CONTROL SYSTEMS ENGINEERING

STUDY GUIDE
4th Edition

FOR THE
PROFESSIONAL ENGINEERING
LICENSING EXAMINATION

P.O. Box 12277

Research Triangle Park, NC 27709
Notice

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TABLE OF CONTENTS
PREFACE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1

GENERAL INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
STATE LICENSING REQUIREMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Eligibility . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Examination Schedule. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Application Procedures and Deadlines . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
DESCRIPTION OF EXAMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Exam Format. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Exam Content . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
EXAMINATION DEVELOPMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Exam Validity . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Exam Specifications . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Exam Preparation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
MINIMUM COMPETENCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
SCORING PROCEDURES. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
EXAMINATION PROCEDURES AND INSTRUCTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
Reference Materials . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
Exam Materials. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
Starting and Completing the Exam . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
Special Accommodations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8

TIPS ON TAKING PE EXAMINATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9

REFERENCES FOR CSE EXAMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11

GENERAL REFERENCES. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11
SPECIFIC KNOWLEDGE AREAS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12
I. Measurement. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12
II. Signals and Transmission . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 14
III. Final Control Elements . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 14
IV. Control System Analysis . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15
V. Control System Implementation. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 16
VI. Codes and Standards . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20
APPENDIX A
CSE EXAM SPECIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23

APPENDIX B
SAMPLE QUESTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 27

APPENDIX C
ANSWERS TO SAMPLE QUESTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 79

APPENDIX D
SAMPLE EXAMINATION MATERIALS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 105
PREFACE
Control Systems Engineering (CSE) was recognized by a vote of the National
Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES) at its annual
meeting in Nashua, New Hampshire, on August 10, 1991. Recognition means
that an examination will be developed by NCEES, with help from a
professional society, and offered for use by boards for engineering licensing in
the United States.

NCEES recognition followed a request by control systems engineers to the

Texas Board of Registration for Professional Engineers that it accept CSEs for
licensing in that state. The Texas Board, in turn, asked NCEES to provide an
approved examination. Meetings with CSEs, mostly ISA members, showed
NCEES committee and staff members that this new discipline satisfied their
criteria for recognition: existence of ABET-accredited programs in the field; an
effect on the public health, safety and welfare, and a need on the part of the
profession; sufficient numbers to justify preparation of an exam; and
availability of a professional society willing to support an exam program. An
exam committee was required to submit a two-year supply of acceptable
exam problems.

The supporting professional society is ISA – The Instrumentation, Systems

and Automation Society, originally the Instrument Society of America (ISA).

CSE was first recognized in California in the 1970’s. A limited period of

licensing without examination (grandfathering) occurred in 1975- 76, and an
exam was administered starting in 1978. The California exam did not meet
NCEES standards and was not accepted by other states for registration by
reciprocity. These difficulties were removed with availability of an NCEES-
approved exam, administered for the first time in October, 1992.

By April, 2003, forty-four state boards had agreed to offer the CSE exam. The
other boards (Alaska, Hawaii, Nevada, New Mexico, New York and Rhode
Island) have asked for a showing of need and interest in their states before
they will recognize CSE.

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GENERAL INFORMATION
INTRODUCTION
This study guide is published by ISA – The Instrumentation, Systems and
Automation Society, to assist candidates who are preparing for the Principles-
and-Practice of Engineering examination in Control Systems Engineering
(CSE), one of the requirements for licensure as a professional engineer.

The CSE exam is developed by the National Council of Examiners for

Engineering and Surveying (NCEES). The membership of NCEES is
comprised of the boards of registration in 55 US jurisdictions (50 states, 4
territories and the District of Columbia). As one of its functions, NCEES
provides these boards with uniform exams which are valid measures of
competency for the practice of engineering.

To develop reliable and valid exams, NCEES employs procedures using the
guidelines established in the Standards for Educational and Psychological
Testing (1985), published by the American Psychological Association. These
procedures are intended to maximize the fairness and quality of the exams.
The procedures require the involvement of experienced testing specialists
having the necessary expertise to develop examinations using current testing
techniques.

The exams are the result of careful preparation by committees comprised of

professional engineers from throughout the United States. These engineers
supply the content expertise which is essential in developing exams. By
utilizing the expertise of engineers with different backgrounds, such as
private consulting, government, industry and education, NCEES prepares
exams which are valid measures of competency.

STATE LICENSING REQUIREMENTS

Eligibility

Licensing of Control Systems Engineers (CSEs) is intended to protect the

public by ensuring that practitioners in this field possess a necessary level of
minimum competence. While exams offer one means of measuring the
competency levels of candidates, most jurisdictions also screen candidates
based upon education and experience requirements.

Licensing requirements vary from state to state, so it is necessary to contact

the appropriate board. Up-to-date phone numbers and addresses can be
obtained by calling the information operator in your state capitol, or by
checking the Internet at www.ncees.org or nspe.org.

3
Prior to 1998, most states did not have citizenship or residence requirements.
Now, as a result of the Welfare Reform Act passed by the US Congress in 1996,
states cannot confer a “benefit” (including a professional or commercial
license) on a person who is not a US citizen or legal resident. However,
licenses can be issued to holders of certain types of visas for entry into the US.
Because the rules are complex, candidates affected by this regulation should
discuss their situation with one of the state boards.

Examination Schedule

The CSE exam is offered once per year, on the last weekend in October. Appli-
cation deadlines vary from state to state, but typically are about three or four
months ahead of the exam date.

Applicants for the CSE exam must have taken and passed the Fundamentals-
of-Engineering (FE) exam, also called the Engineer-in-Training (EIT) exam, or
have received a waiver of this exam. Many state boards will waive the FE/EIT
exam for persons with sufficient approved engineering experience, usually at
least eight years. This exam is given in April and October.

Note: Recipients of waivers may encounter difficulty in becoming licensed by

“reciprocity” or “comity” in another state where waivers are not available.
Therefore, applicants are advised that it may be advantageous to take and
pass the FE/EIT exam.

Application Procedures and Deadlines

Applications and information are available from the individual boards.

Requirements and fees vary among the jurisdictions, and applicants are
responsible for contacting their board office.

Sufficient time must be allotted to complete the application process and

assemble required data, including a professional work history, references, and
academic transcripts or other verifications of the applicant's engineering
education.

DESCRIPTION OF EXAMINATION
Exam Format

The NCEES Principles-and-Practice of Engineering exam (commonly called

the PE exam) in Control Systems Engineering (CSE) is an eight-hour exam,
administered in two four-hour sessions.

Each session contains forty (40) questions in a multiple-choice form.

Questions are stated in a standardized form. Questions start with a “stem”

which describes a situation an engineer might encounter in practice. Any
information or data that the examinee needs appears in the stem. Each

4
question has a correct answer and three incorrect answers. More than one
question may be based on a common stem.

All of the questions are compulsory; applicants are expected to answer all of
the questions. Each correct answer receives one point. If a question is omitted
or answered incorrectly, it will receive a score of zero. There is no penalty for
guessing.

Sample questions appear in Appendix B of this book.

Exam Content

The subject areas of the CSE exam are described by the exam specification
given in Appendix A.

EXAMINATION DEVELOPMENT
Exam Validity

Testing standards require that questions on a licensing exam be representative

of important tasks needed for competent practice in the profession. The
relation between the exam questions and these tasks is established by a
vocational or task analysis of the profession which identifies the duties
performed by practicing engineers. This information is used to develop an
exam content specification which guides development of job-related
questions.

In 1991, ISA retained a contractor to conduct a comprehensive professional

activities and requirements study of the CSE discipline. Questionnaires were
sent to 3200 professional engineers practicing as CSEs; approximately 800
replies were received. Based on their responses, a specification was developed
for an exam to measure critical aspects of the CSE profession. The first exam
was administered in October, 1992. The exam specification was modified
slightly when the all-multiple-choice format initiated in 1998.

Similar studies are performed for all of the disciplines in which NCEES
provides exams. The studies are repeated periodically to reflect changes in
technology. In 2002-3, following NCEEs policy, the CSE exam specification
was revised.

Exam Specifications

The examination specification presented in Appendix A shows six major

knowledge areas for CSEs. For each area, possible sub-areas and topics for
exam questions are listed.

5
Exam Preparation

Exams are developed by a standing ISA committee. Members of the

committee are CSEs, already registered as PEs, who volunteer to write or
review questions. ISA membership is not required.

A group of committee members meets at least twice annually, to determine

the passing score for the most recent exam or to select questions for future
exams. Between these meetings, committee members write new questions.
The content and format of the questions are reviewed by committee members
for compliance with the exam specifications and to assure the quality and
fairness of the exam. These engineers are representative of the profession in
terms of geographic location, area of practice, ethnic background, and gender.

MINIMUM COMPETENCE
One of the most critical considerations in developing and administering
exams for professional engineering registration or licensing is establishment
of passing scores which reflect a standard of minimum competence. Minimum
competence, as measured by the exam component of the licensing process, is
defined by NCEES as follows:

The lowest level of knowledge at which a person can practice professional

engineering in such a manner that will safeguard life, health and property and
promote the public welfare.

The concept of minimum competence is a primary concern of committee

members as they prepare questions for the exam.

SCORING PROCEDURES
Each question is worth 0 or 1 point, so the entire 8-hour exam has a maximum
score of 80 points.

Because it is impossible to write multiple-choice questions to a precise degree

of difficulty, a passing score cannot be set in advance but must be determined
individually for each exam administration.

However, candidates should understand that NCEES exams are NOT graded
“by the curve” so that pre-specified percentages of examinees will pass and
fail. Instead, they are graded by an “item-specific, criterion-referenced”
method, i.e., answers are evaluated in terms of what a minimally-competent
candidate is expected to know. With this procedure, each candidate is judged
separately and without regard to the performance of other examinees.

To achieve this result, a passing score workshop or equivalent procedure is

conducted for each exam.

6
At a passing-score workshop, a panel of engineers who have not been
involved with preparation of the exams is asked to study the questions and
independently estimate the fraction of minimally-competent candidates who
would answer each question correctly. These estimates are averaged for the
panel and then summed to obtain a passing score.

After each exam administration, examinees' answers are analyzed to

determine if any questions might have contained typographical or other
errors and thus have no correct answer, or might have more than one correct
answer under some circumstances. Examinees receive a form during the test
administration for use in calling attention to possible bad questions. Poor
questions are discarded or revised before further use.

Exam scoring and analysis is supervised by consulting psychometricians

(testing specialists) provided by NCEES.

Legal authority for licensing decisions rests with the individual registration
boards and not with NCEES or ISA. Consequently, each board has the
authority to fix its own passing score for the exam. NCEES provides each
board with a recommended passing score developed by the methods
described above; the recommended score is generally adopted by the boards.
Candidates may appeal a board decision, subject to rules established by the
board.

Note: In some states, licensing exams must -- by law -- have a passing score of
70. For these states, NCEES scales the raw scores so the maximum score
becomes 100 and the passing score becomes 70. Where this occurs, scores are
not directly comparable from state to state, but the same group of applicants
will pass on either basis.

EXAMINATION PROCEDURES AND INSTRUCTIONS

Reference Materials

The PE exam in CSE is open-book. Your board determines the reference

materials and calculators that will be allowed. In general, you may use
textbooks, handbooks and bound reference materials; battery-operated, silent,
non-printing calculators are usually permitted. Bring spare batteries; do not
expect to be seated next to an electrical outlet.

Writing tablets, unbound notes or tables, and devices that could compromise
the security of the exam are NOT permitted. In the exam booklets, questions
are printed on the right-hand pages; the left-hand pages are blank and can be
used for calculations or scratch work. Examinees are prohibited from copying
questions for future use.

State boards differ in their rules regarding references and calculators, so you
should contact your board for its specific instructions.

7
Exam Materials

Before each session, proctors will distribute exam booklets and answer sheets
to be used in responding to the questions.

The exam booklet should not be opened until you are instructed to do so by
the proctor. Read the instructions and information given on the front and back
covers. Enter your name in the upper right corner of the front cover. Listen
carefully to all instructions read by the proctor.

ALL answers must be recorded on the answer sheets in the spaces

corresponding to the question numbers. NO credit is given for anything
written in the exam booklet.

The answer sheets for the multiple-choice questions are machine scored. For
proper scoring, the answer spaces should be blackened completely. Use only
#2 pencils or mechanical pencils with HB lead. Marks in ink or felt-tip pens
may not be scanned accurately. If you decide to change an answer, the first
answer must be erased completely. Incomplete erasures and stray marks may
be read as intended answers.

One side of the answer sheet is used to collect identification and biographical
data. Proctors will guide you through this part of the answer sheet prior to
your taking the test. The process will take about 15 minutes.

Copies of the answer sheets described above are given in the following pages.
It will be wise to become familiar with them before the exam.

Starting and Completing the Exam

You are not to open the exam booklet until instructed to do so by the proctor.
Inside the front cover is additional important information. If you should
complete the exam with more than 30 minutes remaining, you are free to
leave. Within 30 minutes of the end of the exam, you are required to remain
until the end to avoid disrupting those still working and to permit orderly
collection of all exam materials.

Regardless of when you complete the exam, you are responsible for returning
the numbered exam booklet assigned to you. Cooperate with the proctors
collecting the exam materials. Nobody will be allowed to leave until the
proctor has verified that all materials have been collected.

Special Accommodations

If you need special accommodations in the test-taking procedure, due to a

disabling condition, you should communicate your need to your board office
well in advance of the examination day so that appropriate arrangements can
be made.

8
TIPS ON TAKING PE EXAMINATIONS

„ Advance study, either individual or in an organized review course, is

generally helpful in preparing for a PE exam. Surveys show that the
principle of diminishing returns sets in after 40-100 hours of preparation.

„ Last-minute cramming is probably not helpful. A good night's sleep is

advised before the exam.

„ Check that you have the necessary references, calculator, replacement

batteries, pencils, etc., before leaving for the exam site. Tape recorders,
cameras, cell phones, walkie-talkie radios and other communication
devices are prohibited in exam rooms.

„ Plan to arrive early at the exam site, allowing for delays in travel and
parking.

„ Before starting to answer any questions, read all of them. Rank them by
the apparent degree of difficulty for you. Tackle the easiest questions first,
then the next easiest, and so on, until you have answered all of the
questions in the morning or afternoon half of the exam. This approach will
leave more time for the tougher questions at the end of the session.

„ Because the morning and afternoon sessions are each four hours, you will
have approximately six minutes per question, not counting the time spent
reviewing the entire exam before starting.

Î If you finish the exam ahead of time, check your calculations or try
answering a question by an alternate method.

Î If you are running short of time or are uncertain about the correct
answer, try to eliminate clearly incorrect answers and make a guess
among the remaining answers (since there is no penalty for guessing).

9
REFERENCES FOR CSE EXAMINATION
The following pages list reference books that may be useful in preparing for
and taking the PE examination in CSE. The list has been organized into the
same topic areas as the exam. Where possible, several books have been listed
for each topic, and excerpts from the tables of contents are included to assist
candidates in comparing these books with other similar references.

It is NOT suggested that candidates should be familiar with or own all of the
following books, because there are substantial overlaps in coverage of the
exam content in the listed books. Instead, candidates should review these
books and other similar books, select a limited number of references covering
the major areas of the CSE exam, and study the selected references to learn
where particular topics are covered.

Some of the listed references may be out of print or unavailable. However,

their coverage of basic principles may still be valid and useful. Some older
references may have been replaced by newer editions, so be alert to this
possibility.

ISA offers a wide range of books, standards, electronic media

products, and training courses on control systems
engineering, some of which are abstracted in this section. A
free catalog can be obtained by contacting ISA at P.O. Box
12277, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709; phone (919) 549-
8411, FAX (919) 549-8288.

No representation is made or intended that mastery of the content of the listed

references is sufficient to assure passing the CSE exam.

GENERAL REFERENCES

The following references cover more than one of the areas included in the CSE
exam:

„ C.L. Albert and D.A. Coggan (Eds.), FUNDAMENTALS OF

INDUSTRIAL CONTROL, ISA, 1991. [Sensors; analyzers; process
control; final elements; computer technology; control theory; analog
and digital control devices; telemetry; distributed control systems;
programmable controllers; ergonomics, human factors and safety;
applications; engineering practices]

11
 „ W. G. Andrew and H. B. Williams, APPLIED INSTRUMENTATION IN
THE PROCESS INDUSTRIES - Vol. 2 (2nd Ed.), Gulf Publishing
Company, Houston, TX, 1980. [Design criteria; selecting measurement
methods; control valve selection and sizing; pressure relief systems;
application guidelines for analytical systems; control panels;
instrument air systems; slurry service; accuracies and errors; digital
and computer control systems.]

„ W. G. Andrew and H. B. Williams, APPLIED INSTRUMENTATION IN

THE PROCESS INDUSTRIES - Vol. 3 (3rd Ed.), Gulf Publishing
Company, Houston, TX, 1993. [Fluid flow; engineering graphical
symbols; charts; tables; nomographs; formulas; typical installation
details; typical calculations.]

„ N. E. Battikha, CONDENSED HANDBOOK OF MEASUREMENT

AND CONTROL (2nd Ed.), ISA, 2004. [Symbols; instrument and
control valve selection; control loops; conversion factors; and other
reference material.]

„ P.G. Friedmann and T.P. Stoltenberg (Eds.), CONTINUOUS PROCESS

CONTROL, ISA, 1996. [Measurements, final elements, controllers, and
control systems; control techniques; applications to Various Processes.]

„ B. G. Liptak, INSTRUMENT ENGINEERS' HANDBOOK - PROCESS

CONTROL, 3rd Ed., ISA, 2002 [Control theory; controller, transmitters,
converters and relays; control centers, panels and displays; control
valves, on-off and throttling; regulators; PLCs and other logic devices;
DCS and computer-based systems; process control systems]

„ C.L. Nachtigal (Ed.), INSTRUMENTATION AND CONTROL -

FUNDAMENTALS AND APPLICATIONS, John Wiley & Sons, New
York, NY, 1985. [Definitions; system engineering concepts; dynamic
system analysis; instrument statics; input-output characteristics;
electronic devices; data conversion; grounding and cabling; bridge
transducers; position, velocity and acceleration; force, torque and
pressure; temperature and flow; signal processing and transmission;
closed-loop system analysis; control system performance modification;
actuators; controllers; general-purpose control devices and PLCs;
state-space analysis and design]

SPECIFIC KNOWLEDGE AREAS

The following references cover one or more knowledge areas of the CSE exam
identified in the exam specification (Appendix A).

I. Measurement

„ B. G. Liptak, INSTRUMENT ENGINEERS' HANDBOOK - Process

Measurement and Analysis (3rd Ed.), ISA, 2002. [Instrument symbols,

12
 performance, and terminology; measurement of flow, level,
temperature, pressure and density; safety, weight and miscellaneous
sensors; analytical instrumentation]

„ C. H. Cho, MEASUREMENT AND CONTROL OF LIQUID LEVEL,

ISA, 1982. [Basics; measurement techniques; level control systems]

„ D. R. Gillum, INDUSTRIAL PRESSURE, LEVEL AND DENSITY

MEASUREMENT, ISA, 1995. [Fluid properties; gauges, transmitters
and transducers; level measurement theory; hydrostatic head;
electrical level measurements; liquid density measurement.]

„ T. W. Kerlin and R. L. Shepard, INDUSTRIAL TEMPERATURE

MEASUREMENT, ISA, 1982. [Temperature scales; calibration and
accuracy; steady-state and transient heat transfer; response time;
thermocouples; resistance thermometers; thermistors; other
thermometers; radiation pyrometry; thermowells and protection
tubes]

„ E.C. Magison, TEMPERATURE MEASUREMENT IN INDUSTRY, ISA,

1990. [Principles and fundamentals; thermocouples; resistance
thermometers; filled systems; radiation thermometers; others.]

„ D.W. Spitzer (Ed.), FLOW MEASUREMENT (2nd Ed.), ISA, 2001.

[Fundamentals; linearization, compensation, totalization; calibration;
flowmeter types - differential pressure, open channel, magnetic, mass,
positive displacement, target, thermal, turbine, ultrasonic, variable
area, insertion, by-pass; factors; data requirements; mixed-phase flow;
piping effects; flow conditioning; selection procedures; installation
and maintenance]

„ -------------, “Flow of Fluids through Valves, Fittings and Pipe”,

Technical Paper No. 410, 1969, Crane Company, 4100 S. Kedzie
Avenue, Chicago, IL 60632

„ -------------, “Cameron Hydraulic Data”, Ingersoll Rand Company,

Woodruff Lake, NJ 07675

„ R.W. Miller, FLOW MEASUREMENT ENGINEERING HANDBOOK

(3rd Ed.), Gulf Publishing Company, Houston, TX, 1996. [Fluid
properties; measurement; flowmeters; equations; design; installation.]

„ G.K. McMillan, pH MEASUREMENT AND CONTROL (2nd Ed.), ISA,

1994. [pH chemistry; titration curves; pH measurement; mixing
equipment; control valves; control systems; controller tuning;
checkout and troubleshooting.]

„ K. J. Clevett, PROCESS ANALYZER TECHNOLOGY, John Wiley &

Sons, New York, NY, 1986.

13
 „ G.D. Nichols, ON-LINE PROCESS ANALYZERS, John Wiley & Sons,
New York, NY, 1988.

„ R.E. Sherman, ANALYTICAL INSTRUMENTATION, ISA, 1996.

„ R.H. Dieck, MEASUREMENT UNCERTAINTY (3rd Ed.), ISA, 2002.

[Basics; use of correlation; curve-fitting problems; probability plotting;
combining different test methods; calibration errors; propagation of
uncertainties]

II. Signals and Transmission

„ D.T. Miklovic, REAL-TIME CONTROL NETWORKS, ISA, 1994.

[Communications models; transmission media; networks.]

„ L. M. Thompson, INDUSTRIAL DATA COMMUNICATIONS (3nd

Ed.), ISA, 2002. [Introduction; history; signals and codings; modems;
serial and parallel communications; 100 MBps and 1000 MBps
Ethernet; RIP and OSPF router technologies; OLE for Process Control
(OPC); Active X, DCOM, virtual private networks; protocols and
security]

„ E. C. Magison, INTRINSIC SAFETY, ISA, 1984. [Area classification;

hazard reduction principles; electric ignition of gases and vapors;
intrinsic safety; installation, inspection and maintenance; dust
hazards]

„ P. S. Marshall, INDUSTRIAL ETHERNET: A Pocket Guide, ISA, 2002.

[Basics of common Ethernet-based networks including Modbus/TCP,
EtherNet/IP, ProfiNet, Foundation Fieldbus HSE, IDA and wireless
Ethernet; installation, maintenance, troubleshooting, and security tips]

„ I. Verhappen and A. Pereira, FOUNDATION FIELDBUS; A Pocket

Guide, ISA, 2002. [Foundation Fieldbus H1 protocol; installation tips;
rules for cabling length; documentation; commissioning checklist;
system sizing formulas; integrating with other systems]

„ J. Berge, FIELDBUSES FOR PROCESS CONTROL, ISA, 2002. [HART,

FOUNDATION Fieldbus, AND PROFIBUS-PA; Field-level and
Ethernet-based host-level networking; capabilities; interoperability,
integration and migration; availability and safety; benefits]

III. Final Control Elements

„ Guy Borden (Ed.), CONTROL VALVES, ISA, 1998. [Control valves,

body assemblies, actuators and accessories; design and construction;
applications; safety; troubleshooting; maintenance; testing; standards;
valve-related computer programs; regulators]

14
 „ B. Fitzgerald, CONTROL VALVES FOR THE CHEMICAL PROCESS
INDUSTRIES, Gulf Publishing Company, Houston, TX, 1995. [Basic
types; design and material considerations; valve and actuator sizing;
valve performance, installation and calibration; typical applications;
loop tuning]

„ H. D. Baumann, CONTROL VALVE PRIMER (3rd Ed.), ISA, 1998.

[Control valves and control loops; selection and sizing; fail safety; flow
characteristics; positioners; actuators; stem forces; installation;
materials; environmental concerns; electric vs. pneumatic actuators]

„ L. R. Driskell, CONTROL VALVE SELECTION AND SIZING, ISA,

1983. [Basic concepts; safety; flow through valves; cavitation; flashing;
non-turbulent and mixed-phase flow; velocity, vibration and noise;
materials; selection; applications; installation]

„ --------------, CONTROL VALVE HANDBOOK (3rd Ed.), Fisher

Controls, Marshalltown, IA, 1989.

„ --------------, SAFETY RELIEF VALVE SIZING, Catalog, Consolidated.

„ W. Ulanski, VALVE & ACTUATOR TECHNOLOGY, McGraw-Hill,

NY, 1991.

„ D. W. Spitzer, VARIABLE SPEED DRIVES: PRINCIPLES AND

APPLICATIONS (2nd Ed.), ISA, 1990. [Basics; utilities and costs;
applications of control valves; alternate final control elements;
variable-frequency drives; control valves vs. variable-speed drive
applications; economics; applications]

„ D. Polka, MOTORS AND DRIVES, ISA, 2002. [Principles of DC and

variable frequency AC drive technology; DC and AC motor and drive
operations; step motors; AC vector motors; brushless servo motors;
linear stepper and servo motors; tachometers, resolvers and encoders;
drive system control methods; maintenance and troubleshooting]

Also see standards ANSI/ISA-75.01.01-2002–FLOW EQUATIONS FOR

SIZING CONTROL VALVES and ANSI/ISA-75.05.01-2000–CONTROL
VALVE TERMINOLOGY, as well as ASME VIII, BOILER AND PRESSURE
VESSEL CODE.

IV. Control System Analysis

„ R. D. Mulley, APPLIED INSTRUMENTATION SYMBOLS AND

IDENTIFICATION, ISA, 1992. [Process flow diagrams; detailed flow
sheets; logic symbols; loop diagrams; ladder diagrams, isometrics;
installation details; location diagrams; document numbering.]

Also see pertinent standards and recommended practices (such as ANSI/ISA

S5.1-5 for instrumentation symbols, loop and logic diagrams).

15
 „ P.S. Buckley, TECHNIQUES OF PROCESS CONTROL, John Wiley, NY,
1964. [Mathematics for process control; Laplace transforms; frequency
response; block diagrams; stability; compensation; sample-data
control; process control functions; applications]

„ D. R. Coughanowr and L. B. Koppel, PROCESS SYSTEMS ANALYSIS

AND CONTROL, McGraw-Hill, New York, NY, 1965. [Introductory
example; Laplace transforms; linear open- and closed-loop systems;
root-locus and frequency-response methods; process applications;
nonlinear analysis methods; analog simulation]

„ J.J. DiStefano et al, FEEDBACK AND CONTROL SYSTEMS, Schaum's

Outline Series, McGraw-Hill, NY, 1967. [Terminology; linear systems
and differential equations; Laplace transform; stability; transfer
functions; block diagram algebra and signal flow diagrams; error
constants; analysis and design objectives and methods; frequency
response; root locus; advanced topics. 680 solved problems]

„ P.W. Murrill, FUNDAMENTALS OF PROCESS CONTROL THEORY

(3rd Ed.), ISA, 2000. [Basic concepts; control loops; block diagrams;
sensors and data transmission; typical measurements; controllers;
control valves; process dynamics; controller tuning; cascade,
feedforward and multivariable control; ratio, override and split-range
control; dead-time control; nonlinear and adaptive control; direct
digital control, supervisory, distributed and sequential or batch
control; new directions; graphic symbols; glossary]

„ F.G. Shinskey, PROCESS CONTROL SYSTEMS, McGraw-Hill, NY,

1988. [Dynamic elements; process characteristics; common loops;
linear and non-linear controllers; cascade control; feedforward; multi-
loop systems; applications to energy transfer and conversion, chemical
reactors, mass transfer operations, and batch processes; problems with
solutions.]

„ W. S. Levine, THE CONTROL HANDBOOK, CRC Press, Boca Raton,

FL, 1996. [Mathematical foundations; dynamic models; analysis and
design methods for continuous systems; digital control; nonlinear
systems; analysis and design software; advanced control methods;
identification; applications]

„ D.E. Seborg et al, PROCESS DYNAMICS AND CONTROL, John

Wiley, New York, NY, 1989. [Covers theory for analog, advanced and
digital control, both classical and modern; modeling]

V. Control System Implementation

„ J. M. Bacon, INSTRUMENT INSTALLATION PROJECT

MANAGEMENT SYSTEM, ISA, 1989. [Introduction; preliminary
engineering and design; final bidding package; contracting;

16
 construction; commissioning; start-up; project wrap-up; standards;
instrument symbols and terminology standards; forms; references]

„ N.E. Battikha, MANAGEMENT OF CONTROL SYSTEMS:

JUSTIFICATION AND TECHNICAL AUDITING, ISA, 1992.
[Purposes of control systems justification; benefits; plant needs; system
specification and vendor selection; costs; auditing; engineering
records; maintenance; alarm and trip systems.]

„ L.T. Amy, AUTOMATION SYSTEMS FOR CONTROL AND DATA

ACQUISITION, ISA, 1992. [Introduction to digital systems; project
execution; defining system requirements; selection; configuration;
installation and startup; multi-vendor integration; input/output signal
criteria]

„ W. E. Gilmore et al, THE USER-COMPUTER INTERFACE IN

PROCESS CONTROL: A HUMAN FACTORS ENGINEERING
HANDBOOK, Academic Press, Boston, MA, 1991.

„ G.K. McMillan, DISTRIBUTED CONTROL SYSTEMS; SELECTION,

IMPLEMENTATION AND MAXIMIZATION, ISA, 1991. [Selection of
a DCS; advanced configuration tools; software engineering;
application examples]

„ S. M. Herb, UNDERSTANDING DISTRIBUTED PROCESS SYSTEMS

FOR CONTROL, ISA, 1999. [Introduction; evolution of plant-wide
process control; computing devices; controller hardware and software
structures; controller redundancy; user interfaces; alarms; networks,
physical and logical structures; open communications standards; plant
information; continuous and batch processes; system security;
reliability, failures and faults; safety systems; control system
implementation, justification, specification, vendor selection, testing
and installation; importance of distributed control; future trends;
glossary of terms and acronyms]

„ B. G. Liptak, INSTRUMENT ENGINEERS' HANDBOOK - Process

Software and Digital Networks (3rd Ed.), ISA, 2002. [Overall plant
design; designing a safe plant; control center, workstation and logic
design; buses and networks; software packages for control loop
optimization, data reconciliation, and event-sequence recorders; batch
control; plantwide control; miscellaneous data tables]

„ P.S. Buckley, PROCESS CONTROL STRATEGY AND PROFITABILITY,

ISA, 1992. [Process control objectives and design strategy; material
balance control; product quality control; constraints and safety.]

„ P. B. Deshpande and R. H. Ash, COMPUTER PROCESS CONTROL

WITH ADVANCED CONTROL APPLICATIONS (2nd Ed.), ISA, 1988.
[Hardware and software; single-loop computer control; mathematics
of sampling process; z-transform; pulse transfer functions; data holds;

17
 sample-data control systems; modeling and identification; adaptive,
self-tuning, feedforward, cascade and multivariable systems]

„ K.J. Astrom and T. Hagglund, PID CONTROLLERS: THEORY,

DESIGN AND TUNING (2nd Ed.), ISA, 1995. [Process models; PID
control; controller design and adaptation; automatic tuning]

„ A. B. Corripio, TUNING OF INDUSTRIAL CONTROL SYSTEMS, ISA,

1990. [Feedback controllers and tuning; open-loop process dynamics;
selection of controller modes; tuning feedback controllers;
feedforward, ratio, multivariable, adaptive and self-tuning control;
tuning cascade control systems]

„ D.W. Spitzer, REGULATORY AND ADVANCED REGULATORY

CONTROL: APPLICATION TECHNIQUES, ISA, 1993. [Manual
control; field devices; controllers; PID control; controller tuning; loop
pairing; advanced regulatory control]

„ H.L. Wade, REGULATORY AND ADVANCED REGULATORY

CONTROL: SYSTEM DEVELOPMENT, ISA, 1994. [Mathematical
review; symbols and terminology; process characteristics; types of
control loops; standard and modified PID control; tuning; ratio,
cascade, feedforward, and selector control; interacting loops; model-
based control]

„ G.K. McMillan, CONTINUOUS CONTROL TECHNIQUES FOR

DISTRIBUTED CONTROL SYSTEMS, ISA, 1989. [Advanced control
modes override, feedforward; signal gain characterization; multiple
valve manipulation; automated startup and shutdown; noise and error
reduction]

„ G. K. McMillan, TUNING AND CONTROL LOOP PERFORMANCE

(2nd Ed.), ISA, 1990. [Fundamentals; performance problems and
criteria; effects of process, controller, measurement, valve and
disturbance dynamics; nonlinearities, interactions and advanced
control algorithms; summary; appendices]

„ C.L. Phillips and H.T. Nagle, Jr., DIGITAL CONTROL SYSTEM

ANALYSIS AND DESIGN (Rev.), Prentice Hall, Englewood Cliffs, NJ,
1995. [Discrete-time systems; Z transform; sampling and
reconstruction; open-loop controller design; optimal control; filters;
case studies]

„ T. A. Hughes, PROGRAMMABLE CONTROLLERS (3nd Ed.), ISA,

2001. [Introduction; numbering systems and codes; logic system
fundamentals; electrical design; input/output system; memory and
storage; basic and high-level programming languages; data
communication systems; applications; installation and maintenance]

18
„ A. E. Nisenfeld (Ed.), BATCH CONTROL, ISA, 1996. [History;
fundamentals; methods; designing a batch control system; logic
documentation; production scheduling; fault detection and analysis;
specification of a control system for batch processes; implementation
of general recipe; supervisory control; equipment selection;
configuration; safety; operator role; advanced control; modeling and
simulation; applications]

„ T. G. Fisher, BATCH CONTROL SYSTEMS: DESIGN, APPLICATION

AND IMPLEMENTATION, ISA, 1990. [Terminology; characteristics;
architecture; communications; data base management; general
requirements; safety interlock systems; regulatory and sequence
control; scheduling; recipes; design approach; system hardware;
reliability/availability; costs, benefits and justification]

„ T. G. Fisher, ALARM AND INTERLOCK SYSTEMS, ISA, 1984.

[Introduction; number systems; codes; logic elements; electronic
devices; relay and solid-state logic; programmable controllers;
combinational and sequential logic circuits; annunciators; system
design and documentation]

„ T. G. Fisher (Ed.), SAFETY CONTROL SYSTEMS, ISA, 1991. [Basic

concepts; evolution of protective systems; diagnostics for distributed
control systems; use of programmable controllers; high-risk safety
systems; qualitative and quantitative analysis of safety systems; triple-
redundant system; fault-tolerant techniques; markov models]

„ W. M. Goble, CONTROL SYSTEM SAFETY EVALUATION &

RELIABILITY (2nd Ed.), ISA, 1998. [Analytical tools including Fault
Tree Analysis (FTA), Reliability Block Diagrams (RBD), Failure Modes
and Effects Analysis (FMEA), Markov modeling; component failure
modes; on-line diagnostics; common cause; software reliability;
operational safety; design rules]

„ P. Gruhn and H. L. Cheddie, SAFETY SHUTDOWN SYSTEMS:

Design, Analysis and Justification, ISA, 2002. [Design life cycle; risk;
process vs. safety control; protection layers; developing requirement
specifications per ISA S84.01; safety integrity level; choosing a
technology; initial system evaluation; field device issues; hardware
and management considerations; installation; testing; changes;
justification; design checklist; case study]

„ E. M. Marszal and E. W. Scharpf, SAFETY INTEGRITY LEVEL

SELECTION, ISA, 2002. [Selecting safety integrity levels for safety
instrumented systems (SIS), accounting for existing layers of
protection; quantitative risk analysis]

„ E. C. Magison and W. Calder, ELECTRICAL SAFETY IN

HAZARDOUS LOCATIONS, ISA, 1983. [Area and material
classification; hazard reduction; ignition of gases and vapors; intrinsic

19
 safety; explosion-proof housings; pressurization; standards;
inspection, maintenance, testing and calibration; testing laboratory
certification; dust hazards]

„ K.C. Kapur and L.R. Lamberson, RELIABILITY IN ENGINEERING

DESIGN, John Wiley, New York, NY, 1977.

„ P.D.T. O'Connor, PRACTICAL RELIABILITY ENGINEERING (3rd

Ed.), Gulf Publishing Company, Houston, TX, 1996. [Introduction;
reliability mathematics; design for reliability; reliability of mechanical
and electrical systems; software reliability; testing; analyzing reliability
data; maintainability]

VI. Codes and Standards

The following material lists codes and standards relevant to the practice of
CSE. The source, number and title of the codes or standards are given.

Because there are so many applicable codes and standards, it is not expected
that CSEs will memorize all their provisions, or bring copies of all of them to
the exam. When feasible, if exam problems call for details of a code or
standard, the needed information will be supplied as part of the problem
statement.

ISA—The Instrumentation, Systems and Automation Society

P.O. Box 12277
Research Triangle Park, NC 27709 (919) 549-8411

„ ISA-5.1-1984 (R1992) - INSTRUMENTATION SYMBOLS AND

IDENTIFICATION

„ ISA-5.2-1976 (R1992) - BINARY LOGIC DIAGRAMS FOR PROCESS

OPERATIONS

„ ISA-5.3-1983 - GRAPHIC SYMBOLS FOR DISTRIBUTED CONTROL/

SHARED DISPLAY INSTRUMENTATION, LOGIC, AND
COMPUTER SYSTEMS

„ ISA-5.4-1991 - STANDARD INSTRUMENT LOOP DIAGRAMS

„ ANSI/ISA-12.00.01-2002 - ELECTRICAL APPARATUS FOR USE IN

CLASS I, ZONE 0, 1, & 2 HAZARDOUS (CLASSIFIED) LOCATIONS

„ ISA-RP12.4-1996 - PRESSURIZED ENCLOSURES

„ ANSI/ISA-RP12.06.01-1995 (R2002) - WIRING PRACTICES FOR

HAZARDOUS (CLASSIFIED) LOCATIONS INSTRUMENTATINO
PART 1: INTRINSIC SAFETY

20
 „ ANSI/ISA-18.1-1979 (R1992) - ANNUNCIATOR SEQUENCES AND
SPECIFICATIONS

„ ANSI/ISA-51.1-1979 (R1993) - PROCESS INSTRUMENTATION

TERMINOLOGY

„ ANSI/ISA-75.01.01-1985 - FLOW EQUATIONS FOR SIZING

CONTROL VALVES

„ ANSI/ISA-75.11.01-1985 (R2002) - INHERENT FLOW

CHARACTERISTICS AND RANGEABILITY OF CONTROL VALVES

„ ANSI/ISA-84.01-1996 - APPLICATION OF SAFETY

INSTRUMENTED SYSTEMS FOR THE PROCESS INDUSTRY

„ ISA-MC96.1-1982 - TEMPERATURE MEASUREMENT AND

THERMOCOUPLES

„ ANSI/ISA-RP55.1-1975 (R1983) - HARDWARE TESTING OF

DIGITAL PROCESS COMPUTERS

„ ISA-RP60.3-1985 - HUMAN ENGINEERING FOR CONTROL

CENTERS

ANSI American National Standards Institute

25 W 43rd Street
New York, NY 10036 (212) 642-4900

„ PTC19.1-85 - MEASUREMENT UNCERTAINTY - INSTRUMENTS

AND APPARATUS

„ PTC19.2-87 - PRESSURE MEASURING INSTRUMENTS AND

APPARATUS

„ PTC19.3-74 - TEMPERATURE MEASURING INSTRUMENTS AND

APPARATUS

„ PTC19.22-86 - DIGITAL SYSTEMS - TECHNIQUES, INSTRUMENTS

AND APPARATUS

NFPA National Fire Protection Association

1 Batterymarch Park
Quincy, MA 02269-9101 (617) 770-3000

„ No. 70 - NATIONAL ELECTRICAL CODE

„ No. 85 - BOILER & COMBUSTION SYSTEM HAZARDS

„ No. 493 - INTRINSICALLY SAFE APPARATUS

21
 „ No. 496 - PURGED & PRESSURIZED ENCLOSURES FOR
ELECTRICAL EQUIPMENT IN HAZARDOUS LOCATIONS

„ No. 497 - CLASSIFICATION OF FLAMMABLE LIQUIDS, GASES

AND VAPORS AND OF HAZARDOUS LOCATIONS FOR
ELECTRICAL INSTALLATIONS IN CHEMICAL PROCESS AREAS

NEMA National Electrical Manufacturers Association

Suite 1847
1300 North 17th Street
Rosslyn, VA 22209 (703) 841-3200

„ ICS6(R2001) - ENCLOSURE REQUIREMENTS FOR INDUSTRIAL

CONTROL DEVICES IN HAZARDOUS AND NON-HAZARDOUS
LOCATIONS

IEEE Institute of Electrical & Electronics Engineers

445 Hoes Lane
Piscataway, NJ 08854-1331 (732) 981-0060

„ S315A-1986 - GRAPHIC SYMBOLS FOR ELECTRICAL AND

ELECTRONICS DIAGRAMS

„ S488 - STANDARD DIGITAL INTERFACE FOR PROGRAMMABLE

INSTRUMENTATION

„ S802.1-16 - STANDARDS FOR LOCAL AND METROPOLITAN AREA

NETWORKS

„ S991-1986 - STANDARD FOR LOGIC CIRCUIT DIAGRAMS

OSHA Occupational Safety & Health Administration

200 Constitution Avenue NW
Washington, DC 20210 (202) 693-2000

„ 1910 GUIDE TO OSHA REGULATIONS

Readers of this booklet are urged to submit information (name of

author(s), title, edition, publisher’s name and address, date of
publication, and description of contents) for other pertinent
references, codes or standards to:

ISA, P.O. Box 12277

Research Triangle Park, NC 27709
Phone: (919) 549-8411 FAX: (919) 549-8288

so they can be included in future editions of the CSE Study Guide.

22
APPENDIX A

CSE EXAM SPECIFICATION

The following page shows the official NCEES exam specification, in the form
distributed by its member boards. The specification shows six major areas of
activity for control systems engineers, identified as I through VI, with a
descriptive title and the fraction of the exam (expressed in percent) devoted to
that area. For each area of activity, associated sub-areas of knowledge are
indicated.

23
 THE NATIONAL COUNCIL OF EXAMINERS FOR ENGINEERING AND SURVEYING
PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE OF ENGINEERING EXAMINATION

CONTROL SYSTEMS
EFFECTIVE October 2003
Approximate
Percentage of
the Examination

I. Measurement 24%

1. Sensor technologies applicable to the desired type of measurement (e.g.,

flow, pressure, level, temperature, analytical, counters, motion, vision)
2. Sensor characteristics (e.g., rangeablity, accuracy and precision, temperature
effects, response times, reliability, repeatability)
3. Material compatibility
4. Calculations involved in: Pressure drop
5. Calculations involved in: Flow element sizing
6. Calculations involved in: Level, differential pressure
7. Calculations involved in: Unit conversions
8. Calculations involved in: Velocity
9. Calculations involved in: Linearization
10. Installation details (e.g., process, pneumatic, electrical)

II. Signals and Transmission 12.5%

A. Signals 11.25%
1. Pneumatic, electronic, optical, hydraulic, digital, analog
2. Transducers (e.g., analog/digital [A/D], digital/analog [D/A],
current/pneumatic [I/P] conversion)
3. Intrinsically Safe (IS) barriers
4. Grounding, shielding, segregation, AC coupling
5. Basic signal circuit design (e.g., two-wire, four-wire, isolated outputs, loop
powering)
6. Calculations: Circuit (voltage, current, impedance)
7. Calculations: Unit conversions

B. Transmission 1.25%
1. Different communications systems architecture and protocols (e.g., fiber
optics, coaxial cable, wireless, paired conductors, fieldbus, Transmission
Control Protocol/Internet Protocol [TCP/IP], OLE Process Control [OPC])
2. Distance considerations versus transmission medium

24
 Approximate
Percentage of
the Examination

III. Final Control Elements 20%

A. Valves 12.5%
1. Types (e.g., globe, ball, butterfly)
2. Characteristics (e.g., linear, low noise, equal percentage, shutoff class)
3. Calculation (e.g., sizing, split range, noise, actuator, speed, pressure drop, air/gas
consumption)
4. Applications of fluid dynamics (e.g., cavitation, flashing, choked flow, Joule-
Thompson effects, two-phase)
5. Material selection based on process characteristics (e.g., erosion, corrosion, plugged,
extreme pressure, temperature)
6. Accessories (e.g., limit switches, solenoid valves, positioners, transducers, air regulators)
7. Environmental constraints (e.g., fugitive emissions, packing, special sealing)
8. Installation practices (e.g., vertical, horizontal, bypasses, troubleshooting)

B. Pressure Relieving Devices 5%

1. Pressure relieving valves: Types (e.g., conventional spring, balanced bellows, pilot
operated)
2. Pressure relieving valves: Characteristics (e.g., modulating, pop action)
3. Pressure relieving valves: Calculations (e.g., sizing considering inlet pressure drop,
back pressure, multiple valves)
4. Pressure relieving devices: Material selection based on process characteristics
5. Pressure relieving valves: Installation practices (e.g., linking valves, sparing the
valves, accessibility for testing, car sealing inlet valves, piping installation)
6. Rupture discs (types, characteristics, application, calculations)

C. Other Final Control Elements 2.5%

1. Motor controls
2. Solenoid valves
3. On-off devices/relays
4. Self-regulating devices

IV. Control Systems Analysis 16%

A. Documentation 7.5%
1. Drawings (e.g., PFD, P&ID, loop diagrams, ladder diagrams, logic drawings, cause
and effects drawings, SAFE charts)

B. Theory 6%
1. Basic processes (e.g., compression, combustion, distillation, hydraulics)
2. Process dynamics (e.g., loop response, P-V-T relationships, simulations)
3. Basic control (e.g., regulatory control, feedback, feed forward, cascade, ratio, PID,
split-range)
4. Discrete control (e.g., relay logic, Boolean algebra)
5. Sequential control (e.g., batch)

C. Safety 2.5%
1. Safety system design (e.g., Safety Instrumented System [SIS], Safety Requirements
Specification [SRS], application of OSHA 1910)

25
 Approximate
Percentage of
the Examination

V. Control Systems Implementation 20%

1. HMI (e.g., graphics, alarm management, trending, historical data)

2. Ergonomics (e.g., human factors engineering, physical control room arrangement,
panel layout)
3. Configuration and programming (e.g., PLC, DCS, hybrid systems, SQL, ladder logic,
sequential function chart, structured text, function block programming, database
management, specialized controllers)
4. System comparisons and compatibilities (e.g., advantages and disadvantages of
system architecture)
5. Installation requirements (e.g., shielding, constructability, input/output termination,
environmental, heat load calculations, power load requirements, purging, lighting)
6. Commissioning (e.g., performance tuning, loop checkout)
7. Safety Instrumented System [SIS] model validation calculations (e.g., Safety
Integrity Level [SIL], reliability, availability)
8. Troubleshooting (e.g., root cause failure analysis and correction)

VI. Codes, Standards, and Regulations 7.5%

1. Working knowledge of applicable codes, standards, and regulations: American

National Standards Institute (ANSI)
2. Working knowledge of applicable codes, standards, and regulations: Institute of
Electrical & Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
3. Working knowledge of applicable codes, standards, and regulations: Instrumentation,
Systems & Automation Society (ISA)
4. Working knowledge of applicable codes, standards, and regulations: National
Electrical Code (NEC)
5. Working knowledge of applicable codes, standards, and regulations: National
Electrical Manufacturers Association (NEMA)
6. Working knowledge of applicable codes, standards, and regulations: National Fire
Protection Association (NFPA)
7. Working knowledge of applicable codes, standards, and regulations: Occupational
Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Total 100%

Notes:
The knowledge areas specified as 1., 2., 3., … etc., are examples of kinds of knowledge, but they are not
exclusive or exhaustive categories.
This examination contains 80 multiple-choice questions. Examinee works all questions.

26
APPENDIX B
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
This is the fourth study guide published for the CSE exam. The following
questions have been assembled from various sources, including past exams in
CSE and other disciplines, and some have been written specifically for this
publication.

The following questions are intended to illustrate the types of questions which
may be encountered in the CSE exam. Questions in this study guide will NOT
appear in future exams.

The following set of questions conforms to the NCEES exam specification in

having the prescribed number of questions for each listed topic. Half of the
questions are numbered A-01 to A-40 for the morning or AM part of the exam;
the others are numbered P-01 to P-40 for the afternoon or PM part. To the
extent possible, questions on a particular topic are divided equally between
the two parts of the exam.

Because the following questions resemble an actual exam, candidates wishing

to evaluate their performance under test conditions can do so. Select a time
and place where you will not be interrupted, assemble the materials you
would take to the actual exam, and allow yourself up to four hours for each
half of the exam. To create an answer form, use a sheet from a pad of lined
writing paper; make four columns, numbered A01-20, A21-40, P01-20 and
P21-40. Do not check your answers while you are taking the exam; wait until
you are finished with both parts.

Answers and/or solutions are given separately, in Appendix C, so that users

of the study guide can read the questions and record their responses without
simultaneous exposure to the answers. Answers in Appendix C are identified
by topic areas, so you can easily see which areas require the most attention in
preparing to take the actual exam.

Candidates should understand that any one CSE exam can cover only some of
the areas of activity and knowledge listed in the exam specification. Thus, the
following questions do not necessarily deal with all of the possible sub-areas
of CSE activity or knowledge that may appear in future CSE exams.

Likewise, while an effort was made to match the level of difficulty of actual
exams, the match may not be exact. Variations in difficulty from exam to exam
are considered in setting the passing scores. For this reason, candidates should
view their ability to answer the sample questions as an indication of where to
focus their preparatory efforts, not as a prediction of their success on the
actual exams.

27
Morning Session

29
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A01-04 Measurement I

A01. At 433°F, a Type J thermocouple with a 32°F reference junction will produce an output in
millivolts that is most nearly equal to:

(A) 9.04
(B) 10.51
(C) 12.05
(D) 17.79

A02. The flow rate of a clean, low-viscosity liquid is to be measured as the process input to a
flow control loop. The loop has a 4:1 turnout ratio, and the accuracy requirement is 2%.
The flow rate is best measured using a(n):

(A) Thermal
(B) Positive displacement meter
(C) Pitot tube
(D) Orifice plate

A03. A magnetic flowmeter should NOT be considered when measuring the flow rate of:

(A) Kerosene
(B) Hydrochloric acid
(C) Sodium hydroxide
(D) Milk

A04. On-line measurement of the 90% point of a gasoline blending component is best done
using a:

(A) Liquid chromatograph

(B) Mass spectrometer
(C) Boiling point analyzer
(D) Infrared analyzer

31
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A05-06 Measurement I

Figure A05-6 below shows a Wheatstone bridge used for measuring an oven temperature with a
resistance temperature with a resistance temperature detector (RTD). The bridge detector (V) is a
voltmeter with a high input impedance.

A copper RTD is used. Its resistance at 32°F is 100 ohms, and its temperature coefficient is 0.245
ohm/°F.

RA
OVEN
250

10 V
V
+

RTD
250

Figure A05-6

A05. If RA is adjusted to balance the bridge (V=0) at 200°F, the resistance of RA in ohms must
be most nearly equal to:

(A) 100
(B) 141
(C) 149
(D) 250

A06. If RA is 150 ohms and the voltmeter reads 0.2 volts (polarity as shown), the temperature
of the RTD in °F is most nearly equal to:

(A) 223
(B) 236
(C) 255
(D) 287

32
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A07 Measurement I

Figure A07 below shows a thermocouple (T/C) circuit.

Assume the thermocouple voltage is linear with temperature from 0°F to 300°F and the
thermocouple generates the following voltage:

212°F: 9.0 mV
50°F: 0.9 mV

Copyright 1992 by the National Council of Examiners for

Engineering and Surveying; reprinted by permission.

Figure A07

A07. If the thermocouple voltage is 1.9 mV, the temperature indicator reading (in °F) should
be:

(A) 20
(B) 38
(C) 70
(D) 88

33
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A08-09 Measurement I

Questions A08 and A09 are based on the following figure and data table.

A differential pressure transmitter LT-100 is used to monitor the level in a horizontal storage
vessel V-100. The vessel holds hot water which is manually filled and drained by valves V-1 and
V-2. The pressure taps on the vessel for LT-100 are 60 inches apart and the transmitter is mounted
10 inches below the bottom process tap. The transmitter’s process tubing is routed 10 feet
horizontally before dropping vertically to the transmitter.

The following data apply:

Ambient temperature: 80°F (always)

Normal Operating pressure: 100 psig (PIC-101)
Normal operating temperature: 280°F (TIC-102)
Seal fluid for reference leg of level transmitter:
Specific gravity = 0.8 at 60°F
= 0.62 at 80°F
= 0.32 at 280°F
Boiling point = 520°F at 0 psig
The other leg of the level transmitter contains process fluid.

PY PIC PY
101A 101 101B

NITROGEN

PY
101B TO VENT

V-1
HOT WATER
N.C. V-100 LG LT LI
HOT WATER STORAGE 2 100 100
TT
102

HEAT PAD
TIC V-2
102 TO USERS
N.C.

Figure A08-9

34
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A08-09 Measurement I

A08. The span of the transmitter, in inches of water, is:

(A) 19.2
(B) 37.2
(C) 55.7
(D) 60.0

A09. If LI-100 initially reads 50 percent and the pressure increases by 10 percent, the new
reading of LI-100 at steady-state conditions would be (in percent):

(A) 0
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 60

35
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A10-11 Signals and Transmission II

A10. An analog input to a digital computer system is represented by the schematic diagram
shown in the figure below.

R TS

INPUT A/D CONVERTED

C
SIGNAL CONVERTER SIGNAL

FILTER

Figure A10

A particular input has signal components with periods of 10 seconds or greater, and noise
components with frequencies of 5 cps (cycles per second or Hz) or higher. For an
acceptable compromise between rejecting signal components and including noise
components in the converted signal, the most reasonable combination of filter time
constant (Tf = RC) and the sampling interval (Ts) would be:

Filter Time Constant Sampling Interval

Tf (seconds) Ts (seconds)
(A) 0.032 0
(B) 0.32 1
(C) 3.2 5
(D) 32.0 10

A11. A safety barrier limits the energy transfer to a hazardous location by limiting the
maximum current (using a fuse) and shunting any high-voltage faults in the safe area to a
safety ground (through Zener diodes).

Which of the following considerations does NOT apply to a shunt Zener Diode barrier?

(A) Requires an intrinsically safe ground

(B) Can cause voltage drop problems
(C) Is expensive and difficult to use
(D) Fuse can blow during startup

36
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A12-14 Signals and Transmission II

A12. Which of the following practices is important in routing fiber optic cable?

(A) Laying cable in trays with high-horsepower motor wiring should be avoided
(B) Conduit fittings that required small-radius bends should be avoided
(C) Overhead runs on messenger wires should be limited to 75 feet
(D) Underground fiber optic runs must be covered with concrete

A13. A particular control loop of a DCS consists of an isolated 4-20 mA output and a grounded
control element. A remote indicating device must be installed between the DCS and the
control element. The indicating device has an input range of 1-5 V and is referenced to
ground. Which of the following components (I/I is a current-to-current converter) is/are
required to give a full-scale reading of the indicating device without affecting the control
element?

(A) 100-Ω resistor only

(B) I/I and 100-Ω resistor
(C) 250-Ω resistor only
(D) I/I and 250-Ω resistor

A14. Which of the following statements about wireless (radio) data transmission systems for
use in plantwide data collection and control applications is FALSE?

(A) Wireless systems can have unlimited numbers of data links.

(B) Wireless systems are easier to install than wired or cable systems.
(C) Wireless systems do not eliminate the need to deliver power to sensor and/or
controller locations.
(D) Wireless systems can be made highly resistant to ambient electrical noise.

37
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A15-16 Final Control Elements III

A control valve, originally supplied for gaseous service, in now being considered for a liquid
service application.

Original Service Conditions:

Maximum capacity = 60,000 standard cu ft/hr

∆P for valve sizing = 50 lbs/sq in.
Gas molecular weight = 44
Inlet pressure = 300 lbs/sq in. (gage)
Inlet temperature = 120°F

New Service Conditions:

∆P for valve sizing = 10 lbs/sq in.

Liquid specific gravity = 0.81
Inlet pressure = 240 lbs/sq in. (gage)

A15. The valve coefficient Cv for the original service conditions is approximately equal to:

(A) 4.8
(B) 6.9
(C) 8.5
(D) 10.4

A16. In the new service, assuming the maximum Cv = 12, the maximum flow in gallons per
minute (gpm) is:

(A) 30.7
(B) 34.2
(C) 37.9
(D) 42.2

38
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A17-20 Final Control Elements III

A17. Which of the following statements about control valve installation practices is false?

(A) At least 10-20 pipe diameters of straight run inlet piping should be provided
upstream of control valves.
(B) At least 3-5 pipe diameters of straight run piping should be provided downstream
of control valves.
(C) Diaphragm-actuated control valves must be installed with the stem in a vertical
(upward) position.
(D) Valves must be installed with the flow arrow in the correct direction.

A18. Which of the following statements about control valve installation practices is false?

(A) If the material is not hazardous, vent lines are not needed for fluid trapped
between stop valves.
(B) Valves must be located where an operator can see indicators or gages needed for
manual control.
(C) Lines should be flushed or blown out before valve installation.
(D) Higher flow velocities are allowed in gas lines than in liquid or steam lines.

A19. A suggestion is made that a rising stem globe valve should be replaced with a rotary stem
ball valve. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) The ball valve Cv would likely be too large for the application.
(B) The piping would need to be changed because the ball valve will likely be longer
than the globe valve.
(C) Using a ball valve would not allow use of a diaphragm-type actuator.
(D) Ball valves are not used for modulating control.

A20. The applicable ASME (American Society of Mechanical Engineers) code limits the
maximum superimposed constant backpressure on pressure relief devices to what value?

(A) Set pressure including effect of static head and backpressure

(B) Set pressure including effect of static head
(C) Fluid critical pressure
(D) 55 percent above set pressure

39
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A21-22 Final Control Elements III

A21. What is the most acceptable, cost-effective method for protecting a safety relief valve in
corrosive service?

(A) Inert gas purge

(B) Reverse-buckling rupture disk
(C) Standard rupture disk
(D) Wetted parts of non-corrosive materials

A22. Which of the following diagrams shows the best scheme for double-acting, fail-last-
position actuation of the process valve?

KEY:
I.A.
I.A. INSTRUMENT AIR

SOLENOID VALVE

3-WAY SOLENOID VALVE

(arrow shows fail position) C O

C O PISTON ACTUATOR

PISTON ACTUATOR
(B)
(with spring return)

I.A.

I.A. I.A. I.A.

FC FC

O C O VENT C O VENT
FC FC

(A) (C) (D)

Figure A22

40
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A23-25 Control Systems Analysis IV

A23. According to ISA-5.1-1984 (R1992), which of the following is the symbol for a pressure-
reducing regulator with an external pressure tap:

The logic diagram, Figure A24-25 (see page 42), depicts the control scheme for an acid injection
pump used to control the pH in a plant water system. The control of the pump in performed
exclusively by a Programmable Logic Controller (PLC). The “HOA” local hand switch is spring
return to “OFF” from the “HAND” position.

A24. The combination of OR-gate “C” with AND-gate “D” is commonly referred to as:

(A) A flip-flop circuit

(B) An exclusive-OR circuit
(C) A seal circuit
(D) An inverter

A25. What effect does timer “A” have on the pump control?

(A) It starts the pump 10 minutes after the pH reaches 7.0.

(B) It stops the pump after it has run for 10 minutes.
(C) It automatically starts the pump every 10 minutes
(D) It delays the pump start for 10 minutes.

41
 Figure A24-25

42
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A26-27 Control Systems Analysis IV

A26. The logic circuit in the following diagram functions as a(n):

(A) AND
(B) NAND
(C) OR
(D) EXCLUSIVE OR

AND
N

X
OR

N
AND

Figure A26

A27. Refer to the sketch shown below, where two liquid feed streams are combined for a
certain mixing operation to produce a single stream (product).

FLOW CONTROL LOOP #1

INPUT STREAM #1

PRODUCT OUT

FLOW CONTROL LOOP #3

INPUT STREAM #2

FLOW CONTROL LOOP #2

Figure A27

Based on the conservation requirements, what are the degrees of freedom of this system?
(A) One degree of freedom
(B) Two degrees of freedom
(C) Three degrees of freedom
(D) None of the above

43
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A28 Control Systems Analysis IV

The response of a system to a 1-unit step input is shown in Figure A28.

Figure A28

The data obtained from this test include:

Peak value of unit step response = 0.5815

Steady-state value of unit step response = 0.500

Time to peak value of unit step response = 0.907 seconds

Assuming that the system can be described by a second-order differential equation:

A28. The damping ratio is most nearly:

(A) 0.4
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.6
(D) 0.7

44
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A29 Control Systems Analysis IV

A general single-loop feedback system is defined in Figure A29.

Figure A29

The figures below show possible frequency response or gain-phase characteristics of this system
for different transfer functions G(s), plotted in polar form. In these plots, K = 1.

A29. Which of these systems will be stable for all values of K > 1?

45
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A30 Control Systems Implementation V

A30. According to ISA-5.5-1985 concerning graphic symbols for use on Visual Display Units
(VDUs), the generic term for cathode-ray tube or solid-state display devices, which of the
following statements is true:

I Materials flows must be depicted in a left-to-right direction.

II Symbols for unimportant process equipment can be omitted in displays.
III An outline symbol indicates a stopped or inactive status, and a solid (filled) symbol
indicates a running or active status.
IV Red means “closed” or “off,” while green means “open” or “on.”
(A) I and III
(B) I and IV
(C) II and III
(D) I, II, III and IV

46
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A31-32 Control Systems Implementation V

Questions A31-32 concern the application of a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) analyzer that a plant is
installing for personnel protection.

The maximum permissible level of H2S for an 8-hour (weighted average) exposure is 20 ppm
(parts per million). A dose of 150 ppm or more for a short time can cause permanent injury or
possibly death. The human nose can detect 1 ppm levels but is desensitized quickly with
continuing exposure.

A31. The range of the H2S analyzer is 0-20 ppm. The most appropriate setting for the alarm
point (in ppm) would be:

(A) 0 - 4.9
(B) 5.0 - 9.9
(C) 10.0 - 14.9
(D) 15.0 or higher

A32. The most important location for audible and/or visual alarms is:

(A) At the field sensor (analyzer inlet) location

(B) At the process operator’s console
(C) In the process engineer’s office
(D) In the safety department office

47
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A33 Control Systems Implementation V

A33. A Programmable Logic Controller (PLC) is used to start a motor using the circuit shown
below.

STOP PERMISSIVE START

OUT 1

IN 1 IN 2 IN 3

M M

MOTOR
IN 4 STARTER

Which of the following logic statements will cause the motor to start running and
continue running after the start contact closes and then reopens?

(A) OUT1 = IN1 AND IN2 AND IN3 AND IN4

(B) OUT1 = NOT IN1 AND IN2 AND (IN3 OR IN4)
(C) OUT1 = IN1 AND IN2 AND IN3 OR IN4
(D) OUT1 = NOT IN1 AND (IN2 OR IN3) AND NOT IN4

48
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A34-35 Control Systems Implementation V

Questions A34-35 concern a supervisory control system shown in Figure A34-35.

The system in Figure A34-35 reads and records the controller output, setpoint, and process
variable for the four controllers.

A small computer requires 4 microseconds (µsec) per instruction and 100 instructions to address
a multiplexer line and to read in and process the data on that line. The ADC requires 30 µsec to
perform the conversion and capture the value of an input, and the multiplexer requires 20 µsec to
select an input.

Flow loops are sampled and recorded five times as often as the level loop, and the pressure loop
twice as often as the level loop.

Figure A34-35

49
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A34-35 Control Systems Implementation V

A34. As an independent system, the multiplexer and ADC would have a maximum
conversion rate (in conversions per second) that is most nearly equal to:

(A) 2,500
(B) 20,000
(C) 33,330
(D) 50,000

A35. For the system as shown, the total time (in microseconds) to process all the controllers is
most nearly equal to:

(A) 4,800
(B) 5,400
(C) 5,850
(D) 17,550

50
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A36-37 Control Systems Implementation V

A36. A poorly-tuned PID control loop has consistently responded too slowly to load
disturbances because of a noise-free, but slow measurement device. An appropriate
action to accelerate the disturbance response would be to:

I Increase the controller’s gain (decrease the proportional band).

II Increase the controller’s integral action (increase the reset rate).
III Decrease the controller’s integral action (decrease the reset rate).
IV Increase the controller’s derivative action (increase the derivative time).
(A) I and II
(B) I and III
(C) III
(D) IV

A37. A poorly-tuned PID control loop has consistently overcompensated for low humidity
conditions in a humidity-controlled room by injecting too much steam into the air supply
duct. An appropriate action to reduce the overshoot problem would be to:

(A) Re-tune the loop for a critically-damped step response.

(B) Re-tune the loop for a under-damped step response.
(C) Re-tune the loop for a 1/4-wave decay step response.
(D) Re-tune the loop to minimize rise time.

51
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
A38-40 Codes, Standards and Regulations VI

A38. According to ISA-5.2-1976 (R1992)-Binary Logic Diagrams for Process Operations, which
of the following statements about this standard is FALSE?

(A) The symbols defined in this standard can be used to implement logic functions in
any type of hardware — electronic, electric, fluidic, pneumatic, mechanical, etc.
(B) Symbols from different standards cannot be used in the same logic diagram.
(C) The flow of intelligence in a logic diagram is normally left to right, top to bottom.
(D) The term “valve closed” is not the same as “valve not open.”

A39. Field-mounted or outdoor instrumentation equipment in the pulping area of a pulp and
paper mill would probably need a:

(A) NEMA 1 enclosure.

(B) NEMA 2 enclosure.
(C) NEMA 3 enclosure.
(D) NEMA 4 enclosure.

A40. Coal grinding areas in a coal-fired steam power plant would be classified under
hazardous area provisions of the National Electric Code (NEC) as:

(A) Class I, Group B

(B) Class I, Group D
(C) Class II, Group E
(D) Class II, Group F

52
Afternoon Session

53
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P01-02 Measurement I

Use the following information to answer Questions P01 and P02.

To avoid flooding a distillation column, a differential pressure measurement is required across

the top half of the column. The fluid entering the bottom of the column is similar to heavy crude
oil. Due to the corrosive nature of the fluid, the bottom half of the column is clad with alloy steel.
The bottom temperature is 1200°F. The product from the top of the column is light hydrocarbons
at 250°F.

The first available measurement point is on a platform at an elevation of 25 feet above grade. The
elevation of the platform at the top of the column is 100 feet. Access to all platforms is by means
of ladders.

P01. What transmitter(s) should be used?

(A) One differential pressure transmitter

(B) One differential pressure transmitter and two temperature transmitters
(C) Two temperature transmitters
(D) Two pressure transmitters

P02. Should diaphragm seals be used?

(A) No.
(B) Yes, at the 25-foot elevation only.
(C) Yes, at the 100-foot elevation only.
(D) Yes, at both elevations.

55
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P03-04 Measurement I

P03. The flow of water in a 4-inch steel pipe is measured with an orifice plate and a differential
pressure transmitter. At a flow rate of 120 gallons per minute (GPM), the differential
pressure is 27 inches of water. At a flow rate of 176 GPM, the differential pressure will be
most nearly equal to

(A) 12
(B) 18
(C) 39
(D) 58

P04. For measuring the flow of raw sewage in a 4-inch steel pipe at a flow rate of 150 gpm,
which of the following sensing devices will provide the most reliable and maintenance-
free installation?

(A) Coriolis flow meter

(B) Magnetic flow meter
(C) Orifice plate
(D) Ultrasonic flow meter

56
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P05-06 Measurement I

Use the following information to answer Questions P05 and P06.

A tank level is measured using a differential pressure transmitter and a bubbler tube. The tank is
vented to the atmosphere.

The bubbler tube bottom is 1 foot above the tank bottom; the tank wall is 20 feet high. A 0-10 psi
differential pressure gauge, accurate to 0.25 percent of full scale, is connected to the bubbler tube
connection at the high-pressure side of the transmitter. The low-pressure side of the transmitter
is connected to the tank top.

P05. When the water level in the tank is 14 feet, the gauge reading in pounds per square inch
(psi) is most nearly equal to

(A) 5.6
(B) 6.1
(C) 6.5
(D) 13.0

P06. The tank is refilled with a liquid having a specific gravity of 1.2. With the liquid level at
its maximum, one foot below the top of the tank, the differential pressure at the gauge in
pounds per square inch (psi) is most nearly equal to

(A) 7.80
(B) 9.35
(C) 9.90
(D) 10.10

57
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P07-09 Measurement I

P07. Which of the following statements are true?

The accuracy of orifice-type flow elements is affected by:

I Upstream piping configuration

II Downstream piping configuration
III Eccentricity of internal diameter of the meter run
IV Entrained gas or air bubbles
V Erosion of the hole bored in the orifice plate

(A) I and V only

(B) II and IV only
(C) I, II and V only
(D) I, II, III, IV and V

P08. The flow rate of clean air in tubing with a 3-inch outside diameter and 0.065-inch wall
thickness is 18 SCFM (standard cubic feet/minute). The average linear velocity in feet per
second is most nearly:

(A) 6.1
(B) 6.7
(C) 73.3
(D) 80.1

P09. For a gas-fired heater, the best choice for flame detection is a:

(A) Flame rod detector

(B) Infrared detector
(C) Silicon cell detector
(D) Self-check UV detector

58
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P10 Measurement I

P10. This question concerns the application of a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) analyzer that a plant is
installing for personnel protection.

Assuming no mechanical problems or other limitations at the site, where should a field
sensor be placed to provide the earliest possible warning of an excessive concentration of
H2S?

(A) 1 foot above ground

(B) 3 feet above ground
(C) Eye level
(D) 15 feet above ground

59
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P11-14 Signals and Transmission II

P11. When installing either thin-wire or thick-wire coaxial cable, which of the following does
NOT correspond with recommended practices?

(A) Identify exposed cables (not in conduit) at all terminations, splices, taps and
connectors, and at 25-foot intervals.
(B) Use a grounding conductor that is AWG No. 10 wire or larger, not longer than 25
feet.
(C) Support free cable runs every 10 feet.
(D) Seal all openings where cable passes through a firewall using UL-listed materials
and methods.

P12. Comparing unshielded twisted pairs (UTP) with shielded twisted pairs (STP) for data
transmission in a control system, which of the following statements is false?

(A) UTP is less expensive for materials and installation

(B) STP is more resistant to electrical interference
(C) UTP and STP are equally acceptable to vendors of LANs
(D) UTP and STP can both be used at 5 million bits/second

P13. In an area of high electromagnetic disturbances, the computer data transmission medium
with the least noise pickup is:

(A) Fiber optics

(B) Twisted pairs of copper conductors with shielding
(C) Twisted pairs of copper conductors in conduit
(D) Coaxial cable

P14. In hazardous areas, intrinsically-safe circuits can be wired:

(A) Only in metal conduit.

(B) Only in sealed or vented cables.
(C) Only with automatic shutdown on electric power failure.
(D) In the same way as in non-hazardous areas.

60
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P15 Signals and Transmission II

P15. According to IEEE Standard 802.3, CSMA/CD Networks, a data transmission medium
labeled “10BASE5” can be used up to:

(A) 10 thousand bits per second and 50 feet

(B) 10 million bits per second and 500 feet
(C) 10 million bits per second and 500 meters
(D) 10 million bits per second and 5 kilometers

61
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P16-17 Final Control Elements III

For Questions P16-17 consider a gas flow control loop in manual, with the initial process
conditions (A = upstream and B = downstream) as given in Figure P16-17. All conditions remain
constant other than the changes specified in each question. Subscripts 1 and 2 refer to the old and
new conditions, respectively.

Figure P16-17

P16. If only the open flow area (X) of the valve increased, which of the following best describes
how the mass flow (F) would change?

(A) F2 = F1(X1/X2)0.5
(B) F2 = F1(X2/X1)0.5
(C) F2 = F1(X2/X1)
(D) F2 = F1(X2/X1)2

P17. If only the pressure of the upstream gas (PA) increased by 10 psi, which of the following
best describes how the mass flow (F) would change?

(A) F2 = 1.062 F1
(B) F2 = 1.095 F1
(C) F2 = 1.125 F1
(D) F2 = 1.162 F1

62
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P18-19 Final Control Elements III

P18. The trend plot shown in Figure P18 indicates that the mass flow was greater than its
initial value after the controller output returned to its initial value. Which of the
following would NOT explain the phenomenon?

(A) Valve hysteresis

(B) PA increased
(C) MWA increased
(D) PB decreased

Figure P18

P19. Which of the following statements about control valve installation practices is FALSE?

(A) In locating valves, consideration must be given to the manufacturer’s

recommended clearances and also to the positions of heating ducts and electrical
wireways.
(B) For safety reasons, valves must always go to a closed or open position on power
failure.
(C) To allow for plant expansion, it is common to initially select valves smaller than
the connecting pipe.
(D) Characteristics of the flowing material determine whether flanged, threaded or
welded pipe joints can be used.

63
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P20 Final Control Elements III

P20. A technician tells you that a valve actuator is fail-closed, 3-to-15 psig, and has bench-set.
This means that:

(A) The actuator will start to open the valve at a pressure higher than 3 psig while
being tested on the work bench.
(B) The valve and actuator have been stored until the actuator spring no longer
moves correctly over the 3-to-15 psig range.
(C) The manufacturer has substituted a smaller-than-needed actuator and has altered
the spring to make it work.
(D) The valve and actuator are adjusted to operate over 3-to-15 psig on his test bench.

64
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P21-22 Final Control Elements III

Use the following diagram and data for questions P21 and P22:

FLARE HEADER

PSV PSV
1 2
PCV
CSO CSO
GAS FLOW
OUT

GAS FLOW
IN

NLL LC
10 FT.

4 FT.

LV

LIQUID OUT

Figure P21-22

Vessel Data:
Max Allowable Working Pressure (MAWP): 200 psig
Dimensions: 4’ OD, 10’ cylinder, elliptical heads
Normal liquid level: 3.5’
Operating pressure: 150 psig
Operating temperature: 100°F

Process Data:
Inlet gas flow: 80,000 lb/hr Liquid flow: 60 gpm
Molecular weight: 19 SG: 0.590

65
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P21-23 Final Control Elements III

P21. What is the maximum vessel pressure (in psig) allowed by ASME Code Section VIII
when only PSV-1 is in service and relieving?

(A) 200
(B) 210
(C) 220
(D) 230

P22. What is the maximum vessel pressure (in psig) allowed by ASME Code Section VIII
when both PSV-1 and PSV-2 are in service and relieving?

(A) 200
(B) 210
(C) 220
(D) 232

P23. Double-acting control valve actuators usually:

(A) Fail in closed position

(B) Fail in open position
(C) Fail in last position
(D) Are not fail safe

66
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P24-26 Control Systems Analysis IV

P24. According to ISA-5.1-1984(R1992), which of the following is the symbol for a discrete
instrument, not accessible to an operator, in an auxiliary location?

P25. According to ISA-5.1-1984(R1992), Instrumentation Symbols and Identification, the terms

“record” or “recording” can apply to which of the following:

I Graphical data in a strip or circular chart

II A table of numerical data in a computer memory
III A listing of alarms by a control computer

(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I, II and III

P26. Which of the following Boolean statements (using the notation “+” means “OR” and “ • ”
means “AND”) describes the operation of the logic circuit shown in the following
diagram?

(A) M = A + (B • C • D)
(B) M = A + B + (C • D)
(C) M = A • (B + (C • D))
(D) M = A + (B • (C + D))

A
M

B D

67
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P27 Control Systems Analysis IV

In the following diagram, A, B, D and H are transfer functions representing linear dynamic
characteristics of components of a feedback control system.

Figure P27

P27. Which of the following transfer functions (C/R) describes the overall dynamic behavior
of the system?

ABD
----------------------------------------
-
(A)
1 + DH + ABDH

ABD
(B) --------------------------
1 + ABDH

ABD
(C) ------------------------------------------------------------
1 + AB + BDH + ABDH
ABD
(D) ----------------------------------------------------------------------
1 + AB + DH + BD + ABDH

68
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P28 Control Systems Analysis IV

A control system is described by the block diagram shown in Figure P28.

Figure P28

Data List:

s+4
1. Gs(s) = system transfer function = -----------------------------
2
s + 6s + 13

K(s + 3)
2. Gc(s) = controller transfer function = --------------------
s(s + 1)

P28. For which values of K is the system stable?

(A) All K > 0

(B) All K < 0
(C) All K > 19
(D) All K < 13/7

69
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P29 Control Systems Analysis IV

P29. According to ANSI/ISA-84.01-1996, Application of Safety Instrumented Systems for the

Process Industries, which of the following statements is FALSE:

(A) The logic solver shall be separated from the Basic Process Control Systems except
where some applications have combined control and safety functions in one logic
solver.
(B) The sensors for Safety Instrumented Systems shall be separated from the sensors
for the Basic Process Control System.
(C) The final elements for Safety Instrumented Systems shall be separated from the
final elements for the Basic Process Control System.
(D) Changes for the Safety Instrumented System shall not be allowed from the SIS
operator interface.

70
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P30 Control Systems Implementation V

P30. According to a rule-of-thumb based on ISA-RP60.6-1984-Nameplates, Labels and Tags for

Control Centers, the height of letters or numbers should be selected so the subtended
angle (stated in minutes of arc) at the viewer’s eye when viewed from a normal sitting or
standing position should be:

(A) 16 - 27
(B) 40 - 70
(C) 80 - 130
(D) None of the above

71
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P31-32 Control Systems Implementation V

Questions P31-32 concern a key program for a process control computer. The program provides
for translation of a binary count from an analog-to-digital converter into engineering units,
calculation of an associated controller output using a proportional-plus-integral algorithm, and
checks of the controller output against appropriate limits.

In the program, the following nomenclature is used:

XE Error - current value

XEP Error - previous value
XDE Error - diff of current and previous value
XSE Error - sum of current and previous values
XDM Manipulated variable - calculated change
XMP Manipulated variable - previous value
XMMAX Manipulated variable - upper limit
XMMIN Manipulated variable - lower limit
XDMMAX Manipulated variable - maximum change (absolute)
XM Manipulated variable - new value
GAINX Proportional gain for PI control algorithm
TIX Integral time for PI control Algorithm
T Control time interval

You can assume that past values of the variable, constant parameters, etc., are correctly stored in
a data base in the computer memory, with suitable indexing so that “X” can refer to any one of
the many system variables.

Program instructions (Questions P32) are written in a half-English, half-mathematical form to

avoid use of a particular programming language. In evaluating the program instructions,
consider their intended purpose, not their conformity to the rules or syntax of a particular
language.

72
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P31-32 Control Systems Implementation V

P31. When a limit check shows an input signal outside its high or low limits, the program
should:

(A) Go directly to the END of the program, skipping execution of the control
algorithm.
(B) Print an alarm message, and go directly to the END of the program.
(C) Enter the time, variable identification and calculated value (in engineering units)
in an alarm list for later processing, and continue execution of the program.
(D) Substitute the limit value for the calculated value of the variable and continue
execution of the program.

P32. The correct formula for calculating the change in the controller output (manipulated
variable) using a P + I algorithm is:

(A) XDM = GAINX * XE + XSE/TIX

(B) XDM = GAINX * (XDE + XE/TIX)
(C) XDM = GAINX * (XDE + (T/TIX)(XEP))
(D) XDM = GAINX * (XE + (T/TIX)(XSE))

73
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P33-34 Control Systems Implementation V

P33. A distributed control system (DCS) is defined as follows:

(A) Controllers distributed throughout the facility mounted on valves or grouped in

small panels
(B) A control system that uses controllers built into valve positioners or field-
mounted transmitters and connected together by a field bus
(C) Keyboards, monitors, input/output modules, and control computers with
algorithms that have been assembled into a control system
(D) Input/output modules and control computers that are purchased from
distributed vendors and which may be mounted remotely from the operator’s
control console

P34. Which of the following tuning criteria would be most appropriate for designing a
controller to regulate the temperature in the room where you are now sitting?

(A) Minimize the response time for setpoint changes

(B) Minimize the overshoot for setpoint changes
(C) Follow varying setpoints with a minimum error
(D) Maintain the controlled variable at a constant value

74
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P35 Control Systems Implementation V

The following question relates to selection of controller parameters or tuning for control loops
encountered in typical process applications.

P35. An alternative to open-loop process testing for determining controller parameters is

closed-loop testing: the controller is placed in AUTOMATIC, the integral and derivative
action are set to zero, and the controller gain is increased gradually until a sustained
oscillation is produced. Which of the following statements about this procedure are
correct?

I The two data items obtained from a closed-loop test and used in tuning parameter
calculation are the period and amplitude of oscillation.
II The tuning parameters obtained from a closed-loop test are likely to be more accurate
than those determined from an open-loop test.
III It is necessary to observe the process for many cycles (say, 10 or more) to be sure that
the oscillation is neither decaying nor increasing.
IV The engineer conducting a closed-loop test has no control over the amplitude of the
oscillation.
(A) I and III
(B) I, II and IV
(C) II and III
(D) II and IV

75
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P36-37 Control Systems Implementation V

P36. Compared to a control loop with no dead time (pure time delay), a control loop with an
appreciable dead time tends to require:

(A) Less proportional gain and less integral action

(B) More proportional gain and less integral action
(C) More proportional gain and more integral action
(D) Less proportional gain and more integral action

P37. A control system employs three sensors, each having a failure probability of 0.02 in six
months of operation. The system can function properly when any two or more of the
sensors are working, but it must shut down if two or three of the sensors fail.

The probability that the system can operate for six months without a shutdown is most
nearly equal to:

(A) 0.9412
(B) 0.9600
(C) 0.9800
(D) 0.9988

76
 QUESTION DESCRIPTION AREA
P38-40 Codes, Standards and Regulations VI

P38. The OSHA Process Safety Management Directive, 29CFR, Part 1910, addresses all of the
following EXCEPT:

(A) Transportation of hazardous chemicals

(B) Process operator training
(C) Plant contractor safety
(D) Process design considerations

P39. Your assignment is to implement a burner management system using a solid-state

microprocessor-based programmable logic controller (PLC). You will analyze boiler
operation, develop system logic, and select control equipment.

The system design shall upgrade the burner management functions on a 50,000,000 btu/
hr, two-burner, gas-fired boiler to current NFPA standards. Igniters will be interrupted
(turned off) when the timed trial for ignition of the main burner has expired. PLC inputs
and outputs will de-energize to shut off (trip) fuel to the boiler.

The burner system manual emergency shutdown shall be accomplished by:

(A) A normally-open contact to a PLC input.

(B) A normally-closed contact to a PLC input.
(C) A normally-open contact to a PLC input and a normally-closed contact to another
PLC input.
(D) A hard-wired normally-closed contact to de-energize a fuel trip relay.

P40. Loop drawings for a petrochemical process plant should be signed by:

(A) The manager of the Instrument/Control Department

(B) The person who created their technical content
(C) A licensed control systems engineer
(D) All of the above

77
APPENDIX C
ANSWERS TO SAMPLE QUESTIONS
This appendix contains solutions and / or answers to the questions contained
in Appendix B.

A one-page summary list of the answers is included to facilitate scoring for

those who treat the questions in Appendix B as a sample exam.

Comments about the questions and answers will be appreciated. They should
be sent to the Director of Credentialing Services, ISA, P.O. Box 12277, Research
Triangle Park, NC 27709 for forwarding to the CSE examination committee.

79
ANSWERS

QUESTION

QUESTION

QUESTION

QUESTION
CORRECT

CORRECT

CORRECT

CORRECT
ANSWER

ANSWER

ANSWER

ANSWER
A01 C A21 C P01 D P21 C
A02 D A22 D P02 B P22 D
A03 A A23 B P03 D P23 D
A04 C A24 C P 04 B P24 A
A05 B A25 B P05 A P25 D
A06 D A26 D P06 B P26 D
A07 C A27 B P07 D P27 D
A08 C A28 B P08 B P28 A
A09 C A29 A P09 D P29 C
A10 B A30 C P10 A P30 A
A11 C A31 B P11 B P31 C
A12 B A32 A P12 C P32 C
A13 D A33 B P13 A P33 C
A14 A A34 B P14 D P34 D
A15 D A35 D P15 C P35 D
A16 D A36 D P16 C P36 A
A17 C A37 A P17 C P37 D
A18 A A38 B P18 D P38 A
A19 A A39 D P19 B P39 D
A20 A A40 D P20 A P40 B

80
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
A01-04 Measurement I

A01. From table for Type J thermocouples with a 32°F reference junction, the emf is

11.96 mV at 430°F
12.26 mV at 440°F
Interpolating, the emf is 11.96 + (3/10) (12.26 – 11.96) = 12.05 mV
The correct answer is (C).

A02. For this control application, the best choice is an orifice plate.

The correct answer is (D).

A03. For a liquid flow rate to be measured with a magnetic flowmeter, the liquid must have
some conductivity. As a hydrocarbon, kerosene has no conductivity. The other liquids
have some conductivity.

The correct answer is (A).

A04. The “90% point” is a boiling characteristic of a hydrocarbon liquid. Thus, the only
suitable analyzer is a boiling point analyzer. The other instruments measure different
characteristics of materials.

The correct answer is (C).

81
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
A05-06 Measurement I

A05. At 200°F, RRTD = 100 + 0.245(200 – 32)

= 141.16 ohms

250 RA
For bridge balance, --------- = -------------
-
250 R RTD

∴ RA = RRTD = 141.16 ohms

The correct answer is (B).

A06. The left hand terminal of the voltmeter is at a potential of (10) (250/500) = 5 volts.
Therefore, the right-hand terminal is at a potential of 5 + 0.2 = 5.2 volts, and

R RTD
5.2 = 10 × ----------------------------
R RTD + R A

R RTD
or 0.52 = ----------------------------
-
R RTD + 150

0.52R RTD + 78 = R RTD

Then, 0.48R RTD = 78
R RTD = 162.5

To find the corresponding temperature:

162.5 = 100 + 0.245 ( T – 32 )

0.245T = 162.5 – 100 + ( 0.245 ) ( 32 )
= 70.34
T = 287.1°F

The correct answer is (D).

82
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
A07-09 Measurement I

A07. For a change of (212 – 50) = 162°F, the T/C voltage changes (9.0 – 0.9) = 8.1 mV. Thus, the
T/C voltage changes
8.1
--------- = 0.05 mV/°F
162
The T/C voltage can be expressed as

e = 0.05 (T – 50) + 0.9 = 0.05T – 1.6

When the voltage is 1.9 mV, the temperature is found from:

1.9 = 0.05 ( T – 50 ) + 0.9

= 0.05T – 2.5 + 0.9
or 0.05T = 1.9 + 2.5 – 0.9
= 3.5
T = 70°F

The correct answer is (C).

A08. Span = S.G. × d

density of Process at Normal Temp = 280°F

S.G. = ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
water density at Standard Temp = 60°F

3
57.941#/ft
S.G. = ----------------------------- = 0.929
3
62.364 #/ft

Span = 0.929 × 60 in. = 55.7 in. H 2 O

The correct answer is (C).

A09. Since the differential pressure measurement provides for pressure fluctuation and water
is an incompressible fluid, the level measurement remains unchanged.

The correct answer is (C).

83
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
A10 Signals and Transmission II

A10. For signal components with periods of 10 seconds or greater, the signal frequency
spectrum is between zero and 1/10 = 0.1 cps. The noise components have frequencies of 5
cps or higher. Thus, there is a gap in the frequency spectrum between the signal and noise
components.

To determine which of the selected filter time constants would fall in this gap, add
another column to the table for the filter corner frequency, defined by Tf = 1/(2 π fc).
Calculate fc for the Tf values in the table, giving:

fc Tf Ts
(A) 5 0.032 0.5
(B) 0.5 0.32 1
(C) 0.05 3.2 5
(D) 0.005 32. 10

Also, to reconstruct a signal from samples taken at a fixed time interval, the Sampling
Theorem says that samples must be taken at least twice the highest frequency present in
the signal. For this case, that would require samples at 2 (0.1) = 0.2 cps or every 1/0.2 = 5
seconds. A higher rate, say 10 samples per cycle or every second, would be better.

Of the available choices, (B) gives the best compromise between preserving the signal and
rejecting the noise. Therefore, (B) is the correct answer.

(A) would provide 20 samples per one period of the highest frequency component in the
signal, thus doing a good job for the signal, but would pass the lower part of the noise
spectrum.

(D) provides only 1 sample per one period of the highest frequency component of the
signal (which is not enough), and the filter would remove much of the signal spectrum.

(C) provides 2 samples per one period of the highest frequency of the signal (which is
theoretically enough), and the filter removes some of the signal components although it
does a good job on the noise.

84
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
A11-14 Signals and Transmission II

A11. The correct answer is (C). Zener diode barriers are inexpensive and easy to use.

The other statements are true.

A12. The correct answer is (B) since the fiber can be broken by a small-radius bend.

A13. The correct answer is (D).

CONTROL
DCS
ELEMENT

I/I

250 ohm

INDIC.

A14. The correct answer is (A). Wireless systems with a large number of links or channels in a
limited radio frequency spectrum can interfere with each other; there is no limit on the
possible number of wired or cable channels.

(B) is True. Wireless systems do not require conduit or cable trays to be routed through
the plant in order to connect a multitude of inputs to controllers and central processors;
many functions are built into the wireless system components.

(C) is True. Sensors and controllers in a wireless system still need power to perform their
functions.

(D) is True. By means of channel hopping, encryption, resending data packets, etc.,
wireless systems can be given a high degree of immunity to electrical noise.

85
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
A15 Final Control Elements III

A15. For the original service condition, CV can be calculated from the equation (Eq. 18, ANSI/
ISA-75.01.01-1985):

q Gg T1 Z
C V = ----------------------- ----------------
-
N7 Fp p1 Y x

where FP = piping geometry factor= 1(assumed)

Y = expansion factor = 1(assumed)
Z = compressibility factor = 1(assumed)
∆p
x = -------
p1

N7 = units factor = 1360 for scfh and psia

With these substitutions, the equation becomes:

q Gg T1
C v = ------------ --------------
1360 ∆p p 1

with q = volume flow rate, gpm= 60,000

Gg = gas specific gravity = MW/29
= 44/29 = 1.52
T1 = inlet temperature, °R = 120 + 460
= 580
∆p = pressure difference, psi= 50
P1 = inlet pressure, psia = 300 + 14.7
= 314.7

Substituting these numerical values, the result is:

60000 ( 1.52 ) ( 580 )

C V = --------------- ----------------------------- = 10.44
1360 ( 50 ) ( 314.7 )

The correct answer is (D).

86
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
A16-18 Final Control Elements III

A16. For the new service conditions, using the maximum CV = 12, the maximum flow can be
calculated using the equation (Eq. 1, ANSI/ISA-75.01.01-1985):

q G
C V = ------------- ------f-
N 1 F p ∆p

with q = flow rate, gpm

FP = piping geometry factor = 1 (assumed)
Gf = fluid specific gravity = 0.81
∆p = pressure difference, psi = 10
N1 = units factor = 1 for gpm and psi

Rearranging to solve for q, the equation is:

q = C V ∆p
-------
Gf

10
= 12 ----------
0.81

= 42.2 gpm

The correct answer is (D).

A17. The correct answer is (C); putting valve stems in a vertical position is a common practice
but is not an absolute requirement for all situations. (See J.W. Hutchison, ISA Handbook
of Control Valves, 2nd Ed., 1976, p. 353.)

A18. The correct answer is (A); vent lines should be provided so that personnel or equipment
will not be inadvertently sprayed, even with harmless material, when a vent valve is
opened. (See J. W. Hutchison, pp. 336-337.)

87
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
A19-22 Final Control Elements III

A19. (A) is the correct answer. Ball valves usually have larger Cv for the same size body than
globe valves.

(B) – Piping might need to be revised, but ball valves are usually shorter than the same
size globe valve.

(C) – Ball valves often use piston actuators, but can use diaphragm-type actuators as well.

(D) – Ball valves are often used for on/off control, but are also used for modulating
control.

A20. The correct answer is (A). AMSE Section VIII – Division 1, UG-134, Pressure Setting of
Pressure Relief Devices, (d) says: The pressure at which any device is set to operate shall
include the effects of static head and constant back pressure.

A21. The correct answer is (C).

A22. The correct answer is (D). Blocks in the pressure on solenoid failure. If momentarily
actuated, is immune to loss of instrument air as well.

Distracters:
(A) – Fails closed.

(B) – Fails closed if solenoid fails. Unpredictable on loss of air. Also, will not actuate in
both directions.

(C) – Almost works, but it may move when failed if the process exerts force on the valve.

88
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
A23-27 Control Systems Analysis IV

A23. The correct answer is (B). (A) is a pressure-reducing regulator, self-contained; (C) is a
back-pressure regulator, self-contained, and (D) is a back-pressure regulator with an
external tap.

A24. The correct answer is (C).

A25. The correct answer is (B). Note that the “NOT” element at the input to the following
“AND” element.

A26. The correct answer is (D).

A

C
AND
N
B
X
OR

A
N
D
AND

A A B B C D X
0 1 0 1 0 0 0
0 1 1 0 0 1 1
1 0 0 1 1 0 1
1 0 1 0 0 0 0

This is an “Exclusive OR” (A or B but not both).

A27. The correct answer is (B), two degrees of freedom. Solution:

Number of variables: 3 Number of equations: 1*

*Material balance: F3 = F1 + F2

Therefore, degrees of freedom = 3 - 1 = 2

Any two of the flows can be specified; the third flow must satisfy the material balance.

89
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
A28-29 Control Systems Analysis IV

0.5815 – 0.500
A28. The overshoot is ------------------------------------ × 100 = 16.3%
0.500

From standard response curves, the damping ratio is approximately 0.5, one-half of
critical damping. Alternately, the damping ratio (ξ) can be calculated from the equation

2
– πξ ⁄ 1 – ξ
16.3 = 100e
2
πξ ⁄ 1 – ξ 100
e = ---------- = 6.135
16.3
2
πξ ⁄ 1 – ξ = ln 6.135 = 1.814
2 2 2 2
π ξ = 3.29 ( 1 – ξ ) ; ξ ( 9.87 + 3.29 ) = 3.29;

2
ξ = 0.25 ; ξ = 0.5

The correct answer is (B).

A29. This question calls for knowledge of the Nyquist stability criterion which states that, for
systems of the type shown in these diagrams, the systems will be stable provided that the
frequency response locus does not encircle the –1 point.

The correct answer is (A) because this locus cannot encircle the –1 point for any K > 1.

The loci in (B) and (D) will encircle the –1 point if K is increased sufficiently, while (C) can
encircle the –1 point for either larger or smaller values of K.

90
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
A30-34 Control Systems Implementation V

A30. The correct answer is (C); statements II and III are true. Statement I is false because flows
can be in any direction; recycle flows will be right-to-left if the main flows are left-to-
right, and some flows are vertical, up or down. Statement IV is a common but not
universal convention; the convention can vary from company to company or industry to
industry.

A31. The alarm point should be set above the noise or background level, perhaps caused by
small, intermittent releases of H2S, and well below the prescribed maximum permissible
level. Of the choices given, the best is 5-9.9 ppm.

The correct answer is (B).

A32. To protect plant personnel, the most important action is to warn people in the area where
the H2S has been detected.

The correct answer is (A).

A33. The correct answer is (B).

A34. The time required for one conversion is 20 + 30 = 50 microseconds. Hence the conversion
rate is most nearly

6
10
-------- = 20, 000 conversions ⁄ second
50

If a few computer instructions are required to address the multiplexer and if they cannot
be overlapped with the mutiplexer - ADC operation, this rate would be decreased
somewhat.

The best answer is (B).

91
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
A35-37 Control Systems Implementation V

A35. Each input requires 4 * 100 + 20 + 30 = 450 microseconds. Each controller has 3 inputs to
the multiplexer. Flow controllers are sampled 5 times as often as levels, and the pressure
controller twice as often. Therefore, the number of inputs per cycle
3 × [ ( 1 ) ( 1 ) + ( 1 ) ( 2 ) + ( 2 ) ( 5 ) ] = 3 × 13 = 39
.
level pressure flow
The total time is (39)(450) = 17,550 microseconds.

The correct answer is (D).

A36. The correct answer is (D) since derivative action in a relatively noise-free system allows
the controller to anticipate the effects of a load disturbance and take pre-emptive action.
Action I might also work, but there is nothing to indicate that action III is required as
well.

A37. The correct answer is (A) since all of the other tuning objective would required overshoot
which is stated to be undesirable. This question deals with important tuning criteria other
than the classical ¼-wave decay criteria favored by Ziegler and Nichols.

92
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
A38-40 Codes, Standards and Regulations VI

A38. The correct answer is (B), which is a false statement. Symbols from different standards
can be used in the same diagram IF they are clearly defined.

A39. Because water hoses may be used for house cleaning purposes, watertight (NEMA 4)
enclosures are desirable. General-purpose (1), drip tight (2), weatherproof (3), and dust
tight (5) enclosures are not indicated.

The correct answer is (D).

A40. Class II, Group F is for areas where coal dust is present.

The correct answer is (D).

93
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
P01-06 Measurement I

P01. If a single differential pressure transmitter was used, mounted at one of the platforms, the
connecting lines would be significantly different in length. Extraneous effects, e.g.,
temperature or gravity head, could adversely affect the accuracy. Therefore, two pressure
transmitters should be used.

The correct answer is (D).

P02. Because of the severe nature of the fluid, a diaphragm seal is needed at the 25-foot
elevation, with a filled capillary tube between the seal and the pressure transmitter. No
seal is needed at the 100-foot elevation.

The correct answer is (B).

P03. The correct answer is (D).

2
∆P 2  F 2
---------- =  ------
∆P 1  F 1

176 2
or ∆P 2 = ( 27 )  --------- = 58.1 in. of H 2 O
 120

P04. For a stream containing solids, the best choice is a flow sensor that offers a minimum
obstruction to the flowing stream, i.e., a magnetic flowmeter.

The correct answer is (B).

62.4
P05. The pressure reading is ( 14 – 1 )  ---------- = 5.6 psi
 144 
The correct answer is (A).

62.4
P06. The new pressure reading is ( 20 – 1 – 1 )  ---------- ( 1.2 ) = 9.36 psi
 144 
The correct answer is (B).

94
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
P07-10 Measurement I

P07. The correct answer is (D). All of the listed factors influence the accuracy of measurements
made with orifice-type elements.

P08. The correct answer is (B), 6.68.

Solution:
Q = A V or V = Q/A

Q = 18 SCFM = 18/60
= 0.3 ft3/sec
= 0.3 * 1728
= 518.4 in3/sec

A = (3.1416/4)(3 - 2*0.065)2 = 6.469 in2

(B). V = 518.4/6.469 = 80.14 in/sec or 80.14/12 = 6.68 ft/sec

P09. The correct answer is (D), self-check UV detector.

P10. Hydrogen sulfide (MW = 44) is heavier than air (MW ≅ 29), therefore its concentration is
highest close to the ground. For early detection, the field sensor (analyzer inlet) should be
as close to the ground as possible, i.e., one foot.

The correct answer is (A).

95
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
P11-15 Signals and Transmission II

P11. Good practice calls for a grounding conductor that is AWG No. 8 and can be up to 50 feet
in length. Answer (B) misstates the recommended practice and is, therefore, the correct
answer.

P12. Answer (C) is false and is, therefore, the correct answer. Some LAN vendors insist on STP.

P13. Fiber optic data transmissions is immune to electromagnetic disturbances. The other
media listed are electrical and, therefore, subject in varying degrees to electromagnetic
disturbances.

The correct answer is (A).

P14. The correct answer is (D).

That is the purpose of intrinsically-safe equipment. Caution is needed at the boundary

between hazardous and non-hazardous areas, however, to prevent leakage of, for
example, explosive gases from the hazardous area to the non-hazardous area.

P15. According to IEEE 802.3, the designation “10BASE5” refers to millions of bits per second
and distances in hundreds of meters.

The correct answer is (C).

96
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
P16-20 Final Control Elements III

 X 2
P16. F 2 = F 1  -------
 X 1

The mass flow is directly proportional to open area of valve.

The correct answer is (C).

P17. Density is directly proportional to absolute pressure:

P 2 + 14.7 89.7
F 2 = ---------------------- F 1 = ---------- F 1 = 1.1254F 1
P 1 + 14.7 79.7

The correct answer is (C).

P18. PB decreasing would NOT explain the plot.

Downstream pressure has no effect on critical flow.

The correct answer is (D).

P19. The correct answer is (B). In some cases, the best action is to hold the previous position, at
least in the short term.

P20. The correct answer is (A). Bench set is used to compensate for the effects of differential
pressure on the position of the valve. A spring and set-up is chosen to cause the valve to
stroke at some other pressure range than the specified output of the controller or
transducer when operated without differential pressure (on the test bench) so that it will
stroke at approximately the specified pressure range when operated with the predicted
process differential pressure.

(B) – Any degradation of the spring because of long-term storage will be slight and is not
called bench set.

(C) – This is a common misconception, but it is not true. The actuator may be a bit
smaller, but bench set is a common and legitimate technique for actuator application.

(D) – This is the opposite of the true situation.

97
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
P21-23 Final Control Elements III

P21. The correct answer is (C). The maximum vessel pressure with one valve in service is 110
percent of MAWP (10 percent accumulation) or 1.1 * 200 = 220 psig.

P22. The correct answer is (D). The maximum vessel pressure with two valves in service is 116
percent of MAWP (16 percent accumulation) or 1.16 * 200 = 232 psig.

P23. The correct answer is (D). A double-acting actuator must be given power to open and
again to shut. “Fail safe” means that a device, if not already so, will, on its own, go to a
safe mode upon loss of signal/control power.

98
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
P24-27 Control Systems Analysis IV

P24. The correct answer is (A).

P25. The correct answer is (D); “record” or “recording” can refer to any of the listed items.

P26. The correct answer is (D). This Boolean statement means that M is activated when A or (B
and (C or D)) are closed. This is correct.

P27. Move Block A to the left of the summing points and interchange the order of the
summing points.

Reduce the internal feedback loops to single blocks:

Reduce the remaining feedback loop to a single block:

Simplify by multiplying numerator and denominator by (1 + AB) (1 + DH), and absorb

Block A into the result:

The denominator can be re-arranged to 1 + AB + BD + DH + ABDH

The correct answer is (D).

99
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
P28-29 Control Systems Analysis IV

P28. To check the stability of a system having the characteristic function

s4+ 7s3 + (19 + K) s2 + (13 + 7K) s + 12K,

write the Routh array as follows:

s4 1 19 + K 12K
s3 7 13 + 7K
s2 a b 7 ( 19 + K ) – ( 13 + 7K )
a = -------------------------------------------------------
7
133 + 7K – 13 – 7K
= ------------------------------------------------
7
120
= ---------
7
s1 c b = 12K
0
s d a ( 13 + 7K ) – 7b
c = ----------------------------------------
a
7
= 13 + 7K – 7 ( 12K )  ---------
 120

= 13 + 7K – 4.9K

= 13 + 2.1K

d = b = 12K

The first column will be positive when c > 0 and d > 0. The first condition requires
K > – 6.2; the second requires K > 0.

The correct answer is (A).

P29. The correct answer is (C). ANSI/ISA-84.01-1996, Section 7.4.3.1 only mandates separate
valves for SIL 3 (Safety Integrity Level 3).

The other statements are true.

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 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
P30-31 Control Systems Implementation V

P30. The correct answer is (A). Appendix C of ISA-RP60.6-1984 states that, for a distance of 1-
2/3 to 3 feet, the recommended minimum height is 0.17 inches, and the nominal height is
0.28 inches. These values correspond to angles of 16 and 27 minutes of arc. For other
distances, heights given in Appendix C give the same angles (16 to 27 minutes). Other
references give the same rule of thumb.

[20 minutes of arc is one-third degree or 0.0058 radians. Thus, at a viewing distance of 20
inches, the minimum character height would be about 0.12 inches; this is roughly
comparable to viewing conditions on a typical PC monitor.]

[120 minutes of arc or 2 degrees is 0.0349 radians. At 20 inches, the height would be 0.70
inches, far taller than necessary for easy reading.]

P31. (A) Does nothing to inform the operator of the out-of limits condition.
(B) Informs the operator of the out-of-limits condition, paying no attention to
whether it was a pre-existing condition and making no record of any new out-of-
limits conditions.
(C) Allows different treatment for pre-existing and new out-of-limits conditions,
different responses (such as substituting the limit value or some other value) for
different variables, etc.
(D) Does not take any action to generate or record an alarm: also, executing the
control algorithm based on an out-of-limits value may be hazardous.
The correct answer is (C).

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 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
P32 Control Systems Implementation V

P32. The correct answer is (C). The control algorithm is derived as follows:

The controller output is m.

The present error is e0.

Previous errors are e–1, e–2, e–3, …
The integral of the error (shaded areas) can be
approximated by:
0
∫–∞ e dt = T [ e –1 + e –2 + e –3 + … ]

At time t = 0, the algorithm can be written:

1
m 0 = K  e 0 + ----- edt
∫
 TI 
T
= K e 0 + ----- ( e –1 + e – 2 + e – 3 + … )
TI

At time t = t–1, the same algorithm would be:

T
m – 1 = K e – 1 + ----- ( e – 2 + e –3 + e – 4 + … )
TI

subtracting:

T
∆m = m 0 – m 1 = K e 0 – e – 1 + ----- e –1
TI

In the notation used in this problem, the algorithm is:

T
XDM = GAINX * (XDE +  ---------- (XEP))
 TIX
where XDE = XE – XEP

and the “X” identifies values or parameters related to a specific variable.

Answers (A) and (B) do not contain the sampling interval, T, and cannot be correct.
Answer (D) uses XSE instead of XEP and is not correct.

102
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
P33-37 Control Systems Implementation V

P33. The correct answer is (C).

P34. The correct answer is (D) since a room’s temperature is to be maintained in spite of load
disturbances. This question deals with the difference between tuning for setpoint
tracking or disturbance rejection.

P35. I False - The parameters are the period of the oscillation and the gain needed to
produce the oscillation.
II True
III False-3 or 4 cycles are sufficient.
IV True

The correct answer is (D).

P36. The correct answer is (A).

Pure time delay requires a reduction in both proportional gain and integral action.

[See D. R. Coughanowr and L.B. Koppel, Process Systems Analysis and Control, McGraw-
Hill, 1965, pp. 312-314, where the Cohen-Coon tuning formulas are discussed. The
equations show Kc varying inversely with dead time, which means that the integral
action decreases with dead time.]

P37. The correct answer is (D), 0.9988.

Solution:
Prob. of no failures = (0.98)3 = 0.941192
Prob. of one failure = 3 (0.02)(0.98)2 = 0.057624
Prob. of system operating = 0.998816

As a check:
Prob. of two failures = 3 (0.02)2(0.98) = 0.001176
Prob. of three failures = (0.02)3 = 0.000008
Prob. of system being shutdown = 0.001184

Total of all outcomes = 1.000000

103
 ANSWER DESCRIPTION AREA
P38-40 Codes, Standards and Regulations VI

P38. The correct answer is (A). Transportation of hazardous chemicals is covered by 49CFR,
Parts 100-185, and is a concern of the Department of Transportation (DOT), not OSHA.

Distracters:
(B), (C) and (D) are covered by 29CFR, Part 1910, and are concerns of OSHA.

P39. The correct answer is (D). This is required by NFPA Standard 85C and precludes the
selection of (A), (B) or (C). Also, most PLC manufacturers recommend an external master
relay to remove all power from field devices in an emergency.

P40. The correct answer is (B); the over-riding principle in this area is that the person
responsible for engineering designs should sign the drawings. Signatures by other people
won’t hurt, but they are not required.

104
APPENDIX D
SAMPLE EXAMINATION MATERIALS
 SERIAL
NAME:_________________________________
Last First Middle
Initial

PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE

OF

ENGINEERING

EXAMINATION

DISCIPLINE

Control Systems

This test booklet is the property of the National Council of

Examiners for Engineering and Surveying and its contents are
SAMPLE
copyrighted under the laws of the United States. Copying,
reproduction, or any action taken to reveal the contents of this
examination in whole or in part is unlawful. Removal of this
booklet from the examination room by unauthorized persons is
prohibited. At the conclusion of the examination, you are
responsible for returning the numbered test booklet which was
assigned to you.
© 1992, National Council of Examiners for
Multiple-choice answers must be placed on the separate answer
Engineering and Surveying, Clemson, South
sheet.
Carolina 29633

107
 NATIONAL COUNCIL OF EXAMINERS FOR ENGINEERING AND SURVEYING

CONTROL SYSTEMS ENGINEERING

THIS IS AN OPEN BOOK EXAMINATION

NOTE: LOCAL LICENSURE BOARD RULES TAKE PRECEDENCE

OVER THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS

Textbooks, handbooks, bound reference materials and battery-operated, silent, non-printing

calculators may be used in the examination room. Writing tablets, unbound tables or notes, and
devices that may compromise the security of the examination are NOT PERMITTED in the
examination room. The exchange of reference materials during the examination is not allowed.
This is an examination of your capabilities; the work is to be representative of your knowledge.
Copying or cheating of any kind is NOT tolerated and will result in an invalidation of your
examination score.
Respond to all 40 questions during this four-hour examination. Select the best answer from a list
of four choices. Each multiple-choice question has equal weight and points are not subtracted for
incorrect responses.
Be sure to correctly enter all of your answers on the separate answer sheet enclosed within this
test booklet. THIS IS THE ONLY RECORD OF THE PROBLEMS YOU HAVE WORKED. Once
you select your answer, fill in the corresponding space on the answer sheet using a Number 2
pencil. BE SURE THAT EACH MARK IS DARK AND COMPLETELY FILLS THE ANSWER
SPACE. Only one answer is permitted for each question; no credit is given for multiple answers.
If you change an answer, be sure to completely erase the previous mark. Incomplete erasures
may be read as intended answers.
Blank space in the test booklet may be used for scratch work. NO CREDIT WILL BE GIVEN
FOR ANY WORK WRITTEN IN THE TEST BOOKLET.
Make certain that you have followed the above instructions before turning in all test materials to
the proctor.

YOU ARE PROHIBITED FROM COPYING THE PROBLEMS FOR FUTURE REFERENCE;

VIOLATORS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.

109
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First 5 letters MONTH DAY 19 YEAR 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
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of the
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