APRIL-03-2019

Question 1
Which two information can you learn by viewing the routing table?(Choose two)
A. whether an ACL was applied to inbound or outbound to an interface
B. whether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically conifugred
C. which neighbor adjancencies are established
D. the length of time that a route has been known
E. the EIGRP or BGP autonomous number
Answer: B & D

Question 2
Which value is used to build the CAM table?
A. Source IP address
B. Destination MAC address
C. Source MAC address
D. Destination IP address
Answer: C

Question 3
Which two statements about the successor and feasible successor are true?(choose 2)
A. The feasible successor is stored in both the topology table and the routing table
B. The Successor is the secondary route
C. The successor is stored in the routing table
D. The successor is the primary route
E. The feasible successor has a lower metric than the successor.
Answer: C & D

Question 4
Which two goals are reasons to implement private IPv4 addressing on your network?(choose 2)
A. Reduce the risk of a network security breach.
B. Comply with local law
C. Comply with PCI regulations
D. Conserv IPv4 addresses.
E. Reduce the size of forwarding table on network routers.
Answer: A & D
Question 5
Which configuration register value can you set on a Cisco device so that it ignores the NVRAM when it
boots?
A. 0x2124
B. 0x2120
C. 0x2142
D. 0x2102
Answer: C

Question 6
What are two reasons to use multicast to deliver video traffic, instead of unicast or
broadcast?(Choose-2)
A. It supports distributed applications
B. It enables multiple clients to send video strams simultaneously
C. It provides reliable TCP transport
D. It enables multiple servers to send video streams simultaneously
E. It enables multiple clients to receive the video stream simultaneously
Answer: A & E

Question 7
Which frame type allows STP to compute the Spanning-tree topology
A. LSA
B. RSTP
C. LSP
D. BPDU
Answer: D

Question 8
Which two statements about UTP cables are true?(Choose 2)
A. All Ethernet cable types from Category 1 through Category 6 are suitable for transmitting data in the
appropriate environments.
B. Category 6 Ethernet cables are appropriate for installation up to 200m.
C. Category 6a Ethernet cable can transmit up to 10 Gbps.
D. Category 5 Ethernet cables support speeds up to 1000 Mbps beyond 100m
E. Category 5e Ethernet calbes upports speeds up to 1000 Mbps.
Answer: C & E
Question 9
What two statements about PDU encapsulation are true? (Choose 2)
A. During encapsulation each layer adds a header and trailer to the PDU from the layer below
B. During encapsulation, each layer adds a header and sometimes adds a trailer to PDU from the layer
above
C. PDU encapsulation takes place only at the transport layer.
D. In the TCP/IP reference model, PDU encapsulation occurs on the network layer
E. In the TCP/IP reference model, PDU encapsulation starts on the internet layer with data from the
application layer.
Answer: B & C

Question 10
What is the maximum number of switches that stackwise can support in one stack?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
Answer: C

Question 11
Which command can you enter to verify that a router is synced with a configures time
source?
A. show ntp authenticate
B. ntp associations
C. ntp server time
D. ntp authenticate
E. show ntp associations
Answer: E

Question 12
Which type of routing protocol operates by exchanging the entire routing information ?
A. distance vector protocols
B. link state protocols
C. path vector protocols
D. exterior gateway protocols
Answer: A

Question 13
Which two are features of IPv6?(choose two)
A. multicast
B. broadcast
C. allcast
D. podcast
E. anycast
Answer: A & E
Question 14
What is the minimum Ethernet Frame size?
A. 32 bytes
B. 64 bytes
C. 1024 bytes
D. 1500 bytes
Answer: B

Question 15
Which two functions primary responsibilities of the APIC-EM controller? (Choose two.)
A. It makes network functions programmable
B. It provides robust asset management
C. It tracks license usage and Cisco lOS versions.
D. It automates network actions between legacy equipment
E. It automates network actions between different device types
Answer: A & E

Question 16
While troubleshooting a GRE tunnel interface issue,show interface command output
displays tunnel status up,but line protocol is down. Which reason for this problem is most
likely ?
A. The route to the tunnel destination address is through the tunnel itself
B. The next hop server is misconfigured
C. The interface has been administratively shut down
D. The tunnel was just reset
Answer: A

Question 17
For which routes does the distance bgp 10 50 70 command set the administrative distance?
A. for BGP internal routes only
B. for all BGP routes
C. for BGP external routes onlye
D. between BGP routes and IGP routes
Answer: B

Question 18
Which effect of the terminal monitor command is true?
A. It puts the device into global configuration mode
B. It configures the device to log messages to the console
C. It displays the configuration of the syslog server
D. It configures a Syslog server
Answer: B

Question 19
Which prompt does a Cisco switch display when it is running in privileged exec mode?
A. switch(config-if)#
B. switch#
C. switch(config)#
D. switch>
Answer: B
Question 20
Which two differences between distance-vector and link-state routing protocols are true? (Choose two)
A. Only distance-vector routing protocols maintain identical topology tables on all connected neighbors
B. Distance-vector routing protocols are less susceptible to loops than link-state protocols
C. Only distance-vector routing protocols send full routing table updates
D. Only link-state routing protocols use the Bellman-Ford algorithm
E. Link-state routing protocols offer faster convergence than distance-vector protocols during network
changes
Answer: C E

Question 21
Which option is the primary purpose of traffic shaping?
A. enabling policy-based routing
B. providing best-effort service
C. limiting bandwidth usage
D. enabling dynamic flow identification
Answer: C

Question 22
You are configuring an IP SLA ICMP Echo operation to troubleshoot a network connectivity issue.
When do you enter an IP address to test the IP SLA?
A. When you enable the ICMP Echo operation
B. When you define the ICMP Echo operation
C. When you specify the test frequency
D. When you verify the IP SLA operation
Answer: B

Question23
Which two statements about 1000BASE-T UTP cable are true? (choose two)
A. It use four wires
B. It is most appropriate for installations up to 1000 feet in length
C. It uses four wire pairs
D. It is most appropriate for installations up to 1000 meters in length
E. Both ends of the cable can transmit and receive simultaneously
Answer: C E

Question 24
Which two neighbor types are supported in BGP environment? (Choose two)
A. External
B. Autonomous
C. Remote
D. Internal
E. Directly attached
Answer: A D

Question 25
Which two statements about IPv6 multicast address are true? (Choose two)
A. If the liftime parameter is set to 1,the route is permanent.
B. They use the prefix FC80::/8
C. They use the prefix FF00::/8
D. They identify a group of interfaces on different devices
E. If the scope parameter is set to 5,the route is local to the node
Answer: C D
Question 26
Under which two circumstances is a switch port that is configured with PortFast BPDU guard error-
disable? (Choose two)
A. When the switch receives a request for an IP address from an individual PC
B. When the switch receives a BPDU from a connected switch
C. When a wireless access point running in bridge mode is connected to a switch
D. When a single IP address is configured on the switch
E. When a connected server has more than one VLAN configured on its NIC
Answer: B & C

Question 27
What are two advantages of static routing? (Choose two)
A. It can be implemented easily even in large environments
B. It produces minimal CPU load
C. It cannot be used to load-balance traffic over multiple links
D. It allows the administrator to control the path of traffic
E. It allows the network to respond immediately to changes
Answer: B & D

Question 28
Which two statements about static routing are true? (Choose two)
A. It allows packets to transmit a different path if topology changes
B. It initial implementation is more complex than OSPF
C. It provides only limited security unless the administrator performs additional configuration.
D. It allows the administrator to determine the entire path of the packet
E. Its default administrator distance is lower than EIGRP
Answer: C & E

Question 29
Which command can you enter on a Cisco IOS device to enable a scheduled algorithm that directs
lookup calls to multiple DNS hosts?
A. ip domain round-robin
B. ip name-server 192.168.10.14 192.168.10.15
C. ip domain lookup
D. ip domain list
Answer: B

Question 30
Which API use HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different host?
A. OpFlex
B. REST
C. OpenStack
D. OpenFlow
Answer: B

Question 31
Which two services can be provided by a wireless controller? (Choose two)
A. issuing IP addresses to wired devices
B. mitigating threats from the internet
C. providing authentication services to users
D. managing interference in a dense network
E. Layer 3 routing between wired and wireless devices
Answer: C & D
Question 32
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the most likely
reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
Switch# show spanning-tree interface fastethernet0/10

A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Answer: C

Question 33
Which value is included in the initial TCP syn message?
A. a session ID
B. sequence number
C. a TTL number
D. an acknowledgment number
Answer: B

Question 34
Which two cable specifications can support 1-Gbps Ethernet? (Choose two)
A. Category 5e
B. RG11
C. RG-6
D. Category 6
E. Category 3
Answer: A & D

Question 35
What two actions can be taken to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two)
A. Administratively shut down the interface
B. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command
C. Physically secure the interface
D. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-group
command
E. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process
Answer: B & E

Question 36
Which type of device should you use to preserve IP addresses on your network?
A. firewall
B. WLAN controller
C. load balancer
D. intrusion prevention device
Answer: A
Question 37
Which two conditions can be used to elect the spanning-tree root bridge? (Choose two)
A. the highest MAC address
B. the lowest MAC address
C. the highest port priority
D. the lowest system ID
E. the lowest switch priority
Answer: B & E

Question 38
It you change the weight and distance parameters on a device with an established BGP neighbor,
which additional task must you perform to allow the two devices to continue exchanging routes?
A. Reset the BGP connections on the device
B. Reset the gateway interface
C. Clear the IP routes on the device
D. Change the weight and distance settings on the other device to match
Answer: A

Question 39
Which plane handles switching traffic through a Cisco router?
A. control
B. management
C. data
D. performance
Answer: C

Question 40
Which task do you need to perform first when you configure IP SLA to troubleshoot a network
Connectivity issue?
A. Enable the ICMP echo operation
B. Specify the test frequency
C. Verify the ICMP echo operation
D. Schedule the ICMP operation
Answer: A

Question 41
Which two advantages do dynamic routing protocols provide over static routing? (Choose two)
A. Dynamic routing protocols are easier to manage on very large networks
B. Dynamic routing protocols automatically adapt to reroute traffic if possible
C. Only dynamic routing is supported on all topologies that require multiple routers
D. Dynamic routing is more secure than static routing
E. Dynamic routing requires fewer resources than static routing
Answer: A & B

Question 42
What is the default Syslog facility level?
A. local4
B. local5
C. local6
D. local7
Answer: D
Question 43
Which two values must you specify to perform an ACL-based Path Trace using APIC-EM? (Choose two)
A. source port
B. source IP address
C. destination IP address
D. source interface
E. destination port
Answer: B C

Question 44
On which options are standard access lists based?
A. destination address and wildcard mask
B. destination address and subnet mask
C. source address and subnet mask
D. source address and wildcard mask
Answer: D

Question 45
Which two facts about configuring EIGRPv6 are true? (Choose two)
A. You must configure neighboring devices with the same ipv6 hello-interval eigrp value
B. If you change the interface delay, the EIGRPv4 delay remains unchanged
C. The variance command for EIGRPv6 is independent of EIGRPv4
D. If you change the interface bandwidth, the EIGRPv4 metric is affected
E. The router ID must be an IPv6 address
Answer: C D

Question 46
Which two statements about the ip default-network command are true? (Choose two)
A. It requires IP routing to be disabled on the device.
B. It specifies the network that is used when the device finds an exact match in the routing table.
C. It specifies the network that is used when the device cannot find an exact match in the routing
table
D. It can be configured on a Layer 2 switch to specify the next hop.
E. It requires IP routing to be enabled on the device.
Answer: C & E

Question 47
Which two statements about RFC 1918 addresses are true? (Choose two)
A. They have reserved address space for Class A and Class B networks only
B. They increase network performance
C. They require Network Address Translation or Port Address Translation to access the Internet
D. They must be registered
E. They provide security to end users when the users access the Internet
Answer: C & E

Question 48
Which two values must you specify to define a static route? (Choose two)
A. destination network and mask
B. source network and mask
C. incoming interface
D. next-hop address or exit interface
E. administrative distance of the route
Answer: A & D
Question 49
Which chassis aggregation technology combines two physical switches into one virtual switch?
A. VSS
B. LACP
C. StackWise
D. VRRP
Answer: A

Question 50
After you configure a DHCP server on VLAN 10 to service clients on VLAN 10 and VLAN 20, clients on
VLAN 10 are given IP address assignments. But clients on VLAN 20 fail to receive IP addresses. Which
action must you take to correct the problem?
A. Configure the ip helper address command in the DHCP server configuration.
B. Configure the DNS name option in the DHCP server configuration
C. Configure a separate DHCP server on VLAN 20
D. Configure the default gateway in the DHCP server configuration
Answer: C

Question 51
Which two commands can you use to configure an LACP EtherChannel? (Choose two)
A. channel-group 10 mode on
B. channel-group 10 mode auto
C. channel-group 10 mode passive
D. channel-group 10 mode desirable
E. channel-group 10 mode active
Answer: C & E

Question 52
Which two commands can you use to configure an PAGP EtherChannel? (Choose two)
A. channel-group 10 mode on
B. channel-group 10 mode auto
C. channel-group 10 mode passive
D. channel-group 10 mode desirable
E. channel-group 10 mode active
Answer: B & D

Question 53
Which two statements about PAP authentication in a PPP environment are true? (Choose two)
A. It is performed at the beginning of the session only.
B. It hashes the password before sending it.
C. It sends the password in clear text.
D. It is performed at the beginning of the session and is repeated periodically for as long as the
session is maintained
E. It uses a username with an MD5 password to authenticate
Answer: A C

Question 54
You apply an new inbound access fist to routers, blocking UDP packets to the HSRP group. Which two
effects does this action have on the HSRP group process? (Choose two)
A. HSRP redundancy works as expected
B. HSRP redundancy fails
C. The active router immediately becomes the standby router.
D. Both the active and standby routers become active.
E. The routers in the group generate duplicate IP address warnings
Answer: B & D
Question 55
Which command should you enter to configure a single port to bypass the spanning-tree Forward and
Delay timers?
A. spanning-tree portfast bpdufiter default
B. spanning-tree portfast default
C. spanning-tree portfast
D. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
Answer: C

Question 56
Which extended ping feature do you use to specify the path that the packet traverses?
A. verbose
B. timestamp
C. strict
D. record
Answer: C

Question 57
Which two statements about GRE tunnels are true? (Choose two)
A. They can operate in tunnel mode and transport mode
B. They provide privacy, integrity, and authenticity
C. They encapsulate the payload
D. They add 8 bytes to the IP header of each packet
E. They allow multicast traffic to traverse WAN circuits
Answer: C E

Question 58
Which two statements about IGP and EGP routing protocols are true? (Choose two)
A. Service providers use OSPF and IS-IS for intra-AS routing
B. EGP routing protocols are used to connect multiple IGP networks.
C. OSPF, EIGRP, and BGP are categorized as IGP routing protocols
D. Service providers use EGP and BGP for intra- AS routing.
E. IGP routing protocols are used within internal networks.
Answer: A & E

Question 59
Which two best practices protect your network from VLAN hopping attacks? (Choose two)
A. Change the native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID
B. Assign all access ports to VLANS other than the native VLAN
C. Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANS.
D. Configure dynamic ARP inspection
E. Configure port security
Answer: A B

Question 60
Which command must you enter to configure a DHCP relay?
A. ip helper-address
B. ip address dhcp
C. ip dhcp relay
D. ip dhcp pool
Answer: A
Question 61
Which command should you enter to configure a DHCP client?
A. ip helper-address
B. ip address dhcp
C. ip dhcp relay
D. ip dhcp pool
Answer: B

Question 62
Which file-system management command is used frequently when IOS backups, upgrades, and
restores are performed?
A. show dir
B. show file
C. delete
D. copy
Answer: D

Question 63
Which algorithm is used for the frame check sequence in an Ethernet frame?
A. MD5
B. AES-256
C. CRC
D. SHA-1
Answer: C

Question 64
Which protocol speeds up the MAC aging process?
A. OSPF
B. RSTP
C. RIP
D. 802.1D
Answer: B

Question 65
Which two statements about the ip subnet-zero command are true?(Choose two)
A. It is enabled by default on Cisco routers
B. It must be configured before you activate NAT on a router
C. It specifies the broadcast IP addresses in the subnet
D. It must be configured each time you reboot a router
E. It enables the network to make full use of the available IP address space
Answer: A & E

Question 66
Which feature can cause a port to shut down immediately after a switch reboot?
A. port security
B. DTP
C. COPP
D. PortFast
Answer: A
Question 67
You are implementing WAN access for an enterprise network while running applications that require a
fully meshed network, which two design standards are appropriate for such an environment? (Choose
two)
A. multiple MPLS VPN connections with static routing
B. multiple MPLS VPN connections with dynamic routing
C. a collapsed core and distribution layer, to minimize costs
D. a collapsed WAN distribution layer, to consolidate connectivity to remote sites
E. a collapsed DMVPN solution, to simplify connectivity for the enterprise
Answer: B & E

Question 68
Which command must you enter to switch from privileged EXEC mode to user EXEC mode on a Cisco
device?
A. configure terminal
B. logout
C. disable
D. enable
Answer: C

Question 69
Which two commands you enter to prevent Cisco devices from sharing information with
neighbor devices(Choose two)
A. (config)#no cdp enable
B. (config-if)#no cdp enable
C. (config-if)#no cdp run
D. (config)#no cdp advertise-v2
E. (config)#no cdp run
Answer: B & E

Question 70
Which keyboard shortcut can you exit the configuration on a CISCO device and return to
privileged EXEC mode without making changes?
A. Ctrl-C
B. Ctrl-Alt-Delete
C. Crtl-V
D. Shift-Esc
Answer: A

Question 71
Which QOS feature can drop traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?
A. weighted fair queuing
B. FIFO
C. policing
D. shaping
Answer: C
Question 72
Which command should you enter to configure single port to prevent alternate ports from
becoming designated ports?
A. spanning-tree loopguard default
B. spanning-tree guard loop
C. spanning-tree etherchannel misconfig
D. spanning-tree guard root
Answer: B

Question 73
What is the easiest way to verify the Layer-3 path from router to host 192.168.2.1??
A. Telnet to connect the router to host 192.168.2.1
B. Add a static route to host to the routing table of the router
C. execute a ping from the router to the host 192.168.2.1
D. execute a traceroute from the router to the host 192.168.2.1
Answer: C

Question 74
Which two statements about RIPv2 are true?(Choose two)
A. It stores RIP neighbor adjacency information in a neighbor table
B. It supports CIDR and VLSM
C. It sends periodic updates via broadcast
D. It uses Bellman, Ford routing algorithm
E. It does not support clear text authentication similar to RIPv1
Answer: B & D

Question 75
Which condition indicates that service password-encryption is enabled?
A. The local username password is in clear text in the configuration.
B. The enable secret is in clear text in the configuration
C. The local username password is encrypted in the configuration.
D. The enable secret is encrypted in the configuration.
Answer: C

Question 76
Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose
three.)
A. SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features
B. SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
C. SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP
D. SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP
E. SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP.
F. SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP.
Answer: A,C & E
Question 77
Two functions that can be peformed by a local DNS server?(choose two)
A. Forwaridng name resolution requests to an external DNS server
B. Transferring split horizon traffic between zones.
C. Assigning IP address to local clients
D. Copying updated IOS images to CISCO switches.
E. Resolving names locally.
Answer: C & E

Question 78
Which two tasks you should perform to begin troubleshooting network problem?(choose
two)
A. Gather all facts
B. Analyze the results
C. Monitor and verify resolution
D. implement action plan
E. Define the problem as a set of symptoms and causes
Answer: A & E

Question 79
Which frame type allows STP to compute the spanning-tree topology?
A. LSA
B. LSP
C. RSTP
D. BPDU
Answer: D

Question 80
Which command should be used to configure the device as a NTP server?
A. ntp peer
B. ntp server
C. ntp authenticate
D. ntp master
Answer: D
Question 81
Which two situations can prevent two routers from establishing an EIGRP neighbor
adjacency?(Choose two)
A. Mismatched K values
B. Are on different subnets
C. ACL is blocking 224.0.0.5
D. Both routers have same router ID
E. Both routers in the same autonomous system
Answer: A & B

Question 82
Which two statements are true regarding TACACS+?(Choose two)
A. Encrypts only the password
B. Supports full command logging
C. Combines authentication and Authroization
D. uses TCP port 49
E. uses UDP port 49
Answer: B & D

Question 83
Which two command you can enter to configure an interface to actively negotiate an
EtherChannel?(Choose two)
A. channel-group 10 mode passive
B. channel-group 10 mode desirable
C. channel-group 10 mode auto
D. channel-group 10 mode active
E. channel-group 10 mode on
Answer: B & D

Question 84
Which two statements about stacking Cisco switches are true ?(choose two)
A. It enables the administrator to manage multiple switches from a single management
interface
B. The administrator can create only one stack of switches in a network which is under the
same administrative domain
C. When a new master switch is elected, it queries the previous master for its running
configuration
D. The administrator can add additional switches to the stack as demand increases
E. Each switch manages its own MAC address table
Answer: A & D
Question 85
Which command can you enter to determine whether serial interface 0/2/0 has been
configured using HDLC encapsulation?
A. router#show platform
B. router#show interface Serial 0/2/0
C. router#show ip interface s0/2/0
D. router#show ip interface brief
Answer: B

Question 86
Which two steps must you perform on each device that is configured for IPv4 routing
before you implement OSPFv3?(Choose two)
A. configure an autonomous system number
B. configure a loopback interface
C. configure a router ID
D. Enable IPv6 on an interface
E. Enable IPv6 unicast routing
Correct Answer: D & E

Question 87
Which two benefits that UDP protocol provides for application traffic?(Choose two)
A. UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic
B. UDP maintains the connection state and more stable than TCP
C. UDP provides a built in recovery mechanism to transmit lost packets
D. Application can use checksums to verify the integrity of data.
E. UDP CTL field enables three-way handshake to establish the connection
Answer: A & D

Question 88
What is the simplest IP SLA operation that can measure end-to-end response time between
devices?
A. ICMP jitter
B. ICMP path echo
C. ICMP echo
D. ICMP path jitter
Answer: C

Question 89
Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose three.)
A. FEC0::/10 is used for IPv6 broadcast.
B. FC00::/7 is used in private networks.
C. FE80::/8 is used for link-local unicast.
D. FE80::/10 is used for link-local unicast.
E. 2001::1/127 is used for loopback addresses.
F. FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast.
Answer: B,D & F
Question 90
Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. provides common view of entire topology
B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors
C. calculates shortest path
D. utilizes event-triggered updates
E. utilizes frequent periodic updates
Answer: A & D

Question 91
Which adverse circumstance can occur when you connect full duplex devices to a shared
ethernet hub?
A. a duplex mismatch
B. native VLAN mismatches
C. excessive collisions
D. alignment errors
Answer: A

Question 92
Which are two facts when you deply PPPoE?(Choose two)
A. Must manually configure IP address on the PPPoE interface
B. DDR is not supported
C. DDR idle timers must be configured to support VPDN logging
D. Indiviudal PVC can support one PPPoE client
E. PPPoE supports a maximum of 10 clients for CPE.
Answer: C E

Question 93
Which two command can be used to view PID and serial number of a router? (Choose two.)
A.show license udi
B.show version
C.show license status
D.show license feature
E.show license
Answer: A & B

Question 94
Which Rapid PVST+ port roles provides a different path to the root bridge?
A. designated
B. backup
C. forwarding
D. alternate
Answer: D
Question 95
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Answer: A & D

Question 96
Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
C. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
D. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
E. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
Answer: B

Question 97
A cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process.It is now ready to find
and load an IOS image.what function does the router perform next?
A. It checks the configuration register
B. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server
C. It loads the first image file in flash memory
D. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions
Answer: A

Question 98
Which two correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow
control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the
segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and
destination host
addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control
information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical
link.
Answer: A & D
Question 99
which circumstance is a common cause of late collisions?
A. native VLAN mismatch
B. overloaded hardware queues
C. duplex mismatch
D. software misconfiguration
Answer: C

Question 100
What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection.
B. The connection is established before data is transmitted.
C. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.
D. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP.
E. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted.
F. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.
Answer: B C & F

Question 101
Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)
A. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.
B. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.
C. It is bandwidth-intensive.
D. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.
E. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
Answer: B & E

Question 102
During which phase of PPPoE is PPP authentication performed?
A. the PPP Session phase
B. Phase 2
C. the Active Discovery phase
D. the Authentication phase
E. Phase 1
Answer: A
Question 103
Which two statements about northbound and southbound APIs are true? (Choose two.)
A. Only southbound APIs allow program control of the network.
B. Only northbound APIs allow program control of the network.
C. Only southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
D. Only northbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
E. Both northbound and southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
F. Both northbound and southbound APIs allow program control of the network.
Answer: B & C

Question 104
what are contained in layer 2 ethernet frame? (Choose Three.)
A. Preamble
B. TTL
C. Type/length
D. Frame check sequence
E. version
F. http://bbs.hh010.com/
Answer: A C & D

Question 105
Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)
A. The virtual IP address and virtual address are active on the HSRP Master router.
B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
C. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.
D. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers' interfaces on
the same
LAN.
E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router's interface addresses
on the LAN.
F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load
balancing
Answer: A B & F
Question 106
Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology? (Choose two.)
A. It requires only three IP addresses per VLAN.
B. It supports HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP.
C. It requires only one IP address per VLAN.
D. It reduces management overhead.
E. It supports redundant configuration files.
F. Switches can be located anywhere regardless of their physical distance from one
another.
Answer: C & D

Question 107
When troubleshooting client DNS issues, which two task must you perform? (Choose two)
A. Ping a public website IP address.
B. Ping the DNS Server.
C. Determine whether a DHCP address has been assigned.
D. Determine whether the hardware address is correct.
E. Determine whether the name servers have been configured
Correct Answer: B & E

Question 108
Which IPsec security protocol should be used when confidentiality is required?
A. MD5
B. PSK
C. AH
D. ESP
Answer: D

Question 109
What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each non
root switch ina spanning-tree topology?
B. port priority number and MAC address.
C. VTP revision number
D. highest port priority number.
E. path cost
Answer: E
Question 110
Which one of these is a valid HSRP Virtual Mac Address?
A. 0000.0C07.AC15
B. 0000.5E00.01A3
C. 0007.B400.AE01
D. 0007.5E00.B301
Answer: A

Question 111
Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design?(choose three)
A. to confine network instability to single areas of the network.
B. to reduce the complexity of router configuration
C. to speed up convergence
D. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
E. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
F. to reduce routing overhead
Correct Answer: A C & F

Question 112
Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?
A. application
B. internet
C. network
D. transport
Answer: B

Question 113
A network administrator enters the following command on a router:logging trap 3 .
What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server?(choose three)
A. warning
B. informational
C. error
D. emergency
E. debug
F. critical
Answer: C D & F
Question 114
Which two types of NAT addresses are used in a Cisco NAT device? (Choose two.)
A. inside local
B. inside global
C. inside private
D. outside private
E. external global
F. external local
Answer: A & B

Question 115
Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
C. FEC0:2927:1860:W067::2A4
D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
Answer: D

Question 116
Which two statements correctly describe RADIUS?(Choose two)
A. It separates authentication, authorization, and accounting functions
B. It uses TCP as its transport protocol
C. It encrypts only the password
D. It combines authentication and authorization
E. I can authorize specific router commands
Answer: C & D

Question 117
Which LLDP extension provides additional support for VoIP?
A. TLV
B. LLDP-MED
C. LLDPv3
D. LLDP-VOIP
Answer: B

Question 118
Which algorithm is used for the frame check sequence in an Ethernet frame?
A. MD5
B. AES-256
C. CRC
D. SHA-1
Answer: C
Question 119
Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three.)
A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin
B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin
C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin
D. Router> boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
E. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
F. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz.122-23f.bin
Answer: A, B & C

Question 120
Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP application
layer?(Choose three)
A. Session
B. transport
C. presentation
D. application
E. data-link
F. network
Answer: A,C & D

Question 121
What are contained in L2 basic ethernet frame? (Choose Three.)
A. Preamble
B. TTL
C. Type/length
D. Frame check sequence
E. version
F. http://bbs.hh010.com/
Answer: A, C & D

Question 122
Which two options are fields in an Ethernet frame?(choose two)
A. frame check sequence
B. header
C. source IP address
D. destination IP address
E. type
Answer: A & E
Question 123
Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mismatch problem?
A. no earner
B. late collisions
C. giants
D. CRC errors
E. deferred
F. runts
Answer: B

Question 124
A cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process.It is now ready to find and load an
IOS image.what function does the router perform next?
A. It checks the configuration register
B. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server
C. It loads the first image file in flash memory
D. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions
Answer: A

Question 125
Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?
A. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10
B. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 10
C. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 0 10
D. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 10
Answer: A

Question 126
Which two correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control
information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host
addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a
segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Answer: A & D
Question 127
Which command can you enter to configure a local username with an encrypted password and EXEC
mode user privileges?
A. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 08314D5D1A48
B. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 PASSWORD1
C. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 08314D5D1A48
D. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 PASSWORD1
Answer: A

Question 128
Which condition indicates that service password-encryption is enabled?
A. The local username password is in clear text in the configuration.
B. The enable secret is in clear text in the configuration
C. The local username password is encrypted in the configuration.
D. The enable secret is encrypted in the configuration.
Answer: C

Question 129
Which layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuis and has
built-in security mechanisms?
A. Frame Relay
B. HDLC
C. x.25
D. PPP
/// D

QUESTION 130
what prompt Cisco switch display when it is running in privilege exec mode
A. Switch>
B. Switch(config-if)#
c. Switch(config)#
D. Switch#
Answer: D

Question 131
What is the affect of terminal monitor command ?
A. It puts the device to global configuatoin mode
B. It configres a syslog server
C. It displays the configuration of the syslog server
D. It configures the device to log messages to the console.
Answer: D
Question 132
Which command is configured on a switch to enable neighbor discovery in a multivendor
environment?
A. lldp transmit
B. lldp run
c. cdp run
D. lldp receive
Answer: B

Question 133
Which two pieces of information can be shared with LLDP TLVs? (Choose two)
A. device management address.
B. device type
C. spanning-tree topology
D. routing configuration
E. access-list configuration
Answer: A & B

Question 134
Which command you enter on a switch to display the ip address associated with connected devices?
A. Show cdp neighbors detail
B. Show cdp neighbor
C. Show cdp interface
D. Show cdp traffic
Answer: A

Question 135
On which combinations are standard access-lists are based ?
A. Destination Address and Wildcard Mask
B. Source Address and Wildcard Mask
c. Destination Address and Subnet Mask
d. Source Address and subnet Mask
Answer: B

Question 136
Which type of access list compares source and destination IP address?
A. standard
B. extended
C. IP named
D. reflexive
Answer: B
Question 137
Which two statements about 1000BASE-T UTP cable are true ?(choose two)
A. It use four wires
B. It is most appropriate for installations up to 1000 feet in length
C. It uses four wire pairs
D. It is most appropriate for installations up to 1000 meters in length
E. Both ends of the cable can transmit and receive simultaneously
Answer: C & E

Question 138
Which two EtherChannel PAgP modes can you configure ?(choose two)
A. desirable
B. active
C. auto
D. on
E. passive
Answer: A & C

Question 139
What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch
in a spanning-tree topology?
A. lowest port MAC address
B. port priority number and MAC address.
C. VTP revision number
D. highest port priority number.
E. path cost
Answer: E

Question 140
If the primary root bridge experiences a power loss, which switch takes over?
A. switch 0040.0110.90C5
B. switch 00E0.F90B.6BE3
C. switch 0004.9A1A.C182
D. switch 00E0.F726.3DC6
Answer: C
Question 141
Which type of mac address is aged automatically by the switch?
A. Dynamic
B. Static
C. automatic
D. manual
Answer: A

Question 142
A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch.which two statements are
true?(choose two)
A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports
B. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure mac addresses in the voice vlan.
C. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.
D. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
E. When dynamic mac address learning is enabled on an interface,the switch can learn new addresses,up to the
maximum defined.
Answer: C & E

Question 143
Which two benefits can you get by stacking Cisco switches?(choose two)
A. Each switch in the stack handles the MAC table independently from the others
B. You can add or remove switches without taking the stack down.
C. Each switch in the stack can use a different IOS image
D. The stack enables any active member to take over as the master switch if the existing master fails.
E. You can license the entire stack with a single master license
Answer: B & D

Question 144
Which two statements about stacking Cisco switches are true ?(choose two)
A. It enables the administrator to manage multiple switches from a single management interface
B. The administrator can create only one stack of switches in a network which is under the same
administrative domian
C. When a new master switch is elected,it queries the previous master for its running configuration
D. The administrator can add additional switches to the stack as demand increases
E. Each switch manages its own MAC address table
Answer: A & D
Question 145
In which STP state does MAC address learning take place on a PortFast-enabled port?
A. listening
B. forwarding
C. discarding
D. learning
Answer: B

Question 146
Under which two circumstances is a switch port that is configured with PortFast BPDU guard
errordisable?(choose two)
A. when the switch receives a request for an IP address from an individual PC
B. when the switch receives a BPDU from a connected switch
C. when a wireless access point running in bridge mode is connected to a switch
D. when a single IP address is configured on the switch
E. when a connected server has more than one VLAN configured on its NIC
Answer: B & C

Question 147
How is provided master redundancy on a stacked switches?
A. 1:N
B. N:1
C. 1:1
D. 1+N
Answer: A

Question 148
Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attack ? (Choose three)
A. Spoofing attacks
B. Vlan Hopping
C. botnet attacks
D. DDOS attacks
E. ARP Attacks
F. Brute force attacks
Answer: A, B & E
Question 149
When an interace configured with PortFast BPDU guard, how does the interface respond
when it receives a BPDU?
A. It continues operating normally
B. It goes in to down/down state
C. It becomes the root bridge for configured VLAN
D. It goes in to an errdisable state.
Answer: D

Question 150
What two tasks does a router perform when it receives a packet that is being forwarded from one
network to another?(choose two)
A. It removes the Layer-2 frame header and trailer
B. It examine the MAC address table for forwarding interfaces
C. It removes the Layer-3 frame header and trailer.
D. It encapsulates the Layer 2 packet
E. It examine the routing table for the best path to destination IP address of the packet.
Answer: A & E

Question 151
Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an IP enable router interface ?
A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip default-gateway GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config)#default-information originate
D. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Answer: D

Question 152
what are two advantages of static routing ?(choose two)
A. It can be implemented easily even in large environments
B. It produces minimal CPU load
C. It cannot be used to load-balance traffic over multiple links
D. It allows the administrator to control the path of traffic
E. It allows the network to respond immediately to changes
Anser: B & D
Question 153
Which two advantages do dynamic routing protocols provide over static routing ?(choose two)
A. Only dynamic routing is supported on all topologies that require multiple vendors
B. Dynamic routing requries fewer resources than static routing.
C. Dynamic routing is more secure than static routing
D. Dynamic routing protocols automatically adapt to reroute traffic if needed.
E. Dynamic routing protocols are easier to manage on very large networks.
Answer: D & E

Question 154
Which three statements about link-state routing are true? (Choose three.)
A. Routes are updated when a change in topology occurs.
B. Updates are sent to a multicast address by default.
C. OSPF is a link-state protocol.
D. Updates are sent to a broadcast address.
E. RIP is a link-state protocol
F. It uses split horizon.
Answer: A, B & C

Question 155
Which two statements about floating static routes are true? (Choose two)
A. They are routes to the exact /32 destination address
B. They are used when a route to the destination network is missing
C. They have a higher administrative distance than the default static route administrative distance
D. They are used as back-up routes when the primary route goes down
E. They are dynamic routes that are learned from a server
Answer: C & D

Question 156
You Configured a router with OSPF router ID, But its IP address still reflects the physical interface,
what action can be taken to correct the problem in least destuptive way?
A. Reload the OSPF process
B. Save the router configuration
C. Specific a loopback address
D. Reboot the router
Answer: A
Question 157
Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?
A. FF02::1
B. FF02::2
C. FF02::3
D. FF02::4
Answer: B

Question 158
which address prefix does OSPFv3 use when multiple IPv6 address are configured on a single
interface?
A. all prefix on the interface
B. the prefix that the administrator configure for OSPFv3 use
C. the lowest prefix on the interface
D. the highest prefix on the interface
Answer: A

Question 159
Which tunneling mechanism embeds an IPv4 address within an IPv6 address?
A. Teredo
B. 6to4
C. 4to6
D. GRE
E. ISATAP
Answer: B

Question 160
Which two statements about IPv6 multicast address are true ?(choose two)
A. If the liftime parameter is set to 1,the route is permanent.
B. They use the prefix FC80::/8
C. They use the prefix FF00::/8
D. They identify a group of interfaces on different devices
E. If the scope parameter is set to 5,the route is local to the node
Anser: C & D
Question 161
Which protocol does ipv6 use to discover other ipv6 nodes on the same segment?
A. CLNS
B. TCPv6
C. NHRP
D. NDP
E. ARP
Answer: D

Question 162
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Answer A, B & C

Question 163
What are the two statements about EUI-64 addressing? (Choose two)
A. A locally administrated address has the universal/local bit set to 0.
B. A 64-bit interface identifier is derived from the interface MAC address
C. A 96-bit interface identifier is derived from the interface MAC address
D. The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the first 24 bits of the interface MAC address
E. The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the last 24 bits of the interface MAC address
Answer: B & D

Question 165
Which benefit of implementing a dual-homed WAN connection instead of a single-homed connection
istrue ?
A. Only dual-homed connections support OSPF in conjunction with BGP
B. Only dual-homed connections support split horizon with EIGRP
C. Only dual-homed connections enable an individual router to tolerate the loss of a network link
D. Only dual-homed connections support recursive routing
Answer: C
Question 166
Which WAN topology is most appropriate for a centrally located server farm with several satellite
branches?
A. star
B. hub and spoke
C. point-to-point
D. full mesh
Answer: B

Question 167
Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true? (Choose two.)
A. They can simplify the management and deployment of wireless LANs.
B. They rely on external firewalls for WLAN security.
C. They are best suited to smaller wireless networks.
D. They must be configured through a GUI over HTTP or HTTPS.
E. They can manage mobility policies at a systemwide level.
Answer: A & E

Question 168
which two services can be provided by a wireless controller?(choose two)
A. issuing IP addresses to wired devices
B. mitigating threats from the internet
C. providing authentication services to users
D. managing interference in a dense network
E. Layer 3 routing between wired and wireless devices
Answer: B & C

Question 170
Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)
A. The virtual IP address and virtual address are active on the HSRP Master router.
B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
C. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.
D. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers' interfaces on the same LAN.
E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router's interface addresses on the LAN.
F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing
Answer: A, B & F
Question 171
which option is the primary purpose of traffic shaping
A. Limiting bandwidth usage
B. Providing best effort service
C. Enabling dynamic flow identification
D. Enabling policy based routing.
Answer: A

Question 172
What authentication type is used by SNMPv2 ?
A. username and password
B. community strings
C. HMAC-MD5
D. HMAC-SHA
Answer: B

Question 173
Which 3 feature are represented by A letter in AAA Authentication? (Choose Three)
A. authorization
B. accounting
C. authentication
D. accountability
E. accessibility
F. authority
Answer: A,B & C

Question 174
Which two commands can you use to verify an IP SLA ?(choose two)
A. show ip sla application
B. show ip sla reaction-configuration
C. show ip sla statistics
D. show ip sla configuration
Answer: A & D
Question 175
Which two IP SLA operations can you use to measure the end-to-end response time for all IP traffic
between a Cisco router and an end device ?(choose two)
A. UDP jitter
B. ICMP path jitter
C. TCP connect
D. ICMP path echo
E. ICMP echo
F. UDP echo
Answer: E & F

Question 176
Which NAT function can map multiple inside addresses to a single outside address?
A. PAT
B. SFTP
C. RARP
D. ARP
E. TFTP
Answer: A

Question 177
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Answer: B & C

Question 178
You are configuring an IP SLA ICMP Echo operation to troubleshoot a network connectivity
issue.When do you enter an IP address to test the IP SLA?
A. when you enable the ICMP Echo operation
B. when you define the ICMP Echo operation
C. when you specify the test frequency
D. when you verify the IP SLA operation
Answer: B
Question 179
Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three.)
A. Utilizing Syslog improves network performance
B. The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems
C. A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log files without using router disk space
D. There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP trap
messages.
E. Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping
F. A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts.
Answer: C, D & F

Question 180
which API use HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different host ?
A. OpFlex
B. REST
C. OpenStack
D. OpenFlow
Answer: B

Question 181
Which two statements about northbound and southbound APIs are true? (Choose two.)
A. Only southbound APIs allow program control of the network.
B. Only northbound APIs allow program control of the network.
C. Only southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
D. Only northbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
E. Both northbound and southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
Answer: B & C

Question 182
Which two server types are used to support DNS lookup?(choose two)
A. Authoritative name server
B. web server
C. ESXi host
D. Name resolver
E. File transfer server
Answer: A & D
Question 183
Which two statements about tunnel mode ipv6ip are true?(choose two)
A. It specificy IPv4 as the encapsulation type
B. It specifies that tunnel is a Teredo tunnel
C. It specifies IPv6 as the encapsulation protocol
D. It enables the transmission of IPv6 packets within the configured tunnel
E. It specifies IPv6 as the transport protocol\
Answer: A & D

Question 184
Which two differences between distace-vector and link -state routing protocols are true (choose two)
A. Only link-state routing protocols use Bellman-Ford alogorithm.
B. Link state routing protocols offer faster convergences than distance-vector routing protocols
c. Only distance-vector routing protocols sends the full routing table updates.
D. Distance vector routing prtocols are more prone to loops than link-state routing protocols.
E. Only distnace-vedtor routing protocols maintain identical topology tables on all neighbors.
Answer: B & D

Question 185
Which NAT function can map multiple inside addresses to a single outside address
A. SFTP
B. RARP
C. PAT
D. ARP
E. TFTP
Answer: C

Question 186
In which STP state does MAC address learning take place on a Port-Fast-enabled port?
A. listening
B. forwarding
C. discarding
D. learning
Answer: B
Question 187
What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic? (Choose two)
A. UDP provides a built-in recovery mechanism to retransmit lost packets.
B. The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data.
C. The CTL field in the UDP packet header enables a three-way handshake to establish the connection.
D. UDP maintains the connection state to provide mode stable connections that TCP.
E. UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic.
Answer: B & E

Question 188
What is the easiest way to verify the Layer 3 path from a router to host 192.168.2.1?
A. Execute a ping from the router to host 192.168.2.1
B. Add a static route for host 192.168.2.1 to the routing table of the router
C. Use Telnet to connect the router to host 192.168.2.1
D. Execute a traceroute from the router to host 192.168.2.1
Answer: D

Question 189

What is the effect of the given configuration?

A. It configures an inactive switch virtual interface.
B. It configures an active management interface.
C. It configures the native VLAN.
D. It configures the default VLAN.
Answer: A

Question 190
Which layer 2 protocol encapsulaton type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits
and has built in security mechanisms
A. Frame Relay
B. HDLC
C. X.25
D. PPP
Answer: D
QUESTION-191
Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)
A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured.
B. The tunnel interface is down.
C. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
D. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.
E. The ISP is blocking the traffic.
F. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic. Correct
Answer: B,C &D

QUESTION-192
If all switches are configured with default values,which switch will take over when the primary root
bridge experiences a power loss?
A. switch 0040.0ВС0.90C5
B. switch 00E0.F90B.6BE3
C. switch 0004.9A1A.C182
D. switch 00E0.F726.3DC6
Answer: C

QUESTION-193
which port security mode can assist with troubleshooting by keeping count of violations?
A. access
B. protect
C. restrict
D. shutdown
Answer: C

QUESTION-194
which command allows you to set the administrative distance for EIGRP for IPV6?
A. ipv6 summary-address eigrp
B. metric weights
C. ipv6 bandwidth-percent eigrp
D. ipv6 next-hop-self eigrp
Answer: A

QUESTION-195
Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly
connected Cisco devices?
A. enable cdp
B. run cdp
C. cdp enable
D. cdp run
Answer: D
QUESTION-196
which access layer threat mitigation technique security by acting as a filter between trusted and
untrusted traffic sources?
A. DHCP snooping
B. 802.1X
C. dynamic packet inspection
D. a nondefault native VLAN
Answer: A

QUESTION-197
which two address spaces are valid Class B IPV4 ranges that are non-routable to the internet?(choose
two)
A. 10.0.0.0 through 10.0.255.255
B. 169.254.0.0 through 169.254.255.255
C. 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255
D. 172.16.0.0 through 172.32.255.255
E. 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255
Answer: B & C

QUESTION 198
Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an OSPF neighbor adjacency?
(Choose two.)
A. mismatched autonomous system numbers
B. an ACL blocking traffic from multicast address 224.0.0.10
C. mismatched process IDs
D. mismatched hello timers and dead timers
E. use of the same router ID on both devices
Answer: D & E

QUESTION 199
After an FTP session to ftp.cisco.com fails,you attempt to ping the server.A ping to ftp.cisco.com also
fails,but a ping to the IP address of the server is successful.What is reason for the failed FTP session ?
A. The assigned DNS server is down
B. An ACL is blocking the FTP request
C. A firewall is blocking traffic from the FTP site
D. The internet connection is down
Answer: A

QUESTION 200
Which two statements about an Ethernet frame source address are true? (Choose two.)
A. The address is 4 bits long.
B. The leftmost bit is always 0.
C. The address is 6 bytes long.
D. The leftmost bit is always 1.
E. The address is 4 bytes long
Answer: B & C
QUESTION 201
Which two features are compatible with port security? (Choose two)
A. SPAN destination port
B. voice VLAN
C. DTP
D. EtherChannel
E. SPAN source port Correct
Answer: B & E

QUESTION 202
Which feature or method can you use to isolate physical layer problems on a serial link?
A. loopback tests
B. auto-negotiation
C. UDLD
D. protocol analyzer
Answer: A

QUESTION 203
Which switching method checks for CRC errors?
A. store-and-forward
B. cut-through
C. fragment-free
D. Layer 3
Answer: A

QUESTION 204
Which two actions must you take to correctly configure PPPoE on a client? (Choose two )
A. Define a dialer interface
B. Create a dialer pool and bind it to the virtual template
C. Define a virtual template interface
D. Create a dialer pool and bind it to the physical interface.
E. Create a BBA group and link it to the dialer interface
Answer: A & D
QUESTION 205
Which two benefits are provided by cloud resources to an enterprise network？（Choose two ）
A. full control of infrastructure
B. complexity at higher cost
C. flexibility
D. on-demand scalability
E. easy access with low security
Answer: C & D

QUESTION 206
Which two statements about ping utility?(select two)
A. uses UDP
B. uses ICMP
c. It can identify the path packet take to remote device
D. It can verify connectivity to a remote device without identifying the path
E. It can identify the path the packet takes to a remote device.
Answer: B & E

QUESTION 207
Which IP address can send traffic to all hosts on network 10.101.0.0/16?
A. 10.101.0.1
B. 224.0.0.1
C. 10.101.255.255
D. 10.101.254.254
Answer: C

QUESTION 208
Which command is used to determine priority of a router in a standby group?
A. Show sessions
B. show hsrp
C. show standby
D. show interfaces
Answer: C

QUESTION 209
Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command?
(Choose two)
A. whether the NTP peer is statically configured
B. the IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized
C. the configured NTP servers
D. whether the clock is synchronized
E. the NTP version number of the peer
Answer: B & D
QUESTION 210
which two technologies can combine multiple physical switches into one logical switch? (Choose two)
A. HSRP
B. GLBP
C. StackWise
D. VRRP
E. VSS
Answer: C & E

QUESTION 211
which symbol in the APIC-EM Path Trace tool output indicates that an ACL is present and might deny
packets?

Answer: C

QUESTION 212
Which three commands are required to enable NTP authentication on a Cisco router? (Choose three)
A. ntp peer
B. ntp max-associations
C. ntp authenticate
D. ntp trusted-key
E. ntp authentication-key
F. ntp refclock
Answer: C, D & E

QUESTION 213
What are three features of the IPV6 protocol?(choose three)
A. complicated header
B. plug-and-play
C. no broadcasts
D. checksums
E. optional IPsec
F. autoconfiguration
Correct Answer: B, C & F

QUESTION 214
Which address block identifies all link-local addresses?
A. FC00::/7
B. FC00::/8
C. FE80::/10
D. FF00::/8
Answer: C
QUESTION 215
Which address class includes network 191.168.0.1/27?
A. Class-A
B. Class-B
C. Class-C
D. Class-D
Answer: B

QUESTION 216
Which statement about recovering a password on a Cisco router is true?
A. The default reset password is cisco
B. It requires a secure SSl/VPN connection
C. A factory resset is required if you forget the password
D. It requires physical access to the router
Answer: D

QUESTION 217
After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network,which two additional tasks
should you consider ? (choose two)
A. deploy load balancers
B. configure additional vlans
C. configure multiple VRRP groups
D. deploy POE switches
E. configure additional security policies
Answer: A & E

QUESTION 218
To enable router on a router subinterface, which two steps must you perform?(choose two)
A. Configure full duplex and speed
B. configure the subinterface with an IP address
C. Configure an IP route to the VLAN destination network
D. Configure a default to route traffic between subinterface
E. Configure encapsulation dot1q
Answer: B & E
Question 219

Answer: B & D
Question 220

Answer: C & E
QUESTION 221
Refer to the exhibit.which two statements about router R1 are true?(choose two)

A. the router has two EIGRP neighbors and one OSPF neighbor
B. at least two IGP routing protocols are running on the router
C. at least three IGP routing protocols are running on the router
D. the router is learning external OSPF and EIGRP routes
E. the router has an OSPF Area 0 adjacency with the device at 10.82.4.42 Correct
Answer: B & D

Question 222
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Port Security :Enabled
Port Status :Secure-up
Violation Mode :Protect
Maximum Mac ADDRESS :4
Security Violation count :0
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Refer to the exhibit, what 2 events will happen on interface if packets from unknown
source address arrives after maximum number of MAC address is reached (choose two)\
A. Security violation counter will not increment
B. Interface is err-disabled
C. Syslog message is generated
D. Port LED turn off
E. Interface drops traffic from unknown MAC address
Answer: A & E
Question 223
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two)
A. Two secure MAC address are manually configured on the interface
B. A syslog message is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is on the
interface
C. The interface is error-disabled
D. The interface dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses
E. An SNMP trap is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on the
interface
Answer: C & D

Question 224
Which routing protocol is used on route to 192.168.10.1

A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. IGRP
Answer: C
Question 225

A. 1
B. 90
C. 110
D. 120
Answer : B

Question 226
Refer to the exhibit Which two facts can you determine from the EIGRP topology table? (Choose two)

A. If a route has more than one successor, only one route is injected into the routing table.
B. The FD 28416 for route 10.242.0.148 is also the metric for the routing table
C. The variance command must have been issued to allow route 10.85.184.0 to have two Successors.
D. The reported distance value is greater than the feasible distance
E. All successors are injecting into the routing table
Answer: B & E
Question 227
Refer to the exhibit Which two pieces of information can you determine from the EIGRP topology
table? (Choose two)

A. Route 10.42.88.0/21 has an administrative distance of 28160

B. Route 10.42.91.0/24 has a tag of 28160
C. Each route has only one best path
D. The EIGRP neighbor IP address is 10.111 253.216
E. The reported distance of 10.0.0.0/8 is 0
Answer: C E

Question 228
Refer to the exhibit.

The server on this network is configured with an MTU of 9216 and the two interfaces on router R1 are
configured for MTUs of 2000 and 3000, as shown. What is the largest packet size that can pass
between the workstation and the server?
A. 1500 bytes
B. 2000 bytes
C. 3000 bytes
D. 9216 bytes
Answer: A
Question 229
Refer to the exhibit, an attempt to deny web access to a subnet blocks all traffic from subnet.
Which command to remove the effect of access-list 102?

A. no ip access-class 102 out

B. no ip access-list 102 in
C. no ip access-group 102 out
D. no ip access-class 102 in
Answer: C

Question 230

A.The fa0/11 role confirms that switch-A is root bridge for VLAN 20
B. VLAN 20 is running per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol
C. The MAC address of the root bridges is 0017.596d.1580
D. Switch-A is not the root bridge because not all the interface roles are designated.
Answer: D
Question 231
Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0
network.The network administrator connected to console port,issued the show ip route
command,and was able to ping the server.Based on the output of the show ip route
command topology shown in the graphic,what is the cause of the failure?

A. IP routing is not enabled

B. A static route is configured incorrectly
C. The network has not fully converged
D. The FastEthernet interface on Coffee is disabled
E. The routing table on Coffee has not updated
F. The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated
Answer: B
Question 232
Refer to the exhibit. HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what could be
the cause of this problem?

A. HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway.

B. The address of SwitchA is a subnet address.
C. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can’t be used.
D. The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.
E. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.
Answer: D
Question 233

A. Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1.

B. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254.
C. Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2.
D. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2.
E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.
F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.
Answer: B & D

Question 234
ACL 102
access-list 102 deny tcp 172.21.1.1 0.0.0.255 any eq 80
access-list 102 deny ip any any
RouterA#show ip int
FastEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up
Internet address is 192.168.1.144/20
Broadcast address is 255.255.255.255
Address determined by DHCP
MTU is 1500 bytes
Helper address is not set
Directed broadcast forwarding is enabled
Outgoing access list is 102
Inbound access list is not set
Proxy ARP is enabled
An attempt to deny web access to a subnet blocks all traffic from the subnet. Which interface
command immediately removes the effect of ACL 102?
A. no ip access-class 102 in
B. no ip access-class 102 out
C. no ip access-group 102 in
D. no ip access-group 102 out
E. no ip access-list 102 in
Answer: D
Question 235
Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two)

A. the IP address of Switch 1

B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of Host C
D. the MAC address of Host C
E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface
Answer: C & F

Question 236

A.Switch A-Fa0/0
B. Switch A-Fa0/1
C. Switch B-Fa0/0
D. Switch B-Fa0/1
E. Switch C-Fa0/0
F. Switch C-Fa0/1
Answer: B, C & D
Question 237

A. five
B. Twelve
C. Six
D. One
Answer: D
Question 238

A. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester.

B. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to Manchester
C. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the London router.
D. Configure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10.1.1.1.
E. Configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172.16.0.0/22 to 10.1.1.2.
F. Configure Manchester to advertise a static default route to London.
Answer: E
Question 239

A. Network A - 172.16.3.48/26
B. Network A - 172.16.3.128/25
C. Network A - 172.16.3.192/26
D. Link A - 172.16.3.0/30
E. Link A - 172.16.3.40/30
F. Link A - 172.16.3.112/30
Answer: B & D
Question 240

A. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.
B. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
C. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
D. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.
E. Router C will send a Router Selection message type.
F. Router C will send a Source Quench message type.
Answer: A & D
Question 241

A. Host B and the switch need to be in the same subnet.

B. The switch needs and appropriate default gateway assigned.
C. The switch interface connected to the router is down.
D. Host B need to be assigned an IP address in vlan 1.
E. The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned.
Answer: B
Question 242

A. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port.

B. Check the duplex mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port.
C. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.
D. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.
Answer: C
Question 243

A. Switch3, port fa0/1

B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Answer: C

Question 244

A. The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed

B. VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed
C. The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode
D. VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database
Answer: C
Question 245

A. Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1.

B. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254.
C. Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2.
D. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2.
E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.
F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.
Answer: B & D
Question 246

Refer to the exhibit.If the devices produced the given output,what is the cause of the EtherChannel
problem?
A. There is a speed mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces.
B. There is an MTU mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces
C. There is an encapsulation mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interface
D. SW1's Fa0/1 interface is administratively shut down.
Answer: A
Question 247

A. SwitchB(config)#interface FastEthernet 0/1

SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)#no shutdown

B. SwitchB(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254

SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)#no shutdown

C. SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)#no shutdown

D. SwitchB(config)#ip default-network 192.168.8.254

SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)#no shutdown
Answer: B
Question 248
Question 249
Question 250
Question 251
Question 252
Question 253
Question 254
Question 255
Question 256
Question 257
Question 258
Question 259

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Question 260
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Question 264
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