) They are always more soluble in polar solvents than covalent compounds
(C) They consists of ions
(D) They generally have high melting and boling points
Q.40 Most ionic compounds have :
(A) high melting points and low boiling points
(B) high melting points and nondirectional bonds
(C) high solubilities in polar solvents and low solubilities in nonpolar solvents
(D) three-dimentional network structures, and are good conductors of electricity in the molten state
Q.41 When an inorganic compound (X) having 3e-2e as well as 2e-2e bonds reacts with ammonia gas at a
certain temperature, gives a compound (Y) iso-structural with benzene. Compound (X) with ammonia
at a high temperature, produces a hard substance (Z). Then
(A) (X) is B2H6 (B) (Z) is known as inorganic graphite
(C) (Z) having structure similar to graphite (D) (Z) having structure similar to (X)
Q.42 Select correct statement about B2H6
(A) Bridging groups are electron-deficient with 12 valence electrons
(B) It has 2c - 2e B–H bonds
(C) It has 3c - 2e B–H–B bonds
(D) All of above are correct statements
Q.43 Which of the following pairs of nitrates gives the same gaseous products on thermal decomposition?
(A) KNO3 and Pb(NO3)2 (B) KNO3 and NaNO3
(C) Pb(NO3)2 and Cu(NO3)2 (D) NaNO3 and Ca(NO3)2

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ANSWER KEY

EXERCISE–I
Q.1 D Q.2 D Q.3 C Q.4 A Q.5 C Q.6 B Q.7 A
Q.8 B Q.9 C Q.10 D Q.11 B Q.12 D Q.13 C Q.14 A
Q.15 A Q.16 B Q.17 D Q.18 B Q.19 B Q.20 B Q.21 B
Q.22 B Q.23 B Q.24 C Q.25 A Q.26 B Q.27 B Q.28 A
Q.29 A Q.30 D Q.31 B Q.32 C Q.33 B Q.34 A Q.35 C
Q.36 A Q.37 A Q.38 A Q.39 C Q.40 A Q.41 B Q.42 A
Q.43 A Q.44 C Q.45 D Q.46 B Q.47 A Q.48 C Q.49 C
Q.50 B Q.51 B Q.52 D Q.53 D Q.54 A Q.55 C Q.56 D
Q.57 B Q.58 D Q.59 D Q.60 C Q.61 D Q.62 C Q.63 C
Q.64 A Q.65 A Q.66 D Q.67 B Q.68 C Q.69 C Q.70 A
Q.71 A Q.72 C Q.73 C Q.74 B Q.75 B Q.76 A Q.77 B
Q.78 B Q.79 A Q.80 A Q.81 B Q.82 C Q.83 C Q.84 A
Q.85 D Q.86 B Q.87 A Q.88 D Q.89 A Q.90 A Q.91 D
Q.92 A Q.93 B Q.94 C

EXERCISE–II
Q.1 B,C,D Q.2 A,D Q.3 A,B,C,D Q.4 A,C,D
Q.5 A,B,D Q.6 A,B,C,D Q.7 A,C,D Q.8 A,B,C,D
Q.9 C,D Q.10 A,C Q.11 A,C Q.12 A,B
Q.13 A,B,C Q.14 A,B,D Q.15 B,D Q.16 A,B,C,D
Q.17 A,C Q.18 B Q.19 A,B,C Q.20 D
Q.21 A,C Q.22 A,C Q.23 B,D Q.24 B,C,D
Q.25 A,B,D Q.26 D Q.27 A Q.28 A,B
Q.29 A,B,D Q.30 A,B,C Q.31 A Q.32 B,C,D
Q.33 A,B,C,D Q.34 B,C Q.35 A Q.36 B,C
Q.37 B,C,D Q.38 A,B,C Q.39 C,D Q.40 B,C,D
Q.41 A,B,C Q.42 B,C Q.43 B,C

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 COORDINATION COMPOUND FINAL LAP - 2019

COORDINATION COMPOUND
SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS BASED ON FUNDAMENTALS

EXERCISE - 1(ONLY ONE ANSWER IS CORRECT)

SECTION (A) : NOMENCLATURE OF COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
1. Name the following compounds
(a) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3, Prepared in 1798 by B.M. Tassaert and considered to be first complex salt prepared.
(b) [Rh(NH3)5I]I2, A yellow colored complex obtained by heating [Rh(NH3)5(H2O)]I3 above 1000C.
(c) [Fe(CO)5], A highly toxic volatile liquid
(d) [Fe(C2O4)3]3–, The ion formed when Fe2O3 rust is dissolved in oxalic acid H2C2O4.
(e) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4, A deep blue compound obtained when CuSO4 is treated with excess of NH3
(f) Na[Cr(OH)4], The compound formed when Cr(OH)3 ppt is dissolved in excess of NaOH.
(g) Co(gly)3, A complex that contains the anion of amino acid glycine.
(h) [Fe(H2O)5(NCS)]2+, The red complex ion formed in the qualitative analysis test of Fe3+ ion.
(i) K2[HgI4], Alkaline solutionof this complex is called Nessler’s Reagent.
(j) Co[Hg(SCN)4], Deep blue crystalline ppt obtained in qualitative detection of Hg2+.
(k) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3, Prussian blue, deep blue colored complex obtained in detection of Fe2+
(l) K3[Co(ONO)6], Potassium cobaltinitrite or Fischer salt yellow ppt, obtained in detection of Co2+.
(m) [Ni(dmg)2], Rosy red ppt obtained in detection of Ni2+ ions
(n) K2[PtCl6], yellow ppt obtained in detection of potassium ions.
(o) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO+], Sodium nitroprusside used for detection of sulphide ions/sulphur
(p) [Fe(H2O)5(NO+)]SO4, Brown ring complex, obtained in detection of Fe2+ ions
(q) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2, Turnbull’s blue, whose composition is found to be same as that of prussian blue.
3–
(r) [Cu(CN)4] , colorless ppt obtained in detection of Cu2+ on adding excess of KCN solution.
(s) [Cd(CN)4]2–, colorless, unstable complex of Cd2+ obtained on adding excess of KCN solution.
(t) (NH4)2[PtCl6], Only few compounds of ammonium ions are ppt, this is one of these, a yellow ppt.

2. Name the following compounds

(a) [Co(en)2Br(ONO)]+1 ; (b) [Co(NH3)6] [Co(ONO)6] ; (c) [Co(NH3)5(CO3)]Cl

(d) [Pt(NH3)4Cl 2] [PtCl 4] ; (e) [Co(en)3]2(SO4)3 ; (f) [Cr(PPh3)(CO)5]

(g) [(CO)5Mn-Mn(CO)5] ; (h) K[PtCl3(-C2H4)]; (i) Cr(-C6H6)2

(j) [NH(CH3)3][WCl(CO)5] ; (k) [Co(NH3)4(OH2)2][BF4]3 ; (l) Na4[Cu6(S2O3)5]

(m) Ba[Zr(OH)2(ONO)2(ox)] ;(n) [Co(NH3)6][Co(C2O4)3]

3. Write down the formulae of the following compounds

(a) diamminetriaquahydroxochromium (III) nitrate
(b) tetrakis(pyridine)platinum(II) tetraphenylborate(III)
(c) dibromotetracarbonyliron (II)
(d) ammonium diamminetetrakis(isothiocyanato)chromate(III).
(e) Pentaamminedinitrogenruthenium(II) chloride

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(f) Bis(cyclopentadienyl)iron(II)
(g) Barium dihydroxodinitrito-O-oxalatozirconate(IV)
(h) Tetrapyridineplatinum(II) tetrachloronickelate(II)

SECTION (B) : BONDING IN COORDINATION COMPOUNDS

(Initial bonding theories and EAN rule, Valence bond theory)
1. (You should the data given in the table of this question, there can be some objective questions based on this
data in other examinations)
Werner conducted many experiments to establish the formula of complexes, one of these were conductivity
measurements. On the basis of the experiments performed he obtained the following values of conductivity
for different type of complexes
Type of complex Electrical Conductivity
Nonelectrolyte 0 – 10 (due to impurities)
1:1 Electrolyte 90 – 130
1:2 or 2:1 Electrolyte 230 – 290
1:3 or 3:1 Electrolyte 390 – 450
1:4 Electrolyte 500 – 550

On the basis of above table Match the following two columns

COLUMN A COLUMN B
Formula of compound Conductivity Correct Werner’s Representation
(a) PtCl4.2NH3 – 6.99 (i) [Cr(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(b) PtCl4.NH3.KCl – 106.8 (ii) [Co(NH3)5Br]Br2
(c) CrCl3.5NH3 – 260.2 (iii) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
(d) PtCl4.2KCl – 256.8 (iv) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4]
(e) CrCl3.6NH3 – 441.7 (v) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4
(f) PtCl4.6NH3 – 522.9 (vi) [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]Cl
(g) CoBr3.5NH3 – 257.6 (vii) K2[PtCl6]
(h) PtCl4.3NH3 – 96.8 (viii) K[Pt(NH3)Cl5]

2. 1 gm of complex [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 . H2O was passed through a cation exchanger to produce HCl. The acid
liberated was diluted to 1 litre. The normality of acid solution will be [molecular weight of complex = 266.5]

3. (a) Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing molar coductivity

(a) K[Co(NH3)2(NO2)4] (b) [Cr(NH3)3(NO2)3] (c) [Cr(NH3)5(NO2)]3[Co(NO2)6]2
(d) Mg[Cr(NH3)(NO2)5]
(b) Deduce the value of x in the formulae of following complexes
(i) Mo(CO)x (b) HxCr(CO)5 (c) HxCo(CO)4
4. Calculate the EAN of central atom in the following complexes
(a) [Cr(CO)6] ; (b) [Fe(CN)6]4– ; (c) [Fe(CO)5] ; (d) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(e) [Ni(CO)4] ; (f) [Cu(CN)4]3– ; (g) [Pd(NH3)6]4+ ; (h) [PtCl6]2–
(i) [Fe(NO)2(CO)2] ; (j) [Fe(C5H5)2] ; (k) [Fe(CN)6]3– ; (l) [Ni(NH3)6]2+
(m) [PdCl4]2– ; (n) [Pt(NH3)4]2+ ; (o) [Co(NH3)6]2+

SECTION (C) : BONDING IN COORDINATION COMPOUNDS

(Crystal field theory)
1. [Co(NH3)6]3+ & [CoF6]3– both are complexes of Co(III), but [Co(NH3)6]3+ is diamagnetic which [CoF6]3– is
paramagnetic with  = 4.90 B.M. Explain.

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2. Predict the hybridisation and geometry of the following complexes
(a) [NiBr4]2– ; (b) [Fe(CN)6]3– ; (c) [MnCl6]3– ; (d) [AuCl4]–
(e) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ ; (f) [Pt(NH3)4]2+ ; (g) [Co(NCS)4]2– ; (h) [Cu(en)2]2+

3. How would you account for the following :

(a) [Fe(CN6]3– is weakly paramagnetic while [Fe(CN6]4– is diamagnetic
(b) All the octahedral complexes of Ni2+ must be outer orbital complexes.
(c) Cobalt (II) is stable in aqueous solution but in the presence of complexing reagents(strong field
ligands) it is readily oxidised.
(d) [Ni(CO)4] is tetrahedral whereas [Ni(CN)4]2- & [Pt(NH3)4]2+ are square planar.

4. Arrange the following in increasing order as directed.

(a) (a) [CoCl3 (NH3)3] , (b) [CoCl (NH3)5] Cl2 , (c) [Co(NH3)6] Cl3 , (d) [CoCl2 (NH3)4] Cl – Molar conductance
(b) C, N, O, X (halogen) -(donar atoms) - Strength of ligands.
(c) Br–, S2– , NO2– , CO , H2O, CN– , NH3, NO3– - strength of ligands.

SECTION (D) : APPLICATIONS OF CRYSTAL FIELD THEORY

(Color of complex, Magnetic moment of complex, Stability of complex)
1.  for IrCl63– is 27600 cm–1 (a) What is the wavelength of maximum absorption? (b) What would you predict for
the magnetic behaviour and the color of this ion(assume crystal field splitting to be high if it is in ultra violet
region)?

2. (a) [Ti(H2O)6]3+ absorbs light of wavelength 5000 Å. Name one ligand which would form a titanium(III) complex
absorbing light of lower wavelength than 5000 Å and one ligand which would a complex absorbing light of
wavelength higher than 5000 Å.
(b) Calculate the magnetic moments(spin only) of the following complexes
(i) [PtCl6]2– (ii) [Cr(CO)6] (iii) [Ir(NH3)6]3+ (iv) [Pd(en)2]2+

3. Predict the magnetic behaviour of the following complexes

(i) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (ii) [Rh(NH3)6]3+ (iii) [CoF6]3– (iv) [Mn(CN)6]3–
2–
(v) [MnBr4]

SECTION (E) : ISOMERISM IN COORDINATION COMPOUNDS

(Structural Isomerism, Stereoisomerism, Geometrical Isomerism, Optical Isomerism)
1. What type of isomers are the following :
(i) [Mn SCN (CO)5] and [Mn NCS (CO)5]
(ii) [Co(en)3] [Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(en)3] [Co(CN)6]
(iii) [Co NO3 (NH3)5 ] SO4 and [Co SO4 (NH3)5] NO3
(iv) [Co Cl (H2O)3 (py)2]Cl2 and [CoCl2 (H2O)2(py)2 ] Cl.H2O

2. How many geometrical isomers are possible for each of the following complexes.
(a) Pt (NH3)2(SCN)2 (b) [CoCl2Br2]2– (tetrahedral) (c) Co(NH3)3 (NO2)3
(d) Pt(en)Cl2 (e) [Cr Br2 (en)2]+ (f) [Rh(en)3]3+

3. Tell how many diastereoisomers are possible for each of the following complexes, and draw their structures:
(a) [Cr(NH3)2Cl4]– (b) [Co(NH3)5Br]2+ (c)[FeCl2(NCS)2]2–
(d) [PtCl2Br2]2– (e) [Pt(NH3)2(CN)2] (f) [Co(en)(SCN)4]–
+
(g) [Cr(H2O)2(NH3)2Cl2] (h) [Ru(NH3)3I3]

4. The octahedral complex [Rh(NO2) (SCN) (en)2]+ can exist in a total number of isomeric forms including
stereoisomers :

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SECTION (F) : ORGANOMETALLIC COMPOUNDS

1. Draw the structures of the following metal carbonyls
(a) [V(CO)6] (b) [Cr(CO)6] (c) [Mn2(CO)10]
(d) [Fe(CO)5] (e) [Co2(CO)8] (f) [Ni(CO)4] (g) [Fe2(CO)9]

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS BASED ON FUNDAMENTALS

EXERCISE - 2
SECTION (A) : GENERAL INTRODUCTION OF COMPLEX SALTS AND DEFINITIONS TO BE USED :
1.(a) Ethylene diamine is an example of a .......... ligand :
(A) monodentate (B) bidentate (C) tridentate (D) hexadentate
(b) The donor sites of (EDTA)4– are
(A) O atoms only (B) N atoms only
(C) Two N atoms and four O atoms (D) Three N atoms and three O atoms

2.(a) Some salts although containing two different metallic elements give test for one of them in solution. Such
salts are :
(A) Complex salt (B) Double salt (C) Normal salt (D) None

(b) All ligands are :

(A) Lewis acids (B) Lewis bases (C) neutral (D) none

3.(a) The oxidation state of Mo in its oxo-complex species [Mo2O4(C2H4)2(H2O)2]2– is

(A) +2 (B) +3 (C) +4 (D) +5
(b) Co-ordination number of platinum in [Pt(NH3)4Cl 2] ++ ion is:
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 8 (D) 6
(c) Which of the following is copper () compond :
(A) [Cu(H2O)4]2+ (B) [Cu(CN)4]3– (C) [Cu(NH3)4]++ (D) All of these

4.(a) Oxidation state of cobalt in the complex [Co(NO 2)6] 3– is :

(A) + 2 (B) + 3 (C) + 1 (D) +2 and + 3
(b) In the complex [Co(en) 2Cl 2]Br, the co-ordination number and oxidation state of cobalt are :
(A) 6 and +3 (B) 3 and +3 (C) 4 and +2 (D) 6 and +1
(c) What is the charge on the complex [Cr(C2O4)2(H2O)2] formed by Cr() :
(A) +3 (B) +1 (C) +2 (D) –1

SECTION (B) : NOMENCLATURE OF COORDINATION COMPOUNDS

1. The correct IUPAC name of the complex:

H3C OH
C = N• •
CoCl2 is :
••
C=N
H3C OH

(A) Dichloro(dimethylglyoxime)cobalt(II) (B) Bis(dimethyglyoxime)dichlorocobalt(II)

(C) Dimethylglyoximecobalt(II) chloride (D) Dichlorobis(dimethylglyoxime-N,N)-cobalt(II)

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2.(a) A complex cation is formed by Pt (in same oxidation state) with ligands (in proper number so that
coordination number of Pt becomes six). Which of the following can be its correct IUPAC name :
(A) Diammineethylenediaminedithiocyanato-S-platinum (II) ion
(B) Diammineethylenediaminedithiocyanato-S-platinate (IV) ion
(C) Diammineethylenediaminedithiocyanato-S-platinum (IV) ion
(D) Diamminebis (ethylenediamine) dithiocyanate-S- platinum (IV) ion
(b) Which of the following names is impossible :
(A) Potassium tetrafluorooxochromate (VI) (B) Barium tetrafluorobromate (III)
(C) Dichlorobis (urea) copper (II) (D) All are impossible.

3.(a) The formula of sodium nitroprusside is

(A) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] (B) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO+] (C) NaFe[Fe(CN)6] (D) Na2[Fe(CN)6NO2]
(b) In sodium nitroprusside, the oxidation number, co-ordination number and EAN of iron are respectively
(A) +3, 6, 36 (B) +2, 6, 36 (C) +3, 3, 36 (D) 6, +3, 35
(c) In Tollen’s reagent, the oxidation number, co-ordination number and effective atomic number of central metal
ion are respectively [atomic number of Ag - 47]
(A) +1, 2, 50 (B) +1, 2, 51 (C) 2, +1, 50 (D) +1, 1, 50
(d) The formula of the complex tris (ethylene diamine) cobalt (III) sulphate is :
(A) [Co(en)2SO4] (B) [Co(en)3SO4] (C) [Co(en)3]2SO4] (D) [Co(en)3]2(SO4)3

4.(a) Which of the following pairs of name and formula of complexes, is not correct :
(A) Tetramminecopper(II) sulphate............. [Cu(NH 3)4]SO4
(B) Diamminesilver(I) chloride ................ [Ag(NH 3)2]Cl
(C) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III) ............... K 4[Fe(CN)6]
(D) Potassium amminepentachloroplatinate (IV) ................. K[PtCl 5(NH3)]
(b) The correct IUPAC name for the compound [Co(NH3)4CI(ONO)]Cl is :
(A) Tetraamminechloronitrito–N–cobalt(III) chloride
(B) Chloronitrito–O–tetraamminecobalt(II) chloride
(C) Dichloronitrito–O–tetraamminecobalt (III)
(D) Tetraamminechloronitrito–O–cobalt(III) chloride
(c) The hypothetical complex chlorodiaquatriamminecobalt(III) chloride can be represented as :
(A) [CoCl(NH3)3(H2O)2]Cl2 (B) [Co(NH3)3(H2OCl3]
(C) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)2Cl] (D) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3 ]

SECTION (C) : BONDING IN COORDINATION COMPOUNDS

(Initial bonding theories and EAN rule, Valence bond theory)
1.(a) EAN of a metal carbonyl M(CO) x is 36. If atomic number of metal M is 26, what is the value of x :
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 5 (D) 6
(b) The effective atomic number of Co(CO) 4 is 35 and hence is less stable. It attains stability by
(A) oxidation of Co (B) reduction of Co (C) dimerization (D) tetramerization

2.(a) A compound is made by mixing cobalt (III) nitrite and potassium nitrite solutions in the ratio of 1 : 3. The
aqueous solution of the compound showed 4 particles per molecule whereas molar conductivity reveals the
presence of six electrical charges. The formula of the compound is
(A) Co(NO2)3 . 2KNO2 (B) Co(NO2)3 . 3KNO2 (C) K3[Co(NO2)6] (D) K[Co(NO2)4]
(b) Which of the following will exhibit maximum ionic conductivity?
(A) K4 [Fe(CN6] (B) [Co(NH3)6] Cl3 (C) [Cu(NH3)4] Cl2 (D) [Ni (CO)4]
(c) Which of the following shows maximum molar conductance :
(A) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (B) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (C) [Co(NH3)4 Cl 2] Cl (D) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(d) A co-ordination complex has the formula PtCl 4.2KCl. Electrical conductance measurements indicate
the presence of three ion in one formula unit. Treatment with AgNO 3 produces no ppt. of AgCl. What is
the co-ordination number of Pt in this complex :
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 3

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3.(a) The complex [Cr(H2O)4Br2]Cl gives the test for :
(A) Br– (B) Cl – (C) Cr3+ (D) Br– and Cl – both
(b) Which of the following complexes produces three moles of silver chloride when its one mole is treated
with excess of silver nitrate :
(A) [Cr(H2O)3Cl3] (B) [Cr(H2O)4Cl 2]Cl (C) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 (D) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
(c) The number of chloride ions which would be precipitated when the complex PtCl 4.4NH3 is treated with
silver nitrate is(CN = 6):
(A) Four (B) One (C) Three (D) Two
(d) The number of ions per mole of the complex CoCl 3.5NH3 in aqueous solution will be(CN = 6) :
(A) Four (B) Nine (C) Three (D) Two

4.(a) The complex CoCl 3.3NH3 on ionization gives (CN = 6):

(A) No Cl – ions (B) 3 Cl – ions (C) 2 Cl – ions (D) 1 Cl – ions
(b) The chloride ion is detected by the formation of a white precipitate of AgCl on addition of aqueous
AgNO 3 solution and by the dissolution of the precipitate on addition of excess ammonia solution. AgCl
dissolves in aqueous ammonia due to the formation of water soluble :
(A) [Ag (NH4)2]+ (B) [Ag (NH3)2]+ (C) [Ag (NH2)2]– (D) [Ag (OH)2]–
(c) Conc. H2SO 4 will not dehydrate the following complex:
(A) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O (B) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O
(C) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (D) All of these.
(d) On adding AgNO3 solution to a solution of [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]Cl, the percentage of total chloride ion precipitated
is:
(A) 100 (B) 75 (C) 50 (D) 25

5.(a) A coordination compound of cobalt has the molecular formula containing five ammonia molecules, one
nitro group and two chlorine atoms for one cobalt atom. One mole of this compound produces three
moles of ions in an aqueous solution. The aqueous solution on treatment with an excess of AgNO 3
gives two moles of AgCl as a precipitate. The formula of this complex would be
(A) [Co(NH3)4(NO2)Cl] [NH3Cl] (B) [Co(NH3)5Cl] [Cl NO 2]
(C) [Co(NH3)5(NO2)] Cl2 (D) [Co (NH3)5] [(NO2)2Cl2]
(b) One mole of the complex compound [Co (NH3)5 Cl 3] gives 3 moles of ions on dissolution in water. One
mole of the same complex reacts with two moles of AgNO 3 solution to yield two moles of AgCl(s), The
structure of the complex is
(A) [Co(NH3)4Cl] Cl2. NH3 (B) [Co(NH3)5 Cl] Cl2
(C) [Co(NH3)3Cl] . 2NH3 (D) [Co(NH3)4 Cl 2] Cl. NH3

6. CoCl 3.4H2O is an anhydrous binary solute hence its Werner’s representation is(CN = 6) :

(A) (B) (C) (D) None

SECTION (D) : BONDING IN COORDINATION COMPOUNDS

(Crystal field theory)
1.(a) Which statement is incorrect ?
(A) Ni(CO)4 _____ Tetrahedral, paramagnetic (B) Ni(CN)4 ]2– _____ Square planar, diamagnetic
(C) Ni(CO)4 _____ Tetrahedral, diamagnetic (D) [NiCl4]2– _____ Tetrahedral, paramagnetic

(b) The complex, [Ni(CN)4]2–, has :

(A) linear structure (B) tetrahedral structure
(C) square planar structure (D) octahedral structure

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2+
(c) The complex [Pt(NH3)4] has ..... structure :
(A) square planar (B) tetrahedral (C) pyramidal (D) pentagonal

(d) What is the shape of Fe(CO)5 molecule ? Given that its dipole moment = 0.
(A) Tetrahedral (B) Octahedral
(C) Trigonal bipyramidal (D) Square pyramidal
6
2.(a) The number of unpaired electrons in d , low spin, octahedral complex is :
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0
(b) Maximum paramagnetism in 3d-series is shown by
(A) Mn (B) Co (C) Ni (D) Fe
(c) The number of d-electrons of Cr(Z = 24) in [Cr(H2O)6]3+ ion :
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

3.(a) Low spin complex is formed by :

(A) sp3d2 hybridization (B) sp3d hybridization
(C) d2sp3 hybridization (D) sp3 hybridization
(b) Which of the following is a high spin complex:
(A) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (B) [Fe(CN)6]4– (C) [Ni(CN)4]2– (D) [FeF 6] 3–
(c) Which has maximum paramagnetic nature :
(A) [Cu(H2O)4]2+ (B) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (C) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Fe(CN)6]4–
(d) The number of unpaired electrons present in complex ion [FeF 6]3- is :
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 0

4. The crystal field splitting energy for octahedral complex (o) and that for tetrahedral complex (t ) are related as
4 9
(A) t =  (B) t = 0.5 o (C) t = 0.33 o (D) t = 
9 0 4 0

5. Which of the following complexes has a geometry different from others :

(A) [Ni Cl 4] 2– (B) Ni (CO)4 (C) [Ni(CN)4]2– (D) [Zn(NH3)4]++

SECTION (E) : APPLICATIONS OF CRYSTAL FIELD THEORY

(Color of complex, Magnetic moment of complex, Stability of complex)
1.(a) All the metal ions contains t 2g6 eg 0 configuration. Which of the following complex will be paramagnetic-
(A) [FeCl(CN)4(O 2)] 4- (B) K4[Fe(CN)6] (C) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (D) [Fe(CN)5(O 2)] -5
(b) Maximum paramagnetism in 3d-series is shown by
(A) Mn (B) Co (C) Ni (D) Fe
(c) The compound which does not show paramagnetism :
(A) [Cu(NH3)4Cl2 ] (B) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl (C) NO (D) NO2
(d) Among the following ions, which one has the highest paramagnetism?
(A) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (B) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (C) [Cu(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Zn(H2O)6]2+

2. [Sc(H2O)6] 3+ ion is :
(A) Coloured and paramagnetic (B) Colourless and paramagnetic
(C) Colourless and diamagnetic (D) Coloured and octahedral
3. Amongst Ni(CO)4, [Ni(CN)4]2– and NiCI42–
(A) Ni(CO)4 and NiCI42– are diamagnetic and [Ni(CN)4]2– is paramagnetic
(B) NiCI42– and [Ni(CN)4]2– are diamagnetic and Ni(CO)4 is paramagnetic
(C) Ni(CO)4 and [Ni(CN)4]2– are diamagnetic and NiCI42– is paramagnetic
(D) Ni(CO)4 is diamagnetic and, NiCI42– and [Ni(CN)4]2– are paramagnetic

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4. In complexes more stability is shown by
(A) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (B) [Fe(CN)6]3– (C) [Fe(C2O4)3]3– (D) [Fe(Cl)6]3–

SECTION (F) : ISOMERISM IN COORDINATION COMPOUNDS

1.(a) Which of the following cannot show linkage isomerism?
(A) NO 2 (B) SCN– (C) CN– (D) NH3

(b) The complexes [Pt(NH3)4] [Pt Cl6] and [Pt(NH3)4 Cl2] [Pt Cl4] are
(A) linkage isomers (B) optical isomers
(C) co-ordination isomers (D) ionisation isomers
(c) [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)5ONO]Cl2 are related to each other as :
(A) geometrical isomers (B) linkage isomers
(C) coordination isomers (D) ionisation isomers

2. The number of geometrical isomer of [Co(NH3)3(NO3)3] are :

(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

3. Geometrical isomerism is found in coordination compounds having coordination number :

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (tetrahedral) (D) 6

4. Cis-trans isomerism is found in square planar complexes of molecular formula ('a' and 'b' are monodentate
ligands) :
(A) Ma4 (B) Ma3b (C) Ma2b2 (D) Mab3
5. Which of the following octahedral complex does not show geometrical isomerism (A and B are monodentate
ligands) :
(A) [MA3B3] (B) [MA4B2] (C) [MA5B] (D) [MA2B4]

ADVANCE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

EXERCISE - 3
1. Which of the following statements are true (or) false -
(i) [Cr(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)4(CN)2] [Cr(NH3)2(CN)4] are coordination isomers
(ii) [Cr(py)2(H2O)2Cl 2]Cl and [Cr(py)2(H2O)Cl3]H2O are ligand isomers
(iii) [Pt(NH3)4Br2]Cl2 and [Pt(NH3)4Cl 2]Br2 are linkage isomers
(iv) cis platin exhibits geometrical isomerism
(A) TTFT (B) FTFT (C) TTFF (D) TFFT

2. In (a) [Co(H2O)4] 2+ , (b) [CoCl 4] 2– and (c) [Co(DMG)2] complexes :

(i) a, b are paramagnetic & c is diamagnetic in nature
(ii) a & b has magnetic moment greater than c
(iii) a, c has tetrahedral structure and b has square planar structure
(iv) In a, b there is one unpaired electron and in c it has 3 unpaired electrons
(A) FTFT (B) FFTT (C) TFTF (D) FTFF

3. For the reaction Ni2+ + 4NH3 [Ni(NH3)4]2+at equilibrium, if the solution contains 1.6 × 10–4% of nickel in
the free state, And the concentration of NH3 at equilibrium is 0.5 M. Then the instability constant of the
complex will be approximately equal to :
(A) 1.0 × 10–5 (B) 1.5 × 10–16 (C) 1.0 × 10–7 (D) 1.5 × 10–17

4. EDTA is used for the estimation of

(A) Na+ and K+ ions (B) Halide ions (C) Cu2+ and Ag+ ions (D) Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions

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5. If NO reacts with [Cr(CO)6] how many CO groups can be replaced by NO :
(A) all the 6 CO groups are replaced by 6 NO groups
(B) all the 4 CO groups are replaced by 6 NO groups
(C) all the 2 CO groups are replaced by 3 NO groups
(D) all the 6 CO groups are replaced by 4 NO groups

[S2O8]2–
6. [(NH3)5 Co — O — O — Co(NH3)5]+4 [(NH3)5 Co — O — O — Co(NH3)5]+5
Brown oxidise Green
The magnetic moment of green complex is 1.7 BM & for brown complex magnetic moment is zero.
(O – O) is same in all respect in both the complexes.
The O. S. of Co in brown complex & green complex respectively are –
(A) III II & IV III (B) III III & III IV
(C) III III & III II (D) III IV & III III

7. Which of the following isomers of [M(NH3)2Cl 2] would react with silver oxalate (Ag2C2O4):

(A) (B) (C) Both (D) None

8. Which of the following pair of complexes have the same EAN of the central metal atoms/ions?
(A) [Cu (NH3)4] SO 4 and K4[Fe(CN)6] (B) K4[Fe(CN)6] and [Co(NH3)6] Cl3
(C) K3 [Cr (C2O 4)3] and [Ni(CO)4] (D) all of the above

9. The complex K4 [Zn (CN)4 (O 2)2] is oxidised into K2 [Zn (CN)4 (O 2)2] , then which of the following is/are
correct ?
(A) Zn (II) is oxidised into Zn (IV) (B) Paramagnetic moment decreases
(C) O – O bond length increases (D) Paramagnetic moment increases

10. All the following complexes show decrease in their weights when placed in a magnetic balance then
the group of complexes having tetrahedral geometry is :
I Ni (CO)4 II K [AgF 4] III Na2 [Zn (CN)4]
IV K2 [PtCl 4] V [RhCl (PPh3)3]
(A) II , III , V (B) I , II , III (C) I , III , IV (D) none of these

11. Wilkinson’s catalyst react with H2 to form an octahedral complex in which Rh (Z = 45) has the following
2, 2 , 2 0,0
electronic configuration in the ligand field , t 2 g , eg .

Then which of the following is correct about this new complex ?

(A) It is diamagnetic
(B) Its IUPAC name is chlorotris(triphenylphosphine)rhodium (I)
(C) Hybridisation of Rh (I) is sp3d2 (D) It is a paramagnetic complex

12. The complex [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ is formed in the brown ring test for nitrates when freshly prepared FeSO4
solution is added to aqueous solution of NO3– followed by addition of conc. H2SO4. Select correct statement
about this complex
(A) Hybridisation of iron is d2sp3. (B) Iron & nitrosyl has +1 oxidation state
(C) It has magnetic moment of 3.87 B. M. confirming three unpaired electrons in Fe
(D) all the above are correct statements

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13.

In both the complexes Co have t 2g 6eg 0 configuration. The B. E. of (O — O) in X & Y is -

(A) B. E. of (O — O) in Y < B. E. of (O — O) in X
(B) B. E. of (O — O) in X < B E. of (O — O) in Y
(C) B. E. of (O — O) in X = B. E. of (O — O) in Y
(D) B. E. of (O — O) in X & B. E. of (O — O) in Y can’t be comparable

SECTION (B) : ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT CHOICE

1. In which of the following are the chemical formula and the name correctly matched ?
(A) K[Pt(NH3)Cl 5] – potassium amminepentachloroplatinate (IV)
(B) [Ag(CN)2] – – dicyanoargentate (I) ion
(C) K3[Cr(C2O4)3] – potassium trioxalatochromate (III)
(D) Na2[Ni (EDTA)] – Sodium ethylenediaminetetraacetonickel(I)

2. In which of the following does the central atom exhibit an oxidation state of +2 ?
(A) K2[Ni(CN)4] (B) K3[Fe(CN)6] (C) [Fe(C2O4)3]3– (D) [Cu(NH3)4]2+

3. Which of the following will produce a white precipitate upon reacting with AgNO 3 ?
(A) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (B) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (C) K2 [Pt(en)2Cl 2] (D) [Fe(en)3]Cl3

4. Which are correct statements ?

(A) [Ag(NH3)2] + is linear with sp hybridised Ag+ ion.
(B) NiCl 42–, VO 43– and MnO 4– have tetrahedral geometry.
(C) [Cu(NH3)4]2+, [Pt(NH3)4] 2+ and [Ni(CN)4]2– have dsp2 hybridisation of the metal ion
(D) Fe(CO)5 have bipyramidal structure with dsp3 hybridised iron.

5. Which of the following is/are inner orbital complex(es) as well as dimagentic in nature.
(A) [Zn(NH3)6]2+ (B) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (C) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (D) [Co(NH3)6]3+

6. Which of the following is/are correct about [Cu(NH3)4]SO4

(A) It is a square planar complex. (B) It is paramagentic with one unpaired in the d-subshell.
(C) It gives white ppt with BaCl 2 (D) Its aqueous solution does not conduct electricity.

7. Which of the following isomerisms is/are shown by the complex [CoCl 2(OH)2(NH3)2 ]Br ?
(A) Ionization (B) Linkage (C) Geometrical (D) optical

8. Which of the following complexes have tetrahedral shape?

(A) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (B) [Ni(CO)4] (C) [NiCl4]2– (D) [Zn(NH3)4]2+

9. Which of the following is/are paramagentic

(A) [Fe(CN)6]4– (B) [Ni(CO)4] (C) [Ni(CN)4]2– (D) [CoF6]3–

10. Co-ordination number of Cr in CrCl3.5H2O is six. The volume of 0.1 N AgNO3 needed to ppt. the chlorine
in outer sphere in 200 ml of 0.01 M solution of the complex is/are:
(A) 140 ml (B) 40 ml (C) 80 ml (D) 20 ml

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11. Three arrangements are shown for the complex [Co(en) (NH3)2 Cl2]+. Pick up the wrong statement.

(A) I and II are geometrical isomers (B) II and III are optical isomers
(C) I and III are optical isomers (D) II and III are geometrical isomers

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EXERCISE - 1
SECTION (A) :

1. (a) Hexaamminecobalt(III) chloride (b) Pentaammineiodorhodium(III) iodide

(c) [Fe(CO)5], Pentacarbonyliron(0)
(d) [Fe(C2O4)3]3–, Trioxalatoferrate(III) OR Tris(oxalato)ferrate(III)
(e) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4, Tetraamminecopper(II) sulphate
(f) Na[Cr(OH)4], Sodium tetraaquachromium(III)
(g) Co(gly)3, Triglycinatocobalt(III) OR Tris(glycinato)cobalt(III)
2+
(h) [Fe(H2O)5(NCS)] , Pentaaquathiocyanato–N–iron(III)
(i) K2[HgI4], Potassium tetraiodomercurate(II)
(j) Co[Hg(SCN)4], Cobalt(II) tetrathiocyanato–S–mercurate(II)
(k) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3, Iron(III) hexacyanoferrate(II)
(l) K3[Co(ONO)6], Potassium hexanitrito–O–cobaltate(III)
(m) [Ni(dmg)2], Bis(dimethylglyoximato)nickel(II)
(n) K2[PtCl6], Potassium hexachloroplatinate(IV)
+
(o) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO ], Sodium pentacyanonitrosoniumferrate(II)
+
(p) [Fe(H2O)5(NO )]SO4, Pentaaquanitrosoniumiron(I) sulphate
(q) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2, Iron(II) hexacyanoferrate(III)
3–
(r) [Cu(CN)4] , Tetracyanocuperate(I)
2–
(s) [Cd(CN)4] , Tetracyanocadmate(II)
(t) (NH4)2[PtCl6], Ammonium hexachloroplatinate(IV)

2. Name the following compounds

(a) [Co(en)2Br(ONO)]+1 Bromobis(ethylenediamine)nitrito–O–cobalt(III)

(b) [Co(NH3)6] [Co(ONO)6] Hexaamminecobalt(III) hexanitrito–O–cobaltate(III)

(c) [Co(NH3)5(CO3)]Cl Pentaamminecarbonatocobalt(III) chloride

(d) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2] [PtCl4] Tetraamminedichloroplatinum(IV) tetrachloroplatinate(II)

(e) [Co(en)3]2(SO4)3 Tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(III) sulphate

(f) [Cr(PPh3)(CO)5] Pentacarbonyltriphenylphosphinechromium(0)

(g) [(CO)5Mn-Mn(CO)5] Decacarbonyldimanganese(0)

(h) K[PtCl3(-C2H4)] Potassium tricholoro(  2–ethylene)platinate(II)

(i) Cr(-C6H6)2 Bis(  6–benzene)chromium(0)

(j) [NH(CH3)3] [WCl(CO)5] Trimethylammonium Chloropentacarbonyltugnstate(0)
(k) [Co(NH3)4(OH2)2][BF4]3 Tetraamminediaquacobalt(III) tetrafluoroborate(III)
(l) Na4[Cu6(S2O3)5] Sodium pentakis(thiosulphato)hexacuperate(I)
(m) Ba[Zr(OH)2(ONO)2(ox)] Barium dihydroxodinitrito–O–oxalatozirconate(IV)
(n) [Co(NH3)6][Co(C2O4)3] Hexaamminecobalt(III) trioxalatocobaltate(III)

3. (a) diamminetriaquahydroxochromium(III) nitrate [Cr(OH)(H2O)3(NH3)2](NO3)2

(b) tetrakis(pyridine)platinum(II) tetraphenylborate(III) [Pt(Py)4] [B(ph)4]2
(c) dibromotetracarbonyliron(II) [Fe(Br)2(CO)4]

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(d) ammonium diamminetetrakis(isothiocyanato)chromate(III). (NH4)[Cr(SCN)4(NH3)2]
(e) Pentaamminedinitrogenruthenium(II) chloride [Ru(NH3)5N2]Cl2
(f) Bis(cyclopentadienyl)iron(II) [Fe(  5–C5H5)2]
(g) Barium dihydroxodinitrito-O-oxalatozirconate(IV) Ba[Zr(OH)2(ONO)2(ox)]
(h) Tetrapyridineplatinum(II) tetrachloronickelate(II) [Pt(py)4][NiCl4]

SECTION (B) :

1. (a) – iv, (b) – viii, (c) – i, (d) – vii,

(e) – iii, (f) – v, (g) – ii, (h) – vi

2. 0.0075
3. (a) b<a<d<c (b) (i) 6 (ii) 2 (iii) 1

4. (a) 36 (b) 36 (c) 36 (d) 36

(e) 36 (f) 36 (g) 54 (h) 86
(i) 36 (j) 36 (k) 35 (l) 38
(m) 52 (n) 84 (o) 37

SECTION (C) :

1. Since ammonia is a strong field ligand so can pair up the electrons of Co(III), so will form an inner d-orbital
complex having zero magnetic moment while fluoride being a weak field ligand can not pair up electrons and
forms outer d-complex with higher magnetic moment.

2. (a) [NiBr4]2– sp3, tetrahedral (b) [Fe(CN)6]3– d2sp3, octahedral

(c) [MnCl6]3– sp3d2, octahedral (d) [AuCl4]– dsp2, square planar

(e) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ sp3d2, octahedral (f) [Pt(NH3)4]2+ dsp2, square planar

(g) [Co(NCS)4]2– dsp2, square planar (h) [Cu(en)2]2+ dsp2, square planar

3. (a) In the complex [Fe(CN)6]3– the iron is in +3 oxidation state having d5 configuration, so even after
pairing due to strong field cyanide ligands one electron will remain unpaired and hence it is weakly
paramagnetic. While in the complex [Fe(CN)6]4– iron is in +2 oxidation state and having d6 configuration
, so after pairing due to strong field cyanide ligand no unpaired electron remains, so is diamagnetic.

(b) Octahedral complexes requires d2sp3 hybridisation for being inner d–orbital complexes, which will
not be available in d8 configuration of Ni2+, hence all complexes are outer d–orbital complexes.

(c) Co2+ has d7 configuration and only strong field ligands can excite the last electron of the d orbital to
higher orbitals and can form more stable inner d–orbital complexes with d2sp3 hybridisation.
(d) In [Ni(CO)4], Ni is in 0 oxidation state so has 3d84s2 configuration which after pairing due to strong
field CO ligands will become 3d10, and hence no d orbitals are empty, it can only undergo sp3
hybridisation leading to tetrahedral geometry. While in other given complexes Ni is in 2+ oxidation
state so will form dsp2 complexes.

4. (A) a < d < b < c (B) X < O < N < C (C) Br– < S2– < NO3– < H2O < NH3 < NO2– < CN– < CO

SECTION (D) :

1. diamagnetic, colorless

2. (a) CN– , F– (b) (i) 0 (ii) 0 (iii) 0 (iv) 0

3. (i) 0 (ii) 0 (iii) 4 (iv) 2 (v) 5

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SECTION (E) :

1. (i) Linkage (ii) Coordination (iii) Ionisation (iv) Hydrate

2. (a) Two (b) None (c) Two (d) None (e) Two (f) None

3. (a) 2 (b) none (c) none (d) 2 (e) 2 (f) none

(g) 5 (h) 2

4.

(1) NO2 / SCN (5) NO2 / SCN (9)

(2) ONO / SCN (6) ONO / SCN (10)
(3) NO2 / NCS (7) NO2 / NCS (11)
(4) ONO / NCS (8) ONO / NCS (12)

SECTION (F) :
CO CO

CO CO
OC OC

V Cr

1. (a) CO (b) CO
OC OC

CO CO

CO

OC
OC CO CO
OC

(c) OC Mn Mn CO (d) Fe CO

OC
CO CO
CO CO

CO

OC CO CO
CO
OC CO CO

Co Co
(e) OC Co Co CO OR OC
CO
OC CO
CO
CO CO

CO CO
OC CO
CO

Ni Fe Fe
(f) (g)
OC
CO CO CO
OC OC CO
CO

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EXERCISE - 2
SECTION (A) :

1.(a) B (b) C 2.(a) A (b) B

3.(a) B (b) D (c) B 4.(a) B (b) A (c) D

SECTION (B) :
1. A 2.(a) C (b) A
3.(a) B (b) B (c) A (d) D 4.(a) C (b) D (c) A

SECTION (C) :

1.(a) C (b) C 2.(a) C (b) A (c) A (d) B

3.(a) B (b) D (c) D (d) C

4.(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

5.(a) C (b) B 6. C

SECTION (D) :
1.(a) A (b) C (c) A (d) C 2.(a) D (b) A (c) B

3.(a) C (b) D (c) C (d) A 4. A 5. C

SECTION (E) :

1.(a) A (b) A (c) B (d) B 2. C 3. C 4. C

SECTION (F) :

1.(a) D (b) C (c) B 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. C

EXERCISE - 3
SECTION (A) :

1. D 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. B 7. A
8. B 9. D 10. D 11. A 12. D 13. B

SECTION (B) :

1. ABC 2. AD 3. AD 4. ABCD 5. D 6. AC 7. ACD

8. BCD 9. D 10. BD 11. BCD

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S - BLOCK ELEMENT
SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS BASED ON FUNDAMENTALS

EXERCISE - 1
1. The hydroxides and carbonates of sodium and potassium are easily soluble while the corresponding salts of
magnesium and calcium are sparingly soluble in water. Explain.
2. Why do alkali metals form unipositive ions and impart characteristic colours to flame?
3. How would you explain ?
(i) BeO is insoluble but BeSO4 is soluble in water.
(ii) BaO is soluble but BaSO4 is insoluble in water.
4. How is BeCl2 prepared ? What is its structure in solid state and vapour state.
5. Pallets of potassium hydroxide become wet when exposed to air.
6. Which is the strongest reducing agent among alkali metals?
7. Why are alkali metals difficult to be reduced ?.
8. Why are alkali metals (except Li) kept in kerosene?
9. In aqueous solution , Li+ ions has the least mobility among alkali metals . Why?
10. Alkali metal ions are colourless as well as diamagnetic. Explain.
11. Lithium forms monoxide, sodium gives peroxide while the rest of the alkali metals form superoxide. Explain
12. Does Mg impart charateristic colour to the flame?
13. E1 value of Mg is more than that of Na while it’s E2 value is less. Explain.
14. What happens when
(i) Sodium metal is dropped in water ?
(ii) Sodium metal is heated in free supply of air ?
(iii) Sodium peroxide dissolves in water ?
15. LiF is least soluble among the fluorides of alkali metals. Explain.
16. Alkali metals are soft and can be cut with the help of a knife.
17. What is quick lime, slaked lime and lime water ?
18. The crystalline salts of alkaline earth metals contain more molecules of water of crystallisation than the
corresponding salts of alkali metals . Explain.
19. Why is LiF almost insoluble in water where as LiCl is soluble not only in water but also in acetone ?
20. When an alkali metal dissolves in liquid ammonia the solution acquires different colours. Explain the reasons
for this type of colour change.
21. Lithium is the only alkali metal to form a nitride directly. Why ?
22. LiI is more soluble than KI in ethanol.
23. Name the process used in the manufacture of Na2CO3 .
24. Sodium is prepared by electrolytic method and not by chemical method.
25. Why does a piece of burning Mg ribbon continues to burn in SO2? Give the name of product.
26. Arrange the following in decreasing order of ionic character . CaCl2, BeCl2 , BaCl2 , MgCl2, SrCl2.
27. Arrange the following in decreasing order of solubility in water .
(i) Be (OH)2, Ca(OH)2, Ba(OH)2 , Sr(OH)2 ; (ii) BaSO4 , MgSO4, CaSO4 , SrSO4
28. Beryllium chloride fumes in air . Why ?
29. Explain why alkaline earth metals are harder than alkali metals ?
30. Hydrated magnesium chloride cannot be dehydrated by heating .Why ?
31. Contrast the action of heat on the following and explain your answer.
(i) Na2CO3 and CaCO3 ; (ii) MgCl2 .6H2O and CaCl2.6H2O ;(iii) Ca(NO3)2 and NaNO3

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OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS BASED ON FUNDAMENTALS

EXERCISE - 2
SECTION (A) : ONLY ONE ANSWER IS CORRECT :
1. Alkali metals are not characterised by :
(A) good conductor of heat and electricity (B) high oxidation potentials
(C) high melting points (D) solubility in liquid ammonia

2. The substance X belonging to A group gives a pale violet colour in flame test, X is :
(A) NaCl (B) LiCl (C) KCl (D) None of these

3. Which of the following increases in magnitude as the atomic number of alkali metals increases?
(A) electronegativity (B) first ionisation potential
(C) ionic radius (D) melting point

4. Sodium has, as compared to potassium :

(A) less electronegativity (B) more ionisation potential
(C) larger atomic radius (D) lower melting point

5. The metallic lustre exhibited by sodium is explained by :

(A) diffusion of sodium ions (B) oscillation of mobile valence electrons
(C) existence of free protons (D) existence of body centred cubic lattice

6. Which of the following has the highest melting point?

(A) NaCl (B) NaF (C) NaBr (D) Na
7. In view of their ionisation energies, the alkali metals are :
(A) weak oxidising agents (B) strong reducing agents
(C) strong oxidising agents (D) weak reducing agents

8. Which of the following has lowest melting point?

(A) Li (B) Na (C) K (D) Cs

9. On dissolving large amount of sodium metal in liquid NH3 at low temperature, which one of the following
does not occur ?
(A) Blue coloured solution is obtained
(B) Na+ ions are formed in the solution
(C) Liquid NH3 solution becomes good conductor of electricity
(D) Liquid NH3 solution remains diamagnetic

10. A solution of sodium in liquid ammonia is strongly reducing due to the presence of
(A) sodium atoms (B) sodium hydride (C) sodium amide (D) solvated electrons

11. Which salt on heating does not give brown coloured gas ?
(A) LiNO3 (B) KNO3 (C) Pb(NO3)2 (D) AgNO3

12. Which of the following can not decompose on heating to give CO2?
(A) Li2CO3 (B) Na2CO3 (C) KHCO3 (D) BaCO3

13. Peroxide ion is present in

(A) MgO (B) CaO (C) Li2O (D) BaO2

14. Equimolar amounts of which of the following will give maximum hydrogen ion concentration?
(A) NaOH (B) KOH (C) LiOH (D) RbOH

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15. The deep colour produced when iodine is dissolved in a solution of potassium iodide is caused by the
presence of:
(A) 2 (B) – (C)  3 (D)  2

16. Match the compounds /metal in (X) with their uses in (Y) :
X Y
A. liquid sodium metal  breathing apparatus in submarine
B. potassium stearate  explosive
C. potassium nitrate  coolant in nuclear reaction
D. potassium superoxide V soft soap
A B C D A B C D
(A)    V (B)  V  
(C)    V (D) V   

17. Which does not exist in solid state.

(A) NaHCO3 (B) NaHSO3 (C) LiHCO3 (D) CaCO3

18. Sodium metal can be stored under :

(A) benzene (B) kerosene (C) alcohol (D) water

19. Sodium burns in dry air to give :

(A) Na2O (B) Na2O2 (C) NaO2 (D) Na3N

20. LiAIH4 is used as :

(A) an oxidising agent (B) a reducing agent (C) a mordant (D) a water softener

21. Sodium sulphate is soluble in water whereas barium sulphate is sparingly soluble because :
(A) the hydration energy of sodium sulphate is more than its lattice energy
(B) the lattice energy of barium sulphate is less than its hydration energy
(C) the lattice energy has no role to play in solubility
(D) the hydration energy of sodium sulphate is less than its lattice energy

22. Strong reducing agent of alkali metals is :

(A) Li (B) Na (C) K (D) Cs

23. In certain matters, lithium differs from other alkali metals, the main reason for this is :
(A) small size of lithium atom and Li+ (B) extremely high electropositivity of Li
(C) greater hardness of Li (D) hydration of Li+ ion

24. Which reacts directly with nitrogen to form nitride ?

(A) Na (B) Li (C) K (D) Rb

25. Compounds of alkaline earth metals are less soluble in water than the corresponding alkali metal salts
due to:
(A) their high ionisation energy (B) their low electronegativity
(C) their low hydration energy (D) their high lattice energy

26. Which of the following is different from other three oxides ?

(A) MgO (B) SnO (C) ZnO (D) PbO
27. BeF2 is soluble in water, whereas, the fluorides of other alkaline earth metals are insoluble because of :
(A) ionic nature of BeF2
(B) greater hydration energy of Be2+ ion as compared to lattice energy
(C) covalent nature of BeF2
(D) none of these

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28. Among LiCl, RbCl, BeCl 2, MgCl 2 the compounds with greatest and least ionic character respectively
are :
(A) LiCl, RbCl (B) RbCl, BeCl 2 (C) RbCl, MgCl 2 (D) MgCl 2, BeCl 2

29. Following are the ionisation potential values of :

(I1) 899 kJ mol–1, (2) 1757 kJ mol–1 , (3) 15000 kJ mol–1
(A) Na (B) K (C) Be (D) Ne

30. Which is not s–block element :

(A) [Ar]4s2 3d10 4p6 5s1 (B) 1s2 2s2 2p1 (C) 1s2 2s1` 2p1 (D) [He] 2s2 2p6 3s1

31. The alkaline earth metals are :

(A) Na and K (B) Mg and Ca (C) Cu and Ag (D) Al and Fe

32. A fire work gave bright crimson light. It probably contained a salt of :
(A) Ca (B) Sr (C) Ba (D) Mg

33. The most electropositive amongst the alkaline earth metals is :

(A) Be (B) Mg (C) Ca (D) Ba

34. A chloride dissolves appreciably in cold water. When placed on a platinum wire in Bunsen flame, no distinctive
colour is noticed. What one is cation ?
(A) Mg2+ (B) Ba2+ (C) Pb2+ (D) Ca2+

35. Alkaline earth metal salts are :

(A) paramagnetic (B) diamagnetic (C) ferromagnetic (D) all

36. The first ionisation energies of alkaline earth metal are higher than those of the alkali metals. This is because:
(A) there is increase in the nuclear charge of the alkaline earth metal
(B) there is decrease in the nuclear charge of the alkaline earth metal
(C) there is no change in the nuclear charge
(D) none of these
37. The first ionisation potential (eV) of Be and B respectively are :
(A) 8.29, 9.32 (B) 9.32, 9.32 (C) 8.29, 8.29 (D) 9.32, 8.29

38. Which of the following is incorrect ?

(A) Mg burns in air releasing dazzling light rich in UV rays.
(B) CaCl2.6H2O when mixed with ice gives freezing mixture.
(C) Mg cannot form complexes.
(D) Be can form complexes due to its very small size.

39. Among the alkaline earth metals, the element forming predominantly covalent compound is :
(A) Ba (B) Sr (C) Ca (D) Be

40. The set represnting the correct order of first ionisation potential is :
(A) K > Na > Li (B) Be > Mg > Ca (C) B > C > N (D) Ge > Si > C

41. Which of the following has maximum ionisation energy ?

(A) Ba  Ba+ + e– (B) Be  Be+ + e–
(C) Ca  Ca2+ + 2e– (D) Mg  Mg2+ + 2e–

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42. Which of the following salts on heating gives a mixture of two gases ?
(A) Ba(NO3)2 (B) NaNO3 (C) KNO3 (D) RbNO3

43. Amongst the following hydroxides, the one which has the lowest value of Ksp at ordinary temperature is :
(A) Mg(OH)2 (B) Ca(OH)2 (C) Ba(OH)2 (D) Be(OH)2

44. Lithopone is a mixture of

(A) barium sulphate and zinc sulphide (B) barium sulphide and zinc sulphide
(C) calcium sulphate and zinc sulphide (D) calcium sulphide and zinc sulphide

45. A metal M readily forms water soluble sulphate MSO4, water insoluble hydroxide M (OH)2 and oxide MO
which becomes inert on heating. The hydroxide is soluble in NaOH. The M is :
(A) Be (B) Mg (C) Ca (D) Sr

46. A piece of magnesium ribbon was heated to redness in an atmosphere of nitrogen and on cooling water
was added, the gas evolved was :
(A) ammonia (B) hydrogen (C) nitrogen (D) oxygen

47. Which of the following metal carbonate is decomposed on heating ?

(A) Na2CO3 (B) MgCO3 (C) K2CO3 (D) Rb2CO3

48. The hydration energy of Mg2+ ions is higher than that of :

(A) Al3+ (B) Be2+ (C) Na+ (D) N

49. When magnesium burns in air, compounds of magnesium formed are magnesium oxide and :
(A) Mg3N2 (B) MgCO3 (C) Mg(NO3)2 (D) Mg(NO2)2

50. The right order of the solubility of sulphates of alkaline earth metals is :
(A) Be > Ca > Mg > Ba > Sr (B) Mg > Be > Ba > Ca > Sr
(C) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba (D) Mg > Ca > Ba > Be > Sr

51. Na and Li are placed in dry air. We get :

(A) NaOH, Na2O, Li2O (B) Na2O, Li2O (C) Na2O, Li2O, Li3N, NH3 (D) Na2O, Li3N, Li2O

52. Which of the following has lowest thermal stability ?

(A) Li2CO3 (B) Na2CO3 (C) K2CO3 (D) Rb2CO3

53. Which of the following is the strongest base ?

(A) Ca(OH)2 (B) Sr(OH)2 (C) Ba(OH)2 (D) Mg(OH)2

54. The name oxone is given to

(A) ozone (B) sodium peroxide (C) sodium oxide (D) sodamide

55. If NaOH is added to an aqueous solution of Zn2+ ions, a white precipitate appears and on adding excess of
NaOH, the precipitate dissolves. In the solution, zinc exists in the :
(A) Anionic part (B) Cationic part
(C) both in anionic and cationic part (D) colloidal form

56. Zinc reacts with excess of caustic soda to form :

(A) Zn(OH)2 (B) ZnO (C) Na2ZnO2 (D) Zn(OH)2.ZnCO3

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57. Sodium carbonate can be manufactured by Solvay’s process but potassium carbonate cannot be prepared
because:
(A) K2CO3 is more soluble (B) K2CO3 is less soluble
(C) KHCO3 is more soluble than NaHCO3 (D) KHCO3 is less soluble than NaHCO3
58. Plaster of Paris hardens by :
(A) giving off CO2 (B) utilising water (C) changing into CaCO3 (D) giving out water

59. A compound X on heating gives a colourless gas. The residue is dissolved in water to obtained Y.
Excess CO 2 is bubbled through aqueous solution of Y, Z is formed. Z on gently heating gives back X.
The compound X is:
(A) CaCO3 (B) Na2CO3 (C) Ca(HCO3)2 (D) K2CO3

60. Intermediate formed by heating microcosmic salt and which froms coloured bead with coloured cation is :
(A) NH3 (B) H3PO3 (C) NaPO3 (D) H2O

61. When SO2 gas is passed into aqueous Na2CO3, product formed is :
(A) NaHSO4 (B) Na2 SO4 (C) NaHSO3 (D) ALL

62. The reaction of sodium thiosulphate with 2 gives :

(A) sodium sulphide (B) sodium sulphite (C) sodium sulphate (D) sodium tetrathionate

63. Electrolysis of fused NaCl will give :

(A) Na (B) NaOH (C) NaClO (D) NaClO3

64. The principal products obtained on heating iodine with concentrated caustic soda solution :
(A) NaIO + NaI (B) NaIO + NaIO3 (C) NaIO3 + NaI (D) NaIO4 + NaI

65. Washing soda has the formula :

(A) Na2CO3 (B) Na2CO3.H2O (C) Na2CO3.7H2O (D) Na2CO3.10H2O

66. Sodium carbonate on heating gives :

(A) CO2 (B) water vapours
(C) carbon dioxide + water vapour (D) none of these

67. Which one of the following electrolyte is used in Down’s process of extracting sodium metal ?
(A) NaCl + KCl + KF (B) NaCl (C) NaOH + KCl + KF (D) NaCl + NaOH

68. Plaster of Paris is :

(A) CaSO4 (B) CaSO4. H2O (C) 2CaSO4.H2O (D) CaSO4.2H2O

69. If CO2 is passed in excess into lime water, the milkiness first formed disappears due to :
(A) reversal of original reaction (B) formation of volatile calcium bicarbonate
(C) formation of soluble calcium bicarbonate (D) formation of soluble magnesium hydroxide

70. Molecular formula of Glauber’s salt is :

(A) MgSO4. 7H2O (B) CuSO4. 5H2O (C) Na2SO4. 10H2O (D) FeSO4. 7H2O

71. The colour of iodine solution is discharged by shaking it with aqueous solution of :
(A) H2SO4 (B) sodium sulphide (C) sodium sulphate (D) sodium thiosulphate

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72. Sodium carbonate is prepared by:
(A) Solvay’s process (B) Kolbe’s process (C) Contact process (D) Nessler’s process

73. Na2S2O3.5H2O is used in photography to :

(A) reduce AgBr to metallic Ag
(B) remove reduced Ag
(C) remove undecomposed AgBr as a soluble complex
(D) convert metallic Ag to silver salt

74. Calcium is extracted by the electrolysis of :

(A) Fused mixture of CaCl2 and CaF2 (B) CaCl2 solution
(C) Fused mixture of CaCl2 and NaF (D) Ca3(PO4)2 solution

75. At high temperature, nitrogen combines with CaC2 to give :

(A) calcium cyanide (B) calcium cyanamide (C) Calcium carbonate (D) calcium nitride

76. Identify the correct statement :

(A) Gypsum contains a lower percentage of calcium than Plaster of Paris
(B) Gypsum is obtained by heating Plaster of Paris
(C) Plaster of Paris is obtained by hydration of gypsum
(D) Plaster of Paris is obtained by partial oxidation of gypsum

77. Of the following the commonly used in the laboratory dessicator is :

(A) Na2CO3 (B) CaCl2 (C) NaCl (D) CaCO3

78. K2O can be prepared by

(A) burning metallic potassium in air. (B) passing oxygen in liquid ammonia.
(C) reducing KNO 3 with metallic potassium. (D) reducing K2SO 4 with porous graphite.

79. Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(A) KOH is a stronger alkali than NaOH.
(B) Milk of magnesia is aqueous suspension of Mg(OH)2.
(C) MgO is a refractory material used for lining electrical furnaces.
(D) Mg(OH)2 precipitates on heating hydrated MgCl2.

80. Anhydrone is
(A) NaClO3 (B) NaClO4 (C) KClO3 (D) Mg(ClO4)2

81. What are the products formed when an aqueous solution of magnesium bicarbonate is boiled:
(A) MgCO 3, H2O, CO 2 (B) Mg(HCO3)2, H2O
(C) Mg(OH)2, H2O (D) Mg, CO 2, H2O

82. When hydated MgCl 2. 6H2O is strongly heated :

(A) MgO is formed (B) Mg(OH)2 is formed
(C) Mg(OH)Cl is formed (D) anhydrous MgCl 2 is formed

83. Anhydrous MgCl 2 may be obtained by heating MgCl 2. 6H2O

(A) until it fuses (B) with lime
(C) with coal (D) in a current of dry HCl
84. Carnallite is :
(A) KCl (B) LiAl(SiO3)2 (C) MgCl2.6H2O (D) KCl.MgCl2.6H2O

85. The mixture of MgCl2 and MgO is called :

(A) sorel cement (B) mixed salt (C) portland cement (D) magnesium oxychloride

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SECTION (B) : ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT ANSWER
86. Alkali metals are characterised by
(A) Good conductor of heat and electricity (B) High oxidation potentials
(C) High melting points (D) Solubility in liquid ammonia.

87. Which is/are not correct configuration of s–block elements :

(A) (Ar) 3d10 4s2 (B) (Ar) 3d10 4s1 (C) (Ar) 4s2 (D) (Ar) 4s1

88. Highly pure dilute solution of sodium in liquid ammonia

(A) Shows blue colour (B) Exhibits electrical conductivity
(C) Produces sodium amide (D) Products hydrogen gas

89. Nitrate can be converted into metal oxide on heating in case of :

(A) Li (B) Na (C) Mg (D) None of these

90. Select correct statement (s) :

(A) Li2CO3 is only sparingly soluble in water and no LiHCO3 has been isolated.
(B) K2CO3 cannot be made by a method similar to the ammonia – soda process.
(C) Li2CO3 and MgCO3 both are thermally stable.
(D) Na2CO3 . NaHCO3 . 2H2O is a mineral called trona.

91. Select correct statement (s) :

(A) stability of peroxides and superoxides of alkali metals increases with increase in size of the metal ion
(B) increase in stability in (A) is due to stabilisation of large anions by larger cations through lattice energy
effects.
(C) the low solubility of LiF is due to its high lattice energy whereas low solubility of CsI is due to smaller
hydration energy .
(D) NaOH does not form hydrated salt.

92. Flame test is not given by

(A) Be (B) Mg (C) Ca (D) Sr

93. Be and Al resemble in :

(A) both become passive on reaction with HNO3 due to formation of oxide layer
(B) their chlorides are Lewis acids
(C) chlorides exist in polymeric form
(D) hydroxides are soluble in alkali as well as in acid

94. Going down to  A group, following properties decrease :

(A) solubility of sulphates in H2O (B) hydration energy
(C) thermal stability of carbonates (D) ionic radius in water.

95. Which is/are true statements ?

(A) The heats of hydration of the dipositive alkaline earth metal ions decrease with an increase in their
ionic size.
(B) Hydration of alkali metal ion is less than that of  A.
(C) Alkaline earth metal ions, because of their much larger charge to size ratio, exert a much stronger
Electrostatic attraction on the oxygen of water molecule surrounding them.
(D) None

96. In water :
(A) temporary hardness is due to the bicarbonates of Ca2+ and Mg2+
(B) permanent hardness is due to chlorides and sulphates of Ca2+ and Mg2+
(C) hardness can be removed by adding phosphates.
(D) none is correct.

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97. Sodium sulphate is soluble in water but barium sulphate is sparingly soluble because :
(A) the hydration energy of Na2SO4 is more than its lattice energy
(B) the lattice energy of BaSO4 is more than its hydration energy
(C) the lattice energy has no role to play in solubility
(D) the lattice energy of Na2SO4 is more than its hydration energy

98. Be and Al have following resemblance due to diagonal relationship :

(A) have nearly equal electronegativity (B) form amphoteric oxides
(C) have same charge/radius ratio (D) both form dimeric halides

99. The pairs of compound which cannot exist together in aqueous solution are
(A) NaH2 PO 4 and Na2HPO4 (B) Na2 CO 3 and NaHCO 3
(C) NaOH and NaH2 PO 4 (D) NaHCO3 and NaOH.

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ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE - 1
1. Alkaline earth metal cations possess high lattice energy due to their small size and higher charge. The
hydration energy can not compensate for the energy required to break the lattice in these compounds.

2. As removal of IInd electron from inert gas configuration requires very high energy, therefore, they form
unipositive ions. As IE1 of these metals are low, the excitation of electrons can be done by providing the less
energy. This much of energy can be given by Bunsen flame.

3. (i) Be2+ & O2– smaller in size & thus higher lattice energy and lattice energy is greater than hydration energy
in BeO where as in BeSO4 lattice energy is less due to bigger sulphate ion and is soluble.
(ii) In BaSO4 lattice energy is greater than hydration energy while in BaO lattice energy is smaller than
hydration energy.

4. 600  800 K
BeO + C + Cl2    BeCl2 + CO ; In vapour state it exists as linear molecule where as in solid it has
polymeric strucutre.
5. Highly deliquescent absorbs moisture from air and their surface become wet.
6. Lithium
7. Because of low IE1 & high electro positive character they are themselves strong reducing agent.
8. Highly reactive elements as their IE1 values are low.
9. Because of smallest size of Li+, it has higher degree of hydration and has bigger hydrated ions. Hence Li+
has least mobility.
10. In unipositive ions all electrons are paired.
11. Smaller cation is stabilised by smaller anion & bigger cation is stabilised by bigger anion.
12. No, as its IE1 is very high & therefore requires higher energy for excitation of electron. This much of energy
can not be provided by Bunsen flame.

13. Removal of IInd electron from Na+ takes place from inert gas configuration.

14. (i) Na + H2O  NaOH + 1/2H2

(ii) 2Na + O2  Na2O2
(iii) Na2O2 + H2O  2NaOH + 1/2O2
15. Li+ being smallest has highest polarising power, hence most covalent in character. So least soluble in H2O.
16. Due to large atomic size & only one valence electron per atom, alkali metals have weak metallic bonds as
inter particle forces.
17. Quick lime is CaO, slaked lime is Ca(OH)2 and lime water is a clear solution of calcium hydroxide in water.
18. Higher positive charge density on alkaline earth metal cations attract more no. of water molceules leading to
higher degree of hydration.
19. Li+ & F– are smaller & possess higher lattice energy therefore almost insoluble in water.LiCl has ionic as well
as covalent character.
20. Refer text.
21. It being strongest reducing agent converts N2 into N3– .
22. ‘Like dissolves like’ LiI more covalent while KI is more ionic.
23. Ammonia soda process or Solvey process.
24. As Na itself is a strong reducing agent & more electro positive element.

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25. Mg acts as strong reducing agent & reduces SO2 to S thus utilises its oxygen for burning.
2Mg + SO2  2MgO + S
26. BaCl2 > SrCl2 > CaCl2 > MgCl2 > BeCl2.
27. (i) Ba(OH)2 > Sr(OH)2 > Ca(OH)2 > Be(OH)2 ; (ii) MgSO4 > CaSO4 > SrSO4 > BaSO4

28. Due to the formation of HCl on hydrolysis

BeCl2 + H2O  Be(OH)2 + 2HCl

29. Due to greater nuclear charge and small size, there is greater interparticle forces & thus pack more tightly in
solid lattice.
30. Being covalent gets hydrolysed forming MgO.

MgCl2. 6H2O  MgO + 2HCl + 5H2O

31. (i) 
Na2CO3  
No change (stable to heat ; CaCO3  CaO + CO2

(ii) 
MgCl2. 6H2O  
MgO + 2HCl + 5H2O ; CaCl2. 6H2O  CaCl2 + 6H2O

(iii) 
Ca(NO3)2  
CaO + 2NO2 + 1/2O2 ; NaNO3  NaNO2 + 1/2O2

EXERCISE - 2
SECTION (A, B)

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C C C B B B B D D D
Q.No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B B D C C B C B B B
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. A A A B D A B B C B
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. B B D A B A D C D B
Q.No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. D A D A A A B C A A
Q.No. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. D A C B A C C B A C
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. D D A C D D A C C C
Q.No. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. D A C A B A B C D D
Q.No. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. A A D D A ABD AB AB AC ABD
Q.No. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99
Ans. ABC AB ABCD ABD ABC ABC AB ABCD CD

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SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS BASED ON FUNDAMENTALS

EXERCISE - 1 ONLY ONE ANSWER IS CORRECT

Group 13th
1. Which of the following facts regarding boron and silicon is not true :
(A) Boron and silicon are semiconductors.
(B) Boron and silicon form halides which are not hydrolysed.
(C) Boron and silicon react with magnesium to form magnesium boride and magnesium silicide which
are decomposed by acids to give volatile borane and silane, respectively.
(D) Both boron and silicon react with alkali to form borates and silicates containing BO4 and SiO4
tetrahedral units, respectively.
2. B3+ cannot exist in aqueous solution becuase of its :
(A) Strong reducing ability. (B) Strong oxidizing ability.
(C) Small size and large charge. (D) Large size and small charge.
3. The product obtained in the reaction of diborane with excess of ammonia is :
(A) B2H6. NH3 (B) B2H6. 2NH3 (C) (BN)x (D) Borazine

4. In the following reaction :

B (OH)3 + H2O  [B(OH)4]– + H+
(A) B(OH)3 is a Lewis acid (B) B(OH)3 is a Lewis base
(C) B(OH)3 is amphoteric (D) none is correct

5. The decrease stability of higher oxidation state in p–block with increasing atomic number is due to :
(A) Increase in bond energy as going down the group
(B) Energy required to unpair ns2 – electrons is not compensated by the energy released in forming the two
additional bonds
(C) Both are correct
(D) None is correct.

6. Pure boron is best prepared by

(A) Heating B2O3 with H2 (B) Heating B2O3 with Na or K
(C) Heating KBF4 with Na or K (D) Heating BBr3 with H2 in presence of a catalyst

7. Water softener is :
(A) Borax (B) Zeolite
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

8. Which of the following statements regarding ortho boric acid (H3BO3) is false ?
(A) It acts as a weak monobasic acid (B) It is soluble in hot water
(C) It has a planar structure (D) It acts as a tribasic acid
9. When orthoboric acid is heated to red heat, the residue is :
(A) Boron (B) Boric oxide (C) Metaboric acid (D) Pyroboric acid

10. BF3 on hydrolysis forms :

(A) H3BO3 (B) HBF4 (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

11. From B2H6 all the following can be prepared except :

(A) H3BO3 (B) NaBH4 (C) B2(CH3)6 (D) B2O3

12. Boron nitride has the structure of the type :

(A) Both diamond and graphite (B) Graphite
(C) Diamond (D) NaCl
13. On passing CO2 into aqueous solution containing Al3+ :
(A) Al2(CO3)3 is formed (B) Al(OH)3 is precipitated
(C) Al2O3 is formed (D) Collodial Al(OH)3 is formed

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14. Alum is found to contain hydrated monovalent cation [M(H2O)6]+ , trivalent cation [M(H2O)6]3+ and SO42– in
the ratio of :
(A) 1 : 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 3 (C) 1 : 3 : 2 (D) 1 : 1 : 2

15. When orthoboric acid (H3BO3) is heated the residue left is:
(A) Boron (B) Metaboric acid (C) Boric anhydride (D) Borax

16. Borax is:

(A) Na2B4O7 (B) Na2B4O7.4H2O (C) Na2B4O7.7H2O (D) Na2B4O7.10H2O

17. Borax on heating with cobalt oxide forms a blue bead of:
(A) Co(BO2)2 (B) CoBO2 (C) Co3(BO3)2 (D) Na3Co(BO3)2

18. The correct order of decreasing hardness of the follwing compound is:
(A) Diamond > Borazone > Carborundum > Corundum
(B) Borazone > Diamond > Carborunndum > Corundum
(C) Corundum > Carborundum > Borazone > Diamond
(D) None
19. Al dissolves in molten NaOH with the formation of:
(A) Sodium aluminate (Na3AlO3) (B) Sodium metaluminate (NaAlO2)
(C) Aluminium hydroxide (D) Alumina

20. Aqueous solution of potash alum is:

(A) Alkaline (B) Acidic (C) Neutral (D) Soapy

21. Alumina is ......... in nature:

(A) Acidic (B) Basic (C) Amphoteric (D) Neutral

22. The protective film of oxide on the surface of Al metal may be strengthened by:
(A) Galvanizing (B) Cathodizing (C) Sheradizing (D) Anodizing

23. The borax bead is chemically:

(A) B2O3 (B) Na2B4O7 (C) Na3BO3 (D) B2O3 + NaBO2

24. When Al is added to potassium hydroxide solution:

(A) No reaction takes place (B) Oxygen is evolved
(C) Water is produced (D) Hydrogen is evolved

25. Which reaction cannot give anhydrous AlCl3:

(A) Heating of AlCl3.6H2O
(B) Passing dry HCl over heated aluminium powder
(C) Passing dry Cl2 over heated aluminium powder
(D) Heating a mixture of alumina and coke in a current of dry Cl2

26. Alum is used by dyer of cloth:

(A) For fire-proofing fabrics (B) As first aid for cuts
(C) For softening hard water (D) As mordant

27. Stable compounds in +1 oxidation state is formed by:

(A) B (B) Al (C) Ga (D) Tl

28. Aluminium vessels should not be washed with materials containing washing soda because:
(A) Washing soda is expensive
(B) Washing soda is easily decomposed
(C) Washing soda reacts with aluminium to form soluble aluminate
(D) Washing soda reacts with aluminium to form insoluble aluminium oxide

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29. Aluminium is more reactive than iron. But aluminium is less easily corroded then iron because:
(A) Aluminium is a noble metal (B) Oxygen forms a protective oxide layer
(C) Iron unergoes reaction easily with water (D) Iron forms both mono and divalent ions

30. The dissolution of Al(OH)3 by a solution of NaOH results in the formation of:
(A) [Al(H2O)4(OH)]2+ (B) [Al(H2O)2(OH)4]- (C) [Al(H2O)3(OH)3] (D) [Al(H2O)6(OH)3]

31. Which mixed sulphate is not an alum:

(A) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O (B) K2SO4.Cr2(SO4)3.24H2O
(C) Na2SO4.Fe2(SO4)3.24H2O (D) CuSO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O

32. Which of the following is pseudo alum:

(A) (NH4)2SO4.Fe(SO4)3.24H2O (B) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O
(C) MnSO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O (D) None

33. Aluminium does not react with:

(A) NaOH (B) HCl (C) N2 (D) HNO3

34. Borax bead test is responded by:

(A) Divalent metals (B) Heavy metals
(C) Light metals (D) Metal which forms coloured metaborates

35. When a solution of sodium hydroxide is added in excess to the solution of potash alum, we obtain:
(A) A white precipitate (B) Bluish white precipitate
(C) A clear solution (D) A crystalline mass

36. Which of the following is a gas (at 0°C) :

(A) BF3 (B) BCl3 (C) BBr3 (D) BI3

37. Aluminium metal is corroded in coastal places near to the sea, beacause protective oxide film:
(A) Is removed by sea water (B) Reacts with sea water
(C) Is attacked by salt present in sea water (D) Reacts with sand particles

38. B2O3 is:

(A) Ionic (B) Basic (C) Acidic (D) Amphoteric

39. On the addition of mineral acid to an aqueous solution of borax, the compound formed is:
(A) Borodihydride (B) Orthoboric acid (C) Metaboric acid (D) Pyroboric acid

40. Pure H2S gas can be obtained by the action of water on:
(A) CuS (B) FeS (C) Flower of sulphur (D) Al2S3

41. Which cannot be prepared by B2H6:

(A) NaBH4 (B) H3BO3 (C) B2(CH3)6 (D) B2H6 . 2NH3

42. Which does not react with water:

(A) B2S3 (B) B4C (C) Al4C3 (D) Al2S3

43. Diborane reacts with water to form:

(A) HBO2 (B) H3BO3 (C) H3BO3 + H2 (D) H2

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44. There are two H-bridge bonds in diborane molecule because there are:
(A) Only 12 electrons (B) 14 electrons
(C) 2 elecrons less required for bonding (D) Two electrons more than required for bonding

45. Borax is prepared by treating colemanite with:

(A) NaNO3 (B) NaCl (C) Na2CO3 (D) NaHCO3

46. An aqueous solution of BCl3 is:

(A) Weak acid (B) Weak base (C) Neutral (D) Strong base

47. Boric acid is polymeric because of:

(A) Its acidic nature (B) Presence of hydrogen bonds
(C) Its monobasic nature (D) Its geometry

48. The bonds present in borazole are:

(A) 12, 3 (B) 9, 6 (C) 6, 6 (D) 9, 9

49. Reactivity of borazole is greater than that of benzene because:

(A) Borazole is non-polar compound (B) Borazole is polar compound
(C) Borazole has electrons in it (D) Of localized electrons in it

50. Aqueous ammonia is used as a precipitating reagent for Al3+ ions as Al(OH)3 rather than aqueous NaOH,
because:
(A) N H
4 is a weak base (B) NaOH is a very strong base
(C) NaOH forms [Al(OH)4]- ions (D) NaOH forms [Al(OH)2]+ ions

51. BCl3 does not exist as dimer but BH3 exist as dimer (B2H6) because:
(A) Chlorine is more electronegative than hydrogen
(B) There is p-p back bonding in BCl3 but BH3 does not contain such multiple bonding
(C) Large sized chlorine atoms do not fit in between the small boron atoms whereas small sized hydrogen
atoms get fitted in between boron atoms
(D) None of the above
52. An aqueous solution of borax is
(A) netural (B) amphoteric (C) basic (D) acidic

53. Boric acid is polymeric due to

(A) its acidic nature (B) the presence of hydrogen bonds
(C) its monobasic nature (D) its geometry

54. Aqueous solution containing 1 mol of borax reacts with 2 mol of acids. This is because of :
(A) formaiton of 2 mol of B(OH)3 only
(B) formation of 2 mol of [B(OH)4]– only
(C) formation of 1 mol each of B(OH)3 and [B(OH)4]–
(D) formation of 2 mol each of [B(OH)4]– and B(OH)3 , of which only [B(OH)4]– reacts with acid

55. Borax is used as a buffer since :

(A) Its aqueous solution contains equal amount of weak acid and its salt
(B) It is easily available
(C) Its aqueous solution contains equal amount of strong acid and its salt
(D) Statement that borax is a buffer, is wrong

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Group 14th
H2 O condensati on
56. Me2SiCl2   (A)    (B).
The nature of product (B) may be
(A) only linear polymers (B) cyclic products
(C) (A) and (B) both (D) none of these
57. Diamond and graphite are
(A) Isomers (B) Isotopes (C) Allotropes (D) None of the above

58. CO is isostructural with

(A) HgCl2 (B) SnCl2 (C) C2H2 (D) NO2

59. HCl is added to the following oxides. Which will give H2O2?
(A) MnO2 (B) PbO2 (C) BaO2 (D) NO2

60. Which of the following is a good conductor of electricity ?

(A) diamond (B) graphite (C) coal (D) none

61. CO forms a voltile compound with

(A) nickel (B) copper (C) sodium (D) aluminium

62. A colourless gas which burns with blue flame and reduces CuO to Cu is :
(A) N2 (B) CO (C) CO2 (D) NO2

63. H2SO4 is not used for the preparation of CO2 from marble chips because :
(A) it does not react (B) huge amount of heat is evolved
(C) the reaction is vigorous
(D) calcium sulphate is sparingly soluble and get deposited on marble chips and stops the reaction

64. Producer gas is the mixture of :

(A) CO and N2 (B) CO and H2 (C) N2 and NH3 (D) CO, H2 and N2
65. If CO2 is passed in excess into lime water, the milkiness first formed disappears due to
(A) reversal of the original reaction
(B) formation of volatile calcium derivative
(C) formation of water soluble calcium bicarbonate
(D) the solution getting heated by exothermic reaction

66. When steam is passed through red hot coke :

(A) CO2 and H2 are obtained (B) CO and N2 are formed
(C) CO and H2 are obtained (D) petrol gas is obtained
67. Glass is soluble in
(A) HF (B) H2SO4 (C) HClO4 (D) aqua-regia

68. Coal gas is a mixture of

(A) CO and H2 (B) H2, saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons, CO, CO2, N2 and O2
(C) Saturated and unsaturated hydrocabons (D) CO, CO2 and CH4

69. Which of the following is not hydrolysed ?

(A) CCl4 (B) SiCl4 (C) SnCl4 (D) PbCl4

70. Red lead is

(A) PbO (B) PbO2 (C) Pb3O4 (D) Pb2O3

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71. Which one of the oxides is netural ?

(A) CO (B) SnO2 (C) ZnO (D) SiO2

72. The formula of white lead is

(A) Pb(OH)2. PbCO3 (B) 2PbCO3.Pb(OH)2
(C) Pb(OH)2. Pb(CH3COO)2 (D) PbCO3 . PbO

73. The butter of tin is represented by

(A) SnCl2 . 5H2O (B) SnCl2 (C) SnCl4 (D) SnCl4 . 5H2O

74. The hydroxide of which metal ion is soluble in excess of sodium hydroxide solution
(A) Fe3+ (B) Cr3+ (C) Sn3+ (D) Cu2+

75. Which compound is called sugar of lead ?

(A) PbCl2 (B) Pb(NO3)2 (C) PbSO4 (D) Pb(CH3COO)2

76. The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in CaC2 are
(A) one sigma and one pi bond (B) one sigma and two pi bonds
(C) one sigma and one and a half pi bond (D) one sigma bond

77. Tin reacts with conc. HNO3 and gives

(A) stannic nitrate (B) stannous nitrate (C) metastannic acid (D) none of sigma bond

78. CCl4 is inert towards hydrolysis but SiCl4 is readily hydrolysed because
(A) carbon cannot expand its octet but silicon can expand its octet
(B) ionisation potential of carbon is higher than silicon
(C) carbon forms double and triple bonds
(D) electronegativity of carbon is higher than that of silicon

79. Carborundum is the commercial name of

(A) Al2O3 (B) SiC (C) CaCN2 (D) CaC2

80. Lead dissolves most readily in

(A) acetic acid (B) sulphuic acid (C) nitric acid (D) hydrochloric acid

81. Softening of lead’ means

(A) conversion of lead to PbO (B) conversion of lead to Pb3O4
(C) removal of impurities (metallic) from lead
(D) washing lead with HNO3 followed by a dil. alkali solution.
82. Which of the following is obtained on heating potassium ferrocyanide with H2SO4?
(A) CO2 (B) CO (C) C2H2 (D) (CN)2

83. Inert form of carbon is

(A) Diamond (B) Graphite (C) Coal (D) Charcoal

84. The carbide which gives propyne on hydrolysis is :

(A) Al4C3 (B) CaC2 (C) Fe3C (D) Mg2C3

85. Which of the following reactions is not correct ?

(A) CF4 + 2F–  [CF6]2– (B) SiF4 + 2F–  [SiF6]2–
(C) GeCl4 + 2Cl–  [GeCl6]2– (D) SnCl4 + 2Cl–  [SnCl6]2–

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86. The ions present in Al4C3, CaC2 and Mg2C3 are respectively-
(A) C4–, C22–, C34– (B) C22–, C4–, C34– (C) C34–, C32–, C4– (D) C34–, C4–, C22–

87. Allylides are ionic carbides. They contains

(A) C4– ions (B) C2 2– (C) C33– ions (D) C34– ions

88. The structural unit pesent in pyro sillicates is

(A) Si3O96– (B) SiO44– (C) Si2O76– (D) (Si2O52–)n

89. Fire extinguishers contain a bottle of H2SO4 and :

(A) CaCO3 (B) MgCO3 (C) NaHCO3 (D) any carbonate

90. Which substance is used as lubricant?

(A) SnCl2 (B) SiO2 (C) graphite (D) quartz

91. CO is absorbed by
(A) CHCl3 (B) pyrogallol
(C) CCl4 (D) ammonical solution of copper (I) chloride
92. Thermodynamically the most stable form of carbon is
(A) diamond (B) graphite (C) fullerenes (D) coal
93. Elements of group 14
(A) exhibit oxidation state of +4 only (B) exhibit oxidation state of +2 and +4
(C) form M–2 and M4+ ions (D) form M2+ and M4+ ions

94. Hot concentrated HNO3 converts graphite into :

(A) Graphite oxide (B) Benzene hexacarboxylic acid
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
95. Silicon reacts with hot solution of NaOH forming :
(A) Si(OH)4 (B) Si(OH)2 (C) SiO2 (D) Na4SiO4
96. When a mixture of carbon monoxide and chlorine is exposed to sunlight the product formed is :

(A) Thionyl chloride (B) Phosgene

(C) Phosphine (D) Carbon tetrachloride

97. CO2 in water behaves as :

(A) Weak dibasic acid H2CO3 (B) Weak monobasic acid HO – CO2H
(C) Weak diacid base CO(OH)2 (D) Weak monoacid base HO – CO2H

98. Methanides are :

(A) Mg2C3 , Be2C, Al4C3 and CaC2 (B) Mg2C3 , Be2C and Al4C3
(C) Be2C, Al4C3 and CaC2 (D) Be2C and Al4C3

99. Select incorrect statemen (s) :

(A) Interstitial carbides are formed by metalloids like Si and B
(B) Covalent carbides are formed by metalloids
(C) CO and CN– both are fatal due to complex formation with Fe(III) present in blood
(D) SiC is called carborundum

100. The oxide which is not a reducing agent is

(A) CO2 (B) NO2 (C) SO2 (D) CIO2

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Group 15th
101. In group 15, the melting points of the elements
(A) increase regularly on moving down the group.
(B) decrease regularly on moving down the group.
(C) first decrease upto As and then increase to Bi
(D) first increase form N to As and then decrease to Bi.

102. N2 molecule is very stable because

(A) nitrogen is unreactive at ordinary temperatures
(B) the two nitrogen atoms are linked together through a double bond
(C) the two nitrogen atoms are linked together through a single bond
(D) the bond dissociation energy of N  N bond is very high

103. The H–M--H bond angle in the hydrides of group 15 elements follows the order
(A) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 (B) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3
(C) NH3 < PH3 = AsH3 = SbH3 (D) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3

104. The thermal stability of the hydrides of group 15 follows the order
(A) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3 (B) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
(C) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 < BiH3 (D) AsH3 < PH3 > SbH3 > BiH3 > NH3

105. The hydrides of group 15 elements act as

(A) Lewis acids (B) Lewis bases (C) both (D) none

106. The basic strength of the hydrides of goup 15 elements

(A) decreases on moving down the group (B) increases on moving down the group
(C) first decreases upto AsH3 and then increases (D) first increases upto AsH3 and then decreases

107. When NH3 is oxidised with excess NaOCl, the compound formed is
(A) NCl3 (B) NH2OH (C) N3H (D) NO2

108. A gas is obtained on heating ammonium nitrate. The gas

(A) causes laughter (B) brings tears to the eyes
(C) is acidic in nature (D) basic in nature

109. The gas obtained on heating lead nitrate to 400ºC is

(A) N2O (B) NO (C) NO2 (D) N2O5

110. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in nature ?

(A) N2O3 (B) P4O6 (C) Sb4O6 (D) Bi2O3

111. Which of the following acids is monobasic?

(A) H3PO2 (B) H3PO4 (C) H4P2O7 (D) H4P2O6 .

112. Which of the following is (are) paramagnetic in nature?

(A) NO (B) NO2 (C) N2O4 (D) A and B both

113. Which of the following compounds does give N2 on heating?

(A) NH4NO2 (B) NH4NO3 (C) NaN3 (D) Both (A) and (C)

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114. A mixture of alumina and coke is heated in a current of nitrogen to about 1800ºC and the product obtained is
treated with water. A gas is evolved. The gas is
(A) N2 (B) N2O (C) NH3 (D) NO
115. When ammonia is oxidsed by oxygen in the presence of platinum at 800ºC, the gas obtained is
(A) N2O (B) NO (C) NO2 (D) N2O5

116. NO2 can be prepared by heating

(A) NH4NO3 (B) NaNO3 (C) Pb(NO3)2 (D) KNO3

117. Which of the following acids can form two types of salts?
(A) Hyponitrous acid (B) Nitrous acid (C) Nitric acid (D) Pernitric acid

118. Nitric acid usually turns yellow on standing. This is due to

(A) absorption of yellow wavelength (B) slow decomposition of HNO3 into NO2
(C) its oxidation by atmospheric air (D) absorption of moisture by it

119. Nitric acid oxidises P into

(A) PH3 (B) P2O5 (C) HPO3 (D) H3PO4

120. Which of the following metals does not dissolve in conc. HNO3?
(A) Pb (B) Cu (C) Au (D) Hg

121. The geometry of the phosphorus molecule (P4) is

(A) linear (B) angular (C) squar planar (D) tetrahedral

122. Which of the following is least reactive ?

(A) White phosphorus (B) Yellow phosphorus
(C) Red phosphorus (D) Black phosphorus

123. When P4O10 is dissolved in water, the acid formed finally is

(A) H3PO2 (B) H3PO4 (C) H3PO3 (D) H4P2O7

124. Phosphoric acid on heating above 300ºC gives

(A) hypophosphorus acid (B) orthophosphoric acid
(C) metaphosphoric acid (D) phosphorous acid

125. Metaphosphoric acid exists in polymeric form and may have

(A) a linear structure (B) a cyclic structure
(C) both linear as well as cyclic structures (D) None

126. In the ostwald’s process, nitric acid is prepared by the catalytic oxidation of
(A) N2 (B) NH3 (C) N2O5 (D) NO2

127. Red phosphorus can be prepared from white phosphorus by

(A) adding red colour to white phosphorus
(B) heating white phosphorus to red heat
(C) heating white phosphorus with few crystals of iodine
(D) dissolving white phosphorus in NaOH

128. .... is obtained when ammonium dichromate is heated

(A) nitrogen (B) oxygen (C) ammonia (D) none

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129. Superphosphate of lime is
(A) Ca3(PO4)2.CaSO4 (B) Ca(H2PO4)2
(C) Ca(H2PO4)2.CaSO4 (D) Ca(H2PO4)2.H2O.2CaSO4.2H2O

130. A hydride of nitrogen which is acidic in nature :

(A) N3H (B) N2H4 (C) NH3 (D) N4H4

131. Nitrolim is obtained by passing nitrogen over :

(A) heated mixture of Al2O3 and carbon (B) carborundum
(C) calcium carbide (D) heated aluminium

132. White phosphorus may be removed from red phosphorus by

(A) sublimation (B) distillation
(C) dissolving in CS2 (D) heating with an alkali solution

133. Which of the following will combine with Fe(II) ion to form a brown complex compound?
(A) N2O (B) NO (C) N2O3 (D) NO2

134. Which of the following dibasic acids shows geometrical isomerism ?

(A) Hyponitrous acid H2N2O2 (B) Maleic acid C4H4O4
(C) Both (a) and (b) (D) None of the above

135. 1 mol each of H3PO2, H3PO3 and H3PO4 will neutralise x mole of NaOH, y mol of Ca(OH)2 and z mol of
Al(OH)3 (assuming all as strong electrolytes) respectively. x,y,z are in the ratio of :
(A) 3 : 1 . 5 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 3 (C) 3 : 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 1 : 1

136. Glacial phosphoric acid is :

(A) HPO3 (B) H3PO3 (C) H3PO4 (D) H4P2O7

137. Holme's signals can be given by using

(A) CaC2 + CaCN2 (B) CaC2 + Ca3P2 (C) CaC2 + CaCO3 (D) Ca3P2 + CaCN2

138. Which is a set of acid salts and can react with base ?
(A) NaH2PO2, Na2HPO3, NaH2PO4 (B) Na2HPO3, NaH2PO3, Na2HPO4
(C) NaH2PO4, NaH2PO3, Na2HPO4 (D) All of these

139. NH3 can't be obtained by

(A) heating of NH4NO3 or NH4NO2 (B) heating of NH4Cl or (NH4)2 CO3
(C) heating of NH4NO3 with NaOH (D) reaction of AIN or Mg3N2 or CaCN2 with H2O

140. Red and white phosphorus will differ but not in :

(A) smell (B) solubility in CHCl3
(C) exhibiting phosphoresence (D) reaction with conc. HNO3

141. Choose correct statement

(A) Superphosphate is [3Ca(H2PO4)2 + 7CaSO4] (B) Triple superphosphate is [10Ca(H2PO4)2]
(C) Both (a) and (b) are correct (D) None is correct
142. N2O (laughing gas) finds use in the following except :
(A) as a propellant for whipped ice-cream (B) as an anaesthetic
(C) for the preparation of N3H (D) as fuel for rockets

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143. Select incorrect statement about N2O4 :
(A) It self ionises as NO+, NO3–
(B) N2O4 is paramagnetic
(C) Substance containing NO+ is said to be acid and that containing NO3– is said to be base
(D) NO2 dimerises to N2O4 with disappearance in paramagnetism
144. Compound used in safety matches is
(A) P4S3 (B) P4 (C) P2O5 (D) PCl3

145. The wrong statement about N2O is

(A) It is nitrous oxide (B) It is least reactive oxide of nitrogen
(C) It is not a linear molecule (D) It is known as laughing gas

146. The mixture of concentrated HCl and HNO3 made in 3 : 1 ratio contains :
(A) CIO2 (B) NOCl (C) NCI3 (D) N2O4

147. The true statement for the acids of phosphorus. H3PO2 H3PO3 and H3PO4 is.
(A) H3PO3 on heating does not disproportionate
(B) All of them are reducing in nature
(C) All of them are tribasic acids
(D) The geometry of phosphorus is tetrahedral in all the three

148. Nitrogen is obtained by the thermal decomposition of :

(A) NH4Cl (B) NH4NO3 (C) AgNO3 (D) None of these

149. The substance used as a fast drying agent in the laboratory is :

(A) Na3 PO4 (B) P2O5 (C) charcoal (D) anhydrous calcium chloride

150. 4HNO3 + P4O10  4HPO3 + X

in the above reaction the product X is :
(A) NO2 (B) N2O3 (C) N2O4 (D) N2O5

151. Cold solution of barium nitrite on mixing with sulphuric acid produces :
(A) BaSO4 + HNO2 (B) BaSO4 + HNO3 (C) BaSO4 + NO2 (D) BaSO4 + N2 + O2

152. Following are neutral oxides except :

(A) NO (B) N2O (C) CO (D) NO2

153. Pure N2 is prepared in the laboratory by heating a mixture of :

(A) NH4Cl and NaOH (B) NH4OH and NaCl (C) NH4Cl and NaNO2 (D) NH4Cl and NaNO3

154. Substances burn more readily in N2O than in air because N2O :
(A) is reactive at high temperature
(B) dissociates to give O2 that supports combustion
(C) the activation energy is increased on increasing temperature
(D) acts as a catalyst

155. NH4Cl (s) is heated in test tube. Vapours are brought in contact with red litmus paper, which changes to blue
and then to red. It is because of :
(A) formation of NH4OH and HCl (B) formation of NH3 and HCl
(C) greater diffusion of NH3 than HCl (D) greater diffusion of HCl than NH3

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156. A gaseous substance dissolve in water giving a pale blue solution which decolourises KMnO4 and oxidised
KI to I2 .
(A) N2O5 (B) NH3 (C) N2O3 (D) HNO3

157. In the preparation of red phosphorus from white phosphorus :

(A) MnO2 is used as a catalyst (B) the white phosphorus is treated in an electric furnace
(C) a little iodine is used as catayst in absence of air (D) the gas P4 is released

158. Compound A undergoes hydrolysis to produce a colourless gas with rotten fish smell. The gas gives a vortex
ring. The gas is :
(A) PH3 (B) P2O3 (C) P2O5 (D) P2S5

159. A substance which gives a yellow precipitate when boiled with an excess of nitric acid and ammonium
molydate, and yellow precipitate with AgNO3 is :
(A) orthophosphate (B) pyrophosphate (C) metaphosphate (D) hypophosphate

160. Calgon (sodium methphosphate) finds application as :

(A) artificial jewel (B) paint (C) a resin (D) washing powder

161. Phosphorus trichloride, PCl3 undergoes, hydrolysis at room temperature to produce an oxoacid. It has the
formula :
(A) HPO3 (B) H3PO3 (C) H3PO4 (D) H3PO2

162. The high reactivity and low volatility of white phosphorous is due to :
(A) tetrahedrally arranged P4 units (B) bond angle of 600 increases steric (strain) factor
(C) weak van der Waals forces of attraction (D) both (B) and (C)

16th Group
163. The oxide which on strong heating gives oxygen is :
(A) AgNO3 (B) BaO2 (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Na2 O

164. In the reaction

O3 + 2 + H2O  (X) + O2
The compound (X) is
(A) HO3 (B) H (C) HO4 (D) 2O5

165. When H2S is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, the solution turns,
(A) Yellow (B) Blue (C) Green (D) White

166. Which one of the following gives mixture of SO2 and SO3 on heating ?
(A) ZnSO4 (B) CuSO4 (C) Fe2 (SO4)3 (D) FeSO4

167. Which of the following statement is false.

(A) An acidified solution of titanium salt gives yellow or orange colour with H2O2.
(B) An acidified solution of K2Cr2O7 gives a bright blue coloured compound with H2O2 which is soluble in
ether.
(C) Reaction of HCHO with H2O2 in presence of pyrogallol in alkaline solution liberates hydrogen gas
(D) Anhydrous H2O2 is more stable and is kept in glass bottles.

168. The aqueous solution of hydrogen peroxide

(A) converts blue litmus pink (B) converts blue litumus white
(C) converts red litumus blue (D) None of these

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169. Which is true about ozone ?
(A) It turns filter paper soaked in alcoholic benzidine to brown colour.
(B) It is used for detecting the position of double bond in unsaturated organic compound.
(C) It forms a solid 4O9 with dry iodine (2)
(D) All of these

170. The following catalyst is used in the manufacturing of sulphuric acid by lead chamber process.
(A) NO (B) NO2 (C) Pt (D) V2O5

171. The gas respectively absorbed by alkaline pyrogallol and oil of cinnamon is
(A) O2, O3 (B) SO2, O3 (C) O3, CH4 (D) N2O, O3

172. Concentrated H2SO4 displaces hydrogen chloride from chlorides because :

(A) it is stronger than hydrochloric acid. (B) HCl is a gas while H2SO4 is a liquid.
(C) Sulphates are more soluble than chlorides (D) Sulphates are less soluble than chlorides

173. H2SO4 has very corrosive action on skin because :

(A) It reacts with proteins
(B) it acts as an oxidising agent
(C) It acts as a dehydrating agent
(D) It acts as a dehydrating agent and absorption of water is highly exothermic.

174. When H2S is passed through nitric acid and KMnO4 solution, the product formed is
(A) H2SO4 (B) colloidal sulphur (C) SO2 (D) plastic sulphur

175. Which of the following hydrides of the oxygen family shows the lowets boiling point?
(A) H2O (B) H2S (C) H2Se (D) H2Te

176. Alkaline K is oxidised by ozone to

(A) potassium iodate (B) potassium periodate (C) both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

177. Which of the following reactions depict the oxidising behaviour of H2SO4 ?
(A) 2PCl5 + H2SO4  2POCl3 + 2HCl + SO2 Cl2
(B) 2NaOH + H2SO4  Na2SO4 + 2H2O
(C) NaCl + H2SO4  NaHSO4 + HCl
(D) 2H + H2SO4  2 + SO2 + 2H2O

178. Sulphur on oxidation with hot sulphuric acid gives :

(A) SO3 (B) SO2 (C) H2SO3 (D) H2S2O3

179. Which of the following statement is true for sulphur dioxide?

(A) it reacts with dry chlorine in absence of moisture to form sulphuryl chloride.
(B) it in acidic medium reduce halogens to corresponding halides.
(C) burning magnesium and potassium continue to burn in its atmosphere.
(D) All above are correct.

180. In the reaction


H2SO4 + P2O5  (X) + SO3
the product (X) is :
(A) PH3 (B) H3PO4 (C) HPO3 (D) N4 P2 O7

181. The reaction between ferric salt and aqueous sodium thiosulphate produces pink colour which soon diminishes.
The pink colour is due to the formation of
(A) [Fe(S2O3)3]4– (B) [Fe(S2O3)2]– (C) Fe2 (S4O6)3 (D) None of these

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182. Bleaching action of SO2 is due to
(A) its reducing nature (B) its oxidising nature
(C) its acidic nature (D) its both oxidising as well as reducing nature
183. KClO3 + H2SO4   KHSO4 + HClO4 + (X) + H2O
In above unbalanced chemical equation, the product (X) may be
(A) O2 (B) Cl2 (C) ClO2 (D) HCl

184. Which of the following statement is false ?

(A) Superoxides give hydrogen peroxide and oxygen with water
(B) CrO3 is an acidic oxide.
(C) PbO is an amphoteric oxide.
(D) Sub oxides contain more oxygen than expected from the normal valency of the element.

185. H2S is far more volatile than water because

(A) Sulphur atom is more electronegative than oxygen atom.
(B) Oxygen atom is more electronegative than sulphur atom.
(C) H2O has bond angle of nearly 105°.
(D) Hydrogen atom is loosely bonded with sulphur.

186. Which of the following has peroxy linkage ?

(A) H2S2O3 (B) H2SO5 (C) H2S2O7 (D) H2S4O6

187. The term 'thio' is used in the names of all of the following compounds except :
(A) Na2S2O3 (B) Na2S2O6 (C) NaSCN (D) Na2SO3

188. Which of the following product is formed by the reaction of sulphurdioxide with chlorine in presence of
sunlight ?
(A) SO2Cl (B) SO2Cl2 (C) SOCl2 (D) SO3Cl

189. Consider the following compounds :

(i) Sulphur dioxide (ii) Hydrogen peroxide (iii) Ozone
Among these compounds, those which can act as bleaching agents would include :
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3

190. A considerable part of the harmful UV rays of the sun does not reach the surface of the earth. This is because
high above the earth's atmosphere , there is a layer of :
(A) O3 (B) CO2 (C) SO2 (D) NO

191. Which is true statement ?

(A) Sulphur trioxide exist as cyclic trimer in solid state, S3O9
(B) Selenium trioxide solid is a cyclic tetramer, Se4 O12
(C) TeO3 is a solid with a network structure in which TeO6 octahedra share all vertices.
(D) All are correct

192. Ozone layer is being depleted. This is due to :

(A) NO emission from supersonic jets (B) chloroflurocarbon used as aerosols
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of the above

193. Estimation of ozone can be made quantitatively by :

(A) decomposition into O2 and absorption of O2 into pyrogallol
(B) volumetric method using KI and titration of the liberated iodine using hypo solution
(C) oxidative ozonolysis method
(D) all methods given above

194. The process of obtaining sulphur by the borehole method is called :

(A) the Frasch process (B) the Lablanc process
(C) the Calcaroni process (D) the Mannheium process

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195. SO2 behaves as a reducing agent when :
(A) passed over hot CuO (B) mixed with moist H2S
(C) passed through acidified KMnO4 solution (D) passed through FeSO4 solution

196. When an article is bleached by SO2 it loses its colour. The colour can be restored by :
(A) exposure to air (B) heating
(C) dilution (D) none of these

197. Out of H2S2O3 , H2S4O6 , H2SO5 and H2S2O8 peroxy acids are :
(A) H2S2O3 , H2S4O6 (B) H2S4O6 , H2SO5
(C) H2SO5 , H2S2O8 (D) H2S2O3 and H2S2O8

198. Which of the following can convert acidified Cr2O72– to green ?

(A) SO2 / H2SO3 / H2SO4 (B) SO3 / H2SO3 / H2S
(C) SO32– / H2S / Fe2+ (D) S2O32– / SO3 / Fe3+

199. Bleaching of a fabric cloth is done using A and excess of chlorine is removed using B. A and B are :
(A) CaOCl2 , Na2SO3 (B) Na2S2O3 , CaOCl2
(C) CaCl2 , Na2S2O3 (D) CaOCl2 , Na2S2O3

200. Aqueous hypo solution on reaction with aqueous AgNO3 gives :

(A) yellow precipitate changing to black (B) white precipitate changing to black
(C) orange precipitate to blue (D) no precipitate

201. SO2 can reduce :

(A) HClO3 to HCl (B) Cr2O72– / H+ to Cr3+ (C) MnO4– / H+ to Mn2+ (D) all of these

Group 17th
202. The most powerful oxidising agent is :
(A) fluorine (B) chlorine (C) bromine (D) iodine

203. Which one of the hydracid does not form any precipitate with AgNO3 ?
(A) HF (B) HCl (C) HBr (D) HI

204. The strongest reducing agent is :

(A) F– (B) Cl– (C) Br– (D) –

205. Which one of the following has hydrogen bonding ?

(A) HI (B) HBr (C) HF (D) HCl

206. Chlorine gas is dried over :

(A) CaO (B) NaOH (C) H2SO4 (D) HBr

207. On heating a mixture of NaCl, K2Cr2O7 and conc. H2SO4 .......... is obtained :
(A) chromic chloride (B) chromyl chloride (C) chlorine (D) none of the above
208. Elements of which one of the following groups will form anions most readily ?
(A) oxygen group (B) nitrogen group (C) halogens (D) alkali metals

209. Which statement is correct about halogen ?

(A) They are all diatomic and form univalent ions
(B) They are all capable of exhibiting several oxidation states
(C) They are all diatomic and form diatomic ions
(D) They are all reducing agents

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210. Iodine vapours are violet in colour because :
(A) the molecules of iodine in vapour phase absorb green and yellow radiations
(B) the molecules of iodine absorb red and violet radiations and then emit them
(C) it is a solid
(D) it is easily volatile

211. The halogens are :

(A) transition elements (B) inner-transition elements
(C) noble elements (D) representative elements

212. Iodine is liberated from KI solution when treated with :

(A) ZnSO4 (B) CuSO4 (C) NiSO4 (D) FeSO4

213. Which of the following arrangements for the three halogesn CI, Br, I when placed in order of their increasing
electron affinity is correct ?
(A) Cl, Br,  (B) , Br, Cl (C) Br, Cl,  (D) , Cl, Br

214. Oxidising action increases in the following order :

(A) Cl < Br <  < F (B) Cl <  < Br < F (C)  < F < Cl < Br (D)  < Br < Cl < F

215. Which of the following is not oxidised by MnO2 ?

(A) F– (B) Cl– (C) Br– (D) I–

216. HBr and HI can reduce H2SO4, HCl can reduce KMnO4 and HF can reduce :
(A) K2Cr2O7 (B) KMnO4 (C) H2SO4 (D) none

217. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(A) A halogen which is liquid at room temperature – Bromine
(B) The most electronegative element–Fluorine
(C) The most reactive halogen – Fluorine
(D) The strongest oxidising agent – Iodine

218. Fluorine reacts with water to give :

(A) hydrogen fluoride and oxygen (B) hydrogen fluoride and ozone
(C) hydrogen fluoride and oxygen fluoride (D) hydrogen fluoride, oxygen and ozone

219. When iodine is dissolved in CCl4, the colour that results is :

(A) brown (B) bluish green (C) violet (D) colourless

220. Hydrogen bonding does not play role in the boiling point of :
(A) NH3 (B) H2O (C) HI (D) HF

221. Hydrogen fluoride is a liquid unlike other hydrogen halides, because :

(A) H–F bond is strong (B) F atom is small in size
(C) Hydrogen bonding is present (D) HF is a weak acid
222. Which one of the halogen acids is a liquid under ordinary conditions ?
(A) HF (B) HCl (C) HBr (D) HI

223. Bleaching powder is obtained by the interaction of chlorine and :

(A) dilute solution of Ca(OH)2 (B) concentrated solution of Ca(OH)2
(C) dry calcium oxide (D) dry slaked lime

224. Which amongst the following reactions cannot be used for the respective preparation ?
(A) 2KBr + H2SO4 (conc.)  K2SO4 + 2HBr (B) NaCl + H2SO4 (conc.)  NaHSO4 + HCl
(C) NaHSO4 + NaCl  Na2SO4 + HCl (D) CaF2 + H2SO4  CaSO4 + 2HF

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225. Which of the following possess the highest bond energy ?
(A) F2 (B) Cl2 (C) Br2 (D) I2

226. Astatine is the element below iodine in the group VIIA of the periodic table. Which of the following statements
is not true for astatine ?
(A) It is less electronegative than iodine
(B) It will exhibit only–1 oxidation state
(C) Intermolecular forces between the astatine molecules will be larger than between iodine molecules
(D) It is composed of diatomic moleucles

227. When thiosulphate ion is oxidised by iodine, the new product formed is :
(A) SO32– (B) SO42– (C) S4O62– (D) S2O62–

228. Which of the following is the strongest acid ?

(A) HBr (B) HF (C) H2S (D) PH3

229. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(A) all halogens form oxyacids (B) only chlorine and bromine form oxyacids
(C) all halogens except fluorine form oxyacids (D) only iodine forms oxyacid

230. On heating KClO3 we get :

(A) KClO2 + O2 (B) KCl + O2 (C) KCl + O3 (D) KCl + O2 + O3

231. The reaction

3CIO– (aq.)  CIO3– (aq.) + 2Cl– (aq.)
is an example of :
(A) oxidation reaction (B) reduction reaction (C) disproportionation (D) decomposition reaction

232. Which of the following has highest bond strength :

(A) HI (B) HCl (C) HF (D) HBr

233. Which of the following will displace the halogen from the solution of the halide ?
(A) Br2 added to NaI (B) Br2 added to NaCl
(C) Cl2 added to KCl (D) Cl2 added to NaF

234. The high oxidising power of fluorine is due to :

(A) high electron affinity
(B) high heat of dissociation and low heat of hydration
(C) low heat of dissociation and high heat of hydration
(D) high heat of dissociation and high heat of hydration

235. In the preparation of HBr or HI , NaX (X = Br, I) is treated with H3PO4 and not by concentrated H2SO4 since,
(A) H2SO4 makes the reaction reversible
(B) H2SO4 oxidises HX to X2 (Br2 , I2)
(C) Na2SO4 is water soluble and Na3PO4 is water insoluble
(D) Na3PO4 is water insoluble and Na2SO4 is water soluble

236. Bleaching powder is disinfectant for purification of water when water – born germs are killed. But disinfectant
activity is destroyed. It is due to its disproportionation into :
(A) CaCl2 and Cl2 (B) Ca–Cl2 and Ca(ClO3)2
(C) CaO and Cl2 (D) CaO, Cl2 and CaCl2

237. CaOCl2 + H2O + CO2  CaCO3 + CaCl2– + HO–Cl+

This reaction is simply :
(A) oxidation (B) reduction (C) redox (D) hydrolysis in presence of CO2

238. Select correct statement :

(A) Cl2O and ClO2 are used as bleaching agents and as germicides
(B) I2O5 is used in the quantitative estimation of CO
(C) bond angle XOX varies in the order FOF < ClOCl < BrOBr
(D) all are correct
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239. ClO2s is the anhydride of :
(A) HOCl (B) HClO2 (C) HClO3 (D) HClO2 and HClO3

240. ClO3 is the mixed anhydride of :

(A) HClO2 and HClO3 (B) HClO3 and HClO4 (C) HClO2 and HClO4 (D) HClO2 and HClO3
.
Group 18th
241. Of the following species, one which is non-existent :
(A) XeF6 (B) XeF5 (C) XeF4 (D) XeF2

242. The coloured discharge tube for advertisement mainly contains :

(A) xenon (B) helium (C) neon (D) argon

243. Maximum number of compounds are known in the case of :

(A) neon (B) xenon (C) krypton (D) argon

244. XeF6 on complete hydrolysis gives :

(A) Xe (B) XeO2 (C) XeO3 (D) XeO4

245. Which one of the following fluorides does not exist ?

(A) HeF4 (B) XeF4 (C) CF4 (D) SF6

246. In Kroll and I.C.I process of the production of titanium, the inert gas used is :
(A) Ne (B) Ar (C) Kr (D) Xe

247. Which of the following gaseous molecules is monoatomic ?

(A) chlorine (B) helium (C) oxygen (D) nitrogen

248. Which one of the following noble gases is not found in atmosphere ?
(A) Rn (B) Kr (C) Ne (D) Ar

249. Helium is added to oxygen used by deep sea divers because :

(A) It is less soluble in blood than nitrogen under high pressure
(B) It is lighter than nitrogen
(C) It is readily miscible with oxygen (D) It is less poisonous than nitrogen

250. The inert gas abundantly found in atomosphere is :

(A) Ar (B) Kr (C) He (D) Xe

251. The hybridization of Xe in XeF2 is :

(A) sp3 (B) sp2 (C) sp3d (D) sp2d (E) sp3d2

252. Select the correct matching :

List I List II
A : XeF4 1. Pyramidal
B : XeF6 2. T-Shape
C : XeO3 3. Distorted octahedral
D : XeO2F2 4. Square planar
A B C D
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 4 1 3 2
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253. Which one of the following does not exist ?
(A) XeOF4 (B) NeF2 (C) XeF2 (D) XeF6

254. Consider following properties of the noble gases :

I : They readily from compounds which are colourless
II : They generally do not form ionic compounds
III : They have variable oxidation states in their compounds
IV : They generally do not form covalent compounds.
Select correct properties.
(A) I, II , III (B) II , III (C) I , III (D) I

EXERCISE - 2
QUESTION FOR SHORT ANSWER :
Group 13th
1. Explain why aluminium, though an electropositive metal, finds extensive use as a structural material
2. Discuss the pattern of variation in oxidation states of the following :
(i) Al to TI (ii) Si to Pb (iii) P to Bi
3. How is LiAlH4 prepared ? What is its important uses ?
4. What happens when NaOH (aq) is added drop wise to a solution of GaCl3 in water ?
5. Give formula of the following :
(i) Felspar (ii) Cryolite (iii) Jeweller’s borax (iv) Corundum (v) Colemanite
6. Answer the following :
(i) What is the outer electronic configuration of group IIA elements ?
(ii) Name the first two elements of group IIIA.
(iii) What is Tincal ?
(iv) What is thermite mixture ?
(v) What is inorganic benzene ?
(vi) Name the two metals present in common alum.
(vii) Name the aluminium compound used in Friedel Craft’s reaction.

7. What happens when :

(i) Borax is heated strongly
(ii) Aluminium is heated with caustic soda solution.
(iii) A mixture of borax and cobalt oxide is heated in a flame.
(iv) Water is added to aluminium nitride.
(v) Aluminium reacts with HNO3.
8. Explain the following with relevent reason.
(i) Aluminium metal is frequently used as reducing agent for the extraction of metals such as Cr, Mn, Fe, etc.
(ii) AlCl3 forms a dimer but BCl3 does not form dimer.
(iii) The B ____ X distance is shorter than what is expected theoretically in BX3 molecule (X = Cl, F, Br, ) ?
(iv) Why boron does not form B3+ ion ?
(v) Although the ionisation potential of boron (8.30 eV) is less than gold (9.22 eV), yet former is a non-metal
while the latter is a metal.
(vi) Borazine is more reactive than benzene.
(vii) First ionisation potential of Al is lower than that of Mg.
9. How will you obtain.
(A) Sodium peroxo borate from borax (in two steps only)
(B) Borazole from sodiumboro hydride (in three steps only)
Refer text.
(C) Borax from Boron (in two steps)

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Group 14th
10. What is the importance of ultra pure elemental silicon ? How is it obtained ?
11. Write balanced equations for the following reactions :
(A) SnO is treated with dil. HNO3
(B) Tin is treated with an excess of chlorine gas.
(C) Lead sulphide is heated in air.
12. What are silicates ? How are they classified ?
13. What are silicones ? How are they manufactured ?
14. How far do you agree with the phenomenon concept of inert pair effect ? Justify your answer.
15. Why alkali metals should not be used for drying CCl4 and other chlorocarbons?
16. Why in reactions of HCl & SO2 , PbO2 shows oxidising nature? Explain.
17. Dilute HCl is preferred over dilute H2SO4 for the preparation of CO2 from lime stone. Explain.
18. PbCl4 is less stable than SnCl4 . Explain.
19. Why does not silicon form an analogue of graphite?
20. Like CO why its analogue of SiO is not stable.
21. Why CO2 is a gas and SiO2 is solid ?
22. What happens when,
(a) Mixture of R2 -SiCl2 and R3 - SiCl is subjected to hydrolysis.
(b) Malonic acid is heated in presence of P4O10 .
(c) Tin (IV) Chloride is exposed to moist air.
23. Explain the term "plumbosolvency".

24. 
CaO + C  (A) + (B)

(A) + N2  (C) + carbon
(C) + H2O  (D) + NH3
Identify (A), (B), (C) and (D)
25. How carbonates and bicarbonates can be differentiated from one another ?
Group 15th
26. Give reasons for the following:
(a) Formation of NH3 from its elements at constant pressure is accompanied by a decrease in volume.
(b) Nitric oxide turns brown in air.
(c) Copper dissolves in HNO3 but not in HCl.
(d) Pb(NO3)2 on heating produces a pale yellow gas which on strong heating produces brown gas.
27. Write down the electron dot formula of NO, N2, N2O5, NH3, HCN, NH4+, HNO3, HNO2, PH3
28. State the property of ammonia due to which it is used in refrigeration.
29. What happens when:
(a) NH4Cl & NaNO3 is heated strongly
(b) NH4NO3 is heated
(c) NH4NO2 is heated
(d) Mg3N2 reacts with water
(e) NaNO3 is heated with NaOH and Zn powder in water
(f) Mg is burnt in air and the product is treated with water
30. State the conditions under which NH3 is manufactured from N2 and H2.
31. How will you obtain N2 from a mixture of N2 and CO?
32. How will you obtain :
(A) Ammonia from quick lime (in three steps)
(B) H3PO4 from phosphorite (in two steps only)
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(C) Meta phosphate from primary phosphate (one step)
(D) White phosphorus from red phosphorus (one step)
(E) Phosphine from hypophosphorus acid (one step)
33. Commercial nitrogen is passed through copper chips kept in ammonia solution for removing oxygen. Explain.
34. Nitric acid acts only as an oxidising agent while nitrous acid can act both as an oxidising and reducing
agent.
35. Write down a reaction showing action of N2O4() as non-aqeous solvent.
36. A waxy crystalline solid (A) with a garlic odour is obtained by buring white P in a stream of air. (A) reacts
vigorously with hot water forming a gas (B) and an acid (C). Gas (B) has unplesant odour of rotten fish and is
neutral towards litmus. When passed through CuSO4 solution gas (B) produced a black ppt. (D) What are
(A) to (D) ? Give chemical equations of the reactions.
37. Why does H3PO3 act as a reducing agent but H3PO4 does not ?

Group 16th
38. Oxygen almost invariably exhibits an oxidation state of -2 but other members of the family exhibit negative as
well as positive oxidation state of +2, +4 and +6.
39. Sulphur dioxide acts as a strong reducing agent in alkaline medium.
40. Among the hydrides, H2O, H2S, H2Se which has highest bond angle.
41. Which of the following has highest boiling point and why
(a) H2O (b) H2S
42. What do you understand by tailing of mercury ?
43. An inorganic halide (A) reacts with water to form two acids (B) and (C). Also aqueous solution of (A) reacts
with KOH to form two salts (D) and (E) Which are soluble in water. The solution gives white precipitates with
both AgNO3 and BaCl2 solutions respectively. Identify (A) to (E) and write the chemical reactions involved.
44. From the reactions given below, identify (A), (B), (C) and (D) and write their formulae.
(A) + dil. H2SO4 + K2Cr2O7  (B) Green Solution
(A) + dil. H2SO4 + (C)  MnSO4
(A) + O2   (D)
H2 O

(D) + BaCl2  White ppt.

45. Arrange the following in increasing order

(a) H2O, CO2, SO3, N2O5, SiO2 - Acidic character
(b) H2O, H2S, H2Se, H2Te - Thermal stability
46. On heating rhombic sulpur it melts but viscosity of liquid increases upto 2000C and beyond that it decreases
why ?
47. O - O bond length is more in H2O2 than in O2F2 . Explain.
48. For drying H2S gas conc. H2SO4 can not be used why ?
49. Draw the structure of following acids.
(a) Marshall's acid (b) Dithionic acid (c) Caro's acid (d) Thiosulphuric acid
50. Complete the following equations
(i) I2 + O3 + H2O  HIO3 + ................
(ii) NaHS + ..............  Na2S2O3 + H2O
(iii) (NH4)2S2O8 + H2O + MnSO4  ..............+..................+.................
(iv) Sb2S3 + HCl  ...............+...............
(v) Hg2Cl2 + SO2 + HCl  .................+..................+.................

(vi) CaS + H2O + CO2  ................+.................

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51. What happens when
(A) FeCl3 reacts with hypo solution
(B) Mn2O7 dissolves in water.
(C) CuCl2 reacts with aqueous Na2S2O3
(D) Sulphuric acid is heated with potassium.

Group 17th
52. What happens when ? (Give balanced equations)
(i) Sodium iodate is treated with sodium bisulphite solution.
(ii) Chlorine is passed through hot NaOH solution.
(iii) Chlorine is passed into aqueous potassium hydroxide.
(iv) Chlorine gas is bubbled through a solution of ferrous bromide
(v) Iodine reacts with conc. HNO3.
(vi) Chlorine is passed over slaked lime.
(vii) Potassium iodide is heated with MnO2 and conc. H2SO4.
(viii) Chlorine reacts with Na2SO3 solution.
(ix) Iodine is added to acidified stannous chloride solution
53. Explain the following with proper reason :
(i) Fluorine cannot be prepared from fluorides by chemical oxidation.
(ii) Anhydrous HCl is a bad conductor of electricity while aqueous HCl is a good conductor.
(iii) Halogens are strong oxidising agents.
(iv) The bleaching action of chlorine is permanent while that of sulphur dioxide is temporary.
(v) Iodine dissolves more in K solution than in water..
(vi) KHF2 is well known whereas KHCl2 or KHBr2 does not exist.
(vii) Ferric iodide is very unstable but ferric chloride is stable.
(viii) Fluorine does not form F3– (polyhalide) ion.
(ix) HF is not stored in glass bottles but kept in wax lined bottles.
(x) HF has a greater electronegativity difference and more ionic character than HCl, HBr and HI but it is
the weakest acid.
54. Arrange the following :
(i) Increasing order of thermal stability HOCl, HClO2, HClO3, HClO4.
(ii) Increasing acid strength HClO, HClO2, HClO3, HClO4.
(iii) Increasing oxidising power HClO, HClO2, HClO3 , HClO4.
(iv) Increasing reducing nature F–, Cl–, Br–, –.
(v) Increasing oxidation number of iodine 2, H, HO4. Cl.
(vi) Increasing acid strength HOF, HOCl, HOBr, HO.
(vii) Increasing oxidising power F2, Cl2, Br2, 2.
(viii) Increasing acid strength HF, HCl, HBr, H.
(ix) Increasing electronegativity or reactivity F, Cl Br, .
(x) Increasing electron affinity F, Cl, Br, .
55. HI can not be prepared by heating NaI with conc. H2SO4. Give the method which is preferred for the preparation
of HI.
56. Freshly distilled colourless HI (aqueous solution) gradually turns brown with time.
57. State what happens when super halogen reacts with a cold dilute solution of NaOH ?
58. Complete and balance the following reactions :
(A) – CH = CH – + ICl  ; (B) HCl + KIO3 + 2KI 
(C) SiO2 + HF  ; (D) Pb3O4 + HCl  ; (E) H2O2 + ClO2 + OH– 

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Group 18th
59. Answer the following with relevant reason.
(i) Why the zero group elements do not form compounds under ordinary conditions ?
(ii) Xenon has closed shell configuration but is known to give compounds with fluorine.
(iii) The boiling points of noble gases increase with increase in atomic number.
(iv) A mixture of He and O2 is used for respiration by sea divers.
(v) Why helium and neon do not form clathrate compounds with quninol ?

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ANSWER KEY

EXERCISE - 1
SECTION (A) :
Group 13th
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. C
8. D 9. B 10. C 11. C 12. A 13. B 14. D
15. C 16. D 17. A 18. A 19. B 20. B 21. C
22. D 23. D 24. D 25. A 26. D 27. D 28. C
29. B 30. B 31. D 32. C 33. D 34. D 35. C

36. A 37. C 38. C 39. B 40. D 41. C 42. B

43. C 44. C 45. C 46. A 47. B 48. A 49. B
50. C 51. B 52. C 53. B 54. D 55. A
Group 14th
56. A 57. C 58. C 59. C 60. B 61. A 62. B
63. D 64. A 65. C 66. C 67. A 68. B 69. A
70. C 71. A 72. B 73. D 74. C 75. D 76. B
77. C 78. A 79. B 80. C 81. C 82. B 83. A
84. D 85. A 86. A 87. D 88. C 89. C 90. C
91. D 92. B 93. B 94. B 95. D 96. B 97. A
98. D 99. B 100. A

Group 15th
101. D 102. D 103. A 104. B 105. B 106. A 107. A
108. A 109. C 110. C 111. A 112. D 113. D 114. C
115. B 116. C 117. A 118. B 119. D 120. C 121. D
122. D 123. B 124. C 125. C 126. B 127. C 128. A
129. D 130. A 131. C 132. D 133. B 134. C 135. D
136. C 137. B 138. C 139. A 140. D 141. C 142. D
143. B 144. A 145. C 146. B 147. D 148. D 149. B
150. D 151. A 152. D 153. D 154. B 155. C 156. C
157. C 158. A 159. A 160. D 161. B 162. B

16th Group
163. C 164. A 165. C 166. D 167. D 168. B 169. D
170. A 171. A 172. B 173. D 174. B 175. B 176. C
177. D 178. B 179. D 180. C 181. B 182. A 183. C
184. D 185. B 186. B 187. D 188. B 189. D 190. A
191. D 192. C 193. B 194. A 195. C 196. A 197. C
198. C 199. D 200. B 201. D

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Group 17th
202. A 203. A 204. D 205. C 206. C 207. B 208. C
209. A 210. A 211. D 212. B 213. B 214. D 215. A
216. D 217. D 218. D 219. C 220. C 221. C 222. A
223. D 224. A 225. B 226. B 227. C 228. A 229. C
230. B 231. C 232. C 233. A 234. C 235. B 236. B
237. D 238. D 239. D 240. B

Group 18th

241. B 242. C 243. B 244. C 245. A 246. B 247. B

248. A 249. A 250. A 251. C 252. A 253. B 254. B

EXERCISE - 2
Group 13th
1. (a) being electropositive reacts with air or oxygen to form protective layer of Al2O3 on its surface which
protects it form further action.
(b) Cheap and light metal and forms alloys with other metal which are not easily corrode.
2. (i) Al has no d-or f-electrons. Therefore, it does not exhibit inert pair effect and consequenty, it shows an
oxidation state of +3 only due to the presence of two electrons in the s-and one electron in the p-orbital of the
valence shell. As we move down the group from Ga to TI, the stability of +1 oxidation state increases while
that of =3 oxidation decreases due to inert pair effect. For

3. Dry ether
4LiH + AlCl3  + –
  Li [AlH4] + 3LiCl.
Reducing agent in organic chemistry.
4. GaCl3 + 3NaOH  Ga(OH)3  + 3NaCl
Ga(OH)3 + NaOH  NaGaO2 + 2H2O
5. (i) KAISi3O8 (ii) Na3AIF6 (iii) Na2B4O7.5H2O (iv) Al2O3 (v) Ca2B6O11.5H2O
6. (i) ns2 np1
(ii) Boron and aluminium
(iii) It is a mineral of boron. Its composition is Na2B4O7.10H2O
(iv) Mixture containing 1 part Al powder and 3 parts Fe2O3 or Cr2 O3
(v) Borazole or borazine, B3N3H6 is known as inorganic benzene
(vi) Common alum is the double sulphate of potassium and aluminium. Its composition is,
K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O
(vii) Anhydrous aluminium chloride, AlCl3.
10H O
7. (i) Na2B4O7.10H2O  2 Na2B4O7  2NaBO2 + B2O3

(ii) 2AI + 2NaOH + 2H2O  2NaAIO2 + 3H2

10H O
(iii) Na2B4O7.10H2O  2 Na2B4O7  2NaBO2 + B2O3

B2O3 + CoO  Co(BO2)2

(iv) AIN + 3H2O  AI(OH)3 + NH3

(v) Nitric acid whether dilute or concentrated hardly affects aluminium at all. Aluminium is rendered passive.
A thin film of Al2O3 is formed on the surface of the metal.
8. Refer text and chemical bonding sheet.

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9. (A) Refer text.
ether
3NaBH4  4BF3   3NaBF4  2B 2H6

100
B 2H6  2NH3  B 2H6 .2NH3
tempt.

200 o C
B 2H6 .2NH3  
 B 3N3H6  H 2
(C) Borax from Boron (in two steps)

2B  6HNO 3 (or H2SO 4 )  2H3BO 3  6NO 2

4H3BO 3  Na 2 CO 3  Na 2B 4 O 7  6H2 O  CO 2

Group 14th
10. Ultra pure elemental silicon is used for making semiconductors.

SiCl4 (pure )  2H2 (g)  Si(s)  4HCl (g)

SiHCl3 (s)  H2 (g)  Si(s)  3HCl(g)

675 K
SiH4 (g)   Si(s)  2H2 (g)
Pyrolysis

11. (A) SnO + 2HNO3  Sn(NO3)2 + H2O


(B) Sn + 2Cl2  SnCl4

(C) 2PbS + 3O2  2PbO + 2SO2 ; PbS + 2O2  PbSO4

14. Inert pair effect is due to the ineffectively shielding of the s-electrons of the valence shell by the d-and
f-electrons of the inner shells.
15. They violently react with alkali metals according to following reactions.

CCl 4 ( )  4Na(s)  4NaCl(s)  C(s)

IV II IV II
16. P bO2  4HCl  P bCl 2  Cl2 ; P bO2  SO2  P bSO 4

17. CaSO4 formed with H2SO4 forms a protective layer over lime stone and then reaction slowly ceases and stop.
But CaCl2 is soluble.
18. PbCl4 is less stable than SnCl4 due to more effective inert pair effect in lead. Pb–Cl bond length is more then
that of Sn–Cl.
19. Due to bigger atomic size of silicon, its reluctance for pp – pp bond does not allow to form graphite like
structure.
20. Low electronegativity and bigger size, Si does not have tendency to form p-p bonds like carbon.

COOH
P4 O10
22. (b) CH2   C3O2 (Carbon suboxide) + 2H2O


COOH

23. Lead dissolves in water containing dissolved air due to the formation of lead hydroxide (a poisonous substance).
This solvent action of water is called plumbo solvency. It increases if water contains nitrates, ammonium
salts and organic acids, and decreases if water contains phosphates, sulphates, bicarbonates and carbonates.
24. (A) CaC2 (B) CO (C) CaCN2 (D) CaCO3 .

25. Carbonates evolve CO2 with phenol but bicarbonate do not.

Soluble carbonates give pink colour with phenolphthalein but soluble bicarbonates do not.

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Group 15th
26. (b) 2NO + O2  2NO2 (Brown)
(c) Copper is placed below hydrogen in electrochemical series and does not liberate H2 from acid. However,
HNO3 oxidises copper due to its strong oxidant nature.
3Cu + 8HNO3 (dil.)  3 Cu(NO3)2 + 4H2O + 2NO
 
(d) Pb(NO 3 )2  N2O 4  NO 2  (Brown)

28. Due to its high heat of vaporisation.

800 1000 º C
32. (A) CaO  3C     CaC 2  CO 

CaC 2  N2  CaCN2  C

CaCN2  3H2O  CaCO 3  2NH3

(B) 2Ca3 (PO4)2 + 6SiO2  6CaSiO3 + P4O10

P4O10 + 6H2O  4H3PO4

 
(C) NaH2PO 4  NaPO 3  H2O (D) Refer text (E) 3H3PO 2  PH3  2H3PO 3

33. 2Cu + 8NH3 + O2 + 2H2O  2[Cu(NH3)4 (OH)2 ; O2 is removed in the form of cupra-ammonium hydroxide
complex.

35. N2O4() NO+ (acid) + NO3– (base)

ZnCl2 + 2N2O4()  Zn(NO3)2 + 2NOCl.

36. (A) P4O6 ; (B) PH3 ; (C) H3PO4 ; (D) Cu3P2
The given changes are :
P + 3O2 (s) (air)  P4O6 (Garlic odour) ; P4O6 + 6H2O (hot)  3H3PO4 + PH3
(A) (C) (B)
(B) is PH3 having rotten fish smell and neutral towards litmus
3CuSO4 + 2PH3  Cu3P2 + 3H2SO4 (Cu3P2 is black substance insoluble in water)

37. H3PO3 contains one P–H bond and hence acts as a reducing agent but H3PO4 does not contain a P–H bond.
Group 16th
38. Oxygen has no d-orbitals while other have d-orbitals. Therefore, the paired electrons can be made unpaired
by exciting electrons to d-orbitals.

39. SO2 + 2OH- SO42- + 2H+ + 2 e : reaction proceeds in forward direction as OH- concentration increases

SO2 + 2H2O SO42- + 4H+ + 2 e : as H+ concentration increases the reaction proceeds in backward
direction.
40. H2O = 104.50 ; H2S = 92.50 ; H2Se = 910
41. H2O ; intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
42. Mercury is a mobile liquid but in presence of ozone it loses its mobility due to the formation of mercury
suboxide and starts sticking to the glass. This is called as tailing of mercury. 2Hg + O3  Hg2O + O2 .
43. (A) SO2Cl2 ; (B) H2SO4 ; (C) HCl ; (D) K2SO4 ; (E) KCl
44. (A) Na2SO3 ; (B) Cr2(SO4)3 ; (C) KMnO4 ; (D) Na2SO4
45. (a) H2O < SiO2 < CO2 < N2O5 < SO3 (b) H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
46. On heating, S8 rings are broken and long chain polymers are formed up to 2000C. Thus due to polymerisation,
liquid becomes viscous but beyond 2000C long chains are broken into short chains and ultimately S2 molecules
are formed in the vapour phase, so viscosity of liquid decreases.

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0
47. repulsions  B.L  1.48 A

48. H2SO4 acts as strong oxidising agent and, therefore, following reaction takes place.
H2S + H2SO4  SO2 + S + 2H2O

49. (a) (b)

S
(c) (d) H O S O H
O
55. (i) I2 + 5O3 + H2O  2HIO3 + 5O2
(ii) 2NaHS +4NaHSO3  3Na2S2O3 + 3H2O
(iii) (NH4)2S2O8 + 2H2O + MnSO4  (NH4)2SO4 + MnO2 + 2H2SO4
(iv) Sb2S3 + 6HCl  2SbCl3 + 3H2S
(v) 2Hg2Cl2 + SO2 + 4HCl  4HgCl2 + 2H2O + S

(vi) CaS + H2O + CO2  CaCO3 + H2S

Group 17th
52. (i) 2NaO3 + 5NaHSO3  3 NaHSO4 + 2Na2SO4 + H2O + 2
Hot
(ii) 3Cl2 + 6 NaOH(conc)  5 NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2O
(iii) Cl2 + 2KOH (aq)  KCl + KClO + H2O
(iv) 2FeBr2 + 3Cl2  2FeCl3 + 2Br2
(v) 2 + 10HNO3  2HO3 + 10NO2 + 4H2O
(vi) Ca(OH)2 + Cl2  Ca(OCl)Cl + H2O
(vii) 2K + MnO2 + 3H2SO4  2KHSO4 + MnSO4 + 2H2O + 2
(viii) Cl2 + Na2SO3 + H2O  2HCl + Na2 SO4
acidified
(ix) SnCl2 + 2HCl + 2   SnCl4 + 2H

53. (i) The standard reduction potential of fluorine is maximum.

+ e– 
Thus, it cannot be oxidised by any other reagent. F– ion is very stable due to small size and high
electronegativity of fluorine atom.
(ii) In anhydrous state, HCl is a covalent molecule. In aqueous solution, HCl combines with water
molecule to form H3O+ and Cl– ions.
HCl + H2O  H3O+ + Cl–

(iii) Halogens act as strong oxidising agents because they have high tendency to accept electron, i.e.,
they have high electron affinity values. Their reduction potentials are high (positive) and decrease from F to .
Thus, oxidising nature decreases from F to .
(iv) Chlorine bleaching action is due to oxidation while that of sulphur dioxide is due to reduction. Hence,
the substance bleached by SO2 is reoxidised by the oxygen of the air to its original state.
(v) 2 is a covalent molecule. thus, its solubility is less in polar solvent, i.e., water. Potassium iodide
combines with iodine and forms a polyhalide which is an ionic compound. Being ionic, K3 is more
soluble.
K + 2  K3 (K+ 3–)

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(vi) Hydrofluoric acid exists as dimeric molecule (H2 F2) due to hydrogen bonding. It, thus, exhibits
dibasic nature and forms two series of salts, KHF2 as [K+ and F– --- H –– F] and KF[K+ and F–]. HCl
and HBr exists as monomeric molecules as hydrogen bonding is not present.
(vii) – ions is a strong reducing agent. Iodide thus reduces ferric into ferrous, Cl– ion is a weak reducing
agent and does not reduce Fe3+ to Fe2+ .

(viii) No d-orbitals are present in fluorine while d-orbitals are present in other halogens. The formation of
X3– ions involves sp3 d-hybrizaion.
(ix) HF attacks glass bottles. The sodium and potassium silicates are converted into flurosilicates
Na2 SiO3 + 6HF  Na2 SiF6 + 3H2O
(x) The weakest acidic nature of HF is due to following three factors :
(i) Strong H–F bond as the dissociation energy is high.
(ii) Large heat of dehydration dues to hydrogen bonding.
(iii) Low value of electron affinity.
54. (i) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 (ii) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
(iii) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO (iv) F– < Cl– < Br – < –
(v) HI < 2 < Cl < HO4 (vi) HOI < HOBr < HOCl < HOF
(vii) 2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2 (viii) HF < HCl < HBr < H
(ix)  < Br < Cl < F (x)  < Br < F < Cl
55. HI is a strong reducing agent and, therefore, reduces H2SO4 to SO2 and itself get oxidised to 2.
3Na + H3PO4  K3PO4 + H

56. 4H + O2 (air)  on s tan ding

   2H2O + 2
liberation of 2 turns H solution brown.
57. 2F2 + 2NaOH  OF2 + 2NaF + H2O

Group 18th
59. (i) Zero group elements have complete electronic configuration of their outer shells, i.e. ns2 np6 (except
helium which has 1s2), hence they do not have any tendency either to lose or accept electron/
electrons or share electrons with other atoms.
(ii) Xe has relatively lower ionisation energy among inert gases and thus the outermost shell electrons
of Xe are excited to d-subshell and thereby showing unpaired electronic structure. Therefore Xe
shows covalent bonding with fluorine showing sharing of electron pair.
(iii) Van der Waal’s forces of attraction among molecules increase with the increase of atomic masses.
Thus, higher energy is required to separate these molecules as to get gaseous state. Hence, the
boiling points increase with increase of atomic masses.
(iv) Unlike nitrogen, helium is not soluble in blood even under high pressure.
(v) The size of cavities formed during crystallisation of quinol is more than the size of helium and neon
atoms.

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 SALT ANALYSIS FINAL LAP - 2019

SALT ANALYSIS
SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS BASED ON FUNDAMENTALS

EXERCISE - 1
SECTION (A) : ONLY ONE ANSWER IS CORRECT :
(a) ANIONS
(I) Dilute H2SO4 group :
1. The carbonate of which of the following cation is insoluble in water ?
(A) Na+ (B) K+ (C) NH4+ (D) Ca2+

2. SO2 and CO2 both turn lime water (X) milky, SO2 also turns K2Cr2O7 /H+ (Y) green while O2 is soluble in
pyrogallol (Z) turning it black. These gases are to be detected in order by using these reagents. The order is:
(A) (X), (Y), (Z) (B) (Y), (Z), (X) (C) (Y), (X), (Z) (D) (X), (Z), (Y)

3. Colourless salt (A) + dil. H2SO4 + Kl  blue colour with starch. (A) can be
(A) K2SO3 (B) Na2CO3 (C) NH4NO2 (D) NH4Cl

4. Zinc. pieces are added to acidified solution of SO32 – . Gas liberated can :
(A) turn lead acetate paper black (B) turn lime water milky
(C) give both of the above tests (D) give none of the above tests
Hint : SO32– + Zn + 8H+  H2S  + 3Zn2+ + 3H2O
5. Nitrite (NO2–) interferes in the ‘ring-test’ of nitrate (NO3–). Some of the following reagents can be used for the
removal of nitrite.
I : NH4Cl (Solid)
II : dil. H2SO4
III : NH2SO3 H (sulphamic acid)
IV : Zinc /sodium hydroxide
(A) I , II (B) I, II , IV (C) I , II , III (D) II , III , IV

6. Consider following reaction ; Nitrite + Acetic acid + Thiourea  N2 + SCN– + 2H2O. Formation of the
product in the above reaction can be identified by :
(A) FeCl3 / dil . HCl when blood red colour appears (B) FeCl3 / dil. HCl when blue colour appears
(C) K2Cr2O7 / HCl when green colour appear (D) KMnO4 / HCl when colourless solution is formed

(II) CONCENTRATED H2SO4 GROUP AND PRECIPITATION REACTIONS

7. A mixture when rubbed with dilute acid smells like vinegar. It contains :
(A) sulphite (B) nitrate (C) nitrite (D) acetate

8. Which of the following reagent turns white precipitate of AgCl yellow ?

(A) NaI (B) Na3AsO3 (C) Na3AsO4 (D) NaCN

9. When a mixture of solid NaCl, solid K2Cr2O7 is heated with conc. H2SO4, deep red vapours are obtained.
This is due to the formation of :
(A) Chromous chloride (B) Chromyl chloride (C) Chromic chloride (D) Chromic sulphate

10. AgCl dissolves in ammonia solution giving :

(A) Ag+, NH4+ and Cl– (B) Ag(NH3)+ and Cl–
(C) Ag2(NH3)2+ and Cl– (D) Ag(NH3)2+ and Cl–

11. A mixture upon adding conc. H2SO4 gives deep red fumes. It may contain the anions pair :
(A) Cr2O72 – and Cl– (B) Br – and Cl – (C) NO3– and Cl – (D) CrO42 – and NO32 –

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12. White precipitate of AgCl turns to greyish or black when :
(A) reacts with Na3AsO4 (B) expossed to sunlight
(C) reacts with K2CrO4 (D) reacts with conc. HCl

13. The acidic solution of a salt produced a deep blue colour with starch iodide solution. The salt may be
(A) Chloride (B) Carbonate (C) Acetate (D) Bromide

14. A colourless solution of a compound gives a precipitate with AgNO3 solution but no precipitate with a solution
of Na2CO3 . The action of concentrated H2SO4 on the compouund liberates a suffocating reddish brown gas.
The compound is :
(A) Ba(NO3)2 (B) CaCl2 (C) NaI (D) NaBr

15. When Cl2 water in excess is added to a salt solution containing chloroform, chloroform layer turns pale
yellow. Salt contains :
(A) Br– (B) – (C) NO3– (D) S2–

16. A mixture of two colourless substance was dissolved in water. When gaseous Cl2 was passed through the
solution, containing small quantity of CCl4 a violet colour developed in organic layer. Addition of BaCl2 to the
original solution give a white precipitate. The mixture contains :
(A) NaNO3 and AlCl3 (B) NaBr and KCl (C) MgI2 and MgSO4 (D) BaSO4 and PbCl2

17. An aqueous solution of salt containing an acidic radical X– reacts with sodium hypochlorite in neutral medium.
The gas evolved produces blue black colour spot on the starch paper. The anion X– is :
(A) CH3COO– (B) Br– (C) I– (D) NO2–

18. Some white colourless crystals are heated. A cracking sound is heard and brown fumes are given off and the
residue left is yellow-brown in colour. When a glowing splinter is held in the fumes, it is relighted. The fumes
consist of :
(A) O2 (B) NO2 (C) Cl2 (D) NO2 and O2

19. Nitrate is confirmed by ring test. The brown colour of the ring is due to formation of :
(A) Ferrous nitrite (B) Nitroso ferrous sulphate
(C) Ferrous nitrate (D) FeSO4 .NO2 .

20. Nitrates of all the metals are :

(A) coloured (B) unstable (C) soluble in water (D) insoluble in water

21. Precipitate of PbSO4 is soluble in :

(A) ammonium acetate (B) dilute HCl (C) dilute H2SO4 (D) none

22. There are four test tubes containing dil. HCl, BaCl2, CdCl2 and KNO3 solutions. Which of the following will
identify BaCl2 ?
(A) KI (B) K2CrO4 (C) AgNO3 (D) both (B) and (C)
(b) CATIONS
(I) Zero Group
23. A metal X on heating in nitrogen gas gives Y.Y on treatment with H2O gives a colourless gas which when
passed through CuSO4 solution gives a intense blue colour. Y is :
(A) Mg(NO3)2 (B) Mg3N2 (C) NH3 (D) MgO

24. Nessler’s reagent is :

(A) K2 Hg4 (B) K2 Hg4 + KOH (C) K2Hg 2 + KOH (D) K2 Hg4 + K

25. Ammonia/ammonium ion gives yellow precipitate with :

(A) H2PtCl6 (B) HgCl2 (C) Na3[Co(NO2)6] (D) (A) and (C) both

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(II) Ist Group
26. The Ks.p., for HgS, Ag2S and PbS are 10–31,10–45 and 10–50 respectively. The solubilities are in the order :
(A) HgS > Ag2S > PbS (B) HgS < PbS < Ag2S
(C) PbS > Ag2S > HgS (D) Ag2S > HgS > PbS

27. Cu2+ and Ag+ are both present in the same solution . To precipitate one of the ions and leaves the other in
solution, add
(A) H2S (aq) (B) HCl (aq) (C) HNO3(aq) (D) NH4NO3(aq)

28. Consider the following observation :

Mn+ + HCl  white precipitate 
 water soluble. The metal ion Mn+ will be :
(A) Hg2+ (B) Ag+ (C) Pb2+ (D) Sn2+

(III) IInd Group

29. H2S in the presence of HCl precipitates  group but not V group because
(A) HCl activates H2S (B) HCl increases concentration of Cl–
(C) HCl decreases concentration of S2– (D) HCl lowers the solubility of H2S in solution

30. Yellow ammonium sulphide solution is a suitable reagent for the separation of :
(A) HgS and PbS (B) PbS and Bi2 S3 (C) Bi2 S3 and CuS (D) CdS and As2 S3

31. Black precipitate of copper dissolves in :

(A) KCN solution (B) sodium sulphide solution
(C) sodium hydroxide (D) boiling dilute (M) sulphuric acid

32. In which of the pair the precipitates are red and black coloured respectively and both soluble in excess KI
solution ?
(A) HgI2 , Hg2I2 (B) HgI2 , BiI3 (C) Cu2I2 , AgI (D) CdI2 , PbI2

33. Which one is soluble in dilute HCl

(A) AgNO3 (B) Pb(NO3)2 (C) Hg2(NO3)2 (D) Cu(NO3)2

34. A metal chloride solution on mixing with K2CrO4 solution gives a yellow ppt., soluble in aqueous sodium
hydoroxide. The metal may be
(A) Mercury (B) Zinc (C) Silver (D) Lead

35. Which of the following is insoluble in dil. HNO3 but dissolves in aquaregia?
(A) HgS (B) PbS (C) Bi2 S3 (D) CuS.

36. When small amount of SnCl2 is added to a solution of Hg2+ ions, a silky while precipitate is obtained. The
silky white precipitate is due to the formation of :
(A) Hg2Cl2 (B) SnCl4 (C) Sn (D) Hg

37. When excess of dilute NH4OH is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate an intense blue colour is
obtained. This is due to the formation of :
(A) CuSO4 (B) Cu(OH)2 (C) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (D) (NH4)2SO4

38. When bismuth chloride is poured into a large volume of water the white precipitate produced is of :
(A) BiO.OH (B) Bi2 O3 (C) BiOCl (D) Bi (OH)3

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(IV) IIIrd Group
39. When NH4Cl is added to a solution of NH4OH :
(A) The dissociation of NH4OH increases (B) The concentration of OH– increases
(C) The concentrations of both OH– an NH4+ increase (D) The concentration of OH– ion decreases.

40. The solution of sodium meta aluminate on diluting with water and then boiling with ammonium chloride gives:
(A) [Al(H2O)5OH]2+ (B) AlCl3 (C) Al (OH)3 (D) NaAl(OH)4

41. Intense blue precipitate of Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 and sodium hydroxide solution when mixed gives :
(A) soluble prussian blue (B) reddish–brown precipitate
(C) deep–red colouration (D) turnbull's blue

42. Turnbull’s blue is a compound

(A) Ferricyanide (B) Ferrous ferricyanide
(C) Ferrous cyanide (D) Ferriferrocyanide

43. Fe2+ does not give Prussian blue colour with K4[Fe(CN)6] but on its reaction with (X), Prussian blue colour
appears (X) can be :
(A) MnO4–/ H+ (B) H2SO4 (C) NH3 (D) All true

44. Fe(OH)3 and Cr(OH)3 precipitates are completely separated by :

(A) Aq. NH3 (B) HCl (C) NaOH/H2O2 (D) H2SO4

45. Ferric alum gives red colour with NH4SCN due to the formation of :
(A) Al(SCN)3 (B) [Fe(SCN)3]– (C) Fe(SCN)3 (D) [Fe(SCN)]2+

46. NH4SCN can be used to test one or more out of Fe3+ , Co2+ ,Cu2+
(A) Fe3+ only (B) Co2+ , Cu2+ only (C) Fe3+ Cu2+ only (D) All

47. K4[Fe(CN)6] can be used to detect one or more out of Fe2+ , Fe3+, Zn2+, Cu2+, Cd2+ , Ca2+ :
(A) Fe2+ , Fe3+ only (B) Fe3+ , Zn2+ , Cu2+ only
2+
(C) All but Ca (D) All

(V) IVth Group

48. To increase significantly the concentration of free Zn2+ ion in a solution of the complex ion [Zn(NH3)4]2+
Zn2+ (aq) + 4NH 3 (aq) [Zn(NH3)4]2+ (aq)
add to the solution some :
(A) H2O (B) HCl (aq) (C) NH3(aq) (D) NH4Cl (aq)

49. CoS (black) obtained in group IV of salt analysis is dissolved in aqua regia and is treated with an excess of
NaHCO3 and then Br2 water. An apple green coloured stable complex is formed. It is :
(A) Sodium cobaltocarbonate (B) Sodium cobaltibromide
(C) Sodium cobalticarbonate (D) Sodium cobaltobromide
50. A metal salt solution when treated with dimethyl glyoxime and NH4OH gives a rose red complex. The metal
(A) Ni (B) Zn (C) Co (D) Mn.

51. An aqueous solution of colourless metal sulphate M, gives a white ppt. with NH4OH. This was soluble in
excess of NH4OH. On passing H2S through this solution a white ppt. is formed. The metal M in the salt is
(A) Ca (B) Ba (C) Al (D) Zn

52. Which of the following cation does not give red colour precipitate with dimethylglyoxime (DMG) in alkaline
solution ?
(A) Zn+2 (B) Ni+2 (C) Fe2+ (D) both (A) and (C)

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53. In borax bead test which compound is formed ?
(A) Orthoborate (B) Metaborate (C) Double oxide (D) Tetraborate
54. A suspension containing insoluble substance ZnS, MnS, HgS, Ag2S and FeS, is treated with 2N HCl. On
filtering, the filtrate contains appreciable amounts of which one of the following?
(A) zinc and mercury (B) silver and iron
(C) manganese and mercury (D) zinc, manganese and iron

(VI) Vth Group

55. Aqueous Solution of BaBr2 gives yellow precipitate with :
(A) K2CrO4 (B) AgNO3 (C) (CH3COO)2Pb (D) (A) and (B) both

56. The addition of K2CO3 (aq) to the following solution is expected to produce a precipitate in every case but that
one which does not produce precipitate is :
(A) BaCl2(aq) (B) CaBr2(aq) (C) Na2SO4(aq) (D) Pb(NO3)2 (aq)

57. If crimson flame is given when an inorganic mixture is tested by flame test, it may be due to the presence of
(A) Chromium (B) Strontium (C) Barium (D) Calcium

(VII) VIth Group

58. Mg is not precipitated in V group because

(A) MgCO3 is soluble in water (B) Ksp of MgCO3 is high
(C) MgCO3 is soluble in NH4OH (D) None.

59. The presence of magnesium is confirmed in the qualitative analysis by :

(A) titan yellow solution (B) disodium hydrogen phosphate
(C) magneson(I) reagent (D) all of these

SECTION (B) : ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT ANSWER :

60. Cu2+ ions give white precipitate with :
(A) excess KI solution (B) potassium thiocyanate solution
(C) excess KCN solution (D) potassium hydroxide solution

61. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true ?

(A) Ag+ ions do not give white precipitate with concentrated HCl
(B) Cu2+ ions produce a white precipitate when KCN solution is added in a small quantity
(C) Hg2+ ions give deep blue precipitate with cobalt acetate and ammonium thiocyanate
(D) Black precipitate of BiI3 turns orange when heated with water

62. Na2SO4 and Na2S can be distinguished from each other by using :
(A) conc.H2SO4 (B) acidified KMnO4 solution
(C) sodium nitroprusside solution (D) cadmium acetate solution

63. K solution is the reagent for :

(A) Hg2+ (B) Pb2+ (C) Ag+ (D) Cu2+

64. Black sulphides are formed by :

(A) Cu2+ (B) Sb3+ (C) Pb2+ (D) Bi3+

65. In  B group of basic radicals, the yellow precipitate (s) is/are given by :
(A) As3+ (B) Sb3+ (C) Sn4+ (D) Sn2+

66. Borax bead test is given by :

(A) Co2+ (B) Zn2+ (C) Cu2+ (D) Ni2+

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67. Reddish brown gas is obtained when the following are treated with conc. H2SO4 :
(A) Br– (B) NO3– (C) SO32– (D) –

68. NH4OH dissolves which of the following completely or partially :

(A) AgCl (B) AgBr (C) PbSO4 (D) Ag

69. Which of the following statement(s) is /are false ?

(A) Fe3+ gives red precipitate with dimethyl glyoxime in alkaline solution.
(B) Cu2+ ion with excess KI gives a dirty white ppt. which turns white on adding hypo solution.
(C) A filter paper soaked in mercurous nitrate turns black in contact with ammonia gas.
(D) Ag2+ gives white precipitate with BaBr2

70. Which of the following compound(s) is /are insoluble in excess aqueous sodium hydroxide.
(A) ZnCl2 (B) CdCl2 (C) AlCl3 (D) MnCl2

71. Ammonium molybdate test is used for the estimation of :

(A) PO43– (B) Mg2+ (C) As3+ (D) CH3COO–

72. The correct statement(s) is /are.

(A) titan yellow solution gives red colouration with a neutral solution containing Mg +2 ions
(B) solution of nitrite is decomposed by sulphamic acid.
(C) Fe2+ ions give brown colour precipitate with [Fe(CN)6]3– ions solution.
(D) Green precipitate of Cr(OH)3 is soluble in Na2O2.

73. Which of the following is/are correct for potassium ferrocyanide ?

(A) It gives a brown precipitate with Cu2+ ions.
(B) It gives a white precipitate of mixed salt with Ca2+ ions.
(C) It in excess gives a bluish white precipitate with Zn2+
(D) It develops a deep red colouration with Fe3+

74. CoCl2 + KNO2 + CH3COOH  [X] + H2O + KCl + CH3COOK + NO

(Unbalenced equation)
(A) X is a yellow crystalline solid insoluble in water
(B) X is a green coloured compounds knwon as kinman's green.
(C) IUPAC name of X is potassium hexanitrito –N– cobaltate (II)
(D) The compound X is an inner orbital complex.

EXERCISE - 1
SECTION (A) :
(a) QUESTIONS FOR SHORT ANSWER :
1. A compound containing acetate radical is made to react with neutral ferric chloride. The solution is then
diluted with water and boiled for 1-2 minutes. A reddish brown ppt is obtained. Give the chemical composition
of reddish brown ppt.
2. Salt + H2SO4  Coloured vapours which turns starch iodide paper blue. Identify the acid radical and the
coloured vapours giving the relevent chemical equations.
3. Which chloride of  Group turns black on treatment with NH3 ?
4. Which basic radical is tested with the help of alkaline sodium stannite?
5. Which basic radicals form oxocations in aqueous solution ?
6. Which basic radical(s)/decolourize acidic KMnO4 ?

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7. Which ions cannot coexist in solution ?

8. Which radical of group IVth gives bluish white ppt with K4[Fe(CN)6] (excess).
9. What products are formed.
(i) When Ag2CO3 is strongly heated.
(ii) Disodium hydrogen phosphate is added to magnesium sulphate solution containing ammonium hydroxide.
(iii) A solution containing Zn2+ ions is poured in an aqueous ammonia.
(iv) Bi(NO3)3 solution is mixed with K and then resulting mixture is saturated with exess of K solution.
(v) Disodium hydrogen phosphate is boiled with conc. HNO3 and ammonium molybdate solution.
10. Complete and balance the following chemical reactions.
fused
(i) Cu(BO2)2 + C   (ii) AgBr + NH4OH 
fused 
(iii) Cr(OH)3 + Na2CO3 + KNO3   (iv) Cu(NO3)2 
(v) CaSO3 + SO2 + H2O 
11. Complete and balance the following reaction.
(i) Na2S2O3 + FeCl3  ............... + NaCl

(ii) Na2S + CdCO3  ............... + ..............

(iii) CoCl2 + NH4CNS  ............... + ...........

(b) SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS :

1. A black colured compound (A) on reaction with dil. H2SO4 gives a gas (B) which on passing in a solution of
an acid (C) gives a white turbidity (D). Gas (B) when passed in an acidified solution of a compound (E) gives
a precipitate (F) soluble in dilute HNO3. After boiling this solution when an excess of NH4OH is added, a blue
coloured compound (G) is formed. To this solution on addition of acetic acid and aqueous K4[Fe(CN)6] a
cholcolate precipitate (H) is obtained. On addition of an aqueous solution of BaCl2 to an aqueous solution of
(E) a white precipitate insoluble in dilute HCl is obtained. Identify the compounds from (A) to (H).
2. A compound (A) is greenish crystalline salt, which gave the following reactions.
(i) Additon of BaCl2 solution to the solution of (A) results in the formation of white precipitate (B) which is
insoluble in dilute HCl.
(ii) On heating (A), water vapours and two oxides of sulphur (C) and (D) are liberated leaving a red brown
residue(E).
(iii) (E) dissolves in warm conc. HCl to give a yellow solution (F)
(iv) Solution (F) on treatment with thiocyanate ions gives blood red colouerd compound (G).
Identify the substances from (A) to (G)

3. An aqueous solution of salt (A) gives a white crystalline precipitate (B) with NaCl solution. The filtrate gives
a black precipitate (C) when H2S gas is passed through it. Compound (B) dissolves in hot water and the
solution gives yellow precipitate (D) on treatment with KI and cooling or orange precipitate with K2CrO4 or
white precipitate with dilute H2SO4 solution which is insoluable in C2H5OH. The compound (A) does not
evolve any gas with dilute HCl, liberates a reddish brown gas on heating. Identify the compounds (A) to (D).
4. A white substance (A) reacts with dilute H2SO4 to produce a colourless gas (B) and a colourless solution (C).
The reaction between (B) and acidified K2Cr2O7 solution produces a green solution and a silghtly coloured
precipitate (D). The substance (D) burns in air to produce a gas (E) which reacts with (B) to yield (D) and a
colourless liquid. Anhydrous copper sulphate is turned blue on addition of this colourless liquid. Addition of
aqueous NH3 or NaOH to (C) produces first a precipitate (white) which dissolves in the excess of the respec-
tive reagent to produce a clear solution in each case. Identify (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E).
5. A mixture of two salts was treated as follows.
(i) The mixture was heated with MnO2 and concentrated H2SO4 when a yellowish green gas was liberated.
(ii) The mixture on heating with NaOH solution gave a gas which turned red litmus blue.
(iii) Its solution in water gave red precipitate with dimethylglyoxime in alkaline solution.
(iv) The mixture was boiled with KOH and the liberated gas was bubbled through an alkaline solution of
K2HgI4 to give a brown precipitate Identify the mixture of two salts.

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SECTION (B) : FILL IN THE BLANKS :

(a) ANIONS
1. Carbonate gives _________ precipitate (colour of precipitate white or coloured) with silver nitrate solution
which is soluble in _______ .
2. Soluble bicarbonates give white precipitate with MgCl2 in ________ . (cold/hot)
3. Solution of ________ is decomposed by solid sulphamic acid.
4. Ring test is responded by ___________ as well as __________ radicals.
5. Bromine develops __________ colouration upon filter paper impregnated with fluorescein.
6. Potassium nitrite solution liberates __________ gas with acidified solution of potassium iodide.
7. Sodium bromide gives bromine gas with _________ and hydrogen bromide with _________ .
8. I– ions (not in excess) give _________ precipitate with Hg2+ ions. (red/yellow/green).
9. The formula of the deep red vapours formed on warming dichromate with KCl in concentrated H2SO4 is
________.
10. SO42– ions form ______________ precipitate with Hg(NO3)2 solution (which colour precipitate).

(b) CATIONS
11. Ag+ ions gives ___________ precipitate with Na3AsO4.
12. Yellow precipitate of PbI2 dissolves in much hot water forming a __________ solution (colourless/coloured).
13. Potassium cyanide is used for separating __________ and _________ ions.
14. A solution of salt in HCl when diluted with water turns milky. It indicates the presence of ______________ .
15. Orange coloured precipitate is of ___________ (As2S3, SnS2, Sb2S3 ).
16. If the ions of group are precipitated by NH4Cl and NH4OH without prior oxidation by conc. HNO3 _________
is not completely precipitated.
17. The soluble Prussian blue has chemical composition ___________ .
18. Solution of a salt in conc. HCl is blue, but turns pink on dilution. It indicates the presence of _______ radical.
19. Dimethyl glyoxime in alkaline medium is used for the identification of _________ and _________ radicals.
20. Manganese ion (Mn2+) gives _____________ coloured borax bead in oxidising flame in cold.
21. Ammonium thiocyanate is used in detection of ______________ and ______________ .

22. A salt “X” gives apple green colour in Bunsen flame and also gives brown fumes on reaction with dil. H2SO4.
The salt “X” is ___________.

SECTION (C) : TRUE OR FALSE :

(a) ANIONS
1. Like CO32–, SO32– also gives test with baryta water, Ba(OH)2 .
2. The group reagent for the identification of sulphur containing acid radicals is sodium nitroprusside.
3. Thiourea test is given by NO2– and not by SO32–
4. Ag2SO3 is insoluble in dilute HNO3 .
Hint : Ag2SO3 + H+  2 Ag+ + SO2 + H2O
5. Sodium stannite gives a black precipitate on reaction with a bismuth salt solution.
6. Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) is absorbed by ferrous sulphate solution and becomes brown.

7. Heavy metal chlorides like AgCl, HgCl2. etc. do not respond to chromyl chloride test.
8. Bright yellow precipitate of silver iodide is partially soluble in concentrated ammonia solution and fairly
soluble in hypo solution.

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9. Triodide ions (I3–) produced by the reaction of Cu2+ and KI solution are not reduced by excess of sodium
thiosulphate solution.
Hint : 2 Cu2+ + 5 I–  CuI  + I3– (I2 + I–)
I3– + 2 S2O32–  3 I– + S4O62–

10. Ammonium hydrogen sulphate on heating gives nitrogen, ammonia and sulphur dioxide gases.
11. Lead sulphate is soluble in ammonium acetate solution but barium sulphate is insoluble in dilute HCl.

(b) Cations
12. HgS dissolves in both sodium sulphide solution and aquaregia.
13. White precipitate is obtained when H2S gas is passed through a solution of copper nitrate.
14. Black precipitate of Cu(SCN)2 turns into white precipitate when it reacts with saturatd solution of SO2 in
water.
Hint : 2 Cu(SCN)2 + SO2 + 2 H2O  2 Cu(SCN)¯ (white) + 2 SCN– + SO42–
15. The group reagent for  group basic radicals is NaOH.
16. In a solution containing Fe3+ and Mg2+ ions, selective precipitation of Fe(OH)3 is done by aqueous
ammonia in presence of NH4Cl.
17. Colour of chromium hydroxide (green) turns yellow on dissolving in NaOH solution in the presence of H2O2.
18. Sr2+ ions in very dilute solution do not give yellow precipitate with CrO42– ions.
Hint : SrCrO4 is appreciable soluble in water.
19. Ca2+ ions give yellow precipitate in presence of ammonia with potassium ferrocyanide solution.
Hint : White precipitate of K(NH4)Ca[Fe(CN)6]
20. Mg2+ ions in solution gives gelatinous white precipitate of magnesium hydroxide with ammonia solution
and the precipitate is readily soluble in solutions of ammonium salts.
Hint : Mg2+ + 2 NH3 + 2 H2O Mg(OH)2  + 2 NH4+

SECTION (D) : REASONING AND ASSERTION :

DIRECTIONS :
The following questions consist of two statements one labelled ASSERTION (A) and the another
labelled REASON (R). Select the correct answers to these questions from the codes given below :
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(C) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(D) Assertion is false but Reason is true
(a) ANIONS
1. Assertion : Baryta water becomes turbid on passing CO 2 gas through it but turbidity becomes clear
on passing more CO 2 gas.
Reason : Carbonates give white precipitate with silver nitrate solution. The precipitate becomes yellow
or brown upon addition of excess of reagent.
Hint : Ag2CO 3   Ag2O  + CO 2 
2. Assertion : A solution containing S2– ions gives purple colour with sodium nitroprusside solution in alkaline
medium.
Reason : Sodium nitroprusside is a complex compound and it with S2– ions undergoes ligand exchange
reaction.
3. Assertion : Acidified K2Cr2O7 solution becomes green when SO2 gas is passed through it.
Reason : This is an redox reaction.
4. Assertion : White crystalline precipitate of silver sulphite dissolves, if sulphite ions are added in excess.
Reason : Sulphite ions decolourise the pink colour of acidified KMnO4.

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(b) CATIONS
5. Assertion : Nessler’s reagent gives a brown precipitate with ammonia solution.
Reason : NH4OH gives a reddish–brown precipitate with Fe3+ ions in presence of ammonium chloride.
6. Assertion : No yellow precipitate is formed when an excess of a more concentrated (6M) solution of KI
is added to a solution containing Pb 2+ ions.
Reason : PbI 2  (yellow) does not dissolve in excess of dilute solution of KI.
Hint : PbI 2 + 2 I – [PbI 4] 2– colourless.
Reaction is reversible and shifts in backward direction on dilution with water.
7. Assertion : Cu2+ and Cd2+ ions form complexes with excess of potassium cyanide solution.
Reason : On passing H2S gas stable complex [Cu(CN)4]2– is not effected.
8. Assertion : Cu+2 salts give blue bead in oxidising flame and brown red bead in reducing flame.
Reason : Cu+2 salts form copper metaborate in oxidising flame and copper in reducing flame.
9. Assertion : Cd2+ salts give white ppt of Cd(OH)2 with NH4OH which gets soluble in excess NH4OH.
Reason : Cd2+ salts give white ppt of Cd(OH)2 with NaOH(aq) which is not soluble in excess NaOH(aq.)
10. Assertion : A solution of BiCl 3 in conc. HCl when diluted with water gives white precipitate.
Reason : BiCl 3 forms insoluble BiO +Cl – when diluted with a large quantity of water.
11. Assertion : NH4Cl is added while analysising the rd group basic radicals to suppress the ionisation of
NH4OH.
Reason : W ith high concentration of OH – ions, basic radicals of other groups are also get
precipitated with  group cations.
Hint : Due to common ion effect the concentrations of OH– ions is just sufficient to precipitate the cations of rd
group as their hydroxides. (As they have low Ksp values).
12. Assertion : Borax bead test is applicable only to coloured salts.
Reason : In borax bead test, coloured salts are decomposed to give coloured metal metaborates.
13. Assertion : When H2S gas is passed into an aqueous solution of ZnCl2 , Zn2+ ions are completely precipitated
as zinc sulphide
Reason : Zinc sulphide is insoluble in solutions of caustic alkali but dissolves in dilute HCl.
Hint : Ksp of ZnS is large and thus is completely precipitated only in presence of ammonium hydroxide.
14. Assertion : An original solution containing excess of Ni2+ ions gives a yellow coloured solution with potas-
sium cyanide solution.
Reason : A solution of Ni2+ ions gives red precipitate with dimethylglyoxime solution just made alkaline.
Hint : Ni2+ + 2 CN–  Ni(CN)2  green
If CN– is in excess then
Ni(CN)2 ¯ + 2 CN–  [Ni(CN)4]2– soluble yellow coloured complex.
15. Assertion : V group basic radicals are precipitated as their carbonates in presence of NH4OH.
Reason : NH4OH maintains the pH of the solution basic.

16. Assertion : In dilute solution of strontium ions, yellow precipitate of SrCrO4 is formed with CrO42– ions.
Reason : The SrCrO4 precipitate is appreciably soluble in water, therefore, no precipitation occurs when
water is taken in large quantity.

17. Assertion : White precipitate of Mg(OH)2 is insoluble in excess of sodium hydroxide but readily soluble in
solution of ammonium salts.
Reason : Mg(OH)2 is very sparingly soluble in water.
Hint : In presence of ammonium salts the reaction proceeds in backward direction forming ammonia gas.

18. Assertion : Ca2+ ions do not form any precipitate with ammonia solution.
Reason : Ca2+ ions gives white precipitate of CaSO4 with dilute sulphuric acid and the precipitate is in-
soluble in hot concentrated sulphuric acid.
Hint : CaSO4 + H2SO4 [Ca(SO4)2]2–.

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19. Assertion : White precipitate of zinc phoshate is soluble in ammonia.
Reason : Zinc phosphate forms a soluble complex with ammonia.
Hint : Zn3(PO4)2 + 12 NH3  3 [Zn(NH3)4]2+ + 2 PO43– .

20. Assertion : Acidifiy the yellow solution of potassium chromate with M sulphuric acid. Add 1 mL of amyl
alcohol followed by 1 mL of 10% hydrogen peroxide. After gentle shaking the organic layer turns blue.
Reason : The blue colouration is attributed to the formation of chromium pentaoxide.

SECTION (E) : MATCH THE FOLLOWING :

1. Column  Column 
1. White crystalline precipitate (a) K3 [Co(NO2)6]
2. Reddish brown precipitate (b) Cr(OH)3
3. Yellow precipitate (c) Fe(OH)3
4. Green precipitate (d) PbCl2

2. Column  Column 
1. 2NiS + 2HNO3 + 6HCl – Evaporate to dryness (a) Black ppt & imparts greenish blue flame
2. CoCl2 + 4NH4 CNS + amyl alcohol – Shake & allow to stand (b) Blue colour in organic layer
3. CuCl2 + NaOH – Heat strongly (c) White ppt insoluble in conc HNO3 & HCl
4. Sr(CH3COO)2 + (NH4)2 C2O4 – Mix (d) Yellow residue turns green in water
5. H2SO4 + BaCl2 – Mix (e) Yellow ppt soluble in NaOH
6. Na2CrO4 + (CH3OO)2 Pb – Mix (f) Scarlet red ppt
7. HgCl2 + KI – Mix (g) White ppt & imparts crimson red flame

3. Column (A) Column (B)

(a) Fe3+ , Zn2+ & Cu2+ can be differentiated by (i) KI solution
(b) PbS,CuS and CdS dissolve in (ii) Alkaline Na2SnO 2 solution
(c) Pb2+ gives yellow precipitate with (iii) 50% HNO 3
(d) Bi 3+ gives a black precipitate with (iv) K2CrO4 solution
(e) [Ag(NH3)2] Cl gives back precipitate with (v) Aqueous NH3 .

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ANSWER KEY

Exercise - 1
SECTION (A) :
(a) ANIONS
(I) Dilute H2SO4 group :
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. A Hint : SO32– + Zn + 8H+  H2S  + 3Zn2+ + 3H2O
5. C 6. A

(II) CONCENTRATED H2SO4 GROUP AND PRECIPITATION REACTIONS

7. D 8. B 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. D

14. D 15. A 16. C 17. C 18. D 19. B 20. C

21. A 22. D

(b) CATIONS
(I) Zero Group

23. B 24. B 25. D

(II) Ist Group

26. A 27. B 28. C

(III) IInd Group

29. C 30. D 31. A Hint : 2 CuS  + 8 CN–  2 [Cu(CN)4]3– + S22–

32. B 33. D 34. D 35. A 36. A 37. C 38. C

(IV) IIIrd Group

9. D 40. C
41. B Hint : Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 + 2 OH–  4 Fe(OH)3 ¯ + 3 [Fe(CN)6]4–

42. B 43. A 44. C 45. C 46. D 47. D

(V) IVth Group

48. B Hint : On adding HCl the equilibrium will shift in backward direction.

49. C 50. A 51. D 52. A 53. B 54. D

(VI) Vth Group

55. D 56. C 57. B

(VII) VIth Group

58. B 59. D

SECTION (B) :
60. AB 61. ABCD 62. ABCD 63. ABCD 64. ACD 65. AC 66. ACD

67. AB 68. AB 69. AD 70. BD 71. AC 72. BD 73. ABC

74. AD

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Exercise - 2
SECTION (A) :
(a) QUESTIONS FOR SHORT ANSWER :
1. CH3COO(OH)2 Fe (basic ferric acetate)
CH3COO¯ + FeCl3  (CH3COO)3 Fe + 3Cl¯ (Blood red coloration)
boiled CH COO(OH) Fe  (Reddish brown) + 2CH COOH
(CH3COO)3 Fe + 2H2O   3 2 3

2. 2NO2– + H2SO4  SO42– + 2HNO2

3HNO2  HNO3 + 2NO + O2
2NO + O  2NO2  (Reddish brown)
2K + 2NO2  2KNO2 + 2
Starch + 2  blue.
3. Hg2Cl2 . 4. Bi3+ 5. Bi3+ gives BiO+ ion and Sb3+ gives SbO+ ion.
6. Ferrous and stannous (Fe2+ and Sn2+) 7. Fe3+ and –, Cu2+ and – , Sn2+ and Fe3+ .
8. 2 Zn(CH3COO)2 + K4[Fe)CN)6]  Zn2 [Fe(CN)6]  (White) + 4CH3 COOK
3 Zn2[Fe(CN)6] + K4[Fe(CN)6]  2 Zn3K2 [Fe (CN)6]2  (bluish white)


9. (i) Ag2CO3  2Ag+ CO2.
(ii) MgSO4 + NH4OH + Na2HPO4  Mg(NH4) PO4  (white) + H2O + Na2SO4
(iii) Zn2+ + 2NH4 OH  Zn(OH)2  (white) + 2NH4+
Zn(OH)2 + 4NH4OH  [Zn(NH3)4] (OH)2 + 4H2O
(iv) 2Bi(NO3)3 + 6K  2Bi  (Black) + 6KNO3 + 32
2 + K  K3 (Yellow solution)
(v) Na2HPO4 + 12 (NH4)2 MoO4 +23 HNO3   (NH4)3 PMo12 O40  + 2NaNO3 + 21NH4NO3 + 12H2O
(Canary yellow)
10. (i) 2Cu(BO2)2 + C  2CuBO2 + B2O3 + CO
2Cu(BO2)2 + 2C  2Cu + 2B2O3 + 2CO
(ii) AgBr + 2NH4OH  [Ag(NH3)2] Br + 2H2O

fused
(iii) 2Cr(OH)3 + 2Na2CO3 + 3KNO3   2Na2CrO4+ 3KNO2 + 2CO2 + 3H2O
(iv) 2Cu(NO3)2  2 CuO + 4NO2+ O2
(v) CaSO3 + SO2 + H2O  Ca(HSO3)2

11. (i) 2Na2S2O3 + FeCl3  Na[Fe(S2O3)2] (Violet or Pink coloration) + 3NaCl
(ii) Na2S + CdCO3  CdS  (Yellow) + Na2CO3
(iii) CoCl2 + 4NH4 CNS  (NH4)2 [Co(CNS)4] (Blue colour in etherial solution) + 2NH4Cl
(b) SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS :
1. A - FeS, CuS, PbS, HgS, CoS, NiS B - H2S
C - HNO3 D-S
E - CuSO4 F - CuS
G - [Cu(NH3)4](NO3)2 H - Cu2Fe(CN)6
2. A - FeSO4.7H2O B - BaSO4 
C - SO2 D - SO3
E - Fe2O3 F - FeCl3
G - Fe(SCN)3

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3. (A) Pb(NO3)2 (B) PbCl2 
(C) PbS  (D) Pbl2  or PbCrO4  or PbSO4 
4. (A) ZnS ; (B) H2S ; (C) ZnSO4 ; (D) S ; (E) SO2

5. The given unknown mixture contains NH4+ , Fe++ and Cl– ions or NH4Cl and FeCl2
SECTION (B) :
(a) ANIONS
1. White ; Nitric acid or ammonia. 2. Hot. 3. Nitrite. 4. NO2– , NO3– . 5. Red.
6. Iodine. 7. Concentrated H2SO4 , H3PO4 . 8. Red. 9. CrO2 Cl2

10. Yellow precipitate of basic mercury(II) sulphate, HgSO4. 2HgO  .

(b) CATIONS
11. Brownish–red. 12. Colourless. 13. Cu2+ and Cd2+ ions 14. Bi3+ or Sb+3
15. Sb2S3 16. 2+
Fe (ferrous ion) 17. KFe[Fe(CN)6]. 18. Cobalt (Co2+).
19. Ni2+ , Fe2+ . 20. Red. 21. Co2+ and Fe3+ or Hg2+ ions. 22. Ba (NO2)2
SECTION (C) :
(a) ANIONS

1. True. 2. False 3. True 4. False Hint : Ag2SO3 + H+  2 Ag+ + SO2 + H2O

5. True. 6. True. 7. True. 8. True.

9. False. Hint : 2 Cu2+ + 5 I–  CuI  + I3– (I2 + I–)

I3– + 2 S2O32–  3 I– + S4O62–

10. True. 11. True.

(b) Cations
12. True. 13. False.

14. True. Hint : 2 Cu(SCN)2 + SO2 + 2 H2O  2 Cu(SCN)¯ (white) + 2 SCN– + SO42–

15. False. 16. True. 17. True. 18. True. Hint : SrCrO4 is appreciable soluble in water.

19. False Hint : White precipitate of K(NH4)Ca[Fe(CN)6]

20. True. Hint : Mg2+ + 2 NH3 + 2 H2O Mg(OH)2  + 2 NH4+

SECTION (D) :
(a) ANIONS
1. (B). Hint : Ag2CO 3   Ag2O  + CO 2  2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B).

(b) CATIONS
5. (B)
6. (B)
Hint : PbI 2 + 2 I – [PbI 4] 2– colourless.
Reaction is reversible and shifts in backward direction on dilution with water.
7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (A)
11. (B)
Hint : Due to common ion effect the concentrations of OH– ions is just sufficient to precipitate the cations
of rd group as their hydroxides. (As they have low Ksp values).

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12. (A) 13. (D)
Hint : Ksp of ZnS is large and thus is completely precipitated only in presence of ammonium hydroxide.
14. (D)

Hint : Ni2+ + 2 CN–  Ni(CN)2  green

If CN– is in excess then

Ni(CN)2 ¯ + 2 CN–  [Ni(CN)4]2– soluble yellow coloured complex.

15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (B)

Hint : In presence of ammonium salts the reaction proceeds in backward direction forming ammonia gas.

18. (C)
Hint : CaSO4 + H2SO4 [Ca(SO4)2]2–.
19. (A)
Hint : Zn3(PO4)2 + 12 NH3  3 [Zn(NH3)4]2+ + 2 PO43– .

20. (A).
SECTION (E) :
1. (1–d), (2–c), (3–a), (4–b).
2. (1–d), (2–b), (3–a), (4–g), (5–c), (6–e), (7–f).
3. (a – v), (b – iii), (c – i, iv), (d – i,ii), (e – i,iii,iv)
(a) Fe3+  Fe(OH)3  (reddish brown) ; Cu2+  [Cu(NH3)4] 2+ deep blue solution.
Zn2+  [Zn(NH3)4] 2+ colourless soluble complex.
(b) Dissolves in 50% HNO 3 forming soluble nitrates.
(c) Pb2+ + 2 KI  PbI 2  (yellow) + 2 K+ ; Pb2+ + K2CrO 4  PbCrO 4  (yellow) + 2 K+
(d) Bi 3+ + 3 KI  BiI 3  (black) + 3 K+
BiCl 3 + 3 Na2SnO 2 + 6 NaOH  2 Bi  (black) + 3 Na2SnO 3 + 6 NaCl + 3 H2O
(e) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl + KI  AgI  (yellow) + 2 NH3 + KCl
[Ag(NH3)2]Cl + 2 HNO 3  AgCl (white) + 2 NH4NO 3
[Ag(NH3)2]Cl + K2CrO 4  Ag2CrO 4  (red) + 4 NH3 + 2 KCl

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METALLURGY
SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS BASED ON FUNDAMENTALS
EXERCISE - 1
SECTION (A) : QUESTIONS FOR SHORT ANSWER.

1. Indicate the temperature at which carbon can be used as reducing agent for FeO.
2. Name three ores which are concentrated by froth-floatation process.
3. What is meant by a depressant ?
4. Which concentration method is used for separating tungsten ore particles from cassiterite ore (SnO2) ?
5. Which metals are generally extracted by the electrolytic processes ?
6. Which metals are obtained by self reduction of their ores ?
7. Name the metals which are associated with the following terms in their extraction from their ores.
(i) Bessemer’s converter. (ii) Blast furnance
(iii) Alumino thermic process (iv) Magnetic separation
8. Describe the principle of extraction of each of the following.
(i) Sn from SnO2 , (ii) Pb from PbS , (iii) Ag from Ag2S
(i) SnO2 ls Sn , (ii) PbS ls Pb , (iii) Ag2S ls Ag
9. How carnallite ore is made anhydrous ?
10. Cinnabar (HgS) and galena (PbS) on roasting often give their respective metals but zinc blende (ZnS) does
not explain.
11. What is the role of a stabiliser in froth-floatation process ?
12. Which is a better reducing agent at 983K, carbon or carbon monoxide ?
13. Silver ores and gold have to be leached with sodium or potassium cyanide. Suggests a reason for this.
14. Magnesium oxide is often used as the lining in steel making furnance, Explain.
15. In the extraction of tin from tin stone addition of excess lime stone should be avoided.
16. Why lithium is added during the refining of copper and nickel ?
17. Why haematite ore is calcined in a limited supply of air and not in absence of air.
18. In the extraction of lead from galena lime stone is added, why ?
19. Why air is continuously passed through the suspension of the concentrated ore of silver during leaching with
the aqueous solution of sodium cyanide ?
20. What is thomas slag & what is its use ?
21. Why excess of carbon is added in the zinc metallurgy ?
22. What is spelter ?
23. Copper can be extracted by hydrometallurgy but not Zinc. Explain
24. In the extractive metallurgy of iron from haematite ore, lime stone is added during smelting. Explain why.
25. Alkali metals and alkaline earth metals can only be extracted by electrolytic reduction of their fused salts,
why ?
26. Name the common elements present in the anode mud in elctrolytic refining of copper. Why are they so
present?
27. State the role of silica in the metallurgy of copper.
28. How is ‘cast iron’ different from ‘pig’ iron’’?
29. Why copper matte is put in silica lined converter?
30. What is the role of cryolite in the metallurgy of aluminium?
31. Why is zinc not extracted from zinc oxide through reduction using CO?
32. Out of C and CO, which is a better reducing agent for ZnO ?
33. Predict conditions under which Al might be expected to reduce MgO.

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OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS BASED ON FUNDAMENTALS

SECTION (A) : ONLY ONE ANSWER IS CORRECT
1. Selection of temperature to carry out a reduction process depends so as to make :
(A) G negative (B) G positive (C) H negative (D) H positive
2. Select correct statement
(A) In the decomposition of an oxide into oxygen and gaseous metal, entropy increases.
(B) Decomposition of an oxide is an endothermic change.
(C) To make G° negative, temperature should be high enough so that T S° > H°.
(D) All are correct statements.
3. Which of the following is not an ore ?
(A) Malachite (B) Calamine (C) Salt cake (D) Cerussite
4. The reduction of an oxide by aluminium is called :
(A) Ellingham process (B) Goldschmidt's aluminothermite process
(C) Kroll's process (D) Van Arkel process
5. Which is not correct statement ?
(A) Casseterite, chromite and haematite are concentrated by hydraulic washing (Tabling).
(B) Pure Al2O3 is obtained from the bauxite ore by leaching in the Bayer's process.
(C) Sulphide ore is concentrated by calcination method.
(D) Roasting can convert sulphide into oxide or sulphate and part of sulphide may also act as a reducing
agent.
6. Chemical leaching is useful in the concentration of :
(A) copper pyrites (B) bauxite (C) galena (D) lead

7. Self-reduction of CuS to Cu can be carried out in.

(A) bessemer convertor (B) blast furnace (C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these
8. NaCN is sometimes added in the forth flotation process as a depressant when ZnS and PbS minerals are
expected because :
(A) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS.
(B) ZnS forms soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4]while PbS forms froth
(C) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4] while ZnS forms froth.
(D) NaCN is never added in froth floatation process.

9. Select incorrect reduction process :

(A) 2[Ag(CN)2]– + Zn  [Zn(CN)4]2– + 2Ag (B) CuO + H2  Cu + H2O
(C) ZnO + H2  Zn + H2O (D) MgO + C  Mg + CO

10. Which does not represent correct method ?

(A) TiCl2 + 2Mg  Ti + 2MgCl2 : Kroll (B) Ni(CO)4  Ni + 4CO : Mond

1
(C) Ag2CO3  2Ag + CO2 + O2 : Van Arkel (D) ZrI4  Zr + 2I2 : Van Arkel
2

11. Blister copper is :

(A) Impure copper
(B) Obtained in self reduction process during bessemerisation.
(C) Both are correct (D) None is correct
12. Mg can be obtained
(A) By heating MgCl2 (anhydrous) with Na in the atmosphere of coal gas
(B) By electrolysis of fused carnallite
(C) By both the methods
(D) By none of the above

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13. NaCl and CaCl2 are also added to fused MgCl2 in the electrolysis of MgCl2 since :
(A) Melting point is decreased and conductivity is increased
(B) Melting point is increased and conductivity is decreased
(C) melting point and conductivity both are decreased
(D) Melting point and conductivity both are increased

14. Black tin is

(A) an alloy of Sn (B) an allotrope of Sn (C) 60-70 percent SnO2 (D) 100 percent SnO2

15. Poling process :

(A) reduces SnO2 to Sn (B) oxidises impurities like iron and removes as scum
(C) uses green poles (D) all of the above are correct

16. In the leaching of Ag2S with NaCN, a stream of air is also passed . It is because of :
(A) reversible nature of reaction between Ag2S and NaCN
(B) to oxide Na2S formed into Na2SO4 and sulphur
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

17. In electrolysis of Al2O3 by Hall-Heroult process :

(A) cryolite Na3[AlF6] lowers the melting point of Al2O3and increases its electrical conductivity.
(B) Al is obtained at cathode and probably CO2at anode
(C) both are correct (D) none of the above is correct

18. Which mineral has been named incorrect ly ?

(A) bauxite : Al2O3.2H2O (B) Croundum : Al2O3
(C) Cryolite : 3NaF .AlF3 (D) Felspar : Be3Al2Si6O18

19. Purest form of iron is :

(A) cast iron (B) wrought iron (C) pig iron (D) None of these

20. Phosphorus separates, in the extraction of iron, as :

(A) Slag, Ca3(PO4)2 (B) volatile, P2O5 (C) slag, Mg(PO4)2 (D) Ca3P2

21. Tempering of steel :

(A) Is the heating the steel to appropriate temperature and then colling it rapidly.
(B) increases mechanical strength
(C) changes ratio of carbon in cementite
(D) All of the above

22. Main source of lead is PbS. It is converted to Pb by :

air
(A) : PbS 
 PbO  SO 2

|C
Pb  CO 2

air
PbO  PbS
(B) : PbS 
 |
 Pb  SO 2
Self - reduction pocess is :
(A) A (B) B (C) both (D) none

23. Bessemerisation is carried out for

I : Fe , II : CU, III : Al, IV : Silver :
(A) I, II (B) II, III (C) I, III (D) all

24. Ag2S + NaCN + Zn  Ag

This method of extraction of Ag by complex formation and then its displacement is called :
(A) Parke's method (B) McArthur-Forest method (C) Serpeck method (D) Hall's method

25. Identify the metal M which is present in its ore as MFeS2 :

(A) copper (B) tin (C) lead (D) zinc

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26. Identify the metal M whose extraction is based on the following reactions :
MS + 2O2  MSO4 ; 2MS + 3O2  2MO + 2SO2
MS + 2MO  3M + SO2 ; MS + MSO4  2M + 2SO2
(A) Magnesium (B) Aluminium (C) lead (D) tin

27. Which metal is extracted using a hydrometallurgical process involving complexation?

(A) Mg (B) Ag (C) Cu (D) Zn

28. The major ore of aluminium is :

(A) fluorspar (B) cryolite (C) bauxite (D) carborundum

29. Which of the following metals is obtained by the Self- Reduction process?
(A) Copper (B) Iron (C) Silver (D) Magnesium

30. Silver and gold are often obtained as valuable by-products during :
(A) Smelting (B) Electrolytic refining (C) Zone refining (D) Iron making

31. The metal which is obtained from both sea-water and ores from the earth’s solid crust is :
(A) Magnesium (B) Iron (C) Silver (D) Gold

32. The impurities present in a mineral are called :

(A) gangue (B) flux (C) froth (D) nuggets

33. Sulphide ores are generally concentrated by the :

(A) gravity separation process (B) calcination process
(C) froth-floatation process (D) carbon-reduction process

34. Calamine is an ore of :

(A) Zn (B) Mg (C) Ca (D) Pb

35. Which of the following metals cannot be extracted by the carbon reduction process?
(A) Zn (B) Fe (C) Al (D) Sn

36. Which one of the following reactions represents a calcination reaction?

(A) HgS + O2  Hg + SO2 (B) Ag2S + NaCl  AgCl + Na2S
(C) CuCO3 . Cu(OH)2  CuO + CO2 + H2O (D) Al2O3 + NaOH  NaAlO2 + H2O

37. In electrorefining of metals, the anode is made of :

(A) the impure metal concerned (B) the pure metal concerned
(C) graphite (D) silica

38. Which of the following reactions represents the self-reduction process?

HgS  O 2  HgO  SO 2 Cu 2S  O 2  Cu2 O  SO 2
(A) HgO  HgS  Hg  SO (B) Cu S  Cu O  Cu  SO
 2  2 2 2

PbS  O 2  PbO  SO 2
(C) PbO  PbS  Pb  SO (D) All of these
 2

39. Which of the following represents the thermite reaction?

(A) 3Mn3 O4 + 8Al  9Mn + 4Al2O3 (B) MgCO3 + SiO2  MgSiO3 + CO2
(C) Cu2S + 2Cu2O  6Cu + SO2 (D) Fe2O3 + 3CO  2Fe + 3CO2

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40. During the electrolytic production of aluminium, the carbon anodes are replaced from time to time because:
(A) the carbon anodes get decayed
(B) the carbon prevents atmospheric oxygen from coming in contact with aluminium
(C) Oxygen liberated at the carbon anodes reacts with anodes to form CO and CO2
(D) Carbon converts Al2O3 to Al

41. Electrolytic reduction of alumina to aluminium by the Hall-Heroult process is carried out :
(A) in the presence of NaCl
(B) in the presence of fluorite
(C) in the presence of cryolite which forms a melt at lower temperature and increases the electrical
conductivity
(D)in the presence of cryolite which forms a melt at higher temperature and increases the electrical
conductivity

42. Magnesium is extracted by :

(A) the self-reduction process (B) the carbon-reduction process
(C) the electrolytic process
(D) treating the ore with aqueous NaCN and then reducing the mixture

43. An ore after levigation is found to have acidic impurities. Which of the following can be used as flux during
smelting operation ?
(A) H2SO4 (B) CaCO3 (C) SiO2 (D) both CaCO3 and SiO2

44. Extraction of silver from Ag2S by the use of sodium cyanide is an example of :
(A) roasting (B) hydrometallurgy (C) electrometallurgy (D) smelting

45. Slag is formed by reaction between :

(A) impurities and coke (B) impurities and ore (C) impurities and flux (D) flux and coke
46. Dolomite is mineral whose formula is :
(A) CaMg(CO3)2 (B) MgCO3 (C) CaCO3.MgCO3 (D) (A) & (C) both

47. In the purification of aluminium by Hoope’s process, impurities of silicon and copper are added to molten
aluminium in order to :
(A) make the melt conducting (B) lower the melting point of the melt
(C) smooth deposit of aluminium (D) make the melt heavier

48. The slag consists of molten impurities, generally, in the form of :

(A) Metal carbonate (B) Metal silicate (C) Metal oxide (D) Metal nitrate

49. Gravity separation process may be used for the concentration of :

(A) Chalcopyrite (B) Bauxite (C) Haematite (D) Calamine
50. In electrorefining of metal the impure metal is made the anode and strip of pure metal the cathode during the
electrolysis of an aqueous solution of a complex metal salt. This method cannot be used for refining of :
(A) Silver (B) Copper (C) Aluminium (D) Gold
51. The reason, for floating of ore particles in concentration by froth floatation process is that :
(A) they are light (B) they are insoluble
(C) they are charged (D) they are hydrophobic
52. The formula of carnallite is :
(A) LiAl(Si2O5)2 (B) KCl.MgCl2.6H2O (C) K2OAl2O3.6SiO2 (D) KCl.MgCl2.2H2O
53. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the slag obtained during the extraction of a metal like
copper or iron ?
(A) The slag is lighter and has lower melting point than the metal
(B) The slag is heavier and has lower melting point than the metal
(C) The slag is lighter and has higher melting point than the metal
(D) The slag is heavier and has higher melting point than the metal

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54. Which method of purification is represented by the equations ?
500 K 1675 K
Ti  2 2   Ti 4 
  Ti  2 2
(impure) (Pure)
(A) Cupellation (B) Polling (C) Van Arkel (D) Zone refining

55. Bauxite is leached with :

(A) KCN (B) NaCN (C) NaOH (D) Na2CO3

56. Which of the following is not an ore of iron ?

(A) Haematite (B) Limonite (C) Siderite (D) Malachite

57. Silver ore dissolves in dilute solution of NaCN in the presence of air to form :
(A) AgCN (B) [Ag(CN)2]– (C) AgCNO (D) [Ag(CN)3]3–

58. Which of the following metals may be present in the anode mud during electrorefining of copper?
. Gold ; . Iron, . Silver ; V Magnesium
(A)  and  (B)  and V (C)  and  (D)  and V

59. During extraction of iron flux used is :

(A) Silica (B) Calcium silicate (C) Lime stone (D) Coke

60. What is the chemical composition of matte ?

(A) Cu2O + FeS (B) Cu2O + Cu2S (C) FeS + SiO2 (D) Cu2S + FeS

61. Which of the following processes involves the principle of fractional crystallisation for the refining of impure
metals ?
(A) Parke’s process (B) Mond’s process (C) Van Arkel process (D) Zone refining
62. Dow’s process is used for the :
(A) Extraction of sodium metal (B) Purification of blister copper
(C) Extraction of magnesium (D) Purification of aluminium

63. Which of the following reactions occurs during smelting in the reduction zone (in iron metallurgy) ?
(A) CaO + SiO2  CaSiO3 (slag) (B) Fe2O3 + 3C  2Fe + CO
(C) Fe2O3 + CO  Fe +CO (D) CO2 + C  2CO

64. The scavenger which is used in the manufacture of steel is :

(A) Cr (B) Mn (C) Ti (D) Pb

65. In the metallurgy of iron, the upper layer obtained in the bottom of blast furnace mainly contains :
(A) CaSiO3 (B) Spongy iron (C) Fe2O3 (D) FeSiO3

66. In the electrolysis of alumina during the manufacture of aluminium :

(A) Al2O3 undergoes dissociation (B) AlF3 undergoes dissociation
(C) Al2O3 and AlF3 both undergo dissociation (D) Neither of the two undergoes dissociation

67. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?

(A) Tin is extracted by carbon reduction (smelting)
(B) Aluminium is extracted by Hall’s process which involves carbon reduction.
(C) Extraction of lead does not involve bessemerisation
(D) Silver is extracted by cyanide process

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68. Poling process is used for the :
(A) Reduction of CuO to Cu in impure copper
(B) Purification of silver
(C) Reduction of Al2O3 to Al
(D) none

SECTION (B) : ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT CHOICE :

1. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct for the extractive metallurgy of aluminium ?
(A) Red bauxite contains the impurities of iron oxides SiO2 and TiO2.
(B) Red bauxite is purified by Hall’s and Serpeck’s process
(C) Hall-Heroult process is used for the electrolytic reduction of molten alumina dissolved in molten cryolite.
(D) In electrolytic reduction of alumina fluorine gas is liberated at anode as by product.
2. Which of the following processe(s) occur(s) during the extraction of copper from chalcopyrites ?
(A) Froth floatation (B) Roasting (C) Bessemerisation (D) Leaching

3. Poiling process is used for the refining of :

(A) Iron (B) Copper (C) Tin (D) Lead

4. Calcium silicate (slag) formed in the slag formation zone in extraction of iron from haematite ore :
(A) does not dissolve in molten iron (B) being lighter floats on the molten iron
(C) is used in cement industry (D) prevents the re-oxidation of molten iron
5. The major role of fluorspar (CaF2) which is added in small quantities in the electrolytic reduction of alumina
dissolved in fused cryolite (Na3AlF6) is :
(A) As a catalyst (B) To make the fused mixture very conducting
(C) To lower the temperature of the melt (D) To decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon at anode
6. In the extraction of copper from chalcopyrites, the impurity of iron sulphide is removed as FeSiO3 in :
(A) Electrolytic refining (B) Bessemerisation
(C) Roasting (D) poling

7. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) incorrect ?

(A) In Serpeck’s process silica is removed by heating the bauxite to 1800°C with coke in a current of N2
(B) In extraction of lead from galena roasting and self reduction takes place in the same furnance but
under different conditions of tempt and supply of air
(C) The tin is obtained by the carbon reduction of black tin.
(D) None

8. Dolomite is a mineral of :
(A) Aluminium (B) Magnesium (C) Calcium (D) Potassium

9. The anode mud obtained during electro refining of copper may contain :
(A) antimony (B) Platinum (C) silver (D) gold

10. Liquation process may be applied for the purification of :

(A) Copper (B) tin (C) iron (D) lead

11. In alumino-thermite process, aluminium is used as :

(A) oxidising agent (B) flux (C) reducing agent (D) solder

12. Carnallite is an ore of :

(A) Sodium (B) Potassium (C) Magnesium (D) aluminium

13. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct :

(A) Cuprite and Zincite are oxide ores (B) Magnesite and carnallite are carbonate ores
(C) Chalcocite and azurite are ores of copper (D) Felspar and mica minerals contain aluminium.

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ANSWER KEY
Exercise - 1
SECTION (A) :
1. Above 1270 K 2. ZnS, Cu2S, PbS
3. Substances which are used to prevent certain type of particles, from forming the froth with the bubbles by
complexation.
4. Magnetic separation. 5. Aluminium, alkali metals and alkaline earth metals.
6. Copper, Lead, Mercury etc.
7. (i) Copper , (ii) Iron, (iii) Chrominum, Manganese (iv) Tin, Iron
8. (i) Carbon reduction of SnO2 , (ii) Self-reduction (i.e air reduction) of PbS , (iii) oxidation–reduction
For chemical reactions refer text.
9. By heating in a current of dry hydrogen chloride gas.
10. Oxide of Pb and Hg are unstable while that of zinc is stable towards heat, therefore, oxides of mercury and
lead are reduced by their respective sulphides to the corresponding metals but zinc oxide does not.
11. Stabiliser like cresol and aniline tend to stabilise the froth (i.e. the froth last for longer period).
12. CO ; above 983K, CO being more stable does not act as a good reducing agent but carbon does.
13. Cyanides form soluble complex with silver and native gold from which siliver and gold can be extracted by
electrolysis or by displacement with more electropositive elements.
14. MgO acts as a basic flux and removes certain acidic impurities present in steel in the form of slag.
MgO + SiO2  MgSiO3 ; 3MgO + P2O5  Mg3(PO4)2

15. It will combine with tin to form calcium stannate.

16. It acts as a getter or scavenger as it readily combines with O2 and N2. So to remove last traces of O2 and N2
lithium is added.
17. If carbonate ore is present in haematite ore then
FeCO3   FeO + CO2
FeO reacts with SiO2 to form FeSiO3 which causes loss of iorn
So ore is calcined in limited supply of air
4FeO + O2  Fe2O3

18. CaO + SiO2  CaSiO3 (slag) ; PbO + SiO2  PbSiO3

CaO converts the PbSiO3 to PbO, PbSiO3 + CaO  PbO + CaSiO3 , and also prevents the formation
of PbSO4.
19. In presence of air the equilibrium is shiffted in the forward direction according to the following reactions.
Ag2S +4 NaCN 2Na [Ag(CN)2] + Na2S ; 4Na2S + 5O2 + 2H2O  2Na2SO4 + 4NaOH + 2S 
Na2S is converted to Na2SO4 and sulphur.
20. Ca3(PO4)2, used as a valuable fertilizer
21. It reduces ZnO to Zn and also reduces CO2 to CO which is used as a fuel.
22. 97-98% pure zinc is called as spelter.
23. Zinc is highly reactive metal, so it is not possible to replace it from its salt solution like ZnSO4 , easily.
24. Remove the infusible impurities of silica as slag
CaCO3  CaO + CO2 ; CaO + SiO2  CaSiO3 (slag)

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25. As they have low ionisation energies and are more electropositive elements, they themselves act as strong
reducing agent.
26. Selenium, tellurium, silver, gold and platinum are the metals present in anode mud. This is because these
are less reactive than copper.
27. Silica removes Fe2O3 remaining in the matte by forming silicate, FeSiO3.
28. Cast iron is made from pig iron by melting pig iron with scrap iron and coke. It has slightly lower carbon
content (>> 3%) than pig iron (>> 4% C)
29. To remove basic impurities, like iron oxide.
30. To lower the melting point and increase conductivity of the mixture.
31. The reduction may require very high temperature if CO is used as a reducing agent in this case.
32. Carbon is better reducing agent. 33. Above 1600K Al can reduce MgO.

Exercise - 2
SECTION (A) :
1. A 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. A
8. B 9. C 10. C 11. C 12. C 13. A 14. C
15. D 16. C 17. C 18. D 19. B 20. A 21. D
22. B 23. A 24. B 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. C
29. A 30. B 31. A 32. A 33. C 34. A 35. C
36. C 37. A 38. D 39. A 40. C 41. C 42. C
43. B 44. B 45. C 46. D 47. D 48. B 49. C
50. C 51. D 52. B 53. A 54. C 55. C 56. D
57. B 58. C 59. C 60. D 61. D 62. C 63. C
64. B 65. A 66. B 67. B 68. A

SECTION (B) :
1. AC 2. ABC 3. BC 4. ABCD 5. BC 6. BC 7. D
8. BC 9. ABCD 10. BD 11. C 12. BC 13. ACD

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