Paper 1 - Artificial Intelligence

Paper 2 - Linux Server Administration

Paper 3 - Software Testing and Quality Assurance

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Paper 5 is - Architecting of IoT

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Paper 7 - Game Programming

Paper 1- Artificial Intelligence

 y of computations that make it possible to perceive, reason and act is
called ______The stud

A. Artificial Intelligence
B. Intelligence
C. Artificial Intelligence
D. Rational Intelligence
1
 Study of mind and its processes is called
A. Cognitive Science 
B. Cognitive Psychology
C. Cognitive Process
D. Cognitive Relativism
2

One that acts to achieve the best outcome is called

A. Rational Agent
B. Intelligent Agent
C. AgentPrudent 
D. Sagacious Agent
3

What would be the sensors for a taxi?

A. Safe,fast,legal
B. Roads,traffic,customers
C. Steering,accelerator,brake
D. Cameras,Sonar,GPS
4

Which component is responsible for making improvements ?

A. Learning element
B. Performance element
C. Critic
D. Problem generator
5

When we run a search forward from initial state and other backward from
the goal is called
A. Bidirectional search
B. Random search
C. Recursive BFS
D. BFS
6

What is brain imaging?

A. Observing the brain in action
B. Observing a person in action
C. Catch our own thoughts as they go by
D. Reflection of brain
7

Agent perceives its environment through

A. Brain
B. Sensors
C. Monitors
D. Actuators
8
 PEAS stands for
A. Perfora,Earth,Actuate,Sensors
B. Process,Earth,Actuate,Sensors
C. Performance,Environment,Actuators,Sensors
D. Perforation,Environment,Actuator,Sense
9

What would be the performance measure for an interactive English tutor?

A. Student’s score on test
B. Testing agency
C. Corrections
D. Keyboard entry
10

Which search method takes less memory?

a) Depth-First Search
b) Breadth-First search
c) Optimal search
d) Linear Search

11

Alan Turing developed a technique for determining whether a computer could

or could not demonstrate the artificial Intelligence, Presently, this technique is
called __________.
a) Turing Test
b) Algorithm
c) Boolean Algebra
d) Logarithm

12

Which of the following, is a component of an expert system?

a) inference engine
b) knowledge base

c) user interface
13 d) all of the mentioned

The performance of an agent can be improved by __________

a) Learning
b) Observing
c) Perceiving
14 d) None of the mentioned

External actions of the agent is selected by __________

a) Perceive
b) Performance
c) Learning
15 d) Actuator

16 The action of the Simple reflex agent completely depends upon __________
 a) Perception history
b) Current perception
c) Learning theory
d) Utility functions

What among the following is/are the example of the intelligent agent/agents?
a) Human
b) Robot
c) Autonomous Spacecraft
17 d) All of the mentioned

Which instruments are used for perceiving and acting upon the environment?
a) Sensors and Actuators
b) Sensors
c) Perceiver
18 d) None of the mentioned

What is meant by agent’s percept sequence?

a) Used to perceive the environment
b) Complete history of actuator
c) Complete history of perceived things
19 d) None of the mentioned

How many types of agents are there in artificial intelligence?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
20 d) 4

What is the rule of simple reflex agent?

a) Simple-action rule
b) Condition-action rule
c) Simple & Condition-action rule
d) None of the mentioned
Which of the following is an application of AI?
21

A. Gaming
B. Expert Systems
C. Vision Systems
22 D. All of the above

What is the main task of a problem-solving agent?

A. Solve the given problem and reach to goal
B. To find out which sequence of action will get it to the goal state
C. Both A and B
D. None of the Above
23
 What is Initial state + Goal state in Search Terminology?
A. Problem Space
B. Problem Instance
C. Problem Space Graph
D. Admissibility
24

Which data structure conveniently used to implement BFS?

A. Stacks
B. Queues
C. Priority Queues
D. None of the Above
25

Which of the following search algorithm searches forward from

initial state and backward from goal state till both meet to identify
a common state?
 
A. Uniform Cost Search
B. Iterative Deepening Depth-First Search
C. Bidirectional Search
D. None of the Above
26

When will Hill-Climbing algorithm terminate?

A. Stopping criterion met
B. Global Min/Max is achieved
C. No neighbor has higher value
D. All of the above
27

Which action sequences are used to achieve the agent’s goal?

a) Search
b) Plan
c) Retrieve
28 d) Both Search & Plan
 What is used for tracking uncertain events?
a) Filtering algorithm
b) Sensors
c) Actuators
29 d) None of the mentioned

Specify the agent architecture name that is used to capture all kinds of
actions.
a) Complex
b) Relational
c) Hybrid
30 d) None of the mentioned

What is the expansion if PEAS in task environment?

a) Peer, Environment, Actuators, Sense
b) Perceiving, Environment, Actuators, Sensors
c) Performance, Environment, Actuators, Sensors
31 d) None of the mentioned

What kind of observing environments are present in artificial intelligence?

a) Partial
b) Fully
c) Learning
32 d) Both Partial & Fully

What kind of environment is preferred in artificial intelligence?

a) Deterministic
b) Rational
c) Partial
33 d) Stochastic

Which environment is called as semi dynamic?

a) Environment does not change with the passage of time
b) Agent performance changes
c) Environment will be changed
d) Environment does not change with the passage of time, but Agent
34 performance changes

Which is used to provide the feedback to the learning element?

a) Critic
b) Actuators
c) Sensor
35 d) None of the mentioned

What is the main task of a problem-solving agent?

a) Solve the given problem and reach to goal
b) To find out which sequence of action will get it to the goal state
c) All of the mentioned
36 d) None of the mentioned

37 What is state space?

a) The whole problem
b) Your Definition to a problem
 c) Problem you design
d) Representing your problem with variable and parameter

The problem-solving agent with several immediate options of unknown value

can decide what to do by just examining different possible sequences of
actions that lead to states of known value, and then choosing the best
sequence. This process of looking for such a sequence is called Search.
a) True
38 b) False

A search algorithm takes _________ as an input and returns ________ as an

output.
a) Input, output
b) Problem, solution
c) Solution, problem
39 d) Parameters, sequence of actions

What will take place as the agent observes its interactions with the world?
a) Learning
b) Hearing
c) Perceiving
40 d) Speech

What is used in determining the nature of the learning problem?7

a) Environment
b) Feedback
c) Problem
41 d) All of the mentioned

Which is used to choose among multiple consistent hypotheses?

a) Razor
b) Ockham razor
c) Learning element
42 d) None of the mentioned

What will happen if the hypothesis space contains the true function?
a) Realizable
b) Unrealizable
c) Both Realizable & Unrealizable
43 d) None of the mentioned

What takes input as an object described by a set of attributes?

a) Tree
b) Graph
c) Decision graph
44 d) Decision tree

How the decision tree reaches its decision?

a) Single test
b) Two test
c) Sequence of test
45 d) No test
 Which of the following is the model used for learning?
a) Decision trees
b) Neural networks
c) Supervised Learning
46 d) All of the mentioned

Automated vehicle is an example of ______

a) Supervised learning
b) Unsupervised learning
c) Active learning
47 d) Reinforcement learning

Which of the following is an example of active learning?

a) News Recommender system
b) Dust cleaning machine
c) Automated vehicle
48 d) None of the mentioned

In which of the following learning the teacher returns reward and punishment
to learner?
a) Active learning
b) Reinforcement learning
c) Supervised learning
49 d) Unsupervised learning

Decision trees are appropriate for the problems where ___________

a) Attributes are both numeric and nominal
b) Target function takes on a discrete number of values.
c) Data may have errors
50 d) All of the mentioned

51

Which of the following is also called as exploratory learning?

a) Supervised learning
b) Active learning
c) Unsupervised learning
52 d) Reinforcement learning

Which is not a desirable property of a logical rule-based system?

a) Locality
b) Attachment
c) Detachment
53 d) Truth-Functionality

In an Unsupervised learning ____________

a) Specific output values are given
b) Specific output values are not given
c) No specific Inputs are given
54 d) Both inputs and outputs are given

55 Inductive learning involves finding a __________

 a) Consistent Hypothesis
b) Inconsistent Hypothesis
c) Regular Hypothesis
d) Irregular Hypothesis

If a hypothesis says it should be positive, but in fact, it is negative, we call it

__________
a) A consistent hypothesis
b) A false negative hypothesis
c) A false positive hypothesis
56 d) A specialized hypothesis

Neural Networks are complex ______________with many parameters.

a) Linear Functions
b) Nonlinear Functions
c) Discrete Functions
57 d) Exponential Functions

A perceptron is a ______________
a) Feed-forward neural network
b) Backpropagation algorithm
c) Backtracking algorithm
58 d) Feed Forward-backward algorithm

What is an auto-associative network?

a) a neural network that contains no loops
b) a neural network that contains feedback
c) a neural network that has only one loop
59 d) a single layer feed-forward neural network with pre-processing

Which of the following is true?

(i) On average, neural networks have higher computational rates than
conventional computers.
(ii) Neural networks learn by example.
(iii) Neural networks mimic the way the human brain works.
a) All of the mentioned are true
b) (ii) and (iii) are true
c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
60 d) None of the mentioned

 Which of the following is true for neural networks?

(i) The training time depends on the size of the network.
(ii) Neural networks can be simulated on a conventional computer.
(iii) Artificial neurons are same in operation to biological ones.
a) All of the mentioned
b) (ii) is true
c) (i) and (ii) are true
61 d) None of the mentioned

62 What are the advantages of neural networks over conventional computers?

(i) They have the ability to learn by example
(ii) They are more fault tolerant
 (iii)They are more suited for real time operation due to their high
‘computational’ rates
a) (i) and (ii) are true
b) (i) and (iii) are true
c) Only (i)
d) All of the mentioned

Which is true for neural networks?

a) It has set of nodes and connections
b) Each node computes it’s weighted input
c) Node could be in excited state or non-excited state
63 d) All of the mentioned

  What is back propagation?

a) It is another name given to the curvy function in the perceptron
b) It is the transmission of error back through the network to adjust the inputs
c) It is the transmission of error back through the network to allow
weights to be adjusted so that the network can learn
64 d) None of the mentioned

Which of the following is not the promise of artificial neural network?

a) It can explain result
b) It can survive the failure of some nodes
c) It has inherent parallelism
65 d) It can handle noise

  A perceptron adds up all the weighted inputs it receives, and if it exceeds a

certain value, it outputs a 1, otherwise it just outputs a 0.
a) True
b) False
c) Sometimes – it can also output intermediate values as well
6.6 d) Can’t say

The network that involves backward links from output to the input and hidden
layers is called _________
a) Self organizing maps
b) Perceptrons
c) Recurrent neural networkkm
67 d) Multi layered perceptron

  A _________ is a decision support tool that uses a tree-like graph or model

of decisions and their possible consequences, including chance event
outcomes, resource costs, and utility.
a) Decision tree
b) Graphs
c) Trees
68 d) Neural Networks

69 What is Decision Tree?

a) Flow-Chart
b) Structure in which internal node represents test on an attribute, each branch
represents outcome of test and each leaf node represents class label
 c) Flow-Chart & Structure in which internal node represents test on an
attribute, each branch represents outcome of test and each leaf node
represents class label
d) None of the mentioned

  Decision Trees can be used for Classification Tasks.

a) True
70 b) False

Choose from the following that are Decision Tree nodes?

a) Decision Nodes
b) End Nodes
c) Chance Nodes
71 d) All of the mentioned

Decision Nodes are represented by ____________

a) Disks
b) Squares
c) Circles
72 d) Triangles

Which of the following are the advantage/s of Decision Trees?

a) Possible Scenarios can be added
b) Use a white box model, If given result is provided by a model
c) Worst, best and expected values can be determined for different scenarios
73 d) All of the mentioned

The explanation facility of an expert system may be used to ____________

a) construct a diagnostic model
b) expedite the debugging process
c) explain the system’s reasoning process
d) explain the system’s reasoning process & expedite the debugging
74 process

  Where does the degree of belief is applied?

a) Propositions
b) Literals
c) Variables
75 d) Statements

What is meant by probability density function?

a) Probability distributions
b) Continuous variable
c) Discrete variable
76 d) Probability distributions for Continuous variables

77 High entropy means that the partitions in classification are

a) pure

b) not pure

c) useful
 d) useless

    Which of the following areas do not contribute to build an intelligent system?

a.   Neuron science

b.  Maths

c.   Computer Science

d.  Geology

78  

    Which one of the following is not the advantage of AI?

a.   High Speed

b.  Digital Assistant

c.   Accuracy

d.  High Cost

79

      Who coined the term Artificial Intelligence?

a.     Arthur Samule

b.    James Slagle

c.     John McCarthy

d.    E. F. Codd
80

      Turing test approach is concern with ___________________________ approach

A. Acting Humanly 
 
B. Acting Rationally   
C. Thinking Humanly 
D. Thinking Rationally
81

82
      ______________ program was used to solve the problem of inferring molecular
structure from                 
    The information provided by a mass spectrometer     

A. MYCIN      
B. DENDRAL
C.   SAINT       
D. None of the given

    Newell and Simon developed the Program ___________

A. General Problem solver   

  
B. STUDENT 
C. ANALOGY
D. SAINT
83

    In which agent does the problem generator is present _________-

A. Learning agent     
B. Observing agent      
C. Reflex agent
D. None of the mentioned
84

      What kind of environment is strategic in artificial intelligence?

A. Deterministic
  
B. Rational      
C.  Partial
D. Stochastic
85

        Utility based agent are the extension of ______agent      

A. Manager     
B. Goal Based Agent
C. Simple Reflex Agent 
D. Smart Agent
86

    Agents behaviour can be best described by_____________

A. Perception sequence
B. Agent function
C.  Sensors and Actuators       
D. Environment in which agent is performing
87
     Which is not the commonly used programming language for AI?   

A.  PROLOG    
B. Java
C. LISP
D.  Perl
88

      "AI is concerned with intelligent behaviour in artifacts."

A. Acting Humanly    
B. Acting Rationally
C. Thinking Humanly  
D. Thinking Rationally
89

      _______ is the information that the agent receive.

A. Percept
  
B. Environment  
C. Action
D. Goal
90

        Blind search is also called as ________.    

A.  Uninformed search 
B.  Informed search     
C. Simple reflex search
D. Initial Search
91

          A* search strategy comes under ____.      

A.  Uninformed search 
B. Blind Search  
C.  Informed Search
D. Classical Search
92

Web Crawler is a/an ____________

A.  Intelligent goal-based agent

B. Problem-solving agent
C.  Simple reflex agent
D. Model based agent
93
   An intelligent agent act to increase their ________ 

A. Knowledge 
B. Performance measure      
C. Database measure  
D. Goal measure  
94

      To solve a problem which 2 phase of formulation it should pass? 

A. Goal,Start 
B. Goal,Problem
C. Path,Goal   
D. Path,Problem
95

      To solve problem using AI, Process consist of ___ steps. 

A.   2     
B.   4      
C. 5      
  D. 6
96  

      Which one of the following is not a part of process for solving problem using
AI?

A. Defining the problem 

  
B. Analysing the problem       
 
C. Implementation       
D. Sensorless planning
97

        In BFS the frontier is implemented as a ________ queue.

A. FIFO  
B.  LIFO 
C. FILO  
D. Random
98

99  
    Multiagent environment is also called as ___________    

A. Comutitive environment
B. Cooperative environment   
C. Collective environment       
 D. Combine environment

1Who is the “father” of artificial intelligence?

A. John McCarthy
B. Fisher Ada
C. Allen Newell
D. Alan Turning
100

What is Artificial intelligence?

A. Making a Machine intelligent

B. Putting your intelligence into Computer
C. Programming with your own intelligence
101 D. putting more memory into Computer

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Paper 2 LinuxServer Administration

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Paper 3: Software Testing and Quality Assurance

Which quality is measured as a foundation of requirement…?

a) Hardware

b) Programmers

c)Software

1 d) None of the mentioned

2
Select the people who identify the document and verify the correctness of the
 software…

a) Project manager

b) SQA team

c) Project team

d) All of the mentioned

Which of the following term describes testing?

a) Finding broken code

b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors

c) A stage of all projects

3 d) None of the mentioned

What are the various Testing Levels?

a) Unit Testing

b) System Testing

c) Integration Testing

4 d) All of the mentioned

Boundary value analysis belongs to?

a) White Box Testing

b) Black Box Testing

c) White Box & Black Box Testing

5 d) None of the mentioned

6
Who does Alpha testing?

a) Developer’s end

b) User’s end

c) Developer’s & User’s end

 d) None of the mentioned

For which purpose Testing helps ?

a) Fix defect

b) Improve quality

c) Measure quality

7 d) All of the above.

When Testing should be stopped?

a) When manager asks to stop

b) When time runs out

c) When enough money are spend on testing

8 d) It depends on risk associated with that project.

In which of the following situation defects arise?

a) No knowledge of system

b) System is used in wrong way

c) May have coded wrongly

d) Incorrect setup of testing environment

9 e) All the above

Which of the following is the largest bug producer?

a) Code

b) Design

c) Specification

10 d) other

11
When can customer says quality of the product is too good?
 a) Software meets its defined specification

b) Software is technically excellent

c) Software has few bugs

d) Software fulfills expectations of customer.

Which of the following are objective of software testing?

a) Determines that software product satisfy specified requirements

b) Demonstrate that software products are fit for use

c) Detect defects

12 d) All the above

What is another name for Bug ?

a) Error

b) Incident

c) Mistake

13 d) Defect

Which of the following is the form of Alpha and Beta Testing?

A) Acceptance testing

B) System Testing

C) Unit testing

14 D) Integration testing

15
What is the main purpose of integration testing?

A) Design errors

B) Interface errors

C) Procedure errors
 D) None of the above

Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?

A) Statement testing

B) Path testing

C) Data flow testing

16 D) None of the above.

Which of the following is a form of functional testing?

A)    Boundary value analysis

B) Usability testing

C) Performance testing

17 D) Security testing

When should regression testing be performed?

A) When the project manager says

B) After the software has changed.

C) Whenever a software testing team gets the time.

18 D) None of the above.

What does QA and QC stand for?

a) Quality Assurance and Queuing Control

b) Quality Adjustment and Quality completion

c) Quality Assurance and Quality control

19 d) Quality Adjustment and Queuing control

20
What is QA?
 a) It is the measurement of degree to which a product satisfies the need

b) Any systematic process used to ensure quality in the process

c) Process of identifying defects

d) It is a corrective tool

Arrange the steps of QA in ascending order?

a) Customer needs, material control, design development, process control, marketing

b) Material control, process control, customer need, design development, finished

product

c) Customer needs, design development, material control, process control,

finished product

21 d) Material control, servicing, process control, material control, design development

What is the first step of QA?

a) Development of standards

b) Identification of customer need

c) Servicing

22 d) Material control

Which of the following is an example of QA?

a) Verification

b) Software testing

c) Validation

23 d) Documentation

24
Which document that prescribes the requirements with which the product or
service has to confirm?

A. Reliability

B. Specification
 C. Inspection

D. Audit

Which of the following correspond to the two questions 'Are we building the

right product?' & 'Are we building the product right?'

A.  Verification only

B.   Validation only

C.   Validation and Verification respectively

25 D.  Verification and Validation respectively

Which is a test case design technique that makes use of a knowledge of the
internal program logic?

A. Black Box Testing

B. White Box Testing

C. Unit Testing

26 D. None of these

Which of the following is not a White box testing method?

A.  Statement coverage

B.  Error guessing

C.   Path coverage

27 D. Condition Coverage

28
Which of the following points includes in Test case?

A.   Input

B.   Expected output

 C.   information of function under test

D.   All of these options

What is  SDLC?
 
A. Software Development Life Cycle
B.   Systems Development Life Cycle
C.  Secure Development Life Cycle
D.   Both A & B

29  

Which of the following is not a verification activity?

a) Inspection

b) Testing

c) Walk through

30 d) technical review

Whose responsibility is Validation ?

a) Developer

b) Designer

c) Tester

d) QA Team

31 e) All the stakeholder

For which of the following activity one needs to execute the product?

a) verification

b) validation

c) both

32 d) none

33
Which of the following is not the phase of SDLC?
 A.  System Analysis
B.     Problem Definition
C.   System Design
D.  Feasibility Study

Which of the following is the most important  phase of SDLC?

A.  System maintenance
B.  Problem Definition
C.   System Design
D.     Requirement analysis
34
A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect

35  
When Test cases are designed?
a) Test recording.
b) Test configuration.
c) Test planning.
d) Test specification

36  
Which 0of the following statements about reviews is true?
a) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications

37  
Test Conditions are derived from
a) Test Design
b) Test Cases
c) Test Data
d) Specifications

38  
Which of the following is false?
a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
c) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior.

39  

40 Which of the following is a black box design technique?

 a) statement testing
b) error- guessing
c) equivalence partitioning
d) usability testing

What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics?
a) Management review
b) Inspection
c) Walkthrough
d) Post project review

41  
Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a) State transition testing
b) Syntax testing
c) LCSAJ
d) Boundary value analysis

42  

The order in which test levels are performed is:

a) Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System
b) Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance
c) Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance
d) It depends on the nature of a project

43  

Which of the following is not a Test Type?

a) Database Testing
b) Security Testing
c) Statement Testing
d) Functional Testing

44

When White-box testing can be started?

a) After installation
b) After SRS creation
c) After programming
d) After designing

45  
 Which is A testing which checks the internal logic of the program?

A. Black box testing

B. White box testing

C. Both (A) and (B)

46 D. None of the above

A formal review may consist of which of the following?

A.  Casual Meeting

B.  Desk Check

C.   Inspection

47 D.     A  and B

Which are the following are the objective of formal technical reviews?

A.  Allow all senior staff members to correct  errors

B.  Asses programmer productivity

C.      Uncover errors in software work product 

48 D.     Determining who introduced an error into a program

What all attendees can decide At the end of formal technical reviews?

A.  Accept the work product without modification.

B.  Modify the work product and continue

C.   Reject project due to the stylistic discrepancies

D.  Reject the product due to server error

49 E.      A and D

50
A review report answers which three questions?

A.  Terminate project, replace producer, request a time extension

B.  What defects were found, what caused defects, who was responsible
 C.      What was reviewed, who reviewed it, what were the findings

D.  None of the above

Which of the following is not included in failure costs?

a) rework
b) repair
c) failure mode analysis
51 d) none of the mentioned

Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?

a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Programmers
52 d) None of the mentioned

Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?

a) evaluations to be performed
b) amount of technical work
c) audits and reviews to be performed
53 d) documents to be produced by the SQA group

Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is

called
a) Quality Control
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality Assurance
54 d) None of the mentioned

Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the
software?
a) Project manager
b) Project team
c) SQA group
55 d) All of the mentioned

Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?

a) testing
b) help line support
c) warranty work
56 d) complaint resolution

Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?

a) inter-process inspection
b) maintenance
c) quality planning
57 d) testing
 The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the
process so that they do not become defects after release of the software.
a) errors
b) equivalent faults
c) failure cause
58 d) none of the mentioned

What is not included in prevention costs?

a) quality planning
b) formal technical reviews
c) test equipment
59 d) equipment calibration and maintenance

Faults are found most cost-effectively in which test activity?

a. design
b. execution
c. planning
d. Check Exit criteria completion
60

Select which option is not true about SQA…?

a) Audits and reviews to be performed by the team
b) Amount of technical work to be performed
c) Evaluations to be performed
61 d) Documents that are produced by the SQA team.

A product which is manufactured by using the degree of the design

specification…
a) Quality of conformance
b) Quality Control
c) Quality Assurance
62 d) None of the above.

Software quality assurance consists of which function of management.

a) reporting functions
b) auditing functions
c)both and b
d)all of the above
63

Which of the following is not included in prevention cost?

a) equipment calibration and maintenance
b) formal technical reviews
c) test equipment reviews
64 d) quality planning reviews

65 Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find during
the process so that after the release of the software they do not become the
defect… 
a) failure 
b) faults
 c) errors
d) none of the mentioned

Select the people who identify the document and verifies the correctness of the
software…
a) Project manager
b) SQA team
c) Project team
66 d) All of the mentioned

Select the option which is not an appraisal in SQA?

a) inter-process inspection
b) maintenance
c) testing
67 d) quality planning

Select which one is not an  External failure costs?

a) testing
b) helpline support
c) warranty work
68 d) complaint resolution

What happened if an expected result is not specified then

a. we cannot run the test
b. we cannot automate the user input values
c. it may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed
69 d. it may difficult to repeat the test 

Loop Testing methodology includes which of the following. 

a. Simple Loops
b. Nested Loops
c. Concatenated Loops
70 d. All of the above

According to pareto’s principle, x% of defects can be traced to y% of all

causes. What are the values of x and y?

a) 60,40

b) 70,30    

c) 80,20   

d) No such principle exists.

71

72 __________ is an line graph of data plotted over time.

 a)Runchart  

b)openchart  

 c)Gantt chart  

d)close chart

Lower and upper limits are present in which chart?

a) Run chart

b) Bar chart

c) Control chart

d) None of the mentioned

73

By collecting ________ during software testing, it is possible to develop

meaningful guidelines to halt the testing process.

a) Failure intensity

b) Testing time

c) Metrics

d) All of the mentioned

74

Test cases should uncover errors like

a) Nonexistent loop termination

b) Comparison of different data types

c) Incorrect logical operators or precedence

d) All of the mentioned

75

76 Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma?

 a) Define

b) Control

c) Measure

d) Analyse

Relation between two variables over time is given by

 
A:        Scatter plot diagram
B:        Bar chart diagram
C:        Histogram diagram
D:         chart diagram

 
77

The objective of ISO-9000 family of Quality Management is

a) customer satisfaction

  b) Employee satisfaction  

c) Skill enhancement

 d)Environmental issues
78

To perform an effective testing, the project manager should conduct effective

_______.
a) Technical review
b) SRS audit
c) Scrum
79 d) Testing

Who incorporate the procedure to ensure compliance with software

development standards.
a) Project manager
b) Developer
c) SQA member
80 d) Client

81 Which testing uses Capture/playback tools?

 a) regression testing
b) smoke testing
c) beta testing
d) stress testing

Which process means identifying, locating and correcting the bugs usually by
running the program?
a) Testing
b) Debugging
c) Validating
82 d) Checking

In which technique the programmer starts from the place or statement to

locate error symptoms for the first time.
a) Backtracking
b) Cause elimination
c) Program slicing
83 d) Fault-tree analysis

Whose purpose are predicting qualities, monitoring and improving &

comparing and assessing?
a) Metrics
b) Monitoring 
c) Evaluation   
84 d) Measurements 

The cyclomatic complexity V(G) of given flow graph can be computed as: 
 a) V (G) = E – N + 1
b) V (G) = E – N + 2
c) V (G) = N – E + 1
85 d) V (G) = N – E + 2

Which metric is used for monitoring/reporting defects?

a) DAR
b) FP
c) LOC
86 d) None the above

Which graphical representation shows the relation between paired data?

a) Pareto chart
b) Run chart
c) Scatter diagram
87 d) Pie chart

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Paper 4 Information and Network Security

________ is the science to make them secure and immune to attacks.

A. Cryptography
B. Cryptoanalysis
C. both (a) or (b)
1 D. neither (a) nor (b)

A combination of an encryption algorithm and a decryption algorithm is called

a ________.

A. cipher

B. secret

C. key

D. none of the above

2

_________ ciphers can be categorized into two broad categories:

monoalphabetic and polyalphabetic.

A. Substitution

B. Transposition

C. both (a) or (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b)

3

4 A _________ is a keyless transposition cipher with N inputs and M outputs

that uses a table to define the relationship between the input stream and the
output stream
a.       S-box
b.      P-box
 c.       T-box

D. none of the above

DES has an initial and final permutation block and rounds

A.    14
B.     15

C. 16

D. 18

ECB and CBC are ______ ciphers

a.       block

b.      stream

c.       field

d.      none of the above

The                  method provides a one-time session key for two parties

a.       Diffie-Hellman
b.      RSA

c.       DES

d.      AES

the intended sender, not an imposter.

a.       confidentiality
7 b.      integrity

Message _______means that the receiver is ensured that the message is coming
from 

c.       authentication

d.      none of the above

9 22. Digital signature provides                                   

 a.       authentication

b.      nonrepudiation

c.       both (a) and (b)

d.      neither (a) nor (b)

A(n) ________   is a trusted third party that assigns a symmetric key to two
parties.
A.  KDC
B.  CA

C. KDD

D. none of the above

10

Intrusion is action or process that compromises Authentication, integrity, availability

of system

A. force fully

B. With Permission

C. Without Permission

D . Both A and C

11

Intruder is ____.

A. Action

B. User

C System

D. Data

12
13

Misfeasor intruder is  normally?

A. Insider

B. Outsider

C.  Both A and B

D. Middle

14

What are the different ways to classify IDS?

A. Statistical anomaly detection

B. Rule based detection

C.  Both A and B

D. Stack based.

15

What is anomaly detection in IDS?

A. Rules Based.

B. Action based

C.  Custom based

16 D. Stack based.

. In which approach an expert system is used to search for suspicious behavior of

user?

A. Anomaly detection.

B. Penetration identification.

C.  Profile based

17 D. Machine based

18 . Is Auditing Records keeping the Track of ongoing?

 A. Activity in the system.

B. Function in system.

C. Variable in System.

d. Method in system

. IDS stand for?

A. Information Detection System

B.  Intrusion Detection System

C. Institute Detection System

D. Image Detection System

19

. Connection authentication is offered for ensuring that the remote host has the
likely Internet Protocol (IP) ___________ & _________
a) address, name
b) address, location
c) network, name
20 d) network, location

 Full form of SSL is __?

a) Secure Socket Layer

b) Series Socket Layer

c) System Security Layer

d) Spoofing Socket Layer.

21

. Which Protocols Design to create sessions between client and server?

a)  Handshake

b)  FTP

c)  Alert

d)  UDP.

22

23 Which protocol is used to transmit error, bad records, system Negotiation failure
 alerts to the peer entity?

a) Alert Protocol

b) Handshake Protocol

c) Upper-layer Protocol

d) Change Cipher Spec Protocol

Which protocol is used for the purpose of reproducing the pending state into the
Present state?
a) Alert Protocol
b) Handshake Protocol
c) Upper-Layer Protocol
24 d) Change Cipher Spec Protocol

. Secure Electronic Transaction Protocol used for?

a)  Credit Card payment.
b)  Cheque payment.
c)  Cash Payment
25 d) Payment of small amount for internet Service

Full form of “CA” in terms of SET Protocols?

a)  Chartered Accountant.

b)  Certificate Authority.

c)  Communication Authority.

d) Combination Assurances
26

 Authority who is trusted to provide public key Certificate to Merchant, Card holder
and Payment gateway?

a)  Serial Authority.

b)  Certificate Authority.

c)  Communication Authority.

d) Combination Authority
27

28 Which of them is not a wireless attack?

a) Eavesdropping
 b) MAC Spoofing

c) Wireless Hijacking

d) Phishing

An attempt to harm, damage or cause threat to a system or network is broadly

termed as ______

a) Cyber-crime

b) Cyber Attack

c) System hijacking

d) Digital crime
29

 _____________________ is the art & science of cracking the cipher-text

without knowing the key.

a) Cracking

b) Cryptanalysis

c) Cryptography

d) Crypto-hacking

30

_____________________ is the art & science of cracking the cipher-text

without knowing the key.

a) Cracking

b) Cryptanalysis

c) Cryptography

d) Crypto-hacking
31

32  The process of disguising plaintext in such a way that its substance gets hidden
(into what is known as cipher-text) is called _________________

a) cryptanalysis

b) decryption
 c) reverse engineering

d) encryption

Which of the following is not the primary objective of cryptography?

a) Confidentiality

b) Data Integrity

c) Data Redundancy

d) Authentication
33

______________ is the mathematical procedure or algorithm which produces a

cipher-text for any specified plaintext.
a) Encryption Algorithm
b) Decryption Algorithm
c) Hashing Algorithm
34 d) Tuning Algorithm

In __________________ 2 different keys are implemented for encrypting as

 
well as decrypting that particular information.

a) Symmetric Key Encryption

b) Asymmetric Key Encryption

c) Asymmetric Key Decryption

d) Hash-based Key Encryption

35

 __________at first, a key table is produced. That key table is a 5 by 5 grid of

alphabets which operates as the key to encrypt the plaintext.

a) Rolling Cipher

b) Shift Cipher

c) Playfair Cipher

d) Block Cipher
36

37 In _____________ a sequence of actions is carried out on this block after a

block of plain-text bits is chosen for generating a block of cipher-text bits.

a) Block Cipher
 b) One-time pad

c) Hash functions

d) Vigenere Cipher

The DES Algorithm Cipher System consists of ______rounds (iterations)

each with a round key

a) 12

b) 18

c) 9

d) 16

 
38

The DES algorithm has a key length of

a) 128 Bits

b) 32 Bits

c) 64 Bits

d) 16 Bits
39

Which of the following is not a principle of data security?

1. Data Confidentiality
2. Data Integrity
3. Authentication
4. None of the above

40

In which attack one entity pretends to be a different entity?

 
a)         Masquerade attack
b)      Modification of messages attack
c)       Repudiation
d)      Replay

 
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Paper 6 Web Services

 

What is the purpose of XML in a web service?

a) A web service takes the help of XML to tag the data, format the data.
b)  A web servicetakes the help of XML to transfer a message.
c) A web service takes the help of XML to describe the availability of service.
d) None of the above.
 ANS)A web service takes the help of XML to tag the data, format the data.
1

WSDL stands for?

a. a) Web Services Description Language.
b. b)  Web Services Direction Language.
c. c) Wired Services Description Language.
d. d) Web Services Dialect Language.
2 ANS) Web Services Description Language.

3 Which of the following is correct about UDDI?

a. a) UDDI is seen with SOAP and WSDL as one of the three foundation
standards of web services.
b. b) UDDI is an open industry initiative enabling businesses to discover
each other and define how they interact over the Internet.
c. c) Both of the above.
 d. d) None of the above.
ANS) Both of the above.

The Service Transport layer is responsible for transporting messages

between applications.
A. a)  True
b)  False
4 ANS) True

__________ layer is responsible for describing the public interface to a

specific web service.
a) Service Discovery
b)XML Messaging
c)Service Description
d)None of the above
5 ANS)Service Description

BEEP stands for______

a)Blocks Extensible Enhancement  Protocol
b)Blocks Extend Exchange Protocol
c)Blocks Exchange Extensible Protocol
d)Blocks Extensible Exchange Protocol
6 ANS)Blocks Extensible Exchange Protocol

________ layer is responsible for actually transporting XML messages

between two computers.
a) Service Protocol
b)Service Messaging
c)Service Transport
d)Service Description
7 ANS)Service Transport

Which of the following  is correct about XML-RPC

a)Requests are encoded in XML and sent via HTTP POST.
b)XML-RPC is platform-independent.
c)XML-RPC is the easiest way to get started with web services.
d)All of the above
8 ANS)All of the above

_________ is a simple protocol that uses XML messages to perform RPCs.

a)SOAP
b)XML
c)XML-RPC
d)BEEP
9 ANS)XML-RPC

10 Which of the following statements  is correct about SOAP.

a)SOAP is an XML-based protocol for exchanging information between
computers.
 b)SOAP is an XML-based language for describing web services and how to
access them.
c)Both a and b
d)None of the above
ANS)SOAP is an XML-based protocol for exchanging information between
computers.

UDDI stands for __________.

a) Universal Description, Discovery, and Integration.
b) Uniform Description, Discovery, and Integration.
c) Universal Description, Discovery, and Interference.
d) Unique Description, Discovery, and Integration.
11 ANS)Universal Description, Discovery, and Integration.

Three specific security issues with web services.

a)Confidentiality,Integration,Network Security.
b)Consistency,Authentication,Network Security.
c)Confidentiality,Authentication,Network Security.
d)None of the above.
12 ANS)Confidentiality,Authentication,Network Security.

Three major roles within the web service architecture.

a)Service Discovery,Service Requestor,Service Registry.
b)Service Provider,Service Requestor,Service Registry.
c)Service Provider,Service Messaging,Service Registry.
d)Service Provider,Service Requestor,Service Description.
13 ANS)Service Provider,Service Requestor,Service Registry.

_________  is an XML-based standard for describing, publishing, and finding

web services.
a)SOAP
b)HTTP
c)WSDL
d)UDDI
14 ANS)UDDI

Which of the following is true about Web service?

a) It is available over the Internet or private (intranet) networks.
b) It uses a standardized XML messaging system.
c)It is not tied to any one operating system or programming language.
d) All of the above.
ANS)All of the above.
15

16 Which layer of the TCP / IP stack corresponds to the OSI model

transport layer?
a)Host to host
b)Application
c)Internet
d)Network Access
 ANS)Host to Host

__________ layer of OSI model is responsible for moving the packets from
source to destination.
a)Transport
b)Application
c)Data link
. d)Network 
17 ANS)Network

Which of the following statement  is correct about Presentation layer.

a)This layer is also known as the syntax layer.
b)It acts as a data translator for a network.
c)This layer is a part of the operating system that converts the data
from one presentation format to another format.
d)All of the above
18 ANS)All of the above

Which layer is used to link the network support layers and user support
layers?
a) Session layer
b) Data link layer
c) Transport layer
d) Network layer
19 ANS)Transport layer

TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI model have this layer.
a) Session layer
b) Transport layer
c) Application layer
d) Network layer
20 ANS)Session layer

Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery in a general

network model?
a) Network layer
b) Transport layer
c) Session layer
d) Data link layer
21 ANS)Transport layer

Which address is used to identify a process on a host by the transport layer?

a) Physical address
b) Logical address
c) Port address
d) Specific address
22 ANS)Port address

23 Transmission data rate is decided by ____________

a) Network layer
 b) Physical layer
c) Data link layer
d) Transport layer
ANS)Physical layer

IGMP stands for________

a) Internet Group Mail Protocol.
b) Internet Group Message Protocol.
c) Instant Group Message Protocol.
d)None of the above
24 ANS)Internet Group Message Protocol.

_______ protocol is used to get the physical address from the IP/logical
address.
a)ICMP
b)IGMP
c)RARP
d)ARP
25 ANS)ARP

A typical __________ program obtains a remote reference to one or more

remote objects on a server and then invokes methods on them.
a) Server
b) Client
c) Thread
d) Concurrent
26 ANS)Client

A remote object is an object whose method can be invoked from another

virtual environment.
a) True
b) False
27 ANS)True

RMI stands for?

a) Remote Mail Invocation
b) Remote Message Invocation
c) Remaining Method Invocation
d) Remote Method Invocation
28 ANS)Remote Method Invocation

A middleware layer between the stub skeleton and transport.

a) Remote layer
b) Instruction layer
c) Reference layer
d) Remote reference layer
29 ANS)Remote reference layer

30 A software that lies between the OS and the applications running on it.
a) Firmware
b) Middleware
 c) Utility Software
d) Application Software
ANS) Middleware

What is the other name for object middleware?

a) Object request interface
b) Object enabled interface
c) Object Request broker
d) Object enabled broker
31 ANS)Object Request broker

Which of the following are the major components of message in Messaging

based interprocess communication.
a)Message Header,Message Metadata, Message body
b)Message Header,Message Subject, Message body
c)Message Header,Message Metadata, Message block
d)None of the Above
32 ANS)Message Header,Message Metadata, Message body

____________ messaging is generally implemented using message queue

technique.
a) Synchronous
b) Asynchronous
c) Socket based
d)Interprocess
33 ANS)Asynchronous

MOM stands for______

a) Message Oriented Middleware
b) Mails Oriented Middleware
c) Middleware of Messages
d) Main Object Middleware
34 ANS) Message Oriented Middleware

RPC provides a  _________ on the client side, a separate one for each
remote procedure.
a) Stub
b) Identifier
c) Name
d) Process identifier
35 ANS)Stub

Remote Procedure Calls are used ____________

a) for communication between two processes remotely different from each
other on the same system
b) for communication between two processes on the same system
c) for communication between two processes on separate systems
d) none of the above
36 ANS)for communication between two processes on separate systems

37 __________ and _________ are the two different kinds of classes used in
 RMI
a) Remote Classes,Synchronous Classes
b) Request Classes,Serializable Classes
c) Reference Classes,Serializable Classes
d) Remote Classes,Serializable Classes
ANS)Remote Classes,Serializable Classes

JMS supports messages that contain _________ Java objects.

a) nonserialized
b) serialized
c) dynamic
d) None of the above
38 ANS)serialized

Which are JMS messaging models?

a)Publish-and-subscribe ,Point-to-point
b)Store-and-forward,Point-to-point
c)Store-and-forward,Peer-to-peer
d)None of the above
39 ANS)Publish-and-subscribe ,Point-to-point

A JMS message is composed of __________.

a)Header,Subject,Body
b)Header,Properties,Block
c)Header,Property,Footer
d)Header,Properties,Body
40 ANS)Header,Properties,Body

What is an advantage of XML compared to HTML?

a) XML works on more platforms.
b) XML is suited to using Web pages as front ends to databases.
c) XML was designed for portable phones.
d) XML is simpler to learn than HTML.
41 Ans: XML is suited to using Web pages as front ends to databases.

What is the correct syntax of the declaration which defines the XML version?
a) <xml version="A.0" />
b) <?xml version="A.0"?>
c) <?xml version="A.0" />
d) None of the above
42 ANS)<?xml version="A.0"?>

Which are the ways used for describing XML data.

a)XML uses a DTD to describe the data
b) XML uses XSL to describe data
c) XML uses a description node to describe data
d) Both A and C
43 ANS) Both A and C

44 XML uses the features of________

a) HTML
 b) XHTML
c) VML
d) SGML
ANS) SGML

To use XSLT in an XML system

a) the input and output of the XSLT processor must be unparsed XML
documents.
b) the input and output of the XSLT processor must be a hierarchical tree
representing an XML document.
c) the XSLT processor must be called from a web agent.
d) the XSLT processor must be given the DTD as well as the XML document
instance.
ANS)the input and output of the XSLT processor must be a hierarchical tree
45 representing an XML document.

XML validated against a __________ is considered as Valid XML.

a)JQUERY
b)PARSER
c)DTD
d)CFG
46 ANS)DTD

Complex services exhibit coarse-grained functionality and are

A) stateless                                          B) stateful                                 C) 
47 both A and B                                 D) None of the above

SOAP is

A) Simple Object Active Protocol         B) Sample Object Access Protocol

48 C) Sample Object Active Protocol          D) Simple Object Access Protocol

If services can be invoked repeatedly without having to maintain context or

state they are called.

A)   Stateless                          B) Loosely coupled

49 C)  Stateful                          D) Tightly coupled

Informational services are

A) stateless                               B) stateful                                                   
50 C)  both A and B                            D) None of the above

Services that may require their context to be preserved from one invocation
to the next are called 

A) Loosely coupled                           B) Stateless

51 C)   stateful                          D) Tightly coupled

 Always end your URI (or URL) with a ________ to avoid an extra trip to the server
to determine that it is a site rather than a directory.
 a.       Hyphen 
b.       Backslash 
c.        Double slash 
 d.        Slash
52
Which is the default Transfer mode in WCF? 
a.  Streamed                                           c.   StreamedRequest 
53  b.  Buffered                                             d.  StreamedResponse

 Which of the following binding supports Communication with callback?

 a.  wsHttpBinding                                    b.  wsDualHttpBinding
 c.   Both a and b                                       d.  None
54
Which namespace is used in WCF for data serialization?
 a.  System.Xml.Serialization                b.  System.Runtime.Serialization 
55 c.   System.ServiceModel                      d.  None 

Which of the following WCF binding does not support reliable session?
 a.  wsHttpBinding                             b.  netTcpBinding 
56  c.   basicHttpBinding                       d.  wsDualHttpBinding

WCF attribute used to serialize Data Contract member variables? 

a.  Serialize                            b.  DataMember 
c.   Data                                  d.  None
57
WCF Contract used to send information in soap message header? 
a.  DataContract                     b.  ServiceContract 
c.   MessageContract            d.  x
58
WCF supports Operation overloading by setting following operation contract attribute?
a.  Action                              b.  Name  
59       c.   Overload                           d.  None of the above
9. WCF attribute to define REST full Service?
 a.  HttpGet                            b.  WebGet
60  c.   Rest                                 d.  None of the above

Which contract supports Transaction Flow? 

a.  Service                            b.  Operation 
61 c.   Message                         d.  Data

62 Which of the following is NOT true?

 A) A WCF Service can be consumed by Windows applications
 B) A WCF Service can be consumed by Web applications
 C) A WCF Service can perform calculations
 D) A WCF Service cannot return a dataset
 WCF services can communicate with _______.
A) all programming languages
B) XML
C) only the languages included with Visual Studio .NET
D) multiple platforms and multiple language

The standard method for storing data that can be transferred easily
from one machine or platform to another is _______.
A) XML
B) SOAP
C) WSDL
D) WCF
63

Data that is in _______ format can pass through many firewalls that
_______ cannot penetrate.
A) binary, text
B) text, binary
C) SOAP, WCF
D) WCF, SOAP
64

One of the advantages of using _______ is that data are transmitted in

a text format rather than a binary format.
A) XML
B) SOAP
C) WSDL
D) WCF
65

The information about the names of the methods, the parameters that
can be passed, and the values that are returned from the functions is
controlled in some Web services by a description specified in _______.
A) XML
B) SOAP
C) WSDL
D) WCF
66
  A resource on the Web is uniquely identified by its URI, which means
_______.
A) Uniform Resource Identifier
B) Universal Registered Identifier
C) Uniform Registered Identifier
D) Universal Resource Identifier
67

To add a WCF Service, select the solution name in the Solution

Explorer and select _______ from File menu.
A) Add / New Solution
B) Add / New Web Site
C) Add / New Service
D) Add / New Library
68

You have created a new service based on Windows Communication

Foundation and also a client application to test the service. You want
add an endpoint in the web.config file of the client application to use
the new service. Which values should you include in you service
element of the web.config file?
A. Address
B. Contract
C. Binding
D. All of these
69

70  A service contract specifies what an endpoint communicates to the

outside world. At a more concrete level, it is a statement about a set of
specific messages organized into basic message exchange patterns
(MEPs), such as request/reply, one-way, and duplex. Which of the
 following is NOT part of the Service Contract specification:
A. The data types of messages
B. The specific protocols and serialization formats
C. The location of the operations
D. The frequency of messages per second

Services are groups of operations. To create a service contract you

usually model operations and specify their grouping. In Windows
Communication Foundation (WCF) applications, developers define the
operations by creating a method and marking it with the which
attribute?
A. ServiceContractAttribute
B. DataMemberAttribute
C. DataContractAttribute
D. OperationContractAttribute
71

 
You’ve created a new class in your .NET project that contains a wide
variety of operations grouped together to form part of a Server
Contract. You now need to add an attribute to the class to define it as a
service contract. Which attribute should you use?
A. OperationContractAttribute
B. DataMemberAttribute
C. DataContractAttribute
D. ServiceContractAttribute
72

Which of the following is TRUE regarding service operations and

references to objects?
A. Objects must be serializable
B. You can’t return values from service operations
C. Objects are passed as references
D. You can’t pass parameters to service operations
73
 The signature of a service operation dictates a certain underlying
message exchange pattern (MEP) that can support the data transfer
and the features an operation requires. You want to adopt a pattern that
supports the sending and receiving of messages by both the service
and client. Which patter should you choose?
A. one-way
B. none of these
C. request/reply
D. duplex
74

Study the following line of code:

OperationContext.Current.GetCallbackChannel(); The
ICalendarDuplexCallback interface is defined as the CallbackContract
property in the Service Contract. In which class should you use this
line of code?
A. Client
B. You should never use this
C. Both
D. Service
75

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the WSHttpBinding class?

A. Provides WS-Addressing
B. Provides un-encrypted messages by default
C. Provides reliable messaging
D. Provides transactions
76
 In Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) applications, which of
the following is FALSE regarding Sessions?
A. Messages delivered during a session are processed in the order in which
they are received
B. They are explicitly initiated and terminated by the receiving
application
C. There is no general data store associated with a WCF session
D. Sessions correlate a group of messages into a conversation
77

Which class in WCF represents the unit of communication between

endpoints in a distributed environment?
A. RequestContext
B. Message
C. Binding
D. ChannelBase
78

When a new project is added to a WCF Service solution, the projects

are saved independently.
 A) True
 B) False
79

To rename a Web Service you need to change only the name in the
Solution Explorer.
 A) True
 B) False

80

81 The transport protocol used by SOAP is HTTP.

 A) True
 B) False
 For technical specifications, the industry standard term URL is
preferred to URI.
 A) True
 B) False
82

WSDL contains information about the names of the methods, the

parameters that can be passed, and the values that are returned from
the functions.
 A) True
 B) False
83

Data that is in binary format can pass through any firewall.

 A) True
 B) False
84

An endpoint indicates where messages can be sent (address).

 A) True
 B) False
85

It is possible for a single application to be both a client and a service.

 A) True
 B) False
86

1.      HTTP (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol) requests are_______

a) The only way information moves around the Internet

b) Used to request HTML from a Web server

c) Used to ensure a stateful exchange of information over the Internet

d) None of the above.

Ans : b) Used to request HTML from a Web server

87
 JSON stands for  ____________________

a) Java Script Object Notation

b) JSP Object Notation

c) Java Script Open Notation

d) Java Script Object Number

Ans : a) Java Script Object Notation

88

JAX-RS stands for _______________

a) JAVA  for RESTful Web Services.

b) JAVA API for RESTful Web Services.

c) JAVA  for ResultSet Web Services.

d) JAVA  for RESTful Web System.

Ans : b) JAVA API for RESTful Web Services.

89

From the following which is not Framework?

a) Apache CFX

b) Jersey

c) RESTEasy

d) Sun

Ans : d) Sun

90

91    A WSDL document contains the __________elements.

 a) Definition

b) Data type

c) Message

d) All of above

Ans : d) All of above

WCF stands for__________

a) Windows Communication Foundation

b) Wifi Communication Foundation

c) Windows Common Foundation

d) Windows Communication Function

Ans: a) Windows Communication Foundation

92
 The SOAP protocol can work any programming language based applications
on both

__________________ platform

a) Windows and Linux

b) Linux and Unix

c) Windows and Unix

d) Windows and android

Ans : a) Windows and Linux

93

Which of the following is not a core role in Web Service architecture?

A - Service Provider

B - Service Requestor

C - Service Registry

D - Service Locator

Ans: D- Service Locator

94

 _______ is used to convert your application into Web-Application.

A- Struts Service

B- Web Service

C- Java Service

D- Browser Action

95 Ans: D- Web Service

96 XML digital signatures provides

A- Authentication

B- Authorization
 C- Confidentiality

D- Integrity

Ans: C- Confidentiality

Tomcat doesn’t support JAX-WS by itself.

A- True
B- False

97 Ans: A- True

What is DISCO?
A- Data System

B- Data

C- Discovery

D- Distance

98 Ans: C- Discovery

Select the Communication channel not use in web services

A- HTTP/POST

B- MIME

C- SOAP

D-HTTP/GET

99 Ans: B- MIME

What is NOT a part of a SOAP Message ?

A- SOAP Header

B- SOAP Footer

C- SOAP Envelope 

D- SOAP Body
10
0 Ans: B- SOAP Footer

10 Which of the following is correct about SOAP?

1 A- SOAP is Language independent

B- SOAP is Simple & Extensible

 C- Both a & b

D- None of the above

Ans: C- Both a & b

Web Services are developed in order to interact with

A- Different Platforms

B- Server

C- Browser

D- None of the above

10
2 Ans: A- Different Platforms

What DOM stands for?

A- Direct Object Model

B- Document object Model

C- Document Object Modelling

D- Document Output Model

10
3 Ans: B- Document Object Model

XML Schema Consist of 

A- Properties & Methods

B- Elements & Attribute

C- Structure & Data

D- Table & Relationship

10 Ans: B- Elements & Attribute

4

10 DTD Stands for

5 A- Document Transport direction

B- Document Transcript definition

C- Document type definition

D- None of these

Ans: C- Document type definition

 The default connection type used by HTTP is
A- Persistent

B- Non- Persistent

C- Either a or b

D- None of these
10
6 Ans: A- Persistent

Web Services uses ________ to code and decode the data

A- SOAP

B- XML

C- UDDI

D- None of these
10
7 Ans: B- XML

SOAP is lightweight_____ based protocol

A- XHTML

B-XML

C-XSL

D-XSLT
10
8 Ans: B-XML

A Web Service can be created regardless of 

A- System

B- Programming  Language

C- Services

D-internet
10
9 Ans: B- Programming Language 

11 The Web services can not offer the application components like:
0 A- Currency Conversion

B- Weather Reports
 C- The Language Translation

D- Web Browsers

Ans: D- Web Browsers

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0  

Paper 7: Game Programming

2D stand for
a Two-Dimensional
b Two-Diamond 
c Two-Diagram
d All of the above
1
3D Vector Have
a XYZ Plane 
b XY Plane 
c Both a &b
d None of the above
2

Which is not a type of Transformation

a Notation 
b Translation 
c Scaling
 d Shearing
3

GPU uses
a CPU
 b Bus 
c Serial card 
d Graphics Card
4
 Euler’s Rule Defined as
a Faces+Vertices=edges+2
b Faces+2Vertices=edges
c 2Faces+Vertices=2edges
d Faces+Vertices=2edges

The Cartesian xy-plane provides a mechanism for___________

a. Scale pairs of related variables into a graphical format
b. Rotate pairs of related variables into a graphical format
c. Reflect pairs of related variables into a graphical format
d. translating pairs of related variables into a graphical format

  
5

A vector refers to a quantity that possesses both ___________

a. magnitude 
b.  direction
c. magnitude and direction
d. None of the above

The Condition is true if ux = vx, uy = vy, and uz = vz then it is said 

a. Same
b. Equal
c. Different
d. Merge  

If u · v > 0, 
a. then the angle θ between the two vectors is less than 90 degrees
(i.e., the vectors make an acute angle).  
b. the angle θ between the two vectors is greater than 90 degrees (i.e.,
the vectors make an obtuse angle).
c. then u ⊥ v (i.e., the vectors are orthogonal). 
d. None of the above

10 The word “orthogonal” can be used as a synonym for

a. Parallel
b. Perpendicular
c. Equal
d. Zero
 The ___________________has often been called the brains of the PC.
a. CPU 
b. GPU
c. Hard Disk
d. Monitor

11

The transformation that is used to alter the size of an object

is_____________
a) Scaling
b) Rotation
c) Translation
d) Reflection

12

The basic geometric transformations are

a) Translation
b) Rotation
c) Scaling
d) All of the mentioned

13

If the value of sx=1 and sy=1 then

a) Reduce the size of object
b) Distort the picture
c) Produce an enlargement
d) No change in the size of an object
14

A _______________ generates equal spacing between the interpolated

values
for equal changes in the interpolating parameter.

a. linear interpolant
b. Non-Linear Interpolation
c. Cubic Interpolation
15 d. Trigonometric Interpolation

16 What does Open GLSL stand for?

a. Graphical Library of Shadow Languages

b. Geographic Library of Structural Library
 c. Graphical Leader of Shading Library
d. Graphics Library Shader Language

The compute shader technology is also known as the ________ technology

a. DirectX
b. DirectCompute
c. CPU
17 d. GPU

A ______________ is a unit vector that illustrates the direction a polygon is

facing.

a. Face normal 
b. Vertex normal
c. Surface normal
18 d. Normal

_____ antialiasing technique is more expensive.

a. Sampling
b. Supersampling
c. Subsampling
19 d. Multisampling

Vertices are bound to the rendering pipeline in a special direct3D data

structure called a ________
a. Back Buffer
b. Index Buffer
c. Vertex Buffer
20 d. Front Buffer

Which stage reads geometric data from memory & uses it to assemble
geometric primitives?
a. Tessellator stage
b. Output merger stage
c. Input assembler stage
21 d. Vertex shader stage

In order for Direct3D to determine which pixels of an object are in front of

another, it uses a technique called_______________________.

a. Front buffer
b. Shader
c. Depth buffering or z- buffering
22 d. Vertex buffer

23 The _________________ is a texture that does not contains image data but
contains depth information about a particular pixel.
 a. Front buffer
b. Vertex buffer
c. Depth buffer
d. Back buffer

 
In _________________ the image color is computed once per pixel and that
color is replicated into all visible sub pixels that are covered by the polygon.

a. Sampling
b. Multisampling
c. Supersampling
24 d. subsampling

_____________ is more accurate and handles texture and shader aliasing.

a. Sampling
b. Multisampling
c. Supersampling
25 d. subsampling

______________ refers to the complete sequence of steps necessary to

produce a 2D image based on what the virtual camera sees.

a. Rendering pipeline
b. Blending
c. Lighting
26 d. Texturing

Which stage reads geometric data like vertices and indices from memory and
uses it to gather geometric primitives like triangles, lines?

a. Vertex shader Stage

b. Rasterization Stage
c. Pixel shader Stage
27 d. Input Assembler Stage

The difference between a triangle list and strip is that the triangle list may be
_____________, while a triangle strip assumes they are ____________.

a. Disconnected, connected
b. Connected, disconnected
c. Connected, distributed
28 d. Directed, undirected

29 After assembling the primitives the vertices are given to the __________.
 a. Pixel Shader Stage
b. Vertex Shader Stage
c. Input Assembly Stage
d. Blending

What is the full form of NDC?

a. Normalized Direct Coordinates
b. Normalized Device Coordinates
c. Normal DirectX Container
30 d. Non-matrix Device Coordinates

_____________ subdivides the triangles of a mesh to add new triangles.

a. Input Assembler Stage
b. Geometry shader Stage
c. Tessellation Stage
31 d. Vertex Shader Stage

Unity  is ?
a. Game engine
b. Photo Editor
c. Gimp
d. ProBuilder
32

Scenes are included  in folder.

 a. Build
b. Assent
c. Library
d. Project Settings
33

The Transform component determines the

a. Position , Rotation, Scaling
b. Position , Rotation, Shear
c. Position , Reflection, Scaling
34 d. Mirroring, Rotation, Scaling

What is the most important component of unity?

a. Toolbar
b. Scene View
c. Hierarchy
 d. Transform

35

Inspector  in  unity  is a panel.

 a. Context-sensitive
b. Content-sensitive
c. Context-complex
d. None
36
 Asset bundlers  are in unity.
a. Content
 b. Files
c. Objects
d. Tags
37

Non-Rigid object in Unity?

a. Deformable
b. Breakable
 c.   Both
d.   None
38

Prefab  in  unity   is referred for           template.

a. Pre-fabricated object
b. Fabricated object
c. Post-fabricated Object 
39 d. None

To make a copy of an object you  can use function.

 a. Instantiate()
b. Func()
c. Spawnactor()
d. Object
40

In unity how can you hide game Object?

a. ToolBarObject.transform.SetActive(false)
b. Object.Transform.setActive(false)
c. gameObject.transform.SetActive(false)
d. None
41

When an application is close the correct order of execution of event function

is:
a. Awake() , start(), onEnable()
b. onEnable(), awake(), start()
 c. Awake() , onEnable() , start()
d. None
42

Use of Asset Bundles in Unity?

a. Uploading
b. Downloading
c. Editing
d. Deleting
43

44 Main classes that function inclides are:

a. Int
 b. String
c. Array
 d. All of above

Non-Rigid  object  in unity?

a. Deformable
b. Breakable
 c. Both a and b
d. None
45

Cache means            .
a. Speed up the game
b. Speedup processing 
c. Speed uploading 
46 d. speed down the game

Game  is Collection  of screen?

 a. 1 to many
b. 1 to 1
c. Many to many
d. All of above
47

Game object come to life via components includes?

a. Camera
b. Audio
c. Scripts
 d. All of above
48

Object will  turn on hierarchy

 a. Red
b. Blue
c. Black
d. All
49

Major component in unity architecture.

a. Editor
b. Mono Develop
c. Game Engine
 d. All of above
50

51 Local cache for imported assets and meta data

 a. Library
b. Temp/obj
c. Project Settings
d. None
 ____________is always used to compile scripts?
a. Mongo
 b. Mono
c. None
d. Both a & b
52

Unity  supports ______ animation imported within a model file?

a. Words
 b. Character
c. Strings
53 d. None

Postion  of the  objects can’t  be change directly  from .

 a. Transform
b. Assets
c. Vectors
d. Axes
54

The shows the current scene structure.

a. Scripts
 b. Hierarchy panel
c. Inspection Panel
d. None
55

The allows users to modify numeric values  (such as position,  rotation  and
scale),  drag and drop references of scene objects.
a. Render panel
 b.    Inspection Panel
c. Scripts
d. None
56

_______should be normalized when used to move an object.

a. Pixel
 b. Vector
c. Texture
d. Transform
57

______should be used to make things that depend on time operate correctly.

 a. Time.deltaTime
b. Time.metaTime
c. configure.Time
d. Any of the above

58
 The “overdrawn” mode helps the user to profile the number of pixels being
rendered in the
  .
a. Different area
b. Current section
c. Whole project
 d. Same area
59

__________makes the scene render all pixels without illumination

a. Highly lighting
 b. Deferred Lighting
c. Flame attribute
d. None
60

33. Pixel  shader is a script  that  runs  for each ___ after three vertices are
processed in a mesh’s triangle.
 a. Fragments
b. Coordinates
c. Panel
d. Script
61

Textures  and  Meshes  are example   of element stored in .

a. Processor
 b. GPU memory
c. CPU memory
d. All
62

Capabilities of unity.
a. AAA game quality
b. Physics
c. 2D 3D support
 d. All
63

Meta Data in Unity means?

 a. Data about data
b. Data that describes data
c. Complete information about the data
d.        All
 
64

65 Collision Call back functions are.

 a. OnCollisionEnter
b. OnCollision
c. OnCollisionExit
 d. All

Intangible  Object _____________.

a. Predefined Shape
b. No predefined Shape
c. Fire
 d. Both b & c
66

Which packages we have to import in a simple unity project?

a. Particles
b. Water
c. Skyboxes
 d. All of above
67

25. The panel contains references to the objects that exist, or will exist,
when the application is ____.
a. https://docs.google.com/document/d/1GQW-
GGGoLYgw8dXuQPDf4c6MbJSapbP9dJCyulNUxms/edit#bookmark=id.p6qk
6m2nedxfCreated
 b. Executed
c. Runs in debug
d. None
68

24. Script  must  be inherited  from .

 a. MongoBehaviour
b. MangoBehaviour
c. MonoBehaviour
d. None
69

23. Script  name  must be the ____ as a class name.

a. Inherited
b. Delivered
 c. Called
d. Same
70

If light hits on rough surface, then the ray of the light scatter in different
random directions and it is called a_______________.
a. Ambient lighting
b. Spot lighting
c. Diffuse lighting
71 d. Specular lighting

72 The blend settings are controlled by the ______________ interface.

a. ID3D11BlendState
b. D3D11_BLEND_ZERO
 c. Id3D11DeviceContext
d. D3D11_BLEND_SRC_ALPHA

Which is the correct cosine rule-

73 a. sin2()+ cos2()

In 2D-translation, a point (x, y) can move to the new position (x’, y’) by using the
equation:
a. x’=x+dx and y’=y+dx
b. x’=x+dx and y’=y+dy
c. X’=x+dy and Y’=y+dx
74 d. X’=x-dx and y’=y-dy

Which of the following is not the basic geometric transformation:

a) Translation
b) Rotation
c) Shear 
75 d) Sizing

Who is the inventor of smart glasses?

a. Steven Mann
b. James Gosling
c. Steve Jobs
76 d. Ronald Wayne

Unity calls this method 60 times per second (i.e 60 frames per second):
a. Update()
b. Start()
c. Init()
77 d. Run()

The API used in Unity 3D is:

a. OpenGL
b. Direct3D
c. OpenGL ES
78 d. Proprietary API

A 8 bit _________ buffer is always attached to a depth buffer.

a. Double
b. Translation
c. Stencil
79 d. Back

___________ allow game objects to act under the control of Physics Engine.
a. Animation
b. Rigid Body
c. Script
80 d. Controller

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