NAV TEST (5)

By Capt. Raj

1) Prior to departure the medium range twin jet aeroplane

is loaded with maximum fuel of 20100 litres at a fuel
density (specific gravity) of 0.78.
Using the following data -
Performance limited take-off mass 67200 kg
Performance limited landing mass 54200 kg
Dry Operating Mass 34930 kg
Taxi fuel 250 kg
Trip fuel 9250 kg
Contingency and holding fuel 850 kg
Alternate fuel 700 kg
The maximum permissible traffic load is
A 16470 kg
B 18040 kg
C 12840 kg
D 13090 kg.c

2) The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the:

A Basic Empty Mass plus the fuel loaded.
B Actual Landing Mass plus trip fuel.
C Dry Operating Mass plus the traffic load.c
D Operating Mass plus all the traffic load.

3) The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when

it is loaded with a:
A low gross mass and forward centre of gravity.
B low gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
C high gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
D high gross mass and forward centre of gravityC

4) The empty mass of an aeroplane is recorded in

A the weighing schedule and is amended to take account of
changes due to modifications of the aeroplane.C
B the weighing schedule. If changes occur, due to
modifications, the aeroplane must be re-weighed always.
C the loading manifest. It differs from Dry Operating Mass by
the value of the 'useful load'.
D the loading manifest. It differs from the zero fuel mass by
the value of the 'traffic load'.

5) Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on

the position of the centre of gravity on an aeroplane in
flight ?
A Lowering the landing gear.
B Movement of cabin attendants going about their normal
duties.
C Normal consumption of fuel for a swept wing aeroplane.
D Changing the tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) incidence angle.C
6) To calculate a usable take-off mass, the factors to be
taken into account include:
A Maximum zero fuel mass augmented by the fuel burn.
B Maximum take-off mass decreased by the fuel burn.
C Maximum landing mass augmented by the fuel burn.C
D Maximum landing mass augmented by fuel on board at takeoff
7) Determine the Landing Mass for the following single
engine aeroplane.
Given:
Standard Empty Mass :1764 lbs
Optional Equipment : 35 lbs
Pilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbs
Cargo Mass : 350 lbs
Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal.
Trip Fuel : 35 Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs/Gal.
A 2659 lbs
B 2449 lbs
C 2589 lbs
D 2799 lbs

8) An aeroplane must be re-weighed at certain intervals.

Where an operator uses 'fleet masses' and provided that
changes have been correctly documented, this interval is
A whenever a major modification is carried out.
B 9 years for each aeroplane.C
C 4 years for each aeroplane.
D whenever the Certificate of Airworthiness is renewed

9) A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The

following are the aeroplane's structural limits:
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg
The performance limited take off mass is 67 450kg and
the performance limited landing mass is 55 470 kg.
Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg
Trip Fuel: 6 200 kg
Taxi Fuel: 250 kg
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 300 kg
Alternate Fuel: 1 100 kg
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
A 25 800 kg
B 17 840 kgC
C 18 170 kg
D 13 950 kg

10) When preparing to carry out the weighing procedure on

an aeroplane, which of the following is not required?
A drain all engine tank oil. C
B drain all useable fuel.
C drain all chemical toilet fluid tanks.
D removable passenger services equipment to be off-loaded.

11) A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which was not
forecast. On arrival at destination a straight in approach
and immediate landing clearance is given. The landing
mass will be higher than planned and
A the landing distance will be unaffected.
B the approach path will be steeper.
C the approach path will be steeper and threshold speed
higher.
D the landing distance required will be longer.C

12) Which one of the following is correct?

A Arm = Force / Moment
B Moment = Force / Arm
C Arm = Force X Moment
D Arm = Moment / Force’C

13) Given are:

- Maximum structural take-off mass: 72 000 kg
- Maximum structural landing mass: 56 000 kg
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg
- Taxi fuel: 800 kg
- Trip fuel: 18 000 kg
- Contingency fuel: 900 kg
- Alternate fuel: 700 kg
- Final reserve fuel: 2 000 kg
Determine the actual take-off mass:
A 74 000 kg
B 72 000 kg
C 70 400 kg
D 69 600 kgC

14) Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by :

A VR and VMCG C
B V2 and VMCA
C VR and VMCA
D V2 and VMCG

15) The minimum value of V2 must exceed "air minimum

control speed" by:
A 15%
B 20%
C 30%
D 10%C

16) Balanced V1 is selected

A for a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give
the highest mass.
B if it is equal to V2.
C if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out
take-off distance.
D for a runway length limited take-off with a stopway to give
the highest massC

17) The speed for best rate of climb is called

A VO.
B VY.C
C VX.
D V2.

18) How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of

T/O flaps 10°?
A V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are
set.
B V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a
function of runway length only.
C V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA.C
D V2 has the same value in both cases

19) An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other

things, the following consequences on take-off
performance:
A a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb
performance
B a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb
performanceC
C an increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb
performance
D an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb
Performance

20) Which of the following statements is correct ?

A If a clearway or a stopway is used, the liftoff point must be
attainable at least at the end of the permanent runway
surface.
B A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able
to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off.C
C An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be
used for an aborted take-off.
D A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used
for an aborted take-off.

21) What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds?

The slope
A has no effect on the take-off speed V1.
B decreases the take-off speed V1.
C decreases the TAS for take-off.
D increases the IAS for take-off. C

22) The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS
depends on
A the radius of the turn and the bank angle.
B the true airspeed and the bank angle.
C the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane.
D the bank angle only.D
23) The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is:
A 1.15 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.
B 1.20 Vs for all turboprop powered aeroplanes.
C 1.15 Vs for four-engine turboprop aeroplanes and 1.20 Vs
for two or three-engine turboprop aeroplanes.
D 1.20 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanesC
24) A higher outside air temperature
A does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.
B reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.
C reduces the angle and the rate of climb.C
D increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.
25) The optimum cruise altitude is
A the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft
can be maintained.
B the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed
buffet as TAS is a maximum.
C the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be
achieved.C
D the pressure altitude
26) Which statement is correct?
A VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1
V1.
B VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1.C
C VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1.
D VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1.e at which the fuel flow is a maximum.
27) Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance
during climb?
A The speed for which the ratio between rate of climb and
forward speed is maximum.
B V2 + 10 kt.
C The speed for maximum rate of climb.
D V2.C
28) The take-off distance available is
A the total runway length, without clearway even if this one
exists.
B the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the
clearway available.
C the runway length minus stopway.C
D the runway length plus half of the clearway
29) During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by
selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem
will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediatly
above the correct value of V1?
A The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance
available.C
B The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed
the take-off distance available.
C V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.
D It may lead to over-rotation.
30) In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or
above V1
A the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR.
B the take-off must be continued.C
C the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF.
D a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off
distance.
31) Given:
VS= Stalling speed
VMCA= Air minimum control speed
VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine
failure)
V1= take-off decision speed
VR= Rotation speed
V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed
VLOF: Lift-off speed
The correct formula is:
A VR< VMCA< VLOF
B VMU<= VMCA< V1
C V2min< VMCA> VMU
D VS< VMCA< V2 minC
32) Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of
ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the
appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
A Headwind.
B Tailwind.C
C Increase of aircraft mass.
D Decrease of aircraft mass.
33) Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be:
A lower than that for clean configuration.
B higher than that for clean configuration.c
C same as that for clean configuration.
D changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared
to clean configuration.
34) An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000
metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the
calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the
take-off distance available cannot be greater than:
A 6000 metres.
B 4000 metres.
C 5000 metres.
D 4500 metres.c
35) VX is
A the speed for best rate of climb.
B the speed for best specific range.
C the speed for best angle of flight path.
D the speed for best angle of climb.c
36) The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at
the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing
distance plus
A 92%
B 43%
C 70%
D 67%C
37) A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number.
Which of the following speed limits is most likely to be
exceeded first?
A Maximum Operational Mach Number
B Maximum Operating Speed C
C Never Exceed Speed
D High Speed Buffet Limit
38) The approach climb requirement has been established
to ensure:
A minimum climb gradient in case of a go-around with one
engine inoperative. C
B obstacle clearance in the approach area.
C manoeuvrability in case of landing with one engine
inoperative.
D manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear
down, all engines operating.
39) During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle
of the aeroplane will:
A decrease.
B increase. C
C increase at first and decrease later on.
D remain constant
40) During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle
of the aeroplane will:
A decrease.
B increase.C
C increase at first and decrease later on.
D remain constant
41) For a turbojet aeroplane, what is the maximum landing
distance for wet runways when the landing distance
available at an aerodrome is 3000 m?
A 2 070 m. C 67%
B 1565 m.
C 1800 m.
D 2609 m.
42) The take-off distance required increases
A due to slush on the runway.
B due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.
C due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.
D due to lower gross mass at take-off.
43) An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs
each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or
minus 5.5°.
In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the
airway limits the maximum distance apart for the
transmitter is approximately:
A 50 NM
B 165 NM
C 210 NM
D 105 NM
44) The take-off distance required increases
A due to slush on the runway.C
B due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.
C due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.
D due to lower gross mass at take-off.
The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern
radar technology is to:
A simultaneously transmit weather and mapping beams
B have a wide beam and as a consequence better target
detection
C eliminate the need for azimuth slaving
D virtually eliminate lateral lobes and as a consequence
concentrate more energy in the main beamC

) Radar returns, on a B737-400, can be displayed on all

Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) screen
modes of an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)
WITH THE EXCEPTION OF:
A FULL VOR/ILS, EXP VOR/ILS and PLAN
B FULL NAV, FULL VOR/ILS and PLANC
C EXP VOR/ ILS, PLAN and MAP
D FULL NAV, PLAN and MAP
46) What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using an
2-dot RNAV system in the approach mode?
A 10°
B 0.5 NM
C 10 NM
D 0.5° C
47) Which of the following will give the most accurate
calculation of aircraft ground speed?
A A DME station sited on the flight routeC
B An ADF sited on the flight route
C A VOR station sited on the flight route
D A DME station sited across the flight route
48) Which of the following radar equipments operate by
means of the pulse technique?
1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar
2. Airborne Weather Radar
3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
A 2, 3 and 4 only
B 2 and 4 only
C 1, 2, 3 and 4 C
D 1, 2 and 4 only
49) The ATC transponder system,excluding Mode S,
contains :
A two modes, each of 4096 codesC
B four modes, each 1024 codes
C four modes, each 4096 codes
D two modes, each 1024 codes
50) Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is
selected to 090°.
From/To indicator indicates "TO".
CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right.
On what radial is the aircraft?
A 095
B 275
C 085
D 265
51) Which of the following lists all the parameters that can
be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4
different satellites?
A Latitude, longitude and altitude
B Latitude, longitude, altitude and timeC
C Latitude and longitude
D Latitude, longitude and time
52) Which of the following combinations of satellite
navigation systems provide the most accurate position
fixes in air navigation?
A NNSS-Transit and GLONASS
B GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT
C NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASSC
D NAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit
53) Which of the following statements concerning the
variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is
correct?
A The receiver adds 30 Hz to the variable signal before
combining it with the reference signal
B The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per
second gives it the characteristics of a 30 Hz amplitude
modulationC
C The transmitter varies the amplitude of the variable signal by
30 Hz each time it rotates
D The transmitter changes the frequency of the variable signal
by 30 Hz either side of the allocated frequency each time it
rotates
54) Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight
Instrument Systems (EFIS), a selected heading is
coloured:
A green
B white
C yellow
D magentaC
55) Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in
amber/yellow on an Electronic Flight Instrument System
(EFIS), indicate:
A engaged modes
B cautions, abnormal sourcesC
C flight envelope and system limits
D warnings
56) A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a
reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in
the first instance to:
A standby mode
B signal controlled search
C memory modeC
D search mode
57) An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR
groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate
maximum range of :
A 110 NM
B 90 NM
C 100 NM
D 120 NM
58) The reason why pre take-off holding areas are
sometimes further from the active runway when ILS
Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress
than during good weather operations is:
A aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance
signalsC
B heavy precipitation may disturb guidance signals
C to increase distance from the runway during offset approach
operations
D to increase aircraft separation in very reduced visibility
Conditions
59) Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition
frequency
(PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to
detect targets
unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is:
(pps = pulses per second)
A 375 pps
B 405 ppsC
C 782 pps
D 308 pps
60) Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural
frequency of:
A 1300 Hz
B 2000 Hz
C 3000 Hz
D 400 HzC
61) In relation to the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements
correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise
(PRN)' signal?
A PRN is the atmospheric jamming that affects the signals
transmitted by the satellites
B PRN describes the continuous electro-magnetical
background noise that exists in space
C PRN occurs in the receiver. It is caused by the signal from
one satellite being received from different directions
(multipath effect)
D PRN is a code used for the identification of the satellites
and the measurement of the time taken by the signal to
reach the receiverC
62) What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable
navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a
distance of 10 NM?
A 3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the
localiser centreline
B 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and
8° each side of the localiser centrelineC
C 0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and
8° each side of the localiser centreline
D 0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of
the localiser centreline
63) What is the minimum number of satellites required by a
GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?
A3
B5
C6
D 4C
64) In which situation will speed indications on an airborne
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely
represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?
A When tracking directly away from the station at a range of
10 NM
B When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100
NM or moreC
C When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it
D When overhead the station, with no change of heading at
Transit
65) An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no
error when using a deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2°
deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line
of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway
boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)
A 6.0
B 1.5
C 3.0
D 4.5
66) Given:
Aircraft heading 160°(M),
Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR,
Selected course on HSI is 250°.
The HSI indications are deviation bar:
A ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
B ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
C behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
D behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
67) The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS are:
A inclined 55° to the earth axis
B inclined 90° to the equatorial plane
C parallel to the equatorial plane
D inclined 55° to the equatorial planeC
68) The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a
range of 100 NM, the maximum systematic error should
not exceed:
A + or - 3 NM
B + or - 0.25 NMC
C + or - 1.25 NM
D + or - 1.5 NM 0.25+1.25%of 100
69) The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:
A hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON
B find the loop 'null' position
C hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a
continuous wave signalC
D stop loop rotation
70) An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving
more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the
localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication
will show:
A Fly left and fly up
B Fly right and fly downC
C Fly left and fly down
D Fly right and fly up
71)Which is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will rise above the horizon and set
every day?
A 68°
B 66°C
C 62°
D 72°
72) An aircraft flies a great circle track from 56° N 070° W to 62° N 110° E.
The total distance travelled is?
A 3720 NM
B 5420 NM
C 1788 NM
D 2040 NM
73) On the 27th of February, at 52°S and 040°E, the sunrise is at 0243 UTC.
On the same day, at 52°S and 035°W, the sunrise is at:
A 0743 UTC
B 0243 UTC
C 2143 UTC
D 0523 UTC
74) The scale on a Lambert conformal conic chart:
A is constant along a meridian of longitude
B is constant along a parallel of latitudeC
C varies slightly as a function of latitude and longitude
D is constant across the whole map
75) On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a:
A small circle concave to the nearer pole
B straight lineC
C curve convex to the nearer pole
D spiral curve
76) A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.80.
A straight line course drawn on this chart from A (53°N 004°W) to B is 080° at A; course at B
is 092°(T).
What is the longitude of B?
A 019°E
B 008°E
C 009°36'E
D 011°E
77) Given:
True course 300°
drift 8°R
variation 10°W
deviation -4°
Calculate the compass heading.
A 322°
B 306°
C 278°
D 294°
78) Given:
Airport elevation is 1000 ft.
QNH is 988 hPa.
What is the approximate airport pressure altitude?
(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)
A 320 FT
B 1680 FTC
C - 320 FT
D 680 FT
79) An island is observed to be 15° to the left.
The aircraft heading is 120°(M), variation 17°(W).
The bearing °(T) from the aircraft to the island is:
A 268
B 302
C 088
D 122
80)What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing with constant
CAS?
A Mach number decreases; TAS decreases
B Mach number increases; TAS remains constant
C Mach number increases; TAS increases c
D Mach number remains constant; TAS increases