pt66 Questions
pt66 Questions
pt66 Questions
5. Reliability is a function of
A. maintenance.
B. basic design.
C. personal training.
D. All of the above.
7. Restoring an aircraft unit to it original design performance level after replacing/re-working parts to a
given standard is termed as
A. maintenance.
B. overhaul.
C. top overhaul.
D. None of the above.
9. S.S.I. Are
A. solid structure items.
B. structuallly significant instruction.
C. significant service instruction.
D. structural significant item.
15. The continuing capability of the aircraft to perform in a satisfactory manner the flight operation for
which it was designed is termed as
A. maintenance.
B. condition monitoring.
C. airworthiness.
D. on-condition.
25. The average fuel and oil consumption of engine will be recorded
A. in the engine log log book.
B. in the aircraft log book.
C. by an AME.
D. both a and b are correct.
26. The average fuel and oil consumption of engine will be recorded
A. after post overhaul test of the engine.
B. after the partial/top overhaul or repair of the engine followed by a test run/test flight, as applicable.
C. at periods approved as per the approved maintenance schedule.
D. All the above are correct.
27. The daily upliftment of fuel and oil consumption in aircraft fuel and oil register is signed by
A. lincensed AME.
B. QCM.
C. Dy QCM.
D. any authorised person.
29. If the operator's reliability index is above the alert value, he will
A. submit a corrective programme to the DGCA by the 25th day of the month.
B. submit a corrective programme to the DGCA by the 10th day of the month.
C. submit a corrective programme to the RAO by the 25th day of the month.
D. submit a corrective programme to the RAO by the 10th day of the month.
31. Reliability monitoring unit for its functioning will gather information from
A. un-schedule maintenance & schedule maintenance.
B. un-schedule removals.
C. sampling inspection.
D. All the above are correct.
39. A firm doing processing of aircraft components by electroplating, anodic treatment, metal spraying,
heat treatment, etc. is approved in
A. category 'A'.
B. category 'B'.
C. category 'D'.
D. category 'F'.
47. One copy of all documents used in the system of quality control in respect of activities performed
including all incoming certification is preserved for a minimum period of
A. one year.
B. two years.
C. five years.
D. ten years.
53. To get type approval for an aircraft component equipment including instruments, one should submit the
following
A. maintenance manual.
B. detailed drawing.
C. type instruction & type service manual.
D. All of the above.
55. Approved maintenance organisation, maintaining private aircraft may reflect the arrangement in their
A. Maintenance system manual.
B. Quality Control manual.
C. Operation manual.
D. Engineering Organisation manual.
56. As per CAR series E part I, storing and distribution of previously certified aircraft goods by a firm is
approved in
A. category 'C'.
B. category 'D'.
C. category 'A'.
D. category 'F'.
60. An organisation desiring approval in category 'B' for anodic oxidation will submit to DGCA
A. ten specimens of 8"x2"x16swg.
B. twelve specimens of 8"x2"x16swg.
C. ten specimens of 6"x2"x16swg.
D. twelve specimens of 6"x2"x16swg.
65. All AME's should be medically checked up by at least MBBS doctor once
A. in a year.
B. in two years.
C. in six years.
D. in five years.
72. The manner of preparing inspection schedule and assigning periodicity wherever applicable in respect
of periodic maintenance of aircraft component is contained in
A. Engineering Organisation manual.
B. Q.C. manual.
C. M.S. manual.
D. None of the above.
73. Procedure for release of aircraft by 'maintenance' to 'operation' is contained in
A. Q.C.manual.
B. M.S. manual.
C. Engineering Organisation manual.
D. Both a and b are correct.
74. As per rule 52 of IAR minimum mandatory instruments and equipments required for having single
engine are
A. altimeter, ASI, RPM indicator.
B. altimetr, ASI, watch.
C. altimeter, ASI, fire extinguisher.
D. altimeter, ASI.
76. A sensitive altimeter and electrical power failure indicator is a must on aircraft
A. with AUW above 15000 kg and flying in IFR.
B. manufactured after 30th June 1978.
C. intended to cruising above 30000 feet.
D. on international flight over international waters.
77. The installation of CVR is mandatory on all Indian registered aircraft with
A. piston engines having AUW below 5700 kg.
B. turbine engine having AUW of 5700 kg or above.
C. as in (b) having AUW of 15000 kg or above.
D. None is correct.
78. Certification of AME 'R' for flight release on private aircraft may not necessary if ground facilities are
not available the certification may be deferred to
A. inspection associated with next flight certification.
B. next 100 hours schedule.
C. align with any schedule within 50 hours.
D. Any one of the above.
86. An AME desirous of an extension in category 'A' (LA) on aircraft of similar construction will have to
show an additional experience of
A. three months.
B. six months.
C. twelve months.
D. None is correct.
87. An AME desirous of an extension in category 'A' (HA) on an aircraft of similar construction will have
to show on additional experience of
A. 12 months with 3 months recent experience.
B. 24 months with 6 months recent experience.
C. 6 months with 3 months recent experience.
D. 6 months.
88. An applicant applying for licence on helicopter of AUW below 3000 kg will have to show a total
aeronautical experience of four years both on airframe and engine simultaneously out of which
A. 12 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 3 month recent experience.
B. 12 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 6 month recent experience.
C. 24 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 12 month recent experience.
D. 24 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 6 month recent experience.
89. AME licence in category 'B' is given to helicopter
A. with AUW below 5700 kg.
B. with AUW below 15000 kg.
C. with AUW below 3000 kg.
D. with AUW below 2000 kg.
90. Person having valid AME licence covering aircraft below 5700 kg and desirous of having an extension
of glider will have to show a recent experience of
A. 12 months on particular type of glider.
B. 6 months on particular type of glider.
C. 3 months on particular type of glider.
D. 1 month on particular type of glider.
91. AME licence is category 'D' is issued for all piston engines
A. below 500 BHP.
B. below 450 BHP.
C. below 300 BHP.
D. below 250 BHP.
92. For an extension on turbine engine in category 'C' the candidate should have
A. 12 months experience on type on which 6 months should be recent experience.
B. 12 months experience on type on which 3 months should be recent experience.
C. 24 months experience on type on which 12 months should be recent experience.
D. 24 months experience on type on which 6 months should be recent experience.
93. For issue of licence in category 'V' the candidate must possess
A. a valid RTR (Aero) licence issued by Ministry of Communications at the time of oral-cum-practical test.
B. a licence in category E,I and R.
C. BAMEC in category ES, IS, RN and have undergone an approved training course on integrated avionics
system.
D. All are correct.
95. An applicant may be allowed to appear for paper I, II and III of AME licence examination after he/she
has acquired at least
A. 2 years of aeronautical engineering experience.
B. 3 years of aeronautical engineering experience.
C. 3 years of aeronautical engineering experience in relevant category.
D. 2 years of aeronautical engineering experience in relevant category.
103. Reliability programme followed by the quality control organisation of a schedule operator is aimed at
A. identifying potential problems.
B. optium utilisation of aircraft.
C. achieving operational economy.
D. keeping in force with present day technology.
108. In the event of any damage caused to the aircraft while taxying by an authorised individual it should
be promptly intimated to
A. owner/operator of the aircraft.
B. International Airport authority of India.
C. concerned regional/sub regional inspection office.
D. Both a & c are correct.
110. While operating an agricultural aircraft the minimum requirement for preflight inspection
A. must be carried before each flight.
B. may be carried out once before the first flight of the day unless the aircraft is suspected to have suffered
from any defect or damage.
C. need not be carried out if the flight release certificate is valid.
D. None of the above is correcty.
111. If the defects observed in the aircraft other than public transport aircraft at places other than normal
base they may be recorded in the
A. defect register which must be carried on board.
B. loose sheet for ultimate transferring to defect register kept at normal base.
C. JLB for ultimate transferring to defect register.
D. All the above are correct.
112. As per CAR series 'C' part I the records associated with the defects and their rectification shall be
preserved for a period of
A. one year.
B. six months.
C. two years.
D. Not required to be preserved.
113. In determining the proven 'service life' of an aircraft or any of its component might be the factor that
will be kept in view will be the
A. area of operation, manufacturer recommendation and applicant's own service experience on similar type
of components.
B. number of landings effecting on flight sector I.e. shorthaul and longhaul operation.
C. other operator service experience of similar equipment.
D. All are correct.
114. The periodical inspection schedules are prepared by the QCM of the firm and is submitted for
approval. This is not applicable in case of
A. non-schedule operators.
B. private operators.
C. gliding clubs.
D. schedule operators.
116. With effect from 1st Jan 80 passenger safety information briefing card should be provided at every
passenger seat by
A. schedule operator.
B. non-schedule operator.
C. state aircraft.
D. All the above are correct.
118. Alert value means maximum deviation from the normal operating limit but within the allowable
operating range which will not cause malfunction to an extent where aircraft safety is in jeopardy. This is
applicable to
A. all aircraft engines.
B. piston engines only.
C. turbine engines only.
D. small aircraft engine operator only.
119. The formal for maintenance of records of fuel and oil uplift and consumption in respect of light
aircraft engine is given in
A. advisory circular no. 4 of 1976.
B. CAR series D part V.
C. not given anywhere. The operator has to make for himself and get it approved by DGCA.
D. AME notice no. 1 of 1970.
120. The grant of approval to an organisation in any category will depend upon
A. the request of the applicant.
B. capability/capacity to perform the work.
C. qualification of QCM/Dy QCM and other technical staff.
D. All the above are correct.
121. How you will know the mandatory modification status of your aircraft?
A. From the pink page of relevant log book.
B. From the green page of log book.
C. From the white page of log book.
D. From the manufacturer.
123. As per IAR on aircraft involved in an accident which has major defect
A. aircraft engine caught fire during refuelling on the departure day.
B. a passenger is badly injured during time of take off.
C. under-carriage accidentally retracts during a major inspection.
D. All the above are correct.
126. Only one of the following need not have the approval of the maintenance organisation
A. private owner of aircraft.
B. non-schedule operator.
C. schedule operator.
D. aircraft owned by state govts.
127. The maintenance schedule of an aircraft organisation is approved by the
A. Chief Aircraft Engineer of the organisation.
B. Quality Control Manager of only Indian Airlines and Air India.
C. Controller or Director of Airworthiness of the region.
D. Only b & c are correct.
128. The dailyreview board meeting is obligatory on the part of schedule operator
A. to examine the nature of defect experience on the previous day.
B. to satisfy if rectification action are adequate.
C. to decide action on defects of repetitive nature.
D. to discuss analysis and decide action on defects in co-operation with AID.
129. If during an investigation the cause of the defects is attributed to wilful negligence of the aircraft
maintenance engineer
A. the person concerned is suspended by the QCM immediately.
B. the offender is issued show-cause notice.
C. the Quality Control Manager should be taken in consultation with the DGCA to avoid duplication of
penal action.
D. action by QCM should not be taken in consultation with the DGCA to avoid duplication of penal action.
130. All major defects experienced by an organisation during maintenance should be reported to DGCA
A. in the manner specified in CAR.
B. should also be reported to the manufacturer of the aircraft component for seeking advise on prevention
of recurrence of similar defects.
C. or it is necessary for an operator to apprise the manufacturer of only structural defects.
D. Both a & b are correct.
131. For effective monitoring of aircraft and engine system for functioning in flight, the crew member
should record all necessary parameter readings
A. once during each sector of flight.
B. only under stabilised cruise condition.
C. during climbing phase soon after take off.
D. only under emergency condition of flight.
132. On public transport aircraft the defects reported by the pilot are recorded in
A. jib column II.
B. flight report book and the aircraft can only be released for further flight when duly rectified by the AME.
C. flight report book only when the nature of the defect is major.
D. defect register maintained by the Quality Control Manager to ensure corrective action.
134. An alert notice in the event of system reliability exceeding alert value is issued by
A. manufacturer.
B. the DGCA.
C. the RMU.
D. the QCM.
135. Reliability programme followed by the quality control organisation of a schedule operator is aimed at
A. optimum utilisation of aircraft.
B. achieving operational economy.
C. identifying potential areas.
D. keeping in pace with present day technology.
137. The circumstances under which an aircraft may be released with GPWS as unserviceable will be spelt
out in
A. M E L.
B. C D L.
C. Flight Manual.
D. M S manual.
139. The contents of scope and frequency of preventive maintenance can be revised
A. only when makers so desire.
B. only when DGCA so desires.
C. only when justification based on operator's experience is acceptable to DGCA.
D. only after the incorporation of a major modifications.
141. The purpose behind recording of defects and inflight instrument reading is to achieve
A. smooth functioning of the reliability and statistical quality control system.
B. effective monitoring.
C. timely corrective action.
D. All of the above.
142. When an aircraft registered outside India is in Indian territory sustains major damage or a major defect
is found
A. DGCA may prohibit the aircraft from flying.
B. DGCA should not prohibit the aircraft from flying without concurrence of the appropriate authority of
the country of registration of the aircraft.
C. instead of prohibiting the aircraft from flying DGCA informs the fact to the country of registration and
allows the aircraft to fly.
D. None of the above is correct.
144. A current list of all in-flight shut down rate, engine hours flown and reliability index is submitted in a
consolidated manner to the RAO
A. by the 15th of each month.
B. by the end of each month.
C. by the tenth of each month.
D. None of the above.
147. Reflection of the requirements of the CAR in the quality control-cum-maintenance system manual is
the responsibility of the
A. operator/owner.
B. head of the organisation.
C. AME.
D. QCM.
156. The form used for applications for approcal of firm in any of the categories mentioned in the CAR
series E part I is
A. CA 180.
B. CA 182.
C. CA 28.
D. CA 23.
159. The following documents have to be carried by all aircraft on all flights:
A. C of A, C of R cockpit and emergency check-list.
B. FRC, JLB.
C. Route guide.
D. Both a & b are correct.
160. For taxying an aircraft, a person having AME cat 'C' licence should possess the following:
A. RT licence if required.
B. Qualified to use radio communications.
C. A person should know layout of aerodrome.
D. a, b & care correct.
161. To get a type approval for an aircraft component equipment including instruments should contain the
following:
A. Maintenance manual.
B. Detailed drawings.
C. Types instructions and typed service manual.
D. All the above.
164. An aicraft which is flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome and coming back without landing at any
other place, should carry the following document (I) C of A (II) C of R (III) Cockpit & Emergency check-
list (IV) FRC (V) MEL (VI) Route Guide (VII) Pilot Crew Licences (VIII) Flight Manual if applicable.
A. 1,2,3,4.
B. 2,6,7,3.
C. 4,5,8,3.
D. All the above.
165. The installation of flight data recorder is mandatory on all Indian registered aircraft having
A. turbine engines & permissible AUW of 5700 kg or above.
B. piston engine and permissible AUW of 5700 kg or above.
C. any type of engine and permissible AUW 5700 kg or above.
D. as in (a) but permissible AUW of 15000 kg or above.
167. The quanitity of unusable fuel is required to be determined if not available in the flight manual before
A. C of A renewal.
B. type certifcation of aircraft.
C. complete overhaul of the aircraft.
D. no. (a) above, as specified in operation manual.
168. Approved maintenance organisation maintaining private aircraft may reflect this arrangement in their
A. maintenance system manual.
B. quality control manual.
C. operation manual.
D. engineering organisation manual.
169. For information regarding name and address of the owner of the aircraft the document referred to is
A. C of A.
B. C of R.
C. type certificate.
D. log book.
171. An aircraft for agricultural operation is required to be imported into India. The minimum standard of
manufacture for issue of Indian C of A shall be
A. as laid down in CAA -B CAR secs 'K' & 'D'.
B. as laid down in FAA -FAR pts 23 & 25.
C. as laid down by australian govt. for agricultural aircraft.
D. Both (a) & (b) are correct.
173. The minimum conditions to be complied with under aircraft rules, before any aircraft is allowed to be
flown are:
A. the aircraft has been maintained as per stipulated maintenance schedules by the DGCA.
B. Maintenance has been carried out by appropriately licensed/authorised/approved person.
C. Maintenance carried out has been certified by appropriately licensed/authorised/approved person in the
specified period.
D. Aqll are correct.
174. One of the following conditions does not result in automatic suspension of C of A
A. Whenever an aircraft develops a defect which effects primary structure.
B. Whenever an aircraft is involved in forced landing.
C. Approved inspection schedules are not completed when due.
D. Whenever "lifted" components are not removed at their stipulated T.B.S.'s.
175. Certification of airworthiness of aircraft shows that it is valid for normal category sub-division
"Private Aircraft". This aircraft can be used for
A. experimental purposes.
B. aerial works.
C. aerobatic purposes.
D. flying executives to their factory without any remuneration.
176. A public transport aircraft is categorised in "Normal category" sub-division a) passenger. Can it
execute any steep turns?
A. No.
B. Yes.
C. Limited bank if specified in flight manual.
D. Angle of bank should not exceed 60 degree due to increase in G-forces.
177. A manual associated with C of A containing limitation within which the aircraft is considered to be
airworthy is called
A. operating manual.
B. Q C manual.
C. maintenance system manual.
D. flight manual.
178. 'cockpit check-list' and 'Emergency check-list' are applicable as per rules on which of the following
category/classification of aircraft.
A. For all aircraft engaged in public transport.
B. For state aircraft.
C. For aircraft engaged in non-schedule operation including training aircraft.
D. All aircraft registered in India.
181. Invoking MEL for a period longer than absolutely necessary will result in
A. increased crew load and increased airworthiness.
B. increased crew load and decreased airworthiness.
C. decreased crew load and increased airworthiness.
D. decreased crew load and decreased airworthiness.
189. Cockpit and Emergency check-list are prepared under the purview of aircraft rule
A. 60 A.
B. 62 B.
C. 7 B.
D. 70 B.
192. A list containing items of inspections/action to be performed by the flight crew in the order as listed
and in the circumstances as indicated for ensuring safe operation of aircraft is
A. check-list.
B. cockpit check-list.
C. emergency check-list.
D. safety list.
193. Bonded store is a store where
A. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting DGCA approval.
B. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting evidence of having been received from approved
sources.
C. material bear evidence of having been received from approved sources.
D. airworthy and serviceable materials are awaiting manufacturer approval.
196. Incoming release notes or other equipvalent documents shall be preserved for
A. two years.
B. five years.
C. ten years.
D. till the life of covered item.
199. The 'Pass marks' in approved training school shall not be less than
A. 80%.
B. 70%.
C. 60%.
D. 90%.
200. In case of re-examination of failed candidate in approved training school the passing mark shall not be
less than
A. 80%.
B. 90%.
C. 70%.
D. 60%.
201. The duration of training period for specialised course for specific aircraft/engines shall be decided by
A. DGCA.
B. RAO.
C. manufacturer of aircraft/engines.
D. organisation.
202. In an organisation approved in category 'G' during any course the practical training shall not be
normally
A. less than 50% of total training time.
B. less than 40% of total training time.
C. more than 50% of total training time.
D. more than 40% of total training time.
203. A candidate appearing for examination in any approved course should have at least
A. 60% attendance.
B. 70% attendance.
C. 80% attendance.
D. 90% attendance.
207. When any component or item is drawn from the bonded stores by the AME, he should ensure that
there is a
A. proper release note available.
B. certificate of maintenance release available.
C. certificate of safety available.
D. consignment note available.
209. To ensure that the aircraft has a current and valid C of A is the responsibiloity of
A. D.G.C.A.
B. Regional Airworthiness Office.
C. Manufactuere of the Aircraft.
D. Owner/Operator of the Aircraft.
210. The aircraft is mainteined in airworthy condition by subjecting the aircraft & component to
A. periodical inspections as approved by D.G.C.A.
B. replace "lifed" components at intervals approved by the D.G.C.A.
C. carry out repairs/modifications as required by D.G.C.A.
D. All the above are correct.
211. It is the responsibility of the owner to
A. see his pilots operate the aircraft as per operating limitations.
B. report all defects encountered in flight or during routine maintenance to A.I.D.
C. record such defects as per procedure specified in C.A.R. series 'C'.
D. a,b,c are correct.
214. Technical officers of R A O may require owners/operators to submit their aircraft/aircraft components
for inspection.
A. whenever they like.
B. when the operator / owner is ready.
C. at a pre-determined stage to ensure compliance with prescribed airworthiness standards.
D. All the above.
217. The maintenance process requiring assembly inspection of aircraft and aircraft components at fixed
period is
A. preventive maintenance.
B. hard time maintenance.
C. on-condition maintenance.
D. None.
218. The maintenance process for locating and resolving problem areas through analytical study of failure
or malfunction not affecting safety of aircraft is called
A. hard time maintenance.
B. on-condition maintenance.
C. condition monitoring.
D. preventive maintenance.
219. Accomplishment of repetitive (1) visual inspection or (2) physical measurement or (3) in situ/bench
test, etc. to determine the continued serviceability of aircraft and aircraft components without having to
dismantle them completely and before such components reach a critical stage in their operation is termed as
A. hard time maintenance.
B. on-condition maintenance.
C. condition monitoring.
D. preventive maintenance.
223. Private operator shall furnish the information concerning major defect /incident /accident to the
D.G.C.A.
A. every month.
B. every six months.
C. every nine months.
D. every twelve months.
224. Non-schedule operators shall furnish the information concerning major defect /incident /accident to
the D.G.C.A.
A. every month.
B. every three months.
C. every six months.
D. every nine months.
225. Schedule operators would furnish the information concerning major defect / incident/ accident to the
D.G.C.A.
A. every month.
B. every six months.
C. every nine months.
D. every year.
226. Aerial work operators shall furnish the information concerning major defect /incident /accident to
D.G.C.A.
A. every month.
B. every six months.
C. every three months.
D. None.
227. Training aircraft operators would furnish the information concerning major defect/ incident /accident
to D.G.C.A.
A. every month.
B. every six months.
C. every three months.
D. None.
230. If there is no information concerning individual major defect /incident /accident the operator
A. does not have to send any information to R.A.O.
B. does not have to send any information to D.G.C.A.
C. has to send a "NIL' information.
D. All the above.
232. Procedure for issuing of CAR including amendments, if any, is covered in CAR
A. series A part I.
B. series B part I.
C. series B part II.
D. series A part II.
237. All pilots before flying as PIC of multi engined aircraft of licensed air transport service shall
demonstrate to a check pilot let down procedure applicable to the aerodrome in use, variation in speed
during descent not to exceed
A. 5 MPH above the stipulated speed.
B. 5 MPH below the stipulated speed.
C. 5 MPH above or below the stipulated speed.
D. 10 MPH above or below the stipulated speed.
238. While recovering from unusual altitude during pilot check loss in height shall not exceed
A. 500 feet.
B. 1000 feet.
C. 1500 feet.
D. 2000 feet.
239. The PIC of every aircraft shall before commencing any flight satisfy himself of the
A. valid flight release in respect of the aircraft.
B. sufficient length of runway is available.
C. engines are developing correct power.
D. All are correct.
240. The responsibility of briefing the passengers of smoking limitation lies with
A. PIC.
B. Co-pilot.
C. AME.
D. QCM.
242. Duties not required for safe operation of the aircraft includes company required calls made
A. for ordering galley supplies.
B. for confirming passenger's connections.
C. for promoting airlines.
D. All are correct.
243. No pilot may carry out acrobatic man cover in an aircraft unless
A. a crash helmet is worn.
B. a headgear is worn.
C. pilots wearing spectacles must weare flying goggles over and above the spectacles.
D. All are correct.
244. Minimum fuel and oil requirements for public transport aircraft is contained in
A. CAR series F part II.
B. CAR series F part III.
C. CAR series O part II.
D. CAR series O part III.
245. PIC shall ensure that the aircraft carries sufficient amount of fuel for the flight considering
A. adverse affects of weather.
B. availability of an alternate aerodrome.
C. emergency that may be expected during the flight.
D. All are correct.
246. The fuel and oil carried in the case of propeller driven aircraft when alternate airport is not required
shall be at least the amount sufficient to allow the aircraft
A. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned.
B. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes.
C. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes.
D. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 60 minutes.
247. The fuel carried in case of propeller driven aircraft (when alternate airport is required) shall be at least
the amount sufficient to allow the aircraft
A. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned hence to an alternate.
B. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes.
C. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes.
D. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 60 minutes.
248. The fuel carried on turbo jet aircraft (when an alternate aerodrome is not required) shall be at least the
amount sufficient to allow the aircraft
A. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned.
B. as in (a) & to fly for 30 minutes.
C. as in (a) & to fly for 45 minutes.
D. as in (a) & to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 450 metres above the destination aerodrome.
249. The fuel on board a turbo jet aircraft when no suitable alternate aerodrome is available to fly to which
the flight is planned and there-after for a period of
A. 30 minutes at normal cruise consumption.
B. 45 minutes at normal cruise consumption.
C. 60 minutes at normal cruise consumption.
D. 120 minutes at normal cruise consumption.
250. In computing fuel and oil required for aircraft operation one should consider
A. meteorological forecast.
B. anticipated ATC routing and traffic delays.
C. one instruments approach at the destination aerodrome including one missed approach.
D. All are correct.
251. Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly under VFR condition is to
A. fly to first point of intended landing.
B. as in (a) thereafter for 15 minutes.
C. as in (a) thereafter for 20 minutes.
D. as in (a) thereafter for 45 minutes.
252. Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly under IFR condition is to
A. fly to first point of intended landing.
B. fly to first point of intended landing and then to alternate.
C. as in (b) thereafter for 20 minutes.
D. as in (b) thereafter for 45 minutes.
255. A helicopter with such performance that, in case of critical power unit failure it is able to safely
continue the flight, except when the failure occurs prior to a defined point after take off or after a defined
point before landing, in which case a forced landing may be required is called
A. performance class I helicopter.
B. performance class II helicopter.
C. performance class III helicopter.
D. performance class IV helicopter.
256. A helicopter with performance such that in case of power unit failure at any point in the flight profile a
forced landing must be performed is called
A. performance class I helicopter.
B. performance class II helicopter.
C. performance class III helicopter.
D. performance class IV helicopter.
258. Helicopter operating in IFR condition in addition to instruments in VFR flying shall have
A. slip indicator.
B. position lights.
C. landing lights.
D. All are correct.
259. Helicopter which is intended to land in IMC shall be provided with radio equipment capable of
receiving signals providing
A. guidance to a point from which a visual landing can be effected.
B. guidance to a point from which instrument landing can be effected.
C. guidance to ATC transponder.
D. guidance to WX radar.
260. All helicopters intended to be flown over water shall be fitted with a permanent or rapidly deployable
means of floatation if distance from land corresponds to more than
A. 10 minutes at normal cruise speed.
B. 15 minutes at normal cruise speed.
C. 30 minutes at normal cruise speed.
D. 45 minutes at normal cruise speed.
264. FDR used on helicopter shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at least
A. the last 25 hours of operation.
B. the last 10 hours of operation.
C. the last one hour of operation.
D. the last 30 minutes of operation.
265. CVR used on helicopters shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at least
A. the last 25 hours of operation.
B. the last 10 hours of operation.
C. the last one hour of operation.
D. the least 30 minutes of operation.
267. Aerodrome operating minima is the limits of usability of an aerodrome for either take-off or landing
usually expressed in times of
A. MDA/G.
B. DA/H.
C. MDA/H.
D. All are correct.
274. Installation of anti-collision light is applicable to all aircraft issued with C of A for the first time after
A. 31-12-1970.
B. 31-12-184.
C. 01-12-1970.
D. 01-12-1984.
275. All aeroplanes on flights over water shall be provided with one approved life jacket for each person on
board when flown beyond
A. 20 nautical miles away from land.
B. 50 nautical miles away from land.
C. 100 nautical miles away from land.
D. All are correct.
279. While installing anew avionic system on an aircraft in the absence of manufacturer's guidelines the
AME 'R' shall make a feasibility study to check that
A. empty weight of the aircraft remains same after installation.
B. empty weight C.G. remains same after installation.
C. loaded weight C.G. remains same after installation.
D. C.G. should remain in limit after installation.
280. For approval of an avionic installation, in absence of manufacturer's guidelines, AME 'R' shall submit
the modification details along with
A. six copies of drawing to RAO.
B. six copies of drawing to DGCA (Hqrs).
C. three copies of drawing to RAO.
D. three copies of drawing to DGCA (Hqrs).
281. On comletion of structural and electrical wiring on an aircraft the complete wiring shall be checked for
A. continuity.
B. insulation and continuity.
C. bonding and insulation.
D. All are correct.
282. The antenna installed on aircraft shall be checked by AME for proper insulation to ensure that
A. radio interference is least.
B. static interference is maximum.
C. precipitation static interference is minimum.
D. static interference is minimum.
283. After installation of new avionic system on an aircraft the EWCG shall be amended accordingly by
A. AME cat 'R'.
B. AME cat A & C.
C. AME cat A, C & R.
D. AME cat 'B'.
284. Installation of a new avionic system on an aircraft can be carried out only after obtaining
A. the permission from DGCA.
B. the permit from DGCA.
C. short term aeromobile licence from WPC wing of Ministry of Communications.
D. permanent aeromobile licence from WPC wing of Ministry of Communications.
286. Aircraft shall be equipped with radio apparatus as may be specified is required as per IAR
A. 9A.
B. 9 Sub-rule 3.
C. 51 A, sub-rule 3.
D. Both a and c are correct.
287. Maintenance of airborne communication and navigation equipments shall be carried out in accordance
with
A. CAR series E part II.
B. CAR series E part III.
C. CAR series R part II.
D. CAR series R part III.
289. FRC of a radio communication system installed on a flying training club aircraft is
A. valid for 24 hours.
B. 12 hours or 7 days elapsed time.
C. 10 hours or 4 days elapsed time.
D. None is correct.
290. FRC of a radio communication/navigation system installed on a flying training club aircraft is
A. valid for 24 hours.
B. valid for 200 hours.
C. valid for 90 days.
D. valid for 30 days.
291. During scheduled maintenance check or 180 days inspection schedule of radio system it is a must to
carry out
A. VSWR of HF & VHF transmitter.
B. bonding of RF cables.
C. insulation of radio equipments.
D. All are correct.
292. FTD checks of ADF, VHF, HF, VOR & ILS equipment are carried out
A. once in six months.
B. once in a year (for valve equipment).
C. once in 2 years (for valve equipment).
D. None is correct.
293. Final test data check of solid state equipment shall be carried out
A. once in six months.
B. once in a year.
C. once in 2 years.
D. once in a 2 years linked with C of A or any major check.
294. Pilot shall file de-briefing report regarding the range and performance of WX Radar, Omega NAV,
HIS, RMI, DME and R NAV after
A. the day's flying.
B. 10 days of flying.
C. 90 days of flying.
D. 180 days of flying.
295. Aircraft after flying through electrical storm or lightning strike has to be inspected for
A. loop antenna which is to be demagnetised.
B. all digital and CRT indicator shall be inspected for any possible damage to glass components.
C. all antenna shall be inspected for any damage to the wire.
D. All are correct.
296. Major modifications regarding safety of aircraft radio equipment shall be carried out by
A. AME cat 'R'.
B. AME cat 'B' (radio).
C. AME cat A & B (radio).
D. AME cat 'X' (radio).
297. CAR series S part I pertains to storage of
A. aircraft instruments.
B. aircraft hardware.
C. aircraft engines.
D. aircraft tyres.
298. Aircraft tyres should be stored vertically in racks having support tubes so that each tyre is supported at
two point on the treads. The tyres should be turned to a new position
A. every month or so.
B. every 2 months or so.
C. every 3 months or so.
D. every 6 months or so.
300. The relative humidity of the room where hoses are stored shall be around
A. 50%.
B. 60%.
C. 65%.
D. 75%.
305. The service life of group A and group B hoses can be increased by
A. 8 years.
B. 6 years.
C. 4 years.
D. 2 years.
309. Rubber seals which have been stored for more than four years should be checked for deterioration by
stretching the seal to
A. 10% of their internal dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification.
B. 20% of their internal dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification.
C. 10% of their external dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification.
D. 20% of their external dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification.
310. The maximum service life of rubber seals shall not exceed
A. 8 years.
B. 6 years.
C. 5 years.
D. 4 years.
316. On a four-engine aircraft the test flight may not be carried out after change of
A. one engine provided satisfactory ground run has been carried out.
B. two engines provided satisfactory ground run has been carried out.
C. three engines provided satisfactory ground run has been carried out.
D. All are correct.
320. The responsibility of recording the results of test flight lies entirely with
A. PIC.
B. Co-pilot.
C. Flight Engineer.
D. AME.
321. The observed actual climb performance is related to the test condition
A. means altitude.
B. means temperature.
C. means weight.
D. All are correct.
322. When an India registered aircraft suffers major damage of defect then it shall be the responsibility of
A. the operator to inform the RAO.
B. the operator to inform the DGCA.
C. the operator to inform the DAI.
D. None is correct.
323. On receipt of a report regarding major defect/damage to an aircraft, officer incharge of RAO
A. may formally suspend the C of A.
B. may suspend C of A, if reasonable doubts exist to the safety of aircraft.
C. may suspend C of A, if reasonable doubts exist to the safety of aircraft or as to the safety of this type of
aircraft to which the aircraft belongs.
D. Both a and b are correct.
331. Rebuilt aircraft will be assigned a serial number by the constructor. This number will normally be the
number assigned
A. to the wing.
B. to complete aircraft.
C. to the fuselage.
D. None is correct.
334. Before starting rebuilding of an aircraft the constructor must insure that
A. proper history of parts are available.
B. parts purchased are genuine.
C. parts are imported.
D. Both a and b are correct.
336. Aircraft parts are completely stripped/inspected /overhauled prior to assembling of aircraft during
rebuilding if the parts had been in storage for more than
A. ten years.
B. eight years.
C. five years.
D. two years.
338. Aircraft with suspended C of A due to defect or damage shall not undertake any flight without specific
permission of DGCA vide
A. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 2.
B. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 3.
C. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 4.
D. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 5.
339. DGCA may permit special flight for an aircraft when the C of A is suspended vide
A. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 2.
B. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 3.
C. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 4.
D. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 5.
342. The operator who wishes to avail a special flight permit must submit an application to RAO indicating
A. the crew required to operate the aircraft.
B. the crew required to operate the equipment.
C. the purpose of flight.
D. All are correct.
347. Operator who do not have their own facility for maintenance and certification of aircraft
A. can't maintain & fly their aircraft.
B. have to request DGCA for certification.
C. C of A of their a/c will be cancelled.
D. can get maintenance and certification performed by organisation approved for the purpose.
348. Important schedules like heavy landing, post lighting strike, post propeller strike etc. should be
submitted to the RAO for approval in
A. duplicate.
B. triplicate.
C. quadruplicate.
D. None.
349. All works on a/c must be recorded in the relevant log books within
A. an hour of completion.
B. six hours of completion.
C. 24 hours of completion.
D. 48 hours of completion.
350. If aircraft log book is not readily available because of aircraft being away from the base then
A. one copy of log book entry should be kept in the JLB.
B. one copy of log book entry should be sent to the RAO.
C. aone copy of log book entry should be sent to DGCA.
D. All are correct.
369. Aging aircraft requires more frequent inspection of structural components for damage due to
A. environmental deterioration.
B. accidental damage.
C. fatigue.
D. All are correct.
372. Regional airworthiness offices may grant ad-hoc extension to lives of inspection schedules and TBO's
of components upto a maximum of
A. 10% or 50 hrs (whichever is less).
B. 3% or 3 months (whichever is less).
C. 3% or 50 hrs (whichever is less).
D. None is correct.
373. Regional airworthiness offices may grant ad-hoc extension to lives of inspection schedules and TBO's
of components upto a maximum of
A. 10% or 50 hrs (whichever is less).
B. 3% or 50 hrs (whichever is less).
C. 10% or 3 months (whichever is less).
D. Both b and c are correct.
374. All completed maintenance schedules must be preserved for a minimum period of
A. one year.
B. two years.
C. five years.
D. ten years.
384. The control system of which duplicate inspections are carried out are
A. flying controls.
B. engine controls.
C. engine controls & flying controls.
D. flying, engine and associated controls.
386. Duplicate inspection when the aircraft is at the base is carried out by
A. persons approved for the purpose in an approved organisation.
B. a flight engineer.
C. a flight engineer whose licence is endorsed for the type of aircraft.
D. Both a and c are correct.
387. Duplicate inspection when the aircraft is away from the base in carried out by
A. by a flight engineer whose licence is endorsed for the aircraft.
B. by any CPL holder.
C. by a person specially authorised by the DGCA.
D. Both a and b are correct.
388. RAO can authorise a person to carry out duplicate inspection of aircraft if
A. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance experience and 6 months experience of the type of
aircraft involved.
B. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance experience and 3 months maintenance experience on
the type of aircraft involved.
C. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance experience and one year maintenance experience on
the type of aircraft involved.
D. All are correct.
390. Aircraft of composite contruction shall be inspected before issue/renewal or validation of certificate of
airworthiness and thereafter in periods not exceeding
A. one year.
B. two years.
C. five years.
D. ten years.
392. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes of temperature and humidity are especially prove to
A. timber shrinkage.
B. glue deterioration.
C. Both a and b are correct.
D. None is correct.
393. Certificate of compliance is a certification to the effect that all the works on
A. the aircraft have been performed in accordance with the requirements specified by DGCA.
B. the aircraft component have been performed in accordance with the requirements specified by DGCA.
C. the glider component have been performed in accordance with the requirements specified by DGCA.
D. Both a and b are correct.
395. The constructions of gliders shall be maintained and overhauled in accordance with the procedure in
A. CAR series I part I.
B. CAR series I part II.
C. CAR series F part XIII.
D. CAR series F part XIV.
397. If 'loop test' is not carried out during test flight of a glider then its C of A
A. will not be renewed.
B. will not be renewed in any case.
C. will not be renewed temporarily.
D. will be renewed provided the glider is suitably placarded that 'loop manoeuvres are prohibited.
402. Procedures/work sheets pertaining to gliders which meet with accidents and damages beyond
economical repairs shall be preserved
A. for one year after the date of accident.
B. for five years after the date of accident.
C. for ten years after the date of accident.
D. for two years after the date of accident.
403. When an approved flight manual is carried on board the aircraft to form a part of the C of A, the C of
A is issued on form
A. CA 23.
B. CA 23A.
C. CA 56.
D. CA 57.
404. Rejection note is a document issued byan approved organisation for the purpose of advising details of
rejection of aircraft good/parts
A. for which high prices are quoted.
B. common to automobile industry.
C. ground equipment.
D. which fail to meet applicable requirement.
406. Only one of the following need not have the approval of maintenance organisation
A. private owner of aircraft.
B. non-schedule operator.
C. shceduled airlines.
D. aircraft owned by State Govt.
407. The certificate of flightr release of an aircraft below 15000 kg AUW remains valid provided the pre
flight inspection is carried out by
A. a pilot as per approved schedule.
B. an AME.
C. a pilot having AME licence also.
D. an approved person as per approved schedule.
408. As per appendix 'A' of CAR series 'F' part IV and aircraft certified in normal category shall not be
used for purpose mentioned either in
A. special category or aerobatic category.
B. special category or passenger sub-division.
C. aerobatic category or aerial work sub-division.
D. racing aircraft sub-division or goods aircraft sub-division.
409. An aircraft certified in sub-division of passenger aircraft in normal category can undertake
A. carriage of mails.
B. carriage of goods.
C. aerial work.
D. None of the above.
410. As per CAR series 'F' part IV the duplicate inspection of flight and engine controls of an aircraft away
from base can be carried out by a pilot
A. provided his CPL/CHPL is endorsed on the type of aircraft.
B. or any AME or flight engineer.
C. the answer (a) is correct subject to the condition that person authorised as per para 3.3.1 of the CAR do
the second check on arrival of the aircraft at the base.
D. any 'B' and /or 'D' licensed engineer.
411. For the purpose of C of A revalidation if the aircraft has been maintained in accordance with
continuous cycle of maintenance the aircraft is subject to
A. any schedule due and/or a 100 hrs inspection schedule.
B. a major schedule next to 100 hrs inspection schedule.
C. a normal DI followed by a higher schedule of inspection.
D. 500 hrs inspection schedule.
418. Weighing requirements in respect of aircraft less than 2000 kg AUW are
A. every C of A renewal.
B. every three years.
C. need not be re-weighed on routine basis.
D. every overhaul.
419. An aircraft for agricultural operation is required to be imported in to India the minimum standard of
manufacture for issue of Indian C of A shall be
A. as laid down in CAA, B CAR section 'K' & 'D'.
B. as laid down in FAA FAR parts 23 & 25.
C. as laid down by Australian Govt. for agricultural aircraft.
D. Both a and b are correct.
420. Certificate of Airworthiness of an aircraft shows that it is valid for 'Normal category' - sub-division
private aircraft. This aircraft is used for
A. experimental purposes.
B. aerial-work.
C. aerobatic purposes.
D. carriage of executives of his factory without any remuneration.
423. Validity of flight release for radio equipment for flying club aircraft is
A. 90 days.
B. 30 days.
C. 50 hrs/30 days.
D. 100 hrs/90 days.
424. For purpose of C of A in case the final inspection is carried out after the expiry date of the C of A then
the validity of the next currency of C of A would start from the date of
A. test flight.
B. inspection.
C. expiry of C of A.
D. None of the correct.
425. For the purpose of snag rectification an aircraft can always be taxied from bay to the maintenance
hangar by
A. an appropriately licensed AME.
B. pilot under training may be allowed.
C. an individual authorised by the QCM of the firm.
D. None of the above is correct.
426. Ground proxiity warning system as per CAR series I part II is mandatory for all turbine engine
aeroplane registered in India after 1-7-79 which are
A. authorised to carry more than 30 passengers.
B. having seating capacity of 100 or more.
C. Both a and b are correct.
D. None of f the above is correct as it is applicable to all aircraft.
429. For flight over water by public transport aircraft at a distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the
shore the equipments required are
A. life saving rafts in sufficient number.
B. two days food.
C. survival radio equipment operated on VHF.
D. Both a and c are corret.
430. An aircraft certificated in sub-division of passenger aircraft in normal category can undertake
A. carriage of mails.
B. carriage of goods.
C. aerial work.
D. None is correct.
438. The shlelf life of instruments other than gyro instruments shall not exceed
A. one year.
B. two years.
C. four years.
D. six years.
440. Instruments installed on aircraft has not been operated for a continuous period of six months
A. The aircraft shall be subject to test flight before use.
B. shall be subject to bench check before use.
C. shall be subject to overhaul before use.
D. All are correct.
441. Aircraft rule 57 requires that every aircraft shall be fitted and equipped with
A. instruments as required.
B. equipments as required.
C. radio apparatus as required.
D. All are correct.
442. All aeroplanes on all flights shall be equipped with a seat/berth for each person over the age of
A. two years.
B. three years.
C. five years.
D. All are correct.
443. All aircraft issued with a C of A for the first time after
A. 1-9-76 shall have safety hareness for aircraft crew.
B. 1-10-76 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew.
C. 1-12-86 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew.
D. 1-1-87 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew.
444. All aircraft shall be fitted with an ELT meeting requirements as laid down in
A. FAA TSO C 91a.
B. FAR Part 91.
C. B CAR C 91a.
D. None of the above.
445. ELT of aircraft flying over land should be activated due to impact of more than
A. 3 g.
B. 4 g.
C. 5 g.
D. 8 g.
446. The requirement of ELT for training aircraft is/will be effected from
A. 30th April 1992.
B. 31st July 1992.
C. 31st December 1992.
D. 31st December 1993.
448. Aeroplane on flight over water shall be provided with one approved life jacket for each person on
board
A. when flown beyond 35 nautical miles.
B. when flown beyond 35 nautical miles away from the land.
C. when the take off approach path is so disposed over water that in the event of a mishap there would be a
possibility of ditching.
D. All are correct.
449. Two sets of portable, water resistant, self-survival radio equpment operated on VHF shall be carried
on board on long range over water flights by all
A. aircraft.
B. private aircraft only.
C. public transport aircraft only.
D. non-schedule operators.
451. Aircraft certificated for night flying shall have navigation light as
A. red light on the right tip side and green light on left tip side and red light near the tail.
B. red light on the left tip side and green light on right tip side and red light near the tail.
C. red light on the left tip side and green light on the right tip side and white light near the tail.
D. All are correct.
454. All jet aircraft imported in to the country for public transport shall be equpped with digital flight data
recorder (DFDR) capable of recording minimum of
A. 7 parameter continously for 25 hours.
B. 15 parameter continously for 25 hours.
C. 25 parameter continously for 25 hours.
D. 33 parameter continously for 25 hours.
456. An anti-collision light, intended to attract attention to the aircraft is mandatory for all aircraft
A. having AUW of 3000 kg and above.
B. having AUW of 5700 kg and above.
C. having AUW of 15000 kg and above.
D. All are correct.
457. For flight on which licensed navigator is required according to rules drift indicator is mandatory for
machines with a seating capacity of more than
A. 100 persons.
B. 30 persons.
C. 10 persons.
D. 5 persons.
458. Unpressurised aeroplanes shall not be operated at altitude at which the atmosphere pressure in flight
crew/passenger compartments will be less than
A. 700 metres.
B. 600 metres.
C. 375 metres.
D. All are correct.
459. Whenever a pressurised aeroplane flies at analtitude of 10000 to 13000 feet it shall carry sufficient
stored breathing oxygen for
A. all crew members and passengers.
B. pilot and co-pilot only.
C. all crew members and 30% passengers.
D. all crew members and 10% passengers.
460. All pressurised aeroplanes are equpped with a device to provide positive warning to the pilot of any
dangerous loss of pressurisation when they fly at an altitude of
A. 4000 metres.
B. 7600 metres.
C. 10000 metres.
D. 13000 metres.
467. The requirement of ELT operating on 406.0 MHZ is/will be mandatory from
A. 30th April 1992.
B. 31st December 1992.
C. 31st December 1993.
D. None is correct.
468. Spare electrical fuses of appropriate ratings for replacement of those accessible in flight are carried on
board. Their numbers should be at least
A. 1 of each rating.
B. 2 of each rating.
C. 3 of each rating.
D. 4 of each rating.
469. The radio equipment installed on India registered aircraft shall be operated with
A. consent of DGCA.
B. a license issued under the Indian Telegraph Act of 1895 and amended from time to time.
C. a licence issued under the Indian Telegraph Act of 1885 and amended from time to time.
D. None is correct.
471. The pilot friction of compass shall be determined by deflecting the compass needle 10 degrees and
allowing it to return to the magnetic Meridian. The change in indication from the original heading shall not
exceed
A. one degree.
B. two degrees.
C. three degrees.
D. five degrees.
472. Helicopter flying under IFR condition should carry the following amount of fuel
A. amount to reach the destination.
B. as in (a), also to go to another place if it cannot land at destination.
C. as in (b) additionally the helicopter to fly for 45 minutes at straight and normal flight with cruise speed.
D. None of above.
473. Transistorised or IC equipped radio comm has to be certified in case of non-scheduled aerial work
aircraft
A. 200 hours/180 days.
B. 50 hours/30 days.
C. 25 hours/15 days.
D. 100 hours/90 days.
477. For certification of ignition apparatus of light aircraft the AME should have his licence in
A. Category 'A'.
B. Category 'B'.
C. Category 'C'.
D. Category 'X'.
479. Application for appearing in the AME licence examination is submitted on from
A. CA 9.
B. CA 9 (Revised).
C. CA 9 (annex I).
D. CA 9 (Appendix A).
484. Defence personnel appearing in AME licence exam are exempted from appearing in
A. paper I, II, III.
B. paper II, III.
C. multiple chioce question of Paper I, II, III.
D. multiple choice question of paper II, III.
485. Those applicants who are not engaged in any organisation but meet all the requirements for appearing
in the AME licence exam
A. can't appear in the AME licence exam.
B. can't appear in the AME licence exam after obtaining permission from the RAO.
C. can appear in the AME licence exam after getting his form forwarded by the QCM of the organisatioin
he last worked.
D. may directly send their application to Director of Airworthiness (CEO) New Delhi.
486. The candidates who have passed all the written papers and are due to appear in oral-cum-practical test
for issue or extension of AME licence will be intimated and CEO will issue for their oral form
A. CA 73 to the QCM of the candidate's organisation.
B. CA 73 to the RAO of candidate's region.
C. CA 63 to the RAO of candidate's region.
D. CA 73 to the candidate.
487. DGCA will recognize the approved course of a foreign country provided it has been approved by that
country and is
A. of two months' duration.
B. of three months' duration for heavy aircraft.
C. of one month duration for heavy aircraft.
D. of one month duration for light aircraft.
488. AME licence for helicopter in category 'A' & 'C' is issued in combined form whose
A. AUW is below 5700 kg.
B. AUW is below 3000 kg.
C. AUW is below 2000 kg.
D. None is correct.
489. A combined specific paper for airframe and engine is undertaken for helicopter whose
A. AUW is below 15000 kg.
B. AUW is below 5700 kg.
C. AUW is below 3000 kg.
D. AUW is below 2000 kg.
492. Certification of electrical system for condition, proper functioning and rectification of minor defects of
helicopter fall under purview of AME licensed in
A. category 'A'.
B. category 'B'.
C. category 'E'.
D. category 'X'.
494. A candidate applying for endorsement in category 'A' will be exempted from appearing in general
paper III if he
A. has vast experience.
B. has open rating in category 'D'.
C. has endorsement in category 'C' and 'D'.
D. has AME licence in category 'B' for the type of aircraft for which endorsement is required.
495. According to appendix 'A' of CAR series 'L' part IV group V contains
A. pressurised twin turbine engine aeroplane not exceeding 5700 kg AUW.
B. pressurised twin piston engine aeroplane not exceeding 5700 kg AUW.
C. piston engine helicopter not exceeding 5700 kg AUW.
D. Both a and b are correct.
496. In accordance with CAR series L Part IV all turbine engine helicopter not exceeding 3000 kg AUW
comes under
A. group IV.
B. group V.
C. group VI.
D. group VII.
497. Turbojet/Turbofan engines in accordance with CAR series L part IV appendix 'B' are in
A. group IV.
B. group V.
C. group VI.
D. group VII.
499. The privileges of AME licence shall be exercised only in respect of such operation
A. and aircraft as are entered on his licence.
B. and airframes, powerplants, aircraft systems including electrical instruments and radio systems and
component as are entered on his licence.
C. Both a and b are correct.
D. None is correct.
501. A rating in category 'A' entitles the AME licence holder for
A. certification of major modification.
B. certification of major repair.
C. certification of minor repair.
D. certification of replacement of approved components.
502. A rating in category 'A' entitles the AME licence holder for
A. certification of major modification.
B. certification of major repair.
C. certification of replacement of approved components.
D. All are correct.
503. The holder of category 'A' licence for light aircraft is entitled to issue
A. certificate of maintenance for instruments.
B. certificate of maintenance for electrical systems.
C. certificate of maintenance for autopilots.
D. All are correct.
508. If an AME has certificated the work on appropraite procedure sheets and is on outstation duty then the
log book entry on his behalf can be made by
A. any other AME.
B. Chief Engineer.
C. Quality Control Manager.
D. All are correct.
510. Omnibus endorsement in respect of AME licence in category 'A' & 'B' is given to cover
A. single engine airplanes with an AUW below 5700 kg.
B. twin engine airplanes with an AUW below 5700 kg.
C. twin engine airplanes with an AUW below 3000 kg.
D. single engine airplanes with an AUW below 3000 kg.
511. 'Open' rating in category 'D' is given for piston engines not exceeding
A. 500 BHP.
B. 400 BHP.
C. 300 BHP.
D. 250 BHP.
512. 'Open' rating in cat 'R' and 'X' is given for aircrafts
A. with AUW below 15000 kg.
B. with AUW below 5700 kg.
C. with AUW below 3000 kg.
D. 'open' rating in cat 'X' is not given.
513. For obtaining an open rating on single engine aircraft of all metal contruction with AUW below 3000
kg an AME should
A. have held an AME licence for 5 years continuously.
B. have at least 5 types of aeroplanes endorsed on his licence.
C. as in 'b' the weight of 3 aeroplanes should not exceed 3000 kg.
D. All are correct.
514. For 'open rating endorsement' on all single engined aircraft of composite construction with an AUW
not exceedign 3000 kg the applicant should have
A. held an AME licence in cat A/B for five years continuously.
B. alleast three types of aeroplanes of composite construction of which at least two should be single
engined aircraft with AUW not exceeding 3000 kg.
C. as in 'b' and licenced endorsed in cat A/B as applicable.
D. All are correct.
515. An applicant desirous of having an open rating in category 'R" for aircraft below 5.700 kg AUW must
have
A. held an AME 'R' licence for three years continuously.
B. held an AME 'R' licence for five years continuously.
C. Both a and b are correct.
D. None is correct.
517. An organisation seeking approval for cadmium plating will submit to DGCA
A. three specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg.
B. three specimens of 8"x2"x16swg.
C. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar.
D. all of the above.
518. An organisation seeking approval for any electroplating will submit to DGCA
A. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar.
B. three specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg.
C. twelve specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg.
D. None of the above.
519. A firm seeking approval for hand chromium plating has to submt
A. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar.
B. three specimens of 12"x1/2" round bar.
C. three specimens of 12"x1" round bar.
D. three specimens of 6"x1" round bar.
520. A certificate issued in respect of a complete aircraft by appropriately licensed AME/AME's approved
or authorised persons certifying that the aircraft has been inspected as per approved schedule and is
airworthy in all respects and is safe for flight for a period specified in the certificate, is called
A. certificate of flight release.
B. certificate of flight approval.
C. release note.
D. certificate of maintenance.
521. An organisation undertaking calibration of instruments of master gauges and tools as applied to the
activities of CAD is approved in
A. catory 'A'.
B. catory 'D'.
C. catory 'F'.
D. catory 'E'.
525. The number allotted to a petroleum product which is considered as one lot for sampling and listing is
called
A. serial number.
B. batch number.
C. part number.
D. identification number.
526. Aviation fuel consigned for storage prior to loading into organisation fueling equipment shall be
certified on
A. approved release note quoting batch no.
B. test report number and specification.
C. Both a and b are correct.
D. None of them is correct.
527. The Indian Oil refueling station shall issue voucher to the customer with each consignment of aviation
fuel
A. to certify the quality of the product.
B. to certify the quantity of the product.
C. to certify the contents of the product.
D. None of the above.
530. Stores where airworthy and serviceable materials, awaiting evidence of having been received from
approved sources are stocked is called
A. stand-by store.
B. quarantine store.
C. airworthiness store.
D. bonded store.
532. Alteration to check-list on the basis of operator's own experience must be carried only after obtaining
the concurrence of
A. DGCA.
B. RAO.
C. Manufacturer.
D. FAA.
536. Any part, the soundness and correct functioning of which when fitted on an aircraft is essential to the
continues airworthiness or safety of the aircraft or its occupants is termed as
A. aircraft system.
B. aircraft component.
C. aircraft item.
D. All the above.
537. A condition existing in an aircraft or aircraft component arising out of any cause other than damage
which would preclude it or another aircraft component from performing their intended function that would
reduce the expected service life of the aircraft or aircraft component is termed as
A. snag.
B. P D R.
C. defect.
D. minor defect.
540. A defect of such a nature that reduces the safety of the aircraft or its occupants and includes defects
discovered as a result of the occurrence of any emergency or in the course of normal operation or
maintenance is called
A. repetitive defect.
B. minor defect.
C. major defect.
D. defect.
542. An aircraft operator who operates its fleet whole or part of it as per published schedule is known as a
A. normal operator.
B. private operator.
C. schedule operator.
D. non-schedule operator.
544. All particulars of the initial information format of defect report shall be submitted by the operator to
the RAO
A. within one month.
B. within four months.
C. within 7 days.
D. within 15 days.
551. Records associated with the defect shall be preserved for a period of
A. two weeks.
B. six weeks.
C. one year.
D. ten years.
552. Component associated with major defect shall be preserved for a period of
A. one week from the date of intimation of defect.
B. two weeks from the date of intimation of defect.
C. three weeks from the date of intimation of defect.
D. need not be preserved.
553. Failure of a component or a system that results in taking emergency action in flight is a
A. defect.
B. major defect.
C. repetitive defect.
D. minor defet.
556. Recording of in-flight instrument readings and reporting of flight defect is contained in CAR
A. series A part II.
B. series C part I.
C. series C part II.
D. series D part II.
557. Recording of all parameters readings, as indicated by the respective instruments under appropriate
columns of the approved flight report including the A.V.M. readings is the responsibility of
A. AME.
B. QCM.
C. Flight crew.
D. Chief Engineer.
560. Defects observed at a place away from the normal base are recorded in
A. JLB.
B. airframe log book, section III.
C. JLB, (col XI).
D. defect register.
566. After initial reporting of major defects to the regional airworthiness office, the remaining detailed
information must be furnished within
A. 7 days in an approved defect report form.
B. 4 months, after awaiting investigation report.
C. as in (a) followed by a defect investigation report within 4 months of the occurrence of the defect.
D. a period stated in the quality control manual.
567. After the completion of 1st flight the pilot has not observed any defect…
A. the flight release shall be issued after 'NIL' entry been signed and dated by crew.
B. the flight release can be issued after carrying out engg. Maintenance.
C. the AME can write 'NIL' on behalf of pilot.
D. the 'NIL' report need not be signed.
569. For making changes in maintenance control by reliability programme you need the due approval of
A. owner of aircraft.
B. operator of aircraft.
C. airworthiness authorities.
D. C.E.M./QCM.
572. To get an organisation approved under approval system the organisation has to
A. fill CA-182 form.
B. fill one form and offer for inspection to RAO.
C. submit the form to DGCA headquarter for inspection and approval.
D. Both b & c are correct.
573. Entry in log book can be signed
A. by appropriately licensed AME.
B. by a technician.
C. by key persons of organisation.
D. by an AME having vast experience.
576. After completion of test flight pilot has not observed any defect
A. the flight release shall be issued after 'NIL' entry has been signed and dated by crew.
B. the flight release can be issued after carrying out engineering maintenance.
C. the AME can write NIL on behalf of pilot.
D. the NIL report need not be signed.
577. Amendment of quality control-cum-maintenance system manual in accordance with latest issues of
CAR are the responsibility of
A. CEM/QCM.
B. airworthiness authorities.
C. owner of the aircraft.
D. operator of the aircraft.
578. Any commercial watchmaker/watch repairing agencies are permitted to overhaul/repair the
clock/watches installed on aircraft having AUW below
A. 15000 Kgs.
B. no aircraft is permitted to have the watch repaired from commercial watch maker.
C. 2000 kgs.
D. 3000 kgs.
579. As per CAR series E part I storing & distribution of previously certified aircraft/part, by a firm is
approved in
A. category 'C'.
B. category 'D'.
C. category 'A'.
D. category 'F'.
580. Rejection note is a document issued by an approved organisation for the purpose of advising details of
rejection of aircraft goods/parts
A. for which high prices quoted.
B. common to automobile industry.
C. ground eqiupment.
D. which fails to meet applicable requirement.
581. When an approved flight manual is carried on board the aircraft to form a part of the C of A is issued
on form
A. CA 23.
B. CA 23A.
C. CA 56.
D. CA 57.
582. Certification of maintenance release of aircraft component after major maintenance for aircraft AUW
of 15000 kg and above can be done by
A. any authorised person with appropriate BAMEC and 3 years experience in the specific shop.
B. any person having appropriate BAMEC with requisite experience in specific training and QCM
approval.
C. the key person of the concerned shop.
D. Any one of above as the circumstances demand.
583. The DGCA can validate the type certificate of an imported component provided
A. it belongs to an aircraft issued with C of A by the airworthiness authority of the country of
manufacturer.
B. it meets DGCA's standard.
C. it is approved by CAA/FAA only.
D. Both A and b and correct.
586. The chief instructor or his deputy shall keep the records of
A. progress records in respect of all students attending ab-initio courses.
B. progress records in respect of all students attending ab-initio courses of more than two months duration.
C. progress records in respect of all students attending ab-initio courses of any duration.
D. Both a and b are correct.
587. Examination papers of an approved training school shall be preserved for a period of
A. three months from the date of examination.
B. six months from the date of examination.
C. nine months from the date of examination.
D. twelve months from the date of examination.
589. Instructors who are employed full time on instructional duties relating to specific types of
aircraft/engine/equipment shall have job experience of
A. not less than 100 hrs in a year (2 months).
B. not less than 200 hrs in a year (4 months).
C. not less than 500 hrs in a year (6 months).
D. not less than 1000 hrs in a year (1 year).
590. Whenever an approved school introduces a new course or modifies the existing course DGCA should
be informed at least
A. two weeks in advance.
B. two months in advance.
C. one month in advance.
D. not required to be informed.
595. Rule 5 of the aircraft rules requires than no person shall fly any aircraft unless
A. it has been registered.
B. it bears nationality & registration.
C. it bears name & address of the owner.
D. All are correct.
596. The nationality and registration mark should be affixed on the aircraft in accordance with aircraft rule
A. 37.
B. 30.
C. 35.
D. 33.
603. When an aircraft is solid to another person or company or ceases to be owned by the owner indicated
on its certificate of registration its registration is deemed to have been cancelled in accordance with
A. rule 30.
B. rule 28.
C. rule 28 (appendix A).
D. rule 33.
604. When a person buys an old aircraft already registered in India then the certificate of registration must
be accompanied by
A. the previous certificate of registration duly endorsed on the reverse by the old owner.
B. an affidavit duly authenticated by notary public/oath commissioner from the owner confirming his
ownership.
C. an affidavit indicating that he has sold the aircraft to the new owner and has received the sale proceeds
in the full.
D. All are correct.
606. For issue of a duplicate certificate of registration the owner has to apply to
A. RAO.
B. DGCA.
C. DAI.
D. All of the above.
607. When C of R of Indian registered aircraft is lost, for issuance of a duplicate C or R the owner has
apply along with
A. mutilated C of A.
B. photostat copy of C or R.
C. original C of A.
D. the prescribed fees.
608. A register of all civil aircraft registered in India is maintained at
A. Ministry of Civil Aviation.
B. DGCA.
C. HAL.
D. All of them are correct.
610. The size and method of affixing the registration marking is given in
A. CAR series F part II.
B. CAR series F part III.
C. car SERIES X part I.
D. None of the above.
611. Procedure for issue/revalidation of type certificate of aircraft and its Engines/propeller is contained in
A. CAR series E part II.
B. CAR series E part III.
C. CAR series F part II.
D. CAR series F part III.
613. DGCA issues type certificate to engine/propeller manufactured in India under the purview of aircraft
rules
A. 49A.
B. 49B.
C. 49C.
D. 49.
614. Application for issue/revalidation of type certificate for aircraft is to be submitted in the form as in
A. IAR 49.
B. IAR 49 c Annexure II.
C. CAR series F part II annexure U.
D. CAR series F part II Annexure II.
615. Application for revalidation of type certificate of rotor craft is submitted in the form as per the
A. CAR series F part I annexure I.
B. CAR series F part I annexure II.
C. CAR series F part II annexure II.
D. CAR series F part II annexure I.
616. For revalidation of type certificate of an imported light and transport aircraft the DGCA confirms that
the aircraft meets with the requirements of
A. FAR 23 & 25.
B. BCAR 23 & JAR 25.
C. FAR 27 & 29.
D. Both a and b are correct.
617. Type certificate of a rotor craft imported in India can be revalidated by the DGCA if its design and
construction confirms with the
A. FAR 23 & 25.
B. BCAR 23 & JAR 25.
C. FAR 27 & 29.
D. BCAR 27 & 29.
618. An aero engine manufactured outside India can be type certificated by the DGCA if it confirms to
A. FAR 33.
B. JAR 33.
C. FAR 30.
D. Both a and c are correct.
619. DGCA revalidates the type certificate in respect of engine/propeller under the purview of
A. Aircraft rule 49.
B. Aircraft rule 49A.
C. Aircraft rule 49B.
D. Aircraft rule 49C.
620. For revalidation of type certificate of the aircraft imported to India which of the following document is
not required
A. type-certificate.
B. type-design datasheet.
C. the basis on ETOPS certification if applicable.
D. Quality Control & Maintenance system manual.
621. Before revalidation of type certificate DGCA may visit the country of manufacturer
A. to discuss specific design/manufacturing issues with the representative of the manufacturer.
B. to discuss specific design/manufacturing issues with the airworthiness authority of the country of
manufacturer.
C. Both a and b are correct.
D. Both a and b are not correct.
623. Prior to carrying out the test to substantiate the design the manufacturer shall submit to DGCA
A. test flight report of the aircraft.
B. test flight schedule of scrutiny and approval.
C. test schedule of scrutiny and approval.
D. None of the above is correct.
624. The certification of aircraft/aircraft component manufactured in India shall be done by approved
authorised person as per
A. aircraft rule 53.
B. aircraft rule 53A.
C. aircraft rule 53B.
D. aircraft rule 53C.
625. All relevant inspection records concerning manufacture of the aircraft shall be preserved for a period
of
A. 1 year.
B. 2 years.
C. 5 years.
D. 10 years.
626. The test flight of a newly manufactured aircraft shall be carried out as in accordance with
A. form CA 57.
B. form CA 56.
C. approved manufacturer test flight schedule.
D. test flight schedule approved by the DGCA.
631. A person holding open rating endorsement on his AME licence can exercise his privileges
A. straight way on a new aircraft.
B. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft for a minimum period of six months.
C. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft for a minimum period of three months.
D. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft for a minimum period of one month.
632. For renewal of AME licence the applicant has to apply on form
A. CA 29.
B. CA 29 (revised).
C. CA 68 B.
D. CA 68 A.
633. AME's licence will be renewed only if in the preceding 24 months he has been engaged in aeronautical
engineering duties for a period of
A. 24 months.
B. 18 months.
C. 12 months.
D. 6 months.
634. Which of the following AME's will be considered to be employed in AME activity and will be
considered for renewal of their licences
A. refuelling operation of approved aircraft fuel vendors.
B. as a member of flying crew.
C. approved organisation stocking aircraft components.
D. All of the above.
635. An AME to keep his licence valid will have to submit a medical certificate
A. every 6 months.
B. every 12 months.
C. every 24 months.
D. it depends on the age of AME.
636. When an AME licence has remained lapsed for a period of more than one year but less than two years,
his licence can be renewed after
A. an oral check by the RAO.
B. AME has appeared in the specific paper I.e. paper IV.
C. a warning to the AME.
D. All are correct.
638. If an AME submits his licence between 15 days to 30 days after expiry
A. it will be renewed with a warning to AME.
B. it will be renewed from the date of receipt.
C. it will be renewed from the date of last validity.
D. None is correct.
646. If authorisation is wanted for an aircraft having all AUW exceeding 5700 kg then the AME must
A. possess licence in category B.
B. possess at least 6 months practical experience on similar type of aircraft.
C. pass a familiatisation course on the aircraft with at least 70% marks in the examination.
D. All are correct.
655. Flight Engineer Examiner should have at least 500 hours flight experience of which not less than
A. 100 hours should be during six months preceding the date of application.
B. 100 hours should be during 12 months preceding the date of application.
C. 50 hours should be during 12 months preceding the date of application.
D. 50 hours should be during six months preceding the date of application.
657. A Flight Engineer Examiner's appointment may be renewed subject to the condition that he has
A. 50 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months.
B. 25 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months.
C. 20 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months.
D. 10 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months.
659. In order to seek approved welder's certificate, apart from other requirements the candidate is required
to submit
A. two different test pieces, as per DGCA requirements.
B. three different test pieces, as per FAA requirements.
C. three different test pieces, as per CAR series L part VI.
D. two one test piece, as per CAR series L part VI.
663. GETS is eligible to appear for paper I of AME/BAMEC examination after the completion of
A. 6 months of training.
B. 12 months of training.
C. 18 months of training.
D. 24 months of training.
669. GETS candidate fails in three oral-cum-practicual examinations, he again undergoes a refresher course
and will be again eligible for
A. three oral-cum-practical examinations.
B. two oral-cum-practical examinations.
C. only one oral-cum-practical examination.
D. None is correct.
670. If a GETS candidate fails in oral-cum-practical test again after taking the refresher course
A. he will get two more chances to appear in oral-cum-practical test.
B. he will get one more chance to appear in oral-cum-practical test.
C. he will have to take the main course again.
D. All are correct.
673. An AME will have to pay no fees for issuance of a duplicate AME licence if
A. the licence is more than 25 years old.
B. the licence is more than 20 years old.
C. the licence is more than 10 years old.
D. the licence is more than 5 years old.
675. Mandatory modifications/inspections are carried out in accordance with aircraft rule
A. 49A.
B. 49D.
C. 50A.
D. 50D.
680. DGCA will declare only those service bulletins/instructions as mandatory in respect of those
A. whom DGCA thinks so.
B. are issued in red colour.
C. in respect of which AD's are issued.
D. None of the above.
682. A consolidated list of all mandatory/modifications /inspections of aircraft engines and equipment are
compiled and distributed by
A. DGCA.
B. RAO.
C. manufacturer.
D. approved organisation.
684. CAR series 'O' part I deals with minimum requirements to be compiled with by operator engaged in
A. schedule operator.
B. non-schedule operator.
C. private aircraft.
D. All are correct.
685. Aircraft rule 140 requires than all aircraft owners/operators shall comply with
A. the engineering requirements as specified by the DGCA.
B. the maintenance requirements as specified by the DGCA.
C. the safety requirements as specified by the DGCA.
D. All are correct.
687. Single engined aircraft with retractable undercarriage shall not be used in
A. schedule, VFR operation.
B. non-schedule VFR operation.
C. non-schedule night operation.
D. All are correct.
688. A multi-engined aircraft when loaded to the maximum gross weight shall be capable of maintaining
level flight with one engine inoperative at an altitude of not less than
A. 2000 feet above the valley level at the highest point on the airroute.
B. 1000 feet above the valley level at the highest point on the airroute.
C. 3000 feet above the water.
D. Both a and c are correct.
689. Operation manual is not a necessary requirement of
A. non-schedule operator.
B. schedule operator.
C. flying training aircraft.
D. private aircraft.
690. The maximum flight time and flight duty periods of flight crew members is contained in
A. quality control manual.
B. maintenance system manual.
C. operation manual.
D. All are correct.
691. The maximum flight altitude for each route as required for scheduled operations forms a part of
A. operation manual.
B. route guide.
C. flight manual.
D. All are correct.
693. Information which will enable the pilot in command to determine whether the flight may be continued
should any instrument have become inoperative is in
A. flight manual.
B. emergency check list.
C. operation manual.
D. all are correct.
694. In the event of conflict between the contents of flight crew operation manual and airplane flight
manual then precedence will be given to
A. operation manual.
B. flight manual.
C. flight crew operation manual.
D. any one can be accepted.
695. For operation of single engined aircraft there shall be an emergency landing ground at intervals of not
more than
A. 150 miles.
B. 260 miles.
C. 150 km.
D. 260 km.
696. When an aircraft is landing under INE, it shall be provided with a radio equipment capable of
receiving signals
A. from VOR station.
B. from ATC transponder.
C. providing guidance to a point from which visual landing can be effected.
D. from ILS system.
697. The required number of aircrew on a licensed air transport service is found in aircraft
A. flight manual.
B. C of A.
C. C or R.
D. Both a and b are correct.
698. All pilots shall demonstrate to an examiner approved by the DGCA that they are familiar
A. with its loading.
B. with ATC system.
C. a and b are correct.
D. None is correct.
700. All pilots while engaged on a licensed air transport service shall undergo a local proficiency check
A. once a year.
B. once in two years.
C. twice a year.
D. None is correct.
701. Proficiency check of licenced air transport service pilots shall be carried out at an interval of
A. not less than 4 months and not more than 8 months.
B. not less than 3 months and not more than 6 months.
C. not less than 6 months and not more than 8 months.
D. not less than 3 months and not more than 8 months.
703. The IR check of a pilot carried out by an approved check pilot includes
A. let down procedure applicable to the aerodrome in use.
B. recovery from spins.
C. recovery from loops.
D. All are correct.
704. During an IR check the pilot carries out 180 degree turns with 30 degree bank to port and starboard
variation in height shall not exceed
A. 100 feet.
B. 150 feet.
C. 200 feet.
D. 300 feet.
706. The observed actual climb performance (in terms of feet per minute) shall in no case be lower by more
than
A. 2% of the 'expected climbed performance'.
B. 3% of the 'expected climbed performance'.
C. 5% of the 'expected climbed performance'.
D. 7% of the 'expected climbed performance'.
707. ROC correction factor graph for constant speed propellers is available in
A. CAR series C part I.
B. CAR series C part II.
C. CAR series T part I.
D. CAR series T part II.
708. The varaiables of ROC graphs as given in CAR series T part II are
A. pressure altitude (in metres), temp (degree F).
B. pressure altitude (in feet), temp (degree C).
C. pressure altitude (in feet), temp (degree F) and rate of climb factor.
D. pressure altitude (in metres), temp (degree F) and rate of climb factor.
712. The height of registration marks on the aircraft fuselage shall be at least
A. 60 cm.
B. 50 cm.
C. 20 cm.
D. 30 cm.
713. The width of each letter of (except letter I) and the length of hyphens shall be
A. two-third of the height of the letter.
B. three-fourth of the height of the letter.
C. three-eighth of the height of the letter.
D. one-half of the height of the letter.
715. The separation between the letter of registration marking shall not be less than
A. one-quarter of letters length.
B. one-quarter of letters width.
C. one-third of letters length.
D. one-third of letters width.
716. The separation between the letters of registration marking shall not be less than
A. one-quarter of letters height.
B. one-third of letters height.
C. two-third of letters height.
D. one-sixth of letters height.
722. The calculated C.G. position for 'take off & land before take off are computed for
A. aerial work aircraft.
B. private aricraft.
C. public transport aircraft.
D. All are correct.
723. The 'load sheets' of a schedule operator shall preserved for a period of
A. one month from the date of issue.
B. six months from the date of issue.
C. one year from the date of issue.
D. two years from the date of issue.
726. The words 'FIRST AID KIT' on first aid kit box shall by at least
A. 1 inch high.
B. 3/2 inches high.
C. 2 inches high.
D. 5/2 inches high.
727. First aid kit whenever used shall be replenished and certified by a
A. private medical practitioner.
B. Govt. medical practitioner.
C. any medical practitioner.
D. any medical practitioner holding M.B.B.S. degree.
728. The drugs contained in the physician's kit are intended to be administered only by
A. an air hostess.
B. PIC.
C. Co-pilot.
D. medical practitioner.
729. All aircraft with passenger-carrying capacity of 50 shall be equipped with
A. one first aid kit and one physician kit.
B. two first aid kits and one physician kit.
C. three first aid kits and one physician kit.
D. one first aid kit only.
730. Physician's kit is must for all aircraft with a seating capacity of more than
A. 150.
B. 100.
C. 60.
D. 20.
731. To check on the aircraft that the first aid kits are intact and properly sealed is the respnosibility of
A. QCM.
B. Pilot in command.
C. AME.
D. M.B.B.S. doctor.
732. The contents of the first aid kit of a public transport aircraft shall be examined by medical officer once
in
A. 6 months.
B. 12 months.
C. 18 months.
D. 24 months.
733. The contents of the first aid kit of training aircraft shall be examined by medical oficer once in
A. 6 months.
B. 12 months.
C. 18 months.
D. 24 months.
734. the training of the crew members of public transport aircraft engaged in schedule and non-schedule
services in application of first aid is undertaken by
A. owner/operator.
B. RAO.
C. DGCA.
D. Director of Air Safety.
737. Furnishing material used on normal category aircraft for carrying passengers and havign AUW as
15000 kg or above shall be
A. self-extinguishing.
B. at least flame-resistant.
C. flame resistant.
D. Both a and c are correct.
739. Resistant to fire (as given in appendix F to FAR 25 part II) aircraft seats shall be installed in all
aircraft
A. above 15,000 kg AUW.
B. above 5,700 kg AUW.
C. above 3,000 kg AUW.
D. above 2,000 kg AUW.
741. Requrest from grant of 'concessions' for use of material, effecting major modification is submitted to
A. DGCA.
B. RAO.
C. DGCA and RAO.
D. DAW.
743. Concession application for carrying out minor repairs to aircraft secondary structure is submitted to
A. QCM.
B. DGCA.
C. RAO.
D. DAW.
744. DGCA's prior approval is not required if a major repair is carried out strictly in conformity with the
standard aeronautical practice spelt out in
A. AC 43.13 manual, CAIP.
B. Civil Aircraft Inspection Procedures of CAA (UK).
C. BCAR 43, CAA 43, JAR 21.
D. None is correct.
747. The number of different log books requirement for an aircraft as stated in CAR series X-part VI are
A. three.
B. four.
C. five.
D. six.
749. Detailed record of replacements, major repair & overhaul of aircraft component or system is entered in
the
A. first section of the log book.
B. second section of the log book.
C. third section of the log book.
D. third section of the JLB.
750. The third section of the airframe log book will contain
A. routine inspection records.
B. modification records.
C. replacement records.
D. overhaul records.
753. When a component having its own log book is removed from aircraft, the reason for removal should
be entered in
A. the component relevant log book.
B. flight log book and aircraft log book.
C. aircraft log book.
D. Both a and c are correct.
754. When an engine is changed, the hours flown, the serial members and part numbers as appropriate of
'lifed' parts, which are not changed with the engine should be entered in
A. the relevant log book.
B. the log book of the replacement engine.
C. as in (b) and also in aircraft log book.
D. as in (c) and also in JLB.
755. When a pilot carries out an inspection schedule of below 25 hours its entries will be made in the
A. JLB and signed by the pilot.
B. flight log book & JLB and signed by the pilot.
C. relevant log book and signed by an appropriately licenced AME.
D. relevant log book and signed by the pilot.
757. When an aircraft meets with an accident and is damaged beyond repair, then the
A. aircraft log book is preserved for 2 years.
B. engine log book is preserved for 2 years.
C. propeller log book is preserved for 2 years.
D. All are correct.
758. Log book other than aircraft, engine & propeller log book are preserved for
A. two years after the aircraft is withdrawn from use.
B. ten years after the aircraft is withdrawn from use.
C. ten years.
D. ten years from the date of last entry.
759. When aircraft engine log book is not kept in the manner and form as prescribed in aircraft rule 67
A. the C of A will cease to be valid.
B. the C of A will be cancelled.
C. the C or R will be cancelled.
D. the FRC will be cancelled.
760. Valid documents are carried on board an India registered aircraft in accordance with
A. CAR series X part VII.
B. CAR series X part VII IAR 7.
C. CAR series X part VII IAR 57.
D. CAR series X part VII IAR 67.
761. 'Group A' documents carried on board an India registered aircraft are/is
A. C or R.
B. C of A.
C. FRC.
D. All are correct.
762. 'Group B' documents carried on board an India registered aircraft is/are
A. FRC.
B. Flight Manual.
C. C or R.
D. All are correct.
763. The documents as required in group A and group B shall be carried on board all aircraft
A. at all times.
B. with AUW below 5700 kg.
C. with AUW below 15,000 kg.
D. None is correct.
764. An aircraft which does not leave the vicinity of its starting place and returns without landing
elsewhere to its starting place, needs to carry
A. only documents, of group A.
B. only documents, of group B.
C. documents of group A and group B.
D. None is correct.
771. If at any time the DGCA feels that the safety of aircraft is jeopardised it can
A. cancel or suspend a type certificate.
B. endorse a type certificate.
C. incorporate a modification in type certificate.
D. All of them are correct.
772. For type certification of aircraft as per CAR series F part II annexure I
A. three unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted : size (10x15) cm.
B. three unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted: size not less than (10x15) cm.
C. five unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted : size (10x15) cm.
D. five unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted: size not less than (10x15) cm.
773. For obtaining type certificate of an aircraft the manufacturer has to submit the following dimension to
the DGCA
A. length of fuselage.
B. length over all, height over all.
C. a and b are correct.
D. None is correct.
774. For obtaining type certificate of a rotor craft the manufacturer has to submit the following dimension
to the DGCA
A. length of fuselage.
B. overall length.
C. diameter of main rotor and tail rotor, main rotor blade chord.
D. All are correct.
776. All aircraft registered in India must possess a current and valid C of A before it is flown is a
requirement as per
A. Aircraft rules 50.
B. Aircraft rules 30.
C. Aircraft rules 15.
D. Aircraft rules 50 A.
778. For issuing of C of A the DGCA has to satisfy that the aircraft/rotor craft manufactured/imported
meets the approved airworthiness standards of
A. BCAR 23 & JAR 25.
B. FAR 23 & FAR 25.
C. FAR 27 & FAR 29.
D. All are correct.
779. C of A aircraft which do not fulfill the airworthiness standards as laid down by the DGCA
A. cannot be issued/renewed.
B. the operator may consult the DGCA (DAW) before buying/importing such aircraft so that acceptance
standards is conveyed to him.
C. both a and b are correct.
D. none of them is correct.
782. In case any deficiency is noticed during inspection by airworthiness officer for issuance of C of A
A. the owner will be informed and he will be responsible for making up all the deficiencies pointed out.
B. C of A will not be issued.
C. the owner may be asked to carry out any modification/airworthiness directives which is considered
essential for the safety of the aircraft.
D. both a and c are correct.
783. For issuance of C of A partially filld Indian C of A will be forwarded by the DGCA
A. to the manufacturer for completion.
B. to the owner/operator for completion.
C. to the RAO/Sub-RAO for completion.
D. All are correct.
784. Validity of C of A is
A. for one year.
B. for six months.
C. restricted in case it is found necessary in the interest of safety of aircraft.
D. Both a and b are correct.
786. Validity of C of A
A. is for one year.
B. is restricted in case it is found necessary in the interest of safety of aircraft.
C. shall begin from the date of issue of original export C of A.
D. both a and c are correct.
789. Documents which must accompany the application for the issue of C of A are/is
A. form CA 83.
B. form CA 84.
C. documents as required vide AME notice no 2 of 1969.
D. All of the above.
799. Limit load factors for structures of aircraft classified in normal category are between
A. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1g & -1.5g.
B. +4.5g & +6g & -1.76g & -3g.
C. +3.5g & +5g & -1.5g & -3g.
D. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1.76g & -3g.
800. Limit load factors for structures of aircraft classified in aerobatic category are between
A. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1g & -1.5g.
B. +4.5g & +6g & -1.76g & -3g.
C. +3.5g & +5g & -1.5g & -3g.
D. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1.76g & -3g.
801. Aircraft and other aeronautical products to be eligible for export to India must meet the requirements
of
A. FAR 15.
B. FAR 26.
C. FAR AD (87-01-40).
D. FAR 21.
802. Class II & Class III aeronautical products for export to India should be accompanied by
A. export C of A.
B. airworthiness approval tag.
C. airworthiness approval tag issued under part 21 of FAA.
D. None of the above.
808. Class II & III aeronautical products imported in India must accompany
A. airworthiness approval tag.
B. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part R).
C. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part P).
D. compliance with FAR 20 (sub part L).
809. Engine/propellers imported in India must accompany
A. export C of A.
B. airworthiness approval tag.
C. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part L).
D. both a and c are correct.
814. In case of the C of A of the aircraft has expired then fcr renewal
A. the quantum of work required has to be decided by oficer incharge RAO.
B. the quantum of work required has to be dcided by operator/QCM.
C. the quantum of work required has to be decided by manufacturer.
D. None of the above.
815. For renewal of C of A the operator has to submit to RAO
A. All log books.
B. JLB.
C. Procedure sheets cf past one year.
D. All the above.
819. If mandatory modifications are not carried out as and when called for
A. the C of R will cease to be valid.
B. the C of A will cease to be valid.
C. the WT license will cease to be valid.
D. All are correct.
820. Aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and above are required to be maintained by
A. individual AMEs.
B. airlines.
C. approved organisation.
D. All are correct.
822. Certificate of maintenance review in case of aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and above is issued by
A. DGCA.
B. RAO.
C. QCM.
D. All are correct.
823. Certificate of maintenance review in case of aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and below is issued by
A. individual AMEs.
B. AME having his license endorsed in cat 'B' to cover the type of aircraft involved.
C. AME having his license endorsed in cat 'D' to cover the type of engine involved.
D. Both b and c are correct.
824. If the airworthiness officer completes the final inspection of the aircraft and its document after the
expiry of the C of A then the validity of the next currency of C of A
A. will start from the date of inspection.
B. will start from the expiry of last C of A.
C. will start from the date of submitting the application.
D. All are correct.
828. DGCA can suspend or cancel the C of A of an aircraft under the purview of
A. Aircraft rules 55.
B. Aircraft rules 55 (1).
C. Aircraft rules 55 (2).
D. Aircraft rules 55A.
831. Certification by AME 'R' for flight release of private aircraft may not be necessary if ground facilities
are not available till
A. inspection associated with next flight certfication.
B. next 100 hrs schedule.
C. align with any schedule within 50 hours.
D. Any one of the above.
843. The registration markings assigned to the microlight aircraft shall be painted
A. on the lower surface of the wings.
B. also on each side of fuselage.
C. or on the upper half of the vertical fin.
D. All are correct.
844. A permanent placard should be affixed on the microlight aircraft in full view of the occupants stating
that
A. valid for day flying only.
B. the aircraft has not been certificated for cloud flying.
C. the aircraft has not been certificated to international requirements.
D. All the above are correct.
846. In respect of microlight aircraft a pilot can carry out the pre flight and all inspections up to
A. 5 hours.
B. 10 hours.
C. 20 hours.
D. 25 hours.
847. Only appropriately licensed AME can perform any schedule higher than
A. 10 hours in case of microlight aircraft.
B. 15 hours in case of microlight aircraft.
C. 20 hours in case of microlight aircraft.
D. 25 hours in case of microlight aircraft.
849. A microlight aircraft shall not be flown over the entire air space over the territory of
A. Delhi.
B. Jammu and Kashmir.
C. Tamilnadu.
D. Punjab.
850. A microlight aircraft shall not be flown over the areas falling within
A. 10 km from international border.
B. 20 km from international border.
C. 25 km from international border.
D. 50 km from international border.
862. Only an AME can carry out any inspection schedule higher than
A. 10 hours in case of ballons.
B. 15 hours in case of ballons.
C. 25 hours in case of ballons.
D. 50 hours in case of ballons.
866. The operating of the balloon flight will only be undertaken during
A. day time under VFR condition.
B. past noon session.
C. pre noon session.
D. between sunrise to sunset.
870. All amendment incorporated in the flight manual of an imported aircraft shall be intimated to
A. RAO.
B. sub-RAO.
C. DGCA.
D. Both a and b are correct.
871. Which aircraft rule prohibits use of component items of equipments from being modified, repaired,
replaced, inspected or overhauled except by an approved person of contracting state whose approval is
recognised by the DGCA
A. Rule 60.
B. Rule 61.
C. Rule 56.
D. Rule 51.
872. Normally no parts should be used from the parts pooled beyond
A. 25 hours of operation.
B. 50 hours of operation.
C. 100 hours of operation.
D. 200 hours of operation.
873. The quantity of unusable fuel in most cases is included in the appropriate
A. flight manual.
B. QCM.
C. cockpit check list.
D. emergency check list.
875. Light aircraft for which the unusable fuel data is not available the procedure recommended to
determine, is
A. with aircraft in level flight altitude drawn the fuel system from the lowest point in the supply line.
B. thereafter measure the quantity of residual fuel in each tank.
C. then additional at least 5 litres of fuel per main tank shall be added to arrive at the zero datum for the
fuel quantity gauge.
D. All are correct.
885. Whenever wing fuelling is employed the nozzle of the hose shall be bonded
A. to the fuelling equipment.
B. to the fuelling equipment before filler capt is removed.
C. to the aircraft structure before filler capt is removed.
D. None is correct.
886. Fuelling operation shall cease when a turbo prop jet aircraft manoeuvres so as to bring the rear jet
outlets within
A. 50 metres of the aircraft.
B. 43 metres of the fuelling equipment.
C. 30 m,etres of the aircraft.
D. 33 metres of the aircraft fuelling equipment.
888. No photographic flash bulbs and electronic flash equipment shall be permitted to be used within
A. 5 metres of fuelling equipment.
B. 6 metres of fuelling equipment.
C. 15 metres of fuelling equipment.
D. 30 metres of fuelling equipment.
889. Fixed wing aircraft with a seating capacity of less than 20 shall
A. be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board.
B. not be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board.
C. be permitted to be refuelled with QCM consent.
D. None of them correct.
890. Fixed wing aircraft with a seating capacity of less than 20 shall
A. be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board.
B. not be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board.
C. be permitted to be refuelled with QCM consent.
D. None of them correct.
891. In case of fuel spillage during fuelling operation covering an area greater than 5 square metres, then all
persons shall be evacuated from the effected area to a place at least
A. 6 metres from the spillage.
B. 15 metres from the spillage.
C. 30 metres from the spillage.
D. 43 metres from the spillage.
892. Aircraft instruments shall be overhauled and inspected in accordance with the requirement of
A. CAR series I part I.
B. CAR series I part II.
C. CAR series I part III.
D. All the above are correct.
896. The test flight is not necessary for an engine change in an aircraft
A. having 4 engines.
B. having 2 engines.
C. having single engine.
D. only C above is wrong.
900. Aircraft having AUW less than 15000 kg should have seats upholstery, harness, belts etc. are made of
A. self-extinguishing materials.
B. flame resistance materials.
C. no smoking type materials.
D. flame proof materials.
903. If an aircraft makes a series of take-offs on the same day, the pre-flight inspection may be carried out
A. before each take-off.
B. after every three take-offs.
C. once before the first flight of the day.
D. None is correct.
904. Jet aircraft allowed to be imported into India for air taxi operations/charter hire for public transport
shall not
A. be more than 15 years in age.
B. be more than 10 years in age.
C. be more than 12 years in age.
D. None is correct.
905. Jet aircraft allowed to be imported into India by DGCA for air-taxi operations/charter hire for public
transport shall not
A. have completed 50,000 pressurization cycles.
B. have completed 45,000 pressurization cycles.
C. have completed 30,000 pressurization cycles.
D. have completed 40,000 pressurization cycles.
906. DGCA would not allow any aircraft to be imported for operation if it is more than
A. 50 years old.
B. 25 years old.
C. 20 years old.
D. 15 years old.
907. Turbo-prop aircraft allowed to be imported into India by DGCA for air taxi operation for public
transport shall not be
A. more than 20 years in age.
B. more than 15 years in age.
C. more than 10 years in age.
D. None is correct.
908. Turbo-prop aircraft allowed to be imported into India by DGCA for air taxi operation for public
transport shall not have
A. completed 50,000 pressurization cycles.
B. completed 45,000 pressurization cycles.
C. completed 40,000 pressurization cycles.
D. completed 30,000 pressurization cycles.
909. For the import of tools/equipments required for maintenance/testing etc. of imported aircraft the
importer
A. should contact FAA.
B. should contact CAA.
C. should contact DGCA.
D. should obtain No Objection Certificate from DGCA.
910. For the export of aircraft spares/items of equipment to be overhauled abroad in certain exigencies the
operator shall
A. obtain a No Objection Certificate from DGCA.
B. contact the aircraft manufacturer.
C. contact the airworthiness authority of place of manufacturer.
D. Both b and c are correct.
911. Fuel in delivery hoses should be recirculated if no fuel has been dispensed from on in relation for a
period of
A. 7 days.
B. 3 days.
C. 2 days.
D. 24 hours.
913. All-lined tank should be inspected for lining defects and internally inspected for cleanliness
A. every five years.
B. every three years.
C. every two years.
D. every year.
917. Barrelled AVGAS is fit for use in aircraft if it is stored for a period less than
A. 12 months.
B. 9 months.
C. 6 months.
D. 3 months.
918. Barelled ATF is fit for use in aircraft if it is stored for a period of less than
A. 12 months.
B. 9 months.
C. 6 months.
D. 3 months.
919. AVGAS should be dispensed direct into aircraft tanks only through
A. 100 mesh gauze.
B. 150 mesh gauze.
C. 180 mesh gauze.
D. 200 mesh gauze.
922. Master gauges for checking fuel samples shall be calibrated once in
A. 10 years.
B. 5 years.
C. 2 years.
D. once a year.
925. Tank bottom sample of ATF shall be tested for microbiological growth
A. once in two years.
B. once in 18 months.
C. once in a year.
D. once in 6 months.
927. Deliveries of AVGAS from the vehicles should be made through a micrfilter with a nominal rating of
A. 20 microns.
B. 15 microns.
C. 10 microns.
D. 5 microns.
928. Vehicles delivering aviation turbine fuels should be fitted with a microfilter or a filter separator
monitor with a nominal rating of
A. 20 microns.
B. 15 microns.
C. 10 microns.
D. 5 microns.
932. A powered hang glider at full power in level flight should not be capable of more than
A. 100 knots calibrated air speed.
B. 90 knots calibrated air speed.
C. 80 knots calibrated air speed.
D. 70 knots calibrated air speed.
933. Hang glider shall have a power-off stall speed not exceeding
A. 50 knots calibrated air speed.
B. 40 knots calibrated air speed.
C. 30 knots calibrated air speed.
D. 25 knots calibrated air speed.
937. Higher than 50 hours inspection schedules and overhaul of powered hang glider engine and its
components shall be carried out by
A. pilots.
B. AMES.
C. persons authorized by the DGCA.
D. None is correct.
938. Pre-flight inspection and inspection schedule upto 50 hours on powered hang glider is carried out by
A. pilot incharge.
B. AME.
C. person authorized by the DGCA.
D. None is correct.
940. The examiner/instructor for hang glider must be approved by DGCA and shall have
A. 50 hrs of hang glider.
B. 25 hrs of hang glider.
C. 10 hrs of hang glider.
D. 25 hrs of hang glider and at least 10 hours on dual machine.
943. Standard weight for CREW for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as
A. 85 kgs.
B. 75 kgs.
C. 70 kgs.
D. 65 kgs.
944. Standard weight for PASSENGER for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as
A. 85 kgs.
B. 75 kgs.
C. 70 kgs.
D. 65 kgs.
945. Standard weight for CHILDREN for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as
A. 50 kgs.
B. 40 kgs.
C. 35 kgs.
D. 30 kgs.
946. Standard weight for INFANTS for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as
A. 30 kgs.
B. 20 kgs.
C. 15 kgs.
D. 10 kgs.
947. The second copy of load and trip sheet shall be kept by the operator for a period of
A. 5 years.
B. 2 years.
C. 1 years.
D. 6 months.
951. An AME trainee clears paper I, II, III on HS 748 aircraft of AME's licence examination. The operator
will consider him for grant of approval only after
A. he clears the BAMEC in category 'PA'.
B. he has successfully completed a specific training subsequent to obtaining of the BAMEC from the
DGCA and adjugded fit for approval.
C. he has proved himself fit for approval before a board chaired by QCM.
D. None is correct.
952. In the event of an aircraft involved in an accident required to be notified under aircraft rules 68 of the
aircraft rule 1937
A. pilot in command of the effected aircraft can always exercise the privilege of his pilot's licence as long
as it is valid.
B. co-pilot can always exercise the privilege of his licence if he is permitted by the aircraft operator.
C. pilot in command and co-pilot can exercise the privilege of their licence only after obtaining special
authorisation from the DGCA.
D. None is correct.
955. According to IAR 1937 aerial work Aircraft means an aircraft used for
A. an industrial or commercial purpose or any other remunerative purpose.
B. as in (a) is not used for public transport.
C. as in (a) also used for public transport.
D. All are correct.
957. An aircraft whose support in flight is derived dynamically from the reaction on surfaces in motion
relative to the air is called
A. aerodyne.
B. aeroplane.
C. gyroplane.
D. aerostat.
958. An aricraft supported in the air statically and includes all airships and balloons is termed as
A. aerodyne.
B. aerostat.
C. gyrostat.
D. None of them.
959. Any machines which can derive support in the atmosphere from reaction of the air other than reactions
of the air against the earth surface is called
A. aeroplane.
B. aircraft.
C. aerostat.
D. aerodyne.
960. A power driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions
on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight is termed as
A. aerodyne.
B. aerostat.
C. aeroplane.
D. aircraft.
962. An aeroplane capable of taking off from and alighting on either land or a soled platform or water is
called a
A. seaplane.
B. gyroplane.
C. hydroplane.
D. amphibian.
963. Kite is an
A. aerodyne.
B. aircraft.
C. Both a and b are correct.
D. aerostat.
964. Balloon is
A. aerostat.
B. aerodyne.
C. kite.
D. All are correct.
965. 'Contracting state' means any state which is for the time being a party to
A. a convention on International Civil Aviation concluded at Chicago on December 7, 1944.
B. a suit on International Civil Aviation concluded at Chicago on December 7 1944.
C. an agreement on Indian Civil Aviation concluded at New York on December 7 1944.
D. an agreement on Indian Civil Aviation concluded at Delhi on December 7, 1944.
970. Arms and ammunitions can be carried by air only with the special permission of
A. director of Civil Aviation Security.
B. commissioner of Airport Security.
C. DGCA.
D. All are correct.
976. No paper containing printed matter shall be dropped from aircraft unless written permission of
A. District Magistrate is obtained.
B. Commissioner of Police is obtained.
C. Director Air Safety is obtained.
D. Both a and b are correct.
977. For aircraft having a seating capacity of not less than 10 and not more than 50 passengers the number
of cabin attendents required are
A. one.
B. two.
C. three.
D. four.
984. Passenger and crew's personal luggage shall be removed from a wrecked aircraft under the supervision
of
A. a magistrate.
B. an officer of police department.
C. an officer of CAD.
D. All are correct.
985. Mails from a wrecked aircraft shall be removed under the supervision of
A. a magistrate.
B. an officer of CAD.
C. an officer of post and telegraph department.
D. All are correct.
991. Air traffic control service means a service provided for purpose of
A. signalling aircraft.
B. preventing collisions between aircraft.
C. manoeuvring and obstruction.
D. All are correct.
995. An applicant for issuance of private pilot licence shall produce evidence of having flown
A. 15 hours solo.
B. 20 hours solo.
C. 25 hours solo.
D. 30 hours solo.
996. Cross country flight for issuance of PPL licence may be a flight to a point beyond
A. 10 nm from the aerodrome of departure.
B. 20 nm from the aerodrome of departure.
C. 30 nm from the aerodrome of departure.
D. 40 nm from the aerodrome of departure.
997. An applicant for issuance of private pilot must have at least
A. one full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other than the aerodrom of departure.
B. two full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other than the aerodrom of departure.
C. three full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other than the aerodrom of departure.
D. four full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other than the aerodrom of departure.
999. Night rating is valid only when the licence holder has carried out 5 take-off and 5 landing by night as
pilot in command within the
A. preceding 3 months.
B. preceding 6 months.
C. preceding 9 months.
D. preceding 12 months.
1000. When two aircraft are approaching head on or approximately so that there is a danger of collision
A. each shall alter its heading to the right.
B. each shall alter its heading to the left.
C. one shall dive and other shall climb.
D. all are correct.
1001. an overtaking aircraft is a aircraft that approaches another from the rear on a line forming an angle of
less than
A. 60 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter.
B. 70 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter.
C. 80 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter.
D. 90 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter.
1002. When two or more heavier than aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing
A. aircraft at higher altitude shall land first.
B. aircraft at lower altitude shall land first.
C. aircraft at higher altitude shall give way to aircraft at the lower altitude.
D. aircraft at lower altitude shall give way to aircraft at the higher altitude.
1004. VFR flight within a control zone shall not be conducted if the ground visibility is less than
A. 3 kms.
B. 5 kms.
C. 8 kms.
D. 10 kms.
1005. VFR flight within a control zone shall not be conducted if the ceiling is less than
A. 200 m.
B. 300 m.
C. 500 m.
D. 1000 m.
1006. Which of the signal means that grave and imminent danger threatens and immediate assistance is
requested
A. a parachute flare showing red light.
B. a signal sent by radio telegraphy saying "MAYDAY".
C. rocket or shells throwing red light.
D. All are correct.
1007. The two flag signals corresponding to the letter NC of the international code of signal means
A. urgency signal.
B. assistance signal.
C. distress signal.
D. All are correct.
1009. A signal said by a radio telegraphy consisting of spoken work "SECURITE" means
A. urgency signal.
B. distress signal.
C. safety signal.
D. All are correct.
1011. A steady red light directed towards the aircraft in flight means
A. aerodrome unsafe do not land.
B. do not land for the time being.
C. give way to other aircraft and continue circulating.
D. None is correct.
1014. A steady green light direted towards an aircraft on the ground means
A. cleared for taxi.
B. taxi clear of landing area in use.
C. cleared for take off.
D. return to dispersal.
1015. A series of red flashes directed towards an aircraft on the ground means
A. return to starting point on the aerodrome.
B. aerodrome unsafe do not land.
C. taxi clear of landing area in use.
D. returned for landing.
1016. A horizontal red square panel with yellow diagonals indicate that
A. landing at the aerodrome is prohibited.
B. landing at the aerodrome is prohibited and the prohibition is liable to be prolonged.
C. special precaution must be observed in approaching to land.
D. special precaution must be observed in landing.
1018. A horizontal white dumbel with black bar perpendicular to the shaft across each portion of the
dumbel indicates that aircraft are required
A. to land & take off on runway only.
B. other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways and taxiways.
C. taxi on taxi ways only.
D. Both a and b are correct.
1019. Crosses of white colour displayed horizontally on the manoeuvring area indicates that area is
A. fit for landing.
B. fit for movement of aircraft.
C. unfit for movement of aircraft.
D. None is correct.
1020. A black ball displayed on a mast and clearly visible to the aircraft on the manoeuvring area indicates
that
A. the direction of take off is to be decided by PIC.
B. the direction of take off is to be verified with the aerodrome control tower.
C. the aircraft can take off from any direction.
D. None is correct.
1021. The letter 'C' displayed vertically in black against yellow background indicates
A. the place at which weather information are available.
B. the place at which report concerning air traffic services are made.
C. the place at which catering facility is available.
D. None is correct.
1022. Whoever wilfully flies any aircraft in such a manner as to cause danger to any person or to any
property on land or water or in air shall be punishable with imprisonment up to
A. 3 months.
B. 6 months.
C. 9 months.
D. 12 months.
1023. A signal man repeatedly crosses arms above his head indicate
A. a straight ahead signal.
B. a stop signal.
C. power cut signal.
D. All are correct.
1024. Left arm downward, right arm repeatedly moved upward and backward is a signal for
A. turn to y9our left.
B. turn to your right.
C. start right engine.
D. start left engine.
1025. Arms down palm facing in-wards swing arms from extended position inwards in a signal for
A. chocks away.
B. insert chocks.
C. start moving.
D. cut power.
1026. Circular motion of right hand at head level with left arm pointing to the engine is a signal to
A. start engine.
B. start turning.
C. rate of turning.
D. slow turning.
1027. Either arm and hand level with shoulder, hand across throat, palm downward is signal for
A. slow down.
B. cut motor.
C. start engine.
D. None is correct.
1028. Arms down with palm towards ground then moved up and down several times is a signal for
A. slow down.
B. speed up.
C. expedite taxi.
D. None is correct.
1029. Arms down palms facing outwards swing arms outwards is a signal for
A. slow down.
B. cut motors.
C. chocks away.
D. insert chocks.
1030. Arms down with palms towards grounds, then either right or left hand waved up and down indicating
that
A. slow down motor on left side.
B. slow down motor on right side.
C. slow down motor on indicated side.
D. None is correct.
1031. Arms above head in vertical position with palms facing inwards is a signal for
A. all clear.
B. this bay.
C. straight back.
D. slow down.
1032. Arms above head in vertical position palms facing forward brought down quickly to horizontal
forward position repeating is a signal for
A. straight ahead.
B. straight back.
C. this bay.
D. all clear.
1033. For tail to star board point left arm down and right arm brought from overhead vertical position to
horizontal forward position repeating right arm movement
A. turn while backing.
B. straight back.
C. this bay.
D. all clear.
1035. Arms extended horizontally to the beckoning upwards with palms turned up is a signal for hovering
helicopter to
A. move side ways.
B. move down wards.
C. move up wards.
D. None is correct.
1036. Appropriate arm extended horizontally sideways in direction of movement and other arm swing in
front of body in same direction, in a repating movement is a signal for hovering helicopters to
A. move horizontally.
B. move partially.
C. move upwards.
D. move downwards.
1037. Arms crossed and extended downwards in front of the body is a signal for hovering helicopter to
A. land.
B. move horizontally.
C. move downwards.
D. move upwards.
1038. No pilot of a flying machine shall in his capacity as such pilot, fly for more than
A. 100 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days.
B. 125 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days.
C. 150 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days.
D. 75 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days.
1039. Log books of flight crew personnel shall be preserved for a period of not less than
A. 2 years for the date of last entry.
B. 3 years for the date of last entry.
C. 4 years for the date of last entry.
D. 5 years for the date of last entry.
1040. An open rating is given for all conventional types of aeroplanes having an AUW
A. not exceeding 450 kg.
B. not exceeding 500 kg.
C. not exceeding 1000 kg.
D. not exceeding 1500 kg.
1041. A pilot opting for open rating shall have not less than
A. 150 hours of flight time as PIC.
B. 200 hours of flight time as PIC.
C. 250 hours of flight time as PIC.
D. 500 hours of flight time as PIC.
1043. The projection on the earth surface of the path of an aircraft the direction of which at any point is
usually expressed in degrees from true north is called
A. true heading.
B. magnetic heading.
C. track.
D. None is correct.
1046. The period of validity of a CPL for a person over 40 years but below 45 years is
A. 24 months.
B. 18 months.
C. 12 months.
D. 6 months.
1047. A person for issue of CPL shall undergo cross country flying test by night which shall consist of a
flight on stipulated route of not less than
A. 60 mm, returning to place of departure without landing elsewhere.
B. 100 mm, returning to place of departure without landing elsewhere.
C. 120 mm, returning to place of departure without landing elsewhere.
D. None is correct.
1048. A person for issue of CPL shall undergo cross country flying test by day and shall consist of a flight
on a stipulated route of not less than
A. 150nm, with one full stop landing on designated aerodrome.
B. 200 nm, with one full stop landing on designated aerodrome.
C. 250 nm, with one full stop landing on designated aerodrome.
D. All are correct.
1049. Aircraft certified in experimental or amateur category are those which are built for
A. Development or Research.
B. Sports.
C. Education.
D. all are correct.
1050. Experimental or amateur built aircraft can be flown only by persons having at least
A. ATPL.
B. SCPL.
C. CPL.
D. PPL.
1051. DGCA inspection carried out in case of amateur built aircraft are
A. Pre-cover inspection.
B. Final Airworthiness Inspection.
C. Precover and Final Inspection.
D. None is correct.
1056. Experimental built aircraft will initially be limited to operation within an assigned flight test area for
at least
A. 50 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination.
B. 25 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination.
C. 10 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination.
D. 5 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination.
1057. Amateur built aircraft will initially be limited to operation within an assigned flight test area for at
least
A. 50 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination.
B. 40 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination.
C. 30 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination.
D. 20 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination.
1058. The acceptable standard of Quality Assurance for aircraft manufactured in India is
A. ISO 9000.
B. ISO 9001.
C. ISO 8000.
D. ISO 2000.
1060. Barreled AV Gas should be stored under cover, clear off the ground on their sides with the bungs
A. in the 3'O clock position.
B. in the 5'O clock position.
C. in the 7'O clock position.
D. in 3 or 9'O clock position.
1064. pressure Gauges, Thermometers, Hydrometers used for inspection of fuel should be calibrated every
A. 3 months.
B. 6 months.
C. 12 months.
D. 2 years.
1066. A clean room as per CAR series I Part IV in general should have a humidity level of not less than
A. 10%.
B. 20%.
C. 30%.
D. 40%.