BIO235 Midterm 2 Answer Key, Spring 2013 Name _____________________________ FORM A

Multiple choice (1pt each): select the best answer and mark it on your scantron sheet.
Use the figure below to answer questions 1-3

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r.c
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ar
Sm
1) In the figure above, G indicates a _________ and L indicates the ____________.
a) muscle fiber : sarcolemma
b) muscle fiber : axon terminal
c) muscle fiber : synaptic cleft
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d) myofibril : axon terminal

e) myofibril : synaptic cleft
Answer: e
d

2) In the figure above, J indicates the _________ and C indicates the ____________.
e

a) axon terminal : sarcoplasmic reticulum

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b) axon terminal : sarcolemma

c) axon terminal : transverse tubule (T tubule)
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d) synaptic cleft : sarcoplasmic reticulum

e) synaptic cleft : sarcolemma
Answer: b
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3) In the figure above, the structures labeled I are the ______. These are attached to the ______.
a) thick filaments (myosin) : I band
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b) thick filaments (myosin) : Z line

c) thick filaments (myosin) : M line
d) thin filaments (actin) : Z line
e) thin filaments (actin) : M line
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Answer: d
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4) A ________, the fundamental repeating unit of the myofibril that gives skeletal muscle its striated appearance, is
bordered by ________.
a) crossbridge : Z lines
b) sarcomere : M lines
c) sarcomere : I bands
d) sarcomere : Z lines
e) crossbridge : A bands
Answer: d, Vander’s  12th, page 253

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5) As the intensity of exercise increases, the muscles switch from oxidative to substrate-level phosphorylation, resulting
in the increased generation of ________.
a) lactic acid
b) water from the electron transport chain
c) glucose
d) fatty acid
e) ATP
Answer: a
Use the figure to the right to answer questions 6-8

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6) The region labeled A refers to the ________.
a) A band
b) H zone

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c) I band
d) thick filaments (myosin)

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e) sarcomere
Answer: e,  Vander’s  12th, page
253

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7) Which of the labeled regions or
structures shortens during

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contraction?

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a) F
b) B Sm
c) C
d) G
e) I
Answer: b, Vander’s  12th, page
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253
8) H indicates the _________ and E
indicates the ____________.
d

a) Z line: M line
b) Z line: I band
e

c) M line : A band
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d) M line : I band
e) M line : Z line
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Answer: e, Vander’s  12th, page 253

9) Which of the following is NOT part of the explanation for the all-or-nothing property of an isometric twitch
contraction of skeletal muscle?
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a) equivalent calcium reuptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum

b) equivalent calcium released by each action potential
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c) equivalent activation of calmodulin stimulating myosin light-chain kinase activity

d) equal numbers of crossbridges activated by the calcium released
e) all-or-nothing property of the action potential generated by a skeletal muscle
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Answer: c
10) Which of the following best describes the relationship between motor neuron size, motor unit size, and order of
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recruitment?
a) small motor neurons : small motor unit : first to be recruited
b) small motor neurons : small motor unit : last to be recruited
c) small motor neurons : large motor unit : first to be recruited
d) small motor neurons : large motor unit : last to be recruited
e) There is no relationship.
Answer: a

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11) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease - that is, a disease in which one's immune system gradually attacks a
part of one's own body, in this case the receptors for acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. Which of the
following drugs might be useful in treating this disease?
a) A drug that inhibits acetylcholinesterase
b) A drug that inhibits release of acetylcholine
c) Curare
d) Atropine (a muscarinic antagonist)
e) All of the choices are correct
Answer: a,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 9, section A.2

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12) The calcium-binding protein in smooth muscle that initiates contraction is calmodulin.
a) True
b) False

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Answer: a,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 9, section B.2
13) Which of the following statements regarding skeletal muscle contraction is true?

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a) The tension developed during the contraction of a muscle fiber is dependent upon the initial length of the fiber
b) There is a positive correlation between muscle-fiber length at the beginning of a contraction and the tension that
can be developed by the fiber: the longer the fiber, the greater the tension

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c) There is a positive correlation between the frequency of action potentials in a single muscle fiber and the tension
it can develop: the greater the frequency, the greater the tension, up to a plateau

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d) Both the tension developed during the contraction of a muscle fiber is dependent upon the initial length of the
fiber and there is a positive correlation between muscle-fiber length at the beginning of a contraction and the

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tension that can be developed by the fiber: the longer the fiber, the greater the tension are true
e) Both the tension developed during the contraction of a muscle fiber is dependent upon the initial length of the
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fiber and there is a positive correlation between the frequency of action potentials in a single muscle fiber and the
tension it can develop: the greater the frequency, the greater the tension, up to a plateau are true
Answer: e,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 9, section A.3
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14) Which of the following statements regarding myosin in skeletal muscle is/are true?
a) Myosin heads contain two functional sites, one for actin and one for tropomyosin
b) Myosin is an ATPase
c) The rate of ATP hydrolysis by myosin is the same in all types of skeletal muscle
d

d) Both myosin heads contain two functional sites, one for actin and one for tropomyosin and myosin is an ATPase
e

are true
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e) All of the choices are true

Answer: b,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 9, section A.4
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15) Malignant hyperthermia is a potentially fatal genetic disorder. When given inhaled anesthetics, patients with
malignant hyperthermia can experience elevated body temperatures, skeletal muscle rigidity, and lactic acidosis.
Which of the following molecular changes could account for these clinical manifestations?
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a) inhibition of ryanodine receptor channels

b) reduction in the density of voltage-sensitive Na+ channels in the T tubular membrane
c) prolonged opening of ryanodine receptor channels
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d) decreased voltage-sensitivity of dihydropyridine receptor channels

e) enhanced activity of the Ca2+ ATPase on the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Answer: c, as long as ryanodine receptor channels on the sarcoplasmic reticulum remain open, Ca2+ will continue to
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flood the sarcoplasm and stimulate contraction. This prolonged contraction results in heat production, muscle
rigidity, and lactic acidosis. In contrast, factors that either inhibit Ca2+ release or stimulate Ca2+ reuptake into the
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sarcoplasmic reticulum, or that prevent either depolarization of the T tubule membrane or the transduction of the
depolarization into Ca2+ release, would favor muscle relaxation.
16) In order to allow discrete contractile events to occur, calcium is rapidly removed from the cytoplasm via ________.
a) calcium pumps (active transport of calcium)
b) dihydropyridine receptors
c) ryanodine channels
d) calcium-sequestering proteins in the cytoplasm
e) calcium-binding proteins on the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Answer: a

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17) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in skeletal muscle excitation-contraction coupling?
a) action potential generated at the  motor  endplate  →  opening  of  voltage-gated L-type Ca2+ channels
(dihydropyridine  receptors)  →  action  potential  propagation  down  the  transverse  tubules  →  opening  of  ryanodine  
receptors  →  increase  in  intracellular  Ca2+ →  binding  of  Ca2+ to  troponin  →  movement  of  tropomyosin  →  binding  
of  myosin  to  actin  →  crossbridge  cycling
b) action  potential  generated  at  the  motor  endplate  →  action  potential  propagation  down  the  transverse  tubules  →  
opening of voltage-gated L-type Ca2+ channels  (dihydropyridine  receptors)  → opening  of  ryanodine  receptors  →  
binding of Ca2+ to  troponin  →  increase  in  intracellular  Ca2+ →  movement  of  tropomyosin  →  binding  of  myosin  to  
actin  →  crossbridge  cycling
c) action  potential  generated  at  the  motor  endplate  →  action  potential  propagation  down the  transverse  tubules  →  

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opening of voltage-gated L-type Ca2+ channels  (dihydropyridine  receptors)  →  opening  of  ryanodine  receptors  →  
increase in intracellular Ca2+ →  movement  of  tropomyosin  →  binding  of  Ca2+ to  troponin  →  binding  of  myosin  to  
actin  →  crossbridge cycling

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d) action  potential  generated  at  the  motor  endplate  →  action  potential  propagation  down  the  transverse  tubules  →  
opening of voltage-gated L-type Ca2+ channels  (dihydropyridine  receptors)  →  opening  of  ryanodine  receptors  →  

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increase in intracellular Ca2+ →  binding  of  Ca2+ to  troponin  →  movement  of  tropomyosin  →  binding  of  myosin  to  
actin  →  crossbridge  cycling
e) action  potential  generated  at  the  motor  endplate  →  action  potential  propagation  down  the  transverse  tubules  →  

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opening of ryanodine receptors  →  opening  of  voltage-gated L-type Ca2+ channels  (dihydropyridine  receptors)  →  
increase in intracellular Ca2+ →  binding  of  Ca2+ to  troponin  →  movement  of  tropomyosin  →  binding  of  myosin  to  

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actin  →  crossbridge  cycling
Answer: d

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18) The myosin in smooth muscle cells differs from that in skeletal muscle in that smooth-muscle myosin requires
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phosphorylation before it can bind to actin.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 9, section B.2
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19) Muscles used for delicate, finely controlled movements have smaller motor units than more coarsely controlled
muscles.
a) True
d

b) False
e

Answer: a,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 9, section A.6

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20) Which of the following statements is true regarding skeletal muscle contraction?
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a) The cross-bridge cycle refers to the sequence of events between the time an individual cross bridge binds to a thin
filament at the start of a muscle contraction and the time the cross bridge releases the filament at the end of the
contraction
b) Excitation-contraction coupling refers to the binding of energized myosin to actin
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c) Binding of myosin to actin cannot take place in the absence of calcium ion
d) A single twitch in skeletal muscle lasts about as long as the action potential that caused it
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e) All of the choices are true

Answer: c,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 9, section A.2
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21) During any isometric twitch in a skeletal muscle,

a) Tension exceeds load
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b) Tetanus occurs
c) Load exceeds tension
d) The whole muscle shortens
Answer: c,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 9, section A.3

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22) While  visiting  Taiwan,  a  person  is  bitten  by  a  krait  snake.    The  venom  from  a  krait  snake  contains  α-bungarotoxin,
which blocks the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor. Which of the following effects might this person exhibit?
a) profound sleepiness
b) nicotine withdrawls
c) seizures
d) uncontrollable muscle contractions
e) paralysis
Answer: e, by  blocking  nicotinic  acetylcholine  receptors,  α-bungarotoxin blocks neuromuscular transmission and can
cause paralysis.

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23) In the figure on the right, oxygenated blood flows into the heart through which structure in the figure above.
a) A
b) B

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c) C
d) D
e) H

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Answer: c, Vander’s  12th – page 359
24) In the figure on the right, oxygenated blood flows

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out of the heart through which structure in the
figure above.

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a) L
b) B

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c) D
d) K Sm
e) M
Answer: d, Vander’s  12th – page 359
25) In the on the right, identify the structures labeled
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F : K : O.
a) right atrium : aorta : left atrium
b) left atrium : aorta : right atrium
c) right atrium : left pulmonary artery : left
d

atrium
e

d) left atrium : left pulmonary artery : right

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atrium
e) right atrium : right pulmonary artery : left
atrium
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Answer: a, Vander’s  12th – page 359

26) If the permeability of the SA node to sodium increases, which of the following do you expect to occur?
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a) the ventricles will contract with greater force

b) the heart rate will decrease
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c) the ventricles will contract with less force

d) the heart rate will increase
e) the action potential conduction velocity of the AV node will increase
Answer: d,  an  increase  in  sodium  permeability  of  the  SA  node  will  cause  the  “resting”  membrane  potential to
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depolarize at a greater rate and thus the threshold for action potential firing will be reached sooner. The rate of action
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potentials in the SA node sets the heart rate.

27) The contractile activity of smooth muscle cells within ________ is primarily involved in the control of the organ
blood flow and mean arterial pressure.
a) arterioles
b) capillaries
c) arteries
d) venules
e) veins
Answer: a

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28) Which of the following equations correctly relates flow, pressure, and resistance?
a) Flow = Pressure × Resistance
b) Pressure = Flow × Resistance
c) Resistance = Flow × Pressure
d) Flow = Pressure + Resistance
e) Flow = Pressure - Resistance
Answer: b
29) During exercise, which organs receive an increase in the proportion of cardiac output delivered to it?
a) brain and heart

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b) skeletal muscle, heart, and brain
c) skeletal muscle, skin and brain
d) skeletal muscle, heart, and skin

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e) gastrointestinal tract and skeletal muscle
Answer: d, the increased blood flow to the skin is apparent from your own experience, as people become flush while
exercising.

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30) Intrinsic control of organ blood flow refers to the fact that ________.
a) baroreceptor reflex controls organ resistance

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b) sympathetic nervous activity regulates organ resistance
c) arteries respond to local factors that regulate the resistance to blood flow through an organ

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d) arterioles respond to local factors that regulate the resistance to blood flow through an organ
e) withdrawal of parasympathetic activity allows the sympathetic system to regulate organ resistance

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Answer: d
31) Which of the following equations is correct?
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a) cardiac output = stroke volume × heart rate
b) cardiac output = mean arterial pressure × total peripheral resistance
c) resistance = (length × radius4) / viscosity
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d) mean arterial pressure = cardiac output × stroke volume

e) mean arterial pressure = resistance × viscosity
Answer: a
d

32) Chemicals released by metabolically active cells will cause which of the following?
a) relaxation of arteriolar smooth muscle to increase blood flow
e

b) relaxation of capillary smooth muscle to decrease blood flow

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c) contraction of arteriolar smooth muscle to increase blood flow

d) contraction of arteriolar smooth muscle to decrease blood flow
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e) contraction of capillary smooth muscle to increase blood flow

Answer: a
33) Which of the below set of changes will occur in response to a decrease in sympathetic stimulation?
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Venous Return Heart Rate Cardiac Contractility

a) ↑ ↑ ↑
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b) ↑ ↓ ↑
c) ↓ ↑ ↑
d) ↑ ↑ ↓
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e) ↓ ↓ ↓
Answer: e
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34) Which of the following changes would most increase the resistance to blood flow in a blood vessel?
a) Halving the diameter of the vessel
b) Doubling the diameter of the vessel
c) Halving the length of the vessel
d) Doubling the length of the vessel
e) Decreasing the hematocrit from 50% to 40%
Answer: a,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 12, section A.2

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35) On the pressure-volume relationship of the left ventricle in the figure to the right, which phase of the cardiac cycle
occurs between points B and C?
a) Isovolumetric contraction
b) Ventricular ejection
c) Isovolumetric relaxation
d) Ventricular filling
e) Atrial contraction
Answer: a, the period of ventricular filling is between
points A and B. The period of isovolumetric contraction is
between points B and C, and the period of ejection is

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between points C and D. The period of isovolumetric
relaxation is between points D and A.

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36) For the pressure-volume relationship of the left ventricle in
the figure to the right, assume the cardiac output is 10000
ml/min and the arterial pressure is 140/70 mmHg. What is

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the heart rate?
a) 60 BPM

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b) 75 BPM
c) 100 BPM
d) 120 BPM

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e) 140 BPM
Answer: c, heart rate can be determined from: cardiac

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Guyton & Hall, Medical Physiology, 11th ed.
output = heart rate x stroke volume. The cardiac output is
10000 ml/min and the stroke volume is 100 ml (C to D). Thus, the heart rate is 100 beats/minute.
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37) Which of the following statements concerning the differences between action potentials in skeletal muscle cells and
in ventricular cardiac muscle cells is true?
a) Like skeletal muscle cells, ventricular cardiac-muscle cells have a resting membrane potential closer to the
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sodium equilibrium potential than to the potassium equilibrium potential

b) Unlike skeletal muscle cells, the initial depolarization of ventricular cells is mainly due to calcium influx, not
sodium influx
d

c) After sodium influx through fast channels occurs in ventricular cells, an influx of calcium occurs. No such
e

calcium influx occurs after sodium influx in the skeletal muscle cells
d) Action potentials in skeletal muscle cells are longer in duration than action potentials in cardiac cells
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e) All of the choices are true

Answer: c,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 12, section B.2
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38) The aortic valve

a) Prevents the backflow of blood into the aorta during ventricular diastole
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b) Prevents the backflow of blood into the left ventricle during ventricular diastole
c) Prevents the backflow of blood into the left ventricle during ventricular ejection
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d) Prevents the backflow of blood into the aorta during ventricular ejection
e) Closes when the first heart sound is heard
Answer: b,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 12, section B.3
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39) The heart valves open and close due to

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a) Stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves

b) A pressure difference on the two sides of the valve
c) Na+ and K+ fluxes during ventricular depolarization
d) Turbulent flow in the atria and ventricles
e) None of the choices are correct
Answer: b,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 12, section B.3

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40) With regard to the regulation of heart rate,
a) Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate
b) Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate
c) A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally
innervated heart
d) Both stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate and stimulation of
sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate are true
e) All of the choices are true
Answer: e,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 12, section B.4

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41) According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
a) The left ventricle ejects a larger volume of blood with each systole than the right ventricle
b) The intrinsic rate of the heart's pacemaker is 100 beats/min

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c) Cardiac output increases with increased heart rate
d) Stroke volume increases with increased venous return

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e) Both ventricles contract simultaneously
Answer: d,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 12, section B.4

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42) If the arterial blood pressure in the brain is suddenly decreased, the flow through arterioles in the brain will
immediately fall and then return to near their original levels due to flow autoregulation.

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a) This statement is false. The arterioles of the brain do not exhibit flow autoregulation to any significant extent
b) This statement is false. The flow of blood will only rise

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c) This statement is false. The flow of blood will only fall
d) This statement is false. The flow of blood will not change
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e) This statement is true
Answer: e,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 12, section C.2

43) Normally, the hydrostatic pressure difference between capillary fluid and interstitial fluid favors movement of fluid
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(into/out of) the capillary. The osmotic pressure difference between capillary fluid and interstitial fluid favors
movement of fluid (into/out of) the capillary.
a) Into; into
b) Into; out of
d

c) Out of; out of

e

d) Out of; into

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Answer: d,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 12, section C.3

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44) Increased concentrations of plasma proteins, increased venous pressure, and lymphatic obstruction all tend to cause
tissue edema
a) True
b) False
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Answer: b,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 12, section E.5

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45) Left ventricular failure may result in increased net pulmonary capillary filtration into the interstitial fluid of the lungs
and a resulting decrease in the diffusional exchange of O2 and CO2 between lung and blood.
a) True
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b) False
Answer: a,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 12, section E.5
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46) What is mainly responsible for the delay between the atrial and ventricular contractions?
a) the action potential conduction velocity of the ventricles
b) the action potential conduction velocity of the AV node cells
c) the action potential conduction velocity of the Purkinje fibers
d) the  shallow  depolarizing  slope  of  the  “resting”  membrane  potential  in  the  SA  node
e) the low resistance of the AV node
Answer: b, the AV node cells have the slowest rate of conduction of the cardiac action potential. This helps to
ensure that the artia finish contracting before the ventricles begin to contract.

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47) Which of the following vessels has the greatest total cross-sectional area in the circulatory system?
a) aorta
b) small arteries
c) capillaries
d) venules
e) arterioles
Answer: c

48) The hydrostatic and osmotic pressures across a muscle capillary are as follows: capillary hydrostatic pressure, 25
mmHg; plasma osmotic pressure, 25 mmHg; interstitial hydrostatic pressure, 0 mmHg; and interstitial osmotic

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pressure, 10 mmHg. What is the net pressure for fluid movement outward through the capillary pores?
a) 0 mmHg
b) 5 mmHg

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c) 10 mmHg
d) 15 mmHg

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e) 20 mmHg
Answer: c, the net pressure for fluid movement outward through a capillary wall = (capillary hydrostatic pressure +
interstitial osmotic pressure) – (interstitial hydrostatic pressure + plasma osmotic pressure). Thus, the net filtration

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pressure is (25 + 10) – (0 + 25) = 10

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49) Which of the following is the correct conduction pathway through the heart?
a) Purkinje fibers; bundle of His; bundle branches; SA node; AV node

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b) SA node; AV node; bundle of His; bundle branches; Purkinje fibers
c) AV node; SA node; bundle branches; bundle of His; Purkinje fibers
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d) Bundle of His; bundle branches; Purkinje fibers; SA node; AV node
e) SA node; Purkinje fibers; AV node; bundle of His; bundle branches
Answer: b
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50) Sinoatrial node cells

a) Are normally the pacemakers of the heart
b) Exhibit spontaneous depolarization that is speeded by activation of their cholinergic receptors
c) Exhibit spontaneous depolarization that is speeded by activation of their beta-adrenergic receptors
d

d) Both are normally the pacemakers of the heart and exhibit spontaneous depolarization that is speeded by
e

activation of their cholinergic receptors are correct

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e) Both are normally the pacemakers of the heart and exhibit spontaneous depolarization that is speeded by
activation of their beta-adrenergic receptors are correct
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Answer: e,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 12, section B.4

51) During isovolumetric ventricular contraction,

a) Rapid filling of the ventricles occurs
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b) No blood enters or leaves the ventricles

c) The maximum volume of blood is ejected
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d) Ventricular pressure is at a maximum

e) None of these things would occur
Answer: b,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 12, section B.3
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52) Which of the following statements about the cardiac cycle is true?
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a) The duration of systole is greater than that of diastole

b) During isovolumetric ventricular relaxation, blood flows from the atria into the ventricles
c) Closure of the atrioventricular valves occurs at the onset of systole
d) Both the duration of systole is greater than that of diastole and during isovolumetric ventricular relaxation, blood
flows from the atria into the ventricles are true
e) Both during isovolumetric ventricular relaxation, blood flows from the atria into the ventricles and closure of the
atrioventricular valves occurs at the onset of systole are true
Answer: c,  Vander’s  12th  - see Ch. 12, section B.3

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53) The semilunar valve on the left side of the heart opens when the pressure in the ________ exceeds the pressure in the
________.
a) left ventricle : aorta
b) aorta : left ventricle
c) left atrium : left ventricle
d) left ventricle : left atrium
e) right ventricle : left ventricle
Answer: a
54) The volume of air that reaches the respiratory zone each minute is referred to as ________.

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a) alveolar ventilation
b) tidal volume
c) total lung capacity

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d) minute ventilation
e) pulmonary ventilation
Answer: a

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55) A majority of the CO2 that is transported in the blood is present ________.
a) as bicarbonate (HCO3-) in RBCs

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b) as bicarbonate (HCO3-) in plasma
c) dissolved in plasma

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d) bound to hemoglobin
e) bound to carbonic anhydrase

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Answer: b
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56) During active breathing, bursts of action potentials are observed to occur ________.
a) exclusively in the inspiratory motor neurons
b) simultaneously in the inspiratory and expiratory motor neurons
c) exclusively in the expiratory motor neurons
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d) synchronously in the inspiratory and expiratory motor neurons

e) asynchronously in the inspiratory and expiratory motor neurons
Answer: e
d

57) Chemoreceptors respond primarily to changes in PCO2 indirectly by its effect on ________.
e

a) glucose concentration
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b) PO2
c) lactic acid concentration
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d) hydrogen ion concentration

e) hemoglobin concentration
Answer: d
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58) Functions of the respiratory system include each of the following except
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a) Exchange of carbon dioxide from the air with oxygen from the blood
b) Regulation of blood H+ concentration
c) Trapping of blood clots
d) Phonation
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e) Defense against microbes

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Answer: a,  Vander’s  12th, Section 13.09, Bloom's Level: 1. Remember

59) The pleural sac

a) Protects lungs from infection
b) Prevents collapse of the lungs
c) Contains a large volume of surfactant
d) Supports the chest wall and keeps it from collapsing into lungs
e) Both prevents collapse of the lungs and supports the chest wall and keeps it from collapsing into lungs are correct
Answer: b,  Vander’s  12th, Section 13.01, Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Dr. Andrew Voss, California State Polytechnic University, Pomona
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60) Which of the following drugs, administered as an aerosol spray, would be most likely to help a victim of respiratory
distress syndrome of the newborn?
a) Pulmonary surfactant
b) A beta-adrenergic agonist
c) A muscarinic agonist
d) Histamine
e) A beta-adrenergic antagonist
Answer: a,  Vander’s  12th, Section 13.02, Bloom's Level: 3. Apply

61) During a physical examination, Joe learns that his resting tidal volume is 500 ml; his average resting respiratory rate

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is 12 breaths per minute; his total lung capacity is 6000 ml; and his anatomic dead space is 150 ml. Joe's resting
alveolar ventilation is
a) 72.0 L/min

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b) 6.0 L/min
c) 4.2 L/min

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d) 1.8 L/min
e) 0.5 L/min
Answer: c,  Vander’s  12th, Section 13.02, Bloom's Level: 3. Apply

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62) Hyperventilation results in

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a) Increased alveolar PCO2 and decreased alveolar PO2
b) Increased alveolar PCO2 and PO2

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c) Decreased alveolar PCO2 and increased alveolar PO2
d) Decreased alveolar PCO2and PO2
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e) No change in alveolar PCO2gas concentrations
Answer: c,  Vander’s  12th, Section 13.03, Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
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63) During moderate exercise, increased arterial PCO2 and hydrogen ion concentration and decreased arterial PO2 are all
readily demonstrated, and thus are probably the signals for increased ventilation.
a) True
d

b) False
Answer: b,  Vander’s  12th, Section 13.07, Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
e
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Use the normal oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve during resting conditions to answer question 64 & 65
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64) Which of the following are the approximate values of hemoglobin

saturation (% Hb-O2) and PO2 for the blood leaving the lungs
(oxygenated blood) and the blood returning to the lungs from the
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tissues (reduced blood)?

Oxygenated Blood Reduced Blood
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% Hb-O2 PO2 % Hb-O2 PO2

a) 100 100 80 42
b) 100 100 30 20
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c) 100 100 75 40
d) 90 100 60 30
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e) 98 140 75 40
Answer: c, pulmonary venous blood is nearly 100% saturated
with oxygen, has a PO2 of about 100 mmHg. The tissues under
resting conditions use approximately 25% of the oxygen carried in
the arterial blood. Thus, reduced blood returning to the lungs is
about 75% per cent saturated with oxygen and has a PO2 of about
40 mmHg.

Dr. Andrew Voss, California State Polytechnic University, Pomona

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65) What factors would cause the curve to shift to the right?
a) increases in H+, CO2 and temperature
b) increases in H+, O2 and temperature
c) increases in pH, CO2 and temperature
d) decreases in H+, CO2 and temperature
e) decreases in H+, O2 and temperature
Answer: a, increases in H+, CO2 and temperature shift the curve to the right. This enhances the release of oxygen
from hemoglobin and is called the Bohr shift.

66) Most of the O2 carried in the blood is dissolved in plasma.

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a) True
b) False
Answer: b,  Vander’s  12th, Section 13.04, Bloom's Level: 1. Remember

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67) A person has a pulmonary compliance of 0.25 L/ cm H2O. If the pleural pressure changes from -5 cm H2O to -7 cm

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H2O during inhalation, how much air was inhaled?
a) 0.5 liters
b) 0.75 liters

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c) 1.0 liters
d) 1.5 liters

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e) 2.0 liters
Answer: a,  compliance  (C)  is  equal  to  the  change  in  volume  (ΔV)  that  occurs  for  a  given  change  in  pressure  (ΔP),  

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that  is  C  =  ΔV  /  ΔP.    The  problem  provides  C  and  ΔP,  use  the  basic  compliance  relationship  to  determine  the  volume,
that  is  ΔV  =  C  x  ΔP  (0.25  x  2  =  0.5).    Just  use  the  units.
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68) As humidity increases, the partial pressure of oxygen in air ________.
a) increases as the total pressure of air increases
b) increases as the total pressure of air remains the same
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c) decreases as the total pressure of air increases

d) decreases as the total pressure of air remains the same
e) does not change
d

Answer: d
e

69) The continuous exchange of gases between the blood and alveolar air in the lungs results in a partial pressure of
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________.
a) water vapor in the alveoli that is lower than in atmospheric air
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b) nitrogen in the alveoli that is higher than in atmospheric air

c) oxygen in the alveoli that is lower than in atmospheric air
d) carbon dioxide in the alveoli that is lower than in atmospheric air
e) carbon dioxide in the blood that is lower than in the alveoli
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Answer: c
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70) Which of the following will increase alveolar PO2?

a) Increase in metabolism and no change in alveolar ventilation
b) Increase in metabolism matched by an increase in alveolar ventilation
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c) No change in metabolism with an increase in alveolar ventilation

d) Decrease in metabolism matched by a decrease in alveolar ventilation
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e) Decrease in metabolism matched by an even greater decrease in alveolar ventilation

Answer: c, an increase in alveolar PO2 results from an increase alveolar ventilation (supply of oxygen) relative to
metabolic rate (consumption of oxygen).

Dr. Andrew Voss, California State Polytechnic University, Pomona

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