JEE Main

Sample Test – VII

Section – I – Physics
Question 1: For plane electromagnetic waves propagating in the z direction, which one of the
following combination gives the correct possible direction for E and B field respectively?
Options:
( ) ( )
(a) 2iˆ + 3 ˆj and iˆ + 2 ˆj

(b) ( −2iˆ − 3 ˆj ) and ( 3iˆ − 2 ˆj )

(c) ( 3iˆ + 4 ˆj ) and ( 4iˆ − 3 ˆj )

(d) ( iˆ + 2 ˆj ) and ( 2iˆ − ˆj )

Question 2: A particle is moving in a circle of radius r under the action of a force F =  r 2 which
is directed towards centre of the circle. Total mechanical energy (kinetic energy + potential energy)
of the particle is (taking potential energy = 0 for r = 0):
Options:
1
(a)  r 3
2
5
(b)  r 3
6
4
(c)  r 3
3
(d)  r3

Question 3: A source of sound emits sound waves at frequency f 0 . It is moving towards an

observer with fixed speed vs ( vs  v , where v is the speed of sound in air). If the observer were
to move towards the source with speed v0 , one of the following two graphs (A and B) will given
the correct variation of the frequency f heard by the observer as v0 is changed.

1
The variation of f with v0 is given correctly by:
Options:
f0
(a) graph A with slope =
( v + vs )
f0
(b) graph B with slope =
( v − vs )
f0
(c) graph A with slope =
( v − vs )
f0
(d) graph B with slope =
( v + vs )

Question 4: A particle of mass 2 kg is on a smooth horizontal table and moves in a circular path
of radius 0.6 m. The height of the table from the ground is 0.8 m. If the angular speed of the particle
is 12rads−1 , the magnitude of its angular momentum about a point on the ground right under the
centre of the circle is:
Options:
(a) 14.4kg m2 s−1
(b) 8.64kg m2 s−1
(c) 20.16kg m2 s−1
(d) 11.52kg m2 s−1

Question 5: A vector A is rotated by a small angle  radians (   1) to get a new vector B

. In that case B − A is:

2
Options:
(a) A 

(b) B  − A

  2 
(c) A 1 − 
 2 
(d) 0

Question 6: A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration at time t = 0 is 5ms−2 which varies with
time as shown in Fig.. The maximum speed of the particle will be

Options:
(a) 7.5ms−1
(b) 15ms−1
(c) 30ms−1
(d) 75ms−1

Question 7: For the LCR circuit, shown here, the current is observed to lead the applied voltage.
An additional capacitor C ' , when joined with the capacitor C present in the circuit, makes the
power factor of the circuit unity. The capacitor C ' , must have been connected in:

Options:
C
(a) series with C and has a magnitude
( 2 LC −1)
1 −  2 LC
(b) series with C and has a magnitude
2L

3
 1 −  2 LC
(c) parallel with C and has a magnitude
2L
C
(d) parallel with C and has a magnitude
( LC −1)
2

Question 8: Two long straight parallel wires, carrying (adjustable) current I1 and I 2 are kept at a
distance d apart. If the force ‘F’ between the two wires is taken as ‘positive’ when the wires repel
each other and ‘negative’ when the wires attract each other, the graph showing the dependence of
‘F’, on the product I1I2 would be:
Options:
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

4
Question 9: A pendulum with time period of 1s is losing energy due to damping. At certain time
its energy is 45 J. If after completing 15 oscillations, its energy has become 15 J, its damping
( )
constant in s−1 is:
Options:
1
(a)
2
1
(b) n3
30
(c) 2
1
(d) n3
15

Question 10: A wire, of length L (= 20 cm), is bent into a semicircular arc. If the two equal halves,
of the arc, were each to be uniformly charged with charges Q, [ Q = 103  0 . Coulomb where  0
is the permittivity (in SI units) of free space] the net electric field at the centre O of the semicircular
arc would be:

Options:
( )
(a) 50 103 N / C ˆj
(b) ( 50 10 N / C ) iˆ
3

(c) ( 25 10 N / C ) ˆj
3

(d) ( 25 10 N / C ) iˆ
3

Question 11: In figure is shown a system of four capacitors connected across a 10 V battery.
Charge that will flow from switch S when it is closed is:

Options:
(a) 5 C from b to a

5
(b) 20 C from a to b
(c) zero
(d) 5μC from a to b

Question 12: A 2V battery is connected across AB as shown is the figure. The value of the current
supplied by the battery when in one case battery’s positive terminal is connected to A and in other
case when positive terminal of battery is connected to B will respectively be:

Options:
(a) 0.4 A and 0.2 A
(b) 0.2 A and 0.4 A
(c) 0.1 A and 0.2 A
(d) 0.2 A and 0.1 A

Question 13: A cylindrical block of wood (density = 650 kg m−3 ), of base area 30cm2 and height
54 cm, floats in a liquid of density 900kg m−3 . The block is depressed slightly and then released.
The time period of the resulting oscillations of the block would be equal to that of a simple
pendulum of length (nearly):
Options:
(a) 52 cm
(b) 65 cm
(c) 39 cm
(d) 26 cm

Question 14: The value of the resistor, Rs , needed in the dc voltage regulator circuit shown here,
equals:

Options:

6
(a)
(Vi − VL )
( n + 1) I L
(b)
(Vi + VL )
( n + 1) I L
(c)
(Vi − VL )
nI L

(d)
(Vi + VL )
nI L

Question 15: A small spherical ball of radius r falls freely under gravity through a distance h
before entering a tank of water. If, after entering the water, the velocity of the ball does not change,
then h is proportional to
Options:
(a) r 2
(b) r 3
(c) r 4
(d) r 5

Question 16: Which of the following most closely depicts the correct variation of the gravitation
potential V(r) due to a large planet of radius R and uniform mass density?
(figures are not drawn to scale)
Options:
(a)

(b)

(c)

7
(d)

Question 17: In a Young’s double slit experiment with light of wavelength  the separation of
slits is d and distance of screen is D such that D  d   . If the fringe width is  , the distance
from point of maximum intensity to the point where intensity falls to half of maximum intensity
on either side is:
Options:

(a)
6

(b)
3

(c)
4

(d)
2

Question 18: Let N B be the number of  particles emitted by 1 gram of Na24 radioactive nuclei
(half-life = 15 hrs) in 7.5 hours, N  is close to (Avogadro number = 6.0231023 /g.mole):
Options:
(a) 6.2 1021
(b) 7.5 1021
(c) 1.25 1022
(d) 1.75 1022

Question 19: A short bar magnet is placed in the magnetic meridian of the earth with north pole
pointing north. Neutral points are found at a distance of 30 cm from the magnet on the East-West

8
line, drawn through the middle point of the magnet. The magnetic moment of the magnet is Am2
is close to:
0
(Given = 10−7 in SI units and BH = Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field
4
= 3.6 10−5 Tesla)
Options:
(a) 14.6
(b) 19.4
(c) 9.7
(d) 4.9

Question 20: An experiment take 10 minutes to raise the temperature of water in a container from
0C to 100C and another 55 minutes to convert it totally into steam by a heater supplying heat
at a uniform rate. Neglecting the specific heat of the container and taking specific heat of water to
be 1cal / g C, the heat of vapourization according to this experiment will come out to be:
Options:
(a) 560 cal/g
(b) 550 cal/g
(c) 540 cal/g
(d) 530 cal/g

Question 21: A thin convex lens of focal length ‘f ’ is put on a plane mirror as shown in the figure.
When an object is kept at a distance ‘a’ from the lens– mirror combination, its image is formed at
a
a distance in front of the combination. The value of ‘a’ is:
3

Options:
(a) 3 f
3
(b) f
2
(c) f
(d) 2 f

9
Question 22: A beaker contains a fluid of density  kg/m3 , specific heat SJ/kgC and viscosity
 . The beaker is filled upto height h. To estimate the rate of heat transfer per unit area (Q/A) by
convection when beaker is put on a hot plate, a student proposes that is should depend on  ,
 S    1 
  and   when  ( in C) is the difference in the temperature between the bottom and
 h   g 
top of the fluid. In that situation the correct option for (Q/ A) is:
Options:
 S    1 
(a)    
 h  g 
 S    1 
(b)   
  h   g 
S 
(c)
h
S 
(d) 
h

Question 23: The AC voltage across a resistance can be measured using a:

Options:
(a) hot wire voltmeter
(b) moving coil galvanometer
(c) potential coil galvanometer
(d) moving magnet galvanometer

Question 24: Unpolarized light of intensity I 0 is incident on surface of a block of glass at

Brewster’s angle. In that case, which one of the following statements is true?
Options:
I
(a) reflected light is completely polarized with intensity less than 0
2
I
(b) transmitted light is completely polarized with intensity less than 0
2
I
(c) transmitted light is partially polarized with intensity 0
2
I
(d) reflected light is partially polarized with intensity 0
2

( )
Question 25: An electric field E = 25iˆ + 30 ˆj NC −1 exists in a region of space. If the potential at
the origin is taken to be zero then the potential at x = 2m, y = 2 m is:

10
Options:
(a) −110J
(b) −140J
(c) −120J
(d) −130J

Question 26: In the electric network shown, when no current flows through the 4 resistor in the
arm EB, the potential difference between the points A and D will be:

Options:
(a) 6 V
(b) 3 V
(c) 5 V
(d) 4 V

( )
Question 27: Using equipartition of energy, the specific heat in J kg−1K−1 of aluminium at room
temperature can be estimated to be (atomic weight of aluminium = 27)
Options:
(a) 410
(b) 25
(c) 1850
(d) 925

bx
Question 28: A uniform thin rod AB of length L has linear mass density  ( x ) = a + , where
L
7
x is measured from A. If the CM of the rod lies at a distance of   L from A, then a and b are
 12 
related as :
Options:
(a) a = 2b
(b) 2a = b
(c) a = b
(d) 3a = 2b

11
Question 29: A large number (n) of identical beads, each of mass m and radius r are strung on a
thin smooth rigid horizontal rod of length L ( L  r ) and are at rest at random positions. The rod
is mounted between two rigid supports (see figure). If one of the beads is now given a speed v, the
average force experienced by each support after a long time is (assume all collisions are elastic):

Options:
mv 2
(a)
2 ( L − nr )
mv2
(b)
L − 2nr
mv2
(c)
L − nr
(d) zero

Question 30: The de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electron in the n = 4 level is:
Options:
1
(a) th of the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in the ground state.
4
(b) four times the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in the ground state.
(c) two times the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in the ground state.
(d) half of the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in the ground state.

Section – II – Chemistry
Question 1: What is the major product expected from the following reaction?

Where D is an isotope of Hydrogen.

12
Options:
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Question 2: Which physical property of dihydrogen is wrong?

Options:
(a) Odourless gas
(b) Tasteless gas
(c) Colourless gas
(d) Non-inflammable gas

Question 3: Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing first ionization
enthalpy for Ca, Ba, S, Se and Ar?
Options:
(a) S < Se < Ca < Ba < Ar
(b) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar
(c) Ca < Ba < S < Se < Ar
(d) Ca < S < Ba < Se < Ar

13
Question 4: The number of structural isomers for C6 H14 is:
Options:
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 5

Question 5: When concentrated HCl is added to an aqueous solution of CoCl2 , its colour changes
from reddish pink to deep blue. Which complex ion gives blue colour in this reaction?
Options:
(a) CoCl4 
2−

(b) CoCl6 
3−

(c) CoCl6 
4−

2+
(d) Co ( H 2O )6 

Question 6: Under ambient conditions, which among the following surfactants will form micelles
in aqueous solution at lowest molar concentration?
Options:
(a) CH3 − ( CH2 )8 − COO− Na+
( +)
(b) CH3 ( CH 2 )11 N ( CH3 )3 Br −
(c) CH3 − ( CH2 )13 − OSO3− Na+
( +)
(d) CH3 ( CH 2 )15 N ( CH3 )3 Br −

Question 7: Match the organic compounds in column-I with the Lassaigne’s test results in column-
II appropriately:

Options:
(a) A– (ii); B– (iii); C– (i)
(b) A– (iii); B– (i); C– (ii)
(c) A– (iii); B– (ii); C– (i)
(d) A– (ii); B– (i); C– (iii)

14
Question 8: The increase of pressure on ice ⇌ water system at constant temperature will lead to:
Options:
(a) a decrease in the entropy of the system
(b) an increase in the Gibbs energy of the system
(c) no effects on the equilibrium
(d) a shift of the equilibrium in the forward direction

Question 9: Accumulation of which of the following molecules in the muscles occurs as a result
of vigorous exercise?
Options:
(a) Glycogen
(b) Glucose
(c) Pyruvic acid
(d) L-lactic acid

Question 10: Which of the alkaline earth metal halides given below is essentially covalent in
nature?
Options:
(a) SrCl2
(b) CaCl2
(c) BaCl2
(d) MgCl2

Question 11: Which of the following exists as covalent crystals in the solid state?
Options:
(a) Silicon
(b) Sulphur
(c) Phosphorous
(d) Iodine

Question 12: At 298 K, the standard reduction potentials are 1.51 V for
MnO4− Mn2+ ,1.36Vfor Cl2 Cl − ,1.07 V for Br2 Br,and 0.54Vfor I 2 I − . At pH = 3,
permanganate is expected to oxidize:
 RT 
 = 0.059V 
 F 
Options:
(a) Cl − , Br − and I −
(b) Br − and I −

15
(c) Cl − and Br −
(d) I − only

Question 13: Calamine is an ore of:

Options:
(a) Zinc
(b) Aluminium
(c) Iron
(d) Cooper

Question 14: Which one of the following structures represents the neoprene polymer?
Options:
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Question 15: When does a gas deviate the most from its ideal behavior?
Options:
(a) At low pressure and low temperature
(b) At low pressure and high temperature
(c) At high pressure and low temperature
(d) At high pressure and high temperature

Question 16: An organic compound A upon reacting with NH3 gives B. On heating B gives C. C
in presence of KOH reacts with Br2 to give CH3CH2 NH2 . A is
Options:
(a) CH3CH2CH2COOH

16
(b) H3C − CH − COOH
|
CH3

(c) CH3CH2COOH
(d) CH3COOH

Question 17: Addition of phosphate fertilisers to water bodies causes:

Options:
(a) increase in amount of dissolved oxygen in water
(b) deposition of calcium phosphate
(c) increase in fish population
(d) enhanced growth of algae

3
Question 18: At temperature T, the average kinetic energy of any particle KT . The de Broglie
2
wavelength follows the order:
Options:
(a) Visible photon > Thermal neutron > Thermal electron
(b) Thermal proton > Thermal electron > Visible photon
(c) Thermal proton > Visible photon > Thermal electron
(d) Visible photon > Thermal electron > Thermal neutron

Question 19: The H and S for a reaction at one atmospheric pressure are +30.558 kJ and
0.066kJk −1 respectively. The temperature at which the free energy change will be zero and below
of this temperature the nature of reaction would be
Options:
(a) 483 K, spontaneous
(b) 443 K, spontaneous
(c) 463 K, spontaneous
(d) 463 K, non-spontaneous

Question 20: For the equilibrium, A ( g ) ⇌ B ( g ) , H is −40kJ/mol . If the ratio of the activation

energies of the forward ( E f ) and reverse ( Eb ) reactions is

2
then:
3
Options:
(a) E f = 80kJ/mol; Eb = 120kJ/mol
(b) E f = 60kJ/mol; Eb = 100kJ/mol
(c) E f = 30kJ/mol; Eb = 70kJ/mol

17
(d) E f = 70kJ/mol; Eb = 30kJ/mol

Question 21: Chlorine water on standing loses its colour and forms:
Options:
(a) HCl only
(b) HCl and HClO2
(c) HCl and HOCl
(d) HOCl and HOCl2

Question 22: Determination of the molar mass of acetic acid in benzene using freezing point
depression is affected by:
Options:
(a) partial ionization
(b) dissociation
(c) complex formation
(d) association

Question 23: A + 3B + 3C ⇌ AB2C3

Reaction of 6.0 g of A, 6.0 1023 atoms of B, & 0.036 mol of C yields 4.8 of compound AB2C3 .
If the atomic mass of A and C are 60 and 80 amu, respectively, the atomic mass of B is (Avogadro
no. = 6 1023 ) :
Options:
(a) 50 amu
(b) 60 amu
(c) 70 amu
(d) 40 amu

Question 24: Which one of the following is an incorrect statement for physisorption
Options:
(a) It is a reversible process
(b) It requires less heat of adsorption
(c) It requires activation energy
(d) It takes place at low temperature

Question 25: Which of the following compound has a P-P bond?

Options:
(a) H4 P2O5
(b) ( HPO3 )3

18
(c) H4 P2O6
(d) H4 P2O7

Question 26: The following reaction

is known as
Options:
(a) Perkin reaction
(b) Gattermann reaction
(c) Kolbe reaction
(d) Gattermann-Koch reaction

Question 27: In a set of reactions m-bromobenzoic acid gave a product D. Identify the product D

Options:
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

19
Question 28: Which of the following statements is false?
Options:
(a) Na2Cr2O7 is less soluble than K2Cr2O7
(b) Na2Cr2O7 is primary standard in volumetry
(c) CrO42− is tetrahedral in shape
(d) CrO72− has a Cr-O-Cr bond

−

Question 29: In the reaction sequence 2CH3CHO ⎯⎯⎯
OH
→ A ⎯⎯ → B ; the product B is:
Options:
(a) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − OH
(b) CH3 − CH = CH − CHO
(c) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH3
(d)

Question 30: A pink coloured salt turns blue on heating. The presence of which cation is most
likely?
Options:
(a) Co2+
(b) Cu2+
(c) Zn2+
(d) Fe2+

Section – III – Mathematics

8
 1  1
Question 1: The term independent of x in the binomial expansion of 1 − + 3x5  2 x2 −  is:
 x  x
Options:

20
(a) 496
(b) −496
(c) 400
(d) −400

 ( e x − 1)
2

 , x0
  x  x
Question 2: Let k be a non-zero real number. If f ( x ) =  sin   log 1 +  is
 k   4
 x=0
 12,
continuous function, then the value of k is :
Options:
(a) 4
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 2

Question 3: A value of b for which the equations x2 + bx −1 = 0, x2 + x + b = 0 , have one root in

common is
Options:
(a) − 2
(b) −i 3
(c) i 5
(d) 2

x tan 2 x − 2 x tan x
Question 4: lim is
(1 − cos 2 x )
x →0 2

Options:
(a) 2
(b) −2
(c) 1/2
(d) −1/ 2

Question 5: In a series of 2n observations, half of them equal a and remaining half equal −a . If
the standard deviation of the observations is 2, then a equals
Options:
(a) 2
(b) 2

21
 1
(c)
n
2
(d)
n

Question 6: Let k and K be the minimum and the maximum values of the function
(1 + x )
0.6

f ( x) = in [0, 1] respectively, then the ordered pair (k, K) is equal to:

1 + x0.6
Options:
(a) ( 2−0.4 ,1)

( )
(b) 2−0.4 , 20.6
(c) ( 2 ,1)
−0.6

(d) (1, 2 ) 0.6

3 1
Question 7: If cos  + cos  = and sin  + sin  = and  is the arithmetic mean of  and 
2 2
, then sin 2 + cos2 is equal to
Options:
3
(a)
5
7
(b)
5
4
(c)
5
8
(d)
5

Question 8: Let PQ be a double ordinate of the parabola, y 2 = −4 x , where P lies in the second
quadrant, if R divides PQ in the ratio 2 : 1 then the locus of R is:
Options:
(a) 3 y 2 = −2 x
(b) 3 y 2 = 2 x
(c) 9 y 2 = 4 x
(d) 9 y 2 = −4 x

22
Question 9: In a parallelogram ABC, AB = a, AD = b and AC = c , then DB  AB has the value:
Options:

(a)
2
(
1 2 2 2
a +b +c )
(b)
1
2
(
3a2 + b2 − c2 )
(c)
4
(
1 2 2 2
a +b −c )
1
(
(d) b2 + c2 − a2
3
)

Question 10: If f : R → S , defined by f ( x ) = sin x − 3 cos x + 1, is onto, then the interval of S

is
Options:
(a) 0,1
(b)  −1,1
(c) 0,3
(d)  −1,3

( )
Question 11: The solution of the differential equation ydx − x + 2 y 2 dy = 0 is x = f ( y ) . If
f ( −1) = 1, then f (1) is equal to:
Options:
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 2

Question 12: The shortest distance between the z-axis and the line
x + y + 2z − 3 = 0 = 2x + 3 y + 4z − 4 , is
Options:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 3

23
  1
( x − 1) sin , if x  1
Question 13: Let f ( x ) =  x −1
 0 if x = 1
Then which one of the following is true?
Options:
(a) f is differentiable at x = 1 but not at x = 0
(b) f is neither differentiable at x = 0 nor at x = 1
(c) f is differentiable at x = 0 and at x = 1
(d) f is differentiable at x = 0 but not at x = 1

 cos2 x
Question 14: The value of − 1 + a x dx, a  0 is
Options:
(a) 
(b) a
(c)  / 2
(d) 2

Question 15: If the lengths of the sides of a triangle are decided by the three throws of a single
fair die, then the probability that the triangle is of maximum area given that it is an isosceles
triangle, is:
Options:
1
(a)
21
1
(b)
27
1
(c)
15
1
(d)
26

Question 16: If in a regular polygon the number of diagonals is 54, then the number of sides of
this polygon is:
Options:
(a) 12
(b) 6
(c) 10
(d) 9

24
 sin x
3  3
Question 17: Let : ( −1,1) → R be a continuous function. If  f (t ) dt =
0
2
x , then f 
 2
 is

equal to:
Options:
1
(a)
2
3
(b)
2
3
(c)
2
(d) 3

(
log t + 1 + t 2 ) dt = 1 ( g (t )) + C, where C is constant, then g (2) is equal to:

2
Question 18: If
1+ t 2 2
Options:
(a)
1
5
(
log 2 + 5 )
1
( )
(b) log 2 + 5
2
(c) 2log ( 2 + 5 )

(d) log ( 2 + 5 )

Question 19: If a circle passing through the point ( −1,0) touches y–axis at (0, 2) then the length
of the chord of the circle along the x–axis is :
Options:
3
(a)
2
(b) 3
5
(c)
2
(d) 5

Question 20: The sum of the 3rd and the 4th term of a G.P. is 60 and the product of its first three
terms is 1000. If the first term of this G.P. is positive, then its 7th term is:
Options:
(a) 7290

25
(b) 640
(c) 2430
(d) 320

Question 21: A straight line L through the point ( 3, −2) is inclined at an angle of 60 to the line
3x + y = 1. If L also intersects the x–axis, then the equation of L is:
Options:
(a) y + 3x + 2 − 3 3 = 0
(b) 3y + x − 3 + 2 3 = 0
(c) y − 3x + 2 + 3 3 = 0
(d) 3y − x + 3 + 2 3 = 0

Question 22: For all complex numbers z1, z2 satisfying z1 = 12 and z2 − 3 − 4i = 5 , the minimum
value of z1 − z2 is
Options:
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 7
(d) 17

Question 23: Let 10 vertical poles standing at equal distances on a straight line, subtend the same
angle of elevation at a point O on this line and all the poles are on the same side of O. If the height
of the longest pole is ‘h’ and the distance of the foot of the smallest pole from O is 'a'; then the
distance between two consecutive poles, is:
Options:
h cos  − a sin 
(a)
9sin 
h sin  + a cos 
(b)
9sin 
h cos  − a cos 
(c)
9cos 
h sin  − a cos 
(d)
9cos 

Question 24: If the distance between the foci of an ellipse is half the length of its latus rectum,
then the eccentricity of the ellipse is:
Options:

26
 2 2 −1
(a)
2
(b) 2 −1
1
(c)
2
2 −1
(d)
2

x −1 y − 2 z − 3
Question 25: A plane containing the point (3, 2, 0) and the line = = also contains
1 5 4
the point:
Options:
(a) ( 0,3,1)
(b) ( 0,7, −10)
(c) ( 0, −3,1)
(d) ( 0,7,10)

5
1 k
Question 26: If  n ( n + 1)( n + 2)( n + 3) = 3 , then k is equal to:
n =1

Options:
1
(a)
6
17
(b)
105
55
(c)
336
19
(d)
112

Question 27: The area of the plane region bounded by the curves x + 2 y 2 = 0 and x + 3 y 2 = 1 is
equal to
Options:
4
(a)
3
5
(b)
3

27
 1
(c)
3
2
(d)
3

Question 28: If A is a 3 3 matrix such that 5.Adj A = 5 , then A is equal to:

Options:
1
(a) 
5
1
(b) 
25
(c) 1
(d) 5

 
Question 29: The equation of a normal to the curve, sin y = x  + y  at x = 0, is:
3 
Options:
(a) 2x − 3 y = 0
(b) 2x + 3 y = 0
(c) 2 y − 3x = 0
(d) 2 y + 3x = 0

Question 30: Consider the following statements:

P : Suman is brilliant
Q : Suman is rich.
R : Suman is honest
The negative of the statement
“Suman is brilliant and dishonest if and only if suman is rich” can be equivalently
expressed as :
Options:
(a) ~Q  ~P  R
(b) ~Q  ~P  R
(c) ~Q  P  ~R
(d) ~Q  P  ~R

28
 Answer Key

Physics Chemistry Mathematics

1. b 1. c 1. c
2. b 2. d 2. c
3. c 3. b 3. c
4. a 4. d 4. c
5. a 5. a 5. a
6.b 6. d 6. a
7. c 7. c 7. b
8. a 8. d 8. d
9. d 9. d 9. b
10. d 10. c 10. d
11. 11. a 11. b
12. a 12. b 12. b
13. c 13. a 13. b
14. a 14. c 14. c
15. c 15. c 15. b
16. c 16. c 16.a
17. c 17. d 17. d
18. b 18. d 18. c
19. c 19.d 19. b
20. b 20. a 20. d
21. d 21. c 21. c
22. d 22. d 22. b
23. b 23. a 23. a
24. a 24. c 24. b
25.a 25. c 25. d
26. c 26. b 26. c
27. d 27. d 27. a
28. b 28. a 28. a
29. b 29. b 29. b
30. b 30. a 30. d

29