JEE Main Sample Question Paper 6
JEE Main Sample Question Paper 6
Sample Test – VI
Section – I – Chemistry
Question 1: The standard enthalpy of formation of NH3 is −46.0kJ mol−1 . If the enthalpy of
formation of H 2 from its atoms is −436kJ mol−1 and that of N 2 is −712kJ mol−1 , the average
bond enthalpy of N-H bond in NH3 is
Options:
(a) −964kJ mol−1
(b) +352kJ mol−1
(c) +1056kJ mol−1
(d) −1102kJ mol−1
Question 2: The time for half-life period of a certain reaction A → products is 1 hour. When the
initial concentration of the reactant ‘A’, is 2.0mol L−1 , how much time does it take for its
concentration to come from 0.50 to 0.25mol L−1 if it is a zero order reaction?
Options:
(a) 4 h
(b) 0.5 h
(c) 0.25 h
(d) 1 h
1
(b) Two 2c-2e bonds and four 3c-2e bonds
(c) Two 2c-2e bonds and two 3c-3e bonds
(d) Four 2c-2e bonds and four 3c-2e bonds
Question 5: If 10−4 dm3 of water is introduced into a 1.0dm3 flask to 300 K, how many moles of
water are in the vapour phase when equilibrium is established?
(Given : Vapour pressure of H2O at 300 K is 3170 Pa ; R = 8.314J K−1mol−1 )
Options:
(a) 5.56 10−3 mol
(b) 1.5310−2 mol
(c) 4.46 10−2 mol
(d) 1.27 10−3 mol
Question 6: One mole of a symmetrical alkene on ozonolysis gives two moles of an aldehyde
having a molecular mass of 44 u. The alkene is
Options:
(a) propene
(b) 1-butene
(c) 2-butene
(d) ethene
Question 7: If sodium sulphate is considered to be completely dissociated into cations and anions
in aqueous solution, the change in freezing point of water ( Tf ) , when 0.01mol of sodium
(
sulphate is dissolved in 1 kg of water, is K f = 1.86K kg mol−1 )
Options:
(a) 0.0372 K
(b) 0.0558 K
(c) 0.0744 K
(d) 0.0186 K
Question 8: From amongst the following alcohols the one that would react fastest with conc. HCl
and anhydrous ZnCl2 , is
Options:
(a) 2-Butanol
(b) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
(c) 2-Methylpropanol
(d) 1-Butanol
2
Question 9: In the chemical reactions,
Question 10: 29.5 mg of an organic compound containing nitrogen was digested according to
Kjeldahl's method and the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 20 mL of 0.1 M HCl solution. The
excess of the acid required 15 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution for complete neutralization. The
percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
Options:
(a) 59.0
(b) 47.4
(c) 23.7
(d) 29.5
Question 11: The energy required to break one mole of Cl − Cl bonds in Cl2 is 242kJ mol−1 . The
longest wavelength of light capable of breaking a single Cl − Cl bonds is
(c = 310 ms
8 −1
and N A = 6.02 1023 mol−1 )
Options:
(a) 594 nm
(b) 640 nm
(c) 700 nm
(d) 494 nm
Question 12: The reaction 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2 in the metallurgical process of zinc is
called
Options:
(a) Calcination
(b) Cupellation
(c) Smelting
(d) Roasting
3
Question 13: Consider the following bromides:
Options:
(a)
(b)
4
(c)
(d)
Question 17: Chlorobenzene on treatment with sodium in dry ether gives diphenyl. The name of
the reaction is
Options:
(a) Fitting reaction
(b) Wurtz-Fittig reaction
(c) Sandmeyer reaction
(d) Gatterman reaction
Question 18: Movement of colloidal particles under the influence of electrostatic field is
Options:
(a) Electrophoresis
(b) Electrolysis
(c) Dialysis
(d) Ionisation
Question 19: The edge length of a face centered cubic cell of an ionic substance is 508 pm. If the
radius of the cation is 110 pm, the radius of the anion is
Options:
(a) 288 pm
(b) 398 pm
(c) 618 pm
(d) 144 pm
Question 20: The correct order of increasing basicity of the given conjugate bases ( R = CH3 ) is
Options:
5
(a) RCOO HC = C R NH2
(b) R HC C RCOO NH2
(c) RCOO NH2 HC C R
(d) RCOO HC C NH2 R
Question 21: The correct sequence which shows decreasing order of the ionic radii of the elements
is
Options:
(a) Al 3+ Mg 2+ Na+ F − O2−
(b) Na+ Mg 2+ Al 3+ O2− F −
(c) Na+ F − Mg 2+ O2− Al 3+
(d) O2− F − Na+ Mg 2+ Al 3+
Question 23: The Gibbs energy for the decomposition of Al2O3 at 500C is as follows:
2 4
Al2O3 → Al + O2 , r G = +966kJ mol−1
3 3
The potential difference needed for electrolytic reduction of Al2O3 at 500C is at least
Options:
(a) 4.5 V
(b) 3.0 V
(c) 2.5 V
(d) 5.0 V
Question 24: At 25C , the solubility product of Mg ( OH )2 is 1.0 10−11 . At which pH, will Mg 2+
ions start precipitating in the form of Mg ( OH )2 from a solution of 0.001MMg2+ ions?
Options:
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
6
(d) 8
Question 26: Out of the following, the alkene that exhibits optical isomerism is
Options:
(a) 3-methyl-2-pentene
(b) 4-methyl-1 -pentene
(c) 3-methyl-1-pentene
(d) 2-methyl-2-pentene
Question 28: The correct order of EMo 2+ / M values with negative sign for the four successive
elements Cr, Mn, Fe and Co is
Options:
(a) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co
(b) Cr > Fe > Mn > Co
(c) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co
(d) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co
Question 29: The polymer containing strong intermolecular forces e.g. hydrogen bonding, is
Options:
(a) teflon
(b) nylon 6,6
(c) polystyrene
(d) natural rubber
7
Question 30: For a particular reversible reaction at temperature T, H and S were found to be
both +ve. If Te is the temperature at equilibrium, the reaction would be spontaneous when
Options:
(a) Te T
(b) T Te
(c) Te is 5 times T
(d) T = Te
Section – II – Physics
Question 1: A rectangular loop has a sliding connector PQ of length l and resistance R . and it
is moving with a speed v as shown. The set-up is placed in a uniform magnetic field going into the
plane of the paper.
Options:
Blv 2Blv
(a) I1 = −I 2 = ,I=
R R
Blv 2Blv
(b) I1 = I 2 = ,I=
3R 3R
Blv
(c) I1 = I 2 = I =
R
Blv 2Blv
(d) I1 = I 2 = ,I =
6R 3R
8
1
(c)
4
(d) 2
Question 3: Two balls A and B are thrown vertically upwards from the same location on the
gR 2 gR
surface of the earth with velocities 2 and respectively, where R is the radius of the
3 3
earth and g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth. The ratio of the maximum
height attained by A to that attained by B is
Options:
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 4 2
Question 4: A long metal rod of length l and relative density is held vertically with its lower
end just touching the surface of water. The speed of the rod when it just sinks in water is given by
Options:
(a) 2gl
(b) 2gl
1
(c) 2 gl 1 −
2
(d) 2gl ( 2 −1)
Question 5: A ball is made of a material of density where oil water with oil and water
representing the densities of oil and water, respectively. The oil and water are immiscible. If the
above ball is in equilibrium in a mixture of this oil and water, which of the following pictures
represents its equilibrium position?
Options:
(a)
(b)
9
(c)
(d)
( )
Question 6: A particle is moving with velocity v = K yiˆ + xjˆ , where K is a constant. The general
equation for its path is
Options:
(a) y = x2 + constant
(b) y 2 = x + constant
(c) xy = constant
(d) y 2 = x2 + constant
Question 7: Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2d apart. They carry steady equal current
flowing out of the plane of the paper as shown. The variation of the magnetic field along the line
XX ' is given by
Options:
(a)
10
(b)
(c)
(d)
Question 8: In the circuit shown below, the key K is closed at t = 0. The current through the battery
is
Options:
VR1R2 V
(a) at t = 0 at t =
R1 + R2
2 2 R2
V V ( R1 + R2 )
(b) at t = 0 and at t =
R2 R1R2
V VR1R2
(c) at t = 0 and at t =
R2 R12 + R22
V ( R1 + R2 ) V
(d) at t = 0 and at t =
R1R2 R2
Question 9: The figure shows the position – time ( x − t ) graph of one-dimensional motion of a
body of mass 0.4 kg. The magnitude of each impulse is
11
Options:
(a) 0.4 Ns
(b) 0.8 Ns
(c) 1.6 Ns
(d) 0.2 Ns
Question 10: A nucleus of mass M + m is at rest and decays into two daughter nuclei of equal
M
mass each. Speed of light is c.
2
The binding energy per nucleon for the parent nucleus is E1 and that for the daughter nuclei is E2 .
Then
Options:
(a) E2 = 2E1
(b) E1 E2
(c) E2 E1
(d) E1 = 2E2
Question 11: A uniform metre scale of length 1m is balanced on a fixed semi-circular cylinder of
radius 30 cm as shown in fig. One end of the scale is slightly depressed and released. The time
period (in seconds) of the resulting simple harmonic motion is
(Take g = 10ms−2 )
Options:
(a)
(b)
2
(c)
3
12
(d)
4
Question 12: A radioactive nucleus (initial mass number A and atomic number Z) emits 3 −
particles and 2 positrons. The ratio of number of neutrons to that of protons in the final nucleus
will be
Options:
A− Z −8
(a)
Z −4
A− Z −4
(b)
Z −8
A − Z − 12
(c)
Z −4
A− Z −4
(d)
Z −2
Question 13: A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive charge q distributed uniformly
over it. The net field E at the centre O is
Options:
q ˆj
(a)
4 0 r 2
2
q ˆj
(b) −
4 0 r 2
2
q ˆj
(c) −
2 0 r 2
2
q ˆj
(d)
2 0 r 2
2
13
Options:
(a) OR gate
(b) NOT gate
(c) XOR gate
(d) NAND gate
Question 15: A diatomic ideal gas is used in a Car engine as the working substance. If during the
adiabatic expansion part of the cycle, volume of the gas increases from V to 32V the efficiency of
the engine is
Options:
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.75
(c) 0.99
(d) 0.25
Question 16: If a source of power 4 kW produces 1020 photons/second, the radiation belong to a
part of the spectrum called
Options:
(a) X-rays
(b) ultraviolet rays
(c) microwaves
(d) − rays
Question 17: The respective number of significant figures for the numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and
2.110−3 are
Options:
(a) 5,1,2
(b) 5,1,5
(c) 5,5,2
(d) 4,4,2
Question 18: In a series LCR circuit R = 200 and the voltage and the frequency of the main
supply is 220 V and 50 Hz respectively. On taking out the capacitance from the circuit the current
lags behind the voltage by 30 . On taking out the inductor from the circuit the current leads the
voltage by 30 . The power dissipated in the LCR circuit is
14
Options:
(a) 305 W
(b) 210 W
(c) Zero W
(d) 242 W
Question 19: In a transistor circuit, the collector current is 50 mA and the base current is 1 mA.
The current gain is
Options:
51
(a)
50
49
(b)
50
50
(c)
51
49
(d)
51
Question 20: The potential energy function for the force between two atoms in a diatomic
a b
molecule is approximately given by U ( x ) = 12 − 6 , where a and b are constants and x is the
x x
distance between the atoms. If the dissociation energy of the molecule is
D = U ( x = ) − Uat equilibrium . D is
Options:
b2
(a)
2a
b2
(b)
12a
b2
(c)
4a
b2
(d)
6a
Question 21: Two identical charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal lengths. The strings
make an angle of 30 with each other. When suspended in a liquid of density 0.8g cm−3 , the angle
remains the same. If density of the material of the sphere is 0.16g cm−3 , the dielectric constant of
the liquid is
Options:
15
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Question 22: In the visible region, the dispersive powers and the mean angular deviations for
crown and flint glass prisms are and ' and d and d ' respectively. When the two prism are
combined, the condition of zero dispersion by the combination is
Options:
(a) d + ' d ' = 0
(b) ' d + d ' = 0
(c) d + ' d ' = 0
(d) (d ) + ( ' d ') = 0
2 2
Question 23: A point P moves in counter-clockwise direction on a circular path as shown in the
figure. The movement of ‘P’ is such that it sweeps out a length s = t 3 + 5 , where s is in metres and
t is in seconds. The radius of the path is 20 m. The acceleration of 'P' when t = 2 s is nearly
Options:
(a) 13m/s2
(b) 12m/s2
(c) 7.2m/s2
(d) 14m/s2
Question 24: Two fixed frictionless inclined plane making an angle 30 and 60 with the vertical
are shown in the figure. Two block A and B are placed on the two planes. What is the relative
vertical acceleration of A with respect to B?
Options:
16
(a) 4.9ms−2 in horizontal direction
(b) 9.8ms−2 in vertical direction
(c) zero
(d) 4.9ms−2 in vertical direction
Question 25: For a particle in uniform circular motion the acceleration a at a point P ( R, ) on
the circle of radius R is (here is measured from the x-axis)
Options:
v2 v2
(a) − cos iˆ + sin ˆj
R R
2
v v2
(b) − sin iˆ + cos ˆj
R R
v2 v2
(c) − cos iˆ − sin ˆj
R R
2 2
v ˆ v ˆ
(d) i+ j
R R
Question 26: A motor car is fitted with a convex driving mirror of focal length 20cm. A second
motor car 2.8m behind the first car is overtaking at a relative speed of 15ms−1 . The speed of the
image of the second car as seen in the mirror of the first is
Options:
1
(a) ms−1
10
1
(b) ms−1
15
(c) 10ms−1
(d) 15ms−1
Question 27: The potential difference between points A and B in the circuit shown in fig. is
17
Options:
(a) 6 V
(b) 2 V
(c) 10 V
(d) 14 V
Question 28: Monochromatic light of wavelength emerging from slit S illuminates slits S1 and
S 2 which are placed with respect to S as shown in Fig. The distances x and D are large compared
to the separation d between the slits. If x = D/2, the minimum value of d so that there is a dark
fringe at the centre P of the screen is
Options:
D
(a)
3
2 D
(b)
3
(c) D
D
(d) 2
3
Question 29: On a particular day, the maximum frequency reflected from the ionosphere is 8
MHz. On another day it was found to increase to 9 MHz. The ratio of the maximum electron
densities of the ionosphere on the two days is
Options:
8
(a)
9
8
(b)
9
3/ 2
8
(c)
9
2
8
(d)
9
18
Question 30: The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass density 0.04kg m−1 is given by
1 x
y = 0.02 ( m) sin 2 − . The tension in the string is
0.04 ( s ) 0.50 ( m)
Options:
(a) 4.0 N
(b) 12.5 N
(c) 0.5 N
(d) 6.25 N
Question 2: Let S be a non-empty subset of R (R is the set of Real Numbers). Consider the
following statement:
P: There is a rational number x S such that x 0 .
Which of the following statements is the negation of the statement P?
Options:
(a) There is no rational number x S such that x 0
(b) Every rational number x S satisfies x 0
(c) x S and x 0 x is not rational
(d) There is a rational number x S such that x 0
19
(a) 2iˆ − ˆj + 2kˆ
(b) iˆ − ˆj − 2kˆ
(c) iˆ + ˆj − 2kˆ
(d) −iˆ + ˆj − 2kˆ
4
Question 4: The equation of the tangent to the curve y = x + , that is parallel to the x-axis, is
x2
Options:
(a) y = 1
(b) y = 2
(c) y = 3
(d) y = 0
Question 5: Solution of the differential equation cos x dy = y ( sin x − y ) dx, 0 x is
2
Options:
(a) y sec x = tan x + c
(b) y tan x = sec x + c
(c) tan x = ( sec x + c ) y
(d) sec x = ( tan x + c ) y
Question 6: The area bounded by the curves y = cos x and y = sin x between the ordinates x = 0
3
and x = is
2
Options:
(a) 4 2 + 2
(b) 4 2 −1
(c) 4 2 + 1
(d) 4 2 − 2
Question 7: If two tangents drawn from a point P to the parabola y 2 = 4x are at right angles, then
the locus of P is
Options:
(a) 2x + 1 = 0
(b) x = −1
(c) 2x −1 = 0
20
(d) x = 1
Question 8: For all x R, x2 + 2ax + 10 − 3a 0 , then the interval in which ‘a’ lies is
Options:
(a) a −5
(b) −5 a 2
(c) a 5
(d) 2 a 5
k − 2 x, if x −1
Question 10: Let f : R → R be defined by f ( x ) = . If f has a local minimum
2 x + 3, if x −1
at x = −1 , then a possible value of k is
Options:
(a) 0
1
(b) −
2
(c) −1
(d) 1
Question 11: A focus of an ellipse is at the origin. The directrix is the line x = 4 and the eccentricity
1
is . Then the length of the semi-major axis is
2
Options:
5
(a)
3
8
(b)
3
21
2
(c)
3
4
(d)
3
Question 12: In a shop there are five types of ice-creams available. A child buys six ice-creams.
Statement-1: The number of different ways the child can buy the six ice-creams is 10 C5 .
Statement-2: The number of different ways the child can buy the six ice-creams is equal to the
number of different ways of arranging 6 A’s and 4B’s in a row.
Options:
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(b) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(c) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-
1.
Question 13: Statement-1: The point A (3, 1, 6) is the mirror image of the point B(1, 3, 4) in the
plane x − y + z = 5.
Statement-2: The plane x − y + z = 5 bisects the line segment joining A (3, 1, 6) and B (1, 3, 4).
Options:
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(c) Statement-1 is false. Statement-2 is true
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is the correct explanation for Statement-
1
10 10 10
Question 14: Let S1 = j ( j −1) 10C j , S2 = j 10C j , S3 = j 2 10C j
j =1 j =1 j =1
Statement-1: S3 = 55 2 9
Statement-2: S1 = 90 28 and S2 = 10 28 .
Options:
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(c) Statement-1 is false. Statement-2 is true
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is the correct explanation for Statement-
1
22
Question 15: Let A be a 2 2 matrix with non-zero entries and let A2 = I , where I is 2 2 identity
matrix. Define Tr(A) = sum of diagonal elements of A and A = determinant of matrix A.
Statement-1: Tr(A) = 0
Statement-2: A = 1
Options:
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(c) Statement-1 is false. Statement-2 is true
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is the correct explanation for Statement-
1
1 − cos ( ax2 + bx + c )
Question 16: Let and be the distinct roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 , then lim
( x − )
x → 2
is equal to
Options:
(a) 0
a2
( − )
2
(b)
2
1
(c) ( − )
2
2
−a2
( − )
2
(d)
2
Question 17: For a regular polygon, let r and R be the radii of the inscribed and the circumscribed
circles. A false statement among the following is
Options:
r 1
(a) There is a regular polygon with =
R 2
r 2
(b) There is a regular polygon with =
R 3
r 3
(c) There is a regular polygon with =
R 2
r 1
(d) There is a regular polygon with =
R 2
23
2x −1
Question 18: If f : R → R is a function defined by f ( x ) = x cos , where x denotes
2
the greatest integer function, then f is
Options:
(a) discontinuous only at non-zero integral values of x
(b) continuous only at x = 0
(c) continuous for every real x
(d) discontinuous only at x = 0
Question 19: The number of complex numbers z such that z −1 = z + 1 = z − i equals (where
i = −1 )
Options:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c)
(d) 0
Question 20: A line AB in three-dimensional space makes angles 45 and 120 with the positive
x-axis and the positive y-axis respectively. If AB makes an acute angle with the positive z-axis,
then equals
Options:
(a) 45
(b) 60
(c) 75
(d) 30
x y
Question 21: The line L given by + = 1 passes through the point (13, 32). The line K is parallel
5 b
x y
to L and has the equation + = 1 . Then the distance between L and K is
c 3
Options:
(a) 17
17
(b)
15
23
(c)
17
23
(d)
15
24
Question 22: A person is to count 4500 currency notes. Let an denote the number of notes he
counts in the nth minute. If a1 = a2 = ....... = a10 = 150 and a10 , a11 ,..... are in A.P. with common
difference −2 , then the time taken by him to count all notes is
Options:
(a) 34 minutes
(b) 125 minutes
(c) 135 minutes
(d) 24 minutes
f ( 3x )
Question 23: Let f : R → R be a positive increasing function with lim = 1 . Then,
x→ f ( x)
f ( 2x )
lim =
x→ f ( x)
Options:
2
(a)
3
3
(b)
2
(c) 3
(d) 1
Question 24: Let p ( x ) be a function defined on R such that p ' ( x ) = p ' (1 − x ) , for all
1
x 0,1 , p ( 0) = 1 and p (1) = 41 . Then p ( x ) dx equals
0
Options:
(a) 21
(b) 41
(c) 42
(d) 41
Question 25: Let f : ( −1,1) → R be a differentiable function with f ( 0) = −1 and f ' ( 0) = 1 . Let
Options:
(a) −4
(b) 0
(c) −2
25
(d) 4
sin xdx
Question 26: The value of 2 is
sin x −
4
Options:
(a) x − log cos x − + c
4
(b) x + log cos x − + c
4
(c) x − log sin x − + c
4
(d) x + log sin x − + c
4
Question 28: An urn contains nine balls of which three are red, four are blue and two are green.
Three balls are drawn at random without replacement from the urn. The probability that the three
balls have different colour is
Options:
2
(a)
7
1
(b)
21
2
(c)
23
26
1
(d)
3
Question 29: For two data sets, each of size 5, the variances are given to be 4 and 5 and the
corresponding means are given to be 2 and 4, respectively. The variance of the combined data set
is
Options:
11
(a)
2
(b) 6
13
(c)
2
5
(d)
2
Question 30: The circle x2 + y 2 = 4x + 8 y + 5 intersects the line 3x − 4 y = m at two distinct points
if
Options:
(a) −35 m 15
(b) 15 m 65
(c) 35 m 85
(d) −85 m −35
27
Answer Key
28