2017 Promo Paper 1 Explanations
2017 Promo Paper 1 Explanations
2017 Promo Paper 1 Explanations
RAFFLES INSTITUTION
2017 Year 5 Promotional Examination
Higher 2
BIOLOGY 9744/01
Paper 1 Multiple Choice 29th Sep 2017
1 hour
Additional materials: OMR Answer Sheet
There are thirty questions in this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four
possible answers A, B, C, and D. Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in
soft pencil on the separate OMR Answer Sheet.
(Erase all mistakes completely. Do not bend or fold the OMR Answer Sheet).
Raffles Institution
Internal Examination
Which of following statements are consistent with the results shown above?
Explanation:
- I is correct because from the table, results of incubation by galactosidase yield
galactose and sucrose which is made up of glucose and fructose. Hence raffinose is
composed of galactose, glucose and fructose – 3 different monosaccharides
- II is correct because raffinose is a trisaccharide which is catalyzed by sucrose to form
melibiose and fructose which is a monosaccharide, hence melibiose is a disaccharide
- III is correct because acid hydrolysis of raffinose will yield monosaccharides and one of
which in raffinose is glucose
- IV is correct because digestion of raffinose by sucrase will form fructose which is a
monosaccharide which will yield brick red ppt when heated with Benedict’s reagent
A Collagen is made up of polypeptides arranged parallel to each other and the amino acid
sequence contains a large variety of amino acids with different sized R-groups.
B Collagen is made up of polypeptides that are arranged very closely together and every
third amino acid in its amino acid sequence is glycine.
C Collagen has three polypeptides that are bound to one another by covalent cross links
forming a collagen fiber and the amino acid sequence contains amino acids with
hydrophobic R-groups.
D Collagen is an insoluble molecule and the amino acid sequence contains successive
amino acids which are rotated to allow formation of bonds.
Explanation:
- A is wrong because the amino acid sequence does NOT contain large variety of amino
acids
- C is wrong because the 3 polypeptides are bound by hydrogen bond not cross linking
which involves linking of tropocollagen (not polypeptides)
- D is wrong because collagen does not contain successive amino acids which are rotated
to allow formation of bonds
4. A pear was cut into six equal segments, two of which were blanched by immersing them in
boiling water for one minute. Each segment of the pear was then cut into pieces and these
were treated in several ways as indicated in the table below. The time taken for each piece of
pear to develop a standard degree of browning was then recorded. You may assume that all
pieces had the same initial colour.
X denotes a pear piece that did not turn brown after 300 mins.
I thermostable.
II denatured by blanching.
III less inhibited by 2% dithionite solution than by 0.1% nitric acid.
IV not the only agent responsible for the browning of the pear in the experiment.
Which reaction would prevail if both J and L were present in the cell in high concentrations?
A F→H
B K→L
C E→G
D H→J
Explanation:
- E G is not affected by J & L at all
- With presence of J & L, there will be inhibition of H I and H K which will result in
more H present which will inhibit EF
Organelle Y
Organelle Z
A I and IV only
B I, II and IV only
C II and III only
D I, III and IV only
Explanation:
- question is asking for the false statements
- I is wrong because oxygen released is used for oxidative phosphorylation (NOT
glycolysis)
- II is wrong because both mitochondria and chloroplast undergo binary fission and DNA
replication actually happens at the same time as DNA separation during binary fission
- IV is wrong because in chloroplast electron carrier proteins are found on thylakoid
membrane (not inner membrane)
1 2 3 4 5 6
A nucleus ribosome vesicle smooth ER mitochondrion chloroplast
B nucleolus rough ER vesicle smooth ER nucleus mitochondrion
C nucleus rough ER vesicle smooth ER mitochondrion chloroplast
D nucleus smooth ER mitochondrion rough ER vesicle chloroplast
Explanation:
- 1 is nucleus, it cannot be nucleolus which does not enclose a structure / possess pores
- 2 cannot be ribosome or smooth ER for the same reason mentioned above
Which of the following statement(s) does/do not explain the cause of the plateau at X?
I All the carrier proteins are saturated with glucose.
II The carrier proteins are denatured and no longer able to function.
III The cell has used up its supply of ATP.
IV The concentrations of glucose inside and outside the cell are equal.
A I, II and IV only
B II, III and IV only
C II and III only
D I only
Explanation:
- II is wrong because if carrier proteins are denatured, there will be no entry of glucose
hence rate will drop to 0
- III is wrong because if ATP is required for entry of glucose and if ATP is used up, again
rate will drop to 0
- IV is wrong because if it is facilitated diffusion then when concentration of glucose inside
and outside are equal, the rate of entry of glucose will be 0 but if it is active transport,
then the concentration of glucose inside and outside will not be equal
Which line in the table below correctly classifies the amino acids in this polypeptide?
Polar Non-polar
A Thr Pro
B Ile Tyr
C Asn Ser
D Phe Gly
Explanation : the amino acids in the hydrophobic core of the p.lipid bilayer must be hydrophobic
in nature in order to associate. Hence Pro, Ile, Phe must be hydrophobic. Those in the aqeous
intracellular / extracellular regions must be polar / charged.
10. Diploid cells with x amount of DNA and 36 chromosomes are capable of undergoing both
mitosis and meiosis.
During which stage(s) could a cell with 2x amount of DNA and 72 chromosomes be found?
Explanation : to have 2x amount of DNA means it has undergone replication, but yet to be
divided into 2 cells. Hence can be any stage in mitosis and meiosis 1, but cannot be meiosis 2.
To have 72 chromosomes means that the sister chromatids have separated but still within the
same cell, hence must be mitosis, as in meiosis I, sister chromatids do not separate.
1 2
3 4
A 4312
B 4 321
C 24 13
D 42 31
Explanation : Stage 1 : Anaphase II as the sister chromatids separate
Stage 2 : Prophase II as only 8 chromosomes left
Stage 3 : Anaphase I as 8 chromosomes moving to opposite poles
Stage 4 : Prophase I as they exists as 8 pairs of bivalent
12. Three batches of cells at the start of G1 phase of the cell cycle were obtained. Each batch had
the same number of cells and were treated with drugs P, Q and R respectively. The relative
DNA content of the treated cells was measured after 24 hours. The three graphs below show
the results obtained. Untreated cells were expected to complete interphase within 24 hours.
drug P drug Q drug R
2 4 2 4 2 4
relative DNA content/au relative DNA content/au relative DNA content/au
Drug P : since all cells contained 2au amount of DNA, hence it shows that DNA was not
replicated, hence did not proceed beyond G1.
Drug Q : since all cells contained 4au amount of DNA, hence it shows that DNA replicated, but
DNA was not separated into 2 different cells, thus S phase proceeded but could not pass
mitosis.
Drug R : amount of DNA ranges from 2 to 4, hence it interfered as some of the processes were
going through S phase.
13. A 19 base-pair long DNA molecule was analysed to find the number of nucleotide bases in
each of the polynucleotide strands. Some of the results are shown.
A C G T
strand 1 5 3 7 4
strand 2 4 7 3 5
A 31
B 39
C 48
D 57
Explanation:
With the known bases and your knowledge of complementary base pairing, you can fill up the A
in strands 1 and 2. Likewise G in strand 1. Since it is 19bp long, 19 -7-4-5=3 for base C.
Knowing that C and G has 3 hydrogen bonds while A and T has 2 hydrogen bonds, total
hydrogen bonds is 2(5+4) + 3(3+7) = 48
I It is less stable than DNA as it contains a ribose sugar that lacks a 2’ OH group.
II It is able to form double-stranded regions with some areas of base pairing.
III It is a polymer of purine and pyrimidine joined by phosphodiester bonds.
IV It is synthesised in the 5’ to 3’ direction where the 5’-phosphate group of the growing RNA
strand is joined to the 3’-hydroxyl group of an incoming nucleotide.
A II only
B I and IV only
C II and III only
D I, III and IV only
Explanation
Statement I is wrong as RNA HAS a 2’ OH on its ribose sugar.
Statement II is evident in rRNA and tRNA.
Statement III is wrong as purines and pyrimidines are nitrogenous bases. It is the
RNA nucleotides that are joined by phosphodiester bonds. A nucleotide is made up of
the ribose sugar, nitrogenous base and hydrogen.
Statement IV is wrong as it should be the 3’ OH group of the growing RNA strand is
joined to the 5’ phosphate group of an incoming nucleotide
15. Which of the following statement(s) about the translation process in all eukaryotes is/are false?
16. Scientists created a recombinant Gene A from mice culture cells by relocating the promoter as
shown below.
5’ 3’
Gene A
3’ 5’
Recombinant gene
Multiple copies of the recombinant gene were reintroduced back into the cell culture to see its
effect on the expression of Gene A.
17. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a mutation in an allele of the gene that codes for the β-globin
polypeptide of haemoglobin.
The diagram shows the sequence of bases in a small section of the coding strand of DNA for
both the HbA (normal) and HbS (sickle cell) β-globin alleles.
HbA CTGACTCCTGAGGAGAAGTCT
HbS CTGACTCCTGTGGAGAAGTCT
How will the mutation in the HbS allele result in the production of an altered version of the β-
globin polypeptide?
A A tRNA molecule with the anticodon CAC will hydrogen bond to the altered codon on
mRNA.
Since question stated that it is the coding strand, this means that the sequence shown
will be similar to the mRNA sequence, except it has U instead of T.
The question also showed the mutation which is a A T mutation, thus the codon has
been change from GAG to GTG. This means that the anticodon has the sequence CAC.
B All the amino acids coded for after the mutation will differ from those in the HbA protein.
Since this is a substitution mutation and not a frameshift mutation. The amino acids after
the mutation should not differ.
C mRNA transcribed from the HbS allele will contain the codon CAC instead of the codon
CTC.
Pls see explanation for A. The codon on HbS allele should be GTG.
D The ribosome will be unable to continue translation of the HbS mRNA after the altered
codon.
Unless it is a stop codon, otherwise translation of the sequence after the altered codon
should not be affected.
18. What happens when a cell that is infected by HIV divides by mitosis?
21. An experiment was conducted to examine the effects of glucose and lactose on the levels of β-
galactosidase and bacteria growth in E.coli. Lactose and glucose were added to a culture of
bacteria at the start of the experiment and the levels of each were measured at specific time
intervals. The results are shown in the graphs below.
22. The cell cycle checkpoints involve a protein called cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK). Maintaining
a constant level of CDK is essential for mitosis to take place.
A drug has been developed to stop uncontrolled cell division of cancer cells. The drug binds to
the MDM2 protein.
24. Which of the following statements describes a common feature of eukaryotic and prokaryotic
genomes?
Explanation:
A: In eukaryotes – promoters, enhancers, silencers, introns are all non-coding
sequences. In prokaryotes – promoters and operators are non-coding sequences as well.
Hence, both euk and pro genomes have non-coding sequences.
B: Prokaryotes have single, circular chromosome. Hence, no need for centromeres or
telomeres (only found at the ends of linear chromosomes).
C: In prokaryotes, genome is replicated during binary fission. No interphase and no
mitosis occurs.
D: Prokaryotes do not have general transcription factors to initiate transcription. The bind
to promoters via the sigma factors.
At high Mg2+ concentrations, CO2 and Mg2+ react with the active site of RuBP carboxylase
(rubisco), to form a carbamate group (CO2NH) and making the rubisco active. At low Mg2+
concentrations the carbamate group dissociates making the rubisco inactive.
Inactive rubisco will bind tightly at its active site with any RuBP present, so that no rubisco
catalysis can take place. An ATPase enzyme called rubisco activase, can, in high
concentrations of Mg2+, release the RuBP from the rubisco, producing a carbamate group and
activating the rubisco.
Explanation:
Carbamate when bound to Rubisco will activate the enzyme. “At high Mg2+ concentrations, CO2
and Mg2+ react with the active site of RuBP carboxylase (rubisco), to form a carbamate group
(CO2NH) and making the rubisco active.”
RuBP will bind tightly at active site of Rubisco when it is inactive (i.e. without a carbamate
group). “Inactive rubisco will bind tightly at its active site with any RuBP present, so that no
rubisco catalysis can take place.”
“any RuBP present” implies low concentrations of RuBP will also bind.
26. The graph shows the relationship between oxygen production during photosynthesis and light
intensity for a unicellular green organism in 0.02% sodium hydrogencarbonate solution.
27. Which of the following correctly states a difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration?
A The energy released is stored in ATP (adenosine triphosphate) in aerobic respiration but
not in anaerobic respiration.
Both aerobic and anaerobic respiration will produce ATP.
B Pyruvic acid is formed in aerobic respiration, but not in anaerobic respiration.
Both aerobic and anaerobic respiration undergo glycolysis which produces pyruvic acid.
C Lactic acid is formed in aerobic respiration in animals, but alcohol is formed in anaerobic
respiration in plants.
Lactic acid is formed in anaerobic respiration in animals.
D Oxidation of glucose is complete in aerobic respiration, but incomplete in anaerobic
respiration.
Correct.
Unaffected male
Affected female
Unaffected female
Which of the following statements can be concluded based on the diagram above?
C Individual II-1 must be heterozygous for the mutant allele as III-2 and III-3 are affected
with the genetic disorder.
D Individual III-11 was affected with the genetic disorder as a result of genetic mutation
during his lifetime.
Explanation:
II-8 and II-9 are both affected individuals and are able to produce III-10 who is unaffected
cannot be a recessive trait. Thus it is a dominant trait.
I-1 is an affected male and all his daughters are affected. Since all his daughters must receive
one X chromosome from him trait is a sex-linked dominant.
Which of the following conclusion can you derive from the information given?
-- END OF PAPER –
ANSWERS
1. D 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. A
11. B 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. A
16. C 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. D
21. A 22. B 23. B 24. A 25. C
26. B 27. D 28 B 29. A 30. D