Chapter 9
Human Resource Management: Getting the Right People for Managerial
Success
1) ________ includes the activities managers perform to plan for, attract, develop, and retain
an effective workforce.
A) Personnel development
B) Contingency planning
C) Job analysis
D) Human resource management
E) Performance appraisal
Answer: D
Explanation: Human resource management (HRM) consists of the activities managers
perform to plan for, attract, develop, and retain an effective workforce.
2) Which of the following is NOT part of the strategic human resource management process?
A) Plan for human resources needs.
B) Establish a grand strategy.
C) Recruit and select people.
D) Orient, train, and develop personnel.
E) Negotiate employment contracts.
Answer: E
Explanation: The steps of the strategic human resource management process are to
establish the mission and the vision; establish the grand strategy; formulate the strategic
plans; plan human resources needed; recruit and select people; orient, train, and develop;
and finally, perform appraisals of people. (See Figure 9.1.)
3) What is the final step in the strategic human resource management process?
A) Plan future human resources needs.
B) Recruit and select people.
C) Assess success of the recruitment process.
D) Perform appraisals of people.
E) Orient, train, and develop people.
Answer: D
Explanation: The steps of the strategic human resource management process are to
establish the mission and the vision; establish the grand strategy; formulate the strategic
plans; plan human resources needed; recruit and select people; orient; train, and develop;
and finally, perform appraisals of people. (See Figure 9.1.)
4) ________ capital is the economic or productive potential of employee knowledge and
actions.
A) Human
B) Labor
C) Social
D) Potential
E) Productivity
Answer: A
Explanation: Human capital is the economic or productive potential of employee knowledge
and actions.
5) ________ capital is the economic or productive potential of strong, trusting, and
cooperative relationships. This type of capital can help you land a job; a national survey of
recruiters revealed that 74 percent had found the highest-quality applicants through
employee referrals.
A) Relational
B) Social
C) Personal
D) Productivity
E) Human
Answer: B
Explanation: Social capital is the economic or productive potential of strong, trusting, and
cooperative relationships. This type of capital can help you land a job; a national survey of
recruiters revealed that 74 percent had found the highest-quality applicants through
employee referrals.
Difficulty: 2 Medium
6) ________ is the purpose of the strategic human resource process.
A) Maintaining a stable workforce for minimum expense
B) Informing the grand strategy
C) Formulating human resource-sensitive strategic plans
D) Getting optimal work performance to help realize the company's mission and vision
E) Finding the human resources needed in a timely fashion
Answer: D
Explanation: The purpose of the strategic human resource process is to get the optimal work
performance that will help the company's mission and goals (see Figure 9.1).
7) A specialist at FedEx who rides with couriers to learn about delivery time measurements
and potential service problems is conducting a job
A) analysis.
B) specification.
C) posting.
D) description.
E) rotation.
Answer: A
Explanation: The purpose of job analysis is to determine, by observation and analysis, the
basic elements of a job. Specialists who interview employees about what they do, observe
the flow of work, and learn how results are accomplished. For example, FedEx has
specialists who ride with the couriers and time how long it takes to deliver a load of packages
and note what problems are encountered (traffic jams, vicious dogs, recipients not home, and
so on).
8) Sylvia had been working as an executive assistant to the president for nearly 25 years, so
when she retired, no one had a good idea of all that her job entailed. Before Sylvia retired,
Meaghan sat with her for two weeks to observe her duties and ask her to explain all the
functions she performs as executive assistant to the president. Meaghan was performing a(n)
A) behavioral-description interview.
B) performance appraisal.
C) informal appraisal.
D) job rotation.
E) job analysis.
Answer: E
Explanation: The purpose of a job analysis is to determine, by observation and analysis, the
basic elements of a job. Specialists interview job occupants about what they do, observe the
flow of work, and learn how results are accomplished.
9) A ________ summarizes what the holder of the job does and how and why he or she does
it. For example, this document might state, "In this job, the worker delivers pizzas within a 10-
mile radius of the pizzeria, quickly and promptly, while obeying all traffic laws and driving
responsibly."
A) job analysis
B) realistic job preview
C) job specification
D) job description
E) performance appraisal
Answer: D
Explanation: Once the fundamentals of a job are understood, then you can write a job
description, which summarizes what the holder of the job does and how and why he or she
does it.
10) In considering the staffing an organization might need in the future, human resource
managers should
A) focus efforts on replacing those who retire or resign.
B) assume that the organization will not change much.
C) assume that there will be radical changes in the supply of labor and the nature of the
organization's jobs, and therefore defer planning.
D) hire 10% more people than were needed last year to cover possible growth.
E) understand the organization's vision and strategy in order to hire personnel to support
them.
Answer: E
Explanation: Better than assuming the status quo is to assume the organization will change.
Thus, human resource managers need to understand the organization's vision and strategic
plan so that they can hire the best people to meet the future strategies and work.
11) A(n) ________ is a report listing an organization's employees by name, education,
training, languages, and other important information.
A) performance appraisal
B) skills record
C) human resource inventory
D) job analysis
E) employee database
Answer: C
Explanation: A human resource inventory is a report listing your organization's employees by
name, education, training, languages, and other important information.
12) To ________, Lance, an HR manager, used reports from the U.S. Bureau of Labor
Statistics and the U.S. Census Bureau for information about his industry's labor pool in his
geographic area.
A) perform a job analysis
B) recruit from inside the organization
C) recruit from outside the organization
D) develop an affirmative action program
E) analyze human capital
Answer: C
Explanation: You can recruit employees from either inside or outside the organization. In
looking outside, you need to consider the availability of talent in your industry's and
geographic area's labor pool, the training of people graduating, and such factors as what kind
of people are moving into your area. The U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics and the U.S.
Census Bureau issue reports on such matters.
33) The ________ enforce(s) procedures allowing employees to vote to have a union and for
collective bargaining.
A) Fair Labor Standards Act
B) National Labor Relations Board
C) Civil Rights Acts
D) Occupational Safety and Health Department
E) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Answer: B
Explanation: Legislation passed in 1935 (the Wagner Act) resulted in the National Labor
Relations Board, which enforces procedures whereby employees vote to have a union and
for collective bargaining. Collective bargaining consists of negotiations between management
and employees about disputes over compensation, benefits, working conditions, and job
security.
14) Which piece of legislation first established the U.S. federal minimum wage?
A) Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA)
B) Social Security Act
C) Civil Rights Act
D) Occupational Safety and Health Act
E) Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938
Answer: E
Explanation: Passage of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 established minimum living
standards for workers engaged in interstate commerce, including provision of a federal
minimum wage.
15) The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission was established by the
A) Equal Pay Act.
B) Wagner Act.
C) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.
D) Occupational Safety and Health Act.
E) Social Security Act.
Answer: C
Explanation: The effort to reduce discrimination in employment based on racial, ethnic, and
religious bigotry and gender stereotypes began with Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
This act established the Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO) Commission, which enforces
antidiscrimination laws.
16) Which of the following helps guarantee nonhazardous working conditions for employees?
A) Civil Rights Act
B) Fair Labor Standards Act
C) Occupational Safety and Health Act
D) National Labor Relations Board
E) Sarbanes–Oxley Act
Answer: C
Explanation: Beginning with the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) of 1970, a body
of law has grown that requires organizations to provide employees with nonhazardous
working conditions (most recently augmented by an update to the Toxic Substances Control
Act of 1975).
17) The ________ is a law that requires an extension of health insurance benefits after
termination.
A) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
B) Social Security Act
C) Civil Rights Act
D) Occupational Safety and Health Act
E) Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)
Answer: E
Explanation: The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) requires an
extension of health insurance benefits after termination.
18) The ________ requires employers with more than 50 employees to provide health
insurance.
A) Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
B) Social Security Act
C) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
D) Occupational Safety and Health Act
E) Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)
Answer: A
Explanation: The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act requires employers with more
than 50 employees to provide health insurance. More than 60 percent of working-age
Americans who signed up for Medicaid or a private health plan through the Affordable Care
Act get health care they previously couldn't get.
19) A Seattle-based software firm, Sysco, was growing rapidly and hiring frequently, but it
primarily focused on campus recruiting at two Washington universities, UW and Seattle
University. When one 45-year-old candidate did not get an interview after a phone screening,
he went to the company's website and noted all of the young people in charge. Which law
allows him to file a lawsuit against Sysco alleging discrimination?
A) Age Discrimination in Employment
B) Civil Rights Act
C) Sarbanes–Oxley Act
D) Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)
E) Americans with Disabilities Act
Answer: A
Explanation: The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) prohibits discrimination in
employees over 40 years old and restricts mandatory retirement.
20) Lacey has a degenerative eye disease that is causing her to gradually lose her eyesight.
When Lacey asked her employer, Ideal Accessories, to purchase a low-vision computer for
her use at work, she was fired. Ideal Accessories has violated the
A) Family and Medical Leave Act.
B) Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA).
C) Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA).
D) Privacy Act.
E) Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act.
Answer: B
Explanation: The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) prohibits discrimination against
essentially qualified employees with physical or mental disabilities or chronic illness, and
requires "reasonable accommodation" be provided so they can perform their job duties.
21) ________ occurs when people are hired or promoted, or denied hiring or promotion, for
reasons not relevant to the job.
A) Affirmative action
B) A hostile working environment
C) Quid pro quo
D) Bullying
E) Discrimination
Answer: E
Explanation: Discrimination occurs when people are hired or promoted, or denied hiring or
promotion, for reasons not relevant to the job, such as skin color or eye shape, gender,
religion, national origin, and the like.
22) After being referred by a friend, Hedyeh attended a job interview. She didn't feel it went
well, but she was surprised when her friend told her the boss didn't like that Hedyeh had worn
her hijab, a traditional headscarf worn by Muslim women. The boss told a coworker after the
interview, "Our customers prefer working with Christians." Hedyeh is a victim of
A) affirmative action.
B) discrimination.
C) quid pro quo.
D) favoritism.
E) a hostile work environment.
Answer: B
Explanation: Discrimination occurs when people are hired or promoted, or denied hiring or
promotion, for reasons not relevant to the job, such as skin color or eye shape, gender,
religion, national origin, and the like.
23) Which type of workplace discrimination occurs when an organization uses an
employment practice that results in unfavorable outcomes to a protected class?
A) disparate treatment
B) reverse discrimination
C) unequal application
D) harassment
E) adverse impact
Answer: E
Explanation: There are two types of workplace discrimination, adverse impact and disparate
treatment. Adverse impact occurs when an organization uses an employment practice or
procedure that results in unfavorable outcomes to a protected class (such as Hispanics) over
another group of people (such as non-Hispanic whites).
24) If a firm gives all international assignments to people without disabilities, assuming they
will therefore not require special accommodations, which type of workplace discrimination
has occurred?
A) adverse impact
B) reverse discrimination
C) harassment
D) wage gap
E) disparate treatment
Answer: E
Explanation: There are two types of workplace discrimination: adverse impact and disparate
treatment. Disparate treatment results when employees from protected groups (such as
individuals with disabilities) are intentionally treated differently. An example would be making
a decision to give all international assignments to people with no disabilities because of the
assumption that they won't need any special accommodations related to travel.
25) For years, a mathematics professor experienced abusive behavior at a community
college where he taught. It began with a few deans spreading rumors and false accusations
that threatened his job. The abuse was emotionally draining and took time and focus away
from his job. The professor was the victim of
A) reverse discrimination.
B) bullying.
C) disparate treatment.
D) quid pro quo.
E) adverse impact.
Answer: B
Explanation: Bullying is repeated mistreatment of one or more persons by one or more
perpetrators; it is abusive physical, psychological, verbal, or nonverbal behavior that is
threatening, humiliating, or intimidating.
26) Which of the following statements about sexual harassment is true?
A) A hostile work environment is characterized by a tangible economic harm.
B) A person who feels he or she must acquiesce to a sexual proposition to keep his or her
job is facing quid pro quo harassment.
C) The organization cannot be sued for sexual harassment as long as its managers did not
know about the situation.
D) Uninvited hugging or patting someone is not considered sexual harassment.
E) Sexual harassment is defined as occurring between members of the opposite sex.
Answer: B
Explanation: In the quid pro quo type of sexual harassment, the person to whom the
unwanted sexual attention is directed is put in the position of jeopardizing being hired for a
job or obtaining job benefits or opportunities unless he or she implicitly or explicitly
acquiesces.
27) Marlene works in a manufacturing facility, Carz Parts. Throughout the building there were
posters and calendars of a sexually explicit nature, making Marlene very uncomfortable. Carz
Parts
A) has a hostile work environment.
B) has no legal worries because none of the offensive materials are directed at Marlene.
C) practices sexual discrimination.
D) has no legal worries because Marlene is not suffering any economic injury.
E) is engaging in quid pro quo harassment.
Answer: A
Explanation: In the hostile environment type of sexual harassment, the person being
sexually harassed doesn't risk economic harm but experiences an offensive or intimidating
work environment.
28) ________ is the process of locating and attracting qualified applicants for jobs open in
the organization.
A) Recruiting
B) Selection
C) Hiring
D) Job posting
E) Interviewing
Answer: A
Explanation: Recruiting is the process of locating and attracting qualified applicants for jobs
open in the organization.
29) ________ entails job posting, which means placing information about job vacancies and
qualifications in places where employees can see them such as on bulletin boards or the
company's intranet.
A) Job analysis
B) Realistic job previewing
C) Position advertising
D) Internal recruiting
E) External recruiting
Answer: D
Explanation: Most vacant positions in organizations are filled through internal recruitment,
mainly through job posting, which means placing information about job vacancies and
qualifications on bulletin boards, in newsletters, and on the organization's intranet.
Difficulty: 1 Easy
30) Which of the following is the most effective source of new employees?
A) private employment agencies
B) newspaper and LinkedIn ads
C) employee referrals
D) college recruiters
E) unions
Answer: C
Explanation: In general, the most effective sources are employee referrals because, to
protect their own reputations, employees are fairly careful about whom they recommend, and
they know the qualifications of both the job and the prospective employee.
31) Compared to internal recruiting, which of the following is true of external recruiting?
A) It encourages greater employee loyalty.
B) The process is more expensive and takes longer.
C) It creates the need for multiple recruitments.
D) The pool of talent is more limited.
E) The process is cheaper.
Answer: B
Explanation: Among the disadvantages of external recruitment is that the process is more
expensive and takes longer.
32) When Jorge became one of three final candidates for a managerial position with a large
pharmaceutical company, the hiring manager scheduled a special meeting with him. The two
talked about the stressful deadlines and heavy travel required of the position, as well as the
compensation and benefits. Jorge appreciated that the hiring manager took the time to
provide a(n)
A) behavioral-description interview.
B) performance appraisal.
C) unstructured interview.
D) situational interview.
E) realistic job preview.
Answer: E
Explanation: A realistic job preview gives a candidate a picture of both positive and negative
features of the job and the organization before he or she is hired. This recruiting technique is
very effective at reducing turnover within 30–90 days of employment.
33) A(n) ________ is susceptible to legal attack because some questions may infringe on
non-job-related matters such as privacy, diversity, or disability.
A) realistic job preview
B) situational interview
C) performance interview
D) behavioral-description interview
E) unstructured interview
Answer: E
Explanation: The unstructured interview has been criticized as being overly subjective and
apt to be influenced by the biases of the interviewer. It is susceptible to legal attack because
some questions may infringe on non-job-related matters such as privacy, diversity, or
disability.
34) During a(n) ________, Marcia asked Joaquim to tell her about the actions he took to
overcome some sort of adversity.
A) realistic job preview
B) performance interview
C) situational interview
D) unstructured interview
E) behavioral description interview
Answer: E
Explanation: In a behavioral-description interview, the interviewer explores what applicants
have actually done in the past.
45) Which of the following is a good suggestion for managers when conducting interviews?
A) Ask about the candidate's family to show personal interest.
B) After the interview, write a short report with a quantitative score of the candidate's
qualifications.
C) Do more than half of the talking to make sure you are sharing enough about the company
and its culture.
D) Ask questions spontaneously to get the most straightforward answers from the candidate.
E) The résumé should be used for selection of interview candidates only; ignore it thereafter.
Answer: B
Explanation: After an interview, managers should write a short report making some sort of
quantitative score of the candidate's qualifications and also indicate reasons for those
decisions. The manager should also check references at this point if another interview is to
be scheduled.
36) According to the law, which of the following is considered an employment test?
A) only personality tests
B) only interviews and personality tests
C) small talk before and after the interview
D) only application forms
E) any procedure used in the employment selection decision process
Answer: E
Explanation: Employment tests are legally considered to consist of any procedure used in
the employment-selection decision process. Thus, even application forms, interviews, and
educational requirements are now considered tests.
37) The Myers–Briggs Type Indicator is a(n) ________ test.
A) personality
B) reliability
C) performance
D) ability
E) character
Answer: A
Explanation: One of the most famous personality tests, in existence for 75-plus years, is the
93-question Myers–Briggs Type Indicator, with millions of tests given each year throughout
the world.
38) When Jasmine interviewed for a position as a computer programmer, she was asked to
take a test on a particular programming language. Jasmine took a(n) ________ test.
A) ability
B) personality
C) aptitude
D) performance
E) capability
Answer: D
Explanation: Performance tests, or skills tests, measure performance on actual job tasks—
so-called job tryouts—as when computer programmers take a test on a particular
programming language or middle managers work on a small sample project.
39) ________ is the degree to which a test measures the same thing consistently.
A) Reliability
B) Accountability
C) Validity
D) Significance
E) Dependability
Answer: A
Explanation: With any kind of test, an important legal consideration is the test's reliability, or
the degree to which a test measures the same thing consistently, so that an individual's score
remains about the same over time.
40) Which of the following is NOT one of the five steps in the learning and development
process?
A) attendance
B) assessment
C) objectives
D) selection
E) implementation
Answer: A
Explanation: Assessment, objectives, selection, implementation, and evaluation are the five
steps in the learning and development process. Figure 9.2
41) A manager must consider fairness, ________, and others' resentments in considering a
promotion of an employee.
A) openness
B) permanence
C) profitability
D) safety
E) nondiscrimination
Answer: E
Explanation: Promotion, which means moving an employee to a higher-level position, is the
most obvious way to recognize that person's superior performance (apart from giving raises
and bonuses). Three concerns for managers are fairness, nondiscrimination, and others'
resentments.
42) Being dismissed "for cause" means that
A) an employee has an opportunity to get the position back in the future.
B) an employee quit the job.
C) the company is downsizing, and the jobs are permanently eliminated.
D) an employee is being fired for poor job performance or unacceptable behaviors.
E) an employee is being laid off.
Answer: D
Explanation: The phrase being "fired," with all its euphemisms and synonyms like being
"terminated," "separated," "let go," "sacked," "axed," or "canned," tends to mean that a
person was dismissed permanently "for cause": absenteeism, sloppy work habits, failure to
perform satisfactorily, breaking the law, and the like.
43) The risk of "wrongful termination" lawsuits is reduced with careful
A) coaching.
B) training and development.
C) discussion at the time of dismissal.
D) documentation.
E) goal setting.
Answer: D
Explanation: Because of the changing legal climate, steps must be taken to avoid employees
suing for "wrongful termination." That is, an employer has to carefully document the reasons
for dismissals.
44) ________ means that anyone can be dismissed at any time for any reason at all, or for
no reason.
A) Fair termination
B) Capricious dismissal
C) Quid pro quo
D) Nonrational dismissal
E) Employment at will
Answer: E
Explanation: "Employment at will" is the governing principle of employment in the great
majority of states, which means that anyone can be dismissed at any time for any reason at
all, or for no reason.
45) The three types of dismissals are ________, downsizings, and layoffs.
A) outsourcings
B) resourcings
C) firings
D) closings
E) transfers
Answer: C
Explanation: Dismissals are of three sorts: layoffs, downsizings, and firings.
