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1

RAFFLES INSTITUTION
2017 Year 5 Promotional Examination

Higher 2

BIOLOGY 9744/01
Paper 1 Multiple Choice 29th Sep 2017

1 hour
Additional materials: OMR Answer Sheet

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid.


Write your name, class and index number on the OMR Answer Sheet in the spaces provided.

There are thirty questions in this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four
possible answers A, B, C, and D. Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in
soft pencil on the separate OMR Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the OMR Answer Sheet very carefully.


Each correct answer will score half a mark. Marks will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Calculators may be used

(Erase all mistakes completely. Do not bend or fold the OMR Answer Sheet).

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

Raffles Institution
Internal Examination

© RI 2017 2017 Year 5 H2 Biology Promotional Examination 9744/01


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1. Raffinose is a trisaccharide which can be degraded by certain enzymes. The results of two
different enzymatic incubations are shown in the table below:

Enzyme used Products

Sucrase Melibiose and fructose

Galactosidase Galactose and sucrose

Which of following statements are consistent with the results shown above?

I Raffinose is composed of three different monosaccharides.


II Melibiose is a disaccharide.
III One of the products of acid hydrolysis of raffinose is glucose.
IV The products of raffinose digestion by sucrase and galactosidase respectively will yield
a brick-red precipitate when heated with Benedict’s reagent.

A I and III only


B II and IV only
C I, II and III only
D All of the above

Explanation:
- I is correct because from the table, results of incubation by galactosidase yield
galactose and sucrose which is made up of glucose and fructose. Hence raffinose is
composed of galactose, glucose and fructose – 3 different monosaccharides
- II is correct because raffinose is a trisaccharide which is catalyzed by sucrose to form
melibiose and fructose which is a monosaccharide, hence melibiose is a disaccharide
- III is correct because acid hydrolysis of raffinose will yield monosaccharides and one of
which in raffinose is glucose
- IV is correct because digestion of raffinose by sucrase will form fructose which is a
monosaccharide which will yield brick red ppt when heated with Benedict’s reagent

2. Which of the following statements about membrane fluidity are correct?


I The more saturated the fatty acid chains of the phospholipids, the more fluid the
membrane is.
II The greater the amount of cholesterol in the membrane, the less fluid the membrane is
at high temperatures.
III The longer the hydrocarbon tails of the phospholipids, the more fluid the membrane is.
IV At low temperatures, a membrane with phospholipids containing hydrocarbon tails with
more kinks is less likely to solidify.

A I and III only


B II and IV only
C I, II and III only
D II, III and IV only

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Explanation:
- I is wrong because saturated fatty acid chain does not have kinks so it will be less fluid
- III is wrong since the longer the hydrocarbon tails the less fluid the membrane
because interactions like electrostatic attractions and van der Waals stabilize the
membrane so it will be less fluid.
-
3. Which description concerning collagen is correct?

A Collagen is made up of polypeptides arranged parallel to each other and the amino acid
sequence contains a large variety of amino acids with different sized R-groups.
B Collagen is made up of polypeptides that are arranged very closely together and every
third amino acid in its amino acid sequence is glycine.
C Collagen has three polypeptides that are bound to one another by covalent cross links
forming a collagen fiber and the amino acid sequence contains amino acids with
hydrophobic R-groups.
D Collagen is an insoluble molecule and the amino acid sequence contains successive
amino acids which are rotated to allow formation of bonds.

Explanation:
- A is wrong because the amino acid sequence does NOT contain large variety of amino
acids
- C is wrong because the 3 polypeptides are bound by hydrogen bond not cross linking
which involves linking of tropocollagen (not polypeptides)
- D is wrong because collagen does not contain successive amino acids which are rotated
to allow formation of bonds

4. A pear was cut into six equal segments, two of which were blanched by immersing them in
boiling water for one minute. Each segment of the pear was then cut into pieces and these
were treated in several ways as indicated in the table below. The time taken for each piece of
pear to develop a standard degree of browning was then recorded. You may assume that all
pieces had the same initial colour.

Liquid in which pear Time for appearance of browning at the


Initial treatment of
pieces were temperature indicated (min)
pear segment
immersed 20°C 40°C 100°C
unblanched 25 9 X
Water
blanched X X X
unblanched X X X
1% glucose solution
blanched X X X
0.1% nitric acid unblanched X X X
2% dithionite solution unblanched X 135 X

X denotes a pear piece that did not turn brown after 300 mins.

The enzyme involved in the browning of the pear pieces is ________________________.

I thermostable.
II denatured by blanching.
III less inhibited by 2% dithionite solution than by 0.1% nitric acid.
IV not the only agent responsible for the browning of the pear in the experiment.

© RI 2017 2017 Year 5 H2 Biology Promotional Examination 9744/01


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Explanation:
- I is wrong because the enzyme is obviously denatured at 100C so it cannot be
thermostable
- IV is wrong because table did not show other agent involved
Which of the following correctly complete the sentence?

A I and III only


B II and III only
C II and IV only
D II, III and IV only

5. A branched metabolic reaction pathway is described by the following statements:

 E can undergo an enzyme-catalyzed reaction to form either F or G


 H is produced from F
 H can undergo an enzyme-catalyzed reaction to form either I or K
 J is produced from I
 L is produced from K
 H allosterically inhibits the enzyme that catalyzes the reaction of E to form F
 J allosterically inhibits the enzyme that catalyzes the reaction of H to form I
 L allosterically inhibits the enzyme that catalyzes the reaction of H to form K

Which reaction would prevail if both J and L were present in the cell in high concentrations?

A F→H
B K→L
C E→G
D H→J

Explanation:
- E  G is not affected by J & L at all
- With presence of J & L, there will be inhibition of H I and H K which will result in
more H present which will inhibit EF

© RI 2017 2017 Year 5 H2 Biology Promotional Examination 9744/01 [turn over


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6. The electron micrograph below shows two organelles Y and Z in a mesophyll cell of a leaf.

Organelle Y

Organelle Z

Which of the following statements are false about organelles Y and Z?

I Oxygen released by organelle Z is used for glycolysis in organelle Y.


II DNA replication does not occur in both organelles.
III Transcription occurs in both organelles.
IV Electron carrier proteins are found on the inner membrane of both organelles.

A I and IV only
B I, II and IV only
C II and III only
D I, III and IV only

Explanation:
- question is asking for the false statements
- I is wrong because oxygen released is used for oxidative phosphorylation (NOT
glycolysis)
- II is wrong because both mitochondria and chloroplast undergo binary fission and DNA
replication actually happens at the same time as DNA separation during binary fission
- IV is wrong because in chloroplast electron carrier proteins are found on thylakoid
membrane (not inner membrane)

© RI 2017 2017 Year 5 H2 Biology Promotional Examination 9744/01


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7. Membranes within and at the surface of cells have different roles. The diagram allows the
identification of the various organelles within the cell, by describing the membrane structure
and function.

Which of the following correctly identifies the organelles?

1 2 3 4 5 6
A nucleus ribosome vesicle smooth ER mitochondrion chloroplast
B nucleolus rough ER vesicle smooth ER nucleus mitochondrion
C nucleus rough ER vesicle smooth ER mitochondrion chloroplast
D nucleus smooth ER mitochondrion rough ER vesicle chloroplast

Explanation:
- 1 is nucleus, it cannot be nucleolus which does not enclose a structure / possess pores
- 2 cannot be ribosome or smooth ER for the same reason mentioned above

© RI 2017 2017 Year 5 H2 Biology Promotional Examination 9744/01 [turn over


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8. The graph shows the effect of increasing the concentration of glucose in a solution on the rate
of glucose entry into a cell.

Which of the following statement(s) does/do not explain the cause of the plateau at X?
I All the carrier proteins are saturated with glucose.
II The carrier proteins are denatured and no longer able to function.
III The cell has used up its supply of ATP.
IV The concentrations of glucose inside and outside the cell are equal.

A I, II and IV only
B II, III and IV only
C II and III only
D I only

Explanation:
- II is wrong because if carrier proteins are denatured, there will be no entry of glucose
hence rate will drop to 0
- III is wrong because if ATP is required for entry of glucose and if ATP is used up, again
rate will drop to 0
- IV is wrong because if it is facilitated diffusion then when concentration of glucose inside
and outside are equal, the rate of entry of glucose will be 0 but if it is active transport,
then the concentration of glucose inside and outside will not be equal

© RI 2017 2017 Year 5 H2 Biology Promotional Examination 9744/01


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9. The diagram below shows a small polypeptide integrated into a membrane.

Which line in the table below correctly classifies the amino acids in this polypeptide?

Polar Non-polar
A Thr Pro
B Ile Tyr
C Asn Ser
D Phe Gly

Explanation : the amino acids in the hydrophobic core of the p.lipid bilayer must be hydrophobic
in nature in order to associate. Hence Pro, Ile, Phe must be hydrophobic. Those in the aqeous
intracellular / extracellular regions must be polar / charged.

10. Diploid cells with x amount of DNA and 36 chromosomes are capable of undergoing both
mitosis and meiosis.

During which stage(s) could a cell with 2x amount of DNA and 72 chromosomes be found?

A anaphase of mitosis only


B anaphase of meiosis I only
C anaphase of mitosis and anaphase of meiosis I
D anaphase of mitosis and anaphase of meiosis II

Explanation : to have 2x amount of DNA means it has undergone replication, but yet to be
divided into 2 cells. Hence can be any stage in mitosis and meiosis 1, but cannot be meiosis 2.
To have 72 chromosomes means that the sister chromatids have separated but still within the
same cell, hence must be mitosis, as in meiosis I, sister chromatids do not separate.

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11. The diagram below shows some of the events that take place during meiosis.

1 2

3 4

Which sequence of events is correct?

A 4312
B 4 321
C 24 13
D 42 31
Explanation : Stage 1 : Anaphase II as the sister chromatids separate
Stage 2 : Prophase II as only 8 chromosomes left
Stage 3 : Anaphase I as 8 chromosomes moving to opposite poles
Stage 4 : Prophase I as they exists as 8 pairs of bivalent

© RI 2017 2017 Year 5 H2 Biology Promotional Examination 9744/01


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12. Three batches of cells at the start of G1 phase of the cell cycle were obtained. Each batch had
the same number of cells and were treated with drugs P, Q and R respectively. The relative
DNA content of the treated cells was measured after 24 hours. The three graphs below show
the results obtained. Untreated cells were expected to complete interphase within 24 hours.
drug P drug Q drug R

relative DNA content relative DNA content relative DNA content


number number number
of cells of cells of cells

2 4 2 4 2 4
relative DNA content/au relative DNA content/au relative DNA content/au

What is the effect of each drug on the cells?

drug P drug Q drug R


A Interferes with G1 phase Interferes with S phase Interferes with G2 phase
B Interferes with G2 phase Interferes with S phase Interferes with G1 phase
C Interferes with G2 phase Interferes with G1 phase Interferes with S phase
D Interferes with G1 phase Interferes with G2 phase Interferes with S phase

Drug P : since all cells contained 2au amount of DNA, hence it shows that DNA was not
replicated, hence did not proceed beyond G1.
Drug Q : since all cells contained 4au amount of DNA, hence it shows that DNA replicated, but
DNA was not separated into 2 different cells, thus S phase proceeded but could not pass
mitosis.
Drug R : amount of DNA ranges from 2 to 4, hence it interfered as some of the processes were
going through S phase.

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13. A 19 base-pair long DNA molecule was analysed to find the number of nucleotide bases in
each of the polynucleotide strands. Some of the results are shown.

number of nucleotide bases

A C G T
strand 1 5 3 7 4

strand 2 4 7 3 5

How many hydrogen bonds are present in this DNA molecule?

A 31
B 39
C 48
D 57
Explanation:
With the known bases and your knowledge of complementary base pairing, you can fill up the A
in strands 1 and 2. Likewise G in strand 1. Since it is 19bp long, 19 -7-4-5=3 for base C.
Knowing that C and G has 3 hydrogen bonds while A and T has 2 hydrogen bonds, total
hydrogen bonds is 2(5+4) + 3(3+7) = 48

14. Which statement(s) about RNA is/are correct?

I It is less stable than DNA as it contains a ribose sugar that lacks a 2’ OH group.
II It is able to form double-stranded regions with some areas of base pairing.
III It is a polymer of purine and pyrimidine joined by phosphodiester bonds.
IV It is synthesised in the 5’ to 3’ direction where the 5’-phosphate group of the growing RNA
strand is joined to the 3’-hydroxyl group of an incoming nucleotide.

A II only
B I and IV only
C II and III only
D I, III and IV only

Explanation
 Statement I is wrong as RNA HAS a 2’ OH on its ribose sugar.
 Statement II is evident in rRNA and tRNA.
 Statement III is wrong as purines and pyrimidines are nitrogenous bases. It is the
RNA nucleotides that are joined by phosphodiester bonds. A nucleotide is made up of
the ribose sugar, nitrogenous base and hydrogen.
 Statement IV is wrong as it should be the 3’ OH group of the growing RNA strand is
joined to the 5’ phosphate group of an incoming nucleotide

© RI 2017 2017 Year 5 H2 Biology Promotional Examination 9744/01


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15. Which of the following statement(s) about the translation process in all eukaryotes is/are false?

I Polypeptides are only synthesised in the cytosol.


II Amino acids are linked by the formation of peptide bonds catalysed by a ribozyme.
III Ribosomes contain an amino-acyl tRNA site that is occupied by the initiator tRNA attached
to methionine.
IV Amino-acyl tRNA synthetase attaches an amino acid to the 5’ end of a tRNA molecule.

A I, III and IV only


B II, III and IV only
C II and IV only
D I only
Explanation
 Statement I is wrong because a cytosol has no organelles.
 Statement II is true. Ribozyme is a component of ribosomes.
 Statement III is wrong as initiator tRNA attaches to the P site not the A site. A site is the
entry point for all subsequent amino-acyl tRNAs.
 Statement IV is wrong as the amino acid attaches to the 3’ CCA end of the tRNA.

16. Scientists created a recombinant Gene A from mice culture cells by relocating the promoter as
shown below.

5’ 3’
Gene A
3’ 5’

Original gene Constitutive


mRNA
5’ 3’ promoter with
Template 3’ 5’ arrow showing
Antisense RNA direction of
transcription
5’ 3’
Gene A
3’ 5’

Recombinant gene

Multiple copies of the recombinant gene were reintroduced back into the cell culture to see its
effect on the expression of Gene A.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true:

I The expression of Gene A product increased


II Transcription of Gene A cannot take place
III Translation of Gene A mRNA cannot take place
IV There is no change to the expression levels of Gene A product
V The expression of Gene A product stops/decreases
A I only B II, III and V C III and V D IV only

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Explanation
Original gene will transcribe a normal mRNA that must be translated to get Gene A
product.
Recombinant gene will transcribe an antisense RNA that has sequences
complementary to the normal mRNA. When both normal and antisense RNA are
synthesized together, the result is that the two will base pair and form a ds RNA.
Thus ribosome is unable to bind to the ds RNA and initiate translation.

17. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a mutation in an allele of the gene that codes for the β-globin
polypeptide of haemoglobin.

The diagram shows the sequence of bases in a small section of the coding strand of DNA for
both the HbA (normal) and HbS (sickle cell) β-globin alleles.

HbA CTGACTCCTGAGGAGAAGTCT

HbS CTGACTCCTGTGGAGAAGTCT

How will the mutation in the HbS allele result in the production of an altered version of the β-
globin polypeptide?

A A tRNA molecule with the anticodon CAC will hydrogen bond to the altered codon on
mRNA.
Since question stated that it is the coding strand, this means that the sequence shown
will be similar to the mRNA sequence, except it has U instead of T.

The question also showed the mutation which is a A T mutation, thus the codon has
been change from GAG to GTG. This means that the anticodon has the sequence CAC.

B All the amino acids coded for after the mutation will differ from those in the HbA protein.
Since this is a substitution mutation and not a frameshift mutation. The amino acids after
the mutation should not differ.
C mRNA transcribed from the HbS allele will contain the codon CAC instead of the codon
CTC.
Pls see explanation for A. The codon on HbS allele should be GTG.
D The ribosome will be unable to continue translation of the HbS mRNA after the altered
codon.
Unless it is a stop codon, otherwise translation of the sequence after the altered codon
should not be affected.

© RI 2017 2017 Year 5 H2 Biology Promotional Examination 9744/01


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18. What happens when a cell that is infected by HIV divides by mitosis?

A Viral DNA is made from viral RNA.


B Viral DNA is replicated.
The key words in the question are divides by mitosis. This means that the HIV
prophage which is integrated into the host genome will be replicated during semi-
conservation replication of DNA. This means that the viral DNA will be replicated as well.
Although A, C, and D are also correct in terms of life cycle of HIV virus. These do not
apply to infected cells that are dividing by mitosis. So B is the best answer!
C Viral RNA is replicated.
D Viral RNA is transcribed from viral DNA.

19. The graph represents the process of viral replication.

Which of the following is correct?

A nucleic acids proteins intracellular viral particles extracellular virions


B proteins nucleic intracellular viral particles extracellular virions
acids
C nucleic acids proteins extracellular virions intracellular viral particles

D proteins nucleic extracellular virions intracellular viral particles


acids
Answer is self explanatory.
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20. Some events that take place during specialized transduction are listed below.

1 Bacterial DNA is packaged in a phage capsid


2 Phage DNA and proteins are made
3 Recombination between donor DNA and recipient DNA may occur
4 Integration of phage DNA into bacteria DNA
5 Cell lysis

Which of the following shows the correct sequence of events?


A 12354
B 21543
C 34125
D 42153
Answer is self explanatory

21. An experiment was conducted to examine the effects of glucose and lactose on the levels of β-
galactosidase and bacteria growth in E.coli. Lactose and glucose were added to a culture of
bacteria at the start of the experiment and the levels of each were measured at specific time
intervals. The results are shown in the graphs below.

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Which of the following is represented by the graphs?

Graph I Graph II Graph III


A Amount of glucose Amount of lactose Amount of β-galactosidase
Has to be glucose as E Increase in beta After glucose is used up in the
coli bacteria prefers to galactosidase will result in first section of the graph, the
metabolise glucose. The hydrolysis of lactose to cAMP concentration increases.
glucose concentration glucose and galactose, cAMP will bind to CAP to form a
thus decrease first. leading to decrase in cAMP-CAP complex which
lactose concentration. increases affinity of RNA
Polymerase to the promoter.
Thus there is an increase in
transcription of lacZ and this
resulted in increase in beta
galactosidase.
B Amount of glucose Amount of lactose Amount of bacteria
C Amount of lactose Amount of β- Amount of glucose
galactosidase
D Amount of lactose Amount of β- Amount of bacteria
galactosidase

22. The cell cycle checkpoints involve a protein called cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK). Maintaining
a constant level of CDK is essential for mitosis to take place.

Which processes will help to maintain the presence of CDK?

I decreasing rate of ubiquitination on the protein


This reduces degradation of CDK by proteasome.
II decreasing rate of deadenylation on the 3’ end of mRNA
This increases half life of mRNA, thus more translation of mRNA can take place.
III methylation of guanine on the 5’ end of mRNA
This increases half life of mRNA, thus more translation of mRNA can take place.
IV methylation of cytosine on the CG-rich DNA sequence
Methylation of cytosine prevents transcription of CDK genes, this will result in less CDK.
This is a wrong statement.

A II and III only


B I, II and III only
C I, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV

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23. The expression of the p53 gene is regulated by another gene, MDM2. An increase in p53
protein causes an increase in MDM2 protein that inhibits the expression of the p53 gene and
destroys p53 protein.

A drug has been developed to stop uncontrolled cell division of cancer cells. The drug binds to
the MDM2 protein.

Which statement describes the effects of this drug?

A The transcription of p53 is decreased and the transcription of MDM2 is increased.


B The transcription of p53 is increased and the transcription of MDM2 is increased.

This is essentially a comprehension question. MDM2 normally inhibits the expression of


p53 gene. Since the drug binds on to MDM2 protein, binding of drug to MDM2 will
prevent MDM2 from inhibiting transcription of p53, so transcription of p53 will increase.
The increase in p53 protein will result in the increase in MDM2 expression.

C The transcription of p53 is decreased and the transcription of MDM2 is decreased.


D The transcription of p53 is increased and the transcription of MDM2 is decreased.

24. Which of the following statements describes a common feature of eukaryotic and prokaryotic
genomes?

A Both genomes contain non-coding sequences.


B Both genomes contain centromeres and telomeres.
C Both genomes are replicated by semi-conservative replication during interphase before
mitosis.
D Both genomes contain genes that require general transcription factors to initiate
transcription.

Explanation:
A: In eukaryotes – promoters, enhancers, silencers, introns are all non-coding
sequences. In prokaryotes – promoters and operators are non-coding sequences as well.
Hence, both euk and pro genomes have non-coding sequences.
B: Prokaryotes have single, circular chromosome. Hence, no need for centromeres or
telomeres (only found at the ends of linear chromosomes).
C: In prokaryotes, genome is replicated during binary fission. No interphase and no
mitosis occurs.
D: Prokaryotes do not have general transcription factors to initiate transcription. The bind
to promoters via the sigma factors.

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25. In light, Mg2+ ions move into the stroma. In the dark, the concentration of Mg2+ ions in the
stroma is low.

At high Mg2+ concentrations, CO2 and Mg2+ react with the active site of RuBP carboxylase
(rubisco), to form a carbamate group (CO2NH) and making the rubisco active. At low Mg2+
concentrations the carbamate group dissociates making the rubisco inactive.

Inactive rubisco will bind tightly at its active site with any RuBP present, so that no rubisco
catalysis can take place. An ATPase enzyme called rubisco activase, can, in high
concentrations of Mg2+, release the RuBP from the rubisco, producing a carbamate group and
activating the rubisco.

Which statement is supported by these facts?

A Inactivated rubisco can be reactivated by NADPH made in the light-dependent reaction.


B Low concentrations of 3C compound in the stroma of the chloroplast deactivate rubisco
C Rubisco without the carbamate group is inhibited by low concentrations of RuBP.
D The rate of carbon dioxide fixation increases when the carbamate group dissociates from
rubisco.

Explanation:
Carbamate when bound to Rubisco will activate the enzyme. “At high Mg2+ concentrations, CO2
and Mg2+ react with the active site of RuBP carboxylase (rubisco), to form a carbamate group
(CO2NH) and making the rubisco active.”
RuBP will bind tightly at active site of Rubisco when it is inactive (i.e. without a carbamate
group). “Inactive rubisco will bind tightly at its active site with any RuBP present, so that no
rubisco catalysis can take place.”
“any RuBP present” implies low concentrations of RuBP will also bind.

26. The graph shows the relationship between oxygen production during photosynthesis and light
intensity for a unicellular green organism in 0.02% sodium hydrogencarbonate solution.

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What is the most likely explanation for the graph leveling off at 180 J m-2s-1?

A light limited and carbon dioxide saturated


B light saturated and carbon dioxide limited
C light limited and the temperature is below optimum
D light saturated and the temperature is above optimum
Explanation:
180 J m-2s-1 is the light saturation point. At this point, light intensity is no longer a limiting
factor and some other factor is limiting.
Question says organism is provided with 0.02% sodium hydrogencarbonate. Hence,
likely inference is that the CO2 concentration is limiting.

27. Which of the following correctly states a difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

A The energy released is stored in ATP (adenosine triphosphate) in aerobic respiration but
not in anaerobic respiration.
Both aerobic and anaerobic respiration will produce ATP.
B Pyruvic acid is formed in aerobic respiration, but not in anaerobic respiration.
Both aerobic and anaerobic respiration undergo glycolysis which produces pyruvic acid.
C Lactic acid is formed in aerobic respiration in animals, but alcohol is formed in anaerobic
respiration in plants.
Lactic acid is formed in anaerobic respiration in animals.
D Oxidation of glucose is complete in aerobic respiration, but incomplete in anaerobic
respiration.
Correct.

28. Which processes produce ATP?

I Glycolysis – yes during substrate level phosphorylation


II Krebs cycle – yes during substrate level phosphorylation
III electron transport system – yes during oxidative phosphorylation
IV light independent reactions of photosynthesis – no, Calvin cycle uses ATP.

A I, II, III and IV


B I, II and III only
C I and III only
D II and IV only

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29. A diagram shows the pedigree of Rett’s disease, a genetic neurological disorder which results
in autism-like symptoms.
Key:
Affected male

Unaffected male

Affected female

Unaffected female

Which of the following statements can be concluded based on the diagram above?

A This genetic disorder is a X-linked dominant trait.

B This genetic disorder is due to an autosomal recessive allele.

C Individual II-1 must be heterozygous for the mutant allele as III-2 and III-3 are affected
with the genetic disorder.
D Individual III-11 was affected with the genetic disorder as a result of genetic mutation
during his lifetime.

Explanation:
II-8 and II-9 are both affected individuals and are able to produce III-10 who is unaffected 
cannot be a recessive trait. Thus it is a dominant trait.
I-1 is an affected male and all his daughters are affected. Since all his daughters must receive
one X chromosome from him  trait is a sex-linked dominant.

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30. Incontinentia pigmenti is a condition that can affect the skin and is characterized by a blistering
rash at birth. The phenotypes of the offspring from different couples were observed and
recorded in the table below. Each couple in the table has 3 daughters and 2 sons.

Couple Couple’s Phenotypes Offspring’s phenotypes


Unaffected father
No affected offspring
I X
Unaffected mother
All daughters are affected
Affected father The sons are not affected
II X
Unaffected mother This implies condition is sex-linked
dominant.
Unaffected father
1 out of the 2 sons are affected
III X
1 out of the 3 daughters are affected
affected mother

Which of the following conclusion can you derive from the information given?

A Incontinentia pigmenti is a sex-linked recessive condition.


Couple II shows it is a sex-linked dominant condition.
B The unaffected mother in Couple II is homozygous dominant.
Unaffected mother in Couple II is homozygous recessive  hence all the sons are not
affected.
C Couple I are both homozygous dominant for incontinentia pigmenti.
Couple I are both homozygous recessive as both are unaffected.
D The affected mother in Couple III is a heterozygote.
Mother is heterozygous as she passes one X chromosome with dominant allele to one
son resulting in him having the condition and she passes another X chromosome with the
recessive allele to the other son resulting in him being unaffected.

-- END OF PAPER –

ANSWERS

1. D 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. A
11. B 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. A
16. C 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. D
21. A 22. B 23. B 24. A 25. C
26. B 27. D 28 B 29. A 30. D

© RI 2017 2017 Year 5 H2 Biology Promotional Examination 9744/01

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