CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER

1) Number of PTOs eligible by Railway servant in a calendar year are

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 ( C )

2) Leave not due during entire service shall be limited to a maximum o

A) 24 months B) 48 months C) 360 Days D) 4 months ( C )

3) Group D staff retired after 20 years of service will get the following sets of passes

A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) NIL ( B )

4) Joining time eligible when the distance is below 1000 KM is

A) 10 days B) 12 days C) 15 days D) Nil. ( A )

5) The output stage of a practical amplifier is always - - - coupled

A) R-C B) Transformer C) L.C ( B )

6) R.C coupling is used for - - - amplification

A) Voltage B) Current C) Power ( A )

7) A Zener diode is operated in the - - - -region

A) Breakdown Region B) Forward characteristic region ( A )

C) Reverse characteristic region

8) A Zener diode is used as - - -

A) Rectifier B) Voltage regulator C) For both ( B )

9) A Transistor has - - - PN junctions

A) One B) Two C) Three ( B )

10) Common collector arrangement is generally used - - -

A) Impedance matching B) Voltage matching C) None of the above ( A )

11) The most commonly used transistor circuit arrangement - - -

A) Common base B) Common emitter C) Common collector ( B )

12) The function of Transistor is to do - - -

A) Rectification B) Amplification C) None of the above ( B )

13) Amplifiers are coupled to - - - -

A) Increase gain B) Reduce noise C) For both ( A )

14) If three stage amplifiers has individual stage gain of 10 db, 5 db & 12 db then the total gain
A) 600 db B) 7 db C) 27 db ( C )

15) Output transformer is always a - - - - transformer

A) Step down B) Step up C) Both ( A )

16) Negative feed back reduces - - - - in amplifiers

A) Distortion B) Stability C) None of the above ( A )

17) Positive feed back used in - - - -

A) Oscillators B) High gain amplifiers C) Rectifiers ( A )

18) An Oscillator produces - - - oscillations

A) Damped B) Undamped C) Both ( B )

19) Tuned amplifiers are used for - - - - frequency amplification

A) Audio B) Radio C) For both ( B )

20) Detection is done in - - - -

A) Radio transmitter B) Radio receiver C) None of the abov ( B)

21) Frequency modulation gives - - - noise

A) More B) Less C) No noise ( B )

22) Ground plane antenna are used for

A) VHF B) UHF C) MW D) HF ( A )

23) In AM wave, useful power is carried by - - -

A) Carrier B) Side bands C) Both of the above ( B )

24) Superhetrodyne principle provides selectivity at - - - stages

A) RF B) IF C) None of the above ( B )

25) A switch has - - - states

A) One B) Two C) Three ( B )

26) A circuit that generates square wave is called - - -

A) Amplifiers B) Multi vibrators C) Flip-flop ( B )

27) A FET is essentially a - - - - driven device

A) Voltage B) Current C) Both ( A )

28) A FET is a - - - transistor

A) Bi-polar B) uni-polar C) None of the above ( A )

29) An SCR has - - - PN junctions

A) One B) Two C) Three ( C )

30) If firing angle in SCR increases, output is - - -

A) Increases B) Decreases C) No change ( B )

31) An SCR is a - - - switch

A) Uni-directional B) Bi-directional C) None of the above ( A )

32) A Triac is a - - - power switch

A) Uni-directional B) Bi-directional C) None of the above ( B )

33) A Triac has - - - terminals

A) One B) Two C) Three ( C )

34) A UJT has - - - PN Junction

A) One B) Two C) Three ( A )

35) A Diac is an - - - switch

A) AC B) DC C) Both the above ( A )

36) ICs are generally made of - - -

A) Silicon B) Germanium C) None of the above ( A )

37) Binary means - - - Binary numbers have a base of 2

A) One B) Two C) Three ( B )

38) The digits used in a binary number system are

A) 0 & 0 B) 0 & 1 C) 1 & 1 ( B )

39) A Byte is a string of - - - Bits

A) 16 B) 8 C) 2 ( B )

40) A typical Microcomputer have - - - registers in memory

A) 4096 B) 2048 C) 65536 ( C )

41) A Gate is a logic circuit with one or more inputs, but only - - - output
A) One B) Two C) Three ( A )

42) The - - - gate has one or more high inputs, produces high output

A) NOT B) OR C) XOR ( B )

43) Which is the logic gate, where all input signals must be high to get a high output

A) AND B) OR C) NOT ( A )

44) In a NOR gate all inputs must be - - - to get high output

A) Low B) High C) None of the above ( A )
45) A NAND gate is equivalent to an - - - gate followed by an inverter

A) AND B) OR C) NOR ( A )

46) What is ISDN?

A) Integrated Services Data Network. ( D )

B) Internal services digital network.

C) International services data networks.

D) Integrated services digital network

47) For making outgoing calls, what is the tone heard when the telephone handset is lifted

A) Busy tone B) Dial tone C) No tone D) Ring back tone ( B )

48) What is the break down voltage suggested for lightening dischargers (LD) in

the MDF of telephone exchanges

A)230 V B)160 V C)300 V D)1600 V ( A )

49) What is the basic function of a telephone exchange?

A)Signaling B) Switching C) Control D) All the above ( D )

50) What is the control system used in Electronic exchange

A) Stored program control B) Wire logic control ( A )

C) Electromagnetic control D) None of the above

51) The maximum number of subscriber lines in C-DOT 128P RAX type exchange is

A)104 B) 112 C)96 D)88 ( D )

52) The duplication system employed for the PSU card of an electronic exchange is

A)Passive standby B)Load sharing standby C)N+1 Redundancy ( B )

D)None of the above
53) is the object of earthing for telecommunication equipment

A) to provide a return earth

B) To provide safety against shack to the working person ( D )

C) to provide protection against unduly high voltages D) all the above

54) What is the earth electrode called ( C )

A) A wire buried in to the earth nearby the equipment

B) An iron rod buried I to the earth near the equipment

C) A metal plate electrically connected to the general mass of the earth

D None of the above

55) What is the maximum limit of earth resistance for Telecom equipment

A) 10 ohms B) 5 ohms C) 2 ohms D) 1 ohm ( D )

56) How the telecom equipment is connected to the earth electrode ( A )

A) by using earthing lead B) by keeping the equipment close to the electrode C) by using capacitors D)
None of the above

57) What are the materials used to prepare an efficient earth for telecom equipment ( A )

A) coke, crushed coal and common salt

B) plastic waste, thermo coal and glass pieces

C) wood saw dust, white cement and asbestos powder

D) wax, petroleum jelly and castor oil

58) In Microwave station which lead of the charger is earthed

A) negative B) positive C) None of the above ( B )

59) The maximum number of way stations can be in a control section using 2- digit code are

A) 60 B) 99 C) 100 D) 90 ( B )

60) DTMF control equipment works on

A) 24 Volts B) 12 Volts C) 48 Volts D) 230 Volts ( B )

61) Nominal ringing period at way station is

A) 4 seconds B) 8 seconds C) 12 seconds D) 1 minute ( A )

62) No. of 20 watts loud speakers permitted to connect an 250 watt amplifierare ( C )

A ) 5 B) 15 C) 12 D) 20

63) Block circuits in RE area works on ( C )

A) MW patch B) VF quad C) PET quad D) Carrier quad

64) To increase the ampere hour capacity of secondary cells, the cells are to be connected in

A) Series B) Parallel C) Series and Parallel D) One above the othe ( B )

65) No. of cable pairs required for 4 wire E&M working are ( C )

A) One B) Four C) Three D) Six

66) Duplexer is used for ( D )

A To couple two different antennaes

B) To prevent interference between two antennas

C) To increase the speed of transmission

D) To allow one antenna to be used for reception and transmission

67) Inverter convert ( B )

A) AC to DC B) DC to AC C) DC to DC D) AC to AC

68) For converting 2 wire to 4 wire the following is required ( C )

A) Low pass filter B) High Pass filter C) Hybrid D) All these

69) In EC socket the transformer used have the impedance ratio ( D )

A) 2:1 B) 1120 : 1120 C) 470 : 1120 D) 1120 : 600

70) In a hybrid transformer the loss is ( B )

A) 2 db B) 3db C) 4 db D) No loss

71) A power amplifier gives a gain of 3 db when the input is 1 W the output is: ( B )

A) 1.3W B) 2 W C) 3 W D) .3 W

72) Grid antenna is used in ( C )

A) MW B) VHF C) UHF D) HF

73) Hybrid transformer is used in the following electronic exchange card ( D )

A) LCC B) SPC C) TIC D) TGT

74) In electronic exchange the system software is written as ( D )

A) E PROM B) E2 PROM C) RAM D) ROM

75) Which of the electronic exchange card is not redundant. ( B )

A) X SC B) LCC C) PSU D) RGD

76) The processor used in a C DOT exchange is ( A )

A) 65 CO2 B) 8085 C) Z80 D) 8031

77) Control card used in C DOT exchange is ( D )

A) SPC B) TIC C) RCT D) All the above.

78) RE repeater are spaced at every ( B )

A) 17 KM B) 40 KM C) 60 KM D) 1860 M

79) The insertion loss of way station control telephone is ( C )

A) 3 db B) 2 db C) 0.2 db D) 0.5 db.

80) The charectristic impedance of PET quad pair is -------------- ( B )

A) 600 Ohms B) 470 Ohms C) 1120 Ohms

81) The loading coil section in RE cable is ( A )

A) 915 m B) 1830 m C) 530m

82) Which of the MW frequency spectrum is used for Railway administration trunks ( B )

A) 4125 4425 MHz B) 7125 7425 MHz C) 1200 1600 MHz

83) The size of RE cable having 2 PET and 12 VF quad is represented as ( C )

A) 2 + 0 + 12 B) 0 + 2 + 12 C) 0 + 12 + 2 D) 0 + 14

84) Float charge voltae adjusted per cell in ( A )

A) 2.16 V B) 2.4 V C) 1.8 V

85) Beta in grounded emitter circuit is very high due to ( B )

A) base current is equal to collector current

B) base current in small compared to collector current

C) base current is higher than collector current

86) A metallic sheath is provided in RE cable to ( B )

A) to reduce cross-talk B) to reduce induce voltage

C) to reduce weight of the cable

87) In RE cable the insulation resistance will be ( C )

A) less than 10 mega ohms B) more than 10 mega ohms

C) above 20 mega ohms

88) Loud Speakers are always connected in parallel on ( C )

A) Voltage Matching B) Impedance Matching

C) Both of them D) None of them

1. Jelly filling of 6 Quad cables is resorted toa) Prevent propagation of moisture & water seepage. b)
Increase the insulation resistance. c) Improve the attenuation characteristics.

2. The walkie-talkie sets used for the Driver-Guard communication have rated power output ofa) 2W (b)
5W ( c) 10W (d) 25W

3. Reflectors are used in Yagi antenna toReduce the effect of back lobes. 1. To cater for signal strengths
in the near vicinity. 2. To counter balance the Wt of directors. 3. To give it look a uniformity and enable
proper mounting.

4. An E1 stream has bandwidth of- (a) 2 Mbps (b) 4 Mbps (c) 6 Mbps (d) 100 Mbps.

5. An STM-1 link can give a bandwidth of- (a) 21 E1s (b) 63 E1s (c) 1E1 (d) 144 Mbps.

6. The no. of spare conductors prescribed in each main cable up to the farthest points is- (a) 10% (b) 20%
(c) 30% (d) 2 Nos.

7. The terminals and connectors of secondary cells are coated with petroleum jelly or Vaseline- (a) To
prevent corrosion (b) To prevent leakage of electrolyte (c) To prevent leakage of current (d) To prevent
accidental

8. The frequency band allotted to Railway for UHF communication is in the range of- (a) 450 MHz (b) 300
MHz (c) 800 MHz (d) 2 GHz

9. The insulation resistance of 6 Quad cables is to be meggered with a megger rated- (a) 100 V (b) 500 V
(c) 2300 V (d) 1000 V

10. The technology used for communication between two computers in the same or adjoining rooms is-
(a) Blue tooth (b) GPS (c) GPRS (d) DTMF
11. Parabolic reflectors are used in Microwave communication for- (a) getting the required polarity (b)
for the line of sight communication. ( c) Increasing the signal strength by amplification. (d) getting
directional propogation.

12. The ‘Broad band’ service provided commercially by the service provider has a data transfer rate of
(a) 64 Kbps (b) 2 Mbps (c) 128 Kbps (d) 256 Kbps

13. Type of OFC cable used in Indian Railways. a) Single mode loose tube b) Single mode hard core c)
Multimode loose tube d) Multimode hard core.

14. K factor of the earth under normal atmosphere conditions a) 2 b) 1.0 c) ½ d) 1.33

15. DTMF uses frequency combinations of a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d)Nil

16. In Railways, charge-discharge system is mostly used in a) MW installations b) OFC installations c)

Telephone exchange d) Test Room

17. The height of the tallest towers used in MW systems on Indian railways a) 100 M b) 120 M c) 150 M
d) 90 M

18. Warning light on MW towers are used to i) Warn aircraft at night ii) Warn aircraft during day iii) To
mark the tower height iv) (i) & (iii) above.

19. Idle current of 4 W way station selector for DTMF signalling is of the order of i) 15 ma ii) 50 ma iii)
100 ma iv)1 ma

20. Beam reflectors are used in: i) MW system ii) OFC system iii) Quad cable communication (iv)
Telephone exchanges

21. In RE cables of configuration 1+m+n, n represents i) No. of PET quads ii) No. of paper quads iii) No. of
carrier quads iv) No. of data quads.

22. Balancing in RE cable is carried out at: i) Condenser joint ii) Normal joint iii) Derivation Joint iv)
Loading coil joint.

23. The contact resistance in ohms of a metal relay is (a) 0.5 (b) 0.03 (c) 2.25 (d) 0.18

24. The block overlap in meters in a C class station on MACLS territory is (a) 180 (b) 120 (c) 400 (d) 300
25. The transmitter used in OFC system is (a) Laser diode (b) LED (c) Power transistor (d) SCR.

26. Overhauling periodicity of a shelf type line relay in years is (a) 15 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) not necessary

27. The maximum length of tail cable in meters of a DC track circuit is limited to (a) 200 (b) 90 (c) 20 (d)
250

28. The power output in watts in VHF sets used for driver to guard communication is (a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 1
29. The opening at the toe of the switch in millimeters in the case of an open switch in broad gauge is (a)
260 (b) 115 (c) 160 (d) 220

30. The maximum length of a track circuit in meters in QBAT track relay with choke at both ends is (a)
750 (b) 450 (c) 350 (d) 600

31. The meggar used to measure the insulation resistance of paper quads in RE cables is rated typically
for (a) 500V (b) 100V (c) 350V (d) 1000V Question Bank for Group ‘B’ selection in S&T Dept.

32. The distance between the last stop signal and the first stop signal in the opposite direction at a ‘B’
class station interlocked to Std.III on single line equipped with MACLS is (a) 180m (b) 120m (c) 300m (d)
400m
33. As per revised classification of gates issued by Rly. Board. ‘A’ class gate is where the TVU are (a)
More than 50000, (b) Between 30000 and 50000 (c) Between 25000 and 30000 (d) More than 20000

34. The range of single ended rod operated point is (a) 275m (b) 450m (c) 380m (d) 700m

35. The competent authority to upgrade a firm from Part-II list of approved sources of electrical
signalling equipments to Part-I list is (a) RDSO (b) Rly. Bd. (c) CORE (d) Zonal Rly.

37. The display of aspects in a four aspect signal from top to bottom is (a) Red, Green, Yellow, Yellow (b)
Green, Red, Yellow, Yellow (c) Yellow, Green, Yellow, Red (d) Green, Yellow, Yellow, Red

38. The details of inward and outward movement of materials in a depot attached to SSE(Tele) are
entered in (a) Ledger (b) DTR (c) Stock verification register (d) Both Ledger and DTR.

39. The workload of a division for S&T branch is expressed in terms of (a) DESUs (b) DETUs (c) DISTUs (d)
ZISTUs

40. The equivalent no. of Voice Channels in one E1 stream is (a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 24 (d) 30

41. Cellular telephones use the technology of (a) GSM (b) Tetra (c) Microwave (d) UHF

42. Isolation of run through lines is essential at a station if the speed is (a) More than 15 Kmph (b) More
than 30 Kmph (c) More than 50 Kmph (d) More than 100 Kmph.

43. The number of casual leaves permitted to the office staff in DRM’s Office in one year is (a) 12 days
(b) 8 days (c) 10 days (d) 16 days

44. The standard compliment of signals at an interlocked level crossing gate in two aspect lower
quadrant territory is (a) Outer, warner, gate stop signal (b) Gate stop signal (c) Outer, gate stop signal (d)
Distant, gate stop signal

45. In automatic signalling territory, the following class of gates need to be interlocked (a) Special class
(b) B class (c) All Classes (d) A Class & Spl Class

46. The following circuit is used to cut off the receiver output in a radio relay equipment when no signal
is coming through the carrier (a) Demodulator (b) Squelch (c) SSB (d) AGC

47. The Optical Fibre (OFC) media transmits energy in the form of (a) Light (b) Electricity (c)
Electromagnetic waves (d) UHF waves

48. Brass is an alloy of (a) Copper and Zinc (b) Copper and Tin (c) Copper, Tin & Question Bank for Group
‘B’ selection in S&T Dept. Zink (d) None of the above.

49. Transformer cores are laminated in order to (a) Simplify its construction (b) Minimise eddy current
(c) Reduce cost (d) Reduce Hysteresis loss

50. The Basic function of a rectifier is to (a) Change the level of a D.C Voltage (b) Convert D.C. into A.C.
(c) Change frequency of A.C voltage (d) Convert A.C. into D.C.

51. Transformers are rated in KVA instead of KW because (a) Load power factor is often not known (b)
KVA is fixed KW depends on load p.f. (c) Total transformer loss depends on volt ampere It has become
customary.

52. The contact rating in amps of a metal to carbon relay contact is (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 0.5 (d) 1

53. The minimum prescribed visibility in meters of a MACLS distant signal is (a) 400 (b) 200 (c) 1000 (d)
800
54. The speed of data transfer in digital transmission is expressed as (a) BER (b) Kilobits per sec (c)
Kilobytes per sec (d) Words per sec.

55. The adequate distance in meters at an IBS signal in MACLS territory is (a) 180 (b) 400 (c) 120 (d) 300
56. The diameter of the conductor in mm in 0+17+3 quad cable is (a) 0.5 (b) 0.6 (c) 0.9 (d) 1.5

57. Overhauling periodicity of a Q type track relay in years is (a) 15 (b) 7 (c) 12 (d) not necessary

58. The transmitter and receiver power levels in OFC system is normally expressed as (a) Watts (b)
Milliwatts (c) dbm (d) db

59. Coil resistance of a QN1 relay in ohms is (a) 9 (b) 1000 (c) 400 (d) 4.5

60. Pre-stressing of SL-35 signal lamps is prescribed for (a) 8 hrs (b) 6 hrs (c) 3 hrs (d) 24 hrs

61. The number of voice channels in a 2 megabit stream is (a) 12 (b) 30 (c) E1 (d) 24

62. “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it” a) Mahatma Gandhi b) Mohammad Ali Jinna c) Sardar
Patel d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

63. T“Workers of the World Unite- You have nothing to loose but something to gain: a) Karl Mark b)
Mao Tse Thung c) Jyoti Basu d) Jospeh Stalin

64. The people of America were addressed by the words “My dear Brothers & Sisters of America”- These
dectrifying words were spoken Question Bank for Group ‘B’ selection in S&T Dept. by; a) Pandit Nehru b)
George Washington c) Swami Vivekanand d) Abraham Lincoln

65. “I have nothing new to teach the world. Truth and non-violence are as old as the hills” a) Mahatma
Gandhi b) Nelson Mandela c) Martin Luther King d) Jesus Christ.

66. “Monolisa” one of the greatest painting was a great work done by a) Pablo Piccasso b) Michael
Angelo c) Leonardo Da Vinci d) M.F.Hussain

67. 10 Downing Street is the Official Residence of: a) The American President b) The British Prime
Minister c) The Indian Prime Minister d) The Queen of England

68. The Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha is; a) The Speaker b) The Dy. Speaker c) The Vice President
d) The Parliamentary Affairs Minister

69. The controversial book “Satanic Versus” is written by a) V.S.Naipaul b) Salman Rushdie c) Vikram
Seth d) Shobha De

70. The city selected to host the next Olympic Games in 2008 is a) Beijing b) London c) Seol d) Paris

71. The person who captained Independent India’s first cricket team a) Lala Amarnath b) Polly Umrigar
c) Prof. Deodhar d) Duleep

72. Indira Gandhi Gold cup tournament” is associated with a) International Women’s Hockey b)
International Women’s Cricket c) National Wholly Ball for Women d) National Basketball for Women

73. The person holding the record for the highest score in a innings in Test Cricket is a) Sunil Gavaskar b)
Donald Bradman c) Brian Lara d) Allan Border

74. The first city to have underground Metro Railway in the world is a) Paris b) London c) Kolkata d)
Tokyo
75. Article 356 of the Constitution deals with a) Imposition of Presidents Rule in a State b) Granting of
special status to Jammu & Kashmir c) Summary dismissal of a Government Servant for a heinous crime
d) Granting of equality to all religious.

76. The film “Pather Panchali” was directed by a) Mrinal Sen b) Satyajeet Ray c) Rishikesh Mukherjee d)
Raj Kapoor

77. The hurricane that caused large scale devastation in USA in the recent past is a) Tsunami b) Katrina c)
Rita d) Wilma

Fill in the blanks 1. The rating of the signal transformer for DG aspect is __________________

2. The stroke applied at the end of a lever in catch-handle type lever frame for point operation is
_______________

3. In RE cable, the derivation transformers for emergency sockets are protected by

__________________joints.

4. The principle of _________________is used in OFC for the propagation of signals.

5. ____________________circuit separates the incoming and outgoing speech in telephone receivers.

6. Isolation is not a must in ________________interlocking.

7. The lowest signal in a starter having Calling-on and shunt signals is the __________________signal.

8. __________________separates the incoming and outgoing signals in a microwave trans receiver.

9. A work costing Rs. 1 crore approved in the works program will appear in ________________book.

10. Back contact proving is not restored in circuits using _____________relays.

11. The final output relay of an Audio Frequency Track Circuit is a ________________

12. On SEC Railway the mechanically operated lifting barriers at a noninterlocked level crossing gate is
maintained by ________________

13. The equipment used to locate a fault in optical fiber cable is ________________

14. In microwave communication, the energy radiated from a parabolic antenna is in the form of
______________

15. Dehydrator is used in conjunction with wave guides to _________

16. Polycarbonate lenses are used in CLS for ______________

17. 2 nd distant signals are located at a distance of __________ mts from the first stop signal.

18. The goods sighting board is located at a distance of __________mts. from the outer signal.

19. The power ratings of the two filaments in an SL-35 lamp are ____________

20. “Killing” is adopted in overhead line installation to ___________

21. ________________ are used in Axle Counter installation to protect the rail inductor.

22. Intermediate Block Signalling (IBS) is provided to _____________

23 ‘C’ class stations are opened to ______________

24. In metal to metal relay based systems, back contact proving is adopted to prevent the effect of
_________________

25. In microwave system ______________ is reduced by adopting different polarization in adjacent

Hops.

26. _______________ circuit is used to cut off receiver of a diode relay equipment when no signal is
coming through.

27. Charge-Discharge system is used in power supply system for ______________

28. (i) The rating of a signal transformer provided in the signal unit is _______________

29. “Armouring” is provided in cables for ________________

30. “Jelly filling” is used in Telecom cables to prevent __________

31. MTTR stands for ___________________________.

32. World Cup Football, 1998 was held at ___________and _____________were champion.

33. _______________is the capital of South Africa.

34. _______________is the secretary General of United Nations.

35. Indian Union has _____________States.

36. IRS Point Machines are manufactured by Railways at ______________

37. ______________is the agency for issuing IRS Specifications.

38. Push Button Tokenless Blocks are manufactured in India by ______________________

39. a) R.C.F stands for __________________________

40. ____________________gives sanction for commissioning of new works.

41. One route groups can handle ________________route sections.

42. In Siemens installations the relays used are operated at ___________voltage.

43. Point Group in Siemens RRI is a _____________Group and contains _______________relays.

44. Double route Group in siemens RRI is ___________group and it has _____________

45. In latched relays feed to normal coil is given through _____________contact of Reverse relay coil.
46. Sub route is said to be locked when __________relay is latched.

47. In Q series relays contacts are made from _________and _________ Question Bank for Group ‘B’
selection in S&T Dept.

48. In latched relays normally _________coil gets feed and latches.

49. In IB signal control circuit ASR1 & ASR2 will pick up at __________station, when ___________station
turn the block handle turn to TOL position.

50. BR relay attracts to line clear contact when block handle turn to Line clear position at
___________station.
51. Door lock arrangement will effective when block handle is turned to TOL position from
_____________

52. Track locking is provided on lock lever at ___________positions.

53. Indication locking is provided on __________lever at ________positions.

54. The adequate distance or overlap in automatic signaling is _____________

55. A semi automatic signal may have __________And ___________Ahead.

56. 4-aspect automatic signalling enhances the ______________

57. Blank lamp protection is achieved by proving _____________in _____________circuit.

58. Distance between signal to lock bar and lock bar to lock bar of same direction should not be more
than ________________m

59. In D.W operated points layouts, route holding is achieved by _______________method.

60. Purpose of lock bar is to achieve _____________locking.

61. In electro-mechanical layouts, lock bars are replaced by _______________

62. Signal is released by _________________Lock bar.

63. Signal ______________dependent signal.

64. Lock bar ________________lock bar ahead.

65. Successive lock bar locking is to _______________

66. Opposite lock bar locking is to _________________

67. Signal in advance ______________trailing points in rear.

68. Stroke of tappet of a rack and pinion lever is ______________

69. Pitch of channels in catch handle type lever frame is _______________

70. Tripping stroke on clutch lever is ________________mm

71. Availability of a wrong notch against a lock during or after the tappet movement is called
______________

72. 16 R. By (19 W 12 N)- Swinger on 19 should be _______________swinger.

73. 6 x (15 W 8 N) -- Minimum No. of swingers required are 6 x (25.26 W 8 N 17 R) --

_____________________________

74. 7 x (19 W 9 R 17 N) -- Swingers must be provided on 7 x (25 W 9 R) -- ________________________

75. Reverse swingers should not be provided in __________channel.

76. In D.W locking tray, numbering of tappets is to be done from __________hand side to
__________hand side.

77. Overhauling of lever frame is required once on Question Bank for Group ‘B’ selection in S&T Dept.
______________years.
78. Authorised Officer on South East Central Railway for issuing special instructions is
_________________

79. Location of signal on right hand side requires _____________months.

80. CRS’s sanction is valid for a period of ______________months.

81. Application for CRS’s sanction is to be signed by _______________officer.

82. Reduction in overlap requires _____________sanction.

83. Relocation of a signal on L.H side without change in minimum required distance needs
___________sanction.

84. Removal of a track circuit requires _________________sanction.

85. When CRS does not want to inspect the work prior to its opening, ___________is to be issued.

86. Safety Certificate is to be countersigned by _______________

87. Application for CRS’s sanction shall be made at least _____________Days before the probable
commencement of work.

88. SWRs shall be read in conjunction with _________________

89. SWR should be reviewed every ________________years.

90. _________________to be obtained from operating staff that they have fully understood SWRs.

91. Working Rules for LC gates are to be prepared in _____________language and pasted in gate lodge.
92. SWR to be issued after every ______________amendment slips.

93. Station yard extends to a distance of __________mtrs beyond top points.

94. Starter is located at ______________mtrs from SRJ of loop line.

95. Details of gradients, bridges, L.C gates, etc are to be given for a distance of _______________from
top points towards block section.

96. _______________cross over is not permitted for passenger lines.

97. Clear distance of _______________mtrs is to be maintained between SRJs of adjacent point.

98. Minimum distance between centre line to centre line of adjacent track is _________________

99. Isolation between Goods line to Goods line is compulsory (True/False)

100. In Single line Yards, CSR is measured between __________and ___________

101. ________________condonation is to be obtained for gradients steeper than 1 in 260 in station

yards.

102. ________________is provided to facilitate simultaneous reception facility.

103. Schedule of dimensions is last revised in the year _________________

104. Minimum horizontal distance of a signal post from centre line of adjacent track(s) at a height of 3
mtre is __________________
 105. For new works, the gradient permitted in Station Yard without any condonation is
______________

106. Additional clearance in curves is to cater for ____________motion of the running train. Question
Bank for Group ‘B’ selection in S&T Dept.

107. The velocity of sound in air is ______________m/sec

108. Sound wave travel in vacuum (Yes/No) _________

109. Audible range of speech ___________to ___________

110. Wind shield used in Microphone to Eliminate __________Sound

111. High impedance microphones crystal/carbon _____________

112. Low impedance microphone Dynamic/Condenser ___________

113. Horn type loud speaker have _____________low frequency response.

114. Cross type loud speaker have _____________high frequency response.

115. Echo is sound reflection reach the human ear of listener _________Sec after the original sound.
116. In stereophonic reproduction minimum channel used _____________

117. Loss in unloaded U/G RE cable is ____________

118. Lead Sheath cables are used for U/G RE area is _____________

119. Loading coil joint is done for ________________Quads only.

120. Insertion loss of isolation transform is ______________

121. Each repeater will boost maximum gain is ____________

122. Maximum number of tapping transformers used in the entire section are _________________

123. The depth of quad cable when laid along with OFC cable is __________and laid without OFC
___________

124. The loading coil value used in 6 quad cable joint is _____________

125. Balancing is done to reduce _______________

126. The dia. Of conductor in the 6 quad cable is __________

127. Transmission loss of light through optical fiber cable is _____________dB/Km at 1550 nm.

128. The principle of operation of optical fiber cable is ______________

129. ________________Meter is used for locating break fault in OF cable.

130. 131. Name any two types of optic fiber 1 _______________2 ______________

132. The refractive index of ______________is uniform through out its core diameter.

133. For long haul communication the most suitable fiber is ______________

134. Blank Signal protection is achieved by means of _________________

135. Frequency Diversity is used to reduce the effect of _________________

136. Parabolic Reflectors are used in microwave communication to give _____________________

137. Charge Discharge system of use of battery installation is adopted to _____________________

138. ________________________time delay is provided in release of the overlap in relay interlocking

systems.

139. Function of the DUCR relay is _________________

140. Sequential route release is achieved by the use of ______________circuits. Question Bank for
Group ‘B’ selection in S&T Dept.

141. The frequency band allotted to railways in microwave radio relay system is ___________________
142. The competent authority to give sanction under “approved special instructions” is
____________________

143. Jesus Christ was born in the holy place of _______________

144. The birth place of Gautam Buddha is ____________________

145. The British Prime Minister at the time of India obtaining independence was _______________

146. The earlier name of Zimbabwe _______________

147. The highest civilian award granted in India is _____________

148. __________________is the author of Vande Matheram.

149. The present pope, the highest spiritual leader of the Christian community is __________________
150. The present Secretary General of the United Nations is ______________

151. The magnitude of Earthquake is measured in ________________

152. The first Indian Astronaut to go to space is _________________

153. The Chairman of Microsoft Corporation ____________________

154. The Chief Mentor of infosys is ____________________

155. The Present Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India is.__________

156. The capital of Jharkhand is ______________

157. The persons who climbed Mount Everest for the first time are _____________________

158. Television set was invented by ____________________

159. The grade of a SAG officer in S&T department is the ______________

160. The highest award for Literary work in India is the _______________

161. The highest sports award given to the Coach of an outstanding sports person is the
_________________

162. The first Indian General to be decorated with the title of “Field Marshal” is
______________________

165. In D.W operated points layouts, route

166. In RE cable, the derivation transformers for emergency sockets are protected by
__________________joints.

170. The lowest signal in a starter having Calling-on and shunt signals is the __________________signal.
171. __________________separates the incoming and outgoing signals in a microwave trans receiver. In
electro-mechanical layouts, lock bars are replaced by __________

True or False

1. ABCE lock is provided on signal lever. T/F

2. Theatre/Multi lamp route indicator is provided on Home signal for train speeds in excess of 15 Kmph
T/F.

3. Track circuit is provided in place of Lock Bar. T/F

4. The no. of bulbs in multi lamp route indicator is 60 T/F

5. JSLR Relay picks up in Home signal route release circuit for train movement. T/F

6. QJ1 Relay is provided with thermal element. T/F

7. Normal aspect of Second distant signal is Yellow. T/F

8. Calling on Signal can be cleared with a time delay of 60 seconds on SEC Railway. T/F

9. Home signal route can be released by application of cancellation in case of back lock track circuits
failure. T/F

10. Dead approach locking is provided on Home Signal. T/F

11. Approach locking is provided on signal lever at E position. T/F

12. Approach track is not occupied, starter which was cleared cannot be released without time delay.
T/F

13. The loop resistance of 6 quad cable, 0.9 mm dia. Is greater than the loop resistance of 0.9 mm dia
0+17+2 RE cable. (True/False)

14. A quad contains 2 pairs. (True/False)

15. The loading coil used in RE quad cable is 118 mh. (True/False)

16. The specification of 6 quad jelly filled U/G cable used in RE area is RC: 30/96. (True/False)

17. 2T transformer used for EC in quad cable laid along with OFC cable is having impedance ratio
470:1120 ohms. (True/False)

18. The frequency of light wave carrying information is in the region of 10 – 14 Hz. (True/False)

19. The refractive index of core is higher than that of cladding. (True/False)

20. The transmission loss of optical energy at 1310 nm is higher than at 1550 nm. (True/False)

21. In OF cables splice loss shall not exceed 0.2 db under any circumstances. (True/False)

22. SDH frame is 500 microseconds and contains 2430 bytes (True/False)

31. One train one signal feature is achieved by TSR Relay in relay interlocking. (True/False)
32. Route Holding is achieved by ASR in relay interlocking. (True/False)

33. Interlocking is achieved in relay interlocking by proving VCR & ASR. (True/False)

34. When WNR picks up point is operated to normal and WRR picks up point is operated reverse.

35. Not permitting point to operate under track failure condition is called Track Locking. (True/False)

36. When approved electronic time element relays are used these shall be 2 in numbers and their
contacts shall be in series in the concerned time Release circuits. (True/False

37. Entrance-Exit principle is used in Route setting type of relay interlocking. (True/False)

38. Indicate where are the following relays used a) CHLR-Crank handle interlocking circuits. b) LXPR-
Level crossing proving relay. c) KLCR-siding point control. d) SMR-Locking of panel.

39. UYRs are made:- a) Slow to pick up b) Slow to release c) Stick to release d) None of the above.

40. Write the full form of:- (a) RELHS (b) PTCC (c) WIMAX (d) ZISTU (e) IRSTE (f) PNM (g) LMLA (h) SOD (i)
SMPS (j) IRCTC

41. Write the full form of:- (a) SDH (b) HKT (c) PAC (d) VRLA (e) SMPS (f) DRF (g) SSDAC (h) PREM (j)
DISTU

42. Expand the following: (a) IDF (b) C-DoT (c) PCM (d) ISDN (e) TIC (f) RCP (g) RCP (h) BRI (i) CCS (j) SPC