EXAMINATION COUNCIL OF HEALTH SCIENCES / UNZA

FINAL EXAMINATIONS FOR DIPLOMA IN ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES

FOR
ENVIRONMENTAL HEALTH TECHNOLOGISTS

COURSE: EPC 312 – ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTION CONTROL

DATE: 04 JUNE, 2015

TIME: 09.00 – 12.00 HOURS

Time allowed: 3 hours plus 5 minutes reading time

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Check that you have the correct examination paper in front of you.
2. There are FOUR (4) sections in this paper, ONE, TWO, THREE and FOUR.
3. Read the instructions very carefully in each section before attempting to answer.
4. All questions must be answered on the examination answer booklet provided only.
5. Write down the number of the questions that you have answered on the cover of the
examination answer booklet.
6. No books, files or mechanical aids are permitted in the examination room.
7. There are shall be no form of communication between students during the examination. Any
student caught doing this will be disqualified

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

SECTION ONE: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
There are thirty (30) questions in this section.
Answer ALL questions in this section
Write the best answer of your choice in the examination answer booklet provided
(Total marks = 30)
Q1. Air in the immediate surrounding is known as

a). tropospheric air

b).@ Ambient air

c). Atmospheric air

d). Unpolluted air

Q2. Acute effects of exposure to ionizing radiation are known as

a). Nonstochastic effects.

b) Stochastic effects

c). Genetic effects

d).@ Somatic effects

Q3. Which one of the following in is not an effect of soil pollution to crop.

a). Decrease in starch content

b). Decrease in protein content

c) increased susceptibility to insect attack

d). None of the above

Q4. The measure of radiation dose related to biological activity is referred to as

a). Curie.

b) Rem

c). Rad

d). None of the above

Q5. The organic portion of soil is

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a). Humus

b). black

c). rocks

d). All of the above

Q6. Effects of radiation that can be passed from parents to offsprings are,

a). Somatic effects

b). Radioactive effects

c) Somatogenetic effects

d). Genetic effects

Q7. Which one of the following is not a secondary air pollutant in the troposphere?

a). Ozone

b). PAN

c) Smog

d) Nitrogen dioxide

Q8. The most notorious types of ionizing radiation are

a). X-rays

b). Gamma rays

c). Beta particles

d). UV

Q9. Pollution does affects

a). ecosytems.

b). property

c). the economy

d). All of the above

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Q10. Nuclear fission involves

a). splitting an atom into two particles of equal mass.

b). joining two atoms to form an atom of exactly the same mass as the sum of the two masses

c). joining two atoms to form an atom whose mass is slightly less than the sum of the two atoms

d). None of the above

Q11. Which of the following are biodegradable waste products?

a). rubber, plastic, manure

b). metal, glass, plastic

c). vegetable peels, garden refuse, paper

d). glass, wood cuttings, batteries

Q12. The main cause of water pollution is:

a). untreated sewage, glass bottles and plastic bags

b). chemical effluent, leaching of pesticides and algae

c). pesticides, treated sewage and litter

d). oil spills, untreated sewage and chemical effluent

Q13. Typhoid, cholera and dysentry are diseases that are spread by:

a). air pollution

b). water pollution

c). land/soil pollution

d). the use of pesticides

Q14. Non-biodegradable means:

a). a substance that cannot decompose naturally

b). a substance that is thrown away as kitchen refuse

c). a substance that costs too much to recycle

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d). a substance that will not dissolve in water

Q15: Which of the following is NOT an example of a greenhouse gas?

a). Carbon dioxide

b). Methane

c). Nitrous oxide

d). Sulphur dioxide

Q16. One solution to reduce air pollution may be…

a). the use of leaded petrol

b). the burning of wood and coal

c). the use of public transport

d). causing veld fires

Q17. One of the following has a positive human influence on the environment:

a). Deforestation

b). Overpopulation

c). Pollution

d). Conservation

Q18. Biological control is useful because it…

a). usually attacks all plant species

b). can destroy an alien plant infestation or reduce its population numbers

c). usually originates in the country where the alien plant destroys indigenous vegetation

d). usually attacks all useful micro-organisms

Q19. Which of the following are not sources of soil pollution?

a). Solid waste

b). Pesticides

c). Sewage

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d). None of the above

Q20: What international agreement deals with control of transboudary movement of harzadous wastes
and their disposal?

a). Rotterdam convention

b). Basel convention

c). Kyoto protocol

d). Montreal protocol

Q21. The ozone layer can be protected by

a). using substitutes for ozone-depleting chemicals.

b). reducing cattle production.

c). recycling old refrigerators.

d). All of the above

Q22. Which of the following has been most effective in reducing world emissions of CFCs?

a). Improved technologies in the development of electric cars

b). Aid programmes to developing countries

c). Policies to minimize the combustion of fossil fuels

d). International agreements, including the Montreal Protocol

Q23. The physical environment of an ecosystem includes the following except?

a). Phytoplanktons

b). Solar radiation

c). Moisture

d). Carbon dioxide

Q24. Which of the following statements about ozone is correct?

A. Tropospheric ozone is significantly affected by increasing levels of CFCs.

B. Tropospheric ozone causes health problems in human beings

C. Stratospheric ozone is a secondary air pollutant

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D. All of the above

Q25. Which is the most likely to occur as a result of a reduction of stratospheric ozone?

a). Increase in the amount of damage to plant life at the Earth’s surface

b). Reduction of photochemical smog

c). Reduction in ultraviolet radiation reaching the Earth’s surface

d). Increase in human respiratory problems

1. The atmosphere allows transportation of substances that are relatively volatile. Which one (s) of
the following compounds are relatively volatile?
(a) Sulphur dioxide (SO2), Carbon monoxide (CO) and Nitric oxide (NO)
(b) Gasoline
(c) Chlorofluorocarbons
(d) Argon
(e) All of the above
2. The cost or benefit imposed by the consumption and production activities of the individuals or
firms on the rest of society towards which no payment is made is referred to as:
(a) Raw material transformation
(b) Transaction spill over
(c) Burden of transaction
(d) Benefit of transaction
(e) All of the above

3. Polychlorinated biphenyls commonly referred to as PCBs are non-biodegradable materials. Which

of the following are good examples of Polychlorinated biphenyls?
(a) Lead
(b) Uranium
(c) Plastics and tins
(d) Gasoline
(e) Fossils

4. The sources of contamination that are dispersed and diffuse, and therefore cannot easily be
identified or located are called:
(a) Static sources
(b) Point sources
(c) Non-point sources
(d) Area sources

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 (e) None of the above

5. All wastes undergo degradation and decomposition by bacterial activity either in the presence or
absence of oxygen. The smells arising from anaerobic decomposition are due the production of....
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Methane
(c) Hydrogen sulphide
(d) Nitrogen dioxide
(e) All of the above

6. The plants species such as mangrove and chenopodiaceous vegetations are referred to as “sodic
indicator plants”. The presence of these plants
signifies………………………………………………………………
(a) The acidity of the soil
(b) The neutrality of the soil
(c) The alkalinity of the soil
(d) The impotency of the soil
(e) The fertility of the soil

7. Chlorinated hydrocarbons are some of the commonly used pesticides. Which of the following are
good examples of chlorinated hydrocarbons?
(a) Sevin and Zectrion
(b) Zinc phosphide and Reskol 64
(c) DDT and Dieldrin
(d) All of the above
(e) Only (b) and (c) are correct

8. In industries where pesticides are manufactured bunding is necessary. What is the main reason
for bunding?
(a) To protect the pesticide from evaporating which may result in reduced volume
(b) To protect the pesticide from rapid decay which may result in reduced potency
(c) To protect the container of the pesticide from rusting
(d) To trap any leakage or spillages in case there is an accident
(e) To protect the pesticide from volatility due to the continuous mixing in the container

9. There are different methods used for effective treatment of domestic sewage. Which one of the
following would you recommend for the institution such as a hospital?
(a) Aerated sewage lagoons
(b) Sewage treatment plant
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 (c) Anaerobic septic tank treatment with soak away
(d) All of the above
(e) Only (B) and (c) are correct

10. Carbon dioxide (CO2) is being held responsible for global warming and yet a certain percentage of
CO2 is desirable to keep the earth warm. What is average composition (standard) of CO2 in a clean
dry air?
(a) 0.934%
(b) 0.209%
(c) 0.033%
(d) 20.946%
(e) 15.60%

11. Fine (less than 100μ) and coarse (more than 100μ) suspended particulate matter (SPM) are good
examples
of……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
(a) Secondary pollutants
(b) Point source pollutants
(c) Primary pollutants
(d) Respiratory pollutants
(e) All of the above

12. Which one of the following is an important natural contaminant because of its peculiar
properties of irritation and allergy sometimes leading to bronchitis, asthma and dermatitis?
(a) Dust
(b) Aerosol
(c) Smoke
(d) Mist
(e) Pollen

13. The Environmental Protection and Pollution Control Act (EPPCA) Cap 204 No 12 of the laws of
Laws of Zambia was formulated in …….. and was repealed in …………………………………….
(a) Formulated in 1989 and repealed in 2009
(b) Formulated in 1990 and repealed in 2011
(c) Formulated in 1991 and repealed in 2009
(d) Formulated in 1991 and repealed in 2011
(e) Formulated in 1989 and repealed in 2012

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14. Which ones of the following is the driving force of a system?
(a) Ionizing radiation and soil
(b) Matter and energy
(c) Non-ionizing radiation and green house gases
(d) Biotic and abiotic factors
(e) None of the above

SECTION TWO: TRUE OR FALSE QUESTIONS

● There are ten (10) questions in this section.
● Answer ALL questions in this section
● Each question carries one (1) mark
● Indicate the best answer of your choice either TRUE or FALSE in the answer booklet
(Total marks = 10
6. A volcanic eruption is an example of an anthropogenic source of pollution. True or False.

7. Cosmic rays are emitted during decay of uranium. True or False.

8. Non-ionising radiation has long wavelength and short frequency. True or False.

9. Noise pollution can lead to exintiction of species. True or False.

10. Generation of waste causes pollution. True or False

1. A radioactive element will loss one proton after undergoing beta decay.
TRUE or FALSE

2. All the plant species are producers.

TRUE or FALSE

3. The lambard vocal response is as a result of noise pollution.

TRUE or FALSE
4. Much of the impetus for comprehensive and holistic environmental education comes from Agenda
21, adopted at the Rio Conference in 1994.
TRUE or FALSE
5. Pollutants that are repelled by water called hydrophilic substances including VOCs.
TRUE or FALSE

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SECTION THREE: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)
● There are 6 questions in this section.
● Answer all questions in this section.
● Each question carries 5 marks.
(Total marks = 30)

1. Describe the stakeholders in Environmental Impact Assessment.

2. Briefly describe four types of ionising energy.

4. Describe the causes of groundwater pollution in urban areas.

Question 4
‘Pollution is considered to be an externality. Externalities result when firms and households do not
appropriate the full costs or benefits of their productive or consumptive activities’. Discuss the
meaning of this statement
5 MARKS

Question 5
The dispersion of air pollutants is affected by many factors. Outline four principle factors that are
known to affect air pollution levels

5 MARKS
Question 6
Justus von Liebig (1840) first proposed that populations cannot grow indefinitely. It was from Justus
proposal that the “Law of minimum” came into play. Briefly explain what the law of the minimum
means in population dynamics
5 MARKS

SECTION FOUR: ESSAY QUESTIONS

● There are 4 questions in this section.
● Answer 2 questions only.
● Each question carries 10 marks
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 (Total marks = 20)

Question 1
Human beings are known to produce and use energy throughout history. Humans use energy for
industrial production, transportation, heating, cooling, cooking, and lighting. Human activities are
reaching a point at which they may be adversely affecting the Mother Nature.
● Enumerate the impacts of population growth and urbanization on the environment
10 MARKS
Question 2
State three constituents responsible for depletion of stratospheric ozone. Demonstrate through
molecular equations the depletion of stratospheric ozone by the stated constituents.

10 MARKS
Question 3
What do you understand by the term “Eutrophication”? Discuss in detail how the process of
eutrophication can affect pollution levels of the aquatic environment. 10 MARKS
Question 4
The environment has suffered many negative effects from many influences arising from new or
existing projects or developments. In Zambia, environmental impact assessment (EIA) acts as a
management tool to balance between development and environmental protection.
● Discuss the institutional responsibilities of Zambia Environmental Management Agency
(ZEMA) in the EIA process
10 MARKS

2. Discuss the factors that may cause water pollution and how water pollution can be controlled.

3. With specific examples, describe how noise pollution in urban areas can be controlled.

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