TEP (Inggris Jilid 2)

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UNIT III REVIEW OF READING COMPREHENSION

UNIT 3
REVIEW OF READING COMPREHENSION

This section of the test is designed to measure the ability to read and understand short
passages similar in topic and style to those read in courses taught at North American
universities and colleges. You will read a variety of short passages on academic subjects.
Each passage is followed by a number of questions about the material.

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REVIEW OF READING COMPREHENSION UNIT III

GENERAL
STRATEGIES

1. PREVIEWING
Before you start on a trip, you usually look at a map. It helps you plan your way. Then you
know what to expect as you travel. This is a good idea in reading, too. Look before you read.
Then it is much easier to understand. That is what you do when you PREVIEW
Read this passage
The first time you try it, you ask someone to help you. You may fall if no one holds
you up. It is a good idea to start on the sidewalk. The street may be dangerous. After you start,
do not stop. Try to go faster. That will help you to stay up. Remember, even little children can
do this. And once you learn how, you will never forget!

What is this passage about? ________________________________ (pictures below are the


clue)

How to preview a short passage:


1. Read the title
2. Look at the pictures (if any)
3. Read the first sentence in the first paragraph
4. Read the first line of the other paragraphs
5. Read the last sentence of the last paragraph
6. Watch for names, dates, and numbers

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UNIT III REVIEW OF READING COMPREHENSION

A Busy Student
Tomiko is happy to be a student in New York. She is studying English at Columbia
University. She plans to finish her English course in June. Then She will work on her
master’s degree at New York University.
Tomiko likes the many beautiful buildings in New York.
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Tomiko also likes the people in New York.
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Best of all, Tomiko loves the theaters in New York.
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Tomiko is far from her home in Japan. But she is not sad.
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xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx. She is very busy and happy in New York.

Now answer the questions!

Circle the best answer. Don’t look back at the passage.


1. This passage is about:
(A) an American student in New York
(B) a Japanese student in New York
(C) a Japanese student in Japan
(D) a Japanese man studying in New York.
2. Tomiko is:
(A) unhappy (B) happy (C) lonely (D) not busy
3. She goes to plays in:
(A) large theaters (B) small theaters (C) New York (D) all the above
4. Tomiko has:
(A) few interests (B) few friends (C) many interests (D) nothing to do

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REVIEW OF READING COMPREHENSION UNIT III

Now read the whole passage

A Busy Student
Tomiko is happy to be a student in New York. She is studying English at Columbia
University. She plans to finish her English course in June. Then she will work on her
master’s degree at New York University.
Tomiko likes the many beautiful buildings in New York. In fact, she plans to become
an architect. Then she can build great buildings, too.
Tomiko also likes the people in New York City. There are many different kinds of
people. They speak many languages. Tomiko has made new friends from other countries.
Best of all, Tomiko loves the theaters in New York. She goes to plays almost very
week. Sometimes the plays are in theaters on Broadway. Sometimes the plays are in small
theaters in other parts of the city.
Tomiko is far from her home in Japan. But she is not sad. She goes to classes every
day. She visits her friends. She goes to see new places. And she attends many plays. She is
very busy and happy in New York.

2. SCANNING
When we scan a text, we move our eyes over it very quickly in order to find something
specific and easily recognizable. When scanning we are looking for particular information
(e.g. names, places, dates, dates, specific phrases).
Look at the following shopping list to find out if you remembered to order bread:
Shopping list

Milk Bananas
Butter Broccoli
Ice cream Rice
Bread Potatoes
Oranges

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UNIT III REVIEW OF READING COMPREHENSION

How many words did you read? Bread was the only word you needed to read. The other
words were not important. This kind of reading is called scanning
You usually scan: a telephone book, an index in a textbook, a list of movies in the newspaper,
the pages of a dictionary.
You usually do not scan: a mystery story, a textbook for an important course, important
papers from a lawyer, a map for getting to a party, a question on a test.

Example. Scan below page for the answers to these questions. Work as quickly as you can.
1. How many chapters are there in the book?
2. Which is the chapter on Networks and Repertoires?
3. On what page can you read about the Linguistic Variable?
4. Which part of chapter 6 is about data collection?
5. Does this book have an index?

Contents
Preface vii
Acknowledgments viii
1 Introduction 1
Knowledge of Language – Variation – Scientific Investigation –
Language and Society – Sociolinguistics and the Sociology of
Language – Methodological Concerns – Overview – Further
Reading
Part I Languages and Communities 23
2 Languages, Dialects, and Varieties 25
Language and Dialect – Regional Dialects – Social Dialects –
Styles, Registers, and Beliefs – Further Reading
3 Pidgins and Creoles 58
Lingua Francas – Definitions – Distribution and Characteristics –
Origins – From Pidgin to Creole – Further Reading
4 Codes 88
Diglossia – Bilingualism and Multilingualism – Code-Switching –
Further Reading
5 Speech Communities 119

Definitions – Intersecting Communities – Networks and


Repertoires – Further Reading
Part II Inherent Variety 133
6 Language Variation 135
Regional Variation – The Linguistic Variable – Linguistic and
Social Variation – Data Collection and Analysis – Further
Reading

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REVIEW OF READING COMPREHENSION UNIT III

Going to the Movies


1. How many movies are showing at Tunjungan XXI?
2. What movies are playing or showing at Tunjungan XXI?
3. What time is “The Resident” showing at the CIPUTRA WORLD XXI?
4. How many movies are showing at SUTOS XXI?
5. What movie is shown not later than 9 pm at Tunjungan XXI?

Grand City XXI 13:00, 15:00, 19:00, 21:00


LARRY CROWNE, DYLAN DOG, IRONCLAD & ARTHUR 3
Matos XXI 12:00, 15:00, 19:00, 21:00
LIMITLESS
Ciputra World XXI 14:00, 16:15, 18:30, 20:45
THE RESIDENT, SCREAM 4
Sutos XXI 14:00, 16:00, 18:00, 20:00
CATATAN SI BOY, KEPERGOK POCONG, IRONCLAD, SURAT
KECIL UNTUK TUHAN
Delta 12:30, 15:00, 18:30, 20:45
TRANSFORMER, MY SASSY GIRL, LIMITLESS, THE A TEAM
Tunjungan XXI 13:30, 16:00, 19:00, 21:00
THE DEATHS OF IAN STONE, TRANSFORMER, SCREAM 4, THE
RESIDENTS, IRONCLAD (not showing up to 21:00)

Looking for Properties (housing)


1. Are there any apartments rent in central Surabaya?
2. Whom do I call about an apartment in west Surabaya?
3. What is the phone number if I want to call for an apartment in eastern part of
Surabaya?
4. How much does it cost if I want to rent a house at Pondok Benowo Indah in west
Surabaya?

West Surabaya East Surabaya


For sale/ rent Pondok Benowo Indah ER-10 property for sale on Wonorejo timur
200jt sold/10 per year phone: 3559007, Mrs. Yap 350jt (negotiable) phone: 085234730162
Central Surabaya a house for rent on Kalijudan taruna V/1 SHM LT5x21
For rent apartment for business kalibutuh street 39 15 jt (negotiable) phone :031-9700136
Phone: 5347899 a flat for sale at Summerset phone: 031-9700766

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UNIT III REVIEW OF READING COMPREHENSION

Scanning a Newspaper story


Scan the news story below to find the answers to these questions. Work fast. Ask your friend
to time you
Starting time_____

1. When did the flood occur?


2. What caused the flood?
3. What buildings were destructed in Karangturi Hamlet?
4. How many houses were soaked in Kulurejo?

Wonogiri, March 18 - Dozens of houses along the Wiroko River in the


Nguntoronadi District weresubmerged. The Chief Executive Officer of the Wonogiri
Regional Disaster Management Agency (BPBD), Bambang Heryanto said that floods
in Kulurejo and Bulurejo villages, Nguntoronadi Subdistrict, occurred from Sunday
afternoon. The average water level was around 40 cm to 80 cm. He said that the
flood happened because of light to moderate intensity rain with a duration of more
than 3 hours in the Tirtomoyo Subdistrict area. This condition resulted in an increase
in water elevation on the Wiroko River, so that an early warning system (EWS)
showed a yellow level and ranged. He also said that floods also hit a number of
houses, rice mills, and kiosk buildings in Karangturi Hamlet, Bulurejo Village.
Bambang further said that in the village of Kulurejo the floods had soaked eight
houses, one of which was the imam's house of the local mosque. As well as soaking
the store building. Previously, floods also occurred in the same area on Wednesday-
Thursday.

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JawaPos.com –10 October 2018, 10:52:29 WIB

The reconstruction process of residents' houses after the earthquake in Lombok, West
Nusa Tenggara (NTB), has been slow. Of the 83 thousand houses damaged, there are only 200
houses standing. The Director General of Construction of the Ministry of Public Works and
Public Housing (PUPR) Syarif Burhanudin explained that the slow process of reconstruction was
due to several factors. One of them is the reluctance of people to inhabit permanent homes with
the concept of Simple Healthy Instant Houses (Risa). The Lombok people who generally have
houses with concrete walls are still unsure of the Risa buildings offered. So socialization
regarding the use of Risa concept construction is the main task of the task force team in Lombok.
So far, there are only 1,800 residents who are interested in using Risa. The team's focus on the
field is how to invite more people to want to build a house that has this knock down system. "In
the future, we expect more to build this construction (Risa). 83 thousand more should be built.
We first socialized earthquake resistant buildings," Syarif explained while on Batam on Tuesday
(9/10).
In addition to socialization, the team in Lombok also provided training on the concept
of Risa. Therefore, many volunteers are expected to have the ability to support the construction
of this type of house. So that the construction will be faster. "There (Lombok), there are 15
soldiers who participated in this earthquake resistant construction training," explained Syarif.
Reporter: (BII / JPC)

1. What is the news about?


_______________________________________________________

2. In what paragraph(s) the newsworthy event can really be captured?


_______________________________________________________
3. What is the closest meaning of the word “resistant”?
_______________________________________________________

4. Who is the possible actor involved in the news?


_______________________________________________________

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UNIT III REVIEW OF READING COMPREHENSION

3. SKIMMING

Skimming can be meant to read very quickly. It involves selective reading text of the most
important part of the text. To skim is to find out how the text is organized, that is the way it is
divided, and we try to get a general idea of what the text is about.
Skimming is a reading technique that enables you to read information quickly to get the
gist of an article or passage. You are simply trying to get a general idea of what is written.
Based on your skimming, you may decide whether the information is relevant to your needs at
the time. This is what we all do when we look over the newspaper, for example.

 Read only the first two or three sentences of the first paragraph and the first and
last sentences of each paragraph after that. Move quickly across the words as you
read them – do not be tempted to read the passage word for word.
 Take note of key words. As you skim each Test of English proficiency or TOEFL
reading article, you will probably notice words that are repeated or words that are
synonymous with the main idea of the passage as a whole. Taking note of key words,
which are words that define the topic and supporting points of the passage, is crucial
on the TOEFL. More than likely, questions that follow will ask specifically about key
words and if you have an idea of where they are in the passage, you will be able to
answer the questions faster.
 Don’t be afraid to take notes. Overall, taking brief notes on a reading passage can be
very helpful because it will give you an idea of where to find specific bits of
information in each passage. Sometimes, it might even be useful to give each
paragraph a word or phrase that best summarizes its main idea.

Therefore, when we skim, it can be meant that we are also practicing to find topic and
main idea. The topic and the main idea let you know what is important. To find the topic
and the main idea, ask two questions: what is this about? What does the writer want to say
about the reading passage?

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4. FINDING TOPIC AND MAIN IDEA IN DETAIL.


Let us try to read each paragraph. Ask yourself, “What is this about?” Make a check after the
best topic. Write “too specific” or “too general”.

Mexico City
Mexico City is growing very fast. In 1970 the city had about nine million people.
Now it has over 17 million. All these people are causing problems for the city. There are
not enough jobs. Also, there is not enough housing. Large families have to live together in
very small houses. Many houses do not have water supply. They also do not have
bathroom and electricity. The Mexican government is worried about all these problems; it
is working hard to make life better in the city.

a. Mexican government Too specific because it is only mentioned at the of the paragraph
b. large cities Too general as this paragraph does not really tell the point of its topic
c. Mexico City’s problems Is the right answer as it is described mainly about towards the
problems

Why is Mexico City growing so fast? Where are all these people coming from?
They are coming to the city from the country. Life is hard on the farms in Mexico. Most
people on farms have to live a very simple life. They have no extra money for modern
things. People think life in the city must be better. So they leave their farms and move to
Mexico City

a. Why people are moving to Mexico City ______________________________________


b. How Mexican live in the country ______________________________________
c. Life in Mexico today ______________________________________

All around the world large cities have the same problem. That problem is air
pollution. Mexico City has very bad air. The air there is dirty and very unhealthy. Cars are
one reason for the dirty air. Many Mexican now own their own cars and drive in the city.
The factories in the area also cause air pollution. These factories put a lot of smoke into the
air. It is not easy to clean up the air in a large city. The government has to make new laws
and everyone has to help.

a. air pollution _________________________________________


b. Mexico City’s air pollution _________________________________________
c. How factories cause air pollution _________________________________________

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UNIT III REVIEW OF READING COMPREHENSION

EXERCISES.

Some of the largest trees in the world are in California. These are called redwood trees.
Redwood National Park is a large forest of redwood trees. Visitors in the park can walk
and drive through the forest to look at the trees. Some redwoods are hundreds of years
old. These old trees are very tall. They are also very wide at the bottom. One tree has a
large hole in the bottom. The hole is so big you can drive a car through it

a. parks in California ______________________________________________


b. redwood trees in California ______________________________________________
c. the age of redwoods _____________________________________________

In many hilly areas of Scotland there once were large forests. Over the years the forests
became smaller. People cut down the trees to use the wood for heating or building. They
used the land for farming. But after a while the land was not good for farming. It became
rocky because the earth was washed away by the rain. There were no trees to hold the
earth in place. Now the Scottish government is planting new trees. These new forest look
nice and green. They also will help improve the earth for the future

a. the land in Scotland ________________________________________


b. how trees hold earth in place ________________________________________
c. forests in Scotland ________________________________________

Large forests are important to us in many ways. They give us wood for building and
heating. They are a home for many kinds of plants and animals. And for many city people,
forests are a place to go for vacation. People can learn about nature there. They can breathe
fresh air and sleep in a quiet place. But there is one more reason why forests are important
for everyone. The leaves on the trees in a forest can help clean the air. Dirty air is a problem
in many parts of the world. Without our forests, this problem might be much worse

a. the important of forests ______________________________________________


b. taking vacation in forest ______________________________________________
c. large forest ______________________________________________

Now try to write the topic of all three paragraphs. ____________________________

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5. MAIN IDEAS
Main idea tells you more about the topic. It tells you the writer’s idea about the topic. For
example: The topic is about Supermarkets
Try to write three different ideas about supermarkets.
1. __________________________________
2. __________________________________
3. __________________________________

Example:

Bicycles are very popular today in many countries. Many people use bicycles for
EXERCISES. EXERCISES is only one of the reasons why bicycles are popular. Another
reason is money. Bicycles are expensive to buy. They do not need gas to make them go.
They are easy and cheap to fix. In cities, many people like bicycles than cars. With a
bicycle, they never have to wait in traffic. They also do not have to find a place to park. And
finally, bicycles do not cause any pollutions!

What do you think is the topic? _________


Write three topics about bicycle: 1. Bicycles do not cause pollution
2. Bicycles are better than cars
3. Bicycles are popular today for many reasons
Reasons for each main idea:
______________________________________________________

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UNIT III REVIEW OF READING COMPREHENSION

EXERCISES 1: Read each paragraph. Ask yourself, “What is the topic? What is the main
idea?” Write the topic beside the best main idea.

Clothes can tell a lot about a person. Some people like very colorful clothes. They
want everyone to look at them. They want to be the center of things. Others like to wear
nice clothes. But their clothes are not colorful or fancy. They do not like people to look at
them. There are also some people who wear the same thing all the time. They do not care if
everyone looks at them. They do not care what anyone thinks about them.

a. Clothes ______________
b. Clothes ______________
c. Clothes______________

It is important to bring the clothes when you travel. If you are going to a cold
country, you should bring warm clothes. Be sure you have a hat and gloves, too. If you are
going to a hot country, you need different clothes. You do not want heavy or dark clothes.
In hot weather, light clothes are best. If you are going to a city, you may need some nice
clothes. You may want to go to a special restaurant or a concert. It is different if you are
travelling by bicycle in the country. Then you will want comfortable clothes. But one rule is
the same for all travelers. Do not bring too many clothes.

a. Clothes __________
b. Clothes __________
c. Clothes __________

Clothes today are very different from the clothes of the 1800s. One different is the
way they look. For example, in the 1800s all women wore dresses. The dresses all had long
skirts. But today women do not always wear dresses with long skirts. Sometimes they wear
short skirts. Sometimes they wear pants. Another difference between 1800s and today is the
cloth. In the 1800s, clothes were made only from natural kinds of cloth. They were made
cotton, wool, silk or linen. But today, there are many new kinds of man-made cloth. A lot of
clothes are now made from nylon, rayon, or polyester.

a. Clothes __________
b. Clothes __________
c. Clothes __________

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REVIEW OF READING COMPREHENSION UNIT III

Read each paragraph. Try to ask yourself, “What is the topic? What is the writer’s idea
about the topic?” Then write the main idea sentence
Practice 1:

Not all newspaper ads are for selling things. Some ads are about people. The “Help
Wanted” ads give information about jobs. All kinds of jobs are found in this part of the
newspaper. There are ads for secretaries and electricians, doctors and professors. Another kind
of as about people is the “Personal” ad. These ads are not about work. They are written by
people who are looking for friends. Sometimes these people are even looking for husbands and
wives. Newspaper ads are a very good way to get people together.
Main idea: _________________________________________________________

We can learn a lot a country from the “Personal” ads. These ads tell us about people and
their problems. One example of this is from Spain. In a small town in Spain there were forty-
two men. But there were not many women there. The men wanted to find wives. So they put a
personal ad in a city newspaper. Some women in the city were not happy living alone. So they
answered the ad by telephone. They wanted to find out more about the town and the men. But
the women did not go to live in the town. They did not really want to work on farms. They did
not really want to marry small-town men. So the men did not find wives. And the women are
still alone. Not all men and women in Spain are like these people. But this ad may tell us
something about larger problems in Spain.
Main idea: __________________________________________________________

Personal ads are usually written for good reasons. Most of the people who write them really do
want a friend. But sometimes people write personal ads for other reasons. They may write the
ads as a joke. This is not a nice thing to do. The people who answer the ads may be unhappy.
They may need a friend very much. Some of the people who write the ads can cause worse
problems. They may want to hurt someone. So, if you answer a personal ad, you should be
careful. The ad may not mean what it says.
Main idea: _____________________________________________________________

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UNIT III REVIEW OF READING COMPREHENSION

Practice 2:

Mt. Vesuvius in Italy and Mt. St, Helens in the United States are both famous mountains.
They are both volcanoes. A volcano is a mountain that is open at the top. Smoke and hot air
come out of the hole. Sometimes very hot rock also comes out of the mountain. That can
mean trouble for people nearby. This is what happened with Mt.Vesuvius and Mt. St,
Helens. Hot rock poured out of Mt. Vesuvius and covered the town of Pompeli in 19 A.D.
Everyone in the town was killed. The Mt. St, Helens volcano did not kill many people.
There were no cities close to the mountain. But the hot rock killed a large part of the forest.
And a lot of dirt fell on cities many miles away.
Main idea: ______________________________________________________________

Scientists know a lot about the earth. For example, they understand how mountains
are made and what a volcano is. But they do not know when a volcano will send hot rock
into the air. They may know about the outside of the earth. But they are still not sure about
the inside. And scientists are not sure about how earth was mad. They have many different
ideas about this. There are still many difficult questions for scientists who study the earth.

Main idea: _________________________________________________________

Now, after you know several common important strategies in reading, let’s take a closer look
at more reading strategies that will be useful for you in working on the TOEFL reading
section.

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READING
REVIEW OF READING COMPREHENSION UNIT III

STRATEGIES

Now, after you know several common important strategies in reading, let’s take a closer look
at more reading strategies that will be useful for you in working on the TOEFL reading
section.

STRATEGY 1
STATED DETAIL QUESTIONS

A stated detail question asks about one piece of information in the passage rather than the
passage as a whole. The answers to these questions are generally given in order in the
passage, and the correct answer is often a restatement of what is given in the passage. This
means that the correct answer often expresses the same idea as what is written in the passage,
but the words are not exactly the same.

Example

Flutes have been around for quite some time, in all sorts of shapes and sizes and made from
a variety of materials. The oldest known flutes are about 20,000 years old; they were made
from hollowed-out bones with holes cut in them. In addition to bone, older flutes were
often constructed from bamboo or hollowed-out wood. Today’s flutes are generally made
of metal, and in addition to the holes they have a complicated system of keys, levers, and
pads. The instrument belonging to well-known flautist James Galway is not just made of
any metal; it is made of gold

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UNIT III REVIEW OF READING COMPREHENSION

1. According to the text, the oldest flutes


(A) were characterized with holes cut in them
(B) were constructed from iron
(C) were available about 200.000 years before
(D) had been made from various materials
2. From the text it can be indicated that James Galway had a flute made of
(A) diamond
(B) bronze
(C) silver
(D) gold

Analysis:
The answers to the questions are generally found in order in the passage, so you should look
for the answer to the first question near the beginning of the passage. Since the first question
asks about the oldest flutes, you should see that this question is answered in the second
sentence. The passage states that the oldest flutes were bones with holes cut in them, so the
best answer is answer (A). Answers (B) and (D) are true about today’s flutes, but not the
oldest flutes, so they are incorrect. Answer (C) is an incorrect number; the oldest flutes are
20,000 years old, not 200,000 years old.

The answer to the second question will probably be located in the passage after the answer to
the first question. Since the second question is about James Galway’s flute, you should skim
through the passage to find the part of the passage that discusses this topic. The answer to this
question is found in the statement that the instrument belonging to well-known flautist James
Galway is not just made of any metal; it is made of gold. The best answer to this question is
therefore answer (D).

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The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about stated detail
questions.

STATED DETAIL QUESTIONS

According to the passage…


HOW TO IDENTIFY THE It is stated in the passage…
QUESTION The passage indicates that…
Which of the following is true..?

WHERE TO FIND THE The answers to these questions are found in the
ANSWER passage.

1. Choose a key word in the question.


2. Skim in the appropriate part of the passage for
the key word or idea.
HOW TO ANSWER THE 3. Read the sentence that contains the key word
QUESTION or idea carefully.
4. Eliminate the definitely wrong answers and
choose the best answer from the remaining
choices.

EXERCISES
Study each of the passages, and choose the best answers to the questions that follow.

PASSAGE ONE (Questions 1 - 2)

Many parts of the Southwestern United States would become deserts again without
the waters of the Colorado River. A system of thousands of miles of canals, hundreds of
miles of tunnels and aqueducts, and numerous dams and n bring Colorado River water to
the area. The Imperial Valley in Southern California is an example of such a place; it is a
vast and productive agricultural area that was once a desert. Today, 2,000 miles of canals
irrigate the fertile land and keep it productive

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UNIT III REVIEW OF READING COMPREHENSION

1. How does Colorado River water gets to the Southwest?


(A) through canals
(B) through pipes
(C) through rivers
(D) through the lakes

2. What can be inferred about Imperial Valley?


(A) sterile area
(B) bare land
(C) fertile land for agricultural plantation
(D) land that is not cultivated

PASSAGE TWO (Questions 3 - 5)

The ancestors of humans had a lot more hair than the humans of today; in fact,
they had thick hair all over their bodies. This thick hair was necessary for protection
against the cold of the Ice Ages. As the Earth got warmer, the hair began to thin out,
except for on the head. The head hair has remained through the evolutionary process, both
as a sort of pillow to cushion the sensitive head when it gets banged around and as a sort
of hat to keep the head warm and prevent so much heat from escaping through the scalp.

3. Which one is true about the hair of human ancestor?


(A) They had less hair than present human does.
(B) It grew in entire body.
(C) It was short.
(D) It had no function.

4. When the temperature of Earth rose, what happened to their hair?


(A) The hair started to grow thicker.
(B) The hair was less functional.
(C) The hair grew over the body.
(D) The hair started to thick out.

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5. It is indicated that one of the purpose of hair on the head is to


(A) function as pillow when sleeping
(B) reduce the heat in the head
(C) to maintain the head warm
(D) protect the head from flees

PASSAGE THREE (Questions 6-10)

The plane with the largest wingspan ever built was nicknamed the Spruce Goose.
The wingspan of the Spruce Goose was 320 feet (almost 100 meters), and the plane
weighed 200 tons. It was so big that it needed eight engines to power it. The plane was
designed by Howard Hughes in response to a U.S. government request for a plane that was
able to carry a large cargo for the war effort. It was made of wood because wood is a less
critical material in wartime than metal. The plane was so difficult to build that it never
really got used. It was flown one time only, by Hughes himself, on November 2, 1947;
during that flight it traveled a distance of less than one mile over the Los Angeles Harbor,
but it did fly. Today, the Spruce Goose is on exhibit for the public to see in Long Beach,
California.

6. Which one is true of the following about the Spruce Goose?


(A) each wing’s length is about 100 meters.
(B) the wingspan weights 200 tons.
(C) its length is 100 meters.
(D) it is the biggest plane in the world.

7. From the passage, the Spruce Goose was functioned as


(A) a cargo plane
(B) a fighting plane
(C) a pick up plane
(D) a touring plane

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8. From the passage, the Spruce Goose is designed from


(A) wood
(B) iron
(C) copper
(D) silver
9. It can be inferred from the passage, when the Spruce Goose flew
(A) it just reached a short distance
(B) it could bring heavy things
(C) it could help a pilot in a war
(D) it flew many hours

10. It is implied that the Spruce Goose at present


(A) can be used for bringing cargo.
(B) flies several time in California.
(C) is used for a war.
(D) is functioned for a public exhibition.

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STRATEGY 2
UNSTATED DETAIL QUESTIONS

You will sometimes be asked in the Reading Comprehension section of the TOEFL test
to find an answer that is not stated or not mentioned or not true in the passage. This type
of question really means that three of the answers are stated, mentioned, or true in the
passage, while one answer is not. Your actual job is to find the three correct answers and
then choose the letter of the one remaining answer.
You should note that there are two kinds of answers to this type of question: (1) there
are three true answers and one answer that is not discussed in the passage, or (2) there are
three true answers and one that is false according to the passage.

Example

The Florida Keys are a beautiful chain of almost 1,000 coral and limestone islands
These islands form an arc that heads first southwest and then west from the mainland. U.S.
Highway 1, called the Overseas Highway connects the main islands in the chain. On this
highway, it is necessary to cross 42 bridges over the ocean to cover the 159 miles from
Miami on the mainland, to Key West the farthest island on the highway and the
southernmost city in the United States.

The questions:

1. Which of the following is NOT mentioned about the Florida Keys?


(A) The Florida Keys are a chain of islands.
(B) The Florida Keys contain coral and limestone.
(C) The Florida Keys are in the shape of an arc.
(D) The Florida Keys are not all inhabited.

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2. Which of the following is NOT true about U.S. Highway 1?


(A) It is also known as the Overseas Highway.
(B) It joins all of the islands in the Florida Keys.
(C) It has more than 40 bridges.
(D) It connects Miami and Key West.
Analysis:
The first question asks for the one answer that is not mentioned about the Florida Keys. The
passage states that the Florida Keys are a chain (answer A) with coral and limestone (answer
B) in the shape of an arc (answer C), so these answers are not correct. The best answer is
therefore answer (D). The passage does not discuss whether or not the keys are all inhabited.

The second question asks for the answer that is not true about U.S. Highway 1. The passage
states that it is called the Overseas Highway (answer A), that it has 42 bridges (answer C), and
that it cover (s) the 159 miles from Miami. . . to Key West (answer D), so these answers are
not correct. The best answer is answer (B). The passage states that the Overseas Highway
connects the main islands in the chain, so it does not connect all of the islands.
The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember:

“UNSTATED” DETAIL QUESTIONS

Which of the following is not stated…?


HOW TO IDENTIFY THE Which of the following is not mentioned…?
QUESTION Which of the following is not discussed…?
All of the following are true except…

WHERE TO FIND THE The answers to these questions are found in order in the
ANSWER passage.

1. Choose a key word in the question.


2. Scan the appropriate place in the passage for the
key word (or related idea).
3. Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea
HOW TO ANSWER THE carefully.
QUESTION
4. Look for the answers that are definitely true
according to the passage. Eliminate those answers.
5. Choose the answer that is not true or not discussed in
the passage.

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EXERCISES:
Study each of the passages, and choose the best answers to the questions.

Blood pressure measurement has two components: systolic and diastolic. Systolic
pressure is taken when the heart is contracting to pump blood; diastolic pressure is taken
when the heart is resting between beats. In the usual blood pressure reading, the systolic
measurement is given first and is the higher of the two. Normal blood pressure is a systolic
measurement of 120—140, and when the systolic pressure is 160 or higher, then
hypertension exists. Systolic pressure between 140 and 160 indicates borderline
hypertension.

PASSAGE ONE (Questions 1-2)

1. Which of the following is NOT true about systolic blood pressure?


(A) It is taken during the contraction of the heart.
(B) It is usually given first in a blood pressure reading.
(C) A normal systolic measurement is 120 – 140.
(D) Hypertension exists when the systolic pressure is below 140.

2. Which of the following is NOT stated about diastolic pressure?


(A) It is one of the two components of blood pressure measurement.
(B) It is taken when the heart is resting.
(C) It is lower than systolic pressure.
(D) A diastolic measurement of 140 is normal.

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PASSAGE TWO (Questions 3 - 4)

In the 1960s, as space travel was becoming a subject of much discussion, Pan
American Airlines began receiving some fairly unusual requests for flight information.
People began making requests to be on the first flight that Pan Am made to the Moon.
On a whim, Pan Am started a waiting list for the first flight to the Moon. Similar
requests have come to Pan Am over the years, and Pan Am has responded by adding the
names of the requesters to the list. Unfortunately for Pan Am, the original company is no
longer in business, and it never got to the Moon. However, when it went out of business, it
had a waiting list of more than 90,000 names for its first lunar flight.

3. All of the following are mentioned about Pan American Airlines, EXCEPT that
(A) it started business in the 1960s
(B) it received requests for its first flight to the Moon
(C) it kept some people on a long waiting list
(D) it went out of business

4. Which of the following is NOT true about Pan Am’s Moon flights?
(A) People asked Pan Am about its flights to the Moon.
(B) Pan Am kept a waiting list for its Moon flights.
(C) Pan Am never really made any Moon flights.
(D) Pan Am’s waiting list had only a few names on it.

PASSAGE THREE (Questions 5-8)

The tunnel trees in Yosemite Valley are an amazing attraction to people who visit
there. The tunnel trees are huge trees, giant redwoods, which have had tunnels carved in
them, and cars can actually drive through some of the trees. The fact that the trees are
large enough to have cars drive through them should give you some indication of just how
big the trees are. There are currently two existing tunnel trees in Yosemite Valley. One of
them is called the “Dead Giant.” This is just the stump, or bottom part, of a much larger
tree. The hole was cut through the base of the tree in 1878, and the stagecoaches used to
drive through it. Today the Dead

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Giant still exists, but the stagecoaches do not. Passenger cars can and do drive
through the 10-foot-wide opening in the tree stump. The other existing tunnel tree is the
230-foot high California Tree, which had a hole carved through it in 1895. This tree is no
longer open to the public, so it is not possible to take a car through it. Unfortunately, a
third tunnel tree no longer exists. The Wawona Tunnel Tree was a 2,100-year-old tree
which was carved in 1881. A terrible snowstorm in 1969 caused this ancient giant of a tree
to fall.

5. Which of the following is NOT true about the tunnel trees in Yosemite Valley?
(A) They are trees with holes cut in them.
(B) They are giant redwoods.
(C) Three tunnel trees currently exist.
(D) Cars have driven through some of them.

6. All of the following are stated about the Dead Giant, EXCEPT that
(A) it is still a tunnel tree today
(B) it is just the stump of a tree
(C) it was cut less than a century ago
(D) it has a 10-foot opening

7. Which of the following is NOT true about the California Tree?


(A) Its tunnel still exists.
(B) Its tunnel is 230 feet high.
(C) Its tunnel was cut in 1895.
(D) Cars are not allowed to go through it.

8. All of the following are true about the Wawona Tunnel Tree, EXCEPT that
(A) it does not exist anymore
(B) the tree lived for more than 2,000 years
(C) the tunnel tree was destroyed in a snowstorm
(D) the tunnel was destroyed in 1881

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REVIEW EXERCISES

Study each of the passages, and choose the best answers to the questions that follow.
PASSAGE ONE (Questions 1-4)

When the typewriter was first invented, its keys were arranged alphabetically.
This made the keys easy to find. However, this arrangement also caused the bars of
the machine to jam, or get stuck. To solve this problem, a new letter arrangement was
introduced by Christopher Latham Scholes in 1872. His system, the standard keyboard
system, is still used on typewriters today. He arranged the letters in such a way that the
bars hit the inked ribbon from opposite directions as much as possible. This resulted in
far less jamming than had occurred with the alphabetical models.

1. The main topic of this passage is


(A) the invention of the typewriter
(B) a problem and solution concerning the early typewriter
(C) how to write a letter on the typewriter
(D) why the keys stick on today’s typewriter

2. According to the passage, on the first typewriters


(A) the keys were in alphabetical order
(B) the keys were hard to find
(C) the bars on the machine never jammed
(D) Scholes’s system worked quite well

3. Which of the following is NOT true about the system invented by Scholes?
(A) It was introduced in 1872.
(B) It is still used today.
(C) It became the standard system.
(D) It was alphabetical.

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4. The passage indicates that under Scholes’s system, the bars hit the ribbon
(A) in alphabetical order
(B) from opposite directions
(C) and caused the keys to jam
(D) in the same way as they had on the original typewriter

PASSAGE TWO (Questions 5-9)

Desert tundra, or cold desert, occurs on the Arctic edges of North America,
Europe, and Asia. In these areas the temperatures are almost always freezing, and they
cause an environment in which plant life is virtually impossible. The existence of ice
rather than water for the majority of the year means that vegetation does not have enough
moisture for growth to take place. During the short period of time when the temperature
increases enough for the ice to melt, there is generally a large volume of water. Too
much water and not enough drainage through the frozen subsoil make it difficult for
plants to grow.

5. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?


(A) Where Desert Tundra Is Found
(B) The Weather in the Arctic
(C) The Effect of Desert Tundra on Plant Life
(D) The Variety of Plant Life in Desert Tundra

6. According to the passage, desert tundra is found


(A) throughout North America, Europe and Asia
(B) in Antarctica
(C) on the Arctic borders of the northern continents
(D) at the North Pole

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7. According to the passage, what makes plant life almost impossible in areas of desert tundra
during most of the year?
(A) Excessive water on the plants
(B) The frozen state of the water
(C) The increase in temperature
(D) The lack of ice

8. According to the passage, which of the following does NOT happen when the weather heats
up?
(A) Plants grow well.
(B) The ice melts.
(C) There is not enough drainage.
(D) There is too much water.

9. According to the passage, why is it impossible for the water to drain after it melts?
(A) The land beneath the surface is still frozen.
(B) The temperature is too high.
(C) The period of time is too short.
(D) The vegetation is flourishing.

PASSAGE THREE (Questions 10—14)

Whales are mammals rather than fish, yet they live in the world’s oceans rather
than on land. Because of the fact that they are mammals, scientists have believed for quite
some time that whales are descendants of land mammals. Some interesting evidence to
support this theory has recently been found. In Egypt, fossils have been found of a forty-
million-year-old whale leg, kneecap, ankle, footbones, and toes. It appears from the fossil
evidence that the bones were not very strong and not very large in comparison to the size
of the whale. Based on this fossil evidence, the following evolutionary path has
been hypothesized. As the whale began its evolution toward the water, its legs weakened
and decreased in size. Then, during its millions of years in the water, the legs
slowly disappeared, leaving only the front flippers today.

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10. The main idea of this passage is that


(A) numerous whale fossils have been found in the world’s oceans
(B) there is evidence that whales may have descended from land mammals
(C) whales are mammals and not fish
(D) whales have not evolved very much over the last millions of years

11. All of the following are true about whales, EXCEPT that
(A) they are mammals
(B) they live in the ocean
(C) they are fish
(D) they may have come from the land

12. Which of the following is NOT mentioned about the whale fossils in the passage?
(A) They were found in Egypt.
(B) They support the theory that whales came from land.
(C) They are forty million years old.
(D) They showed that ancient whales had flippers.

13. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the list of whale fossils found in Egypt?
(A) A whale’s kneecap
(B) A whale’s ankle
(C) A whale’s footbones
(D) A whale’s fingers

14. According to the hypothesis in the passage, what happened to whales’ legs?
(A) They got stronger over time.
(B) They got larger over time.
(C) They disappeared quickly.
(D) They became front flippers.

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STRATEGY 3
IMPLIED DETAIL QUESTIONS

There are sometimes questions asking a conclusion from a specific detail in the passage.
Question of this type contain the words implied, inferred, likely, or probably to let you know
that the answer to the question is not directly stated. In this type of question, it is important to
understand that you do not have to “pull the answer out of thin air.” Instead, some information
will be given in the passage, and you will draw a conclusion from that information.

EXAMPLE
Passage One (Number 1 and 2)

The Hawaiian language is melodious language in which all words are derived from an
alphabet of only twelve letters, the five vowels a, e, i, o, u and the seven consonants h, k, l, m,
n, p, w. Each syllable in the language ends in a vowel, and two consonants never appear
together, so vowels have a much higher frequency in the Hawaiian language than they do in
English.
This musical-sounding language can be heard regularly by visitors to the islands. Most
Hawaiians speak English, but it is quite common to hear English that is liberally spiced with
words and expressions from the traditional language of the culture. A visitor may be greeted
with the expression aloha and may be referred to as malihini because he is a newcomer to the
island. This visitor may attend an outside luau where everyone eats too much and mammy be
invited afterwards to dance the hula.

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The questions
1. Which is the following probably NOT a 2. It is implied that a luau is
Hawaiian word? (A) a dance
(A) mahalo (B) a feast
(B) mahimahi (C) a concert
(C) meklea (D) a language
(D) moana

To answer the first question, you should refer to the part of the passage where it states that in
the Hawaiian language two consonants never appear together. From this you can draw the
conclusion that answer (C), Meklea, is probably not a Hawaiian word because the consonant k
and l appear together. in this word, so answer (C) is the best answer to this question. To
answer the second question, you should refer to the part of the passage where it states that at a
luau, everyone eats too much. From this you can draw the conclusion that a luau is a feast,
which is a very large meal. The best answer is therefore answer (B)

The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about implied
detail questions:
IMPLIED DETAIL QUESTIONS
It is implied in the passage that …
How to identify the It can be inferred from the passage that …
question It is most likely that …
What probably happened …?
The answers to these questions are found in order in the
Where to find the answer
passage.
1. Choose a key word in the question.
2. Scan the passage for they key word (or a related idea).
How to answer the
3. Carefully read the sentence that contains the key word.
question
4. Look for an answer that could be true, according to that
sentence.

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STRATEGY 4
FIND PRONOUN REFERENTS

In the Reading comprehension of the TOEFL test, you will sometimes be asked to determine
which noun pronoun reefers to. In this type of question, it important to understand that a noun
is generally used first in a passage, and the pronoun that refers to it comes after. Whenever
you are asked which noun a pronoun refers to, you should look before the pronoun to find the
noun.

Example
Passage One

Carnivorous plants, such as the sundew and the Venus flytrap, are generally found
in humid areas where there is an inadequate supply of nitrogen in the soil. In order to
survive, these plants have developed mechanisms to trap insects within their foliage. They
have digestive fluids to obtain the necessary nitrogen from the insects. These plants trap
the insects in a variety of ways. The sundew has sticky hairs on its leaves; when an insect
lands on these leaves, it gets caught up in the sticky hairs, and the leaf wraps itself around
the insect. The leaves of the Venus flytrap function more like a trap, snapping suddenly
and forcefully shut around an insect.

The questions:

1. The pronoun “they” in line 5 refers to 2. The pronoun “it” in line 8 reefers to
(A) humid areas (A) a variety
(B) these plants (B) the sundew
(C) insects (C) an insect
(D) digestive fluids (D) the leaf

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To answer the first question, you should look before the pronoun they for plural nouns that the
pronoun could refer to. Humid areas, insects, and these plants come before the pronoun, so
they are possible answer; digestive fluids come after the pronoun, so it is probably not the
correct answer. Then you should try the three possible answers in the sentence in place of the
pronoun.

You should understand from the context that these plants have digestive fluids to obtain the
necessary nitrogen from the insects, so the best answer to this question is answer (B). To
answer the second question, you should look before the pronoun it before the pronoun it for
singular nouns that the pronoun could refer to. A variety, the sundew, and an insect come
before the pronoun, so they are possible answers; the leaf comes after the pronoun, so it is
probably not the correct answer. Next you should try the three possible answers in the
sentence in place of the pronoun. An insect gets caught up in the sticky hairs, rather than a
variety or the sundew, so the best answer to this question is answer (C).
The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about pronoun
referents:
PRONOUN REFERENTS
How to identify the The pronoun “…” in line X refers to which of the following?
question
The line where the pronoun is located generally given in the
Where to find the answer question. The noun that the pronoun refers to is generally
found before the pronoun.
1. Find the pronoun in the passage. (The line where the
pronoun can be found is generally stated in the question)

2. Look for nouns that come before the pronoun.


How to answer the
question
3. Read the part of the passage before the pronoun carefully.

4. Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and choose the best


answer from the remaining choices.

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STRATEGY 5
USING THE CONTEXT FOR THE VOCABULARY

We need to understand the passage as we can also use the context to predict about the
meaning. Context can be a sentence or a paragraph or even a passage. If we know the general
meaning of a sentence, we also know the general meaning of words in the sentence. This can
be meant to predict. We can try these EXERCISES of short passages below compiled from
Hinkel of Seattle University.
For example:

With the aid of skin between their fore and rear paws, flying squirrels can leap from tree to
tree.
The word “leap” as used in the sentence above is most similar in meaning to which of the
following:
(A) Signal
(B) Gather food
(C) Jump
(D) Seek shelter
The word leap as underlined above can be predicted as jump since it refers to an animal,
flying squirrel, and it also goes with the phrase “from tree to tree”.

Oral culture, such as those of Polynesian peoples, have rich narrative histories and highly
contrived tonal devices associated with recitals and chants.
The word “oral” as used in the sentence above is most similar in meaning to which of the
following:
(A) Ancient
(B) Spoken
(C) Limited
(D) Convoluted

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Analysis:
The word oral as underlined above is best related to mouth and its sound system since it also
comes along with the words “recitals” and “chants”. Hence the best choice or it similar to
spoken.

Making prediction from a context must be practiced in reading a foreign language. By doing
this, we can read and understand the meaning of a passage without stopping and looking at the
dictionary as within the English Language Proficiency test, dictionary is allowed to use.

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STRATEGY 6
MAKING INFERENCES

To read passages in TOEFL or Test of English Proficiency, we need to find a direct statement
of fact, evidence. However, we sometimes cannot find a direct statement. Hence, we need to
make a conclusion about the passage from the writer’s point of view. Let us try to practice this
inference passage below.

EXERCISES

Direction: read the passage and then read the questions following passage, and make
inferences.

When an acid is dissolved in water, the acid molecule divides into two
parts, a hydrogen ion and another ion. An ion is an atom or a group of atoms
which has an electrical charge. The charge can be either positive or negative. If
hydrochloric acid is mixed with water, for example, it divides into hydrogen ions
and chlorine ions.
A strong acid ionizes to a great extent, but a weak acid does not ionize so
much. The strength of an acid, therefore, depends on how much it ionizes, not on
how many hydrogen ions are produced. It is interesting that nitric acid and
sulfuric acid become greatly ionized whereas boric acid and carbonic acid do not.

1. Computer hardware and software have been enormously beneficial in the editing of
newspapers, magazines, and journals. The word “enormously” as used in the sentence
above is most similar in meaning to which of the following:
(A) Fundamentally
(B) Tremendously
(C) Pedantically
(D) Quintessentially

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2. Copyright law stipulates conditions for a collaboration of authors to reduce the


possibility of legal contests. The word “collaboration” as used in the sentence above is
most similar in meaning to which of the following:
(A) An ownership
(B) A competition
(C) Fiscal obligations
(D) A joint effort

3. Tree have to be pruned seasonally or annually to ensure that they continue to bear
fruit. The word “pruned” as used in the sentence above is most similar in meaning to
which of the following:
(A) Fertilized
(B) Trimmed
(C) Weeded
(D) Harvested

4. Mosquitoes and other parasitic insect can be so bothersome to deer that entire herds
have been known to throw themselves off cliffs to be rid of the incessant attacks. The
word “bothersome” as used in the sentence above is most similar in meaning to which
of the following:
(A) Excessive
(B) Irritating
(C) Degrading
(D) Detrimental

5. Carbon monoxide expelled by exhaust systems may profoundly change the climate on
the planet. The word “climate” as used in the sentence above is most similar in
meaning to which of the following:
(A) Industrial production
(B) Geological formations
(C) Air composition
(D) Weather conditions

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6. Experts often forecast an upswing in an economy after a protracted slowdown. The


word “upswing” as used in the sentence above is most similar in meaning to which of
the following:
(A) A decline
(B) Inflation
(C) An improvement
(D) A reform

7. A complex mathematical problem can have several solution paths that are not
necessarily comparably elegant. The word “paths” as used in the sentence above is
most similar in meaning to which of the following:
(A) Equations
(B) Apparati
(C) Interludes
(D) Algorithms

8. Before refrigeration, canning was one of the few methods of preserving vegetables
with limited shelf-lives. The word “preserving” as used in the sentence above is most
similar in meaning to which of the following:
(A) Storing
(B) Ingesting
(C) Increasing
(D) Gleaning

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STRATEGY 7
FIND DEFINITION FROM STRUCTURAL CLUES

When we should determine the meaning of a word in reading section, it is possible that the
passage provides information about the meaning of the words, and there are structural clues telling
about the definition of a word in the passage.

A tomahawk is a small ax used as a tool and a weapon by North American Indian tribes. An average
tomahawk was not very long and did not weigh a great deal. Originally, the head of tomahawk was
made of a shaped stone or an animal bone and was mounted on a wooden handle. After the arrival of
the European settlers, the Indian began to use tomahawk with iron heads. Indian males and females
of all ages used tomahawks to chop and cut wood, pound stakes into the ground to put up wigwams,
and do many other chores. Indian warriors relied on tomahawks as weapons and even threw them at
their enemies. Some types of tomahawks were used in religious ceremonies. Contemporary
American idioms reflect this aspect of American heritage.

According to the passage, a tomahawk is …


(A) a spear (B) a saw (C) a blade (D) an axe

From the passage, we know that tomahawk is a small ax originated from North American Indian
tribes. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

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The following chart outlines the key information that helps us to understand unknown
vocabulary words:

How to identify What is the meaning of “X” in line Y?


the question The word “X” in line Y is closest in meaning to …
The word “X” in line Y could be replaced by …
punctuation Comma, parentheses, dashes
Types of clues Restatement Or, that is, in other words, i.e.
examples Such as, for example, e.g.
How to answer the 1. Find the word in the passage.
question 2. Locate any structural clues.
3. Read the part of the passage after the structural clue carefully.
4. Eliminate ant definitely wrong answers and choose the best
answer from the remaining choices.

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STRATEGY 8
USE CONTEXT TO DETERMINE MEANINGS OF DIFFICULT WORDS

Another type of question usually found in TOEFL test is to determine the meaning of a
difficult word in a reading passage, a word that we are not expected to know. In this case, the
passage will probably give a clear indication of what the word means.

The black widow is the most dangerous spider living in the United States. It is
common in the southern parts of the country, but it can be found throughout the
country. The black widow gots its name because the female has been known to
kill the male after mating and, as a result, become a widow.

In line 3, The word “widow” means …


(A) a type of poison
(B) the dead male spider
(C) the human victim of the spider
(D) a female whose mate has died.

This question asks about the meaning of the word widow. In this question, the meaning of the
word widow is unknown. Instead, we can conclude from the context the female has been
known to kill the male after mating become a widow. Therefore, answer (D) is the best asnwer
to this question.

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STRATEGY 9
USE CONTEXT TO DETERMINE MEANINGS OF SIMPLE WORDS

In TOEFL test, some of the questions may be about determining the meaning of a simple
word in areading passage, a word that is often seen in everyday English. In this type of
question, the answer is not the normal, everyday meaning of the word. Instead, a secondary
meaning of the word is being tested. The answer is the the meaning that is based on the
situation given.

The “piece of eight” was the nickname of the Spanish “peso”, which was the rough
equivalent of the American dollar in early America; the peso was accepted coin in much of
the Americas, particularly during the period when stores of Spanish ship were regularly
stripped by pirates on the waters of Americans and “redistributed” throughout coastal
towns. The nickname “piece of eight” derived from the fact that the peso was equal to
eoght “reals” and therefore had the numeral 8 stamped on it.

The word “rough” in line 1 closest in meaning to …


(A) unsmooth
(B) mean
(C) approximate
(D) heavy

In this question, we are asked to choose which word could replace rough. It should be kept in
mind that the word rough is not being used in its primary meaning. The primary meaning of
rough might be unsmooth, so this answer is not correct. To answer this type of question, we
must see which answer best fits into the context in the passage. A coin would not have the
mean equivalent, the heavy equivalent, but a coin might have the approximate equivalent.
Therefore, approximate is the word that fits into the context. Answer (C) is the best answer.

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The following chart outlines the key information that helps us to remember about vocabulary
questions containing simple words:

How to identify the


What is the meaning of “X” in line Y?
question
1. Find the word in the passage.
2. Read the sentence that contains the word
How to answer the carefully.
question 3. Look for context clues to help you understand the
meaning.
4. Choose the answer that the context indicates.

EXERCISES
Direction: Read each item. Then mark the answer choice that could best be used
in place of the underlined expression as ut appears in the sentence.

Passage One (Number 1 & 2)

In Britain’s North American colonies, university trained physicians were at a


premium. At the time of the Revolution, there were probably only around 400
physicians and some 3,000 practitioners who had on-the-job training as barber-
surgeons or physicians ‘ apprentices. Whether university trained or not, none had
much knowledge of the causes of disease, and the “cures” they often recommended –
bleeding, blistering, and the use of violent purgatives – were at the best ineffective
and at worst lethal.

1. The phrase “at a premium” in line 2 is closest in meaning to… .


(A) Well-paid
(B) Not very numerous
(C) Very experienced
(D) Not well-expected
2. Which of the following words could best be substituted for the word “lethal” in
line 9?
(A) Impractical
(B) Brutal
(C) Impossible
(D) Deadly

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Passage Two (Number 3 to 13)

The Civil war created feverish manufacturing activity to supply critical material,
especially in the North. When the fighting stopped, the stage was set for dramatic
economic growth. Wartime taxes on production vanished, and the few taxes that remained
leaned heavily on real estate, not on business. The population flow from farm to city
increased, and the labor force it provided was buttressed by millions of newly arrived
immigrants willing to work for low wages in the mills of the North and on the railroad
crews of the Midwest and West.
Government was nothing if not accomodating. It esthablished tariff barriers,
provided loans and grants to build a transcontinental railroad, and assumed a studied
posture of nonintervention in private enterprise. The social Darwinism of British
philloshoper Herbesrt Spencer and American economist William Graham Summer
prevailed. The theory was that business, if left to its own devices, would eliminate the
weak and nurture the strong. But as business expanded, rivalry heated up. In the 1880’s,
five railroads operating between New York and Chocago were vying for traffic, and two
more were under construction. As a result of the battle, the fare between the cities
decreased to $1. The petroleum industry suffered from similar savage competition, and in
the 1870’s, many oil industries failed.

3. The word “feverish’ in line 1 is closest in meaning to … .


(A) extremely rapid
(B) sickly and slow
(C) very dangerous
(D) understandable

4. Which of the following is closest in meanig to the word “critical” in line 1?


(A) Industrial
(B) Serious
(C) Crucial
(D) Insulting

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5. The phrase “the stage was set” in line 2 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) The play was over
(B) The progress continued
(C) The foundation was laid
(D) The direction was clear

6. The phrase “ real estate” in line 4 refers to … .


(A) Tools and machines
(B) Actual income
(C) New enterprises
(D) Land and buildings

7. The word “buttressed” in line 5 is closest in meaning to … .


(A) Concerned
(B) Supplemented
(C) Restructured
(D) Enriched

8. The word “ accomodating” in line 8 is closest in meaning to … .


(A) Persistent
(B) Indifferent
(C) Balanced
(D) Helpful

9. Which of the following could best be subtituted for the word “posture’ in line 10?
(A) Stature
(B) Predicament
(C) Position
(D) Situation

10. The word “prevailed” in line 12 is closest in meaning to … .


(A) Influenced
(B) Triumphed
(C) Premiered
(D) Evolved

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11. The phrase “left to its own devices” in line 12 means … .


(A) Forced to do additional work
(B) Allowed to do as it pleased
(C) Made to change its plans
(D) Encouraged to produce more goods

12. The word “vying” in line 14 is closest in meaning to … .


(A) Competing
(B) Hoping
(C) Arranging
(D) Caring

13. The word “savage” in line 16 is closest in meaning to … .


(A) Fierce
(B) Growing
(C) Surprising
(D) Genuine

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Passage Three (Number 14 to 21)

All birds have feathers, and all animals with feathers are birds. No other major
group of animals is so easy to categorize. All birds have wings, too, but wings are not
peculiar to birds.
Many adaptations are found in both feathers and wings. Feathers form the soft
down of geese and ducks, the long decorative plumes of ostriches, and the strong
flight feathers of eagles and hawks. Wings vary from the short, broad ones of
chickens, which seldom fly, to the long, slim ones of albatrosses, which spend almost
all their lives soaring on air currents. In penguins, wings have been modified into
flippers and feathers into a waterproof covering. In kiwis, the wings are almost
impossible to detect.
Yet diversity among birds is not so striking as it is among mammals. The
difference between a hummingbird and a penguin is immense, but hardly as startling as
that between a bat and a whale. It is variations in details rather than in fundamental
patterns that have been important in the adaptation of birds to many kinds of ecosystems

.
14. The word "categorize" in line 2 is closest in meaning to … .
(A) appreciate
(B) comprehend
(C) classify
(D) visualize

15. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the phrase "peculiar to" in line 3?
(A) Unusual for
(B) Common to
(C) Necessary for
(D) Unique to

16. The word "slim" in line 8 is closest in meaning to … .


(A) slender
(B) powerful
(C) graceful
(D) soft

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17. The word "detect" in line 11 is closest in meaning to … .


(A) utilize
(B) extend
(C) observe
(D) describe

18. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "diversity" in line 12?
(A) Function
(B) Heredity
(C) Specialty
(D) Variety

19. The word "hardly" in line 14 is closest in meaning to … .


(A) definitely
(B) not nearly
(C) possibly
(D) not always

20. The word "startling" in line 14 is closest in meaning to … .


(A) initial
(B) exciting
(C) tremendous
(D) surprising

21. The word "fundamental" in line 15 is closest in meaning to … .


(A) basic
(B) shifting
(C) predictable
(D) complicated

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Passage Four (22 to 25)

As we head into hurricane season, we’d like to take this opportunity to go


over some precautionary measures you can take in this dangerous season. This is
espcially important for those of you living in coastal areas where hurricanes can be
destructive because of their heavy winds.
The following guidelines have been established by the National Weather
service. Before hurricane season even begins, stock up on batteries, candels, bottled
water, nonperishable food such as canned goods, and other emergency equipment. In
case of a hurricane warning, following these safety guidelines may help save your
life and property. First of all, protect windows with boards or tape, since they are not
strong enough to withstand hurricane-force winds—these winds can reach up to 200
miles per hour! Also the national Weather Service recommends that you fill up your
car with fuel in case you need to evacuate. Gas stations may be closed by the time
you need to leave your home.
Remember also, it is suggested that you stay indoors if your home is sturdy
and on high ground. However, homes in low-lying areas will likely be evacuated,
and evacuation information. If called to evacuate, leave the area immediately. You
will be advised of the location of local shelters.

22. What is the above passage mainly about?


(A) Preparing for a hurricane
(B) Damage caused by a hurricane
(C) Coastal weather patterns
(D) Evacuation procedures

23. What organization provided the information for the announcement?


(A) The navy
(B) A goverment weather agency
(C) State police headquarters
(D) A local shelter

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24. What should people do before before hurricane season begins?


(A) Cover windows
(B) Buy a supply of food and water
(C) Locate the nearest shelter
(D) Leave coastal areas.

25. According to the passage or annoucement, why should people fill their cars with fuel
before a hurricane?
(A) Fuel might increase in price
(B) Gas stations might not be open.
(C) They may need to drive neighbors to shelters
(D) There may be long lines at the gas stations.

Reading Passage Five (26 to 28)

In the days before telephones, radio, and televisions, the only network of public
communication that could reach farmers was the mail. But this was not the mail as we
know it today. At that time, in the early nineteenth century, mail delivery was uneven and
widely scattered. In fact, many people living in rural areas got no mail at all. In the early
decades of the century, mail carriers were privately employed—they did not work for the
goverment.
Many years later, when the government finally took charge of delivering mail, it
was mostly in cities that mail got delivered to people’s homes. So farmers still had a
problem—they had to go to a post office to collect their mail, which, by the way, was not
always nearby.
Farmers’ requests to have mail brought to their homes were at first met with
outrage. What could be more ridiculous, many urban residents asked, than paying
government employees to travel miles across the countryside with an occasional letter?
Nevertheless, farmers’ organizations succeeded in convincing the United States Congress
that farmers needed mail delivery. Finally in 1891 rural free delivery, known as RFD, came
into being.
In a sense, rural free delivery was the most important communications revolution in United
States history. Rural Americans were not lifted out of the relatively isolated communities
they lived in. Because of rural free delivery, there now ran a highway to the world from
every farmer’s doorstep.

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26. What does the author mainly discuss?


(A) The economic impact of mail delivery on rural areas.
(B) A comparison of urban and rural mail delivery.
(C) Government mail delivery in cities.
(D) The introduction of mail delivery in rural areas.

27. What is true of mail delivery in the early nineteenth century?


(A) It was paid for by the United States Congress.
(B) It was run by private companies.
(C) It was regulated by the government.
(D) It was mainly for farmers.

28. According to the author, what problem did farmers face with early mail service?
(A) Many post office locations were inconvenient.
(B) Bad roads delayed mail delivery.
(C) The postal rates were too high.
(D) There were not enough mail carriers to deliver mail.

Reading Passage Six (29 to 32)

Today I’d like to explain the Mohs’ scale, used in what is called the “scratch
test.” This scale is based on the simple fact that harder minerals scratch softer ones.
For example, a diamond; quartz crystal can scratch a fieldspar crystal, but not the
other around.
The scale is named for Friedrich Mohs, the mineralogist who devised it in
1812. His scale spans the range of minerals known at that time, from the softest to the
hardest. By performing a scratch test using known minerals and a few common tools,
an unidentified mineral sample can be placed between two points on the scale. By
referring to the scale, the mineral can then be identified.
I have here a collection of the minerals included on the Mohs’ scale, as well as the
tools necessary to complete this excercise. I’d like you each to take a mineral sample
from the basket at the front of the room and classify it according to its place on the
Mohs’scale. First, however, I should give you a little warning. The hardness of any

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mineral depends on the strength of the bonds between ions or between atoms—the
stronger the bond, the harder the mineral. Because bond strength may differ in various
angles of a crystal, the hardness may vary slightly depending on the direction in which the
mineral sample is scatched, so be sure to scracth each sample in several different
directions.

29. What does the passage of this instruction mainly tell about?
(A) The properties of quartz crystals.
(B) A method of identifying minerals.
(C) The life of Friedrich Mohs.
(D) A famous collection of minerals.

30. What aspect of a mineral is the Mohs’ scale used to identify?


(A) Its estimated value.
(B) Its crystalline structure.
(C) Its chemical composition.
(D) Its relative hardness.

31. What does this instruction ask the class to do?


(A) Collect some minerals as homework.
(B) Identify the tools it is used.
(C) Apply the information given in the instruction.
(D) Pass their papers to the front of the room.

32. According to the instruction above, when might the hardness of the same mineral seem to
vary?
(A) When it is scratched in different directions.
(B) When greater pressure is applied.
(C) When its surface is scratched too frequently.
(D) When the tester uses the wrong tools.

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Reading Passage Seven (33 to 37)

The New Scotland Yard, the most famous police unit in the world, is the headquarters
of the Metropolitan Police in London. The police force in London was established in 1829
under an act of the British government. The police station and the office, whose task was to
deal with the public, was located at the bank of the Westminster area, where mostly
government buildings were located. The police station face a vacant plot of land, called Great
scotland Yard. According to one legend, the land was set aside to build a residence for the
kings of Scotland, who frequently visited the city. However, such a house was never
constructed. Another story says that the plot was owned by an Englishman, named Adam
Scot, but little proof of this version exists.
After the police force of London was founded, the building housed the police
headquarters from September 29, 1829. The entire police division consisted of two
commissioners, eight superintendents, 20 inspectors, 88 sergeants, and 895 constables.
Together represnted a formidable force, and the 50-room building functioned as an
administrative center that dealt with public inquiries, correspondence, and recruitment. By
1887, the staffing of the police force had grown to about 13.000, and it became evident that
the accomodations had to be expanded. A new building on the Thames Embankment was
erected in 1907 and another in 1940.
With the advent of new technology, paramount in police detective work, chemical,
electronic, and forensic laboratories experienced a severe shortage of space. The
diversification of police duties led to inevitable growth in the number of the enlisted men and
women. As an outcome, Scotland Yard leased a 20-story office complex on Victoria Street at
Broadway. The ever-expanding headquarters were named New Scotland Yard. It is curious to
note that the vast amount of office space for the Metropolitan Police Force does not have a
police station, but includes a citizen’ information room.

33. What does the passage mainly discuss?


(A) The work of the London police and the Scotland Yard.
(B) The internal organization of the Scotland Yard.
(C) The area of London where Scotland Yard is located.
(D) The name ad location of the London police headquarters.

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34. According to the passage, the building where the first police office was located.
(A) Got its name from the land lot on which it was built.
(B) Was named after the owner to whom the land belonged.
(C) Got its name from a facing parcel of land.
(D) Got its name for several historical reason.

35. In line 5, the phase “set aside” is closest in meaning to


(A) reserved.
(B) seized.
(C) restored.
(D) sequestered.

36. In line 12, the word “formidable” is closest in meaning to


(A) formed.
(B) formulated.
(C) impressive.
(D) impudent.

37. It can be inferred from the passage that the Scotland Yard building in the late 1800s
(A) did not have room to accomodate the force.
(B) did not include an office for the public.
(C) housed the entire police administration.
(D) included police investigation.

Reading Passage Eight (38 to 42)

Kwanzaa is a holiday celebrated by many African American from December 26 to


January 1. It pays tribute to the rich cultural roots of American of Africa ancestry, and
celebrates family, community, and culture. Kwanzaa means the first of the first fruits of the
harvest and is based on the ancient African first fruit harvest celebration.
The modern holiday of Kwanzaa was founded in 1966 by Dr. Maulana Karenga, a
professor at the California State University in Long Beach, California. The seventh day
celebration encourages people to think about their African roots as well as their life in present-
day American. The seventh fundamental principle on which kanzaa is based are referred to as
the Nguzo Saba. These rules consist of unity, self-determination, collective work and
responsibility, cooperative economics, purpose, creativity and faith. Participants celebrate by

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performing rituals such as lighting the kinara. The kinara is the symbolic of the continental
Africans. Each of its seven candles a distinct principle beginning with the unity, the black
center candle. Taking with family, drumming, singing, and dancing are all part of the
celebration activities.

38. According to the passage, the holiday of Kwanzaa was created in order to…
(A) Encourage African Americans to think about their roots.
(B) Celebrate Africans’ Americans harvesting skills.
(C) Honor Dr. Maulana Karenga.
(D) Light the individual candles of kinara.

39. Which of the seven principles does the black center of kinara represent?
(A) Unity.
(B) Faith.
(C) Creativity.
(D) Responsibility.

40. According to the passage, Kwanzaa is celebrated by doing all of the followings EXCEPT.
(A) Solitude and silence.
(B) Drumming and rituals.
(C) Dancing and singing.
(D) Dialogue.

41. How many days do they celebrate Kwanzaa?


(A) Seven.
(B) Three.
(C) Five.
(D) Ten.

42. Which of the following is the best definition of Kwanzaa?


(A) The first fruits of the harvest.
(B) The first song of the month.
(C) The first song of the harvest.
(D)The dance of the night.

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Reading Passage Eight (43 to 50)

You can choose your friends but you cannot choose your family, an old adage
states. The family is usually a place for children to find shelter and nurturing. But
teenagers may see their situation differently. Erna M.K, a psychologist specializing in
family and education, said some teenagers looked at the family as something that limited
the room they needed to maneuver. Some teens even stopped feeling comfortable being
around their own family. When glitches come into play in their family life, many teenagers
chose to avoid or ignore them. “Teenagers should not run away from their family if they
know something is wrong. Their parents may be too busy with their jobs, constantly
arguing, or even getting divorced. The children need to face what is happening,” she said.
“It is not easy, but running away or shutting the door to the outside world is not the
solution.” She said that if a child started to talk about his or her feelings about the family
situation, from the young person’s point of view, that might help both the children and
their family, putting their emotions on the table.
Teenagers affected by problems in their family can become aggressive, quiet,
uncreative and less stable emotionally. “And don’t ever let yourself think that you’re the
cause of all problems. Do not blame yourself,” she said. Erna said that. Apart from having
the courage to acknowledge and recognize their problems, teenagers should focus on their
studies, and not let home life hurt their performance at school, either educationally or
socially. “Find other places to do homework if your house is not a good place to study,
such as after school courses,” she said. During the school day, teachers often recognize
when students are in a difficult situation; students can consider them recourses and talk to
them. “Schools have a counseling division, but students still see it as a place only for
troubled students rather than as a place to share what is going on with them,” she said
Cedarkuine, a counselor at SMA 3 in South Jakarta, agreed that some students exhibited
certain behavior because of their families situations. “We have seen several cases where
students are coming from dysfunctional families. Some retreat from their surroundings, but
some act just like other students whose families are fine,” she said. However, Cedarkuine
said that fewer students took on negative attitude due to family hardship than students who
stayed on track. “Let me give you an example. Three out of 10 students (from broken
homes) show poor performance I class. They get bad grades, become withdrawn, seem

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gloomy or act uninterested in school,” she said. “But seven others in a similar situation do well.
They continue to be among the best students at school and excel in after-school activites.”
Cedarkuine said that when teachers noticed a student having a hard time in class, due partly to
their family, they usually asked other students to help reach out to the one in need. “We think
they can be more open with their friend than us. But it does not mean they cannot come to us.
We’re keeping an eye on them, and willing to give advice or support,” she said.

43. What is the main topic of paragraph 1?


(A) You can choose your friends but you cannot choose your family.
(B) Teenagers see situations differently.
(C) Teenagers should not run away from their family.
(D) Teenagers looked at the family as something that limited the room they needed to
maneuver.

44. What is the closest meaning to the word “adage” in line 1?


(A) Idiom.
(B) Truth.
(C) Proverb.
(D) Statement.

45. What does the word “their” in line 10 or the last sentence of paragraph 1 refer to?
(A) Friends.
(B) Families.
(C) Teenagers.
(D) Psychologists.

46. According to Erna M.K, why do children need to face family problems?
(A) Because running away is not a solution.
(B) Because it is not easy.
(C) Because their parents are too busy.
(D) Because they have to talk about their feelings and put their emotions on the table.

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47. What happened to teenagers whose family is troubled?


(A) They become aggressive, quiet, uncreative, and less stable emotionally.
(B) hey would think that they are the cause of the problems.
(C) They blame themselves.
(D) Their home life will hurt their feelings.

48. What should teenagers do if their house is not conducive enough to study?
(A) They should run away from home.
(B) They get after-school courses.
(C) They should go to student counseling.
(D) They should consider resources and talk to them.

49. Why do students prefer not to go to students counseling?


(A) Because they don’t have the courage to acknowledge and recognize their problems.
(B) Because teachers recognize students who are in difficult situation.
(C) Because have other resources to talk to them.
(D) Because students still see it as a place only for troubled students.

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50. What is one of the symptoms of the trouble students who come from dysfunctional
families?
(A) Students exhibit certain behavior.
(B) Students retreat from their surroundings.
(C) Students take negative attitude.
(D) Students stay on track.

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ADDITIONAL PRACTICE
IDENTIFYING SIMILAR SOUNDS

Similar Sounds
DIRECTIONS: Practice pronouncing the words in the box and the word in the EXERCISES.
Then listen to each sentence on the recording (or as your teacher reads it to you) and circle the
letter of the word or words that you hear.

CONSONANT SOUNDS: L AND R


L: lip, link, lock, loot, laid, lag, late
R: rip, rink, rock, root, raid, rag, rate

EXERCISE 1

1. A. ramp B. lamp
2. A. road B. load
3. A. reaped B. leaped
4. A. robbed B. lobbed
5. A. roar B. lore C. role
6. A. leer B. rear C. real
7. A. rare B. lair C. rail
8. A. rule B. lure C. rural
9. A. row … low B. low … row
10. A. rain … lane B. lane …rain
11. A. rent … lent B. lent … rent
12. A. room … loom B. loom … room
13. A. rid … rice B. lid … lice C. rid … lice
14. A. raced … rake B. laced … lake C. raced … lake
15. A. robes … rack B. lobes … lack C. robes … lack

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CONSONANT SOUNDS: SH, CH, J


SH: shout, shirt, should, share, shoot, shine
CH: chair, chain, chap, child, cheap, chore
J: jail, just, jar, judge, job, jazz, jam

EXERCISE 2

1. A. sheet B. cheat
2. A. sheaf B. chief
3. A. gel B. shell
4. A. chop B. shop
5. A. jest … junk B. chest … junk C. chest … chunk
6. A. chill … Jill B. chill … shill C. Jill … chill
7. A. shin … chair B. chin … chair C. gin … share
8. A. jam … jar B. sham … jar C. jam … char
9. A. joked … chunk B. choked … junk C. choked … chunk
10. A. chip … chore B. ship … shore C. chip … shore
11. A. cheap … jeep B. cheap … sheep C. jeep … cheap
12. A. choke … jest B. joke … jest C. choke … chest
13. A. share … ships B. chair … chips C. share … chips
14. A. jot … sheet B. shot … sheet C. jot … cheat
15. A. shore … sheer …sheep B. chore … shear … sheep C. chore … cheer
…cheap

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CONSONANT SOUNDS: P, B, V, F
P: Pay, pit, pun, pale, poor, pear
B: bay, bind, bit, bone, bag, bomb
V: vow, vane, vote, very, vast, veil
F: fine, fit, fun, four, fig, fear, fate

EXERCISE 3

1. A. ban … van B. pan … van C. pan … fan


2. A. file …vile B. pile …bile C. pile … vile
3. A. best … pest B. pest … best C. vest … best
4. A. veal … pie B. veal … buy C. feel … buy
5. A. pet … vet. B. pet … bet C. bet … vet.
6. A. view …fast B. view … vast C. few … fast
7. A. van … veer B. fan … fear C. ban …veer
8. A. pew … fine …pine B. few … pine …vine C. view …fine … vine
9. A. peel … veil … face B. feel … bale … vase C. feel … veil … face
10. A. bat … vile … filled B. vast … pile … built C. fat … file … filled
11. A. fan … vets … pain B. ban … bets … bane C. van … pets … pain
12. A. pace … fast … few B. base … last … few C. pace … past … view
13. A. pale … veil … failed B. bail … pail … failed C. fail … pail … bailed
14. A. bat … fast … face B. vat … fast … pace C. bat … past … face
15. A. very buy … berry pest B. berry pie … very best C. very pie … berry best

199 TEST OF ENGLISH PROFICIENCY


REVIEW OF READING COMPREHENSION UNIT III

VOWEL SOUNDS: LONG E, SHORT I, SHORT E


Long E: bean, weak, peel, meat, seem
Long I: sick, hit, mint, kid, win, lip, risk
Short E: bend mend, sent, red, less, get

EXERCISE 4
1. A. Set … seat B. sit … set C. seat … set.
2. A. feel …fill B. feel … fell C. fill … fell
3. A. picked … pecked B. peeked … pick C. pecked … peek
4. A. tin … ten B. teen …tin C. teen … ten
5. A. pet … pit B. pit … pet C. pit … Pete
6. A. bet … beat B. bit … beat C. bit … bet
7. A. red … rid B. read … read C. rid … red
8. A. deed … did B. dead … deed C. deed … dead.
9. A. net … knit B. neat … knit C. neat … net
10. A. dean … din … den B. din … dean … den C. dean … den … din

VOWEL SOUNDS: LONG I, LONG A, SHORT A


Long I: hide, bike, dime, tile, sign
Long A: make, play, date, fade, same
Short A: cap, bad, rash, man, hat

EXERCISE 5
1. A. dime B. dame C. dam
2. A. lime B. lame C. lam
3. A. bite … bat B. bat …bait C. bite … bait
4. A. pane … pine B. pan … pane C. pan … pine
5. A. might … mate B. might … mat C. mate … mat
6. A. Kate … cat B. cat … kite C. Kate … kite
7. A. fate … fight B. fate … fat C. fight … fate
8. A. vain … vine B. vain … vein C. van … vane
9. A. hate … hat … height B. hide … height … hat C. hate … height …hat
10. A. main … man … mine B. man … main … mine C. man …mine … main

TEST OF ENGLISH PROFICIENCY 200


UNIT III REVIEW OF READING COMPREHENSION

VOWEL SOUNDS: LONG O, LONG OO, SHORT U


Long O: boat, load, home, toes, soak
Long OO: noon, boat, tool, room, mood
Short A: cup, bud, fun, hug, luck

EXERCISE 6

1. A. soon … sun B. sun … soon


2. A. pole … poole B. pool … pole
3. A. bum … boon B. boom … bun C. boom … boon
4. A. boot … but B. boat … but C. boat … boot
5. A. cooped …cupped B. cupped … coped C. coped … cooped
6. A. mood … mud B. mode … mud C. mood … mode
7. A. rut … root … road B. road … rut … root C. root … rut … road
8. A. room … roam B. roam … room … rum C. roam … rum … room
9. A. nun… known … noon B. noon … nun … known C. nun … noon … known
10. A. doom … dome … dumb B. dumb … doom … domed C. dumb … dome … doomed

201 TEST OF ENGLISH PROFICIENCY

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