HW Assignment #3
HW Assignment #3
TIMOTHY LEONARDO
Instructions: Students are encouraged to discuss and work on homework problems with
their peers. However, work submitted must be the students own. Presenting other’s work as
your own is dishonest and violates University policy. Multiple students handing in identical
work will not receive credit and will be subject to appropriate disciplinary measures.
(Notation):
1) ∈= in, ∈= / not in, ∃= there exist, ∀= for all.
2) ∅ = empty set.
3) R are the real numbers and Z are the integers.
Problem 1 (4 points). Prove that: If (G, ∗) and (H, •) are groups, then (G × H, ) is a
group via
∀g1 , g2 ∈ G textand h1 , h2 ∈ H
define by
(g1 , h1 ) (g2 , h2 ) = (g1 ∗ g2 , h1 • h2 )
Solution 1.
We want to show that (G × H, ) is a group. Let (g1 , h1 )and(g2 , h2 ) ∈ G × H. Be definition
(g1 , h1 ) (g2 , h2 ) = (g1 ∗ g2 , h1 • h2 ).
Since G and H are groups, g1 ∗ g2 ∈ G and h1 • h2 ∈ H. Because * is a binary operation on
G and • is a binary operation on H it follows the sequence (g1 ∗ g2 , h1 • h2 ) ∈ G × H.
So, is a binary operation of G × H.
ASSOCIATIVE PROOF
LEFT HAND SIDE: Let (g1 , h1 ), (g2 , h2 ), (g3 , h3 ) ∈ G × H.
= (g1 ∗ g2 , h1 • h2 ) (g3 , h3 ). We can show that ((g1 ∗ g2 ) ∗ g3 ), ((h1 • h2 ) • h3 ).
RIGHT HAND SIDE: Let (g1 , h1 ), (g2 , h2 ), (g3 , h3 ) ∈ G × H.
(g1 , h1 ) (g2 ∗ g3 , h2 • h3 ) = g1 ∗ (g2 ∗ g3 ), h1 • (h2 • h3 )
∴ Since (g1 ∗ g2 ) ∗ g3 = g1 ∗ (g2 ∗ g3 ) and (h1 • h2 ) • h3 ) = h1 • (h2 • h3 ) We can show that ∗
is associative in G and • is associative in H. So, is associated in G × H.
IDENTITY PROOF
We wish to find (e1 , e2 ) ∈ G × H s.t. (g, h) (e1 , e2 ) = (e1 , e2 ) (g, h) = (g, h) for
∀(g, h) ∈ G × H. (g, h) (e1 , e2 ) = (g ∗ e1 , h • e2 ) = (g, h).
g ∗ e1 = g and h • e2 = h. It follows e1 is the identity of G and e2 is the identity element of
H. If this is true, (e1 , e2 ) (g, h) = (e1 ∗ g, e2 • h) = (g, h). Since (e1 , e2 ) ∈ G × H, (e1 , e2 ) is
the identity element of G × H where e1 is the identity of G and e2 is the identity of H.
= 1 · 1 · ... · 1
=1
Therefore, if G = {a1 , a2 , . . . , an } is an abelian group and x = a1 a2 . . . an , then x2 = 1.
QED
Problem 3 (3 points). Prove that if G is a group and a, b ∈ G with aba−1 = bj , then
r
ar ba−r = bj (Hint: induction and note that bj bj = aba−1 aba−1 = abba−1 ).
Solution 3.
We will need to perform the Proof of Induction twice for this example. Let us first prove
that (bj )n = abn a−1
• Base Case: n = 1; bj = aba−1 . With this, base case is satisfied.
• Inductive Hypothesis: Assume abn a−1 = (bj )n when n = t.
• Inductive Step: We wish to examine (bj )t+1
(bj )t+1 = (bj )t bj
= abt a−1 · bj
= abt a−1 · (aba−1 )
= abt a−1 aba−1
= abt ba−1 (because of the identity)
= abt+1 a−1
So, if (bj )t = abt a−1 then (bj )t+1 = abt+1 a−1 . So, if n is an integer (bj )n = (aba−1 )n = abn a−1 .
r
Next we will prove ar ba−r = bj
• Base Case: r = 1; aba−1 = bj . This is true therefore the base case is satisfied for
aba−1 = bj .
r u
• Inductive Hypothesis: Assume ar ba−r = bj for when r = u. So, au ba−u = bj .
• Inductive Step: We wish to examine (bj )u+1 .
(bj )u+1 = ((bj )u )j
2
= (au ba−u )j
Let y = au so (yby −1 )j
= ybj y −1
= au bj a−u
= au aba−1 a−u
= au+1 ba−(u+1)
u u
So, if bj = au ba−u then bj +1 = au+1 ba−(u+1)
r
Hence ar ba−r = bj
r
Therefore, if aba−1 = bj then ar ba−r = bj by order of induction. QED