Biochemistry Samplex

MCU-FDT MEDICAL FOUNDATION
COLLEGE OF MEDICINE
DEPARTMENT OF BIOCHEMISTRY
NAME: ____________________________________ DATE: __________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the BEST answer
1. The protein enzymes are inactive without the co-enzyme. What is the function of co-
enzyme in a chemical reaction?
A. Alter the equilibrium constant
B. Increase the rate of the reaction
C. Maintain the pH of the reaction
D. Transfer activated group
Reference: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry by: Murray, et al. pp. 50 MPL 0.5
2. Michaelis- Menten constant (Km) can be determined more accurately by using the:
A. Lineweaver-Burk plot C. Hill equation
B. Michaelis- Menten graph D. Eadie-Hofstee plot
Reference: pp. 66 MPL 0.5
3. Which of the following plots / graph facilitate the evaluation of inhibitors?

A. Double reciprocal plots C. Michaelis Menten graph
B. Eadie Hofstee plot D. Sigmoidal graph
4. Assay of plasma enzymes aids diagnosis and prognosis of diseases. Harry has an
episode of chest pain, assay of which of the following enzymes is of help in the
diagnosis?
A. Alkaline phosphatase C. Lactate dehydrogenase
B. Acid phosphatase D. Amylase
5. Which of the following properties is TRUE with reversible enzyme inhibitors?

A. They bind to the active site of the enzyme
B. They form enzyme substrate-inhibitor complexes [ESI complexes]
C. Their effects can be reversed by increasing the concentration of the substrate
in the reaction
D. The principal mode of enzyme-inhibitor interaction is covalent in nature
6. Proenzymes are catalytically important because:

A. Compared to other catalytic molecules, their concentration is preferentially
regulated by transcription mechanisms
B. Inactive pools of precursors are activated by covalent modification of R
groups at or near the active site
C. Their activation and inactivation are rapid, providing a readily reversible
mechanism by which enzyme activity can be regulated
D. Their activation generally involves reaction on their peptide bonds producing
active catalyst from inactive precursor pool
7. This is an example of reversible enzymes regulation by covalent modification:

A. Proteolysis C. Presence of modulator
B. Enzyme induction D. Phosphorylation-dephosphorylation
8. What is Michaelis- Menten constant (Km)?
A. When the substrate concentration equals the enzyme concentration
B. Is the dissociation constant of the reaction
C. Is the substrate concentration that results in a half maximal reaction rate
D. Is the equilibrium constant of the reaction
9. How can a non-spontaneous endergonic cellular reaction be driven to completion?

By:
A. Coupling with an exergonic reaction
B. Synthesis of ATP
C. Addition of heat
D. Increase enzyme concentration
10. The second law of thermodynamics states that in an isolated system:

A. The total entropy change in a spontaneous process is always negative
B. The entropy tends to decrease with time
C. Any spontaneous process increases the entropy of the universe
D. Enthalpy increases as the process proceed
11. Which of the following enzymes protects our tissues from oxygen toxicity caused by
the superoxide free radical?
A. Oxidoreductases C. Superoxide dismutase
B. Oxygenases D. Hydroperoxidases
12. Juana, 65 year old has been taking vitamin E as an antioxidant to keep herself stay
“young” looking. What is the action of vitamin E?
A. Act as scavengers of free radicals and reduce the toxicity of oxygen.
B. Act as nutrients for the skin
C. Prevent radiation from the sun
D. Keep the integrity of the mucosa intact
13. What do you mean by uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation?

A. Separating high from low energy compounds
B. Synthesizing ATP without oxidizing substrate
C. Oxidizing substrate completely
D. Oxidizing substrate without synthesis of ATP
14. This molecule accepts the electrons from cytochrome aa3 found in complex IV:
A. CO C. O2
B. CO2 D. H2O
15. Marie took two scoops of ice cream, a plate of pancit Malabon, and 2 slices of garlic
bread. The carbohydrates content in her food has to be converted to which of the
following for metabolism?
A. Glucose C. Mannose
B. Galactose D. Lactose
16. Roman, after doing his anaerobic exercise in the morning,.what is the end product in
his exercising muscle?
A. Lactate C. CO2 and water
B. Pyruvate D. Acetyl CoA
17. Pyruvate dehydrogenase reaction is being biologically irreversible. What will be the
effect?
A. It is inactivated by phosphorylation
B. The reaction is highly endergonic
C. It is not possible to make pyruvate from acetyl CoA
D. The protein kinase is present in the inactive form
18. Which of the following enzymes provides a link between glycolysis and CAC?
A. Acetyl CoA carbooxylase C. Pyruvate decarboxylase
B. Pyruvate carboxylase D. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
19. Mang David, was admitted to the hospital because of hypoglycemia, lactic acidemia,
ketosis and hyperlipemia, liver biopsy done and was diagnosed to have Von Gierke’s
disease. His signs and symptoms are due to the deficiency / absence of which of the
following enzymes?
A. Liver phosphorylase C. Glucose 6-phosphatase
B. Liver phosphorylase kinase D. Debranching enzyme
20. How is free glucose formed during glycogenolysis? From:

A. Glucose 1-phosphate hydrolysis
B. Glucose residues in 1,6 linkage to the main chain
C. Glucose residues in 1,4. linkage to the main chain
D. Breakdown of uridine diphosphate glucose
21. Alex is under cortisol therapy, later he develops hyperglycemia, this is due to
increase:
A. Oxidation of free fatty acids in the liver
B. Glycogenesis
C. Peripheral utilization of glucose
D. Hepatic production of glucose by gluconeogenesis
22. Carlos is diagnosed as having a genetic defect specifically in the enzyme pyruvate
carboxylase. Other biotin containing enzymes are functioning normally. Which of the
following substances can be used as a substrate for gluconeogenesis by Carlos?
A. Alanine C. Lactate
B. Glycerol D. Pyruvate
23. Which of the following reactions is unique to gluconeogenesis?

A. Glucose 6-phosphate  fructose 6-phosphate
B. Oxaloacetate  phosphoenolpyruvate
C. Lactate  pyruvate
D. Phosphoenolpyruvate  pyruvate
24. Which of the following metabolic pathways can account for the complete oxidation of
glucose producing NADPH and CO2 but not ATP?
A. Uronic acid pathway C. Glycolysis
B. Pentose phosphate pathway D. Gluconeogenesis
25. Helen is diagnosed to have Galactosemia, which of the following enzymes is

involved in producing needed galactose in cases if diet is restricted from containing
galactose or lactose?
A. UDP–hexose epimerase C. Galactosyl transferase
B. Galactokinase D. Galactose 1-phosphate uridyl transferase
26. Elena is diagnosed to have familial fructokinase deficiency, but she does not present
any symptoms. This is because:
A. Excess fructose spills into the bowel and eliminated in the feces
B. Hexokinase can phosphorylate fructose
C. Liver fructose 1-phosphate aldolase is still active
D. Most tissues utilizes fructose
27. Respiratory distress syndrome seen in premature infants is due to the absence of
which of the following lipids?
A. Phosphatidylglycerol C. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine
B. Galactosyl ceramide D. Dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine
Reference: pp. 115,202 MPL 1.0
28. An increased in which of the following hormones will increase fatty acid synthesis:
A. Glucagon C. Epinephrine
B. Insulin D. Protein kinase
29. Leon, after taking a fatty meal, the fatty acids can be converted to energy by the β -
oxidation. What are the end products of β - oxidation?
A. Acetoacetates C. Malonyl CoAs
B. Acetyl CoAs D. Propionyl CoAs
30. Liver cannot use ketone bodies as a source of energy primarily because they lack
which of the following enzymes?
A. Acetoacetate succinyl-CoA transferase
B. β -hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase
C. Hydroxy-methyglutaryl-CoA lyase
D. Hydroxy-methyglutaryl-CoA synthase
31. Alex is diagnosed to have coronary heart disease. Which of the following diet would
you recommend to him? A diet:
A. Consists purely of saturated fatty acids
B. Consists purely of unsaturated fatty acids
C. Which has a high ratio of polyunsaturated fatty acids to saturated fatty acids
D. Which has a high ratio of saturated fatty acids to polyunsaturated fatty acids
32. Which of the following statements best described essential fatty acids?
A. Cannot be degraded by the body
B. Are the only fatty acids important in the body
C. Cannot be synthesized by the body
D. Are not important in the diet
Reference: pp.190 MPL 1.0
33. Juan, after a high caloric diet consisting of fats and carbohydrates the excess calories
is stored as triacylglycerols in the adipose tissue. Which of the following statements is
NOT true for the synthesis of triacylglycerols in adipose tissues?
A. Coenzyme A is required
B. Fatty acids are obtained from chylomicrons and VLDL
C. Glycerol 3-phosphate is derived from glucose
D. A 2-monoglyceride is an intermediate
34. Anita was diagnosed to have multiple sclerosis, this is a demyelinating disease due to
a loss of which of the following lipids?
A. Plasmalogen and sphingolipids
B. Cephalin and sphingolipids
C. Neuraminic acid and lysolecithin
D. Sialic acid and ceramide
35. Henry has a genetic defect resulting in a deficiency of lipoprotein lipase. After eating
a fatty meal, one would expect to see elevation of which of the following in the
plasma?
A. HDLs C. VLDLs
B. LDLs D. Chylomicrons
36. Which of the following apoprotein is found exclusively associated with

chylomicrons?
A. Apo E C. Apo B-48
B. Apo B-100 D. ApoA-I
37. Joseph took two pieces of fried eggs with bacon for his breakfast. How is the
cholesterol in the eggs and bacons be excreted from his body? As:
A. Bile C. Bile pigments
B. Bilirubin D. Bile acids
38. Ana, a vegetarian, the cholesterol needed by her in the synthesis of all other steroids
in the body can be provided by which of the following substrates?
A. Acetyl CoA C. Glycine
B. Alanine D. Succinyl CoA
39. Andy is resting after an overnight fast, which of the following events is true?
A. Fatty acids are stored in the adipose triacylglycerol
B. Liver gluconeogenesis is an important process for maintaining blood glucose
C. Liver glycogen stores are completely depleted
D. Muscle glycogen stores are used to maintain blood glucose
40. Which of the following substances is being exported by the skeletal muscle in the
post prandial state?
A. Alanine C. Ketone bodies
B. Glycerol D. Glucose
41. Which of the following substances is released by the adipose tissue and converted to
pyruvate by the liver in the fasting state?
A. Fatty acids C. Ketone bodies
B. Glycerol D. Lactate
42. Liza has just taken her lunch, which of the following events is NOT true?
A. The brain oxidizes glucose to carbon dioxide and water
B. Red blood cells oxidize glucose to carbon dioxide and water
C. Liver glycogen stores increase
D. Adipose triacylglycerol stores increase
43. Compared to his state after an overnight fast, a person who has fasted for one week
will have:
A. Higher levels of blood ketone bodies
B. Higher levels of blood glucose
C. More adipose tissue
D. More muscle protein
44. At neutral pH, a mixture of amino acids in solution would be predominantly:

A. Dipolar ions C. Negative and monovalent
B. Hydrophobic molecules D. Positive and monovalent
45. In scurvy, posttranslational modification of proteins fails to result in the formation:

A. Glycoproteins C. Histidine
B. Hydroxyproline D. Lipoproteins
Reference: pp. 38-39 MPL 1.0
46. The non-essential amino acids synthesized from nutritionally essential amino acids
are:
A. Cysteine and proline C. Tyrosine and cysteine
B. Proline and tyrosine D. Cysteine and serine
Reference: pp.238-239 MPL 0.5
47. Severe phenylketonuria and shortened lifespan is a result of:

A. Deficiency in tetrahydrofolate
B. Deficient or missing dihydrobiopterin
C. Excess dietary phenylalanine
D. Excess dietary tyrosine
48. Depletion of α -ketoglutarate during hyperammonemia leads to the formation of:

A. Arginine C. Histidine
B. Glutamine D. Proline
49. Genetic deficiency of any of the urea cycle enzymes usually results in the elevated
levels of:
A. Arginine C. NH4+
B. Citrulline D. Ornithine
50. Glutamate γ -semialdehyde is a branch point metabolite in the catabolism of:

A. Proline
B. Proline and ornithine
C. Proline, ornithine, and arginine
D. Proline, ornithine, arginuine, and hydroxyproline
51. A test dose of this amino acid provides a diagnostic test for folic acid deficiency:
A. Histidine C. Serine
B. Glycine D. Glutamate
52. The rate-limiting step in catecholamine biosynthesis is:

A. Formation of dopamine C. Hydroxylation of phenylalanine
B. Hydroxylation of tyrosine D. Reduction of dihydrobiopterin
53. The following specialized products are derived from glycine, EXCEPT:
A. Creatine C. Histamine
B. Heme D. Purine
54. The normal brown-red color of feces results from the presence of
A. Bilirubin C. Urobilinogen
B. Biliverdin D. Urobilins
55. Catabolism of heme produces bilirubin which is metabolized primarily in the:

A. Blood C. Kidney
B. Intestine D. Liver
56. Sunshine is fond of drinking coffee, what methylated purine is found in coffee?
A. Hydroxyurea C. Caffeine
B. Fluorouracil D. Thiouracils
57. What is the first nucleotide moiety that is synthesized by de novo purine synthesis?
A. Adenosine monophosphate (AMP)
B. Cystidine monophosphate (CMP)
C. Guanosine monophosphate (GMP)
D. Insosine monophosphate (IMP)
58. The hereditary x-linked recessive condition known as the Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is
due to a severe, or complete deficiency of which of following enzymes activity?
A. Ribonucleotide reductase
B. PRPP synthetase
C. Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase
D. Adenine phosphoriboxyltransferase
59. Which of the following statements is NOT true about what xanthine can be?
A. A direct precursor of guanine
B. A product of the enzyme xanthine oxidase
C. A substrate of the enzyme xanthine oxidase
D. Oxidized to form uric acid
60. Which of the following mutations is most likely to be lethal?

A. Deletion of three nucleotides
B. Insertion of one nucleotide
C. Substitution of adenine for cytosine
D. Substitution of cytosine for guanine
61. If the guanine content of double-helical DNA is 30% of the total bases, the thymine
content would be:
A. 10% C. 30%
B. 20% D. 40%
62. Ultraviolet light causes DNA damage by:

A. Activation of DNA photolyase C. Formation of pyrimidine dimers
B. Activation of photoreacting enzymes D. Methylation of purines
63. Sickle cell anemia is the clinical manifestation of homozygous genes for an abnormal
hemoglobin molecule. The mutational event responsible for the mutation in the β -
chain is:
A. Deletion C. Nondisjunction
B. Inserion D. Point mutation
64. One form of β -thalassemia has been shown to result from which defect in the β -
globin gene?
A. Loss of the transcriptional initiation sequences
B. Loss of the transcriptional termination sequences
C. Loss of the ribosome recognition sequences
D. Loss of the splicing consensus sequences within one introns
65. The mushroom poison amanitin is an inhibitor of the synthesis of:

A. DNA C. Messenger RNA
B. Glycoprotein D. Protein
66. Tetracycline prevents synthesis of polypeptides by:

A. Blocking mRNA formation from DNA
B. Competing with mRNA for ribosomal binding sites
C. Inhibiting tRNA binding to mRNA
D. Releasing peptides from mRNA-tRNA complexes
67. Diphtheria toxin is often lethal in unimmunized persons because it:
A. Blocks elongation of proteins by inactivating elongation factor 2
B. Causes deletions of amino acids by speeding up the movement of
peptidyl- tRNA from the A site to the P site
C. Inhibits initiation of protein synthesis by preventing the binding of GTP
to the 40S ribosomal subunit
D. Shuts off signal peptidase
68. A system of contiguous structural genes and controlling elements for the synthesis of
various enzymes in a metabolic pathway is best described as a/an:
A. Cistron C. Genome
B. Codon D. Operon
69. Which of the following is most responsible for regulating the level of eukaryotic
mRNA gene products?
A. Chromatin structure C. Transcriptional initiation
B. Transcript transport D. Translational initiation
70. The key structure in biologic membranes is the:

A. Lipid bilayer C. Ribosomes
B. Membrane proteins D. Oligosaccharides
71. This type of ion channels in the cells that opens in response to a change in membrane
potential:
A. External ligand – gated C. Voltage - gated
B. Internal ligand – gated D. Mechanically gated
72. What is the direct effect of cAMP in the protein kinase pathway in hormone actions?
A. Activate adenylate cyclase
B. Dissociate regulatory subunits from protein kinase
C. Phosphorylate protein kinase
D. Release hormones from target tissues
73. Progesterone is a precursor of which of the following hormones?

A. Hydrocortisone, pregnenolone and estriol
B. Cholesterol, cortisone and cholic acid
C. Aldosterone, cortisol, and corticosterone
D. Aldosterone, deoxycholic acid and pregnenolone
74. Synthesis and secretion of which of the following hormones is stimulated by

Angiotensin II and III, but NOT by Angiotensin I?
A. Aldosterone C. Cortisol
B. Androgen D. Estrogen
75. Which of the following hormones is derived most completely from tyrosine?
A. Endorphins C. Insulin
B. Glucagons D. Thyroxine
76. Hormonal stimulation of the formation of the second messenger inositol 1,4,5-
triphosphate (IP3) quickly leads to the release of which other intracellular messenger?
A. Calcium C. Prostaglandin
B. cAMP D. Thromboxane
77. Niacin is not strictly a vitamin since it can be synthesized in the body from this
essential amino acid:
A. Proline C. Threonine
B. Valine D. Tryptophan
78. Deficiency of this vitamin causes functional folate deficiency or the so-called “folate
trap”:
A. Pyredoxine C. Cobalamin
B. Riboflavin D. Biotin
79. This vitamin is the major lipid-soluble anti-oxidant in cell membranes and plasma
lipoproteins:
A. A C. E
B. D D. K
80. This is an intermediate in the synthesis of cholesterol that accumulates in the skin:
A. 7 - dehydrocholesterol C. Calcidiol
B. Cholecalciferol D. Calcitriol
81. Digestion of proteins differ from that of carbohydrates and fats in that:
A. Proteins are initially digested in the small intestines
B. Digestion of proteins is completed in the stomach
C. Most proteolytic enzymes are secreted in their zymogen forms
D. The optimum pH in all phases of digestion is in the acidic range
82. Nene took a piece of cake that contains flour, milk, and sucrose as its primary
ingredients, after digestion which of the following in NOT a carbohydrate
products that enter the bloodstream?
A. Ribose C. Galactose
B. Fructose D. Glucose
83. Jose after eating a piece of fried chicken, the first enzyme to digest the protein of the
chicken meat is:
A. Amylase C. Chymotrypsin
B. Pepsin D. Trypsin
84. Muscle is comprised of this major protein:

A. Actin C. Tropomyosin
B. Myosin D. Troponin
85. The largest protein in the body:
A. Nebulin C. Titin
B. Desmin D. Calcineurin
Reference: pp. 566 MPL 0.5.
86. What is the major protein responsible for 75-80% of the osmotic pressure of human
plasma?
A. α -Globulin C. Fibrinogen
B. β -Globulin D. Albumin
87. Which immunoglobulin is actively transported across the placenta?

A. IgA C. IgG
B. IgD D. IgM
88. Warfarin is useful as an anticoagulant because it inhibits activation of:

A. Factor X C. Platelet activation
B. Factor XII D. Thrombin
.
89. Red thrombus can be distinguished from white thrombus by the presence of:
A. Endothelial cells C. Leukocytes
B. Erythrocytes D. Platelets
90. The flexibility of the RBC membrane is due to the presence of:
A. Lipids C. Integral protein
B. Peripheral proteins D. Carbohydrates
91. The entry of glucose into the red blood cell is by:
A. Simple diffusion C. Primary active transport
B. Facilitated diffusion D. Secondary active transport
92. The respiratory burst that occurs during phagocytosis is due to the action of:
A. Catalase C. NADPH oxidase
B. Myeloperoxidase D. Superoxide dismutase
93. The enzyme present in neutrophils which is responsible for the green color of the pus
and whose deficiency causes recurrent infections:
A. Defensins C. Myeloperoxidase
B. Integrins D. NADPH oxidase
94. The major reaction involved in Phase I xenobiotic metabolism is:

A. Conjugation C. Methylation
B. Hydroxylation D. Sulfation
95. This is involved in the reaction mechanism of cytochrome P450:

A. NADPH C. FAD
B. NADH D. FADH2
96. A commonly used way/method of expressing relative obesity to height is:
A. Basal metabolic rate C. Specific dynamic action
B. Body mass index D. Body weight
97. Zeny, five months pregnant, her nitrogen balance is expected to be:
A. At equilibrium C. Negative
B. Positive D. Variable
98. Joel for the past years always have excess caloric intake. Which of the following
diseases is NOT associated with overnutirtion?
A. Cancer C. Marasmus
B. Hypertension D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
99. Vitamin D is required for the intestinal absorption of which of the following
minerals?
A. Calcium C. Iron
B. Magnesium D. Copper
100. Alicia always maintain a balanced diet, which substances in her diet is NOT an
energy source?
A. Carbohydrate C. Fibers
B. Lipid D. Lipid
Total MPL = 51.75

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MCU-FDT MEDICAL FOUNDATION

NAME: ____________________________________ DATE: __________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the BEST answer

3. Which of the following plots / graph facilitate the evaluation of inhibitors?

5. Which of the following properties is TRUE with reversible enzyme inhibitors?

6. Proenzymes are catalytically important because:

7. This is an example of reversible enzymes regulation by covalent modification:

9. How can a non-spontaneous endergonic cellular reaction be driven to completion?

10. The second law of thermodynamics states that in an isolated system:

13. What do you mean by uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation?

20. How is free glucose formed during glycogenolysis? From:

23. Which of the following reactions is unique to gluconeogenesis?

25. Helen is diagnosed to have Galactosemia, which of the following enzymes is

36. Which of the following apoprotein is found exclusively associated with

44. At neutral pH, a mixture of amino acids in solution would be predominantly:

45. In scurvy, posttranslational modification of proteins fails to result in the formation:

47. Severe phenylketonuria and shortened lifespan is a result of:

48. Depletion of α -ketoglutarate during hyperammonemia leads to the formation of:

50. Glutamate γ -semialdehyde is a branch point metabolite in the catabolism of:

52. The rate-limiting step in catecholamine biosynthesis is:

55. Catabolism of heme produces bilirubin which is metabolized primarily in the:

60. Which of the following mutations is most likely to be lethal?

62. Ultraviolet light causes DNA damage by:

65. The mushroom poison amanitin is an inhibitor of the synthesis of:

66. Tetracycline prevents synthesis of polypeptides by:

70. The key structure in biologic membranes is the:

73. Progesterone is a precursor of which of the following hormones?

74. Synthesis and secretion of which of the following hormones is stimulated by

84. Muscle is comprised of this major protein:

87. Which immunoglobulin is actively transported across the placenta?

88. Warfarin is useful as an anticoagulant because it inhibits activation of:

94. The major reaction involved in Phase I xenobiotic metabolism is:

95. This is involved in the reaction mechanism of cytochrome P450:

Total MPL = 51.75

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