1

Physics Objective _X 2 Physics Objective _X 1

9. Which of the following characteristics of a wave is independent of

the others?
Unit 10 Simple Harmonic Motion and Waves
(a) speed (b) frequency (c) amplitude (d) wavelength 1. Which of the following is an example of simple harmonic motion?
10. The relation between velocity (v), frequency (f) and wavelength (a) Motion of a simple pendulum
() of a wave is: (b) The motion of ceiling fan
(OR) Wave equation is: (c) The spinning of the Earth on its axis
(d) A bouncing ball on a floor
(a) vf =  (b) f = v (c) v = f (d)
2. If the mass of the bob of a pendulum is increased by a factor of 3,
11. The product of frequency (f) and wavelength () is equal to: the period of the pendulum's motion will
(a) time period (b) amplitude (a) be increased by a factor of 2
(c) wave speed (d) wave energy (b) remain the same
12. In simple pendulum motion restoring force is provided by: (c) be decreased by a factor of 2
(a) air resistance (b) tension in the string (d) be decreased by a factor of 4
(c) inertia (d) weight of body 3. If the mass of the bob is decreased by the factor 2, then period of
13. The example of shock absorbers of the vehicles is: pendulum will be:
(a) simple harmonic motion (b) vibratory motion (a) increased by the factor 2 (b) remain the same
(c) damped motion (d) linear motion (c) decreased by the factor 2 (d) decreased by the factor 4
14. If the speed of a wave is 340 ms–1 and wavelength is 0.5m, then 4. Which of the following devices can be used to produce both
frequency will be: transverse and longitudinal waves?
(a) 170 Hz (b) 340 Hz (c) 680 Hz (d) 3400 Hz (a) a string (b) a ripple tank
15. The types of waves are: (c) a helical spring (slinky) (d) a tuning fork
(OR) Waves are of __________ types. 5. Waves transfer:
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (OR) Waves transfer from one place to other:
16. Formula for the time period of mass attached to spring is: (a) energy (b) frequency (c) wavelength (d) velocity
6. Which of the following is a method of energy transfer?
(OR) The formula for time period of mass spring system is:
(a) conduction (b) radiation
(a) (b) (c) wave motion (d) all of these
7. In vacuum, all electromagnetic waves have the same
(c) (d) (a) speed (b) frequency (c) amplitude (d) wavelength
8. A large ripple tank with a vibrator working at a frequency of 30
17. Ripple tank is a device which is used to study the characteristics Hz produces 25 complete waves in a distance of 50 cm. The
of: velocity of the wave is
(OR) Ripple tank is a device used to produce: (a) 53 cms–1 (b) 60 cms–1 (c) 750 cms–1 (d) 1500 cms–1
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Physics Objective _X 4 Physics Objective _X 3

27. The number of waves passing through a point in one second is (a) mechanical waves (b) light waves
called: (c) radio waves (d) electromagnetic waves
(a) displacement (b) frequency 18. Formula to calculate time period of a pendulum is:
(c) wavelength (d) amplitude
(a) (b)
28. When did Christian Huygens invent the pendulum clock?
(a) 1656 (b) 1756 (c) 1856 (d) 1956
29. A high frequency wave carries __________ energy than a low (c) (d)
frequency wave of the same amplitude. 19. Wavelength  of waves can also be defined as ratio of:
(a) less (b) same (c) more (d) double (a) speed and frequency (b) time period and frequency
30. If the time period is given then frequency is calculated as: (c) distance and speed (d) frequency and speed
(a) (b) (c) (d) 20. The S.I. unit of amplitude is:
(a) sec (b) Hz (c) m (d) cm
31. Distance between two consective compressions and rarefactions of
21. If length of a pendulum is one meter on earth, then its time period
waves is called:
will be:
(a) time period (b) frequency (a) 2s (b) 10s (c) 1s (d) 6s
(c) wave length (d) focal length 22. When  = 1.0 m then the time period of simple pendulum is:
32. A wave moves on a slinky with frequency of 4Hz and wave length (a) 1.99 sec (b) 2.11 sec (c) 1.89 sec (d) 1.88 sec
of 0.4m. Its wave speed will be: 23. The relation between time, speed and distance is:
(a) 0.6ms–1 (b) 1.6ms–1 (c) 2.6ms–1 (d) 3.6ms–1
(a) (b) v = dt (c) (d)
33. The unit of frequency is:
(OR) What is the S.I unit of frequency? 24. In Simple Harmonic Motion, velocity at extreme position is:
(a) second (b) hertz (a) maximum
(c) ampere (d) newton (b) minimum
34. Kinetic energy of mass spring system is maximum at: (c) zero
(a) extreme position (b) mean position (d) sometime maximum and sometime minimum
(c) both a and b (d) none of these 25. Radio waves are:
(OR) Which waves are the radio waves?
35. Vibrating bodies produce:
(a) longitudinal waves (b) transverse waves
(a) transverse waves (b) electromagnetic waves
(c) electromagnetic waves (d) all of these
(c) compressional waves (d) radio waves.
26. When a body moves to and fro about a point, its motion is called:
36. The formula of Hooke's law is:
(a) random motion (b) vibratory motion
(a) F = –kx (b) (c) (d) (c) linear motion (d) rotatory motion
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Physics Objective _X 6 Physics Objective _X 5

5. The loudness of sound is most closely related to its: 37. If the mass of spring mass system is doubled its time period
(OR) The loudness of sound mostly depends upon: becomes:
(a) frequency (b) period (c) wavelength (d) amplitude (a) (b) (c) (d)
6. For a normal person, audible frequency range for sound wave lies
38. The spring constant is:
between
(a) (b) F = ma (c) W = mg (d)
(a) 10 Hz to 10 kHz (b) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
(c) 25 Hz to 25 kHz (d) 30 Hz to 30 kHz 39. Example of mechanical waves is:
7. When the frequency of a sound wave is increased, which of the (a) x-rays (b) light waves
following will decrease? (c) sound waves (d) radio waves
40. When water waves enter the region of shallow water their wave
i. wavelength ii. period iii. amplitude
length:
(a) i only (b) iii only
(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) i and ii only (d) i and iii only (c) becomes zero (d) remains same
8. The intensity level of train siren is:
(a) 150 dB (b) 130 dB (c) 100 dB (d) 120 dB Unit 11 Sound
9. The intensity level of rustling of leaves is: 1. Which is an example of longitudinal waves?
(a) 10 dB (b) 20 dB (c) 30 dB (d) 40 dB (a) sound wave (b) light wave
10. Sound level in dB is given by: (c) radio wave (d) water wave
2. How does sound travel from its source to your ear?
(a) (b)
(a) by changes in air pressure
(b) by vibrations in wires or strings
(c) (d)
(c) by electromagnetic waves
11. Intensity level of sound is equal to: (d) by infrared waves
3. Which form of energy is sound?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) electrical (b) mechanical (c) thermal (d) chemical
12. If speed of a sound is 320 ms–1, the distance covered in a time of 4. Astronauts in space need to communicate with each other by radio
1.5s will be: links because
(a) 331.5m (b) 333.5m (c) 480m (d) 490m (a) sound waves travel very slowly in space
13. Speed of sound in air at 25ºC is just: (b) sound waves travel very fast in space
(a) 334 ms–1 (b) 346 ms–1 (c) sound waves cannot travel in space
(c) 3 × 108 ms–1 (d) 1246 kmh–1 (d) sound waves have low frequency in space
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Physics Objective _X 8 Physics Objective _X 7

28. In general, the Speed of sound is greater in: 14. The level of noise recommended in most countries over an eight-
(a) Solids (b) Liquids (c) gases (d) none of these hour work day is usually:
29 . The Pitch of sound mostly depends on: (a) 82-90 dB (b) 83-90 dB (c) 84-90 dB (d) 85-90 dB
(a) Frequency (b) Period 9c) Wavelength (d) Amplitude 15. The speed of sound in air at 0ºC is:
30. Which organism can hear sound of frequency upto 120,000Hz : (a) 386 ms–1 (b) 376 ms–1 (c) 346 ms–1 (d) 331 ms–1
(a) Bats (b) Mice (c) Dogs (d) Cats 16. The sound level of whisper is:
31. Calculate the frequency of sound wave of speed 340m/s and (a) 10 dB (b) 30 dB (c) 40 dB (d) 70 dB
wavelength 0.5m : 17. The speed of sound in wood at 25°C in meters per second is:
(a) 340Hz (b) 0.5Hz (c) 170Hz (d) 680Hz (a) 972 (b) 1290 (c) 2000 (d) 3980
18. One bell is equal to:
Unit 12 Geometrical Optics (a) 10 dB (b) 20 dB (c) 30 dB (d) 40 dB
1. Which of the following quantities is not changed during refraction 19. The speed of sound in distilled water at 25°C is in ms–1:
(a) 7478 (b) 7488 (c) 1498 (d) 1508
of light?
20. The unit of intensity of sound is:
(a) its direction (b) its speed
(a) Wm (b) Wm–1 (c) Wm2 (d) Wm–2
(c) its frequency (d) its wavelength
21. The speed of sound in air is:
2. A converging mirror with a radius of 20 cm creates a real image (a) 1246 kmh–1 (b) 1264 kmh–1
30 cm from the mirror. What is the object distance? (c) 1462 kmh–1 (d) 21462 kmh–1
(a) –5.0 cm (b) –7.5 cm (c) –15 cm (d) –20 cm 22. Formula for finding speed of sound is:
3. An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror.
(a) v = f (b) f = v (c) (d)
The image produced by the mirror is located
(a) out beyond the centre of curvature 23. Longitudinal waves move faster through:
(b) at the centre of curvature (a) gas (b) liquid (c) solid (d) vacuum
(c) between the centre of curvature and the focal point 24. The intensity level of mosquito buzzing is:
(d) at the focal point (a) 0 dB (b) 10 dB (c) 40 dB (d) 70 dB
4. An object is 14 cm in front of a convex mirror. The image is 25. Which of these waves consist of compressions and rarefactions?
5.8cm behind the mirror. What is the focal length of the mirror? (a) radio waves (b) sound waves
(a) –4.1cm (b) –8.2 cm (c) –9.9 cm (d) –20 cm (c) television waves (d) x-rays
26. The intensity level of vacuum cleaner is:
5. The index of refraction depends on
(a) 100 dB (b) 70 dB (c) 40 dB (d) 30 dB
(a) the focal length (b) the speed of light
27. The characteristic of sound by which we can distinguish between
(c) the image distance (d) the object distance
two sound of same loudness and pitch is called:
6. Which type of image is formed by a concave lens on a screen?
(a) intensity (b) quality (c) loudness (d) pitch
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Physics Objective _X 10 Physics Objective _X 9

14. Critical angle of water is: (a) inverted and real (b) inverted and virtual
(a) 48.8° (b) 49.50° (c) 45° (d) 46° (c) upright and real (d) upright and virtual
15. The human eye has: 7. ____________ image is formed by a convex lens on a screen.
(a) convex mirror (b) concave mirror (a) inverted and real (b) inverted and virtual
(c) convex lens (d) concave lens (c) upright and real (d) upright and virtual
16. The value of refractive index of air is:
8. Which type of image is produced by the converging lens of human
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
eye if it views a distant object?
17. The change in the focal length of the eye lens is called:
(a) real, erect, same size (b) real, inverted, diminished
(a) modification (b) induction
(c) virtual, erect, diminished (d) virtual, inverted, magnified
(c) distinct vision (d) accomodation
9. Image formed on a camera is
18. The speed of light in water is approximately:
(a) real, inverted, and diminished
(a) 3.3 × 108 ms–1 (b) 2.5 × 108 ms–1
(b) virtual, upright and diminished
(c) 2.3 × 108 ms–1 (d) 2.6 × 108 ms–1
(c) virtual, upright and magnified
19. The speed of light in glass is: (d) real, inverted and magnified
(a) 2 × 108 ms–1 (b) 2.5 × 10–8 ms–1 10. If a ray of light in glass is incident on an air surface at an angle
(c) 2.5 × 108 ms–1 (d) 3 × 10–8 ms–1 greater than the critical angle, the ray will
20. The power of lens is reciprocal of: (a) refract only
(a) dioptre (b) focal length (b) reflect only
(c) focal point (d) principle focus (c) partially refract and partially reflect
21. The power of lens is equal to: (d) diffract only
11. The critical angle for a beam of light passing from water into air is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
48.8 degrees. This means that all light rays with an angle of
22. In a convex mirror, focus is: incidence greater than this angle will be
(a) under the mirror (b) in front of the mirror (a) absorbed
(c) on the mirror (d) behind the mirror (b) totally reflected
23. If p = 30 cm, q = –10 cm, then magnification will be: (c) partially reflected and partially transmitted
(d) totally transmitted
(a) (b) (c) 20 (d) 40
12. The refractive index of diamond is:
24. Conditions for total internal reflection are: (OR) Index of refraction of diamond is:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (a) 1.52 (b) 1.66 (c) 2.42 (d) 2.21
25. The formula for focal length is: 13. The refractive index of ice is:
(OR) The relation between focal length and radius of curvature is: (a) 1.52 (b) 1.31 (c) 2.42 (d) 1.33
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Physics Objective _X 12 Physics Objective _X 11

Unit 13 Electrostatics (a) (b) (c) (d)

1. A positive electric charge 26. Optical fibres work on the principle of ______________.
(a) repels other positive charge (a) reflection (b) refraction
(b) attracts other positive charge (c) total internal reflection (d) diffraction
(c) attracts a neutral charge 27. The refractive index of crown glass is:
(d) repels a neutral charge
(a) 2.42 (b) 2.21 (c) 1.66 (d) 1.52
2. An object gains excess negative charge after being rubbed against
28. Snell's law is:
another object, which is:
(a) neutral (b) negatively charged (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) positively charged (d) either a, b or c
3. Two uncharged objects A and B are rubbed against each other. 29. The refractive index is equal to:
When object B is placed near a negatively charged object C, the (a) (b) n = cv (c) (d)
two objects repel each other. Which of the following statements is
30. The mathematical equation for magnification of compound
true about object A?
microscope is:
(a) remains uncharged (b) becomes positively charged
(c) becomes negatively charged (d) unpredictable (a) (b)
4. When you rub a plastic rod against your hair several times and put
it near some bits of paper, the pieces of papers are attracted (c) (d)
towards it. What does this observation indicate?
(a) the rod and the paper are oppositely charged 31. The principal focus of a concave mirror is:
(b) the rod acquires a positive charge (a) virtual (b) real
(c) the rod and the paper have the same charges (c) both a and b (d) none of these
(d) the rod acquires a negative charge 32. If focal length of lens is 1m than its power will be:
5. According to Coulomb's law, what happens to the attraction of (a) 1 D (b) 0.5 D (c) 1.5 D (d) 2 D
33. The endoscope which is used to examine throat is called:
two oppositely charged objects as their distance of separation
(a) gastroscope (b) systoscope
increases?
(c) bronchoscope (d) none of these
(a) increases (b) decreases
34. The critical angle of glass is:
(c) remains unchanged (d) cannot be determined
(a) 42º (b) 45º (c) 90º (d) 0º
6. The Coulomb's law is valid for the charges which are
35. Light rays are reflected in a mirror, causing us to see an ________
(a) moving and point charges
image.
(b) moving and non-point charges
(a) faint (b) erect (c) slant (d) inverted
(c) stationary and point charges
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Physics Objective _X 14 Physics Objective _X 13

16. If three capacitors of 3pF, 4pF and 5pF are connected in parallel (d) stationary and large size charges
with a battery of 6V, total capacitance will be: 7. A positive and a negative charge are initially 4cm apart. When
(a) 06 pF (b) 12 pF (c) 14 pF (d) 17 pF they are moved closer together so that they are now only 1cm
17. The value of k in Coulomb's law is: apart, the force between them is
(OR) The value of k in S.I unit is: (a) 4 times smaller than before
(a) 9 × 109 Nm2 C–2 (b) 9 × 109 Nm–2 C–2 (b) 4 times larger than before
(c) 9 × 10–9 m–2 C–2 (d) 9 × 10–9 Nm2 C2 (c) 8 times larger than before
18. The S.I. unit of Coulomb constant (k) is: (d) 16 times larger than before
(a) Nm2 C–2 (b) Nm2C2 (c) Nm–2 C–2 (d) Nm–2 C2 8. Five joules of work is needed to shift 10 C of charge from one
19. Electroscope is used to detect: place to another. The potential difference between the points is
(a) current (b) voltage (c) charge (d) electrons (a) 0.5 V (b) 2 V (c) 5 V (d) 10 V
20. If 4 coulomb charge is given to the plates of a capacitor and 9. Two charged spheres are separated by 2 mm. Which of the
potential between the plates is 2 volt then its capacitance is: following would produce the greatest attractive force?
(a) 2 F (b) 4 F (c) 6 F (d) 8 F (a) +1q and +4q (b) –1q and –4q
21. To protect the gold leaves from external disturbances in an (c) +2q and +2q (d) +2q and –2q
electroscope a foil grounded is made of: 10. Electric field lines
(a) aluminium (b) silver (c) copper (d) brass (a) always cross each other
22. If 4 joule of work is done on a 2 coulomb charge against the (b) never cross each other
direction of electric field, the value of electric potential is: (c) cross each other in the region of strong field
(a) 1 volt (b) 2 volts (c) 4 volts (d) 8 volts (d) cross each other in the region of weak field
23. The electric lines of force were introduced by: 11. Capacitance is defined as:
(a) Newton (b) Einstein (c) Coulomb (d) Faraday (OR) Capacitance of any capacitor is equal to:
24. How will be the electric lines of force where electric field is (a) VC (b) Q/V (c) QV (d) V/Q
strong? 12. Capacitors are used to store:
(a) apart (b) from positive to negative (a) current (b) voltage (c) charge (d) resistance
(c) from negative to positive (d) closer 13. The S.I. unit of electric potential is:
25. The mathematical form of electric intensity "E" can be written as: (a) watt (b) joule (c) coulomb (d) volt
(OR) The formula of electric field intensity is: 14. The S.I. unit of capacitance is:
(OR) The formula of electric intensity is: (a) coulomb (b) farad (c) joule (d) watt
15. Give the number of factors which affect the ability of a capacitor
(a) E = Fqo (b) F = Eqo (c) E = (d) E =
to store charge:
26. In mica capacitor the dielectric is: (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
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Physics Objective _X 16 Physics Objective _X 15

(a) 10–3 A (b) 10–6 A (c) 10–9 A (d) 10–12 A (a) mica (b) plastic
36. The value of 1 nano farad is: (c) paper (d) aluminium
(OR) One nano farad is equal to: 27. Which device is used to store charge?
(a) 1 × 106 F (b) 1 × 10–9 F (a) resistor (b) capacitor
(c) dielectric (d) fuse
(c) 1 × 10–12 F (d) 1 × 10–6 F
28. The formula of electric potential is:
37. Combinations of capacitors are:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (a) (b) V = qW (c) (d) V = 2qW
38. Number of electrons that have 1 coloumb of charge is: 29. The S.I unit of electric field intensity is:
(a) 9.9 × 109 (b) 6.25 × 1018 (OR) The S.I. unit of electric intensity is:
(c) 1.6 × 1019 (d) 3 × 108 (a) NC (b) NC–2 (c) NC–1 (d) N2C–1
39. In parallel combination of capacitors, each capacitor will have 30. Unit of charge is:
same: (a) volt (b) coulomb
(a) voltage (b) charge (c) ampere (d) ohm
(c) capacitance (d) charge and capacitance 31. If the medium between the two charges is air, then the value of "k"
40. Capacitors can be used to differentiate between high frequency will be:
and low frequency signals. Such circuit is called: (a) 9 × 108 Nm2 C–2 (b) 9 × 10–8 Nm2 C–2
(a) series circuit (b) parallel circuit (c) 9 × 109 Nm2 C–2 (d) 9 × 10–9 Nm2 C–2
(c) filter circuit (d) none of these 32. Coulomb's law is:
41. If three capacitors having capacitance 3pF, 4pF and 5pF are
(a) (b) F = qE
connected in series combination their equivalent capacitance will be:
(a) 1.3pF (b) 2.6 pF (c) 12 pF (d) 6 pF
(c) (d)

Unit 14 Current Electricity 33. Each bolt of lightening contains the energy:
1. An electric current in conductors is due to the flow of: (a) 200 million joule energy
(a) positive ions (b) negative ions (b) 3000 million joule energy
(c) positive charges (d) free electrons (c) 1000 million joule energy
2. What is the voltage across a 6resistor when 3A of current passes (d) 400 million joule energy
through it?
34. In series combination of capacitors, each capacitor will have same:
(a) 2 V (b) 9 V (c) 18 V (d) 36 V
(a) voltage (b) charge
3. What happens to the intensity or the brightness of the lamps
connected in series as more and more lamps are added? (c) capacitance (d) charge and capacitance
35. One micro ampere is equal to:
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Physics Objective _X 18 Physics Objective _X 17

12. The value of one kilowatt hour in joules is: (a) increases (b) decreases
(a) 3.6 × 103 (b) 3.6 × 104 (c) 3.6 × 105 (d) 3.6 × 106 (c) remains the same (d) cannot be predicted
13. The unit of electric power is: 4. Why should household appliances be connected in parallel with
(a) watt (b) ampere (c) joule (d) volt the voltage source?
14. In an electric circuit when electrons move from low to high (a) to increase the resistance of the circuit
potential they will: (b) to decrease the resistance of the circuit
(a) lose energy (b) gain energy (c) to provide each appliance the same voltage as the power
(c) gain power (d) lose their identity source
15. Formula of e.m.f is equal to: (d) to provide each appliance the same current as the power
source
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5. Electric potential and e.m.f
16. Electrical energy is given by: (a) are the same terms (b) are the different terms
(a) QR (b) QV (c) QC (d) Qt (c) have different units (d) both (b) and (c)
17. One watt is equal to: 6. When we double the voltage in a simple electric circuit, we double
(a) Js (b) Js–1 (c) J2s (d) sJ–1 the
18. An ideal voltmeter has a resistance: (a) current (b) power
(a) very low (b) very high (c) nothing (d) low (c) resistance (d) both (a) and (b)
19. S.I unit of resistance is: 7. If we double both the current and the voltage in a circuit while
(a) volt (b) ampere (c) ohm (d) joule keeping its resistance constant, the power
20. If emf of a battery is 2V, the energy supplied by battery is (a) remains unchanged (b) halves
__________, when one coulomb of charge flows through the (c) doubles (d) four times
closed circuit. 8. What is the power rating of a lamp connected to a 12 V source
(a) 5 joules (b) 4 joules (c) 2.8 joules (d) 2 joules when it carries 2.5 A?
21. The rate of flow of charges is called: (a) 4.8 W (b) 14.5 W (c) 30 W (d) 60 W
(a) current (b) volt (c) ohm (d) coulomb 9. Two combined resistance of two identical resistors, connected in
22. The unit of electric current is: series is 8. Their combined resistance in a parallel arrangement
(a) coulomb (b) joule (c) ampere (d) watt will be
23. The formula to find the magnitude of current is: (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 12
(a) (b) I = QV (c) I = CV (d) 10. The electric power of washing machine in watt is:
(a) 50 (b) 750 (c) 100 (d) 800
24. The mathematical form of Ohm's law is: 11. 1 kWh is equal to:
(a) V = I/R (b) V = R/I (c) V = IR (d) V = m/v (a) 3.6 MJ (b) 3.6 KJ (c) 3.6 J–1 (d) 3.6 J
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Physics Objective _X 20 Physics Objective _X 19

6. Which part of a D.C motor reverses the direction of current 25. One milli-ampere is equal to:
through the coil every half-cycle? (a) 10–3 A (b) 10–6 A (c) 10–9 A (d) 10–12 A
(a) the armature (b) the commutator 26. The S.I unit of emf is:
(c) the brushes (d) the slip rings (a) NC–1 (b) NC (c) CJ (d) JC–1
7. The direction of induced e.m.f. in a circuit is in accordance with
conservation of Unit 15 Electromagnetism
(a) mass (b) charge 1. Which statement is true about the magnetic poles?
(d) momentum (d) energy (a) unlike poles repel
8. The step-up transformer (b) like poles attract
(a) increases the input current (c) magnetic poles do not effect each other
(b) increases the input voltage (d) a single magnetic pole does not exist
2. What is the direction of the magnetic field lines inside a bar
(c) has more turns in the primary
magnet?
(d) has less turns in the secondary coil
(a) from north pole to south pole
9. The turn ratio of a transformer is 10. It means
(b) from south pole to north pole
(a) IS = 10 IP (b) NS = NP/10 (c) NS = 10 NP (d) VS = VP/10
(c) from side to side
10. Which thing works on the principle of electromagnetic induction
in hydroelectric power house? (d) there are no magnetic field lines
(a) motor (b) generator 3. The presence of a magnetic field can be detected by a
(c) galvanic cell (d) voltaic cell (a) small mass
11. Transformer is used to change the value of: (b) stationary positive charge
(a) charge (b) energy (c) power (d) voltage (c) stationary negative charge
12. A device which is used to increase or decrease the AC voltage:
(d) magnetic compass
(a) transformer (b) motor
(c) generator (d) voltmeter 4. If the current in a wire which is placed perpendicular to a
13. In D.C motor, coil can rotate in magnetic field by an angle of: magnetic field increases, the force on the wire
(a) 30º (b) 60º (c) 45º (d) 90º (a) increases (b) decreases
14. On which principle induced e.m.f is produced in the secondary (c) remains the same (d) will be zero
coil? 5. A D.C motor converts
(a) mutual induction (b) self induction
(a) mechanical energy into electrical energy
(c) electric induction (d) induced current
(b) mechanical energy into chemical energy
15. Turn ratio in a transformer is 1 : 100. It means that:
(c) electrical energy into mechanical energy
(a) (b) (d) electrical energy into chemical energy
 11
Physics Objective _X 22 Physics Objective _X 21

Unit 16 Basic Electronics (c) (d)

1. The process by which electrons are emitted by a hot metal surface 16. In a vacuum all electromagnetic waves have the same:
is known as: (a) frequency (b) speed
(a) boiling (b) evaporation (c) amplitude (d) wavelength
(c) conduction (d) thermionic emission 17. Michael Faraday belonged to:
(a) Britain (b) U.S.A (c) Saudia (d) Russia
2. When we heat the metal at high temperature they emit:
18. Laws of electromagnetic induction and electrolysis were presented
(a) holes (b) protons
by:
(c) neutrons (d) electrons (a) Simon Ohm (b) George Coulomb
3. The particles emitted from a hot cathode surface are: (c) Newton (d) Michael Faraday
(a) positive ions (b) negative ions 19. The transformer works on:
(c) protons (d) electorns (a) principle of mutual induction
4. The logical operation performed by this gate is: (b) principle of D.C motor
(OR) This symbol is of the gate? (c) principle of A.C genertor
(d) principle of self induction
20. The study of magnetic effects of current is called:
(a) magnetism (b) electro magnetism
(a) AND (b) NOR (c) NAND (d) OR (c) electric capacity (d) electricity
5. AND gate can be formed by using two
21. Which device is based on the principle of electromagnetism?
(a) NOT gates (b) OR gates
(a) electric motor (b) T.V
(c) NOR gates (d) NAND gates
(c) CD (d) mobile phone
6. The output of a two-input NOR gate is 1 when:
22. It blocks DC current but allows AC current to pass through the
(a) A is '1'and B is '0' (b) A is '0' and B is '1'
circuit:
(c) both A and B are '0' (d) both A and B are '1'
(a) capacitor (b) resistor
7. If x = A.B then X is 1 when:
(c) thermometer (d) specific resistance
(a) A and B are 1 (b) A or B = 0
(c) A is 0 and B is 1 (d) A is 1 and B is 0 23. The application of mutual induction is :
8. If X = A.B then X = 0 when (a) A.C. generator (b) D.C. motor (c) Transformer (d) Relay
(a) A = 0 , B = 0 (b) A = 0 , B = 1 24. Michael Faraday discovered :
(c) A = 1 , B = 0 (d) all of these (a) Principle of electromagnetic induction (b) Laws of electrolysis
9. The output of a NAND gate is '0' when (c) Both A & B (d) none of these
 12
Physics Objective _X 24 Physics Objective _X 23

(a) X = A + B (b) X = A . B (a) both of its inputs are '0' (b) both of its inputs are '1'
(c) X = (d) X = (c) any of its inputs is '0' (d) any of its inputs is '1'
21. If X = A + B then X = 0 when 10. Number of input terminals in NOT gate is:
(a) A = 0, B = 0 (b) A = 1, B = 1 (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(c) A = 0, B = 1 (d) A = 1, B = 0 11. In tungsten filament, the potential given to produce the beam of
22. The deflecting plate is a component: electron by 'Thermionic Emission' is:
(a) Radio (b) C.R.O (d) Fluorescent Tube (d) Computer (a) 6 V (b) 7 V (c) 8 V (d) 9 V

Unit 17
Information and Communication 12. The cathode ray oscilloscope consists of main parts:
Technology (a) two (b) three (c) four (d) five
13. The output of OR gate will be "0" when:
1. In computer terminology information means
(a) A = 0 and B = 0 (b) A = 1 and B = 1
(a) any data (b) raw data
(c) A = 0 and B = l (d) A = l and B = 0
(c) processed data (d) large data
14. The basic logic operation of NOT gate is called:
2. Which is the most suitable means of reliable continuous
(a) inversion
communication between an orbiting satellite and Earth?
(b) non-inversion
(a) micro waves (b) radio waves
(c) inversion and non-inversion both
(c) sound waves (d) any light wave
(d) none of these
3. The basic operations performed by a computer are
15. George Boolean invented:
(a) arithmetic operations (b) non-arithmetic operations
(a) arithmetic algebra (b) Boolean algebra
(c) logical operations (d) both (a) and (c)
(c) mean algebra (d) geometry
4. The brain of any computer system is: 16. The screen of a cathode ray tube consists of material called:
(a) monitor (b) memory (c) CPU (d) control unit (a) zinc (b) iron (c) phosphorus (d) glass
5. Which of the following is not processing? 17. In C.R.O the potential of grid is:
(a) arranging (b) manipulating
(a) positive (b) negative (c) neutral (d) zero
(c) calculating (d) gathering
18. Cathode rays have a charge:
6. From which of the following you can get information almost about
(a) positive (b) negative
everything.
(c) neutral (d) both a, b
(a) book (b) teacher (c) computer (d) internet
19. The equation of NOT operation is:
7. What does the term e-mail stand for?
(a) emergency mail (b) electronic mail (a) X = A . B (b) X = A + B
(c) extra mail (d) external mail (c) X = A – B (d) X =
8. A mega byte has how many kilo bytes? 20. Equation of AND operation is:
 13
Physics Objective _X 26 Physics Objective _X 25

(c) compressional waves (d) longitudinal waves (a) 1004 (b) 1014 (c) 1024 (d) 1034
22. Radio technology is used in: 9. 1 KB = ?
(a) fax machine (b) telephone (a) 1024 Bytes (b) 1024 KB (c) 1024 MB (d) none of these
(c) cell phone (d) micro phone 10. One Byte is equal to:
(a) 4 bits (b) 6 bits (c) 8 bits (d) 10 bits
23. A typical floppy disk has a storage capacity between:
11. In computer terminology the term machinery refers to:
(a) 1-3 MB (b) 2-3 MB (c) 3-5 MB (d) 6-10 MB
(a) software (b) hardware (c) data (d) procedure
24. Example of primary memory is:
12. Radiowaves are used in:
(a) random access memory (RAM) (b) hard disk (a) radio (b) T.V
(c) floppy disc (d) audio cassete (c) mobile phone (d) all of these
25. Telephone system has parts: 13. 1024 kilobytes are equal to:
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (a) 1PB (b) 1TB (c) 1GB (d) 1MB
26. Information storages devices working on different principles use: 14. The computer-based information system (CBIS) is formed by:
(a) electronics (b) magnetism (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6
(c) laser technology (d) all of these 15. Which is not a hardware device?
27. CD stand for: (a) CPU (b) window (c) key board (d) mouse
(a) computer disk (b) chemical disc 16. If CD is made of soft elastic material then it is called:
(c) compact disk (d) all of these (a) hard disc (b) floppy disc
28. Alexander Graham Bell in 1876 made: (c) compact disc (d) metallic disc
(a) machine (b) computer (c) telephone (d) cell 17. With broadband information can be loaded:
29. The first radio signal transmitted through air by: (a) in 1 min (b) in 1s
(a) Marconi (b) Newton (c) Coulomb (d) Fleming (c) in 1 day (d) in 2 days
30. One giga bytes data equals: 18. The technology used in cell phone or mobile phone is:
(a) 1024 KB (b) 1024 MB (a) computer (b) radar
(c) 1000 KB (d) 1024 Bytes (c) radio (d) satellite
31. Which of these is not web browser? 19. Telephone was first invented in:
(a) chrome (b) you tube (a) 1676 (b) 1776 (c) 1876 (d) 1976
(c) mozilla fire fox (d) safari 20. It is a device used to transport files from one computer to another.
32. Working principle of telephone is similar to: (a) compact disc (b) laser
(a) type writer (b) e-mail (c) computer (d) telegraph (c) flash drive (d) printer
33. Fax machine is also called : 21. Radio waves are:
(a) Radio (b) Computer (c) Tele fassimile machine (d) Telephone (a) mechanical waves (b) electromagnetic waves
 14
Physics Objective _X 28 Physics Objective _X 27

(a) nuclear fission (b) nuclear fusion

Unit 18 Atomic and Nuclear Physics
(c) burning of gases (d) chemical reaction
1. Isotopes are atoms of same element with different
9. When a heavy nucleus splits into two lighter nuclei, the process
(a) atomic mass (b) atomic number
would (c) number of protons (d) number of electrons
(a) release nuclear energy 2. One of the isotopes of uranium is . The number of neutrons
(b) absorb nuclear energy
in this isotope is
(c) release chemical energy
(a) 92 (b) 146 (c) 238 (d) 330
(d) absorb chemical energy
3. Which among the following radiations has more penetrating
10. The carbon-dating works on the principle of:
power?
(a) plants and animals are such strong emitters of carbon-14 (a) beta particles
(b) after a plant or animal dies, it stops taking in fresh carbon-14 (b) gamma rays
(c) there is so much non-radioactive carbon dioxide in the air (c) alpha particles
(d) when plants or animals die, they absorb fresh carbon-14 (d) all have the same penetrating ability
11. The half life of plutonium in years is: 4. What happens to the atomic number of an element which emits a
(a) 0.85 (b) 1.85 (c) 2.85 (d) 3.85 beta particle?
12. To diagnose the brain tumour, it is used: (a) increases by 1 (b) stays the same
(a) iodine-131 (b) phosphorus-32 (c) decreases by 2 (d) decreases by 1
(c) cobalt-60 (d) carbon-14 5. The half-life of a certain isotope is 1 day. What is the quantity of
13. Atomic mass number can be found by relation: the isotope after 2 days?

(a) Z – A (b) A + N (c) Z + N (d) Z + A (a) one-half (b) one-quarter

(c) one-eighth (d) none of these
14. The proton is heavier then an electron:
6. When Uranium (92 protons) ejects a beta particle, how many
(a) 1836 (b) 1863 (c) 1870 (d) 1800
protons are left in the remaining nucleus?
15. Safe limit of radiation exposure in one year is:
(a) 90 protons (b) 91 protons (c) 92 protons (d) 93 protons
(a) 3 rem (b) 4 rem (c) 5 rem (d) 6 rem
7. In , 92 is the number of:
16. Generally an element is represented by the symbol:
(a) protons (b) neutrons
(a) X (b) (c) (d)
(c) protons and neutrons (d) neutrons and electrons
17. The half life of iodine isotope in days is:
(a) 5.07 (b) 6.07 (c) 7.07 (d) 8.07 8. Release of energy by the sun is due to:
 15
Physics Objective _X 30 Physics Objective _X 29

8. b 9. c 10. b 11. c 12. d 13. c 14. c 18. The half life of lead is:
(a) 10.6 hours (b) 10.4 hours
15. b 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. c 21. a
(c) 10.2 hours (d) 10.00 hours
22. a 23. c 24. c 25. c 26. b 27. b 28. a 19. The isotopes of hydrogen in number are:
29. c 30. a 31. c 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. c (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
36. a 37. a 38. a 39. c 40. a 20. The half life of carbon-14 is:
(a) 1646 years (b) 5730 years
Unit No. 11
(c) 5000 years (d) 1900 years
1. a 2. a 3. b 4. c 5. d 6. b 7. c
21. The rays used during brain radiotherapy are:
8. d 9. a 10. a 11. a 12. c 13. b 14. d (a) alpha rays (b) beta rays
15. d 16. b 17. c 18. a 19. c 20. d 21. a (c) gamma rays (d) x rays
22. The nuclear fission observed by:
22. a 23. c 24. c 25. b 26. b 27. b 28. a
(a) Strassman (b) Einstein
29. a 30. a 31. d
(c) Snell (d) Newton
23. Particles in the nucleus of an atom is:
Unit No. 12 (a) protons and electrons (b) protons
1. c 2. c 3. b 4. c 5. b 6. d 7. a (c) protons and neutrons (d) electrons and neutrons
24. In Tritium, the number of neutrons are:
8. b 9. a 10. b 11. b 12. c 13. b 14. a
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
15. c 16. a 17. d 18. c 19. a 20. b 21. a 25. Alpha () particles have charge:
22. d 23. a 24. a 25. a 26. c 27. d 28. a (a) negative (b) neutral (c) positive (d) none of these
29. a 30. d 31. b 32. a 33. c 34. a 35. d
26. The half life of radiam – 226 is:
(a) 4000 years (b) 2800 years
Unit No. 13
(c) 1620 years (d) 5730 years
1. a 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. b 6. c 7. d 27. Atomic number is denoted by a symbol:
8. a 9. d 10. b 11. b 12. c 13. d 14. b (a) Z (b) A (c) (d) N
15. a 16. b 17. a 18. a 19. c 20. a 21. a
28. Half life of hydrogen is:
(a) 12.3 years (b) 5730 years (c) 30 years (d) 2.85 years
22. b 23. d 24. d 25. d 26. a 27. b 28. a
SOLUTION
29. c 30. b 31. a 32. c 33. c 34. b 35. b Unit No. 10
36. b 37. a 38. b 39. a 40. c 41. a 1. a 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. d 7. a
Unit No. 14
 16
Physics Objective _X 32 Physics Objective _X 31

22. a 23. c 24. b 25. c 26. c 27. a 28. a

 1. d 2. c 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. d

8. c 9. a 10. b 11. a 12. d 13. a 14. a

15. c 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. c 20. d 21. a

22. c 23. a 24. c 25. a 26. d

Unit No. 15
1. d 2. b 3. d 4. a 5. c 6. b 7. d

8. b 9. c 10. b 11. d 12. a 13. d 14. a

15. c 16. b 17. a 18. d 19. a 20. b 21. a

22. a 23. c 24. c

Unit No. 16
1. d 2. d 3. d 4. c 5. c 6. c 7. a

8. d 9. b 10. a 11. a 12. b 13. a 14. a

15. b 16. c 17. b 18. b 19. d 20. d 21. a

22. b

Unit No. 17
1. c 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. b 6. d 7. b

8. c 9. a 10. c 11. b 12. d 13. d 14. c

15. b 16. b 17. b 18. c 19. c 20. c 21. b

22. c 23. a 24. a 25. a 26. d 27. c 28. c

29. a 30. b 31. b 32. d 33. c

Unit No. 18
1. a 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. b 6. d 7. b

8. b 9. a 10. b 11. c 12. b 13. c 14. a

15. c 16. b 17. d 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. c