MCQ of REGRESSION AND CORRELATION

MCQ 14.1
A process by which we estimate the value of dependent variable on the basis of one or more independent
variables is called:
(a) Correlation (b) Regression (c) Residual (d) Slope

MCQ 14.2
The method of least squares dictates that we choose a regression line where the sum of the square of
deviations of the points from the lie is:
(a) Maximum (b) Minimum (c) Zero (d)
Positive

MCQ 14.3
A relationship where the flow of the data points is best represented by a curve is called:
(a) Linear relationship (b) Nonlinear relationship (c) Linear positive (d) Linear negative

MCQ 14.4
All data points falling along a straight line is called:
(a) Linear relationship (b) Non linear relationship (c) Residual (d) Scatter diagram

MCQ 14.5
The value we would predict for the dependent variable when the independent variables are all equal to zero
is called:
(a) Slope (b) Sum of residual (c) Intercept (d) Difficult to tell

MCQ 14.6
The predicted rate of response of the dependent variable to changes in the independent variable is called:
(a) Slope (b) Intercept (c) Error (d) Regression equation

MCQ 14.7
The slope of the regression line of Y on X is also called the:
(a) Correlation coefficient of X on Y (b) Correlation coefficient of Y on X
(c) Regression coefficient of X on Y (d) Regression coefficient of Y on X

MCQ 14.8
In simple linear regression, the numbers of unknown constants are:
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four

MCQ 14.9
In simple regression equation, the numbers of variables involved are:
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

MCQ 14.10
If the value of any regression coefficient is zero, then two variables are:
(a) Qualitative (b) Correlation (c) Dependent (d) Independent

MCQ 14.11
The straight line graph of the linear equation Y = a+ bX, slope will be upward if:
(a) b = 0 (b) b < 0 (c) b > 0 (b) b ≠ 0

MCQ 14.12
The straight line graph of the linear equation Y = a + bX, slope will be downward If:
(a) b > 0 (b) b < 0 (c) b = 0 (d) b ≠ 0
MCQ 14.13
The straight line graph of the linear equation Y = a + bX, slope is horizontal if:
(a) b = 0 (b) b ≠ 0 (c) b = 1 (d) a = b

MCQ 14.14
If regression line of = 5, then value of regression coefficient of Y on X is:
(a) 0 (b) 0.5 (c) 1 (d) 5

MCQ 14.15
If Y = 2 - 0.2X, then the value of Y intercept is equal to:
(a) -0.2 (b) 2 (c) 0.2X (d) All of the above

MCQ 14.16
If one regression coefficient is greater than one, then other will he:
(a) More than one (b) Equal to one (c) Less than one (d) Equal to minus one

MCQ 14.17
To determine the height of a person when his weight is given is:
(a) Correlation problem (b) Association problem (c) Regression problem (d) Qualitative
problem

MCQ 14.18
The dependent variable is also called:
(a) Regression (b) Regressand (c) Continuous variable (d) Independent

MCQ 14.19
The dependent variable is also called:
(a) Regressand variable (b) Predictand variable (c) Explained variable (d) All of these

MCQ 14.20
The independent variable is also called:
(a) Regressor (b) Regressand (c) Predictand (d) Estimated

MCQ 14.21
In the regression equation Y = a+bX, the Y is called:
(a) Independent variable (b) Dependent variable (c) Continuous variable (d) None of the above

MCQ 14.22
In the regression equation X = a + bY, the X is called:
(a) Independent variable (b) Dependent variable (c) Qualitative variable (d) None of the above

MCQ 14.23
In the regression equation Y = a +bX, a is called:
(a) X-intercept (b) Y-intercept (c) Dependent variable (d) None of the above

MCQ 14.24
The regression equation always passes through:
(a) (X, Y) (b) (a, b) (c) ( , ) (d) ( , Y)

MCQ 14.25
The independent variable in a regression line is:
(a) Non-random variable (b) Random variable (c) Qualitative variable (d) None of the above
MCQ 14.26
The graph showing the paired points of (X i, Yi) is called:
(a) Scatter diagram (b) Histogram (c) Historigram (d) Pie diagram

MCQ 14.27
The graph represents the relationship that is:
(a) Linear (b) Non linear (c) Curvilinear (d) No relation

MCQ 14.28
The graph represents the relationship that is.:
(a) Linear positive (b) Linear negative (c) Non-linear (d) Curvilinear

MCQ 14.29
When regression line passes through the origin, then:
(a) Intercept is zero (b) Regression coefficient is zero (c) Correlation is zero (d) Association is zero

MCQ 14.30
When bXY is positive, then byx will be:
(a) Negative (b) Positive (c) Zero (d) One

MCQ 14.31
The correlation coefficient is the_______of two regression coefficients:
(a) Geometric mean (b) Arithmetic mean (c) Harmonic mean (d) Median

MCQ 14.32
When two regression coefficients bear same algebraic signs, then correlation coefficient is:
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) According to two signs (d) Zero

MCQ 14.33
It is possible that two regression coefficients have:
(a) Opposite signs (b) Same signs (c) No sign (d) Difficult to tell

MCQ 14.34
Regression coefficient is independent of:
(a) Units of measurement (b) Scale and origin (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of them

MCQ 14.35
In the regression line Y = a+ bX:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

MCQ 14.36
In the regression line Y = a + bX, the following is always true:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

MCQ 14.37
The purpose of simple linear regression analysis is to:
(a) Predict one variable from another variable
(b) Replace points on a scatter diagram by a straight-line
(c) Measure the degree to which two variables are linearly associated
(d) Obtain the expected value of the independent random variable for a given value of the dependent
variable
MCQ 14.38
The sum of the difference between the actual values of Y and its values obtained from the fitted
regression line is always:
(a) Zero (b) Positive (c) Negative (d) Minimum

MCQ 14.39
If all the actual and estimated values of Y are same on the regression line, the sum of squares of
error will be:
(a) Zero (b) Minimum (c) Maximum (d) Unknown

MCQ 14.40

(a) Residual (b) Difference between independent and dependent variables

(c) Difference between slope and intercept (d) Sum of residual

MCQ 14.41
A measure of the strength of the linear relationship that exists between two variables is called:
(a) Slope (b) Intercept (c) Correlation coefficient (d) Regression
equation

MCQ 14.42
When the ratio of variations in the related variables is constant, it is called:
(a) Linear correlation (b) Nonlinear correlation (c) Positive correlation (d) Negative correlation

MCQ 14.43
If both variables X and Y increase or decrease simultaneously, then the coefficient of correlation will
be:
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) One

MCQ 14.44
If the points on the scatter diagram indicate that as one variable increases the other variable tends to
decrease the value of r will be:
(a) Perfect positive (b) Perfect negative (c) Negative (d) Zero

MCQ 14.45
If the points on the scatter diagram show no tendency either to increase together or decrease together
the value of r will be close to:
(a) -1 (b) +1 (c) 0.5 (d) 0

MCQ 14.46
If one item is fixed and unchangeable and the other item varies, the correlation coefficient will be:
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) Undecided

MCQ 14.47
In scatter diagram, if most of the points lie in the first and third quadrants, then coefficient of
correlation is:
(a) Negative (b) Positive (c) Zero (d) All of the above

MCQ 14.48
If the two series move in reverse directions and the variations in their values are always
proportionate, it is said to be:
(a) Negative correlation (b) Positive correlation
(c) Perfect negative correlation (d) Perfect positive correlation
MCQ 14.49
If both the series move in the same direction and the variations are in a fixed proportion, correlation
between them is said to be:
(a) Perfect correlation (c) Linear correlation
(c) Nonlinear correlation (d) Perfect positive correlation

MCQ 14.50
The value of the coefficient of correlation r lies between:
(a) 0 and 1 (b) -1 and 0 (c) -1 and +1 (d) -0.5 and +0.5

MCQ 14.51
If X is measured in yours and Y is measured in minutes, then correlation coefficient has the unit:
(a) Hours (b) Minutes (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) No unit

MCQ 14.52
The range of regressioin coefficient is:
(a) -1 to +1 (b) 0 to 1 (c) -∞ to +∞ (d) 0 to ∞

MCQ 14.53
The signs of regression coefficients and correlation coefficient are always:
(a) Different (b) Same (c) Positive (d) Negative

MCQ 14.54
The arithmetic mean of the two regression coefficients is greater than or equal to:
(a) -1 (b) +1 (c) 0 (d) r

MCQ 14.55
In simple linear regression model Y = α + βX + ε where α and β are called:
(a) Estimates (b) Parameters (c) Random errors (d) Variables

MCQ 14.56
Negative regression coefficient indicates that the movement of the variables are in:
(a) Same direction (b) Opposite direction (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Difficult to tell

MCQ 14.57
Positive regression coefficient indicates that the movement of the variables are in:
(a) Same direction (b) Opposite direction (c) Upward direction (d) Downward direction

MCQ 14.58
If the value of regression coefficient is zero, then the two variable are called:
(a) Independent (b) Dependent (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Difficult to tell

MCQ 14.59
The term regression was used by:
(a) Newton (b) Pearson (c) Spearman (d) Galton

MCQ 14.60
In the regression equation Y = a + bX, b is called:
(a) Slope (b) Regression coefficient (c) Intercept (d) Both (a) and (b)

MCQ 14.61
When the two regression lines are parallel to each other, then their slopes are:
(a) Zero (b) Different (c) Same (d) Positive
MCQ 14.62
The measure of change in dependent variable corresponding to an unit change in independent
variable is called:
(a) Slope (b) Regression coefficient (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) and (b)

MCQ 14.63
In correlation problem both variables are:
(a) Equal (b) Unknown (c) Fixed (d) Random

MCQ 14.64
In the regression equation Y = a + bX, where a and b are called:
(a) Constants (b) Estimates (c) Parameters (d) Both (a) and (b)

MCQ 14.65
If byx = bxy = 1 and Sx = Sy, then r will be:
(a) 0 (b) -1 (c) 1 (d) Difficult to calculate

MCQ 14.66
The correlation coefficient between X and -X is:
(a) 0 (b) 0.5 (c) 1 (d) -1

MCQ 14.67
If byx = bxy = rxy, then:
(a) Sx ≠ Sy (b) Sx = Sy (c) Sx > Sy (d) Sx < Sy

MCQ 14.68
If rxy = 0.4, then r(2x, 2y) is equal to:
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.8 (c) 0 (d) 1

MCQ 14.69
rxy is equal to:
(a) 0 (b) -1 (c) 1 (d) 0.5

MCQ 14.70
If rxy = 0.75, then correlation coefficient between u = 1.5X and v = 2Y is:
(a) 0 (b) 0.75 (c) -0.75 (d) 1.5

MCQ 14.71
If byx = -2 and rxy= -1, then bxy is equal to:
(a) -1 (b) -2 (c) 0.5 (d) -0.5

MCQ 14.72
If byx = 1.6 and bxy = 0.4, then rxy will be:
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.64 (c) 0.8 (d) -0.8

MCQ 14.73
If byx = -0.8 and bxy = -0.2, then ryx is equal to:
(a) -0.2 (b) -0.4 (c) 0.4 (d) -0.8

MCQ 14.74
If = 6 – X, then r will be:
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) -1 (d) Both (b) and (c)
MCQ 14.75
If = X + 10, then r equal to:
(a) 1 (b) -1 (c) 1/2 (d) Difficult to tell

MCQ 14.76
If Y = -10X and X = -0.1Y, then r is equal to:
(a) 0.1 (b) 1 (c) -1 (d) 10

MCQ 14.77
If the figure +1 signifies perfect positive correlation and the figure -1 signifies a perfect negative
correlation, then the figure 0 signifies:
(a) A perfect correlation (b) Uncorrelated variables
(c) Not significant (d) Weak correlation

MCQ 14.78
A perfect positive correlation is signified by:
(a) 0 (b) -1 (c) +1 (d) -1 to +1

MCQ 14.79
If a statistics professor tells his class: "All those who got 100 on the statistics test got 20 on the
mathematics test, and all those that got 100 on the mathematics test got 20 on the statistics test", he
is saying that the correlation between the statistics test and the mathematics test is:
(a) Negative (b) Positive (c) Zero (d) Difficult to tell

MCQ 14.80
If is zero, the correlation is:
(a) Weak negative (b) High positive (c) High negative (d) None of the preceding

MCQ 14.81
If rxy = 1, then:
(a) byx = bxy (b) byx > bxy (c) byx < bxy (d) byx . bxy = 1

MCQ 14.82
The relation between the regression coefficient b yx and correlation coefficient r is:

MCQ 14.83
The relation between the regression coefficient b xy and correlation coefficient r is:

MCQ 14.84
If the sum of the product of the deviation of X and Y from their means is zero, the correlation
coefficient between X and Y is:
(a) Zero (b) Maximum (c) Minimum (d) Undecided

MCQ 14.85
If the coefficient of correlation between the variables X and Y is r, the coefficient of correlation
between X2 and Y2 is:
(a) -1 (b) 1 (c) r (d) r2

MCQ 14.86
If rxy = 0.75, then rxy will be:
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.50 (c) 0.75 (d) -0.75
MCQ 14.87
If , then byx is equal to:
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) One

MCQ 14.88
If , then intercept a is equal to:
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) -1 to +1 (d) 0 to 1

MCQ 14.89
:
(a) Less than zero (b) Greater than zero (c) Equal to zero (d) Not equal to zero

MCQ 14.90
When rxy < 0, then byx and bxy will be:
(a) Zero (b) Not equal to zero (c) Less than zero (d) Greater than zero

MCQ 14.91
When rxy > 0, then byx and bxy are both:
(a) 0 (b) < 0 (c) > 0 (d) < 1

MCQ 14.92
If rxy = 0, then:
(a) byx = 0 (b) bxy = 0 (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) byx ≠ bxy

MCQ 14.93
If bxy = 0.20 and rxy = 0.50, then byx is equal to:
(a) 0.20 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 1.25

MCQ 14.94
A regression model may be:
(a) Linear (b) Non-linear (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a)
and (b)

MCQ 14.95
If r is negative, we know that:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Sample questions for final exam

The one-hour mid-term test had 28 questions with 21 multiple choice and 7 open questions
including 3 'essay' questions.

The final exam is a two-hour exam and will have approximately 40 multiple choice questions, 5
'essay' questions, 5 'easy' open questions (e.g. name and briefly describe three type of bias in
sample surveys), 2 more elaborate questions involving probabilities using tree diagrams. A
number of questions will require the interpretation of output from computer analyses.

The exam will cover all the material seen in the course with weight roughly proportional to the
amount of time spent on the material. The chapters covered are chapters 1 to 7, 10, 11. We
excluded the part of chapter 4 devoted to simulation. Note that some material in 12, 13 and 14
was covered in earlier chapters and you are responsible for that material.

For sample questions, use

1. the sample mid-term and the mid-term itself,

2. the questions in assignment 2,
3. the questions below that focus on material covered since the mid-term.

Pay particular attention to questions in red.

1
1. Which one of the following is NOT appropriate for studying the relationship between two quantitative
variables?
A. Scatterplot
B. Bar chart
C. Correlation
D. Regression

2. Which graph shows a pattern that would be appropriately described by the equation yˆ b0 b1 x ?

A. B.

C. D.

3. Describe the type of association shown in the following scatterplot:

A. Positive linear association

B. Negative linear association
C. Positive curvilinear association
D. Negative curvilinear association

2
4. Describe the type of association shown in the following scatterplot:

A. Positive linear association

B. Negative linear association
C. Positive curvilinear association
D. Negative curvilinear association

5. Which of the following can NOT be answered from a regression equation?

A. Predict the value of y at a particular value of x.
B. Estimate the slope between y and x.
C. Estimate whether the linear association is positive or negative.
D. Estimate whether the association is linear or non-linear

For the next 4 questions: The simple linear regression equation can be written as yˆ b0 b1 x
6. In the simple linear regression equation, the symbol ŷ represents the
A. average or predicted response
B. estimated intercept
C. estimated slope
D. explanatory variable

7. In the simple linear regression equation, the term b0 represents the

A. estimated or predicted response
B. estimated intercept
C. estimated slope
D. explanatory variable

8. In the simple linear regression equation, the term b1 represents the

A. estimated or predicted response
B. estimated intercept
C. estimated slope
D. explanatory variable

9. In the simple linear regression equation, the symbol x represents the

A. estimated or predicted response
B. estimated intercept
C. estimated slope
D. explanatory variable

3
For the next 3 questions: A regression between foot length (response variable in cm) and height (explanatory
variable in inches) for 33 students resulted in the following regression equation:

ŷ = 10.9 + 0.23 x
10. One student in the sample was 73 inches tall with a foot length of 29 cm. What is the predicted foot length for
this student?
A. 17.57 cm
B. 27.69 cm
C. 29 cm
D. 33 cm

11. One student in the sample was 73 inches tall with a foot length of 29 cm. What is the residual for this student?
A. 29 cm
B. 1.31 cm
C. 0.00 cm
D. -1.31 cm

12. What is the estimated average foot length for students who are 70 inches tall?
A. 27 cm
B. 28 cm
C. 29 cm
D. 30 cm

For the next 3 questions: The following scatterplot shows the relationship between the left and right forearm
lengths (cm) for 55 college students along with the regression line, where y =left forearm length x = right forearm
length.

13. One of the four choices is the equation for the regression line in the plot. The regression equation is
A. ŷ = 1.22 + 0.95 x
B. ŷ = 1.22 0.95 x
C. x̂ = 1.22 + 0.95 y
D. x̂ = 1.22 0.95 y

14. One of the four choices is the value of the correlation for this situation. The correlation is
A. –0.88
B. 0.00
C. 0.88
D. 1.00

4
 2
15. The proportion of total variation explained by x, r , is closest to
A. –78.3%
B. 0.0%
C. 78.3%
D. 100.0%

16. A regression equation for left palm length (y variable) and right palm length (x variable) for 55 college students
gave an error sum of squares (SSE) of 10.7 and a total sum of squares (SSTO) of 85.2. The proportion of
2
variation explained by x, r , is
A. 11.2%
B. 12.6%
C. 87.4%
D. 88.8%

Next 3 questions: A regression analysis done with Rcmdr for the relationship between a prestige rating and
mean education for 102 occupations yielded the following output.

17. The regression equation to predict prestige (y) as a function of education (x) is:
A. ŷ = -10.732 + 5.361 x
B. ŷ = 5.361 – 10.732 x
C. ŷ = 3.677 + 0.332 x
D. none of the above
18. How would you describe the evidence for a relationship between prestige and educstion?

19. The correlation between prestige and income is:

A. – 0..7228

5
 B. 0.7228
C. 0.8502
D. can't tell from the output

20. A scatterplot of the self-reported weights (y variable) and self-reported heights (x variable) for 176 college
students follows.

The main difficulty with using a regression line to analyze these data is
A. Presence of one or more outliers
B. Inappropriately combining groups
C. Curvilinear data
D. Response variable is not quantitative

21. A scatterplot of the price of a book (y variable) versus the number of pages in the book (x variable) is shown for
15 books in a professors office. In addition, the symbol “o” shows that the book was a hardcover book, while
the symbol “+” shows that the book was a softcover book.

The main difficulty with using a single regression line to analyze these data is
A. Presence of one or more outliers
B. Inappropriately combining groups
C. Curvilinear data
D. Response variable is not quantitative

22. Based on 1988 census data for the 50 States in the United Stares, the correlation between the number of
churches per State and the number of violent crimes per State was 0.85. We can conclude that
A. There is a causal relationship between the number of churches and the number of violent crimes
committed in a city.
B. The correlation is partly spurious because of the confounding variable of population size: both number of
churches and number of violent crimes are related to the population size.
C. Since the data comes from a census, or nearly complete enumeration of the United States, there must be a
causal relationship between the number of churches and the number of violent crimes.
D. The relationship is not causal because only correlations of +1 or –1 show causal relationships.

6
30. One interpretation of the slope is
A. a student who scored 0 on the midterm would be predicted to score 50 on the final exam.
B. a student who scored 0 on the final exam would be predicted to score 50 on the midterm exam.
C. a student who scored 2 points higher than another student on the midterm would be predicted to score 1
point higher than the other student on the final exam.
D. none of the above are an interpretation of the slope.

31. Midterm exam scores could range from 0 to 100. Based on the equation, final exam scores are predicted to
range from
A. 0 to 100.
B. 50 to 100.
C. 50 to 75.
D. 0 to 75.

32. For which one of these relationships could we use a regression analysis? Only one choice is correct.
A. Relationship between weight and height.
B. Relationship between political party membership and opinion about abortion.
C. Relationship between gender and whether person has a tattoo.
D. Relationship between eye color (blue, brown, etc.) and hair color (blond, etc.).

2
33. Which of the following is a possible value of r and indicates the strongest linear relationship between two
quantitative variables?
A. 90%
B. 0%
C. 80%
D. 120%

34. The correlation between two variables is given by r = 0.0. What does this mean?
A. The best straight line through the data is horizontal.
B. There is a perfect positive relationship between the two variables
C. There is a perfect negative relationship between the two variables.
D. All of the points must fall exactly on a horizontal straight line.

35. The value of a correlation is reported by a researcher to be r = 0.5. Which of the following statements is
correct?
A. The x-variable explains 50% of the variability in the y-variable.
B. The x-variable explains 50% of the variability in the y-variable.
C. The x-variable explains 25% of the variability in the y-variable
D. The x-variable explains 25% of the variability in the y-variable

36. Which one of the following statements involving correlation is possible and reasonable?
A. The correlation between hair color and eye color is 0.80.
B. The correlation between the height of a father and the height of his first son is 0.6
C. The correlation between left foot length and right foot length is 2.35.
D. The correlation between hair color and age is positive.

37. Correlation and regression are concerned with

A. the relationship between two categorical variables.
B. the relationship between two quantitative variables.
C. the relationship between a quantitative explanatory variable and a categorical response variable.
D. the relationship between a categorical explanatory variable and a quantitative response variable.

8
38. A scatterplot is a
A. one-dimensional graph of randomly scattered data.
B. two-dimensional graph of a straight line.
C. two-dimensional graph of a curved line.
D. two-dimensional graph of data values.

39. Two variables have a positive association when

A. the values of one variable tend to increase as the values of the other variable increase.
B. the values of one variable tend to decrease as the values of the other variable increase.
C. the values of one variable tend to increase irregardless of how the values of the other variable change.
D. the values of both variables are always positive.

40. A researcher reports that the correlation between two quantitative variables is r = 0.8. Which of the following
statements is correct?
A. The average value of y changes by 0.8 when x is increased by 1.
B. The average value of x changes by 0.8 when y is increased by 1.
C. The explanatory variable (x) explains 0.8 of the variation in the response variable (y)
2
D. The explanatory variable (x) explains .8 = 0.64 of the variation in the response variable (y)

41. What is the effect of an outlier on the value of a correlation coefficient?

A. An outlier will always decrease a correlation coefficient.
B. An outlier will always increase a correlation coefficient.
C. An outlier might either decrease or increase a correlation coefficient, depending on where it is in relation
to the other points.
D. An outlier will have no effect on a correlation coefficient.

42. A reviewer rated a sample of fifteen wines on a score from 1 (very poor) to 7 (excellent). A correlation of .92
was obtained between these ratings and the cost of the wines at a local store. In plain English, this means that
A. in general, the reviewer liked the cheaper wines better.
B. having to pay more caused the reviewer to give a higher rating.
C. wines with low ratings are likely to be more expensive (probably because fewer will be sold).
D. in general, as the cost went up so did the rating.

43. A scatter plot and regression line can be used for all of the following EXCEPT
A. to determine if any (x,y) pairs are outliers.
B. to predict y at a specific value of x..
C. to estimate the average y at a specific value of x.
D. to determine if a change in x causes a change in y.

9
44. Consider the following graph.

For these data, there is

A. positive correlation.
B. negative correlation.
C. biased correlation.
D. zero correlation.

45. Which of the following is a deterministic relationship?

A. The relationship between hair color and eye color.
B. The relationship between father's height and son's height.
C. The relationship between height in inches and height in centimeters.
D. The relationship between height as determined with a ruler and height as determined by a tape measure.

46. A scatter plot of number of teachers and number of people with college degrees for cities in Pennsylvania
reveals a positive association. The most likely explanation for this positive association is:
A. Teachers encourage people to get college degrees, so an increase in the number of teachers is causing an
increase in the number of people with college degrees.
B. Teaching is a common profession for people with college degrees, so an increase in the number of people
with college degrees causes an increase in the number of teachers.
C. Cities with higher incomes tend to have more teachers and more people going to college, so income is a
confounding variable, making causation between number of teachers and number of people with college
degrees difficult to prove.
D. Larger cities tend to have both more teachers and more people with college degrees, so the association is
explained by a third variable, the size of the city.

50. A professor found a negative correlation between the number of hours students came to her office hours and
their score on her final exam. What possible confounding variable could explain the observed negative
correlation?

51. Suppose a study of employees at a large company found a negative correlation between weight and distance
walked on an average day. Explain why a conclusion that walking reduces weight cannot be made from this
study (i.e. What confounding variable could also explain the observed negative correlation?)

Next 4 questions: A regression was done for 20 cities with latitude as the explanatory variable (x) and average
January temperature as the response variable (y). The latitude is measured in degrees and average January
temperature in degrees Fahrenheit. The latitudes ranged from 26 (Miami) to 47 (Duluth) The regression equation is

ŷ = 49.4 – 0.313 x

10
52. The city of Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania has latitude 40 degrees with average January temperature of 25 degrees
Fahrenheit. What is the estimated average January temperature for Pittsburgh, based on the regression
equation? What is the residual?

53. The city of Miami, Florida has latitude 26 degrees with average January temperature of 67 degrees Fahrenheit.
What is the estimated average January temperature for Miami, based on the regression equation? What is the
residual?

54. The total sum of squares (SSTO) = 4436.6, and the error sum of squares (SSE) = 1185.8. What is the value of
r 2 , the proportion of variation explained by x?

55. Mexico City has latitude 20 degrees. What is the problem with using the regression equation to estimate the
average January temperature for Mexico City?

Next 3 questions: The next four questions are based on a regression equation for 55 college students with x = left
forearm length (cm) and y = height. The forearm lengths ranged from 22 cm to 31 cm. The regression equation is
ŷ = 30.3 + 1.49 x
56. One student’s left forearm length was 27 cm, and his height was 75 inches. What is the estimated height for
this student, based on the regression equation? What is the residual?

57. One student’s left forearm length was 22 cm, and her height was 63 inches. What is the estimated height for
this student, based on the regression equation? What is the residual?

58. The total sum of squares (SSTO) = 1054.8, and the error sum of squares (SSE) = 464.5. What is the value of
r 2 , the proportion of variation explained by x?

Next 3 questions The scatterplot below shows student heights (y axis) versus father’s heights (x axis) for a sample
of 173 college students. The symbol “+” represents a male student and the symbol “o” is represents a female
student.

59. Based on the scatterplot, what is the problem with using a regression equation for all 173 students?

11
60. The correlation between father’s heights and student’s heights for the 79 male students is r = 0.669. What is the
proportion of variation explained by father’s heights?

61. The regression equation between father’s heights and student’s heights for the 79 male students is
ŷ = 30 + .58 x. One student was 72 inches tall; his father’s height was 65 inches. What is the estimated height
for this student, and what is the residual?

Chapter 6

Next 4 questions: The table below shows the counts by gender and highest degree attained for 498 respondents in
the General Social Survey.

No High High School Bachelor Graduate

School Degree Degree Juni or College Degree Degree Total
Male 49 95 11 39 23 217
Female 52 166 14 37 12 281
Total 10 1 261 25 76 35 498

62. What percent of the sample were males?

A. 43.6%
B. 48.5%
C. 56.4%
D. 77.2%

63. What percent of the sample were males with no high school degree?
A. 9.8%
B. 20.3%
C. 22.6%
D. 48.5%

64. What percent of the sample did not graduate from high school?
A. 18.5%
B. 20.3%
C. 22.6%
D. 52.4%

65. What percent of females had a graduate degree?

A. 2.4%
B. 4.3%
C. 7.0%
D. 56.4%

Questions 5 to 8: The table below shows the number of Olympic medals won by the three countries with the most
medals during the 2000 Olympics in Sydney, Australia. There were a total of 244 medals won by the three
countries.

Country Gold Silver Bronze Total

USA 39 25 33 97
Russia 32 28 28 88
China 28 16 15 59
Total 99 69 76 244

12
66. What percent of the medals won among the three countries were won by the USA?
A. 39.4%
B. 39.8%
C. 40.2%
D. 40.6%

67. What percent of the medals won among the three countries were gold?
A. 39.4%
B. 39.8%
C. 40.2%
D. 40.6%

68. What percent of the medals won by the USA were gold?
A. 39.4%
B. 39.8%
C. 40.2%
D. 40.6%

69. What percent of the medals won by China were silver?

A. 6.6%
B. 24.2%
C. 27.1%
D. 28.3%

13
Next 5 questions: The table and output below shows the responses from a sample of 680 people in the General
Social Survey to the question, “Do you sometimes drink more than you think you should?”

Gender Y es No Total
Male 15 1 177 328
Female 92 260 352
Total 24 3 437 680

70. What is the risk (or percentage) of men thinking they drank more than they should?
A. 22.2%
B. 35.7%
C. 46.0%
D. 62.1%

71. What is the risk (or percentage) of women thinking they drank more than they should?
A. 13.5%
B. 26.1%
C. 35.7%
D. 37.9%

72. What is the relative risk for women thinking they drank more than they should compared to men?
A. 0.41
B. 0.57
C. 1.76
D. 2.41

73. What is the odds ratio for women thinking they drank more than they should compared to men?
A. 0.41
B. 0.57
C. 1.76
D. 2.41

74. Report whether there is evidence of a difference between sexes in the proportion who report that they drank
more than they should. Report the p-value and interpret it.

14
Next 4 questions: The table below summarizes, by gender of respondent, the responses from 1,033 people to the
question, “Do you smoke?”

Gender Yes No Total

Male 142 302 444
Female 171 418 589
Total 313 720 1033

75. What are the odds of smoking (to not smoking) for a man?
A. 0.14
B. 0.32
C. 0.45
D. 0.47

76. What are the odds of smoking (to not smoking) for a woman?
A. 0.17
B. 0.39
C. 0.41
D. 0.55

77. What is the odds ratio for women smoking (to not smoking) compared to men?
A. 0.87
B. 0.91
C. 1.10
D. 1.15

78. What is the odds ratio for men smoking (to not smoking) compared to women?
A. 0.87
B. 0.91
C. 1.10
D. 1.15

79. What is the relative risk for women smoking compared to men smoking?
A. 0.87
B. 0.91
C. 1.10
D. 1.15

80. Based on the National Household Survey on Drug Abuse, the percentage of 17-year olds who ever tried
cigarette smoking is 56.2%. The relative risk of ever smoking for a 17-year old versus a 12-year old is 3.6.
What is the risk of smoking for a 12-year-old (i.e. what was the percentage of 12-year olds who ever tried
smoking)?
A. 14.1%
B. 15.6%
C. 50.0%
D. 56.2%

Next 4 questions: A study done by the Center for Academic Integrity at Rutgers University surveyed 2116 students
at 21 colleges and universities. Some of the schools had an "honor code" and others did not. Of the students at
schools with an honor code, 7% reported having plagiarized a paper via the Internet, while at schools with no honor
code, 13% did so. (Sacramento Bee, Feb 29, 2000, D1.)

15
81. For this study, the relative risk of a student having plagiarized a paper via the Internet at a school with no honor
code, compared to a school with an honor code is:
A. 13/7 = 1.857
B. 7/13 = 0.538
C. 13/87 = 0.149
D. 87/13 = 6.692

82. Which of the following statements about percent increase in risk is correct for this study?
A. There is a 185.7% increase in the risk of plagiarism at a school with no honor code, compared to a school
with an honor code.
B. There is an 85.7% increase in the risk of plagiarism at a school with no honor code, compared to a school
with an honor code.
C. There is a 53.8% increase in the risk of plagiarism at a school with no honor code, compared to a school
with an honor code.
D. There is a 6% increase in the risk of plagiarism at a school with no honor code, compared to a school with
an honor code.

83. Although the data provided are not sufficient to carry out a chi-square test of the relationship between whether
or not a school has an honor code and whether or not a student would plagiarize a paper via the Internet,
suppose such a test were to show a statistically significant relationship on the basis of this study. The correct
conclusion would be:
A. Because this is an observational study, it can be concluded that implementing an honor code at a college or
university will reduce the risk of plagiarism.
B. Because this is a randomized experiment, it can be concluded that implementing an honor code at a
college or university will reduce the risk of plagiarism.
C. Because this is an observational study and confounding variables are likely, it cannot be concluded that
implementing an honor code at a college or university will reduce the risk of plagiarism.
D. Because this is a randomized experiment and confounding variables are likely, it cannot be concluded that
implementing an honor code at a college or university will reduce the risk of plagiarism.

84. Simpson's Paradox occurs when

A. No baseline risk is given, so it is not know whether or not a high relative risk has practical importance.
B. A confounding variable rather than the explanatory variable is responsible for a change in the response
variable.
C. The direction of the relationship between two variables changes when the categories of a confounding
variable are taken into account.
D. The results of a test are statistically significant but are really due to chance.

85. Pick the choice that best completes the following sentence. If a relationship between two variables is called
statistically significant, it means the investigators think the variables are
A. related in the population represented by the sample.
B. not related in the population represented by the sample.
C. related in the sample due to chance alone.
D. very important.

86. The statement that changes in the explanatory variable will have no effect on the response variable is an
example of a(n) _____________ hypothesis.
A. negative
B. dependent
C. null
D. alternative

16
87. A study on the use of seat belts versus belted booster seats for children ages 4 and 5 reported that “Using seat
belts instead of booster seats was associated with increased risk for serious injury in an accident; the relative
risk was 2.4." Based on this, it can be concluded that for this study:
A. Children ages 4 and 5 in a booster seat were 2.4 times more likely to have serious injuries in an accident
than were children wearing seatbelts.
B. Children ages 4 and 5 wearing seatbelts were 2.4 times more likely to have serious injuries in an accident
than were children in a booster seat.
C. The percent of children ages 4 and 5 in a booster seat was 2.4 times higher than the percent of children
wearing seatbelts.
D. The percent of children ages 4 and 5 wearing seatbelts was 2.4 times higher than the percent of children in
a booster seat.

88. In a newspaper article about whether the regular use of Vitamin C reduces the risk of getting a cold, a
researcher is quoted as saying that Vitamin C performed better than placebo in an experiment, but the difference
was not larger than what could be explained by chance. In statistical terms, the researcher is saying the results
are ____.
A. due to non-sampling errors.
B. definitely due to chance.
C. statistically significant.
D. not statistically significant.

89. The relative risk of allergies for children of parents who smoke compared to children of parents who don’t
smoke is 3.0. Suppose that the risk of allergies for the children of non-smokers is 0.15 (15%). What is the risk
of allergies for the children of smokers?
A. 3%
B. 5%
C. 30%
D. 45%

90. In a sample of 1000 students majoring in the humanities, 660 were female. The 66% (660/1000) chance of a
humanities major being female is a
A. Subjective probability
B. Relative frequency probability

91. A quarter is flipped 2000 times and results in 500 heads. The 25% (500/2000) chance of heads is a
A. Subjective probability
B. Relative frequency probability

92. Among 5000 new tires sold by a tire company, 20% (1000/5000) lasted more than 100,000 miles. The 20%
chance that a new tire will last more than 100,000 miles is a
A. Subjective probability
B. Relative frequency probability

93. A football fan believes that the Oakland Raiders have a 50% chance of winning the next Super bowl. The 50%
is a
A. Subjective probability
B. Relative frequency probability

94. A college basketball player has made 53% of his shots from 3-point range. The probability that he will make a
3-point shot, 53%, is a
A. Subjective probability
B. Relative frequency probability

17
Next 4 questions: A statistics class has 4 teaching assistants (TAs): three female assistants (Lauren, Rona, and
Leila) and one male assistant (Josh). Each TA teaches one tutorial section.

95. A student picks a discussion section. The two events A = [the TA is a woman] and B = [the TA is Josh] are
A. Independent events
B. Disjoint (mutually exclusive) events
C. Each simple events
D. None of the above

96. A student picks a discussion section. The two events A = [the TA is a woman] and B = [the TA is a man] are
A. Independent events
B. Disjoint (mutually exclusive) events
C. Each simple events
D. None of the above

97. A student picks a discussion section. The events A = [the TA is Lauren] and B = [the TA is a woman] are
A. Independent events
B. Disjoint (mutually exclusive) events
C. Each simple events
D. None of the above

98. Two students, Kimiko and Tom, who don’t know each other, each pick a discussion section. The two events A
= [Kimiko’s TA is Lauren] and B = [Tom’s TA is a woman] are
A. Independent events
B. Disjoint (mutually exclusive) events
C. Each simple events
D. None of the above

99. Two students, Michelle and Charles, who don’t know each other, each choose a channel. The two events, N =
[Charles watches news] and F = [Michelle watches football] are
A. Independent events
B. Disjoint (mutually exclusive) events
C. Each simple events
D. None of the above

100.Lauren wants to wear something warm when she leaves for class. She reaches into her coat closet without
looking and grabs a hanger. Based on what she has in her coat closet, she has a 30% chance of picking a
sweater, a 50% chance of picking a coat, and a 20% chance of picking a jacket. What is the probability that she
will pick a sweater or a coat?
A. 15%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 80%

101.Michael wants to take French or Spanish, or both. But classes are closed, and he must apply and get accepted to
be allowed to enroll in a language class. He has a 50% chance of being admitted to French, a 50% chance of
being admitted to Spanish, and a 20% chance of being admitted to both French and Spanish. If he applies to
both French and Spanish, the probability that he will be enrolled in French or Spanish (or possibly both) is
A. 70%
B. 80%
C. 90%
D. 100%

18
102.The California Super Lotto Plus game is played by picking 5 numbers between 1 and 47 and one MEGA
number between 1 and 27. Assuming that the winning numbers are picked at random, how many different sets
of winning lottery numbers are possible?
A. 74
B. 262
C. 6345
D. 6.2 109

103.A test to detect prostate cancer in men had a sensitivity of 95%. This means that
A. 95% of the men who test positive will actually have prostate cancer.
B. 95% of the men with prostate cancer will test positive.
C. 95% of the men who do not have prostate cancer will test negative.
D. 95% of the men who test negative will actually not have prostate cancer.

104.A test to detect prostate cancer in men had a specificity of 80%. This means that
A. 80% of the men who test positive will actually have prostate cancer.
B. 80% of the men with prostate cancer will test positive.
C. 80% of the men who do not have prostate cancer will test negative.
D. 80% of the men who test negative will actually not have prostate cancer.

105.Which of the following statements is TRUE for 6 tosses of a fair coin, where H = Heads and T = Tails?
A. Sequences with all heads, like HHHHHH, are less likely than specific sequences with 3 heads and 3 tails,
like HTHTHT
B. Sequences with all heads, like HHHHHH, are more likely than specific sequences with 3 heads and 3
tails, like HTHTHT
C. All specific sequences six letters long (made up of H’s and T’s), regardless of the number of H’s and T’s,
are equally likely.
D. None of the above

106.Which of the following statements is TRUE for tossing a fair coin (i.e. Probability of Heads = ½) if the first 100
tosses of the coin result in 100 heads?
A. The chance that the next toss will be heads is almost certain.
B. The chance that the next toss will be heads is nearly 0.
C. The chance that the next toss will be heads is ½.
D. None of the above

107.A birth is selected at random. Define events A=baby is a boy and B=the mother had the flu during her
pregnancy. The events A and B are
A. Disjoint but not independent.
B. Independent but not disjoint.
C. Disjoint and independent.
D. Neither disjoint nor independent.

108.A soft drink company holds a contest in which a prize may be revealed on the inside of the bottle cap. The
probability that each bottle cap reveals a prize is 0.2 and winning is independent from one bottle to the next.
What is the probability that a customer must open three or more bottles before winning a prize?
A. (.2)(.2)(.8) = .032
B. (.8)(.8)(.2) = .128
C. (.8)(.8) = .64
D. 1 (.2)(.2)(.8) = .968

109.A six-sided die is made that has four Green sides and two Red sides, all equally likely to land face up when the
die is tossed. The die is tossed three times. Which of these sequences (in the order shown) has the highest
probability?
A. Green, Green, Green
B. Green, Green, Red

19
 C. Green, Red, Red
D. They are all equally likely

110.Suppose two different states each pick a two-digit lottery number between 00 and 99 (there are 100 possible
numbers). What is the probability that both states pick the same number?
A. 2/100
B. 1/100
C. 1/200
D. 1/10,000

111.Suppose two different states each pick a two-digit lottery number between 00 and 99 (there are 100 possible
numbers). What is the probability that both states pick the number 13?
A. 2/100
B. 1/100
C. 1/200
D. 1/10,000

112.A survey was given to sophomores at a university and one of the questions asked was "What is the probability
that you will leave school before you graduate?" The answer to this question for an individual student is an
example of:
A. A relative frequency probability based on long-run observation
B. A relative frequency probability based on physical assumptions
C. A personal probability
D. A probability based on measuring a representative sample and observing relative frequencies that fall into
various categories.

113.A thumbtack is tossed repeatedly and observed to see if the point lands resting on the floor or sticking up in the
air. The goal is to estimate the probability that a thumbtack would land with the point up. That probability is an
example of:
A. A relative frequency probability based on long-run observation
B. A relative frequency probability based on physical assumptions
C. A personal probability
D. A probability based on measuring a representative sample and observing relative frequencies that fall into
various categories.

114.A short quiz has two true-false questions and one multiple-choice question with four choices. A student guesses
at each question. Assuming the choices are all equally likely, what is the probability that the student gets all
three correct?
A. 1/32
B. 1/3
C. 1/8
D. 1/16

115.A medical treatment has a success rate of .8. Two patients will be treated with this treatment. Assuming the
results are independent for the two patients, what is the probability that neither one of them will be successfully
cured?
A. .5
B. .36
C. .2
D. .04

116. Elizabeth has just put 4 new spark plugs in her car. For each spark plug, the probability that it will fail in the

20
 next 50,000 miles is 1/100 (which is .01), and is independent from one spark plug to the next. What is the
probability that none of the spark plugs will fail in the next 50,000 miles?
A. (.01)(.01)(.01)(.01)
B. 1 (.01)(.01)(.01)(.01)
C. (.99)(.99)(.99)(.99)
D. 1 (.99)(.99)(.99)(.99)

117.Imagine a test for a certain disease. Suppose the probability of a positive test result is .95 if someone has the
disease, but the probability is only .08 that someone has the disease if his or her test result was positive. A
patient receives a positive test, and the doctor tells him that he is very likely to have the disease. The doctor's
response is:
A. An example of "Confusion of the inverse."
B. An example of the "Law of small numbers."
C. An example of "The gambler's fallacy."
D. Correct, because the test is 95% accurate when someone has the disease.

118.Which of the following is not necessarily true for independent events A and B?
A. P(A and B) = P(A)P(B)
B. P(A|B)=P(A)
C. P(B|A)=P(B)
D. P(A or B) = P(A)+P(B)

Next 3 questions: Thirty percent of the students in a high school face a disciplinary action of some kind before they
graduate. Of those students, 40% go on to college. Of the 70% who do not face a disciplinary action, 60% go on to
college.

119.What percent of the students from the high school go on to college?

A. 12%
B. 42%
C. 50%
D. 54%

120.What is the probability that a randomly selected student both faced a disciplinary action and went on to college?
A. .12
B. .40
C. .42
D. .84

121.Given that a randomly selected student goes on to college, what is the probability that he or she faced a
disciplinary action?
A. .12
B. .22
C. .30
D. .78

122.Students at a university who apply for campus housing can be assigned to live in a dormitory room, a suite in a
dormitory or an apartment. If Alice has a .30 chance of being assigned to a dormitory room and a .50 chance of
being assigned to a suite in a dormitory, what is the probability that she will be assigned to an apartment?

123.A test for Lyme's Disease has specifity 0.9 and sensitivity 0.8. John has gone hiking in Maine where the tick
that causes Lyme's Disease is wide spread and has returned with a rash on his leg. John's physician feels that
these symptom's give John a 50% chance of having Lyme's disease. The physician administers the test which
comes back negative. What are John's chances of having Lyme's disease given the negative outcome for the
test.

21
124.A computer program analyzes answers on a multiple choice test to attempt to detect cheaters. In a class of 100
students, the computer program computes the probability of similar wrong answers for every pair of students
assuming that the students are answering independently. Mark and Phillip were the pair of students that
achieved the lowest probability of 0.0005. A professor follows the policy of accusing students of cheating if
the probability is lower that 0.001.

If the probability that a particular pair of students is cheating in such a class is 1/10,000. (there are 4,950 pairs
of students in a class of 100). what is the probability that Mark and Philip were cheating given that the professor
has decided to accuse them of cheating?

Next 3 questions: Suppose that a 95% confidence interval for the proportion of first-year students at a school who
played in intramural sports is 35% plus or minus 5%.

125.The confidence level for the confidence interval is

A. 5%
B. 35%
C. 95%
D. None of the above

126.The margin of error for the confidence interval is

A. 5%
B. 35%
C. 95%
D. None of the above

127.The 95% confidence interval for the proportion of students playing intramural sports is
A. 25% to 45%
B. 30% to 35%
C. 35% to 40%
D. 30% to 40%

128.Which statement is NOT true about confidence intervals?

A. A confidence interval is an interval of values computed from sample data that is likely to include the true
population value.
B. An approximate formula for a 95% confidence interval is sample estimate margin of error.
C. A confidence interval between 20% and 40% means that the population proportion lies between 20% and
40%.
D. A 99% confidence interval procedure has a higher probability of producing intervals that will include the
population parameter than a 95% confidence interval procedure.

129.You plan to determine an approximate 95% confidence interval for a population proportion; you plan to use a
conservative margin of error of 2%. How large a sample size do you need?
A. 100
B. 400
C. 2500
D. None of the above

130.You plan to determine an approximate 95% confidence interval for a population proportion; you plan to use a
conservative margin of error of 10%. How large a sample size do you need?
A. 100
B. 400
C. 2500
D. None of the above

131.If the confidence level is increased, which of the following must also be increased?

22
 A. sample estimate
B. multiplier
C. standard error
D. none of the elements would be increased

132.If the sample size is increased but the sample proportion remains the same, which of the following must also be
increased?
A. sample estimate
B. multiplier
C. standard error
D. none of the elements would be increased

133.The multiplier for a confidence interval for a population proportion is determined by:
A. The desired level of confidence and the sample size
B. The desired level of confidence but not the sample size
C. The sample size but not the desired level of confidence
D. Neither the sample size nor the level of confidence

Next 4 questions: A 95% confidence interval for the proportion of young adults who skip breakfast is .20 to .27.

134.Which of the following is a correct interpretation of the 95% confidence level?

A. In about 95% of all studies for which this procedure is used, the confidence interval will cover the true
population proportion, but there is no way to know if this interval covers the true proportion or not.
B. There is a 95% probability that the proportion of young adults who skip breakfast is between .20 and .27.
C. If this study were to be repeated with a sample of the same size, there is a 95% probability that the sample
proportion would be between .20 and .27.
D. The proportion of young adults who skip breakfast 95% of the time is between .20 and .27.

135.Which of the following is the correct interpretation of the 95% confidence interval?
A. There is a 95% probability that the proportion of young adults who skip breakfast is between .20 and .27.
B. If this study were to be repeated with a sample of the same size, there is a 95% probability that the sample
proportion would be between .20 and .27.
C. We can be 95% confident that the proportion of young adults in the sample who skip breakfast is between
.20 and .27.
D. We can be 95% confident that the proportion of young adults in the population who skip breakfast is
between .20 and .27.

136.From the information provided, we can determine that:

A. p̂ = .235 and margin of error = .035
B. p̂ = .235 and margin of error = .07
C. p = .235 and margin of error = .035
D. p = .235 and margin of error = .07

137.A poll is done to estimate the proportion of adult Americans who like their jobs. The poll is based on a random
sample of 400 individuals. What is the “conservative” margin of error of this poll?
A. 0.10
B. 0.05
C. 0.04
D. 0.025

138.In a randomly selected sample of 500 students at a University, 80% say they plan to graduate within 4 years.
Calculate a 95% confidence interval for the proportion of all students who plan to graduate within 4 years.

23
139.In a past General Social Survey, responders to the question “Have you ever been beaten or punched by another
person” gave the following 95% confidence intervals for the population proportions of women and men who
would say yes as .195 to .265 and .493 to 587, respectively. The sample sizes for men and women were large
(444 men and 591 women). Is it reasonable to conclude that there is a difference in the population between men
and women in the proportion that have ever been beaten or punched by another person?

Questions 1 to 4: For each statement, determine if the statement is a typical null hypothesis (H0) or alternative
hypothesis (Ha).

140.There is no difference between the proportion of overweight men and overweight women in America.
A. Null Hypothesis
B. Alternative Hypothesis

141.The proportion of overweight men is greater than the proportion of overweight women in America.
A. Null Hypothesis
B. Alternative Hypothesis

142.The average price of a particular statistics textbook over the internet is the same as the average price of the
textbook sold at all bookstores in a college town.
A. Null Hypothesis
B. Alternative Hypothesis

143.The average time to graduate for an undergraduate English major is less than the average time to graduate for a
history major.
A. Null Hypothesis
B. Alternative Hypothesis

144.If the results of a hypothesis test give a p-value of 0.03, then with a significance level (alpha) = .05 the results
are said to be
A. Not statistically significant because p alpha
B. Statistically significant because p alpha
C. Practically significant because p alpha
D. Not practically significant because p alpha

145.The likelihood that a statistic would be as extreme or more extreme than what was observed is called a
A. statistically significant result
B. test statistic
C. significance level
D. p-value

146.The designated level (typically set at .05) for which the p-value is compared to decide whether the alternative
hypothesis is accepted (or not) is called a
A. statistically significant result
B. test statistic
C. significance level
D. none of the above

147.When the p-value is less than or equal to the designated level of 0.05, the result is called a
A. statistically significant result
B. test statistic
C. significance level

24
 D. none of the above

148.Which of the following conclusions is NOT equivalent to rejecting the null hypothesis?
A. The results are statistically significant.
B. The results are not statistically significant.
C. The alternative hypothesis is accepted.
D. The p-value alpha (the significance level)

149.If the result of a hypothesis test for a proportion is statistically significant, then
A. The null hypothesis is rejected.
B. The alternative hypothesis is rejected.
C. The population proportion must equal the null value.
D. None of the above

150.The smaller the p-value, the

A. stronger the evidence against the alternative hypothesis
B. stronger the evidence for the null hypothesis
C. stronger the evidence against the null hypothesis
D. none of the above

Next 4 questions: The significance level for a hypothesis test is = 0.05.

151.If the p-value is 0.001, the conclusion is to
A. Reject the null hypothesis.
B. Accept the null hypothesis
C. Not reject the null hypothesis
D. None of the above

152.If the p-value is 0.049, the conclusion is to

A. Reject the null hypothesis.
B. Accept the null hypothesis
C. Not reject the null hypothesis
D. None of the above

153.If the p-value is 0.500, the conclusion is to

A. Reject the null hypothesis.
B. Accept the null hypothesis
C. Not reject the null hypothesis
D. None of the above

154.In hypothesis testing, a Type 1 error occurs when

A. The null hypothesis is not rejected when the null hypothesis is true.
B. The null hypothesis is rejected when the null hypothesis is true.
C. The null hypothesis is not rejected when the alternative hypothesis is true.
D. The null hypothesis is rejected when the alternative hypothesis is true.

25
155.In hypothesis testing, a Type 2 error occurs when
A. The null hypothesis is not rejected when the null hypothesis is true.
B. The null hypothesis is rejected when the null hypothesis is true.
C. The null hypothesis is not rejected when the alternative hypothesis is true.
D. The null hypothesis is rejected when the alternative hypothesis is true.

Next 4 questions. You perform a regression analysis to study the relationship between the prestige and the
proportion of women in 102 occupations.

26
156.What is the correlation between prestige and the proportion of women?

157.Is there evidence of a relationship between prestige and the proportion of women in occupations?

158.Is it reasonable to use a simple linear regression to investigate this relationship?

27
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ON QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

1. The techniques which provide the decision maker a systematic and powerful means of
analysis to explore policies for achieving predetermined goals are called..........................
a. Correlation techniques
b. Mathematical techniques
c. Quantitative techniques
d. None of the above
2. Correlation analysis is a ..............................
a. Univariate analysis
b. Bivariate analysis
c. Multivariate analysis
d. Both b and c
3. If change in one variable results a corresponding change in the other variable, then
the variables are.........................
a. Correlated
b. Not correlated
c. Any of the above
d. None of the above
4. When the values of two variables move in the same direction, correlation is said to
be ............................
a. Linear
b. Non-linear
c. Positive
d. Negative
5. When the values of two variables move in the opposite directions, correlation is said
to be ............................
a. Linear
b. Non-linear
c. Positive
d. Negative
6. When the amount of change in one variable leads to a constant ratio of change in
the other variable, then correlation is said to be .........................
a. Linear
b. Non-linear
c. Positive
d. Negative
7. ...........................attempts to determine the degree of relationship between
variables.
a. Regression analysis
b. Correlation analysis
c. Inferential analysis
d. None of these
8. Non-linear correlation is also called.....................................
a. Non-curvy linear correlation
b. Curvy linear correlation
c. Zero correlation
d. None of these
9. Scatter diagram is also called ......................
a. Dot chart
b. Correlation graph
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
10. If all the points of a scatter diagram lie on a straight line falling from left upper
corner to the right bottom corner, the correlation is called...................
a. Zero correlation
b. High degree of positive correlation
c. Perfect negative correlation
d. Perfect positive correlation
11. If all the dots of a scatter diagram lie on a straight line falling from left bottom corner
to the right upper corner, the correlation is called..................
a. Zero correlation
b. High degree of positive correlation
c. Perfect negative correlation
d. Perfect positive correlation
12. Numerical measure of correlation is called .....................
a. Coefficient of correlation
b. Coefficient of determination
c. Coefficient of non-determination
d. Coefficient of regression
13. Coefficient of correlation explains:
a. Concentration
b. Relation
c. Dispersion
d. Asymmetry
14. Coefficient of correlation lies between:
a. 0 and +1
b. 0 and –1
 c. –1 and +1
d. – 3 and +3
15. A high degree of +ve correlation between availability of rainfall and weight of weight
of people is:
a. A meaningless correlation
b. A spurious correlation
c. A nonsense correlation
d. All of the above
16. If the ratio of change in one variable is equal to the ratio of change in the other
variable, then the correlation is said to be .....................
a. Linear
b. Non-linear
c. Curvilinear
d. None of these
17. Pearsonian correlation coefficient if denoted by the symbol ...............
a. K
b. r
c. R
d. None of these
18. If r= +1, the correlation is said to be ...................
a. High degree of +ve correlation
b. High degree of –ve correlation
c. Perfect +ve correlation
d. Perfect –ve correlation
19. If the dots in a scatter diagram fall on a narrow band, it indicates a .......................
degree of correlation.
a. Zero
b. High
c. Low
d. None of these
20. If all the points of a dot chart lie on a straight line vertical to the X-axis, then
coefficient of correlation is ...................
a. 0
b. +1
c. –1
d. None of these
21. If all the points of a dot chart lie on a straight line parallel to the X-axis, it denotes
.................................of correlation.
a. High degree
b. Low degree
c. Moderate degree
 d. Absence
22. If dots are lying on a scatter diagram in a haphazard manner, then r = ......................
a. 0
b. +1
c. –1
d. None of these
23. The unit of Coefficient of correlation is ........................
a. Percentage
b. Ratio
c. Same unit of the data
d. No unit
24. Product moment correlation method is also called ........................
a. Rank correlation
b. Pearsonian correlation
c. Concurrent deviation
d. None of these
25. The –ve sign of correlation coefficient between X and Y indicates.............................
a. X decreasing, Y increasing
b. X increasing, Y decreasing
c. Any of the above
d. There is no change in X and Y
26. Coefficient of correlation explains .........................of the relationship between two
variables.
a. Degree
b. Direction
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
27. For perfect correlation, the coefficient of correlation should be ..........................
a. ± 1
b. + 1
c. – 1
d. 0
28. Rank correlation coefficient was discovered by....................................
a. Fisher
b. Spearman
c. Karl Pearson
d. Bowley
29. The rank correlation coefficient is always............................
a. + 1
b. – 1
c. 0
 d. Between + 1 and – 1
30. Spearman’s Rank Correlation Coefficient is usually denoted by....................
a. k
b. r
c. S
d. R
31. Probable error is used to:
a. Test the reliability of correlation coefficient
b. Measure the error in correlation coefficient
c. Both a an b
d. None of these
32. If coefficient of correlation is more than ................of its P E, correlation is significant.
a. 2 times
b. 5 times
c. 6 times
d. 10 times
33. In correlation analysis, Probable Error = ........................ x 0.6745
a. Standard deviation
b. Standard error
c. Coefficient of correlation
d. None of these
34. Coefficient of concurrent deviation depends on .......................
a. The signs of the deviations
b. The magnitude of the deviations
c. Bothe a and b
d. None of these
35. Correlation analysis between two sets of data only is called....................
a. Partial correlation
b. Multiple correlation
c. Nonsense correlation
d. Simple correlation
36. Correlation analysis between one dependent variable with one independent variable
by keeping the other independent variables as constant is called......................
a. Partial correlation
b. Multiple correlation
c. Nonsense correlation
d. Simple correlation
37. Study of correlation among three or more variables simultaneously is called.............
a. Partial correlation
b. Multiple correlation
c. Nonsense correlation
 d. Simple correlation
38. If r = 0.8, coefficient of determination is.....................................
a. 80%
b. 8%
c. 64%
d. 0.8%
39. If r is the simple correlation coefficient, the quantity r 2 is known as ...................
a. Coefficient of determination
b. Coefficient of non-determination
c. Coefficient of alienation
d. None of these
40. If r is the simple correlation coefficient, the quantity 1 -- r2 is known as ...................
a. Coefficient of determination
b. Coefficient of non-determination
c. Coefficient of alienation
d. None of these
41. The term regression was first used by..........................
a. Karl Pearson
b. Spearman
c. R A Fisher
d. Francis Galton
42. ....................refers to analysis of average relationship between two variables to
provide mechanism for prediction.
a. Correlation
b. Regression
c. Standard error
d. None of these
43. If there are two variables, there can be at most............................... number of
regression lines.
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Infinite
44. If the regression line is Y on X, then the variable X is known as..........................
a. Independent variable
b. Explanatory variable
c. Regressor
d. All the above
45. Regression line is also called.................................
a. Estimating equation
b. Prediction equation
 c. Line of average relationship
d. All the above
46. If the regression line is X on Y, then the variable X is known as..........................
a. Dependent variable
b. Explained variable
c. Both a and b
d. Regressor
47. If the regression line is X on Y, then the variable X is known as..........................
a. Dependent variable
b. Independent variable
c. Bothe a and b
d. None of the above
48. If the regression line is Y on X, then the variable X is known as..........................
a. Dependent variable
b. Independent variable
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
49. The point of intersection of two regression lines is..........................
a. (0,0)
b. (1,1)
c. (x,y)
d. (x̄, ӯ)
50. If r = ± 1, the two regression lines are...............................
a. Coincident
b. Parallel
c. Perpendicular to each other
d. None of these
51. If r = 1, the angle between the two regression lines is.........................
a. Ninety degree
b. Thirty degree
c. Zero degree
d. Sixty degree
52. If r = 0, the two regression lines are:
a. Coincident
b. Parallel
c. Perpendicular to each other
d. None of these
53. If bxy and byx are two regression coefficients, they have:
a. Same signs
b. Opposite signs
c. Either a or b
 d. None of the above.
54. If byx > 1, then bxy is:
a. Greater than one
b. Less than one
c. Equal to one
d. Equal to zero
55. If X and Y are independent, the value of byx is equal to ........................
a. Zero
b. One
c. Infinity
d. Any positive value
56. The property that both the regression coefficients and correlation coefficient have
same signs is called................................
a. Fundamental property
b. Magnitude property
c. Signature property
d. None of these
57. The property that byx > 1 implies that bxy < 1 is known as .....................
a. Fundamental property
b. Magnitude property
c. Signature property
d. None of these
58. If X and Y are independent, the property byx = bxy = 0 is called ...................
a. Fundamental property
b. Magnitude property
c. Mean property
d. Independence property
59. The Correlation coefficient between two variables is the ........................... of their
regression coefficients.
a. Arithmetic mean
b. Geometric mean
c. Harmonic mean
d. None of these
60. If the correlation coefficient between two variables, X and Y, is negative, then the
regression coefficient of Y on X is.............................
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Not certain
d. None of these
61. The G M of two regression coefficients byx and bxy is equal to ..........................
a. r
 b. r2
c. 1 – r2
d. None of these
62. If one regression coefficient is negative, the other is ...............................
a. 0
b. – ve
c. +ve
d. Either a or b
63. Arithmetic mean of the two regression coefficients is:
a. Equal to correlation coefficient
b. Greater than correlation coefficient
c. Less than correlation coefficient
d. Equal to or greater than correlation coefficient
64. byx is the regression coefficient of the regression equation.....................
a. Y on X
b. X on Y
c. Either a or b
d. None of these
65. bxy is the regression coefficient of the regression equation.....................
a. Y on X
b. X on Y
c. Either a or b
d. None of these
66. In ..................... regression analysis, only one independent variable is used to explain
the dependent variable.
a. Multiple
b. Non-linear
c. Linear
d. None of these
67. The regression coefficient and correlation coefficient of the two variables will be the
same if their .............................are same.
a. Arithmetic mean
b. Standard deviation
c. Geometric mean
d. Mean deviation
68. The idea of testing of hypothesis was first set forth by ..........................
a. R A Fisher
b. J Neyman
c. E L Lehman
d. A Wald
69. By testing of hypothesis, we mean:
 a. A significant procedure in Statistics
b. A method of making a significant statement
c. A rule for accepting or rejecting hypothesis
d. A significant estimation of a problem.
70. Testing of hypothesis and ......................are the two branches of statistical inference.
a. Statistical analysis
b. Probability
c. Correlation analysis
d. Estimation
71. ......................... is the original hypothesis
a. Null hypothesis
b. Alternative hypothesis
c. Either a or b
d. None of these
72. A null hypothesis is denoted by...........................
a. H0
b. H1
c. NH
d. None of these
73. An alternative hypothesis is denoted by...........................
a. H0
b. H1
c. AH
d. None of these
74. Whether a test is one sided or two sided, depends on........................
a. Simple hypothesis
b. Composite hypothesis
c. Null hypothesis
d. Alternative hypothesis
75. A wrong decision about null hypothesis leads to:
a. One kind of error
b. Two kinds of errors
c. Three kinds of errors
d. Four kinds of errors
76. Power of a test is related to ........................
a. Type I error
b. Type II error
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
77. Level of significance is the probability of................................
a. Type I error
 b. Type II error
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
78. Which type of error is more severe error:
a. Type I error
b. Type II error
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
79. Type II error means..............................
a. Accepting a true hypothesis
b. Rejecting a true hypothesis
c. Accepting a wrong hypothesis
d. Rejecting a wrong hypothesis
80. Type I error is denoted by...........................
a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Gamma
d. None of these
81. Type II error is denoted by....................................
a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Gamma
d. None of these
82. The level of probability of accepting a true null hypothesis is called........................
a. Degree of freedom
b. Level of significance
c. Level of confidence
d. D,
83. The probability of rejecting a true null hypothesis is called.......................
a. Degree of freedom
b. Level of significance
c. Level of confidence
d. None of these
84. 1 – Level of confidence =.............................
a. Level of significance
b. Degree of freedom
c. Either a or b
d. None of these
85. While testing a hypothesis, if level of significance is not mentioned, we take
................... level of significance.
a. 1%
 b. 2%
c. 5%
d. 10%
86. A sample is treated as large sample, when its size is.............................
a. More than 100
b. More than 75
c. More than 50
d. More than 30
87. ...............refers to the number of independent observations which is obtained by
subtracting the number of constraints from the total number of observations.
a. Sample size
b. Degree of freedom
c. Level of significance
d. Level of confidence
88. Total number of observations – number of constraints =......................
a. Level of significance
b. Degree of freedom
c. Level of confidence
d. Sample size
89. Accepting a null hypothesis when it is false is called................................
a. Type I error
b. Type II error
c. Probable error
d. Standard error
90. Accepting a null hypothesis when it is true is called................................
a. Type I error
b. Type II error
c. Probable error
d. No error
91. When sample is small,....................... test is applied.
a. t-test
b. Z test
c. F test
d. None of these
92. To test a hypothesis about proportions of items in a class, the usual test is..............
a. t-test
b. Z- test
c. F test
d. Sign test
93. Student’s t-test is applicable when:
a. The values of the variate are independent
 b. The variable is distributed normally
c. The sample is small
d. All the above
94. Testing of hypotheses Ho : μ = 45 vs. H1 : μ > 45 when the population standard
deviation is known, the appropriate test is:
a. t-test
b. Z test
c. Chi-square test
d. F test
95. Testing of hypotheses Ho : μ = 85 vs. H1 : μ > 85, is a ...................test.
a. One sided left tailed test
b. One sided right tailed test
c. Two tailed test
d. None of these
96. Testing of hypotheses Ho : μ = 65 vs. H1 : μ < 65, is a ...................test.
a. One sided left tailed test
b. One sided right tailed test
c. Two tailed test
d. None of these
97. Testing of hypotheses Ho : μ = 65 vs. H1 : μ ≠ 65, is a ...................test.
a. One sided left tailed test
b. One sided right tailed test
c. Two tailed test
d. None of these
98. Student’s t-test was designed by ............................
a. R A Fisher
b. Wilcoxon
c. Wald wolfowitz
d. W S Gosset
99. Z test was designed by ........................................
a. R A Fisher
b. Wilcoxon
c. Wald wolfowitz
d. W S Gosset
100. Z test was designed by .......................................
a. R A Fisher
b. Wilcoxon
c. Wald wolfowitz
d. W S Gosset
101.The range of F ratio is ........................................
a. – 1 to + 1
 b. – ∞ to ∞
c. 0 to ∞
d. 0 to 1
102. While computing F ratio, customarily, the larger variance is taken as .....................
a. Denominator
b. Numerator
c. Either way
d. None of these
103. Chi-square test was first used by ...............................
a. R A Fisher
b. William Gosset
c. James Bernoulli
d. Karl Pearson
104. The Chi-squre quantity ranges from ........................ to ...........................
a. – 1 to + 1

b. – ∞ to ∞
c. 0 to ∞
d. 0 to 1
105.Degrees of freedom for Chi-squre test in case of contingency table of order (2x2) is:
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
106.Degrees of freedom for Chi-squre test in case of contingency table of order (4x3) is:
a. 4
b. 3
c. 6
d. 7
107.Degrees of freedom for Chi-squre test in case of contingency table of order (5x5) is:
a. 25
b. 16
c. 10
d. Infinity
108.The magnitude of the difference between observed frequencies and expected
frequencies is called .......................
a. F value
b. Z value
c. t value
 d. Chi-square value
109.When the expected frequencies and observed frequencies completely coincide, the
chi-square value will be ..............................
a. + 1
b. – 1
c. 0
d. None of these
110.If the discrepancy between observed and expected frequencies are greater,
......................... will be the chi-square value.
a. Greater
b. Smaller
c. Zero
d. None of these
111.Calculated value of chi-square is always........................
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Zero
d. None of these
112.While applying chi-square test, the frequency in any cell should not be ......................
a. More than 5
b. Less than 5
c. More than 10
d. Less than 10
113.Analysis of variance utilises..................
a. F test
b. Chi square test
c. Z test
d. t test
114.In one way ANOVA, the variances are:
a. Within samples
b. Between samples
c. Total
d. All
115.The technique of analysis of variance was developed by .............................
a. Frank Wilcoxon
b. Karl Pearson
c. R A Fisher
d. Kolmogrov
116.Non-parametric test is :
a. Distribution free test
b. Not concerned with parameter
 c. Does not depend on the particular form of the distribution
d. None of these
117..........................tests follow assumptions about population parameters.
a. Parametric
b. Non-parametric
c. One-tailed
d. Two-tailed
118.........................is the simplest and most widely used non-parametric test
a. Sign test
b. K-S test
c. Chi-square tst
d. Wilcoxon matched paired test
119.Runs test was designed by .............................
a. Kruskal and Wallis
b. Kolmogrov and Smirnov
c. Wald wolfowitz
d. Karl Pearson
120.Which one of the following is a non-parametric test?
a. F test
b. Z test
c. t test
d. Wilcoxon test
121.Control charts are also termed as...............................
a. Shewart charts
b. Process behaviour chart
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
122.What type of chart will be used to plot the number of defective in the output of any
process?
a. x̄ chart
b. R chart
c. C chart
d. P chart
123.Process control is carried out:
a. Before production
b. During production
c. After production
d. All of the above
124.The dividing lines between random and non-random deviations from mean of the
distribution are known as ..........................
a. Upper Control Limit
 b. Lower Control Limit
c. Control Limits
d. Two sigma limit
125.The control charts used to monitor variable is...........................
a. Range chart
b. P-chart
c. C-chart
d. All of the above
126.The control charts used to monitor attributes is............................
a. Range chart
b. P-chart
c. C-chart
d. All of the above
127.The control charts used for the fraction of defective items in a sample
is............................
a. Range chart
b. P-chart
c. C-chart
d. Mean chart
128.The control charts used for the number of defects per unit is:
a. Range chart
b. P-chart
c. C-chart
d. Mean chart
129.........................is user for testing goodness of fit.
a. Wilcoxon test
b. Sign test
c. K-S Test
d. Chi-square test
130.Which of the following is a non-parametric test?
a. F-test
b. Z-test
c. Wilcoxon test
d. All of the above
131.Regression coefficient is independent of...........................
a. Origin
b. Scale
c. Both a and b
d. Neither origin nor scale
132.The geometric mean of the two regression coefficient, bxy and byx is equal to:
a. r
 b. r2
c. 1
d. None of the above
133.In a correlation analysis, if r= 0, then we may say that there is .................. between
variables.
a. No correlation
b. Linear correlation
c. Perfect correlation
d. none of these
134.If ‘r’ is the correlation coefficient between two variables, then:
a. 0 < r < 1
b. – 1 ≤ r ≤ 1
c. r ≥ 0
d. r ≤ 0

**********
 ANSWERS
1:c 21 : d 41 : d 61 : a 81 : b 101 : c 121 : c
2:d 22 : a 42 : b 62 : b 82 : c 102 : b 122 : d
3:a 23 : d 43 : b 63 : b 83 : b 103 : d 123 : b
4:c 24 : b 44 : d 64 : a 84 : a 104 : c 124 : c
5:d 25 : c 45 : d 65 : b 85 : c 105 : d 125 : a
6:a 26 : c 46 : c 66 : c 86 : d 106 : c 126 : b
7:b 27 : a 47 : a 67 : b 87 : b 107 : b 127 : b
8:b 28 : b 48 : b 68 : b 88 : b 108 : d 128 : c
9:a 29 : d 49 : d 69 : c 89 : b 109 : c 129 : d
10 : c 30 : d 50 : a 70 : d 90 : d 110 : a 130 : c
11 : d 31 : a 51 : c 71 : a 91 : a 111 : a 131 : a
12 : a 32 : c 52 : c 72 : a 92 : b 112 : b 132 : a
13 : b 33 : b 53 : a 73 : b 93 : d 113 : a 133 : a
14 : c 34 : a 54 : b 74 : d 94 : b 114 : d 134 : b
15 : d 35 : d 55 : a 75 : b 95 : b 115 : c
16 : a 36 : a 56 : c 76 : b 96 : a 116 : d
17 : c 37 : b 57 : b 77 : a 97 : c 117 : a
18 : c 38 : c 58 : d 78 : b 98 : d 118 : c
19 : b 39 : a 59 : b 79 : c 99 : a 119 : c
20 : a 40 : b 60 : b 80 : a 100 : a 120 : a

Prepared by

VINEETHAN T

Assistant Professor

Govt. College Madappally

 FY BBA Business Statistics - Unit 4.
Correlation and Regression
Multiple Choice Questions

1. A process by which we estimate the value of dependent variable

on the basis of one or more independent variables is called:

(a) Correlation
(b) Regression
(c) Residual
(d) Slope

2. The method of least squares dictates that we choose a

regression line where the sum of the square of deviations of the
points from the lie is:

(a) Maximum
(b) Minimum
(c) Zero
(d) Positive

3. A relationship where the flow of the data points is best

represented by a curve is called:

(a) Linear relationship

(b) Nonlinear relationship
(c) Linear positive
(d) Linear negative
4. All data points falling along a straight line is called:

(a) Linear relationship

(b) Non linear relationship
(c) Residual
(d) Scatter diagram

5. The value we would predict for the dependent variable when the
independent variables are all equal to zero is called:

(a) Slope
(b) Sum of residual
(c) Intercept
(d) Difficult to tell

6. The predicted rate of response of the dependent variable to

changes in the independent variable is called:

(a) Slope
(b) Intercept
(c) Error
(d) Regression equation

7. The slope of the regression line of Y on X is also called the:

(a) Correlation coefficient of X on Y

(b) Correlation coefficient of Y on X
(c) Regression coefficient of X on Y
(d) Regression coefficient of Y on X
8. In simple linear regression, the numbers of unknown constants
are:

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

9. In simple regression equation, the numbers of variables involved

are:

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

10. If the value of any regression coefficient is zero, then two

variables are:

(a) Qualitative
(b) Correlation
(c) Dependent
(d) Independent

11. The straight line graph of the linear equation Y = a+ bX, slope
will be upward if:

(a) b=0
(b) b<0
(c) b>0
(d) b≠0
12. The straight line graph of the linear equation Y = a + bX, slope
will be downward If:

(a) b>0
(b) b<0
(c) b=0
(d) b≠0

13. The straight line graph of the linear equation Y = a + bX, slope
is horizontal if:

(a) b=0
(b) b≠0
(c) b=1
(d) a=b

14. If regression line of = 5, then value of regression coefficient of Y

on X is:

(a) 0
(b) 0.5
(c) 1
(d) 5

15. If Y = 2 - 0.2X, then the value of Y intercept is equal to:

(a) -0.2
(b) 2
(c) 0.2X
(d) All of the above
16. If one regression coefficient is greater than one, then other will
be:

(a) More than one

(b) Equal to one
(c) Less than one
(d) Equal to minus one

17. To determine the height of a person when his weight is given is:

(a) Correlation problem

(b) Association problem
(c) Regression problem
(d) Qualitative problem

18. The dependent variable is also called:

(a) Regression
(b) Regressand
(c) Continuous variable
(d) Independent

19. The dependent variable is also called:

(a) Regressand variable

(b) Predictand variable
(c) Explained variable
(d) All of these

20. The independent variable is also called:

(a) Regressor
(b) Regressand
(c) Predictand
(d) Estimated
21. In the regression equation Y = a+bX, the Y is called:

(a) Independent variable

(b) Dependent variable
(c) Continuous variable
(d) None of the above

22. In the regression equation X = a + bY, the X is called:

(a) Independent variable

(b) Dependent variable
(c) Qualitative variable
(d) None of the above

23. In the regression equation Y = a +bX, a is called:

(a) X-intercept
(b) Y-intercept
(c) Dependent variable
(d) None of the above

24. The regression equation always passes through:

(a) (X, Y)
(b) (a, b)
(c) (X̅ ,ȳ)
(d) (X̅ , Y)

25. The independent variable in a regression line is:

(a) Non-random variable

(b) Random variable
(c) Qualitative variable
(d) None of the above
26. The graph showing the paired points of (X i, Y i ) is called:

(a) Scatter diagram

(b) Histogram
(c) Historigram
(d) Pie diagram

27. The upward graph represents the relationship that is:

(a) Linear
(b) Non linear
(c) Curvilinear
(d) No relation

28. The downward graph represents the relationship that is:

(a) Linear positive

(b) Linear negative
(c) Non-linear
(d) Curvilinear

29. When regression line passes through the origin, then:

(a) Intercept is zero

(b) Regression coefficient is zero
(c) Correlation is zero
(d) Association is zero

30. When bXY is positive, then bYX will be:

(a) Negative
(b) Positive
(c) Zero
(d) One
31. The correlation coefficient is the ________ of two regression
coefficients:

(a) Geometric mean

(b) Arithmetic mean
(c) Harmonic mean
(d) Median

32. When two regression coefficients bear same algebraic signs,

then correlation coefficient is:

(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) According to two signs
(d) Zero

33. It is possible that two regression coefficients have:

(a) Opposite signs

(b) Same signs
(c) No sign
(d) Difficult to tell

34. Regression coefficient is independent of:

(a) Units of measurement

(b) Scale and origin
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of them

35. In the regression line Y = a+ bX:

(a) ∑X = ∑ X̅
(b) ∑Y = ∑ ȳ
(c) ∑X = ∑Y
(d) X=Y
36. In the regression line Y = a + bX, the following is always true:

(a) ∑(X - X̅) = 0

(b) ∑(Y - ȳ) = 0
(c) ∑(X - X̅) = ∑(Y - ȳ)
(d) ∑(Y - ȳ)2 = 0

37. The purpose of simple linear regression analysis is to:

(a) Predict one variable from another variable

(b) Replace points on a scatter diagram by a straight-line
(c) Measure the degree to which two variables are linearly
associated
(d) Obtain the expected value of the independent random variable
for a given value of the dependent variable

38. The sum of the difference between the actual values of Y and its
values obtained from the fitted regression line is always:

(a) Zero
(b) Positive
(c) Negative
(d) Minimum

39. If all the actual and estimated values of Y are same on the
regression line, the sum of squares of error will be:

(a) Zero
(b) Minimum
(c) Maximum
(d) Unknown
40. ei = yi - ȳ i is called as

(a) Residual
(b) Difference between independent and dependent variables
(c) Difference between slope and intercept
(d) Sum of residual

41. A measure of the strength of the linear relationship that exists

between two variables is called:

(a) Slope
(b) Intercept
(c) Correlation coefficient
(d) Regression equation

42. When the ratio of variations in the related variables is constant,

it is called:

(a) Linear correlation

(b) Nonlinear correlation
(c) Positive correlation
(d) Negative correlation

43. If both variables X and Y increase or decrease simultaneously,

then the coefficient of correlation will be:

(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) One
44. If the points on the scatter diagram indicate that as one variable
increases the other variable tends to decrease the value of r will be:

(a) Perfect positive

(b) Perfect negative
(c) Negative
(d) Zero

45. If the points on the scatter diagram show no tendency either to

increase together or decrease together the value of r will be close
to:

(a) -1
(b) +1
(c) 0.5
(d) 0

46. If one item is fixed and unchangeable and the other item varies,
the correlation coefficient will be:

(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) Undecided

47. In scatter diagram, if most of the points lie in the first and third
quadrants, then coefficient of correlation is:

(a) Negative
(b) Positive
(c) Zero
(d) All of the above
48. If the two series move in reverse directions and the variations in
their values are always proportionate, it is said to be:

(a) Negative correlation

(b) Positive correlation
(c) Perfect negative correlation
(d) Perfect positive correlation

49. If both the series move in the same direction and the variations
are in a fixed proportion, correlation between them is said to be:

(a) Perfect correlation

(b) Linear correlation
(c) Nonlinear correlation
(d) Perfect positive correlation

50. The value of the coefficient of correlation r lies between:

(a) 0 and 1
(b) -1 and 0
(c) -1 and +1
(d) -0.5 and +0.5
 Answer Key
1. B
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. C

6. A
7. D
8. B
9. C
10. D

11. C
12. B
13. A
14. A
15. B

16. C
17. C
18. B
19. D
20. A

21. B
22. B
23. B
24. C
25. A

26. A
27. A
28. B
29. A
30. B
31. A
32. C
33. B
34. C
35. B

36. B
37. A
38. A
39. A
40. A

41. C
42. A
43. A
44. C
45. D

46. C
47. B
48. C
49. D
50. C
 CORRELATION & REGRESSION

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

In the following multiple-choice questions, select the best answer.

1. The correlation coefficient is used to determine:

a. A specific value of the y-variable given a specific value of the x-variable
b. A specific value of the x-variable given a specific value of the y-variable
c. The strength of the relationship between the x and y variables
d. None of these

2. If there is a very strong correlation between two variables then the correlation coefficient must be
a. any value larger than 1
b. much smaller than 0, if the correlation is negative
c. much larger than 0, regardless of whether the correlation is negative or positive
d. None of these alternatives is correct.

3. In regression, the equation that describes how the response variable (y) is related to the
explanatory variable (x) is:
a. the correlation model
b. the regression model
c. used to compute the correlation coefficient
d. None of these alternatives is correct.

4. The relationship between number of beers consumed (x) and blood alcohol content (y) was studied
in 16 male college students by using least squares regression. The following regression equation
was obtained from this study:

!= -0.0127 + 0.0180x

The above equation implies that:

a. each beer consumed increases blood alcohol by 1.27%
b. on average it takes 1.8 beers to increase blood alcohol content by 1%
c. each beer consumed increases blood alcohol by an average of amount of 1.8%
d. each beer consumed increases blood alcohol by exactly 0.018

5. SSE can never be

a. larger than SST
b. smaller than SST
c. equal to 1
d. equal to zero

1
6. Regression modeling is a statistical framework for developing a mathematical equation that
describes how
a. one explanatory and one or more response variables are related
b. several explanatory and several response variables response are related
c. one response and one or more explanatory variables are related
d. All of these are correct.

7. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is the

a. response, or dependent, variable
b. independent variable
c. intervening variable
d. is usually x

8. Regression analysis was applied to return rates of sparrowhawk colonies. Regression analysis was
used to study the relationship between return rate (x: % of birds that return to the colony in a given
year) and immigration rate (y: % of new adults that join the colony per year). The following
regression equation was obtained.

! = 31.9 – 0.34x

Based on the above estimated regression equation, if the return rate were to decrease by 10% the
rate of immigration to the colony would:
a. increase by 34%
b. increase by 3.4%
c. decrease by 0.34%
d. decrease by 3.4%

9. In least squares regression, which of the following is not a required assumption about the error
term ε?
a. The expected value of the error term is one.
b. The variance of the error term is the same for all values of x.
c. The values of the error term are independent.
d. The error term is normally distributed.

10. Larger values of r2 (R2) imply that the observations are more closely grouped about the
a. average value of the independent variables
b. average value of the dependent variable
c. least squares line
d. origin

11. In a regression analysis if r2 = 1, then

a. SSE must also be equal to one
b. SSE must be equal to zero
c. SSE can be any positive value
d. SSE must be negative
12. The coefficient of correlation
a. is the square of the coefficient of determination
b. is the square root of the coefficient of determination
c. is the same as r-square
d. can never be negative

13. In regression analysis, the variable that is used to explain the change in the outcome of an
experiment, or some natural process, is called
a. the x-variable
b. the independent variable
c. the predictor variable
d. the explanatory variable
e. all of the above (a-d) are correct
f. none are correct

14. In the case of an algebraic model for a straight line, if a value for the x variable is specified, then
a. the exact value of the response variable can be computed
b. the computed response to the independent value will always give a minimal residual
c. the computed value of y will always be the best estimate of the mean response
d. none of these alternatives is correct.

15. A regression analysis between sales (in $1000) and price (in dollars) resulted in the following
equation:

! = 50,000 - 8X

The above equation implies that an

a. increase of $1 in price is associated with a decrease of $8 in sales
b. increase of $8 in price is associated with an increase of $8,000 in sales
c. increase of $1 in price is associated with a decrease of $42,000 in sales
d. increase of $1 in price is associated with a decrease of $8000 in sales

16. In a regression and correlation analysis if r2 = 1, then

a. SSE = SST
b. SSE = 1
c. SSR = SSE
d. SSR = SST

17. If the coefficient of determination is a positive value, then the regression equation
a. must have a positive slope
b. must have a negative slope
c. could have either a positive or a negative slope
d. must have a positive y intercept
18. If two variables, x and y, have a very strong linear relationship, then
a. there is evidence that x causes a change in y
b. there is evidence that y causes a change in x
c. there might not be any causal relationship between x and y
d. None of these alternatives is correct.

19. If the coefficient of determination is equal to 1, then the correlation coefficient

a. must also be equal to 1
b. can be either -1 or +1
c. can be any value between -1 to +1
d. must be -1

20. In regression analysis, if the independent variable is measured in kilograms, the dependent
variable
a. must also be in kilograms
b. must be in some unit of weight
c. cannot be in kilograms
d. can be any units

21. The data are the same as for question 4 above. The relationship between number of beers
consumed (x) and blood alcohol content (y) was studied in 16 male college students by using least
squares regression. The following regression equation was obtained from this study:

!= -0.0127 + 0.0180x

Suppose that the legal limit to drive is a blood alcohol content of 0.08. If Ricky consumed 5 beers
the model would predict that he would be:
a. 0.09 above the legal limit
b. 0.0027 below the legal limit
c. 0.0027 above the legal limit
d. 0.0733 above the legal limit

22. In a regression analysis if SSE = 200 and SSR = 300, then the coefficient of determination is
a. 0.6667
b. 0.6000
c. 0.4000
d. 1.5000

23. If the correlation coefficient is 0.8, the percentage of variation in the response variable explained
by the variation in the explanatory variable is
a. 0.80%
b. 80%
c. 0.64%
d. 64%
24. If the correlation coefficient is a positive value, then the slope of the regression line
a. must also be positive
b. can be either negative or positive
c. can be zero
d. can not be zero

25. If the coefficient of determination is 0.81, the correlation coefficient

a. is 0.6561
b. could be either + 0.9 or - 0.9
c. must be positive
d. must be negative

26. A fitted least squares regression line

a. may be used to predict a value of y if the corresponding x value is given
b. is evidence for a cause-effect relationship between x and y
c. can only be computed if a strong linear relationship exists between x and y
d. None of these alternatives is correct.

27. Regression analysis was applied between $ sales (y) and $ advertising (x) across all the branches
of a major international corporation. The following regression function was obtained.

! = 5000 + 7.25x

If the advertising budgets of two branches of the corporation differ by $30,000, then what will be
the predicted difference in their sales?
a. $217,500
b. $222,500
c. $5000
d. $7.25

28. Suppose the correlation coefficient between height (as measured in feet) versus weight (as
measured in pounds) is 0.40. What is the correlation coefficient of height measured in inches
versus weight measured in ounces? [12 inches = one foot; 16 ounces = one pound]
a. 0.40
b. 0.30
c. 0.533
d. cannot be determined from information given
e. none of these

29. Assume the same variables as in question 28 above; height is measured in feet and weight is
measured in pounds. Now, suppose that the units of both variables are converted to metric (meters
and kilograms). The impact on the slope is:
a. the sign of the slope will change
b. the magnitude of the slope will change
c. both a and b are correct
d. neither a nor b are correct
30. Suppose that you have carried out a regression analysis where the total variance in the response is
133452 and the correlation coefficient was 0.85. The residual sums of squares is:
a. 37032.92
b. 20017.8
c. 113434.2
d. 96419.07
e. 15%
f. 0.15

31. This question is related to questions 4 and 21 above. The relationship between number of beers
consumed (x) and blood alcohol content (y) was studied in 16 male college students by using least
squares regression. The following regression equation was obtained from this study:

!= -0.0127 + 0.0180x

Another guy, his name Dudley, has the regression equation written on a scrap of paper in his
pocket. Dudley goes out drinking and has 4 beers. He calculates that he is under the legal limit
(0.08) so he decides to drive to another bar. Unfortunately Dudley gets pulled over and
confidently submits to a road-side blood alcohol test. He scores a blood alcohol of 0.085 and gets
himself arrested. Obviously, Dudley skipped the lecture about residual variation. Dudley’s
residual is:

a. +0.005
b. -0.005
c. +0.0257
d. -0.0257

32. You have carried out a regression analysis; but, after thinking about the relationship between
variables, you have decided you must swap the explanatory and the response variables. After
refitting the regression model to the data you expect that:
a. the value of the correlation coefficient will change
b. the value of SSE will change
c. the value of the coefficient of determination will change
d. the sign of the slope will change
e. nothing changes

33. Suppose you use regression to predict the height of a woman’s current boyfriend by using her own
height as the explanatory variable. Height was measured in feet from a sample of 100 women
undergraduates, and their boyfriends, at Dalhousie University. Now, suppose that the height of
both the women and the men are converted to centimeters. The impact of this conversion on the
slope is:
a. the sign of the slope will change
b. the magnitude of the slope will change
c. both a and b are correct
d. neither a nor b are correct
34. A residual plot:
a. displays residuals of the explanatory variable versus residuals of the response variable.
b. displays residuals of the explanatory variable versus the response variable.
c. displays explanatory variable versus residuals of the response variable.
d. displays the explanatory variable versus the response variable.
e. displays the explanatory variable on the x axis versus the response variable on the y axis.

35. When the error terms have a constant variance, a plot of the residuals versus the independent
variable x has a pattern that
a. fans out
b. funnels in
c. fans out, but then funnels in
d. forms a horizontal band pattern
e. forms a linear pattern that can be positive or negative

36. You studied the impact of the dose of a new drug treatment for high blood pressure. You think
that the drug might be more effective in people with very high blood pressure. Because you
expect a bigger change in those patients who start the treatment with high blood pressure, you use
regression to analyze the relationship between the initial blood pressure of a patient (x) and the
change in blood pressure after treatment with the new drug (y). If you find a very strong positive
association between these variables, then:
a. there is evidence that the higher the patients initial blood pressure, the bigger the impact
of the new drug.
b. there is evidence that the higher the patients initial blood pressure, the smaller the impact
of the new drug.
c. there is evidence for an association of some kind between the patients initial blood
pressure and the impact of the new drug on the patients blood pressure
d. none of these are correct, this is a case of regression fallacy

Question 37:
A variety of summary statistics were collected for a small sample (10) of bivariate data, where the
dependent variable was y and an independent variable was x.

ΣX = 90 Σ (Y − Y )(X − X) = 466
2
ΣY = 170 Σ (X − X ) = 234
2
n = 10 Σ (Y − Y ) = 1434

SSE = 505.98

37.1 Use the formula to the right to compute the sample correlation coefficient:
a. 0.8045
b. -0.8045
c. 0
d. 1
37.2 The least squares estimate of b1 equals
a. 0.923
b. 1.991
c. -1.991
d. -0.923

37.3 The least squares estimate of b0 equals

a. 0.923
b. 1.991
c. -1.991
d. -0.923

37.4 The sum of squares due to regression (SSR) is

a. 1434
b. 505.98
c. 50.598
d. 928.02

37.5 The coefficient of determination equals

a. 0.6471
b. -0.6471
c. 0
d. 1

37.6 The point estimate of y when x = 0.55 is

a. 0.17205
b. 2.018
c. 1.0905
d. -2.018
e. -0.17205

MULTIPLE CHOICE ANSWERS

1. c 11. b 21. b 31. c 37.5 a

2. b 12. b 22. b 32. b 37.6 a
3. b 13. e 23. d 33. d
4. c 14. a 24. a 34. c
5. a 15. d 25. b 35. d
6. c 16. d 26. a 36. d
7. a 17. c 27. a 37.1 a
8. b 18. c 28. a 37.2 b
9. a 19. b 29. b 37.3 d
10. c 20. d 30. a 37.4 d
 1. Let [Math Processing Error] be independently and identically distributed random variables, satisfying
[Math Processing Error]. Let N be an integer-valued random variable whose value n depends only on the
values of the first n [Math Processing Error]s. Suppose [Math Processing Error], then [Math Processing
Error] is called

1. Independence Equation
2. Neyman Pearson Lemma
3. Sequential Probability Likelihood Equation
4. Wald’s Equation

2. [Math Processing Error], where [Math Processing Error] is an unbiased estimator of [Math Processing
Error]. Then above inequality is called

Cauchy Schwarz Inequality

Bool’s Inequality

Chebyshev’s Inequality

Cramer Rao Inequality

3. Which of the following assumptions are required to show the consistency, unbiasedness, and
efficiency of the OLS estimator?

i. $E(\mu_t)=0$
ii. $Var(\mu_t)=\sigma^2$
iii. $Cov(\mu_t,\mu_{t-j})=0;t\neq t-j$
iv. $\mu_t \sim N(0,\sigma^2)$

(ii) and (iv) only

(i) and (iii) only

(i), (ii) and (iii) only

(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

4. A set of jointly sufficient statistics is defined to be minimal sufficient if and only if

It is a function of every other set of sufficient statistics

It is not a function of every other set of sufficient statistics

It is a function of some other set of sufficient statistics

 It is a function of any sufficient statistics in the set

5. A test is said to be the most powerful test of size [Math Processing Error], if

Among all other tests of size [Math Processing Error] or greater it has the largest [Math Processing
Error]

Among all other tests of size [Math Processing Error] or less, it has the largest power

Among all other tests of size [Math Processing Error] or greater it has the larger 1-[Math Processing
Error]

Among all other tests of size [Math Processing Error] or greater, it has the smallest power

6. In statistical inference, the best asymptotically normal estimator is denoted by

BAN

CANE

BANE

A) and B)

7. For a biased estimator $\hat{\theta}$ of $\theta$, which one is correct

 $ MSE(\hat{\theta})=SD(\hat{\theta}) + Bias $
 $ MSE(\hat{\theta})=Var(\hat{\theta}) + Bias^2 $
 $ MSE(\hat{\theta})=Var(\hat{\theta}) + Bias $
 $ MSE(\hat{\theta})=SD(\hat{\theta}) + Bias^2 $

8. If $f(x_1,x_2,\cdots,x_n;\theta)=g(\hat{\theta};\theta)h(x_1,x_2,\cdots,x_n)$, then
$\hat{\theta}$ is
Unbiased

Efficient

Sufficient

Consistent

9. For two estimators [Math Processing Error] and [Math Processing Error] then estimator [Math
Processing Error] is defined to be [Math Processing Error] for all [Math Processing Error] in [Math
Processing Error]

Admissible Estimator

Sufficient Estimator

Consistent Estimator
Minimax Estimator

10. Let [Math Processing Error] be a random sample from the density [Math Processing Error], where
[Math Processing Error] may be vector. If the conditional distribution of [Math Processing Error] given
[Math Processing Error] does not depend on [Math Processing Error] for any value of [Math Processing
Error] of [Math Processing Error], then statistic is called.

Minimax Statistics

Efficient

Sufficient Statistic

Minimal Sufficient Statistic

11. If the conditional distribution of [Math Processing Error] given [Math Processing Error], does not
depend on [Math Processing Error], for any value of [Math Processing Error], the statistics [Math
Processing Error] is called

Unbiased

Consistent

Sufficient

Efficient

12. If [Math Processing Error], then [Math Processing Error] is said to be

Unbiased

Sufficient

Efficient

Consistent

13. If [Math Processing Error], then [Math Processing Error] is

Unbiased

Efficient

Sufficient

Consistent
14. If [Math Processing Error] as [Math Processing Error], then [Math Processing Error] is said to be

Unbiased

Sufficient

Efficient

Consistent

15. Let [Math Processing Error] be a random sample from a density [Math Processing Error], where
[Math Processing Error] is a value of the random variable [Math Processing Error] with known density
[Math Processing Error]. Then the estimator [Math Processing Error] with respect to the prior [Math
Processing Error] is defined as [Math Processing Error] is called

Minimax Estimator

Posterior Bay’s Estimator

Bay’s Estimator

Sufficient Estimator

16. Let [Math Processing Error] be the likelihood function for a sample [Math Processing Error] having
joint density [Math Processing Error] where ? belong to parameter space. Then a test defined as [Math
Processing Error]

Generalized Likelihood Ratio test

Most Powerful Uniformly Test

Monotone Likelihood Ratio Test

Unbiased Test

17. If [Math Processing Error] is the joint density of n random variables, say, [Math Processing Error]
which is considered to be a function of [Math Processing Error]. Then [Math Processing Error] is called

Maximum Likelihood function

Likelihood Function

Log Function

Marginal Function
1. To test the randomness of a sample, the appropriate test is:

Run Test
Sign Test
Median Test
Page’s Test
2. By the method of moments one can estimate:

All Constants of a Population

Only Mean and Variance of a Distribution
All Moments of a Population Distribution
All of the Above
3. Most of the Non-Parametric methods utilize measurements on:

Interval Scale
Ratio Scale
Ordinal Scale
Nominal Scale
4. Homogeneity of several variances can be tested by:

Bartlett’s Test
Fisher’s Exact Test
F-test
t-test
5. Parameters are those constants which occur in:

Samples
Probability Density Functions
A Formula
None of these
6. The set of equations obtained in the process of least square estimation are called:

Normal Equations
Intrinsic Equations
Simultaneous Equations
All of the Above
7. If the sample average x¯¯¯x¯ is an estimate of the population mean μμ,
then x¯¯¯x¯ is:
Unbiased and Efficient
Unbiased and Inefficient
Biased and Efficient
Biased and Inefficient
8. Equality of several normal population means can be tested by:

Bartlett’s Test
F-test
χ2χ2-test
t-test
9. Power of test is related to:

Type-I Error
Type-II Error
Type-I and Type-II Error Both
None of the Above
10. Roa-Blackwell Theorem enables us to obtain minimum variance unbiased estimator
through:

Unbiased Estimators
Complete Statistics
Efficient Statistics
Sufficient Statistics
11. For a particular hypothesis test, α=0.05α=0.05, and β=0.10β=0.10. The power of
this test is:
0.15
0.90
0.85
0.95
12. For an estimator to be consistent, the unbiasedness of the estimator is:

Necessary
Sufficient
Neither Necessary nor Sufficient
None of these
13. When the null hypothesis is accepted, it is possible that:

A correct Decision has been Made

A Type-II Error has been Made
Both (A) and (B) have Occurred
Neither (A) nor (B) has Occurred
14. Sample median as an estimator of the population mean is always

Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
None of These
15. An estimator TnTn is said to be a sufficient statistic for a parameter
function τ(θ)τ(θ) if it contained all the information which is contained in the
Population
Parametric Function τ(θ)τ(θ)
Sample
None of these
16. The sign test assumes that the:

Samples are Independent

Samples are Dependent

Samples have the Same Mean
None of These
17. Crammer-Rao inequality is valid in case of:

Upper Bound on the Variance

Lower Bound on the Variance
The Asymptotic Variance of an Estimator
None of these
18. With a lower significance level, the probability of rejecting a null hypothesis that is
actually true:

Decreases
Remains the Same
Increases
 All of the Above

1. If Var(θ^)→0Var(θ^)→0 as n→0n→0, then θ^θ^ is said to be

Unbiased
Sufficient
Efficient
Consistent
2. If X1,X2,⋯,XnX1,X2,⋯,Xn is the joint density of n random variables,
say, f(X1,X2,⋯,Xn;θ)f(X1,X2,⋯,Xn;θ) which is considered to be a function of θθ.
Then L(θ;X1,X2,⋯,Xn)L(θ;X1,X2,⋯,Xn) is called
Maximum Likelihood function
Likelihood Function
Log Function
Marginal Function
3. If the conditional distribution of X1,X2,⋯,XnX1,X2,⋯,Xn given S=sS=s, does not
depend on θθ, for any value of S=sS=s, the
statistics S=s(X1,X2,⋯,Xn)S=s(X1,X2,⋯,Xn) is called
Unbiased
Consistent
Sufficient
Efficient
4. Varθ(T)≥[τ′(θ)]2nE[∂∂θlogf((X;θ)2]Varθ(T)≥[τ′(θ)]2nE[∂∂θlogf((X;θ)2],
where T=t(X1,X2,⋯,Xn)T=t(X1,X2,⋯,Xn) is an unbiased estimator of τ(θ)τ(θ). Then
above inequality is called
Cauchy Schwarz Inequality
Bool’s Inequality
Chebyshev’s Inequality
Cramer Rao Inequality
5. Let X1,X2,⋯,XnX1,X2,⋯,Xn be a random sample from the density f(x;θ)f(x;θ),
where θθ may be vector. If the conditional distribution
of X1,X2,⋯,XnX1,X2,⋯,Xn given S=sS=s does not depend on θθ for any value
of ss of SS, then statistic is called.
Minimax Statistics
 Efficient
Sufficient Statistic
Minimal Sufficient Statistic
6. For a biased estimator θ^θ^ of θθ, which one is correct
MSE(θ^)=SD(θ^)+BiasMSE(θ^)=SD(θ^)+Bias
MSE(θ^)=Var(θ^)+Bias2MSE(θ^)=Var(θ^)+Bias2
MSE(θ^)=Var(θ^)+BiasMSE(θ^)=Var(θ^)+Bias
MSE(θ^)=SD(θ^)+Bias2MSE(θ^)=SD(θ^)+Bias2
7. In statistical inference, the best asymptotically normal estimator is denoted by

BAN
CANE
BANE
A) and B)
8. If f(x1,x2,⋯,xn;θ)=g(θ^;θ)h(x1,x2,⋯,xn)f(x1,x2,⋯,xn;θ)=g(θ^;θ)h(x1,x2,⋯,xn),
then θ^θ^ is
Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
Consistent
9. Let X1,X2,⋯,XnX1,X2,⋯,Xn be a random sample from a density f(x|θ)f(x|θ),
where θθ is a value of the random variable ΘΘ with known density gΘ(θ)gΘ(θ). Then
the estimator τ(θ)τ(θ) with respect to the prior gΘ(θ)gΘ(θ) is defined
as E[τ(θ)|X1,X2,⋯,Xn]E[τ(θ)|X1,X2,⋯,Xn] is called
Minimax Estimator
Posterior Bay’s Estimator
Bay’s Estimator
Sufficient Estimator
10. A set of jointly sufficient statistics is defined to be minimal sufficient if and only if

It is a function of every other set of sufficient statistics

It is not a function of every other set of sufficient statistics
It is a function of some other set of sufficient statistics
It is a function of any sufficient statistics in the set
11. A test is said to be the most powerful test of size αα, if
 Among all other tests of size αα or greater it has the largest ββ
Among all other tests of size αα or less, it has the largest power
Among all other tests of size αα or greater it has the larger 1-αα
Among all other tests of size αα or greater, it has the smallest power
12. Let L(θ;X1,X2,⋯,Xn)L(θ;X1,X2,⋯,Xn) be the likelihood function for a
sample X1,X2,⋯,XnX1,X2,⋯,Xn having joint
density f(x1,x2,⋯,xn;θ)f(x1,x2,⋯,xn;θ) where ? belong to parameter space. Then a
test defined
as λ=λn=λ(x1,x2,⋯,xn)=SupθεΘ0 L(θ;x1,x2,⋯,xn)SupθεΘL(θ;x1,x2,⋯,xn)λ=λn=λ(x1,x2,⋯,xn)=Sup
θεΘ0L(θ;x1,x2,⋯,xn)SupθεΘL(θ;x1,x2,⋯,xn)
Generalized Likelihood Ratio test
Most Powerful Uniformly Test
Monotone Likelihood Ratio Test
Unbiased Test
13. For two
estimators T1=t1(X1,X2,⋯,Xn)T1=t1(X1,X2,⋯,Xn) and T2=t2(X1,X2,⋯,Xn)T2=t2(X1
,X2,⋯,Xn) then estimator t1t1 is defined to be Rt1(θ)≤Rt2(θ)Rt1(θ)≤Rt2(θ) for
all θθ in ΘΘ
Admissible Estimator
Sufficient Estimator
Consistent Estimator
Minimax Estimator
14. If Var(T2)<Var(T1)Var(T2)<Var(T1), then T2T2 is
Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
Consistent
15. If E(θ^)=θE(θ^)=θ, then θ^θ^ is said to be
Unbiased
Sufficient
Efficient
Consistent
16. Let Z1,Z2,⋯,ZnZ1,Z2,⋯,Zn be independently and identically distributed random
variables, satisfying E[|Zt|]<∞E[|Zt|]<∞. Let N be an integer-valued random variable
whose value n depends only on the values of the first n ZiZis.
 Suppose E(N)<∞E(N)<∞,
then E(Z1+Z2+⋯+Zn)=E(N)E(Zi)E(Z1+Z2+⋯+Zn)=E(N)E(Zi) is called
Independence Equation
Neyman Pearson Lemma
Sequential Probability Likelihood Equation
Wald’s Equation
17. Which of the following assumptions are required to show the consistency,
unbiasedness, and efficiency of the OLS estimator?

i. E(μt)=0E(μt)=0
ii. Var(μt)=σ2Var(μt)=σ2
iii. Cov(μt,μt−j)=0;t≠t−jCov(μt,μt−j)=0;t≠t−j
iv. μt∼N(0,σ2)μt∼N(0,σ2)

(ii) and (iv) only

(i) and (iii) only
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
1. A numerical value used as a summary measure for a sample, such as a sample mean, is known
as a
A) Population Parameter
B) Sample Parameter
C) Sample Statistic
D) Population Mean
Answer: C
2. Statistics branches include
A) Applied Statistics
B) Mathematical Statistics
C) Industry Statistics
D) Both A and B
Answer: D
3. To enhance a procedure the control charts and procedures of descriptive statistics are classified
into
A) Behavioural Tools
B) Serial Tools
C) Industry Statistics
D) Statistical Tools
Answer: A
4. Sample statistics are also represented as
A) Lower Case Greek Letter
B) Roman Letters
C) Associated Roman Alphabets
D) Upper Case Greek Letter
Answer: B
5. Individual respondents, focus groups, and panels of respondents are categorised as
A) Primary Data Sources
B) Secondary Data Sources
C) Itemised Data Sources
D) Pointed Data Sources
Answer: A
6. The variables whose calculation is done according to the weight, height and length and weight are
known as:
A) Flowchart Variables
B) Discrete Variables
C) Continuous Variables
D) Measuring Variables
Answer: C
7. A method used to examine inflation rate anticipation, unemployment rate and capacity utilisation
to produce products is classified as
A) Data Exporting Technique
B) Data Importing Technique
C) Forecasting Technique
D) Data Supplying Technique
Answer: C
8. Graphical and numerical methods are specialized processes utilised in
A) Education Statistics
B) Descriptive Statistics
C) Business Statistics
D) Social Statistics
Answer: B
9. The scale applied in statistics which imparts a difference of magnitude and proportions is
considered as
A) Exponential Scale
B) Goodness Scale
C) Ratio Scale
D) Satisfactory Scale
Answer: C
10. Review of performance appraisal, labour turnover rates, planning of incentives and training
programs and are examples of
A) Statistics in Production
B) Statistics in Marketing
C) Statistics in Finance
D) Statistics in Personnel Management
Answer: D
Which of the following is the probability calculus of beliefs, given that beliefs follow certain rules?

a) Bayesian probability
b) Frequency probability

c) Frequency inference

d) Bayesian inference

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Data scientists tend to fall within shades of gray of these and various other schools of
inference.

2. Point out the correct statement.

a) Bayesian inference is the use of Bayesian probability representation of beliefs to perform inference

b) NULL is the standard missing data marker used in S

c) Frequency inference is the use of Bayesian probability representation of beliefs to perform inference

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Frequency probability is the long run proportion of times an event occurs in independent,
identically distributed repetitions.

3. Which of the following can be considered as random variable?

a) The outcome from the roll of a die

b) The outcome of flip of a coin

c) The outcome of exam

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The probability distribution of a discrete random variable is a list of probabilities associated
with each of its possible values.

4. Which of the following random variable that take on only a countable number of possibilities?

a) Discrete

b) Non Discrete

c) Continuous

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Continuous random variable can take any value on some subset of the real line.

5. Point out the wrong statement.

a) A random variable is a numerical outcome of an experiment

b) There are three types of random variable

c) Continuous random variable can take any value on the real line

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: There are two types of random variable-continuous and discrete.

6. Which of the following is also referred to as random variable?

a) stochast

b) aleatory

c) eliette

d) all of the mentioned

View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: Random variable is also known as stochastic variable.

7. Bayesian inference uses frequency interpretations of probabilities to control error rates.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Frequency inference uses frequency interpretations of probabilities to control error rates.

8. Which of the following condition should be satisfied by function for pmf?

a) The sum of all of the possible values is 1

b) The sum of all of the possible values is 0

c) The sum of all of the possible values is infinite

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: A probability mass function evaluated at a value corresponds to the probability that a
random variable takes that value.

9. Which of the following function is associated with a continuous random variable?

a) pdf

b) pmv

c) pmf

d) all of the mentioned

View Answer
 Answer: a

Explanation: pdf stands for probability density function.

10. Statistical inference is the process of drawing formal conclusions from data.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Statistical inference requires navigating the set of assumptions and tools

A sample from the population does not have to share the same characteristics as the
population

a) True
b) False
Question 2

Probability sampling is based on various random selection principles

a) True
b) False
Question 3

With the non-probability sampling methods you do not know the likelihood that any element
of a population will be selected in a sample

a) True
b) False
Question 4

A method of using samples to estimate population parameters is known as

 a) Statistical interference
b) Statistical inference
c) Statistical appliance
Question 5

The mean of the sample means is

a) A biased estimator of the population

b) An unbiased estimator of the population mean
c) Neither biased nor unbiased

A sampling frame is:

a) A summary of the various stages involved in designing a survey

b) An outline view of all the main clusters of units in a sample
c) A list of all the units in the population from which a sample will be
selected
d) A wooden frame used to display tables of random numbers
Question 2

A simple random sample is one in which:

a) From a random starting point, every nth unit from the sampling frame is
selected
b) A non-probability strategy is used, making the results difficult to
generalize
c) The researcher has a certain quota of respondents to fill for various social
groups
d) Every unit of the population has an equal chance of being selected
Question 3

It is helpful to use a multi-stage cluster sample when:

 a) The population is widely dispersed geographically
b) You have limited time and money available for travelling
c) You want to use a probability sample in order to generalise the results
d) All of the above
Question 4

The standard error is a statistical measure of:

a) The normal distribution of scores around the sample mean

b) The extent to which a sample mean is likely to differ from the population
mean
c) The clustering of scores at each end of a survey scale
d) The degree to which a sample has been accurately stratified
Question 5

What effect does increasing the sample size have upon the sampling error?

a) It reduces the sampling error

b) It increases the sampling error
c) It has no effect on the sampling error
d) None of the above
Question 6

Which of the following is not a type of non-probability sampling?

a) Snowball sampling
b) Stratified random sampling
c) Quota sampling
d) Convenience sampling
Question 7

Snowball sampling can help the researcher to:

 a) Access deviant or hidden populations
b) Theorise inductively in a qualitative study
c) Overcome the problem of not having an accessible sampling frame
d) All of the above
Question 8

Which of the following is not a characteristic of quota sampling?

a) The researcher chooses who to approach and so might bias the sample
b) Those who are available to be surveyed in public places are unlikely to
constitute a representative sample
c) The random selection of units makes it possible to calculate the standard
error

1. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a. When an interval estimate is associated with a degree of confidence that it actually includes the

population parameter of interest, it is referred to as a confidence interval

b. If the population mean and population standard deviation are both known, one can make

probability statements about individual x values taken from the population

c. If the population mean and population standard deviation are both known, one can use the central

limit theorem and make probability statements about the means of samples taken from the

population

d. If the population mean is unknown, one can use sample data as the basis from which to make

probability statements about the true (but unknown) value of the population mean

e. when sample data are used for estimating a population mean, sampling error will not be present

since the observed sample statistic will not differ from the actual value of the population parameter

Answer: E
2. Inferential statistics is the:

a. process of using a population parameter to estimate the values for sample statistics

b. process of using sample statistics to estimate population parameters

c. process which allows the researcher to determine the exact values for population parameters

d. process that eliminates the problem of sampling error

e. branch of statistics involving using population parameters to estimate sampling distributions

Answer: B

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3. Which of the following statements are correct?

a. a point estimate is an estimate of the range of a population parameter

b. a point estimate is an unbiased estimator if its standard deviation is the same as the actual value of

the population standard deviation

c. a point estimate is a single value estimate of the value of a population parameter

d. all of the above statements are correct

e. none of the above statements are correct

Answer: C

4. A point estimator is defined as:

a. the average of the sample values

b. the average of the population values

c. a single value that is the best estimate of an unknown population parameter

d. a single value that is the best estimate of an unknown sample statistic

e. a number which can be used to estimate a point in time which is unknown

Answer: C

5. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

a. an interval estimate is an estimate of the range of possible values for a population parameter

b. an interval estimate describes a range of values that is likely not to include the actual population

parameter

c. an interval estimate is an estimate of the range for a sample statistic

d. all of the statements above are correct

e. none of the statements above are correct

Answer: A

6. A confidence interval is defined as:

a. a point estimate plus or minus a specific level of confidence

b. a lower and upper confidence limit associated with a specific level of confidence

c. an interval that has a 95% probability of containing the population parameter

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d. a lower and upper confidence limit that has a 95% probability of containing the population

parameter

e. an interval used to infer something about an unknown sample statistic value

Answer: B

7. The term 1 – α refers to the:

a. probability that a confidence interval does not contain the population parameter

b. the level of confidence minus one

c. the level of confidence

d. the level of confidence plus one

e. the level of significance

Answer: C

8. A 95% confidence interval for the population mean is calculated to be 75.29 to 81.45. If the
confidence level is reduced to 90%, the confidence interval will:

a. become narrower

b. remain the same

c. become wider

d. double in size

e. most likely no longer include the true value of the population mean

Answer: A

9. A 95% confidence interval for the population mean is calculated to be 75.29 to 81.45. If the

confidence level is increased to 98%, the confidence interval will:

a. become narrower

b. remain the same

c. become wider

d. double in size

e. most likely no longer include the true value of the population mean

Answer: C

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10. In the formula for the confidence interval, zα/2 is part of the formula. What does the subscript α/2

refer to?

a. the level of confidence

b. the level of significance

c. the probability that the confidence interval will contain the population mean

d. the probability that the confidence interval will not contain the population mean

e. the area in the lower tail or upper tail of the sampling distribution of the sample mean

Answer: E
11. Which of the statements below completes the following statement correctly? The larger the level of

confidence used in constructing a confidence interval estimate of the population mean, the:

a. smaller the probability that the confidence interval will contain the population mean

b. the smaller the value of zα/2

c. the narrower the confidence interval

d. the wider the confidence interval

e. the more the width of the confidence interval remains the same

Answer: D

12. Which one of the statements below is correct?

a. If n, the sample size, increases, the confidence interval becomes wider

b. A 90% confidence interval for the population mean is narrower than a 95% confidence interval for

the population mean

c. As the population standard deviation increases, the confidence interval becomes narrower

d. If α = 0.01, it implies that we are 1% confident that the population mean will lie between the

confidence limits

e. none of the above statements is correct

Answer: B

13. The boundaries of a confidence interval are called:

a. Confidence levels

b. The test statistics

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c. The degrees of confidence

d. The confidence limits

e. Significance levels
Answer: D

14. What value of z would you use to calculate the 80% confidence interval for a population mean,

given that you know the population standard deviation, the sample size and the sample mean of your

sample?

a. z = 1.96

b. z = 2.58

c. z = 0.84

d. z = 1.28

e. z = 1.645

Answer: D

15. Which of the following statements is false with regards to the width of a confidence interval?

a. The sample mean from which the interval is constructed is located half way between the

boundaries of the confidence interval

b. The width of the interval increases when the sample size is decreased

c. The width of the interval decreases when the significance level is increased

d. The width of the interval decreases when the sample mean is decreased

e. The width of the interval increases when the confidence level is increased

Answer: D

16. After constructing a confidence interval estimate for a population mean, you believe that the

interval is useless because it is too wide. In order to correct this problem, you need to:

a. Increase the population standard deviation

b. Increase the sample size

c. Increase the level of confidence

d. Increase the sample mean

e. Decrease the sample size

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Answer: B

17. The problem with relying on a point estimate of a population parameter is that the point estimate

a. has no variance

b. might be unbiased

c. might not be relatively efficient

d. does not tell us how close or far the point estimate might be from the parameter

e. may not be consistent

Answer: D

18. A federal auditor for nationally chartered banks from a random sample of 100 accounts found

that the average demand deposit balance at the First National Bank of a small town was R549.82. If

the auditor needed a point estimate for the population mean for all accounts at this bank, what would

she use?

a. The average of R549.82 for this sample.

b. The average of R54.98 for this sample.

c. There is no acceptable value available.

d. She would survey the total of all accounts and determine the mean.

e. The mean would be impossible to calculate without further information

Answer: A

19. Which one of the statements below is correct?

a. If the significance level is equal to 0.1, it implies that we are 10% confident that the population

mean will lie between the confidence limits

b. If the sample size increases the confidence interval becomes wider

c. As the population standard deviation increases, the confidence interval becomes narrower
d. A 90% confidence interval for the population mean is narrower than a 95% confidence interval for

the population mean

e. Increasing the significance level increases the width of the confidence interval

Answer: D

20. Sand is packed into bags which are then weighed on scales. It is known that if full bags of sand are

intended to weigh μ kg, then the weight recorded by the scales will be normally distributed with a

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mean μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.36kg. A particular bag of sand was weighed four times and

the weight recorded each time was different. The sample mean weight was recorded as 34.7kg. What

is a 95% confidence interval for the true weight of the full bag of sand?

a. 34.35 to 35.05kg

b. 35.85 to 36.55kg

c. 34.21 to 35.19kg

d. 34.48 to 34.92kg

e. 37.75 to 38.45kg

Answer: A
 Inference
1. Sample median as an estimator of the population mean is always

Unbiased

Efficient

Sufficient

None of These

2. Power of test is related to:

Type-I Error

Type-II Error

Type-I and Type-II Error Both

None of the Above

3. Roa-Blackwell Theorem enables us to obtain minimum variance unbiased estimator through:

Unbiased Estimators

Complete Statistics

Efficient Statistics

Sufficient Statistics

4. To test the randomness of a sample, the appropriate test is:

Run Test

Sign Test

Median Test
 Page’s Test

5. Equality of several normal population means can be tested by:

Bartlett’s Test

F-test

χ2χ2-test

t-test

6. With a lower significance level, the probability of rejecting a null hypothesis that is actually true:

Decreases

Remains the Same

Increases

All of the Above

7. Parameters are those constants which occur in:

Samples

Probability Density Functions

A Formula

None of these

8. Crammer-Rao inequality is valid in case of:

Upper Bound on the Variance

Lower Bound on the Variance

The Asymptotic Variance of an Estimator

None of these

9. An estimator TnTn is said to be a sufficient statistic for a parameter function τ(θ)τ(θ) if it contained
all the information which is contained in the

Population
 Parametric Function τ(θ)τ(θ)

Sample

None of these

10. The sign test assumes that the:

Samples are Independent

Samples are Dependent

Samples have the Same Mean

None of These

11. For an estimator to be consistent, the unbiasedness of the estimator is:

Necessary

Sufficient

Neither Necessary nor Sufficient

None of these

12. Homogeneity of several variances can be tested by:

Bartlett’s Test

Fisher’s Exact Test

F-test

t-test

13. The set of equations obtained in the process of least square estimation are called:

Normal Equations

Intrinsic Equations

Simultaneous Equations

All of the Above

14. By the method of moments one can estimate:

a) All Constants of a Population

b) Only Mean and Variance of a Distribution
c) All Moments of a Population Distribution
d) All of the Above

15. Most of the Non-Parametric methods utilize measurements on:

a) Interval Scale
b) Ratio Scale
c) Ordinal Scale
d) Nominal Scale

16. When the null hypothesis is accepted, it is possible that:

A correct Decision has been Made

A Type-II Error has been Made

Both (A) and (B) have Occurred

Neither (A) nor (B) has Occurred

17. If the sample average x¯¯¯x¯ is an estimate of the population mean μμ, then x¯¯¯x¯ is:

Unbiased and Efficient

Unbiased and Inefficient

Biased and Efficient

Biased and Inefficient

18. For a particular hypothesis test, α=0.05α=0.05, and β=0.10β=0.10. The power of this test is:

0.15

0.90

0.85

0.95

1. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a. When an interval estimate is associated with a degree of confidence that it actually includes the
population parameter of interest, it is referred to as a confidence interval

b. If the population mean and population standard deviation are both known, one can make probability
statements about individual x values taken from the population

c. If the population mean and population standard deviation are both known, one can use the central
limit theorem and make probability statements about the means of samples taken from the population
d. If the population mean is unknown, one can use sample data as the basis from which to make
probability statements about the true (but unknown) value of the population mean

e. when sample data are used for estimating a population mean, sampling error will not be present
since the observed sample statistic will not differ from the actual value of the population parameter
Answer: E

2. Inferential statistics is the:

a. process of using a population parameter to estimate the values for sample statistics

b. process of using sample statistics to estimate population parameters

c. process which allows the researcher to determine the exact values for population parameters

d. process that eliminates the problem of sampling error

3. Which of the following statements are correct?

a. a point estimate is an estimate of the range of a population parameter

b. a point estimate is an unbiased estimator if its standard deviation is the same as the actual value of
the population standard deviation

c. a point estimate is a single value estimate of the value of a population parameter

d. all of the above statements are correct

e. none of the above statements are correct Answer: C

4. A point estimator is defined as:

a. the average of the sample values

b. the average of the population values

c. a single value that is the best estimate of an unknown population parameter

d. a single value that is the best estimate of an unknown sample statistic

e. a number which can be used to estimate a point in time which is unknown Answer: C

5. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

a. an interval estimate is an estimate of the range of possible values for a population parameter
b. an interval estimate describes a range of values that is likely not to include the actual population
parameter

c. an interval estimate is an estimate of the range for a sample statistic

d. all of the statements above are correct

e. none of the statements above are correct Answer: A

6. A confidence interval is defined as:

stimate plus or minus a specific level of confidence

b. a lower and upper confidence limit associated with a specific level of confidence

c. an interval that has a 95% probability of containing the population parameter

d. a lower and upper confidence limit that has a 95% probability of containing the population
parameter

e. an interval used to infer something about an unknown sample statistic value Answer: B

7. The term 1 – α refers to the:

a. probability that a confidence interval does not contain the population parameter

b. the level of confidence minus one

c. the level of confidence

d. the level of confidence plus one

e. the level of significance Answer: C

8. A 95% confidence interval for the population mean is calculated to be 75.29 to 81.45. If the
confidence level is reduced to 90%, the confidence interval will:

a. become narrower

b. remain the same

c. become wider

d. double in size

e. most likely no longer include the true value of the population mean Answer: A

9. A 95% confidence interval for the population mean is calculated to be 75.29 to 81.45. If the
confidence level is increased to 98%, the confidence interval will:

a. become narrower

b. remain the same

c. become wider
d. double in size

e. most likely no longer include the true value of the population mean Answer: C

10. In the formula for the confidence interval, zα/2 is part of the formula. What does the subscript α/2
refer to?

a. the level of confidence

b. the level of significance

c. the probability that the confidence interval will contain the population mean

d. the probability that the confidence interval will not contain the population mean

e. the area in the lower tail or upper tail of the sampling distribution of the sample mean Answer: E

11. Which of the statements below completes the following statement correctly? The larger the level of
confidence used in constructing a confidence interval estimate of the population mean, the:

a. smaller the probability that the confidence interval will contain the population mean

b. the smaller the value of zα/2

c. the narrower the confidence interval

d. the wider the confidence interval

e. the more the width of the confidence interval remains the same Answer: D

12. Which one of the statements below is correct?

a. If n, the sample size, increases, the confidence interval becomes wider

b. A 90% confidence interval for the population mean is narrower than a 95% confidence interval for the
population mean

c. As the population standard deviation increases, the confidence interval becomes narrower

13. The boundaries of a confidence interval are called:

a. Confidence levels

b. The test statistics

c. The degrees of confidence

d. The confidence limits

e. Significance levels Answer: D

14. What value of z would you use to calculate the 80% confidence interval for a population mean, given
that you know the population standard deviation, the sample size and the sample mean of your sample?
a. z = 1.96
b. z = 2.58

c. z = 0.84

d. z = 1.28

e. z = 1.645 Answer: D

15. Which of the following statements is false with regards to the width of a confidence interval?

a. The sample mean from which the interval is constructed is located half way between the boundaries
of the confidence interval

b. The width of the interval increases when the sample size is decreased

c. The width of the interval decreases when the significance level is increased

d. The width of the interval decreases when the sample mean is decreased

e. The width of the interval increases when the confidence level is increased Answer:D

16. After constructing a confidence interval estimate for a population mean, you believe that the
interval is useless because it is too wide. In order to correct this problem, you need to:

a. Increase the population standard deviation

b. Increase the sample size

c. Increase the level of confidence

d. Increase the sample mean

e. Decrease the sample size Answer: B

17. The problem with relying on a point estimate of a population parameter is that the point estimate

a. has no variance

b. might be unbiased

c. might not be relatively efficient

d. does not tell us how close or far the point estimate might be from the parameter

e. may not be consistent Answer: D

18. A federal auditor for nationally chartered banks from a random sample of 100 accounts found that
the average demand deposit balance at the First National Bank of a small town was R549.82. If the
auditor needed a point estimate for the population mean for all accounts at this bank, what would she
use?

a. The average of R549.82 for this sample.

b. The average of R54.98 for this sample.

c. There is no acceptable value available.

d. She would survey the total of all accounts and determine the mean.

e. The mean would be impossible to calculate without further information Answer: A

19. which one of the statements below is correct?

a. If the significance level is equal to 0.1, it implies that we are 10% confident that the population mean
will lie between the confidence limits

b. If the sample size increases the confidence interval becomes wider

c. As the population standard deviation increases, the confidence interval becomes narrower

d. A 90% confidence interval for the population mean is narrower than a 95% confidence interval for the
population mean

e. Increasing the significance level increases the width of the confidence interval Answer: D

20. Sand is packed into bags which are then weighed on scales. It is known that if full bags of sand are
intended to weigh μ kg, then the weight recorded by the scales will be normally distributed with a mean
μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.36kg. A particular bag of sand was weighed four times and the weight
recorded each time was different. The sample mean weight was recorded as 34.7kg. What is a 95%
confidence interval for the true weight of the full bag of sand?

a. 34.35 to 35.05kg

b. 35.85 to 36.55kg

c. 34.21 to 35.19kg

d. 34.48 to 34.92kg

e. 37.75 to 38.45kg Answer: A

21. Sand is packed into bags which are then weighed on scales. It is known that if full bags of sand are
intended to weigh μ kg, then the weight recorded by the scales will be normally distributed with a mean
μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.36kg. A particular bag of sand was weighed four times and the weight
recorded each time was different. The sample mean weight was recorded as 36.2kg. What is a 95%
confidence interval for the true weight of the full bag of sand?

a. 34.35 to 35.05kg

b. 35.85 to 36.55kg

c. 34.21 to 35.19kg

d. 34.48 to 34.92kg

e. 37.75 to 38.45kg Answer: B

22. Sand is packed into bags which are then weighed on scales. It is known that if full bags of sand are
intended to weigh μ kg, then the weight recorded by the scales will be normally distributed with a mean
μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.5kg. A particular bag of sand was weighed four times and the weight
recorded each time was different. The sample mean weight was recorded as 34.7kg. What is a 95%
confidence interval for the true weight of the full bag of sand?

a. 34.35 to 35.05kg

b. 35.85 to 36.55kg

c. 34.21 to 35.19kg Answer:C

23. Sand is packed into bags which are then weighed on scales. It is known that if full bags of sand are
intended to weigh μ kg, then the weight recorded by the scales will be normally distributed with a mean
μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.36kg. A particular bag of sand was weighed ten times and the weight
recorded each time was different. The sample mean weight was recorded as 34.7kg. What is a 95%
confidence interval for the true weight of the full bag of sand?

a. 34.35 to 35.05kg

b. 35.85 to 36.55kg

c. 34.21 to 35.19kg

d. 34.48 to 34.92kg

e. 37.75 to 38.45kg Answer: D

24. Sand is packed into bags which are then weighed on scales. It is known that if full bags of sand are
intended to weigh μ kg, then the weight recorded by the scales will be normally distributed with a mean
μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.36kg. A particular bag of sand was weighed four times and the weight
recorded each time was different. The sample mean weight was recorded as 38.1kg. What is a 95%
confidence interval for the true weight of the full bag of sand?

a. 34.35 to 35.05kg

b. 35.85 to 36.55kg

c. 34.21 to 35.19kg

d. 34.48 to 34.92kg

e. 37.75 to 38.45kg Answer: E

25. An analyst is conducting a hypothesis test to determine if the mean time spent on investment
research by portfolio managers is different from 3 hours per day. The test uses a random sample of 64
portfolio managers, where the sample mean time spent on research is found to be 2.5 hours.

n standard deviation is 1.5 hours. What is the 99% confidence interval for the population mean time
spent on investment research by portfolio managers?

a. (2.02, 2.98)
b. (2.22, 3.18)

c. (1.86, 3.14)

d. (2.11, 2.89)

e. (1.82, 2.78) Answer: A

26. An analyst is conducting a hypothesis test to determine if the mean time spent on investment
research by portfolio managers is different from 3 hours per day. The test uses a random sample of 64
portfolio managers, where the sample mean time spent on research is found to be 2.7 hours. The
population standard deviation is 1.5 hours. What is the 99% confidence interval for the population mean
time spent on investment research by portfolio managers?

a. (2.02, 2.98)

b. (2.22, 3.18)

c. (1.86, 3.14)

d. (2.11, 2.89)

e. (1.82, 2.78) Answer: B

27. An analyst is conducting a hypothesis test to determine if the mean time spent on investment
research by portfolio managers is different from 3 hours per day. The test uses a random sample of 64
portfolio managers, where the sample mean time spent on research is found to be 2.5 hours. The
population standard deviation is 2 hours. What is the 99% confidence interval for the population mean
time spent on investment research by portfolio managers?

a. (2.02, 2.98)

b. (2.22, 3.18)

c. (1.86, 3.14)

d. (2.11, 2.89)

28. An analyst is conducting a hypothesis test to determine if the mean time spent on investment
research by portfolio managers is different from 3 hours per day. The test uses a random sample of 100
portfolio managers, where the sample mean time spent on research is found to be 2.5 hours. The
population standard deviation is 1.5 hours. What is the 99% confidence interval for the population mean
time spent on investment research by portfolio managers?

a. (2.02, 2.98)

b. (2.22, 3.18)

c. (1.86, 3.14)

d. (2.11, 2.89)

e. (1.82, 2.78) Answer: D

29. An analyst is conducting a hypothesis test to determine if the mean time spent on investment
research by portfolio managers is different from 3 hours per day. The test uses a random sample of 64
portfolio managers, where the sample mean time spent on research is found to be 2.3 hours. The
population standard deviation is 1.5 hours. What is the 99% confidence interval for the population mean
time spent on investment research by portfolio managers?

a. (2.02, 2.98)

b. (2.22, 3.18)

c. (1.86, 3.14)

d. (2.11, 2.89)

e. (1.82, 2.78) Answer: E

30. A researcher wants to investigate the amount of lead per litre of waste water produced by her
company. She plans to use statistical methods to estimate the population mean of lead content per litre
of water. Based on previous recordings she assumes that the lead content is normally distributed with a
standard deviation of 20mg per litre. She decides that she can afford a sample size of 500, but not
larger, and with this sample finds a sample mean of 632mg of lead per litre. e interval for the mean lead
content per litre of waste water produced by her company then is:

a. (630.25, 633.75)

b. (639.25, 642.75)

c. (629.81, 634.19)

d. (630.04, 633.96)

e. (630.69, 633.31) Answer: A

31. A researcher wants to investigate the amount of lead per litre of waste water produced by her
company. She plans to use statistical methods to estimate the population mean of lead content per litre
of water. Based on previous recordings she assumes that the lead content is normally distributed with a
standard deviation of 20mg per litre. She decides that she can afford a sample size of 500, but not
larger, and with this sample finds a sample mean of 641mg of lead per litre. The 95% confidence interval
for the mean lead content per litre of waste water produced by her company then is:

a. (630.25, 633.75)

b. (639.25, 642.75)

c. (629.81, 634.19)

d. (630.04, 633.96)

e. (630.69, 633.31) Answer: B

32. A researcher wants to investigate the amount of lead per litre of waste water produced by her
company. She plans to use statistical methods to estimate the population mean of lead content per litre
of water. Based on previous recordings she assumes that the lead content is normally distributed with a
standard deviation of 25mg per litre. She decides that she can afford a sample size of 500, but not
larger, and with this sample finds a sample mean of 632mg of lead per litre. The 95% confidence interval
for the mean lead content per litre of waste water produced by her company then is:

a. (630.25, 633.75)

b. (639.25, 642.75)

c. (629.81, 634.19)

d. (630.04, 633.96)

e. (630.69, 633.31) Answer: C

33. A researcher wants to investigate the amount of lead per litre of waste water produced by her
company. She plans to use statistical methods to estimate the population mean of lead content per litre
of water. Based on previous recordings she assumes that the lead content is normally distributed with a
standard deviation of 20mg per litre. She decides that she can afford a sample size of 400, but not
larger, and with this sample finds a sample mean of 632mg of lead per litre. The 95% confidence interval
for the mean lead content per litre of waste water produced by her company then is:

a. (630.25, 633.75)

b. (639.25, 642.75)

c. (629.81, 634.19)

d. (630.04, 633.96)

e. (630.69, 633.31) Answer: D

34. A researcher wants to investigate the amount of lead per litre of waste water produced by her
company. She plans to use statistical methods to estimate the population mean of lead content per litre
of water. Based on previous recordings she assumes that the lead content is normally distributed with a
standard deviation of 15mg per litre. She decides that she can afford a sample size of 500, but not
larger, and with this sample finds a sample mean of 632mg of lead per litre. The 95% confidence interval
for the mean lead content per litre of waste water produced by her company then is:

a. (630.25, 633.75)

b. (639.25, 642.75)

c. (629.81, 634.19)

d. (630.04, 633.96)

e. (630.69, 633.31)

35. Suppose that a random sample of 50 bottles of a particular brand of cough medicine is selected and
the alcohol content of each bottle measured. The sample mean alcohol content is 8.6 ml with a
population standard deviation of 2.88ml. Calculate a 99% confidence interval for the true mean alcohol
content for the population of all bottles of the brand under study.

a. (7.55, 9.65)

b. (8.15, 10.25)

c. (7.49, 9.71)

d. (7.43, 9.77)

e. (7.68, 9.52) Answer: A

36. Suppose that a random sample of 50 bottles of a particular brand of cough medicine is selected and
the alcohol content of each bottle measured. The sample mean alcohol content is 9.2 ml with a
population standard deviation of 2.88ml. Calculate a 99% confidence interval for the true mean alcohol
content for the population of all bottles of the brand under study.

a. (7.55, 9.65)

b. (8.15, 10.25)

c. (7.49, 9.71)

d. (7.43, 9.77)

e. (7.68, 9.52) Answer: B

37. Suppose that a random sample of 50 bottles of a particular brand of cough medicine is selected and
the alcohol content of each bottle measured. The sample mean alcohol content is 8.6 ml with a
population standard deviation of 3.06ml. Calculate a 99% confidence interval for the true mean alcohol
content for the population of all bottles of the brand under study.

a. (7.55, 9.65)

b. (8.15, 10.25)

c. (7.49, 9.71)

d. (7.43, 9.77)

e. (7.68, 9.52) Answer: C

38. Suppose that a random sample of 40 bottles of a particular brand of cough medicine is selected and
the alcohol content of each bottle measured. The sample mean alcohol content is 8.6 ml with a
population standard deviation of 2.88ml. Calculate a 99% confidence interval for the true mean alcohol
content for the population of all bottles of the brand under study.

a. (7.55, 9.65)

b. (8.15, 10.25)

c. (7.49, 9.71)
d. (7.43, 9.77)

e. (7.68, 9.52) Answer: D

39. Suppose that a random sample of 50 bottles of a particular brand of cough medicine is selected and
the alcohol content of each bottle measured. The sample mean alcohol content is 8.6 ml with a
population standard deviation of 2.54ml. Calculate a 99% confidence interval for the true mean alcohol
content for the population of all bottles of the brand under study.

a. (7.55, 9.65)

b. (8.15, 10.25)

c. (7.49, 9.71)

d. (7.43, 9.77)

e. (7.68, 9.52) Answer: E

40. Your statistics lecturer wants you to determine a confidence interval estimate for the mean test
mark for the next test. In the past, the test marks have been normally distributed with a population
standard deviation of 30.9. A 95% confidence interval estimate if your class has 30 students and a
sample mean mark of 74.2 is:

a. 63.14 to 85.26

b. 65.18 to 83.22

c. 65.63 to 82.77

d. 64.14 to 84.26

e. 68.14 to 80.26 Answer: A

41. Your statistics lecturer wants you to determine a confidence interval estimate for the mean test
mark for the next test. In the past, the test marks have been normally distributed with a population
standard deviation of 25.2. A 95% confidence interval estimate if your class has 30 students and a
sample mean mark of 74.2 is:

a. 63.14 to 85.26

b. 65.18 to 83.22

c. 65.63 to 82.77

d. 64.14 to 84.26

e. 68.14 to 80.26 Answer: B

42. Your statistics lecturer wants you to determine a confidence interval estimate for the mean test
mark for the next test. In the past, the test marks have been normally distributed with a population
standard deviation of 30.9. A 95% confidence interval estimate if your class has 50 students and a
sample mean mark of 74.2 is:
a. 63.14 to 85.26

b. 65.18 to 83.22

c. 65.63 to 82.77

d. 64.14 to 84.26

e. 68.14 to 80.26 Answer: C

43. Your statistics lecturer wants you to determine a confidence interval estimate for the mean test
mark for the next test. In the past, the test marks have been normally distributed with a population
standard deviation of 28.1. A 95% confidence interval estimate if your class has 30 students and a
sample mean mark of 74.2 is:

a. 63.14 to 85.26

b. 65.18 to 83.22

c. 65.63 to 82.77

d. 64.14 to 84.26

e. 68.14 to 80.26 Answer: D

44. Your statistics lecturer wants you to determine a confidence interval estimate for the mean test
mark for the next test. In the past, the test marks have been normally distributed with a population
standard deviation of 30.9. A 95% confidence interval estimate if your class has 100 students is and a
sample mean mark of 74.2:

a. 63.14 to 85.26

b. 65.18 to 83.22

c. 65.63 to 82.77

d. 64.14 to 84.26

e. 68.14 to 80.26 Answer: E

45. An economist is interested in studying the monthly incomes of consumers in a particular region. The
population standard deviation of monthly income is known to be R1000. A random sample of 50
individuals resulted in an average monthly income of R15000. What is the upper end point in a 99%
confidence interval for the average monthly income in this region?

a. R15364

b. R15328

c. R15347

d. R15382

e. R15332 Answer: A
46. An economist is interested in studying the monthly incomes of consumers in a particular region. The
population standard deviation of monthly income is known to be R900. A random sample of 50
individuals resulted in an average monthly income of R15000. What is the upper end point in a 99%
confidence interval for the average monthly income in this region?

a. R15364

b. R15328

c. R15347

d. R15382

e. R15332 Answer: B

47. An economist is interested in studying the monthly incomes of consumers in a particular region. The
population standard deviation of monthly income is known to be R1000. A random sample of 55
individuals resulted in an average monthly income of R15000. What is the upper end point in a 99%
confidence interval for the average monthly income in this region?

a. R15364

b. R15328

c. R15347

d. R15382

e. R15332 Answer: C

48. An economist is interested in studying the monthly incomes of consumers in a particular region. The
population standard deviation of monthly income is known to be R1050. A random sample of 50
individuals resulted in an average monthly income of R15000. What is the upper end point in a 99%
confidence interval for the average monthly income in this region?

a. R15364

b. R15328

c. R15347

d. R15382

e. R15332 Answer: D

49. An economist is interested in studying the monthly incomes of consumers in a particular region. The
population standard deviation of monthly income is known to be R1000. A random sample of 60
individuals resulted in an average monthly income of R15000. What is the upper end point in a 99%
confidence interval for the average monthly income in this region?

a. R15364

b. R15328
c. R15347

d. R15382

e. R15332 Answer: E

50. On the basis of a random sample of 100 men from a particular province in South Africa, a 95%
confidence interval for the mean height of men in the province is found to be (177.22 cm ; 179.18 cm).
What is the value of the sample mean for this sample?

a. 178.20cm

b. 179.24cm

c. 177.38cm

d. 178.42cm

e. 176.58cm Answer: A

51. On the basis of a random sample of 100 men from a particular province in South Africa, a 95%
confidence interval for the mean height of men in the province is found to be (178.54 cm ; 179.94 cm).
What is the value of the sample mean for this sample?

a. 178.20cm

b. 179.24cm

c. 177.38cm

d. 178.42cm

e. 176.58cm Answer: B

52. On the basis of a random sample of 100 men from a particular province in South Africa, a 95%
confidence interval for the mean height of men in the province is found to be (176.50 cm ; 178.26 cm).
What is the value of the sample mean for this sample?

a. 178.20cm

b. 179.24cm

c. 177.38cm

d. 178.42cm

e. 176.58cm Answer: C

53. On the basis of a random sample of 100 men from a particular province in South Africa, a 95%
confidence interval for the mean height of men in the province is found to be (177.89 cm ; 178.95 cm).
What is the value of the sample mean for this sample?

a. 178.20cm

b. 179.24cm
c. 177.38cm

d. 178.42cm

e. 176.58cm Answer: D

54. On the basis of a random sample of 100 men from a particular province in South Africa, a 95%
confidence interval for the mean height of men in the province is found to be (175.90 cm ; 177.25 cm).
What is the value of the sample mean for this sample?

a. 178.20cm

b. 179.24cm

c. 177.38cm

d. 178.42cm

e. 176.58cm Answer: E

55. On the basis of a random sample of 100 men from a particular province in South Africa, a 95%
confidence interval for the mean height of men in the province is found to be (177.22 cm ; 179.18 cm).
What is the value of the standard deviation of the population from which this sample was drawn?

a. 5.0

b. 3.6

c. 4.5

d. 2.7

e. 3.4 Answer: A

56. On the basis of a random sample of 100 men from a particular province in South Africa, a 95%
confidence interval for the mean height of men in the province is found to be (178.54 cm ; 179.94 cm).
What is the value of the standard deviation of the population from which this sample was drawn?

a. 5.0

b. 3.6

c. 4.5

d. 2.7

e. 3.4 Answer: B

57. On the basis of a random sample of 100 men from a particular province in South Africa, a 95%
confidence interval for the mean height of men in the province is found to be (176.50 cm ; 178.26cm).
What is the value of the standard deviation of the population from which this sample was drawn?

a. 5.0

b. 3.6
c. 4.5

d. 2.7

e. 3.4 Answer: C

58. On the basis of a random sample of 100 men from a particular province in South Africa, a 95%
confidence interval for the mean height of men in the province is found to be (177.89 cm ; 178.95 cm).
What is the value of the standard deviation of the population from which this sample was drawn?

a. 5.0

b. 3.6

c. 4.5

d. 2.7

e. 3.4 Answer: D

59. On the basis of a random sample of 100 men from a particular province in South Africa, a 95%
confidence interval for the mean height of men in the province is found to be (175.90 cm ; 177.25 cm).
What is the value of the standard deviation of the population from which this sample was drawn?

a. 5.0

b. 3.6

c. 4.5

d. 2.7

e. 3.4 Answer: E

60. In developing a 95% confidence interval estimate for a population mean, the interval estimate was
(62.84; 69.46). What was the sample mean?

a. 66.15

b. 65.83

c. 65.35

d. 67.01

e. 66.87 Answer: A

61. In developing a 95% confidence interval estimate for a population mean, the interval estimate was
(63.54; 68.12). What was the sample mean?

a. 66.15

b. 65.83

c. 65.35
d. 67.01

e. 66.87 Answer: B

62. In developing a 95% confidence interval estimate for a population mean, the interval estimate was
(62.15; 68.55). What was the sample mean?

a. 66.15

b. 65.83

c. 65.35

d. 67.01

e. 66.87 Answer: C

63. In developing a 95% confidence interval estimate for a population mean, the interval estimate was
(64.78; 69.23). What was the sample mean?

a. 66.15

b. 65.83

c. 65.35

d. 67.01

e. 66.87 Answer: D

64. In developing a 95% confidence interval estimate for a population mean, the interval estimate was
(65.33; 68.41). What was the sample mean?

a. 66.15

b. 65.83

c. 65.35

d. 67.01

e. 66.87 Answer: E

65. In developing a 95% confidence interval estimate for a population mean, the interval estimate was
(62.84; 69.46). Given a sample size of 100, what was the population standard deviation?

a. 16.89

b. 11.68

c. 16.33

d. 11.35

e. 7.86 Answer: A
66. In developing a 95% confidence interval estimate for a population mean, the interval estimate was
(63.54; 68.12). Given a sample size of 100, what was the population standard deviation?

a. 16.89

b. 11.68

c. 16.33

d. 11.35

e. 7.86 Answer: B

67. In developing a 95% confidence interval estimate for a population mean, the interval estimate was
(62.15; 68.55). Given a sample size of 100, what was the population standard deviation?

a. 16.89

b. 11.68

c. 16.33

d. 11.35

e. 7.86 Answer: C

68. In developing a 95% confidence interval estimate for a population mean, the interval estimate was
(64.78; 69.23). Given a sample size of 100, what was the population standard deviation?

a. 16.89

b. 11.68

c. 16.33

d. 11.35

e. 7.86 Answer: D

69. In developing a 95% confidence interval estimate for a population mean, the interval estimate was
(65.33; 68.41). Given a sample size of 100, what was the population standard deviation?

a. 16.89

b. 11.68

c. 16.33

d. 11.35

e. 7.86 Answer: E

70. In developing an interval estimate for a population mean, the population standard deviation was
assumed to be 10. The interval estimate was 50.92 ± 2.14. Had the population standard deviation been
20, what would the interval estimate be?
a. 60.92 ± 2.14

b. 50.92 ± 12.14

c. 101.84 ± 4.28

d. 101.94 ± 12.14

e. 50.92 ± 4.28 Answer: E

71. In developing an interval estimate for a population mean, the population standard deviation was
assumed to be 5. The interval estimate was 50.92 ± 2.80. Had the population standard deviation been
10, what would the interval estimate be?

a. 60.92 ± 2.14

b. 50.92 ± 5.60

c. 101.84 ± 4.28

d. 101.94 ± 12.14

e. 50.92 ± 4.28 Answer: B

72. In developing a confidence interval for a population mean, a sample of 50 observations was used.
The confidence interval was 19.76 ± 1.32. Had the sample size been 200 instead of 50, what would the
interval estimate have been?

a. 19.76 ± 0.66

b. 19.76 ± 0.33

c. 19.76 ± 2.64

d. 19.76 ± 5.28

e. 39.52 ± 1.32 Answer: A

73. A student conducted a study and reported that the 95% confidence interval for the population mean
was (46; 54). He was sure that the population standard deviation was 16. What was the sample size
(rounded up to the nearest whole number) used to calculate this confidence interval?

a. 62

b. 97

c. 110

d. 30

e. 40 Answer: A

74. A student conducted a study and reported that the 95% confidence interval for the population mean
was (46; 54). He was sure that the population standard deviation was 20. What was the sample size
(rounded up to the nearest whole number) used to calculate this confidence interval?
a. 62

b. 97

c. 110

d. 30

e. 40 Answer: B

75. A student conducted a study and reported that the 95% confidence interval for the population mean
was (46; 52). He was sure that the population standard deviation was 16. What was the sample size
(rounded up to the nearest whole number) used to calculate this confidence interval?

a. 62

b. 97

c. 110

d. 30

e. 40 Answer: C

76. A student conducted a study and reported that the 95% confidence interval for the population mean
was (46; 54). He was sure that the population standard deviation was 11. What was the sample size
(rounded up to the nearest whole number) used to calculate this confidence interval?

a. 62

b. 97

c. 110

d. 30

e. 40 Answer: D

77. A student conducted a study and reported that the 95% confidence interval for the population mean
was (46; 56). He was sure that the population standard deviation was 16. What was the sample size
(rounded up to the nearest whole number) used to calculate this confidence interval?

a. 62

b. 97

c. 110

d. 30

e. 40 Answer: E

78. Sand is packed into bags which are then weighed on scales. It is known that if full bags of sand are
intended to weigh μ kg, then the weight recorded by the scales will be normally distributed with a mean
μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.36kg. A particular bag of sand was weighed four times and the weight
recorded each time was different. The sample mean weight was recorded as 34.7kg. What is the total
width of a 95% confidence interval for the true weight of the full bag of sand?

a. 0.71kg

b. 0.36kg

c. 0.98kg

d. 0.45kg

e. 0.90kg Answer: A

79. Sand is packed into bags which are then weighed on scales. It is known that if full bags of sand are
intended to weigh μ kg, then the weight recorded by the scales will be normally distributed with a mean
μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.36kg. A particular bag of sand was weighed four times and the weight
recorded each time was different. The sample mean weight was recorded as 36.2kg. What is the total
width of a 95% confidence interval for the true weight of the full bag of sand?

a. 0.71kg

b. 0.36kg

c. 0.98kg

d. 0.45kg

e. 0.90kg Answer: A

80. Sand is packed into bags which are then weighed on scales. It is known that if full bags of sand are
intended to weigh μ kg, then the weight recorded by the scales will be normally distributed with a mean
μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.5kg. A particular bag of sand was weighed four times and the weight
recorded each time was different. The sample mean weight was recorded as 34.7kg. What is the total
width of a 95% confidence interval for the true weight of the full bag of sand?

a. 0.71kg

b. 0.36kg

c. 0.98kg

d. 0.45kg

e. 0.90kg Answer: C

81. Sand is packed into bags which are then weighed on scales. It is known that if full bags of sand are
intended to weigh μ kg, then the weight recorded by the scales will be normally distributed with a mean
μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.36kg. A particular bag of sand was weighed ten times and the weight
recorded each time was different. The sample mean weight was recorded as 34.7kg. What is the total
width of a 95% confidence interval for the true weight of the full bag of sand?

a. 0.71kg
b. 0.36kg

c. 0.98kg

d. 0.45kg

e. 0.90kg Answer: D

82. Sand is packed into bags which are then weighed on scales. It is known that if full bags of sand are
intended to weigh μ kg, then the weight recorded by the scales will be normally distributed with a mean
μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.36kg. A particular bag of sand was weighed four times and the weight
recorded each time was different. The sample mean weight was recorded as 38.1kg. What is the total
width of a 95% confidence interval for the true weight of the full bag of sand?

a. 0.71kg

b. 0.36kg

c. 0.98kg

d. 0.45kg

e. 0.90kg Answer: A

83. An analyst is conducting a hypothesis test to determine if the mean time spent on investment
research by portfolio managers is different from 3 hours per day. The test uses a random sample of 64
portfolio managers, where the sample mean time spent on research is found to be 2.5 hours. The
population standard deviation is 1.5 hours. What is the half-width (from the middle of the confidence
interval to either of the confidence limits) of the 99% confidence interval for the population mean time
spent on investment research by portfolio managers?

a. 0.48

b. 0.96

c. 0.64

d. 0.39

e. 0.78 Answer: A

84. An analyst is conducting a hypothesis test to determine if the mean time spent on investment
research by portfolio managers is different from 3 hours per day. The test uses a random sample of 64
portfolio managers, where the sample mean time spent on research is found to be 2.7 hours. The
population standard deviation is 1.5 hours. What is the half-width (from the middle of the confidence
interval to either of the confidence limits) of the 99% confidence interval for the population mean time
spent on investment research by portfolio managers?

a. 0.48

b. 0.96

c. 0.64
d. 0.39

e. 0.78 Answer: A

85. An analyst is conducting a hypothesis test to determine if the mean time spent on investment
research by portfolio managers is different from 3 hours per day. The test uses a random sample of 64
portfolio managers, where the sample mean time spent on research is found to be 2.5 hours. The
population standard deviation is 2 hours. What is the half-width (from the middle of the confidence
interval to either of the confidence limits) of the 99% confidence interval for the population mean time
spent on investment research by portfolio managers?

a. 0.48

b. 0.96

c. 0.64

d. 0.39

e. 0.78 Answer: C

86. An analyst is conducting a hypothesis test to determine if the mean time spent on investment
research by portfolio managers is different from 3 hours per day. The test uses a random sample of 100
portfolio managers, where the sample mean time spent on research is found to be 2.5 hours. The
population standard deviation is 1.5 hours. What is the half-width (from the middle of the confidence
interval to either of the confidence limits) of the 99% confidence interval for the population mean time
spent on investment research by portfolio managers?

a. 0.48

b. 0.96

c. 0.64

d. 0.39

e. 0.78 Answer: D

87. An analyst is conducting a hypothesis test to determine if the mean time spent on investment
research by portfolio managers is different from 3 hours per day. The test uses a random sample of 64
portfolio managers, where the sample mean time spent on research is found to be 2.3 hours. The
population standard deviation is 1.5 hours. What is the half-width (from the middle of the confidence
interval to either of the confidence limits) of the 99% confidence interval for the population mean time
spent on investment research by portfolio managers?

a. 0.48

b. 0.96

c. 0.64

d. 0.39
e. 0.78 Answer: A

88. A random variable, X, follows a normal distribution with a population standard deviation of 12. A
sample of size 64 is selected from this population and the sample mean calculated as 45.23. What is the
total width of a 90% confidence interval for the true population mean in this case?

a. 4.9

b. 6.6

c. 3.9

d. 3.3

e. 5.6 Answer: A

89. A random variable, X, follows a normal distribution with a population standard deviation of 16. A
sample of size 64 is selected from this population and the sample mean calculated as 45.23. What is the
total width of a 90% confidence interval for the true population mean in this case?

a. 4.9

b. 6.6

c. 3.9

d. 3.3

e. 5.6 Answer: B

90. A random variable, X, follows a normal distribution with a population standard deviation of 12. A
sample of size 100 is selected from this population and the sample mean calculated as 45.23. What is
the total width of a 90% confidence interval for the true population mean in this case?

a. 4.9

b. 6.6

c. 3.9

d. 3.3

e. 5.6 Answer: C

91. A random variable, X, follows a normal distribution with a population standard deviation of 8. A
sample of size 64 is selected from this population and the sample mean calculated as 45.23. What is the
total width of a 90% confidence interval for the true population mean in this case?

a. 4.9

b. 6.6

c. 3.9

d. 3.3
e. 5.6 Answer: D

92. A random variable, X, follows a normal distribution with a population standard deviation of 12. A
sample of size 49 is selected from this population and the sample mean calculated as 45.23. What is the
total width of a 90% confidence interval for the true population mean in this case?

a. 4.9

b. 6.6

c. 3.9

d. 3.3

e. 5.6 Answer: E

93. An economist is interested in studying the monthly incomes of consumers in a particular region. The
population standard deviation of monthly income is known to be R1000. A random sample of 50
individuals resulted in an average monthly income of R15000. What is the total width of the 90%
confidence interval?

a. 465

b. 419

c. 444

d. 489

e. 425 Answer: A

94. An economist is interested in studying the monthly incomes of consumers in a particular region. The
population standard deviation of monthly income is known to be R900. A random sample of 50
individuals resulted in an average monthly income of R15000. What is the total width of the 90%
confidence interval?

a. 465

b. 419

c. 444

d. 489

e. 425 Answer: B

95. An economist is interested in studying the monthly incomes of consumers in a particular region. The
population standard deviation of monthly income is known to be R1000. A random sample of 55
individuals resulted in an average monthly income of R15000. What is the total width of the 90%
confidence interval?

a. 465

b. 419
c. 444

d. 489

e. 425 Answer: C

96. An economist is interested in studying the monthly incomes of consumers in a particular region. The
population standard deviation of monthly income is known to be R1050. A random sample of 50
individuals resulted in an average monthly income of R15000. What is the total width of the 90%
confidence interval?

a. 465

b. 419

c. 444

d. 489

e. 425 Answer: D

97. An economist is interested in studying the monthly incomes of consumers in a particular region. The
population standard deviation of monthly income is known to be R1000. A random sample of 60
individuals resulted in an average monthly income of R15000. What is the total width of the 90%
confidence interval?

a. 465

b. 419

c. 444

d. 489

e. 42 Answer: E

98. Sand is packed into bags which are then weighed on scales. It is known that if full bags of sand are
intended to weigh μ kg, then the weight recorded by the scales will be normally distributed with a mean
μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.36kg. How many times would a full sack have to be weighed so that
the estimate of the weight would be within 0.15 kg of the true weight with 95% confidence?

a. 23

b. 43

c. 13

d. 28

e. 18 Answer: A

99. Sand is packed into bags which are then weighed on scales. It is known that if full bags of sand are
intended to weigh μ kg, then the weight recorded by the scales will be normally distributed with a mean
μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.5kg. How many times would a full sack have to be weighed so that
the estimate of the weight would be within 0.15 kg of the true weight with 95% confidence?

a. 23

b. 43

c. 13

d. 28

e. 18 Answer: B

100. Sand is packed into bags which are then weighed on scales. It is known that if full bags of sand are
intended to weigh μ kg, then the weight recorded by the scales will be normally distributed with a mean
μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.36kg. How many times would a full sack have to be weighed so that
the estimate of the weight would be within 0.2 kg of the true weight with 95% confidence?

a. 23

b. 43

c. 13

d. 28

e. 18 Answer: C

101. Sand is packed into bags which are then weighed on scales. It is known that if full bags of sand are
intended to weigh μ kg, then the weight recorded by the scales will be normally distributed with a mean
μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.4kg. How many times would a full sack have to be weighed so that
the estimate of the weight would be within 0.15 kg of the true weight with 95% confidence?

a. 23

b. 43

c. 13

d. 28

e. 18 Answer: D

102. Sand is packed into bags which are then weighed on scales. It is known that if full bags of sand are
intended to weigh μ kg, then the weight recorded by the scales will be normally distributed with a mean
μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.36kg. How many times would a full sack have to be weighed so that
the estimate of the weight would be within 0.17 kg of the true weight with 95% confidence?

a. 23

b. 43

c. 13
d. 28

e. 18 Answer: E

103. A researcher wants to investigate the amount of lead per litre of waste water produced by her
company. She plans to use statistical methods to estimate the population mean of lead content per litre
of water. Based on previous recordings she assumes that the lead content is normally distributed with a
standard deviation of 20mg per litre. How large a sample should she take to estimate the mean lead
content per litre of water to within 1mg with 95% confidence?

a. 1537

b. 865

c. 385

d. 2401

e. 97 Answer: A

104. A researcher wants to investigate the amount of lead per litre of waste water produced by her
company. She plans to use statistical methods to estimate the population mean of lead content per litre
of water. Based on previous recordings she assumes that the lead content is normally distributed with a
standard deviation of 15mg per litre. How large a sample should she take to estimate the mean lead
content per litre of water to within 1mg with 95% confidence?

a. 1537

b. 865

c. 385

d. 2401

e. 97 Answer: B

105. A researcher wants to investigate the amount of lead per litre of waste water produced by her
company. She plans to use statistical methods to estimate the population mean of lead content per litre
of water. Based on previous recordings she assumes that the lead content is normally distributed with a
standard deviation of 20mg per litre. How large a sample should she take to estimate the mean lead
content per litre of water to within 2mg with 95% confidence?

a. 1537

b. 865

c. 385

d. 2401

e. 97 Answer: C
106. A researcher wants to investigate the amount of lead per litre of waste water produced by her
company. She plans to use statistical methods to estimate the population mean of lead content per litre
of water. Based on previous recordings she assumes that the lead content is normally distributed with a
standard deviation of 25mg per litre. How large a sample should she take to estimate the mean lead
content per litre of water to within 1mg with 95% confidence?

a. 1537

b. 865

c. 385

d. 2401

e. 97 Answer: D

107. A researcher wants to investigate the amount of lead per litre of waste water produced by her
company. She plans to use statistical methods to estimate the population mean of lead content per litre
of water. Based on previous recordings she assumes that the lead content is normally distributed with a
standard deviation of 20mg per litre. How large a sample should she take to estimate the mean lead
content per litre of water to within 4mg with 95% confidence?

a. 1537

b. 865

c. 385

d. 2401

e. 97 Answer: E

108. The financial aid officer at a certain South African university wishes to estimate the mean cost of
textbooks per semester for students. For the estimate to be useful it should be within R30 of the true
population mean. How large a sample should be used in order to be 95% confident of achieving this
level of accuracy if we know the population standard deviation is R100.

a. 43

b. 35

c. 97

d. 52

e. 25 Answer: A

109. The financial aid officer at a certain South African university wishes to estimate the mean cost of
textbooks per semester for students. For the estimate to be useful it should be within R30 of the true
population mean. How large a sample should be used in order to be 95% confident of achieving this
level of accuracy if we know the population standard deviation is R90.

a. 43
b. 35

c. 97

d. 52

e. 25 Answer: B

110. The financial aid officer at a certain South African university wishes to estimate the mean cost of
textbooks per semester for students. For the estimate to be useful it should be within R20 of the true
population mean. How large a sample should be used in order to be 95% confident of achieving this
level of accuracy if we know the population standard deviation is R100.

a. 43

b. 35

c. 97

d. 52

e. 25 Answer: C

111. The financial aid officer at a certain South African university wishes to estimate the mean cost of
textbooks per semester for students. For the estimate to be useful it should be within R30 of the true
population mean. How large a sample should be used in order to be 95% confident of achieving this
level of accuracy if we know the population standard deviation is R110.

a. 43

b. 35

c. 97

d. 52

e. 25 Answer: D

112. The financial aid officer at a certain South African university wishes to estimate the mean cost of
textbooks per semester for students. For the estimate to be useful it should be within R40 of the true
population mean. How large a sample should be used in order to be 95% confident of achieving this
level of accuracy if we know the population standard deviation is R100.

a. 43

b. 35

c. 97

d. 52

e. 25 Answer: E
113. If a random variable, X, follows a normal distribution with a variance of 25, what sample size should
be selected if a 95% confidence interval for the mean is to be calculated to within 2 units of the true
population mean?

a. 25

b. 62

c. 11

d. 35

e. 97 Answer: A

114. If a random variable, X, follows a normal distribution with a variance of 64, what sample size
should be selected if a 95% confidence interval for the mean is to be calculated to within 2 units of the
true population mean?

a. 25

b. 62

c. 11

d. 35

e. 97 Answer: B

115. If a random variable, X, follows a normal distribution with a variance of 25, what sample size
should be selected if a 95% confidence interval for the mean is to be calculated to within 3 units of the
true population mean?

a. 25

b. 62

c. 11

d. 35

e. 97 Answer: C

116. If a random variable, X, follows a normal distribution with a variance of 36, what sample size should
be selected if a 95% confidence interval for the mean is to be calculated to within 2 units of the true
population mean?

a. 25

b. 62

c. 11

d. 35

e. 97 Answer: D
 117. If a random variable, X, follows a normal distribution with a variance of 25, what sample size
should be selected if a 95% confidence interval for the mean is to be calculated to within 1 unit of the
true population mean?

a. 25

b. 62

c. 11

d. 35

e. 97 Answer: E

118. A retail banker working at Nedbank wishes to estimate the mean monthly credit card expenditure
of all Nedbank credit card holders. For the estimate to be useful it should be within R100 of the true
population mean. How large a sample should be used in order to be 95% confident of achieving this
level of accuracy if we know the population standard deviation is R150.

a. 9

b. 14

c. 6

d. 35

e. 25 Answer: A

119. A retail banker working at Nedbank wishes to estimate the mean monthly credit card expenditure
of all Nedbank credit card holders. For the estimate to be useful it should be within R80 of the true
population mean. How large a sample should be used in order to be 95% confident of achieving this
level of accuracy if we know the population standard deviation is R150.

a. 9

b. 14

c. 6

d. 35

e. 25 Answer: B

120. A retail banker working at Nedbank wishes to estimate the mean monthly credit card expenditure
of all Nedbank credit card holders. For the estimate to be useful it should be within R100 of the true
population mean. How large a sample should be used in order to be 95% confident of achieving this
level of accuracy if we know the population standard deviation is R120.

a. 9

b. 14

c. 6
d. 35

e. 25 Answer: C

121. A retail banker working at Nedbank wishes to estimate the mean monthly credit card expenditure
of all Nedbank credit card holders. For the estimate to be useful it should be within R50 of the true
population mean. How large a sample should be used in order to be 95% confident of achieving this
level of accuracy if we know the population standard deviation is R150.

a. 9

b. 14

c. 6

d. 35

e. 25 Answer: D

122. A retail banker working at Nedbank wishes to estimate the mean monthly credit card expenditure
of all Nedbank credit card holders. For the estimate to be useful it should be within R100 of the true
population mean. How large a sample should be used in order to be 95% confident of achieving this
level of accuracy if we know the population standard deviation is R250.

a. 9

b. 14

c. 6

d. 35

e. 25 Answer: E

Question 1

A sample from the population does not have to share the same characteristics as the population

a) True

b) False

Question 2

Probability sampling is based on various random selection principles

a) True

b) False

Question 3

With the non-probability sampling methods you do not know the likelihood that any element of a
population will be selected in a sample
a) True

b) False

Question 4

A method of using samples to estimate population parameters is known as

a) Statistical interference

b) Statistical inference

c) Statistical appliance

Question 5

The mean of the sample means is

a) A biased estimator of the population

b) An unbiased estimator of the population mean

c) Neither biased nor unbiased

MCQ: The range or set of values which have chances to contain value of population parameter with
particular condence level is considered as

A. secondary interval estimation

B. condence interval estimate

C. population interval estimate

D. sample interval estimate Answer

MCQ: The upper and lower boundaries of interval of condence are classied as

A. error biased limits

B. marginal limits

C. estimate limits

D. condence limits Answer

MCQ: For a parameter whose value is unknown, the belief or claim for that parameter is classied as

A. parameter claim testing

B. expected belief testing

C. hypothesis testing

D. primary limit testing

MCQ: If the standard deviation of population 1 is 3 with sample size is 8 and the population 2 standard
deviation is 5 with sample size is 7 then the standard deviation of sampling distribution is

A. 4.044

B. 3.044

C. 1.044

D. 2.044

MCQ: Considering the sample statistic, if the mean of sampling distribution is equal to population mean
then the sample statistic is classied as

A. unbiased estimator

B. biased estimator

C. interval estimator

D. hypothesis estimator

MCQ: The parameters of population are denoted by the

A. roman letters

B. lower case Greek letter

C. upper case Greek letter

D. associated roman alphabets Answer

MCQ: The unknown or exact value that represents the whole population is classied as

A. parameters

B. estimators

C. absolute statistics

D. coverage estimator Answer

MCQ: The methods in statistics that uses sample statistics to estimate the parameters of the population
are considered as

A. inferential statistics

B. absolute statistics

C. coverage statistics

D. random sample statistics Answer

MCQ: The measures in sampling that are results of sample analyses are called

A. absolute statistics parameter

 B. coverage estimators

C. population statistics

D. sample statistic Answer

MCQ: In sampling, the measures such as variance, mean, standard deviation are considered as

A. absolute statistics

B. coverage estimator

C. parameters

D. estimators Answer

What is the best description of a point estimate?

 any value from the sample used to estimate a parameter

 a sample statistic used to estimate a parameter
 the margin of error used to estimate a parameter

Which best describes the lower endpoint of a confidence interval?

 point estimate
 point estimate minus margin of error
 point estimate plus margin of error

Which best describes the upper endpoint of a confidence interval?

 point estimate
 point estimate minus margin of error
 point estimate plus margin of error

Which value will be at the center of a confidence interval?

 population parameter
 point estimate
 margin of error

What is the relationship between a 95 confidence interval and a 99 confidence interval

from the same sample

 the 95% interval will be wider

 the 99% interval will be wider
 both intervals have the same width
1. A numerical value used as a summary measure for a sample, such as a sample mean, is known
as a
A) Population Parameter
B) Sample Parameter
C) Sample Statistic
D) Population Mean
Answer: C
2. Statistics branches include
A) Applied Statistics
B) Mathematical Statistics
C) Industry Statistics
D) Both A and B
Answer: D
3. To enhance a procedure the control charts and procedures of descriptive statistics are classified
into
A) Behavioural Tools
B) Serial Tools
C) Industry Statistics
D) Statistical Tools
Answer: A
4. Sample statistics are also represented as
A) Lower Case Greek Letter
B) Roman Letters
C) Associated Roman Alphabets
D) Upper Case Greek Letter
Answer: B
5. Individual respondents, focus groups, and panels of respondents are categorised as
A) Primary Data Sources
B) Secondary Data Sources
C) Itemised Data Sources
D) Pointed Data Sources
Answer: A
6. The variables whose calculation is done according to the weight, height and length and weight are
known as:
A) Flowchart Variables
B) Discrete Variables
C) Continuous Variables
D) Measuring Variables
Answer: C
7. A method used to examine inflation rate anticipation, unemployment rate and capacity utilisation
to produce products is classified as
A) Data Exporting Technique
B) Data Importing Technique
C) Forecasting Technique
D) Data Supplying Technique
Answer: C
8. Graphical and numerical methods are specialized processes utilised in
A) Education Statistics
B) Descriptive Statistics
C) Business Statistics
D) Social Statistics
Answer: B
9. The scale applied in statistics which imparts a difference of magnitude and proportions is
considered as
A) Exponential Scale
B) Goodness Scale
C) Ratio Scale
D) Satisfactory Scale
Answer: C
10. Review of performance appraisal, labour turnover rates, planning of incentives and training
programs and are examples of
A) Statistics in Production
B) Statistics in Marketing
C) Statistics in Finance
D) Statistics in Personnel Management
Answer: D

To test the hypothesis H 0: μ 1 = μ 2, the sampling distribution is the set of values for


 μ1‐μ2

If the hypothesis H 0: μ 1 = μ 2 is true , the center of the sampling distribution is

 –1
 0
 1

To construct a confidence interval for μ 1 – μ 2, the best point estimate is

 0



If Z1 and Z2 are 2 independent standard normal random variables, then the characteristic function of
(Z1+Z2) is:

A. ? Exp(-t)

B. ? Exp(-2t)

C. ? Exp(-t/2)

D. ? None of the above

E. The "Risk" associated with any decision rule is:

A. ? The expected loss, where the expectation is taken with respect to the uncertainty
associated with the parameters

B. ? The risk of a scalar estimator is gnerally less than its variance

C. ? The risk of a vector estimator is the trace of its matrix mean squared error

D. ? The risk of a vector estimator is just its matrix mean squared error

F. If the loss function is quadratic, then:

A. ? The risk of a scalar estimator is just its variance

B. ? The risk of a scalar estimator is gnerally less than its variance

C. ? The risk of a vector estimator is the trace of its matrix mean squared error
 D. ? The risk of a vector estimator is just its matrix mean squared error

G. If an estimator is "inadmissible", then:

A. ? There is at least one other estimator whose loss is less than or equal to the loss of
this estimator everywhere in the parameter space, and strictly less somewhere in the
parameter space

B. ? There is at least one other estimator whose risk is less than or equal to the risk of
this estimator everywhere in the parameter space, and strictly less somewhere in the
parameter space.

C. ? There is at least one other estimator whose risk is strictly less than the risk of this
estimator everywhere in the parameter space

D. ? It cannot be weakly consistent

H. If an estimator is "Mini-Max", then:

A. ? It must be admissible

B. ? It cannot be admissible

C. ? It may be admissible or inadmissible

D. ? Its risk function must "cross" the risk function of at least one other estimatar

I. If an scalar statistic is "sufficient", then:

A. ? It will be an admissible estimator of the population parameter

B. ? It will be an efficient estimator of the population parameter

C. ? It will be an unbiased estimator of the population parameter

D. ? It contains all of the sample information that is needed to estimate the population
parameter

J. The Newton-Raphson algorithm:

 A. ? May yield multiple solutions, all of which will be local maxima, and one of which will
be the global maximum

B. ? May yield multiple solutions. some of which relate to local maxima and some of
which relate to local minima

C. ? Will always converge to a global extremum in a finite number of iterations

D. ? Will converge in 3 steps if the underlying function is a cubic polynomial

K. The "Invariance" property of MLE's implies that:

A. ? Their variance approaches zero as the sample size increases without limit

B. ? Their variance achieves the Cramer-Rao lower bound

C. ? Any monotonic function of an MLE is the MLE for that function of the parameter(s)

D. ? Any continuous function of an MLE is the MLE for that function of the parameter(s)

L. If X follows a uniform distribution on [0 , 1], and Y = 5X, then:

A. ? The Jacobian for the mapping from X to Y is 0.2, and Y is uniform on [0 , 5]

B. ? The Jacobian for the mapping from X to Y is 5, and Y is uniform on [0 , 0.2]

C. ? The Jacobian for the mapping from X to Y is 0.2, and Y is uniform on [0 , 0.2]

D. ? The Jacobian for the mapping from X to Y is 5, and Y is uniform on [0 , 5]

M. When we evaluate the Jacobian associated with a transformation from one probability distribution
to another:

A. ? We use the absolute value because a density function cannot take negative values

B. ? We must be dealing with scalar random variables, not random vectors

C. ? The intention is make sure that the support of the new random variable is the full
real line

D. ? The intention is make sure that the support of the new random variable is the
positive half of the real line
N. If our random data are statistically independent, then:

A. ? The likelihood function is just the sum of the marginal data densities, viewed as a
function of the parameter(s)

B. ? The log-likelihood function is just the product of the logarithms of the marginal data
densities, viewed as a function of the parameter(s)

C. ? The log-likelihood function is just the sum of the logarithms of the marginal data
densities, viewed as a function of the parameter(s)

D. ? The likelihood function will have a unique turning point, and this will be a maximum
(not a minimum) if the sample size is large enough

O. The "Likelihood Equations" are:

A. ? The same as the "normal equations" associated with least squares estimation of the
multiple linear regression model

B. ? Guaranteed to have a unique solution if the sample data are independent

C. ? Obtained by getting the second derivatives of the log-likelihood function with respect
to each of the parameters, and setting these equal to zero

D. ? The first-order conditions that we have to solve in order to maximize the likelihood
function

P. When we "concentrate" the likelihood function, the objective is to:

A. ? Focus attention on just the important parameters by conditioning on the 'nuisance

parameters' in the problem

B. ? Reduce the dimension of that part of the optimization problem that has to be solved
numerically

C. ? Take a monotonic transformation of the likelihood function so that it is easier to find

the global maximum

D. ? Convert what would be a non-linear optimization problem into one that is

approximately linear

Q. Suppose that Y follows a Binomial distribution with parameter 'p' equal to the probability of a
'success', and 'n' repetitions. Then the MLE of the standard deviation of Y is:
 a) ? The square root of np(1-p)

b) ? The square root of y(n-y)/n, where y is the observed number of 'successes' in the
sample

c) ? The square root of n(y-n)/y, where y is the observed number of 'successes' in the
sample

d) ? The square root of ny, where y is the observed number of 'successes' in the sample

R. The connection between a sufficient statistic and an MLE is:

a) ? A sufficient statistic is always an MLE

b) ? There is no connection in general

c) ? All MLE's are linear combinations of sufficient statistics

d) ? If an MLE is unique, then it must be a function of a sufficient statistic

1) Which of the following assumptions are required to show the consistency, unbiasedness and
efficiency of the OLS estimator?

i) E(ut) = 0

ii) Var(ut) = σ2

iii) Cov(ut, ut-j) = 0 ∀ j

iv) ut~N(0, σ2)

a) (ii) and (iv) only

b) (i) and (iii) only

c) (i), (ii), and (iii) only

d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

2) Which of the following may be consequences of one or more of the CLRM assumptions being
violated?

i) The coefficient estimates are not optimal

ii) The standard error estimates are not optimal

iii) The distributions assumed for the test statistics are inappropriate

iv) Conclusions regarding the strength of relationships between the dependent and independent
variables may be invalid.

a) (ii) and (iv) only

b) (i) and (iii) only

c) (i), (ii), and (iii) only

d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

3) What is the meaning of the term "heteroscedasticity"?

a) The variance of the errors is not constant

b) The variance of the dependent variable is not constant

c) The errors are not linearly independent of one another

d) The errors have non-zero mean

For questions 4 and 5, consider the following regression model

4) Suppose that a researcher is interested in conducting White's heteroscedasticity test using the
residuals from an estimation of (2). What would be the most appropriate form for the auxiliary
regression?

a)

b)

c)

d)

5) Suppose that model (2) is estimated using 100 quarterly observations, and that a test of the type
described in question 4 is conducted. What would be the appropriate χ2 critical value with which to
compare the test statistic, assuming a 10% size of test?

a) 2.71

b) 118.50

c) 11.07

d) 9.24
6) What would be then consequences for the OLS estimator if heteroscedasticity is present in a
regression model but ignored?

a) It will be biased

b) It will be inconsistent

c) It will be inefficient

d) All of (a), (b) and (c) will be true.

7) Which of the following are plausible approaches to dealing with a model that exhibits
heteroscedasticity?

i) Take logarithms of each of the variables

ii) Use suitably modified standard errors

iii) Use a generalised least squares procedure

iv) Add lagged values of the variables to the regression equation.

a) (ii) and (iv) only

b) (i) and (iii) only

c) (i), (ii), and (iii) only

d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

8) Negative residual autocorrelation is indicated by which one of the following?

a) A cyclical pattern in the residuals

b) An alternating pattern in the residuals

c) A complete randomness in the residuals

d) Residuals that are all close to zero

9) Which of the following could be used as a test for autocorrelation up to third order?

a) The Durbin Watson test

b) White's test

c) The RESET test

d) The Breusch-Godfrey test

10) If a Durbin Watson statistic takes a value close to zero, what will be the value of the first order
autocorrelation coefficient?

a) Close to zero

b) Close to plus one

 c) Close to minus one

d) Close to either minus one or plus one

11) Suppose that the Durbin Watson test is applied to a regression containing two explanatory variables
plus a constant (e.g. equation 2 above) with 50 data points. The test statistic takes a value of 1.53. What
is the appropriate conclusion?

a) Residuals appear to be positively autocorrelated

b) Residuals appear to be negatively autocorrelated

c) Residuals appear not to be autocorrelated

d) The test result is inconclusive

12) Suppose that a researcher wishes to test for autocorrelation using an approach based on an auxiliary
regression. Which one of the following auxiliary regressions would be most appropriate?

a)

b)

c)

d)

13) If OLS is used in the presence of autocorrelation, which of the following will be likely consequences?

i) Coefficient estimates may be misleading

ii) Hypothesis tests could reach the wrong conclusions

iii) Forecasts made from the model could be biased

iv) Standard errors may inappropriate

a) (ii) and (iv) only

b) (i) and (iii) only

c) (i), (ii), and (iii) only

d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

14) Which of the following are plausible approaches to dealing with residual autocorrelation?

i) Take logarithms of each of the variables

ii) Add lagged values of the variables to the regression equation

iii) Use dummy variables to remove outlying observations

iv) Try a model in first differenced form rather than in levels.

a) (ii) and (iv) only

b) (i) and (iii) only

c) (i), (ii), and (iii) only

d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

15) Which of the following could result in autocorrelated residuals?

i) Slowness of response of the dependent variable to changes in the values of the independent variables

ii) Over-reactions of the dependent variable to changes in the independent variables

iii) Omission of relevant explanatory variables that are autocorrelated

iv) Outliers in the data

a) (ii) and (iv) only

b) (i) and (iii) only

c) (i), (ii), and (iii) only

d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

16) Including relevant lagged values of the dependent variable on the right hand side of a regression
equation could lead to which one of the following?

a) Biased but consistent coefficient estimates

b) Biased and inconsistent coefficient estimates

c) Unbiased but inconsistent coefficient estimates

d) Unbiased and consistent but inefficient coefficient estimates.

17) Near multicollinearity occurs when

a) Two or more explanatory variables are perfectly correlated with one another

b) The explanatory variables are highly correlated with the error term

c) The explanatory variables are highly correlated with the dependent variable

d) Two or more explanatory variables are highly correlated with one another

18) Which one of the following is NOT a plausible remedy for near multicollinearity?

a) Use principal components analysis

 b) Drop one of the collinear variables

c) Use a longer run of data

d) Take logarithms of each of the variables

19) What will be the properties of the OLS estimator in the presence of multicollinearity?

a) It will be consistent, unbiased and efficient

b) It will be consistent and unbiased but not efficient

c) It will be consistent but not unbiased

d) It will not be consistent

20) Which one of the following is NOT an example of mis-specification of functional form?

a) Using a linear specification when y scales as a function of the squares of x

b) Using a linear specification when a double-logarithmic model would be more

appropriate

c) Modelling y as a function of x when in fact it scales as a function of 1/x

d) Excluding a relevant variable from a linear regression model

21) If the residuals from a regression estimated using a small sample of data are not normally
distributed, which one of the following consequences may arise?

a) The coefficient estimates will be unbiased but inconsistent

b) The coefficient estimates will be biased but consistent

c) The coefficient estimates will be biased and inconsistent

d) Test statistics concerning the parameters will not follow their assumed distributions.

22) A leptokurtic distribution is one which

a) Has fatter tails and a smaller mean than a normal distribution with the same mean and
variance

b) Has fatter tails and is more peaked at the mean than a normal distribution with the
same mean and variance

c) Has thinner tails and is more peaked at the mean than a normal distribution with the
same mean and variance

d) Has thinner tails than a normal distribution and is skewed.

23) Under the null hypothesis of a Bera-Jarque test, the distribution has
 a) Zero skewness and zero kurtosis

b) Zero skewness and a kurtosis of three

c) Skewness of one and zero kurtosis

d) Skewness of one and kurtosis of three.

24) Which one of the following would be a plausible response to a finding of residual non-normality?

a) Use a logarithmic functional form instead of a linear one

b) Add lags of the variables on the right hand side of the regression model

c) Estimate the model in first differenced form

d) Remove any large outliers from the data.

25) A researcher tests for structural stability in the following regression model:

(3)

The total sample of 200 observations is split exactly in half for the sub-sample regressions. Which would
be the unrestricted residual sum of squares?

a) The RSS for the whole sample

b) The RSS for the first sub-sample

c) The RSS for the second sub-sample

d) The sum of the RSS for the first and second sub-samples

26) Suppose that the residual sum of squares for the three regressions corresponding to the Chow test
described in question 35 are 156.4, 76.2 and 61.9. What is the value of the Chow F-test statistic?

a) 4.3

b) 7.6

c) 5.3

d) 8.6

27) What would be the appropriate 5% critical value for the test described in questions 25 and 26?

a) 2.6

b) 8.5

c) 1.3

d) 9.2
28) Suppose now that a researcher wants to run a forward predictive failure test on the last 5
observations using the same model and data as in question 25. Which would now be the unrestricted
residual sum of squares?

a) The RSS for the whole sample regression

b) The RSS for the long sub-sample regression

c) The RSS for the short sub-sample regression

d) The sum of the RSS for the long and short sub-sample regressions.

29) If the two RSS for the test described in question 28 are 156.4 and 128.5, what is the value of the test
statistic?

a) 13.8

b) 14.3

c) 8.3

d) 8.6

30) If a relevant variable is omitted from a regression equation, the consequences would be that:

i) The standard errors would be biased

ii) If the excluded variable is uncorrelated with all of the included variables, all of the slope coefficients
will be inconsistent.

iii) If the excluded variable is uncorrelated with all of the included variables, the intercept coefficient will
be inconsistent.

iv) If the excluded variable is uncorrelated with all of the included variables, all of the slope and
intercept coefficients will be consistent and unbiased but inefficient.

a) (ii) and (iv) only

b) (i) and (iii) only

c) (i), (ii), and (iii) only

d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

31) A parsimonious model is one that

a) Includes too many variables

b) Includes as few variables as possible to explain the data

c) Is a well-specified model

d) Is a mis-specified model
32 ) Which one of the following is a disadvantage of the general to specific or "LSE" ("Hendry") approach
to building econometric models, relative to the specific to general approach?

a) Some variables may be excluded at the first stage leading to coefficient biases

b) The final model may lack theoretical interpretation

c) The final model may be statistically inadequate

d) If the initial model is mis-specified, all subsequent steps will be invalid.

1. Which of the following is the explanatory variable in this study?

a. Exercise

b. Lung capacity

c. Smoking or not

d. Occupation

2. Which of the following is a confounding variable in this study?

a. Exercise

b. Lung capacity

c. Smoking or not

d. Occupation

This scenario applies to Questions 3 to 5: A randomized experiment was done by randomly

assigning each participant either to walk for half an hour three times a week or to sit quietly

reading a book for half an hour three times a week. At the end of a year the change in

participants' blood pressure over the year was measured, and the change was compared for the

two groups.

3. This is a randomized experiment rather than an observational study because:

a. Blood pressure was measured at the beginning and end of the study.

b. The two groups were compared at the end of the study.

c. The participants were randomly assigned to either walk or read, rather than choosing

their own activity.

d. A random sample of participants was used.

4. The two treatments in this study were:

a. Walking for half an hour three times a week and reading a book for half an hour three

times a week.

b. Having blood pressure measured at the beginning of the study and having blood pressure

measured at the end of the study.

c. Walking or reading a book for half an hour three times a week and having blood pressure

measured.

d. Walking or reading a book for half an hour three times a week and doing nothing.

Scenario for Questions 3 to 5, continued

5. If a statistically significant difference in blood pressure change at the end of a year for the

two activities was found, then:

a. It cannot be concluded that the difference in activity caused a difference in the change in

blood pressure because in the course of a year there are lots of possible confounding

variables.

b. Whether or not the difference was caused by the difference in activity depends on what

else the participants did during the year.

c. It cannot be concluded that the difference in activity caused a difference in the change in

blood pressure because it might be the opposite, that people with high blood pressure

were more likely to read a book than to walk.

d. It can be concluded that the difference in activity caused a difference in the change in

blood pressure because of the way the study was done.

6. What is one of the distinctions between a population parameter and a sample statistic?

a. A population parameter is only based on conceptual measurements, but a sample statistic

is based on a combination of real and conceptual measurements.

b. A sample statistic changes each time you try to measure it, but a population parameter

remains fixed.

c. A population parameter changes each time you try to measure it, but a sample statistic

remains fixed across samples.

d. The true value of a sample statistic can never be known but the true value of a population

parameter can be known.

7. A magazine printed a survey in its monthly issue and asked readers to fill it out and send it

in. Over 1000 readers did so. This type of sample is called

a. a cluster sample.

b. a self-selected sample.

c. a stratified sample.

d. a simple random sample.

8. Which of the following would be most likely to produce selection bias in a survey?

a. Using questions with biased wording.

b. Only receiving responses from half of the people in the sample.

c. Conducting interviews by telephone instead of in person.

d. Using a random sample of students at a university to estimate the proportion of people

who think the legal drinking age should be lowered.

9. Which one of the following variables is not categorical?

a. Age of a person.

b. Gender of a person: male or female.

c. Choice on a test item: true or false.

d. Marital status of a person (single, married, divorced, other)

10. A polling agency conducted a survey of 100 doctors on the question “Are you willing to treat

women patients with the recently approved pill RU-486”? The conservative margin of error

associated with the 95% confidence interval for the percent who say 'yes' is

a. 50% b. 10% c. 5% d. 2%

11. Which one of these statistics is unaffected by outliers?

a. Mean

b. Interquartile range

c. Standard deviation

d. Range

12. A list of 5 pulse rates is: 70, 64, 80, 74, 92. What is the median for this list?

a. 74 b. 76 c. 77 d. 80

13. Which of the following would indicate that a dataset is not bell-shaped?
a. The range is equal to 5 standard deviations.

b. The range is larger than the interquartile range.

c. The mean is much smaller than the median.

d. There are no outliers.

14. A scatter plot of number of teachers and number of people with college degrees for cities in

California reveals a positive association. The most likely explanation for this positive

association is:

a. Teachers encourage people to get college degrees, so an increase in the number of

teachers is causing an increase in the number of people with college degrees.

b. Larger cities tend to have both more teachers and more people with college degrees, so

the association is explained by a third variable, the size of the city.

c. Teaching is a common profession for people with college degrees, so an increase in the

number of people with college degrees causes an increase in the number of teachers.

d. Cities with higher incomes tend to have more teachers and more people going to college,

so income is a confounding variable, making causation between number of teachers and

number of people with college degrees difficult to prove.

15. The value of a correlation is reported by a researcher to be r = −0.5. Which of the following

statements is correct?

a. The x-variable explains 25% of the variability in the y-variable.

b. The x-variable explains −25% of the variability in the y-variable.

c. The x-variable explains 50% of the variability in the y-variable.

d. The x-variable explains −50% of the variability in the y-variable.

16. What is the effect of an outlier on the value of a correlation coefficient?

a. An outlier will always decrease a correlation coefficient.

b. An outlier will always increase a correlation coefficient.

c. An outlier might either decrease or increase a correlation coefficient, depending on

where it is in relation to the other points.

d. An outlier will have no effect on a correlation coefficient.

17. One use of a regression line is

a. to determine if any x-values are outliers.

b. to determine if any y-values are outliers.

c. to determine if a change in x causes a change in y.

d. to estimate the change in y for a one-unit change in x.

18. Past data has shown that the regression line relating the final exam score and the midterm

exam score for students who take statistics from a certain professor is:

final exam = 50 + 0.5 × midterm

One interpretation of the slope is

a. a student who scored 0 on the midterm would be predicted to score 50 on the final exam.

b. a student who scored 0 on the final exam would be predicted to score 50 on the midterm

exam.

c. a student who scored 10 points higher than another student on the midterm would be

predicted to score 5 points higher than the other student on the final exam.

d. students only receive half as much credit (.5) for a correct answer on the final exam

compared to a correct answer on the midterm exam.

Questions 19 to 21: A survey asked people how often they exceed speed limits. The data are

then categorized into the following contingency table of counts showing the relationship between

age group and response.

Exceed Limit if Possible?

Age Always Not Always Total

Under 30 100 100 200

Over 30 40 160 200

Total 140 260 400

19. Among people with age over 30, what's the "risk" of always exceeding the speed limit?

a. 0.20

b. 0.40

c. 0.33

d. 0.50

20. Among people with age under 30 what are the odds that they always exceed the speed limit?
a. 1 to 2

b. 2 to 1

c. 1 to 1

d. 50%

21. What is the relative risk of always exceeding the speed limit for people under 30 compared to

people over 30?

a. 2.5

b. 0.4

c. 0.5

d. 30%

Questions 22 and 23: A newspaper article reported that "Children who routinely compete in

vigorous after-school sports on smoggy days are three times more likely to get asthma than their

non-athletic peers." (Sacramento Bee, Feb 1, 2002, p. A1)

22. Of the following, which is the most important additional information that would be useful

before making a decision about participation in school sports?

a. Where was the study conducted?

b. How many students in the study participated in after-school sports?

c. What is the baseline risk for getting asthma?

d. Who funded the study?

23. The newspaper also reported that "The number of children in the study who contracted

asthma was relatively small, 265 of 3,535." Which of the following is represented by

265/3535 = .075?

a. The overall risk of getting asthma for the children in this study.

b. The baseline risk of getting asthma for the “non-athletic peers” in the study.

c. The risk of getting asthma for children in the study who participated in sports.

d. The relative risk of getting asthma for children who routinely participate in vigorous

after-school sports on smoggy days and their non-athletic peers.

Questions 24 to 26: The following histogram shows the distribution of the difference between

the actual and “ideal” weights for 119 female students. Notice that percent is given on the
vertical axis. Ideal weights are responses to the question “What is your ideal weight”? The

difference = actual −ideal. (Source: idealwtwomen dataset on CD.)

24. What is the approximate shape of the distribution?

a. Nearly symmetric.

b. Skewed to the left.

c. Skewed to the right.

d. Bimodal (has more than one peak).

25. The median of the distribution is approximately

a. −10 pounds.

b. 10 pounds.

c. 30 pounds.

d. 50 pounds.

Scenario for Questions 24 to 26, continued

26. Most of the women in this sample felt that their actual weight was

a. about the same as their ideal weight.

b. less than their ideal weight.

c. greater than their ideal weight.

d. no more than 2 pounds different from their ideal weight.

27. A chi-square test of the relationship between personal perception of emotional health and

marital status led to rejection of the null hypothesis, indicating that there is a relationship

between these two variables. One conclusion that can be drawn is:

a. Marriage leads to better emotional health.

b. Better emotional health leads to marriage.

c. The more emotionally healthy someone is, the more likely they are to be married.

d. There are likely to be confounding variables related to both emotional health and

marital status.

28. A chi-square test involves a set of counts called “expected counts.” What are the expected

counts?

a. Hypothetical counts that would occur of the alternative hypothesis were true.

b. Hypothetical counts that would occur if the null hypothesis were true.

c. The actual counts that did occur in the observed data.

d. The long-run counts that would be expected if the observed counts are representative.

29. Pick the choice that best completes the following sentence. If a relationship between two

variables is called statistically significant, it means the investigators think the variables are

a. related in the population represented by the sample.

b. not related in the population represented by the sample.

c. related in the sample due to chance alone.

d. very important.

30. Simpson's Paradox occurs when

a. No baseline risk is given, so it is not know whether or not a high relative risk has

practical importance.

b. A confounding variable rather than the explanatory variable is responsible for a change in

the response variable.

c. The direction of the relationship between two variables changes when the categories of

a confounding variable are taken into account.

d. The results of a test are statistically significant but are really due to chance.
Questions 1 – 25 are multiple-choice items. Record your answer on the answer sheet provided. When
you have completed the

multiple choice items, then answer each of the three tie-breaker items in order. Record your answer and
your work on the tiebreaker pages provided as part of the test booklet. When you finish, detach the tie
breaker items from the booklet, be sure your

name is on each page. When time is called, turn in the answer sheet and the tie-breaker items. You may
keep the question part

of the test booklet.

1. Given IQ scores are approximately normally distributed with a mean of 100 and standard

deviation of 15, the proportion of people with IQs above 130 is:

a. 95%

b. 68%

c. 5%

d. 2.5%

2. Randomly assigning treatment to experimental units allows:

a. population inference

b. causal inference

c. both types of inference

d. neither type of inference

3. Failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false is:

a. alpha

b. Type I error

c. beta

d. Type II error

4. A parameter is:

a. a sample characteristic

b. a population characteristic

c. unknown

d. normal normally distributed

5. A statistic is:
a. a sample characteristic

b. a population characteristic

c. unknown

d. normally distributed

6. Observational studies allow:

a. population inference

b. causal inference

c. both types of inference

d. neither type of inference

7. A national random sample of 20 ACT scores from 2010 is listed below. Calculate the sample

mean and standard deviation.

29, 26, 13, 23, 23, 25, 17, 22, 17, 19, 12, 26, 30, 30, 18, 14, 12, 26, 17, 18

a. 20.50, 5.79

b. 20.50, 5.94

c. 20.85, 5.79

d. 20.85, 5.94

8. Provided that the ACT is reasonably normally distributed with a mean of 18 and standard

deviation of 6, determine the proportion of students with a 33 or higher.

a. 0.0062

b. 0.0109

c. 0.0124

d. 0.0217

9. Using the data in question 7, calculate the 95% confidence interval for the mean ACT score based

on the t-distribution.

a. -∞ to 23.05

b. -∞ to 23.15

c. 18.07 to 23.63

d. 18.22 to 23.48

10. Using the data in question 7, calculate number of observations that are two or more sample
standard deviations from the sample mean.

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3

11. The data in question 7 appears to be reasonably symmetric.

a. True

b. False

12. When asked questions concerning personal hygiene, people commonly lie. This is an example of:

a. sampling bias

b. confounding

c. non-response bias

d. response bias

13. Select the order of sampling schemes from best to worst.

a. simple random, stratified, convenience

b. simple random, convenience, stratified

c. stratified, simple random, convenience

d. stratified, convenience, simple random

14. The histogram above represents the lifespan of a random sample of a particular type of insect.

Determine the relationship between the mean and median.

a. mean = median

b. mean ≈ median
c. mean < median

d. mean > median

15. When the correlation coefficient, r, is close to one:

a. there is no relationship between the two variables

b. there is a strong linear relationship between the two variables

c. it is impossible to tell if there is a relationship between the two variables

d. the slope of the regression line will be close to one

16. Given the following data pairs (x, y), find the regression equation.

(1, 1.24), (2, 5.23), (3, 7.24), (4, 7.60), (5, 9.97), (6, 14.31), (7, 13.99), (8, 14.88),

(9, 18.04), (10, 20.70)

a. y = 0.490 x - 0.053

b. y = 2.04 x

c. y = 1.98 x + 0.436

d. y = 0.49 x

17. Using the data from 16, calculate the correlation coefficient.

a. r = 0.490

b. r = 0.985

c. r = 0.971

d. r = 0.240

18. The coefficient of determination for 16 is strong.

a. true

b. false

days

Frequency

0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14

0 10 20 30 40

19. Using the data from 16, obtain a prediction for x = 4.5.

a. 2.15

b. 2.21
c. 9.18

d. 9.34

20. The data in the scatterplot above would have a correlation coefficient that is close to:

a. –1.0

b. –0.5

c. +1.0

d. +0.5

21. The intercept in linear regression represents:

a. the strength of the relationship between x and y

b. the expected x value when y is zero

c. the expected y value when x is zero

d. a population parameter

22. Calculate the mean number of children per family for the sample from the following table.

Number of children Number of families

0 8
1 16
2 22
3 14
4 6
5 4
6 2

a. 1.91

b. 2.47
c. 3.14

d. 2.19

-1.0 -0.5 0.0 0.5 1.0

-1.0 -0.5 0.0 0.5 1.0

23. Using the table from 22, calculate the standard deviation.

a. 1.46

b. 1.45

c. 2.10

d. 2.17

24. In 1923, Babe Ruth had 522 at bats with 205 hits. Assuming that the binomial distribution can be

appropriately applied, find the expected number of hits in 529 at bats.

a. 321

b. 186

c. 230

d. 208

25. The distribution of heights of American women aged 18 to 24 is approximately normally

distributed with a mean of 65.5 inches and standard deviation of 2.5 inches. Calculate the z-score

for a woman six feet tall.

a. 2.60

b. 4.11

c. 1.04

d. 1.33

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

81. Which of the following statements applies to a point estimate?

a. The point estimate is a parameter.

b. The point estimate will tend to be accurate if the sample size exceeds 30 for non-
normal populations.
c. The point estimate is subject to sampling error and will almost always be different
than the population value.
 d. The point estimate is needed to determine the required sample size when estimating
the population mean.
82. Sampling error occurs when:

a. a non-statistical sample is used.

b. the statistic computed from the sample is not equal to the parameter for the
population.
c. a random sample is used rather than a convenience sample.
d. a confidence interval is used to estimate a population value rather than a point
estimate.
83. The general format for a confidence interval is:

a. point estimate + z (Standard Deviation).

b. point estimate + (critical value)(standard error).
c. margin of error + (confidence coefficient) (standard error).
d. point estimate + (critical value)(standard deviation)
84. In an application to estimate the mean number of miles that downtown employees commute to work
roundtrip each day, the following information is given:
n = 20
x  4.33
s  3.50
If the desired confidence level is 95 percent, the appropriate critical value is:

a. z = 1.96.
b. t = 2.093.
c. t = 2.086.
d. .7826.
85. In an application to estimate the mean number of miles that downtown employees commute to work
roundtrip each day, the following information is given:
n = 20
x  4.33
s  3.50
The point estimate for the true population mean is:

a. 1.638.
b. 4.33 + 1.638.
c. 4.33.
d. 3.50
86. In an application to estimate the mean number of miles that downtown employees commute to work
roundtrip each day, the following information is given:
n = 20
x  4.33
s  3.50
Based on this information, the upper limit for a 95 percent confidence interval estimate for the true
population mean is:

a. about 5.97 miles.

b. about 7.83 miles.
c. nearly 12.0 miles.
 d. about 5.86 miles
87. In developing a confidence interval estimate for the population mean, which of the following is true?

a. The larger the sample standard deviation, the wider will be the interval estimate, all ---
----other things being equal.
b. If the population standard deviation is unknown, the appropriate critical value should -
----be obtained from the t-distribution.
c. The confidence interval developed from a smaller sample size will have a larger -------
----margin of error than one obtained using a larger sample size, all other things being ----
---equal.
d. All of the above are true.
88. Which of the following will increase the width of a confidence interval (assuming that everything
else remains constant)?

a. decreasing the confidence level

b. increasing the sample size
c. a decrease in the standard deviation
d. decreasing the sample size
89. In an effort to estimate the mean dollars spent per visit by customers of a food store, the manager has
selected a random sample of 100 cash register receipts. The mean of these was $45.67 with a sample
standard deviation equal to $12.30. Assuming that he wants to develop a 90 percent confidence interval
estimate, which of the following is the margin of error that will be reported?

a. About + $2.02
b. Nearly $50.20
c. $1.645
d. About $1.43
90. In an effort to estimate the mean dollars spent per visit by customers of a food store, the manager has
selected a random sample of 100 cash register receipts. The mean of these was $45.67 with a sample
standard deviation equal to $12.30. Assuming that he wants to develop a 90 percent confidence interval
estimate, the upper limit of the confidence interval estimate is:

a. about $2.02.
b. approximately $65.90.
c. about $47.69.
d. None of the above.
91. The margin of error is:

a. the largest possible sampling error at a specified level of confidence.

b. the critical value times the standard error of the sampling distribution.
c. Both a and b
d. the difference between the point estimate and the parameter.
92. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the confidence level associated with an
estimation application?

a. The confidence level is a percentage value between 50 and 100 that corresponds to
the percentage of all possible confidence intervals, based on a given sample size, that will
contain the true population value.
b. The probability that the confidence interval estimate will contain the true population
value.
c. The degree of accuracy associated with the confidence interval estimate.
 d. None of the above.
93. In a situation where the population standard deviation is known and we wish to estimate the
population mean with 90 percent confidence, what is the appropriate critical value to use?

a. z = 1.96
b. z = 2.33
c. z = 1.645
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the degrees of freedom
94. In developing a confidence interval estimate for the population mean, the t-distribution is used to
obtain the critical value when:

a. the sample contains some extreme values that skew the results.
b. the population standard deviation is unknown.
c. the sampling that is being used is not a statistical sample.
d. the confidence level is low
95. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the t-distribution?

a. The t-distribution is symmetrical.

b. The exact shape of the t-distribution depends on the number of degrees of freedom.
c. The t-distribution is more spread out than the standard normal distribution.
d. All of the above are true.
96. A popular restaurant takes a random sample n=25 customers and records how long each occupied a
table. The found a sample mean of 1.2 hours and a sample standard deviation of 0.3 hours. Find the 95%
confidence interval for the mean.
a. 1.2 .118
b. 1.2 .124
c. 1.2 .588
d. 1.2 .609
97. If a decision maker wishes to reduce the margin of error associated with a confidence interval
estimate for a population mean, she can:

a. decrease the sample size.

b. increase the confidence level.
c. increase the sample size
d. use the t-distribution
98. When small samples are used to estimate a population mean, in cases where the population standard
deviation is unknown:

a. the t-distribution must be used to obtain the critical value.

b. the resulting margin of error for a confidence interval estimate will tend to be fairly
small.
c. there will be a large amount of sampling error.
d. None of the above.
99. An educational organization in California is interested in estimating the mean number of minutes per
day that children between the age of 6 and 18 spend watching television per day. A previous study
showed that the population standard deviation was 21.5 minutes. The organization selected a random
sample of n = 200 children between the ages of 6 and 18 and recorded the number of minutes of TV that
each person watched on a particular day. The mean time was 191.3 minutes. If the leaders of the
organization wish to develop an interval estimate with 98 percent confidence, what critical value should
be used?
 a. z = 1.645
b. t = 2.38
c. Approximately z = 2.33
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the margin of error.
100. An educational organization in California is interested in estimating the mean number of minutes
per day that children between the age of 6 and 18 spend watching television per day. A previous study
showed that the population standard deviation was 21.5 minutes. The organization selected a random
sample of n = 200 children between the age of 6 and 18 and recorded the number of minutes of TV that
each person watched on a particular day. The mean time was 191.3 minutes. If the leaders of the
organization wish to develop an interval estimate with 98 percent confidence, what would be the upper
and lower limits of the interval estimate?

a. Approximately 187.76 minutes ----- 194.84 minutes

b. About 141.21 minutes ------- 241.40 minutes
c. Approximately 188.3 minutes -------- 194.3 minutes
d. None of the above.
101. An educational organization in California is interested in estimating the mean number of minutes
per day that children between the age of 6 and 18 spend watching television per day. A previous study
showed that the population standard deviation was 21.5 minutes. The organization selected a random
sample of n = 200 children between the age of 6 and 18 and recorded the number of minutes of TV that
each person watched on a particular day. The mean time was 191.3 minutes. If the leaders of the
organization wish to develop an interval estimate with 95 percent confidence, what will the margin of
error be?

a. Approximately + 1.52 minutes

b. About + 2.98 minutes
c. z = 1.96
d. Approximately + 42.14 minutes
102. The Wisconsin Dairy Association is interested in estimating the mean weekly consumption of milk
for adults over the age of 18 in that state. To do this, they have selected a random sample of 300 people
from the designated population. The following results were recorded:
x = 34.5 ounces s = 7.9 ounces
Given this information, if the leaders wish to estimate the mean milk consumption with 90 percent
confidence, what is the approximate margin of error in the estimate?
a. z = 1.645
b. + 12.996 ounces
c. + 0.456 ounces
d. + 0.75 ounces
103. The Internal Revenue Service (IRS) is interested in estimating the mean amount of money spent on
outside tax service by income tax filers filing as single on their individual form. To do this, they have
selected a random sample of n = 16 people from this population and surveyed them to determine the
sample mean and sample standard deviation. The following information was observed: x = $88.60
s = $30.79

Given this information, what is the 95 percent confidence interval for the mean dollars spent on outside
tax assistance by taxpayers who file as single?

a. Approximately $72.19 –––– $105.01

b. About $22.97 –––– $154.23
 c. Approximately $80.90 –––– $96.30
d. About $ 28.25 –––– $148.95
104. A study was recently conducted to estimate the mean cholesterol for adult males over the age of 55
years. The following random sample data were observed:

Given this information, what is the point estimate for the population mean?
a. About 73.35
b. + 102
c. About 242.6
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the confidence level.
105. A study was recently conducted to estimate the mean cholesterol for adult males over the age of 55
years. From a random sample of n = 10 men, the sample mean was found to be 242.6 and the sample
standard deviation was 73.33. To find the 95% confidence interval estimate for the mean, the correct
critical value to use is:
a. 1.96
b. 2.2281
c. 2.33
d. 2.2622
106. The following data represent a random sample of bank balances for a population of checking
account customers at a large eastern bank. Based on these data, what is the critical value for a 95 percent
confidence interval estimate for the true population mean?

a. 1.96
b. 2.1009
c. 2.1098
d. None of the above.
107. The following data represent a random sample of bank balances for a population of checking
account customers at a large eastern bank. Based on these data, what is the 95 percent confidence
interval estimate for the true population mean?

a. Approximately $1,069 + $484.41

b. About $839.40 to $1,298.60
c. Approximately $1,069 + 2.1098
d. None of the above.
108. The Hilbert Drug Store owner plans to survey a random sample of his customers with the objective
of estimating the mean dollars spent on pharmaceutical products during the past three months. He has
assumed that the population standard deviation is known to be $15.50. Given this information, what
would be the required sample size to estimate the population mean with 95 percent confidence and a
margin of error of + $2.00?

a. 231
b. 163
c. 16
 d. 15
109. A major tire manufacturer wishes to estimate the mean tread life in miles for one of their tires.
They wish to develop a confidence interval estimate that would have a maximum sampling error of 500
miles with 90 percent confidence. A pilot sample of n = 50 tires showed a sample standard deviation
equal to 4,000 miles. Based on this information, the required sample size is:

a. 124.
b. 246.
c. 174.
d. 196.
110. The purpose of a pilot sample is:

a. to provide a better idea of what the population mean will be.

b. to help clarify how the sampling process will be performed.
c. to provide an idea of what the population standard deviation might be.
d. to save time and money instead of having to carry out a full sampling plan.
111. Past experience indicates that the variance in the time it takes for a “fast lube” operation to actually
complete the lube and oil change for customers is 9.00 minutes. The manager wishes to estimate the
mean time with 99% confidence and a margin of error of + 0.50 minutes. Given this, what must the
sample size be?

a. n = 239
b. n = 2149
c. n = 139
d. n = 1245
112. A traffic engineer plans to estimate the average number of cars that pass through an intersection
each day. Based on previous studies the standard deviation is believed to be 52 cars. She wants to
estimate the mean to within + 10 cars with 90% confidence. The needed sample size for n is:

a. n = 104 days
b. n = 74 days
c. n = 10 days
d. n = 9 days
113. If a manager believes that the required sample size is too large for a situation in which she desires
to estimate the mean income of blue collar workers in a state, which of the following would lead to a
reduction in sample size?

a. Reduce the level of confidence

b. Allow a higher margin of error
c. Somehow reduce the variation in the population
d. All of the above.
114. A large midwestern university is interested in estimating the mean time that students spend at the
student recreation center per week. A previous study indicated that the standard deviation in time is
about 40 minutes per week. If the officials wish to estimate the mean time within + 10 minutes with a 90
percent confidence, what should the sample size be?

a. 44
b. 62
c. 302
d. Can’t be determined without knowing how many students there are at the university.
115. A hospital emergency room has collected a sample of n = 40 to estimate the mean number of visits
per day. The have found the standard deviation is 32. Using a 90% confidence level, what is their margin
of error?

a. Approximately + 1.5 visits

b. About + 9.9 visits
c. Approximately + 8.3 visits
d. About + 1.3 visits
116. A study has indicated that the sample size necessary to estimate the average electricity use by
residential customers of a large western utility company is 900 customers. Assuming that the margin of
error associated with the estimate will be + 30 watts and the confidence level is stated to be 90 percent,
what was the value for the population standard deviation?

a. 265 watts
b. Approximately 547.1 watts
c. About 490 watts
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the size of the population.
117. The U.S. Post Office is interested in estimating the mean weight of packages shipped using the
overnight service. They plan to sample 300 packages. A pilot sample taken last year showed that the
standard deviation in weight was about 0.15 pounds. If they are interested in an estimate that has 95
percent confidence, what margin of error can they expect?

a. Approximately 0.017 pounds

b. About 0.0003 pounds
c. About 1.96
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the population mean.
118. A cell phone service provider has selected a random sample of 20 of its customers in an effort to
estimate the mean number of minutes used per day. The results of the sample included a sample mean of
34.5 minutes and a sample standard deviation equal to 11.5 minutes. Based on this information, and
using a 95 percent confidence level:

a. The critical value is z = 1.96.

b. The critical value is z = 1.645.
c. The critical value is t = 2.093.
d. The critical value can’t be determined without knowing the margin of error.
119. An animal shelter wants to estimate the mean number of animals housed daily and they know the
standard deviation. If they want to find a 98% confidence interval the critical value to use is:

a. 1.645
b. 1.98
c. 2.33
d. 2.575
120. Which of the following will result in a larger margin of error in an application involving the
estimation of a population mean?

a. Increasing the sample size

b Decreasing the confidence level
c. Increasing the sample standard deviation
d. All of the above.
8-3 Estimating a Population Proportion
121. The administrator at Sacred Heart Hospital is interested in estimating the proportion of patients who
are satisfied with the meals at the hospital. A random sample of 250 patients was selected and the
patients were surveyed. Of these, 203 indicated that they were satisfied. Based on this, what is the
estimate of the standard error of the sampling distribution?

a. 0.8120
b. 0.0247
c. 0.0006
d. Can’t be determined without knowing  .
122. The produce manager for a large retail food chain is interested in estimating the percentage of
potatoes that arrive on a shipment with bruises. A random sample of 150 potatoes showed 14 with
bruises. Based on this information, what is the margin of error for a 95 percent confidence interval
estimate?

a. 0.0933
b. 0.0466
c. 0.0006
d. Can’t be determined without knowing  .
123. A random sample of 340 people in Chicago showed that 66 listened to WJKT – 1450, a radio
station in South Chicago Heights. Based on this sample information, what is the point estimate for the
proportion of people in Chicago that listen to WJKT – 1450?

a. 340
b. About 0.194
c. 1450
d. 66
124. A random sample of 340 people in Chicago showed that 66 listened to WJKT – 1450, a radio
station in South Chicago Heights. Based on this information, what is the upper limit for the 95 percent
confidence interval estimate for the proportion of people in Chicago that listen to WJKT – 1450?

a. 1.96
b. Approximately 0.0009
c. About 0.2361
d. About 0.2298
125. The chamber of commerce in a beach resort town wants to estimate the proportion of
visitors who are repeat visitors. From previous experience they believe the portion is in the
vicinity of 0.5 and they want to estimate the proportion to within + 0.03 percentage points with
95% confidence. The sample size they should use is:

a. n = 1068
b. n = 545
c. n = 33
d. n = 95
126. The chamber of commerce in a beach resort town wants to estimate the proportion of visitors
who are repeat visitors. From previous experience they believe the portion is not larger than 20%. They
want to estimate the proportion to within + 0.04 percentage points with 95% confidence. The sample
size they should use is:
 a. n = 601
b. n = 97
c. n = 10
d. n = 385
127. A regional hardware chain is interested in estimating the proportion of their customers who own
their own homes. There is some evidence to suggest that the proportion might be around 0.70. Given
this, what sample size is required if they wish a 90 percent confidence level with a margin of error of ±
.025?

a. About 355
b. Approximately 910
c. Almost 1,300
d. 100
128. Suppose that an internal report submitted to the managers at a bank in Boston showed that with 95
percent confidence, the proportion of the bank’s customers who also have accounts at one or more other
banks is between .45 and .51. Given this information, what sample size was used to arrive at this
estimate?

a. About 344
b. Approximately 1,066
c. Just under 700
d. Can’t be determined without more information.
129. A sample of 250 people resulted in a confidence interval estimate for the proportion of people who
believe that the Federal Government’s proposed tax increase is justified is between 0.14 and 0.20. Based
on this information, what was the confidence level used in this estimation?
a. Approximately 1.59
b. 95 percent
c. Approximately 79 percent
d. Can’t be determined without knowing  .
130. The chamber of commerce in a beach resort town wants to estimate the proportion of visitors who
are repeat visitors. Suppose that they have estimated that they need a sample size of n=16,577 people
to achieve a margin of error of + .01 percentage points with 99% confidence, but this is too large a
sample size to be practical. How can they reduce the sample size?

a. use a higher level of confidence

b. use a smaller margin or error
c. use a lower level of confidence
d. conduct a census
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
9-1 Hypothesis Tests for Means

71. When someone is on trial for suspicion of committing a crime, the hypotheses are:
Ho : innocent
HA : guilty
Which of the following is correct?

a. Type I error is acquitting a guilty person

b. Type I error is convicting an innocent person
 c. Type II error is acquitting an innocent person
d. Type II error is convicting an innocent person
72. Which of the following statements is true?

a. The decision maker controls the probability of making a Type I statistical error.
b. Alpha represents the probability of making a Type II error.
c. Alpha and beta are directly related such that when one is increased the other will
increase also.
d. The alternative hypothesis should contain the equality.
73. In a hypothesis test involving a population mean, which of the following would be an acceptable
formulation?

H o : x  $1,700
a.
H a : x  $1,700

H o :   $1,700
b.
H a :   $1,700

H o :   $1,700
c.
H a :   $1,700

d. None of the above is a correct formulation.

74. Which of the following would be an appropriate null hypothesis?

a. The mean of a population is equal to 55.

b. The mean of a sample is equal to 55.

c. The mean of a population is greater than 55.

d. The mean of a sample is equal to 55

75. If we are performing a two-tailed test of whether  = 100, the probability of detecting a shift of the
mean to 105 will be ________ the probability of detecting a shift of the mean to 110.

a. less than

b. greater than

c. equal to

d. not comparable to

76. If an economist wishes to determine whether there is evidence that average family income in a
community exceeds $25,000. The best null hypothesis is:
 a. μ = 25,000

b. μ > 25,000

c. μ < 25,000

d. μ > 25,000

77. If the p value is less than  in a two-tailed test,

a. the null hypothesis should not be rejected.

b. the null hypothesis should be rejected.

c. a one-tailed test should be used.

d. more information is needed to reach a conclusion about the null hypothesis.

78. A hypothesis test is to be conducted using an alpha = .05 level. This means:

a. there is a 5 percent chance that the null hypothesis is true.

b. there is a 5 percent chance that the alternative hypothesis is true.
c. there is a maximum 5 percent chance that a true null hypothesis will be rejected.
d. there is a 5 percent chance that a Type II error has been committed.
79. In a two-tailed hypothesis test for a population mean, an increase in the sample size will:

a. have no affect on whether the null hypothesis is true or false.

b. have no affect on the significance level for the test.
c. result in a sampling distribution that has less variability.
d. All of the above are true.
80. The reason for using the t-distribution in a hypothesis test about the population mean is:

a. the population standard deviation is unknown

b. it results in a lower probability of a Type I error occurring.
c. it provides a smaller critical value than the standard normal distribution for a given
sample size.
d. the population is not normally distributed
81. A company that makes shampoo wants to test whether the average amount of shampoo per bottle is
16 ounces. The standard deviation is known to be 0.20 ounces. Assuming that the hypothesis test is to be
performed using 0.10 level of significance and a random sample of n = 64 bottles, which of the following
would be the upper tail critical value?

a. 1.28
b. 1.645
c. 1.96
d. 2.575
82. A company that makes shampoo wants to test whether the average amount of shampoo per bottle is
16 ounces. The standard deviation is known to be 0.20 ounces. Assuming that the hypothesis test is to be
performed using 0.10 level of significance and a random sample of n = 64 bottles, which of the following
would be the correct formulation of the null and alternative hypotheses?
 a. Ho : x = 16
HA : x ≠ 16

b. Ho : μ = 16
HA : μ ≠ 16

c. Ho : μ >16
HA : μ < 16

d. Ho : x > 16
HA : x < 16
83. A company that makes shampoo wants to test whether the average amount of shampoo per bottle is
16 ounces. The standard deviation is known to be 0.20 ounces. Assuming that the hypothesis test is to be
performed using 0.10 level of significance and a random sample of n = 64 bottles, how large could the
sample mean be before they would reject the null hypothesis?

a. 16.2 ounces
b. 16.049 ounces
c. 15.8 ounces
d. 16.041 ounces
84. The cost of a college education has increased at a much faster rate than costs in general over the past
twenty years. In order to compensate for this, many students work part- or full- time in addition to
attending classes. At one university, it is believed that the average hours students work per week exceeds
20. To test this at a significance level of 0.05, a random sample of n = 20 students was selected and the
following values were observed:

Based on these sample data, which of the following statements is true?

a. The standard error of the sampling distribution is approximately 3.04.

b. The test statistic is approximately t = 0.13.
c. The research hypothesis that the mean hours worked exceeds 20 is not supported by
these sample data.
d. All of the above are true.
85. The cost of a college education has increased at a much faster rate than costs in general over the past
twenty years. In order to compensate for this, many students work part- or full-time in addition to
attending classes. At one university, it is believed that the average hours students work per week exceeds
20. To test this at a significance level of 0.05, a random sample of n = 20 students was selected and the
following values were observed:

Based on these sample data, the critical value expressed in hours:

 a. is approximately equal to 25.26 hours.
b. is approximately equal to 25.0 hours.
c. cannot be determined without knowing the population standard deviation.
d. is approximately 22 hours
86. The R.D. Wilson Company makes a soft drink dispensing machine that allows customers to get soft
drinks from the machine in a cup with ice. When the machine is running properly, the average number of
fluid ounces in the cup should be 14. Periodically the machines need to be tested to make sure that they
have not gone out of adjustment. To do this, six cups are filled by the machine and a technician carefully
measures the volume in each cup. In one such test, the following data were observed:

Which of the following would be the correct null hypothesis if the company wishes to test the machine?

a. H o : x  14 ounces
b. H o :   14 ounces
c. H o :   14 ounces
d. H o : x  14 ounces
87. The R.D. Wilson Company makes a soft drink dispensing machine that allows customers to get soft
drinks from the machine in a cup with ice. When the machine is running properly, the average number of
fluid ounces in the cup should be 14. Periodically the machines need to be tested to make sure that they
have not gone out of adjustment. To do this, six cups are filled by the machine and a technician carefully
measures the volume in each cup. In one such test, the following data were observed:

Based on these sample data, which of the following is true if the significance level is .05?

a. No conclusion can be reached about the status of the machine based on a sample size
of only six cups.
b. The null hypothesis cannot be rejected since the test statistic is approximately t = .29 ,
which is not in the rejection region.
c. The null hypothesis can be rejected since the sample mean is greater than 14
d. The null can be rejected because the majority of the sample values exceed 14
88. A concern of Major League Baseball is that games last too long. Some executives in the league’s
headquarters believe that the mean length of games this past year exceeded 3 hours (180 minutes). To
test this, the league selected a random sample of 80 games and found the following results: x  193
minutes and s = 16 minutes.
Based on these results, if the null hypothesis is tested using an alpha level equal to 0.10, which of the
following is true?

a. The null hypothesis should be rejected if x  182.31.

b. The test statistic is t = 1.2924.
c. Based on the sample data, the null hypothesis cannot be rejected.
d. It is possible that when the hypothesis test is completed that a Type II statistical
error has been made.
89. When testing a two-tailed hypothesis using a significance level of 0.05, a sample size of n = 16, and
with the population standard deviation unknown, which of the following is true?

a. The null hypothesis can be rejected if the sample mean gets too large or too small
compared with the hypothesized mean.
b. The alpha probability must be split in half and a rejection region must be formed on
both sides of the sampling distribution.
c. The test statistic will be a t-value.
d. All of the above are true.
90. A major airline is concerned that the waiting time for customers at their ticket counter may be
exceeding their target average of 190 seconds. To test this, the company has selected a random sample
of 100 customers and times them from when the customer first arrives at the checkout line until he or she
is at the counter being served by the ticket agent. The mean time for this sample was 202 seconds with a
standard deviation of 28 seconds. Given this information and the desire to conduct the test using an alpha
level of 0.02, which of the following statements is true?

a. The chance of a Type II error is 1 - 0.02 = 0.98.

b. The test to be conducted will be structured as a two-tailed test.
c. The test statistic will be approximately t = 4.286, so the null hypothesis should be
rejected.
d. The sample data indicate that the difference between the sample mean and the
hypothesized population mean should be attributed only to sampling error.
91. A house cleaning service claims that they can clean a four bedroom house in less than 2 hours. A
sample of n = 16 houses is taken and the sample mean is found to be 1.97 hours and the sample standard
deviation is found to be 0.1 hours. Using a 0.05 level of significance the correct conclusion is

a. Reject the null because the test statistic (-1.2) is < the critical value (1.7531)
b. Do not reject the null because the test statistic (1.2) is > the critical value (-1.7531)
c. Reject the null because the test statistic (-1.7531) is < the critical value (-1.2)
d. Do not reject the null because the test statistic (-1.2) is > the critical value (-1.7531)
9-2 Hypothesis Tests for Proportions

92. Woof Chow Dog Food Company believes that it has a market share of 25%. They survey n = 100
dog owners and ask whether or not Woof Chow is their regular brand of dog food. The appropriate null
and alternate hypotheses are:

H o : p  .25
a.
H a : p  .25

H o :   .25
b.
H a :   .25

H o :   .25
c.
H a :   .25

H o :   .25
d.
H a :   .25
93. Woof Chow Dog Food Company believes that it has a market share of 25%. They survey n = 100
dog owners and ask whether or not Woof Chow is their regular brand of dog food, and 23 people say yes.
Based upon this information, what is the critical value if the hypothesis is to be tested at the 0.05 level of
significance?

a. 1.28
b. 1.645
c. 1.96
d. 2.575
94. Woof Chow Dog Food Company believes that it has a market share of 25%. They survey n = 100 dog
owners and ask whether or not Woof Chow is their regular brand of dog food, and 23 people say yes.
Based upon this information, what is the value of the test statistic?

a. -0.462
b. -0.475
c. 0.462
d. 0.475
95. After completing sales training for a large company, it is expected that the salesperson will generate
a sale on at least 15 percent of the calls he or she makes. To make sure that the sales training process is
working, a random sample of n = 400 sales calls made by sales representatives who have completed the
training have been selected and the null hypothesis is to be tested at 0.05 alpha level. Suppose that a sale
is made on 36 of the calls. Based on this information, what is the test statistic for this test?

a. Approximately 0.1417
b. About z = -3.35
c. z = -1.645
d. t = -4.567
96. After completing sales training for a large company, it is expected that the salesperson will generate a
sale on at least 15 percent of the calls he or she makes. To make sure that the sales training process is
working, a random sample of n = 400 sales calls made by sales representatives who have completed the
training have been selected and the null hypothesis is to be tested at 0.05 alpha level. Suppose that a sale
is made on 36 of the calls. Based on these sample data, which of the following is true?

a. The null hypothesis should be rejected since the test statistic falls in the lower tail
rejection region.
b. The null hypothesis is supported since the sample results do not fall in the rejection
region.
c. There is insufficient evidence to reject the null hypothesis and the sample proportion
is different from the hypothesized proportion due to sampling error.
d. It is possible that a Type II statistical error has been committed.
9-3 Type II Errors

97. Which of the following is not a required step in finding Beta?

a. Assuming a true value of the population parameter where the null is false
b. Finding the critical value based on the null hypothesis
c. Converting the critical value from the standard normal distribution to the units of the
data
d. Finding the power of the test
98. If the Type I error (  ) for a given test is to be decreased, then for a fixed sample size n:
 a. the Type II error (  ) will also decrease.

b. the Type II error (  ) will increase.

c. the power of the test will increase.

d. a one-tailed test must be utilized.
99. For a given sample size n, if the level of significance (  ) is decreased, the power of the test:

a. will increase.

b. will decrease.

c. will remain the same.

d. cannot be determined.
100.The power of a test is measured by its capability of:

a. rejecting a null hypothesis that is true.

b. not rejecting a null hypothesis that is true.

c. rejecting a null hypothesis that is false.

d. not rejecting a null hypothesis that is false.
101. Which of the following will be helpful if the decision maker wishes to reduce the chance of making
a Type II error?

a. Increase the level of significance at which the hypothesis test is conducted.

b. Increase the sample size.
c. Both a and b will work.
d. Neither a nor b will be effective.
102. A consumer group plans to test whether a new passenger car that is advertised to have a mean
highway miles per gallon of at least 33 actually meets this level. They plan to test the hypothesis using a
significance level of 0.05 and a sample size of n = 100 cars. It is believed that the population standard
deviation is 3 mpg. Based upon this information, if the “true” population mean is 32.0 mpg, what is the
probability that the test will lead the consumer group to “accept” the claimed mileage for this car?

a. About 0.45
b. Approximately 0.0455
c. About 0.9545
d. None of the above.
103. A consumer group plans to test whether a new passenger car that is advertised to have a mean
highway miles per gallon of at least 33 actually meets this level. They plan to test the hypothesis using a
significance level of 0.05 and a sample size of n = 100 cars. It is believed that the population standard
deviation is 3 mpg. Based upon this information, what is the critical value in terms of miles per gallon
that would be needed prior to finding Beta?
 a. 32.5065
b. 33.4935
c. 33.588
d. 32.412
104. Suppose we want to test H0 :   30 versus H1 :   30. Which of the following possible
sample results based on a sample of size 36 gives the strongest evidence to reject H0 in favor of H1?

a. X = 28, s = 6

b. X = 27, s = 4

c. X = 32, s = 2

d. X = 26, s = 9
105. A contract calls for the mean diameter of a cylinder to be 1.50 inches. As a quality check, each
day a random sample of n = 36 cylinders is selected and the diameters are measured. Assuming that the
population standard deviation is thought to be 0.10 inch and that the test will be conducted using an alpha
equal to 0.025, what would the probability of a Type II error be?

a. Approximately 0.1267
b. About 0.6789
c. 0.975
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the “true” population mean.
106. A company that sells an online course aimed at helping high-school students improve their SAT
scores has claimed that SAT scores will improve by more than 90 points on average if students
successfully complete the course. To test this, a national school counseling organization plans to select a
random sample of n = 100 students who have previously taken the SAT test. These students will take the
company’s course and then retake the SAT test. Assuming that the population standard deviation for
improvement in test scores is thought to be 30 points, and the level of significance for the hypothesis test
is 0.05, what is the probability that the counseling organization will incorrectly “accept” the null
hypothesis when, in fact, the true mean increase is actually 95 points?

a. Approximately 0.508
b. About 0.492
c. Approximately 0.008
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the sample results.
107. A company that sells an online course aimed at helping high-school students improve their SAT
scores has claimed that SAT scores will improve by more than 90 points on average if students
successfully complete the course. To test this, a national school counseling organization plans to select a
random sample of n = 100 students who have previously taken the SAT test. These students will take the
company’s course and then retake the SAT test. Assuming that the population standard deviation for
improvement in test scores is thought to be 30 points, and the level of significance for the hypothesis test
is 0.05, find the critical value in terms of improvement in SAT points which would be needed prior to
finding a Beta.
a. reject the null if SAT improvement is > 95 points
b. reject the null if SAT improvement is < 85.065 points
c reject the null if SAT improvement is > 95.88 points
d. reject the null if SAT improvement is >94.935 points
108. A recent report in which a major pharmaceutical company released the results of testing that had
been done on the cholesterol reduction that people could expect if they use the company’s new drug
indicated that the Type II error probability for a given “true” mean was 0.1250 based on the sample size
of n = 64 subjects. Given this, what was the power of the test under these same conditions? The alpha
level used in the test was 0.05.

a. 0.95
b. 0.875
c. Essentially zero
d. Power would be undefined in this case since the hypothesis would be rejected.
109. If the hypothesis test you are conducting is a two-tailed test, which of the following is a possible
step that you could take to increase the power of the test?

a. Reduce the sample size

b. Increase alpha
c. Increase beta
d. use the t-distribution
110. A consumer group plans to test whether a new passenger car that is advertised to have a mean
highway miles per gallon of at least 33 actually meets this level. They plan to test the hypothesis using a
significance level of 0.05 and a sample size of n = 100 cars. It is believed that the population standard
deviation is 3 mpg. Based upon this information, if the “true” population mean is 32.0 mpg, what is the
probability that the test will lead the consumer group to reject the claimed mileage for this car?

a. About 0.075
b. Approximately 0.95
c. 0.05
d. None of the above.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

10-1 Estimation for Two Population Means Using Independent Samples

34. If a manager wishes to develop a confidence interval estimate for estimating the difference between
two population means, an increase in the size of the samples used will result in:

a. an increase in the size of the critical value.

b. a wider confidence interval.
c. a more precise confidence interval.
d. a less precise confidence interval
Answer: C (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, population, confidence interval

35. If the population variances are assumed to be known in an application where a manager wishes to
estimate the difference between two population means, the 95% confidence interval estimate can be
developed using which of the following critical values:

a. z = 1.645.
b. z = 1.96.
c. t value that depends on the sample sizes from the two populations.
d. z = 2.575
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, confidence interval, population, variance, critical value
36. A company in Maryland has developed a device that can be attached to car engines which they
believe will increase the miles per gallon that cars will get. The owners are interested in estimating
the difference between mean mpg for cars using the device versus those that are not using the device.
The following data represent the mpg for independent random samples of cars from each population.
The variances are assumed equal and the populations normally distributed.

Given this data, what is the critical value if the owners wish to have a 90 percent confidence interval
estimate?

a. t = 2.015
b. t = 1.7823
c. z = 1.645
d. z = 1.96
Answer: B (Moderate)
Keywords: mean difference, confidence interval, critical value

37. A company in Maryland has developed a device that can be attached to car engines, which they
believe will increase the miles per gallon that cars will get. The owners are interested in estimating
the difference between mean mpg for cars using the device versus those that are not using the device.
The following data represent the mpg for random independent samples of cars from each population.
The variances are assumed equal and the populations normally distributed.

Given this data, what is the upper limit for a 95 percent confidence interval estimate for the difference in
mean mpg?

a. Approximately 3.88 mpg

b. About 5.44 mpg
c. Just under 25.0
d. None of the above.
Answer: B (Difficult)
Keywords: mean difference, confidence interval, population
38. When estimating a confidence interval for the difference between 2 means using the method where
sample variances are pooled, which of the following assumptions is not needed?

a. the populations are normally distributed.

b. the populations have equal variance
c. the samples are independent.
d. the sample sizes are equal
Answer: D (Moderate)
Keywords: mean difference, confidence interval, independent, variances unknown

39. A major retail clothing store is interested in estimating the difference in mean monthly purchases by
customers who use the store’s in-house credit card versus using a Visa, Mastercard, or one of the
other major credit cards. To do this, they have randomly selected a sample of customers who have
made one or more purchases with each of the types of credit cards. The following represents the
results of the sampling:
In-House Credit Card National Credit Card
Sample Size: 86 113
Mean Monthly Purchases: $45.67 $39.87
Standard Deviation: $10.90 $12.47

Based on these sample data, what is the lower limit for the 95 percent confidence interval estimate for the
difference between population means?

a. About $5.28
b. Approximately $4.85
c. Approximately $2.54
d. Approximately $3.41
Answer: C (Moderate)
Keywords: mean difference, confidence interval, population, lower limit

40. A major retail clothing store is interested in estimating the difference in mean monthly purchases by
customers who use the store’s in-house credit card versus using a Visa, Mastercard, or one of the
other major credit cards. To do this, they have randomly selected a sample of customers who have
made one or more purchases with each of the types of credit cards. The following represents the
results of the sampling:
In-House Credit Card National Credit Card
Sample Size: 86 113
Mean Monthly Purchases: $45.67 $39.87
Standard Deviation: $10.90 $12.47

Given this information, which of the following statements is true?

a. If either of the sample sizes is increased, the resulting confidence interval will have a
smaller margin of error.
b. If the confidence level were changed from 95 percent to 90 percent, the margin of
error in the estimate would be reduced.
c. Neither a nor b are true.
d. Both a and b are true.
Answer: D (Moderate)
Keywords: mean difference, confidence interval, population, margin of error
10-2 Hypothesis Tests for Two Population Means Using Independent Samples

41. A major retail clothing store is interested in estimating the difference in mean monthly purchases by
customers who use the store’s in-house credit card versus using a Visa, Mastercard, or one of the
other major credit cards. To do this, they have randomly selected a sample of customers who have
made one or more purchases with each of the types of credit cards. The following represents the
results of the sampling:
In-House Credit Card National Credit Card
Sample Size: 86 113
Sample Mean: $45.67 $39.87
Standard Deviation (σ): $10.90 $12.47

Suppose that the managers wished to test whether there is a statistical difference in the mean monthly
purchases by customers using the two types of credit cards, using a significance level of .05, what is the
value of the test statistic assuming the standard deviations are known?

a. t = 3.49
b. z = 11.91
c. z = 2.86
d. z = 3.49
Answer: D (Moderate)
Keywords: mean difference, known standard deviations, test statistic

42. If we are testing for the difference between the means of two independent populations with samples
of n1 = 20 and n2 = 20, the number of degrees of freedom is equal to:

a. 39.
b. 38.
c. 19.
d. 18.
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, independent, degrees of freedom

43. Given the following information, calculate the degrees of freedom that should be used in the pooled-
standard deviation t-test.
s1 2 = 4 s2 2 = 6
n1 = 16 n2 = 25

a. df = 41
b. df = 39
c. df = 16
 d. df = 25
Answer: B (Moderate)
Keywords: degrees of freedom, pooled, standard deviation, t-test

44. A recent study posed the question about whether Japanese managers are more motivated than
American managers. A randomly selected sample of each was administered the Sarnoff Survey of
Attitudes Toward Life (SSATL), which measures motivation for upward mobility. The SSATL scores
are summarized below.

American Japanese
Sample Size 211 100
Mean SSATL Score 65.75 79.83
Population Std. Dev. 11.07 6.41

Judging from the way the data were collected, which test would likely be most appropriate?
a. Related samples t-test for mean difference
b. Pooled-variance t-test for the difference in means
c. Independent samples Z-test for the difference in means
d. Related samples Z-test for mean difference
Answer: C (Easy)
Keywords: independent, samples, z-test, mean difference

45. A recent study posed the question about whether Japanese are managers more motivated than
American managers. A randomly selected sample of each was administered the Sarnoff Survey of
Attitudes Toward Life (SSATL), which measures motivation for upward mobility. The SSATL scores are
summarized below.

American Japanese
Sample Size 211 100
 Mean SSATL Score 65.75 79.83
Population Std. Dev. 11.07 6.41

Which of the following is the correct the null and alternative hypotheses to determine if the average
SSATL score of Japanese managers differs from the average SSATL score of American managers?

a. H0 :  A –  J  0 versus H1 :  A –  J  0

b. H0 :  A –  J  0 versus H1 :  A –  J  0

c. H0 :  A –  J  0 versus H1 :  A –  J  0

d. H0 : XA – XJ  0 versus H1 : X A – XJ  0

Answer: C (Easy)
Keywords: null, alternative, hypothesis, mean difference

46. A commuter has two different routes available to drive to work. She wants to test whether route A is
faster than route B. The best hypotheses are:

a. Ho : μA - μB > 0

HA : μA - μB < 0

b. Ho : μA - μB < 0

HA : μA - μB > 0
 c. Ho : μA - μB = 0

HA : μA - μB ≠ 0

d. Ho : μA - μB < 0

HA : μA - μB > 0
Answer: A (Moderate)
Keywords: independent, sample, hypotheses

47. In conducting a hypothesis test for the difference in two population means where the standard
deviations are known and the null hypothesis is:
Ho : μA - μB = 0
What is the p-value assuming that the test statistic has been found to be z = 2.52?

a. 0.0059
b. 0.9882
c. 0.0118
d. 0.4941
Answer: C (Moderate)
Keywords: mean difference, independent, sample, p-value

48. Under what conditions can the t-distribution be correctly employed to test the difference between two
population means?

a. When the samples from the two populations are small and the population variances
are unknown.
b. When the two populations of interest are assumed to be normally distributed.
c. When the population variances are assumed to be equal.
d. All of the above.
Answer: D (Moderate)
Keywords: variance, small sample, normal, t-distribution

49. A hypothesis test for the difference between two means is considered a two-tailed test when:

a. the population variances are equal.

b. the null hypothesis states that the population means are equal.
c. the alpha level is 0.10 or higher.
d. the standard deviations are unknown
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, hypothesis, two-tailed, null
50. There have been complaints recently from homeowners in the north end claiming that their homes
have been assessed at values that are too high compared with other parts of town. They say that the
mean increase from last year to this year has been higher in their part of town than elsewhere. To test
this, the assessor’s office staff plans to select a random sample of north end properties (group 1) and a
random sample of properties from other areas within the city (group 2) and perform a hypothesis test.
Based on the information provided, the research (or alternate) hypothesis is:

a. 1   2 .
b. 1   2 .
c. 1   2 .
d. μ1 < μ2.
Answer: C (Moderate)
Keywords: independent, mean, research, alternate, hypothesis

51. There have been complaints recently from homeowners in the north end claiming that their homes
have been assessed at values that are too high compare with other parts of town. They say that the
mean increase from last year to this year has been higher in their part of town than elsewhere. To test
this, the assessor’s office staff plans to select a random sample of north end properties (group 1) and a
random sample of properties from other areas within the city (group 2) and perform a hypothesis test.
The following sample information is available:

North End Other

Sample Size 20 10
Sample Mean Increase $4,010 $3,845
Sample St. Deviation $1,800 $1,750

Assuming that the null hypothesis will be tested using an alpha level equal to 0.05, what is the value of
the test statistic?

a. z = 1.578
b. t = 1.7011
c. t = 0.2388
d. t = 0.3944
Answer: C (Moderate)
Keywords: test statistic, hypothesis, null, independent, mean
52. There have been complaints recently from homeowners in the north end claiming that their homes
have been assessed at values that are too high compare with other parts of town. They say that the
mean increase from last year to this year has been higher in their part of town than elsewhere. To test
this, the assessor’s office staff plans to select a random sample of north end properties (group 1) and a
random sample of properties from other areas within the city (group 2) and perform a hypothesis test.
The following sample information is available:
North End Other
Sample Size 20 Sample Size 10
Mean Increase $4,010 Mean Increase $3,845
St. Deviation $1,800 St. Deviation $1,750

Assuming that the null hypothesis will be tested using an alpha level equal to 0.05, what is the critical
value?

a. z = 1.578
b. t = 1.7011
c. t = 0.2388
d. t = 2.0484
Answer: B (Moderate)
Keywords: critical value, hypothesis, mean, independent

53. Assume that you are testing the difference in the means of two independent populations at the 0.05
level of significance. The null hypothesis is: Ho : μA - μB > 0 and you have found the test statistic is z
= -1.92. What should you conclude?

a. The mean of pop. A is greater than the mean of pop. B because p < α
b. The mean of pop. A is greater than the mean of pop. B because p > α
c. There is no significant difference in the two means because p > α
d. The mean of pop. B is greater than the mean of pop. A because p < α
Answer: D (Moderate)
Keywords: hypothesis, one tailed, mean, independent, p-value

54. The U.S. Golf Association provides a number of services for its members. One of these is the
evaluation of golf equipment to make sure that the equipment satisfies the rules of golf. For
example, they regularly test the golf balls made by the various companies that sell balls in the United
States. Recently they undertook a study of two brands of golf balls with the objective to see whether
there is a difference in the mean distance that the two golf ball brands will fly off the tee. To conduct
the test, the U.S.G.A. uses a robot named “Iron Byron,” which swings the club at the same speed and
with the same swing pattern each time it is used. The following data reflect sample data for a
random sample of balls of each brand.

Brand A: 234 236 230 227 234 233 228 229 230 238
Brand B: 240 236 241 236 239 243 230 239 243 240

Given this information, what is the test statistic for testing whether the two population means are equal?

a. F = 1.115
b. t = 1.96
c. t = -4.04
d. t = -2.58
Answer: C (Difficult)
Keywords: test statistic, mean, independent
10-3 Interval Estimation and Hypothesis Tests for Paired Samples

55. Most companies that make golf balls and golf clubs use a one-armed robot named “Iron Byron” to
test their balls for length and accuracy, but because of swing variations by real golfers, these test
robots don’t always indicate how the clubs will perform in actual use. One company in the golfing
industry is interested in testing its new driver to see how it compares with the best-selling driver. To
do this, they have selected a group of golfers of differing abilities and ages. Their plan is to have
each player use each of the two clubs and hit five balls. They will record the average length of the
drives with each club for each player. Given this description of the planned test, which of the
following statements is true?

a. The test won’t be meaningful if only five balls are hit by each player with each club.
b. The samples in this case are called paired samples since the same players are hitting
both golf clubs.
c. The test will be invalid unless different players are used to hit each club so that the
samples will be independent.
d. The samples are independent because each player is independent of the other players.
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, paired

56. Most companies that make golf balls and golf clubs use a one-armed robot named “Iron Byron” to
test their balls for length and accuracy, but because of swing variations by real golfers, these test
robots don’t always indicate how the clubs will perform in actual use. One company in the golfing
industry is interested in testing its new driver to see if has greater length off the tee than the best-
selling driver. To do this, they have selected a group of golfers of differing abilities and ages. Their
plan is to have each player use each of the two clubs and hit five balls. They will record the average
length of the drives with each club for each player. The resulting data for a sample of 10 players is:

Based on these sample data, what is the point estimate for the difference between the mean distance for
the new driver versus the leading driver?

a. 2.81
b. 1.55
c. – 3.45
d. 233.4
Answer: A (Moderate)
Keywords: mean difference, point estimate, paired
57. Suppose that a group of 10 people join a weight loss program for 3 months. Each person’s weight is
recorded at the beginning and at the end of the 3 month program. To test whether the weight loss
program is effective, the data should be treated as:
a. Independent samples using the normal distribution
b. paired samples using the t-distribution
c. independent samples using the t-distribution.
d. independent proportions
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, population, independent, paired

58. The t-test for the mean difference between 2 related populations assumes that the respective:

a. sample sizes are equal.

b. sample variances are equal.
c. populations are approximately normal or sample sizes are large.
d. All of the above.
Answer: C (Moderate)
Keywords: mean difference, sample size, normal

59. If we are testing for the difference between the means of two paired populations with samples of n1
= 20 and n2 = 20, the number of degrees of freedom is equal to:

a. 39.
b. 38.
c. 19.
d. 18.
Answer: C (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, population, paired, degrees of freedom

60. In testing for differences between the means of two paired populations, the null hypothesis is:

a. H 0 :  D  2 .

b. H 0 :  D  0 .

c. H 0 :  D  0 .

d. H 0 :  D  0 .
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: paired, mean difference, null, hypothesis
71. Most companies that make golf balls and golf clubs use a one-armed robot named “Iron Byron” to
test their balls for length and accuracy, but because of swing variations by real golfers, these test robots
don’t always indicate how the clubs will perform in actual use. One company in the golfing industry is
interested in testing its new driver to see if it has greater length off the tee than the best-selling driver. To
do this, they have selected a group of golfers of differing abilities and ages. Their plan is to have each
player use each of the two clubs and hit five balls. They will record the average length of the drives with
each club for each player. The resulting data for a sample of 10 players are:

What is an appropriate null hypothesis to be tested?

a. H o : 1   2
b. H o : 1   2
c. H o :  d  0
d. Ho : μD = 0
Answer: C (Moderate)
Keywords: null, hypothesis, mean, paired
72. Most companies that make golf balls and golf clubs use a one-armed robot named “Iron Mike” to test
their balls for length and accuracy, but because of swing variations by real golfers, these test robots
don’t always indicate how the clubs will perform in actual use. One company in the golfing industry
is interested in testing its new driver to see if it has greater length off the tee than the best-selling
driver. To do this, they have selected a group of golfers of differing abilities and ages. Their plan is
to have each player use each of the two clubs and hit five balls. They will record the average length
of the drives with each club for each player. The resulting data for a sample of 10 players are:

What is the critical value for the appropriate hypothesis test if the test is conducted using a 0.05 level of
significance?

a. z = 1.645
b. t = 1.7341
c. t = 1.8331
d. t = 2.2622
Answer: C (Moderate)
Keywords: critical value, hypothesis, t-test, means, paired

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

11-1 Hypothesis Tests and Estimation for a Single Population Variance

42. An analyst plans to test whether the standard deviation for the time it takes bank tellers to provide
service to customers exceeds the standard of 1.5 minutes. The correct null and alternative hypotheses for
this test are:

H o :   1.5
a.
H A :   1.5

H o :   1.5
b.
H A :   1.5
 H o :  2  2.25
c.
H A :  2  2.25

H o :  2  2.25
d.
H A :  2  2.25
Answer: C (Easy)
Keywords: null, alternative, hypothesis, chi-square, population variance

43. When a hypothesis test is to be conducted regarding a population variance, the test statistic will be:

a. a t-value from the t-distribution.

b. a  2 value from the chi-square distribution.
c. a z-value from the standard normal distribution.
d. a binomial distribution p value.
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: hypothesis, population, variance, test statistic, chi-square
44. If a hypothesis test for a single population variance is to be conducted using a significance level of
to 0.10, a sample size of n = 16, and the test is a one-tailed upper-tail test, the critical value is:

a. z = 1.28.
b. t = 1.345.
c.  2 = 22.3071.
d.  2 = 24.9958.
Answer: C (Moderate)
Keywords: hypothesis test, critical value, chi-square

45. When conducting a one-tailed hypothesis test of a population variance using a sample size of n = 24
and a 0.10 level of significance, the critical value is:

a. 32.0069
b. 35.1725
c. 33.1962
d. 36.4150
Answer: A (Moderate)
Keywords: hypothesis, variance, critical value

46. A potato chip manufacturer has found that in the past the standard deviation of bag weight has been
0.2 ounces. They want to test whether the standard deviation has changed. The null hypothesis is:

a. Ho : σ2 = 0.2
b. Ho : σ = 0.2
c. Ho : σ = 0.04
d. Ho : σ2 = 0.04
Answer: D (Moderate)
Keywords: test statistic, chi-square, null, variance, two-tailed

47. A fast food restaurant that sells burritos is concerned about the variability in the amount of filling
that different employees place in the burritos. To achieve product consistency they need this variability to
be no more than 1.7 ounces. A sample of n = 18 burritos showed a sample variance of 2.89 ounces.
Using a 0.10 level of significance, what can you conclude?

a. The standards are being met since (test statistic) < (critical value)
b. The standards are not being met since (test statistic) > (critical value)
c. The standards are being met since (test statistic) > (critical value)
d. The standards are not being met since (test statistic) < (critical value)
48. If a hypothesis test for a single population variance is to be conducted, which of the following
statements is true?

a. The null hypothesis must be stated in terms of the population variance.

b. The chi-square distribution is used.
c. If the sample size is increased, the critical value is also increased for a given level of
statistical significance.
d. All of the above are true.
49. A manufacturer of industrial plywood has a contract to supply a boat maker with a large amount of
plywood. One of the specifications calls for the standard deviation in thickness to not exceed .03 inches.
A sample of n = 30 sheets was sampled randomly from a recent production run. The mean thickness was
right at the ¾ inch target thickness and the sample standard deviation was .05 inches. Testing at the 0.05
level of significance, which of the following is true?

a. The test statistic is approximately 80.56.

b. The critical value is approximately  2 = 43.773.
c. The test statistic is approximately 48.333.
d. Based on the sample data, there is no evidence to suggest that the plywood is not meeting
the specifications.
50. To test the following hypotheses at the 0.05 level of significance, using a sample size of n = 15
Ho : σ2 = 0.05
HA : σ2 ≠ 0.05
What is the upper tail critical value?

a. 23.685
b. 24.996
c. 27.488
d. 26.119
51. A consulting report that was recently submitted to a company indicated that a hypothesis test for a
single population variance was conducted. The report indicated that the test statistic was 34.79, the
hypothesized variance was 345 and the sample variance 600. However, the report did not indicate what
the sample size was. What was it?

a. n = 100
b. Approximately n = 18
c. Approximately 21
d. Can’t be determined without knowing what alpha is.
52. Which of the following is the appropriate null hypothesis when testing whether two population
variances are equal?
a. H 0 :  12   22 .
b. H 0 :  12   22
c. H 0 :  12   22
d. H 0 :  12   22
53. Which distribution is used in testing the hypotheses about the equality of two population variances?

a. z-distribution
b. F-distribution
c.  2 distribution
 d. t-distribution
54. It is believed that the SAT scores for students entering two state universities may have different
standard deviations. Specifically, it is believed that the standard deviation at University A is greater than
the standard deviation at University B. If a statistical test is to be conducted, which of the following
would be the proper way to formulate the null hypothesis?

a. H 0 :  A2   B2  0
b. H 0 :  A2   B2
c. H 0 :  A   B
d. H 0 :  A2   B2
55. It is believed that the SAT scores for students entering two state universities may have different
standard deviations. Specifically, it is believed that the standard deviation at University A is greater than
the standard deviation at University B. To test this using an alpha = 0.05 level, a sample of 14 student
SAT scores from University A was selected and a sample of 8 SAT scores from University B was
selected. The following sample results were observed:
University A University B
x  1104 x  1254
s  134 s  108
Based on this information, what is the critical value that will be used to test the hypothesis?

a. F = 3.55
b. F = 2.832
c. z = 1.645
d. F = 3.237
56. It is believed that the SAT scores for students entering two state universities may have different
standard deviations. Specifically, it is believed that the standard deviation at University A is greater than
the standard deviation at University B. To test this using an alpha = 0.05 level, a sample of 14 student
SAT scores from University A was selected and a sample of 8 SAT scores from University B was
selected. The following sample results were observed:
University A University B
x  1104 x  1254
s  134 s  108
Based on this information, what is the value of the test statistic?

a. 1.2407
b. 0.6496
c. 1.5394
d. None of the above.
57. The Russet Potato Company has been working on the development of a new potato seed that is
hoped to be an improvement over the existing seed that is being used. Specifically, the company hopes
that the new seed will result in less variability in individual potato length than the existing seed without
reducing the mean length. To test whether this is the case, a sample of each seed is used to grow potatoes
to maturity. The following information is given:
Old Seed New Seed
Number of Seeds = 11 Number of Seeds = 16
Average length = 6.25 inches Average length = 5.95 inches
Standard Deviation = 1.0 inches Standard Deviation = 0.80 inches
The correct null hypothesis for testing whether the variability of the new seed is less than the old seed is:
 a. H 0 :  O2   N2 .
b. H 0 :  O2   N2 .
c. H 0 :  O   N .
d. H 0 :  O2   N2
58. The Russet Potato Company has been working on the development of a new potato seed that is hoped
to be an improvement over the existing seed that is being used. Specifically, the company hopes that the
new seed will result in less variability in individual potato length than the existing seed without reducing
the mean length. To test whether this is the case, a sample of each seed is used to grow potatoes to
maturity. The following information is given:
Old Seed New Seed
Number of Seeds = 11 Number of Seeds = 16
Average length = 6.25 inches Average length = 5.95 inches
Standard Deviation = 1.0 inches Standard Deviation = .80 inches

Based on these data, if the hypothesis test is conducted using a 0.05 level of significance, the calculated
test statistic is:
a. F = 1.25.
b. F = 0.80.
c. F = 0.64.
d. F = 1.56.
59. In performing a one-tailed test for the difference between two population variances, which of the
following statements is true?

a. The level of alpha needs to be doubled before finding the F-critical value in the table.
b. The sample variance that is predicted to be larger in the alternative hypothesis goes
in the numerator when forming the F-test statistic.
c. You always place the larger of the two sample variances in the numerator.
d. The alternative hypothesis must contain the equality.
60. Two airlines are being compared with respect to the time it takes them to turn a plane around from
the time it lands until it takes off again. The study is interested in determining whether there is a
difference in the variability between the two airlines. They wish to conduct the hypothesis test using an
alpha = 0.02. If random samples of 20 flights are selected from each airline, what is the appropriate F
critical value?

a. 3.027
b. 2.938
c. 2.168
d. 2.124
61. A small business owner has two fast food restaurants. The owner wants to determine if there is any
difference in the variability of service times at the drive-thru window of each restaurant. A sample of size
n = 9 is taken from each restaurant’s drive-thru window. To perform a hypothesis test using the 0.05
level of significance the critical value is:

a. 3.438
b. 3.197
c. 4.026
d. 4.433
62. The U.S. Golf Association provides a number of services for its members. One of these is the
evaluation of golf equipment to make sure that the equipment satisfies the rules of golf. For example,
they regularly test the golf balls made by the various companies that sell balls in the United States.
Recently, they undertook a study of two brands of golf balls with the objective to see whether there is a
difference in the mean distance that the two golf ball brands will fly off the tee. To conduct the test, the
U.S.G.A. uses a robot named “Iron Byron,” which swings the club at the same speed and with the same
swing pattern each time it is used. The following data reflect sample data for a random sample of balls of
each brand.

Brand A: 234 236 230 227 234 233 228 229 230 238
Brand B: 240 236 241 236 239 243 230 239 243 240

Given this information, what is the test statistic for testing whether the two population variances are
equal?

a. Approximately F = 1.145
b. t = 1.96
c. t = -4.04
d. None of the above.
71. Which of the following is an assumption for the one-way analysis of variance experimental
design?

a. All populations are normally distributed.

b. The populations have equal variances.
c. The observations are independent.
d. All of the above.
72. A hotel chain has four hotels in Oregon. The general manager is interested in determining whether
the mean length of stay is the same or different for the four hotels. She selects a random sample of n = 20
guests at each hotel and determines the number of nights they stayed. Assuming that she plans to test this
using an alpha level equal to 0.05, which of the following is the correct critical value?

a. F = 3.04
b. F = 2.76
c. t = 1.9917
d. F = 2.56
73. A hotel chain has four hotels in Oregon. The general manager is interested in determining whether
the mean length of stay is the same or different for the four hotels. She selects a random sample of n = 20
guests at each hotel and determines the number of nights they stayed. Assuming that she plans to test this
using an alpha level equal to 0.05, which of the following is the appropriate alternative hypothesis?

a. H o : 1   2   3   4
b. H o : 1   2   3   4
c. Not all population means are equal.
d. σ1 = σ2 = σ3 = σ4
74. The State Transportation Department is thinking of changing its speed limit signs. They are
considering two new options in addition to the existing sign design. At question is whether the three sign
designs will produce the same mean speed. To test this, the department has conducted a limited test in
which a stretch of roadway was selected. With the original signs up, a random sample of 30 cars was
selected and the speeds were measured. Then, on different days, the two new designs were installed, 30
cars each day were sampled, and their speeds were recorded. Suppose that the following summary
statistics were computed based on the data:
 x1  62.1 x 2  58.94 x3  71.2

Based on these sample results and significance level equal to 0.05, what is the critical value for this
hypothesis test?

a. F = approximately 3.15
b. F = approximately 4.90
c. F = approximately 29.47
d. F = approximately 2.70
75. The State Transportation Department is thinking of changing its speed limit signs. They are
considering two new options in addition to the existing sign design. At question is whether the three sign
designs will produce the same mean speed. To test this, the department has conducted a limited test in
which a stretch of roadway was selected. With the original signs up, a random sample of 30 cars was
selected and the speeds were measured. Then, on different days, the two new designs were installed, 30
cars each day were sampled, and their speeds were recorded. Suppose that the following summary
statistics were computed based on the data:

x1  62.1 x 2  58.94 x3  71.2

The appropriate test to conduct to determine if the population means are equal is:

a. Hartley’s F-max test.

b. one-way analysis of variance
c. three sample t-test.
b. randomized complete block analysis of variance.
76. The State Transportation Department is thinking of changing its speed limit signs. They are
considering two new options in addition to the existing sign design. At question is whether the three sign
designs will produce the same mean speed. To test this, the department has conducted a limited test in
which a stretch of roadway was selected. With the original signs up, a random sample of 30 cars was
selected and the speeds were measured. Then, on different days, the two new designs were installed, 30
cars each day were sampled, and their speeds were recorded. Suppose that the following summary
statistics were computed based on the data:

x1  62.1 x 2  58.94 x3  71.2

SST = 6016
Based on these sample results and significance level equal to 0.05, the sum of squares between is:

a. approximately 3,586.
b. approximately 2,430.
c. approximately 1,215.
d. None of the above.
77. In conducting a one-way analysis of variance where the test statistic is less than the critical value,
which of the following is correct.

a. Conclude that the means are not all the same and that that the Tukey-Kramer
procedure should be conducted
b. Conclude that the means are not all the same and that that the Tukey-Kramer
procedure is not needed
 c. Conclude that all means are the same and that the Tukey-Kramer procedure should
be conducted
d. Conclude that all means are the same and there is no need to conduct the Tukey-
Kramer procedure.
78. In comparing the average price of gasoline in 4 different cities, it is desired to check the assumption
of equal variances using the Hartley test.
s1 = 0.12 s2 = 0.07 s3 = 0.15 s4 = 0.09

The value of the test statistic for the Hartley test is:

a. 1.25
b. 1.56
c. 2.14
d. 4.59
79. The State Transportation Department is thinking of changing its speed limit signs. They are
considering two new options in addition to the existing sign design. At question is whether the three sign
designs will produce the same mean speed. To test this, the department has conducted a limited test in
which a stretch of roadway was selected. With the original signs up, a random sample of 30 cars was
selected and the speeds were measured. Then, on different days, the two new designs were installed, 30
cars each day were sampled, and their speeds were recorded. Suppose that the following summary
statistics were computed based on the data:

x1  62.1 x 2  58.94 x3  71.2

SST = 6016

Based on these sample results and a significance level equal to 0.05, assuming that the null hypothesis of
equal means has been rejected, the Tukey-Kramer critical range is:

a. 1.96.
b. approximately 4.0.
c. Can’t be determined without more information.
d. None of the above.
80. Prior to conducting a one-way analysis of variance test, it is a good idea to test to see whether the
population variances are equal. One method for doing this is to use:

a. Hartley’s F-max test.

b. an F-test for variances.
c. a chi-square test.
d. the Tukey-Kramer procedure.
81. In a one-way analysis of variance test in which the levels of the factor being analyzed are randomly
selected from a large set of possible factors, the design is referred to as:

a. a fixed-effects design.
b. a random-effects design.
c. an undetermined results design.
d. a balanced design
82. An Internet service provider is interested in testing to see if there is a difference in the mean weekly
connect time for users who come into the service through a dial-up line, DSL, or Cable Internet. To test
this, the ISP has selected random samples from each category of user and recorded the connect time
during a week period. The following data were collected:
Which of the following would be the correct alternative hypotheses for the test to be conducted?

a. H o :1   2   3
b. H o : 1   2   3
c. Not all population means are equal.
d. σ1 = σ2 = σ3 = σ4
83. An Internet service provider is interested in testing to see if there is a difference in the mean weekly
connect time for users who come into the service through a dial-up line, DSL, or Cable Internet. To test
this, the ISP has selected random samples from each category of user and recorded the connect time
during a week period. The following data were collected:

Assuming that the test is to be conducted at a 0.01 level of significance, what would the critical value be
for this test?

a. F = 1.93
b. F = 3.555
c. t = 2.8784
d. F = 6.013
84. Assume you are conducting a one-way analysis of variance using a 0.05 level of significance and have
found that the p-value = 0.02. Which of the follow is correct regarding what you can conclude?

a. Do not reject the null hypothesis; the means are all the same
b. Reject the null hypothesis; the means are not all the same
c. Do not reject the null hypothesis; the means are not all the same
d. Reject the null hypothesis; the mean are all the same
85. An Internet service provider is interested in testing to see if there is a difference in the mean weekly
connect time for users who come into the service through a dial-up line, DSL, or Cable Internet. To test
this, the ISP has selected random samples from each category of user and recorded the connect time
during a week period. The following data were collected:
Based upon these data and a significance level of 0.05, which of the following statements is true?

a. The F-critical value for the test is 3.555.

b. The test statistic is approximately 43.9.
c. The null hypothesis should be rejected and the mean connect times for the three
user categories are not equal.
d. All of the above are true.
86. A fast food chain operation is interested in determining whether the mean per customer purchase
differs by day of the week. To test this, they have selected random samples of customers for each day of
the week. The analysts then ran a one-way analysis of variance generating the following output:

Based upon this output, which of the following statements is true if the test is conducted at the 0.05 level
of significance?

a. The null hypothesis that population means are equal should be rejected.
b. Based upon Hartley’s F-test, we can reject the hypothesis that the population
variances are equal.
c. There is justification for applying the Tukey-Kramer method for multiple
comparisons.
d. The experiment is a balanced design.
87. A fast food chain operation is interested in determining whether the mean per customer purchase
differs by day of the week. To test this, they have selected random samples of customers for each day of
the week. The analysts then ran a one-way analysis of variance generating the following output.

Based upon this output, which of the following statements is true if the test is conducted at the 0.05 level
of significance?

a. There is no basis for concluding that mean sales is different for the different days of
the week.
b. Based on the p-value, the null hypothesis should be rejected since the p-value
exceeds the alpha level.
c. The experiment is conducted as an imbalanced design.
d. Based on the critical value, the null should be rejected
88. In order for a one-way analysis of variance to be considered a balanced design, which of the
following must hold?

a. The population variances must be equal.

b. The sample sizes selected from each population must be equal.
c. The study must have the same number of rows as it does columns.
d. All of the above are true.
89. In a one-way design, which of the following is true?

a. The populations must have equal means.

b. The sample sizes must be equal.
c. The mean squares between will be larger than the mean squares within if the null
hypothesis is rejected.
d. The sample sizes must all differ
90. In a one-way ANOVA, which of the following is true?
 a. The degrees of freedom associated with the between sum of squares is equal to one
less than the number of populations.
b. The critical value will be an F-value from the F distribution.
c. If the null hypothesis is rejected, it may still be possible that two or more of the
population means are equal.
d. All of the above.
91. Which of the following describes a treatment in a randomized complete block analysis of variance?

a. A treatment is a combination of one level of each factor.

b. A treatment is a level associated with each factor of the experiment.
c. A treatment is another term for the data that are collected in the experiment.
d. A treatment is considered to be the analysis that is performed on the sample data.
92. In a randomized complete block design analysis of variance, how many factors are there to be
analyzed?

a. Depends on the sample size in each treatment

b. One factor, but multiple levels
c. Two factors
d. Can’t be determined without additional information.
93. In a randomized complete block design analysis of variance, which of the following correctly
describes the number of degrees of freedom associated with the between sum of squares?

a. One less than the number of populations involved

b. One less than the number of blocks
c. One less than the combined sample size in the experiment
d. One less than the total number of observations
94. A test is conducted to compare three difference income tax software packages, to determine whether
there is any difference in the average time it takes to prepare income tax returns using the three different
software packages. Ten different people’s income tax returns are done by each of the three software
packages and the time is recorded for each. Which of the following is true?

a. The total degrees of freedom is 30.

b. The between blocks degrees of freedom is 2.
c. The between samples degrees of freedom is 2.
d. The three software packages are the blocks.
95. A test is conducted to compare three difference income tax software packages, to determine whether
there is any difference in the average time it takes to prepare income tax returns using the three different
software packages. Ten different people’s income tax returns are done by each of the three software
packages and the time is recorded for each. Assuming that results show that blocking was effective, this
means that:
a. There are significant differences in the average times needed by the 3 different
software packages
b. There are significant differences in the average times needed for the 10 different
people’s tax returns
c. The analysis should be redone using a one-way analysis of variance
d. the randomized complete block was the wrong method to use
96. Recently, a department store chain was interested in determining if there was a difference in the mean
number of customers who enter the three stores in Seattle. The analysts set up a study in which the
number of people entering the stores was counted depending on whether the day of the week was
Saturday, Sunday, or a weekday. The following data were collected:
Given this format, which of the following is true?

a. The day of the week would be considered the blocking factor in the study.
b. There are six treatments.
c. This is a balanced design since the number of rows and columns is equal.
d. All of the above are true.
97. Recently, a department store chain was interested in determining if there was a difference in the
mean number of customers who enter the three stores in Seattle. The analysts set up a study in which the
number of people entering the stores was counted depending on whether the day of the week was
Saturday, Sunday, or a weekday. The following data were collected:

Given this format, what is the null hypothesis for testing whether blocking is effective?

a. H o :  A   B  C
b. H o :  Sat   Sun  Week
c. Not all means are equal.
d. Ho : σ1 = σ2 = σ3
98. Recently, a department store chain was interested in determining if there was a difference in the
mean number of customers who enter the three stores in Seattle. The analysts set up a study in which the
number of people entering the stores was counted depending on whether the day of the week was
Saturday, Sunday, or a weekday. The following data were collected:

Given this format and testing using an alpha level equal to 0.05, which of the following statements is
true?

a. The total degrees of freedom is 9

b. The between blocks degrees of freedom equals 8
c. The between samples degrees of freedom equals 3
d. The within sample degrees of freedom equals 4
99. A test is conducted to compare three difference income tax software packages, to determine whether
there is any difference in the average time it takes to prepare income tax returns using the three different
software packages. Ten different people’s income tax returns are done by each of the three software
packages and the time is recorded for each. Given this format and testing using an alpha level equal to
0.05, the critical value associated with the primary hypothesis test is:

a. 3.555
 b. 2.456
c. 19.385
d. 4.256
100. A major consumer group recently undertook a study to determine whether automobile customers
would rate the quality of cars differently that were manufactured in the U.S., Europe, or Japan. To
conduct this test, a sample of 20 individuals was asked to look at mid-range model cars made in each of
the three countries. The individuals in the sample were then asked to provide a rating for each car on a
scale of 1 to 1000. The following computer output resulted, and the tests were conducted using a
significance level equal to 0.05.

Based upon the data, which of the following statements is true?

a. Blocking was effective.

b. Blocking was not effective.
c. The primary null hypothesis should not be rejected.
d. The averages for the 20 people are not all the same
101. The golf ball manufacturer has three dimple patterns it is interested in analyzing to see whether one
results in longer driving distances. However, they also wish to control for the material the ball is made
from since they believe that it might affect driving distance. Four materials can be used. The following
data represent the results of tests in which each combination of dimple pattern and cover material were
used and the length of the ball hit by a robot has been recorded. The test will be conducted using an alpha
= 0.05 level.

Given these data, which of the following statements is true?

a. There is no basis for concluding that mean driving distance is different for the
different dimple patterns.
b. There is no basis for concluding that mean driving distance is different for the
different cover materials.
c. Both a and b are true.
d. Neither a nor b are true.
102. The golf ball manufacturer has three dimple patterns it is interested in analyzing to see whether one
results in longer driving distances. However, they also wish to control for the material the ball is made
from since they believe that it might affect driving distance. Four materials can be used. The following
data represent the results of tests in which each combination of dimple pattern and cover material were
used and the length of the ball hit by a robot has been recorded. The test will be conducted using an alpha
= 0.05 level.

Given these data, what is the value of Fisher’s Least Significant Difference critical value?

a. Approximately 19.06
b. 2.4469
c. About 7.65
d. None of the above.
103. A large orchard owner in the state of Washington is interested in determining whether the mean
number of bushels of peaches per acre is the same or different depending on the type of tree that is used.
He also thinks that production may be affected by the type of fertilizer that is used. To test, he has set up a
test in which a one-acre plot of peach trees with a combination each of 5 varieties and three fertilizer
types are studied. In this case, the number of treatments is:

a. 5.
b. 3.
c. 15.
d. Can’t be determined without knowing how many trees are planted on each acre.
104. A large orchard owner in the state of Washington is interested in determining whether the mean
number of bushels of peaches per acre is the same or different depending on the type of tree that is used.
He also thinks that production may be affected by the type of fertilizer that is used. To test, he has set up a
test in which a one-acre plot of peach trees with a combination each of 5 varieties and three fertilizer
types are studied. The following data reflect the number of bushels of peaches on each acre plot.

Assuming that the hypothesis tests will be conducted using an alpha equal 0.05 level, which of the
following is true?

a. The total sum of squares is approximately 4,570,900.

b. The grower was justified in controlling for the fertilizer type since the test shows that
blocking was effective.
c. Based on the data, the grower can conclude that there is a difference in mean
production of peaches across the different types of tree.
d. A, b and c are all true.
105. A large orchard owner in the state of Washington is interested in determining whether the mean
number of bushels of peaches per acre is the same or different depending on the type of tree that is used.
He also thinks that production may be affected by the type of fertilizer that is used. To test, he has set up a
test in which a one-acre plot of peach trees with a combination each of 5 varieties and three fertilizer
types are studied. The following data reflect the number of bushels of peaches on each acre plot.

Assuming that the hypothesis tests will be conducted using an alpha equal 0.05 level, what is the value of
the Fisher’s LSD critical value for doing the multiple comparisons?

a. Approximately 16.78
b. About 11.30
c. Approximately 186.7
d. Need to know the number of trees planted on each acre
106. A car company is interested in testing to see whether the mean miles that a car engine will last
without changing oil is the same or different depending on which brand of oil is used. The engineers also
wish to control for the type of transmission (manual or automatic) that is used. To conduct this test, the
car company obtains enough engines so that all four oil brands can be tested in a design that involves no
replication. Based on this information, how many engines will be needed to conduct the test?

a. 4
b. 8
c. One for each oil type
d. One for each factor in the study
107. A test is conducted to compare three difference income tax software packages, to determine whether
there is any difference in the average time it takes to prepare income tax returns using the three different
software packages. Ten different people’s income tax returns are done by each of the three software
packages and the time is recorded for each. The computer results are shown below.

SUMMARY Count Sum Average Variance

1 3 9 3 1
2 3 30 10 1
3 3 12 4 0
4 3 6.5 2.166667 0.583333
5 3 25 8.333333 2.333333
6 3 7 2.333333 1.083333
7 3 10 3.333333 0.333333
8 3 18 6 1
9 3 33.5 11.16667 0.583333
10 3 4.5 1.5 0.25

Software A 10 47.5 4.75 12.95833

Software B 10 47.5 4.75 10.79167
Software C 10 60.5 6.05 13.46944

ANOVA
Source of
Variation SS df MS F P-value F crit

Rows 329.9083 9 36.65648 130.227 1.6E-14 2.456281

Columns 11.26667 2 5.633333 20.01316 2.66E-05 3.554557
Error 5.066667 18 0.281481

Total 346.2417 29

Based on these results and using a 0.05 level of significance which is correct regarding blocking?

a. Blocking was not effective because p = 2.66 is greater than 0.05

b. Blocking was effective because p = 2.66E-5 is less than 0.05
 c. Blocking was not effective because p = 1.6 is greater than 0.05
d. Blocking was effective because p = 1.6E-14 is less than 0.05
108. A test is conducted to compare three difference income tax software packages, to determine
whether there is any difference in the average time it takes to prepare income tax returns using the three
different software packages. Ten different people’s income tax returns are done by each of the three
software packages and the time is recorded for each. The computer results are shown below.

SUMMARY Count Sum Average Variance

1 3 9 3 1
2 3 30 10 1
3 3 12 4 0
4 3 6.5 2.166667 0.583333
5 3 25 8.333333 2.333333
6 3 7 2.333333 1.083333
7 3 10 3.333333 0.333333
8 3 18 6 1
9 3 33.5 11.16667 0.583333
10 3 4.5 1.5 0.25

Software A 10 47.5 4.75 12.95833

Software B 10 47.5 4.75 10.79167
Software C 10 60.5 6.05 13.46944

ANOVA

Source of
Variation SS df MS F P-value F crit

Rows 329.9083 9 36.65648 130.227 1.6E-14 2.456281

Columns 11.26667 2 5.633333 20.01316 2.66E-05 3.554557
Error 5.066667 18 0.281481

Total 346.2417 29
Based on these results and using a 0.05 level of significance which is correct regarding the primary
hypothesis?

a. The three software packages are not all the same because p = 1.6E-14 is less than 0.05
b. The three software packages are all the same because p = 1.6 is greater than 0.05
c. The three software packages are not all the same because p = 2.66E-5 is less than 0.05
d. The three software packages are all the same because p = 2.66 is greater than 0.05
109. A test is conducted to compare three difference income tax software packages, to determine
whether there is any difference in the average time it takes to prepare income tax returns using the three
different software packages. Ten different people’s income tax returns are done by each of the three
software packages and the time is recorded for each. The computer results are shown below.

SUMMARY Count Sum Average Variance

1 3 9 3 1
2 3 30 10 1
3 3 12 4 0
4 3 6.5 2.166667 0.583333
5 3 25 8.333333 2.333333
6 3 7 2.333333 1.083333
7 3 10 3.333333 0.333333
8 3 18 6 1
9 3 33.5 11.16667 0.583333
10 3 4.5 1.5 0.25

Software A 10 47.5 4.75 12.95833

Software B 10 47.5 4.75 10.79167
Software C 10 60.5 6.05 13.46944

ANOVA

Source of
Variation SS df MS F P-value F crit

Rows 329.9083 9 36.65648 130.227 1.6E-14 2.456281

Columns 11.26667 2 5.633333 20.01316 2.66E-05 3.554557
Error 5.066667 18 0.281481
 Total 346.2417 29

Assuming that the hypothesis tests are conducted using a significance level equal to 0.05, the Fisher’s
LSD value for multiple comparisons is:

a. approximately 0.4985
b. about 0.91
c. approximately 1.91
d. about 0.5387
110. A car company is interested in testing to see whether the mean miles that a car engine will last
without changing oil is the same or different depending on which brand of oil is used. The engineers also
wish to control for the type of transmission (manual or automatic) that is used. To conduct this test, the
car company obtains enough engines so that all four oil brands can be tested in a design that involves no
replication. The following data reflect the miles the engine lasted until problems were encountered.
Data are in thousands of miles.

Assuming that the hypothesis tests are conducted using a significance level equal to 0.05, which of the
following statements is true?

a. Based on the data, Oil 1 and Oil 3 give statistically more miles on average than do
the other two oils.
b. The type of transmission does seem to have an impact on the mean miles that an
engine will last.
c. The F-critical value for testing whether blocking is effective is 10.128.
d. All of the above are true.
111. Which type of ANOVA can include interaction?

a. one-way
b. randomized complete block
c. two-factor
d. all types of ANOVA
112. Which of the following is the minimum number of required replications per cell for a two-factor
ANOVA design if you plan to test for interactive effects between factors A and B?

a. 3
b. 1
c. 2
d. 5
113. Considering the following printout from a two-factor ANOVA design, how many levels of factor A
(Sample) were there in this study?
 a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 6
114. Considering the following printout for a two-factor ANOVA design, which of the following is a
proper conclusion to reach?

a. There is no significant interaction between the two factors.

b. The levels of factor A (Sample) have significantly different means.
c. The levels of factor B (Columns) have significantly different means.
d. The total number of observations is 47
115. Considering the following printout for a two-factor ANOVA study, which of the following is the
number of replications used?
 a. 2
b. 5
c. 4
d. Can’t be determined without more information.
116. A national car rental company recently conducted a study recently in which cars with automatic and
standard transmissions (factor A – Sample) were rented to male and female customers (factor B –
Columns). Three customers in each category were randomly selected and the miles driven per day was
recorded as follows:

Based on the design of this study, how many degrees of freedom will be associated with the mean square
for factor A?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 8
117. A national car rental company recently conducted a study recently in which cars with automatic and
standard transmissions (factor A – Sample) were rented to male and female customers (factor B –
Columns). Three customers in each category were randomly selected and the miles driven per day was
recorded as follows:
Based on these sample data, and alpha = .05, which of the following statements is true?

a. The means for factor A are significantly different.

b. There is no significant interaction between factors A and B.
c. The means for factor B are significantly different.
d. All of the above statements are true.
118. A two factor analysis of variance is conducted to test the effect the price and advertising have on
sales of a particular brand of bottled water. Each week a combination of particular levels of price and
advertising are used and the sales level is recorded. The computer results are shown below.

ANOVA

Source of Variation SS df MS F P-value F crit

Sample
(advertising) 99.73324 1 99.73324 5.251652 0.034201 4.413873
Columns (price) 1150.432 2 575.2161 30.28914 1.74E-06 3.554557
Interaction 1577.526 2 788.7629 41.53387 1.8E-07 3.554557
Within 341.835 18 18.99083

Total 3169.526 23

How many replications were used in this study?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
119. A two factor analysis of variance is conducted to test the effect the price and advertising have on
sales of a particular brand of bottled water. Each week a combination of particular levels of price and
advertising are used and the sales level is recorded. The computer results are shown below.

ANOVA

Source of Variation SS df MS F P-value F crit

Sample
(advertising) 99.73324 1 99.73324 5.251652 0.034201 4.413873
 Columns (price) 1150.432 2 575.2161 30.28914 1.74E-06 3.554557
Interaction 1577.526 2 788.7629 41.53387 1.8E-07 3.554557
Within 341.835 18 18.99083

Total 3169.526 23

Based on the results above, which of the following is correct?

a. 1 level of advertising and 2 levels of price were used

b. 3 levels of adverting and 2 levels of price were used
c. 2 levels of advertising and 3 levels of price were used
d. There was a total of 6 different treatments
120. A two factor analysis of variance is conducted to test the effect that price and advertising have on
sales of a particular brand of bottled water. Each week a combination of particular levels of price and
advertising are used and the sales amount is recorded. The computer results are shown below.

ANOVA

Source of Variation SS df MS F P-value F crit

Sample
(advertising) 99.73324 1 99.73324 5.251652 0.034201 4.413873
Columns (price) 1150.432 2 575.2161 30.28914 1.74E-06 3.554557
Interaction 1577.526 2 788.7629 41.53387 1.8E-07 3.554557
Within 341.835 18 18.99083

Total 3169.526 23

Based on the results above and a 0.05 level of significance, which of the following is correct?

a. There is no interaction between price and advertising, so results for individual

factors may be misleading
b. There is interaction between price and advertising, so the above results for
individual factors may be misleading
c. There is no interaction between price and advertising, and both factors
significantly affect sales
d. There is interaction between price and advertising, so the above results
conclusively show that both factors affect price
57. If you are interested in testing whether the median of a population is equal to a specific
value, an appropriate test to use is:

a. the Mann-Whitney U test.

b. the t-test.
 c. the Wilcoxon signed rank test.
d. the Wilcoxon Matched-Pairs Signed Rank test.
58. Nonparametric statistical tests are used when:

a. the sample sizes are small.

b. we are unwilling to make the assumptions of parametric tests.
c. the standard normal distribution can not be computed.
d. the population parameters are unknown
59. Which of the following is not a step involved in the Wilcoxon signed rank test?

a. Find the deviations from the hypothesized median

b. Rank the deviations
c. Convert the deviations to absolute values
d. Find the deviations from the sample median
60. The Wilcoxon signed rank test is used to test which of the following type of hypotheses?

a. Tests about a single population median

b. Tests involving three or more population medians
c. Tests about the variances of two or more populations
d. Tests about two or more population proportions
61. The General Electric service department believes that the median time for a service call
should be 30 or fewer minutes. To test this, the following random sample of service times was
collected:

Given that the managers do not wish to make the assumption that the population is normally
distributed, the appropriate statistical test for testing about service times is:

a. the t-test.
b. the Kruskal-Wallis test.
c. the Wilcoxon signed rank sum test.
d. the F-test.
62. The General Electric service department believes that the median time for a service call
should be 30 or fewer minutes. To test this, the following random sample of service times was
collected:
Given that the managers do not wish to make the assumption that the population is normally
distributed, the critical value for the test about median service times, using a .05 level of
significance, is:

a. 5
b. 40
c. 8
d. 37
63. The General Electric service department believes that the median time for a service call
should be 30 or fewer minutes. To test this, the following random sample of service times was
collected:

Given that the managers do not wish to make the assumption that the population is normally
distributed, the test statistic for the Wilcoxon signed rank sum test is:

a. W = 43.0.
b. W = 27.0.
c. W = 18.0.
d. None of the above.
64. In the finding the critical value for the Wilcoxon signed rank test, what does “n” represent?

a. The number of observations in the sample

b. The number of pairs
c. The number of nonzero deviations
d. The number of positive ranks
65. When the Mann-Whitney U test is performed, which of the following is true?

a. We assume that the populations are normally distributed.

b. We are interested in testing whether the medians from two populations are equal.

c. The data are nominal level.

d. The samples are paired

66. Which of the following is not an assumption of the Mann-Whitney U test?

a. The sample sizes are equal

b. The samples are independent

c. The value measured is continuous

d. The population distributions are the same for shape and spread

67. Consider the situation in which a study was recently conducted to determine whether the
median price of houses is the same in Seattle and Phoenix. The following data were collected.

Given these data, if a Mann-Whitney U test is to be used, the sum of the ranks for Seattle is:

a. 43
b. 35
c. 25.5
d. 40
68. Consider the situation in which a study was recently conducted to determine whether the
median price of houses is the same in Seattle and Phoenix. The following data were collected.
Given these data, if a Mann-Whitney U test is to be used, the U statistic for Phoenix is:

a. 14
b. 22
c. 35
d. 27
69. Consider the situation in which a study was recently conducted to determine whether the
median price of houses is the same in Seattle and Phoenix. The following data were collected.

Given these data, if a Mann-Whitney U test is to be used, the U statistic for Seattle is:

a. 45
b. 35
c. 22
d. 14
70. Consider the situation in which a study was recently conducted to determine whether the
median price of houses is the same in Seattle and Phoenix. The following data were collected.

Given these data, if a Mann-Whitney U test is to be used, the test statistic is:

a. 22
b. 14
c. approximately 1.96.
d. 34
71. Under what circumstances should the standard normal distribution be used when employing
the Mann-Whitney U test?

a. When the sample sizes are equal from the two populations.
b. When the sample sizes are greater than 20.
c. When the populations are normally distributed.
d. You would never use the standard normal distribution.
72. Consider the situation in which a human resources manager wishes to determine whether the
median number of days of sick leave per year is the same for female employees as for male
employees. The following data represent random samples of males and females:

If the manager is unwilling to assume that the populations are normally distributed, which of the
following would be the appropriate null hypothesis to be tested?

a. H o :   0
b. H o : ~  0
c. H o :  1   2
d. H o : ~1  ~ 2
73. Assume you are conducting a two-tailed Mann Whitney U test for a small sample and have
found that U1 = 58 and U2 = 86. What is the value of the test statistic?

a. 58
b. 86
c. 72
d. 144
74. Consider the situation in which a human resources manager wishes to determine whether the
median number of days of sick leave per year is greater for female employees than for male
employees. The following data represent random samples of males and females:
If the manager is unwilling to assume that the populations are normally distributed, which of the
following is the correct conclusion to reach if the test is conducted using a .05 level of
significance?

a. Reject the null hypothesis.

b. Conclude that females do have a higher median than males.
c. Do not reject the null hypothesis.
d. Conclude that males have a higher median than females.
75. In a large sample Mann-Whitney U test in which the sample size from the first population is
30 and the sample size from the second population is 40, which of the following is the expected
U value if the null hypothesis of equal median values is true?

a. 1,200
b. 70
c. 35
d. 600
76. Recently, a legislative committee commissioned a study of incomes in a western state. At
issue was whether the ratings of the legislature’s performance differed between rural citizens
and city residents. A random sample of 25 city residents and 35 rural residents was asked to rate
the performance of the legislature on a scale of 1 to 100. The analysts believe that the population
distribution of ratings would be highly skewed so they decided to use the Mann-Whiney U test to
test whether there is a difference in median ratings by the two groups. Given this information,
which of the following is the correct critical value if the test is to be conducted at the .10 level of
significance?

a. z = 1.96
b. t = 2.0357
c. U = 437.5
d. z = 1.645
77. Assume that you are conducting a small sample Mann-Whitney U test where n1 = 14 and n2
= 16 and that U1 = 98. Assuming that U1 has been found correctly, what is the value of U2?
a. 112
b. 126
c. 224
d. Insufficient information to determine U2
78. If we wish to test whether two related populations have equal medians, an appropriate
nonparametric test to use is:

a. the Mann-Whitney U test.

b. the Kruskal-Wallis test.
c. the Wilcoxon signed rank test.
d. the Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed rank test.
79. If a two-tailed Wilcoxon Matched-Pairs Signed Rank test is conducted for a sample of n = 8
and an alpha level equal to .05, the critical value is:

a. 4.
 b. 1.96.
c. 30.
d. 2
80. The Mann-Whitney U test assumes that the 2 samples are:

a. equal in size.

b. independent and random.

c. matched or paired.

d. normally distributed

81. The Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed rank test assumes that the two samples are:

a. equal in size

b. independent and random

c. paired

d. both a and c

82. When employing a small sample Mann-Whitney U test for a two-tailed test, which of the following is
true?

a. The sample sizes need to be equal.

b. Select as the test statistic the smaller of the two U values.

c. Select either of the U values to be the test statistic.

d. The alpha level should be doubled.

83. If a Mann-Whitney U test was performed and U1 = 50 and U2 = 40, if the sample from population 1
was 10, the sample size from population 2 was:

a. 10.

b. 15.

c. 9.

d. Can’t be determined without more information.

84. In conducting a Kruskal-Wallis one-way analysis of variance, the test statistic is assumed have
approximately which distribution when the null hypothesis is true?
 a. A t-distribution

b. An F-distribution

c. A normal distribution

d. A chi-square distribution

85. Which of the following is not an assumption of the Kruskal-Wallis one-way analysis of variance?

a. Variables have a continuous distribution

b. Samples are independent

c. Sample sizes are equal for all populations

d. Population distributions are identical except for possible differences in center

86. The Kruskal-Wallis test is usually limited to comparing sample values from _________ or more
populations.

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

87. In a Kruskal-Wallis test when ties occur, each observation is given the _____________ for which it is
tied.

a. highest rank

b. lowest rank

c. mean rank

d. median rank

88. Assume that 4 populations are to be compared using a Kruskal-Wallis one-way analysis of variance.
What is the critical value using a 0.05 level of significance?

a. 5.9915

b. 6.2514

c. 7.8147
 d. 9.4877

89. Assume that a Kruskal-Wallis test is being conducted to determine whether or not the
medians of three populations are equal. The sum of rankings and the sample size for each group
are below.
Group 1 Group 2 Group 3
R1 = 60 R2 = 36 R3 = 24
n1 = 6 n2 = 5 n3 = 4

What is the value of the test statistic?

a. 7.8147

b. 2.16

c. 48.68

d. 12.59

90. Assume that a Kruskal-Wallis test is being conducted to determine whether or not the
medians of three populations are equal. The sum of rankings and the sample size for each group
are below.
Group 1 Group 2 Group 3
R1 = 60 R2 = 36 R3 = 24
n1 = 6 n2 = 5 n3 = 4

What is the critical value for this test using a 0.10 level of significance ?

a. 6.2514

b. 5.9915

c. 7.8147

d. 4.6052

91. If we are interested in testing to determine whether the center of three or more populations is equal
when the data in the samples are ordinal, what is the appropriate test to conduct?

a. A t-test

b. An ANOVA

c. A Kruskal-Wallis

d. A Wilcoxon Matched-Pairs Sign Rank test

92. A survey was recently conducted in which random samples of car owners of Chrysler, GM,
and Ford cars were surveyed to determine their satisfaction. Each owner was asked to rate
overall satisfaction on a scale of 1 (poor) to 1000 (excellent). The following data were recorded:

If the analysts are not willing to assume that the population ratings are normally distributed and
will use the Kruskal-Wallis test to determine if the three companies have different median
ratings, which company has the smallest sum of ranks?

a. Chrysler

b. GM

c. Ford

d. All three are equal.

93. A survey was recently conducted in which random samples of car owners of Chrysler, GM,
and Ford cars were surveyed to determine their satisfaction. Each owner was asked to rate
overall satisfaction on a scale of 1 (poor) to 1000 (excellent). The following data were recorded:

If the analysts are not willing to assume that the population ratings are normally distributed and
will use the Kruskal-Wallis test to determine if the three companies have different median
ratings, what is the appropriate critical value if the test is to be conducted using an alpha = .05
level?

a. F = 5.05
b.  2 = 5.99
c.  2 = 24.99
d. F = 3.67
94. A survey was recently conducted in which random samples of car owners of Chrysler, GM,
and Ford cars were surveyed to determine their satisfaction. Each owner was asked to rate
overall satisfaction on a scale of 1 (poor) to 1000 (excellent). The following data were recorded:
If the analysts are not willing to assume that the population ratings are normally distributed and
will use the Kruskal-Wallis test to determine if the three companies have different median
ratings, what is correct test statistic for these data?

a. H = 1.965
b. t = 1.96
c. H = 3.34
d. H = .65
95. A survey was recently conducted in which random samples of car owners of Chrysler, GM,
and Ford cars were surveyed to determine their satisfaction. Each owner was asked to rate
overall satisfaction on a scale of 1 (poor) to 1000 (excellent). The following data were recorded:

If the analysts are not willing to assume that the population ratings are normally distributed and
will use the Kruskal-Wallis test to determine if the three companies have different median
ratings, what is the correct conclusion if the test is to be conducted using an alpha = .05 level?

a. H0 should be rejected and we conclude that there is no significant difference between

the 3 companies.

b. H0 should not be rejected and we conclude that there is no significant difference

between the 3 companies.

c. H0 should be rejected and we conclude that there is a significant difference between

the 3 companies.

d. H0 should not be rejected and we conclude that there is a significant difference

between the 3 companies.
 STATISTICS 8: CHAPTERS 7 TO 10, SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. If two events (both with probability greater than 0) are mutually exclusive, then:
A. They also must be independent.
B. They also could be independent.
C. They cannot be independent.

2. If two events (both with probability greater than 0) are mutually exclusive, then:
A. They also must be complements.
B. They also could be complements.
C. They cannot be complements.

3. Suppose that the probability of event A is 0.2 and the probability of event B is 0.4. Also, suppose that
the two events are independent. Then P(A|B) is:
A. P(A) = 0.2
B. P(A)/P(B) = 0.2/0.4 = ½
C. P(A) × P(B) = (0.2)(0.4) = 0.08
D. None of the above.

4. Which of the following is an example of a relative frequency probability based on measuring a

representative sample and observing relative frequencies of possible outcomes?
A. According to the late Carl Sagan, the probability that the earth will be hit by a civilization-
threatening asteroid in the next century is about 0.001.
B. If you flip a fair coin, the probability that it lands with heads up is ½.
C. Based on a recent Newsweek poll, the probability that a randomly selected adult in the US
would say they oppose federal funding for stem cell research is about 0.37.
D. A new airline boasts that the probability that its flights will be on time is 0.92, because 92% of all
flights it has ever flown did arrive on time.

5. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between a parameter and a statistic?
A. A parameter has a sampling distribution with the statistic as its mean.
B. A parameter has a sampling distribution that can be used to determine what values the statistic is
likely to have in repeated samples.
C. A parameter is used to estimate a statistic.
D. A statistic is used to estimate a parameter.

6. A sampling distribution is the probability distribution for which one of the following:
A. A sample
B. A sample statistic
C. A population
D. A population parameter

7. Which of the following is the most common example of a situation for which the main parameter of
interest is a population proportion?
A. A binomial experiment
B. A normal experiment
C. A randomized experiment
D. An observational study
8. Which statement is not true about confidence intervals?
A. A confidence interval is an interval of values computed from sample data that is likely to include
the true population value.
B. An approximate formula for a 95% confidence interval is sample estimate ± margin of error.
C. A confidence interval between 20% and 40% means that the population proportion lies between
20% and 40%.
D. A 99% confidence interval procedure has a higher probability of producing intervals that will
include the population parameter than a 95% confidence interval procedure.

9. Which statement is not true about the 95% confidence level?

A. Confidence intervals computed by using the same procedure will include the true population value
for 95% of all possible random samples taken from the population.
B. The procedure that is used to determine the confidence interval will provide an interval that
includes the population parameter with probability of 0.95.
C. The probability that the true value of the population parameter falls between the bounds of an
already computed confidence interval is roughly 95%.
D. If we consider all possible randomly selected samples of the same size from a population, the 95%
is the percentage of those samples for which the confidence interval includes the population
parameter.

10. In a random sample of 50 men, 40% said they preferred to walk up stairs rather than take the elevator.
In a random sample of 40 women, 50% said they preferred the stairs. The difference between the two
sample proportions (men – women) is to be calculated. Which of the following choices correctly
denotes the difference between the two sample proportions that is desired?
A. p1 − p 2 = 0.10
B. pˆ 1 − pˆ 2 = 0.10
C. p1 − p 2 = −0.10
D. pˆ 1 − pˆ 2 = −0.10 <-Correct answer

11. Which of the following statements is correct about a parameter and a statistic associated with repeated
random samples of the same size from the same population?
A. Values of a parameter will vary from sample to sample but values of a statistic will not.
B. Values of both a parameter and a statistic may vary from sample to sample.
C. Values of a parameter will vary according to the sampling distribution for that parameter.
D. Values of a statistic will vary according to the sampling distribution for that statistic.

12. Five hundred (500) random samples of size n=900 are taken from a large population in which 10% are
left-handed. The proportion of the sample that is left-handed is found for each sample and a histogram
of these 500 proportions is drawn. Which interval covers the range into which about 68% of the
values in the histogram will fall?
A. .1 ± .010
B. .1 ± .0134
C. .1 ± .0167
D. .1 ± .020
13. A randomly selected sample of 400 students at a university with 15-week semesters was asked
whether or not they think the semester should be shortened to 14 weeks (with longer classes). Forty-
six percent (46%) of the 400 students surveyed answered "yes." Which one of the following
statements about the number 46% is correct?
A. It is a sample statistic.
B. It is a population parameter.
C. It is a margin of error.
D. It is a standard error.

14. Which of the following examples involves paired data?

A. A study compared the average number of courses taken by a random sample of 100 freshmen at a
university with the average number of courses taken by a separate random sample of 100
freshmen at a community college.
B. A group of 100 students were randomly assigned to receive vitamin C (50 students) or a placebo
(50 students). The groups were followed for 2 weeks and the proportions with colds were
compared.
C. A group of 50 students had their blood pressures measured before and after watching a movie
containing violence. The mean blood pressure before the movie was compared with the mean
pressure after the movie.
D. None of the above.

15. A poll is done to estimate the proportion of adult Americans who like their jobs. The poll is based on a
random sample of 400 individuals. What is the “conservative” margin of error of this poll?
A. 0.10
B. 0.05
C. 0.04
D. 0.025

16. The expected value of a random variable is the

A. value that has the highest probability of occurring.
B. mean value over an infinite number of observations of the variable.
C. largest value that will ever occur.
D. most common value over an infinite number of observations of the variable.

17. The payoff (X) for a lottery game has the following probability distribution.
X = payoff $0 $5
probability 0.8 0.2

A. What is the expected value of X= payoff?

B. $0
C. $0.50
D. $1.00
E. $2.50

18. Which one of these variables is a continuous random variable?

A. The time it takes a randomly selected student to complete an exam.
B. The number of tattoos a randomly selected person has.
C. The number of women taller than 68 inches in a random sample of 5 women.
D. The number of correct guesses on a multiple choice test.
19. Heights of college women have a distribution that can be approximated by a normal curve with a
mean of 65 inches and a standard deviation equal to 3 inches. About what proportion of college
women are between 65 and 67 inches tall?
A. 0.75
B. 0.50
C. 0.25
D. 0.17

20. Which one of these variables is a binomial random variable?

A. time it takes a randomly selected student to complete a multiple choice exam
B. number of textbooks a randomly selected student bought this term
C. number of women taller than 68 inches in a random sample of 5 women
D. number of CDs a randomly selected person owns

21. Suppose that vehicle speeds at an interstate location have a normal distribution with a mean equal to
70 mph and standard deviation equal to 8 mph. What is the z-score for a speed of 64 mph?
A. −0.75
B. +0.75
C. −6
D. +6

22. Pulse rates of adult men are approximately normal with a mean of 70 and a standard deviation of 8.
Which choice correctly describes how to find the proportion of men that have a pulse rate greater than
78?
A. Find the area to the left of z = 1 under a standard normal curve.
B. Find the area between z = −1 and z = 1 under a standard normal curve.
C. Find the area to the right of z =1 under a standard normal curve.
D. Find the area to the right of z = −1 under a standard normal curve.

23. The probability is p = 0.80 that a patient with a certain disease will be successfully treated with a new
medical treatment. Suppose that the treatment is used on 40 patients. What is the "expected value" of
the number of patients who are successfully treated?
A. 40
B. 20
C. 8
D. 32

24. Suppose that a quiz consists of 20 True-False questions. A student hasn't studied for the exam and will
just randomly guesses at all answers (with True and False equally likely). How would you find the
probability that the student will get 8 or fewer answers correct?
A. Find the probability that X=8 in a binomial distribution with n = 20 and p=0.5.
B. Find the area between 0 and 8 in a uniform distribution that goes from 0 to 20.
C. Find the probability that X=8 for a normal distribution with mean of 10 and standard deviation of
5.
D. Find the cumulative probability for 8 in a binomial distribution with n = 20 and p = 0.5.
25. The normal approximation to the binomial distribution is most useful for finding which of the
following?
A. The probability P(X = k) when X is a binomial random variable with large n.
B. The probability P(X ≤ k) when X is a binomial random variable with large n.
C. The probability P(X = k) when X is a normal random variable with small n.
D. The probability P(X ≤ k) when X is a normal random variable with small n.

26. A lottery ticket displays the probabilities of winning various prizes on the back of the ticket. These
probabilities are examples of:
A. Relative frequency probabilities based on long-run observation.
B. Relative frequency probabilities based on physical assumptions.
C. Personal probabilities.
D. Random probabilities.

27. A climate expert was asked to assess the probability that global warming will make some cities
uninhabitable in the next 100 years. The answer to this question for the expert is an example of:
A. A relative frequency probability based on long-run observation.
B. A relative frequency probability based on physical assumptions.
C. A random probability.
D. A personal probability.

28. Imagine a test for a certain disease. Suppose the probability of a positive test result is .95 if someone
has the disease, but the probability is only .08 that someone has the disease if his or her test result was
positive. A patient receives a positive test, and the doctor tells him that he is very likely to have the
disease. The doctor's response is:
A. An example of "Confusion of the inverse."
B. An example of the "Law of small numbers."
C. An example of "The gambler's fallacy."
D. Correct, because the test is 95% accurate when someone has the disease.

29. Which one of the following probabilities is a "cumulative" probability?

A. The probability that there are exactly 4 people with Type O+ blood in a sample of 10 people.
B. The probability of exactly 3 heads in 6 flips of a coin.
C. The probability that the accumulated annual rainfall in a certain city next year, rounded to the
nearest inch, will be 18 inches.
D. The probability that a randomly selected woman's height is 67 inches or less.

30. A medical treatment has a success rate of .8. Two patients will be treated with this treatment.
Assuming the results are independent for the two patients, what is the probability that neither one of
them will be successfully cured?
A. .5
B. .36
C. .2
D. .04 (this is (1 – .8)(1 – .8) = (.2)(.2) = .04)
 MCQ INTERVAL ESTIMATION

MCQ 12.1
Estimation is possible only in case of a:
(a) Parameter (b) Sample (c) Random sample (d) Population

MCQ 12.2
Estimation is of two types:
(a) One sided and two sided (b) Type I and type II
(c) Point estimation and interval estimation (d) Biased and unbiased

MCQ 12.3
A formula or rule used for estimating the parameter is called:
(a) Estimation (b) Estimate (c) Estimator (d) Interval estimate

MCQ 12.4
A value of an estimator is called:
(a) Estimation (b) Estimate (c) Variable (d) Constant

MCQ 12.5
Estimate and estimator are:
(a) Same (b) Different (c) Maximum (d) Minimum

MCQ 12.6
The type of estimates are:
(a) Point estimate (b) Interval estimates (c) Estimation of confidence region (d) All of the above

MCQ 12.7
Estimate is the observed value of an:
(a) Unbiased estimator (b) Estimator (c) Estimation (d) Interval estimation

MCQ 12.8
The process of using sample data to estimate the values of unknown population parameter is called:
(a) Estimate (b) Estimator (c) Estimation (d) Interval estimation

MCQ 12.9
The process of making estimates about the population parameter from a sample is called:
(a) Statistical independence (b) Statistical inference
(c) Statistical hypothesis (d) Statistical decision

MCQ 12.10
Statistical inference has two branches namely:
(a) Level of confidence and degrees of freedom
(b) Biased estimator and unbiased estimator
(c) Point estimator and unbiased estimator
(d) Estimation of parameter and testing of hypothesis

MCQ 12.11
A specific value calculated from sample is called:
(a) Estimator (b) Estimate (c) Estimation (d) Bias
MCQ 12.12
An estimator is a random variable because it varies from:
(a) Population to sample (b) Population to population (c) Sample to sample (d) Sample to
population

MCQ 12.13
Statistic is an estimator and its calculated value is called:
(a) Biased estimate (b) Estimation (c) Estimator (d) Interval estimate

MCQ 12.14
The numerical value which we determine from the sample for population parameter is called:
(a) Estimation (b) Estimate (c) Estimator (d) Confidence coefficient

MCQ 12.15
A single value used to estimate a population values is called:
(a) Interval estimate (b) Point estimate (c) Level of confidence (d) Degrees of freedom

MCQ 12.16
An interval calculated from the sample data and it is likely to contain the value of parameter with some
probability is called:
(a) Interval estimate (b) Point estimate (c) Confidence interval (d) Level of confidence

MCQ 12.17
A range of values within which the population parameter is expected to occur is called:
(a) Confidence coefficient (b) Confidence interval (c) Confidence limits (d) Level of significance

MCQ 12.18
Interval estimate is determined in terms of:
(a) Sampling error (b) Error of estimation (c) Confidence coefficient (d) Degrees of freedom

MCQ 12.19
The level of confidence is denoted by:
(a) α (b) β (c) 1 - α (d) 1 - β

MCQ 12.20
The end points of a confidence interval are called:
(a) Confidence coefficient (b) Confidence limits (c) Error of estimation (d) Parameters

MCQ 12.21
The probability associated with confidence interval is called:
(a) Level of confidence (b) Confidence coefficient (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Confidence limits

MCQ 12.22
If the mean of the estimator is not equal to the population parameter, the estimator is said to be:
(a) Unbiased (b) Biased (c) Positively biased (d) Negatively biased

MCQ 12.23
The difference between the expected value of an estimator and the value of the corresponding parameter is
called:
(a) Bias (b) Sampling error (c) Error of estimation (d) Standard error
MCQ 12.24
Bias of an estimator can be:
(a) Negative (b) Positive (c) Zero (d) Both (a) or (b)

MCQ 12.25
If is the estimator of the parameter , then is called unbiased if:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

MCQ 12.26
Estimates given in the form of confidence intervals are called:
(a) Point estimates (b) Interval estimates (c) Confidence limits (d) Degree of freedom

MCQ 12.27
Interval estimate is associated with:
(a) Probability (b) Non-probability (c) Range of values (d) Number of parameters

MCQ 12.28
The point estimator of population mean µ is:
(a) Sample mean (b) Sample variance (c) Sample standard deviation (d) Sample size

MCQ 12.29
(1 – α) is called:
(a) Critical value (b) Level of significance (c) Level of confidence (d) Interval estimate

MCQ 12.30
If (1 – α) is increased, the width of a confidence interval is:
(a) Decreased (b) Increased (c) Constant (d) Same

MCQ 12.31
By decreasing the sample size, the confidence interval becomes:
(a) Narrower (b) Wider (c) Fixed (d) All of the above

MCQ 12.32
Confidence interval become narrow by increasing the:
(a) Sample size (b) Population size (c) Level of confidence (d) Degrees of freedom

MCQ 12.33
By increasing the sample size, the precision of confidence interval is:
(a) Increased (b) Decreased (c) Same (d) Unchanged

MCQ 12.34
A function for estimating a parameter is called as:
(a) Estimator (b) Estimate (c) Estimation (d) Level of confidence

MCQ 12.35
A sample constant representing a population parameter is known as:
(a) Estimation (b) Estimator (c) Estimate (d) Bias

MCQ 12.36
The distance between an estimate and the estimated parameter is called:
(a) Sampling error (b) Error of estimation (c) Bias (d) Standard error
MCQ 12.37
Standard error is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of an:
(a) Estimate (b) Estimation (c) Estimator (d) Error of estimation

MCQ 12.38
∑Xi / n for i=1,2,3,….,n is called:
(a) Estimation (b) Estimate (c) Estimator (d) Interval estimate

MCQ 12.39
A statistic is an unbiased estimator of a parameter if:
(a) E(statistic)=parameter (b) E(mean)=variance
(c) E(variance)=mean (d) E(sample mean)=proportion

MCQ 12.40
The following statistics are unbiased estimators:
(a) The sample mean (b) The sample variance
(c) The sample proportion (d) All the above

MCQ 12.41
Which of the following is biased estimator?

MCQ 12.42
The number of values that are free to vary after we have placed certain restrictions upon the data is called:
(a) Degrees of freedom (b) Confidence coefficient (c) Number of parameters (d) Number of samples

MCQ 12.43
If the observations are paired and the number of pairs is n, then degree of freedom is equal to:
(a) n (b) n – 1 (c) n1 + n2 – 2 (d) n/2

MCQ 12.44
In t-distribution for two independent samples n1 = n2 = n, then the degrees of freedom is equal to:
(a) 2n – 1 (b) 2n – 2 (c) 2n + 1 (d) n – 1

MCQ 12.45
If the population standard deviation σ is unknown, and the sample size is small i.e.; n≤30, the confidence
interval for the population mean µ is based on
(a) The t-distribution (b) The normal distribution
(c) The binomial distribution (d) The hypergeometric distribution

MCQ 12.46
The shape of the t-distribution depends upon the:
(a) Sample size (b) Population size (c) Parameters (d) Degrees of freedom

MCQ 12.47
If the population standard deviation σ is known, the confidence interval for the population mean µ is based on:
(a) The Poisson distribution (b) The t-distribution
(c) The X2-distribution (d) The normal distribution
MCQ 12.48
A statistician calculates a 95% confidence interval for µ when σ is known. The confidence interval is Rs. 18000
to Rs. 22000, the amount of the sample mean is:
(a) Rs. 18000 (b) Rs. 20000 (c) Rs. 22000 (d) Rs. 40000

MCQ 12.49
A student calculates a 90% confidence interval for population mean when population standard deviation σ is
unknown and n = 9. The confidence interval is -24.3 cents to 64.3 cents, the sample mean is:
(a) 40 (b) -24.3 (c) 64.3 (d) 20

MCQ 12.50
A 95% confidence interval for population proportion p is 32.4% to 47.6%, the value of sample proportion is:
(a) 40% (b) 32.4% (c) 47.6% (d) 80%

MCQ 12.51
A confidence interval will be widened if:
(a) The confidence level is increased and the sample size is reduced
(b) The confidence level is increased and the sample size is increased
(c) The confidence level is decreased and the sample size is increased
(d) The confidence level is decreased and the sample size is decreased

MCQ 12.52
A 95% confidence interval for the mean of a population is such that:
(a) It contains 95% of the values in the population
(b) There is a 95% chance that it contains all the values in the population.
(c) There is a 95% chance that it contains the mean of the population
(d) There is a 95% chance that it contains the standard deviation of the population

MCQ 12.53
If the population standard deviation σ is doubles, the width of the confidence interval for the population mean µ
(i.e.; the upper limit of the confidence interval – lower limit of the confidence interval) will be:
(a) Divided by 2 (b) Multiplied by (c) Doubled (d) Decrease

MCQ 12.54
If α = 0.10 and n = 15; equals:
(a) 1.761 (b) 1.753 (c) 1.771 (d) 2.145

MCQ 12.55
If n1 = 16, n2 = 9 and α = 0.01; equals:
(a) 2.787 (b) 2.807 (c) 2.797 (d) 3.767

MCQ 12.56
If 1 – α = 0.90, then value of is:
(a) 1.96 (b) 2.575 (c) 1.645 (d) 2.326
MCQ 12.57
If the population standard deviation σ is known and the sample size n is less than or equal to or more than 30,
the confidence interval for the population mean µ is:

MCQ 12.58
If the population standard deviation σ is unknown and the sample size n is greater than 30, the confidence
interval for the population mean µ is:

MCQ 12.59
If the population standard deviation σ is unknown and the sample size n is less than or equal to 30, the
confidence interval for the population mean is:

MCQ 12.60
If we have normal populations with known population standard deviations σ1 and σ2, the confidence interval
estimate for the difference between two population means is:

MCQ 12.61
If the population standard deviations σ1 and σ2 are unknown and sample sizes
n1, n2 ≥ 30, the100 (1 – α)% confidence interval for is:

MCQ 12.62
If the sample size is large, the confidence interval estimate of a population proportion p is:
MCQ 12.63
If n1, n2 ≤ 30, the confidence interval estimate for the difference of two population means when
population standard deviation σ1, σ2 are unknown but equal in case of pooled variates is:

MCQ 12.64
The confidence interval estimate for the difference of two population means in case of paired
observations small sample (n ≤ 30) is:

MCQ 12.65
If the sample size is large, the confidence interval estimate for the difference between two population
proportions p1 – p2 is:
1. A designed experiment is a test or series of tests in which ____________ changes are made to the
input variables so that we may observe and identify corresponding changes in the output response.

a) Systematic

b) Random

c) Purposeful

d) Non-purposeful

Answer: c

2. Which of these does not come into the general model of a process?

a) Input

b) Controllable input factors

c) Uncontrollable inputs factors

d) Acceptance sampling

Answer: d

3. The uncontrollable factors are the factor ___________

a) That varies according to a normal distribution

b) That does not vary at all

c) That can be controlled by the user

d) That cannot be changed according to the wish of the user

Answer: d

4. The uncontrollable factors are also called ____________

a) Designed factors

b) Noise factors

c) Acceptance factors

d) Sound factors

Answer: b

5. Which of these steps are not conducted when the design of experiment procedure is adopted?

a) Determining which variable is most influential to output

b) Determining where to set the influential controllable factors so that output is near the nominal
requirement
c) Deleting the uncontrollable factors

d) Determining where to set the influential controllable inputs so that the variability in the output is
smallest

Answer: c

6. Experimental design methods are not used ____________

a) Evaluating the process capability

b) In process development

c) In process troubleshooting to improve process performance

d) To obtain a process that is robust and insensitive to external sources of variability

Answer: a

7. The designed experiments are the part of ___________ step of DMAIC process.

a) Define

b) Measure

c) Analyze

d) Control

Answer: c

8. The design of the experiment is used to determine the variables which are ___________ affecting the
state of the process.

a) The most

b) The least

c) Not

d) Not changing or

Answer: a

9. Which of these can be used to develop a new process?

a) Design of experiments

b) Acceptance sampling

c) Control charts

d) Histogram

Answer: a
Question 1.

Which of the following is NOT one of the key characteristics of a true experiment?

a. The measurement of changes caused by the manipulation of a variable.

b. The manipulation of a variable.
c. Holding everything constant apart from the variable being manipulated.
d. All participants experience all experimental conditions.

Question 2.

In an experiment, the variable that is manipulated is called the…

a. Independent variable.
b. Dependent variable.
c. Confounding variable.
d. Independant variable.

Question 3.

In an experiment, the variable that is being measured is referred to as the….

a. Measurement variable.
b. Dependent variable.
c. Independent variable
d. Dependant variable.

Question 4.

Which of the following is NOT a strength of experimental studies?

a. Control of variables.
b. Establishment of causal links between variables.
c. Narrow definition of concepts.
d. Replicability

Question 5.

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about an experiment with a between-groups design?

a. It requires more participants than an equivalent within-groups design.

b. It reduces demand characteristics compared to a within-groups design.
c. It needs greater care to ensure that groups are equivalent than a within-groups design.
d. It has greater ecological validity than a within-groups experiment.

Question 6.

A variable that changes in a systematic way with the independent variable and may also affect the
dependent variable is known as a….
 a. Intruder variable
b. Problem variable
c. Error variable
d. Confounding variable.

Question 7.

If neither the experimenter nor the participant knows which experimental condition the participant has
been assigned to, this is known as...

a. Standardization
b. Demand characteristics.
c. Experimental conditions
d. Double-blind
e. Single-blind

Question 8.

How does a field experiment differ from a natural experiment?

a. Because a natural experiment uses pre-existing conditions, there is less room for error
than in a field experiment.
b. In a field experiment, a variable is manipulated. In a natural experiment, the researcher
makes use of pre-existing ‘conditions’.
c. A field experiment has low ecological validity, but a natural experiment has high
ecological validity.
d. A field experiment is as well controlled as a laboratory experiment, while a natural
experiment has less control than a laboratory experiment.

Question 9.

What are field experiments and natural experiments collectively known as?

a. Qualitative studies
b. Pseudo-experiments
c. False experiments
d. Quasi-experiments

Question 10.

A researcher is looking at the effect of drinking alcohol on the ability to play darts. Half of the
participants drink a pint of beer, while the other half drink a pint of water. All participants throw three
darts at a dartboard and have the score recorded. How is this experiment best summarised? Within
Groups design: IV three dart score, DV before/after training Between Groups design: IV three dart score,
DV before/after training Within Groups design: IV before/after training, DV three dart score Between
Groups design: IV before/after training, DV three dart score
 a. Within-groups design. Independent variable is the amount of alcohol drunk. Dependent
variable is the three dart score.
b. Within-groups design. Independent variable is the three dart score. Dependent variable
is the amount of alcohol drunk.
c. Between-groups design. Independent variable is the three dart score. Dependent
variable is the amount of alcohol drunk.
d. Between-groups design. Independent variable is the amount of alcohol drunk.
Dependent variable is the three dart score.

The F ratio in a completely randomized ANOVA is the ratio of

a) MST/MSE
b) MSE/MSTR
c) MSE/MST
d) MSTR/MSE

The critical F value with 8 numerator and 6 denominator degrees of freedom at a = .05 is

X 3.58

X 4.88

:-) 4.15

? none of the above

The ANOVA procedure is a statistical approach for determining whether or not the

X means of two samples are equal

X means of more than two samples are equal

:-) means of two or more populations are equal

? none of the above

The variable of interest in an ANOVA procedure is called

:-) a factor

? a treatment

? either a or b

? none of the above

An ANOVA procedure is applied to data obtained from 5 samples, where each sample contains 9
observations. The degrees of freedom for the critical value of F are
X 5 numerator and 9 denominator degrees of freedom

X 4 numerator and 8 denominator degrees of freedom

X 45 degrees of freedom

? 4 numerator and 40 denominator degrees of freedom

In the ANOVA, treatment refers to

X experimental units

:-) different levels of a factor

? a factor

? none of the above

The mean square is the sum of squares divided by

X the total number of observations

X its corresponding degrees of freedom - 1

:-) its corresponding degrees of freedom

? none of the above

In factorial designs, the response produced when the treatments of one factor interact with the
treatments of another in influencing the response variable is known as

X the main effect

:-) interaction

? replication

? none of the above

An experimental design where the experimental units are randomly assigned to the treatments is known
as

X factor block design

X random factor design

:-) completely randomized design

? none of the above

The number of times each experimental condition is observed in a factorial design is known as

:-) replication

? the experimental condition

? a factor

? none of the above

Question 1

What is a research design?

a) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory

b) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods

c) The style in which you present your research findings, e.g. a graph

d) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data

Question 2

If a study is "reliable", this means that:

a) It was conducted by a reputable researcher who can be trusted

b) The measures devised for concepts are stable on different occasions

c) The findings can be generalized to other social settings

d) The methods are stated clearly enough for the research to be replicated

Question 3

"Internal validity" refers to:

a) Whether or not there is really a causal relationship between two variables

b) Whether or not the findings are relevant to the participants' everyday lives

c) The degree to which the researcher feels that this was a worthwhile project

d) How accurately the measurements represent underlying concepts

Question 4

Lincoln & Guba (1985) propose that an alternative criterion for evaluating qualitative research would be:

a) Impressiveness
b) Trustworthiness

c) Joyfulness

d) Messiness

Question 5

Naturalism has been defined as:

a) Viewing natural and social objects as belonging to the same realm

b) Being true to the nature of the phenomenon under investigation

c) Minimising the intrusion of artificial methods of data collection into the field

d) All of the above

Question 6

In an experimental design, the dependent variable is:

a) The one that is not manipulated and in which any changes are observed

b) The one that is manipulated in order to observe any effects on the other

c) A measure of the extent to which personal values affect research

d) An ambiguous concept whose meaning depends on how it is defined

Question 7

What is a cross-sectional design?

a) A study of one particular section of society, e.g. the middle classes

b) One that is devised when the researcher is in a bad mood

c) The collection of data from more than one case at one moment in time

d) A comparison of two or more variables over a long period of time

Question 8

Survey research is cross-sectional and therefore:

a) High in replicability but low in internal validity

b) High in internal validity but low in reliability

c) High in ecological validity but low in external validity

d) None of the above

Question 9

Panel and cohort designs differ, in that:

a) Cohort studies involve quantitative research, whereas panel studies are qualitative

b) A panel study does not need rules to handle new entrants to households

c) Only a cohort study will suffer from sample attrition

d) A panel study can distinguish between age effects and cohort effects, but a cohort design can only
detect ageing effects

Question 10

Cross cultural studies are an example of:

a) Case study design

b) Comparative design

c) Experimental design

d) Longitudinal design

1. In experimental research, the researcher manipulates [Hint]

a. at least one dependent variable.

b. all variables.
c. at least one independent variable.
d. at least one independent variable and one dependent variable.

2. In an experimental study of the effects of multi-age grouping on academic achievement

after controlling for IQ, the dependent variable is [Hint]

a. academic achievement.
b. IQ.
c. multi-age grouping.
d. students' age.

1. In experimental research, the researcher manipulates [Hint]

a. at least one dependent variable.

b. all variables.
c. at least one independent variable.
d. at least one independent variable and one dependent variable.

2. Which of the following is NOT a necessary step in conducting experimental research?

[Hint]

a. Manipulation of an independent variable

b. Selection of measuring instruments
c. Creating a hypothesis stating a causal relationship between variables
d. Dividing the sample into subgroups to control for extraneous variables
3. In an experimental study of the effects of inclusion on academic self-concept of children
with special needs, the researcher is in control of [Hint]

a. the selection of subjects but not their assignment to a treatment group.

b. the selection and assignment of subjects.
c. the assignment of subjects to a treatment group but not their selection.
d. neither the selection nor assignment of subjects.

1. The best way to control for extraneous variables in research studies is [Hint]

a. randomization.
b. valid and reliable instrumentation.
c. avoiding all threats to external validity.
d. using intact groups.

2. Which of the following would NOT NECESSARILY be an assigned variable? [Hint]

a. Self-concept
b. Participation in extracurricular activities
c. Attitude toward school
d. Father's level of education

1. Which of the following is true? [Hint]

a. A study can be internally valid but not externally valid.

b. A study can be externally valid but not internally valid.
c. A study must be both internally and externally valid.
d. The internal and external validity of studies are not related in any way.

1. The biggest threat to validity in a study of intact groups is [Hint]

a. history.
b. maturation.
c. differential selection of participants.
d. experimenter bias.

2. Testing is most likely to negatively affect internal validity when [Hint]

a. the information tested is attitudinal in nature.

b. the time between pre- and posttest is short.
c. the instrument is unreliable.
d. the participants are very low scorers.

1. The biggest threat to validity in a study of intact groups is [Hint]

a. history.
b. maturation.
c. differential selection of participants.
d. experimenter bias.
2. Ecological validity refers to [Hint]

a. the participants to whom results generalize.

b. the instruments used to measure the independent and dependent variables.
c. the internal validity of a study.
d. the context to which results generalize.

3. Educational policymakers often conclude that an intervention didn't work. Often,

however, the intervention was not implemented as intended. The validity of the policymakers'
conclusion is threatened by [Hint]

a. lack of specificity of variables.

b. selection-treatment interaction.
c. treatment diffusion.
d. faulty data analysis procedures.

4. Ms. Kohl's Algebra I class was not chosen to participate in a new computer-based
program. Her students were furious that they were not selected so they set out to show those
researchers that they were better anyway! The results of the study would be confounded by the [Hint]

a. Hawthorne effect.
b. researcher effect.
c. John Henry effect.
d. placebo effect.

1. Control in experimental research is BEST described as an attempt to [Hint]

a. limit threats to external validity.

b. increase the generalizability of findings.
c. equate the subjects on the treatment variable.
d. limit threats to internal validity.

1. Which of the following designs poses the greatest risk to internal validity? [Hint]

OOOOXOOOO

OXO

O X1 O; O X2 O

R X1 O; R X2 O

2. Many beginning researchers believe that research involves testing, treating, and testing
again to show gains. This is an example of [Hint]

a. comparison group research.

b. quasi-experimental research.
c. true experimental research.
d. pre-experimental research.

3. Quasi-experimental research is used because [Hint]

 a. random selection is not possible.
b. neither random selection nor random assignment is possible.
c. random assignment is not possible.
d. there are no comparison groups available.

1. A researcher believes that the effects of a treatment will be different for males and
females. The best method to test this possible interaction is a [Hint]

a. single-subject design.
b. factorial design.
c. time-series design.
d. quasi-experimental design.

1. Single-subject research is LEAST concerned with [Hint]

a. clinical significance.
b. internal validity.
c. validity of measuring instruments.
d. external validity.

2. The best single-subject design to use when it would be unethical to discontinue

treatment indefinitely would likely be [Hint]

a. A-B-A-B.
b. A-B.
c. A-B-A.
d. quasi-experimental.

3. A single-subject researcher is generally most interested in whether [Hint]

a. the results are generalizable to other subjects.

b. the results are generalizable to other settings.
c. the participant improved.
d. the participant is representative of the larger population.

Q. What is a factor that is measured for change in an experiment?

a) control
b) constant
c) independent variable
d) dependent variable

Q. What part of an experiment contains the data tables and graphs?

a) Results
b) Conclusion
c) Hypothesis
 d) Materials

Q. What is the factor that an experimenter changes on purpose?

a) Dependent Variable
b) Independent Variable
c) Constant
d) Control

Q. A summary of the experiment that includes whether hypothesis was right or wrong

answer choices

a) Hypothesis
b) Results
c) Conclusion
d) Independent Variable

Question 5 30 seconds

Q. The part of the experiment that does not contain the independent variable. Used for comparison.

answer choices

a) Control Group
b) Experimental Group
c) Results
d) Data

Question 6 30 seconds

Q. What are all the things that are kept the same in an experiment?

answer choices

a) controls
b) data
c) constants
d) independent variables

Question 7 45 seconds

Q. What is the effect of salt water on the average of the 3 tallest blades of grass?

The above question is an example of:

answer choices

a) Hypothesis
b) Conclusion
c) Experiment
d) Problem
Question 8 45 seconds

Q. What is the effect of salt water on the average of the height of the 3 tallest blades of grass?

What is the independent variable in the above question?

answer choices

a) salt water
b) height
c) average
d) effect

Question 9 30 seconds

Q. What is an if....then statement that predicts the outcome of an experiment or how the Independent
variable effects the dependent variable?

answer choices

a) Conclusion
b) Materials
c) Hypothesis
d) Problem

Question 10 30 seconds

Q. What is the part of the experiment that contains the independent variable?

answer choices

a) control group
b) experimental group
c) hypothesis
d) dependent variable

Question 11 30 seconds

Q. What are the number of times each level of the independent variable is tested?

answer choices

a) constants
b) control
c) repeated trials
d) dependent variable

Question 12 30 seconds

Q. An explanation of why something occurs in the natural world

answer choices
 a) theory
b) law
c) hypothesis
d) predicition

Question 13 30 seconds

Q. 2 ways that scientific investigations can be retested are:

answer choices

a) measurement and control

b) repetition and replication
c) defining a problem and hypothesizing
d) concluding and analyzing

Question 14 30 seconds

Q. An organized procedure to study something under controlled conditions is a(n)

answer choices

a) observation
b) field study
c) model
d) experiment

Question 15 30 seconds

Q. A numbered step by step description that begins with a verb and tells exactly how the experiment is
to be done.

a) Results
b) Problem
c) Materials
d) Procedures

Question 16 30 seconds

Q. A detailed list of all types and exact amounts of items used in an experiment.

answer choices

a) Procedure
b) Hypothesis
c) Materials
d) Grocery List

Question 17 30 seconds

Q. A description of how something always occurs in nature

answer choices

a) Law
b) Theory
c) Model
d) Conclusion

Question 18 30 seconds Report an issue

Q. The systematic study of nature is

answer choices

a) English
b) Science
c) Math
d) History

Statements based on the systematic collection of data are:

a. empirical
b. dialectic
c. empathic
d. false

The goal of correlational research is to:

a. assess the causal impact of one variable on another

b. create a snapshot of what’s happening
c. assess relationships between variables
d. all of the above

A study of the feeding behaviour of a group of wild monkeys in India would be an example of:

a. a survey
b. naturalistic observation
c. a correlation
d. an experiment

If income and happiness are positively correlated then a person with a low income would be predicted
to be:

a. not depressed at all

b. less depressed than a person with a high income
c. more depressed than a person with a high income
d. cannot make a prediction from correlational data

Descriptive statistics aim to:

 a. explain
b. confuse
c. complicate
d. summarize

In a ________ experiment neither the researcher nor the participants know which condition participants
are in.

a. blind
b. double-blind
c. random
d. confounded

A researcher is interested in the impact of anxiety on performance. In order to manipulate anxiety, they
have some subjects eat plain chips while others eat barbecue flavoured chips. The most obvious
problem with this experiment is a lack of :

a. statistical validity
b. empirical validity
c. internal validity
d. construct validity

A strength of correlational designs is that they:

a. can demonstrate causation

b. do not require ethics board approval
c. can be used with variables which cannot be manipulated by a researcher
d. are more intrusive than experimental designs

A researcher uses an experimental design to study the effect of music on memory. In this experiment,
the Independent Variable is:

a. music
b. memory
c. both music and memory
d. neither music nor memory

According to the text, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good theory?

a. it is parsimonious
b. it is falsifiable
c. it is common sense
d. it is general

Empirical statements are based on:

a. belief
b. data
c. intuition
d. common sense
Informed consent is typically obtained:

a. during an experiment
b. before an experiment
c. after an experiment
d. it is not typical to obtain informed consent

Creating equivalence among research participants is vital for:

a. experimental research
b. correlational research
c. descriptive research
d. equivalence is never vital

A researcher is interested in whether the results of her experiment (conducted in Canada) would be the
same if the experiment were conducted in China. This researcher is concerned with:

a. internal validity
b. external validity
c. statistical validity
d. none of the above

Standard deviation is a measure of:

a. range
b. central tendency
c. inference
d. dispersion

Generalization is a key issue in:

a. internal validity
b. external validity
c. a double-blind experiment
d. a single-blind experiment

In an experiment examining the effect of mood on intelligence participants are randomly

assigned to watch either a funny movie or a sad movie before they complete an IQ test. The funny
movie is shown in a classroom, while the sad movie is shown in the student lounge. The most obvious
problem with this experiment is:

a. lack of statistical validity

b. the IV is confounded
c. the use of random assignment
d. none of the above

In an experiment the researcher manipulates the ________ variable and measure the

________ variable.
 a. independent, dependent
b. dependent, independent
c. causal, spurious
d. spurious, causal

The more exercise a person takes the fewer medical problems they report. This is an example of:

a. a curvilinear relationship
b. statistical independence
c. a positive correlation
d. a negative correlation

In a normal distribution most scores are located:

a. at the high end of the distribution

b. at the low end of the distribution
c. in the centre of the distribution
d. at the extremes of the distribution

Data from a correlational study is usually shown as a:

a. scatterplot
b. pie chart
c. bar graph
d. b or c

A researcher plans to assess intelligence by counting the number of times participants

can hop on one leg in 60 seconds. An obvious problem with this is:

a. lack of statistical validity

b. number of hops is too subjective
c. lack of construct validity
d. lack of significance

A double-blind study is used to minimize the impact of:

a. experimenter bias
b. expectancy effects
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b

Correlation coefficients range from:

a. r = -1 to r = +1
b. r = 0 to r = +1
c. r = -1 to r = 0
d. r = +.5 to r = +1

In an experiment randomly assigned, participants drank wine or water. All participants then completed
an anxiety questionnaire. In this experiment the IV was:
 a. the results of the memory test
b. the participants
c. the random assignment
d. what the participants drank

Research shows that the older a person is, the larger their vocabulary. This is an example of a :

a. positive correlation
b. negative correlation
c. causal correlation
d. partial correlation

Three commonly used measures of central tendency are:

a. range, standard deviation, median,

b. median, mode, dispersion
c. mode, median, standard deviation
d. median, mode, mean

Dr. Maki questioned a group of 9th graders about their career aspirations. This is an example of a(n)

a. experiment
b. survey
c. case study
d. manipulation

In an experiment looking at the effect of heat on performance, participants were randomly assigned to
spend 20 minutes in a hot room painted blue or to spend 20 minutes in a cold room painted yellow. In
this experiment the IV is confounded by:

a. lack of random sampling

b. the colour of the room
c. performance on the task
d. there is no confound

A researcher asks 250 students (from a school with 1000 pupils) to complete a survey about the
cafereria. The 250 students are a:

a. population
b. case study
c. sample
d. variable

Question 1.

The most important purpose of experimental research is to

a. Determine the significance of relationships

b. Design studies with randomization and manipulation of conditions
c. Contribute to basic research
 d. Investigate cause and effect relationships

Question 2.

Experimental research has the following characteristics:

a. Statistical equivalence of subjects; maximum control of extraneous variables; and random

selection of subjects
b. Maximum control of extraneous variables; manipulation of an independent variable; and
statistical equivalence of groups
c. Random selection of subjects; comparison of two or more groups; and use of inferential
statistics
d. Comparison of two or more groups; use of inferential statistics; and manipulation of the
dependent variable

Question 3.

A high level of control is needed to infer causal relationships in an experimental study. The major
disadvantage of this design is that

a. Internal validity is weak

b. Generalizability is often limited
c. It is difficult to draw any conclusion
d. It is usually too expensive to conduct

Question 4.

Which sequence is appropriate for planning experimental research?

a. Select subjects, define the problem, specify a design

b. Select subjects, assign treatments, search the literature
c. State research hypotheses, select subjects, assign treatments
d. Define the problem, select subjects, assign subjects to treatments

Question 5.

The preferred method of achieving statistical equivalence of groups of subjects is to

a. Randomly assign subjects

b. Use subjects as their controls
c. Randomly select subjects
d. Match subjects

Question 6.

Which of the following is not a threat to internal validity?

a. Maturation
b. Experimenter effects
c. Ecological effects
d. History

Question 7.

Which of the following characterizes pre-experimental designs?

a. Few threats to external validity are controlled.

b. The results are generally useless.
c. All of the above.
d. Few threats to internal validity are controlled.

Question 8.
The pre-experimental design that has the most weaknesses with respect to internal validity is the

a. One-group pretest-posttest
b. One-group posttest only
c. Unassessed treatment
d. Posttest only with nonequivalent groups

Question 9.

The most serious threat to the internal validity of the one group pretest-posttest design is

a. Selection
b. Maturation
c. Diffusion of treatment
d. History

Question 10.

The difference between the posttest only with nonequivalent groups design and the one-group posttest only
design is that in the first design

a. Internal validity is weak

b. Subjects are randomly assigned
c. There are two groups
d. More threats to internal validity exist

Question 11.

True experimental designs control which source of internal validity better than quasi-experimental designs?

a. Pretesting
b. History
c. Diffusion of treatment
d. Selection

Question 12.

Which of the following is NOT a threat to a true experimental pretest-posttest control group design?

a. Local history
b. Statistical regression
c. Diffusion of treatment
d. Experimenter effects

Question 13.

Which design is recommended if a researcher is interested in conducting a study of self-concept and is

interested in analyzing an entire school population?

a. posttest only design

b. pretest-posttest control group design
c. time series design
d. posttest only control group design

Question 14.

In employing the single group interrupted time series design, it is important that

a. The treatment is an abrupt intervention

b. The treatment is introduced only after at least six pre-observations
c. There be the same number of pre- and post-observations
d. There be unequal time intervals
Question 15.

Which characteristic distinguishes single-subject designs from other experimental designs?

a. More than one treatment

b. Continual measurement of the dependent variable
c. Sample size is often one individual rather than groups
d. Good generalizability of results

Question 16.

A characteristic of research that is especially important for single-subject designs is to provide

a. Control of experimenter bias

b. Control of a hawthorne effect
c. Evidence of statistical equivalence
d. A detailed description of conditions

Question 17.

Multiple baseline designs are especially useful when

a. Two or more subjects and conditions are available

b. It is not possible to repeat the baseline treatment
c. The behavior is likely to change in different situations
d. There is a limited amount of time to observe behaviors

1. Consider k independent samples each containing n1,n2,⋯,nk items such that n1+n2+⋯+nk=n. In
ANOVA we use F-distribution with degree of freedom

a. k−1,n−k
b. k−1,n−1
c. k−n,n−k
d. n−k,k−1

2. In two-way ANOVA with m rows and n columns, the error degrees of freedom is

a. m−1
b. (n−1)m
c. (m–1)n
d. (m−1)(n−1)

3. In one-way ANOVA with total number of observations is 15 with 5 treatments then total degrees of
freedom is

a. 75
b. 3
c. 10
d. 14

4. In one-way ANOVA, given SSB = 2580, SSE =1656, k = 4, n = 20 then the value of F is

a. 7.3
b. 8.3
c. 9.3
 d. 19.3

5. In two-way ANOVA with m=5, n=4, then the total degrees of freedom is

a. 20
b. 21
c. 19
d. 18

6. In one-way ANOVA, with usual notation, the error degree of freedom is

a. n−1
b. n–k
c. k−1
d. k–n

7. Analysis of variance is used to test

a. Means of three or more populations

b. Variance of three or more populations
c. Difference between 2 means
d. Difference between 2 variances

8. The assumption used in ANOVA is

a. The population from which the samples were obtained must be normally distributed
b. The samples must be independent
c. The variances of the population must be equal
d. All of the above

9. In one-way ANOVA, the caluclated F value is less than the table F value then

a. Accept the hypothesis that the population means are equal

b. Reject the hypothesis that the population means are equal
c. Sometimes accept and sometimes reject the null hypothesis
d. All of the above

10. In ANOVA we use

a. t – distribution
b. χ2 – distribution
c. F – distribution
d. None of these

1. How many variables are tested at one time in a controlled experiment?

two

2. What is the name of the variable changed on purpose in the experiment?

Dependent variables
3. What is the name of the variable kept the same in an experiment?

None of above

4. What is the name of the variable that is measured in response to the variable changed on purpose?

Independent variable

5. What is the name of the group with normal conditions in a controlled experiment?

None of above

6. Mrs. Bauer wanted to investigate whether the amount of time students studied for the test would
affect their grade on final. What is the independent variable in the experiment?

Amount of students

7. Mrs. Bauer wanted to investigate whether the amount of time students studied for the test would
affect their grade on final. What is the dependent variable in the experiment?

Amount of time students studied

8. Mrs. Bauer had 3 groups of 25 kids. Group A did not study for the final. Group B studied for 5 hours.
Group C studied for 10 hours. Which group is the control group?

There isn’t a control group

9. What is the independent variable? Diana placed three tomato plants (A,B, C) under three different
types of light. She measured the height of each plant after 3 weeks.

The different types of light

10. What is the dependent variable in the experiment? Diana placed three tomato plants (A,B, C) under
three different types of light. She measured the height of each plant after 3 weeks.

The tomato plants

76. In RCBD we may assume that the treatment are fixed and the blocks are random, such a model is
called

a. Random effect model.

b. Mixed effect model.
c. Rare effect model.
d. Fixed effect model.

77. The simplest type of the basic designs.

a. CRD.
b. RCBD.
c. ANOCOVA.
d. BCR
78. A design in which the treatments are assigned to the experimental unit completely at random.

a. ANOCOVA.
b. RCBD.
c. CRD.
d. BCR.

79. CRD gives accurate information if all the experimental units present in the experiment are

a. Heterogeneous.
b. Homogeneous.
c. Not clear
d. Clear

80. Sometimes we are required to compare several population means simultaneously. This is also
possible by using

a. GLSD.
b. Two sample t- test.
c. Regression equation.
d. Multinomial distribution.

81. CRD is very simple.

a. But not easily laid out.

b. And easily laid out.
c. But gives biased result.
d. And unbiased

82. If in the CRD some observations are missing then also the analysis is very simple, because the
missing observations are discarded and carry out the experiment without losing the

a. Efficiency of the design.

b. Degree of freedom.
c. Confidentiality.
d. Sufficiency of the design.

83. CRD provides maximum number of degree of freedom for the

a. Sum of squares.
b. Error sum of squares.
c. Experiment.
d. Calculations.
84. In CRD due to the maximum number of degree of freedom, the experimental error is

a. Increased.
b. Remained the same.
c. Not remained the same.
d. Reduced.

85. Completely flexible design i.e. any number of treatments and any number of units per treatment
may be used

a. GLSD.
b. LSD.
c. CRD.
d. RCBD.

86. In the design the numbers of units per treatment need not to be equal.

a. GLSD.
b. LSD.
c. CRD.
d. RCBD.

87. -------------- is also considered to be most useful when the experiments are small such as laboratory
experiments.

a. GLSD.
b. CRD.
c. LSD.
d. RCBD.

88. Design is not useful when the experimental units are heterogeneous.

a. GLSD.
b. LSD.
c. RCBD.
d. CRD.

89. This design is applicable for small number of treatments, because if the numbers of treatments are
increased, increase also occurs in the experimental units, due to which heterogeneity occurs.

a. GLSD.
b. LSD.
c. CRD.
 d. RCBD.

90 In case of one source of variation CRD is not applicable but

a. GLSD is used.
b. LSD is used.
c. CRD is used.
d. RCBD is used.

91. Assumptions underlying ANOVA

(i) Normality (ii) Homogeneity (iii) Additivity and

a. Independence etc.
b. Interaction etc.
c. Correlation.
d. Regression.

92. In some experiments situation it is inconvenient to measure yield on the entire experimental unit.
In this case we use the method of

a. Rank correlation.
b. Sub sampling.
c. Interpolation.
d. Extrapolation.

93. Let us suppose we give some quality of diet (treatments) to individuals (experimental units) ,we
are interested to measure that the diet having some significant effect on the blood level of individuals or
not. So in this case we cannot take all the blood of the individual but we take some sample from the
experimental unit (i.e. drops of blood) randomly and carry out the experiment and the result is then
generalized for whole experimental units. This is

a. Rank correlation.
b. Interpolation.
c. Sub sampling.
d. Extrapolation.

94. Let us suppose there is a factory which produces different types of cloths. Now we are interested to
test the chemical effect on all types of cloths. In such a situation we do not takes one or two bundles but
we take one or two feet cloth from each of the type. The chemical effect is tested on one or two feet
cloth and the result is then generalized for all the cloths. This is

a. Rank correlation.
 b. Sub sampling.
c. Interpolation.
d. Extrapolation.

95. Whenever experiment involves sub sampling, there are two types of variability in the experimental
error i.e. εijk and δijk.

(i) δijk i.e. variation among sampling units within the experimental units.

(ii) εijk i.e. variation among experimental units

a. On the same treatment.

b. On the different treatment.
c. Selected treatment.
d. Randomly selected treatment.

96. We know that F- test is used in the ANOVA. But we do not know that what ratio should be used to
test the hypothesis and this can be done with the help of

a) Test statistics.
b) CRLB.
c) Expected mean square.
d) Estimator.

97. (i) it gives us the estimate of variance components.

(ii) it gives us information about the future planning.

(iii) it provides us a test- statistic i.e. it gives an idea that which test should be used for testing the
given hypothesis. The above statements are advantages of

a) Hypothesis.
b) Estimation.
c) Expected mean square.
d) CRLB.

98. RCBD is modified form of

a. GLSD.
b. ICBD.
c. RCD.
d. ANCOVA.
99. (i) The experimental material is divided into groups or blocks in such a manner that the
experimental units within a particular block are relatively homogeneous.

(ii) Each block contains a complete set of treatments i.e. it is constitute complete set of
treatments.

(iii) The treatments are assigned at random to the experimental units within each block.

a. Analysis of variance (ANOVA).

b. A randomized complete block design (RCBD)
c. ANCOVA.
d. CRLB.

100. In RCBD all the restrictions are imposed only on

a. Complete blocking.
b. Random blocking.
c. Averaging.
d. Calculations.

1. When travelers change airlines during connecting flights, each airline receives a portion of the fare.
Several years ago, the major airlines used a sample trial period to determine what percentage of certain
fares each should collect. Using these statistical results to determine fare splits, the airlines now claim
huge savings over previous clerical costs. Which of the following is true?

I. The airlines ran an experiment using a trial period for the control group. I,'

II. The airlines ran an observational study using the calculations from a trial period as a sample.

ill. The airlines feel that any monetary error in fare splitting resulting from using a statistical sample is
smaller than the previous clerical costs necessary to calculate exact fare splits.

(B) I10nly

(C) illonly

(D) I and III

(E) I1andill

2. Which of the following are true statements? I. In an experiment some treatment is intentionally
forced on one group to note the response. II. In an observational study information is gathered on an
already existing situation. ill. Sample surveys are observational studies, not experiments.

(A) land II

(B) I and III

(C) II and m
(D) I, II, and ill

3. Which of the following are true statements? I. In an experiment researchers decide how people are
placed in different groups. II. In an observational study, the people themselves select which group they
are in. ill. A control group is most often a self-selected grouping in an experiment.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) I andll IandID llandill I, n, and ill None of the above gives the complete set of true
responses.

4. In one study on the effect of niacin on cholesterol level, 100 subjects who acknowledged being
longtime niacin takers had their cholesterol levels compared with those of 100 people who had never
taken niacin. In a second study, 50 subjects were randomly chosen to receive niacin and 50 were chosen
to receive a placebo.

(A) The first study was a controlled experiment, while the second was an observational study.

(B) The first study was an observational study, while the second was a controlled experiment.

(C) Both studies were controlled experiments.

(D) Both studies were observational studies.

(E) Each study was part controlled experiment and part observational study.

5. In one study subjects were randomly given either 500 or 1000 milligrams of vitamin C daily, and the i'
number of colds they came down with during a winter season was noted. In a second study people
responded to a questionnaire asking about the average number of hours they sleep per night and the,:
number of colds they came down with during a winter season.

(A) The first study was an experiment without a control group, while the second was an observational
study.

(B) The first was an observational study, while the second was a controlled experiment.

(C) Both studies were controlled experiments

(D) Both studies were observational studies.

(E) None of the above is a correct statement.

6. In a 1992 London study, 12 of20 migraine sufferers were given chocolate whose flavor was masked by
peppermint, while the remaining eight sufferers received a similar-looking, similar-tasting tablet thathad
no chocolate. Within 1 day, five of those receiving chocolate complained of migraines, while no
complaints were made by any of those who did not receive chocolate. Which of the following is a true
statement?

(A) This study was an observational study of 20 migraine sufferers in which it was noted how many came
down with migraines after eating chocolate.

(B) This study was a sample survey in which 12 out of20 migraine sufferers were picked to receive
peppermint-flavored chocolate.
(C) A census of20 migraine sufferers was taken, noting how many were given chocolate and how many
developed migraines.

(D) A study was performed using chocolate as a placebo to study one cause of migraines.

(E) An experiment was performed comparing a treatment group that was given chocolate to a control
group that was not.

7. Suppose you wish to compare the average class size of mathematics classes to the average class size
of English classes in your high school. Which is the most appropriate technique for gathering the needed
data?

(A) Census

(B) Sample survey

(C) Experiment

(D) Observational study.

(E) None of these methods is appropriate. ; ~

8. Which of the following are true statements? I. Based on careful use of control groups, experiments
can often indicate cause-and-effect relationships. II. While observational studies may suggest
relationships, great care must be taken in concluding that there is cause and effect because of the lack
of control over lurking variables. ill. A complete census is the only way to establish a cause-and-effect
relationship absolutely.

(A) I and II

(B) Iandill

(C) II and ill

(D) I, II, and ill

(E) None of the above gives the complete set of true responses I

9. Two studies are run to compare the experiences offamilies living in high-rise public housing to those
of families living in townhouse subsidized rentals. The first study interviews 25 families who have been
in each government program for at least 1 year, while the second randomly assigns 25 families to each
program and interviews them after 1 year. Which of the following is a true statement?

(A) Both studies are observational studies because of the time period involved.

(B) Both studies are observational studies because there are no control groups.

(C) The first study is an observational study, while the second is an experiment.

(D) The fust study is an experiment, while the second is an observational study.

(E) Both studies are experiments.

10. Two studies are run to determine the effect oflow levels of wine consumption on cholesterol level.
The fust study measures the cholesterol levels of 100 volunteers who have not consumed alcohol in the
past year and compares these values with their cholesterol levels after 1 year, during which time each
volunteer drinks one glass of wine daily. The second study measures the cholesterol levels of 100
volunteers who have not consumed alcohol in the past year, randomly picks half the group to drink one
glass of wine daily for a year while the others drink no alcohol for the year, and finally measures their
levels again. Which of the following is a true statement?

(A) The first study is an observational study, while the second is an experiment.

(B) The first study is an experiment, while the second is an observational study.

(C) Both studies are observational studies, but only one uses randomization and a control group.

(D) The fust study is a census of 100 volunteers, while the second study is an experiment.

(E) Both studies are experiments.

Questions on Planning and Conducting Emeriments

1. A study is made to determine whether studying Latin helps students achieve higher scores on the.
verbal section of the SAT exam. In comparing records of 200 students, half of whom have taken at least
1 year of Latin, it is noted that the average SAT verbal score is higher for those 100 students who have
taken Latin than for those who have not. Based on this study, guidance counselors began to recommend
Latin for students who want to do well on the SAT exam. Which of the following are true statements? I.
While this study indicates a relation, it does not prove causation. Il, There could be a confounding
variable responsible for the seeming relationship. Ill. Self-selection here makes drawing the counselors'
conclusion difficult.

(A) I andll

(B) land III

(C) llandill

(D) I, ll, and III

2. In a Western Electric Company study on the effect of lighting on worker productivity, productivity
increased with each increase in lighting but then increased with every decrease in lighting. If it is
assumed that the workers knew a study was in progress, this is an example of

(A) the effect of a treatment unit.

(B) the placebo effect.

(C) the control group effect.

(D) sampling error.

(E) voluntary response bias.

3. When the estrogen-blocking drug tamoxifen was first introduced to treat breast cancer, there was
concern that it would cause osteoporosis as a side effect. To test this concern, cancer subjects were
randomly selected and given tamoxifen, and their bone density was measured before and after
treatment. Which of the following is a true statement? I. This study was an observational study. Il. This
study was a sample survey of randomly selected cancer patients. Ill. This study was an experiment in
which the subjects were used as their own controls.

(B) llonly

(C) III only

(D) I andll

4. In designing an experiment, blocking is used

(A) to reduce bias.

(B) to reduce variation.

(C) as a substitute for a control group.

(D) as a first step in randomization.

(E) to control the level of the experiment.

5. Which of the following are true statements about blocking? I. Blocking is to experiment design as
stratification is to sampling design. II. By controlling certain variables, blocking can make conclusions
more specific. III. The paired comparison design is a special case of blocking.

(A) I and II

(B) I and III

(C) II and III

(D) I, II, and III

6. Consider the following studies being run by three different nursing home establishments. I. One
nursing home has pets brought in for an an hour every day to see if patient morale is improved. II. One
nursing home allows hourly visits every day by kindergarten children to see if patient morale is
improved. III. One nursing home administers antidepressants to all patients to see if patient morale is
improved.

(A) None of these studies uses randomization.

(B) None of these studies uses control groups.

(C) None of these studies uses blinding.

(D) Important information can be obtained from all these studies, but none will be able to establish
causal relationships.

(E) All of the above.

7. A consumer product agency tests miles per gallon for a sample of automobiles using each of four
different octanes of gasoline. Which of the following is true?

(A) There are four explanatory variables and one response variable.

(B) There is one explanatory variable with four levels of response.

(C) Miles per gallon is the only explanatory variable, but there are four response variables corresponding
to the different octanes.

(D) There are four levels of a single explanatory variable.

(E) Each explanatory variable has an associated level of response.

8. Which of the following are true statements? I. In general, strong association implies causation. II. In
well-designed, well-conducted experiments, strong association implies causation. III. Causation and
association are unrelated concepts.

(B) II only

(C) III only

(D) I and II

(E) I, II, and III

6 Page 6 of7

9. Which of the following are true statements? 1. In well-designed observational studies, responses are
systematically influenced during the collection of data. II. In well-designed experiments, the treatments
result in responses that are as similar as possible. ID. A well-designed experiment always has a single
treatment nut may test that treatment at different levels..

(B) II only

(C) IDonly

(D) IIandill

(E) None of these statements is true.

10. Which of the following are important in the design of experiments? 1. Control of confounding
variables II. Randomization in assigning subjects to different treatments ill. Replication of the
experiment using sufficient numbers of subjects

(A) I and II

(B) I and ill

(C) IIandill

(D) I, II, and ill

11. Which of the following are true about the design of matched-pairs experiments? I. Each subject
might receive both treatments. II. Each pair of subjects receives the identical treatment, and differences
in their responses are noted. ill. Blocking is one form of matched-pair design.

(A)

(B) II only

(C) illonly

(D) IandID

(E) II and ill

12. A nutritionist believes that having each player take a vitamin pill before a game enhances the
performance of the football team. During the course of one season, each player takes a vitamin pill
before each game, and the team achieves a winning season for the first time in several years. Is this an
experiment or an observational study?

(A) An experiment, but with no reasonable conclusion about cause and effect

(B) An experiment, thus making cause and effect a reasonable conclusion

(C) An observational study, because there was no use of a control group

(D) An observational study, but a poorly designed one because randomization was not used

(E) An observational study, thus allowing a reasonable conclusion of association but not cause and
effect.

13. Some researchers believe that too much iron in the blood can raise the level of cholesterol. The iron
level in the blood can be lowered by making periodic blood donations. A study is performed by
randomly selecting half of a group of volunteers to give periodic blood donations while the rest do not.
Is this an experiment or an observational study?

(A) An experiment with control group and blinding

(B) An experiment with blocking

(C) An observational study with comparison and randomization

(D) An observational study with little if any bias

(E) None of the above.
In the following multiple-choice questions, select the best answer.

1. Analysis of variance is a statistical method of comparing the ________ of several populations.

a. standard deviations

b. variances

c. means

d. proportions

e. none of the above

2. The ______ sum of squares measures the variability of the observed values around their respective

treatment means.

a. treatment

b. error

c. interaction

d. total

3. The ________ sum of squares measures the variability of the sample treatment means around the

overall mean.

a. treatment

b. error

c. interaction

d. total

4. If the true means of the k populations are equal, then MSTR/MSE should be:

a. more than 1.00

b. close to 1.00

c. close to 0.00

d. close to -1.00

e. a negative value between 0 and - 1

f. not enough information to make a decision

5. If the MSE of an ANOVA for six treatment groups is known, you can compute

a. df1

b. the standard deviation of each treatment group

c. the pooled standard deviation

d. b and c

e. all answers are correct

6. To determine whether the test statistic of ANOVA is statistically significant, it can be compared to

a critical value. What two pieces of information are needed to determine the critical value?

a. sample size, number of groups

b. mean, sample standard deviation

c. expected frequency, obtained frequency

d. MSTR, MSE

7. Which of the following is an assumption of one-way ANOVA comparing samples from three or

more experimental treatments?

a. All the response variables within the k populations follow a normal distributions.

b. The samples associated with each population are randomly selected and are independent

from all other samples.

c. The response variable within each of the k populations have equal variances.

d. All of the above.

8. The error deviations within the SSE statistic measure distances:

a. within groups

b. between groups

c. both (a) and (b)

d. none of the above

e. between each value and the grand mean

9. When the k population means are truly different from each other, it is likely that the average error

deviation:

a. is relatively large compared to the average treatment deviations

b. is relatively small compared to the average treatment deviations

c. is about equal to the average treatment deviation

d. none of the above

e. differ significantly between at least two of the populations

10. As variability due to chance decreases, the value of F will

a. increase

b. stay the same

c. decrease

d. can’t tell from the given information

11. In a study, subjects are randomly assigned to one of three groups: control, experimental A, or

experimental B. After treatment, the mean scores for the three groups are compared. The

appropriate statistical test for comparing these means is:

a. the correlation coefficient

b. chi square

c. the t-test

d. the analysis of variance

12. In one-way ANOVA, which of the following is used within the F-ratio as a measurement of the

variance of individual observations?

a. SSTR

b. MSTR

c. SSE

c. MSE

d. none of the above

13. When conducting a one-way ANOVA, the _______ the between-treatment variability is when

compared to the within-treatment variability, the _______ the value of FDATA will be tend to be.

a. smaller, larger

b. smaller, smaller

c. larger, larger

d. smaller, more random

e. larger, more random

14. When conducting an ANOVA, FDATA will always fall within what range?

a. between negative infinity and infinity

b. between 0 and 1
c. between 0 and infinity

d. between 1 and infinity

15. If FDATA = 5, the result is statistically significant

a. Always

b. Sometimes

c. Never

16. If FDATA= 0.9, the result is statistically significant

a. Always

b. Sometimes

c. Never

17. You obtained a significant test statistic when comparing three treatments in a one-way ANOVA. In

words, how would you interpret the alternative hypothesis HA?

a. All three treatments have different effects on the mean response.

b. Exactly two of the three treatments have the same effect on the mean response.

c. At least two treatments are different from each other in terms of their effect on the mean

response.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

18. You carried out an ANOVA on a preliminary sample of data. You then collected additional data

from the same groups; the difference being that the sample sizes for each group were increased by a

factor of 10, and the within-group variability has decreased substantially. Which of the following

statements is NOT correct.

a. The degrees of freedom associated with the error term has increased

b. The degrees of freedom associated with the treatment term has increased

c. SSE has decreased

d. FDATA has changed

e. FCRIT has changed

19. If the sample means for each of k treatment groups were identical (yes, this is extremely unlikely),

what would be the observed value of the ANOVA test statistic?

a. 1.0

b. 0.0

c. A value between 0.0 and 1.0

d. A negative value

e. Infinite

20. If FDATA follows an F distribution with df1=4 and df2=5, what is the boundary value of F where

P(FDATA < F) = 0.95?

a. 0.05

b. 5.1922

c. 6.2561

d. 15.5291

e. 11.3919

21. Suppose the critical region for a certain test of the null hypothesis is of the form F > 9.48773 and the

computed value of F from the data is 1.86. Then:

a. H0 should be rejected.

b. The significance level is given by the area to the left of 9.48773 under the appropriate F

distribution.

c. The significance level is given by the area to the right of 9.48773 under the appropriate F

distribution.

d. The hypothesis test is two-tailed

e. None of these.

22. Assuming that the null hypothesis being tested by ANOVA is false, the probability of obtaining a
Fratio that exceeds the value reported in the F table as the 95th percentile is:

a. less than .05.

b. equal to .05.

c. greater than .05.

23. Assuming no bias, the total variation in a response variable is due to error (unexplained variation)

plus differences due to treatments (known variation). If known variation is large compared to

unexplained variation, which of the following conclusions is the best?

a. There is no evidence for a difference in response due to treatments.

b. There is evidence for a difference in response due to treatments.

c. There is significant evidence for a difference in response due to treatments

d. The treatments are not comparable.

e. The cause of the response is due to something other than treatments.

24. What would happen if instead of using an ANOVA to compare 10 groups, you performed multiple
ttests?

a. Nothing, there is no difference between using an ANOVA and using a t-test.

b. Nothing serious, except that making multiple comparisons with a t-test requires more

computation than doing a single ANOVA.

c. Sir Ronald Fischer would be turning over in his grave; he put all that work into

developing ANOVA, and you use multiple t-tests

d. Making multiple comparisons with a t-test increases the probability of making a Type I

error.

25. What is the function of a post-test in ANOVA?

a. Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred.

b. Describe those groups that have reliable differences between group means.

c. Set the critical value for the F test (or chi-square).

26. An investigator randomly assigns 30 college students into three equal size study groups
(earlymorning, afternoon, late-night) to determine if the period of the day at which people study has an

effect on their retention. The students live in a controlled environment for one week, on the third

day of the experimental treatment is administered (study of predetermined material). On the seventh

day the investigator tests for retention. In computing his ANOVA table, he sees that his MS within

groups is larger than his MS between groups. What does this result indicate?

a. An error in the calculations was made.

b. There was more than the expected amount of variability between groups.

c. There was more variability between subjects within the same group than there was

between groups.

d. There should have been additional controls in the experiment.

27. In ANOVA with 4 groups and a total sample size of 44, the computed F statistic is 2.33 In this case,

the p-value is:

a. exactly 0.05

b. less than 0.05

c. greater than 0.05

d. cannot tell - it depends on what the SSE is

28. Assume that there is no overlap between the box and whisker plots for three drug treatments where

each drug was administered to 35 individuals. The box plots for these data:

a. provide no evidence for, or against, the null hypothesis of ANOVA

b. represent evidence for the null hypothesis of ANOVA

c. represent evidence against the null hypothesis of ANOVA

d. can be very misleading, you should not be looking at box plots in this setting

29. ANOVA was used to test the outcomes of three drug treatments. Each drug was given to 20

individuals. The MSE for this analysis was 16. What is the standard deviation for all 60 individuals

sampled for this study?

a. 6.928

b. 48

c. 16

d. 4

30. A fisheries researcher wishes to test for a difference in mean weights of a single species of fish

caught by fishermen in three different lakes in Nova Scotia. The significance level for the test will

be 0.05. Complete the following partial ANOVA table and use it to answer questions 31.1 to 31. 4

Source d.f. SS MS F

Treatment 17.04

Error 9

Total 31.23

30.1 The null hypothesis for this analysis is:

a. Not all the fish populations have the same mean.

b. At least one of the fish populations has a different mean.

c. µ1 = µ2 = µ3

d. µ1 = µ2 = µ3 = 0

e. None of these.

30.2 The value of FDATA for this test is:

a. 8.52

b. 5.39

c. 2.00

d. 0.1854

30.3 The value of FCRIT for this test is:

a. 3.5874

b. 3.8625

c. 3.9824

d. 4.2565

30.4 If you pooled all the individuals from all three lakes into a single group, they would have a standard

deviation of:

a. 1.257

b. 1.580

c. 3.767

d. 14.19

30.5 What is the appropriate interpretation of this test?

a. Reject H0: All three fish populations have different mean weights.

b. Reject H0: Exactly two of the three fish populations have the same means.

c. Reject H0: At least one of the fish populations differs from the others in terms of their

mean weight.

e. Fail to reject H0: The mean weights of the fish in these three populations are the same

d. Fail to reject H0: There is insufficient evidence for differences in mean weights of the

fish from these three populations.

1. In the analysis of variance (ANOVA), a factor is:

a. a. A dependent variable

b. b. A set of related treatments, categories or conditions

c. c. A variable that is confounded or entangled with the independent variable

d. d. A covariate, that is, a variable that correlates with the dependent variable

2.

In the one–factor between subjects (or completely randomised) experiment:

a. a. The ´factor´ is the dependent variable

b. b. Each participant is tested under all conditions

c. c. Participants are randomly assigned to the treatment conditions, and each participant is tested
under only one condition

d. d. The data are records of qualitative characteristics

3.

The one–way (or one–factor between subjects) ANOVA tests the hypothesis that, in the population:

a. a. All the group means have the same value

b. b. The control group mean is different from each of the active treatment means

c. c. The group means do not all have the same value

d. d. All the means have different values

4.

In the analysis of variance (ANOVA), the measure is

a. a. The independent variable in the study

b. b. An extraneous variable that confounds the effects of the independent variable

c. c. The dependent variable in the study

d. d. A covariate

5.
The one–way ANOVA is applicable to an experiment of between subjects design. Which statement is
true?

a. a. The scores from the different treatment groups are uncorrelated

b. b. This type of ANOVA is more power–efficient than the within subjects ANOVA

c. c. The scores from the different treatment groups are correlated

d. d. The possibility of the presence of confounding variables is automatically removed by random

assignment of participants to the treatment conditions

6.

In the statistical model on which the one–way ANOVA is predicated, it is assumed that:

a. In the population, there is homogeneity of variance across treatment groups

b. b. There is always some basis for pairing the scores in any two groups

c. c. Participants under different conditions are tested by different experimenters

d. d. In the population, there is homogeneity of covariance or sphericity

7.

A factor is said to have fixed effects if:

a. a. There are no additional data on covariates

b. The levels that appear in the experiment are theory–driven or exhaust a set of natural categories

c. c. The levels that appear in the experiment are a random sample from a larger pool of possible
conditions

d. d. There are no confounding variables in the design

8.

In the one–way ANOVA:

a. a. The value of the total sum of squares reflects random or error variance alone

b. b. The values of both the between groups and the within groups sums of squares are inflated by
population differences among the group means

c. c. The value of the between groups sum of squares is assumed to reflect population differences
among the group means, plus random or error variance
d. d. The value of the within groups sum of squares is assumed to reflect population differences among
the group means, plus random or error variance

9.

In the one–way ANOVA, the F statistic is used to:

a. a. Measure the average variance across the different treatment groups

b. Compare the between groups and within groups variance estimates

c. c. Measure the magnitude of the within groups or error variance

d. d. Compare the between groups variance estimate with the total variance

11.

The expected value or expectation of a statistic such as F is:

a. a. One minus the actual value of F

b. b. The experimenter´s confidence (expressed as a range of values) that the statistic will have a certain
value

c. c. Its variance with repeated sampling

d. d. Its long run mean value with repeated sampling

13.

In the partition of the total sum of squares, is expressed as the:

a. a. Sum of two component sums of squares, SStotal and SS within

b. b. Sum of the between groups and within groups mean squares Ratio of two component sums of
squares, MS between and MS within

c. c. Difference between two component sums of squares, SS between and SS within

d. d. Ratio of two component sums of squares, SS between and SS within

14.

In the one–way ANOVA, the degrees of freedom of MSbetween is the

a. a. Number of groups minus 1

b. b. Number of groups multiplied by , where n is the sample size

c. c. Number of groups

d. d. Total number of observations minus 1

15.

The sampling distribution of the F statistic:

a. a. Has three parameters: the degrees of freedom of the between groups sum of squares, the degrees
of freedom of the within groups sum of squares and the total number of observations

b. b. Has two parameters: the degrees of freedom of the between groups sum of squares and the
degrees of freedom of the within groups sum of squares

c. c. Has three parameters: the degrees of freedom of the between groups sum of squares, the degrees
of freedom of the within groups sum of squares and the within groups variance

d. d. Has three parameters: the degrees of freedom of the between groups sum of squares, the degrees
of freedom of the within groups sum of squares and the within groups standard deviation

16.

To decide whether an obtained value of F is significant, we must locate the value in the appropriate
sampling distribution, which is specified by the degrees of freedom. The critical region

a. a. Lies above the 5th percentile of the sampling distribution

b. b. Lies below the 95th percentile of the sampling distribution

c. c. Lies above the 95th percentile of the sampling distribution

d. d. Lies below the 5th percentile of the sampling distribution

17.

In the F–ratio for the one–factor, between subjects ANOVA, the error term is

a. a. The numerator of the F ratio

b. b. The mean of the cell variances

c. c. The mean of the cell standard deviations

d. d. The variance of the cell means

18.
Three drugs were tested by selecting four groups of volunteers (10 people in each group) and comparing
the skilled performance of three groups, each on a dosage of one of the drugs, with that of a control
(placebo) group, who had ingested a neutral subst

a. a. The value of F is 6.0

b. b. The value of F is less than 1

c. c. There is insufficient information in the description above and in the table to determine the value of
F

d. d. The value of F is 0.5

19.

It can be seen from the following ANOVA summary table that:

a. a. The groups were of equal size

b. b. There were 199 participants

c. c. The experimental design was of the one factor within subjects type

d. d. Three groups of people participated in the experiment

20.

With data from a two–group between subjects experiment, the difference between the two means can
be tested for significance by either a t test or the ANOVA. Suppose that t = 4. Which of the following
statements is true?

a. a. The value of F is 2, but the p–value is the same as with the t test

b. b. The value of F is 16, but the p–value is double that for the t test

c. c. The value of F is 16, but the p–value is the same as with the t test

d. d. The value of F is 2, but the p–value is double that for the t test

21.

Which statement is true?

a. a. The one–way ANOVA procedure can be accessed through the Compare Means menu and also from
the General Linear Model (GLM) menu

b. b. All the ANOVAs in the SPSS repertoire can be accessed from the Compare Means menu
c. c. The use of the one–way ANOVA procedures in different menus requires different formats for the
data in Data View

d. d. The dialogs and options for the one–way ANOVA are the same, regardless of the menu from which
they have been accessed

22.

In a one–factor completely randomised (between subjects) experiment on the effects of training on

skilled performance, there are six treatment groups (including a control condition) and 20 participants in
each group. Which statement is true?

a. a. The data and information about group membership occupy seven variables in Data View

b. b. The data and information about group membership occupy one variable in Data View

c. c. The independent variable is the participant´s performance score

d. d. The data and information about group membership occupy two variables in Data View

23.

The correlation ratio (eta) is so called because:

a. a. It is a curvilinear correlation

b. b. It is a linear correlation

c. c. It is both a correlation and a ratio

d. d. It measures the association between the dependent variable and a covariate

24.

The value of eta squared:

a. a. Has an upper limit of +1, but no lower limit

b. b. Can vary within the range from zero to 1, inclusive

c. c. Has no finite upper or lower limit

d. d. Can vary within the range from —1 to +1, inclusive

25.

Which statement is true of eta squared?

a. a. It is a negatively biased estimate of effect size in the population

b. b. It is the most recent measure of effect size in the ANOVA to be proposed

c. c. It is a purely descriptive measure of effect size and is likely to show shrinkage with resampling

d. d. It incorporates a correction for shrinkage with resampling and can be regarded as a virtually
unbiased estimate of effect size in the population

26.

The statistic known as omega squared:

a. a. Improves on eta squared by incorporating a correction for negative bias

b. b. Is a purely descriptive measure of effect size and is liable to shrinkage with repeated sampling

c. c. Improves on eta squared by incorporating a correction for positive bias

d. d. Was the first measure of effect size in ANOVA to be proposed

27.

The statistic known as Cohen´s f is:

a. a. Another measure of effect size, defined as the standard deviation of the treatment means in the
population, divided by the error variance

b. b. Identical with omega squared

c. c. Another measure of effect size, defined as the standard deviation of the treatment means in the
population, divided by the error standard deviation

d. d. Identical with eta squared

28.

The purpose of the Tukey tests for making unplanned or post hoc multiple pairwise comparison among
the treatment means is to:

a. a. Overcome the problem of heterogeneity of covariance

b. b. Make the tests more powerful

c. c. Control the familywise Type I error rate

d. d. Overcome the problem of heterogeneity of variance

Question 1.

Refer to Figure 11.6, “Microsoft Excel ANOVA for the parachute example on page 429. At the five percent
level of significance, we know there must be a significant difference between?

Open Hint for Question 1 in a new window.

a. the means of supplier 1 and supplier 2.

b. the means of supplier 1 and supplier 3.
c. the means of supplier 1 and supplier 4.
d. all possible pair-wise comparisons

End of Question 1

Question 2.

Refer to Figure 11.6, “Microsoft Excel ANOVA for the parachute example on page 429. At the five percent
level of significance, the results of the Tukey-Kramer Procedure indicates that there is a significant
difference between?

Open Hint for Question 2 in a new window.

a. the means of suppliers 1 & 2, suppliers 1 & 3, and suppliers 1 & 4.

b. the means of suppliers 1 & 2
c. all possible pair-wise comparisons
d. the means of suppliers 1 & 2, and between suppliers 1 & 3

End of Question 2

Question 3.

The F test for Differences among more than two means is an extension of the

Open Hint for Question 3 in a new window.

 a. Z test for differences between two proportions
b. t test for matched pairs
c. F test for the difference between two population variances
d. t test for the difference between two independent means

End of Question 3

Question 4.

Studies in which more than one factor at a time are simultaneously studied in a single experiment use the

Open Hint for Question 4 in a new window.

a. The Tukey-Kramer procedure

b. completely randomized design
c. Factorial Design
d. One-Way ANOVA

End of Question 4

Question 5.

Each of the following are assumptions underlying the use of the One-Way ANOVA except:

Open Hint for Question 5 in a new window.

a. The samples represent populations whose values follow a normal distribution

b. The samples represent populations with equal variances
c. Each of the above answers represents an actual assumption underlying the use of the One-
Way ANOVA.
d. The samples represent populations whose values are randomly and independently selected

End of Question 5
Question 6.

When conducting the One-Way ANOVA F test, the assumption of “homogeneity of variance” requires that

Open Hint for Question 6 in a new window.

a. groups are randomly selected

b. the sample values in each group are from normal populations
c. the variances of the groups are equivalent.
d. values from one group are independent of those from all others

End of Question 6

Question 7.

When the One-Way ANOVA F test is found to be significant, which statistical method is used as a follow-up
procedure to determine between which means there is a statistically significant difference?

Open Hint for Question 7 in a new window.

a. t test for differences between independent means

b. matched-pairs t test for related means
c. Tukey-Kramer Procedure
d. The Levine Test

End of Question 7

Question 8.
To determine whether or not the data meets the assumption of equal variances, which of the following tests
should be conducted?

Open Hint for Question 8 in a new window.

a. Tukey-Kramer Procedure
b. t test for differences between independent means
c. The Levine Test
d. matched-pairs t test for related means

End of Question 8

Question 9.

The one-way ANOVA is used to test statistical hypotheses concerning:

Open Hint for Question 9 in a new window.

a. group means.
b. standard deviations.
c. variances.
d. mean squares.

End of Question 9

Question 10.

In a one-way ANOVA F test, the "among group" variation is attributable to:

Open Hint for Question 10 in a new window.

a. within-groups variation.
b. experimental error.
c. treatment effects.
 d. unexplained variation.

End of Question 10

Question 11.

In a one-way ANOVA, if the computed F statistic exceeds the critical F value we may:

Open Hint for Question 11 in a new window.

a. reject the null hypothesis since there is evidence all the means differ.
b. reject the null hypothesis since there is evidence of a treatment effect.
c. retain (fail to reject) the null hypothesis since there is no evidence of a difference.
d. retain (fail to reject) the null hypothesis because a mistake has been made.

End of Question 11

Question 12.

Which of the following components in an ANOVA table are not additive?

Open Hint for Question 12 in a new window.

a) Mean squares.
b) It is not possible to tell.
c) Degrees of freedom.
d) Sum of squares.

End of Question 12
Question 13.

The Tukey-Kramer procedure would be used:

Open Hint for Question 13 in a new window.

a. to test independence of errors.

b. to test for homogeneity of variance.
c. to test for normality.
d. to test for pair-wise mean differences

End of Question 13

Question 14.

In order to calculate the F test statistic for a one-way ANOVA experiment, one would perform which of the
following operations?

Open Hint for Question 14 in a new window.

a. SSA/SSW
b. MSW/MSA
c. MSA/MSW
d. SSW/SSA

End of Question 14

Question 15.

The degrees of freedom for the F test in a one-way ANOVA are:

Open Hint for Question 15 in a new window.

 a. (n - c) and (c - 1).
b. (n - 1) and (c - n).
c. (c - n) and (n - 1).
d. (c - 1) and (n - c).

End of Question 15

Question 16.

In a two-way ANOVA the degrees of freedom for the interaction term are:

Open Hint for Question 16 in a new window.

a. (r - 1).
b. rc(n - 1).
c. (r - 1)(c - 1).
d. rcn + 1.

End of Question 16

Question 17.

In a two-way ANOVA the degrees of freedom for the error term are:

Open Hint for Question 17 in a new window.

a. rc(n' - 1).
b. (r - 1).
c. (r - 1)(c - 1).
d. rcn + 1.

End of Question 17
Question 18.

In what way do the One-Way and Two-Way ANOVA designs differ? In a one-way ANOVA,

Open Hint for Question 18 in a new window.

a. one can only test for the treatment effect of a single factor
b. one can only test for the treatment effects of two experimental factors
c. one can test for both the main effects and interactions for two factors.
d. one can only test for the presence of the interaction effect between two experimental
factors.

End of Question 18

Question 19.

Refer to Figure 11.13 on page 443 of your textbook, entitled, “Microsoft Excel cell means plot of tensile
strength based on loom and supplier.” Which interpretation is accurate?

Open Hint for Question 19 in a new window.

a. The average tensile strength appears to be highest for loom number two for Turk, but not
for Jetta.
b. There appears to be a significant difference in average tensile strength between Jetta and
Turk suppliers.
c. There appears to be no significant difference in average tensile strength either by loom or
by supplier.
d. There appears to be no significant difference in average tensile strength between suppliers,
but there is a significant difference in mean tensile strength between looms.

End of Question 19

Question 20.
Refer to Figure 11.15 on page 445 of your textbook, entitled, “Microsoft Excel cell means plot of ACT
scores.” Which interpretation is accurate?

Open Hint for Question 20 in a new window.

a. there appears to be a significant main effect for length of course.

b. there appears to be no interaction effect, but both main effects appear significant
c. there appears to be no significant interaction effect and no significant main effects
d. there appears to be a significant interaction effect, but no significant main effects

Question 1.
ANOVA tests use which of the following distributions?
a. Z
b. F
c. t
d. Chi-square
Question 2.
Which of the following statistical concepts is used to test differences in the means for more than
two independent populations?
a. Regression analysis
b. Confidence interval
c. Analysis of variance
d. Multiple t test
Question 3.
Determining the table value for the F distribution is different than finding values for the t
distribution because the F table requires which of the following?
a. values for alpha and beta
b. no degree of freedom terms
c. one degree of freedom term
d. two degree of freedom terms
Question 4.
The one-way ANOVA is used to test statistical hypotheses concerning which of the following?
a. Variances
b. Means
c. Proportions
d. Standard deviations
Question 5.
In a one-way ANOVA F test, the “among-group” variation is attributable to what source of
variation?

Open Hint for Question 5 in a new window.

a. Experimental error
b. Residual variation
c. Unexplained variation
d. Treatment effects

Question 6.
In a one-way ANOVA, if the computed F value exceeds the critical F value, what decision is
made regarding the null hypothesis?

Open Hint for Question 6 in a new window.

a. Reject H0 since there is evidence of a treatment effect.

b. Do not reject H0 since there is no evidence of a difference.
c. Reject H0 since there is evidence that all means differ.
d. Do not reject H0 because a mistake has been made.

Question 7.
Which of the following ANOVA components are not additive?

Open Hint for Question 7 in a new window.

a. Mean squares
b. Sum of squares
c. Degrees of freedom
d. All of the above are additive
Question 8.
The Tukey-Kramer procedure is used for which of the following purposes?

Open Hint for Question 8 in a new window.

a. Test for independence of errors

b. Test for homogeneity of variance
c. Test for normality
d. Test for differences in pairwise means

Question 9.
Which of the following formulas is used to calculate the F statistic for a one-way ANOVA
experiment?

Open Hint for Question 9 in a new window.

a. MSW/MSA
b. MSA/MSW
c. SSW/SSA
d. SSA/SSW

Question 10.
Which of the following F tests is used in a two-way ANOVA?

Open Hint for Question 10 in a new window.

a. MSB/MSE
b. MSE/MSA
c. MSE/MSAB
d. MSE/MSB
Question 11.
In a two-way ANOVA, how many degrees of freedom exist for the interaction term?

Open Hint for Question 11 in a new window.

a. rc(n – 1)
b. (r – 1)
c. rcn + 1
d. (r – 1)(c – 1)

Question 12.
In a one-way ANOVA, how many degrees of freedom exist for the F test?

Open Hint for Question 12 in a new window.

a.
b. (n – 1) and (c – n)
c. (c – n) and (n – 1)
d. (n – c) and (c – 1)
e. (c – 1) and (n – c)

Question 13.
In a one-way ANOVA, which of the following statements is correct?

Open Hint for Question 13 in a new window.

a. There are multiple interactions.

b. There is no interaction.
c. An interaction can be tested.
d. An interaction is present.
Question 14.
In a two-way ANOVA, how many degrees of freedom are used for the error term?

Open Hint for Question 14 in a new window.

a. rc(n – 1)
b. (r – 1)(c – 1)
c. (r – 1)
d. rcn + 1

Question 15.
A completely randomized design has 3 different treatments and a total of 30 measurements in the
study. For alpha = 0.0.5, which of the following indicates the critical F value?

Open Hint for Question 15 in a new window.

a. 4.24
b. 39.46
c. 19.45
d. 3.35

Question 1.

What are the two types of variance which can occur in your data?

a. Repeated and extraneous

b. Experimenter and participant
c. Between or within groups
d. Personal and interpersonal
Question 2.

What do ANOVA calculate?

a. Z-scores
b. R ratios
c. Mann Whitney
d. F ratios
e. Chi square
f. T-scores

End of Question 2

Question 3.

How many levels must there be in one independent variable for an ANOVA to be used?

a. 2
b. 6
c. 1
d. 3
e. 5
f. 4

End of Question 3

Question 4.

How many dependent variables must you have for an ANOVA to be conducted?

a) None of these
b) 3 ordinal variables
c) 3 ratio variables
d) 2 nominal variables
e) Only 1 continuous variable
f) 3 interval variables

End of Question 4

Question 5.
Which of the following assumptions must be met to use an ANOVA?

a. Random sampling of cases must have taken place

b. There is only one dependent variable
c. There is homogeneity of variance
d. The data must be normally distributed
e. All of these
f. The dependent variable must be interval or ratio

End of Question 5

Question 6.

What must a Levene's test be in order to use an ANOVA?

a. A Levene's statistic of above 0.05

b. Non-significant at or above p > 0.05
c. Non-significant at p < 0.01
d. Non-significant at p < 0.001
e. Significant at p < 0.01
f. Significant at p < 0.001

End of Question 6

Question 7.

Where would you look on an ANOVA output to determine if there is an overall significant difference?

a.
b. None of these
c. The Sig. column of the multiple comparisons
d. The Sig. column of the Levene's test
e. The Sig. column of the ANOVA table
f. Descriptive statistics box
g. Confidence intervals column

End of Question 7

Question 8.

What would you use to determine whether significant differences were observed between all levels of your
independent variable?
 a. Descriptive statistics
b. Box-plots
c. Post-hoc tests
d. Confidence intervals
e. Histograms
f. F statistic

End of Question 8

Question 9.

What must you include when reporting an ANOVA?

a. Degrees of freedom
b. F statistic
c. All of these
d. P value
e. Means
f. Standard deviations

End of Question 9

Question 10.

How many independent and dependent variables are there in a One-Way Within Groups ANOVA?

a. 1 independent variable and 3 dependent variables

b. 1 independent variable and 1 dependent variable
c. 2 independent variables and 1 dependent variable
d. 3 independent variable and 2 dependent variable
e. None of these
f. 1 independent variable and 2 dependent variable

End of Question 10

Question 11.

In which column would you find the F statistic in a One-Way Within Groups ANOVA output?

In the last row of the pairwise comparisons box

 a. Partial eta squared column
b. Sig. column of the tests of within-subjects effects box
c. F column of the tests of within-subjects effects box
d. Sig. column of the pairwise comparisons box
e. In the error row

End of Question 11

Question 12.

What does partial eta squared tell us?

a. If homogeneity has been established

b. If data from the dependent variable is normally distributed
c. If there is a significant difference between groups
d. How much of the variance in the dependent variable can be accounted for by the
independent variable
e. All of these
f. How much of the variance in the independent variable can be accounted for by the
dependent variable

End of Question 12

Question 13.

How many dependent variables are there in a two-way ANOVA?

a.
b. 1
c. 3
d. 6
e. 2
f. 4
g. 5

End of Question 13

Question 14.

What are the two types of effects you must be able to identify from an ANOVA?

Main effects and serendipitous findings

 a. None of these
b. Explorative and intentional
c. Expected and error
d. Main effects and interactions
e. Intentional effects and accidental findings

End of Question 14

Question 15.

What type of MANOVA would be used with more than one dependent variable and one independent variable
with only two dichotomous levels?

a.
b. Factorial
c. Levene's
d. Bonferroni
e. Two-way
f. Hotelling's T
g. One-way

End of Question 15

Question 16.

What type of MANOVA would be used with more than one dependent variable and one independent variable
with more than two levels?

a. Levene's
b. One-way
c. Hotellings T
d. Two-way
e. Bonferroni
f. Factorial

End of Question 16

Question 17.

What type of MANOVA would be used with more than one dependent variable and more than one
independent variable which all have more than two levels?

One-way
 a. Hotellings T
b. You would not use a MANOVA
c. Bonferroni
d. Two-way
e. Factorial

End of Question 17

Question 18.

What assumptions must be met for a MANOVA to be used?

a. You must have more cases in each cell than your number of dependent variables
b. There is homogeneity of variance
c. The data must be normally distributed
d. There must be more than one dependent variable
e. The dependent variable data must be interval or ratio
f. All of these

End of Question 18

Question 19.

In which section of a MANOVA output would you find the test of covariance matrices?

a. The multiple comparisons box

b. The Box's test section
c. The multivariate tests box
d. The levene's test section
e. The within-subjects effects box
f. The between-subjects effects box

End of Question 19

Question 20.

Which box of a MANOVA output will tell you exactly where the differences in your data arose?

a. The tests of between-subjects effects box

b. The Levene's test box
 c. The multivariate test box
d. The descriptive statistics tables
e. Nowhere, you must conduct post-hoc comparisons separately
f. The Box's test section

1. What do ANOVA calculate?

a) T-Ratio

b) Chi square

c) Z-Ratio

d) F-ratio

2. In one-way ANOVA, which of the following is used within the F-ratio as a measurement of thevariance
of individual observations?

a) MSG

b) MSE

c) SSE

d) SSG

3. 2-way ANOVA involves how many independent factors?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) n- factor

4. There are set(s) of null hypothesis with the two-way ANOVA?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) N set

5. The within variance Is associated with

a) Treatment group
c) Interaction group

b) Error group

d) Main group

6. If the calculated F-value is with the value from f-table, the null hypothesis isrejected

.a) <

b) >

c) =

d) none

7.In the analysis of variance (ANOVA), a factor is:

a) A dependent variable

b) A set of related treatments, categories or conditions

c) A variable that is confounded or entangled with the independent variable d) none

8. ANOVA is the actually comparison of _________????

a) mean

b) St. Deviation

c) Variance d)None

9.ANOVA is invented by ______???

a) Rutherford

b) J.J Thomson

c) R.A Fisher

d) Stephen

10. The one-way (or one-factor between subjects) ANOVA tests the hypothesis that, in thepopulation

a) All the group means have the same value

b) All the group means don’t have the same value

c) All the means have different values

d) Grand means is different as of sample means

11.
The expected value or expectation of a statistic such as F is:

A) One minus the actual value of F

b) The experimenter’s confidence that the statistic will have a certain value

c) Its variance with repeated sampling

d) Its long run mean value with repeated sampling

12. ANOVA is the abbrivation of __________.

a) Analysis of Hypothesis

b) Analysis of Co variance

c) Analysis of Variance

d) None

13.

As the number of t-tests increases the probability of making an error

a) Increases

b) decreases

c) remains same

d )None

14.What are the assumptions of ANOVA

a) normally distributed population

b) means may equal or not equal

c) equal variance

d) All of above

15. What are the two types of variance which can occur in your data?

a) Independent and cofounding

b) Between or within groups

c) Experimenter and participant

d) Repeated and extraneous

1. A teacher practices the different teaching methods on different groups in her class to see

which yields the best results. In this example, a treatment is

a) Teacher

b) Class

c) Different teaching methods

d) Different groups

2. A term referring to the amount of balancing, blocking and grouping of the experimental

units is

a) Local control

b) Spurious effect

c) Systematic error

d) Extraneous factor

6. If the total degrees of freedom and between treatments in a completely randomized

design are 15 and 4 respectively, the degrees of freedom for error will be

a) 11

b) 14

c) 18

d) 19

7. The null hypothesis in a completely randomized design is

a) All treatment means are equal.

b) Not all treatment means are equal.

c) Addition of all treatment means is equal to 1.

d) Subtraction of all treatment means is equal to

11. In a Randomized Complete Block design, the randomization is restricted in

a) One direction

b) Two directions

c) Three directions

d) No restriction

12. If there are 6 treatments with 3 blocks in a Randomized Complete Block Design (RCBD) then the

degrees of freedom for error are

a) 3

b) 6

c) 10

d) 15

16. If there are 4 treatments and 4 blocks contain one missing observation in RCBD, then the
error degrees of freedom is

a) 2

b) 4

c) 6

d) 8
21. For a 6x6 Latin Square design there will be observations

a) 6

b) 12

c) 24

d) 36

22. For a Latin Square design, the SSE can be obtained using the formula

a) SSE=SST+SSTr+SSR+SSC

b) SSE=SST-SSTr-SSR-SSC

c) SSE=SST-SSTr+SSR+SSC

d) SSE=SST+SSTr-SSR-SSC
In a Randomized Complete Block design, the randomization is restricted in

a) One direction

b) Two directions

c) Three directions

d) No restriction

If there are 7 treatments with 4 blocks in a Randomized Complete Block Design (RCBD) then the degrees
of freedom for error are

a) 19

b) 18

c) 20

d) 25

6 If there are 8 treatments and 4 blocks contain one missing observation in RCBD, then the error
degrees of freedom is

a) 22

b) 20

c) 26

d) 28

7. The formula to find out the missing observation in Randomized Complete Block design is

a)

b)

c)

d)

1. The logical construction of the experiment to test the hypothesis in which a researcher either
eontrals or maipulates

Experimental design

filament varabie

Classification variable
dependent variable

2. The in a variable which is controlled or modified by a researcher in the experiment

Independent valabile

ciataifcalon variate

Treatment variable

natment variable

3.The smallest division of the experimental material tu which treatments are applied and skservations
are made, islare refered to as the

dependent

classification variable

petal units

Experimental units

4.The is a technique of using a hypothesis about the significant difference in several population mean
ast

ANOVA

F Test

5. Thecontains only one Independent variable with two or more meetment levels or classification.

contingency table

completely randomized design

randomized block design

factorial design

6. In the completely randomized design, variance between the samples can be attributed to treatment
foto and variance within group can be attributed to

experimental error

dependent variable independent variable

classification variable
7.In the completely randomized design, the variance between columns measures the difference
between the

sample mean, grand mean

sample variance, population variance

sample standard deviation, population standard deviation

sample statistics, population parameter

8: In the completely randomized design the variance within columna (samples) measures the difference
within the sample

difference due to

sampling error

coverage

chance

In the one-way ANOVA the test statistic is defined as

F = SSC/SSE

F = SSC/MSE

F = MSC/MSE

F = MSC/SSE

The s a variable which a researcher wants to control but is not a treatment variable of interest

blocking variable

classification variable

factor variable

isolated variable

12 In the randomized block design sum of squares within samples (SSE) can be parutioned in two parts

SSC and SSE

SST and SSE

SSR and SST

SSR and SSE

13 In some of the real life situations, a researcher han to explore two referred to as the

contingency table

randomized block design

factorial design

completely randomized design

The factorial design provides an opportunity to study of two treatment variable

interaction effect

joint effect

combined effect

separate effect

76. In RCBD we may assume that the treatment are fixed and the blocks are random, such a model is
called

A. Random effect model.

B. Mixed effect model.

C. Rare effect model.

D. Fixed effect model.

77. The simplest type of the basic designs.

A. CRD.

B. RCBD.

C. ANOCOVA.

D. BCR

78. A design in which the treatments are assigned to the experimental unit completely at random.
 A. ANOCOVA.

B. RCBD.

C. CRD.

D. BCR.

79. CRD gives accurate information if all the experimental units present in the experiment are

A. Heterogeneous.

B. Homogeneous.

C. Not clear

D. Clear

80. Sometimes we are required to compare several population means simultaneously. This is also
possible by using

A. GLSD.

B. Two sample t- test.

C. Regression equation.

D. Multinomial distribution.

81. CRD is very simple.

A. But not easily laid out.

B. And easily laid out.

C. But gives biased result.

D. And unbiased

82. If in the CRD some observations are missing then also the analysis is very simple, because the
missing observations are discarded and carry out the experiment without losing the

A. Efficiency of the design.

B. Degree of freedom.

C. Confidentiality.
D. Sufficiency of the design.

83. CRD provides maximum number of degree of freedom for the

A. Sum of squares.

B. Error sum of squares.

C. Experiment.

D. Calculations.

84. In CRD due to the maximum number of degree of freedom, the experimental error is

A. Increased.

B. Remained the same.

C. Not remained the same.

D. Reduced.

85. Completely flexible design i.e. any number of treatments and any number of units per treatment
may be used

A. GLSD.

B. LSD.

C. CRD.

D. RCBD.

86. In the design the numbers of units per treatment need not to be equal.

A. GLSD.

B. LSD.

C. CRD.

D. RCBD.
87. -------------- is also considered to be most useful when the experiments are small such as laboratory
experiments.

A. GLSD.

B. CRD.

C. LSD.

D. RCBD.

88. Design is not useful when the experimental units are heterogeneous.

A. GLSD.

B. LSD.

C. RCBD.

D. CRD.

89. This design is applicable for small number of treatments, because if the numbers of treatments are
increased, increase also occurs in the experimental units, due to which heterogeneity occurs.

A. GLSD.

B. LSD.

C. CRD.

D. RCBD.

90 In case of one source of variation CRD is not applicable but

A. GLSD is used.

B. LSD is used.

C. CRD is used.

D. RCBD is used.
91. Assumptions underlying ANOVA

(i) Normality (ii) Homogeneity (iii) Additivity and

A. Independence etc.

B. Interaction etc.

C. Correlation.

D. Regression.

92. In some experiments situation it is inconvenient to measure yield on the entire experimental unit.
In this case we use the method of

A. Rank correlation.

B. Sub sampling.

C. Interpolation.

D. Extrapolation.

93. Let us suppose we give some quality of diet (treatments) to individuals (experimental units) ,we
are interested to measure that the diet having some significant effect on the blood level of individuals or
not. So in this case we cannot take all the blood of the individual but we take some sample from the
experimental unit (i.e. drops of blood) randomly and carry out the experiment and the result is then
generalized for whole experimental units. This is

A. Rank correlation.

B. Interpolation.

C. Sub sampling.

D. Extrapolation.

94. Let us suppose there is a factory which produces different types of cloths. Now we are interested to
test the chemical effect on all types of cloths. In such a situation we do not takes one or two bundles but
we take one or two feet cloth from each of the type. The chemical effect is tested on one or two feet
cloth and the result is then generalized for all the cloths. This is

A. Rank correlation.
B. Sub sampling.

C. Interpolation.

D. Extrapolation.

95. Whenever experiment involves sub sampling, there are two types of variability in the experimental
error i.e. εijk and δijk.

(i) δijk i.e. variation among sampling units within the experimental units.

(ii) εijk i.e. variation among experimental units

A. On the same treatment.

B. On the different treatment.

C. Selected treatment.

D. Randomly selected treatment.

96. We know that F- test is used in the ANOVA. But we do not know that what ratio should be used to
test the hypothesis and this can be done with the help of

A. Test statistics.

B. CRLB.

C. Expected mean square.

D. Estimator.

97. (i) it gives us the estimate of variance components.

(ii) it gives us information about the future planning.

(iii) it provides us a test- statistic i.e. it gives an idea that which test should be used for testing the
given hypothesis. The above statements are advantages of

A. Hypothesis.

B. Estimation.

C. Expected mean square.

D. CRLB.
98. RCBD is modified form of

A. GLSD.

B. ICBD.

C. RCD.

D. ANCOVA.

99. (i) The experimental material is divided into groups or blocks in such a manner that the
experimental units within a particular block are relatively homogeneous.

(ii) Each block contains a complete set of treatments i.e. it is constitute complete set of treatments.

(iii) The treatments are assigned at random to the experimental units within each block.

A. Analysis of variance (ANOVA).

B. A randomized complete block design (RCBD)

C. ANCOVA.

D. CRLB.

100. In RCBD all the restrictions are imposed only on

A. Complete blocking.

B. Random blocking.

C. Averaging.

D. Calculations.

1. A block is said to be complete if the number of experimental units is equal number of

treatments to be used in the

A. Experiment.

B. Hypothesis.

C. Blocks.
D. RCBD.

2. In case of RCBD, Each treatment will occur only once in each

A. Experiment.

B. Line.

C. Block.

D. Sample.

3. We make groups in RCD which will become

A. GLSD.

B. ICBD.

C. ANCOVA.

D. RCBD.

4. In case of RCBD, Blocks should be made orthogonal of

A. Variation

B. Treatment.

C. Standard error.

D. Experimental units.

5. The purpose of RCBD is to control a source of variation in the

A. Treatments.

B. Distribution.

C. System.

D. Experimental material.

6. The most frequently used experimental design

A. RCD
B. RCBD

C. GLSD.

D. ICBD.

7. Statistical analysis in case of RCBD is relatively simple but not simple than

A. SPD.

B. PCBD.

C. SSPD.

D. CRD.

8. In RCBD blocking can increase precision by removing one source of variation form the

A. Experimental unit.

B. Treatments.

C. Design.

D. Factors

9. RCBD is easy to adjust for

A. Large values.

B. Very small values.

C. Outliners.

D. Missing observation.

10. Design is flexible i.e. any number of treatments and any number of replication may be used.

A. CRD.

B. RCBD.

C. SPD.

D. SSPD.
11. A part of experiment is damaged by agriculture disaster like flood, salinity or water lagging etc,
one or two blocks can be discarded without destroyed the entire experiment.

A. SPD.

B. PCBD.

C. RCBD.

D. CRD.

12. By means of grouping a part of predictable and un- predictable sampling variation are reduced
from the experimental error that is why the result obtained with RCBD are usually more accurate than

A. CRD.

B. PCBD.

C. SSPD.

D. SPD .

13. In two source of variation RCBD is

A. Efficient.

B. Less efficient.

C. Not efficient.

D. Very efficient.

14. When data is missing in RCBD then it causes difficulty in the

A. Early stage.

B. End.

C. Analysis.

D. Start.

15. The wrong assignment of treatments to bock also create problem in the

A. Early stage.

B. End.
 C. Start.

D. Analysis.

16. If the number of treatments is very large, the size of block will increase and increase in the block
size may produce

A. Heterogeneity.

B. Homogeneity.

C. Confusion.

D. Simplicity.

17. In RCBD we lose some

A. Information.

B. Degree of freedom.

C. Values.

D. Statistics

18 If there are two sources of variations we introduce

A. RCBD.

B. GLSD.

C. Latin square design.

D. Split plot design.

19. Here we make two blocks. The row wise variation is controlled by making column wise block and
similarly the column wise variation is controlled by row wise blocking.

A. RCBD.

B. GLSD.

C. Latin square design.

D. Split plot design.

20. In case of LSD, each row and each column should be a complete

A. Column.

B. Block.

C. Row.

D. Design.

21. In case of LSD, must occur once and only once in each row and each column.

A. Each treatment.

B. Observation.

C. Sampling unit.

D. Experimental material.

22. In LSD the number of treatment, rows and columns are

A. Seldom equal

B. Usually equal.

C. Equal.

D. Unequal.

23. As in case of LSD, experiment is laid out in a specific pattern, therefore the word

A. Latin is used.

B. Square is used.

C. Design.

D. experiment is used.
24. The word “Latin” is used due to Euler who used Latin letters for symbols of

A. Factors.

B. Levels.

C. Observations.

D. Treatments.

25. A Latin square in which the treatments in the first row and in the first column are arranged in
alphabetical order or numerical order.

A. Simple Latin square.

B. A standard Latin square.

C. Partial Latin square.

D Double Latin square.

The F ratio in a completely randomized ANOVA is the ratio of

X MST/MSE

X MSE/MSTR

X MSE/MST

? MSTR/MSE

The critical F value with 8 numerator and 6 denominator degrees of freedom at a = .05 is

X 3.58

X 4.88

? 4.15

X none of the above

The ANOVA procedure is a statistical approach for determining whether or not the
 ? means of two samples are equal

? means of more than two samples are equal

? means of two or more populations are equal

? none of the above

The variable of interest in an ANOVA procedure is called

? a factor

? a treatment

? either a or b

? none of the above

An ANOVA procedure is applied to data obtained from 5 samples, where each sample contains 9
observations. The degrees of freedom for the critical value of F are

? 5 numerator and 9 denominator degrees of freedom

? 4 numerator and 8 denominator degrees of freedom

? 45 degrees of freedom

? 4 numerator and 40 denominator degrees of freedom

In the ANOVA, treatment refers to

? experimental units

? different levels of a factor

? a factor

? none of the above

The mean square is the sum of squares divided by

? the total number of observations

 ? its corresponding degrees of freedom - 1

? its corresponding degrees of freedom

? none of the above

In factorial designs, the response produced when the treatments of one factor interact with the
treatments of another in influencing the response variable is known as

? the main effect

? interaction

? none of the above

An experimental design where the experimental units are randomly assigned to the treatments is known
as

? factor block design

? completely randomized design

? none of the above

The number of times each experimental condition is observed in a factorial design is known as

? replication

? the experimental condition

? none of the above

We can use use ANOVA to test the equality of two or more means.

True

False

Neither

Huh? . . what's ANOVA?

2
What is meant by a replication of an experiment?

A complete performance of the experiment. That is, every treatment possibility is applied.

Only some of the treatments are applied.

Neither

Does the picture below suggest that we have a significant result for differences between treatments.

Does the picture below suggest that we have a significant result for differences between treatments.

True. . it's obvious one of the means must be different

False. . the means all seem to fall within the spread of the data. . it would be difficult to tell them apart.

In a completely randomized experiment all of the runs are made in random order.

True

False

Why randomize the application of treatments in the first place?

There is no reason to randomize. We do it because we're told to do it.

Randomization reduces bias by equalising other factors that have not been explicitly accounted for in
the experimental design.

Sometimes factor that are unknown can play a role, and randomization breaks any dependence
between these factors, so their effect is negligible.

1 and 2 options both.

In a fixed effect experiments, the treatments are chosen at random.

False
 True

The basic anova identity is shown below.

The basic anova identity is shown below.

False

True

Which is the correct value for the expected value of the mean square of the error?

Which is the correct value for the expected value of the mean square of the error?

If the F-statistic in a single-factor ANOVA is significant this indicates that all of the means being
compared are different.

True

False

Neither

10

According to the data given below, what is the value of the F statistic?

According to the data given below, what is the value of the F statistic?

10/50

50/10=5

Something else

11
In the picture below, does it seem that the results of the should be significant or not? That is, does it
seem that at least one of the treatment means is different from the others?

In the picture below, does it seem that the results of the should be significant or not? That is, does it
seem that at least one of the treatment means is different from the others?

Yes. . it seems so. .

No. . it doesn't seem so

I don't know. . how do I tell?

12

In the single-factor ANOVA model, the mean of treatment i is the sum of the grand mean and the ith
treatment effect. Is the picture below correct?

In the single-factor ANOVA model, the mean of treatment i is the sum of the grand mean and the ith
treatment effect. Is the picture below correct?

Yes

No

13

In the picture below, what exactly is the factor and what are the treatment levels and the response?

In the picture below, what exactly is the factor and what are the treatment levels and the response?

The etch rate is the factor and the levels of etch rate are the response

The power is the factor and the settings of power are the treatment levels and the etch rate is the
response

Neither of these is correct

14

In the picture below, we see one one replicate of the experiment highlited.

In the picture below, we see one one replicate of the experiment highlited.

True. . one power setting. . several measurements

False. . only 1 power setting is used instead of all

15
In the picture below, we see one full replicate of the experiment highlited

In the picture below, we see one full replicate of the experiment highlited

True. . all the power setting are applied

False. . this picture doesn't show one full replicate

16

In the picture, how many runs are in the red box? How many deviations from this treatment mean? How
many degrees of freedom for error under this treatment?

In the picture, how many runs are in the red box? How many deviations from this treatment mean? How
many degrees of freedom for error under this treatment?

There is one mean to be calculated for this level . . 5 runs, so 4 degrees of freedom with respect to this
treatment level mean

5 runs. . so four deviations from this treatment level mean. . and the 5th is forced

Both of the above are accurate

Neither of answers 1 or 2 works

17

In the picture on the left, we see 3 runs under level 1 of the factor. This means there is a mean and
consequently 2 degrees of freedom for error with respect to this mean. We have 4 all together.

In the picture on the left, we see 3 runs under level 1 of the factor. This means there is a mean and
consequently 2 degrees of freedom for error with respect to this mean. We have 4 all together.

True

False

Something else

18

In the picture we see 6 data points, and 1 grand mean. This means we can calculate 5 deviations from
this mean the 6 is forced by the values of the first 5. So we have only 5 degrees of freedom.

In the picture we see 6 data points, and 1 grand mean. This means we can calculate 5 deviations from
this mean the 6 is forced by the values of the first 5. So we have only 5 degrees of freedom.

False
 True

19

Is the picture shown on the left correct or incorrent?

Is the picture shown on the left correct or incorrent?

Correct

Incorrect

20

In the table below, if I increase n, what happens to the number of dots in a scatter diagram at every
treatment level? Do the dots increase in number vertically or horizontally?

In the table below, if I increase n, what happens to the number of dots in a scatter diagram at every
treatment level? Do the dots increase in number vertically or horizontally?

It goes down vertically

The dots increase in number. . more appear at every level vertically

Nothing happens. . there is no connection between scatter points and n

21

If I increase a in the table below, what will happen to the number of dots in a scatter diagram? Will the
increase come from adding dots vertically at every level or horizontally WITH new levels?

If I increase a in the table below, what will happen to the number of dots in a scatter diagram? Will the
increase come from adding dots vertically at every level or horizontally WITH new levels?

Nothing

It will go down

It will go up as we add levels. . horizontally

22

Which picture, the left or right, shows the correct groupings in terms of the definition of a replicate of
an experiment?

Which picture, the left or right, shows the correct groupings in terms of the definition of a replicate of
an experiment?

Left
 Right

Neither

23

If in the table below, I increase n, will the degrees of freedom for error increase or decrease? Is the total
variabiilty in the data affected? Are the degrees of freedom for treatments affected?

If in the table below, I increase n, will the degrees of freedom for error increase or decrease? Is the total
variabiilty in the data affected? Are the degrees of freedom for treatments affected?

No clue

Freedom degrees for error increase, treatment degrees go down, total variability stays the same

Freedom degrees increaes, treatment degrees are constant, total variability increases

24

In the table below, if we change the number of dots in the scatter diagram per level from let's, say, 3 to
5, which of the following will happen?

In the table below, if we change the number of dots in the scatter diagram per level from let's, say, 3 to
5, which of the following will happen?

Treatment means will change. . so SSTreatment will change. . and so will the MStreatment. . and so
will the F ratio. . total variability will change

Nothing will happen. .

Most of the change will be in the error

Some but not of all the things in the first option will happen

25

If in the picture below, I change the number of levels from, let's say 2 to 3, what will happen ?

If in the picture below, I change the number of levels from, let's say 2 to 3, what will happen ?

Df for treatments will increase, the grand mean will change, the SStreatments will change, the
MSsquaretreatments will change and the F test will chan

Nothing will happen. .

Some of the things in option 1 will occur

Something else will happen

26

Below is a correctly completed table for one factor randomized experiment.

Below is a correctly completed table for one factor randomized experiment.

True

False

27

Below is a correctly completed table for a one factor randomized experiment with blocking.

Below is a correctly completed table for a one factor randomized experiment with blocking.

True

False

28

Why is repeated measures given the name it's given?

Because we run multiple replicates

Because one person, let's say, gets the same treatment multiple times

Some other reason not listed here

29

If we have 2 factors and two levels per factors, what kind of experiment is this?

2^2

None of the above

30

If we have 2^3 experiment, what does this mean and we run 10 replicates, what's the result?

2 factors, 3 levels per factor, 60 runs

3 factors, 2 levels per factor, 80 runs

It's neither of the above
1. Which unit is responsible for converting the data received from the user into computer
understandable format?

a) Memory Unit

b) Arithmetic & Logic Unit

c) Input Unit

d) Output Unit ----

Answer: c

3. The smallest unit of data in computer is ________________

a) Byte

b) Nibble

c) Bit

d) KB ----

Answer: c

4. One nibble is equivalent to how many bits?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 8

d) 1

Answer: b

5. Which of the following describes the correct format of an input instruction?

a) IN 82

b) INPUT 82

c) INP 82

d) 82 INP ----

Answer: a

6. The input machine which originated in the United States around 1880s is a ___________
a) Mouse

b) Joystick

c) Keyboard

d) Bar Code Reader ----

Answer: c

8. 1 yottabyte = ______________

a) 1024 TB

b) 1024 EB

c) 1024 ZB

d) 1024 PB ----

Answer: c

9. Which of the following is not a function of the Input Unit?

a) It reads instructions and data from the outside world.

b) It converts the data into computer acceptable format.

c) It makes the data into user understandable format.

d) It supplies the data and instructions to the computer for further processing. ----

Answer: c

10. Label the parts 1 and 2:

a) 1.ALU

2. MU

b) 1.Output unit 2.Input Unit

c) 1.MU 2. ALU

d) 1.Input Unit 2.Output Unit ----

Answer: d
1. The process of producing useful information for the user is called ___________

a) Controlling

b) Outputting

c) Inputting

d) Processing ----

Answer: b

2. The output unit coverts the data entered by the user into computer understandable form.

a) True

b) False ----

Answer: b

3. VDU stands for __________

a) Virtual Display Unit

b) Visual Display Unit

c) Virtual Detection Unit

d) Visual Detection Unit ----

Answer: b

4. What does SVGA stands for?

a) Standard Visual Graphics Array

b) Super Visual Graphics Array

c) Standard Video Graphics Array

d) Super Video Graphics Array ----

Answer: d

5. The devices that used to give single or multiple colored images and drawings are ____________

a) Monitors

b) Printers
c) Plotters

d) VDUs ----

Answer: c

6. A special request originated from some device to the CPU to acquire some of its time is called
___________

a) Disturbance

b) Attenuation

c) Interrupt

d) Noise ----

Answer: c

7. Line Printers that print one line at a time are _________

a) Laser Printers

b) Inkjet Printers

c) Drum Printers

d) Chain Printers ----

Answer: c

8. A ___________________ monitor looks like a television and are normally used with non-portable
computer systems.

a) CRT

b) LCD

c) LED

d) Flat Panel Monitors ----

Answer: a

9. Which of the following is not a function of the Output Unit?

a) It produces results that can be easily understood by the user

b) It accepts the results produced by the computer

c) It supplies the data and instructions to the outside world

d) It supplies the data and instructions to the computer for further processing ----

Answer: d

10. PCI stands for _________

a) Peripheral Component Interconnect

b) Partial Component Interconnect

c) Peripheral Component Interaction

d) Partial Component Interaction ----

Answer: a

1. Components that provide internal storage to the CPU are ______

a) Registers

b) Program Counters

c) Controllers

d) Internal chips ----

Answer: a

2. Saving data and instructions to make them readily available is the job of __________

a) Storage Unit

b) Cache Unit

c) Input Unit

d) Output Unit ----

Answer: a

3. The two basic types of memory in a computer are ________

a) Primary and major

b) Primary and Secondary

c) Minor and Major

d) Main and virtual ----

Answer: b

4. Which of the following is used to hold running program instructions?

a) Primary Storage

b) Virtual Storage

c) Internal Storage

d) Minor Devices ----

Answer: a

5. Which of the following is non-volatile storage?

a) Backup

b) Secondary

c) Primary

d) Cache ----

Answer: b

6. Which of the following is used in main memory?

a) SRAM

b) DRAM

c) PRAM

d) DDR ----

Answer: b

7. Which of the following are types of ROMs?

a) SROM & DROM

b) PROM & EPROM

c) Only one type there is no further classification

d) PROM & EROM ----

Answer: b

8. RAID stands for __________

a) Redundant array of independent disks

b) Redundant array of individual disks

c) Reusable Array of independent disks

d) Reusable array of individual disks ----

Answer: a

9. A non-erasable disk that stores digitized audio information is _____

a) CD

b) CD-ROM

c) DVD-R

d) DVD-RW ----

Answer: a

10. The first practical form of Random Access Memory was the __________

a) SSEM

b) Cathode Ray Tube

c) William’s Tube

d) Thomas’s Tube ----

Answer: c

1. The ‘heart’ of the processor which performs many different operations _____________

a) Arithmetic and logic unit

b) Motherboard

c) Control Unit

d) Memory ----

Answer: a
3. Which of the following is not a bitwise operator?

a) |

b) ^

c) .

d) << ----

Answer: c

4. The sign magnitude representation of -1 is __________

a) 0001

b) 1110

c) 1000

d) 1001 ----

Answer: d

5. IEEE stands for ___________

a) Instantaneous Electrical Engineering

b) Institute of Emerging Electrical Engineers

c) Institute of Emerging Electronic Engineers

d) Institute of Electrical and electronics engineers ----

Answer: d

6. The ALU gives the output of the operations and the output is stored in the ________

a) Memory Devices

b) Registers

c) Flags

d) Output Unit ----

Answer: b

7. The process of division on memory spaces is called ______________

a) Paging

b) Segmentation

c) Bifurcation

d) Dynamic Division ----

Answer: b

8. Number of bits in ALU is _________

a) 4

b) 8

c) 16

d) 2 ----

Answer: c

9. Which flag indicates the number of 1 bit that results from an operation?

a) Zero

b) Parity

c) Auxiliary

d) Carry ----

Answer: b

10. The bitwise complement of 0 is ___________

a) 00000001

b) 10000000

c) 11111111

d) 11111110 ----

Answer: c

1. ____________ is the raw material used as input and __________ is the processed data obtained as
output of data processing.

a) Data, Instructions
b) Instructions, Program

c) Data, Program

d) Program, Code ----

Answer: a

2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a computer?

a) Diligence

b) I.Q.

c) Accuracy

d) Versatility ----

Answer: b

3. Fill in the blank in the diagram.

a) Input Unit

b) Memory Unit

c) Control Unit

d) I/O Unit ----

Answer: c

4. The part of a processor which contains hardware necessary to perform all the operations required by
a computer:

a) Data path

b) Controller

c) Registers

d) Cache ----

Answer: a

5. What does MAR stand for?

a) Main Address Register

b) Memory Access Register

c) Main Accessible Register

d) Memory Address Register ----

Answer: d

6. If the control signals are generated by combinational logic, then they are generated by a type of
_______________ controlled unit.

a) Micro programmed

b) Software

c) Logic

d) Hardwired ----

Answer: d

7. Which is the simplest method of implementing hardwired control unit?

a) State Table Method

b) Delay Element Method

c) Sequence Counter Method

d) Using Circuits ----

Answer: a

8. A set of microinstructions for a single machine instruction is called ___________

a) Program

b) Command

c) Micro program

d) Micro command ----

Answer: c

9. Micro-program consists of a set of microinstructions which are strings of 0s and 1s.

a) True

b)False ----

Answer: a
10. A decoder is required in case of a ______________

a) Vertical Microinstruction

b) Horizontal Microinstruction

c) Multilevel Microinstruction

d) All types of microinstructions ----

Answer: a

1. The value of base in a decimal number system is ____________

a) 8

b) 2

c) 10

d) 16 ----

Answer: c

2. Convert : (110)2 = ( __ )10 .

a) 4

b) 5

c) 6

d) 9 ----

Answer: c

3. The 2’s complement of 15 is ____________

a) 0000

b) 0001

c) 0010

d) 0100 ----

Answer: b

4. Another name for base is __________

a) root

b) radix

c) entity

d) median ----

Answer: b

5. The decimal equivalent of (0.101)2 will be ____________

a) 0.5

b) 0.625

c) 0.25

d) 0.875 ----

Answer: b

6.The signed magnitude for -3 will be ___________

a) 00000011

b) 10000011

c) 11111101

d) 11111100 ----

Answer: b

7. A number with both integer and a fractional part has digits raised to both positive and negative
powers of 2 in a decimal number system.

a) True

b) False ----

Answer: b

8. The hexadecimal representation of 14 is _______________

a) A

b) F

c) D
d) E ----

Answer: d

9. Which of the following is not a decimal number?

a) 114

b) 43.47

c) 99.9A

d) 10101 ----

Answer: c

10. Select the incorrect option :

a) (101)10 = (1100101)2

b) G is valid in hexadecimal system.

c) C represents 12

d) The base of a decimal number system is 10. ----

Answer: b

1. Which of the following is not a positional number system?

a) Roman Number System

b) Octal Number System

c) Binary Number System

d) Hexadecimal Number System ----

Answer: a

2. The value of radix in binary number system is _____________

a) 2

b) 8

c) 10

d) 1 ----
Answer: a

3. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 10 is __________

a) 0010

b) 10

c) 1010

d) 010 ----

Answer: c

4. A computer language that is written in binary codes only is _____

a) machine language

b) C

c) C#

d) pascal ----

Answer: a

5. The octal equivalent of 1100101.001010 is ______

a) 624.12

b) 145.12

c) 154.12

d) 145.21 ----

Answer: b

6. The input hexadecimal representation of 1110 is _______________

a) 0111

b) E

c) 15

d) 14 ----

Answer: b
7. A bit in a computer terminology means either 0 or 1.

a) True

b) False ----

Answer: a

8. Convert the binary equivalent 10101 to its decimal equivalent.

a) 21

b) 12

c) 22

d) 31 ----

Answer: a

9. Which of the following is not a binary number?

a) 1111

b) 101

c) 11E

d) 000 ----

Answer: c

10. Which of the following is the correct representation of a binary number?

a) (124)2

b) 1110

c) (110)2

d) (000)2 ----

Answer: d

1. The software designed to perform a specific task:

a) Synchronous Software

b) Package Software
c) Application Software

d) System Software ----

Answer: c

2. Word processing software is a type of application software.

a) True

b) False ----

Answer: a

3. Developing software __________ means a major commitment of time, money and resources.

a) In-house

b) In-sync

c) On-date

d) On-duration ----

Answer: a

4. Which of the following is not a way of acquiring software?

a) Buying pre-written software

b) Ordering customized software

c) Downloading public-domain Software

d) Duplicating the software ----

Answer: d

5. OSS stands for:

a) Open System Service

b) Open Source Software

c) Open System Software

d) Open Synchronized Software ----

Answer: b
6. Public domain software is usually:

a) System supported

b) Source supported

c) Community supported

d) Programmer supported ----

Answer: c

7. Set of programs which consists of full documentation.

a) Software Package

b) System Software

c) Utility Software

d) File package ----

Answer: a

8. Interpreter is used as a translator for __________

a) Low level language

b) High Level Language

c) COBOL

d) C ----

Answer: b

9. What do you call a a specific instruction designed to do a task?

a) Command

b) Process

c) Task

d) Instruction ----

Answer: a

10. They normally interact with the system via user interface provided by the application software.
a) Programmers

b) Developers

c) Users

d) Testers ----

Answer: c

1. The language made up of binary coded instructions.

a) Machine

b) C

c) BASIC

d) High level ----

Answer: a

2. Binary code comprises of digits from 0 to 9.

a) True

b) False ----

Answer: b

3. The ___________ contains the address of the next instruction to be executed.

a) IR

b) PC

c) Accumulator

d) System counter ----

Answer: b

4. The memory unit is made up of _____ bytes.

a) 256

b) 124

c) 4096
d) 3096 ----

Answer: c

5. A document that specifies how many times and with what data the program must be run in order to
thoroughly test it.

a) addressing plan

b) test plan

c) validation plan

d) verification plan ----

Answer: b

6. An approach that designs test cases by looking at the allowable data values.

a) Maintenance

b) Evaluation

c) Data coverage

d) Validation ----

Answer: c

7. The formal grammar rules governing the construction of valid instruction.

a) test case

b) syntax

c) program

d) semantics ----

Answer: b

8. A program that reads each of the instructions in mnemonic form and translates it into the machine-
language equivalent.

a) Machine language

b) Assembler

c) Interpreter
d) C program ----

Answer: b

9. An approach that designs test cases by looking at the allowable data values.

a) Data coverage

b) Code Coverage

c) Debugging

d) Validation ----

Answer: a

10. The rules that give meaning to the instructions.

a) Semantics

b) Syntax

c) Code

d) Cases ----

Answer: a

1. The physical devices of a computer:

a) Software

b) Package

c) Hardware

d) System Software ----

Answer: c

2. Software Package is a group of programs that solve a multiple problems.

a) True

b) False ----

Answer: b

3. ____________ refer to renewing or changing components like increasing the main memory, or hard
disk capacities, or adding speakers, or modems, etc.
a) Grades

b) Prosody

c) Synthesis

d) Upgrades ----

Answer: d

4. Which of the following is designed to control the operations of a computer?

a) Application Software

b) System Software

c) Utility Software

d) User ----

Answer: b

5. Which of the following is not an example of system software?

a) Language Translator

b) Utility Software

c) Communication Software

d) Word Processors ----

Answer: d

6. A person who designs the programs in a software package is called :

a) User

b) Software Manager

c) System Developer

d) System Programmer ----

Answer: d

7. ___________________ is designed to solve a specific problem or to do a specific task.

a) Application Software
b) System Software

c) Utility Software

d) User ----

Answer: a

8. Assembler is used as a translator for?

a) Low level language

b) High Level Language

c) COBOL

d) C ----

Answer: a

9. What do you call a program in execution?

a) Command

b) Process

c) Task

d) Instruction ----

Answer: b

10. Which of the following is not a process state?

a) Terminated

b) Running

c) Blocked

d) Execution ----

Answer: c

. 1. The word ____________comes from the name of a Persian mathematician Abu Ja’far Mohammed
ibn-i Musa al Khowarizmi.

a) Flowchart

b) Flow
c) Algorithm

d) Syntax ----

Answer: c

2. In computer science, algorithm refers to a special method useable by a computer for solution of a
problem.

a) True

b) False ----

Answer: a

3. This characteristic often draws the line between what is feasible and what is impossible.

a) Performance

b) System Evaluation

c) Modularity

d) Reliability ----

Answer: a

4. The time that depends on the input: an already sorted sequence that is easier to sort.

a) Process

b) Evaluation

c) Running

d) Input ----

Answer: c

5. Which of the following is incorrect? Algorithms can be represented:

a) as pseudo codes

b) as syntax

c) as programs

d) as flowcharts ----

Answer: b
6. When an algorithm is written in the form of a programming language, it becomes a _________

a) Flowchart

b) Program

c) Pseudo code

d) Syntax ----

Answer: b

7. Any algorithm is a program.

a) True

b) False ----

Answer: b

8. A system wherein items are added from one and removed from the other end.

a) Stack

b) Queue

c) Linked List

d) Array ----

Answer: b

9. Another name for 1-D arrays.

a) Linear arrays

b) Lists

c) Horizontal array

d) Vertical array ----

Answer: a

10. A data structure that follows the FIFO principle.

a) Queue

b) LL
c) Stack

d) Union ----

Answer: c

1. A ______________ is diagram that depicts the flow of a program.

a) Algorithm

b) Hash Table

c) Graph

d) Flowchart ----

Answer: d

2. Terminals are represented by diagonals in a flowchart.

a) True

b) False ----

Answer: b

3. The operation represented by parallelograms.

a) Input/Output

b) Assignment

c) Comparison

d) Conditions ----

Answer: a

4. Which of the following is not a flowchart structure?

a) Process

b) Sequence

c) Repetition

d) Case ----

Answer: a
5. The action performed by a ___________ structure must eventually cause the loop to terminate.

a) sequence

b) case

c) repetition

d) process ----

Answer: c

6. The following symbol denotes:

a) Module

b) Terminal

c) Process

d) i/o operation ----

Answer: a

7. What type of structure is this?

a) sequence

b) case

c) repetition

d) process ----

Answer: c

8. What type of a structure is this?

a) sequence

b) case

c) repetition

d) process ----

Answer: b

9. An _______ is a connector showing the relationship between the representative shapes.

a) line

b) arrow

c) Process

d) box ----

Answer: b

10. The following box denotes?

a) Decision

b) Input/Output

c) Process

d) Module ----

Answer: a

1. A numerical value used as a summary measure for a sample, such as a sample mean, is known as a

A) Population Parameter

B) Sample Parameter

C) Sample Statistic

D) Population Mean

Answer: C

2. Statistics branches include

A) Applied Statistics

B) Mathematical Statistics

C) Industry Statistics

D) Both A and B

Answer: D

3. To enhance a procedure the control charts and procedures of descriptive statistics are classified into

A) Behavioural Tools
B) Serial Tools

C) Industry Statistics

D) Statistical Tools

Answer: A

4. Sample statistics are also represented as

A) Lower Case Greek Letter

B) Roman Letters

C) Associated Roman Alphabets

D) Upper Case Greek Letter

Answer: B

5. Individual respondents, focus groups, and panels of respondents are categorised as

A) Primary Data Sources

B) Secondary Data Sources

C) Itemised Data Sources

D) Pointed Data Sources

Answer: A

6. The variables whose calculation is done according to the weight, height and length and weight are
known as:

A) Flowchart Variables

B) Discrete Variables

C) Continuous Variables

D) Measuring Variables

Answer: C

7. A method used to examine inflation rate anticipation, unemployment rate and capacity utilisation to
produce products is classified as

A) Data Exporting Technique

B) Data Importing Technique

C) Forecasting Technique

D) Data Supplying Technique

Answer: C

8. Graphical and numerical methods are specialized processes utilised in

A) Education Statistics

B) Descriptive Statistics

C) Business Statistics

D) Social Statistics

Answer: B

9. The scale applied in statistics which imparts a difference of magnitude and proportions is considered
as

A) Exponential Scale

B) Goodness Scale

C) Ratio Scale

D) Satisfactory Scale

Answer: C

10. Review of performance appraisal, labour turnover rates, planning of incentives and trainingprograms
and are examples of

A) Statistics in Production

B) Statistics in Marketing

C) Statistics in Finance

D) Statistics in Personnel Management

Answer: D

1) What is/are the necessity/ies of Simulation Process in VHDL?

a. Requirement to test designs before implementation & usage

b. Reduction of development time
c. Decrease the time to market
d. All of the above

ANSWER: All of the above

2) Timing analysis is more efficient with synchronous systems whose maximum operating freq
is evaluated by the _________path delay between consecutive flip-flops.

a. shortest
b. average
c. longest
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: longest

3) Which functions are performed by static timing analysis in simulation?

a. Computation of delay for each timing path

b. Logic analysis in a static manner
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Both a and b

4) An event is nothing but ______ target signal, which is to be updated.

a. Fixed
b. Change on
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Change on

5) Which concept proves to be beneficial in acquiring concurrency and order independence?

a. Alpha delay
b. Beta delay
c. Gamma delay
d. Delta delay
ANSWER: Delta delay

6) After an initialization phase, the simulator enters the ______phase.

a. Compilation
b. Elaboration
c. Execution
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Execution

7) Which among the following is not a characteristic of 'Event-driven Simulator'?

a. Identification of timing violations

b. Storage of state values & time information
c. Time delay calculation
d. No event scheduling
ANSWER: No event scheduling

8) Which type of simulator/s neglect/s the intra-cycle state transitions by checking the status o
signals periodically irrespective of any events?

a. Event-driven Simulator
b. Cycle-based Simulator
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Cycle-based Simulator

9) In the simulation process, which step specifies the conversion of VHDL intermediate code s
can be used by the simulator?

a. Compilation
b. Elaboration
c. Initialization
d. Execution
ANSWER: Elaboration

10) Which type of simulation mode is used to check the timing performance of a design?

a. Behavioural
b. Switch-level
c. Transistor-level
d. Gate-level
ANSWER: Gate-level

1. All simulations involve:

a. The passage of time

b. A model on a computer

c. An imitation of a system
d. A visual display

Ans : C

2. The simulations described in the book are used for:

a. Understanding a system

b. Understanding and improving a system

c. Improving a system

d. None of the above

Ans : b

3. Which of the following systems can be simulated?

a. Transportation systems

b. Manufacturing systems

c. Health systems

d. All of the above

Ans : d

4. What software is likely to be needed for a simulation study?

a. Spread sheet software

b. Simulation package

c. Statistical software

d. All of the above

Ans : b

5. A simulation uses the logical relationships and mathematical expressions of the

a. Real system

b. Computer model

c. Performance measures

d. Inferences
Ans :a

Q6.What encapsulates both data and data manipulation functions ?

a) Object

b) Class

c) Super Class

d) Sub Class

ans. a)

Q7.How do clients access COM objects?

a)Through public data members because the object is usually implemented in C++

b)Through the servers' implementation of Invoke

c)Through the object's interfaces

Ans.c)

Q8 RMI is stands for:

a) Remote methodology invocation

b) Research method invocation

c) Remote method invocation

d) Resource method invocation

Ans.c)

Q9 CORBA is stands for:

a) Common oriented request broker architecture

b) Common object request break architecture

c) Common object request broker architecture

d) Common object request broker access

Ans.c)

Q10. The standard which allows the access to DBMS by the Java client programs is classified as
 a) JCBD standard

b) JDBC standard

c) BDJC standard

d) CJBD standard

ans;b

Question 1

A major benefit of simulation is its capability to ask what-if questions

a) True
b) False

Ans; true

Question 2

Special computer packages have been developed to undertake real-life simulation.

a) True
b) False

Ans;true

Question 3

Simulations can keep track of several different kinds of information, including: orders,
inventory, and financial planning.

a) True
b) False

Ans;true

Question 4

Random numbers are used:

 a) To give random outcomes
b) To describe the uncertainty of input values
c) To assign values to the parameters
d) To change the problem solution

Ans; B

Question 5

Monte Carlo simulation ensures that:

a) The simulated probability distribution will be the same as the actual

probability distribution
b) Only one uncertain decision can be in any simulation model
c) Probabilities must be at most two decimal places
d) Each of the above is true

Ans;A

Question 6

The Excel function RAND() can be used to generate random numbers between 0 and 1.

a) False
b) True

Ans;true

Question 7

The Excel function RANDBETWEEN() can be used to generate random numbers between 0
and 1.

a) True
b) False
 Ans;false

Question 8

To simulate a uniform distribution use the Excel expression: = a + (b - a)*RAND()

a) True
b) False

Ans;true

Question 9

To generate a random number from a normal distribution use the Excel function:
=NORM.INV(RAND(), μ, σ).

a) False
b) True

Ans;true

Question 10

The binomial distribution can be simulated using the Excel function: = BINOM.INV(n, p,
RAND())?

a) True
b) False

Ans; False

1. For the function F (s) = (s2+s+1)/s(s+5)(s+3), after splitting this function into partial fractions, the co-
efficient of the term 1/s is?

a) 1/5

b) 1/10

c) 1/15

d) 1/20
Answer: c

2. For the question 1, the co-efficient of 1/(s+5) is?

a) 1.1

b) 2.1

c) 3.1

d) 4.1

Answer: b

3. For the question 1, co-efficient of 1/(s+3) is?

a) -1.17

b) 1.17

c) -2.27

d) 2.27

Answer: a

4. The partial fraction expansion of the function in question 1 is?

a) 1/15s-2.1/(s+5)+1.17/(s+3)

b) 1/15s-2.1/(s+5)-1.17/(s+3)

c) 1/15s+2.1/(s+5)+1.17/(s+3)

d) 1/15s+2.1/(s+5)-1.17/(s+3)

Answer: d

5. For the function F (s) = (s+5)/s(s2+2s+5) , after splitting this function into the partial fractions, 1/s co-
efficient is?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

Answer: a
6. For the question 5, the co-efficient of 1/(s+1-j2) is?

a) 1/2

b) -1/2

c) 1/4

d) -1/4

Answer: b

7. For the question 5, determine the co-efficient of 1/(s+1-j2)?

a) -1/4

b) 1/4

c) -1/2

d) 1/2

Answer: c

8. The expression of F (s) after splitting into partial fractions in the question 5 is?

a) 1/s-1/2(s+1-j2) -1/2(s+1+j2)

b) 1/s+1/2(s+1-j2) -1/2(s+1+j2)

c) 1/s+1/2(s+1-j2) +1/2(s+1+j2)

d) 1/s-1/2(s+1-j2) +1/2(s+1+j2)

Answer: a

9. The inverse transform of F (s) in the question 5 is?

a) 1+ 1/2 e(-1+j2)t-1/2 e(-1-j2)t

b) 1+ 1/2 e(-1+j2)t+1/2 e(-1-j2)t

c) 1- 1/2 e(-1+j2)t-1/2 e(-1-j2)t

d) 1- 1/2 e(-1+j2)t+1/2 e(-1-j2)t

Answer: c

10. The inverse transform of the function k/(s+a) is?

a) ke-at u(t)

b) keat u(t)

c) ke-at u(t-a)

d) keat u(t-a)

Answer: b

1. Find the inverse Laplace transform for 1(s+1)2.

a) tet u(t)

b) te-t u(t)

c) tu(t)

d) et u(t)

Answer: b

2. Find the inverse Laplace transform for 1(s+1)2+1.

a) te-t u(t)

b) e-t sin⁡t u(t)

c) e-t cos⁡t u(t)

d) e-t u(t)

Answer: b

3. Find the inverse Laplace transform for s(s+2)2.

a) te-t u(t)

b) e-t sin⁡t u(t)

c) e-2t (1-2t)u(t)

d) e2t (1-2t)u(t)

Answer: c

4. Find the inverse Laplace transform for s(s+2)2+1.

a) [2e-2t cos⁡t + e-2t sin⁡t]u(t)

b) [e-2t cos⁡t + 2e-2t sin⁡t]u(t)

c) [2e-2t cos⁡t – e-2t sin⁡t]u(t)

d) [e-2t cos⁡t – 2e-2t sin⁡t]u(t)

Answer: d

5. Find the inverse Laplace transform of X(s) = ss2a2+b2.

a) 1a2cos(ab)t

b) 1a2cos(ba)t

c) 1a2sin(ba)t

d) 1a2sin(ab)t

Answer: b

6. Find the inverse Laplace transform of X(s) = s(s2+a2)2.

a) 1a t sin⁡at

b) 12a t sin⁡at

c) 1a t cos⁡at

d) 12a t cos⁡at

Answer: b

7. If F1 (s) = 1s+2 and F2 (s) = 1s+3, find the inverse Laplace transform of F(s) = F1 (s) F2 (s).

a) [e-2t + e-3t]u(t)

b) [e-2t – e-3t]u(t)

c) [e2t + e3t]u(t)

d) [e2t + e-3t]u(t)

Answer: b

8. Find the inverse Laplace transform for X(s) = s2s2−8.

a) cosh⁡2t

b) 12 cosh⁡2t
c) sinh⁡2t

d) 12 sinh⁡2t

Answer: b

9. Find the inverse Laplace transform for X(s) = ln(s+as+b).

a) e−at–e−btt

b) e−bt–e−att

c) e−at+e−btt

d) ebt+e−att

Answer: b

10. Find the inverse Laplace transform for the function X(s) = 2s−1s2+4s+8.

a) e-2t cos⁡2t u(t) – e-2t sin⁡2t u(t)

b) 2e-2t cos⁡2t u(t) – 52 e-2t sin⁡2t u(t)

c) 2e-2t cos⁡2t u(t) – e-2t sin⁡2t u(t)

d) e-2t cos⁡2t u(t) – 52 e-2t sin⁡2t u(t)

Answer: b

11. Find the inverse Laplace transform for the function X(s) = 1+e−2s3s2+2s.

a) e-(2/3)t u(t) – u(t) + e-(2/3)(t-2) u(t-2)-u(t-2)

b) e-(2/3)t u(t) + e-(2/3)(t-2) u(t-2)

c) e-(2/3)(t-2) u(t-2) – u(t-2)

d) e-(2/3)t u(t) – u(t)

Answer: a

12. Given x(t)=e-t u(t). Find the inverse Laplace transform of e-3s X(2s).

a) 12 e-(t-3)/2 u(t+3)

b) 12 e-(t-3)/2 u(t-3)

c) 12 e(t-3)/2 u(t-3)
d) 12 e(t-3)/2 u(t+3)

Answer: b

1. Which of the following statements is not correct concerning the probability distribution of a

continuous random variable?

a. the vertical coordinate is the probability density function

b. the range of the random variable is found on the x-axis

c. the total area represented under the curve will equal 1

d. the area under the curve between points a and b represents the probability that X = a

e. the area under the curve represents the sum of probabilities for all possible outcomes

Answer: D

2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the normal distribution?

a. it is a symmetrical distribution

b. the mean is always zero

c. the mean, median and mode are equal

d. it is a bell-shaped distribution

e. the area under the curve equals one

Answer: B

3. Which of the following is not a correct statement?

a. the exponential distribution describes the Poisson process as a continuous random variable

b. the exponential distribution is a family of curves, which are completely described by the mean

c. the mean of the exponential distribution is the inverse of the mean of the Poisson

d. the Poisson is a probability distribution for a discrete random variable while the exponential

distribution is continuous

e. the area under the curve for an exponential distribution equals 1

Answer: C
4. Which of the following do the normal distribution and the exponential density function have in

common?

a. both are bell-shaped

b. both are symmetrical distributions

c. both approach infinity as x approaches infinity

d. both approach zero as x approaches infinity

e. all of the above are features common to both distributions

Answer: D

5. Which of the following statement is not true for an exponential distribution with parameter λ?

a. mean = 1 / λ

b. standard deviation = 1 / λ

c. the distribution is completely determined once the value of λ is known

d. the area under the curve is equal to one

e. the distribution is a two-parameter distribution since the mean and standard deviation are

equal

Answer: E

6. Which of the following distributions is suitable to model the length of time that elapses before

the first employee passes through the security door of a company?

a. exponential

b. normal

c. poisson

d. binomial

e. uniform

Answer: A

7. Which of the following distributions is suitable to measure the length of time that elapses
between the arrival of cars at a petrol station pump?

a. normal

b. binomial

c. uniform

d. poisson

e. exponential

Answer: E

8. A multiple-choice test has 30 questions. There are 4 choices for each question. A student who

has not studied for the test decides to answer all the questions randomly by guessing the answer to

each question. Which of the following probability distributions can be used to calculate the

student’s chance of getting at least 20 questions right?

a. Binomial distribution

b. Poisson distribution

c. Exponential distribution

d. Uniform distribution

e. Normal distribution

Answer: A

9. It is known that 20% of all vehicles parked on campus during the week do not have the required

parking disk. A random sample of 10 cars is observed one Monday morning and X is the number

in the sample that do not have the required parking disk. We can assume here that the probability

distribution of X is:

a. Binomial

b. Normal

c. Poisson

d. Exponential
e. Any continuous distribution will do

Answer: A

10. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the normal distribution curve?

a. it is symmetrical

b. it is bell-shaped

c. it is asymptotic in that each end approaches the horizontal axis but never reaches it

d. its mean, median and mode are located at the same point

e. all of the above statements are true

Answer: E

11. Indicate which of the statements below does not correctly apply to normal probability

distributions:

a. they are all unimodal (ie: have a single mode)

b. they are all symmetrical

c. they all have the same mean and standard deviation

d. the area under the probability curve is always equal to 1

e. for the standard normal distribution µ = 0 and σ = 1

Answer: C

13. Which probability distribution is appropriate for a count of events when the events of interest

occur randomly, independently of one another and rarely?

a. normal distribution

b. exponential distribution

c. uniform distribution

d. poisson distribution

e. binomial distribution

Answer: D
14. Which of the following cannot generate a Poisson distribution?

a. The number of cars arriving at a parking garage in a one-hour time interval

b. The number of telephone calls received in a ten-minute interval

c. The number of customers arriving at a petrol station

d. The number of bacteria found in a cubic yard of soil

e. The number of misprints per page

Answer: C

15. The mean for the exponential distribution equals the mean for the Poisson distribution only

when the former distribution has a mean equal to

a. 1.0

b. 0.5

c. 0.25

d. 2.0

e. the means of the two distributions can never be equal

Answer: A

16. A larger standard deviation for a normal distribution with an unchanged mean indicates that

the distribution becomes:

a. narrower and more peaked

b. flatter and wider

c. more skewed to the right

d. more skewed to the left

e. a change in the standard deviation does not change the shape of the distribution

Answer: B

17. Which of the following statements regarding the probability density function, f(x), of the

uniform distribution is correct?

a. the height of the density function differs for different values of X

b. the density function increases as the values of X increase

c. the density function is roughly “bell-shaped”

d. the density function is constant for all values that X can assume

e. none of the above statements are true

Answer: D

18. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. The Exponential distribution is continuous and defined over the interval (-∞, ∞)

b. The mean of the Poisson distribution (with parameter μ) equals the mean of the Exponential

distribution (with parameter λ) only when μ = λ = 1

c. It is impossible for a Normal distribution to have a negative population mean

d. The Binomial distribution has equal mean and variance only when p = 0.5

e. The Uniform distribution is a discrete probability distribution

Answer: B

19. In a popular shopping centre, the waiting time for an ABSA ATM machine is found to be

uniformly distributed between 1 and 5 minutes. What is the probability of waiting between 2 and 3

minutes to use the ATM?

a. 0.25

b. 0.50

c. 0.75

d. 0.20

e. 0.40

Answer: A

20. In a popular shopping centre, the waiting time for an ABSA ATM machine is found to be

uniformly distributed between 1 and 5 minutes. What is the probability of waiting between 2 and 4
minutes to use the ATM?

a. 0.25

b. 0.50

c. 0.75

d. 0.20

e. 0.40

Answer: B

1. All simulations involve:

a. The passage of time

b. A model on a computer
c. An imitation of a system
d. A visual display

2. The simulations described in the book are used for:

a. Understanding a system
b. Understanding and improving a system
c. Improving a system
d. None of the above
UNIT Fn:Multiple Choice Questions
Lectures in Discrete Mathematics, Course 2, Bender/Williamson Review Questions

Multiple Choice Questions for Review

1. In each case some information is given about a function. In which case is the informa-
tion not sufficient to define a function?
(a) f ∈ 43 , 2 → 3, 1 → 4, 3 → 2.
(b) f ∈ {>, <, +, ?}3 , f = (?, <, +).
(c) f ∈ 3{>,<,+,?} , f = (3, 1, 2, 3).
(d) f ∈ 3{>,<,+,?} , f = (3, 1, 2, 3). Domain ordered as follows: >, <, +, ?.
3
(e) f ∈ {>, <, +, ?} , f = (?, <, +). Domain ordered as follows: 3, 2, 1.
 
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
2. The following function is in two line form: . Which
9 3 7 2 6 4 5 1 8
of the following is a correct cycle form for this function?
(a) (1, 8, 9)(2, 3, 7, 5, 6, 4)
(b) (1, 9, 8)(2, 3, 5, 7, 6, 4)
(c) (1, 9, 8)(2, 3, 7, 5, 4, 6)
(d) (1, 9, 8)(2, 3, 7, 5, 6, 4).
(e) (1, 9, 8)(3, 2, 7, 5, 6, 4)
3. In each case some information about a function is given to you. Based on this infor-
mation, which function is an injection?
(a) f ∈ 65 , Coimage(f ) = {{1}, {2}, {3}, {4}, {5}}
6
(b) f ∈ 6 , Coimage(f ) = {{1}, {2}, {3}, {4}, {5, 6}}
5
(c) f ∈ 5 , f −1 (2) = {1, 3, 5}, f −1 (4) = {2, 4}}
(d) f ∈ 45 ,
 
Image(f ) = 4

(e) f ∈ 55 , Coimage(f ) = {{1, 3, 5}, {2, 4}}

 
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
4. The following function is in two line form: f = .
8 5 9 2 4 1 3 6 7
Which of the following is a correct cycle form for h = f 3 ◦ f −1 ?
(a) (1, 6, 8)(2, 3, 7)(5, 6, 4)
(b) (1, 6, 8)(2, 4, 5)(3, 7, 9)
(c) (1, 8, 6)(2, 3, 7)(5, 9, 4)
(d) (1, 9, 8)(2, 3, 5)(7, 6, 4)
(e) (8, 5, 9, 2, 4, 1, 3, 6, 7)
 
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
5. The following permutation is in two line form: f = .
8 6 4 7 2 9 1 3 5
The permutation g = (1, 2, 3) is in cycle form. Let h = f ◦ g be the composition of f
and g. Which of the following is a correct cycle form for h?

Fn-41
Functions

(a) (1, 6, 9, 5, 2, 4, 7)(3, 8)

(b) (1, 8, 3, 4, 7, 2, 6)(5, 9)
(c) (1, 8, 3, 7, 4, 2, 6)(9, 5)
(d) (1, 8, 4, 3, 7, 2, 6)(9, 5)
(e) (8, 6, 4, 7, 9, 1, 2)(3, 5)
6. We want to find the smallest integer n > 0 such that, for every permutation f on 4,
the function f n is the identity function on 4. What is the value of n?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 24 (e) It is impossible.
7. In the lexicographic list of all strictly decreasing functions in 95 , find the successor of
98432.
(a) 98431 (b) 98435 (c) 98521 (d) 98532 (e) 98543
8. The 16 consecutive points 0, 1, . . . , 14, 15 have 0 and 15 converted to exterior box
boundaries. The interior box boundaries correspond to points 1, 5, 7, 9. This configu-
ration corresponds to
(a) 9 balls into 5 boxes
(b) 9 balls into 6 boxes
(c) 10 balls into 5 boxes
(d) 10 balls into 6 boxes
(e) 11 balls into 4 boxes
9. The 16 consecutive points 0, 1, . . . , 14, 15 have 0 and 15 converted to exterior box
boundaries. The interior box boundaries correspond to the strictly increasing functions
1 ≤ x1 < x2 < x3 < x4 ≤ 14 in lex order. How many configurations of balls into boxes
come before the configuration •| | | | • • • • • • • • • ? (Exterior box boundaries are not
shown.)
(a) 13 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 14 (e) 15






3 4 3 4 3

10. Suppose f ∈ 76 . How many such functions have |Image(f )| = 4?

(a) S(7, 4) (b) S(7, 4)(6)4 (c) S(6, 4)(7)4 (d) S(4, 7)(6)4 (e) S(7, 4) 6!
11. Let X be a random variable with distribution b(k; n, p), q = 1 − p. Let Y = (X + 1)2 .
Then E(Y ) =?
(a) npq + (np + 1)2
(b) 2npq + (np + 1)2
(c) npq + 2(np + 1)2
(d) (npq)2 + (np + 1)2
(e) 2npq(np + 1)2
12. Let X and Y be independent random variables with distribution b(k; n, a) and b(k; n, b)
respectively. Let Z = X + 2Y . Then, for all ǫ > 0, Tchebycheff’s inequality guarantees
that P (|Z − na − 2nb| ≥ ǫ) is always less than or equal to what?

Fn-42
 Review Questions

(a) (na(1 − a) + nb(1 − b))/ǫ2

(b) (na(1 − a) + 2nb(1 − b))/ǫ2
(c) (na(1 − a) + 4nb(1 − b))/ǫ2
(d) (na(1 − a) + 2nb(1 − b))/ǫ3
(e) (na(1 − a) + 4nb(1 − b))/ǫ3
13. An 800 page book has 400 misprints. If the misprints are distributed uniformly
throughout the book, and the Poisson approximation to the binomial distribution
is used to calculate the probability of exactly 2 misprints on page 16, which of the
following represents the correct use of the Poisson approximation?
(a) e0.5 /8 (b) e−0.5 /8 (c) e0.5 /16 (d) e−0.5 /16 (e) e−0.5 /32
14. For 40 weeks, once per hour during the 40 hour work week, an employee of Best Cars
draws a ball from an urn that contains 1 black and 9 white balls. If black is drawn, a
$10 bill is tacked to a bulletin board. At the end of the 40 weeks, the money is given
to charity. What is the expected amount of money given?
(a) 1000 (b) 1200 (c) 1400 (d) 1600 (e) 1800
15. For 40 weeks, once per hour during the 40 hour work week, an employee of Best Cars
draws a ball from an urn that contains 1 black and 9 white balls. If black is drawn,
$10 is tacked to a bulletin board. At the end of the 40 weeks, the money is given to
charity. Using the normal approximation, what interval under the standard normal
curve should be used to get the area which equals the probability that $1800 or more
is given?
(a) from 1.67 to ∞
(b) from 0 to 1.67
(c) from 0.6 to ∞
(d) from 0 to 0.6
(e) from 0.6 to 1.67
16. A fair coin is tossed three times. Let X be the random variable which is one if the
first throw is T (for tails) and the third throw is H (for heads), zero otherwise. Let
Y denote the random variable that is one if the second and third throws are both H,
zero otherwise. The covariance, Cov(X, Y ) is
(a) 1/8 (b) −1/8 (c) 1/16 (d) −1/16 (e) 1/32
17. A fair coin is tossed three times. Let X be the random variable which is one if the
first throw is T (for tails) and the third throw is H (for heads), zero otherwise. Let
Y denote the random variable that is one if the second and third throws are both H,
zero otherwise. The correlation, ρ(X, Y ) is
(a) 0 (b) 1/3 (c) −1/3 (d) 1/8 (e) −1/8
18. A fair coin is tossed three times and a T (for tails) or H (for heads) is recorded, giving
us a 3-long list. Let X be the random variable which is zero if no T has another T
adjacent to it, and is one otherwise. Let Y denote the random variable that counts

Fn-43
Functions

the number of T’s in the three tosses. Let hX,Y denote the joint distribution of X and
Y . hX,Y (1, 2) equals
(a) 5/8 (b) 4/8 (c) 3/8 (d) 2/8 (e) 1/8
19. Which of the following is equal to Cov(X + Y, X − Y ), where X and Y are random
variables on a sample space S?
(a) Var(X) − Var(Y )
(b) Var(X 2 ) − Var(Y 2 )
(c) Var(X 2 ) + 2Cov(X, Y ) + Var(Y 2 )
(d) Var(X 2 ) − 2Cov(X, Y ) + Var(Y 2 )
(e) (Var(X))2 − (Var(Y ))2
20. Which of the following is equal to Var(2X − 3Y ), where X and Y are random variables
on S?
(a) 4Var(X) + 12Cov(X, Y ) + 9Var(Y )
(b) 2Var(X) − 3Var(Y )
(c) 2Var(X) + 6Cov(X, Y ) + 3Var(Y )
(d) 4Var(X) − 12Cov(X, Y ) + 9Var(Y )
(e) 2Var(X) − 6Cov(X, Y ) + 3Var(Y )
21. The strictly decreasing functions in 1003 are listed in lex order. How many are there
before the function (9,5,4)?
(a) 18 (b) 23 (c) 65 (d) 98 (e) 180
22. All but one of the following have the same answer. Which one is different?
(a) The number of multisets of size 20 whose elements lie in 5.
(b) The number of strictly increasing functions from 20 to 24.
(c) The number of subsets of size 20 whose elements lie in 24.
(d) The number of weakly decreasing 4-lists made from 21.
(e) The number of strictly decreasing functions from 5 to 24.
23. Let X be a random variable with Poisson distribution p(k; λ) Let Y = (X + 2)(X + 1).
What is the value of E(Y )?
(a) λ2 + 3λ + 1
(b) λ2 + 3λ + 2
(c) λ2 + 4λ + 2
(d) 3λ2 + 3λ + 2
(e) 4λ2 + 4λ + 2

Answers: 1 (c), 2 (d), 3 (a), 4 (b), 5 (a), 6 (c), 7 (c), 8 (c), 9 (a), 10 (c), 11 (a),
12 (c), 13 (b), 14 (d), 15 (a), 16 (c), 17 (b), 18 (d), 19 (a), 20 (d), 21 (c), 22 (e),
23 (c).

Fn-44
 Notation Index

∃ (there exists) Fn-4

∀ (for all) Fn-4
∋ (such that) Fn-4
Cov(X, Y ) (covariance) Fn-25
µX (expectation
or mean) Fn-24
E(X) (expectation) Fn-24
f ◦ g (composition) Fn-7
n (first n integers) Fn-1
Pk (A) (k-subsets of A) Fn-1
S(A) (permutations of A) Fn-7
PER(A) (permutations of A) Fn-7
Probability notation
µX (expectation, or
mean) Fn-24
ρ(X, Y ) (correlation) Fn-25
σX (standard deviation) Fn-25
E(X) (expectation) Fn-24
Cov(X, Y ) (covariance) Fn-25
Var(X) (variance) Fn-25
Q (rational numbers) Fn-1
R (real numbers) Fn-1
ρ(X, Y ) (correlation) Fn-25
Set notation
∼A (complement) Fn-1
A′ (complement) Fn-1
A − B (difference) Fn-1
A ∩ B (intersection) Fn-1
A ∪ B (union) Fn-1
A ⊕ B (symmetric
difference) Fn-1
A \ B (difference) Fn-1
A × B (Cartesian product) Fn-1
Ac (complement) Fn-1
Pk (A) (k-subsets of A) Fn-1
σX (standard deviation) Fn-25
Var(X) (variance) Fn-25
Z (integers) Fn-1

Index-1
 Index

Subject Index

Bijection Fn-3 Event Fn-21

Binomial distribution Fn-34 independent pair Fn-29
Blocks of a partition Fn-15 Expectation of a random
variable Fn-24

Cartesian product Fn-1

Function
Central Limit Theorem Fn-38
bijection Fn-3
Chebyshev’s inequality Fn-27 codomain (range) of Fn-2
Codomain (range) of a coimage of Fn-14
function Fn-2 composition of Fn-7
Coimage of a function Fn-14 density Fn-22
distribution, see Distribution
Complement of a set Fn-1
domain of Fn-2
Composition of functions Fn-7 image of Fn-14
Correlation Fn-25 image of and Stirling numbers
Covariance Fn-25 (set partitions) Fn-15
injective (one-to-one) Fn-3
Cycle in a permutation Fn-9
inverse Fn-3
inverse image of Fn-14
monotone Fn-17
Decreasing (strictly) function or one-line notation Fn-2
list Fn-17 probability Fn-21
Decreasing (weakly) function or range of Fn-2
list Fn-17 restricted growth and set
Density function Fn-22 partitions Fn-20
strictly decreasing Fn-17
Derangement Fn-12
strictly increasing Fn-17
Deviation surjective (onto) Fn-3
standard Fn-25 two-line notation Fn-5
Direct (Cartesian) product Fn-1 weakly decreasing Fn-17
Distribution Fn-22 weakly increasing Fn-17
binomial Fn-34 Functional relation Fn-4
joint Fn-28
marginal Fn-28
normal Fn-36 Identity permutation Fn-7
Poisson Fn-35
Image of a function Fn-14
Distribution function Stirling numbers (set partitions)
see Distribution and Fn-15
Domain of a function Fn-2 Increasing (strictly) function or
list Fn-17
Increasing (weakly) function or
Envelope game Fn-2 list Fn-17

Index-3
Index

Independent events Fn-29 Onto function (surjection) Fn-3

Independent random
variables Fn-29
Induction Fn-8 Partition
set Fn-14
Inequality
set and restricted growth
Tchebycheff Fn-27
function Fn-20
Injection Fn-3
Permutation Fn-3, Fn-7
Intersection of sets Fn-1 cycle Fn-9
Inverse image of a function Fn-14 cycle form Fn-9
Involution Fn-10 cycle length Fn-9
derangement Fn-12
identity Fn-7
involution Fn-10
Joint distribution function Fn-28
is a bijection Fn-3
matrix Fn-11
powers of Fn-7
List random generation Fn-33
strictly decreasing Fn-17
Poisson distribution Fn-35
strictly increasing Fn-17
weakly decreasing Fn-17 Probability distribution function
weakly increasing Fn-17 see Distribution
without repetition are Probability function Fn-21
injections Fn-3 see also Distribution
Probability space Fn-21
see also Distribution
Marginal distribution Fn-28
Matrix
permutation Fn-11 Random generation of
Monotone function Fn-17 permutations Fn-33
Multiset Random variable Fn-22
and monotone function Fn-17 binomial Fn-34
correlation of two Fn-25
covariance of two Fn-25
independent pair Fn-29
Nondecreasing function or
standard deviation of Fn-25
list Fn-17
variance of Fn-25
Nonincreasing function or list Fn-17
Range of a function Fn-2
Normal distribution Fn-36
Relation Fn-4
Numbers
Restricted growth function and set
Stirling (set partitions) Fn-15
partitions Fn-20

One-line notation Fn-2

Sample space Fn-21
One-to-one function (injection) Fn-3

Index-4
 Index

Set Weakly decreasing function or

and monotone function Fn-17 list Fn-17
complement of Fn-1 Weakly increasing function or
intersection of two Fn-1 list Fn-17
partition, see Set partition
symmetric difference of
two Fn-1
union of two Fn-1
Set partition Fn-14
restricted growth function Fn-20
Standard deviation Fn-25
Stirling numbers (set partitions)
image of a function Fn-15
Strictly decreasing function or
list Fn-17
Strictly increasing (or decreasing)
function or list Fn-17
Strictly increasing function or
list Fn-17
Surjection Fn-3
Symmetric difference of sets Fn-1

Tchebycheff’s inequality Fn-27

Theorem
Central Limit Fn-38
correlation bounds Fn-26
covariance when independent Fn-32
expectation is linear Fn-24
expectation of a product Fn-32
monotone functions and
(multi)sets Fn-18
permutations of set to fixed
power Fn-10
Tchebycheff’s inequality Fn-27
variance of sum Fn-32
Two-line notation Fn-5

Union of sets Fn-1

Variance Fn-25

Index-5
Question 1.
Which of the following are advantages of simulation?
a. Simulation allows "what-if?" type of questions.
b. Simulation can usually be performed by hand or using a small calculator.
c. Simulation does not interfere with the real-world system.
d. all of the above
e. (a) and (c) only
Question 2.
The first step in simulation is to
a. set up possible courses of action for testing.
b. construct a numerical model.
c. validate the model.
d. define the problem.
e. none of the above
Question 3.
Which of the following are disadvantages of simulation?
a. inability to analyze large and complex real-world situations
b. "time compression" capability
c. could be disruptive by interfering with the real-world system
d. is not usually easily transferable to other problems
e. all of the above
Question 4.
The first step in the Monte Carlo simulation process is to
a. generate random numbers.
b. set up cumulative probability distributions.
c. establish random number intervals.
d. simulate trials.
e. set up probability distributions.
Question 5.
Cumulative probabilities are found by
a. summing all the probabilities associated with a variable.
b. simulating the initial probability distribution.
c. summing all the previous probabilities up to the current value of the variable.
d. any method one chooses.
e. none of the above
Question 6.
If we are going to simulate an inventory problem, we must
a. run the simulation for many days.
b. run the simulation for many days many times, i.e., using multiple sets of random
numbers.
c. run the simulation many times, i.e., using multiple sets of random numbers.
d. run the simulation once, for a relative short period of time.
e. none of the above
Question 7.
From a practical perspective, if we have a waiting line problem for which the Poisson and negative
exponential distributions do not apply, and we desire a reasonably accurate solution, we should
a. modify the queuing equations to make them appropriate for our problem.
 b. use simulation.
c. use the simple queuing equations even though we realize they are inappropriate.
d. build a physical model and use that to study the problem.
e. none of the above
Question 8.
All of the following are various ways of generating random numbers except
a. table of random numbers
b. spin of roulette wheel
c. computer-generated random numbers
d. Von Neumann midsquare method
e. Fibonacci series
Question 9.
The three types of mathematical simulation models are
a. operational gaming, Monte Carlo, systems simulation.
b. Monte Carlo, queuing, maintenance policy.
c. Monte Carlo, systems simulation, computer gaming.
d. system simulation, operational gaming, weather forecasting.
e. none of the above
Question 10.
Simulation should be thought of as a technique for
a. increasing one's understanding of a problem.
b. obtaining a relatively inexpensive solution to a problem.
c. obtaining an optimal solution to a problem.
d. providing quick and dirty answers to complex problems.
e. none of the above

Which of the following statements are NOT true of simulation?

a. Simulation models the behaviour of a system

b. Simulation models can be used to study alternative solutions to a
problem
c. A simulation model cannot prescribe what should be done about a
problem
d. The equations describing the operating characteristics of the system
are known

Question 2.

Select the valid reasons for using simulation.

a. Relationship between the variables is nonlinear

b. Optimized solutions are obtained
c. Conduct experiments without disrupting the real system
d. Answers 1 and 3

Question 3.

Monte Carlo simulation gets its name from which of the following?

a. Random-number assignment
b. Analysis
 c. Model formulation
d. Data collection

Question 4.

Simulation models can be used to obtain operating characteristic estimates in less

time than with the real system using a feature of simulation called:

a. Warp speed
b. Time compression
c. Microseconds
d. None of the above

Question 5.

Which of the following statistical methods are commonly used to analyze

simulation results?

a. t-tests
b. Regression analysis
c. Analysis of variance
d. All of the above

Question 6.

A simulation can be used to:

a. Manipulate certain variables to measure the effects of changes on

operating characteristics of interest.
b. Prescribe what to do about a problem
c. Study alternative solutions to a problem
d. Answers 1 and 3

Question 7.

The drive-up window for a fast food operation was being studied using simulation
to determine a variety of operating characteristics. As part of the study, data was
collected on order processing time as given in the table below. Using the two high
order digits of the random numbers (RN), determine the processing time (in
minutes) that would be used to simulate the processing time for the fifth sample.

Processing Time (minutes) 1 2 3 4

Rel. Freq 0.3 0.45 0.2 0.05

Customer 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

RN 10480 22368 24130 42167 37570 15011 46573 48360 93093 39975

a. 3
b. 4
c. 1
d. 2
Question 8.

The drive-up window for a fast food operation was being studied using simulation
to determine a variety of operating characteristics. As part of the study, data was
collected on order processing time as given in the table below. Using the two high
order digits of the random numbers (RN) (below), determine the expected waiting
time for a customer to receive an order for a ten-sample simulation.

Processing Time (minutes) 1 2 3 4

Rel. Freq 0.3 0.45 0.2 0.05

Customer 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

RN 10480 22368 24130 42167 37570 15011 46573 48360 93093 39975

a. 2.3
b. 1.4
c. 2.0
d. 1.7

Question 9.

The drive-up window for a fast food operation was being studied using simulation
to determine a variety of operating characteristics. As part of the study, data was
collected on customer arrival time as given in the table below. Using expected
value calculations, determine the expected inter-arrival time (time between
customer arrivals).

Inter-Arrival Time

(Minutes) 0.5 1 2 3 4 5 6

Rel. Freq 0.1 0.25 0.2 0.3 0.05 0.05 0.05

a. 2.0
b. 2.35
c. 2.70
d. 1.65

Question 10.

The drive-up window for a fast food operation was being studied using simulation
to determine a variety of operating characteristics. As part of the study, data was
collected on customer arrival time as given in the table below. Using the two high
order digits of the random numbers (RN) (below), determine the expected waiting
time between customer arrivals for a ten-sample simulation.

Inter-Arrival Time

(minutes) 0.5 1 2 3 4 5 6

Rel. Freq 0.1 0.25 0.2 0.3 0.05 0.05 0.05

Customer 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

RN 01536 25595 22527 06243 81837 02011 85393 97265 61680 16656

a. 2.70
b. 2.35
c. 2.00
d. 1.65

1) What is/are the necessity/ies of Simulation Process in VHDL?

a. Requirement to test designs before implementation & usage

b. Reduction of development time
c. Decrease the time to market
d. All of the above
2) Timing analysis is more efficient with synchronous systems whose maximum operating frequency is
evaluated by the _________path delay between consecutive flip-flops.

a. shortest
b. average
c. longest
d. unpredictable
3) Which functions are performed by static timing analysis in simulation?

a. Computation of delay for each timing path

b. Logic analysis in a static manner
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
4) An event is nothing but ______ target signal, which is to be updated.

a. Fixed
b. Change on
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
5) Which concept proves to be beneficial in acquiring concurrency and order independence?

a. Alpha delay
b. Beta delay
c. Gamma delay
d. Delta delay
6) After an initialization phase, the simulator enters the ______phase.

a. Compilation
b. Elaboration
c. Execution
d. None of the above
7) Which among the following is not a characteristic of 'Event-driven Simulator'?
 a. Identification of timing violations
b. Storage of state values & time information
c. Time delay calculation
d. No event scheduling
8) Which type of simulator/s neglect/s the intra-cycle state transitions by checking the status of target
signals periodically irrespective of any events?

a. Event-driven Simulator
b. Cycle-based Simulator
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
9) In the simulation process, which step specifies the conversion of VHDL intermediate code so that it
can be used by the simulator?

a. Compilation
b. Elaboration
c. Initialization
d. Execution
10) Which type of simulation mode is used to check the timing performance of a design?

a. Behavioural
b. Switch-level
c. Transistor-level
d. Gate-level

1. All simulations involve:

a. The passage of time
b. A model on a computer
c. An imitation of a system
d. A visual display
2. The simulations described in the book are used for:
a. Understanding a system
b. Understanding and improving a system
c. Improving a system
d. None of the above
3. Which of the following systems can be simulated?
a. Transportation systems
b. Manufacturing systems
c. Health systems
d. All of the above
4. What software is likely to be needed for a simulation study?
a. Spread sheet software
b. Simulation package
c. Statistical software
d. All of the above
5. A simulation uses the logical relationships and mathematical expressions of the
 a. Real system
b. Computer model
c. Performance measures
d. Inferences
Q6. What encapsulates both data and data manipulation functions?
a) Object
b) Class
c) Super Class
d) Sub Class
Q7. How do clients access COM objects?
a) Through public data members because the object is usually implemented in C++
b) Through the servers' implementation of Invoke
c) Through the object's interfaces
Q8 RMI is stands for:
a) Remote methodology invocation
b) Research method invocation
c) Remote method invocation
d) Resource method invocation
Q9 CORBA is stands for:
a) Common oriented request broker architecture
b) Common object request break architecture
c) Common object request broker architecture
d) Common object request broker access
Q10. The standard which allows the access to DBMS by the Java client programs is
classified as
a) JCBD standard
b) JDBC standard
c) BDJC standard
d) CJBD standard

1. Which of the following are advantages of simulation?

Your Answer: (a) and (c) only
CORRECT.
2. The first step in simulation is to
Your Answer: validate the model.
Correct Answer: define the problem.
Incorrect. See section 15.1.
3. Which of the following are disadvantages of simulation?
Your Answer: "time compression" capability
Correct Answer: is not usually easily transferable to other problems
Incorrect. See section 15.2.
4. The first step in the Monte Carlo simulation process is to
Your Answer: set up cumulative probability distributions.
Correct Answer: set up probability distributions.
Incorrect. See section 15.3.
5. Cumulative probabilities are found by
Your Answer: summing all the previous probabilities up to the current value of the
variable.
CORRECT

6. If we are going to simulate an inventory

Your Answer: run the simulation for many days.

Correct Answer: run the simulation for many days many times, i.e., using multiple sets
of random numbers.

7. From a practical perspective, if we have a waiting line problem for which the Poisson and negative
exponential distributions do not apply, and we desire a reasonably accurate solution, we should

Your Answer: modify the queuing equations to make them appropriate for our problem.

Correct Answer: use simulation.

8. All of the following are various ways of generating random numbers except

Your Answer: table of random numbers

Correct Answer: Fibonacci series Incorrect. See section 15.3.

9. The three types of mathematical simulation models are

Your Answer: none of the above

Correct Answer: operational gaming, Monte Carlo, systems simulation.

10. Simulation should be thought of as a technique for

Your Answer: increasing one's understanding of a problem.

1. In assigning random numbers in a Monte Carlo simulation, it is important to

Your Answer: use only a single set of random numbers

Correct Answer: develop cumulative probability distributions

the

2. To simulate is to try to features, appearance, and characteristics of a real system.

Your Answer: analyze

Correct Answer: duplicate

3. When using Monte Carlo simulation,

Your Answer: the averages of the variables generated by the simulation should be somewhat larger than
the averages of the real-world variables.
Correct Answer: the average values of the variables generated by the simulation should approximate the
averages of the real-world variables.

4. Successful use of the simulation approach requires both knowledge of the problem to be solved and
knowledge of

Your Answer: engineering or computer science

Correct Answer: probability distributions and statistical analysis

5. Development of a useful simulation model is often a(n)

Your Answer: time-consuming, expensive

refers to simulation involving two or more competing players.

6. refers to simulation involving two or more completing players.

Your Answer: Systems simulation

Correct Answer: Operational gaming

7. The model used to train military personnel in urban warfare would be an example of

Your Answer: Monte Carlo simulation

Correct Answer: operational gaming

8. The model used to evaluate the layout of a factory would likely be an example of

Your Answer: system simulation

Correct Answer: Monte Carlo simulation

9. A model randomly generates the time that elapes until the next event occurs.

Your Answer: fixed time increment

Correct Answer: next event increment

answers the question "Did we build the model right?"

10. answers the question ‘’Did we build the model right?’’

Your Answer: Operational gaming.

Correct Answer: Verification

1. In a one queue is served by ono corico facility one service facility.

Your Answer: single-channel, single phase system

2. The distribution is sometimes used to describe the time between arrivals.

Your Answer: exponential

Correct Answer: negative exponential

3. Arrivals are considered when they are independent of one another and their occurrence cannot be
predicted exactly.

Your Answer: unpredictable

Correct Answer: random

4. The distribution is often used to describe the arrival rate of customers coming to join the queue.

Your Answer: Poisson

5. Queue determines the sequence in which customers that are in the queue receive service.

Your Answer: reneging

Correct Answer: discipline

6. With the constant service time model, both the average queue length and the average waiting time in
the queue are relative to exponentially

distributed times model.

Your Answer: halved

7. The term channel with respect to queuing refers to

Your Answer: the number of doors through which the arrivals may enter

Correct Answer: the number of queues

8. In the A/B/C designation for queuing systems, the B term represents information about

Your Answer: number of channels

Correct Answer: service times

9. If we wish to investigate the performance of a cafeteria, we should probably use a

Your Answer: single-phase model

Correct Answer: multiphase model

10. A state is the normal and stabilized operating condition of the queuing system.

Your Answer: balanced

Correct Answer: steady

11. When determining the arrival rate () and the service rate (u), the must be used.

Your Answer: same time period

1. In the multichannel model (M/M/m) we must assume that the average service time for all channels is
the same.
Your Answer: True

2. If we compare a single-channel system with = 15, to a three-channel system with the service rate for
the individual channel of = 5, we will find that the average wait time is less in the single-channel system.

Your Answer: False

3. It is typical in queuing problems to assume that the arrival rate can be estimated by an exponential
distribution.

Your Answer: True

Correct Answer: False

4. As a general rule, any time that the number of people in line can be a significant portion of the total
population, we should use a finite population model.

Correct Answer: True

5. Whether or not we use the finite population queuing model depends upon the relative arrival and
service rates, not just the size of the population from which the arrivals come.

Your Answer: False

Correct Answer: True

6. Whether or not we use the finite population queuing model depends upon the amount of space we
have in which to form the queue.

Your Answer: False

7. If a waiting line problem is particularly complex, we may have to turn to a simulation model.

Your Answer: False

Correct Answer: True

8. If we are using a simulation queuing model, we still have to abide by the assumption of a Poisson
arrival rate and negative exponential service rate.

Your Answer: True

Correct Answer: False

9. Using a simulation model allows one to ignore the common assumptions required to use analytical
models.

Correct Answer: True

10. Balking refers to customers who enter the queue but then leave without having completed their
transaction.

Your Answer: True

11. The magazines found in a doctor's office are there to reduce the perceived waiting time.

Your Answer: True

12. The average length, average waiting time, average number of customers, and average time in the
system for a constant service time model are always less than the model with nonconstant service time
assumption.

Correct Answer: False

11. The magazines found in a doctor's office are there to reduce the perceived waiting time.

Your Answer: True

12. The average length, average waiting time, average number of customers, and average time in the
system for a constant service time model are always less than the model with nonconstant service time
assumption.

Your Answer: True

1. Which of the following is a type of computer-assisted instruction (CAI)?

A) Instructional game.

B) Simulation.

C) Both A and B

D) Study Guides.

2. If a learner responds to a fixed presentation of frames in a CAI program, the learner is using:

A) Branching tutorial software.

B) Simulation software.

C) Linear software.

D) Problem-solving software.

3. What type of program allows students to experiment with dangerous chemicals without real danger?

A) Problem-solving.

B) Drill and practice

C) Simulation.

D) Tutorial

4. The Oregon Trail is an example of:

A) Problem-solving software.

B) Simulation software.

C) Instructional game software.

D) Drill and practice software.

5. Which option below best answers the question, "How does a drill and practice program handle
incorrect responses?"

A) It gives the right answer and proceeds to the next problem.

B) It ignores all responses from the keyboard, except the correct one.

C) Gives several hints, and then gives the right answer.

D) All of the above

6. Instructional games:

A) Are used for entertainment.

B) Have a learning objective.

C) Do not fit in the classroom environment.

D) Are never a component of simulation software.

7. Why is CAI a good tool for students with special needs?

A) Because computer-assisted instruction repeats the same explanation.

B) Because CAI requires a high degree of dexterity.

C) Because CAI requires the student to come to school.

D) It is not a good tool for students with special needs.

8. CMI (computer-managed instruction):

A) Uses tutorials, and drills and practice.

B) Keeps track of student scores and offers prescriptions for study.

C) Uses simulation and problem-solving approaches.

D) Helps students learn to surf the Internet.

9. All the following statements about CMI (computer-managed instruction) are true except:

A) The program takes time and knowledge to set up.

B) The teacher can take the semester to input tasks for each student.

C) A CMI is designed to help the teacher test, evaluate, and prescribe work for each
student.

D) CMI can track grades, attendance, and schedules.

10. The type of software that gives student diagnostic data, monitors student performance, and
individualizes instructional software that tracks student progress is:

A) Computer-assisted Instruction.

B) Simulation software.

C) Branching tutorial.

D) Integrated learning system

11. When selecting software, it is most important to:

A) Investigate technical support.

B) Make sure there is a Web site with supplemental software.

C) Have all the teachers try it first.

D) All of the above

12. Which of the following points is important to consider when choosing instructional software?

A) Hardware compatibility

B) Program is as close to a book form as possible

C) Number of features that come with the program.

D) The quality of the written handbook that accompanies the software.

13. A policy and procedures manual for a software library should include all of the following, except:

A) Procedures to evaluate and select software.

B) A comparative analysis of other software on the market.

C) Who is responsible for the collection.

D) Procedures on cataloging software

14. Public domain software:

A) Is copyrighted and cannot be shared like shareware.

B) Is of consistently high quality.

C) May lack documentation or support.

D) Is hard to find.

15. Shareware:

A) Is free software that can be shared.

B) Is heavily marketed and promoted on the Internet.

C) Usually has documentation, technical support, and free updates after a payment.

D) Is of no use to teachers.

Question 1.

Which of the following are advantages of simulation?

Open Hint for Question 1 in a new window.

 a. Simulation allows "what-if?" type of questions.
b. Simulation can usually be performed by hand or using a small calculator.
c. Simulation does not interfere with the real-world system.
d. all of the above
e) (a) and (c) only

End of Question 1

Question 2.

The first step in simulation is to

Open Hint for Question 2 in a new window.

1. set up possible courses of action for testing.

2. construct a numerical model.
3. validate the model.
4. define the problem.
5. none of the above

End of Question 2

Question 3.

Which of the following are disadvantages of simulation?

Open Hint for Question 3 in a new window.

 a. inability to analyze large and complex real-world situations
b. "time compression" capability
c. could be disruptive by interfering with the real-world system
d. is not usually easily transferable to other problems
e. all of the above

End of Question 3

Question 4.

The first step in the Monte Carlo simulation process is to

Open Hint for Question 4 in a new window.

a. generate random numbers.

b. set up cumulative probability distributions.
c. establish random number intervals.
d. simulate trials.
e. set up probability distributions.

End of Question 4

Question 5.

Cumulative probabilities are found by

Open Hint for Question 5 in a new window.

 a. summing all the probabilities associated with a variable.
b. simulating the initial probability distribution.
c. summing all the previous probabilities up to the current value of the variable.
d. any method one chooses.
e. none of the above

End of Question 5

Question 6.

If we are going to simulate an inventory problem, we must

Open Hint for Question 6 in a new window.

a. run the simulation for many days.

b. run the simulation for many days many times, i.e., using multiple sets of random
numbers.
c. run the simulation many times, i.e., using multiple sets of random numbers.
d. run the simulation once, for a relative short period of time.
e. none of the above

End of Question 6

Question 7.

From a practical perspective, if we have a waiting line problem for which the Poisson and negative
exponential distributions do not apply, and we desire a reasonably accurate solution, we should
Open Hint for Question 7 in a new window.

a. modify the queuing equations to make them appropriate for our problem.
b. use simulation.
c. use the simple queuing equations even though we realize they are inappropriate.
d. build a physical model and use that to study the problem.
e. none of the above

End of Question 7

Question 8.

All of the following are various ways of generating random numbers except

Open Hint for Question 8 in a new window.

a.
b. table of random numbers
c. spin of roulette wheel
d. computer-generated random numbers
e. Von Neumann midsquare method
f. Fibonacci series

End of Question 8

Question 9.

The three types of mathematical simulation models are

Open Hint for Question 9 in a new window.

a. operational gaming, Monte Carlo, systems simulation.

b. Monte Carlo, queuing, maintenance policy.
c. Monte Carlo, systems simulation, computer gaming.
d. system simulation, operational gaming, weather forecasting.
e. none of the above

End of Question 9

Question 10.

Simulation should be thought of as a technique for

Open Hint for Question 10 in a new window.

a. increasing one's understanding of a problem.

b. obtaining a relatively inexpensive solution to a problem.
c. obtaining an optimal solution to a problem.
d. providing quick and dirty answers to complex problems.
e. none of the above

Question 1
A major benefit of simulation is its capability to ask what-if questions

a) True

b) False
 Question 2
Special computer packages have been developed to undertake real-life
simulation.

a) True

b) False
Question 3
Simulations can keep track of several different kinds of information, including:
orders, inventory, and financial planning.

a) True

b) False
Question 4
Random numbers are used:

a) To give random outcomes

b) To describe the uncertainty of input values

c) To assign values to the parameters

d) To change the problem solution

Question 5
 Monte Carlo simulation ensures that:

a) The simulated probability distribution will be the same as the actual

probability distribution

b) Only one uncertain decision can be in any simulation model

c) Probabilities must be at most two decimal places

d) Each of the above is true

Question 6
The Excel function RAND() can be used to generate random numbers between 0
and 1.

a) False

b) True
Question 7
The Excel function RANDBETWEEN() can be used to generate random
numbers between 0 and 1.

a) True

b) False
Question 8
 To simulate a uniform distribution use the Excel expression: = a + (b -
a)*RAND()

a) True

b) False
Question 9
To generate a random number from a normal distribution use the Excel
function: =NORM.INV(RAND(), μ, σ).

a) False

b) True
Question 10
The binomial distribution can be simulated using the Excel function: =
BINOM.INV(n, p, RAND())?

a) True

b) False
_________ is an attitude formed by a long-term, overall evaluation of a firm's performance.

X Customer satisfaction

X Negative disconfirmation

X Positive disconfirmation

:-) Service quality

? Customer retention

__________ is a short-term, transaction specific measure.

:-) Customer satisfaction

? Focus group interviews

? Noncustomer research

? Service quality

? Customer retention

Which of the following statements is correct?

X customer satisfaction leads to perceived service quality

X service quality leads to customer satisfaction

X service quality leads to increased purchasing behavior

X customer satisfaction leads to increased purchasing behavior

? the relationship between service quality and customer satisfaction and how

these two concepts relate to purchasing behavior remains largely unexplained

The distance between a customer’s expectations of a service and perception of

the service actually delivered is called:

:-) service gap

? knowledge gap

? standards gap

? delivery gap
 ? communication gap

The firm's increased research orientation and enhanced upward communication

will assist the firm in decreasing which one of the following gaps?

:-) knowledge gap

? standards gap

? delivery gap

? communications gap

? confirmation gap

Understanding the customer is a critical step toward minimizing or completely

eliminating the:

:-) knowledge gap

? standards gap

? delivery gap

? communications gap

? confirmation gap

A hotel may feel that its customers prefer comfortable rooms, when, in fact,

the majority of the hotel's customers spend little time in their rooms and are

more interested in on-site amenities such as the pool, spa, and restaurants.

This hotel is suffering from a:

:-) knowledge gap

X standards gap

? delivery gap

? communications gap

? confirmation gap

As a service organization's hierarchy becomes more complex and more levels

of management are added, the firm is more likely to experience a:

:-) knowledge gap

X standards gap

? delivery gap

? communications gap

? confirmation gap

The difference between management perceptions of customer expectations and

and standards specifying service to be delivered is called the:

? knowledge gap

:-) standards gap

? delivery gap

? communications gap

? service gap

The firm's overemphasis on cost reduction and short-term profits will increase

the size of the:

? knowledge gap

:-) standards gap

? delivery gap

? communications gap

? confirmation gap

Management's inability to translate what consumers want into a written business

plan will increase the size of the:

X knowledge gap

:-) standards gap

? delivery gap
 ? communications gap

? confirmation gap

The __________ occurs between the actual performance of a service and the

standards set by management.

X knowledge gap

X standards gap

:-) delivery gap

? communications gap

? service gap

Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing the delivery gap?

X willingness to perform

X employee-job fit

X role ambiguity

:-) overpromising

? inadequate support

Employee willingness to perform and employee-job fit are directly related to

which of the following service quality gaps?

X knowledge gap

X standards gap

:-) delivery gap

? communications gap

? service gap

Minimizing the amount of role conflict and role ambiguity experienced by

employees will help reduce the size of this gap.

X knowledge gap
X standards gap

:-) delivery gap

? communications gap

? confirmation gap

The __________ is the difference between the service the firm promises to

deliver through its external communications and the service it actually delivers

to its customers.

X knowledge gap

X standards gap

X delivery gap

:-) communications gap

? service gap

According to the text, when competing firms begin to overpromise in order to

top one another, a __________ is likely to occur.

X knowledge gap

X standards gap

X delivery gap

:-) communications gap

? service gap

Which of the following statements pertaining to the SERVQUAL scale is

correct?

X SERVQUAL compares perceptions to what customers would normally expect

X SERVQUAL is a 22-item scale

X SERVQUAL consists of four service quality dimensions

:-) SERVQUAL compares perceptions to what a customer should expect from a

firm the delivers high-quality services

? All the above statements are incorrect

Which of the following statements pertaining to the SERVQUAL scale is

incorrect?

X The SERVQUAL dimensions were obtained through extensive focus group interviews

X SERVQUAL is a 44-item scale

X SERVQUAL consists of five service quality dimensions

X SERVQUAL compares perceptions to what a customer should expect from a

firm the delivers high-quality services

? The smaller the gap score for each of the service quality dimensions, the lower the level of service
quality provided

Which of the following is not one the five dimensions that is measured by the

SERVQUAL SCALE?

X tangibles

:-) employee satisfaction

? responsiveness

? assurance

? empathy

The SERVQUAL dimension that measures consumer views of the firm's personnel and communication
materials is the ________ dimension.

:-) tangibles

? employee satisfaction

? responsiveness

? assurance

? reliability

Employees of excellent companies will be neat in appearance is a typical statement within the
__________ dimension of the SERVQUAL scale.
:-) tangibles

? reliability

? responsiveness

? assurance

? reliability

The __________ dimension is an assessment of the firm's consistency and

dependability in service performance.

X tangibles

X empathy

X responsiveness

X assurance

? reliability

Excellent companies will perform the service right the first time is a typical

statement within the __________ dimension of the SERVQUAL scale.

X tangibles

X empathy

X responsiveness

X assurance

? reliability

__________ refers to the service firm's commitment to providing its services

in a timely manner.

X tangibles

X empathy

:-) responsiveness

? assurance
 ? reliability

The SERVQUAL dimension that measures consumer views that reflect the

security of the firm's operations is the ________ dimension.

X tangibles

X employee satisfaction

X responsiveness

:-) assurance

? reliability

Excellent companies will have the customer's best interest at heart is a typical

statement within the __________ dimension of the SERVQUAL scale.

X tangibles

:-) empathy

? responsiveness

? assurance

? reliability

Which of the following is a major criticism of the SERVQUAL scale?

X short questionnaire

:-) validity of the five service quality dimensions

? does not predict consumer purchase intention

? contact personnel

? none of the above

Research that examines the customer’s perspective of a firm’s strengths and weaknesses is called:

:-) customer research

? employee survey

? noncustomer research
 ? customer complaints

? service quality survey

The SERVQUAL dimension that is typically noted as the least important by customers is the __________
dimension.

:-) tangibles

? empathy

? responsiveness

? assurance

? reliability

The SERVQUAL dimension that is typically noted as the most important

by customers is the __________ dimension.

X tangibles

X empathy

X responsiveness

X assurance

? reliability

Which of the following is not a component of a service quality information

system?

X mystery shopping

:-) customer retention interviews

? after-sale surveys

? employee surveys

? total market service quality surveys

The component of a firm's service quality information system that is used

specifically to assess employee performance is:

X solicitation of customer complaints

X customer focus group interviews

X employee surveys

:-) mystery shopping

? total market service quality survey

The component of a firm's service quality information system that

assesses the firm's and competitor's service quality ratings is:

X solicitation of customer complaints

X customer focus group interviews

X employee surveys

X mystery shopping

? total market service quality survey

Which of the following is NOT a key component that needs to be built into every service quality system?

X listening

X reliability

X servant leadership

:-) individual play

Question 1.

A tool for assessing the level of service quality based on the difference between users expectations and
the service experience delivered is:

none of the above.

the balanced scorecard.

 the information value model.

the service dashboard.

the service quality gap model.

Question 2.

A security measure to enable accidentally or deliberately deleted data to be resurrected is:

physical access restrictions.

business continuity/disaster recovery.

none of the above.

backup/restore.

network access control.

Question 3.

The creation of applications by end users (typically based on spreadsheets and database) is:

end user computing.

end user development.

Question 4.

The element of service quality which is defined as 'the knowledge and courtesy of employees and their
ability to convey trust and confidence'.

Tangibles.

Assurance.

Responsiveness.
 Empathy.

Reliability.

Question 5.

The element of service quality which is defined as 'the ability to perform the service dependably'.

Reliability.

Responsiveness.

Empathy.

Tangibles.

Assurance.

Question 6.

The element of service quality which is defined as 'a willingness to help customers and provide prompt
service'.

Responsiveness.

Tangibles.

Empathy.

Assurance.

Reliability.

Question 7.

A security measure to stop unauthorized access to documents is:

 backup/restore.

business continuity/disaster recovery.

network access control.

none of the above.

physical access restrictions.

Question 8.

This type of virus occupies boot record of hard and floppy disks and activated during computer startup.

Macro-virus.

Trojan virus.

Worm.

Boot-sector virus.

E-mail virus.

Question 9.

This type of virus is activated when a user runs an application such as a word processor or spreadsheet.

Macro-virus.

Trojan virus.

Boot-sector virus.

Worm.

E-mail virus.

Question 10.

Business activities that are contracted to a third party is known as:

 outsourcing.

business process outsourcing.

offshoring.

IT outsourcing.

none of the above.

1. Holistic marketing for services demands

a) External marketing

b) Internal marketing

c) Interactive marketing

d) All of the above

ANSWER: d) All of the above

2. _________ is about the normal work of creation, pricing, distribution and promotion of services to
customers.

a) External marketing

b) Internal marketing

c) Interactive marketing

d) All of the above

ANSWER: a) External marketing

3. ____________ is about motivating and training employees to serve customers well.

a) External marketing

b) Internal marketing

c) Interactive marketing

d) All of the above

ANSWER: b) Internal marketing

4. Core service failure and response to service failure both can lead to customer switching behavior.

a) True

b) False

c) Vary as per condition

d) None of the above

ANSWER: a) True

5. ________ is about employees skills in serving the client.

a) External marketing

b) Internal marketing

c) Interactive marketing

d) All of the above

ANSWER: b) Internal marketing

6. To assess the service quality, customers compare the perceived service with the expected service.

a) True

b) False

c) Can't say

d) None of the above

ANSWER: a) True

7. The service-quality model identifies _________ gaps that results in unsuccessful delivery.

a) 4

b) 3

c) 5

d) 6

ANSWER: c) 5
8. As per the service quality model, researchers figure out _________ determinants of service quality.

a) 4

b) 3

c) 5

d) 6

ANSWER: c) 5

9. The five determinants of service quality in order of importance are:

a) Tangibles, empathy, assurance, responsiveness, reliability

b) Responsiveness, Reliability, Assurance, Empathy, Tangibles

c) Reliability, Responsiveness, Assurance, Empathy, Tangibles

d) All of above are false

ANSWER: c) Reliability, Responsiveness, Assurance, Empathy, Tangibles

10. As per service-quality model, the capacity to complete the promised service accurately and
dependably is

a) Responsiveness

b) Reliability

c) Assurance

d) Empathy

ANSWER: b) Reliability

1. Researchers identify four different types of tool that firms can use to grow the level of customer
engagement. Which of the following is not one of them?

Amplificative tools.

Connective tools

Advertising tools

Creative tools
2. The extent to which a service envelops a product varies according to a number of factors. Which of
the following is NOT one of the factors?

the level of tangibility associated with the type of product

performance-value.

variations in supply and demand

the way in which the service is delivered

3. A series of sequential actions that lead to predetermined outcomes when a service is performed
correctly is called:____________

service recovery.

service quality.

service processes.

service failure.

4. These types of services try to shape attitudes or behaviour. In order to achieve this, these services
have to be oriented to people's minds, This is referred to as:

Possession processing.

People processing.

Mental stimulus processing.

Information processing.

5. Which of the following is not one of the service processes?

People processing.

Possession processing.

Information processing.

Physical evidence.

6. This is when customers visit the service facility so that they are personally involved throughout the
service delivery process:

high-contact services.

information processing services.

medium-contact services.

low-contact services.

7. A framework categorizes different services, which, in turn, influence the degree to which market
offerings can be evaluated, and three main properties are identified:

search, experiment, and credence properties

search, experience, and credence properties.

sell, trust, and credence properties.

search, belief, and confidence properties.

8. An event that occurs when a customer interacts directly with a service is called:_____

service encounter.

service recovery.

service quality.

service failure.

9. A disconfirmation model and is based on the difference between the expected services and the actual
perceived service is called::

SERVSAT

SERVNET

SERVQUAL

SERVMOD

10. If an advertisement shows the interior of a train with comfortable seats and plenty of space yet a
customer boards a train only to find a lack of space and hard seating. This is an example of:

GAP 4-the gap between service delivery and external communications.

GAP 2-the gap between management perception and service-quality specification

GAP1-the gap between the customer's expectations and management perception.

GAP 3-the gap between service-quality specifications and service delivery.

11. The train operator understands customer desire for a comfortable seat but fails to specify how many
should be provided relative to the anticipated number of travellers on each route. This is an example of:
GAP 2-the gap between management perception and service-quality specification.

GAP1-the gap between the customer's expectations and management perception.

GAP 3-the gap between service-quality specifications and service delivery.

GAP 4-the gap between service delivery and external communications.

12. The development of customer experience marketing has been built on evolving ideas
concerning:__________

service encounters, perceived value, relationship marketing, and customer retention.

service encounters, perceived value, relationship marketing, and building facilities.

service encounters, perceived value, service recovery, and customer satisfaction.

service encounters, perceived value, relationship marketing, and customer satisfaction.

13. ________________ occur(s) where there is no prior history of exchange and no future exchanges are
expected between a buyer and seller.

Relationship marketing

Service mix

Market exchanges

Service failure.

14. An approach that encompasses a wide range of relationships, not just with customers, but also those
that organizations develop with suppliers, regulators, government, competitors, employees, and others,
is referred to as:

Market exchanges.

Service failure.

Relationship marketing.

Shared responsibility.

15. A customer relationship lifecycle consists of four main stages:

customer acquisition, customer development,customer attraction and customer satisfaction.

customer acquisition, customer development, customer retention, and customer decline.

customer acquisition, customer development, service encounter and customer attraction .

service processes, customer retention, customer acquisition, and customer decline.

16. Which of the following is not the main stage in a customer relationship lifecycle?

Customer acquisition.

Customer development.

Customer satisfaction.

Customer decline.

17. Sellers encourage buyers to purchase increased quantities, to try other products, to engage with
other added-value services, and to vary delivery times and quantities. These activities occur in:

Customer development phase.

Customer acquisition phase.

Customer decline phase.

Customer retention phase.

18. Sellers encourage buyers to purchase increased quantities, to try other products, to engage with
other added-value services, and to vary delivery times and quantities. This is referred to as:___________

the customer acquisition phase.

the customer decline phase.

the customer development phase.

the customer retention phase.

19. It has been claimed that the three major outcomes from the development of relationship trust are
satisfaction, ___________, and continuity (Pavlou, 2002).

reduced perceived risk

service recovery.

Service processes.

efficiency.

20. When there is little or no personal contact between customer and service provider, this is classified
as:

Low-contact service.
Medium-contact service.

High-contact service.

Intense-contact service.
1 Research Methodology Multiple Choice Questions
1- The main concept behind doing research is to
A- study and explore knowledge.
B- start with a predefined and clear-cut objectives.
C- get new ideas.
D- define clear objectives.
E- all the above.
2- In order to begin research, one must
A- start with a number of clear goals.
B- start with a number of predefined objectives.
C- have a well defined research method.
D- solve the research problem.
3- Doing research requires drafting a working outline, which is
A- having a predefined and clear-cut objective(s).
B- planning to get answers for what, why & where type of questions.
C- having a clear idea about the research problem solution.
D- none of the above.
4- Research objectives falls into a number of categories that include
A- planning to get answers for what, why & where type of questions.
B- considering the logic behind the methods we use in the context of the research.
C- formulative, concept, and planning for research methods.
D- exploratory, descriptive, diagnostic and experimentation research.
5- Formulative research studies is a category of research that aims to
A- achieve new insights of a concept.
B- analyze characteristics of something.
C- determine the frequency with which something occurs.
D- test the relationship between variables.
6- Diagnostic research studies is a category of research that aims to
A- achieve new insights of a concept.
B- analyze characteristics of something.
C- determine the frequency with which something occurs.
D- test the relationship between variables.
7- Descriptive research studies is a category of research that aims to
A- achieve new insights of a concept.
B- analyze characteristics of something.
C- determine the frequency with which something occurs.
D- test the relationship between variables.
8- Research is considered to be more than just a way of skills, it is
A- planning to what, why and where type of questions to determine a goal.
B- a way of critical thinking about professional aspects of related to your work.
C- the research methods used within the research methodology.
D- discovering the relationship between variables.
9- Research aims for finding “answers” to “questions” it implies
A- a framework of philosophies.
B- using valid and reliable methods and techniques.
C- an unbiased design.
D- all the above.
10- Research philosophies refers to
 A- approaches and the discipline.
B- correct procedures in the discipline.
C- ideas to discover.
D- objectives to consider in the research process.
11- In order to make the research reliable, it requires that
A- there is no deliberate attempt to either to conceal or highlight something.
B- quantitative and qualitative methods are to be used.
C- repeatability and accuracy are provided for the quality of measurement procedures used.
D- the solution to the research problem is known in advance.
12- In order to make the research unbiased, it requires that
A- there is no deliberate attempt to either to conceal or highlight something.
B- quantitative and qualitative methods are to be used.
C- repeatability and accuracy are provided for the quality of measurement procedures used.
D- the solution to the research problem is known in advance.
13- The main difference between research and non-research is
A- the type of skills we use to discover something.
B- the utilization of acceptable scientific methodology to solve problems to create new knowledge.
C- the quantitative and qualitative methods that are to be used.
D- all the above.
14- Biased research refers to
A- drawing conclusions by introducing oneʼs own vested interest.
B- no deliberate attempt to either conceal or highlight something.
C- repeatability and accuracy are provided for the quality of measurement procedures used.
D- each step of the research is valid and objective.
15- Descriptive research is the type of research that
A- is made for performing the basic or pure research; itʼs a theoretical research.
B- is intended for finding some solution to the problem considered.
C- includes fact-finding enquires and surveys.
D- uses available information as the base to make the further critical evaluation.
16- Analytical research is the type of research that
A- is made for performing the basic or pure research; itʼs a theoretical research.
B- is intended for finding some solution to the problem considered.
C- includes fact-finding enquires and surveys.
D- uses available information as the base to make the further critical evaluation.
17- Applied research is the type of research that
A- is made for performing the basic or pure research; itʼs a theoretical research.
B- is intended for finding some solution to the problem considered.
C- includes fact-finding enquires and surveys.
D- uses available information as the base to make the further critical evaluation.
18- Fundamental research is the type of research that
A- is made for performing the basic or pure research; itʼs a theoretical research.
B- is intended for finding some solution to the problem considered.
C- includes fact-finding enquires and surveys.
D- uses available information as the base to make the further critical evaluation.
19- Research can be classified from three perspectives
A- philosophies, validity and unbiased.
B- controlled, systematic and empirical.
 C- rigorous, valid and critical.
D- application, objectives and inquiry mode used.
20. The Research Process have certain characteristics. One of the statements below are not part of these
characteristics
A- Controlled & Systematic
B- Quantitative & Qualitative
C- Critical & Empirical
D- Rigorous & Valid
21. A good qualitative problem statement:
a. Defines the independent and dependent variables
b. Conveys a sense of emerging design
c. Specifies a research hypothesis to be tested
d. Specifies the relationship between variables that the researcher expects to find
22. The “tool” function of theory is to:
a. Summarize existing knowledge
b. Summarize existing hypotheses
c. Suggest new relationships and make new predictions
d. Suggest new theories
23. The statement of purpose in a research study should:
a. Identify the design of the study
b. Identify the intent or objective of the study
c. Specify the type of people to be used in the study
d. Describe the study
24. Why is the statement “What are the effects of extracurricular activities on cognitive development of
school age children” not a good statement of a quantitative research question?
a. Because there is no connection between extracurricular activities and cognitive development
b. Because there are not enough school age children engaged in extracurricular activities to
conduct the study
c. Because the study would be too difficult to do given all the different extracurricular activities
d. Because the statement was not specific enough to provide an understanding of the variables
being investigated
25. A qualitative research question:
a. Asks a question about some process, or phenomenon to be explored
b. Is generally an open-ended question
c. both a and b are correct
d. None of the above
26. According to the text, which of the following orders is the recommended in the flowchart of the
development of a research idea?
a. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, hypothesis
b. Research topic, research purpose, research problem, research question, hypothesis
c. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, hypothesis
d. Research topic, hypothesis, research problem, research question, research purpose
27. It is essential that you evaluate the quality of internet resources because information obtained via
the internet ranges from very poor to very good.
a. True
b. False
28. One step that is not included in planning a research study is:
a. Identifying a researchable problem
 b. A review of current research
c. Statement of the research question
d. Conducting a meta-analysis of the research
e. Developing a research plan
29. Sources of researchable problems can include:
a. Researchers’ own experiences as educators
b. Practical issues that require solutions
c. Theory and past research
d. All of the above
30. A key characteristic of past research that guides researchers in new research questions is that:
a. Extensive research conclusively and definitively answers research questions
b. Studies typically generate more research questions than they answer
31. Which of the following is a function of theory?
a. Integrating and summarizing current knowledge
b. Making predictions
c. Explaining phenomena
d. All of the above are important functions of theory
32. A review of the literature prior to formulating research questions allows the researcher to do which
of the following?
a. To become familiar with prior research on the phenomenon of interest
b. To identify potential methodological problems in the research area
c. To develop a list of pertinent problems relative to the phenomenon of interest
d. All of the above
33. Sometimes a comprehensive review of the literature prior to data collection is not recommended by
grounded theorists.
a. True
b. False
34. What kind of ideas can’t be empirically researched?
a. Effectiveness of different methods of instruction
b. Description of educational practices
c. Issues of values and morality such as the correctness of having prayer in schools
d. Factors helpful in predicting future drug use
35. Which of the following is not a database containing information to be used during the literature
review?
a. ERIC
b. PsychINFO
c. SocioFILE
d. all of the above are potentially useful data bases
36. Computer database searches can be done:
a. With a computer with CD-ROM drive
b. At the library
c. Online
d. All of the above
37. The feasibility of a research study should be considered in light of:
a. Cost and time required to conduct the study
b. Skills required of the researcher
c. Potential ethical concerns
d. All of the above
38. A formal statement of the research question or “purpose of research study” generally _____.
a. Is made prior to the literature review
b. Is made after the literature review
c. Will help guide the research process
d. All of the above
e. b and c
39. Is the following qualitative research purpose statement “well stated” or “poorly stated”? “The focus
of the present study was to explore distressing and nurturing encounters of patients with caregivers and
to ascertain the meanings that are engendered by such encounters. The study was conducted on one of
the surgical units and the obstetrical/gynecological unit of a 374-bed community hospital.”
a. It is a well stated
b. It is poorly stated
40. Which of the following quantitative research questions is superior?
e. “What is the effect of participation in various extracurricular activities on academic
performance?”
f. “What effect does playing high school football have on students’ overall grade point
average during the football season?”
41. A statement of the quantitative research question should:
a. Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question(s) the researcher will
address
b. Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures, and
materials
c. Specify the variables of interest
d. All of the above
42. The research participants are described in detail in which section of the research plan?
a. Introduction
b. Method
c. Data analysis
d. Discussion
43. Research hypotheses are ______.
a. Formulated prior to a review of the literature
b. Statements of predicted relationships between variables
c. Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted
d. b and c
44. Hypotheses in qualitative research studies usually _____.
a. Are very specific and stated prior to beginning the study
b. Are often generated as the data are collected, interpreted, and analyzed
c. Are never used
d. Are always stated after the research study has been completed
45. A research plan _____.
a. Should be detailed
b. Should be given to others for review and comments
c. Sets out the rationale for a research study
d. All of the above
46. The Method section of the research plan typically specifies
a. The research participants
b. The results of prior studies that address the phenomena of interest
c. The apparatus, instruments, and materials for the research study
 d. The planned research procedures e. a, c and d
47. The Introduction section of the research plan
a. Gives an overview of prior relevant studies
b. Contains a statement of the purpose of the study
c. Concludes with a statement of the research questions and, for quantitative research, it includes
the research hypothesis
d. All of the above
48. According to your text, which of the following is not a source of research ideas?
a. Everyday life
b. Practical issues
c. Past research
d. Theory
e. All of the above are sources of research ideas
49. In the research process, the management question has the following critical activity in sequence.
a. Origin, selection, statement, exploration and refinement
b. Origin, statement, selection, exploration and refinement
c. Origin, exploration, selection, refinement, and statement
d. Origin, exploration, refinement, selection and statement
50. The chapter that details the way in which the research was conducted is the _________ chapter
a. Introduction
b. Literature review
c. Research methodology
d. Data analysis e. Conclusion and recommendations
51. Business research has an inherent value to the extent that it helps management make better
decisions. Interesting information about consumers, employees, or competitors might be pleasant to
have, but its value is limited if the information cannot be applied to a critical decision
. a. True
b. False
52. The researcher should never report flaws in procedural design and estimate their effect on the
findings.
a. True
b. False
53. Adequate analysis of the data is the least difficult phase of research for the novice.
a. True
b. False
54. The validity and reliability of the data should be checked occasionally
a. True
b. False
55. Researchers are tempted to rely too heavily on data collected in a prior study and use it in the
interpretation of a new study
a. True
b. False
56. What is a good research? The following are correct except
a. Purpose clearly defined
b. Research process detailed
c. Research design thoroughly planned
d. Findings presented ambiguously
57. Greater confidence in the research is warranted if the researcher is experienced, has a good
reputation in research, and is a person of integrity
a. True
b. False
58. A complete disclosure of methods and procedures used in the research study is required. Such
openness to scrutiny has a positive effect on the quality of research. However, competitive advantage
often mitigates against methodology disclosure in business research.
a. True
b. False
59. Research is any organized inquiry carried out to provide information for solving problems.
a. True
b. False
60. In deduction, the conclusion must necessarily follow from the reasons given. In inductive argument
there is no such strength of relationship between reasons and conclusions.
a. True
b. False
61. Conclusions must necessarily follow from the premises. Identify the type of arguments that follows
the above condition.
a. Induction
b. Combination of Induction and Deduction
c. Deduction Variables
62. Eminent scientists who claim there is no such thing as the scientific method, or if exists, it is not
revealed by what they write, caution researchers about using template like approaches
a. True
b. False
63. One of the terms given below is defined as “a bundle of meanings or characteristics associated with
certain events, objects, conditions, situations, and the like
a. Construct
b. Definition
c. Concept
d. Variable 64.

This is an idea or image specifically invented for a given research and/or theory building purpose
a. Concept
b. Construct
c. Definition
d. Variables
65. The following are the synonyms for independent variable except
a. Stimulus
b. Manipulated
c. Consequence
d. Presumed Cause
66. The following are the synonyms for dependent variable except
a. Presumed effect
b. Measured Outcome
c. Response
d. Predicted from…
67. In the research process, a management dilemma triggers the need for a decision.
a. True
b. False
68. Every research proposal, regardless of length should include two basic sections. They are:
a. Research question and research methodology
b. Research proposal and bibliography
c. Research method and schedule
d. Research question and bibliography
69. The purpose of the research proposal is:
a. To generate monetary sources for the organization
b. To present management question to be researched and its importance
c. To discuss the research efforts of others who have worked on related management question.
Q129 Testing hypothesis is a ________ a. Inferential statistics b. Descriptive statistics c. Data preparation
d. Data analysis Q130 Is it possible to apply projective techniques for exploratory investigation?
a. Yes
b. No
Q131 What is the purpose of doing research?
a. To identify problem
b. To find the solution
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
Q132 Which method can be applicable for collecting qualitative data?
a. Artifacts (Visual)
b. People
c. Media products ( Textual, Visual and sensory)
d. All of these
Q133 Which of the following is non-probability sampling?
a. Snowball
b. Random
c. Cluster
d. Stratified
Q134 In group interview their are _______
a. One interviewer and one interviewee
b. More than one interviewer and one interviewee
c. One interviewer and more than one interviewee
d. More than One interviewer and more than one interviewee
Q135 Which of the following are associated with behavioral observation?
a. Non-verbal analysis
b. Linguistic analysis
c. Spatial analysis
d. All of these
Q136 Uniting various qualitative methods with quantitative methods can be called as........
a. Coalesce
b. Triangulation
c. Bipartite
d. Impassive
Q137 Multistage sampling is a ________
a. Probability sampling
b. Non-Probability sampling
Question 138 What is distinctive about "Mode 2" knowledge production?
a) It proceeds in a linear fashion building on existing knowledge.
b) It is driven primarily by an academic agenda.
c) It involves academics, policy makers and practitioners in problem solving.
d) It places limited emphasis on the practical dissemination of knowledge.
Question 139 Which of the following is not an example of a middle-range theory?
a) Labour process theory
b) Contingency theory
c) Strategic choice
d) Structuration
Question 140 An inductive theory is one that:
a) involves testing an explicitly defined hypothesis.
b) does not allow for findings to feed back into the stock of knowledge.
c) uses quantitative methods whenever possible.
d) allows theory to emerge out of the data.
Question 141 What is the epistemological position held by a positivist?
a) There is no substitute for an in-depth, hermeneutic understanding of society.
b) Scientific research should be based on value-free, empirical observations.
c) Events and discourses in the social world prevent us from having direct knowledge of the natural
order.
d) It is important to remain optimistic about our research, even when things go wrong.
Question 142 An interpretivist perspective on the issue of leadership suggests that:
a) 'good' leadership can be measured.
b) leaders are born and not made.
c) it is a construct that is used to make sense of social action.
d) all leaders act in the same way regardless of context.
Question 143 Which of the following is an ontological question?
a) Should I use questionnaires or interviews in my project?
b) What can (and should) be considered acceptable forms of knowledge?
c) How long is it since I last visited the dentist?
d) Do social entities have an objective reality, external to social actors?
Question 144 The constructionist ontological position suggests that:
a) social phenomena and their meanings are constantly being accomplished by social actors.
b) individuals are born into a world of rules and structures that they cannot change
. c) building and construction work presents an ideal opportunity to exercise the sociological
imagination.
d) social facts and objects have an external reality, independently of the people who perceive them.
Question 145 According to Burrell & Morgan (1979) which one of the following is not a paradigm within
business research methods?
a) Radical structuralist
b) Radical positivist
c) Functionalist
d) Interpretative
Question 146 Quantitative research is:
a) more likely to take a deductive approach.
b) more likely to take an objectivist ontological position.
c) more likely to be informed by a positivist epistemological position.
d) all of the above.
Question 147 Qualitative research strategy places a value on:
a) using numbers, measurements and statistical techniques.
b) generating theories through inductive research about social meanings.
c) conducting research that is of a very high quality.
d) all of the above.
148 What is a research design?
a) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.
b) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.
c) The style in which you present your research findings, e.g. a graph.
d) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.
Question 149 If a study is "reliable", this means that:
a) it was conducted by a reputable researcher who can be trusted.
b) the measures devised for concepts are stable on different occasions.
c) the findings can be generalized to other social settings.
d) the methods are stated clearly enough for the research to be replicated.
Question 150 "Internal validity" refers to:
a) whether or not there is really a causal relationship between two variables.
b) whether or not the findings are relevant to the participants' everyday lives.
c) the degree to which the researcher feels that this was a worthwhile project.
d) how accurately the measurements represent underlying concepts.
Question 151 Lincoln and Guba (1985) propose that an alternative criterion for evaluating qualitative
research would be:
a) impressiveness.
b) trustworthiness.
c) joyfulness.
d) messiness.
Question 152 Naturalism has been defined as:
a) viewing natural and social objects as belonging to the same realm.
b) being true to the nature of the phenomenon under investigation.
c) minimising the intrusion of artificial methods of data collection into the field.
d) all of the above.
Question 153 In an experimental design, the dependent variable is:
a) the one that is not manipulated and in which any changes are observed.
b) the one that is manipulated in order to observe any effects on the other.
c) a measure of the extent to which personal values affect research
d) an ambiguous concept whose meaning depends on how it is defined.
Question 154 What is a cross-sectional design?
a) A study of one particular section of society, e.g. the middle classes.
b) One that is devised when the researcher is in a bad mood.
c) The collection of data from more than one case at one moment in time.
d) A comparison of two or more variables over a long period of time.
Question 155 Survey research is cross-sectional and therefore:
a) High in replicability but low in internal validity.
b) High in internal validity but low in reliability.
c) High in ecological validity but low in external validity.
d) None of the above
Question 156 Panel and cohort designs differ, in that:
a) Cohort studies involve quantitative research, whereas panel studies are qualitative.
b) A panel study does not need rules to handle new entrants to households.
c) Only a cohort study will suffer from sample attrition.
d) A panel study can distinguish between age effects and cohort effects, but a cohort design cannot.
Question 157 Cross cultural studies are an example of:
a) Case study design
b) Comparative design
c) Experimental design
d) Longitudinal design
Question 158 Which of the following requirements for a dissertation may depend on your institution?
a) Whether an abstract should be included
b) The format for referencing
c) The word limit
d) All of the above
Question 159 The role of a project supervisor is to:
a) make sure you keep to your schedule and deadlines.
b) provide intellectual support, guidance and critical feedback.
c) negotiate access to the research setting on the student's behalf. d) give you a reading list. Question
160 You can manage your time and resources best, by: a) working out a timetable. b) finding out what
resources are readily available to you. c) calculating a budget for likely expenditure. d) all of the above.

Question 161 What did Marx (1997) mean when he suggested that "intellectual puzzles and
contradictions" can be a possible source of research questions? a) The researcher may feel that there is
a contradiction in the literature, presenting a "puzzle" to be solved. b) Students can develop their IQ
levels by attempting to solve intellectual puzzles. c) Unless you can find a logical contradiction, you have
no basis for conducting research. d) All of life is a puzzle, so any aspect of life can be researched.

Question 162 How can you tell if your research questions are really good? a) If they guide your literature
search. b) If they are linked together to help you construct a coherent argument. c) If they force you to
narrow the scope of your research.
d) All of the above.
Question 163 Which of the following should be included in a research proposal? a) Your academic status
and experience. b) The difficulties you encountered with your previous reading on the topic. c) Your
choice of research methods and reasons for choosing them. d) All of the above.

Question 164 Which of the following should you think about when preparing your research?
a) Your sample frame and sampling strategy.
b) The ethical issues that might arise. c) Negotiating access to the setting. d) All of the above.
Question 165 Why is it helpful to keep a research diary or log book while you are conducting your
project? a) To give you something to do in the early stages of your research when nothing is happening.
b) Because funding councils generally demand to see written evidence that you were working every day
during the period of the research. c) To keep a record of what you did and what happened throughout
the research process. d) It can be added to your dissertation to ensure that you reach the required word
limit.
Question 166 What can you do to ensure your physical safety during your research? a) Be alert to the
possibility of exposure to danger. b) Avoid interviewing alone in the respondent's residence. c) Make
sure someone knows where you are and how you can contact them in an emergency. d) All of the
above.
Question 167 What practical steps can you take before you actually start your research? a) Find out
exactly what your institution's requirements are for a dissertation. b) Make sure you are familiar with
the hardware and software you plan to use. c) Apply for clearance of your project through an ethics
committee. d) All of the above.
Question 168 There is a tendency for debates about ethics in social research to focus on the most
extreme cases of ethical transgression. Why might this create a misleading impression? a) Because these
studies did not actually take place. b) Because it makes social researchers look like nasty, unscrupulous
people. c) Because this implies that ethical concerns do not pervade all social research. d) Because most
social research is in fact ethically sound and infallible.
Question 169 Which of the following ideas is not associated with the stance of situation ethics?
a) Anything goes b) Principled relativism c) The end justifies the means d) No choice

Question 170 Why is it argued that ethical transgression is pervasive in social research? a) Because most
researchers do not bother to follow a professional code of ethics. b) Because researchers rarely provide
their participants with all the information they might want to know about a project. c) Because it helps
us to justify the more extreme forms of unethical conduct that we prefer to pursue. d) Because
sociologists want to present themselves as inconsiderate and careless.
Question 171 Which of the following is a form of harm that might be suffered by research participants?
a) Physical injury b) Stress and anxiety c) Impaired development d) All of the above

Question 172 Why is it important that personal data about research participants are kept within secure,
confidential records? a) So that the participants cannot find out what has been written about them.
b) In case individuals, places or organizations can be harmed through identification or disclosure of
personal information. c) So that government officials, teachers and other people in authority can have
easy access to the data. d) To enable the researcher to track down individuals and find out more about
their lives.

Question 173 Which method is most commonly associated with a lack of informed consent? a) In-depth
interviewing b) Qualitative content analysis c) Covert observation d) Structured interviewing

Question 174 Why is it "easier said than done" to ensure that the principle of informed consent is
adhered to? a) It is not practicable to present every participant with all the information about the study.
b) Sometimes it is desirable to withhold certain pieces of information, such as the length of time an
interview will take. c) If the participants knew exactly what the researcher was intending to study, they
might change their behavior. d) All of the above.
Question 175 Apart from the fact that it is "not a nice thing to do", what is an important ethical
disadvantage of deceiving participants? a) It can damage the professional reputation of the researcher
and their discipline.
b) It makes it more difficult to gain access to deviant or hidden populations. c) It means that records of
personal data about the participants cannot be made anonymous. d) None of the above.
Question 176 Which of the following is an example of deception in business research? a) The obtaining
of company material without permission. b) The researcher wearing a disguise during an observation. c)
The researcher representing their research as being about a different topic. d) The researcher failing to
ask permission to interview someone.
Question 177 What problem does a research organization face when drawing up an ethical code? a)
Identifying relevant legislation that should guide behaviour. b) Reflecting the difficulty of making truly
ethical decisions. c) Incorporating assessments for the ethical behaviour of participants. d) All of the
above.
Question 178 An operational definition is: a) one that bears no relation to the underlying concept. b) an
abstract, theoretical definition of a concept. c) a definition of a concept in terms of specific, empirical
measures.
d) one that refers to opera singers and their work.

Question 179 The importance of measurement in quantitative research is that: a) it allows us to

delineate fine differences between people or cases. b) it provides a consistent device or yardstick. c) it
allows for precise estimates of the degree of relationship between concepts. d) all of the above.

Question 180 The difference between measures and indicators is that: a) measures are unambiguous
quantities, whereas indicators are devised from common sense understandings. b) indicators have a
more direct relationship to the underlying concept than measures. c) measures are intuitively devised
and then applied as if they were direct indicators of a concept. d) indicators are unambiguous quantities,
whereas measures are subjective and value-laden.

Question 181 The split-half method is used as a test of: a) Stability b) Internal reliability c) Inter-observer
consistency d) External validity

Question 182 Which of the following is not a form of measurement validity? a) Concurrent validity b)
Face validity c) Conductive validity d) Convergent validity

Question 183 Quantitative social researchers rarely claim to have established causality because: a) they
are more concerned with publishing the results of their reliability tests. b) they do not believe that this is
an appropriate goal to be striving for. c) they keep forgetting which of the variables they have
manipulated. d) they tend to use cross-sectional designs, which produce only correlations.

Question 184 One of the preoccupations of quantitative researchers is with generalization, which is a
sign of: a) External validity b) Internal reliability c) External reliability d) Internal validity

Question 185 Quantitative research has been criticised because: a) the measurement process suggests a
spurious and artificial sense of accuracy
b) the reliance on instruments and procedures makes it high in ecological validity c) it underestimates
the similarities between objects in the natural and social worlds d) all of the above

Question 186 The term 'reverse operationism' means that: a) the theories we devise will often hinder
our attempts to measure concepts. b) the measurements we devise can sometimes help to develop a
theory. c) techniques such as factor analysis have no place in social research. d) driving instructors
always make you practice the most difficult manoeuvre.

Question 187 Written accounts of quantitative research rarely include the results of reliability and
validity tests because: a) researchers are more interested in reporting their operational definitions. b)
researchers don't really think that these tests are important. c) journal editors have banned these kinds
of articles. d) researchers are more interested in reporting their substantive findings.

Question 188 A sampling frame is: a) a summary of the various stages involved in designing a survey. b)
an outline view of all the main clusters of units in a sample. c) a list of all the units in the population
from which a sample will be selected.
d) a wooden frame used to display tables of random numbers.
Question 189 A simple random sample is one in which: a) from a random starting point, every nth unit
from the sampling frame is selected. b) a non-probability strategy is used, making the results difficult to
generalize. c) the researcher has a certain quota of respondents to fill for various social groups. d) every
unit of the population has an equal chance of being selected.

Question 190 It is helpful to use a multi-stage cluster sample when: a) the population is widely dispersed
geographically. b) you have limited time and money available for travelling. c) you want to use a
probability sample in order to generalise the results. d) all of the above.

Question 191 The standard error is a statistical measure of: a) the normal distribution of scores around
the sample mean. b) the extent to which a sample mean is likely to differ from the population mean. c)
the clustering of scores at each end of a survey scale. d) the degree to which a sample has been
accurately stratified.

Question 192 What effect does increasing the sample size have upon the sampling error?
a) It reduces the sampling error. b) It increases the sampling error. c) It has no effect on the sampling
error. d) None of the above.

Question 193 Which of the following is not a type of non-probability sampling? a) Snowball sampling b)
Stratified random sampling c) Quota sampling d) Convenience sampling

Question 194 Snowball sampling can help the researcher to: a) Access deviant or hidden populations b)
Theorise inductively in a qualitative study c) Overcome the problem of not having an accessible sampling
frame d) All of the above

Question 195 Which of the following is not a characteristic of quota sampling? a) The researcher
chooses who to approach and so might bias the sample b) Those who are available to be surveyed in
public places are unlikely to constitute a representative sample c) The random selection of units makes
it possible to calculate the standard error
d) It is a relatively fast and cheap way of finding out about public opinions

Question 196 The findings from a study of training and skill development among employees of a
company can be generalised to the population of: a) All employees of that company b) All employees in
that industry c) All unskilled employees in that industry d) All graduate-level employees

Question 197 The term 'data processing error' refers to: a) activities or events related to the sampling
process, e.g. non-response. b) faulty techniques of coding and managing data. c) problems with the
implementation of the research process. d) the unavoidable discrepancy between the sample and the
population.

Question 198 Why is it important for structured interviews to follow a standardized procedure? a) To
increase validity, as the interview can be adapted for each respondent. b) To increase reliability, because
all respondents receive the same interview stimulus. c) To allow for an in-depth exploration of the topic.
d) To make it easier for untrained interviewers to carry out complex surveys.
Question 199 Standardizing the interview schedule can reduce interviewer variation in terms of: a) the
way in which questions are phrased by the interviewer. b) the order in which questions are asked. c) the
procedures used to code and analyse survey data. d) all of the above.

Question 200 Closed ended questions are those that: a) have a fixed range of possible answers. b)
prevent respondents from allocating themselves to a category. c) encourage detailed, elaborate
responses. d) relate to the basic demographic characteristics of respondents.

Question 201 Which of the following is not a disadvantage of telephone interviewing? a) Researchers do
not have to spend so much time and money on travelling. b) Some people in the target population may
not own a telephone. c) It can be difficult to build rapport over the telephone. d) Interviewers cannot
use visual cues such as show cards.

Question 202 The acronym "CATI" stands for: a) Camera-activated telescopic interviewing. b) Computer-
assisted telephone interviewing.
c) corrective anti-terrorist interviewing. d) critical analysis of telepathic interviewing.

Question 203 Which of the following might you include in an introductory letter to respondents? a) An
explanation of who you are and who is funding your research. b) An overview of what the research is
about and how the data will be collected. c) A statement of their ethical rights to anonymity,
confidentiality, etc. d) All of the above.

Question 204 A filter question is one that: a) ensures that all respondents are asked every question on
the schedule and in the same order. b) leaves a space for respondents to write long and detailed
answers. c) helps the interviewer to avoid asking irrelevant questions by directing them elsewhere on
the schedule. d) allows supervisors to distinguish between good and bad interviewers.

Question 205 Which of the following is not advised when planning the question order of a structured
interview? a) Be wary of asking an earlier question that alters the salience of later questions. b) Expect
some variation in the order in which questions are asked. c) Leave questions about sensitive or
embarrassing issues until later in the interview. d) Group the questions into logically organised sections.

Question 206 A show card is:

a) one that prevents respondents from expressing their opinions about a statement. b) one that
encourages explicit discussion of sensitive or personal information. c) one that prompts respondents to
choose from a range of possible answers. d) one that researchers must present when they compete at
pony club events.

Question 207 The response set of "acquiescence" can be a problem in that: a) some people consistently
agree or disagree with a set of questions or items. b) respondents tend to give answers that they think
are socially desirable. c) the structured interview is so conducive to reciprocity that male respondents
find it hard to stop talking. d) researchers who wear very strong perfume will distract their respondents.

Question 208 Which of the following statements is correct? a) Self-completion questionnaires are a type
of postal survey. b) Postal surveys can include self-completion or email surveys. c) Self-completion
questionnaires can include postal or email surveys. d) Email surveys are a type of postal questionnaire.
Question 209 One of the advantages of self-completion questionnaires over structured interviews is
that: a) they are quicker and cheaper to administer. b) they create interviewer effects. c) they have
greater measurement validity.
d) they are less prone to inter-coder variation.

Question 210 Which of the following is not a disadvantage of self-completion questionnaires compared
to structured interviews? a) The respondent can read the whole questionnaire before answering the
first question. b) The researcher cannot ask many closed-ended questions. c) The researcher cannot
probe or prompt respondents for more detail. d) The respondent may not answer all questions, resulting
in missing data.

Question 211 Which of the following steps can be taken to improve response rates to a self-completion
questionnaire? a) Write a personalized covering letter to introduce the research. b) Enclose a stamped
addressed envelope with a postal questionnaire. c) Send out polite reminder letters. d) All of the above.

Question 212 Why is it generally better to present fixed choice answers in vertical rather than horizontal
form? a) It takes up less space on the page. b) It encourages respondents to choose more than one
answer. c) It allows questions to be spread over more than one page. d) It makes the layout of the
questionnaire more clear and unambiguous.

Question 213 When using a Likert scale with a long list of items, it is usually better to: a) arrange the
answers horizontally, in abbreviated form. b) list the answers vertically, for each consecutive item. c)
omit any instructions about how to select an answer. d) list all questions on one page and all answers on
another.

Question 214 In order to identify response sets in a Likert scale, you could: a) pre-code all items
consistently from 1-5. b) reverse the scoring of pre-coded answers. c) only include items about socially
desirable behaviours. d) include explicit instructions to respondents not to deceive you.

Question 215 Corti (1993) makes a distinction between two types of researcher-driven diary: a) Valid
and reliable diaries b) Quantitative and qualitative diaries c) Structured and free-text diaries d) Open or
closed answer diaries

Question 216 The 'time-use' diary can provide quantitative data about: a) the amount of time
respondents spend on certain activities every day.
b) the subjective meanings that concepts of 'time' have for different people. c) the way respondents
make sense of their life stories in narrative form. d) the historical significance of clocks, watches and
other devices for measuring time.

Question 217 One advantage of using diaries in quantitative research is that: a) there is little danger of
attrition, as respondents tend to be highly motivated. b) they are likely to elicit data about sensitive
issues or deviant activities. c) they highlight the thoughts, feelings and experiences that are unique to
each respondent. d) none of the above.

Question 218 An open question is one that: a) allows respondents to answer in their own terms. b) does
not suggest or provide a limited range of responses. c) can help to generate answers for closed
questions. d) all of the above.
Question 219 In order to post-code answers to open questions, it is necessary to: a) count the frequency
with which each answer has been given. b) categorise unstructured material and assign a code number
to each category. c) identify the three most commonly cited responses and give them a code. d) find out
where each respondent lives and make a note of their postcode.

Question 220 Which of the following is not an advantage of using closed questions in a survey? a) It
reduces the risk of variability in the way answers are recorded. b) It makes answers easier to process
and analyse. c) They prevent respondents from giving spontaneous, unexpected answers. d) Closed
questions are quicker and easier for respondents to complete.

Question 221 Informant factual questions are those that: a) enquire about personal details such as age,
income and occupation. b) ask people about the characteristics of a social setting or entity that they
know well. c) seek to find out about people's attitudes and opinions on a range of topics. d) try to
identify the normative standards and values held by a social group.

Question 222 Which of the following is a general rule of thumb for designing questions? a) Always bear
in mind your research questions. b) Never ask a closed question. c) Always use vignettes rather than
open questions. d) Use ambiguous terms to put respondents at ease.

Question 223 You should avoid using double-barrelled questions in a survey because: a) they rely too
much on a respondent's memory. b) they make the questions too long, so respondents lose interest.
c) they are too abstract and general in scope. d) they confuse respondents by asking about two different
things.

Question 224 Leading questions should also be avoided because: a) they suggest ways of answering and
so may bias the results. b) they create a mismatch between the question and its possible answers. c)
they involve negative terms and unnecessary jargon. d) they ask about several different things at the
same time.

Question 225 A vignette question is one that asks respondents to think about: a) family obligations to
care for sick relatives. b) an intensely painful and sensitive issue in their personal life. c) a scenario
involving imaginary characters in a realistic situation. d) their favourite kind of salad dressing.

Question 226 The value of piloting a questionnaire is that it helps you to: a) test out your questions on
some of the people who will be in the final sample. b) identify and amend any problems in the question
wording, order and format. c) find out what a trained pilot would think of the subject matter. d) all of
the above.

Question 227 A question bank is a useful resource for:

a) studying the way questions have been successfully used in previous surveys. b) stealing other people's
questions without their permission. c) learning more about your topic so that you can devise leading
questions. d) keeping the money from your funding agency in a safe place.

Question 228 Which of the following is a problem associated with survey research? a) The problem of
objectivity b) The problem of "going native" c) The problem of omission d) The problem of robustness

Question 229 The key advantage of structured observation over survey research is that: a) it does not
rely on the researcher's ability to take notes. b) the researcher is immersed as a participant in the field
they are studying. c) it does not impose any expectations of behaviour on the respondents. d) it allows
you to observe people's behaviour directly.

Question 230 What is an observation schedule? a) A set of explicit rules for assigning behaviour to
categories. b) A timetable of days on which you plan to carry out your observation. c) A list of questions
to ask your interviewees.
51 d) A way of testing for measurement validity.

Question 231 Mintzberg conducted a study of what managers do in their day-to-day work. This is an
example of observing behaviour in terms of: a) Individuals b) Incidents c) Short time periods d) Long
time periods

Question 232 It may not be possible to use a probability sample to observe behaviour in public places
because: a) the findings of such studies are not intended to have external validity. b) it is not feasible to
construct a sampling frame of interactions. c) it is difficult to gain access to such social settings. d)
researchers prefer not to use random samples whenever possible.

Question 233 Which of the following is not a type of sampling used in structured observation? a) Focal
sampling b) Scan sampling c) Emotional sampling d) Behaviour sampling

Question 234 Cohen's kappa is a measure of: a) inter-surveyor consistency. b) intra-observer validity. c)
intra-coder validity. d) inter-observer consistency.

Question 235 What is meant by the term "reactive effect"? a) If people know they are being observed,
they may change their behaviour. b) Research subjects may have a bad reaction to the drugs they are
given. c) Researchers sometimes react to their informants' behaviour with horror. d) The categories on
an observation schedule may not be mutually exclusive.

Question 236 What did Salancik mean by "field stimulations"? a) Being immersed in the field can help to
simulate the experience of your informants. b) Researchers can intervene in and manipulate a setting to
observe the effects. c) Surveys conducted in the field are more effective than structured observation. d)
Some researchers find their projects so stimulating that they have to lie down.

Question 237 One of the criticisms often levelled at structured observation is that: a) it does not allow
us to impose any framework on the social setting.
b) it only generates a small amount of data. c) it is unethical to observe people without an observation
schedule. d) it does not allow us to understand the meanings behind behaviour.

Question 238 Quantitative content analysis is an approach that aims to: a) objectively and systematically
measure the content of a text. b) reach an interpretive understanding of social action. c) engage in a
critical dialogue about ethical issues in research. d) provide a feminist alternative to 'male-stream'
quantitative methods.

Question 239 Which of the following could be subjected to a textual content analysis? a) Interview
transcripts b) Newspaper articles c) Song lyrics d) All of the above

Question 240 Why did Harris look at newspapers from Australia, the UK, the USA, and China for his
study on courage? a) Because these four nations were considered to be the most courageous. b) To take
into account any cultural variation in the way that courage was perceived. c) To make sure there would
not be a capitalist bias in the reportage.
d) Because these happened to be available in plentiful supply.

Question 241 Which of the following is not an example of a 'unit of analysis'? a) Validity b) significant
actors c) Words d) subjects and themes

Question 242 Why might a researcher want to count the frequency of certain words or phrases in a
text? a) It increases the reliability of the coding measures b) It is a good way of finding out about the
researcher's favourite words c) To identify particular interpretative frameworks d) It shows which words
are most common in business English

Question 243 The purpose of a coding manual is to: a) provide a form onto which the data can be
entered. b) provide researchers with instructions about how to code the data. c) list all the categories
that have been omitted from the schedule. d) test researchers' knowledge of statistics.

Question 244 The data from each row in a coding schedule can be entered into a quantitative analysis
computer program called: a) Endnote b) N-Vivo c) Outlook d) SPSS

Question 245 One of the potential pitfalls in devising a coding scheme is that: a) it can be difficult to
obtain a random sample of newspapers. b) you might run out of photocopier paper. c) the categories
may not be mutually exclusive. d) the unit of analysis is too clearly defined.

Question 246 Which of the following is not an advantage of content analysis? a) It allows us to observe
otherwise inaccessible populations at first hand. b) It is a transparent and easily replicable technique. c)
It allows us to track changes in media representations over time. d) It is a non-reactive method.

Question 247 If coders differed in their interpretations of the categories in the schedule, this could
negatively affect the data's:
a) Internal generalisability b) Intra-interviewer reliability c) Construct validity d) Inter-coder reliability

Question 248 The term "secondary analysis" refers to the technique of: a) conducting a study of
seconds, minutes and other measures of time. b) analysing your own data in two different ways. c)
analysing existing data that have been collected by another person or organization. d) working part time
on a project alongside other responsibilities.

Question 249 Why might secondary analysis be a particularly useful method for students? a) It is
relatively easy to do. b) It saves time and money. c) It does not require any knowledge of statistics. d) It
only requires a half-hearted effort.

Question 250 Which of the following is not an advantage of secondary analysis? a) It immerses the
researcher in the field they are studying. b) It tends to be based on high quality data. c) It provides an
opportunity for longitudinal analysis. d) It allows you to study patterns and social trends over time.

Question 251 The large samples used in national surveys enable new researchers to: a) Avoid using
probability sampling b) Identify any bias in the question wording c) Evaluate the inter-coder reliability of
the data d) Conduct subgroup analysis
Question 252 Which of the following is not a disadvantage of using secondary analysis? a) The
researcher's lack of familiarity with the data. b) It is a relatively expensive and time consuming process.
c) Hierarchical datasets can be very confusing. d) The researcher has no control over the quality of the
data.

Question 253 Which of the following provides official statistics that could be analysed as secondary
data? a) Local Government Survey (LGS) b) Expenditure and Food Survey (EFS) c) Dwelling and
Furnishings Survey (DFS) d) Rowing and Oars Survey (ROS)

Question 254 What is one of the advantages that official statistics have over structured interview data?
a) The researcher can conduct natural experiments in the field. b) They are completely objective and
reliable.
c) They have greater measurement validity. d) They allow the researcher to identify social trends over
time.

Question 255 Studying levels of labour disputes may provide unreliable and/or invalid data because: a)
definitions of labour disputes change over time. b) sectoral variations might be caused by unresearched
factors. c) employers may exercise judgement in reporting some disputes but not others. d) all of the
above.

Question 256 What is the "ecological fallacy"? a) The assumption that secondary data analysis can be
carried out at home. b) The mistake of observing people in their natural setting. c) The error of making
inferences about individual behaviour from aggregate data. d) The myth that it is easy to research
environmentalist action groups.

Question 257 Why has the secondary analysis of official statistics been seen as an "unobtrusive"
method? a) It increases the risk of "reactive effects" from participants. b) The researcher is removed
from the social settings that they are investigating. c) The data were originally collected for the same
purposes as those of the current researcher. d) They do not intrude too much into the researcher's
spare time.

Question 258 What is the difference between interval/ratio and ordinal variables?
a) The distance between categories is equal across the range of interval/ratio data. b) Ordinal data can
be rank ordered, but interval/ratio data cannot. c) Interval/ratio variables contain only two categories.
d) Ordinal variables have a fixed zero point, whereas interval/ratio variables do not.

Question 259 What is the difference between a bar chart and a histogram? a) A histogram does not
show the entire range of scores in a distribution. b) Bar charts are circular, whereas histograms are
square. c) There are no gaps between the bars on a histogram. d) Bar charts represents numbers,
whereas histograms represent percentages.

Question 260 What is an outlier? a) A type of variable that cannot be quantified. b) A compulsive liar
who is proud to be gay. c) A score that is left out of the analysis because of missing data. d) An extreme
value at either end of a distribution.

Question 261 What is the function of a contingency table, in the context of bivariate analysis? a) It
shows the results you would expect to find by chance. b) It summarizes the frequencies of two variables
so that they can be compared. c) It lists the different levels of p value for tests of significance. d) It
compares the results you might get from various statistical tests.

Question 262 If there were a perfect positive correlation between two interval/ratio variables, the
Pearson's r test would give a correlation coefficient of: a) - 0.328 b) +1 c) +0.328 d) - 1

Question 263 What is the name of the test that is used to assess the relationship between two ordinal
variables? a) Spearman's rho b) Phi c) Cramer's V d) Chi Square

Question 264 When might it be appropriate to conduct a multivariate analysis test? a) If the relationship
between two variables might be spurious. b) If there could be an intervening variable. c) If a third
variable might be moderating the relationship. d) All of the above.

Question 265 What is meant by a "spurious" relationship between two variables? a) One that is so
ridiculously illogical it cannot possibly be true. b) An apparent relationship that is so curious it demands
further attention.
c) A relationship that appears to be true because each variable is related to a third one. d) One that
produces a perfect negative correlation on a scatter diagram.

Question 266 A test of statistical significance indicates how confident the researcher is about: a) the
inter-coder reliability of their structured interview schedule. b) passing their driving test. c)
understanding the difference between bivariate and multivariate analysis. d) generalising their findings
from the sample to the population.

Question 267 Setting the p level at 0.01 increases the chances of making a: a) Type I error b) Type II
error c) Type III error d) all of the above

Question 268 What is the advantage of using SPSS over calculating statistics by hand? a) This is how
most quantitative data analysis is done in "real research" nowadays. b) It reduces the chance of making
errors in your calculations. c) It equips you with a useful transferable skill. d) All of the above.

Question 269 In SPSS, what is the "Data Viewer"?

a) A table summarizing the frequencies of data for one variable. b) A spreadsheet into which data can be
entered. c) A dialog box that allows you to choose a statistical test. d) A screen in which variables can be
defined and labeled.

Question 270 How is a variable name different from a variable label? a) It is shorter and less detailed. b)
It is longer and more detailed. c) It is abstract and unspecific. d) It refers to codes rather than variables.

Question 271 What does the operation "Recode Into Different Variables" do to the data? a) Replaces
missing data with some random scores. b) Reverses the position of the independent and dependent
variable on a graph. c) Redistributes a range of values into a new set of categories and creates a new
variable. d) Represents the data in the form of a pie chart.

Question 272 How would you use the drop-down menus in SPSS to generate a frequency table? a) Open
the Output Viewer and click: Save As; Pie Chart b) Click on: Analyze; Descriptive Statistics; Frequencies c)
Click on: Graphs; Frequencies; Pearson d) Open the Variable Viewer and recode the value labels
Question 273 Why might you tell SPSS to represent the "slices" of a pie chart in different patterns? a)
Because the program tends to crash if you ask it to use colour. b) Because the patterns form symbolic
visual images of different social groups. c) In order to make full use of the facilities that SPSS can offer.
d) If you do not have a colour printer, it makes the differences between slices clearer.

Question 274 When cross-tabulating two variables, it is conventional to: a) represent the independent
variable in rows and the dependent variable in columns. b) assign both the dependent and independent
variables to columns. c) represent the dependent variable in rows and the independent variable in
columns. d) assign both the dependent and independent variables to rows.

Question 275 In which sub-dialog box can the Chi Square test be found? a) Frequencies: Percentages b)
Crosstabs: Statistics c) Bivariate: Pearson d) Gender: Female

Question 276 To generate a Spearman's rho test, which set of instructions should you give SPSS? a)
Analyze; Crosstabs; Descriptive Statistics; Spearman; OK b) Graphs; Frequencies; select variables;
Spearman; OK
c) Analyze; Compare Means; Anova table; First layer; Spearman; OK d) Analyze; Correlate; Bivariate;
select variables; Spearman; OK

Question 277 How would you print a bar chart that you have just produced in SPSS? a) In Output Viewer,
click File, Print, select the bar chart and click OK b) In Variable Viewer, open bar chart, click File, Print, OK
c) In Chart Editor, click Descriptive Statistics, Print, OK d) In Data Editor, open Graphs dialog box, click
Save, OK

Question 278 Which of the following is a method that is commonly used in qualitative research? a) Self-
completion questionnaires b) Surveys c) Ethnography d) Structured observation

Question 279 What is meant by the term "grounded theory"? a) Theories should be tested by rigorous
scientific experiments. b) As a social researcher, it is important to keep your feet on the ground. c)
Theories should be grounded in political values and biases. d) Theoretical ideas and concepts should
emerge from the data.

Question 280 A sensitizing concept is one that: a) provides general guidance for more flexible research.
b) imposes a predetermined theoretical model on the social world. c) helps the researcher to investigate
sensitive issues. d) allows the researcher to measure very small changes in a variable.

Question 281 Which of the following is not a component of Guba and Lincoln's criterion,
"trustworthiness"? a) Transferability b) Measurability c) Dependability d) Credibility

Question 282 Respondent validation is the process by which: a) the validity of an interview schedule can
be measured. b) researchers ask their participants to comment on an account of the findings. c) the
problem of low response rates to a survey can be overcome. d) participants collaborate with the
researcher to design the research.

Question 283 Why do qualitative researchers like to give detailed descriptions of social settings? a) To
provide a contextual understanding of social behaviour. b) Because once they have left the field, it is
difficult to remember what happened.
c) So that they can compare their observations as a test of reliability. d) Because they do not believe in
going beyond the level of description.

Question 284 The flexibility and limited structure of qualitative research designs is an advantage
because: a) the researcher does not impose any predetermined formats on the social world. b) it allows
for unexpected results to emerge from the data. c) the researcher can adapt their theories and methods
as the project unfolds. d) all of the above.

Question 285 Which of the following is not a criticism of qualitative research? a) The studies are difficult
to replicate. b) There is a lack of transparency. c) The approach is too rigid and inflexible. d) The
accounts are too subjective and impressionistic.

Question 286 Which of the following is not a contrast between quantitative and qualitative research? a)
Distance vs. proximity of researcher to participants b) Generalization vs. contextual understanding c)
Hard, reliable data vs. rich, deep data d) Interpretivist vs. feminist

Question 287 Why has qualitative research been seen to have an affinity with feminism? a) It allows
women's voices to be heard, rather than objectifying and exploiting them.
b) It has always been carried out by female sociologists. c) It allows the researcher to control variables
and suppress women's voices. d) It claims to be value free and non-political

Question 288 Which of the following is a component of ethnographic research? a) Being immersed in a
social group or setting. b) Participant observation, interviews, and/or documentary analysis. c) A written
account of an ethnographic study. d) All of the above.

Question 289 What is one of the main disadvantages of using the covert role in ethnography? a) It can
be hard to gain access to the social group. b) It is difficult to take notes without arousing suspicion. c)
The problem of reactivity: people may change their behaviour if they know they are being observed. d)
It is usually too time consuming and expensive to be a realistic option.

Question 290 Which of the following will not help you to negotiate access to a closed/non-public
setting? a) Gaining the support of a "sponsor" within the organization. b) Obtaining clearance from a
"gatekeeper" or senior member of the group. c) Joining in with the group's activities without introducing
yourself.
d) Offering something in return, e.g. a report of the findings.

Question 291 What is a gatekeeper? a) A senior member of the organization who helps the
ethnographer gain access to relevant people/events. b) A senior level member of the organisation who
refuses to allow researchers into it. c) A participant who appears to be helpful but then blows the
researcher's cover. d) Someone who cuts keys to help the ethnographer gain access to a building.

Question 292 What is the name of the role adopted by an ethnographer who joins in with the group's
activities but admits to being a researcher? a) Complete participant b) Participant-as-observer c)
Observer-as-participant d) Complete observer

Question 293 Why is an ethnographic study unlikely to use a probability sample? a) Because the aim of
understanding is more important than that of generalization. b) Because the researcher cannot control
who is willing to talk to them. c) Because it is difficult to identify a sampling frame. d) All of the above.
Question 294 What is meant by the term "theoretical saturation"? a) Deciding on a theory and then
testing it repeatedly. b) The point at which a concept is so well developed that no further data collection
is necessary. c) A state of frustration caused by having used every possible statistical test without finding
any significant results. d) The problem of having used too many theories in one's data analysis.

Question 295 What is the difference between "scratch notes" and "full field notes"? a) Scratch notes are
just key words and phrases, rather than lengthy descriptions. b) Full field notes are quicker and easier to
write than scratch notes. c) Scratch notes are written at the end of the day rather than during key
events. d) Full field notes do not involve the researcher scratching their head while thinking.

Question 296 Why does Stacey argue against the idea of a feminist ethnography? a) Because it creates a
non-exploitative relationship between the researcher and the researched. b) Because she fundamentally
disagrees with all feminist principles. c) Because she thinks that the fieldwork relationship is inherently
unequal. d) Because she does not think that ethnography is a useful research method.

Question 297 What are the two main types of data that can be used in visual ethnography?
a) Positivist and interpretivist b) Qualitative and quantitative c) Nominal and ordinal d) Extant and
research-driven Question 298 Which of the following makes qualitative interviewing distinct from
structured interviewing? a) The procedure is less standardized. b) "Rambling" off the topic is not a
problem. c) The researcher seeks rich, detailed answers. d) All of the above.

Question 299 Which of the following is not a type of qualitative interview? a) Unstructured interview b)
Oral history interview c) Structured interview d) Focus group interview

Question 300 Why is it helpful to prepare an interview guide before conducting semi-structured
interviews? a) So that the data from different interviewees will be comparable and relevant to your
research questions. b) So that you can calculate the statistical significance of the results. c) In order to
allow participants complete control over the topics they discuss.
d) To make the sample more representative.

Question 301 Which of the following is not one of Kvale's ten criteria of a successful interviewer? a)
Passive b) Knowledgeable c) Sensitive d) Interpreting

Question 302 What is a "probing question"? a) One that inquires about a sensitive or deeply personal
issue. b) One that encourages the interviewee to say more about a topic. c) One that asks indirectly
about people's opinions. d) One that moves the conversation on to another topic.

Question 303 What can you do to reduce the time consuming nature of transcribing interviews? a) Use a
transcribing machine b) Employ someone to transcribe for you c) Transcribe only selected parts of the
interviews d) All of the above

Question 304 What is involved in "purposive sampling"? a) Using a random numbers table to select a
representative sample of people.
b) Deciding on a sampling strategy early on and pursuing it relentlessly. c) Strategically selecting
respondents who are likely to provide relevant data. d) Sampling units of time rather than individual
persons.
 Question 305 How does Oakley suggest that qualitative interviewing should be used as an explicitly
feminist research method? a) By creating a more equal relationship between interviewer and
interviewee. b) By invading the privacy of women and treating them as objects. c) By imposing academic
interpretations upon women's accounts of the world. d) None of the above.

Question 306 Which of the following is an advantage of qualitative interviewing relative to participant
observation? a) It allows you to find out about issues that are resistant to observation. b) It is more
biased and value-laden. c) It is more likely to create reactive effects. d) None of the above.

Question 307 Which of the following is a disadvantage of qualitative interviewing relative to participant
observatiofvn? a) It has a more specific focus. b) It is more ethically dubious, in terms of obtaining
informed consent. c) It may not provide access to deviant or hidden activities. d) It does not allow
participants to reconstruct their life events.
73. RESEARCH METHODOLOGY || MCQ UMERA ANJUM 73

Question 308 Conversation Analysis (CA) and Discourse Analysis (DA) differ from other qualitative
research methods in that they treat language as: a) a method rather than a theory. b) a resource rather
than a topic. c) a theory rather than a method. d) a topic rather than a resource.

Question 309 In CA, the term "indexicality" means that: a) the meaning of an utterance depends on the
context in which it is used. b) speech acts can be listed and indexed after transcription. c) words are
constitutive of the social world in which they are located. d) people tend to wave their index finger in
the air while speaking.

Question 310 Which of the following is not one of the basic assumptions of CA? a) Talk is structured b)
Talk is forged contextually c) Talk can be measured and predicted d) Analysis is grounded in data

Question 311 In a CA transcript, what does the symbol "(.)"?

a) An intake of breath b) A prolonged sound c) Emphasis on the following word d) A slight pause

Question 312 What is meant by the term "adjacency pair" in CA? a) An interviewer and interviewee
sitting next to each other. b) Two linked phases of conversation. c) Two similar questions asked in rapid
succession. d) A mechanism used to repair an embarrassing mistake.

Question 313 What have conversation analysts found that people generally do to "repair" the damage
caused by a "dispreferred response"? a) Provide accounts of their action. b) Correct themselves and give
the preferred response. c) Brazen it out and pretend they don't care. d) Run away in a panic.

Question 314 What do discourse analysts study? a) Forms of communication other than talk. b) The way
discourses "frame" our understanding of the social world.
c) The rhetorical styles used in written and oral communication. d) All of the above.

Question 315 What is meant by the term "ethnographic particulars"? a) Specific people who are
involved as key informants in an ethnography. b) A participant observation schedule that is used in
qualitative research. c) Factors outside the immediate context of an interaction. d) The "here-and-now"
context of situated talk.
Question 316 Potter and Wetherell use the term "interpretative repertoires" to refer to: a) the process
of making non-factual data appear to be factual. b) the general resources people use to perform
discursive acts. c) the frames of reference audiences use to hear messages. d) the stock of academic
knowledge people draw upon in sociology.

Question 317 The anti-realist inclination of many DA researchers is controversial because it leads them
to assert that: a) there is no pre-existing material reality that constrains individual action. b) social
structures determine the way individuals use language. c) the technique is incompatible with feminist
principles. d) quantitative research is inherently superior to qualitative research.

Question 318 What are Scott's four criteria for assessing the quality of documents? a) Credibility,
reliability, accuracy and meaning b) Comprehensiveness, accuracy, value and rigour c) Authenticity,
credibility, representativeness and meaning d) Objectivity, subjectivity, authenticity and value

Question 319 Why does Bryman raise questions about biographies of Walt Disney? a) Because access to
materials in the official Disney archives is tightly controlled. b) Because they have been "ghost written"
by other authors. c) Because they are not representative of all great figures in cartoon history. d)
Because he never enjoyed watching Lady and the Tramp as a child.

Question 320 Why might a collection of personal letters from the early twentieth century be low in
representativeness? a) Because it would be difficult to read old-fashioned styles of handwriting. b)
Because it can be hard for a modern day researcher to understand such materials. c) Because they are
protected under the Right-to-Privacy legislation. d) Because they were preserved by a small number of
powerful companies only.

Question 321 Why might business researchers be interested in analyzing photographs as a form of visual
data?
a) To find out more about fashion, artifacts and everyday life in a particular social setting. b) To study
the way photographs present idealized depictions of company life. c) To help them to see what has not
been photographed and why. d) All of the above.

Question 322 Which of the following is not an example of an official document? a) A report of a public
inquiry into a disaster. b) A PhD student's collection of interview transcripts. c) Documentation from a
pharmaceutical company about a new drug. d) A leaked memo from one member of parliament to
another.

Question 323 Which of the following can be studied as a documentary source from the mass media? a)
The minutes of a company board meeting. b) Coresspondence between an employee and employer. c)
Newspaper articles about a particular issue or event. d) The staff newsletter produced by a private
company.

Question 324 Why can it be difficult to establish the authenticity of virtual data? a) Because we do not
know who wrote the material on a web site. b) Because virtual data are not as good as actual data. c)
Because it may require specialist "inside knowledge" to understand the text.
d) Because it is usually presented in the form of visual images.

Question 325 Why is it important to study the way audiences "read" cultural documents? a) To
demonstrate how audiences passively accept whatever they are told. b) Because their interpretation of
it may differ from that intended by the author. c) Because sociologists are running out of new things to
research. d) Because there is a lot of funding available for focus group studies.

Question 326 How does qualitative content analysis differ from quantitative content analysis? a) It is
always preceded by ethnographic research. b) It involves counting the number of times certain words
appear in a text. c) It is less rigid, as researchers are constantly revising their concepts. d) It is less likely
to be used by feminist researchers.

Question 327 What is semiotics? a) The study of semi-detached houses. b) A half-baked attempt at
social research. c) The method of semi-structured interviewing. d) The science of signs.

Question 328 In analytic induction, what happens if the researcher finds a deviant case?
a) They ignore it and carry on. b) They must either redefine or reformulate the hypothesis. c) They
conduct a parametric statistical test. d) They give up and decide to be quantitative researchers instead.

Question 329 Which of the following is not a tool of grounded theory? a) Theoretical sampling b) Coding
c) External validity d) Constant comparison

Question 330 What do Strauss and Corbin mean by "open coding"? a) Breaking data down and
examining it to identify themes and concepts. b) Coding without the intention of building a theory. c)
Drawing open brackets alongside key words and phrases. d) Telling everybody about the way you have
coded the data.

Question 331 What is a "substantive theory" in Strauss and Corbin's view? a) One that operates at the
highest level of abstraction. b) One that is highly controversial and provokes a critical response. c) One
that relates to an empirical instance or substantive topic area.
d) One that is amenable to statistical analysis.

Question 332 What are memos? a) Notes that researchers write to themselves. b) Reminders of what is
meant by key terms or phrases. c) Building blocks for theorizing. d) All of the above.

Question 333 Why should you start coding your data as soon as possible? a) To sharpen your focus and
help with theoretical sampling. b) Because researchers always run out of time at the end of a project. c)
Because it is the easiest task to do. d) To make sure that your initial theoretical ideas are imposed on the
data.

Question 334 Why are Coffey and Atkinson critical of the way coding fragments qualitative data? a)
Because this is incompatible with the principles of feminist research. b) Because it results in a loss of
context and narrative flow. c) Because they think it should fragment quantitative data instead. d)
Because they invented the life history interview and want to promote it.

Question 335 What is the difference between a concept and a category in grounded theory?
a) There is no difference between them. b) A concept is the name for a specific group of categories. c)
Concepts are dependent variables and categories are independent variables. d) Concepts are grouped
into categories.
Question 336 Why did Riessman (1993) have problems coding data using traditional qualitative
methods? a) She was still learning them at that time. b) She was confused between concepts and
categories. c) Because narratives are unsuitable for coding. d) She lost her notes.

Question 337 What is one of the main ethical problems associated with conducting a secondary analysis
of qualitative data? a) The participants may not have given informed consent to the reuse of their data.
b) It involves deceiving respondents about the nature of the research. c) The secondary analyst must
adopt a covert role and is at risk of "going native". d) Respondents are likely to experience physical harm
as a result of the process.

Question 338 What does the acronym "CAQDAS" stand for? a) Computer-Assisted Qualitative Data
Analysis Software b) Complicated Analytical Questions Deserving Answers Soon
c) Constant Aggravation Queried Directly And Swiftly d) Content Analysis Quantification: Durkheim And
Statistics

Question 339 How is CAQDAS different from quantitative data analysis software? a) It only works on
Apple Mac computers. b) It requires detailed knowledge of statistics. c) There is no industry leader. d)
The programs do the analysis for you.

Question 340 Which of the following is not a criticism of the use of CAQDAS in social research? a) It
reinforces the idea that code-and-retrieve is the only way to conduct qualitative analysis. b) It results in
the fragmentation of data and a loss of narrative flow. c) It may not be suitable for focus group data. d)
It is not very fast or efficient at retrieving sections of data.

Question 341 Which of the following is not an advantage of using CAQDAS in social research? a) It makes
the process of qualitative data analysis more transparent. b) It is faster and efficient than analysing by
hand. c) It involves learning skills that are specific to each program. d) It helps you to map out the
relations between ideas and themes in the data.

Question 342 In what format should you import your project documents from Word into NVivo? a) .jpg
or .mpg
b) .pdf of .exe c) .htm or .com d) .doc or .rtf

Question 343 In which window can you read through, edit and code your documents? a) Document
Viewer b) Node Explorer c) Project Pad d) Welcome Screen

Question 344 What are the two types of node used in NVivo? a) Seed nodes and weed nodes b) Shrub
nodes and grub nodes c) Flower nodes and power nodes d) Tree nodes and free nodes

Question 345 You code your data in NVivo by: a) applying nodes to segments of text. b) using a pre-set
coding frame. c) entering the data case by case as "variables". d) changing the spelling of certain words
to disguise their real meaning.
 MCQ-Contemporary Marketing Research

1) Which form of data below can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost than the
others?

a) Primary
b) Survey research
c) Experimental research
d) Secondary
e) Observational research

2) Secondary data are ________.

a) Collected mostly via surveys

b) Expensive to obtain
c) Never purchased from outside suppliers
d) Always necessary to support primary data
e) Not always very usable

3) Causal research is used to ________

a) Describe marketing problems or situations

b) Quantify observations that produce insights unobtainable through other forms of research
c) Find information at the outset in an unstructured way
d) Gather preliminary information that will help define problems
e) Test hypotheses about cause-and-effect relationships

4) Your colleague is confused about using the marketing research process, as he knows that
something is wrong but is not sure of the specific causes to investigate. He seems to be having
problems with ________, which is often the hardest step to take.

a) Selecting a research agency to help

b) Defining the problem and research objectives
c) Developing the research plan
d) Determining a research approach
e)C and D

5) In the second step of the marketing research process, research objectives should be translated
into specific ________.

a) Financial amounts
b) Results that justify the means
c) Marketing goals
d) Time allotments
e) Information needs
6) Secondary data consists of information ________.

a) That already exists somewhere and was collected for another purpose
b) Used by competitors
c) That does not currently exist in an organized form
d) That already exists somewhere and is outdated
e) That the researcher can obtain through surveys and observation

7) Which form of data below can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost than the
others?

a) Survey research
b) Syndicated
c) Secondary
d) Primary
e) Online marketing research

8) Your assistant wants to use secondary data exclusively for the current research project. You
advise him that the use of secondary data has some potential problems. Which of the following is
not one of them?

a)It may not be current.

b)It may not exist.
c)It may not be useable.
d)It may not be relevant
e)It is generally more expensive to obtain than primary data

9) Which method could a marketing researcher use to obtain information that people are
unwilling or unable to provide?

a) Focus groups
b) Personal interviews
c) Questionnaires
d) Observational research
e)Internet surveys

10) Survey research, though used to obtain many kinds of information in a variety of situations,
is best suited for gathering ________ information.

a) Attitudinal
b) Personal
c) Preference
d) Exploratory
e) Descriptive
11) Typically, customer information is buried deep in separate databases, plans, and records of
many different company functions and departments. To overcome such problems, which of the
following could you try?

a) Customer satisfaction measurement

b) Synergetic meetings of the minds
c) Customer relationship management
d) More sophisticated software
e) Less marketing intelligence

12) Survey research is least likely to be conducted through which of the following?

a)Observation
b) Person-to-person interactions
c) The telephone
d) The Web
e) The mail

13) Which of the following is not a disadvantage of telephone interviews.

a)Interviewer bias is introduced

b)Under time pressures, some interviewers might cheat.
c)Potential respondents may refuse to participate
d)They are more expensive to conduct than mail questionnaires.
e)Interviewers tend to interpret answers similarly.

14) Which form of marketing research is flexible, allows for explanation of difficult questions,
and lends itself to showing products and advertisements?

a) Personal interviewing
b) Ethnographic research
c) Observational research
d) Online interviewing
e) Phone interviewing

15) Which of the following is a disadvantage of online focus groups?

a) Results take longer to tabulate and analyze.

b) Participants must be in a central location.
c) The cost of online focus groups is greater than that of most other qualitative research methods.
d) The format of focus groups can be varied.
e) The Internet format can restrict respondents' expressiveness.
16) Mr. Ravi regularly conducts online marketing research at work. He has found that it has
several advantages over traditional methods. Which of these is not an advantage?

a)Respondents cannot remain anonymous.

b)It is more cost efficient.
c)It is easy to control who responds to surveys.
d) Report generation turnaround time is much quicker
e)It is easier for respondents to complete.

17) What are the two types of research data?

a) Qualitative and Quantitative.

b) Primary and secondary.
c) Predictive and quantitative.
d) Qualitative and predictive.

18) What is a major drawback of probability sampling?

a) Takes too much time

b) Sampling error cannot be measured
c) Easiest population from which to obtain info is chosen
d) Everyone has an equal chance of selection
e) Reliance on the judgment of the researcher

19) The most common research instrument used is the

a) Questionnaire
b) Moderator
c) Telephone interviewer
d) Live interviewer
e) Mechanical device

20) In marketing research, the ________ phase is generally the most expensive and most subject
to error.

a) Interpreting and reporting the findings

b) Exploratory research
c) Data collection
d) Planning
e) Data validation

21) Despite the data glut that marketing managers receive, they frequently complain that
they lack ________.
a) Enough information of the right kind
b) Accurate and reliable information
c) Quality information
d) Valid information
e)Timely information

22) The real value of a company's marketing research and information system lies in the _____

a) Amount of data it generates

b) Marketing information system it follows
c) Efficiency with which it completes studies
d) Variety of contact methods it uses
e) Quality of customer insights it provides

23) What is the first step in the marketing research process?

a) Developing a marketing information system

b) Developing the research plan for collecting information
c) Implementing the research plan
d) Defining the problem and research objectives
e) Interpreting data and deciding on type of research

24) In CRM, findings about customers discovered through ________ techniques often lead to
marketing opportunities.

a) Data warehouse
b) Customer loyalty management
c) Customer relationship strategy
d) Data mining
e) Value network

25) What source of marketing information provides ready access to research information, stored
reports, shared work documents, contact information for employees and other stakeholders, and
more?

a) An extranet
b) Marketing intelligence
c) The Internet
d) An internal database
e) An intranet

26) When managers use small convenience samples such as asking customers what they think or
inviting a small group out to lunch to get reactions, they are using ________.

a) Informal surveys
b) Experiments
c) Focus groups
d) Observation
e) Marketing intelligence

27) A common problem in international marketing research is the availability of ________.

a) Primary data
b) Research specialists
c) Secondary data
d) Consumers willing to answer surveys
e) Intelligence limitations

28) Which type of research would be best suited for identifying which demographic groups
prefer diet soft drinks and why they have this preference?

a) Exploratory research
b) Descriptive research
c) Experimental research
d) Ethnographic research
f) Survey research

29) As a small business consultant, you recommend to your clients that they use no-cost methods
of observation to gather market research. Which of the following are you not likely to
recommend your clients do?

a) Visit and socialize with competitors

b) Observe vehicle and pedestrian traffic.
c) Monitor competitors' advertising from local media
d) Hire additional staff to observe extensively
e) Evaluate their customer mix–how many and what kind of customers.

30) Marketing intelligence is everyday information about developments in the marketing

environment that assists marketers in their preparation of their plans and strategies. This
information is obtained from a number of sources and includes which of the following?

a) Newspaper articles.
b) Sales representative feedback.
c) Competitor intelligence
d) Trade journals.
e) Customer feedback.
f) All of the above.

31) The marketing research process consists of four steps. Which of the following is not one of
these steps?

a) Evaluating the competitor strategies.

b) Developing the research plan for collecting information.
c) Defining the problem and research objectives.

32) What do many researchers encounter when conducting market research in foreign countries?

a) Some countries have poor roads that limit personal contacts.

b) Some cultures may not value marketing research.
c) Some countries have poor mail services
d) Some countries have few telephones, limiting access to respondents
e) All of the above

33) Ravi just completed reading a marketing research report about the top 25 countries that
purchase German products. What might the report say about international research with these
countries?

a) Despite the costs of international research, the costs of not doing it are higher.
b) There is a lack of qualified research personnel.
c) The costs are higher than the benefits.
d) Interpretations of German quality are consistent among different countries.
e) It is on the decrease due to high costs.

34) Behavioural targeting, the practice of ________, is being used by more and more companies.

a) Mining and analyzing data from data warehouses

b) Tracking customers' activities and rewarding customer loyalty
c) Observing and interacting with consumers in their natural environments
d) Managing customer relationships
e) Tracking consumers' online movements and using this information to target ads to them

35) To consumers, research studies may appear to be little more than vehicles for ________.

a) Gathering names for resale

b) Building company image
c) Training future salespeople to work with people face-to-face
d) Selling the sponsor's products
e) Criticizing competition

36) Qualitative research is exploratory research used to uncover consumer attitudes, motivations
and behavior. What techniques can be applied to obtain qualitative research?

a) Elicitation interviews.
b) One to one interviews.
c) Focus groups.
d) All of the above
e) None of the above.
37) What are examples of techniques of obtaining qualitative data?

a) Survey research/questionnaires; focus groups; in-depth interviews; observational

techniques; experimentation.
b) Video conferencing; focus groups; in-depth interviews; observational techniques.
c) Survey research/questionnaires; focus groups; in-depth interviews; observational techniques;
call centre feedback.
d) All of the above.
e) None of the above.

38) What are four methods of continuous research?

a) Consumer panels; home audits; omnibus surveys; retail audits.

b) Consumer panels; home audits; personal interviews; omnibus surveys.
c) Home audits; omnibus surveys; personal interviews; in-store video footage of consumer
behaviour.
d) Consumer panels; home audits; personal interviews; in-store video footage of consumer
behaviour.
e) All of the above
f) None of the above

39) “what new product should be developed” is an example of …………??

a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
d) None of the above

40) Sources of marketing information are categorized into two groups - what are they?

a) External sources; internal sources.

b) Causal resources.
c) Macro environmental sources; micro environmental sources
d) All of the above.
e) None of the above.

41) What are the criteria for evaluating secondary data sources?

a) Source of data; who collects the data; method of data collection; construct of research.
b) Source of data; who collects the data; method of data collection; construct of data.
c) Relevance of data; who collects the data; method of data collection; who paid for the research.
d) Relevance of data; who collects the data; method of data collection; evidence of careful
work.
42) What are three popular methods for obtaining primary data?

a) Experimentation; personal interview; Delphi technique.

b) Survey; interviews; experimentation.
c) Interviews and surveys; observation; experimentation.
d) Interviews and surveys; observation; Harrison methodology.

43) Marketing research is the function that links the ___________ to the marketer through
information---information used to identify and define marketing opportunities and problems; to
generate, refine and evaluate marketing actions; to monitor marketing performance; and to
improve understanding of the marketing process.

a) Marketer, agent and retailer

b) Demander, buyer and user
c) Specifier, influencer and user
d) Consumer, customer and public

44) The marketing information system (MIS) begins and ends with __________

a) Marketing managers
b) Marketing intelligence
c) Information technologies
d) Consumers

45) As marketing managers and researchers define the problem and set research objectives, they
should employ the following type(s) of research: __________

a)Exploratory research alone

b)Exploratory, descriptive and causal research
c)Descriptive research alone
d)Causal research alone

46) What are secondary data?

a) Information that has been collected for the specific purpose at hand
b)Information that has already been collected and recorded for another purpose and is
thus readily accessible
c)Information based on second-rate research
d)Information based solely on rumours

47) Small businesses and non-profit organisations on shoestring budgets nevertheless have
access to useful marketing information by __________

a)Relying exclusively on secondary data

b)Conducting informal surveys
c)Collecting and evaluating secondary data, as well as observing and conducting their own
surveys and experiments
d)Hiring a few highly-skilled researchers

48) International marketers may have difficulty finding useful secondary data in other countries
mainly because __________.

a)Secondary data are difficult to translate

b)Foreign consumers may be hostile to marketers
c)Some countries lack reliable research services---if they provide such services at all
d)Consumers tend to lie on surveys and in interviews, either deliberately or inadvertently

49) Which of the following represents major public policy and ethics issues in marketing
research?

a) Intrusion on and abuse of consumer privacy

b) Representing database compilation and promotional pitches as 'pure' research
c) Intrusion on consumer privacy and the misuse of research findings
d) False claims and pushy sales representatives

50) What is the first stage of the marketing research process?

a) Implement the research plan

b) Collect and analyse the data
c) Develop the research plan
d) Report the findings
e) Define the research problem

51) Primary data is ___________.

a) Always collected before secondary data

b) Collected for the specific purpose at hand
c) Information that already exists
d) Data collected for other purposes
e) Usually collected through annual reports

52) What are the two major advantages of collected data through telephone interviews?

a)Sample control and speed of data collection

b)Cost and response rate
c)Cost and speed of data collection
d)Flexibility and quantity of data collected
e)Control of interviewer effects and quantity of data collected

53) Expratory research undergoes following methods except

a) Expert surveys
b) Pilot study
c) Case studies
d) None of the above

54) Census comes under which research?

a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
d) None of the above

55) Cause and effect research comes under which research type?

a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
d) None of the above

56) Rigid sequential approach to sampling and data collection comes under which research

a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
d) None of the above

57) …………….. is called pre-assumption of the expected result of the research

a) Hypothesis
b) Expenditure
c)Research problem
d) None of the above

58) ………………….. is kind of prelude to the end result one hopes to achive and therefore it
requires considerable thoughts

a) Hypothesis
b) Expenditure
c)Research problem
d) None of the above

59) Detail blueprint of research is called as……………….

a) Research proposal
b) Research design
c) a and b
d) a or b

60) In which type of research hypothesis is vague??

a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
d) None of the above

61) “How should a new product be distributed??” is an example of …………?

a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
d) None of the above

62) “Will increase in the service staff be profitable?” Is an example of…………??

a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
d) None of the above

63) A powerful tool use in longitudinal research with exactly same people, group or
organization across time periods is called…………..

a) Focus group
b) consumer panel
c) RSA
d) None of the above
64) For primary data to be useful to marketers, it must be relevant, current, unbiased, and
________.

a) Complete
b) Accurate
c) Inexpensive
d) Collected before secondary data
e) Experimental

65) . ………………… is the variation of the panel with data being collected from retail stores on
the product being stocked, shelf placed , sale and promotion , so on

a) Retail shop audit

b) consumer panel
c TRP
d) None of the above.
66) Multiple business locations, recourse , budget limitations is challenges for….

a) Retail shop audit

b) consumer panel
c) TRP
d) None of the above.

67) The advertising is selecting slots for the advertising on the basis of which study?

a) Retail shop audit

b) consumer panel
c) TRP
d) Media Audience tracking study.

68) What is TRP?

a) Television Rating point

b) Television rating part
c) All of the above
d). Television Rating process

69) _____________ research is the gathering of primary data by watching people.

a)Survey
b)Informative
c) Observational
d)Experimental
e)Causal

70) Market research is function linking the consumer customer and public to market through

a) The media
b) Information
c) Market research
d) All of the above

71) Marketing research is related to………………

a) Finance process
b) Marketing Process
c) Business Process
d) None of the above
72) Advance plan of research is called as

a) Research process
b) Research design
c) Research proposal
d) None of the above

73) Research design consist of following things except…………….

a) Hypothesis
b) Expenditure
c) Research problem
d) None of the above

74) A formal statement of research question or “purpose of research study” generally

a) Is made prior to literature review

b) Is made after literature review
c) Will help guide the research process
d) Both a and c

75) Source of research problem include

a) Researcher’s experience
b) Practical issue that require solutions
c) Theory and past research
d) All of the above

76) A………….. is written account of the plan for the research project.

a) Research design
b) Research proposal
c) Hypothesis
d) All of the above

77) In qualitative research proposal you would not expect to see a

a) Research questions
b) Research rim
c) Hypothesis
d) Operational definition

78) Following are characteristics of hypothesis except

a) Clarity
b) Simple
c) Consistent
d) None of the above

79) The null hypothesis is

a) which is to be disprove
b) H0
c) None of the above
d) A and B

80) The research which is “unstructured, qualitative, highly flexible “ is called as

a. Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
d) None of the above

81) …………… is snapshot of some aspect of the market environment

a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
d) None of the above

82) Which of the following is advantages of stating of HYPOTHESIS ??

a) It forces researcher to think deeply and specifically about the possible outcome of
study
b) It simplifies the study
c) None of the above
d) All of the above

83) Customer Satisfaction is an example of which of research design?

a) Qualitative
b) Quantitative
c) Causal
d) None of the above

84) Alternative hypothesis is

a) H0
b) Ha
c) Which shows positive relationship between the variables
d) B , C
85) Following are techniques of Qualitative Research ?

a) Depth interview
b) Focus group
c) Projective technique
d) All of the above

86) Data analysis in qualitative research as contrasted with qualitative research is generally

a) Theoretical
b) Deductive
c) Applied
d) Inductive

87) Which of the following is not general feature that characteristics most qualitative research?

a) Inflexible design
b) Holistic process
c) Naturalistic inquiry
d) Personal contact

88) Conclusion from qualitative research are:

a) Less certain than from quantitative

b) Of little practice use
c) Seldom defensible
d) Of descriptive value only

89) The first step in the marketing research process is:

a) Defining the problem

b) Gathering the budget necessary to conduct the research
c) Establishing the need for marketing research
d) Getting approval from top management to do research
e) Finding an appropriate marketing firm to carry out the research project

90) Which of the following is true regarding the steps in the marketing research process?

a) Not all studies use all steps in the marketing research process.
b) There is nothing sacred about the number of steps in the research process as proposed by your
authors.
c) The steps in the marketing research process presented by your authors are universally accepted
and are adopted by the American Marketing Association.
d) A and C are true.
e) A and B are true.
91) In establishing the need for marketing research, which of the following would serve as a
good decision rule for managers?

a) Ensuring that competitors are using marketing research, therefore a company considering
marketing research would not be at a competitive disadvantage
b) Determining the value to be derived from marketing research
c) Determining the cost of conducting marketing research
d) Weighing the value derived from the marketing research with the cost of obtaining the
marketing research information
e) Ensuring that subordinates are in favor of conducting the marketing research

92) Sometimes managers know that marketing research is not needed. In which of the following
cases would marketing research NOT be needed?

a) Competitors have introduced a successful new product and it is too late to respond.
b) Brand managers wish to assess the profitability of different items in the product line and
this information is available from the internal reports system.
c) There have been significant changes in the demographic characteristics of the market since
marketing research was last conducted.
d) A competitor has introduced a new innovative distribution system.
e) An internal analysis indicates that the company is losing distributors at an alarming rate.

93) Under which of the following conditions will marketing research likely have greater value to
management?

a) When the research helps clarify problems or opportunities

b) When the research identifies changes that are occurring in the marketplace among consumers
and/or competitors
c) When the research clearly identifies the best alternatives to pursue
d) When the research helps a company's brand establish a competitive advantage
e) All of the above

94) Which of the following statements is true regarding the marketing research step "defining the
problem"?

a) Defining the problem is the third most important step in the research process.
b) Defining the problem should be undertaken only after the project has been approved by top
management.
c) Defining the problem is the most important step in the marketing research process.
d) Defining the problem should be undertaken only after a sufficient number of firms have been
gathered to conduct the marketing research project.
e) Defining the problem is the eighth step in the marketing research process.
95) Problems stem from which two primary sources?

a) Gaps between what is supposed to happen and what did happen and gaps between what is
supposed to happen and what happened in the past.
b) Gaps between what is supposed to happen and what did happen and gaps between
what did happen and what could have happened
c) Gaps between what is happening now and what happened prior to the present
d) Gaps between what management desires and what stockholders desire
e) Gaps between what present consumers desire and what potential consumers desire

96) Which of the following is true regarding research objectives?

a) Research objectives, when achieved, will provide sufficient earnings to obtain a
reasonablereturn on investment.
b) Researchobjectives, when obtained, will ensure the viability of the marketing research
department.
c) Research objectives, when achieved, provide the information necessary to solve the
problem.
d) Research objectives are seldom achieved but should be stated as goals to be sought.
e) Research objectives should never be put in writing until the fourth step of the marketing
research process.
97) Which of the following is true regarding research design?

a) There are four categories of research design.

b) There are three categories of research design.
c) There are five categories of research design.
d) There are eight categories of research design.
e) Research design may not be categorized.

98) Which of the following would be true regarding exploratory research?

a. Exploratory research is highly structured.
b. Exploratory research is very formal.
c. Exploratory research determines causality.
d. Exploratory research is both unstructured and informal.
e. Exploratory research answers who, what, where, when, and how questions.

99) Interview is an example of which data??

a)Primary
b) Secondary
c)Both a and b
d) None of the above

100) Main drawback of primary data is?

a) Biasness
b) sample design
c)Research problem
d) All of the above

101) Wrong questionnaire is an example of …………..

a. Primary data collection problem
b. Secondary collection problem
c. a and b both
d. None of the above

102) ……………… usually is a list of population members to obtained a sample.

a) Sampling Frame
b) Sample
c) Sampling
d) All of the above

103) All sample have same chance of getting selected is called as…………

a) Probability
b) Non-Probability
c) Quota
d) Snowball

104) Convenience sampling is an example of

a) Probabilistic sampling
b) Stratified sampling
c) Nonprobabilistic sampling
d) Cluster sampling

105) Which of the following is an example of nonprobabilistic sampling?

a) Simple random sampling

b) Stratified simple random sampling
c) Cluster sampling
d) Judgment sampling

106) Stratified random sampling is a method of selecting a sample in which

a) The sample is first divided into strata, and then random samples are taken from each stratum
b) Various strata are selected from the sample
c) The population is first divided into strata, and then random samples are drawn from
each stratum
d) None of these alternatives is correct.
107) Despite the data glut that marketing managers receive, they frequently complain that they
lack ________.

a) Enough information of the right kind

b) Timely information
c) Accurate information
d) Reliable information
e) Valid information

108) Which of the following is true regarding causal research?

a. Causal research is the questions of who, what, where, when, and how.
b. Causal research is informal and unstructured.
c. Causal research isolates causes and effects.
d. Causal research describes marketing phenomena.
e. Causal research is the seventh step in the marketing research process.

109) Which of the following is true regarding primary information?

a. Primary information is information gathered on school children in the primary grades

first through fifth.
b. Primary information refers to information that is collected in the early, or primary,
stages of the marketing research process.
c. Primary information is information that has already been collected for some other
purpose.
d. Primary information is information collected specifically for the problem at hand.
e. Primary information is one of 12 different types of information sources.

110) Which of the following determines how representative a sample is of a population?

a. The size of the sample

b. The sampling company from which the sample is acquired
c. The sample plan
d. The size of the sample relative to the size of the population
e. How varied the population is

111) Which of the following is true regarding the size of the sample?

a) There is no such thing as having a sample that is too large.

b) You should strive to have a sample that is at least 50 percent of the size of the population.
c) A sample size that is too large wastes research dollars; the sample size should be just
c) Large enough to give the researcher accurate results without wasting money.
d) Sample size is more important than the sample plan.
e) Only samples with large sample sizes may be considered representative samples.
112) The existing company information is an example of which data??

a)Primary
b) Secondary
c) Both a and b
d)None of the above
113) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding information collected for
marketers?

a) Many managers lack information of the right kind.

b) Most managers do not need more information.
c) Most managers need better information.
d) Many managers are burdened by data overload.
e) Managers have enough of the right information.

114) A marketing information system (MIS) consists of people and procedures to assess
information needs, ________, and help decision makers analyze and use the information.

a) Experiment to develop information

b) Test market the information
c) Develop the needed information
d) Critique the needed information
e) Question the needed information

115) A good MIS balances the information users would ________ against what they really
________ and what is ________.

a) Need; like; feasible

b) Like; can afford; needed
c) Like to have; need; feasible to offer
d) Need; can afford; useful
e) Use; have to use; available

116) Marketers must weigh carefully the costs of additional information against the ________
resulting from it.

a) organization
b) benefits
c) creativity
d) ethical issues
e) cost

117) Four common sources of internal data include the accounting department, operations, the
sales force, and the ________.

a) Owners
b) Stockholders
c) Marketing department
d) Competition
e) Web

118) Marketing information from which type of database usually can be accessed more quickly
and cheaply than other information sources?

a) External
B) LexisNexis
C) Dun & Bradstreet's
D) internal
E) Hoover's

119) ________ is the systematic collection and analysis of publicly available information about
consumers, competitors, and developments in the marketing environment.

a) Marketing data
b) Marketing intelligence
c) Sales management
d) Customer intelligence
e) Competitive intelligence

120) Which of the following statements regarding marketing intelligence is true?

a) The advantage of using competitive intelligence is negligible.

b) All marketing intelligence is available for free.
c) Marketing intelligence relies upon privately held information.
d) Marketing intelligence relies upon publicly available information.
e) Marketing intelligence gathering is more focused on gaining insights into consumer activities
than competitors' activities.

121) Which of the following is NOT considered a source of marketing intelligence?

a) Suppliers
b) Resellers
c) Key customers
d) Causal research
e) Activities of competitors

122) Which of the following is NOT a potential source for marketing intelligence?

a) Looking through competitors' garbage

b) Purchasing competitors' products
c) Monitoring competitors' sales
d) Collecting primary data
e) Talking with purchasing agents

123) Which of the following is an example of a free online database that a company could access
in order to develop marketing intelligence?

a) LexisNexis
b) ProQuest
c) Dialog
d) The U.S. Security and Exchange Commission's database
e) Hoover's

124) ________ is the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of data relevant to a
specific marketing situation facing an organization.

a) The marketing information system

b) Marketing intelligence
c) Marketing research
d) Competitive intelligence
e) Causal research

125) What is the first step in the marketing research process?

a) Developing a marketing information system

b) Defining the problem and research objectives
c) Developing the research plan for collecting information
d) Implementing the research plan
e) Hiring an outside research specialist

126) Which step in the four-step marketing research process has been left out of the following
list: defining the problems and research objectives, implementing the research plan, and
interpreting and reporting the findings?

a) Developing the research budget

b) Choosing the research agency
c) Choosing the research method
d) Developing the research plan
e) Comparing and contrasting primary and secondary data

127) Causal research is used to ________.

a) Test hypotheses about cause-and-effect relationships

b) Gather preliminary information that will help define problems
c) Uncover information at the outset in an unstructured way
d) Describe marketing problems or situations
e) Quantify observations that produce insights unobtainable through other forms of research
128) Managers often start with ________ research and later follow with ________ research.

a) Exploratory; causal
b) Descriptive; causal
c) Descriptive; exploratory
d) Causal; descriptive
e) Causal; exploratory

129) Your colleague is confused about using the marketing research process, as he knows that
something is wrong but is not sure of the specific causes to investigate. He seems to be having
problems with ________, which is often the hardest step to take.

a) Developing the research plan

b) Determining a research approach
c) Defining the problem and research objectives
d) Selecting a research agency

130) Through which of these sources of information is a competitor LEAST likely to reveal
intelligence information?

a) Annual reports
b) Trade show exhibits
c) Web pages
d) Press releases
e) Internal marketing conferences

131) To combat marketing intelligence efforts by competitors, Unilever Corporation is now

providing ________ to employees.

a) Competitive intelligence training

b) Privacy blocks
c) Protection
d) Less information
e) A code of ethics

132) The objective of ________ research is to gather preliminary information that will help
define the problem and suggest hypotheses.

a) Exploratory
b) Descriptive
c) Causal
d) Primary
e) Secondary
133) In the second step of the marketing research process, research objectives should be
translated into specific ________.

a) Marketing goals
b) Information needs
c) Dollar amounts
d) Research methods
e)Information sources

134) Secondary data consists of information ________.

a) That already exists somewhere but is outdated

b) That does not currently exist in an organized form
c) That already exists but was collected for a different purpose
d) Used by competitors
e) That researchers can only obtain through surveys and observation

135) Information collected from online databases is an example of ________ data.

a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Observational
d) Experimental
e) Ethnographic

136) Your assistant wants to use secondary data exclusively for the current research project. You
advise him that the use of secondary data has some potential problems. Which of the following is
NOT one of them?

a) It may not exist.

b) It may not be relevant.
c) It is generally more expensive to obtain than primary data.
d) It may not be current.
e) It may not be impartial.

137) Which method could a marketing researcher use to obtain information that people are
unwilling or unable to provide?

a) Observational
b) Survey
c) Questionnaire
d) Focus groups
e) Personal interviews
138) Ethnographic research ________

a) Comes from traditional focus groups

b) Is gathered where people live and work
c) Provides secondary data
d) Is most popular in the service sector
e) Provides data to marketers when observation is impossible
 RESEARCH
METHODOLOGY
Mean, Median and Mode are :

(A) Measures of deviation

(B) Ways of sampling

(C) Measures of control tendency

(D) None of the above

Answer: (D)

Research is

(A) Searching again and again

(B) Finding solution to any problem

(C) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?

(A) Searching sources of information to locate problem.

(B) Survey of related literature

(C) Identification of problem

(D) Searching for solutions to the problem

Answer: (C)
A common test in research demands much priority on

(A) Reliability

(B) Useability

(C) Objectivity

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

Action research means

(A) A longitudinal research

(B) An applied research

(C) A research initiated to solve an immediate problem

(D) A research with socioeconomic objective

Answer: (C)

A reasoning where we start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement is
called

(A) Deductive Reasoning

(B) Inductive Reasoning

(C) Abnormal Reasoning

(D) Transcendental Reasoning

Answer: (B)

Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative terms?

(A) Socio-economic Status

(B) Marital Status

(C) Numerical Aptitude

(D) Professional Attitude

Answer: (C)

The essential qualities of a researcher are

(A) Spirit of free enquiry

(B) Reliance on observation and evidence

(C) Systematization or theorizing of knowledge

(D) All the above

Answer: (D)

In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by

(A) Statement of Objectives

(B) Analysis of Data

(C) Selection of Research Tools

(D) Collection of Data

Answer: (C)

A research paper is a brief report of research work based on

(A) Primary Data only

(B) Secondary Data only

(C) Both Primary and Secondary Data

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

One of the following is not an open source software:

(A) DSpace

(B) Windows

(C) Green-stone

(D) Linux

Answer: (B)

Classification of all types of libraries has been made by-

(A) IFLA

(B) UNISIST

(C) UNESCO

(D) INSDOC

Answer: (C)

Reading centre’s, story hours, exhibitions and reading to literature are forms of …

(A) Extension service

(B) Service of a public library

(C) Both

(D) None

Answer: (C)

Informal self education is possible in what kind of library?

(A) National Library

(B) Public Library

(C) Specific Library

(D) College Library

Answer: (B)

……………………. Is a process of information

(A) Books

(B) CD-ROM

(C) Computers

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

Feedback mechanism is a part of which service?

(A) Reprography

(B) CAS

(C) Translation service

(D) SDI

Answer: (D)

What is the collection of terms or records in MARC called?

(A) System

(B) Network

(C) Website

(D) Database

Answer: (D)

What is Bibliometry?

(A) Function of Library Network

(B) Information Management Service

(C) Information Management Tool

(D) Library Service

Answer: (C)

Microchip was invented by…..

(A) Microsoft

(B) IBM

(C) DELL

(D) Intel

Answer: (D)

Information is…..

(A) Raw Data

(B) Processed Data

(C) Input data

(D) Organized data

Answer: (D)

Conference proceedings are considered as..................documents.

(A) Conventional

(B) Primary

(C) Secondary

(D) Tertiary

Answer: (B)
RSS feed is a tool of :

(A) Graphic design

(B) Web 1.0

(C) Web 2.0

(D) Architecture

Answer: (C)

An appropriate source to find out descriptive information is................ .

(A) Bibliography

(B) Directory

(C) Encyclopedia

(D) Dictionary

Answer: (C)

One of the following search engine is exclusively meant for scientific information :

(A) Google

(B) Yahoo

(C) SCIRUS

(D) Altavista

Answer: (C)

Technological Gatekeeper is :

(A) A formal method of giving current awareness service

(B) A method of technology assessment and evaluation

(C) A process of transfer of technology

(D) An informal mechanism of keeping user informed of relevant development

Answer: (D)

The Farmington plan is associated with :

(A) Library Legislation

(B) Library Cataloguing

(C) Library Cooperation

(D) Library Indexing Service

Answer: (C)

UNESCO assisted Model Public Library in India is located at :

(A) Kolkata

(B) Delhi

(C) Mumbai

(D) Chennai

Answer: (B)

Mark the ‘odd one out’ :

(A) Cow-Calf principle

(B) Principle of osmosis

(C) Wall picture principle

(D) Whole organ principle

Answer: (B)
Shelf list facilitates................ .

(A) Classification

(B) Weeding out

(C) Stock verification

(D) Documentation

Answer: (C)

Questionnaire is a :

(A) Research method

(B) Measurement technique

(C) Tool for data collection

(D) Data analysis technique

Answer: (C)

A periodical evaluation of an employee is done through........... .

(A) Job rotation

(B) Performance appraisal

(C) Refresher course

(D) Work guide

Answer: (B)

“Controlled Group” is a term used in.............. .

(A) Survey research

(B) Historical research

(C) Experimental research

(D) Descriptive research

Answer: (C)

‘Noise’ in Information Retrieval is due to............. .

(A) Precision

(B) Recall

(C) Relevant information

(D) Redundant information

Answer: (D)

What is the relationship between ISBD and cataloguing codes ?

(A) They are not related at all

(B) Cataloguing codes will include bibliographic description

(C) ISBD includes cataloguing rules

(D) ISBD can replace cataloguing rules

Answer: (B)

Tagging in web 2.0 application is called :

(A) Taxonomy

(B) Folksonomy

(C) Syndication

(D) Directory

Answer: (B)

Inductive logic proceeds from :

(A) General to General

(B) Particular to General

(C) General to Particular

(D) Particular to Particular

Answer: (B)

Which of the following is not a “Graphic representation” ?

(A) Pie Chart

(B) Bar Chart

(C) Table

(D) Histogram

Answer: (C)

The oldest and the largest Library Association in the world is............. .

(A) ALA

(B) LA

(C) IFLA

(D) IASLIC

Answer: (A)

Which of the following is not covered under Intellectual Property Rights ?

(A) Copyrights

(B) Patents

(C) Trade Marks

(D) Thesaurus
Answer: (D)

Ontology is................. .

(A) An Indexing Method

(B) Classification of Internet based documents

(C) Cataloguing of Internet based documents

(D) Documentation service

Answer: (B)

High Level Language is.................. .

(A) Disk space dependent

(B) O. S. dependent

(C) Machine independent

(D) Machine dependent

Answer: (C)

The transmission of receiver’s reaction back to the sender is known as................. .

(A) Noise

(B) Feedback

(C) Medium

(D) Source

Answer: (B)

Protocol means............... .

(A) Interchange of data between two devices

(B) Interchange of data between two computers

(C) Linkage between two computers

(D) Linkage between two devices

Answer: (D)

Which of the following is an ‘Acronym’ ?

(A) UNESCO

(B) UNO

(C) UNDP

(D) UGC

Answer: (A)

A set of rules that govern overall data communications system is popularly known as............... .

(A) Protocol

(B) Agreement

(C) Pact

(D) Memorandum

Answer: (A)

Staffing is concerned with providing and maintaining................resources.

(A) Physical

(B) Technical

(C) Human

(D) Financial

Answer: (C)
Which of the following is not true about e journals ?

(A) They are distributed through digital methods

(B) They also have editors or editorial boards

(C) They are publications of serial nature

(D) They are always free of cost

Answer: (D)

What is the meaning of 'Translation Pools' ?

(A) Details about the names of translation experts

(B) Details about the addresses of the translators

(C) Agency of the names of translation experts

(D) None of these.

Answer: (C)

How is stochastic equation of information solved ?

(A) By statistical rules

(B) By dynamic rules

(C) By statistical and dynamic rules

(D) None of these.

Answer: (C)

Whether Library is a system?

(A) Yes, it has various sections as sub-systems coordinating each other forming a system

(B) No, it cannot be a system

(C) It is quite impossible

(D) Library is separate from a system.

Answer: (A)

MCQ: An organized system for collection of computer data, software, hardware,

human resource to capture, manipulate, analyze information is known as

1. managerial system
2. sexasigmal system
3. decision support system
4. global information system

Answer D

Research Methods Worksheets with Answers

MCQ: A system that is a part of decision support system and it addresses exchanges
between the customers and organization is called

1. managerial system
2. customer relationship management
3. decision support system
4. global information system

Answer B

Marketing Research Analyst Interview Questions

MCQ: A website address that web browsers recognizes is called

1. uniform resource locator

2. interactive medium
3. search engine
4. content providers

Answer A

Research Analyst Interview Questions and Answers

MCQ: The database that contain numerical data for analysis and then forecasting is
called
 1. statistical database
2. video database
3. legal database
4. financial database

Answer A

Business Research Test Bank Questions and Answers

MCQ: In complete certainty, the decision maker has all information needed to make

1. no decision
2. ambiguous decision
3. fool decision
4. optimal decision

Answer D
1.The main purpose of research in education is to _________

a) Help in the personal growth of an individual

b) Help the candidate become an eminent educationist

c) Increase job prospects of an individual

d) Increase social status of an individual

ANSWER: b) Help the candidate become an eminent educationist

2._______ refers to inferring about the whole population based on the observations made on a small part.

a) Deductive inference

b) Inductive inference

c) Pseudo-inference

d) Objective inference

ANSWER: b) Inductive inference

3.Sampling is advantageous as it ________

a) Helps in capital-saving

b) Saves time
c) Increases accuracy

d) Both (a) and (b)

ANSWER: d) Both (a) and (b)

Sampling is the method of drawing a certain number of the individuals from a particular set.

4.Random sampling is helpful as it is __________.

a) An economical method of data collection

b) Free from personal biases

c) Reasonably accurate

d) All the above

ANSWER: d) All the above

In random sampling, each member of the set has equal chance of selection.

5.Tippit table refers to ____________

a) Table of random digits

b) Table used in sampling methods

c) Table used in statistical investigations

d) All the above

ANSWER: d) All the above

This table was first published by L.H.C Tippett in 1927.

6.Type-I Error occurs if ___________________

a) the null hypothesis is rejected even though it is true

b) the null hypothesis is accepted even though it is false

c) both the null hypothesis as well as alternative hypothesis are rejected

d) None of the above

ANSWER: a) the null hypothesis is rejected even though it is true

Type-I Error is also known as an error of the first kind.

7._________ is a preferred sampling method for the population with finite size.

a) Area sampling

b) Cluster sampling

c) Purposive sampling

d) Systematic sampling

ANSWER: d) Systematic sampling

Random selection is done in systematic sampling.

8.Research and Development become the index of development of country. Which of the following
reasons are true with regards to this statement?

a) Because R&D reflect the true economic and social conditions prevailing in a country

b) Because R&D targets the human development

c) Because R&D can improve the standard of living of the people in a country

d) All the above

ANSWER: d) All the above

9.The data of research is ______

a) Qualitative only

b) Quantitative only

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) Neither (a) nor (b)

ANSWER: c) Both (a) and (b)

Qualitative data deals with descriptive data and quantitative data deals with numbers.

10.The longitudinal approach of research deals with _________.

a) Horizontal researches

b) Long-term researches

c) Short-term researches

d) None of the above

ANSWER: b) Long-term researches

Question 1

How would you define 'the research process'?

c) The stages or steps the researcher follows in carrying out a research project.

Question 2

Why does a researcher write a research proposal at the start of a study?

d) To apply for ethical approval and to gain permission to access participants or sources of data.

Question 3

The research process can be compared to which of the following?

b) The spine of a skeleton.

Question 4

How does audit differ from research?

d) It does not increase our understanding of the topic itself or allow us to transfer the results to other
situations.

Question 5

When might a researcher not carry out a full review of the literature at the start of a study?

a) In the case of some qualitative research designs so that the researcher is not influenced or biased by
the ideas that already exist.

Question 6

What is a hypothesis?

a) A statement that the researcher wants to test through the data collected in a study.

Question 7

Which one of the following is not a qualitative approach to research?

b) Philanthropy

Question 8

Which of the following is not a quantitative approach to research?

a) Statistics
Question 9

What does the term 'reliability' indicate?

d) That the tool of data collection can be regarded as measuring accurately and consistently.

Question 10

What is a pilot study?

c) A study to test the tool of data collection.

Q. Research process consists of __ steps.

a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

Q. These are the common mistakes in choosing a research topic, EXCEPT

a) Topic is too dicult

b) Topic is too broad
c) Sticking with the last topic that comes into mind
d) Inadequate literature on the topic

Q. Step 3 in research process is _________

a) Literature review
b) Construct hypotheses
c) Conduct a research study
d) Collect relevant data

Q. These are how we can find a research idea, EXCEPT?

a) Keep an open mind

b) Do your homework
c) Based on friend's suggestion
d) Pick a topic that you are interested

Q. These are how we can construct a good research hypothesis, EXCEPT?

a) Acceptable
b) Logical
c) Testable
d) Refutable

Q. Research is a _________ process

a) linear
 b) spiral
c) hexagonal
d) triangle

Q. A logical research hypothesis _________.

a) usually founded in established theories or developed from the results of previous research
b) must be possible to observe and measure all of the variables involved
c) must be possible to obtain research results that are contrary to the prediction
d) must make a positive statement about the existence of something, usually the existence of
relationship, the existence of a difference, or the existence of a treatment effect.

Q. How can you analyse and interpret the results?

a) By assuming that something does not exist

b) Making decisions about the specic methods
c) Identify the results without commentating on them
d) Use statistical methods to examine and evaluate the data

Q. One of the reason to report your research results is?

a) To gain popularity
b) To make more money
c) To get praise
d) The research procedure is public so it can be replicated or refuted by other researchers

Q. Choose a statement that refers to a CASE STUDY research.

a) Involves the in -depth study and detailed description of a single or limited number of
groups
b) Research based on describing the past .
c) Where practitioners in their workplace, whether they be teachers, nurses, doctors,
managers, etc., engage in research in order
d) Examines the relationship between two variable

1. Which of the following is not an essential element of report writing?

a. Research Methodology
b. Reference
c. Conclusion
d. None of these
2. Testing hypothesis is a ________
a. Inferential statistics
b. Descriptive statistics
c. Data preparation
d. Data analysis
3. Is it possible to apply projective techniques for exploratory investigation?
a. Yes
b. No
4. What is the purpose of doing research?
a. To identify problem
b. To find the solution
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
5. Which method can be applicable for collecting qualitative data?
a. Artifacts (Visual)
b. People
c. Media products ( Textual, Visual and sensory)
d. All of these
Research Methodology Objective Questions Pdf Free Download::
6. Which of the following is non-probability sampling?
a. Snowball
b. Random
c. Cluster
d. Stratified
7. In group interview their are _______
a. One interviewer and one interviewee
b. More than one interviewer and one interviewee
c. One interviewer and more than one interviewee
d. More than One interviewer and more than one interviewee
8. Which of the following are associated with behavioral observation?
a. Non-verbal analysis
b. Linguistic analysis
c. Spatial analysis
d. All of these
9. Uniting various qualitative methods with quantitative methods can be called as……..
a. Coalesce
b. Triangulation
c. Bipartite
d. Impassive
10. Multistage sampling is a ________
a. Probability sampling
b. Non-Probability sampling

Question 1

What is a research design?

a) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.

b) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.

c) The style in which you present your research findings, e.g. a graph.

d) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.

Question 2

If a study is "reliable", this means that:

a) the methods are outlined in the methods discussion clearly enough for the research to be replicated.

b) the measures devised for concepts are stable on different occasions.

c) the findings can be generalized to other social phenomena

d) it was conducted by a reputable researcher who can be trusted.

Question 3

"Internal validity" refers to:

a) whether or not there is really a causal relationship between two variables.

b) whether or not the findings are relevant to the researchers' everyday lives.

c) the extent to which the researcher believes that this was a worthwhile project.

d) how accurately the measurements represent underlying concepts.

Question 4

Lincoln and Guba (1985) propose that an alternative criterion for evaluating qualitative research would be:

a) tidiness.

b) trustworthiness.

c) impressiveness.

d) messiness.

Question 5

Naturalism has been defined as:

a) minimising the intrusion of artificial methods of data collection into the field.
b) being true to the nature the phenomena being researched.

c) viewing natural and social objects as belonging to the same dominion.

d) all of the above.

Question 6

The term 'external validity' is concerned with:

a) the question of whether the results of a study can be generalized beyond the specific research context.

b) whether the research question is judged to be a good research question by those outside the study.

c) the question of whether or not social scientific findings are applicable to people's every day, natural
social settings.

d) an ambiguous concept whose meaning depends on how it is defined.

Question 7

What is a cross-sectional design?

a) A comparison of two or more variables longitudinally

b) A design that is devised when the researcher is in a bad mood.

c) The collection of data from more than one case at one moment in time.

d) Research into one particular section of society, e.g. the middle classes.

Question 8

Survey research is cross-sectional and as a result, it is

a) Low in internal validity but high in replicability.

b) High in internal validity but low in reliability.

c) None of the above

d) High in ecological validity but low in external validity.

Question 9

What does the term 'longitudinal design' mean?

a) A study completed far away from where the researcher lives.

b) A study which is very long to read.

c) A study with two contrasting cases.

d) A study completed over a distinct period of time to map changes in social phenomena.

Question 10

Cross cultural studies are an example of:

a) Longitudinal design

b) Comparative design

c) Experimental design

d) Case study design

Question 11

Which of the following requirements for a dissertation may depend on your institution?

a) Whether an abstract should be included

b) The format for referencing

c) The size of the study

d) All of the above

Question 12

The role of a project supervisor is to:

a) give you a reading list.

b) provide academic support, guidance and critical feedback on your work.

c) negotiate access to the research setting on the student's behalf.

d) ensure you keep to your schedule and deadlines.

Question 13

Why is it important to have well formulated research questions?

a) It gives greater clarity to the research process and what you wish to research.

b) It leads to more focused research.

c) It provides more structure to my work.

d) All of the above.

Question 14

What did Marx (1997) mean when he suggested that "intellectual puzzles and contradictions" can be a
possible source of research questions?

a) The researcher may feel that there is a contradiction in the literature, presenting a "puzzle" to be
solved.

b) Students can develop their IQ levels by attempting to solve intellectual puzzles.

c) Unless you can find a logical contradiction, you have no basis for conducting research.

d) Any puzzle can be researched.

Question 15

Which of the following is a criterion for a good research question?

a) Questions should be long and use complex terms

b) Questions should show where my research biases are.

c) Questions should sound contemporary.

d) Questions should connect with established theory and research.

Question 16

Which of the following should be included in a research proposal?

a) Your academic status and experience.

b) The difficulties you encountered with your previous reading on the topic.

c) Your choice of research methods and reasons for choosing them.

d) All of the above.

Question 17

Which of the following should you think about when preparing your research?

a) Your sample frame and sampling strategy.

b) The ethical issues that might arise.

c) Negotiating access to the setting.

d) All of the above.

Question 18

Why is it helpful to keep a research diary or log book while you are conducting your project?

a) To give you something to do in the early stages of your research when nothing is happening.

b) Because funding councils generally demand to see written evidence that you were working every day
during the period of the research.

c) To keep a record of what you did and what happened throughout the research process.

d) It can be added to your dissertation to ensure that you reach the required word limit.

Question 19

Which of the following are sampling considerations?

a) Who do you need to study in order to investigate your research questions?

b) How easily can you gain access to a sampling frame?

c) What kind of sampling strategy will you employ?

d) All of the above.

Question 20

What practical steps can you take before you actually start your research?

a) Find out exactly what your institution's requirements are for a dissertation.

b) Make sure you are familiar with the hardware and software you plan to use.

c) Apply for clearance of your project through an ethics committee.

d) All of the above.

Question 1.

Which one of the following is a data collection method?

a. The case study.
b. The interview.
c. Positivism.
d. The onion.

Question 2.

Which one of these is NOT normally associated with quantitative data?

a) Numbers.
b) Analysis guided by standardised rules.
 c) Analysis begins as data are collected.
d) Researchers views of high importance.

Question 3.

Which one of these is NOT normally associated with qualititative data?

a. Words.
b. Narrative.
c. Pie charts.
d. Images.

Question 4.

A study is based on 30 people (across three focus groups). What type of study is
this?

a. Quantitative study.
b. Questionnaire study.
c. Qualitative study.
d. Structured study.

Question 5.

A study is based on 1000 people interviewed face to face in shopping centres. What
type of study is this?

a. Self-completion study.
b. Questionnaire study.
c. Ethnographic study.
d. Qualitative study.

Question 6.

In which of these studies is validity in question?

a. Positivist.
b. Quantitative.
c. Qualitative.

Question 7.

Which research strategy is described here?

The introduction of planned change on one or more of the variables; measurement

on a small number of variables and control of other variables.

a. Case study.
b. Ethnography.
c. Survey.
d. Experiment.

Question 8.

Which research strategy is described here?

The collection of data using questionnaires, but it also includes other techniques (e.g.
structured observation and structured interviews).

a. Grounded theory.
 b. Action research.
c. Survey.
d. Ethnography.

Question 9.

Which research strategy is described here?

The researcher is involved in the acts under study; s/he causes changes and
monitors the outcomes.

a. Grounded theory.
b. Survey.
c. Action research.
d. Case study.

Question 10.

Which of these should be most valuable to show a gradual change in behaviour over
time?

a. Experimental studies.
b. Extrapolations.
c. Snapshot surveys.
d. Longitudinal studies.

Question 11.

Which research strategy is described here?

Theory is developed from data generated by a series of observations or interviews

principally involving an inductive approach.

a. Action research.
b. Grounded theory.
c. Experiment.
d. Ethnography.

Question 12.

For any study you should question the validity and reliability of:

a. the interviewing process.

b. the sampling procedure.
c. the questionnaire.
d. all of the above.

Research Design
1) Research hypotheses are ------------------

a. Formulated prior to a review of the literature

 b. Statements of predicted relationships between variables
c. Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted
d. Both b and c
2) Hypothesis in qualitative research studies usually ------------
a. Are very specific and stated prior to beginning the study
b. Are often generated as the data are collected, interpreted and analyzed
c. Are never used
d. Are always stated after the research study has been completed

3) Research in which the researcher uses the qualitative paradigm for one phase and the quantitative
paradigm for another phase is known as -----------
a. Action research
b. Basic research
c. Quantitative research
d. Mixed method research
4) Qualitative research is often exploratory and has all of the following characteristics except----
----
a) It is typically used when a great deal is already known about the topic of interest
b) It relies on the collection of non numerical data such as words and pictures
c) It is used to generate hypotheses and develop theory about phenomena in the world
d) It uses the inductive scientific method
5) The opposite of a variable ---------
a. A constant
b. An extraneous variable
c. A dependent variable
d. A data set

A researcher must have a clear idea with regards to what it is that s/he wants
to find out about and not what s/he thinks s/he must find.
a) True
b) False

If you have a specific idea about what is to be researched you should

a) Formulate research objectives.

b) Talk to your supervisor.
c) Write a research proposal.
d) Follow the twelve steps of selecting a research problem.

The research problem determines

 a) What methodology will be used.
b) How long the report will be.
c) The amount of support you get from your supervisor.
d) How good your research skills are.

The study population is information about

a) Programme.
b) Problem.
c) People.
d) Phenomenon.

The formulation of a research problem is the most crucial part of the research
journey as the quantity and vanity of the project entirely depends upon it.
a) True
b) False

The formulation a research problem is the most _________ part of the research journey because the
quality and relevance of the project entirely depends upon it.

a) Trivial.
b) Important.
c) Motivating.
d) Repetitive.

What helps when developing a research question?

a) Knowledge of the subject area.

b) A big budget.
c) Formulating objectives.
d) Specific guidelines in other books

Developing a researchable question would not involve

a) Assessing the work involved.

b) Deciding what statistical software to use.
c) Considering the time and resources available to you.
d) Bearing in mind your technical expertise in the area of research

Question no 1: In academic research, at University level, a verb best avoided in the research question is:
 a. to determine.
b. to identify.
c. to describe.
d. to establish.

Question 2. What is the main advantage of producing a written research proposal?

a. Informs all interested parties.

b. Helps with credibility.
c. Helps the institution.
d. Helps keep people employed.

Question 3. Idea generation by two or more people thinking as freely as possible is formally known as:

a. gap analysis.
b. clap-trapping.
c. brainstorming.
d. the learning curve.
e. forced relationships.

Question 4. A symmetry of potential outcomes means that the project:

a. starts with a quantitative stage and ends with a quantitative stage.

b. starts with a qualitative stage and ends with a qualitative stage.
c. will be reliable whatever the outcome.
d. will be valuable whatever the outcome.

Question 5. What is the difference between research questions and research objectives?

a. The question is worded by the researcher, the objective is not.

b. No difference, they are the same.
c. One of these is proposed by a supervisor.
d. The wording of one is likely to be more specific than the other.

Question 6. These research tasks are slightly out of order. Which one should be moved? The study asked
2000 people about Christmas shopping.

a. The costs of research were calculated.

b. Tables produced.
c. A timetable was created.
d. Secondary sources consulted.
e. The questionnaire was written.
f. People interviewed.

Question 7. What helps to agree timing, agree resource allocation and also draws boundaries?

a. The questionnaire.
b. The final report.
c. The observation form.
d. The proposal.
Question 8. All of these may appear in a research proposal, but which one will ALWAYS appear?

a. Business objective.
b. Research objective.
c. Creative objective.
d. Marketing objective.

Question 9. Which word fills all the blanks in this extract:

We talk about generating __________, testing _______, rejecting ________.

a. objectives
b. hypotheses
c. questions
d. aims

Question 10. Projects do go wrong. In one case a student was indecisive and collected anything, just in
case it came in useful: web sites, photocopies, brochures. The questionnaire even included irrelevant
questions, just in case the information could be useful. Which ONE of the following would have been
realistic and would have helped the most with this problem?

a. Regular progress reports to the supervisor.

b. Using a Gantt chart.
c. Being less ambitious.
d. Setting a clear objective.
e. Using SPSS.

Question 11. Projects do go wrong. In one case a student's conclusion was not acceptable. She jumped
to that conclusion because it seemed to her to be the right answer. Which ONE of the following would
have been realistic and would have helped the most with this problem?

a. Working closely with the information collected.

b. Being less ambitious.
c. Regular progress reports to the supervisor.
d. Asking for the deadline to be changed.
e. Using SPSS.

Question 12. Projects do go wrong. In one case a student could not analyse the data collected; he was
not capable. Which ONE of the following would have been realistic and would have helped the most
with this problem?

a. Being less ambitious.

b. Using a Gantt chart.
c. Regular meetings with the supervisor.
d. Using SPSS.
e. Asking for the deadline to be changed.

Question 13. A student plans a research project; it is called A description of IBM. On the limited
information we have (the title), which ONE of these best applies to the idea?
 a. It has an acceptable method.
b. It has an acceptable purpose.
c. It is narrow.
d. It is wide.

Question 14. What is 'a possible explanation that we may or may not agree with'?

a. The hypothesis.
b. Grounded theory.
c. The research question.
d. The objective.

Question 15. The timing section of a report will NOT include:

a. guidelines on ethics.
b. deadlines for submitting the final report.
c. progress report dates.
d. deadlines for ending data collection.

1. A good qualitative problem statement:

a. Defines the independent and dependent variables

b. Conveys a sense of emerging design

c. Specifies a research hypothesis to be tested

d. Specifies the relationship between variables that the researcher expects to find

2. The “tool” function of theory is to:

a. Summarize existing knowledge

b. Summarize existing hypotheses

c. Suggest new relationships and make new predictions

d. Suggest new theories

3. The statement of purpose in a research study should:

a. Identify the design of the study

b. Identify the intent or objective of the study

c. Specify the type of people to be used in the study

d. Describe the study

4. Why is the statement “What are the effects of extracurricular activities on cognitive development of
school age children” not a good statement of a quantitative research question?

a. Because there is no connection between extracurricular activities and cognitive

development

b. Because there are not enough school age children engaged in extracurricular activities

to conduct the study

c. Because the study would be too difficult to do given all the different extracurricular

activities

d. Because the statement was not specific enough to provide an understanding of the

variables being investigated

5. A qualitative research question:

a. Asks a question about some process, or phenomenon to be explored

b. Is generally an open-ended question

c. both a and b are correct

d. None of the above

6. According to the text, which of the following orders is the recommended in the flowchart of the
development of a research idea?

a. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, hypothesis

b. Research topic, research purpose, research problem, research question, hypothesis

c. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, hypothesis

d. Research topic, hypothesis, research problem, research question, research purpose

7. It is essential that you evaluate the quality of internet resources because information obtained via the
internet ranges from very poor to very good.

a. True

b. False

8. One step that is not included in planning a research study is:

a. Identifying a researchable problem

b. A review of current research

c. Statement of the research question

d. Conducting a meta-analysis of the research

e. Developing a research plan

9. Sources of researchable problems can include:

a. Researchers’ own experiences as educators

b. Practical issues that require solutions

c. Theory and past research

d. All of the above

10. A key characteristic of past research that guides researchers in new research questions is that:

a. Extensive research conclusively and definitively answers research questions

b. Studies typically generate more research questions than they answer

11. Which of the following is a function of theory?

a. Integrating and summarizing current knowledge

b. Making predictions

c. Explaining phenomena

d. All of the above are important functions of theory

12. A review of the literature prior to formulating research questions allows the researcher to do which
of the following?

a. To become familiar with prior research on the phenomenon of interest

b. To identify potential methodological problems in the research area

c. To develop a list of pertinent problems relative to the phenomenon of interest

d. All of the above

13. Sometimes a comprehensive review of the literature prior to data collection is not recommended by
grounded theorists.

a. True

b. False

14. What kind of ideas can’t be empirically researched?

a. Effectiveness of different methods of instruction

b. Description of educational practices

c. Issues of values and morality such as the correctness of having prayer in schools

d. Factors helpful in predicting future drug use

15. Which of the following is not a database containing information to be used during the literature
review?

a. ERIC

b. PsychINFO

c. SocioFILE

d. all of the above are potentially useful data bases

16. Computer database searches can be done:

a. With a computer with CD-ROM drive

b. At the library

c. Online

d. All of the above

17. The feasibility of a research study should be considered in light of:

a. Cost and time required to conduct the study

b. Skills required of the researcher

c. Potential ethical concerns

d. All of the above

18. A formal statement of the research question or “purpose of research study” generally ______.

a. Is made prior to the literature review

b. Is made after the literature review

c. Will help guide the research process

d. All of the above

e. b and c

19. Is the following qualitative research purpose statement “well stated” or “poorly stated”? “The focus
of the present study was to explore distressing and nurturing encounters of patients with caregivers and
to ascertain the meanings that are engendered by such encounters. The study was conducted on one of
the surgical units and the obstetrical/gynecological unit of a 374-bed community hospital.”

a. It is a well stated

b. It is poorly stated

20. Which of the following quantitative research questions is superior?

a. “What is the effect of participation in various extracurricular activities on academic performance?”

b. “What effect does playing high school football have on students’ overall grade point average during
the football season?”

21. A statement of the quantitative research question should:

a. Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question(s) the researcher will

address

b. Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures, and

materials

c. Specify the variables of interest

d. All of the above

22. The research participants are described in detail in which section of the research plan?

a. Introduction
b. Method

c. Data analysis

d. Discussion

23. Research hypotheses are ______.

a. Formulated prior to a review of the literature

b. Statements of predicted relationships between variables

c. Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted

d. b and c

24. Hypotheses in qualitative research studies usually _____.

a. Are very specific and stated prior to beginning the study

b. Are often generated as the data are collected, interpreted, and analyzed

c. Are never used

d. Are always stated after the research study has been completed

25. A research plan _____.

a. Should be detailed

b. Should be given to others for review and comments

c. Sets out the rationale for a research study

d. All of the above

26. The Method section of the research plan typically specifies

a. The research participants

b. The results of prior studies that address the phenomena of interest

c. The apparatus, instruments, and materials for the research study

d. The planned research procedures

e. a, c and d
27. The Introduction section of the research plan

a. Gives an overview of prior relevant studies

b. Contains a statement of the purpose of the study

c. Concludes with a statement of the research questions and, for quantitative research, it includes

the research hypothesis

d. All of the above

28. According to your text, which of the following is not a source of research ideas?

a. Everyday life

b. Practical issues

c. Past research

d. Theory

e. All of the above ARE sources of research ideas

1 . What is the reason for consulting handbooks, yearbooks, encyclopedias, or reviews in the initial
stages of identifying a research topic? [Hint]

a. They are readily available.

b. They provide an overview of the issues related to a topic.
c. They are primary sources.
d. They avoid reporting statistical data so one can interpret the results more readily.

2 . Which of the following are excellent sources for research topics? [Hint]

a. Theory
b. Personal experience
c. Replication of prior research
d. All of the above

3 . Mr. Danos identified his research topic as "classroom assessment." He recognized very quickly his
topic was far too broad. Which of the following is likely to have led to that conclusion? [Hint]

a. There was far too much written on the topic to understand it all.
b. It was difficult to organize the material he was collecting in an effective manner.
c. The potential problems he began thinking about would be next to impossible to study.
d. All of the above.
4 . Ms. LeBlanc wrote the following hypothesis: St. Tammany Parish schools should become more
democratic in their decisions . She was asked to rewrite the hypothesis because it cannot be
investigated [Hint]

a. through the collection and analysis of data.

b. ethically.
c. and contribute to theory or practice.
d. and contribute to the education of students in the parish.

5 . Which of the following is NOT a legitimate research problem as stated? [Hint]

a. What is the relationship between the number of books a child has read and their
reading scores?
b. Should competitive games be banned from elementary schools?
c. What does it mean to be a special needs child "included" in Ms. Pierre's fourth-grade
class?
d. What are the major legal principles applied to educational cases decided by the U.S.
Supreme Court under the last Chief Justice?

6 . Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate research problem? [Hint]

a. Does studying Latin improve the standardized vocabulary test scores of seventh-grade
students?
b. Does drilling fifth-grade students with multiplication facts improve their standardized
math test scores?
c. What is the relationship between student's math attitudes and math achievement?
d. Should students have access to controversial novels in school?

7 . Which of the following is the BEST formal statement of a quantitative problem? [Hint]

a. Using portfolios
b. Student achievement
c. Using portfolios to increase eighth-grade students' writing skills
d. Student achievement affects portfolio development

8 . The Virgilio Teacher Behavior Inventory (VTBI) is an observation instrument designed to measure in
concrete terms the abstract notion of "effective teaching behaviors." In research, the VTBI is known as
[Hint]

a. A dependent variable
b. An independent variable
c. The construct of "effective teachers"
d. An operational definition of effective teaching behaviors

1 . A review of the literature should enable an investigator to do which of the following? [Hint]

a. Ascertain what is already known about a topic.

b. Identify methodological strategies for designing the study.
c. Provide the insight necessary to develop a logical framework into which the topic fits.
 d. All of the above.

Why is a primary source often more valuable to a researcher than a secondary source? [Hint]

a. It gives general information about a particular topic.

b. It reviews relevant literature.
c. It synthesizes the results from a number of studies.
d. It provides detailed information about all aspects of a study.

3 . Which of the following key terms is likely to produce the LEAST number of references related to
writing assessment and the use of portfolios to assess writing? [Hint]

a. Writing assessment BUT portfolios

b. Portfolios AND writing assessment
c. Writing assessment AND portfolios
d. Writing assessment OR portfolios

4 . The Internet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of the
following is NOT an indicator of the quality of information found on the Internet? [Hint]

a. The number of "hits" for the site

b. The honesty with which information is reported and presented
c. The authenticity of the information
d. The lack of bias

1 . Which of the following differentiates the development of a quantitative problem from that of a
qualitative problem? [Hint]

a. A qualitative problem is formulated much sooner in the research process.

b. A qualitative problem is never narrowed or focused.
c. A quantitative problem is formulated before data is collected and analyzed, but a
qualitative problem emerges during the collection and analysis of data.
d. A quantitative problem is developed more systematically.

2 . Which of the following statements describes the process of reviewing the literature in a qualitative
study? [Hint]

a. It is conducted only during data collection and analysis.

b. It is conducted prior to collecting data.
c. It is a continuing process, because the research problem becomes more focused
throughout the research.
d. It is limited to a brief, preliminary search so as to avoid biasing the researcher.

1 . Which of the following is recommended as a first step in abstracting a reference? [Hint]

a. Read the entire article and highlight potential direct quotes.

b. Record all biographical information.
c. Summarize the article.
d. Read the abstract and/or skim the article.
2 . A literature review should be characterized by all of the following EXCEPT [Hint]

a. summarize and report each article.

b. use important topics as the organizing structure of the review.
c. analyze all articles for similarities and differences related to major topics.
d. discuss implications relative to the research problem.

1 . A hypothesis is defined as [Hint]

a. a tentative prediction of the results of the research.

b. the operational definition of the study.
c. a qualitative research design.
d. a quantitative study.

2 . Which of the following is the BEST hypothesis? [Hint]

a. Students taking formative quizzes will perform better on chapter exams than students
not taking these quizzes.
b. Taller students will have higher test scores than shorter students.
c. Students taught in a cooperative group setting should do better than students in a
traditional class.
d. Students using laptops will do well.

3 . Which of the following is a nondirectional hypothesis? [Hint]

a. Teachers receiving holistic stress-reduction training will be less stressed than teachers
who do not receive such training.
b. Teachers receiving holistic stress reduction training will have similar levels of stress as
teachers who do not receive such training.
c. Teachers receiving holistic stress reduction training will have significantly lower stress
levels than teachers who are not receiving such training.
d. Teachers receiving holistic stress reduction training will have statistically significant
higher levels of stress than teachers who do not receive such training.

4 . The following hypothesis was tested: Teachers receiving holistic stress reduction training will
demonstrate lower levels of stress than teachers who do not receive such training. The results of the
study indicated teachers receiving the training had lower levels of stress. Which of the following BEST
describes these results? [Hint]

a. The results support the hypothesis.

b. The results do not support the hypothesis.
c. The results prove the hypothesis.
d. The results disprove the hypothesis.

Question 1. In academic research, at University level, a verb best avoided in the research question is:
 a. to describe.
b. to determine.
c. to establish.
d. to identify.

Question 2. Idea generation by two or more people thinking as freely as possible is formally known as:

a. clap-trapping.
b. forced relationships.
c. the learning curve.
d. brainstorming.
e. gap analysis.

Question 3. What is the difference between research questions and research objectives?

a. The wording of one is likely to be more specific than the other.

b. No difference, they are the same.
c. The question is worded by the researcher, the objective is not.
d. One of these is proposed by a supervisor.

Question 4. A student plans a research project; it is called A description of IBM. On the limited
information we have (the title), which ONE of these best applies to the idea?

a. It is wide.
b. It is narrow.
c. It has an acceptable method.
d. It has an acceptable purpose.

Question 5. What is 'a possible explanation that we may or may not agree with'?

a. The research question.

b. The hypothesis.
c. Grounded theory.
d. The objective.

Question 6. Consider this research question:

Should a new factory procedure be used?

Which management function is the closest match?

a. Production.
b. Marketing.
c. All functions.
d. HRM.

Question 7. Consider this research aim:

To help solve problems of absenteeism.

Which management function is the closest match?

 a. Marketing.
b. All functions.
c. HRM.
d. Production.

Question 8. Consider this research aim:

To investigate new markets.

Which management function is the closest match?

a. Marketing.
b. All functions.
c. HRM.
d. Production.

Question 9. Research goes through distinct phases. Which one is in the WRONG position?

a. Report.
b. Critically review literature.
c. Formulate your research question.
d. Determine information gathering techniques.

Question 10. Read the following definition by Gill and Johnson (1997):

"A formulation regarding the cause and effect relationships between two or more variables, which may
or may not have been tested." Which one of these does it define?

a. Theory.
b. Secondary data.
c. Observation.
d. Sampling.

Question 11. Projects do go wrong. In one case a student's conclusion was not acceptable. She jumped
to that conclusion because it seemed to her to be the right answer. Which ONE of the following would
have been realistic and would have helped the most with this problem?

a. Regular progress reports to the supervisor.

b. Working closely with the information collected.
c. Being less ambitious.
d. Asking for the deadline to be changed.
e. Using SPSS.

Question 12. Projects do go wrong. In one case a student could not analyse the data collected; he was
not capable. Which ONE of the following would have been realistic and would have helped the most
with this problem?

a. Using SPSS.
b. Regular meetings with the supervisor.
c. Asking for the deadline to be changed.
 d. Being less ambitious.
e. Using a Gantt chart.

Question 1.

______ allow a researcher to examine the degree and direction of the relationship between two
characteristics or variables.

a. Confounding variables
b. Correlational designs
c. Experimental designs
d. Quasi-experimental designs

Question 2. A dependent variable refers to:

a. a variable with a single value which remains constant in a particular context.

b. the experimental condition.
c. the variable being manipulated or varied in some way by the researcher.
d. the variable which shows us the effect of the manipulation.

Question 3. A solution typically used for dealing with the effects that can occur in a within-participants
design as a result of participants doing the conditions in a particular order is called:

a. demand effects.
b. spurious effects.
c. order effects.
d. counterbalancing.

Question 4. A study is carried out to compare offenders with non-offenders on their levels of coping.
Which following statement is true of this study?

a. Both variables are dependant as the researcher cannot manipulate them.

b. There are two independent variables; offender and non-offender, and one dependant
variable, which is level of coping.
c. The independent variable is coping and the dependent variable is type of person.
d. The independent variable is type of person and the dependant variable is their level of
coping.

Question 5. A study is carried out to examine whether senior consultants have more positive coping
skills than junior consultants. Which following statement is true of this study?

a. The study is a correlational design.

b. The independent variable is seniority and the dependant variable is coping skills.
c. The independent variable is coping and the dependent variable is seniority.
d. Both variables are independent as the researcher cannot manipulate them.
Question 6. Complete the following sentence: Sometimes the difference a researcher has observed in a
dependent variable as a result of manipulating the independent variable may not be due to the
manipulation but due to:

a. spurious variables.
b. dichotomous variables.
c. categorical variables.
d. confounding variables.

Question 7. Complete the following statement.

Between-participants designs should be considered when:

a. the independent variable doesn't lend itself well to repeated measure, e.g. gender.
b. participants might be affected by demand effects.
c. order effects are likely.
d. all of the above.

Question 8. If in SPSSFW there is a grouping variable in the data screen this tells you that it is a:

a. correlational design.
b. repeated measures design.
c. between-participants design.
d. within-participants design.

Question 11. Quasi-experimental designs have which of the following characteristics?

a. The data can be analysed using Spearman's Rho.

b. Because participants are not randomly allocated to the various conditions, we cannot be
certain that our pseudo-manipulation of the independent variable is responsible for any
differences between conditions.
c. Participants are randomly allocated to the various conditions that make up the
independent variable.
d. Because participants are randomly allocated it is easy to infer causation from quasi-
experimental designs.

Question 12. Variables are:

a. something that can vary in terms of precision.

b. something that we can measure.
c. the main focus of research in science.
d. all of the above.

Question 13. What sort of variable is manipulated by the researcher?

a. Co-dependent.
b. Dependent.
c. Independent.
d. All variables are manipulated by the researcher.
Question 14. Which of the following constitute discrete variables?

a. A student's top typing speed.

b. Number of reported crimes in one week.
c. Type of offender, e.g. rapist, burglar, thief.
d. Favourite animal.

Question 15. Which of the following is correct?

a. The between-participants design has more control over confounding variables between
conditions.
b. The within-participants design needs a greater number of participants.
c. Cause and effect is more likely to be implied from the correlational design.
d. It is important to distinguish between the major sorts of research design because they
use different methods of analysis.

Question 16. Which of the following is true?

a. Streiner (2002) argues that in analyses you are only two thirds as likely to detect
relationships among variables if you dichotomise continuous variables.
b. Dichotomising variables can result in gaining a lot of information about participants.
c. Dichotomising continuous variables tends to lead to research that is high in
experimental power.
d. None of the above.

Question 17. Which of the following statements is false?

Using a within-participants design means that:

a. it provides for a more sensitive test of the differences between conditions because it
controls for differences between individuals.
b. the same people can be measured twice on the dependent variable.
c. you get participants to complete all the various experimental conditions but in different
orders.
d. different people are tested in each condition of the IV.

Question 18. Which of these statements relating to the experimental design or true experiment is false?

a. Experiments cannot reveal causal relationships as well as other research designs.

b. Random allocation of participants to conditions is a major feature of experiments.
c. The laboratory experiment is more artificial compared to more naturalistic research
settings.
d. Experiments involve the manipulation of one variable systemically to see what effect it
has on other variables.

Question 19. Which one of these problems associated with the within-participants design is true?

a. You can use them in many quasi-experimental designs.

b. It is a less sensitive design as you cannot control for participants individual differences.
c. There can be effects of a participant serving in more than one condition of the study.
 d. You are not able to use counterbalancing.

Question 20. You have found that men who went into care at a young age commit more crimes. Which
of the following could you conclude?

a. There is not necessarily a causal relationship between going into care and the amount of
crimes committed.
b. There is a causal relationship between being in care and committing crime.
c. Men who go into care develop criminal attitudes.
d. Going into care is the cause of crime.

1 . Within statistics, a variable can be described as: [Hint]

a. A concept that helps researchers to conceptualise and plan their research

b. The measurement of anything that varies
c. Different types of objects, events, feelings, attitudes…………
d. All of the above

2 . “Government researchers yesterday identified a growing trend of the relationship between spending
and the amount of debt among UK residents”

From the extract above, the variables being identified are: [Hint]

a. trends in the UK economy and where respondents reside.

b. Spending and where respondents reside.
c. Spending and Debt.
d. Debt and trends in the UK economy.

3 . “Professor Logan reported, on his study on student behaviour to a group of university academics that
students are more likely to pass exams if they revise for them”.

From the extract above, the variables being identified are: [Hint]

a. Exam success and whether students revise for exams or not.

b. Student behaviour and academic judgement.
c. Student behaviour and exam success.
d. Student behaviour and whether student revise for exams or not.

4 . Levels within a variable are best described as: [Hint]

a. All the variables included in a study

b. A way of distinguishing between the different elements that exist within the
measurement of a variable.
c. How researchers can categorise different variables
d. A number of variables that can be categorised together.

5 . Which of the following is not a category that is used to distinguish between different types of
variables. [Hint]

a. Nominal
b. Interval
 c. Ordinal
d. Bi-nominal

6 . Which of the following is not a category that is used to distinguish between different types of
variables. [Hint]

a. Continuous
b. Continuum
c. Categorical
d. Discrete

7 . For the variable ‘Colour of respondents’ eyes,’ which has the available answers Brown, Blue, Green,
and Other, how many levels of this variable would the researcher identify for coding the data [Hint]

a. 6
b. 7
c. 3
d. 4

Q. A variable that is not being studied but influences the accuracy of the results of an experiment

a) Independent Variable
b) Dependent Variable
c) Extreneous Variable
d) Dichotomous Variable

Q. A variable that is based on a count of whole values

a) Discrete variable
b) Continuous Variable
c) Ordinal Variable
d) Nominal variable

Q. A variable that represents two categories

a) Independent variable
b) Ordinal Variable
c) Dichotomous Variable
d) Polychotomous Variable

Q. A variable that is influenced by the predictor variable

a) Continuous Variable
b) Criterion Variable
c) Extraneous Variable
d) Polychotomous Variable

Q. A variable that can be arranged logically

 a) Nominal Variable
b) Ordinal Variable
c) Discrete Variable
d) Continuous Variable

Q. A variable that causes changes to the other variable in a non - experimental study

a) Extreneous Variable
b) Discrete Variable
c) Predictor Variable
d) Criterion Variable

Q. A variable in an experimental study that is also called a response variable

a) Ordinal Variable
b) Nominal Variable
c) Independent Variable
d) Dependent Variable

Q. A variable with many categories

a) Continuous Variable
b) Discrete Variable
c) Dichotomous Variable
d) Polychotomous Variables

Q. A variable that is always manipulated

a) Independent Variable
b) Dependent Variable
c) Extraneous Variable
d) Criterion Variable

Q. A variable that CANNOT be organized in logical order

a) Ordinal Variable
b) Nominal Variable
c) Dichotomous Variable
d) Polychotomous Variable

Question 1 What is the difference between interval/ratio and ordinal variables?

a) The distance between categories is equal across the range of interval/ratio data

b) Ordinal data can be rank ordered, but interval/ratio data cannot

c) Interval/ratio variables contain only two categories

d) Ordinal variables have a fixed zero point, whereas interval/ratio variables do not

Question 2 What is the difference between a bar chart and a histogram?

a) A histogram does not show the entire range of scores in a distribution

b) Bar charts are circular, whereas histograms are square

c) There are no gaps between the bars on a histogram

d) Bar charts represents numbers, whereas histograms represent percentages

Question 3 What is an outlier?

a) A type of variable that cannot be quantified

b) A score that is left out of the analysis because of missing data

c) An extreme value at either end of a distribution

Question 4What is the function of a contingency table, in the context of bivariate analysis?

a) It shows the results you would expect to find by chance

b) It summarises the frequencies of two variables so that they can be compared

c) It lists the different levels of p value for tests of significance

d) It compares the results you might get from various statistical tests

Question 5 If there were a perfect positive correlation between two interval/ratio variables, the
Pearson's r test would give a correlation coefficient of:

a) - 0.328

b) +1

c) +0.328

d) - 1

Question 6 What is the name of the test that is used to assess the relationship between two ordinal
variables?

a) Spearman's rho

b) Phi

c) Cramer's V

d) Chi square

Question 7 When might it be appropriate to conduct a multivariate analysis test?

a) If the relationship between two variables might be spurious

b) If there could be an intervening variable

c) If a third variable might be moderating the relationship

d) All of the above

Question 8 What is meant by a "spurious" relationship between two variables?

a) One that is so ridiculously illogical it cannot possibly be true

b) An apparent relationship that is so curious it demands further attention

c) A relationship that appears to be true because each variable is related to a third one

d) One that produces a perfect negative correlation on a scatter diagram

Question 9 A test of statistical significance indicates how confident the researcher is about:

a) The inter-coder reliability of their structured interview schedule

b) Passing their driving test

c) Understanding the difference between bivariate and multivariate analysis

d) Generalizing their findings from the sample to the population

Question 10 Setting the p level at 0.01 increases the chances of making a:

a) Type I error

b) Type II error

c) Type III error

d) All of the above

Question 1 What is the advantage of using SPSS over calculating statistics by hand?

a) It equips you with a useful transferable skill.

b) It reduces the chance of making errors in your calculations.

c) Many researchers use SPSS as it is a recognised software package.

d) All of the above.

Question 2 In SPSS, what is the "Data Viewer"?

a) A table summarizing the frequencies of data for one variable.

b) A spreadsheet into which data can be entered.

c) A dialog box that allows you to choose a statistical test.

d) A screen in which variables can be defined and labeled.

Question 3 How is a variable name different from a variable label?

a) It is shorter and less detailed.

b) It is longer and more detailed.

c) It is abstract and unspecific.

d) It refers to codes rather than variables.

Question 4 What does the operation "Recode Into Different Variables" do to the data?

a) Replaces missing data with some random scores.

b) Reverses the position of the independent and dependent variable on a graph.

c) Redistributes a range of values into a new set of categories and creates a new variable.

d) Represents the data in the form of a pie chart.

Question 5 How would you use the drop-down menus in SPSS to generate a frequency table?

a) Open the Output Viewer and click: Save As; Pie Chart

b) Click on: Analyze; Descriptive Statistics; Frequencies

c) Click on: Graphs; Frequencies; Pearson

d) Open the Variable Viewer and recode the value labels

Question 6 Why might you tell SPSS to represent the "slices" of a pie chart in different patterns?

a) Because the program tends to crash if you ask it to use colour.

b) Because the patterns form symbolic visual images of different social groups.

c) In order to make full use of the facilities that SPSS can offer.

d) If you do not have a colour printer, it makes the differences between slices clearer.

Question 7 When cross-tabulating two variables, it is conventional to:

a) represent the independent variable in rows and the dependent variable in columns.

b) assign both the dependent and independent variables to columns.

c) represent the dependent variable in rows and the independent variable in columns.

d) assign both the dependent and independent variables to rows.

Question 8 In which sub-dialog box can the Chi Square test be found?

a) Frequencies: Percentages

b) Crosstabs: Statistics

c) Bivariate: Pearson

d) Gender: Female

Question 9 To generate a Spearman's rho test, which set of instructions should you give SPSS?

a) Analyze; Crosstabs; Descriptive Statistics; Spearman; OK

b) Graphs; Frequencies; [select variables]; Spearman; OK

c) Analyze; Compare Means; Anova table; First layer; Spearman; OK

d) Analyze; Correlate; Bivariate; [select variables]; Spearman; OK

Question 10 How would you print a bar chart that you have just produced in SPSS?

a) In Output Viewer, click File, Print, select the bar chart and click OK

b) In Variable Viewer, open bar chart, click File, Print, OK

c) In Chart Editor, click Descriptive Statistics, Print, OK

d) In Data Editor, open Graphs dialog box, click Save, OK

Statements based on the systematic collection of data are:

a. empirical

b. dialectic

c. empathic

d. false

The goal of correlational research is to:

a. assess the causal impact of one variable on another

b. create a snapshot of what’s happening

c. assess relationships between variables

d. all of the above

A study of the feeding behaviour of a group of wild monkeys in India would be an example of:

a. a survey

b. naturalistic observation

c. a correlation

d. an experiment

If income and happiness are positively correlated then a person with a low income would be predicted
to be:

a. not depressed at all

b. less depressed than a person with a high income

c. more depressed than a person with a high income

d. cannot make a prediction from correlational data

Descriptive statistics aim to:

a. explain

b. confuse

c. complicate

d. summarize

In a ________ experiment neither the researcher nor the participants know which condition participants
are in.

a. blind

b. double-blind

c. random

d. confounded

A researcher is interested in the impact of anxiety on performance. In order to manipulate anxiety, they
have some subjects eat plain chips while others eat barbecue flavoured chips. The most obvious
problem with this experiment is a lack of :

a. statistical validity

b. empirical validity

c. internal validity

d. construct validity

A strength of correlational designs is that they:

a. can demonstrate causation

b. do not require ethics board approval

c. can be used with variables which cannot be manipulated by a researcher

d. are more intrusive than experimental designs

A researcher uses an experimental design to study the effect of music on memory. In this experiment,
the Independent Variable is:

a. music

b. memory

c. both music and memory

d. neither music nor memory

According to the text, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good theory?
a. it is parsimonious

b. it is falsifiable

c. it is common sense

d. it is general

Empirical statements are based on:

a. belief

b. data

c. intuition

d. common sense

Informed consent is typically obtained:

a. during an experiment

b. before an experiment

c. after an experiment

d. it is not typical to obtain informed consent

Creating equivalence among research participants is vital for:

a. experimental research

b. correlational research

c. descriptive research

d. equivalence is never vital

A researcher is interested in whether the results of her experiment (conducted in Canada) would be the
same if the experiment were conducted in China. This researcher is concerned with:

a. internal validity

b. external validity

c. statistical validity

d. none of the above

Standard deviation is a measure of:

a. range

b. central tendency

c. inference
d. dispersion

Generalization is a key issue in:

a. internal validity

b. external validity

c. a double-blind experiment

d. a single-blind experiment

In an experiment examining the effect of mood on intelligence participants are randomly

assigned to watch either a funny movie or a sad movie before they complete an IQ test. The funny
movie is shown in a classroom, while the sad movie is shown in the student lounge. The most obvious
problem with this experiment is:

a. lack of statistical validity

b. the IV is confounded

c. the use of random assignment

d. none of the above

In an experiment the researcher manipulates the ________ variable and measure the

________ variable.

a. independent, dependent

b. dependent, independent

c. causal, spurious

d. spurious, causal

The more exercise a person takes the fewer medical problems they report. This is an example of:

a. a curvilinear relationship

b. statistical independence

c. a positive correlation

d. a negative correlation

In a normal distribution most scores are located:

a. at the high end of the distribution

b. at the low end of the distribution

c. in the centre of the distribution

d. at the extremes of the distribution

Data from a correlational study is usually shown as a:

a. scatterplot

b. pie chart

c. bar graph

d. b or c

A researcher plans to assess intelligence by counting the number of times participants

can hop on one leg in 60 seconds. An obvious problem with this is:

a. lack of statistical validity

b. number of hops is too subjective

c. lack of construct validity

d. lack of significance

A double-blind study is used to minimize the impact of:

a. experimenter bias

b. expectancy effects

c. both a and b

d. neither a nor b

Correlation coefficients range from:

a. r = -1 to r = +1

b. r = 0 to r = +1

c. r = -1 to r = 0

d. r = +.5 to r = +1

In an experiment randomly assigned, participants drank wine or water. All participants then completed
an anxiety questionnaire. In this experiment the IV was:

a. the results of the memory test

b. the participants

c. the random assignment

d. what the participants drank

Research shows that the older a person is, the larger their vocabulary. This is an example of a :
a. positive correlation

b. negative correlation

c. causal correlation

d. partial correlation

Three commonly used measures of central tendency are:

a. range, standard deviation, median,

b. median, mode, dispersion

c. mode, median, standard deviation

d. median, mode, mean

Dr. Maki questioned a group of 9th graders about their career aspirations. This is an example of a(n)

a. experiment

b. survey

c. case study

d. manipulation

In an experiment looking at the effect of heat on performance, participants were randomly assigned to
spend 20 minutes in a hot room painted blue or to spend 20 minutes in a cold room painted yellow. In
this experiment the IV is confounded by:

a. lack of random sampling

b. the colour of the room

c. performance on the task

d. there is no confound

A researcher asks 250 students (from a school with 1000 pupils) to complete a survey about the
cafereria. The 250 students are a:

a. population

b. case study

c. sample

d. variable

61. The following type of method can be used in order to create a real world laboratory.

a. correlational coefficients

b. field experiment
c. case study

d. random assignment

ANSWER: B

62. To be confident that a cause-and-effect relationship exists, it is necessary to

a. engage in naturalistic observation.

b. develop a positive correlation.

c. perform a controlled experiment.

d. test for a negative correlation.

ANSWER: C

63. An experiment is performed to test the effects of sleep deprivation on rote memory. In this
experiment, the dependent variable is the

a. number of hours subjects go without sleep.

b. rote memory scores.

c. number of subjects deprived of sleep in the experimental group.

d. correlation between hours of sleep and fatigue.

ANSWER: B

64. The fortune teller who studies your palm carefully before announcing that "great fortune lies in
your immediate future" is practicing __________ psychology.

a. applied

b. commonsense

c. pseudo-

d. forensic

ANSWER: C

65. Research on the benefit of aspirin to prevent heart attacks used only male subjects in the sample.
Both men and women are given this advice. The problem with this recommendation reflects

a. gender bias.

b. courtesy bias.

c. cultural bias.

d. age bias.

ANSWER: A
66. To estimate the degree of the relationship between birth order and achievement motivation, a
researcher would do a(n) __________ study.

a. naturalistic

b. inventory

c. correlational

d. experimental

ANSWER: C

67. In the method of naturalistic observation, psychologists

a. haphazardly encounter behavior as it naturally occurs.

b. set up controlled experiments by which they uncover causal elements in behavior.

c. set out to actively observe subjects in their natural environments.

d. interview subjects at different ages.

ANSWER: C

68. Two variables may be said to be causally related if

a. they show a strong positive correlation.

b. all extraneous variables are controlled, and the independent variable creates consistent differences in
behavior of the experimental group.

c. they are observed to co-vary on many separate occasions.

d. they have been observed in a laboratory setting.

ANSWER: B

69. The problems of observers seeing only what they expect to see is called

a. observer bias.

b. the experimenter effect.

c. the effects of the observer.

d. the halo effect.

ANSWER: A

70. Giving placebos in drug experiments is necessary to

a. counteract the random assignment of subjects.

b. counteract the side effects of the drug.

c. control for the effects of suggestion and expectation.

d. keep control subjects from knowing they have been given the drug.

ANSWER: C

71. Which of the following could serve as an experimental hypothesis?

a. Although 25% of U.S. drivers say that they use the seatbelts in their cars, only 14% really do.

b. A case history of multiple personality appeared to be caused by traumatic childhood experiences.

c. College women who are anxious tend to want to be together.

d. As the temperature increases, the number of hit batters in baseball increases.

ANSWER:C

72. Theories explain results, predict future outcomes, and

a. rely only on naturalistic observations.

b. guide research for future studies.

c. rely only on surveys.

d. rely only on case studies.

ANSWER: B

73. Which of the following coefficients of correlation indicates the weakest relationship between two
sets of variables?

a. 0.08

b. -0.29

c. 0.48

d. -1.00

ANSWER: A

74. A correlation coefficient of -1.09 indicates a(n)

a. strong positive correlation.

b. strong negative correlation.

c. cause/effect relationship.

d. error in computation.

ANSWER: D

75. A representative sample is an essential element of the

a. survey method.

b. psychoanalytic method.

c. natural experiment or case study.

d. clinical method.

76. The effects of brain injury on personality would usually be investigated by the use of the

a. experimental method.

b. case study method.

c. naturalistic observation method.

d. survey method.

ANSWER: B

77. One of the limitations of the case study is that

a. there are few subjects for which it is applicable.

b. there are no control groups.

c. it is not applicable to the study of bizarre behavior.

d. it requires a large and expensive sample size.

ANSWER: B

78. A scientist wants to find out if there is empirical evidence for a relationship between caffeine and
aggressive behavior. She would

a. interview people to get their opinions.

b. correlate newspaper accounts and the types of beverages consumed.

c. test the idea by conducting an experiment.

d. research what other experts had thought.

ANSWER: C

79. The essence of the experimental method is

a. accurate calculation of correlation's.

b. obtaining direct reports from subjects about their subjective experiences.

c. careful measurement and record keeping.

d. using control to identify cause-and-effect connections.

ANSWER: D
80. If you're trying to establish a causal relationship between a reinforcer and increased performance,
you should use a(n) __________ method.

a. clinical study

b. experimental

c. survey

d. correlational

ANSWER: B

81. In a weight-reduction experiment, an overweight individual was given what the researcher called a
new type of diet pill that would help curb the desire to eat. In fact, the pill really contained powdered
milk, but ever since the individual started taking the diet pill, he has reported that his desire to eat has
decreased. This illustrates the

a. curvilinear relationship.

b. effect of extraneous variables.

c. natural experiment.

d. placebo effect.

ANSWER: D

82. An educated guess about what is controlling some behavior is called

a. experimental control.

b. a hypothesis.

c. an experimental variable.

d. a theory.

ANSWER: B

83. A correlation coefficient is best characterized as a(n)

a. measure of the extent of the relationship between two variables.

b. index of the causal direction between an independent and dependent variable.

c. indication of the likelihood that an experimental finding will be replicated by others.

d. measure of the likelihood that observed differences may be attributed to chance.

ANSWER: A
84. In order to determine the cause of behavior, the questions we ask must be

a. tentative.

b. testable.

c. based on theory.

d. novel.

ANSWER: B

85. A common sense approach to psychology is

a. the most reliable.

b. often contradicted by empirical evidence.

c. the basis for most psychological theories.

d. the basis for collecting data (observed facts).

ANSWER: B

86. Responding to a substance like a sugar pill as if it were a drug is called

a. the placebo effect.

b. an extraneous factor.

c. variability.

d. psychosomatic illness.

ANSWER: A

87. The control group and the experimental group in an experiment are treated exactly the same except
for the

a. dependent variable.

b. independent variable.

c. extraneous variables.

d. replication variables.

ANSWER: B

88. A field experiment is one that

a. uses the "real world" as a laboratory.

b. tests a field or "range" of independent variables.

c. differs little from naturalistic observation.

d. requires no measurement of dependent variables.

ANSWER: A

89. Characteristics of the scientific method include

a. anecdotal definition.

b. controlled observation.

c. analysis formulation.

d. adherence to inductive thinking or common sense reasoning.

ANSWER: B

90. A correlational study is one that determines

a. the relationship between the independent and the dependent variable.

b. the effects of the observer on the observed.

c. cause-effect relationships.

d. the relationship between two events.

ANSWER: D

Question 1 Interviewing all members of a given population is called:

a) a sample.

b) a Gallup poll.

c) a census.

d) a Nielsen audit.

Question 2 Which ONE of the following classifications contains divisions with the labels A, B, C1, C2, D
and E?

a) Social class.

b) Socio-economic groupings.

c) Socio-economic classes.

d) Social grade.

Question 3 Sampling means following a sequence of stages. Which ONE of the following stages should
come before the others?

a) Proceed with the fieldwork.

b) Find suitable source for the population members.

c) Define the people of interest.

d) Examine the objective of the study.

Question 4 Which ONE of these sampling methods is a probability method?

a) Quota.

b) Judgement.

c) Convenience.

d) Simple random.

Question 5 For sampling, which ONE of the following should be up-to-date, complete and affordable?

a) A census.

b) A CAPI machine.

c) A sampling frame.

d) A respondent.

Question 6 Which ONE of these sample sources will be the most incomplete for a sample of nationally
representative households?

a) The Electoral Register.

b) The postcode address file (PAF).

c) Telephone directories.

d) A customer database.

Question 7 Which ONE of the following is the benefit of using simple random sampling?

a) We can calculate the accuracy of the results.

b) The results are always representative.

c) Interviewers can choose respondents freely.

d) Informants can refuse to participate.

Question 8 Which ONE of the following is the main problem with using non-probability sampling
techniques?

a) The expense.

b) The results are never representative.

c) Human judgement error.

d) Informants can refuse to participate.

Question 9 Which ONE of the following is the best - but an often unused - way to decide on sample size?

a) By using industry standards.

b) By calculation.

c) By 'building blocks'.

d) By budget available.

Question 10 Which ONE of the following methods is generally used in qualitative sampling?

a) Random digit dialling.

b) Quota.

c) Stratified random.

d) Simple random.

1. When each member of a population has an equally likely chance of being selected, this is called:

a. A nonrandom sampling method

b. A quota sample

c. A snowball sample

d. An Equal probability selection method

2. Which of the following techniques yields a simple random sample?

a. Choosing volunteers from an introductory psychology class to participate

b. Listing the individuals by ethnic group and choosing a proportion from within

each ethnic group at random.

c. Numbering all the elements of a sampling frame and then using a random number

table to pick cases from the table.

d. Randomly selecting schools, and then sampling everyone within the school.

3. Which of the following is not true about stratified random sampling?

a. It involves a random selection process from identified subgroups

b. Proportions of groups in the sample must always match their population proportions

c. Disproportional stratified random sampling is especially helpful for getting large enough

subgroup samples when subgroup comparisons are to be done

d. Proportional stratified random sampling yields a representative sample

4. Which of the following statements are true?

a. The larger the sample size, the greater the sampling error

b. The more categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the larger

the sample needed

c. The fewer categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the larger

the sample needed

d. As sample size decreases, so does the size of the confidence interval

5. Which of the following formulae is used to determine how many people to include in the original
sampling?

a. Desired sample size/Desired sample size + 1

b. Proportion likely to respond/desired sample size

c. Proportion likely to respond/population size

d. Desired sample size/Proportion likely to respond

6. Which of the following sampling techniques is an equal probability selection method (i.e., EPSEM) in
which every individual in the population has an equal chance of being selected?

a. Simple random sampling

b. Systematic sampling

c. Proportional stratified sampling

d. Cluster sampling using the PPS technique

e. All of the above are EPSEM

7. Which of the following is not a form of nonrandom sampling?

a. Snowball sampling

b. Convenience sampling

c. Quota sampling

d. Purposive sampling

e. They are all forms of nonrandom sampling

8. Which of the following will give a more “accurate” representation of the population from which a
sample has been taken?

a. A large sample based on the convenience sampling technique

b. A small sample based on simple random sampling

c. A large sample based on simple random sampling

d. A small cluster sample

9. Sampling in qualitative research is similar to which type of sampling in quantitative research?

a. Simple random sampling

b. Systematic sampling

c. Quota sampling

d. Purposive sampling

10. Which of the following would generally require the largest sample size?

a. Cluster sampling

b. Simple random sampling

c. Systematic sampling

d. Proportional stratified sampling

11. How often does the Census Bureau take a complete population count?

a. Every year

b. Every five years

c. Every ten years

d. Twice a year

12. People who are available, volunteer, or can be easily recruited are used in the sampling method
called ______.

a. Simple random sampling

b. Cluster sampling

c. Systematic sampling

d. Convenience sampling

13. Which of the following types of sampling involves the researcher determining the appropriate
sample sizes for the groups identified as important, and then taking convenience samples from those
groups?

a. Proportional stratified sampling

b. Quota sampling

c. One-stage cluster sampling

d. Two-stage cluster sampling

14. A type of sampling used in qualitative research that involves selecting cases that disconfirm the
researcher's expectations and generalizations is referred to as _______________.

a. Extreme case sampling

b. Typical-case sampling

c. Critical-case sampling

d. Negative-case sampling

15. Using Figure 6.6 (pg. 178), how many participants will you need for a research study with a
population of 120,000?

a. 242

b. 331

c. 377

d. 384

16. In which of the following nonrandom sampling techniques does the researcher ask the research
participants to identify other potential research participants?

a. Snowball

b. Convenience

c. Purposive

d. Quota

17. Which of the following is the most efficient random sampling technique discussed in your chapter?

a. Simple random sampling

b. Proportional stratified sampling

c. Cluster random sampling

d. Systematic sampling

18. If we took the 500 people attending a school in New York City, divided them by gender, and then
took a random sample of the males and a random sampling of the females, the variable on which we
would divide the population is called the _____.

a. Independent variable

b. Dependent variable

c. Stratification variable

d. Sampling variable
19. A number calculated with complete population data and quantifies a characteristic of the population
is called which of the following?

a. A datum

b. A statistic

c. A parameter

d. A population

20. The type of sampling in which each member of the population selected for the sample is returned to
the population before the next member is selected is called _________.

a. Sampling without replacement

b. Sampling with replacement

c. Simple random sampling

d. Systematic sampling

21. Which of the following is not a type of nonrandom sampling?

a. Cluster sampling

b. Convenience sampling

c. Quota sampling

d. Purposive sampling

e. They are all type of nonrandom sampling

22. Which of the following would usually require the smallest sample size because of its efficiency?

a. One stage cluster sampling

b. Simple random sampling

c. Two stage cluster sampling

d. Quota sampling

23. A technique used when selecting clusters of different sizes is called _____.

a. Cluster sampling

b. One-stage sampling

c. Two-stage sampling

d. Probability proportional to size or PPS

24. The process of drawing a sample from a population is known as _________.

a. Sampling

b. Census

c. Survey research

d. None of the above

25. It is recommended to use the whole population rather than a sample when the population size is of
what size?

a. 500 or less

b. 100 or less

c. 1000 or less

d. you should always use a sample

26. Which of the following is not an example of a nonrandom sampling technique?

a. Purposive

b. Quota

c. Convenience

d. Cluster

27. Which of the following sampling methods is the best way to select a group of people for a study if
you are interested in making statements about the larger population?

a. Convenience sampling

b. Quota sampling

c. Purposive sampling

d. Random sampling

28. ___________ is a set of elements taken from a larger population according to certain rules.

a. Sample

b. Population

c. Statistic

d. Element

29. Determining the sample interval (represented by k), randomly selecting a number between 1 and k,
and including each kth element in your sample are the steps for which form of sampling?

a. Simple Random Sampling

b. Stratified Random Sampling

c. Systematic Sampling

d. Cluster sampling

30. The nonrandom sampling type that involves selecting a convenience sample from a population with
a specific set of characteristics for your research study is called _____.

a. Convenience sampling

b. Quota sampling

c. Purposive sampling

d. Snowball sampling

MCQ 11.1 Sample is a sub-set of:

(a) Population

(b) Data

(c) Set

(d) Distribution

MCQ 11.2

Any population constant is called a:

(a) Statistic

(b) Parameter

(c) Estimate

(d) Estimator

MCQ 11.3

List of all the units of the population is called:

(a) Random sampling

(b) Bias

(c) Sampling frame

(d) Probability sampling

MCQ 11.4

Any calculation on the sampling data is called:

(a) Parameter

(b) Static
(c)

(d) Error

MCQ 11.5

Any measure of the population is called:

(a) Finite

(b) Parameter

(c) Without replacement

(d) Random

MCQ 11.6

If all the units of a population are surveyed, it is called:

(a) Random sample

(b) Random sampling

(c) Sampled population

(d) Complete enumeration

MCQ 11.7

Probability distribution of a statistics is called:

(a) Sampling

(b) Parameter

(c) Data

(d) Sampling distribution

MCQ 11.8

The difference between a statistic and the parameter is called:

(a) Probability

(b) Sampling error

(c) Random

(d) Non-random

MCQ 11.9

The sum of the frequencies of the frequency distribution of a statistic is equal to:

(a) Sample size

(b) Population size

(c) Possible samples

(d) Sum of X values

MCQ 11.10

Standard deviation of sampling distribution of a statistic is called:

(a) Serious error

(b) Dispersion

(c) Standard error

(d) Difference

MCQ 11.11

If we obtain a point estimate for a population mean µ, the difference between and µ is:

(a) Standard error

(b) Bias

(c) Error of estimation

(d) Difficult to tell

MCQ 11.12

A distribution formed by all possible values of a statistics is called

(a) Binomial distribution

(b) Hypergeometric distribution

(c) Normal distribution

(d) Sampling distribution

MCQ 11.13

In probability sampling, probability of selecting an item from the population is known and is:

(a) Equal to zero

(b) Non zero

(c) Equal to one

(d) All of the above

MCQ 11.14

A population about which we want to get some information is called:

(a) Finite population

(b) Infinite population

(c) Sampling population

(d) Target population

MCQ 11.15

The population consists of the results of repeated trials is named as:

(a) Finite population

(b) Infinite population

(c) Real population

(d) Hypothetical population

MCQ 11.16

A population consisting of the items which are all present physically is called:

(a) Finite population

(b) Infinite population

(c) Real population

(d) Hypothetical population

MCQ 11.17

Study of population is called:

(a) Parameter

(b) Statistic

(c) Error

(d) Census

MCQ 11.18

For making voters list in Pakistan we need:

(a) Sampling error

(b) Standard error

(c) Census

(d) Simple random sampling

MCQ 11.19
Sampling based upon equal probability is called:

(a) Probability sampling

(b) Systematic sampling

(c) Simple random sampling

(d) Stratified random sampling

MCQ 11.20

In sampling with replacement, an element can be chosen:

(a) Less than once

(b) More than once

(c) Only once

(d) Difficult to tell

MCQ 11.21

Standard deviation of sample mean without replacement__________ standard deviation of sample

mean

with replacement:

(a) Less than

(b) More than

(c) 2 times

(d) Equal to

MCQ 11.22

In sampling without replacement, an element can be chosen:

(a) Less than once

(b) More than once

(c) Only once

(d) Difficult to tell

MCQ 11.23

In sampling with replacement, the following is always true:

(a) n = N

(b) n < N
(c) n > N

(d) All of the above

MCQ 11.24

Which of the following statement is true?

(a) Standard error is always one

(b) Standard error is always zero

(c) Standard error is always negative

(d) Standard error is always positive

MCQ 11.25

Random sampling is also called:

(a) Probability sampling

(b) Non-probability sampling

(c) Sampling error

(d) Random error

MCQ 11.26

Non-random sampling is also called:

(a) Biased sampling

(b) Non-probability sampling

(c) Random sampling

(d) Representative sample

MCQ 11.27

Sampling error can be reducing by:

(a) Non-probability sampling

(b) Increasing the population

(c) Decreasing the sample size

(d) Increasing the sample size

MCQ 11.28

The selection of cricket team for the world cup is called:

(a) Random sampling

(b) Systematic sampling

(c) Purposive sampling

(d) Cluster sampling

MCQ 11.29

A complete list of all the sapling units is called:

(a) Sampling design

(b) Sampling frame

(c) Population frame

(d) Cluster

MCQ 11.30

A Plan for obtaining a sample from a population is called:

(a) Population design

(b) Sampling design

(c) Sampling frame

(d) Sampling distribution

MCQ 11.31

If a survey is conducted by a sampling design is called:

(a) Sample survey

(b) Population survey

(c) Systematic survey

(d) None

MCQ 11.32

The difference between the expected value of a statistic and the value of the parameter being estimated
is called a:

(a) Sampling error

(b) Non-sampling error

(c) Standard error

(d) Bias

MCQ 11.33
The standard deviation of any sampling distribution is called:

(a) Standard error

(b) Non-sampling error

(c) Type- I error

(d) Type II-error

MCQ 11.34

Which of the following statement is not true?

(a) S.E( ) ≠ 0

(b) S.E( ) ≠ 1

(c) S.E( ) = -2

(d) All of the above

MCQ 11.35

The standard error increases when sample size is:

(a) Increase

(b) Decrease

(c) Fixed

(d) More than 30

MCQ 11.36

The mean of sampling distribution of mean is equal to:

(a)

(b) µ

(c) p

(d) None of the above

MCQ 11.37

The mean of the sample means is exactly equal to the:

(a) Sample mean

(b) Population mean

(c) Weighted mean

(d) Combined mean

MCQ 11.38

(a) E( )

(b) µ

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of the above

MCQ 11.39

A sample which is free from bias is called:

(a) Biased

(b) Unbiased

(c) Positively biased

(d) Negatively biased

MCQ 11.40

If E( ) = µ then bias is:

(a) Positive

(b) Negative

(c) Zero

(d) 100%

MCQ 11.41

(a) Unbiased sample variance

(b) Population variance

(c) Biased sample variance

(d) All of the above

MCQ 11.42

(a) Unbiased sample variance

(b) True variance

(c) Biased sample variance

(d) Variance of means

MCQ 11.44

When a random sample is drawn from each stratum, it is known as:

(a) Simple random sampling

(b) Stratified random sampling

(c) Probability sampling

(d) Purposive sampling

MCQ 11.45

When the procedure of selecting the elements from the population is not based on probability is known
as:

(a) Purposive sampling

(b) Judgment sampling

(c) Subjective sampling

(d) All of the above

MCQ 11.46

Suppose a finite population has 6 items and 2 items are selected at random without replacement,

then all possible samples will be:

(a) 6
(b) 12

(c) 15

(d) 36

MCQ 11.47

Suppose a finite population contains 7 items and 3 items are selected at random without replacement,
then

all possible samples will be:

(a) 21

(b) 35

(c) 14

(d) 7

MCQ 11.48

A population contain N item and all possible sample of size n are selected without replacement. The

possible number of sample will be:

(a) N

(b) nN

(c) NCn

(d) Nn

MCQ 11.49

Suppose a finite population contains 4 items and 2 items are selected at random with replacement, then
all

possible samples will be:

(a) 6

(b) 16

(c) 8

(d) 4

MCQ 11.50

A population contains 2 items and 4 items are selected at random with replacement, then all possible

samples will be:

(a) 16

(b) 8

(c) 4C2

(d) 4

MCQ 11.51

Suppose a population has N items and n items are selected with replacement. Number of all possible

samples will be:

(a) Nn

(b) NCn

(c) N

(d) n

MCQ 11.52

In random sampling, the probability of selecting an item from the population is:

(a) Unknown

(b) Known

(c) Un-decided

(d) One

MCQ 11.53

If N is the size of the population and n is size of the sample, then sampling fraction is:

(a) nN

(b) Nn

(c) n/N

(d) NCn

MCQ 11.59

If E( ) = 10 and µ = 10 then bias is equal to:

(a) 0

(b) 10

(c) 20

(d) Difficult to tell

MCQ 11.60

If = 10 and µ = 12 then sampling error is equal to:

(a) 22

(b) 10

(c) 12

(d) 2

MCQ 11.62

If n = 25,= 25 and = 25, then standard error of will be:

(a) 25

(b) 5

(c) 1

(d) 0

MCQ 11.63

If E(s2) = 3 and= 2 then bias will be:

(a) 5

(b) 3

(c) 2

(d) 1

1. In random sampling, the probability of selecting an item from the population is

a) Unknown
b) Known
c) Undecided
d) One
e) Zero

2. Sampling in which a sampling unit can be repeated more than once is called

a) Sampling without replacement

b) Simple sampling
c) Sampling with replacement
d) None of the above

3. The standard deviation of the sampling distribution of any statistic is called

a) Sampling Error
 b) Type-I Error
c) Non Sampling Error
d) Standard Deviation
e) Standard Error

4. Any numerical value calculated from sample data is called

a) Error
b) Statistic
c) Bias
d) Mean
e) Standard Deviation

5. Any numerical value computed from the population is called

a) Statistic
b) Bias
c) Sampling Error
d) Error
e) Parameter

6. The list of all units in a population is called

a) Random sampling
b) Sampling Frame
c) Bias
d) Parameter
e) Statistic

7. In sampling with replacement, a sampling unit can be selected

a) Only once
b) More than one time
c) Less than one time
d) None of the above

8. The sample is a subset of

a) Data
b) Group
c) Population
d) Itself
e) Distribution

9. Non-Sampling error is reduced by

a) Increasing Sample Size

 b) Decreasing Sample Size
c) Reducing the Amount of Data
d) None of these

10. Non Probability form of sampling is

a) Random Sampling
b) Non-Random Sampling
c) Probability Sampling
d) Quota Sampling

11. The difference between statistic and parameter is called

a) Random Error
b) Sampling Error
c) Standard Error
d) Bias
e) Error

Question 1 A sampling frame is:

a) A summary of the various stages involved in designing a survey

b) An outline view of all the main clusters of units in a sample

c) A list of all the units in the population from which a sample will be selected

d) A wooden frame used to display tables of random numbers

Question 2 A simple random sample is one in which:

a) From a random starting point, every nth unit from the sampling frame is selected

b) A non-probability strategy is used, making the results difficult to generalize

c) The researcher has a certain quota of respondents to fill for various social groups

d) Every unit of the population has an equal chance of being selected

Question 3 It is helpful to use a multi-stage cluster sample when:

a) The population is widely dispersed geographically

b) You have limited time and money available for travelling

c) You want to use a probability sample in order to generalise the results

d) All of the above

Question 4 The standard error is a statistical measure of:

a) The normal distribution of scores around the sample mean

b) The extent to which a sample mean is likely to differ from the population mean

c) The clustering of scores at each end of a survey scale

d) The degree to which a sample has been accurately stratified

Question 5 What effect does increasing the sample size have upon the sampling error?

a) It reduces the sampling error

b) It increases the sampling error

c) It has no effect on the sampling error

d) None of the above

Question 6 Which of the following is not a type of non-probability sampling?

a) Snowball sampling

b) Stratified random sampling

c) Quota sampling

d) Convenience sampling

Question 7 Snowball sampling can help the researcher to:

a) Access deviant or hidden populations

b) Theorise inductively in a qualitative study

c) Overcome the problem of not having an accessible sampling frame

d) All of the above

Question 8 Which of the following is not a characteristic of quota sampling?

a) The researcher chooses who to approach and so might bias the sample

b) Those who are available to be surveyed in public places are unlikely to constitute a representative
sample

c) The random selection of units makes it possible to calculate the standard error

d) It is a relatively fast and cheap way of finding out about public opinions

Question 9 The findings from a study of young single mothers at a university can be generalised to the
population of:

a) All young single mothers at that university

b) All young single mothers in that society

c) All single mothers in all universities

d) All young women in that university

Question 10 The term 'data processing error' refers to:

a) Activities or events related to the sampling process, e.g. non-response

b) Faulty techniques of coding and managing data

c) Problems with the implementation of the research process

d) The unavoidable discrepancy between the sample and the population

1. _____ is a framework or blueprint for conducting the business research project. It specifies
the details of the procedures necessary for obtaining the information needed to structure
and/or solve business research problems.
a. Research classification
b. Research design
c. Design formulation
d. None of the above
(b,

32. The primary objective of _____ is to provide insights into, and an understanding of, the
problem confronting the researcher.
a. exploratory research
b. conclusive research
c. causal research
d. descriptive research
(a,

33. Cross-sectional and longitudinal designs are types of _____

a. causal research
b. exploratory research
c. descriptive research
d. none of the above
(c,

34. Which of the objectives below would best represent conclusive research?
a. describe market characteristics or functions
b. determine cause and effect relationships
c. provide insights and understanding
d. test specific hypotheses and examine relationships
(d,

35. Which of the following statements is not true about exploratory research?
a. It is flexible.
 b. It is a pre-planned and structured design.
c. It is versatile.
d. It is often the front end of total research design.
(b,

36. _____ is a type of conclusive research that has as its major objective the description of
something—usually market characteristics or functions.
a. Exploratory research
b. Conclusive research
c. Causal research
d. Descriptive research
(d,

37. A formal research design specifies the methods for selecting the sources of information and
for collecting data from those sources. A _____ design requires a clear specification of the
who, what, when, where, why, and way (the six Ws) of the research.
a. descriptive
b. causal
c. exploratory
d. none of the above
(a,

38. _____ designs involve the collection of information from any given sample of population
elements only once.
a. Exploratory
b. Causal
c. Cross-sectional
d. None of the above
(c,

39. _____ is the most used descriptive design in business research.

a. Longitudinal design
b. Exploratory design
c. Cross-sectional design
d. none of the above
(c,

40. _____ is a cross-sectional design in which there are two or more samples of respondents and
information is obtained from each sample only once.
a. Multiple cross-sectional design
 b. Single cross-sectional design
c. Cohort analysis
d. None of the above
(a,

41. Which of the following statements is true about cohort analysis?

a. A cohort is a group of respondents who experience the same event within the same time
interval.
b. It is unlikely that any of the individuals studied at time one will also be in the sample at
time two.
c. The term cohort analysis refers to any study in which there are measures of some
characteristics of one or more cohorts at two or more points in time.
d. All are correct.
(d,

42. The question, “How did the American people rate the performance of George W. Bush
immediately after the war in Afghanistan?” would be addressed using a _____. However, a
_____ would be used to address the question, “How did the American people change their
view of Bush’s performance during the war in Afghanistan?”
a. longitudinal design; multiple cross-sectional
b. cross-sectional design; longitudinal design
c. longitudinal; cross-sectional design
d. none of the above
(b,

43. _____ refers to a sample of respondents who have agreed to provide information at specified
intervals over an extended period.
a. experiment
b. survey
c. panel
d. none of the above
(c,

44. All of the following are advantages of longitudinal designs over cross-sectional designs (Table
3.4) except:
a. detecting change
b. accuracy
c. large amount of data collection
d. representative sampling
(d,

45. _____ are errors that can be attributed to sources other than sampling, and they can be
random or nonrandom.
a. Random sampling error
 b. Non-response error
c. Non-sampling error
d. Response error
(c,

46. _____ is a type of non-sampling error that occurs when some of the respondents included in
the sample do not respond. This error may be defined as the variation between the true mean
value of the variable in the original sample and the true mean value in the net sample.
a. Random sampling error
b. Non-response error
c. Non-sampling error
d. Response error
(b,

47. Error that arises from the respondent’s unwillingness to provide accurate information is
_____. Respondents may intentionally misreport their answers because of a desire to provide
socially acceptable answers, avoid embarrassment, or please the interviewer.
a. questioning error
b. unwillingness error
c. sampling frame error
d. recording error

1. According to your text, how many points should a rating scale have?
a. Five
b. Four
c. Ten
d. Somewhere from 4 to 11 points

2. What is the problem(s) with this set of response categories to the question “What is your
current age?”
1-5
5-10
10-20
20-30
30-40
a. The categories are not mutually exclusive
b. The categories are not exhaustive
c. Both a and b are problems
d. There is no problem with the above set of response categories

3. You should mix methods in a way that provides complementary strengths and
nonoverlapping weaknesses. This is known as the fundamental principle of mixed research.
a. True
b. False

4. According to the text, questionnaires can address events and characteristics taking place
when?
a. In the past (retrospective questions)
b. In the present (current time questions)
c. In the future (prospective questions)
d. All of the above

5. Which of the following are principles of questionnaire construction?

a. Consider using multiple methods when measuring abstract constructs
b. Use multiple items to measure abstract constructs
c. Avoid double-barreled questions
d. All of the above
e. Only b and c

6. Which of these is not a method of data collection.

a. Questionnaires
b. Interviews
c. Experiments
d. Observations

7. Secondary/existing data may include which of the following?

a. Official documents
b. Personal documents
c. Archived research data
d. All of the above

8. An item that directs participants to different follow-up questions depending on their response
is called a ____________.
a. Response set
b. Probe
c. Semantic differential
d. Contingency question

9. Which of the following terms best describes data that were originally collected at an earlier
time by a different person for a different purpose?
a. Primary data
b. Secondary data
c. Experimental data
d. Field notes

10. Researchers use both open-ended and closed-ended questions to collect data. Which of the
following statements is true?
a. Open-ended questions directly provide quantitative data based on the researcher’s
predetermined response categories
b. Closed-ended questions provide quantitative data in the participant’s own words
c. Open-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participant’s own words
d. Closed-ended questions directly provide qualitative data in the participants’ own words

11. Open-ended questions provide primarily ______ data.

a. Confirmatory data
b. Qualitative data
c. Predictive data
d. None of the above
12. Which of the following is true concerning observation?
a. It takes less time than self-report approaches
b. It costs less money than self-report approaches
c. It is often not possible to determine exactly why the people behave as they do
d. All of the above

13. Qualitative observation is usually done for exploratory purposes; it is also called
___________ observation.
a. Structured
b. Naturalistic
c. Complete
d. Probed

14. As discussed in chapter 6, when constructing a questionnaire it is important to do each of

the following except ______.
a. Use "leading" or "loaded" questions
b. Use natural language
c. Understand your research participants
d. Pilot your test questionnaire

15. Another name for a Likert Scale is a(n):

a. Interview protocol
b. Event sampling
c. Summated rating scale
d. Ranking

16. Which of the following is not one of the six major methods of data collection that are used by
educational researchers?
a. Observation
b. Interviews
c. Questionnaires
d. Checklists

17. The type of interview in which the specific topics are decided in advance but the sequence
and wording can be modified during the interview is called:
a. The interview guide approach
b. The informal conversational interview
c. A closed quantitative interview
d. The standardized open-ended interview

18. Which one of the following in not a major method of data collection:
a. Questionnaires
b. Interviews
c. Secondary data
d. Focus groups
e. All of the above are methods of data collection

19. A question during an interview such as “Why do you feel that way?” is known as a:
a. Probe
b. Filter question
c. Response
d. Pilot

20. A census taker often collects data through which of the following?
a. Standardized tests
b. Interviews
c. Secondary data
d. Observations

21. The researcher has secretly placed him or herself (as a member) in the group that is being
studied. This researcher may be which of the following?
a. A complete participant
b. An observer-as-participant
c. A participant-as-observer
d. None of the above

22. Which of the following is not a major method of data collection?

a. Questionnaires
b. Focus groups
c. Correlational method
d. Secondary data

23. Which type of interview allows the questions to emerge from the immediate context or
course of things?
a. Interview guide approach
b. Informal conversational interview
c. Closed quantitative interview
d. Standardized open-ended interview

24. When conducting an interview, asking "Anything else?, What do you mean?, Why do you
feel that way?," etc, are all forms of:
a. Contingency questions
b. Probes
c. Protocols
d. Response categories

25. When constructing a questionnaire, there are 15 principles to which you should adhere.
Which of the following is not one of those principles?
a. Do not use "leading" or "loaded" questions
b. Avoid double-barreled questions
c. Avoid double negatives
d. Avoid using multiple items to measure a single construct

According to historical accounts, face-to-face methods have been used since the early years of
civilisation to collect population figures. Why were these records kept?
a) For religious purposes.

b) For taxation purposes.

c) For scientific purposes.

d) For historical purposes.

Question 2

When did the telephone become an accepted tool for primary data collection in marketing research?

a) 1930s.

b) 1950s.

c) 1970s.

d) 1990s.

Question 3

If someone uses research as part of a sales effort, this is said to be:

a) syndicating.

b) sugging.

c) satisficing.

d) surveying.
Question 4

Which ONE of these is NOT an intrinsic factor?

a) The questionnaire style.

b) The interviewer's voice.

c) The interview situation.

d) The informant's memory.

Question 5

Acquiescence response bias is usually:

a) disagreement with little consideration.

b) agreement with little consideration.

c) overconsideration.

d) something other than the options offered.

Question 6

A primary data collection method that involves tracking behaviour over a period of time is called:

a) browsing.

b) observation.
c) sampling.

d) testing.

Question 7

Mystery shopping is a form of:

a) questionnaire.

b) observation.

c) analysis.

d) postal survey.

Question 8

Which ONE of these methods is the fastest way to collect data?

a) Online.

b) Personal.

c) Phone.

d) Postal.

Question 9

Which ONE of these methods is the most expensive way to collect data per respondent?
a) Online.

b) Personal.

c) Phone.

d) Postal.

Question 10

Which ONE of these methods has the highest response rate?

a) Online.

b) Personal.

c) Phone.

d) Postal.

Read the following definition by Gill and Johnson (1997):

"A formulation regarding the cause and effect relationships between two or more variables, which may
or may not have been tested."

Which one of these does it define?

o Theory.
 o Observation.
o Secondary data.
o Sampling.

End of Question 1

Question 2.

Which one of the following is a data collection method?

The interview.

The case study.

Positivism.

The onion.

End of Question 2

Question 3.

Which one of these is NOT normally associated with quantitative data?

Analysis guided by standardised rules.

Numbers.
 Analysis begins as data are collected.

Researchers views of high importance.

End of Question 3

Question 4.

Which one of these is NOT normally associated with qualititative data?

Words.

Pie charts.

Narrative.

Images.

End of Question 4

Question 5.

A study is based on 30 people (across three focus groups). What type of study is this?

Qualitative study.

Quantitative study.

Questionnaire study.
 Structured study.

End of Question 5

Question 6.

A study is based on 1000 people interviewed face to face in shopping centres. What type of study is
this?

o Self-completion study.
o Ethnographic study.
o Questionnaire study.
o Qualitative study.

End of Question 6

Question 7.

Which one of these studies is least associated with construct validity?

Quantitative.

Positivist.

Qualitative.
 End of Question 7

Question 8.

Which research strategy is described here?

The introduction of planned change on one or more of the variables; measurement on a small number
of variables and control of other variables.

Experiment.

Survey.

Case study.

Ethnography.

End of Question 8

Question 9.

Triangulation can come about from which one of the following?

Checking results three times.

Using more than one approach.

Using one of three sampling methods.

 Doing a survey with at least three respondents.

End of Question 9

Question 10.

Which research strategy is described here?

The collection of data using questionnaires, but it also includes other techniques (e.g. structured
observation and structured interviews).

Action research.

Survey.

Ethnography.

Grounded theory.

End of Question 10

Question 11.

Which research strategy is described here?

The researcher is involved in the acts under study; s/he causes changes and monitors the outcomes.
 Action research.

Survey.

Case study.

Grounded theory.

End of Question 11

Question 12.

Which of these should be most valuable to show a gradual change in behaviour over time?

Snapshot surveys.

Experimental studies.

Longitudinal studies.

Extrapolations.

End of Question 12

Question 13.

Which research strategy is described here?

Theory is developed from data generated by a series of observations or interviews principally involving
an inductive approach.
 Action research.

Grounded theory.

Ethnography.

Experiment.

End of Question 13

Question 14.

For any study you should question the validity and reliability of:

the interviewing process.

the sampling procedure.

the questionnaire.

all of the above.

End of Question 14

Question 15.
A study interviews a representative sample of the nation's population every week to detect how many
people read a particular newspaper. A prize draw is introduced for participants as an incentive to do the
interview. What impact will the incentive have on the readership results for the newspaper in question?

No impact: there will be no difference in readership figures.

Readership will increase.

Readership will decrease.

There may be an increase or decrease in readership figures, or they may stay the same.

1. Questionnaire is a _____

a. Research method

b. Measurement technique

c. Tool for data collection

d. Data analysis technique

Answer: c

2. What does the term 'reliability' indicate?

a. We can trust that the research has being carried out to a high

standard.

b. That the results are accurate.

c. That the researcher can be trusted.

d. That the tool of data collection can be regarded as measuring

accurately and consistently.

Answer: d

3. What is a pilot study?

a. A small scale study.

b. A study involving pilots.

c. A study to test the tool of data collection.

d. A study that is the first of its type.

Answer: c

4. How many points should a rating scale have?

a. Five

b. Four

c. Ten

d. Somewhere from 4 to 11 points

Answer: d

5. What is the problem(s) with this set of response categories to the

question “What is your current age?”

1-5

5-10

10-20

20-30

30-40

a. The categories are not mutually exclusive

b. The categories are not exhaustive

c. Both a and b are problems

d. There is no problem with the above set of response categories

Answer: c

6. Questionnaires can address events and characteristics taking

place when?

a. In the past (retrospective questions)

b. In the present (current time questions)

c. In the future (prospective questions)

d. All of the above

Answer: d

7. Which of the following are principles of questionnaire

construction?
a. Consider using multiple methods when measuring abstract

constructs

b. Use multiple items to measure abstract constructs

c. Avoid double-barrelled questions

d. All of the above

Answer: d

8. Which of these is not a method of data collection.

a. Questionnaires

b. Interviews

c. Experiments

d. Observations

Answer: c

9. Secondary/existing data may include which of the following?

a. Official documents

b. Personal documents

c. Archived research data

d. All of the above

Answer: d

10. Which of the following terms best describes data that were

originally collected at an earlier time by a different person for a

different purpose?

a. Primary data

b. Secondary data

c. Experimental data

d. Field notes

Answer: b

11. Researchers use both open-ended and closed-ended questions

to collect data. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Open-ended questions directly provide quantitative data based

on the researcher’s predetermined response categories

b. Closed-ended questions provide quantitative data in the

participant’s own words

c. Open-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participant’s

own words

d. Closed-ended questions directly provide qualitative data in the

participants’ own words

Answer: c

12. Open-ended questions provide primarily ______ data.

a. Confirmatory data

b. Qualitative data

c. Predictive data

d. None of the above

Answer: b

13. Which of the following is true concerning observation?

a. It takes less time

b. It costs less money

c. It is often not possible to determine exactly why the people

behave as they do

d. All of the above

Answer: c

14. When constructing a questionnaire it is important to do each of

the following except ______.

a. Use "leading" or "loaded" questions

b. Use natural language

c. Understand your research participants

d. Pilot your test questionnaire

Answer: a

15. Another name for a Likert Scale is a(n):

a. Interview protocol

b. Event sampling

c. Summated rating scale

d. Ranking

Answer: c

16. The type of interview in which the specific topics are decided in

advance but the sequence and wording can be modified during the

interview is called:

a. The interview guide approach

b. The informal conversational interview

c. A closed quantitative interview

d. The standardised open-ended interview

Answer: a

17. Which one of the following in not a major method of data

collection:

a. Questionnaires

b. Interviews

c. Secondary data

d. All of the above are methods of data collection

Answer: d

18. A question during an interview such as “Why do you feel that

way?” is known as a _____

a. Probe

b. Filter question

c. Response

d. Pilot

Answer: a

19. A census taker often collects data through which of the

following?
a. Standardised tests

b. Interviews

c. Secondary data

d. Observations

Answer: b

20. The researcher has secretly placed him or herself (as a

member) in the group that is being studied. This researcher may be

which of the following?

a. A complete participant

b. An observer-as-participant

c. A participant-as-observer

d. None of the above

Answer: a

21. Which of the following is not a major method of data collection?

a. Questionnaires

b. Focus groups

c. Correlational method

d. Secondary data

Answer: c

22. Which type of interview allows the questions to emerge from the

immediate context or course of things?

a. Interview guide approach

b. Informal conversational interview

c. Closed quantitative interview

d. Standardised open-ended interview

Answer: b

23. When conducting an interview, asking "Anything else?, What do

you mean?, Why do you feel that way?," etc, are all forms of:

a. Contingency questions
b. Probes

c. Protocols

d. Response categories

Answer: b

24. When constructing a questionnaire, there are principles to which

you should adhere. Which of the following is not one of those

principles?

a. Do not use "leading" or "loaded" questions

b. Avoid double-barrelled questions

c. Avoid double negatives

d. Avoid using multiple items to measure a single construct

Answer: d

25. An ordinal scale is used to rank order people, objects, or

characteristics.

a. True

b. False

Answer: a

26. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement?

a. Nominal

b. Ordinal

c. Interval

d. Ratio

Answer: a

27. ______ tests focus on information acquired through the informal

learning that goes on in life.

a. Personality

b. Achievement

c. Aptitude

d. Intelligence
Answer: c

28. If a cricket coach calculates batting averages, what scale would

be used?

a. Interval scale

b. Ratio scale

c. Nominal scale

d. Ordinal scale

Answer: b

29. An ordinal scale is:

a. The simplest form of measurement

b. A rank-order scale of measurement

c. A scale with equal intervals between adjacent numbers

d. A scale with an absolute zero point

Answer: b

30. Qualitative observation is usually done for exploratory purposes;

it is also called ___________ observation.

a. Structured

b. Naturalistic

c. Complete

d. Probed

Answer: b

1. Ms. Bertel has coded her observations to hide the identity of each of the three
participants in her study. She is ensuring [Hint]

protection from harm.

confidentiality.

informed consent.
 anonymity.

2. Which of the following sampling strategies was used when the three students with the
highest GPAs were selected? [Hint]

Extreme case

Snowball

Maximum variation

Normal case

3. In which of the following situations would Mr. Paternostro use normal case sampling?
[Hint]

o He is interested in understanding the perceptions of all tenth-grade students in one high

school?
o He is interested in the concerns of the coaches whose teams finished in the middle of
the conference.
o He is reflecting the desires of the school board to understand the thoughts of the faculty
in the poorest-performing schools.
o He needs to work through several informants before identifying the participants who
have the traits he is studying.

4. Which sampling strategy was used when subjects who were very pleased or very
displeased were selected? [Hint]

Snowball

Extreme case

Confirming and disconfirming cases

Maximum variation
1. Which type of observer is likely to get a reasonable insight into the participant's views
and develop a good rapport with him? [Hint]

Nonparticipant

Unstructured participant

Participant

Structured participant

2. Ms. Kern sampled the brightest students in the fifth grade at her school. She observed
them in their classes at school and as they interacted with teachers and students when on campus. Her
observation can be characterized as which of the following? [Hint]

Historical research

Typical case sampling

Totally structured

Naturalistic

1. On which component of his field notes was Mr. Miller focused when he expressed in his notes
his thoughts and ideas about what he observed? [Hint]

Reflection

Protocol

Formal data analysis

Description

2. Ms. Pinot began observing as soon as her study was cleared by the Human Subjects
Committee and she gained entry to her site. She took copious notes while observing, and she wrote
them up shortly afterwards. She was convinced that her initial data confirmed her beliefs about the
interactions of her participants. Which guide to observation has she probably violated? [Hint]

Starting slowly
 Entering the field without preconceptions

Summarizing field notes as soon as possible

Concentrating on writing detailed descriptive field notes

3. Memo writing helps accomplish all of the following EXCEPT [Hint]

identify topics or issues for further exploration.

select appropriate participants.

identify areas that could provide focus for the formal data analysis.

provide opportunities to reflect on methodology

1. According to the author, which advice would you offer a novice researcher conducting
her first observation? [Hint]

Observe only one behavior at a time.

Allow variables to emerge from the context.

Record behaviors only after leaving the site.

Develop a preconceived notion of what is going to help structure the observation

2. Which of the following is the most commonly used method for estimating the reliability
of observations? [Hint]

Test-retest

Equivalent forms

Internal consistency

Interobserver agreement
3. Mr. Robbins is concerned about potential problems with the reliability of his observers.
Which strategy would you suggest he follow? [Hint]

Specify the observational variables.

Train his observers carefully.

Monitor his observers in the field.

All of the above.

1. Which of the following provides insight into the complexity of using interviews? [Hint]

Potential influence of gender or cultural differences between interviewer and interviewee

The accuracy of the interviewee's responses

The different semantic meanings of the language being used

All of the above

2. Which of the following terms describes an interview protocol in which the topics and
questions to be addressed were identified, but the order in which the questions could be asked was not
stipulated? [Hint]

Unstructured

Partially structured

Semistructured

Structured

3. Which of the following is the least obtrusive and most accurate method for recording
data in an interview? [Hint]

Note taking

Videotaping

Audiotaping
 Writing notes after the interview

4. Which of the following represents excellent advice for conducting an interview? [Hint]

Listen more and talk less.

Don't interrupt.

Don't be judgmental about the interviewee's beliefs or views.

All of the above.

1. The influence of the researcher's background, personal experiences, preferences, or

attitude on an interview or observation is technically defined as [Hint]

observer effect.

nonparticipant effect.

participant bias.

observer bias.

2. Which term technically describes a situation in which an observer's work in a first-grade

classroom disrupts the normal routines due to the curiosity of the students? [Hint]

Observer effect

Participant effect

Nonparticipant bias

Observer bias

3. Which of the following is an excellent way to enhance the validity of observational and
interview data collection? [Hint]

Spend an extended period of time in the field.

 Obtain participant trust.

Recognize your own biases.

All of the above.

MCQ: Computer peripheral which automatically inputs the data is an example

of

A. data capture

B. data sourcing

C. data scoring

D. data determining

Answer

MCQ: Original document or piece of paper which is written to record data for

rst time is called

A. source data

B. primary document

C. secondary document

D. none of the above

Answer

MCQ: Document which is considered output after processing and by adding

more data to this output it can be used as input is termed as

A. source data

B. capturing data

C. processing data

D. turnaround documents

Answer

MCQ: Documents or les that are especially prepared for operating systems

are classied as

A. input card

B. source documents

C. index card
D. output card

MCQ: Data which is encoded on to a specic medium and computer can

accept that data through input devices is called

A. data preparation

B. organizing data

C. sorting data

D. manipulating data

1) The primary rationale for preserving data integrity is to:

support the detection of errors

compare data collection instruments

encourage higher rates of participant recruitment

determine statistical significance

2) Which of the following is a consequence of improperly collected data?

Ability to answer research questions accurately.

Provides a reliable source of data on which to base public policy.

Accurate findings result in efficient use of resources.

Misleading other researchers to pursue fruitless avenues of investigation.

3) An example of an intentional error occurring during data collection is referred to as:

deliberate falsification

random error

systematic error

4th Semester Model MCQ Fourth paper

1. When planning to do social research, it is better to:

a) Approach the topic with an open mind

b) Do a pilot study before getting stuck into it

c) Be familiar with the literature on the topic

d) Forget about theory because this is a very practical undertaking can't have one without the other

Answer: C

2. We review the relevant literature to know:

a) What is already known about the topic

b) What concepts and theories have been applied to the topic

c) Who are the key contributors to the topic

d) All of the above Answer: D

3. A deductive theory is one that:

a) Allows theory to emerge out of the data

b) Involves testing an explicitly defined hypothesis

c) Allows for findings to feed back into the stock of knowledge

d) Uses qualitative methods whenever possible Answer: B

4. What does 'sampling cases' mean?

a) Sampling using a sampling frame

b) Identifying people who are suitable for research

c) Literally, the researcher's brief-case

d) Sampling people, newspapers, television programmes etc. Answer: D

5. Which of the following is not a data-collection method?

a) Research questions

b) Unstructured interviewing

c) Postal survey questionnaires

d) Participant observation Answer: A

6. Why is data analysis concerned with data reduction?

a) Because far too much data is collected than is required

b) Because we need to make sense of the data

c) Because of the repetitions in answers to questionnaires

d) Because the sample size has been exceeded Answer: B

7. The core ingredients of a dissertation are:

a) Introduction; Data collection; Data analysis; Conclusions and recommendations.

b) Executive summary; Literature review; Data gathered; Conclusions; Bibliography.

c) Research plan; Research data; Analysis; References.

d) Introduction; Literature review; Research methods; Results; Discussion; Conclusion.

Answer: D

8. Which of the following is a component of ethnographic research?

a) Being immersed in a social group or setting

b) Participant observation, interviews, and/or documentary analysis

c) A written account of an ethnographic study

d) All of the above Answer: D

9. What is one of the main disadvantages of using the covert role in ethnography?

a) It can be hard to gain access to the social group

b) It is difficult to take notes without arousing suspicion

c) The problem of reactivity: people may change their behaviour if they know they are being

observed

d) It is usually too time consuming and expensive to be a realistic option

Answer: B

10. What is a key informant?

a) A group member who helps the ethnographer gain access to relevant people/events

b) A senior level member of the organisation who refuses to allow researchers into it

c) A participant who appears to be helpful but then blows the researcher's cover

d) Someone who cuts keys to help the ethnographer gain access to a building

Answer: A

11. What is the name of the role adopted by an ethnographer who joins in with the group's activities

but admits to being a researcher?

a) Complete participant

b) Participant-as-observer

c) Observer-as-participant

d) Complete observer Answer: B

12. Is it okay to break the law in order to maintain a "cover"?

a) Yes, provided it is not very serious

b) No, never under any circumstances

c) Yes, because otherwise data on criminal activity would never come to light

d) Yes, provided it doesn't cause physical harm to someone Answer: B

13. What is the difference between "scratch notes" and "full field notes"?

a) Scratch notes are just key words and phrases, rather than lengthy descriptions

b) Full field notes are quicker and easier to write than scratch notes

c) Scratch notes are written at the end of the day rather than during key events

d) Full field notes do not involve the researcher scratching their head while thinking

Answer: A

14. What are the two main types of data that can be used in visual ethnography?

a) Positivist and interpretivist

b) Qualitative and quantitative

c) Nominal and ordinal

d) Extant and research-driven Answer: D

15. Which of the following makes qualitative interviewing distinct from structured interviewing?

a) The procedure is less standardized

b) "Rambling" off the topic is not a problem

c) The researcher seeks rich, detailed answers

d) All of the above Answer: D

16. Which of the following is not a type of qualitative interview?

a) Unstructured interview

b) Oral history interview

c) Structured interview

d) Focus group interview Answer: C

17. Why is it helpful to prepare an interview guide before conducting semi-structured interviews?

a) So that the data from different interviewees will be comparable and relevant to your research

questions
b) So that you can calculate the statistical significance of the results

c) In order to allow participants complete control over the topics they discuss

d) To make the sample more representative Answer: A

18. What is a "probing question"?

a) One that inquires about a sensitive or deeply personal issue

b) One that encourages the interviewee to say more about a topic

c) One that asks indirectly about people's opinions

d) One that moves the conversation on to another topic Answer: B

19. What can you do to reduce the time consuming nature of transcribing interviews?

a) Use a transcribing machine

b) Employ someone to transcribe for you

c) Transcribe only selected parts of the interviews

d) All of the above Answer: D

20. Which of the following is not a type of life story?

a) Naturalistic life stories

b) Researched life stories

c) True life stories

d) Reflexive and recursive life stories Answer: C

21. Which of the following is an advantage of qualitative interviewing relative to participant

observation?

a) It allows you to find out about issues that are resistant to observation

b) It is more biased and value-laden

c) It is more likely to create reactive effects

d) None of the above Answer: A

22. Which of the following is a disadvantage of qualitative interviewing relative to participant

observation?

a) It has a more specific focus

b) It is more ethically dubious, in terms of obtaining informed consent

c) It may not provide access to deviant or hidden activities

d) It does not allow participants to reconstruct their life events Answer: C

23. The introductory section of a research report should aim to:

a) Identify the specific focus of the study

b) Provide a rationale for the dissertation, or article

c) Grab the reader's attention

d) All of the above Answer: D

24. What is the purpose of the conclusion in a research report?

a) It explains how concepts were operationally defined and measured

b) It contains a useful review of the relevant literature

c) It outlines the methodological procedures that were employed

d) It summarizes the key findings in relation to the research questions

Answer: D

25. Which of the following is not normally included in a written account of qualitative research?

a) An introduction, locating the research in its theoretical context

b) An explanation of the design of the study

c) A discussion of the main findings in relation to the research questions

d) A decision to accept or reject the hypothesis Answer: D

26. Before submitting your dissertation, you should ensure that:

a) Your writing is free of sexist, racist and disablist language

b) Other people have read your final draft

c) You have proofread it thoroughly

d) All of the above Answer: D

27. Probability sampling is rarely used in qualitative research because:

a) Qualitative researchers are not trained in statistics

b) It is very old-fashioned

c) It is often not feasible

d) Research questions are more important than sampling Answer: C

28. The two levels of sampling used by Savage et al. (2005) for the Manchester study were:

a) Random and purposive

b) Convenience and snowball

c) Statistical and non-statistical

d) Contexts and participants Answer: D

29. Which of the following is not a type of purposive sampling?

a) Probability sampling

b) Deviant case sampling

c) Theoretical sampling

d) Snowball sampling Answer: A

30. The minimum sample size for qualitative interviewing is:

a) 30

b) 31

c) 60

d) It's hard to say Answer: D

31. Why is an ethnographic study unlikely to use a probability sample?

a) Because the aim of understanding is more important than that of generalization

b) Because the researcher cannot control who is willing to talk to them

c) Because it is difficult to identify a sampling frame

d) All of the above Answer: D

32. Apart from people, what else can purposive sampling be used for?

a) Documents

b) Timing of events

c) Context

d) All of the above Answer: D

33. What can be generalized from a purposive sample?

a) That the findings are true for broadly similar cases

b) That the findings are true for the entire population

c) That the opposite is true for people who are the opposite of those in the sample

d) That purposive sampling is better than probability sampling Answer: A

34. Which of the following is a problem associated with survey research?

a) The problem of objectivity

b) The problem of "going native"

c) The problem of omission

d) The problem of robustness Answer: C

35. The key advantage of structured observation over survey research is that:

a) It does not rely on the researcher's ability to take notes

b) The researcher is immersed as a participant in the field they are studying

c) It does not impose any expectations of behaviour on the respondents

d) It allows you to observe people's behaviour directly Answer: D

36. It may not be possible to use a probability sample to observe behaviour in public places because:

a) The findings of such studies are not intended to have external validity

b) It is not feasible to construct a sampling frame of interactions

c) It is difficult to gain access to such social settings

d) Researchers prefer not to use random samples whenever possible Answer: B

37. Which of the following is not a type of sampling used in structured observation?

a) Focal sampling

b) Scan sampling

c) Emotional sampling

d) Behaviour sampling Answer: C

38. One of the criticisms often levelled at structured observation is that:

a) It does not allow us to impose any framework on the social setting

b) It only generates a small amount of data

c) It is unethical to observe people without an observation schedule

d) It does not allow us to understand the intentions behind behaviour Answer: D

39. What is a research design?

a) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory

b) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods

c) The style in which you present your research findings, e.g. a graph

d) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data Answer: D
40. If a study is "reliable", this means that:

a) It was conducted by a reputable researcher who can be trusted

b) The measures devised for concepts are stable on different occasions

c) The findings can be generalized to other social settings

d) The methods are stated clearly enough for the research to be replicated Answer: B

41. In an experimental design, the dependent variable is:

a) The one that is not manipulated and in which any changes are observed

b) The one that is manipulated in order to observe any effects on the other

c) A measure of the extent to which personal values affect research

d) An ambiguous concept whose meaning depends on how it is defined Answer: A

42. What is a cross-sectional design?

a) A study of one particular section of society, e.g. the middle classes

b) One that is devised when the researcher is in a bad mood

c) The collection of data from more than one case at one moment in time

d) A comparison of two or more variables over a long period of time Answer: C

43. Cross cultural studies are an example of:

a) Case study design

b) Comparative design

c) Experimental design

d) Longitudinal design Answer: B

44. What is a 'grand theory'?

a) One that was proposed by one of the major theorists in the sociological tradition

b) One that is highly abstract and makes broad generalizations about the social world

c) An intermediate level explanation of observed regularities

d) A particularly satisfactory theory that makes the researcher feel happy Answer: B

45. An inductive theory is one that:

a) Involves testing an explicitly defined hypothesis

b) Does not allow for findings to feed back into the stock of knowledge

c) Uses quantitative methods whenever possible

d) Allows theory to emerge out of the data Answer: D

46. The qualitative research strategy places a value on:

a) Using numbers, measurements and statistical techniques

b) Generating theories through inductive research about social meanings

c) Conducting research that is of a very high quality

d) All of the above Answer: B

47. An important practical issue to consider when designing a research project is:

a) Which theoretical perspective you find most interesting

b) Whether or not you have time to retile the bathroom first

c) How much time and money you have to conduct the research

d) Which colour of ring binder to present your work in Answer: C

48. You can manage your time and resources best, by:

a) Working out a timetable

b) Finding out what resources are readily available to you

c) Calculating a budget for likely expenditure

d) All of the above Answer: D

49. How can you tell if your research questions are really good?

a) If they guide your literature search

b) If they are linked together to help you construct a coherent argument

c) If they force you to narrow the scope of your research

d) All of the above Answer: D

50. Which of the following should be included in a research proposal?

a) Your academic status and experience

b) The difficulties you encountered with your previous reading on the topic

c) Your choice of research methods and reasons for choosing them

d) All of the above Answer: C

51. Which of the following should you think about when preparing your research?

a) Your sample frame and sampling strategy

b) The ethical issues that might arise

c) Negotiating access to the setting

d) All of the above Answer: D

52. What practical steps can you take before you actually start your research?

a) Find out exactly what your institution's requirements are for a dissertation

b) Make sure you are familiar with the hardware and software you plan to use

c) Apply for clearance of your project through an ethics committee

d) All of the above Answer: D

53. Why do you need to review the existing literature?

a) To make sure you have a long list of references

b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count

c) To find out what is already known about your area of interest

d) To help in your general studying Answer: C

54. A systematic literature review is:

a) One which starts in your own library, then goes to on-line databases and, finally, to the internet

b) A replicable, scientific and transparent process

c) One which gives equal attention to the principal contributors to the area

d) A responsible, professional process of time-management for research Answer: B

55. What is the first stage of a systematic review?

a) Assess the relevance of each study to the research question(s)

b) Define the purpose and scope of the review

c) Appraise the quality of studies from the previous step

d) Survey all of the literature contained within a single library Answer: B

56. The term "secondary analysis" refers to the technique of:

a) Conducting a study of seconds, minutes and other measures of time

b) Analysing your own data in two different ways

c) Analysing existing data that has been collected by another person or organization

d) Working part time on a project alongside other responsibilities Answer: C

57. Why might secondary analysis be a particularly useful method for students?

a) It is relatively easy to do
b) It saves time and money

c) It does not require any knowledge of statistics

d) It only requires a half-hearted effort Answer: B

58. Which of the following is not an advantage of secondary analysis?

a) It immerses the researcher in the field they are studying

b) It tends to be based on high quality data

c) It provides an opportunity for longitudinal analysis

d) It allows you to study patterns and social trends over time Answer: A

59. The large samples used in national social surveys enable new researchers to:

a) Avoid using probability sampling

b) Identify any bias in the question wording

c) Evaluate the inter-coder reliability of the data

d) Conduct subgroup analysis Answer: D

60. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of using secondary analysis?

a) The researcher's lack of familiarity with the data

b) It is a relatively expensive and time consuming process
c) Hierarchical datasets can be very confusing
d) The researcher has no control over the quality of the data Answer: B

A statement made about a population for testing purpose is called?

a) Statistic
b) Hypothesis
c) Level of Significance
d) Test-Statistic
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Hypothesis is a statement made about a population in general. It is then tested
and correspondingly accepted if True and rejected if False.
2. If the assumed hypothesis is tested for rejection considering it to be true is called?
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Statistical Hypothesis
c) Simple Hypothesis
d) Composite Hypothesis
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: If the assumed hypothesis is tested for rejection considering it to be true is
called Null Hypothesis. It gives the value of population parameter.
3. A statement whose validity is tested on the basis of a sample is called?
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Statistical Hypothesis
c) Simple Hypothesis
d) Composite Hypothesis
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In testing of Hypothesis a statement whose validity is tested on the basis of a
sample is called as Statistical Hypothesis. Its validity is tested with respect to a sample.
4. A hypothesis which defines the population distribution is called?
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Statistical Hypothesis
c) Simple Hypothesis
d) Composite Hypothesis
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A hypothesis which defines the population distribution is called as Simple
hypothesis. It specifies all parameter values.
5. If the null hypothesis is false then which of the following is accepted?
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Positive Hypothesis
c) Negative Hypothesis
d) Alternative Hypothesis.
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: If the null hypothesis is false then Alternative Hypothesis is accepted. It is also
called as Research Hypothesis.
6. The rejection probability of Null Hypothesis when it is true is called as?
a) Level of Confidence
b) Level of Significance
c) Level of Margin
d) Level of Rejection
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Level of Significance is defined as the probability of rejection of a True Null
Hypothesis. Below this probability a Null Hypothesis is rejected.
7. The point where the Null Hypothesis gets rejected is called as?
a) Significant Value
b) Rejection Value
c) Acceptance Value
d) Critical Value
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The point where the Null Hypothesis gets rejected is called as Critical Value. It
is also called as dividing point for separation of the regions where hypothesis is accepted
and rejected.
8. If the Critical region is evenly distributed then the test is referred as?
a) Two tailed
b) One tailed
c) Three tailed
d) Zero tailed
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In two tailed test the Critical region is evenly distributed. One region contains
the area where Null Hypothesis is accepted and another contains the area where it is
rejected.
9. The type of test is defined by which of the following?
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Simple Hypothesis
c) Alternative Hypothesis
d) Composite Hypothesis
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Alternative Hypothesis defines whether the test is one tailed or two tailed. It is
also called as Research Hypothesis.
10. Which of the following is defined as the rule or formula to test a Null Hypothesis?
a) Test statistic
b) Population statistic
c) Variance statistic
d) Null statistic
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Test statistic provides a basis for testing a Null Hypothesis. A test statistic is a
random variable that is calculated from sample data and used in a hypothesis test.
11. Consider a hypothesis H0 where ϕ0 = 5 against H1 where ϕ1 > 5. The test is?
a) Right tailed
b) Left tailed
c) Center tailed
d) Cross tailed
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In the given example since H1 lies to the right of the Ho that is the Null
Hypothesis the test is referred as a Right tailed test.
12. Consider a hypothesis where H0 where ϕ0 = 23 against H1 where ϕ1 < 23. The test is?
a) Right tailed
b) Left tailed
c) Center tailed
d) Cross tailed
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In the Normal Distribution curve of both the hypothesis the H1 hypothesis lies
to the left of the Null hypothesis hence the test is a Left tailed.
13. Type 1 error occurs when?
a) We reject H0 if it is True
b) We reject H0 if it is False
c) We accept H0 if it is True
d) We accept H0 if it is False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In Testing of Hypothesis Type 1 error occurs when we reject H0 if it is True.
On the contrary a Type 2 error occurs when we accept H0 if it is False.
14. The probability of Type 1 error is referred as?
a) 1-α
b) β
c) α
d) 1-β
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In Testing of Hypothesis Type 1 error occurs when we reject H0 if it is True.
The probability of H0 is α then the error probability will be 1- α.
15. Alternative Hypothesis is also called as?
a) Composite hypothesis
b) Research Hypothesis
c) Simple Hypothesis
d) Null Hypothesis
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Alternative Hypothesis is also called as Research Hypothesis. If the Null
Hypothesis is false then Alternative Hypothesis is accepted. . 1. heet and your written responses
to the tie breaker questions.

1. All of the following increase the width of a confidence interval except:

a. Increased confidence level

b. Increased variability

c. Increased sample size

d. Decreased sample size

2. The statement that “(𝐴|𝐵) = (𝐵|𝐴) whenever 𝐴 and 𝐵 are independent events” is:

Please select the best answer of those provided below.

a. Always True

b. Never True

c. Not Enough Information; we would need to know if 𝐴 and 𝐵 are disjoint events

d. Not Enough Information; we would need to know if the events are equally likely

3. The p-value in hypothesis testing represents which of the following:

Please select the best answer of those provided below.

a. The probability of failing to reject the null hypothesis, given the observed results

b. The probability that the null hypothesis is true, given the observed results

c. The probability that the observed results are statistically significant, given that the

null hypothesis is true

d. The probability of observing results as extreme or more extreme than currently

observed, given that the null hypothesis is true

ARKANSAS COUNCIL OF TEACHERS OF MATHEMATICS

2017 STATISTICS REGIONAL EXAM NAME: __________________

-2-|PageACTM-Statistics

4. Assume that the difference between the observed, paired sample values is defined in the

same manner and that the specified significance level is the same for both hypothesis tests.

Using the same data, the statement that “a paired/dependent two sample t-test is equivalent to

a one sample t-test on the paired differences, resulting in the same test statistic, same p-value,

and same conclusion” is:

Please select the best answer of those provided below.

a. Always True

b. Never True

c. Sometimes True

d. Not Enough Information

5. Note for this question that the odds in favor of an event 𝐴 are defined as follows: (𝐴)

1−(𝐴)

For fraternal twins, the odds in favor of having children that are twins are 1

16
. Based upon this

information, what is the probability of a fraternal twin not having children that are twins?

a.

16

b. 15

16

c.

17

d. 16

17

6. Refer to the back-to-back stemplot at the right.

Which of the following are true statements regarding the data

summarized?

I. The distributions have the same mean

II. The distributions have the same range

III. The distributions have the same variance

IV. The distributions have the same coefficient of variation

a. II only

b. II and III

c. I, III, and IV

d. II, III, and IV

ARKANSAS COUNCIL OF TEACHERS OF MATHEMATICS

2017 STATISTICS REGIONAL EXAM NAME: __________________

-3-|PageACTM-Statistics

For Questions 7–10, refer to the table, which relates to the possible epilepsy-depression link.

Depressive Disorder

Diagnosed Epilepsy Present (Yes) Absent (No)

Epilepsy 37 51

No Epilepsy 24 78

7. What is the probability of one randomly selected individual presenting with a depressive

disorder given the individual has diagnosed epilepsy? Round to 3 decimal places.

a. 0.421

b. 0.420

c. 0.195

d. 0.607

8. Assume simple random sampling for the data summarized in the table above.

Let 𝑝𝐸 represent the proportion of individuals with diagnosed epilepsy (‘Epilepsy’) that

present with a depressive disorder. Let 𝑝𝑁𝐸 represent the proportion of individuals without

diagnosed epilepsy (‘No Epilepsy’) that present with a depressive disorder.

What is the 95% confidence interval to estimate 𝑝𝐸 − 𝑝𝑁𝐸, the difference between the

population proportions of individuals presenting with a depressive disorder among those with

diagnosed epilepsy and among those without diagnosed epilepsy? Round to 3 decimal places.

a. (0.040, 0.386)

b. (0.258, 0.577)

c. (-0.005, 0.142)

d. (0.053, 0.317)

9. A researcher believes that the proportion of individuals with diagnosed epilepsy that present

with a depressive disorder, 𝑝𝐸, is higher than the proportion of individuals without diagnosed

epilepsy that present with a depressive disorder, 𝑝𝑁𝐸. Testing this claim, what would the

resulting p-value be? Round to 3 decimal places.

a. 0.006

b. 0.069

c. 0.003

d. 0.035

ARKANSAS COUNCIL OF TEACHERS OF MATHEMATICS

2017 STATISTICS REGIONAL EXAM NAME: __________________

-4-|PageACTM-Statistics

10. Refer to Question 9. Using a 0.10 significance level, which of the following is the most

appropriate conclusion given the results?

a. Reject the null hypothesis; there is sufficient evidence to support the researcher’s

claim.

b. Fail to reject the null hypothesis; there is sufficient evidence to support the

researcher’s claim.

c. Accept the null hypothesis; there is not sufficient evidence to support the researcher’s

claim.

d. Accept the null hypothesis; there is sufficient evidence to support the researcher’s

claim.

11. A sociologist focusing on popular culture and media believes that the average number of

hours per week (hrs/week) spent using social media is greater for women than for men.

Examining two independent simple random samples of 100 individuals each, the researcher

calculates sample standard deviations of 2.3 hrs/week and 2.5 hrs/week for women and men

respectively. If the average number of hrs/week spent using social media for the sample of

women is 1 hour greater than that for the sample of men, what conclusion can be made from

a hypothesis test where:

𝐻0: 𝜇𝑊 − 𝜇𝑀 = 0

𝐻1: 𝜇𝑊 − 𝜇𝑀 > 0

a. The observed difference in average number of hrs/week spent using social media is

not significant

b. The observed difference in average number of hrs/week spent using social media is

significant

c. A conclusion is not possible without knowing the average number of hrs/week spent

using social media in each sample

d. A conclusion is not possible without knowing the population sizes

ARKANSAS COUNCIL OF TEACHERS OF MATHEMATICS

2017 STATISTICS REGIONAL EXAM NAME: __________________

-5-|PageACTM-Statistics

12. A 99% t-based confidence interval for the mean price for a gallon of gasoline (dollars) is

calculated using a simple random sample of gallon gasoline prices for 50 gas stations. Given

that the 99% confidence interval is $3.32 < 𝜇 < $3.98, what is the sample mean price for a

gallon of gasoline (dollars)?

Please select the best answer of those provided below.

a. $0.33

b. $3.65

c. Not Enough Information; we would need to know the variation in the sample of

gallon gasoline prices

d. Not Enough Information; we would need to know the variation in the population of

gallon gasoline prices

13. A quiz consists of 9 True/False questions. Assume that the questions are independent. In

addition, assume that (T) and (F) are equally likely outcomes when guessing on any one of

the questions. What is the probability of guessing on each of the 9 quiz questions and getting

more than one of the True/False questions wrong? Round to 3 decimal places.

a. 0.998

b. 0.018

c. 0.020

d. 0.980

14. Five students take AP Calculus AB one year and AP Calculus BC the next year. Their overall

course grades (%) are listed below for both courses. Which of the following statistical

procedures would be most appropriate to test the claim that student overall course grades are

the same in both courses? Assume that any necessary normality requirements hold.

Student 1 2 3 4 5

AP Cal AB 80.0% 72.6% 99.0% 91.3% 68.9%

AP Cal BC 85.5% 71.0% 93.2% 93.0% 74.8%

a. Two-tailed two-sample paired/dependent t-test of means

b. Two-tailed two-sample independent t-test of means

c. Two-tailed two-sample independent z-test of means

d. One-tailed two-sample z-test of proportions

ARKANSAS COUNCIL OF TEACHERS OF MATHEMATICS

2017 STATISTICS REGIONAL EXAM NAME: __________________

-6-|PageACTM-Statistics

15. Referring to the setting and data provided in Question 14 above, what is the test statistic for

testing the claim that student overall course grades are the same in both courses? Round to 3

decimal places.

a. -0.516

b. -0.157

c. 4.306

d. Not Enough Information; we would need to know the variation in the population

16. The histogram to the right represents the hospital

length of stay (in days) for patients at a nearby medical

facility. How many patients are included in the

histogram?

a. 5

b. 21

c. 17

d. 9

17. Using the histogram to the right that represents the

hospital lengths of stay (in days) for patients at a

nearby medical facility, determine the relationship

between the mean and the median.

a. Mean = Median

b. Mean ≈ Median

c. Mean < Median

d. Mean > Median

18. Refer to the discrete probability distribution provided in the table below.

Find the probability that x is equal to 0 or 4. Round to 3 decimal places.

a. 0.040

b. 0.210

c. 0.007

d. 1.000

X=x 0 1 2 3 4

P(X=x) 0.040 0.110 0.450 0.230 ?

ARKANSAS COUNCIL OF TEACHERS OF MATHEMATICS

2017 STATISTICS REGIONAL EXAM NAME: __________________

-7-|PageACTM-Statistics

19. Green sea turtles have normally distributed weights, measured in kilograms, with a mean of

134.5 and a variance of 49.0. A particular green sea turtle’s weight has a z-score of -2.4.

What is the weight of this green sea turtle? Round to the nearest whole number.

a. 17 kg

b. 151 kg

c. 118 kg

d. 252 kg

20. What percentage of measurements in a dataset fall above the median?

a. 49%

b. 50%

c. 51%

d. Cannot Be Determined

21. Which of the following exam scores is better relative to other students enrolled in the course?

A psychology exam grade of 85; the mean grade for the psychology exam is 92 with a

standard deviation of 3.5

An economics exam grade of 67; the mean grade for the economics exam is 79 with a

standard deviation of 8

A chemistry exam grade of 62; the mean grade for the chemistry exam is 62 with a
standard deviation of 5

a. The psychology exam score is relatively better

b. The economics exam score is relatively better

c. The chemistry exam score is relatively better

d. All of the exam scores are relatively equivalent

22. The statement “If there is sufficient evidence to reject a null hypothesis at the 10%

significance level, then there is sufficient evidence to reject it at the 5% significance level” is:

Please select the best answer of those provided below.

a. Always True

b. Never True

c. Sometimes True; the p-value for the statistical test needs to be provided for a conclusion

d. Not Enough Information; this would depend on the type of statistical test used

ARKANSAS COUNCIL OF TEACHERS OF MATHEMATICS

2017 STATISTICS REGIONAL EXAM NAME: __________________

-8-|PageACTM-Statistics

23. Assuming weights of female athletes are normally distributed with a mean of 140 lbs and a

standard deviation of 15 lbs, what is the probability that a randomly selected female athlete

weighs more than 170 lbs? Round to 3 decimal places.

Also, is the probability above the same as the probability that a randomly selected sample of

size 𝑛 (where 𝑛 > 1) has a mean weight more than 170 lbs?

a. 0.023; yes, these two probabilities would be the same

b. 0.023; no, these two probabilities would not be the same

c. 0.977; yes, these two probabilities would be the same

d. 0.977; no these two probabilities would not be the same

For Questions 24–25, refer to the relevant results from a regression analysis provided below.

A simple random sample of 5k race times for 32 competitive male runners aged 15-24 years

old resulted in a mean 5k race time of 16.79 minutes. The simple linear regression equation

that fit the sample data was obtained and found to be 𝑦̂ = 21.506 − 0.276𝑥 where 𝑥

represents the age of the runner in years and 𝑦 represents the 5k race time for a competitive
male runner in minutes. When testing the claim that there is a linear correlation between age

and 5k race times of competitive male runners, an observed test statistic of (𝑡 = −7.87)

resulted in an approximate p-value of 0.0001.

24. The proportion of variation in 5k race times that can be explained by the variation in the age

of competitive male runners was approximately 0.663. What is the value of the sample linear

correlation coefficient? Round to 3 decimal places.

a. 0.663

b. 0.814

c. -0.814

d. 0.440

25. Using all of the results provided, is it reasonable to predict the 5k race time (minutes) of a

competitive male runner 73 years of age?

a. Yes; linear correlation between age and 5k race times is statistically significant

b. Yes; both the sample linear regression equation and an age in years is provided

c. No; linear correlation between age and 5k race times is not statistically significant

d. No; the age provided is beyond the scope of our available sample data

In hypothesis testing, the hypothesis which is tentatively assumed to be true is called the

X correct hypothesis

:-) null hypothesis

? alternative hypothesis

? level of significance

When the null hypothesis has been true, but the sample information has resulted in the rejection of the
null, a _________ has been made.

X level of significance

X Type II error

X critical value
 ? Type I error

The maximum probability of a Type I error that the decision maker will tolerate is called the

? level of significance

? critical value

? decision value

? probability value

A Type II error is the error of

? accepting Ho when it is false

? accepting Ho when it is true

? rejecting Ho when it is false

? rejecting Ho when it is true

For finding the p-value when the population standard deviation is unknown, if it is reasonable to assume
that the population is normal, we use

? the z distribution

? the t distribution with n - 1 degrees of freedom

? the t distribution with n + 1 degrees of freedom

? none of the above

A hypothesis test in which rejection of the null hypothesis occurs for values of the point estimator in
either tail of the sampling distribution is called

? the null hypothesis

? the alternative hypothesis

? a one-tailed test

? a two-tailed test

In hypothesis testing, the level of significance is

 ? the probability of committing a Type II erro

? the probability of committing a Type I error

? the probability of either a Type I or Type II, depending on the hypothesis to be tested

? none of the above

In hypothesis testing, b is

? the probability of committing a Type II error

? the probability of committing a Type I error

? the probability of either a Type I or Type II, depending on the hypothesis to be tested

? none of the above

When testing the following hypotheses at an a level of significance

Ho: p £ 0.7

Ha: p > 0.7

The null hypothesis will be rejected if the test statistic Z is

? z > za

? z < za

? z < -za

? none of the above

Which of the following does not need to be known in order to compute the P-value?

? knowledge of whether the test is one-tailed or two-tailed

? the value of the test statistic

? the level of significance

? All of the above are needed

? none of the above

1. A Type I error occurs when we:

a. reject a false null hypothesis

b. reject a true null hypothesis

c. do not reject a false null hypothesis

d. do not reject a true null hypothesis

e. fail to make a decision regarding whether to reject a hypothesis or not

Answer: B

2. In a criminal trial, a Type I error is made when:

a. a guilty defendant is acquitted (set free)

b. an innocent person is convicted (sent to jail)

c. a guilty defendant is convicted

d. an innocent person is acquitted

e. no decision is made about whether to acquit or convict the defendant

Answer: B

3. A Type II error occurs when we:

a. reject a false null hypothesis

b. reject a true null hypothesis

c. do not reject a false null hypothesis

d. do not reject a true null hypothesis

e. fail to make a decision regarding whether to reject a hypothesis or not

Answer: C

4. If a hypothesis is rejected at the 0.025 level of significance, it:

a. must be rejected at any level

b. must be rejected at the 0.01 level

c. must not be rejected at the 0.01 level

d. must not be rejected at any other level

e. may or may not be rejected at the 0.01 level

Answer: E

5. In a criminal trial, a Type II error is made when:

a. a guilty defendant is acquitted (set free)

b. an innocent person is convicted (sent to jail)

c. a guilty defendant is convicted

d. an innocent person is acquitted

e. no decision is made about whether to acquit or convict the defendant

Answer: A

6. In a two-tail test for the population mean, if the null hypothesis is rejected when the alternative is

true, then:

a. a Type I error is committed

b. a Type II error is committed

c. a correct decision is made

d. a one-tail test should be used instead of a two-tail test

e. it is unclear whether a correct or incorrect decision has been made

Answer: C

7. In a one-tail test for the population mean, if the null hypothesis is not rejected when the alternative

hypothesis is true, then:

a. a Type I error is committed

b. a Type II error is committed

c. a correct decision is made

d. a two-tail test should be used instead of a one-tail test

e. it is unclear whether a correct or incorrect decision has been made

Answer: B

8. In a one-tail test for the population mean, if the null hypothesis is rejected when the alternative

hypothesis is not true, then:

a. a Type I error is committed

b. a Type II error is committed

c. a correct decision is made

d. a two-tail test should be used instead of a one-tail test

e. it is unclear whether a correct or incorrect decision has been made

Answer: A

9. If we reject the null hypothesis, we conclude that:

a. there is enough statistical evidence to infer that the alternative hypothesis is true
b. there is not enough statistical evidence to infer that the alternative hypothesis is true

c. there is enough statistical evidence to infer that the null hypothesis is true

d. the test is statistically insignificant at whatever level of significance the test was conducted at

e. further tests need to be carried out to determine for sure whether the null hypothesis should be

rejected or not

Answer: A

10. If we do not reject the null hypothesis, we conclude that:

a. there is enough statistical evidence to infer that the alternative hypothesis is true

b. there is not enough statistical evidence to infer that the alternative hypothesis is true

c. there is enough statistical evidence to infer that the null hypothesis is true

d. the test is statistically insignificant at whatever level of significance the test was conducted at

e. further tests need to be carried out to determine for sure whether the null hypothesis should be

rejected or not

Answer: B

11. The p-value of a test is the:

a. smallest significance level at which the null hypothesis cannot be rejected

b. largest significance level at which the null hypothesis cannot be rejected

c. smallest significance level at which the null hypothesis can be rejected

d. largest significance level at which the null hypothesis can be rejected

e. probability that no errors have been made in rejecting or not rejecting the null hypothesis

Answer: C

12. In order to determine the p-value of a hypothesis test, which of the following is not needed?

a. whether the test is one-tail or two-tail

b. the value of the test statistic

c. the form of the null and alternate hypotheses

d. the level of significance

e. all of the above are needed to determine the p-value

Answer: D

13. Which of the following p-values will lead us to reject the null hypothesis if the significance level of
the test if 5%?

a. 0.15

b. 0.10

c. 0.06

d. 0.20

e. 0.025

Answer: E

14. Suppose that we reject a null hypothesis at the 5% level of significance. For which of the following

levels of significance do we also reject the null hypothesis?

a. 6%

b. 2.5%

c. 4%

d. 3%

e. 2%

Answer: A

15. Which of the following statements about hypothesis testing is true?

a. If the p-value is greater than the significance level, we fail to reject Ho

b. A Type II error is rejecting the null when it is actually true.

c. If the alternative hypothesis is that the population mean is greater than a specified value, then the

test is a two-tailed test.

d. The significance level equals one minus the probability of a Type I error.

e. None of the above statements are true.

Answer: A

16. The purpose of hypothesis testing is to:

a. test how far the mean of a sample is from zero

b. determine whether a statistical result is significant

c. determine the appropriate value of the significance level

d. derive the standard error of the data

e. determine the appropriate value of the null hypothesis

Answer: B

17. In hypothesis testing, what level of significance would be most appropriate to choose if you knew

that making a Type I error would be more costly than making a Type II error?

a. 0.005

b. 0.025

c. 0.050

d. 0.100

e. 0.028

Answer: A

18. The p-value obtained from a classical hypothesis test is:

a. the probability that the null hypothesis is true given the data

b. the probability that the null hypothesis is false given the data

c. the probability of observing the data or more extreme values if the null hypothesis is true

d. the probability of observing the data or more extreme values if the alternative hypothesis is true

e. the probability that the observed data were obtained due to chance

Answer: C

19. To test a hypothesis involving proportions, both np and n(1-p) should

a. Be at least 30

b. Be greater than 5

c. Lie in the range from 0 to 1

d. Be greater than 50

e. There are no specific conditions surrounding the values of n and p

Answer: B

20. What assumption is being made when we use the t-distribution to perform a hypothesis test?

a. That the underlying distribution has more then one modal class

b. That the underlying population has a constant variance

c. That the underlying population has a non-symmetrical distribution

d. That the underlying population follows an approximately Normal distribution

e. None of the above

Answer: D

Rejection of the null hypothesis is a conclusive proof that the alternative hypothesis is

a) True

b) False

c) Neither

Question 2

Parametric test, unlike the non-parametric tests, make certain assumptions about

a) The population size

b) The underlying distribution

c) The sample size

Question 3

The level of significance can be viewed as the amount of risk that an analyst will accept when making a
decision

a) True

b) False

Question 4

By taking a level of significance of 5% it is the same as saying

a) We are 5% confident the results have not occurred by chance

b) We are 95% confident that the results have not occurred by chance

c) We are 95% confident that the results have occurred by chance

Question 5

One or two tail test will determine

a) If the two extreme values (min or max) of the sample need to be rejected

b) If the hypothesis has one or possible two conclusions

c) If the region of rejection is located in one or two tails of the distribution

Question 6

Two types of errors associated with hypothesis testing are Type I and Type II. Type II error is committed
when
a) We reject the null hypothesis whilst the alternative hypothesis is true

b) We reject a null hypothesis when it is true

c) We accept a null hypothesis when it is not true

Researchers would like the probability of which of the following research decision
outcomes to be the greatest?

Statistical Power (1.00 minus Beta)

the probability of Type II (Beta)

none of the above

the probability of Type I

Question 2.

The probability that the test statistic will fall inside the region of rejection due to
chance alone is equal to which of the following probabilities?

Alpha

Beta

1.00 minus alpha

1.00 minus Beta

Question 3.

Each of the following are true with respect to Hypothesis testing except for:

the statement of the alternative hypothesis always contains an equal sign

if the null hypothesis is not rejected, it does not mean the null is true

there are no exceptions, because all of the statements above are true.

by failing to reject the null hypothesis, one has not proven that the
alternative hypothesis is correct

Question 4.

Which one of the following is the complement of alpha?

Type I error

Statistical Power

Type II error

the confidence coefficient

Question 5.

In order to reduce the likelihood of committing a Type II error, the researcher

could
 decrease the level of significance

increase the confidence coefficient

increase the sample size

decrease the sample size

Question 6.

Under what conditions would one reject the null hypothesis, if the hypotheses
were identical to those shown in example 9.3 (p. 337)?

when the p value is greater than alpha

when the test statistic is either less than –1.96, or when the test statistics is
greater than +1.96

when the test statistic is less than +1.96

when the test statistic is greater than –1.96

Question 7.

Which of the following statements is false?

The statement of Ha (alternate hypothesis) never contains an equality.

Ho (null hypothesis) refers to a specified value of a sample statistic. Refer

to Section 9.1, "Hypothesis-Testing Methodology," (p. 328).

Ho (null hypothesis) refers to a specified value of the population parameter.

The statement of Ho (null hypothesis) always contains an equality.

Question 8.

If an individual rejects a true null hypothesis, then she/he has

made a correct decision to reject the null hypothesis

made a Type I error.

made a Type II error.

increased the power of a statistical test.

Question 9.

A Type II error is committed when:

you accept a true null hypothesis.

you reject a false null hypothesis.

a true null hypothesis is rejected.

you fail to reject a null hypothesis that is really false.

Question 10.
If a researcher wishes to determine whether there is evidence that the mean
family income in the U.S. is greater than $30,000, then:

a one-tailed test should be utilized, in which the region of rejection is in the

right (upper tail).

a two-tailed test should be utilized.

either a one-tailed or a two-tailed test could be used.

a one-tailed test should be utilized, in which the region of rejection is in the

left (lower tail).

Question 11.

In a hypothesis test, the probability of obtaining a value of the test statistic equal
to or even more extreme than the value observed - given the null hypothesis is
true - is referred to as:

Type II error.

Type I error.

the p-value.

statistical power.

Question 12.

What is the critical value for a two-tailed hypothesis test on a population mean
when alpha is 5%, and the population standard deviation is known?

1.65

2.58

2.33

1.96

Question 13.

If the p-value is greater than alpha in a two-tailed test:

the null hypothesis should not be rejected.

alpha should be changed.

a one-tailed test should be used.

the null hypothesis should be rejected

Question 14.

If the p-value is less than alpha in a one-tailed test:

the null hypothesis should not be rejected.

the null hypothesis should be rejected.

 a one-tailed test should be used.

alpha should be changed.

Question 15.

If a one-tailed test for a proportion is being performed and the upper critical value
is +2.33 and the test statistic is equal to +1.37, then:

the null hypothesis should be rejected.

the alternative hypothesis must be accepted.

the null hypothesis should not be rejected.

the sample size should be decreased.

Question 16.

The region of rejection for a one-tailed test is;

always greater than that for a two-tailed test.

found in the tail that supports the alternative hypothesis.

found in the tail that supports the null hypothesis.

always greater than 0.05.

Question 17.

Which of the following measures how close the observed sample statistic has
come to the hypothesized population parameter?

test statistic

sample size

level of significance

confidence coefficient

Question 18.

If you were running a small sample (e.g., n=24) two-tailed test, then the critical t-
value would be ________ if alpha was chosen as 5%.

2.069

1.96

1.714

1.711

Question 19.

If a p-value for a hypothesis test on a mean was given as 0.0330, and the level of
significance used was 5%, then the conclusion would be to
 Not enough information is given.

accept the null hypothesis

not reject the null hypothesis

reject the null hypothesis

Question 20.

The power of a statistical test is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis
when it is _______. When you increase alpha, the power of the test will _______.

false / decrease

true / decrease

false / increase

true / increase

Question 21.

Which of the following would be an appropriate alternative hypothesis for a one-

tail test?

The sample proportion is less than 0.65.

The sample proportion is not less than 0.65.

The population proportion is not less than 0.65.

The population proportion is less than 0.65.

Question 22.

The quantity (1 - alpha) is called:

the power of the test.

the probability of Type I error.

the confidence coefficient.

the probability of Type I error.

Question 23.

It is possible to directly compare the results of a confidence interval estimate to

the results obtained by testing a null hypothesis if:

none of the previous statements is true.

both of the previous statements are true.

 a two-tailed test is used.

a one-tailed test is used.

MCQ 13.1

A statement about a population developed for the purpose of testing is called:

(a) Hypothesis (b) Hypothesis testing (c) Level of significance (d) Test-statistic

MCQ 13.2

Any hypothesis which is tested for the purpose of rejection under the assumption
that it is true is

called:

(a) Null hypothesis (b) Alternative hypothesis (c) Statistical hypothesis (d)
Composite hypothesis

MCQ 13.3

A statement about the value of a population parameter is called:

(a) Null hypothesis (b) Alternative hypothesis (c) Simple hypothesis (d)
Composite hypothesis

MCQ 13.4

Any statement whose validity is tested on the basis of a sample is called:

(a) Null hypothesis (b) Alternative hypothesis (c) Statistical hypothesis (b) Simple
hypothesis

MCQ 13.5

A quantitative statement about a population is called:

(a) Research hypothesis (b) Composite hypothesis (c) Simple hypothesis (d)
Statistical hypothesis

MCQ 13.6

A statement that is accepted if the sample data provide sufficient evidence that
the null hypothesis is false is

called:

(a) Simple hypothesis (b) Composite hypothesis (c) Statistical hypothesis (d)
Alternative hypothesis

MCQ 13.7

The alternative hypothesis is also called:

(a) Null hypothesis (b) Statistical hypothesis (c) Research hypothesis (d) Simple
hypothesis

MCQ 13.8
A hypothesis that specifies all the values of parameter is called:

(a) Simple hypothesis (b) Composite hypothesis (c) Statistical hypothesis (d)
None of the above

MCQ 13.9

The hypothesis µ ≤ 10 is a:

(a) Simple hypothesis (b) Composite hypothesis (c) Alternative hypothesis (d)
Difficult to tell.

MCQ 13.10

If a hypothesis specifies the population distribution is called:

(a) Simple hypothesis (b) Composite hypothesis (c) Alternative hypothesis (d)
None of the above

MCQ 13.11

A hypothesis may be classified as:

(a) Simple (b) Composite (c) Null (d) All of the above

MCQ 13.12

The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true is called:

(a) Level of confidence (b) Level of significance (c) Power of the test (d) Difficult
to tell

MCQ 13.13

The dividing point between the region where the null hypothesis is rejected and
the region where it is not

rejected is said to be:

(a) Critical region (b) Critical value (c) Acceptance region (d) Significant region

MCQ 13.14

If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of
test-statistic, the test is

called:

(a) One tailed (b) Two tailed (c) Right tailed (d) Left tailed

MCQ 13.15

The choice of one-tailed test and two-tailed test depends upon:

(a) Null hypothesis (b) Alternative hypothesis (c) None of these (d) Composite
hypotheses

MCQ 13.16
Test of hypothesis Ho: µ = 50 against H1: µ > 50 leads to:

(a) Left-tailed test (b) Right-tailed test (c) Two-tailed test (d) Difficult to tell

MCQ 13.17

Test of hypothesis Ho: µ = 20 against H1: µ < 20 leads to:

(a) Right one-sided test (b) Left one-sided test (c) Two-sided test (d) All of the
above

MCQ 13.18

Testing Ho: µ = 25 against H1: µ ≠ 20 leads to:

(a) Two-tailed test (b) Left-tailed test (c) Right-tailed test (d) Neither (a), (b) and
(c)

MCQ 13.19

A rule or formula that provides a basis for testing a null hypothesis is called:

(a) Test-statistic (b) Population statistic (c) Both of these (d) None of the above

MCQ 13.20

The range of test statistic-Z is:

(a) 0 to 1 (b) -1 to +1 (c) 0 to ∞ (d) -∞ to +∞

MCQ 13.21

The range of test statistic-t is:

(a) 0 to ∞ (b) 0 to 1 (c) -∞ to +∞ (d) -1 to +1

MCQ 13.22

If Ho is true and we reject it is called:

(a) Type-I error (b) Type-II error (c) Standard error (d) Sampling error

MCQ 13.23

The probability associated with committing type-I error is:

(a) β (b) α (c) 1 – β (d) 1 – α

MCQ 13.24

A failing student is passed by an examiner, it is an example of:

(a) Type-I error (b) Type-II error (c) Unbiased decision (d) Difficult to tell

MCQ 13.25

A passing student is failed by an examiner, it is an example of:

(a) Type-I error (b) Type-II error (c) Best decision (d) All of the above
MCQ 13.26

1 – α is also called:

(a) Confidence coefficient (b) Power of the test (c) Size of the test (d) Level of
significance

MCQ 13.27

1 – α is the probability associated with:

(a) Type-I error (b) Type-II error (c) Level of confidence (d) Level of significance

MCQ 13.28

Area of the rejection region depends on:

(a) Size of α (b) Size of β (c) Test-statistic (d) Number of values

MCQ 13.29

Size of critical region is known as:

(a) β (b) 1 - β (c) Critical value (d) Size of the test

MCQ 13.30

A null hypothesis is rejected if the value of a test statistic lies in the:

(a) Rejection region (b) Acceptance region (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor

MCQ 13.32

Level of significance is also called:

(a) Power of the test (b) Size of the test (c) Level of confidence (d) Confidence
coefficient

MCQ 13.33

Level of significance α lies between:

(a) -1 and +1 (b) 0 and 1 (c) 0 and n (d) -∞ to +∞

MCQ 13.34

Critical region is also called:

(a) Acceptance region (b) Rejection region (c) Confidence region (d) Statistical
region

MCQ 13.35

The probability of rejecting Ho when it is false is called:

(a) Power of the test (b) Size of the test (c) Level of confidence (d) Confidence
coefficient

MCQ 13.36
Power of a test is related to:

(a) Type-I error (b) Type-II error (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) and (b)

MCQ 13.37

In testing hypothesis α + β is always equal to:

(a) One (b) Zero (c) Two (d) Difficult to tell

MCQ 13.38

The significance level is the risk of:

(a) Rejecting Ho when Ho is correct (b) Rejecting Ho when H1 is correct

(c) Rejecting H1 when H1 is correct (d) Accepting Ho when Ho is correct.

MCQ 13.39

An example in a two-sided alternative hypothesis is:

(a) H1: µ < 0 (b) H1: µ > 0 (c) H1: µ ≥ 0 (d) H1: µ ≠ 0

MCQ 13.40

If the magnitude of calculated value of t is less than the tabulated value of t and
H1 is two-sided, we

should:

(a) Reject Ho (b) Accept H1 (c) Not reject Ho (d) Difficult to tell

MCQ 13.41

Accepting a null hypothesis Ho:

(a) Proves that Ho is true (b) Proves that Ho is false

(c) Implies that Ho is likely to be true (d) Proves that µ ≤ 0

MCQ 13.42

The chance of rejecting a true hypothesis decreases when sample size is:

(a) Decreased (b) Increased (c) Constant (d) Both (a) and (b)

MCQ 13.43

The equality condition always appears in:

(a) Null hypothesis (b) Simple hypothesis (c) Alternative hypothesis (d) Both (a)
and (b)

MCQ 13.44

Which hypothesis is always in an inequality form?

(a) Null hypothesis (b) Alternative hypothesis (c) Simple hypothesis (d)
Composite hypothesis
MCQ 13.45

Which of the following is composite hypothesis?

(a) µ ≥ µo (b) µ ≤ µo (c) µ = µo (d) µ ≠ µo

MCQ 13.46

P (Type I error) is equal to:

(a) 1 – α (b) 1 – β (c) α (d) β

MCQ 13.47

P (Type II error) is equal to:

(a) α (b) β (c) 1 – α (d) 1 – β

MCQ 13.48

The power of the test is equal to:

(a) α (b) β (c) 1 – α (d) 1 – β

MCQ 13.49

The degree of confidence is equal to:

(a) α (b) β (c) 1 – α (d) 1 – β

MCQ 13.50

α / 2 is called:

(a) One tailed significance level (b) Two tailed significance level

(c) Left tailed significance level (d) Right tailed significance level

MCQ 13.51

Student’s t-test is applicable only when:

(a) n≤30 and σ is known (b) n>30 and σ is unknown (c) n=30 and σ is known (d)
All of the above

MCQ 13.52

Student’s t-statistic is applicable in case of:

(a) Equal number of samples (b) Unequal number of samples (c) Small samples
(d) All of the above

MCQ 13.53

Paired t-test is applicable when the observations in the two samples are:

(a) Equal in number (b) Paired (c) Correlation (d) All of the above

MCQ 13.54
The degree of freedom for paired t-test based on n pairs of observations is:

(a) 2n - 1 (b) n - 2 (c) 2(n - 1) (d) n - 1

MCQ 13.55

The test-statistic

has d.f = ________:

(a) n (b) n - 1 (c) n - 2 (d) n1 + n2 - 2

MCQ 13.56

In an unpaired samples t-test with sample sizes n1= 11 and n2= 11, the value of
tabulated t should be

obtained for:

(a) 10 degrees of freedom (b) 21 degrees of freedom

(c) 22 degrees of freedom (d) 20 degrees of freedom

MCQ 13.57

In analyzing the results of an experiment involving seven paired samples,

tabulated t should be

obtained for:

(a) 13 degrees of freedom (b) 6 degrees of freedom

(c) 12 degrees of freedom (d) 14 degrees of freedom

MCQ 13.58

The mean difference between 16 paired observations is 25 and the standard

deviation of differences is

10. The value of statistic-t is:

(a) 4 (b) 10 (c) 16 (d) 25

MCQ 13.59

Statistic-t is defined as deviation of sample mean from population mean µ

expressed in terms of:

(a) Standard deviation (b) Standard error

(c) Coefficient of standard deviation (d) Coefficient of variation

MCQ 13.60

Student’s t-distribution has (n-1) d.f. when all the n observations in the sample
are:

(a) Dependent (b) Independent (c) Maximum (d) Minimum

MCQ 13.61
The number of independent values in a set of values is called:

(a) Test-statistic (b) Degree of freedom (c) Level of significance (d) Level of
confidence

MCQ 13.62

The purpose of statistical inference is:

(a) To collect sample data and use them to formulate hypotheses about a
population

(b) To draw conclusion about populations and then collect sample data to support
the conclusions

(c) To draw conclusions about populations from sample data

(d) To draw conclusions about the known value of population parameter

MCQ 13.63

Suppose that the null hypothesis is true and it is rejected, is known as:

(a) A type-I error, and its probability is β

(b) A type-I error, and its probability is α

(c) A type-II error, and its probability is α

(d) A type-Il error, and its probability is β

MCQ 13.64

An advertising agency wants to test the hypothesis that the proportion of adults in
Pakistan who read a Sunday

Magazine is 25 percent. The null hypothesis is that the proportion reading the
Sunday Magazine is:

(a) Different from 25% (b) Equal to 25% (c) Less than 25 % (d) More than 25 %

MCQ 13.65

If the mean of a particular population is µo,

is distributed:

(a) As a standard normal variable, if the population is non-normal

(b) As a standard normal variable, if the sample is large

(c) As a standard normal variable, if the population is normal

(d) As the t-distribution with v = n - 1 degrees of freedom

MCQ 13.66

If µ1 and µ2 are means of two populations,

is distributed:
(a) As a standard normal variable, if both samples are independent and less than
30

(b) As a standard normal variable, if both populations are normal

(c) As both (a) and (b) state

(d) As the t-distribution with n1 + n2 - 2 degrees of freedom

MCQ 13.67

If the population proportion equals po, then

is distributed:

(a) As a standard normal variable, if n > 30

(b) As a Poisson variable

(c) As the t-distribution with v= n 1 degrees of freedom

(d) As a distribution with v degrees of freedom

MCQ 13.68

When σ is known, the hypothesis about population mean is tested by:

(a) t-test (b) Z-test (c) χ

-test (d) F-test

MCQ 13.69

Given µo = 130, = 150, σ = 25 and n = 4; what test statistics is appropriate?

(a) t (b) Z (c) χ

(d) F

MCQ 13.70

Given Ho: µ = µo, H1: µ ≠ µo, α = 0.05 and we reject Ho; the absolute value of the
Z-statistic must have equalled

or been beyond what value?

(a) 1.96 (b) 1.65 (c) 2.58 (d) 2.33