APTITUDE SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR ALL POSTS

1. ₹370 is to be divided among 20 boys, 12 women, and 10 men such that each man gets an amount equal
to the amount received by one boy and one woman together. The amount received by each woman is
twice the amount received by each boy. What will be the amount received by 10 men?
A. ₹120
B. ₹132
C. ₹145
D. ₹150
2. The average monthly expenditure of a group of friends was ₹2200 during the first 3 months. The
expenditure was ₹2250 during the next 4 months and ₹3120 during the last 5 months of the year. The total
savings for the whole year were ₹1260, find the average monthly income for the group of friends.
A. ₹2600
B. ₹2700
C. ₹2560
D. ₹2345 .
3. What is the total number of children living in society T and V together?

A. 1777
B. 1743
C. 1700
D. 1667

4. What will replace the question mark (?) in the question given below:

(? - 2762.99) ÷ 86.05 × 12.98 = 208.11

A. 4132
B. 4111
C. 4133
D. 5132

5. 12.98 × 252.03 ÷ 41.90 + 170.11 = ? + 46.988

A. 200
B. 201
C. 202
D. 203

6. The ratio between the ages of Natasha and Shivani is 5:6 respectively. If the ratio between the one third
age of Natasha and half of Shivani’s age is 5:9, then what is Shivani’s age?
A. 15 years
B. 21 years
C. Cannot be determined
D. 14 years

7. In a certain code language ‘EXAMINATION’ is written as ‘FYBNJOBUHPM’. Which word would be coded as
‘QPQVMBS’?
A. ANALYSE
B. FRIENDS
C. ROUTINE
D. POPULAR
8. In India, the first Bank of limited liability managed by Indians and founded in 1881 was:
A. Hindustan commercial bank
B. Oudh commercial bank
C. Punjab national bank
D. Punjab and Sindh bank
9. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
A. Pitt’s India Act : Warren Hastings
B. Doctrine of Lapse : Dalhousie
C. Vernacular Press Act : Curzon
D. Ilbert Bill : Ripon
10. Who among the following was the first Governor General of India?
A. Warren Hastings
B. Lord William Bentinck
C. Lord Curzon
D. Lord Amherst
11. Recently who has been announced to be given the Nikkei Asia Award 2020 in ‘Science and
Technology’ category -

A. Pro. T Pradeep
B. ShashiTharoor
C. R.K. Chawla
D. Pro. P Shetty
12. In the following questions, find the correctly spelt word:

A. Recommandation
B. Recommendation
C. Recomendations
D. Reccomendation

13. Arrange the parts to form a meaningful sentence:

I read an advertisement that said : (A) posh, air-conditioned (B) gentleman of taste (C) are available
for (D) fully furnished rooms.

A. ABCD
B. ADCB
C. DACB
D. BDAC

14. When the Principal entered the class, a student………. on the blackboard.
A. Wrote
B. was writing
C. writes
D. is writing

15. Select Correct Word

A. Agressive
B. Agrressive
C. Aggressive
D. Aggresive
 MT (CHEMICAL LAB) SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Q1) The density of a solution prepared by dissolving 129g of urea in 1000g of water is 1.15g/ml.
The molarity of this solution is-

a) 1.78M
b) 2.05M
c) 1.02M
d) 0.50M

Q2) Calculate concentration of CO2 in water if the pressure is 1.5 atm and Henry's constant KH
(CO2) is 29.4 L-atm/mol at 25 degree C

a) 44.1 mol/L.
b) 54.1 mol/L.
c) 34.1 mol/L.
d) 48.1 mol/L.

Q3) Calculate the pH of a solution prepared by mixing 300 mL of 0.10 M HF and 200 mL of 0.10 M
KOH.

a) 2.96
b) 3.53
c) 3.44
d) 2.82

Q4) Two beakers of capacity 500 mL were taken. One of these beakers, labelled as “A”, was filled
with 400 mL water whereas the beaker labelled “B” was filled with 400 mL of 2 M solution of NaCl.
At the same temperature both the beakers were placed in closed containers of same material and
same capacity as shown in Fig. At a given temperature, which of these statement is correct about
the vapour pressure of pure water and that of NaCl solution.

a) vapour pressure in container (A) is less than that in container (B).

b) vapour pressure in container (B) is twice the vapour pressure in container (A).
c) vapour pressure is equal in both the containers.
d) vapour pressure in container (A) is more than that in container (B).

Q5) Which of thse is known as mother liquor?

a) Filtrate
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Solution
Q6) The absolute kinematic viscosity is the ratio of __________

a) Density to absolute viscosity

b) Absolute viscosity to kinetic energy
c) Absolute viscosity to density
d) Kinetic energy to absolute viscosity

Q7) The electrolyte used in the purification of copper is

a) copper nitrate
b) copper chloride
c) copper carbonate
d) copper sulphate

Q8) Medicine bottles are often made with darkened glass _______

a) to allow the photodegradation of drug

b) to prevent the drug from photodegradation
c) to reduce the cost
d) to allow oxidation of drug

Q9) How many grams of NaF would have to be added to 2.00 L of 0.100 M HF to yield a solution
with a pH = 4.00?

a) 300 g
b) 0.84 g
c) 60 g
d) 36 g

Q10) The energy required to vaporize 1 mole of a liquid is known as ____________

a) Molar heat of fusion

b) Molar heat of boiling
c) Molar heat of freezing
d) Molar heat of vaporisation

Q11) Which of these should be done in order to prepare 0.4M NaCl starting with 100ml of 0.3M
NaCl?

a) add 0.01 mol NaCl

b) add 20ml water
c) evaporate 10ml of water
d) add 5.85g of NaCl

Q12) What is called when the reactions which are caused by heat and in absence of light ?

a) Photochemical reactions
b) Reversible reaction
c) Reversible photochemical reaction
d) Dark reactions
Q13) Which of thse statements regarding the solubility of Mg(OH)2 is correct?

a) pH has no effect on the solubility of Mg(OH)2

b) Mg(OH)2 is less soluble at pH 4 than pH 7.
c) Mg(OH)2 is less soluble in 0.1 M MgCl2 solution than in water.
d) All of these

Q14) According to Newton’s law of viscosity, the maximum velocity of flow is at __________

a) Top of the tube

b) Middle of the tube
c) It is same at all the places
d) Bottom of the tube

Q15) Metal ions move through the electrolyte to coat the object which is

a) Nematode
b) Anode
c) Cathode
d) posit rode

MT (CHEMICAL) SAMPLE QUESTIONS

Q1) Consider system A at uniform temperature t and system B at another uniform temperature T (t >
T). Let the two systems be brought into contact and be thermally insulated from their surroundings
but not from each other. Energy will flow from system A to system B because of

a) Energy difference
b) Mass difference
c) Temperature difference
d) Volumetric di
e) fference

Q2) Schmidt number is given by-

a) 2 V/D
b) V/D
c) D/V
d) 2 D/V

Q3) Consider a saturated gas(A.-vapour(B. mixture , if the absolute molal humidity is 0.265 and the
total pressure= 760 mmHg. Find the vapour pressure of B.

a) 600.8 mmHg
 b) 149.21 mmHg
c) 169.21 mmHg
d) 159.21 mmHg

Q4) Laminar flow of a Newtonion fluid ceases to exist, when the Reynolds number exceeds

a) 4000
b) 1500
c) 2100
d) 3000

Q5) Choose the correct statement regarding a catalyst.

a) initiates a reaction.
b) is capable of reacting with any one of the reactants.
c) can not be recovered chemically unchanged at the end of a chemical reaction.
d) lowers the activation energy of reacting molecules.

Q6) Heating of water under atmospheric pressure is an __________ process.

a) Isobaric
b) Isochoric
c) Adiabatic
d) Isothermal

Q7) Find the distillate rate, if a differential condenser is used and the equilibrium relation is given
as x*= 0.2y. Also the rate of feed is 100 mol/hr.

a) 12 mol/hr
b) 33 mol/hr
c) 22 mol/hr
d) 44 mol/hr

Q8) Poly Vinyl Chloride (P.V.C.) is a __________ material.

a) Thermosetting
b) Fibrous
c) chemically active
d) thermoplastic
Q9) An oil cooler in a high performance engine has an outside surface area 0.12 m2 and a surface
temperature of 65 degree Celsius. At any intermediate time air moves over the surface of the
cooler at a temperature of 30 degree Celsius and gives rise to a surface coefficient equal to 45.4 W/
m 2 K. Find out the heat transfer rate?

a) 238.43 W
b) 190.68 W
c) 543.67 W
d) 675.98 W

Q10) What is a coal containing very high percentage of during called?

a) Bright
b) Boghead
c) Splint
d) non-banded

Q11) The conversion for a first order liquid phase reaction. A B in a CSTR is 50%. If another CSTR of
the same volume is connected in series, then what will be % conversion at the exit of the second
reactor ?

a) 60
b) 100
c) 90
d) 75

Q12) A 2 cm thick steel slab heated to 525 degree Celsius is held in air stream having a mean
temperature of 25 degree Celsius. Estimate the time interval when the slab temperature would not
depart from the mean value of 25 degree Celsius by more than 0.5 degree Celsius at any point in
the slab. The steel plate has the following thermal physical properties

Density = 7950 kg/m3

C P = 455 J/kg K

K = 46 W/m K

a) 6548 s
b) 6941 s
c) 4876 s
d) 8760 s

Q13) In which of the cases, it is possible for flow to occur from low pressure to high pressure ?

a) Flow of liquid upward in a vertical pipe.

b) Flow of air downward in a pipe.
c) Flow through a converging section.
d) Impossible in a constant cross-section conduit.
Q14) Which of the sugars is the sweetest?

a) Glucose
b) Sucrose
c) Lactose
d) Fructose

Q15) A heating unit is made in the form of a vertical tube of 50 mm outside diameter and 1.2 m
height. The tube is fitted with 20 steel fins of rectangular section with height 40 mm and thickness
2.5 mm. The temperature at the base of fin is 75 degree Celsius, the surrounding air temperature is
20 degree Celsius and the heat transfer coefficient between the fin as well as the tube surface and
the surrounding air is 9.5 W/m2 K. If thermal conductivity of the fin material is 55 W/m K, find the
amount of heat transferred from the tube with fin

a) 1004.84 W
b) 1234 .98 W
c) 6539.83 W
d) 3829.46 W

MT (CIVIL) SAMPLE QUESTIONS

Q1) If the engineer-in-charge approves, the 10 cm cubes may be used for the work test of concrete
provided maximum nominal size of aggregate, does not exceed:

a) 30 cm
b) 20 cm
c) 15 cm
d) 25 cm

Q2) What is the maximum height through which concrete can be poured?

a) 0.8-1 m
b) 0.1-0.6 m
c) 0.5 m
d) 2m

Q3) Which of these lining material is useful for shield driven tunnels in sub aqueous regions?

a) Stone masonry
b) Timber
c) Cast iron
d) Cement Concrete

Q4) Which of these is not a requirement for site selection of hydroelectric power plant?

a) Sedimentation
b) Large catchment area
c) Rocky land
d) Availability of wate
Q5) Which of these tests are done for quality control of Portland cement,?

a) Soundness
b) Consistency
c) Tensile strength
d) All of these

Q6) Drifters can be used to drill_________________?

a) Only up holes
b) Only down holes
c) Horizontal, down or up holes
d) Horizontal or up holes

Q7) Which of the following methods is used to estimate flood discharge based on high water marks
left over in the past?

a) Area-velocity method
b) Slope-area method
c) Ultrasonic method
d) Moving boat method

Q8) In earthen roads, the common stabilizer used is

a) Cement
b) Lime
c) Bitumen
d) All of these

Q9) What is a plot between rainfall intensity versus time called ?

a) Isohyets
b) Hydrograph
c) Hyetograph
d) mass curve

Q10) An aggregate is said to be flaky if its least dimension is less than:

a) 3/5th of mean dimension

b) 2/5th of mean dimension
c) 4/5th of mean dimension
d) 1/5th of mean dimension

Q11) _________ is prepared on the basis of plinth area of building, the rate being deducted from
the cost of similar building having similar specification, heights and construction, in the locality.

a) Cube Rate Estimate

b) Supplementary Estimate
c) Maintenance Estimate
d) Plinth Area Estimate
Q12) Drift method of tunneling is used to construct tunnels in

a) Soft grounds
b) Rock
c) Self supporting grounds
d) Broken grounds

Q13) What is the initial setting time & final setting time of cement ?

a) 30 minutes & 600 minutes

b) 45 minutes & 600 minutes
c) 30 minutes & 450 minutes
d) 60 minutes & 300 minutes

Q14) When a part of the timber is affected by dry rot, the unaffected portion of the timber should
be painted with a solution of _________

a) Aluminum nitrate
b) Silver chloride
c) Lead acetate
d) Copper sulphate

Q15) The flow-mass curve is an integral curve of

a) The Hyetograph
b) The Hydrograph
c) The flow duration curve
d) The S-curve

MT (ELECTRICAL) SAMPLE QUESTIONS

[1] Which of the following can vary with AC, but never with DC?

A. Power

B. Voltage

C. Frequency

D. Amplitude

[2] The length of time between a point in one cycle and the same point in the next cycle of an ac
wave is the

A. Frequency

B. Magnitude

C. Period

D. Polarity
[3] On a spectrum analyzer, a ac signal having only one frequency component looks like

A. A single pip
B. A sine wave
C. A square wave
D. A saw tooth wave

[4] The period of a ac wave, in seconds is

A. The same as the frequency in hertz

B. Not related to the frequency in any way

C. Equal to 1 divided by the frequency in hertz

D. Equal to the peak amplitude in volts divided by the frequency in hertz

[5] In ac circuit, the ratio of kW/kVA is

A. power factor

B. form factor

C. load factor

D. diversity factor

[6] Suppose that two ac waves have the same frequency but differ in phase by exactly 1/20 of a
cycle. What is the phase difference between these two waves?

A. 18 deg

B. 20 deg

C. 36 deg

D. 5.73 deg

[7] What is the angular frequency of the ac signal having a frequency of 1770 Hz

A. 1770 rad/s

B. 11,120 rad/s

C. 282 rad/s

D. Data insufficient

[8] The venin's equivalent circuit consists of

A. series combination of Rth, Eth, Rl

B. series combination of Rth, Eth

C. parallel combination of Rth, Eth, Rl

D. parallel combination of Rth, Eth

[9] In a HRC fuse the time between cut-off and final current zero, is known as

A. Arcing time

B. Pre-arcing time

C. Total operating time

D. All of these

[10] Resistance of a wire is yΩ..The wire is stretched to triple its length, then the resistance
becomes

A. y/3

B. y/6

C.6y

D. 3y

[11] In the above figure, the relay circuit is divided into three parts. What does the first part consist
of?

A. Secondary of the CT and the operating coil.

B. Primary winding of a current CT which is connected in series with the line to be

protected.

C. Tripping circuit.

D. All of these

[12] The direction of an induced e.m.f. is always such that it tends to set up a current opposing the
motion or the change of flux responsible for inducing that e.m.f.”, this is the statement for?

A. Fleming’s left hand rule

B. Fleming’s right hand rule

C. Faraday’s law"

D. Lenz’s law
[13] In Ideal case, the Charging current for 200Ah battery would be _________ ?

A. 10A
B.15 A
C. 25A
D. 20 A
[14] Which device automatically interrupts the supply in the event of surges?

A. Earthing switch
B. Circuit breaker.
C. Series reactor
D. Isolator
[15] Which of these circuit breaker can be installed on 400 kV line?

A. Vacuum circuit breaker

B. Tank type oil circuit breaker
C. Air blast circuit breaker
D. Miniature circuit breaker

MT ( FIRE AND SAFETY) SAMPLE QUESTIONS

Q1) Which one of these extinguishing properties is NOT consistent with the methods in which a
water spray protection system extinguishes an oil fire?

a) Cooling
b) Reduction of the amount of fuel available
c) Dilution of oxygen supplies
d) Dilution of liquid.

Q2) The term _____________ is used to indicate the amount of heat liberated in kilojoules per
square metre of floor area of any compartment by the combustion of the content of the building
and any combustible part of the building itself.

a) Fire load
b) Combustion
c) Heat liberation
d) Calorific value

Q3) Which class of fire extinguishers should you use on electrically energized fires?

a) Class B
b) Class D
c) Class C
d) Class A

Q4) _____ hydrants are used in areas where freezing temperatures could damage the hydrant.

a) Feeder
b) Wet barrel
c) Warm barrel
d) Dry barrel
Q5) The preferred method of using a fire extinguisher goes by what acronym?

a) Pass
b) Light
c) Fire
d) Putout

Q6) You must have an automatic fire sprinkler system if…

a) it’s a new building with a fire area exceeding 5000 sq. ft.
b) It’s an old building being remodeling or renovated
c) it’s a single tenant expansion requiring a new certificate of occupancy that increases the
fire area beyond 12,000 sq. ft.
d) all of the above

Q7) Which of these materials used for flashings and roofs melts at 327 degree C and therefore
presents a danger of molten metal to firefighters working beneath the roof?

a) Bronze
b) Copper
c) Lead
d) Zinc

Q8) What should be done when the smoke alarm emits intermittent audible signals?

a) replace the smoke alarm

b) replace the battery
c) remove the battery
d) call the Fire Department

Q9) Spontaneous combustion can occur when

a) Candles are used without a glass cover

b) Portable heaters tip over onto a carpet
c) Oil soaked rags are left clumped together or left without soaking in water
d) Grease is used for cooking

Q10) Identify the sign of the image below.

a) Fire Alarm call point

b) Fire Blanket
c) Fire Extinguisher
d) Fire Hose Reel
Q11) The acronym O-A-T-H is used during confined space rescue. What does the O stand for?
a) Ok
b) Onward
c) Oscillate
d) Overturn

Q12) . Which type of fire extinguishing system is most commonly used to protect areas containing
valuable equipment such as data processing rooms, telecommunications switches, and process
control rooms?
a) It’s up to the discretion the employer
b) Portable extinguishing systems
c) Hose extinguishing systems
d) Fixed extinguishing systems

Q13) Ladders used in the fire service have many pieces and parts. Which part is not part of a fire
service ladder?

a) Ropes
b) Pulleys
c) Ream
d) Halyard

Q14) A ______ is a an underground water container made of rock or concrete. It can store as
much as 30,000 gallons of water.

a) Tender
b) Cistern
c) immobile water supply tanker
d) pond

Q15) Which is NOT a type of fire sprinkler system?

a) Pre-Action
b) Dry Pipe
c) Even-Distribution.
d) Deluge

MT (INSTRUMENTATION) SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. If all other factors are kept constant, the inductance of the air-core coil is not affected by
a. The frequency
b The number of turns
c. The diameter of the coil.
d. The length of the coil
2. Resistances can be measured with the help of a …………
a. Wattmeter
b .Voltmeter
c. Ammeter
d. Ohmmeter and Resistance Bridge
3. Capacitance acts to store electrical energy as
a. Current
b. Voltage
c. A magnetic field.
d. An electric field
4. A ferromagnetic core is place in the inductor to
a. Increase the current carrying capacity
b. Increase the inductance
c. Limit the current
d. Reduce the inductance

6. A 1 mA meter is to be converted to 1 A ammeter. The Meter resistance is 100 Ω. The

value of shunt resistance Is

a. 0.001Ω
b 0.1001Ω
c 0.100Ω
d 0.002Ω

7. .………….. Instruments indicate the instantaneous value of the electrical quantity being
measured at the time at which it is being measured?

a. Indicating
b Absolute
c Recording
d. Integrating

8. In 3 phase power measurement by two wattmeter method, the reading of one

wattmeter is zero. The power factor of load is
a. 1
b 0.5
c 0.8
d 0
9. An inductor works by

a. Charging a piece of wire

b. Storing energy as a magnetic field
c. Choking off dc
d. Introducing resistance into a field

10. As capacitor plate area increases

a. The capacitance increases

b. The capacitance decreases

c. The capacitance does not change

d. The current handling ability decreases

11. Magnetic deflection is inversely proportional to a

a. Voltage
b. (voltage)0.5
c. (voltage)1.5
d. (voltage)2

12. The use of ………….. Instruments are merely confined within laboratories as
standardizing instruments.
a. Absolute
b. Indicating
c. Recording
d. Integrating

13. In a CRO which of the following is not a part of electron Gun

a. Cathode
b. Grid
c. Accelerating anode
d. X - Y plates
14. In a small inductance

a. Energy is stored and released slowly

b. The current flow is always large
c. The current flow is always slow
d. Energy is stored and released quickly
15. The unit of inductance is

a. Mho
b. Henry
c. Ohm
d. Farad
16. The most commonly used moving iron instruments are :

a. Repulsion type
b. Attraction type
c. A combination of attraction and repulsion type
d. None of the above

MT (MECHANICAL) SAMPLE QUESTIONS

Q1) What is Scuffing?

a) Lubrication failure
b) Wear due to chemical action by lubricants
c) Surface injury on matting teeth surfaces
d) Surface fatigue failure
Q2) Which has the minimum atomic mass?

a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Sulphur
d) Carbon

Q3) The figure shown below depicts which type of view?

a) Orthographic View
b) Perspective View
c) Axonometric View
d) Oblique View

Q4) A beaker is filled with a liquid up to the mark of one litre and weighed. The weight of the liquid
is found to be 6.5 N. The specific weight of the liquid will be

a) 6:6 kN = m3
b) 6:5 kN = m3
c) 6:7 kN = m3
d) 6:8 kN = m3

Q5) A ________ is a storage reservoir under pressure where a liquid is held under pressure.

a) Hydraulic pump
b) Hydraulic crane
c) Hydraulic accumulator
d) Hydraulic gear

Q6) A piston/cylinder with a cross-sectional area of 0.01 m^2 is resting on the stops. With an
outside pressure of 100 kPa, what should be the water pressure to lift the piston?

a) 198kPa
b) 178kPa
c) 208kPa
d) 188kPa
Q7) What is the correct formula for The Biot number?

a) k/hl
b) l/hk
c) hk/l
d) hl/k

Q8) Spring type accumulator works on the principle of ______

a) Bernouille’s law
b) Charles’ law
c) Hooke’s law
d) Pascal’s law

Q9) _______ aids in cushioning the shock of the hydraulic pressure during the working of the
hydraulic ram

a) Drive pipe
b) Pressure vessel
c) Air bags
d) Inlet valve

Q10) When does the general heat conduction equation which gives the temperature distribution
and conduction heat flow in an isotropic solid reduce to Laplace equation?

a) if the body or element is in unsteady-state with heat generation

b) if the body or element is in steady-state with heat generation
c) if the body or element is in steady-state with no heat generation
d) if the body or element is in unsteady-state with no heat generation

Q11) When is a fluid said to be ideal?

a) Incompressible
b) Viscous and compressible
c) Viscous and Incompressible
d) Non viscous and Incompressible

Q12) A piston-cylinder device initially contains air at 150 kPa and 27°C. At this state, the volume is
400 litre. The mass of the piston is such that a 350 kPa pressure is required to move it. The air is
now heated until its volume has doubled. Determine work done by the air.

a) 140 kJ
b) 100 kJ
c) 130 kJ kJ
d) 120 kJ

Q13) The sun shines on a 150 m2 road surface so it is at 45°C. Below the 5cm thick asphalt(average
conductivity of 0.06 W/m K), is a layer of rubbles at 15°C. Find the rate of heat transfer to the
rubbles.

a) 5600 W
 b) 5500 W
c) 5400 W
d) 5300 W

Q14) An escalator raises a 100 kg bucket of water 10 m in 60 seconds. Determine the amount of
work done during the process.

a) 9307 J
b) 9507 J
c) 9107 J
d) 9807 J

Q15) As the car slows down, the brake shoe and steel drum continuously absorbs 25 W. Assume a
total outside surface area of 0.1 m2 with a convective heat transfer coefficient of 10 W/Km2 to the
air at 20°C. How hot does the outside brake and drum surface become when steady conditions are
reached?

a) 25°C
b) 45°C
c) 35°C
d) 55°C