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13th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – September, 2012


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – 3: Energy Efficiency in Electrical Utilities

Date: 16.9.2012 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS


Max. Marks: 150

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i) Answer all 50 questions


(ii) Each question carries one mark

In a 22 kV feeder, if the voltage is raised from 22 kV to 66 kV for the same loading conditions,
1 the voltage drop in the same feeder system would be lowered to

a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/9 d) unpredictable value


Normally, the efficiency of distribution transformer at full load varies anywhere between
2
a) 96 to 99 % b) 80 to 85 % c) 60 to 70% d) 50%- 60%
3 What is the reduction in distribution loss if the current flowing through the distribution line is
reduced by 10%?

a)10% b) 90% c) 19% d) 81%


4 Power factor is the ratio of

a) kVAr/kW b) (kW 2+kVAr2)1/2/kW

c) kW/ (kW 2+kVAr2)1/2 d) kVAr/ (kW 2+kVAr2)1/2


5 The electricity bill shows an average power factor of 0.72 with an average kW demand of 627.
How much kVAr is required to improve the power factor to 0.95? (Given Data: tan 1 = 0.964,
tan 2 = 0.329)

a) 398 b) 144 c) 95 d) 627

6 Where transformer loading is known, the actual transformer loss at a given load can be
computed as:

a) No Load Loss+ (Actual kVA Load/rated kVA) X Load Loss


2
b) No Load Loss+ (Actual kVA Load/rated kVA) X Load Loss
2
c) No Load Loss+ (Actual kVA Load/rated kVA) X Load Loss
2
d ) [No Load Loss+{ (Actual kVA Load/rated kVA) X Load Loss}]

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7 Direct current motors are used in special applications where

a) high torque starting or where smooth acceleration over a broad speed range is required.
b) low torque starting or where steady acceleration over a narrow speed range is required.
c) normal torque starting or where high acceleration over a broad speed range is required.
d) low torque starting or where smooth acceleration over a broad speed range is required.

8 A 3-phase, 415 volts, 50 Hz, 100 kW, 6 pole squirrel cage induction motor with a rated slip of
2% will have a full load rotor speed of

(a) 1470 rpm (b) 980 rpm (c) 1020 rpm (d) none of the above

9 In an induction motor the loss which is independent of motor load

a) I2R loss of stator b) I2R loss of rotor c) friction and windage loss d) all of the above

10 Rewinding can affect which of the following factors that contribute to deterioration in motor
efficiency:

a) winding and slot design and winding material selection


b) heat applied to strip windings, damage the insulation between laminations, thereby
increasing eddy current losses
c) change in the air gap may affect power factor and output torque
d) all the above

11 If measured Line Current of a 3 phase induction motor is 25.98 A, what will be the Phase
Current?

a) 15 A b) 45 A c) 8.96 A d) 30 A

12 The efficiency of compressed air system is around

a) 90% b) 60% c) 50% d) 10%

13
The basic function of air dryer in a compressed air system is to
a) remove remaining traces of moisture after the aftercooler
b ) store and smoothen pulsating air output
c) reduce the temperature of the air before it enters the next state to increase efficiency
d) prevent dust from entering compressor

14
Select the correct statement for reciprocating air compressors:
a) for every 4oC drop in the inlet air temperature, the increase in energy consumption is by 1%.
b) for every 4 oC rise in the inlet air temperature, the decrease in energy consumption is by 1%
c) for every 4 oC rise in the inlet air temperature, the increase in energy consumption is by 1%
d) the energy consumption remains same irrespective of inlet air temperature

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15
Which of the following parameters is not required for evaluating volumetric efficiency of the
compressor?
a) FAD b) Cylinder bore diameter c) Stroke length d) Power input

16
Which of the following will not occur if a reciprocating compressor is operated at a lower
discharge pressure?
a) lower power consumption
b) less load on the piston rods and hence reduced maintenance costs
c) lower leakage losses
d) lower free air delivery than rated

17 Which type of energy efficient dryer can be opted if a user in a plant requires compressed air
at a dew point of -40°C ?

a) heatless purge type dryer b) heat of compression dryer


c) aftercooler d) refrigerant dryers
18 A 1.5 TR room air conditioner having EER (W/W) of 3.0 , will draw input power of______ kW

a) 1.75 b) 3.00 c) 1.50 d) 2.00


19 Identify the wrong statement from the following regarding Vapour Compression Refrigeration
system

a) condenser rejects heat to atmosphere


b) evaporator removes heat from process or space
c) compressor sends superheated vapor to condenser
d) high pressure sub-cooled liquid refrigerant returns back to evaporator
20 The head developed by a centrifugal pump is not directly proportional to

a) Impeller diameter b) Shaft speed


c) Number of impellers d) Diameter of discharge port

21 Which of the following is incorrect in the case of cooling towers

a)"Range" is the difference between the cooling tower water inlet and outlet temperature.
b) "Approach" is the difference between the cooling tower outlet cold water temperature and
ambient wet bulb temperature.
d)'Range' is a better indicator of cooling tower performance.
e) Cooling capacity is the heat rejected in kCal/hr or TR
22 Identify the correct statement:

a) the Specific Ratio of Compressors is higher than Blowers


b) the Specific Ratio of Fans is higher than Blowers
c) the Specific Ratio of Compressors is lower than Fans
d) the Specific Ratio of Blowers is higher than Compressors

23 Two energy auditors made following statements regarding Vapour compressor Refrigeration
system and what will be your judgement?

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Statement A: Reducing condensing temperature by 5.5°C, results in a 20 – 25% decrease in


compressor power consumption
Statement B: 5.5°C increase in evaporator temperature reduces compressor power
consumption by 20 – 25%

a) statements A & B are TRUE b) statements A & B are FALSE


c) statement A is TRUE & B is FALSE d) statement A is FALSE & B is TRUE
24 Decreasing the rpm of a fan at partial loading by 10% results in:

a) decrease of 10% in flow rate and decrease of 27% in power requirement


b) decrease of 10% in flow rate and decrease of 19% in power requirement
c) decrease of 10% in flow rate and increase of 10% in power requirement
d) increase of 10% in flow rate and no appreciable change in power requirement
25
The power drawn by a centrifugal fan is
a) inversely proportional to fan efficiency b) directly proportional to fan efficiency

c) inversely proportional to static pressure d) inversely proportional to flow rate

26 The frictional loss in a piping system is proportional to

a) flow b) flow2 c) 1/flow d) 1/flow2


27 For the same flow, through which of the following diameter pipes, the pump will work with
maximum pressure?

a) 100 mm b) 150 mm c) 200 mm d) 250 mm

28 It is possible to run pumps in parallel if their _________________ are similar.

a) suction heads b) discharge heads c) closed valve heads d) none of the above
29 Input power to the motor driving a pump is 20 kW. The motor efficiency is 0.9 and pump
efficiency is 0.7. The power transmitted to the water is

a) 12.6 kW b) 18.0 kW c) 14.0 kW d) 31.75 kW


30 Small by-pass lines are installed in pumps some times to _____.

a) increase flow b) control pump delivery head


c) prevent pump running at zero flow d) reduce pump power consumption
3 o o
31 The refrigeration load in TR when 10 m /hr of water is cooled from a 15 C to 7 C is about

a) 10 b) 8 c) 26.5 d) none of the above


32 The order of movement of thermal energy in HVAC system is:

a) Indoor air - Chilled water - Refrigerant-Condenser water- Cooling tower


b) Chilled water - Indoor air - Refrigerant-Cooling tower - Condenser water
c) Indoor air - Condenser water - Chilled water - Cooling tower - Refrigerant
d) Indoor air - Chilled water – Refrigerant - Cooling tower - Condenser water
33 In a cooling tower,
Statement A: Surface of heat exchange is the surface area of the water droplets, which is in

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contact with air.


Statement B: Area of heat exchange is the surface area of the fill sheets, which is in contact
with air.

a) statements A & B are false b) statement A is True & B is false


c) statements A & B are True d) statement A is false & B is True
34 If the evaporation loss is 16 m3 /hr per cell and Cycles of Concentration is 3, the blow down
requirement in m3 /hr per cell of a cooling tower:

a) 8 b) 5.33 c) 4 d) 2
35 Cycles of Concentration (C.O.C) of a cooling tower will depend on

a) TDS in circulating water b) TDS in make-up water


c) both a & b d) none of the above
36 The Solar Heat Gain Coefficient (SHGC) of window of a building is 0.30. This means:

a) That the window allows 70 % of the sun's heat to pass through into interior of the buildings
b) That the window allows 30 % of the sun's heat to pass through into the building
interior
c) That 70 % of the sun's heat is incident on the window
d) That the window reflects back to exterior a minimum of 30 % of the sun's heat

37 FRP fans consume less energy than aluminium fans because

a) they are lighter b) they have better efficiencies


c) they encounter less system resistance d) they deliver less air flow

38 The hydraulic power in a pumping system depends on

a) motor efficiency b) pump efficiency


c) both motor and pump efficiency d) none of the above
39 The most energy intensive heat transfer loop of a Vapour Compression Refrigeration System
is:

a) Indoor air loop b) Chilled water loop


c) Refrigerant loop d) Condenser water loop
40 The efficiency of a pump does not depend on

a) suction head b) discharge head c) motor efficiency d) density of fluid

41 The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor

a) decreases at low motor loading b) decreases at high motor loading


c) remains constant and is independent of load d) cannot be predicted
42 The slip of a synchronous motor will be

a) more than the induction motor b) less than the induction motor
c) zero d) load dependent

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43 In BEE Star labeled distribution transformers, which of following losses are defined?

a) total loss at 50% and 100% loading b) total loss at 75 % loading


c) total loss at 75% and 100% loading d) total loss at 100% loading
44 To optimize the voltage level fed to the lighting feeder, the best option is to install.

a) servo stabilizer for lighting feeder b) "exclusive" transformer for lighting


c) microprocessor based controllers d) high frequency (HF) electronic ballasts
45 Which one of the following device will help to eliminate the hunting problems normally
associated with capacitor switching?

a) Intelligent Power Factor Controller b) maximum demand controller


c) soft starter d) eddy current drives
46 Which one of the following is an incorrect statement?

a) fluorescent lamp is an electric discharge lamp


b) electronic ballasts make use of semi-conductor devices
c) electronic ballasts have very low internal loss
d) fluorescent lamps can produce light by direct connection to the power source
47 A 2500 MW super thermal power station generated 15786 million units in the year 2011-12. Its
Plant Load Factor (PLF) is:

a) 60% b) 65% c) 72% d) 79%

48 Which of the following statements is not true of maximum demand controller

a) switches off non-essential loads in Logical sequence.


b) alarm is sounded when demand approaches a preset value.
c) voltage level is closely regulated
d) plant equipment selected for the load management can be programmed
49 The main reason for using Variable Frequency Drive (VFD) for capacity control in electrical
motor driven centrifugal fans with fluctuating load is :

a) improved power quality


b) fan capacity is proportional to its speed whereas the power drawn by the fan is
proportional to the cube of its speed
c) improved power factor
d) precise closed loop process control
50 Select the incorrect statement:

a) harmonics occur as spikes at intervals which are multiples of the supply frequency
b) harmonics are multiples of the fundamental frequency
c) induction motors are the major sources of harmonics
d) transformers operating near saturation level create harmonics

Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

(i) Answer all Eight questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

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List any five industrial applications of a heat pump.


S-1
Industrial heat pumps are mainly used for:
Ans
1. Space heating
2. Heating of process streams
3. Water heating for washing, sanitation and cleaning
4. Steam production
5. Drying/dehumidification
6. Evaporation
7. Distillation
8. Concentration

S-2 A pump is delivering 64 m3/hr of water with a discharge head of 26 metres. The water is drawn
from a sump where water level is 3 metres below the pump centerline. The power drawn by
the motor is 8.89 kW at 88% motor efficiency. Find out the pump efficiency
Ans Hydraulic power Ph = Q (m3/s) xTotal head, hd - hs (m) x r (kg/m3) x g (m/s2) / 1000

Q = 64/3600 m3/s , hd - hs = 26 – (-3) = 29 m

Hydraulic power Ph = (64/3600) x 29 x 1000 x 9.81 / 1000

= 5.0576 kW

Pump shaft power = 8.89 kW x 0.88

= 7.8232 kW

Pump efficiency = hydraulic power / pump shaft power

= 5.0576 / 7.8232

= 64.65 %

How do the Time-Of-Day (TOD) metering and billing benefit the utilities as well as consumers?
S-3
ToD meter records demand, time, and energy and the ToD tariff are set in such a way that
Ans
higher rates at peak load periods and lower rates at off-peak load periods. The billing as per
ToD tariff benefits the consumers to avail maximum power and energy at off-peak hours at
lowest tariff ; and the higher peak period tariff dis-incentivise for increased drawl at peak
period. This results effective maximum demand reduction to the utility, and in turn savings in
peak time power procurement at higher rate as well as maximising the load factor for resulting
better financials to the utility.

Explain briefly the difference between static and dynamic head of a centrifugal pumping
S-4
system.
Static head is simply the difference in height of the supply and destination reservoirs and it is
independent of flow.

Dynamic head is the friction loss, on the liquid being moved, in pipes, valves and equipment in
the system. The friction losses are proportional to the square of the flow rate.

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S-5
Compute AT & C (Aggregate Technical and Commercial) Losses for the following data:

S. No. Description Annual


Data
1 Input Energy = (Import-Export), MU 11
2a Energy Billed (Metered), MU 7
2b Energy Billed (Un-Metered), MU 1
2c Total Energy Billed 8
3 Amount Billed (Rs. lakhs ) 450
4a Gross Amount Collected (Rs. lakhs) 460
4b Arrears Collected (Rs. lakhs) 40
Ans
Estimation of AT & C Losses
S. No. Description Annual
Data
1 Input Energy = (Import-Export), MU Ei 11
2a Energy Billed (Metered), MU E1 7
2b Energy Billed (Un-Metered), MU E2 1
2c Total Energy Billed ( E1 + E2 ) Eb 8
3 Amount Billed (Rs. lakhs ) Ab 450
4a Gross Amount Collected (Rs. lakhs) AG 460
4b Arrears Collected (Rs. lakhs) Ar 40
4c Amount Collected without Arrears (Rs. lakhs) Ac=AG-Ar 420
5 Billing Efficiency (BE) = Eb/Ei *100% 72.7%
6 Collection Efficiency(CE) =Ac/Ab *100% 93.3%
7 AT& C Loss {1- (BE *CE ) 32.17%
*100%

S-6
A DG set is operating at 700 kW load with 450OC exhaust gas temperature. The DG set
generates 7.8 kg of exhaust gas/ kWh generated. The specific heat of gas at 430oC is 0.25
kCal/ kgOC. A heat recovery boiler is installed after which the exhaust temperature drops to
220OC. How much steam will be generated at 3 kg/ cm2 with enthalpy of 650.57 kcal/ kg.
Assume boiler feed water temperature as 65oC.

Ans
= 700 kWh x 7.8 kg gas generated/ kWh output x 0.25 kCal/ kg oC x (450oC-220 oC) =3,13,950
kCal/hr

Steam generation = 3,13,950 kCal/hr / (650.57 – 65) = 536.14 kg/ hr.

S-7
An energy audit of a fan was carried out. It was observed that the fan was delivering 18,500
Nm3/hr of air with static pressure rise of 45 mm WC. The power measurement of the 3-phase
induction motor coupled with the fan recorded 2.9 kW/ phase on an average. The motor
operating efficiency was assessed as 88% from the motor performance curves. What would
be the fan static efficiency?

Ans
Q = 18,500 Nm3 / hr.= 5.13888 m3/sec ,
SP = 45 mmWC,
ηSt = ?,

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Power input to motor= 2.9x3=8.7 kW

Power input to fan shaft=8.7 x0.88=7.656 kW

Fan static η = Volume in m3/sec x ∆Pst in mmWc


102 x Power input to shaft

= 5.13888 x 45
102 x 7.656
= 0.296
= 29.6%

S-8
List down any 5 energy conservation opportunities in compressed air system

Ans
§ Ensure air intake to compressor is not warm and humid by locating compressors
in well-ventilated area or by drawing cold air from outside. Every 40C rise in air
inlet temperature will increase power consumption by 1 percent.

§ Clean air-inlet filters regularly. Compressor efficiency will be reduced by 2 percent


for every 250 mm WC pressure drop across the filter.

§ Keep compressor valves in good condition by removing and inspecting once every
six months. Worn-out valves can reduce compressor efficiency by as much as 50
percent.

§ Install manometers across the filter and monitor the pressure drop as a guide to
replacement of element.

§ Minimize low-load compressor operation; if air demand is less than 50 percent of


compressor capacity, consider change over to a smaller compressor or reduce
compressor speed appropriately (by reducing motor pulley size) in case of belt
driven compressors.

§ Consider the use of regenerative air dryers, which uses the heat of compressed
air to remove moisture.

§ Fouled inter-coolers reduce compressor efficiency and cause more water


condensation in air receivers and distribution lines resulting in increased
corrosion. Periodic cleaning of inter-coolers must be ensured.

§ Compressor free air delivery test (FAD) must be done periodically to check the
present operating capacity against its design capacity and corrective steps must
be taken if required.

§ If more than one compressor is feeding to a common header, compressors must


be operated in such a way that only one small compressor should handle the load
variations whereas other compressors will operate at full load.

Any other relevant point

-------- End of Section II ---------

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Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 6 x 10 = 60

(i) Answer all Six questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1
a) In a cooling tower, the cooling water circulation rate is 1200 m3/hr. The water enters the
cooling tower at 38oC. The ambient wet bulb temperature is 26oC. The cooling tower operates
with an approach of 4oC. If the blowdown rate of the cooling tower is 1 % of the circulation
rate, calculate the evaporation loss and COC.

b) A medium scale industry has a load of 450 kVA. It has installed two transformers of 500
kVA each. The no load loss and full load copper loss are 760 W and 5400 W respectively.
From the energy efficiency point of view the management wants to take a decision on whether
to operate a single transformer on full load or two transformers equally sharing the load. What
is your recommendation ? Why?
Ans
a) Leaving cold water temperature = 26 + 4 = 30oC
Evaporation Loss (m3/hr) = 0.00085 x 1.8 x circulation rate (m3/hr) x (T1 –T2)

= 0.00085 x 1.8 x 1200 x 8

= 14.69 m3/hr

Blowdown = 12 m3/hr
Blowdown = Evaporation loss / (COC – 1)
12 = 14.69 / (COC – 1)
COC = 2.224
b)
1 x 500 kVA

Transformer loss at 450 No load loss + [kVA load/Rated kVA]2 x full


load loss
760 + 4374
5134 W

2 x 500 at 50% load 2 x {760 + [225/500]2 x 5400}


3707 W

Two transformers are better because the losses are the least.

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L-2
Fill in the blanks for the following

1. A motor which can conveniently be operated at lagging as well as leading power


factors is the___________ motor
2. A 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 r.p.m. The number of
poles of the motor are______

3. In a centrifugal pump the velocity energy is converted to pressure energy by _____

4. In a centrifugal pump if the liquid to be pumped has density twice that of water, then
the horse power required (as compared to that while pumping water) will be______
times

5. The friction loss in a pipe carrying a fluid is proportional to the fifth power of
_________
6. A 10 MVA generator has power factor 0.866 lagging. The reactive power produced will
be ______ MVAR
7. Totally-enclosed, fan cooled (TEFC) motors are______ efficient than Screen –
protected, drip-proof (SPDP) induction motors
8. Low speed Squirrel cage induction motors are normally ______efficient than high
speed squirrel cage induction motors
9. Harmonics in electricity supply are multiples of the ________frequency
10. For the same rating, slip ring induction motors are normally _________efficient than
squirrel cage induction motors

Ans
1. Synchronous
2. 4
3. volute or diffuser
4. 2
5. pipe diameter
6. 5
7. more
8. less
9 fundamental
10 less

3
L-3 a) Calculate the free air delivery (FAD) in m /min of a compressor for the following observed
data:
3
Receiver capacity: 0.25 m
2
Initial pressure: 1 kg/cm (g)
2
Final pressure: 7 kg/cm (g)
o
Initial temperature: 32 C
o
Final temperature: 52 C
3
Additional holdup volume: 0.05 m
Compressor pump up time: 2.1 minutes
b) Identify the following statements as applicable to Vapor Compression Refrigeration System

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(VCR) or to Vapor Absorption Refrigeration System(VAR).

I. The system operates under vacuum - ________(VCR/VAR)


II. Uses water as a refrigerant - ________(VCR/VAR)
III. Uses large amount of high-grade energy - ________(VCR/VAR)
IV. COP decreases considerably with decrease in evaporator pressure -
________(VCR/VAR)
V. The system can work on lower evaporator pressures also without affecting the COP -
________(VCR/VAR)
Ans
P2 − P1 V  273 + t1 
Q = × ×  
P0 t  273 + t 2 

7 − 1 (0.25 + 0.05)  273 + 32 


= × × 
1.026 2.1  273 + 52 
= 0.784 m3/min

I. The system operates under vacuum VAR


II. Uses water as a refrigerant VAR
III. Using large amount of high-grade energy VCR
IV. The COP decreases considerably with decrease in evaporator pressure. VCR
V. The system can work on lower evaporator pressures also without affecting the COP
VAR

The measured values of a water cooled 20 TR package air conditioning plant are given
L-4
below:
Average air velocity across suction side filter: 2.5 m/s
Cross Sectional area of suction: 2.4 m2
Inlet air : Dry Bulb:20 deg. C, Wet Bulb: 14 deg. C; Enthalpy: 9.37 k Cal per kg
Outlet air: Dry Bulb: 12.7 deg. C, Wet Bulb: 11.3 deg. C; Enthalpy: 7.45 k Cal per kg
Specific volume of Air: 0.85 m3/kg
Power drawn: by Compressor : 18.42 k W
by Pump : 2.1 k W
by Evaporator Fan : 1.25 k W

Calculate the following:


i. Air Flow rate
ii. Cooling effect delivered
iii. Compressor kW/TR
iv. Overall kW/TR
v. Overall Energy Efficiency ratio in W/W

i. Air flow rate = 2.5*2.4 = 6 m3/sec = 21600 m3/hr


Ans
ii. Cooling Effect delivered = [(9.37-7.45)*21600]/(0.85*3024) = 16.13 TR = 56.73 kW
iii. Compressor kW/TR = 18.42 /16.13 = 1.13
iv. Overall kW/TR = (18.42+2.1+1.25)/16.13 = 1.35
v. Energy Efficiency Ratio(EER) in W/W = 56.73/21.77 = 2.606

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L-5
a) How do you calculate the velocity of air/gas in a duct using the average differential
pressure and density of the air/gas?

b) A no load test was conducted in a delta connected 37 kW induction motor.

Nameplate data- 3 Phase, 415 V, 50 Hz, 55 Amp


Measured data at no load:
Voltage, V = 415 Volts; Current, I = 17 Amps; Frequency, F = 50 Hz;
Stator phase resistance at 30°C = 0.24 Ohms/ phase
No load power = 955 Watts

i. Find out Iron Loss plus Friction Loss plus Windage Loss
ii. Stator Copper Loss at name plate ratings(full load), considering stator temperature
=120 °C
iii. No load power factor of the motor

Ans
a) Ans:
Velocity V, m/s = CP x (2 x 9.81 p x y)1/2
y

Cp = Pitot tube constant, 0.85 (or) as given by the manufacturer


p = Average differential pressure measured by pitot tube by taking

measurement at number of points over the entire cross section of the duct.
= Density at air/ gas at test condition

b) Let Iron Loss plus Friction Loss plus Windage Loss be Pi+fw
Stator Copper Loss, Pst, 30°C = 3X (17/ 3)2X0.24 = 69.36 Watt
Pi+fw = Pnl - Pst= 955 – 69.36 = 885 .64

Stator resistance at 120 °C = 0.24x[(120+235)/[(30+235)] = 0.322 Ohms


Stator Copper Loss at name plate ratings = 3x(55/ 3) 2 X0.322 = 974.05 Watt
No load power factor= 955/(1.7321x415x17)=0.078

Answer any two of the following :


L-6
(i) two most important electrical parameters, which are to be monitored for safe
operation of Diesel Generator set
(ii) Slip method of motor load assessment
(iii) Five options for electricity distribution loss optimization
(iii) Five energy conservation opportunities in pumping system

Ans (i) two most important electrical parameters, which are to be monitored for safe
operation of Diesel Generator set are KVA and kW

(ii) Slip method of motor load assessment


In the absence of a power meter, the slip method can be used which requires a tachometer.
The percentage loading can be calculated as follows:

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Slip
Load = *100%
Ss − Sr
Where:
Load = Output power as a % of rated power
Slip = Synchronous speed - Measured speed in rpm
Ss = Synchronous speed in rpm at the operating frequency
Sr = Nameplate full-load speed

Slip also varies inversely with respect to the motor terminal voltage squared. A voltage
correction factor can, also, be inserted into the slip load equation. The voltage
compensated load can be calculated as shown

Where:
Load = Output power as a % of rated power
Slip = Synchronous speed - Measured speed in rpm
Ss = Synchronous speed in rpm
Sr = Nameplate full-load speed
V = RMS voltage, mean line to line of 3 phases
Vr = Nameplate rated voltage

iii) Five options for electricity distribution loss optimization

• minimising length of distribution lines


• adequate Size of Conductors
• installaing Distribution Transformers (DTR) at load center on the Secondary
Distribution System
• Maintaining high Power Factor
• High Voltage Distribution System (HVDS)
• Incorporating Amorphous Core Transformers

Any other relevant point

iv) Five energy conservation opportunities in pumping system

• Ensure adequate NPSH at site of installation


• Operate pumps near best efficiency point.
• Modify pumping system/pumps losses to minimize throttling.
• Adapt to wide load variation with variable speed drives
• Stop running multiple pumps - add an auto-start for an on-line spare or add a
booster pump in the problem area.
• Conduct water balance to minimise water consumption
• Replace old pumps by energy efficient pumps

Any other relevant point

. End of Section III

_______________________ 14
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A KEY

14th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2013


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – 3: Energy Efficiency in Electrical Utilities

Date: 25.08.2013 Timings: 0930 – 1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i) Answer all 50 questions


(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with HB Pencil,
as per instructions

1. The gross efficiency of a coal based power generating unit with a gross heat rate of
2490 kcal/kWh is

a) 40% b) 34.5 % c) 33.3% d) 45.2%


2. The efficiencies of a power plant and transmission systems are 40%, and 97%
respectively. The percentage loss of the distribution system of the same network is
23% . The cascade efficiency of generation ,transmission and distribution system is
given by

a)8,92 % b) 29.87% c) 40 % d) 23%


3. The rating of power factor correction capacitors at induction motor terminals should be

a) 90% of no load magnetizing kVAr of induction motor


b)100 % of no load magnetizing kVAr of induction motor
c) 80% of no load magnetizing kVAr of induction motor
d) none of the above
4. Select the correct statement: Power factor

a) is the ratio of active and reactive power


b) is the ratio of reactive and apparent power
c) is the ratio of active and apparent power
d) of a pure inductive and capacitive load is unity
5. The Energy Performance Index (EPI) of a building as per Energy Conservation Building
Code (ECBC) and as defined in the Energy Conservation Act,2001 is:

a) kWh per square meter per year b) kWh per square meter
c) kW per square meter d) kWh per year

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A KEY

6. If the maximum demand is 3500 kVA at 0.88 p.f., the maximum demand will reduce
by______ kVA if PF is improved to 0.98 :

a) 3143 b) 357 c) 3897 d) maximum demand will not reduce

7. The performance of rewinding of an induction motor can be assessed by which of the


following factors?

a) no load current b) stator resistance per phase


c) load current d) both no load current and stator resistance per phase
8. For a synchronous speed of 1500 rpm, at a given mains frequency of 50 Hz, the
induction motor will have _________number of poles.

a) 8 b) 6 c) 4 d) 2
9. A 7.5 kW, 415 V, 14.5 A, 1460 RPM rated 3 phase induction motor with full load
efficiency of 90%, draws 9.1 A and 4.6 kW of input power. The percentage loading of
the motor is about

a) 55.2 % b) 61.3 % c) 67.5 % d) none of the above

10. The power input to a rotor of three phase induction motor is 42.3 kW. If the induction
motor is operating at a slip of 1.30 % the total mechanical power developed will be :

a) 42.3 kW b) 41.75 kW c) 5.48 kW d) 47.79 kW


11. If the apparent power drawn over a recording cycle of 30 minutes is 5000 kVA for 0.5
minutes, 3400 kVA for 20 minutes and 1800 for 9.5 minutes, the MD recorder will
compute MD as

a) 5000 kVA b) 3400 kVA c) 2920 kVA d) 1800 kVA


12. The rating of the p.f correction capacitors at motor terminals for a 37 kW, 2 poles
induction motor will be______ in comparison to the same sized induction motor of 6
poles

a) more b) less c) same d) sometime less or more


13. Which parameters need to be measured to assess the percentage loading of a motor by
slip method neglecting voltage correction?

a) motor speed b) synchronous speed


c) operating motor speed and frequency d) operating current

14. Isothermal power of a compressor depends on

a) absolute intake pressure b) pressure ratio


c) free air delivered d) all of the above

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Paper 3 –Set A KEY

15. Reduction in the delivery pressure of an air compressor working at 7 bar, by 1 bar would
reduce the power consumption by

a) 2 – 3 % b) 4 - 5 % c) 6 - 10 % d) none of the above

16. Which of the following is correct for air compressors?

a) for every 5.5oC drop in the inlet air temperature, the increase in energy
consumption is by 2%
b) for every 4oC rise in the inlet air temperature, the increase in energy
consumption is by 1%
c) for every 4oC rise in the inlet air temperature, the decrease in energy
consumption is by 1%
d) the energy consumption remains same irrespective of inlet air temperature
17. The Free Air Delivery of a reciprocating air compressor is directly proportional to

a) speed b) pressure c) volume d) all of the above


18. Which of these desiccant compressed air dryers uses dry compressed air for
regenerating the desiccant?

a) blower reactivated type b) heatless purge type


c) heat of compression type d) all of the above
19. The unit of specific humidity in a psychrometric chart is

a) grams moisture/kg of dry air b) moisture percentage in air


c) grams moisture/kg of air d) all of the above
20. The COP of a vapour compression refrigeration system is 3.1 If the motor draws power
of 9.3 kW at an operating efficiency of 88%, the tonnage of refrigeration system is about

a) 8.2 b) 9.3 c) 7.2 d) none of the above


21. Chilled water enters an evaporator at 100C and leaves at 60C. The flow rate of chilled
water was measured as 200 m3/hr. The tons of refrigeration capacity is

a) 265 b) 200 c) 661 d) 2.65


22. In an air conditioning system analysis which one temperature is sufficient to determine
the enthalpy of air?

a) dry bulb temperature b) wet bulb temperature


c) ambient temperature d) none of the above
23. The head generated by a centrifugal pump is:

a) independent of the density of the liquid being pumped


b) directly proportional to the density of the liquid being pumped
c) inversely proportional to the density of the liquid being pumped
d) proportional to the square of the density of the liquid being pumped

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A KEY

24. The driving force for refrigeration in a vapour absorption refrigeration system is

a) mechanical energy b) electrical energy


c) thermal energy d) chemical energy
25. Which of the following happens to air when it is cooled through evaporation process?

a) humidity ratio of the air decreases


b) dry bulb temperature of air decreases
c) dry bulb temperature of air increases
d) enthalpy of outlet air is less than enthalpy of inlet air
26. The relation between COP and kW/TR for a refrigeration system is given by

a) kW/TR = 3.516/COP b) kW/TR = COP /3.516


c) kW/TR = 860/COP d) none of the above
27. In which of the following fans the air does not change flow direction from suction to
discharge?

a) tube axial fan b) vane axial fan c) propeller fan d) all of the above
28. The parameter used by ASME to classify fans, blowers and compressors is

a) volume ratio b) specific ratio c) blade ratio d) impeller ratio


29. The pressure to be considered for calculating the power required for centrifugal fans
is___
a) vapour pressure b) dynamic pressure
c) total static pressure d) velocity pressure
30. The inclined manometer connected to a pitot tube is used for measuring which pressure
in a gas stream?

a) velocity b) static c) total d) all of the above


31. If the power drawn by the motor driving a pump is 20 kW at a 91% efficiency, and the
hydraulic power of a motor pump set is 12.5 kW, the pump efficiency will be__

a) 68.7% b) 62.5% c) 56.8% d) none of the above


32. Which of the following is not true for impeller trimming?

a) pressure  diameter b) head  diameter2


c) power  diameter3 d) flow  diameter
33. If the speed of the pump is doubled, power goes up by

a) 2 times b) 6 times c) 8 times d) 4 times


34. The preferred method of flow control for reducing pump flow permanently in a pumping
system is-------

a) throttling b) speed control c) impeller trimming d) none of the above

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Paper 3 –Set A KEY

35. A water pump is delivering 20 m3/hr at ambient conditions. The impeller diameter is
trimmed by 10%. This will reduce the pump discharge by

a) 18 m3/hr b) 2 m3/hr c) 0.2 m3/hr d) none of the above


36. Increasing the suction pipe diameter in a pumping system will

a) reduce NPSHA b) increase NPSHA


c) decrease NPSHR d) increase NPSHR
37. The range of a cooling tower with inlet and outlet temperature as 41o C and 32o C
respectively and wet bulb temperature as 29o is

a) 9oC b) 3oC c) 29oC d) 12oC


38. Find the correct equation, if M = makeup water (from the mains water supply), E =
losses due to evaporation, B = losses due to blow-down and D = drift losses of a cooling
tower:

a) M = E + B + D b) M = E + B - D c) M = E - B + D d) M = E - B - D
39. If the wet bulb temperature of air is 380C, then its relative humidity in % is

a) 38 % b) 90% c) 100% d) insufficient data


40. For a cooling tower if blowdown is 10 m3 /hour and Cycles of Concentration (CoC) is 2.5
the evaporation loss is equal to:

a) 25 m3/hour b) 15 m3/ hour c) 0.25 m3/hour d) 6.67 m3/hour


41. If the metered kWh is 95, kVAh is 100 and kVARh is 31, the power factor will be:

a) 0.95 b) 0.61 c) 0.69 d) unity


42. In T-5 Fluorescent Lamp, “5” is indicative of:

a) Tube diameter b) 5 watt loss


c) 5% Energy Saving with respect to T8 d) 5th generation lamp
43. Identify the statement that is not applicable to heat pumps

a) transfers heat by refrigerant through a cycle of evaporation and condensation


b) an air conditioner can work as a heat pump
c) no external energy is required
d) a vapour absorption refrigeration system can also work as a heat pump
44. A refrigeration system using which of the following compressors is likely to be most
efficient?

a) reciprocating b) screw c) scroll d) all the above


45. Which of the following is not true for a fluorescent lamp with electronic ballast

a) presence of stroboscopic effect b) energy savings


c) increased light output d) no starter required

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A KEY

46. Which of the following with respect to turbocharger in a Diesel engine is true?

a) operates using energy of exhaust gases


b) decreases supply air pressure to engine
c) preheats the combustion air using energy from exhaust gases
d) all of the above
47. The refrigerant which can be used both in vapour compression chillers and vapour
absorption chiller is

a) R22 b) R21 c) ammonia d) pure water


48. Energy efficient distribution transformer core is made up of ______.

a) silicon alloyed iron (grain oriented) b) copper


c) amorphous core - metallic glass alloy d) none of the above
49. In a transformer on load, if the secondary voltage is one-fourth the primary voltage,
then the secondary current will be

a) four times the primary current b) equal to the primary current


c) one-fourth the primary current d) two times the primary current
50. If V1 is actual supply voltage and V2 is the rated voltage of a capacitor, the reactive
KVAr produced would be in the ratio of

a) V22/V12 b) V12/V22 c) 1 - V22/V12 d) 1 + V22/V12

……. End of Section – I …….

Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

(i) Answer all Eight questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 A 15 kW, 415 V, 4 pole, 50 Hz, 3 Phase squirrel cage induction motor has a full load
efficiency of 92% and power factor of 0.89. Find the following if the motor operates at full
load rated values.
a) input power in kW
b) current drawn by the motor
c) RPM at a full load slip of 0.8%

Ans: a) Pin (Input power) = 15 / 0.92 = 16.304 kW

b) I(Input current) = 16.304 / (


3 x 0.415 x 0.89) = 25.48 A

c) Ns = 120 x f / p = 120 x 50 / 4 = 1500 RPM


N = Ns ( 1- S )
= 1500 ( 1- 0.008)
= 1488 RPM
S-2 In a pumping system the water level is 4 m below the pump centerline. The discharge

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Paper 3 –Set A KEY

pressure is 2.60 kg/cm2. The flow rate of water is 1.5 m3 /min. Find out the pump
efficiency if the actual power drawn by the pump motor is 14 kW at a motor operating
efficiency of 0.88.
Discharge Head = 2.60 kg/cm2
Ans
= 26 metre head.

Suction Head = - 4 metre.

Total Head = 26 – (-4) = 30 metre

Hydraulic Power = (1.5/60) x 1000 x 9.81 x 30/1000


= 7.36 kW

Shaft input = 14x.88=12.32

Pump Efficiency = 100 x 7.36/12.32 = 59.74 %

S-3 Harmonic measurements in an electrical system of an industry gave the


following results.
Current at 50 Hz : 300 A
Current at 150 Hz : 42 A
Current at 250 Hz : 33 A
Calculate the Total Harmonic Distortion in current for the system.

Ans
 42 2  33 2 
I THD        x 100

300  300  

0.0196  0.0121x100  17.8%


Air flow measurements using the pitot tube, in the primary air fan of a coal fired boiler
S-4
gave the following data

Air temperature = 38oC


Velocity pressure = 47 mmWC
Pitot tube constant, Cp = 0.9
Air density at 0oC (standard data) = 1.293 kg /m3

Find out the velocity of air in m/sec.

Corrected air density 273 x 1.293 /(273+38)


Ans
1.135 kg/m3

Velocity m/s
Cp x √2 x 9.81 x ∆p x γ / γ

0.9 x √2 x 9.81 x 4

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A KEY

25.6 m/s
x 1.135 / 1.135

S-5 List five measures to reduce energy consumption in lighting system for buildings,
industry and street lighting
 Reduce excessive illumination levels to standard levels using switching, delamping, etc.
Ans
(Know the electrical effects before doing delamping.)
 Aggressively control lighting with clock timers, delay timers, photocells, and/or
occupancy sensors.
 Install efficient alternatives to incandescent lighting, mercury vapor lighting, etc.
Efficiency (lumens/watt) of various technologies range from best to worst approximately
as follows: low pressure sodium, high pressure sodium, metal halide, fluorescent,
mercury vapor, incandescent.
 Select ballasts and lamps carefully with high power factor and long-term efficiency in
mind.
 Upgrade obsolete fluorescent systems to Compact fluorescents and electronic ballasts
 Consider lowering the fixtures to enable using less of them.
 Consider daylighting, skylights, etc.
 Consider painting the walls a lighter color and using less lighting fixtures or lower
wattages.
 Use task lighting and reduce background illumination.
 Re-evaluate exterior lighting strategy, type, and control. Control it aggressively.
 Change exit signs from incandescent to LED.

S-6 Identify each of the following statement as applicable to Vapor Compression


Refrigeration System (VCR) and to Vapor Absorption Refrigeration System(VAR).

(Need not copy and write the following statements in the Answer book; only write against
the statements A, B, C, D etc. whether it is applicable to VCR or VAR )

A. No effect of reducing the load on performance.


B. Uses low grade energy
C. Liquid traces in suction line may damage the compressor.
D. Moving parts are only in the pump and hence operation is smooth.
E. The system can work on lower evaporator pressures also without affecting the
COP.
F. Performance is adversely affected at partial loads.
G. Liquid traces of refrigerant present in piping at the exit of evaporator
H. Using high-grade energy like mechanical work
I. Moving parts are more; therefore, more equipment maintenance and noise
J. The COP decreases considerably with decrease in evaporator pressure
A. VAR
Ans
B. VAR
C. VCR
D. VAR
E. VAR
F. VCR
G. VAR
H. VCR

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A KEY

I. VCR
J. VCR

S-7 List any five factors that affect the rate of evaporation of water in cooling towers

 Amount of water surface area exposed


 The time of exposure
 The relative velocity of air passing over the droplets
 The RH of air
 The direction of airflow relative to water.
Any other relevant point to be considered
S-8 Estimate the cooling tower capacity (TR) and approach with the following parameters

Water flow rate through CT = 2 m3/min


Specific heat of water = 1 kcal/kg °C
Inlet water temperature = 43 °C
Outlet water temperature = 35 °C
Ambient WBT = 30°C

Ans
Cooling tower capacity (TR) = (flow rate x density x sp.heat x diff. temp)/ 3024
= (2X60) x 1000 x 1.0 x (43-35)/ 3024
= 317.5TR

Approach = 35- 30 = 5oC

……. End of Section - II …….

Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 6 x 10 = 60

(i) Answer all Six questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1 An efficiency assessment test was carried out for a standard 4 pole squirrel cage
induction motor in a chemical plant. The motor specifications are as under:

Motor rated specification: 3 phase delta connected,37 kW, 415 Volt, 63 Amps, 1475 rpm,

The following data was collected during the no- load test on the motor:

Voltage= 415 Volts


Current = 17 Amps
Frequency = 50 Hz
Stator resistance per phase = 0.260 Ohms at 30 0C
No load power= 1152 Watts

Calculate the following:

(i) Iron plus friction and windage losses.


(ii) Stator resistance at 120oC.
(iii) Stator copper loss at full load at operating temperature of 120oC.

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A KEY

(iv) Full load slip and rotor input assuming rotor losses are slip times rotor input.
(v) Motor input assuming that stray losses are 0.5% of the motor rated output
power.
(vi) Motor full load efficiency

Ans
Let Iron plus friction and windage loss, Pi + fw
No load power, Pnl = 1152 Watts
Stator Copper loss, P st-300C (Pst.cu)
= 3 (17 /  3)2 0.260
= 75.13Watts
Pi + fw = Pnl – Pst.cu
= 1152 – 75.13
= 1076.87 W

(ii) Stator Resistance at 1200C,


120  235
R1200C = 0.260 
30  235
= 0.3483 ohms per phase

(iii) Stator copper losses at full load, Pst.cu 1200C


= 3 (63 / 
3)2 0.3483
= 1382.3 Watts

(iv) Full load slip


S = (1500 – 1475) / 1500
= 0.01666 or 1.66%

Rotor input, Pr = Poutput/ (1-S)


= 37000 / (1-0.01666)
= 37000/0.98334
= 37626.86 Watts

(v) Motor full load input power, P input


= Pr + Pst.cu 1200C + (Pi + fw) + Pstray
= 37626.86 + 1382.3 + 1076.87 + (0.005* 37000)
= 40271.03 Watts
*
where, stray losses = 0.5% of rated output (assumed)

(vi) Motor efficiency at full load

Poutput
Efficiency =  100
Pinput

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A KEY

= (37000 / 40271.03) x 100

= 91.87 %

L2 Fill in the blanks:

1. Cavitation may occur in a pump when the local static pressure in a fluid reaches a
level below the _________pressure of the liquid at the actual temperature.

2. In a vapour absorption system using ammonia as refrigerant, the absorbent is


______

3. The system resistance of a fan system is proportional to the ______of flow rate or
velocity

4. If the dry bulb temp.is 30 0C and the wet bulb temp. is 30 0C, then the % relative
humidity will be _______

5. Slip ring induction motors are comparatively ________efficient than of the squirrel
cage motors of same ratings.

6. In a pumping system with a horizontal discharge, the suction static head is 3 m and
the friction head is 21 m. The total head developed by the pump will be ___________

7. The lowest theoretical temperature to which water can be cooled in a cooling tower is
the _________ of atmospheric air

8. The measure of illuminance of a surface in metric units is ________

9. It is acceptable to run pumps in parallel provided their__ _______ heads are similar

10. When heat load, range and wet bulb temperature are held constant, the cooling
tower size is ________proportional to the approach.

Ans
1. Vapour
2. Water
3. Square
4. 100%
5. Less
6. 18 m
7. Wet bulb temperature
8. Lux
9. Closed valve heads
10. Inversely

L-3 The cooling water circuit of a process industry is depicted in the figure below. Cooling
water is pumped to three heat exchangers via pipes A,B and C where flow is throttled
depending upon the requirement. The diameter of pipes and measured velocities with
non-contact ultrasonic flow meter in each pipe are indicated in the figure.

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A KEY

The following are the other data:


Measured motor power : 50.7 kW
Motor efficiency at operating load: 90%
Pump discharge pressure : 3.4 kg/cm2
Suction head : 2 meters
Determine the efficiency of the pump

Ans
Flow in pipe A 22/7 x (0.1)2/4 x 1.5

0.011786 m3/s

Flow in pipe B 22/7 x (0.1)2/4 x 1.8

0.014143 m3/s

Flow in pipe C 22/7 x (0.2)2/4 x 2.0

0.062857 m3/s
0.088786 m3/s
Total flow

Total head 34 m – 2 m = 32 m

Pump hydraulic power 0.088786 x 32 x 9.81

27.9 kW

27.9 x 100/50.7 x 0.9

Pump efficiency 61 %
L4
a) The size of an engine room to be ventilated is 30 m x 20 m x 5 m. The number of air
changes per hour is designed to be 20. If the static pressure rise across the ventilator
fan is 15 mm WC and fan efficiency is 70 % find out the motor power drawn at a
motor efficiency of 90%.

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A KEY

b) A seal air fan for a coal mill is operating with suction damper in 25 % open condition.
The power drawn at 50 Hz by fan motor is 120 kW. A VFD is to be installed eliminating
the damper operation. It is found that the damper can be completely opened and the
fan motor can be operated at 33 Hz. Calculated the power drawn by the fan motor at
33 Hz, assuming that motor and fan efficiency remains constant.

a) Flow rate - 30 x 20 x 5 x 20 = 60,000 m 3/hr


Motor power - (60,000/3600) x 15/ (102 x 0.7x0.9)
- 3.89 kW
b) Power at 50 Hz - 120 kW
Power at 33 Hz - 120 x (33/50)3
- 34.5 kW
L-5 a) In an automobile industry a pump-up test was conducted to determine the free air
delivery (FAD) of a reciprocating compressor and the following data were obtained:
Receiver capacity and additional holdup volume
in piping and after-cooler : 4100 litres
Initial pressure: : 1 kg/cm2 (g)
Final pressure: : 8.5 kg/cm 2 (g)
Atmospheric Pressure: : 1.026 kg/cm 2 (a)
Ambient air temperature: : 32 oC
Final compressed air temperature: : 52 oC
Compressor pump up time : 65 secs
Calculate the FAD of the compressor in cubic foot per minute.

b) Further a leakage test was carried out in the same compressed air system and with
the same compressor as in problem a) above and following were the observations:
- Compressor was on load for 03 minutes
- Compressor was unloaded for 13 minutes
- Compressor was drawing 145 kW during load
Calculate the following:
i. % leakage in compressed air system
ii. Leakage quantity
iii. Specific power consumption
iv. Power lost due to leakage
Ans
a)

P2  P1 V  273  t1 
Q =   
P0 t 
273  t 2 
Time = 65 sec=1.0833 secs

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A KEY

= (8.5 - 1)/1.026X 4.1 /1.0833) X (305/325)


= 25.96 m3/min
= 25.96 x (3.28)3
= 916 cfm
b)
i) % Leakage in the system
Load time (T) : 03 minutes
Un load time (t) : 13 minutes
T
% leakage in the system x 100
(T  t )
3
x 100 = 18.75 %
(3  13)
ii) Leakage quantity : 0.1875 x 916
: 171.75 cfm
iii)
Operating capacity (FAD) : 916 cfm
Actual power consumption : 145 kW
Specific power consumption : 145/916
= 0.1583 kW/cfm
iv)
Power lost due to leakage : leakage quantity x sp power consumption
: 171.75 x 0.1583
: 27.19 kW
L-6 Answer any two of the following :

(i) In a throttle valve-controlled pumping system with oversized pump list any five
options to improve energy efficiency? (Note: Name only options, no explanation
required)
(ii) Define one ‘Ton of Refrigeration (TR)’. How do you calculate TR across the Air
Handling Units?
(iii) List five energy conservation opportunities in fan system.

Ans
i) Trim impeller, replace with smaller impeller, install variable speed drive, change pulley if it is
belt driven, change to two speed drive, and lower rpm drive

ii) A ton of refrigeration is defined as the quantity of heat to be removed in order to form one
ton of ice in 24 hours when the initial temperature of water is 0 °C. This is equivalent to 50.4
Kcal/min or 3024 Kcal/h in metric system
Refrigeration load in TR is assessed as ;

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A KEY

Q  ρ  h in  h out 
TR 
3024
Where Q is the air flow in CMH
 is density of air kg/m3
h in is enthalpy of inlet air kCal/kg
h out is enthalpy of outlet air kCal/kg

iii) Energy conservation opportunities in fan system


 Use smooth, well-rounded air inlet cones for fan air intakes.
 Avoid poor flow distribution at the fan inlet.
 Minimize fan inlet and outlet obstructions.
 Clean screens, filters, and fan blades regularly.
 Use aerofoil-shaped fan blades.
 Minimize fan speed.
 Use low-slip or flat belts.
 Check belt tension regularly.
 Eliminate variable pitch pulleys.
 Use variable speed drives for large variable fan loads.
 Use energy-efficient motors for continuous or near-continuous operation
 Eliminate leaks in ductwork.
 Minimise bends in ductwork
 Turn fans off when not needed.

……. End of Section – III ……

_______________________ 15
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 – Set A Key

Regn No: _________________

Name: ___________________

(To be written by the candidate)

11th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – February, 2011


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – 3: Energy Efficiency in Electrical Utilities

Date: 06.02.2011 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 17 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i) Answer all 50 questions.


(ii) Each question carries one mark.
(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or Black
HB Pencil, as per instructions.

1. Select the wrong statement:

a) lower the heat rate of a power generating unit, higher is the generation efficiency.
b) one kilo Watt hour of electrical energy being equivalent to 3600 kilo Joules of thermal energy
c) ‘Heat Rate’ is directly proportional to the efficiency of power generation.
d) design ‘Heat Rate’ of a 210 MW thermal generating unit is higher than that of a 110 MW thermal
generating unit.
2. If power factor is improved from PF1 to PF2 then the reduction in distribution losses in an electric
network is proportional to :

a) ratio of PF1 to PF2 b) square root of (PF1/PF2)


c) square of (PF1/PF2) d) none of the above
3. In the BEE labeling programme for distribution transformers, the total transformer losses at

a) 50% and 100% loading have been defined.


b) only 50% loading have been defined.
c) only 100% loading have been defined.
d) 25%, 50% and 100% loading have been defined.
4. A 5 kVAr, 415 V rated power factor capacitor was found to be having 5.5 kVAr operating capacity.
The operating supply voltage at the same supply frequency would approximately be

a) 400 V b) 415 V c) 435 V d) none of the above

_______________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
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5. Busbar Voltages at the main electrical panel were balanced but at the following Motor Control
Circuit (MCC), fitted with PF Correction capacitors, the voltages were unbalanced by about 3%.
The possible reason for this could be

a) motors connected to MCC were operating at partial loads


b) motors connected to MCC were overloaded
c) excessive kVAr of Capacitors than required at MCC
d) blown fuse in one phase of the 3 phase capacitor bank connected to the MCC.
6. The iron losses in a transformer are proportional to :

a) kVA load b) square of kVA load


c) cube of kVA load d) none of the above
7. The synchronous speed (rpm) of a 2 pole induction motor at 49.5 Hz supply frequency is :

a) 3000 b) 2970 c) 1500 d) none of the above


8. kW rating indicated on the name plate of an induction motor indicates

a) rated input of the motor b) maximum input power which the motor can draw
c) rated output of the motor d) maximum instantaneous input power of the motor
9. A 7.5 kW, 415 V, 14.0 A, 1480 RPM, three phase rated squirrel cage induction motor, after
decoupling from the driven equipment, was found to be drawing 3.5 A at no load. The current
drawn by the motor at no load is high because of

a) very high supply frequency at the time of no load test b) faulty ammeter reading
c) very poor power factor as the load is almost inductive d) loose motor terminal connections
10. A six pole induction motor operating at 49.6 Hz, with 980 RPM actual speed , will have operating %
slip of

a) 1.21% b) 2% c) 0% d) none of the above


11. The total loss for a transformer loading at 60% and with no load and full load losses of 3 kW and
25 kW respectively, is

a) 3 kW b) 12 kW c) 18 kW d) 25 kW
12. Eff1 (as per IS 12615:2004) induction motor is

a) endorsed by BEE as high efficiency label b) having same efficiency as of Eff2


c) having less efficiency than Eff 2 motor d) not covered in BEE labeling scheme for motors
13. Select the incorrect statement

a) required PF capacitor kVAr at induction motor terminal increases with decrease in speed of the
motor
b) PF capacitor improves power factor from the point of installation back to the load side.
c) induction motor efficiency increases with increase in its rated capacity
d) The largest potential for electricity savings with variable speed drives is generally in variable
torque applications
14. The adsorption material used in an adsorption air dryer is

a) calcium chloride b) magnesium chloride


c) activated alumina and silica gel d) potassium chloride
15. In a textile mill, two 150 cfm belt driven reciprocating compressors are seen to be working
constantly with a loading time of 20 seconds and unloading time of 30 seconds. The best
economic option for energy savings would be:

a) switch off one compressor


b) switch off one compressor and reduce motor pulley size of the other compressor appropriately
c) adopt variable speed drive for one of the compressors

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 – Set A Key

d) none of the above


16. Which of the following pipe fittings used in compressed air pipeline offers maximum resistance

a) Gate Valve b) Tee 90 deg long bend c) Elbow d) Return bend


17. A package air conditioner of 5 TR capacity delivers a cooling effect of 4 TR. If EER (W/W) is 2.90,
the power in kW drawn by compressor would be:

a) 4.85 b) 1.38 c) 1.724 d) none of the above


18. In an air washer of textile humidification system airflow of 3000 m3/h at 25 oC and 10% relative
humidity is humidified to 60% relative humidity by adding water through spray nozzles. The specific
humidity of air at inlet and outlet are 0.002 kg/kg and 0.0062 kg/kg respectively .The amount of
water required in kg/hr is

a) 14.9 b) 6 c) 10 d) none of the above


19. In a vapour compression refrigeration system, the component where the refrigerant fluid
experiences no heat loss or gain is

a) compressor b) condenser c) expansion valve d) evaporator


20. The refrigeration load in TR when 20 m3/hr of water is cooled from 13 oC to 8 oC is about

a) 33 b) 80.3 c) 39.6 d) none of the above


21. In an engine room 15 m long, 10 m wide and 4 m high, ventilation requirement in m3/hr for 20 air
changes/hr is:

a) 6000 b) 9000 c) 12000 d) none of the above


22. The specific ratio as defined by ASME and used in differentiating fans, blowers and compressors,
is given by

a) discharge pressure/suction pressure b) suction pressure/discharge pressure


c) discharge pressure/ (suction pressure + discharge pressure)
d) suction pressure/ (suction pressure + discharge pressure)
23. Friction loss in a piping system carrying fluid is proportional to

a) fluid flow b) (fluid flow)2 c) 1/fluid flow d) 1/(fluid flow)2


24. The efficiency of backward-inclined fans compared to forward curved fans is__

a) lower b) higher c) same d) none of the above


25. For centrifugal fans, the relation between shaft input Power (kW) and Speed (N) is given by
2 3
kW1 N 1 kW1 N 1 kW1 N 1
a) = b) = c) = d) none of the above
kW2 N 2 kW2 N 2 2 kW2 N 2 3
26. The value, by which the pressure in the pump suction exceeds the liquid vapour pressure, is
expressed as

a) static head b) dynamic head c)suction head d) net positive suction head available
27. In a pumping system the static head is 10 m and the dynamic head is 15 m. If the pump speed is
doubled, then the total head will be

a) 50 m b) 70 m c) 40 m d) none of the above


28. The advantage of installing a dedicated servo transformer for lighting feeders is;

a) "Voltage" fluctuations in lighting circuit can be minimized by isolating from the power feeders.
b) reduction of voltage related problems, which in turn increases the efficiency of the lighting
system.
c) with proper control device “over voltage” that might occur during lean load or off-peak can be
avoided, in turn less energy consumption and improved lamp life can be achieved

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 – Set A Key

d) all the above


29. Parallel operation of two identical fans in a ducted system

a) will double the flow b) will double the fan static pressure
c) will increase flow by more than two times d) will not double the flow
30. The COP of a vapour compression refrigeration system is 3.0. If the compressor motor output is
9.555 kW, the tonnage (TR) of the refrigeration system is

a) 8.15 b) 28.665 c) 3 d) none of the above


31. A cooling tower is said to be performing well when:

a) range is close to zero b) approach is close to zero


c) approach is more than design values d) range is equal to approach
32. A process fluid at 40 m3/hr, with a density of 0.95, is flowing in a heat exchanger and is to be
cooled from 35 oC to 29 oC. The fluid specific heat is 0.78 kCal/kg. If the chilled water range
across the heat exchanger is 4 oC, the chilled water flow rate is

a) 44.46 m3/hr b) 40 m3/hr c) 35 m3/hr d) none of the above


33. Input power to the motor driving a pump is 30 kW. The motor efficiency is 0.9. The power
transmitted to the water is 16.2 kW. The pump efficiency is

a) 54% b) 60% c) 90% d) none of the above


34. The most energy intensive dryer among the following

a) refrigeration b) desiccant (heat of compression)


c) desiccant (heatless purge) d) desiccant (blower reactivated)
35. The illuminance is 10 lm/m² from a lamp at 1 meter distance. The illuminance at half the distance
will be

a) 40 lm/m² b) 10 lm/m² c) 5 lm/m² d) none of the above


36. Harmonics are generated by

a) energy efficient motors b) transformers


c) eddy current drives d) variable frequency drives
37. The main precaution to be taken care by the waste heat recovery device manufacturer to prevent
the problem in a DG set during operation is:

a) temperature rise b) back pressure


c) over loading of waste heat recovery tubes d) turbulence of exhaust gases
38. The lamp which gives 10% visible radiation is

a) CFL b) flourescent tube light c) HPSV d) incandescent lamp


39. The electronic ballast in lighting application does not have one of the following characteristics

a) lower operational losses than conventional ballasts


b) tuned circuit to deliver power at 28-32 kHz
c) requiring a starter
d) low temperature rise
40. The lumens output varies from _______ Lumens/Watt in case of White LED lamps.

a) 30-50 b) 75-125 c) 101-175 d) 67-121

_______________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 – Set A Key

41. A fan is operating at 970 RPM developing a flow of 3000 Nm3/hr. at a static pressure of 650
mmWC. If the speed is reduced to 700 RPM, the static pressure (mmWC) developed will be

a) 388.5 b) 244.3 c) 469 d) none of the above


42. The blowdown quantity required in cooling towers is given by

a) evaporation loss/ (cycle of concentration –1)


b) (cycle of concentration –1)/ evaporation loss
c) evaporation loss/ (1 - cycle of concentration)
d) evaporation loss/ (cycle of concentration +1)
43. A hotel building has four floors each of 1000 m2 area. If the Lighting Power Density ( LPD) is 10.8
W/m2, the interior lighting power allowance for the hotel building is

a)10800 W b) 21600 W c) 43200 W d) none of the above


44. A DG set is generating 900 kVA at 0.8 PF. If the specific fuel consumption of this DG set is 0.3 lts/
kWh at that load, then how much fuel is consumed while delivering generated power for one hour.

a) 270 litres b) 300 litres c) 216 litres d) none of the above


45. Energy Performance Index (EPI) kWh/m2 /yr is calculated based on

a) total building annual electrical energy consumption/ built up area


b) total building annual electrical energy consumption/ carpet area
c) total building annual electrical energy consumption for HVAC & lighting/ built up area
d) none of the above
46. Two most important electrical parameters, which are to be monitored on generator panel, among
the following, for safe operation of a Diesel generator set are:

a) voltage and ampere b) kVA and ampere c) power factor and voltage d) kW and kVA
47. Which of the following is not a climate zone as per ECBC classification?

a) hot-dry b) warm-humid c) cold d) cold-humid


48. The T2,T5,T8 and T12 fluorescent tube light are categorized based on

a) diameter of the tube b) length of the tube


c) both diameter and length of the tube d) none of the above
49. Select the feature which does not apply to energy efficient motors by design:

a) energy efficient motors last longer


b) starting torque for efficient motors may be lower than for standard motors
c) energy efficient motors have high slips which results in speeds about 1% lower than standard
motors
d) energy efficient motors have low slips which results in speeds about 1% higher than standard
motors
50. Select the incorrect statement:

a) Metal halide lamp can be considered as a variant of high pressure mercury vapour lamp
(HPMV)
b) Efficacy of fluorescent tube light (FTL) remains constant throughout its operational life
c) HPSV lamps differ from mercury and metal-halide lamps in that they do not contain starting
electrodes
d) LPSV lamps are the most efficacious light sources, but they produce the poorest quality light of
all the lamp types

…….……. End of Section – I ………..….


11th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – February, 2011

_______________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 – Set A Key

FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – 3: Energy Efficiency in Electrical Utilities

Date: 06.02.2011 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o All questions are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

(i) Answer all Eight questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 Compute AT & C (Aggregate Technical and Commercial) losses for the following
data:

Annual
Description
Data
Input energy = (import - export), MU 10
Energy billed (metered), MU 6
Energy billed (Un-metered), MU 1
Amount billed (Rs. lakhs ) 400
Gross amount collected (Rs. lakhs) 410
Arrears collected (Rs. lakhs) 40

Ans:

Estimation of AT & C Losses


S. Annual
Description
No. Data
1 Input Energy = (Import-Export), MU Ei 10
2a Energy Billed (Metered), MU E1 6
2b Energy Billed (Un-Metered), MU E2 1
2c Total Energy Billed ( E1 + E2 ) Eb 7
3 Amount Billed (Rs. lakhs ) Ab 400
4a Gross Amount Collected (Rs. lakhs) AG 410
4b Arrears Collected (Rs. lakhs) Ar 40
Amount Collected without Arrears
4c Ac=AG-Ar 370
(Rs. lakhs)
5 Billing Efficiency (BE) = Eb/Ei *100% 70%
6 Collection Efficiency(CE) =Ac/Ab *100% 93%

{1- (BE *CE )


7 AT& C Loss 35%
*100%

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
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S-2 Match the following load-shape objectives of any Demand Side Management (DSM)
programme of a utility.

Peak Clipping
i a

ii
Valley filling b

Load shifting
iii c

Conservation
iv d

Load building
v e

Ans:

i – c; ii – d; iii – b; iv – e; v-a

S-3 The power input to a three phase induction motor is 52 kW. If the induction motor is
operating at a slip of 1.9% and with total stator losses of 1.30 kW, find the total
mechanical power developed.

Ans:

Stator input: 52 kW
Stator losses: 1.30 kW
Stator output: 52-1.30= 50.7kW = Rotor input

Slip= 1.9%
Mechanical Power Out put= ( 1-s)x Rotor Input
= (1- 0.019) x 50.7=0.981x 50.7=49.737 kW

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S-4 In a Commercial building, five window ACs each of 1.5 TR capacity, were
evaluated for replacement with three star labeled new ACs having Energy Efficiency
Ratio (EER) of 2.50 kW/kW. The measured EER of existing ACs is as follows.

Existing EER

AC No 1 2.05
AC No 2 2.19
AC No 3 2.30
AC No 4 2.40
AC No 5 2.17

Calculate the total kW saving potential if all the existing ACs are replaced with 3 star
labeled ACs of same capacity?

Ans:

Input kW = TR delivered*3.516/EER

For 3 star AC input power = 1.5 x 3.516/2.5 = 2.11 kW

The power consumption of existing ACs works out as follows:

Existing kW input
AC No1 2.573
AC No2 2.408
AC No3 2.293
AC No4 2.198
AC No5 2.430

Total 11.902

Savings potential = 11.902 – (2.11 x 5)


= 1.352 kW

S-5 The following data of a water pump of a process plant have been collected

Flow: 70 m3/hr, Total head: 24 meters, Power drawn by motor– 7.2 kW, Motor
efficiency – 89%. Determine the pump efficiency

Ans:
Hydraulic power Q (m3/s) x total head (m) x 1000 x 9.81 /1000
(70/3600) x 24 x 1000 x 9.81/1000
Hydraulic power 4.578kW

Power input to pump 7.2x 0.9


6.48 kW

Pump efficiency 4.578/6.48

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 – Set A Key

70.65 %

S-6 List any 5 energy conservation opportunities in agriculture pump sets

Ans:

The following energy conservation opportunites have been demonstrated for energy
saving in agricultural pumping.

♦ Installation of low friction foot valves


♦ Installation of low friction HDPE suction and delivery pipes
♦ Installation of long bends
♦ Installation of high efficiency pumps and motors
♦ Lower discharge head

S-7 Write any 5 industrial applications of a heat pump.

Ans:
Industrial heat pumps are mainly used for:

• Space heating
• Heating of process streams
• Water heating for washing, sanitation and cleaning
• Steam production
• Drying/dehumidification
• Evaporation
• Distillation
• Concentration

S-8 An induced draft-cooling tower is designed for a range of 8 °C. The energy auditor
finds the operating range as 2 °C during the conduct of energy audit. In your opinion
what could be the reasons for this situation

Ans:
1. There may be excess cooling water flow rate
2. There may be reduced heat load from the process
3. Some of the cooling tower cells fan are switched off
4. Approach may be poor because of high humid condition
5. Cooling tower nozzles may be blocked

-------- End of Section – II ---------

_______________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 – Set A Key

Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 6 x 10 = 60

i. Answer all Six questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1 The contract demand of a process plant is 6000 kVA with the electricity supply utility
company. The average monthly recorded maximum demand of the process plant is
5500 kVA at a power factor of 0.78. The utility bill analysis provides the following tariff
structure.

a) Minimum monthly billing demand is 75% of the contract demand or the actual recorded
maximum demand whichever is higher. No PF improvement incentives are provided.

b) Monthly maximum demand (MD) charge is Rs. 400 per kVA.

Find out the optimum limit of power factor capacitor requirement entirely from the
view of reducing maximum demand so that no excess demand charges are paid to
the supply company. Also work out the simple payback period, assuming cost of
power factor capacitor installation along with automatic power factor correction
controller is Rs. 500 per kVAr.

Ans:

Minimum payable demand = 6000 x 0.75 = 4500 kVA


Margin available for reduction of MD = 5500 – 4500 = 1000 kVA
Present maximum load in kW = 5500 x 0.78 = 4290 kW
Desired peak power factor to achieve MD of 4500 kVA = 4290/ 4500
= 0.9533

Power factor capacitor requirement to achieve the desired power factor


= 4290 [tan (Cos-1 0.78) – tan (Cos-1 0.9533)]
= 4290 (tan 38.74 – tan 17.579)
= 4290(0.80226-0.316815)
= 4290(0.4854)
=2083 kVAr

Cost of power factor capacitor installation = Rs. 500 per kVAr x 2083 kVAr = 10.4
lakhs
Monthly savings due to MD reduction = 1000 kVA
Yearly savings = 1000 x 400 x 12 = Rs. 48.0 lakhs
Simple payback period = investment cost / yearly savings = 10.4/ 48 = 0.21 years =
2.6 months

L-2 Fill in the blanks for the following

a) With increase in condensing temperature in a vapor compression refrigeration


system, the specific power consumption of the compressor for a constant evaporator
temperature will________

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Paper 3 – Set A Key

b) With increase in evaporator temperature in a vapor compression refrigeration system,


while maintaining a constant condenser temperature, the specific power consumption
of the compressor will ______
c) Lower power factor of a DG set demands_________excitation current
d) Slip power recovery system is used in _________ induction motor
e) If voltage is reduced from 230 V to 200 V for a fluorescent tube light, it will result in
____ power consumption
f) _____ fans are known as “non-overloading“ because change in static pressure do not
overload the motor
g) ________head is the friction loss, on the liquid being moved, in pipes, valves and
equipment in the system
h) Ratio of the light reflected by a surface to the solar light incident upon it, is
called________
i) __________is the ratio of solar heat gain that passes through fenestration to the total
incident solar radiation that falls on the fenestration
j) luminous flux incident on an object per unit area is defined as _________________

Ans:
a. increase
b. decrease
c. higher
d. slipring
e. reduced
f. backward-inclined
g. dynamic
h. Solar Reflactance
i. Solar heat gain coefficient
j. illuminance

L-3 A free air delivery test was carried out before conducting a leakage test on a
reciprocating air compressor in an engineering industry and following were the
observations:

Receiver capacity : 12 m3
Initial pressure : 0.2 kg / cm2 (g)
Final pressure : 7.0 kg / cm2 (g)
Additional hold-up volume : 0.3 m3
Atmospheric pressure : 1.026 kg / cm2 (a)
Compressor pump-up time : 4.8 minutes

The following was observed during the conduct of leakage test during the lunch time
when no pneumatic equipment/ control valves were in operation:

a) Compressor on load time is 40 seconds and unloading pressure is 7 kg/cm2 (g)


b) Average power drawn by the compressor during loading is 95 kW
c) Compressor unload time and loading pressure are 90 seconds and 6.6 kg/cm2 (g)
respectively.

Find out the following:

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Paper 3 – Set A Key

(i) Compressor output in m3/hr (neglect temperature correction)


(ii) Specific Power Consumption, kW/ m3/hr
(iii) % air leakage in the system
(iv) leakage quantity in m3/hr
(v) power lost due to leakage

Ans.
(i)
Compressor output m3/minute :
(P2 − P1 ) × Total Volume
Atm. Pressure × Pump up time
:
(7.0 − 0.2)× 12.3 = 16.9834 m3/minute
1.026 × 4.8
: 1019 m3/hr

power consumption : 95 kW
output : 1019 m3/hr
(ii)
Specific power consumption : 95/1019 = 0.093228 kW/m3/hr
(iii) % Leakage in the system
Load time (T) : 40 secs.
Un load time (t) : 90 secs
T
% leakage in the system : x 100
(T + t)
40
: x100
(40 + 90)
: 30.77%
iv) Leakage quantity : 0.3077x1019
: 313.54 m3/hr
v) Power lost due to leakage : Leakage quantity x specific power
consumption
: 313.54 x 0.093228
: 29.23 kW

L-4 An energy audit was conducted to find out the ton of refrigeration (TR) of an Air
Handling Unit (AHU). The audit observations are as under.

Parameter Values
Evaporator area (m2) 10.0
Inlet velocity (m/s) 1.9
Inlet air DBT (°C) 21.5
RH (%) 75.0
Enthalpy (kJ/kg) 53.0
Out let air DBT (°C) 17.4
RH (%) 90.0
Enthalpy (kJ/kg) 46.4
Density of air (kg/m3) 1.14

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 – Set A Key

Find out the TR of AHU.

Ans:

AHU refrigeration load =

Air flow rate (m3 / h) x Density of air (kg / m3 ) x Difference in enthalpy


3024 x 4.18

(10.0 x1.9 x 3600) x (1.14) (53 − 46.4)


AHU = = 40.71 TR
3024 x 4.18

L-5 Write short notes on any two of the following:

a) Energy Efficiency Measures in Buildings


b) Building Management System (BMS)
c) Energy Conservation Building Codes (ECBC)

Ans:

a) Energy Efficiency Measures in Buildings

Air-Conditioning System

Weather Stripping of Windows and Doors

Minimise exfiltration of cool air and infiltration of warm air through leaky windows and
doors by incorporating effective means of weather stripping. Self-closing doors
should also be provided where heavy traffic of people is anticipated.

Temperature and Humidity Setting

Ensure human comfort by setting the temperature to between 23oC and 25oC and the
relative humidity between 55% and 65%.

Chilled Water Leaving Temperature

Ensure higher chiller energy efficiency by maintaining the chilled water leaving
temperature at or above 7o C. As a rule of thumb, the efficiency of a centrifugal chiller
increases by about 2¼ % for every 1o C rise in the chilled water leaving temperature.

Chilled Water Pipes and Air Ducts

Ensure that the insulation of the chilled water pipes and ducting system is maintained
in good condition. This helps to prevent heat gain from the surroundings.

Chiller Condenser Tubes


Ensure that mechanical cleaning of the tubes is carried out at least once every six
months. Fouling in the condenser tubes in the form of slime and scales reduces the

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 – Set A Key

heat transfer of the condenser tubes and thereby reducing the energy efficiency of
the chiller.

Cooling Towers

Ensure that the cooling towers are clean to allow for maximum heat transfer so that
the temperature of the water returning to the condenser is less than or equal to the
ambient temperature.

Air Handling Unit Fan Speed

Install devices such as frequency converters to vary the fan speed. This will reduce
the energy consumption of the fan motor by as much as 15%.

Air Filter Condition

Maintain the filter in a clean condition. This will improve the heat transfer between air
and chilled water and correspondingly reduce the energy consumption.

Lighting System

Switch off Lights When Not In Use

Provision of Separate Switches for Peripheral Lighting

A flexible lighting system, which made use of natural lighting for the peripherals of the
room, should be considered so that these peripheral lights can be switched off when
not needed.

Install High Efficiency Lighting System

Use lamps with high luminous efficacy. For example, replacing incandescent bulbs
with compact fluorescent lamps can reduce electricity consumption by 75% without
any reduction in illumination levels.

Fluorescent Tube Ballasts

The ballast losses of conventional ballast and electronic ballast are 12W and 2W
respectively. Hence, consider the use of electronic ballast for substantial energy
savings in the lighting system.

Lamp Fixtures or Luminaires

Optical lamp luminaries made of aluminum, silver or multiple dielectric coatings have
better light distribution characteristics. Use them to reduce electricity consumption by
as much as 50% without compromising on illumination levels.

Integration of Lighting System with Air-Conditioning System

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 – Set A Key

In open plan offices, the air-conditioning and lighting systems can be combined in
such a way that the return air is extracted through the lighting luminaires. This
measure ensures that lesser heat will be directed from the lights into the room.

Cleaning of Lights and Fixtures

Clean the lights and fixtures regularly. For best results, dust at least four times a
year.

Use Light Colors for Walls, Floors and Ceilings

The higher surface reflectance values of light colors will help to make the most of any
existing lighting system.

b) Building Management System (BMS)

Energy management systems can vary considerably in complexity and degree of


sophistication. The simplest timing mechanism to switch systems ON and OFF at
pre-determined intervals on a routine basis could be considered as an energy
management system. These progresses to include additional features such as
programmers,
thermostatic controls,
motorised valves,
zoning, and optimum
start controllers and
compensated circuits.

The most complex of


energy management
systems have a
computerised central
controller linked to
numerous sensors and
information sources.
These could include the
basic internal and
external range shown
schematically in Figure
10.9, along with further
processed data to
include: the time, the
day of the week, time
of year, percentage
occupancy of a Figure :Building Energy Management
building,
meteorological data, system state feedback factors for plant efficiency at any one
time and energy gain data from the sun. lighting, machinery and people.

A microprocessor is the main feature of the control system. Data on temperature,


flow rates, pressures, etc., as appropriate, are collected from sensors in the system

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 – Set A Key

and in the treated spaces and stored in the memory of the processor. Equations are
developed for defining the performance of the control elements, the items of plant
and the behavioural characteristics of the systems. These equations are fed into the
micro-processor as algorithms. The deviations from the desired performance are
dealt with by calculations using the equations fed in. This in turn controls the overall
systems. So in effect, mathematical functions replace control modes.

For example, if the room temperature rose in a conditioned space, the correct
position of the valve in the chilled water line feeding the AHU could be calculated and
corrected as necessary, to bring the room temperature back to the set point as
rapidly as possible. Data can be stored to establish trends and anticipation can be
built into the program so that excessive swings in controlled conditions may be
prevented. Based on the operating experience, self-correction can be incorporated to
get the best possible system performance. This implies that, commissioning
inadequacies and possibly even design faults can be corrected, but only to a certain
extent. Only if the systems are properly designed, installed and commissioned,
optimum results can be obtained and the cost of the installation can be justified.

The functions of a building management system (BMS) or building energy


management system (BEMS) are monitoring and control of the services and
functions of a building, in a way that it is economical and efficient in the use of
energy. It may be arranged that one system can control a group of buildings.

c) Energy Conservation Building Codes (ECBC)

Energy Conservation Building Codes are developed to set minimum energy efficiency
standards for design and construction of commercial and residential buildings, to
encourage energy efficient design or retrofit of buildings so that it does not constrain
the building function, comfort, health, or the productivity of the occupants.

In order to implement ECBC across the country in India, it has been decided to group
the country in five climatic zones as per the weather conditions. The Five Climatic
Zones are:

o Composite (Delhi)
o Hot-Dry (Ahmedabad)
o Warm-Humid (Kolkata)
o Moderate / Temperate (Bangalore)
o Cold (Shillong)

The ECBC considers the following aspects of the buildings:

a) Building envelopes, except for unconditioned storage spaces or warehouses,


b) Mechanical systems and equipment, including heating, ventilation and air
conditioning,
c) Service hot water heating,
d) Interior and exterior lighting, and
e) Electrical power and motors.

The provisions of this ECBC code do not apply to:

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 – Set A Key

a) Buildings that do not use either electricity or fossil fuel,


b) Equipment and portions of building systems that use energy primarily for
manufacturing processes and
c) Multi-family buildings of three or fewer storey above grade, and single-family
buildings.

L-6 A cooling tower cools 1450 m3/hr of water from 43 ºC to 36.6 ºC at 30 ºC wet bulb
temperature. The cooling tower fan flow air rate is 9,50,000 m3/hr (air density =1.08
kg/m3) and operates at 2.7 cycles of concentration.

Find out the following

a) Range
b) Approach
c) % CT Effectiveness
d) L/G Ratio in kg/kg
e) Cooling Duty Handled in TR
f) Evaporation Losses in m3/hr
g) Blow down requirement in m3/hr
h) Make up water requirement in m3/hr

Ans:

* CT Flow, m3/hr = 1450(1450000 kg/hr)


* CT Fan Flow, m3/hr = 950000
* CT Fan Flow kg/hr = 1026000
@ Density of 1.08 kg/m3
d) L/G Ratio of C.T. kg/kg = 1.41325
Mark: 1
a) CT Range = (43 – 36.6) = 6.4oC
Mark: 1
b) CT Approach = (36.6 – 30) = 6.6oC
Mark: 1
c) % CT Effectiveness = 100 * [Range/Range +
Approach]
= 100 * (6.4) / (6.4 + 6.6)
= 49.23%
* Marks: 1

e) Cooling Duty Handled in kCal = 1450 * 6.4 * 103


(i.e., Flow * Temperature Difference in kCal/hr) = 9280* 103 kCal/hr / 3024
= 3068TR
Marks: 2
f) Evaporation Losses in m3/hr = 0.00085 x 1.8 x 1450x 6.4
= 14.1984m3/hr

* Percentage Evaporation Loss = [ 14.1984/1450]*100


= 0.98%
Marks: 2
g) Blow down requirement for site COC of 2.7 = Evaporation losses/COC–

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 – Set A Key

1
= 14.198 /(2.7–1) = 8.352
m3/hr
Mark: 1
h) Make up water requirement in m3/hr = Evaporation Loss + Blow
down Loss
= 14.198 + 8.352
= 22.55

……. End of Section – III ………….…

_______________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

Regn No: _________________

Name: ___________________

(To be written by the candidates)

12th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – October, 2011


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – 3: Energy Efficiency in Electrical Utilities

Date: 16.10.2011 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

(i) Answer all Eight questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 Briefly explain transformer losses and how the total transformer losses at any load level can be computed.

Ans Transformer losses consist of two parts: No-load loss and Load loss

1. No-load loss (also called core loss) is the power consumed to sustain the magnetic field in the transformer's steel
core. Core loss occurs whenever the transformer is energized; core loss does not vary with load. Core losses are
caused by two factors: hysteresis and eddy current losses. Hysteresis loss is that energy lost by reversing the
magnetic field in the core as the magnetizing AC rises and falls and reverses direction. Eddy current loss is a
result of induced currents circulating in the core.

2. Load loss (also called copper loss) is associated with full-load current flow in the transformer windings. Copper
loss is power lost in the primary and secondary windings of a transformer due to the ohmic resistance of the
windings. Copper loss varies with the square of the load current. (P=I2R).

For a given transformer, the manufacturer can supply values for no-load loss, P NO-LOAD , and load loss, P LOAD . The total
transformer loss, P TOTAL , at any load level can then be calculated from:
P TOTAL = P NO-LOAD + (% Load/100)2 x P LOAD

Where transformer loading is known, the actual transformers loss at given load can be computed as:

2
 kVA Load 
= No load loss +   full load loss
 Rated kVA 

S-2 A 15 kW, 3 phase, 415 V induction motor draws 25 A and 12 kW input power at 410 V. Calculate the Apparent
and Reactive Power drawn by the motor at the operating load?
Ans Apparent power = 1.7321 x 0.410 x 25 = 17.15 Kva

Reactive power = sqrt (apparent power 2- active power2)

Active power = 12 kW
Therefore reactive power = sqrt (315.2-144)
= sqrt (171.2) = 13.08 kVAr

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

S-3 List any five energy conservation opportunities in a fan system.


Minimizing demands on the fan.
Ans
1. Minimising excess air level in combustion systems to reduce FD fan and ID fan load.
2. Minimising air in-leaks in hot flue gas path to reduce ID fan load, especially in case of kilns, boiler plants,
furnaces, etc. Cold air in-leaks increase ID fan load tremendously, due to density increase of flue gases and
in-fact choke up the capacity of fan, resulting as a bottleneck for boiler / furnace itself.
3. In-leaks / out-leaks in air conditioning systems also have a major impact on energy efficiency and fan power
consumption and need to be minimized.

The findings of performance assessment trials will automatically indicate potential areas for improvement, which could
be one or a more of the following:

1. Change of impeller by a high efficiency impeller along with cone.


2. Change of fan assembly as a whole, by a higher efficiency fan
3. Impeller derating (by a smaller dia impeller)
4. Change of metallic / Glass reinforced Plastic (GRP) impeller by the more energy efficient hollow FRP
impeller with aerofoil design, in case of axial flow fans, where significant savings have been reported
5. Fan speed reduction by pulley dia modifications for derating
6. Option of two speed motors or variable speed drives for variable duty conditions
7. Option of energy efficient flat belts, or, cogged raw edged V belts, in place of conventional V belt systems,
for reducing transmission losses.
8. Adopting inlet guide vanes in place of discharge damper control
9. Minimizing system resistance and pressure drops by improvements in duct system

A water pump of a process plant is analysed for efficiency and following data is collected:
S-4
Flow - 50 m3/hr, Suction head -3 meters, Discharge head - 27 meter, meters, Power drawn by motor – 7.5 kW,
Motor efficiency – 88%

Determine the pump efficiency

Hydraulic power Q (m3/s) x total head (m) x 1000 x 9.81 /1000

(50/3600) x 24 x 1000 x 9.81/1000


Hydraulic power 3.27 kW

Power input to pump 7.5x 0.88


6.6 kW

Pump efficiency 3.27/6.6


49.54%

Distinguish between NPSH available and NPSH required in case of a centrifugal pump ?
S-5

Ans NPSH Required (NPSHR): The minimum pressure required at the suction port of the pump to keep the pump from
cavitating.

NPSHA is a function of pumping system and must be calculated, whereas NPSHR is a function of the pump and must
be provided by the pump manufacturer. NPSHA must be greater than NPSHR for the pump system to operate
without cavitating. Put another way, you must have more suction side pressure available than the pump requires.

S-6 A DG set is operating at 600 kW load with 450OC exhaust gas temperature. The DG set generates 8 kg of
exhaust gas/ kWh generated. The specific heat of gas at 450oC is 0.25 kCal/ kgOC. A heat recovery boiler is
installed after which the exhaust temperature drops to 230OC. How much steam will be generated at 3 kg/ cm2
with enthalpy of 650.57 kCal/ kg. Assume boiler feed water temperature as 80oC.

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

Ans = 600 kWh x 8 kg gas generated/ kWh output x 0.25 kCal/ kg oC x (450oC-230 oC) =2,64,000 kCal/hr

Steam generation = 2,64,000 kCal/hr / (650.57 – 80) = 462.7 kg/ hr.

S-7 3
An energy audit of a fan was carried out. It was observed that the fan was delivering 16,000 Nm /hr of air with
static pressure rise of 55 mm WC. The power measurement of the 3-phase induction motor coupled with the
fan recorded 2.1 kW/ phase on an average. The motor operating efficiency was assessed as 86% from the
motor performance curves. What would be the fan static efficiency?.

Ans Q = 16,000 Nm3 / hr.= 4.444 m3/sec ,


SP = 55 mmWC,
η St = ?,

Power input to motor= 2.1x3=6.3 kW


Power input to fan shaft=6.3 x0.86=5.418 kW

Fan static η = Volume in m3/sec x ∆P st in mmWc


102 x Power input to shaft

= 4.444 x 55
102 x 5.418
= 0.4423
= 44.23%

S-8 Discuss in brief any three methods by which energy can be saved in a building air conditioning system

Ans a) Cold Insulation

Insulate all cold lines / vessels using economic insulation thickness to minimize heat gains; and choose
appropriate (correct) insulation.

b) Building Envelop

Optimise air conditioning volumes by measures such as use of false ceiling and segregation of critical areas for
air conditioning by air curtains.

c) Building Heat Loads Minimisation

Minimise the air conditioning loads by measures such as roof cooling, roof painting, efficient lighting, pre-cooling
of fresh air by air- to-air heat exchangers, variable volume air system, otpimal thermo-static setting of
temperature of air conditioned spaces, sun film applications, etc.

-------- End of Section – II ---------

_______________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 6 x 10 = 60

(i) Answer all Six questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1 An energy audit of electricity bills of a process plant was conducted. The plant has a contract demand of 5000
kVA with the power supply company. The average maximum demand of the plant is 3850 kVA/month at a
power factor of 0.95. The maximum demand is billed at the rate of Rs.600/kVA/month. The minimum billable
maximum demand is 75 % of the contract demand. An incentive of 0.5 % reduction in energy charges
component of electricity bill are provided for every 0.01 increase in power factor over and above 0.95. The
average energy charge component of the electricity bill per month for the plant is Rs.18 lakhs.

The plant decides to improve the power factor to unity. Determine the power factor capacitor kVAr required,
annual reduction in maximum demand charges and energy charge component. What will be the simple
payback period if the cost of power factor capacitors is Rs.900/kVAr.

Ans kW drawn 3850 x 0.95 =

3657.5 kW
Kvar required to improve power factor from 0.95 to 1 kW ( tan θ 1 – tan θ 2 )
kW ( tan (cos-θ 1 ) – tan (cos-θ 2 )
3657.5 ( tan (cos-0.95) – tan (cos-1)
3657.5(0.329 - 0)
1203 x 900 kVAr
Cost of capacitors @Rs.900/kVAr Rs.10,82,700
s

Maximum demand at unity power factor 3657.5/1 = 3657.5 kVA


75 % of contract demand 5000x0.75=3750 kVA
Reduction in Demand charges 3850-3750= 100kVa, as the plant has to pay
MD charges on minimum billable demand of
3750, and not on the improved MD of 3657.5
kVA in this case

100kVA/month x 12 months x Rs.600 kVA/


month= Rs.7,20,000

Percentage reduction in energy charge from 0.95 to 1 2.5 %


@ 0.5 % for every 0.01 increase
Monthly energy cost component of the bill Rs.18,00,000
Reduction in energy cost component 18,00,000 x (2.5/100)
Rs.45,000/month
Annual reduction Rs.45,000 x 12
Rs.5,40,000

Savings in electricity bill Rs.7,20,000+ 5,40,000= 12,60,000


Investment Rs.10,82,700
Payback period 10,82,700/12,60,000
0.859 years or 10.31months

_______________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

L-2 Fill in the blanks for the following

1. The ratio of solar heat gain that passes through fenestration to the total incident solar radiation that falls on the
fenestration is called ________
2. Presenting the load demand of a consumer against time of the day is known as______ curve
3. The vector sum of active power and reactive power is ____.
4. The ratio of isothermal power to actual measured input power of an air compressor is known as------:
5. The type of main input energy used for refrigeration in vapor absorption refrigeration plants is____
6. One ton of refrigeration is equivalent to ______kW
7. Stray losses in an induction motor generally are proportional to the square of the ________current
8. The capacitor kVAR selected for PF Correction at the induction motor terminals , should not exceed ____ % of
the no-load kVAR of the motor.
9. The ratio of luminous flux emitted by a lamp to the power consumed by the lamp is called_________________.
10. In an amorphous core distribution transformer, ______ loss is less than a conventional transformer

Ans 1. Solar Heat Gain Coefficient (SHGC)


2. Load or hourly load
3. Apparent Power
4. Isothermal efficiency
5. Thermal energy (or steam or waste heat or gas or any energy related to thermal energy)
6. 3.51
7. rotor
8. 90
9. Luminous efficacy
10. No load or core

L-3 A free air delivery test was carried out before conducting a leakage test on a reciprocating air compressor in
an engineering industry and following were the observations:
3
Receiver capacity : 8.0 m
Initial pressure : 0.1 kg / cm2g
Final pressure : 7.0 kg / cm2g
Additional hold-up volume : 0.3 m3
Atmospheric pressure : 1.026 kg / cm2 abs.
Compressor pump-up time : 3.5 minutes

Further the following observations were made during the conduct of leakage test during the lunch time when
no pneumatic equipment/ control valves were in operation:

a) Compressor on load time is 24 seconds and unloading pressure is 7 kg/cm2g


b) Average power drawn by the compressor during loading is 92 kW
c) Compressor unload time and loading pressure are 79 seconds and 6.6
kg/cm2 g respectively.

Find out the following:

(i) Compressor output in m3/hr(neglect temperature correction)


(ii) Specific Power Consumption, kW/ m3/hr
(iii) % air leakage in the system
(iv) leakage quantity in m3/hr
(v) power lost due to leakage

_______________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

Ans
(i) Compressor output m3/minute : (P2 − P1 ) × Total Volume
Atm. Pressure × Pumpup time

: (7.0 − 0.1) × 8.3 = 15.9482 m3/minute


1.026 × 3.5
: 956.89 m3/hr

(ii)
3
output : 956.89 m /hr
power consumption : 92 kW
Specific power consumption : 92/956.89 = 0.09614 kW/m3/hr

(iii) % Leakage in the system


Load time (T) : 24 secs.
Un load time (t) : 79 secs
% leakage in the system : T
x 100
(T + t)
: 24
x 100
(24 + 79)
: 23.3%

iv) Leakage quantity : 0.233x956.89


:222.955 m3/hr

v) Power lost due to leakage : Leakage quantity x specific power consumption


: 222.955 x 0.09614
: 21.43 kW

L-4 a) In a Thermal Power Station, steam input to a turbine operating on a fully condensing mode is 110
Tonnes/Hr. The heat rejection requirement of the steam turbine condenser is 556 kCals/kg of steam
condensed. The cooling water temperatures at the inlet to and outlet from the turbine condenser were
measured to be 29oC and 38o C respectively. Find out the circulating cooling water flow.

b) An energy audit was conducted to find out the ton of refrigeration (TR) of an Air Handling Unit (AHU). The
audit observations are as under.

Parameter AHU
Evaporator area (m2) 9.5
Inlet velocity (m/s) 1.9
Inlet air DBT (°C) 21.5
RH (%) 75.0
Enthalpy (kJ/kg) 53.0
Out let air DBT (°C) 17.4
RH (%) 90.0
Enthalpy (kJ/kg) 46.4
Density of air (kg/m3) 1.14

Find out the TR of AHU.

_______________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

Ans a)

Heat rejected = Heat pickup by cooling water


Steam flow rate x heat rejection = cooling water flow rate x Cp x ΔT

110 (TPH) x 1000 (kg/T) x 556 = Cooling water flow rate x 1 kCal/kg oC x (38-29) oC

Cooling water flow rate = 6795.55 m3/hr

b)

Q × ρ × (h in − h out )
TR =
3024

Where, Q is the air flow in m3/h


ρ is density of air kg/m3
h in is enthalpy of inlet air kCal/kg
h out is enthalpy of outlet air kCal/kg

Q (m3/hr) = Area (m2) X Inlet velocity (m/s) X 3600 (s/hr)


= 9.5 X 1.9 X 3600 = 64980 m3/hr

ρ = 1.14 kg/m3

h in = 53.0 kJ/kg = 12.667 kCal/kg


h out = 46.4 kJ/kg = 11.089 kCal/kg

TR = 64980 X 1.14 X (12.667 – 11.089) / 3024 = 38.65 TR

L-5 a) The efficiency at various stages from power plant to end-use is given below.

Efficiency of power generation in the power plant - 30 %


T & D losses - 23 %
Distribution loss of the plant - 6 %.
Equipment end use efficiency - 65 %.

What is the overall cascade system efficiency from generation to end-use?

b) The energy audit observations at a cooling tower (CT) in a process industry are given below:

Cooling Water (CW) Flow : 3000 m3/hr


CW in Temperature: 41deg. C
CW Out Temperature: 31 deg C
Wet Bulb Temperature: 24 deg. C
Find out Range, Approach, Effectiveness and cooling tower capacity in kCal per hour of the CT ?

Ans a) Overall cascade system efficiency from generation to end-use =


= 0.30X (1- 0.23)X(1- 0.06)X0.65
= 0.1411=14.11%

b) Range = (Inlet -Outlet) Cooling Water Temperature deg. C


Approach = (Outlet Cooling Water - Air Wet Bulb) Temperature deg. C

Range= (41 – 31) = 10 deg. C


Approach = (31 – 24) = 7 deg C

% CT Effectiveness= Range/(Range + approach)X100


% Effectiveness = 100X[Range/(Approach + Range)]
= 10/[10+7]X100 = 58.8 %

Cooling capacity, kCal/hr = heat rejected = CW flow rate in kg per hour X (CW inlet hot water tem. to CT, deg. C-

_______________________ 7
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

CW outlet cold well temp , deg. C)

Cooling capacity = 3000X1000X (41 - 31) = 30,000,000 kCal per hour = 30 Million kCal per hour

L-6 Write short notes on any three of the following


(i) Effect of supply voltage on capacitor KVAR rating
(ii) Pump impeller trimming
(iii) Affinity laws for centrifugal machines
(iv) Trigeneration
(v) Building fenestration

Ans i) Ideally capacitor voltage rating is to match the supply voltage. If the supply voltage is lower, the reactive kVAr
2 2
produced will be the ratio V /V where V is the actual supply voltage, V is the rated voltage.
1 2 1 2

ii) Impeller trimming refers to the process of machining the diameter of an impeller to reduce the energy added to
the system fluid.

Impeller trimming offers a useful correction to pumps that, through overly conservative design practices or changes in
system loads are oversized for their application. The laws with respect to impeller trimming will be

Flow, Q ∝ D
Head, H ∝ D 2
Power, P ∝ D 3

iii) The equations relating centrifugal machine performance parameters of flow, head and power absorbed, to
speed are known as the Affinity Laws:

Flow, Q ∝ N
Head, H ∝ N 2
Power, P ∝ N 3

Where,
Q = Flow rate
H = Head or resistance
P = Power absorbed
N = Rotating speed

iv) Trigeneration refers to simultaneous generation of steam (heat), power and refrigeration through integrated
systems. . For example in a DG set besides power is generated, Steam is produced with waste exhaust gases and
Chilled water is generated using jacket cooling water. Three different utilities are created using a single fuel as energy
source.

v) Fenestration systems include windows, skylights, ventilators, and doors that are more than one-half glazed. All
openings (including the frames) in the building envelope that let in light. Total area of the fenestration measured using
the rough opening (including glazing, sash and frame). For glass doors where glazed vision area is less than 50% of
the door area, the fenestration area is the glazed vision area; otherwise, it is the door area.

……. End of Section – III ………….…

_______________________ 8
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Solutions

Regn No: _________________

Name: ___________________

(To be written by the candidate)

9th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – December, 2009


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS AND ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – 3: Energy Efficiency in Electrical Utilities

Date: 20.12.2009 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 15 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i) Answer all 50 questions


(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or
HB pencil, as per instructions

1 In the city electrical distribution scheme, a proposal is being prepared to upgrade 33 kV


network to 66 kV. The distribution loss, corresponding to the same quantum of load in
the proposed upgraded system will be

a) less by 25% b) less by 33%


c) less by 75% d) none of the above
2 Rating of power factor correction capacitors at induction motor terminals should be

a) 100% of no load magnetizing kVAr of induction motor


b) 90% of no load magnetizing kVAr of induction motor
c) 120% of no load magnetizing kVAr of induction motor
d) none of the above
3 Select the correct statement:

a) the advantage of PF improvement by capacitor addition in an electric network is that


active power component of the network is reduced
b) the power factor indicated in the monthly electricity bill is the lowest power factor
recorded at any time during the billing month

_______________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Solutions

c) PF capacitors operating at lower voltage then their rated values have higher operating
kVArs then their rated values
d) the power factor of an induction motor decreases with decrease in percentage motor
loading
4 If the efficiencies of a power plant, transmission and distribution systems are 30%, 95%
& 85% respectively, the cascade efficiency of power generation, and transmission
system is given by

a) 24.23% b) 28.5 % c) 80.75% d) 95%


5 Which of the following is not likely to create harmonics in an electrical system?

a) soft starters b) variable frequency drives


c) uninterrupted power supply source (UPS) d) induction motors
6 What is the % slip of a 4 pole induction motor if the shaft speed at 49.5 Hz supply
frequency is 1460 rpm?

a) 1.68 b) 2.66 c) 1.71 d) none of the above


7 During induction motor operation, magnetic field is established in

a) stator winding only b) rotor winding only


c) stator and rotor windings d) at carbon brushes
8 An induction motor rated for 7.5 kW and 90 % efficiency at full load, was drawing 5 kW.
The percentage loading on the motor is

a) 60 % b) 66.66% c) 74% d) none of the above


9 If the apparent power drawn over a recording cycle of 30 minutes is 3000kVA for 10
minutes, 2400kVA for 15 minutes and 2900 for 5 minutes, the MD recorder will commute
MD as

a) 3000 kVA b) 2400 kVA c) 2683 kVA d) none of the above


10 The performance of rewinding of an induction motor can be assessed by which of the
following factors?

a) load current b) stator resistance


c) no load current d) both no load current and stator resistance
11 The pressure drop in mains header at the farthest point of an industrial compressed air
network shall not exceed

d) 2 bar b) 0.3 bar c) 0.5 bar d) 1.0 bar


12 The Free Air Delivery capacity of a reciprocating compressor is directly proportional to

a) pressure b) volume c) speed d) all of the above


o
13 The inlet air temperature to a two stage reciprocating air compressor is 35 C. At which
nd
of the following 2 stage inlet temperatures the compressor will consume least power?
o o o o
a) 75 C b) 65 C c) 60 C d) 50 C

_______________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Solutions

14 At which of the following discharge pressures, the reciprocating air compressor will
consume maximum power
2 2
a) 3 bar b) 3.5 kg/cm c) 150 psi d) 6 kg/cm
15 Which of the following is not true of air receivers?

a) smoothens pulsating air output b) stores large volumes of air


c) a source for draining moisture d) increases the pressure of air
16 A 1.5 ton air conditioner installed in a room and working continuously for two hours will
remove heat of

a) 3024 kCals b) 6048 kCals c) 9072 kCals d) none of the above


17 Which of the following can be used as refrigerant both in vapour compressor and vapour
absorption systems

a) Ammonia b) R – 11 c) R-12 d) Lithium Bromide


0 0
18 Chilled water enters evaporator at 12 C and leaves at 6 C. The flow rate of chilled water
3
was measured as 300 m /hr. The tons of refrigeration capacity is

a) 0.595 b) 595.24 c) 35.7 d) none of the above


19 Centrifugal compressors are most efficient when they are operating at_____.

a) 50% load b) full load c) 75% load d) all load conditions


20 The Coefficient of Performance (COP) of Vapour Absorption Refrigeration System (VAR)

a) is higher than that of Vapour Compression Refrigeration (VCR) System


b) is lower than that of Vapour Compression Refrigeration (VCR) System
c) is same as that of Vapour Compression Refrigeration (VCR) System
d) is normally 4 to 4.5

21 Backward-inclined fans are known as _____ because change in static pressure does not
overload the motor

a) overloading b) non-overloading
c) radial d) axial
22 The fan characteristic curve is a plot of

a) static pressure vs flow b) dynamic pressure vs flow


c) total pressure vs flow d) suction pressure vs flow
23 A fan is drawing 16 kW at 800 RPM. If the speed is reduced to 600 RPM then the power
drawn by the fan would be

a) 12 kW b) 9 kW c) 6.75 kW d) none of the above


24 The hydraulic power of a motor pump set is 8.5 kW. If the power drawn by the motor is
15.5 kW at a 89% efficiency, the pump efficiency is given by

a) 54.8% b) 61.6% c) 48.8% d) none of the above

_______________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Solutions

25 For the same flow through which of the following diameter pipes, the pump will work with
maximum pressure

a) 80 mm b) 100 mm c) 120 mm d) 1400 mm


o o
26 If inlet and outlet water temperatures of a cooling tower are 44 C and 38 C respectively
o o
and atmospheric DBT and WBT are 40 C and 35 C respectively, then the effectiveness
of cooling tower is

a)54.5 % b) 66.6% c) 75% d) none of the above


27 In which of the following fans air enters and leaves the fan with no change in direction

a) forward curved b) backward curved c) radial d) propeller


28 The motor efficiency is 0.9 and the pump efficiency is 0.6.The input power to the motor
driving the pump is 28 kW. The power transmitted to the water is

a) 15.12 kW b) 28 kW c) 25.2 kW d) none of the above


3
29 A water pump is delivering 200 m /hr at ambient conditions. The impeller diameter is
trimmed by 10%. The water flow at the changed conditions is
3 3 3
a) 220 m /hr b) 180 m /hr c) 162 m /hr d) none of the above
30 The operating point in a pumping system is identified by

a) point of intersection of system curve and efficiency curve


b) point of intersection of pump curve and theoretical power curve
c) point of intersection of pump curve and system curve
d) point of intersection of NPSH curve and pump curve
31 Increasing the Cycles of Concentration (C.O.C) in circulating water in a cooling tower,
the blow down quantity will

a) increase b) decrease c) not change d) none of the above


32 At which of the following condenser temperatures, the power consumption of a vapour
compression refrigeration system will be the least
o o o o
a) 26 C b) 28 C c) 29 C d) 25 C
33 Which of the following ambient conditions will not evaporate maximum amount of water
in a cooling tower
o o o o
a) 41 C DBT and 38 C WBT b) 38 C DBT and 37 C WBT
o o o o
c) 36 C DBT and 30 C WBT d) 36 C DBT and 31 C WBT
o o
34 If inlet and outlet water temperatures of a cooling tower are 39 C and 33 C respectively
o o
and atmospheric DBT and WBT are 35 C and 28 C respectively then the approach of
cooling tower is
o o o o
a) 3 C b) 4 C c) 5 C d) 6 C
3 o
35 If flow rate is 100m /hr and the range is 8 C for a cooling tower, then its heat load in
kCal/hr will be.

a) 800 b) 8,000 c) 80,000 d) 800,000

_______________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Solutions

36 Which method uses infrared, acoustic, ultrasonic or microwave sensors for lighting
control?

a) time-based control b) daylight-linked control


c) occupancy-linked control d) localized switching
37 If voltage is increased from 230 V to 250 V for a fluorescent tube light, it will result in

a) reduced power consumption b) increased power consumption


c) decreased light levels d) no change in power consumption and light levels
th th
38 The 5 and 7 harmonic in a 50 Hz power supply system will have:

a) voltage and current distortions with 55 Hz & 57 Hz


b) voltage and current distortions with 500 Hz & 700 Hz
c) voltage and current distortions with 250 Hz & 350 Hz
d) no voltage and current distortion at all
39 Automatic power factor controller using kVAr control, requires sensing of

a) current b) voltage c) capacitance d) both a and b


40 The COP of a vapour compression system is 3.0. If the motor draws power of 11 kW at
90% motor efficiency, the cooling effect of vapour compression system will be

a) 29.7 kW b) 37.8 kW
c) 0.36 kW d) none of the above as cooling effect is always measured in TR
41 Which of the following can also act as a heat pump?

a) centrifugal pump b) centrifugal compressor


c) air conditioner d) none of the above
42 A slide valve is used for capacity control in which of the following refrigeration
compressors?

a) reciprocating b) centrifugal c) screw d) scroll


43 In a DG set, a 3 phase alternator is supplying on an average 100 A at 420 V and 0.9 pf
to a load. If the specific fuel consumption of this DG set is 0.30 lts/ kWh at that load, then
how much fuel is consumed while delivering generated power for one hour?

a) 11.34 litre b) 19.64 litre c) 21.82 litre d) 218.23 litre


44 The largest potential for electricity savings with variable speed drives is generally for:

a) variable torque applications b) constant torque loads


c) constant power load d) combination of above
45 The electronic ballast fitted in a tube light fitting does not have one of the following
characteristics

a) lower operational losses than conventional ballasts


b) tuned circuit to deliver power at 28-32 KHz
c) requiring a starter
d) low temperature rise

_______________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Solutions

46 Maximum demand controller is used to

a) switch off non-essential loads in a logical sequence


b) switch off essential loads in a logical sequence
c) controls the reactive power of the plant
d) all the above.
47 In a fluid coupling, connecting an induction motor and a fan

a) motor speed can be changed by the fluid coupling


b) fan speed can be changed by the fluid coupling
c) both motor and fan speed can be changed by the fluid coupling
d) none of the above is possible
48 In a "V" belt coupled fan drive, the measured speed at motor end 6" diameter pulley is
1480 rpm and that at fan end 10" diameter pulley is 820 RPM. What is the slippage loss
in %?

a) 7.66 b) 8.29 c) 6.67 d) insufficient data, cannot be worked out

49 Select the incorrect statement:

a) slip ring induction motors are normally less efficient than squirrel cage induction
motors
b) high speed squirrel cage induction motors are normally less efficient than low speed
Squirrel cage induction motors
c) the capacitor requirement for PF improvement at induction motor terminal increases
with decrease in rated speed of the induction motor
d) induction motor efficiency increases with increase in its rated capacity
50 Coefficient of Performance (COP) for a refrigeration compressor is given by

a) kW/TR
b) power input to compressor (kW) / cooling effect (kW)
c) cooling effect (kW) / Power input to compressor (kW)
d) none of the above

……. End of Section – I …….

Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

(i) Answer all Eight questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 a) A 10 kVAr, 415 V rated power factor capacitor was found to be having terminal supply
voltage of 440 V. Calculate the capacity of the power factor capacitor at the operating
supply voltage.

_______________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Solutions

b) What would be the nearest kVAr compensation required for changing the power factor
of a 500 kW load from 0.9 lead to unity power factor ?

Ans: a) Capacitor capacity at 440V= (440/415)2 X 10= 11.24 kVAR


(3 Marks)

b) No further compensation is required as the power factor is already leading


(2 Marks)

S-2 Fill in the blanks

a) Heat Rate of a thermal power plant is expressed in ________


b) With increase in design speed of induction motors ,the required capacitive kVAr for
reactive power compensation for the same capacity range will ____
c) An air dryer in a compressed air system reduces ____ point of air.
d) A Pitot tube measures the difference between ____ and ______ pressures of the fluid
e) The friction loss in a pipe carrying a fluid is proportional to the ____power of pipe
diameter

Ans:
a) kCal/kWh
b) decrease
c) dew
d) total and static
e) fifth
(1 Mark each)

S-3 A pump is delivering 40 m3/hr of water with a discharge pressure of 29 metre. The
water is drawn from a sump where water level is 6 metre below the pump centerline.
The power drawn by the motor is 7.5 kW at 89% motor efficiency. Find out the pump
efficiency.

Ans:
Hydraulic power Ph = Q (m3/s) xTotal head, hd - hs (m) x  (kg/m3) x g (m/s2) / 1000

Q = 40/3600 m3/s , hd - hs = 29 – (-6) = 35 m

Hydraulic power Ph = (40/3600) x 35 x 1000 x 9.81 / 1000

= 3.815 kW
(2 Marks)

Pump shaft power = 7.5 kW x 0.89

= 6.675 kW

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Solutions

(2 Marks)
Pump efficiency = hydraulic power / pump shaft power

= 3.815 /6.675
= 57.15 %
(1 Mark)

S-4 Define one ‘Ton of Refrigeration (TR)’. How do you calculate TR across the Air
Handling Units?

Ans: A ton of refrigeration is defined as the quantity of heat to be removed in order to


form one ton of ice in 24 hours when the initial temperature of water is 0 °C. This is
equivalent to 50.4 Kcal/min or 3024 Kcal/h in metric system
(2 Marks)
Refrigeration load in TR is assessed as ;
Q  ρ  h in  h out 
TR 
3024
Where Q is the air flow in CMH
 is density of air kg/m3
h in is enthalpy of inlet air kCal/kg
h out is enthalpy of outlet air kCal/kg
(3 Mark)

S-5 Estimate the cooling tower capacity (TR) and approach with the following parameters

Water flow rate through CT = 120 m3/hr


Specific heat of water = 1 kCal/kg °C
Inlet water temperature = 42 °C
Outlet water temperature = 36 °C
Ambient WBT = 32 °C

Ans:
Cooling tower capacity (TR) = (flow rate x density x sp.heat x diff. temp)/ 3024
= 120 x 1000 x 1.0 x (42-36)/ 3024
= 238 TR
(3 Marks)
Approach = 36- 32 = 4oC
(2 Marks)

_______________________ 8
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Solutions

S-6 A fan is delivering 20,000 Nm3/hr. of air at static pressure difference of 70 mm WC. If
the fan static efficiency is 55%, find out the shaft power of the fan.

Ans:
Q = 20,000 Nm3 / hr. , Pst = 70 mmWC, St = 55% , P = ?

= 20,000/3600 = 5.56 m3/sec

Fan static St = Volume in m3/sec x Pst in mmWc


102 x Power input to shaft
(3 Marks)
0.55 = 5.56 x 70
102 x P

Shaft power drawn = 6.94 kW


(2 Marks)

S-7 a) Briefly explain the difference between a ‘filament lamp’ and a ‘gas discharge lamp’?
b) State any 3 best practices in a lighting system for energy savings?

Ans:

a) Filament lamps like incandescent lamps produce light by virtue of a filament heated
to incandescence by the flow of electric current through it. The light from a gas
discharge lamp is not produced by heating a filament, but by the excitation of gas
contained in either a tubular or elliptical outer bulb.
(2 Marks)

b) Installation of energy efficient fluorescent lamps in place of “Conventional”


fluorescent lamps.
1. Installation of Compact Fluorescent Lamps (CFL's) in place of incandescent
lamps.
2. Installation of metal halide lamps in place of mercury / sodium vapour lamps.
3. Installation of High Pressure Sodium Vapour (HPSV) lamps for applications
where colour rendering is not critical.
4. Installation of LED panel indicator lamps in place of filament lamps.
5. Light distribution
6. Grouping of lighting system, to provide greater flexibility in lighting control
7. Installation of microprocessor based controllers
8. Optimum usage of daylighting
9. Installation of "exclusive" transformer for lighting
10. Installation of servo stabilizer for lighting feeder
11. Installation of high frequency (HF) electronic ballasts in place of conventional
ballasts
(3 Marks for any three points)

_______________________ 9
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Solutions

S-8 Calculate the free air delivery (FAD) capacity of a compressor in m3/min for the
following observed data:

Receiver capacity: 0.5 m3


Initial pressure (with empty receiver): 0 kg/cm2 (g)
Final pressure: 7 kg/cm2 (g)
Initial air temperature: 32oC
Final air temperature: 51 oC
Additional holdup volume: 0.03 m3
Compressor pump up time: 4.5 minutes
Atmospheric pressure: 1.026 kg/ cm2 absolute

Ans:

P2  P1 V  273  t1 
=    
P0 t  273  t 2 
(3 Marks)
7  0 (0.5  0.03)  273  32 
=   
1.026 4.5  273  51 
= 0.7564 m3/min
(2 Marks)

……. End of Section - II …….

Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 6 x 10 = 60

(i) Answer all Six questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1 a) A small scale industry has a constant load of 380 kVA. It has installed two
transformers of 500 kVA each. The no load loss and full load copper loss of each 500
kVA transformer is 750 W and 5410 W respectively. From the energy efficiency point
of view the small scale industry management wants to take a decision on whether to
operate a single transformer or two transformers equally sharing the load. What is
your recommendation ?

b) A no load test conducted on a three phase delta connected induction motor gave the
following values:

No load power = 890 W


o
Stator resistance per phase at 30 C = 0.233 Ohms
No load current = 14.5 A

Calculate the fixed losses for the motor.

_______________________ 10
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Solutions

Answer a)

1 x 500 kVA

Transformer loss at 380 kVA load No load loss + [kVA load/Rated kVA]2 x
full load loss = 750 + [(380/500)2 x 5410]
= 750 + (0.5776 x 5410)
750 + 3124.8
3874.8 W

2 x 500 at 50% load (190 kVA) each 2 x [750 + {(190/500)2 x 5410}]


2 x [750+(0.1444x5410)]
2 x (750 + 781.2)
2 x (1531.2)
= 3062.9 W

Two transformers are better because the losses are the least and there is a
saving of 812.4 watts.
(5 Marks)

Answer b)

No load power 890 W


Stator resistance at 30oC 0.233 Ohms
No load current 14.5 A
Stator Copper loss at no load 3 x (14.5/√3)2 x 0.233 Ohms
= 48.985 W
Fixed losses 890 – 48.985
= 841 W
(5 Marks)

L-2 A 15 kW, 415 V, 26 A, 4 pole, 50 Hz, 3 phase rated squirrel cage induction motor has
a full load efficiency and power factor of 90% and 0.89 respectively.

An energy auditor measures the following operating data of the motor

(a) Supply voltage = 408 V


(b) Current drawn = 15 A
(c) PF = 0.81
(d) Supply frequency = 49.9 Hz
(e) RPM = 1488

Find out the following at the motor operating conditions:


1. Power input in kW
2. % motor loading
3. % slip

_______________________ 11
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Solutions

Ans:

1. Power input = 1.7321 x 0.408 x 15 x 0.81 = 8.586 kW


(4 Marks)
2. % motor loading = power input/ rated input x 100 = 8.586/ (15/0.9)
= 8.586/ 16.666 = 63.6%
(3 Marks)
3. Synchronous RPM at 49.9 Hz,
NS = 120 f/ P = 120 x 49.9/ 4 = 1497 RPM
% slip = (Ns – N)/ Ns x 100 = (1497 – 1488) / 1497 = 12/ 1497 x 100 = 0.8016%
(3 Marks)

L-3 a) What is the impact of condensing temperature and evaporator temperature on the
Coefficient of Performance (COP) of a refrigeration system?

b) Why is it beneficial to operate induction motors in star mode operating at loads below
50 % of rated capacity?

c) In a throttle valve-controlled pumping system with oversized pump, name any 3


solutions for improving energy efficiency..

Ans: a) COP increases with reduction in condensing temperature and rise in


evaporator temperature.
(2 Marks)
b) For motors which consistently operate at loads below 50 % of rated capacity,
an inexpensive and effective measure might be to operate in star mode. A
change from the standard delta operation to star operation involves re-
configuring the wiring of the three phases of power input at the terminal box.
Operating in the star mode leads to a voltage reduction by a factor of ‘ 3 ’.
Motor output falls to one-third of the value in the delta mode, but performance
characteristics as a function of load remain unchanged. Thus, full-load
operation in star mode gives higher efficiency and power factor than partial
load operation in the delta mode. However, motor operation in the star mode is
possible only for applications where the torque-to-speed requirement is lower
at reduced load.
(4 Marks)
c) 1.Trim impeller,
2. smaller impeller,
3. variable speed drive,
4. two speed motor, and
5. lower rpm motor
(4 Marks)

L-4 A compressed air leakage test was conducted by an energy auditor in an engineering
industry, which normally runs 3 nos. of 500 cfm reciprocating compressors. The
compressed air system is maintained at the normal loading-unloading settings of 6.6

_______________________ 12
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Solutions

kg/cm2g and 7.0 kg/ cm2g respectively. The following was observed for a period of 10
minutes trial by running a 500 cfm compressor during an off day:

On load time = 30 secs


Unload time = 110 secs.

Subsequently some of the air leakage points were attended and the leakage test was
repeated. The following was observed while maintaining the same loading &
unloading pressure settings and trial period:

On load time = 18 secs


Unload time = 145 secs.

The average power drawn during the above 2 trials was observed as 71 kW during
load and 16 kW during unload condition. Calculate the annual cost savings for
4000 hr/ year of compressor operation. Assume energy charge of Rs. 6.00 per kWh.

Ans:

Leakage quantity when loading is 30 secs and unloading is 110 secs


= (30x 500) / (30+110) = 0.21428 x 500 cfm = 107 cfm
(2 Marks)
Leakage quantity when loading is 18 secs
and unloading is 140 secs.

= (18 x 500) / (18+145) = 0.11x500=55 cfm


(2 Marks)
3
Specific power consumption = 71kWh / (500 x 60 cfh) = 0.0023666 kW/ ft
(2 Marks)
Reduction in leakage quantity =107 – 55 = 52 cfm = 3120 cfh

Energy savings per hour =3120 x 0.0023666 = 7.383792 kWh


(2 Marks)
Cost savings @ Rs.6/kWh @4000hrs/annum

=7.383792 kWh x 4000hrs/annum x Rs.6 /kWh= Rs.1,77,211/ annum


(2 Marks)

L-5 a) Define Range, approach and effectiveness in cooling tower operation

b) An induced draft-cooling tower is designed for a range of 8° C. The energy auditor


finds the operating range as 2 °C. In your opinion what could be the reasons for such
situation

_______________________ 13
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Solutions

Answer a):

i) “Range” is the difference between the cooling tower water inlet and outlet
temperature.
ii) “Approach” is the difference between the cooling tower outlet cold water
temperature and ambient wet bulb temperature. Although, both range and
approach should be monitored, the `Approach’ is a better indicator of cooling
tower performance.
iii) Cooling tower effectiveness (in percentage) is the ratio of range, to the ideal
range, i.e., difference between cooling water inlet temperature and ambient wet
bulb temperature, or in other words it is = Range / (Range + Approach).

(6 Marks)

Answer b)
1. There may be excess cooling water flow rate
2. There may be reduced heat load from the process
3. Some of the cooling tower cells fan is switched off
4. Approach may be poor because of high humid condition
5. Nozzles may be blocked

(4 Marks)

L6 In an alkali chemical plant, salt brine flow at the rate of 18 m3/ hr is cooled down from
12 °C to 7 °C using chilled water. The chiller unit compressor motor draws 31 kW
power and total input power to the allied accessories is 16 kW. The operating
efficiency of the motor is 90%. The salt brine density is 1.2 kg/litre and specific heat
capacity is 0.97 kCal/kg °C.

a) What is the refrigeration load (TR) imposed by the brine cooling?


b) What is the COP of refrigeration compressor?
c) What is the overall specific power consumption in kW/TR ?

Answer:

a) The refrigeration load in TR = Q. Cp. (Ti – To ) / 3024

where Q= mass flow rate of brine in kg/hr


Cp = specific heat capacity of brine in kCal/ kg deg.C
Ti & To= inlet and outlet temperature

Refrigeration load imposed by the brine TR:


TR= {18,000* 1.2 * 0.97 (12-7)}/3024
= 34.64 TR
(4 Marks)

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Solutions

b) COP of refrigeration compressor = 3.516 * TR


Power input to the compressor (kW)

= 3.516 * 34.64 / (31*0.9)


= 4.365
(3 Marks)

C) Overall specific power consumption in kW/ TR = 31 + 16/ 34.64 = 47/ 34.64


= 1.3568 kW/ TR
(3 Marks)

……. End of Section - III …….

_______________________ 15
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

Regn No: _________________


Name: ___________________
(To be written by the candidates)

8th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – May, 2009


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – 3: Energy Efficiency in Electrical Utilities

Date: 24.05.2009 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 8 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
1 All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i) Answer all 50 questions


(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or Black
HB Pencil, as per instructions

1 Select the wrong statement:

a) ‘Heat Rate’ reflects the efficiency of generation.


b) ‘Heat Rate’ is the heat input in kilo Calories or kilo Joules, for generating ‘one’ kilo
Watt of electrical output.
c) ‘Heat Rate’ is inverse of the efficiency of power generation.
d) design ‘Heat Rate’ of a 500MW thermal generating unit is lower than that of a 110 MW
thermal generating unit.
2 In an industry, if the drawl over a recording cycle of 30 minutes is :

2500 kVA for 10 minutes


3600 kVA for 6 minutes
4100 kVA for 12 minutes
3800 kVA for 2 minutes

The MD recorder will be computing MD as

a) 3446 b) 3600 c) 3800 d) 4100


3 A bulk power factor correction system which is left connected to an installation where the load
has reduced considerably may result in

_______________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

a) leading power factor at input electric supply


b) damage to the installation cables
c) considerable reduction in maximum demand
d) a reduced supply tariff
4 The total loss for a transformer loading at 60% and with no load and full load losses of 3 kW
and 25 kW respectively, is

a) 3 kW b) 12 kW c) 18 kW d) 25 kW
5 A pure resistive load in an alternating current (AC) circuit draws only

a) lagging reactive power b) active power


c) leading reactive power d) active apparent power
6 The nearest kVAr compensation required for improving the power factor of a 1000 kW load
from 0.95 leading power factor to unity power factor is

a) 328 kVAr b) 750 kVAr c) 1000 kVAr d) none of the above

7 The ratings of the PF correction capacitors at motor terminals for a 37 kW induction motor at
3000 rpm synchronous speed will be---------------------in comparison to the same sized induction
motor at 1500 rpm synchronous speed

a) more b) less c) same d) dependant on the connected load

8 The largest potential for electricity savings with variable speed drives is generally in

a) variable torque applications b) constant torque applications


c) conveyor belt applications d) balance torque applications

9 A 7.5 kW, 415 V, 15 A, 970 RPM, 3 phase rated induction motor with full load efficiency of
86% draws 7.5 A and 3.23 kW of input power. The percentage loading of the motor is about

a) 37 % b) 43 % c) 50% d) none of the above


10 Select the correct statement?

a) efficiency of an induction motor remains same at all the loading


b) squirrel cage induction motors are comparatively more efficient than Slip ring induction
motors of the same ratings.
c) power factor of an induction motor remains constant during 50 -100% loading conditions
d) slip of the induction motor is more at the full load than at the part load

11 A two pole induction motor operating at 50 Hz, with 1% slip will run at an actual speed of

a) 3000 RPM b) 3030 RPM c) 2970 RPM d) none of the above

12 A super thermal power station of 2500 MW installed capacity generated


14,000 million units in a year. Its annual Plant Load Factor (PLF) is:

a) 60% b) 79% c) 64% d) none of the above

_______________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

13 Select the incorrect statement

a) low speed Squirrel cage induction motors are normally less efficient than high speed
Squirrel cage induction motors
b) the capacitor requirement for PF improvement at induction motor terminals
decreases with decrease in rated speed of the induction motors of the same sizes
c) induction motor efficiency increases with increase in its rated capacity
d) totally-enclosed, fan cooled (TEFC) motors are more efficient than Screen–protected, drip-
proof (SPDP) induction motors

14 The efficiency of compressed air system is around

a) 10% b) 50% c) 60% d) 90%

15 FAD refers to the compressed air at

a) at ISO stated conditions b) Inlet conditions c) at outlet conditions d) at STP


16 Select the incorrect statement:

a) compressor efficiency will be reduced by about 2 percent for every 250 mm WC pressure
drop across the air inlet filters.
0
b) every 4 C rise in inlet air temperature results in a higher energy consumption by 1 % to
achieve equivalent output
0
c) an increase of 5.5 C in the inlet air temperature to the second stage results in a 2 %
increase in the specific energy consumption.
d) compressed air receiver volume should be 100% of the rated hourly free air output

17 Which of the following is not a part of the vapour compression refrigeration system

a) compressor b) evaporator c) condenser d) absorber


18 The refrigerant used in vapour absorption systems is

a) steam b) pure water c) freon d) lithium bromide


19 The COP of a vapour compression refrigeration system is 3.0. If the power input to
compressor is 100 kW , the tonnage of refrigeration system is given by

a) 85.3 b) 9.48 c) 300 d) none of the above


3 o o
20 The refrigeration load in TR when 30 m /hr of water is cooled from a 14 C to 6.5 C is about

a) 74.4 b) 64.5 c) 261.6 d) none of the above


21 The term Refrigeration means

a) addition of cooling b) removal of heat


c) removal and relocation of heat d) replacement of heat
22 For fans, the relation between power P and speed N is

2 3
P N1 P N1 P N1
a) 1 = b) 1 = c) 1 = d) none of the above
P2 N 2 P2 N 2 2 P2 N 2 3

23 Friction loss in a piping system carrying fluid is proportional to

_______________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

2
a) fluid flow b) (fluid flow) c) 1 d) 1
2
fluid flow (fluid flow)

24 _____ fans are known as “non-overloading“ because change in static pressure do not overload
the motor

a) radial b) forward- curved c) backward-inclined d) tube- axial


25 Ammonia can be used as a refrigerant in

a) vapour compression chiller b) vapour absorption chiller


c) both vapour compression and absorption chillers d) none of them
26 The value, by which the pressure in the pump suction exceeds the liquid vapour pressure, is
expressed as

a) net positive suction head available b) static head


c) dynamic head d) suction head
27 When the local static pressure in a fluid reaches a level below the vapor pressure of the liquid
at the actual temperature, ____________ may occur in a pump.

a) water hammering b) water chilling c) cavitation d) none of the above


28 Installation of "exclusive" transformer for lighting has following advantage

a) "Voltage" fluctuations in lighting circuit can be minimized by isolating from the power
feeders.
b) This will reduce the voltage related problems, which in turn increases the efficiency of the
lighting system.
c) With proper control device “over voltage” that might occur during lean load or off-peak can
be avoided, in turn excess energy consumption and improved lamp life
d) all the above
29 Parallel operation of two identical fans in a ducted system

a) will double the flow b) will double the fan static pressure
c) will not double the flow d) will increase flow by more than two times
30 Normally the guaranteed best approach a cooling tower can achieve is
o o o o
a) 5 C b) 8 C c) 12 C d) 2.8 C
31 Select the wrong statement ---

a) for a given heat rejection duty, a higher range will reduce the circulating water flow rate
b) when the cycle of concentration is left at one, all water left in the cooling tower after
evaporation needs to be removed as blowdown.
c) a better indicators for cooling tower performance is Range
o o
d) a cooling tower size will be greater for 20 C Wet bulb temperature (WBT) than for a 30 C
WBT, for the same circulation, range and approach
32 Which of the following ambient conditions will evaporate minimum amount of water in a cooling
tower
o o o o
a) 35 C DBT and 30 C WBT b) 38 C DBT and 31 C WBT
o o o o
c) 38 C DBT and 37 C WBT d) 35 C DBT and 29 C WBT

_______________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

33 Input power to the motor driving a pump is 30 kW. The motor efficiency is 0.9. The power
transmitted to the water is 16.2 kW. The pump efficiency is

a) 60% b) 90% c) 54% d) none of the above


34 A 500 cfm reciprocating compressor is operating to meet a constant demand of 300 cfm. The
least cost energy efficient solution will be

a) load and unload


b) reducing the speed of compressor by increasing the compressor pulley size appropriately
c) variable frequency drive
d) reducing the speed of compressor by reducing the motor pulley size appropriately
35 Which of the following lamp has the highest efficacy?

a) metal halide b) halogen lamps c) HPMV d) HPSV

36 Harmonics are generated by

a) variable frequency drive b) fluid coupling


c) eddy current drive d) energy efficient motor
37 The inputs required for an automatic power factor controller using kVAR control

a) current b) voltage c) capacitance d) both a and b


38 The unit of one lux is

a) 1000 lumen per square feet b) 10 lumen per square meter


c) 1 lumen per square meter d) 1 lumen per square feet
39 The efficiency of a pump does not depend on

a) suction head b) discharge head c) density of fluid d) motor efficiency


40 The flow output of which of the following changes with the discharge pressure

a) reciprocating compressor b) centrifugal compressor


c) screw compressor d) none of the above
3
41 A fan is operating at 970 RPM developing a flow of 3000 Nm /hr. at a static pressure of 650
mmWC. If the speed is reduced to 700 RPM, the static pressure (mmWC) developed will be

a) 244.3 b) 388.5 c) 469 d) none of the above


42 Luminous efficacy of a lamp is given by

a) Lux/Watt b) lumens/Watt c) Watt/Lux d) Watt/lumens


43 A fluorescent tube light fitted with an electronic choke will

a) operate at 50 Hz b) not need a starter


c) operate at 0.5 power factor d) none of the above
44 An engineering industry which was operating with a maximum demand of 500 kVA at 0.9
power factor improved its power factor to 0.99 by installing power factor correction capacitors
near the load centres. The percentage reduction in distribution losses within the plant will be

a) 17.35% b) 1.21% c) 86.75% d) none of the above

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

45 Lower load side power factor for a DG Set:

a) demands higher excitation currents and results in increased losses


b) results in higher kVA loading of generator
c) results in lower operating efficiency and higher specific fuel consumption of DG set
d) all the above
46 The main precaution to be taken care by the waste heat recovery device manufacturer to
prevent the problem in a DG set during operation is:

a) voltage unbalance on generator b) back pressure on engine


c) excessive steam generation d) turbulence in exhaust gases
47 Use of soft starters for induction motors results in

a) lower mechanical stress b) lower power factor


c) higher maximum demand d) all the above
48 Which of the following refrigeration systems uses vacuum for operation ?

a) vapour compression system using R-11


b) vapour compression system using HFC 134A
c) vapour absorption system using lithium bromide –water
d) none of the above
49 Which of the following electrical equipment has the highest efficiency ?

a) synchronous motor b) dc shunt motor


c) induction motor d) transformer
50 Select the incorrect statement:

a) transformers operating near saturation level create harmonics


b) devices that draw sinusoidal currents when a sinusoidal voltage is applied create harmonics
c) harmonics are multiples of the supply frequency
d) harmonics occur as spikes at intervals which are multiples of the supply frequency

…….……. End of Section – I ………..….

_______________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

(i) Answer all Eight questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 Briefly explain transformer losses and how the total transformer losses
at any load level can be computed.
Answer:
Transformer losses consist of two parts: No-load loss and Load loss

1. No-load loss (also called core loss) is the power consumed to sustain the
magnetic field in the transformer's steel core. Core loss occurs whenever the
transformer is energized; core loss does not vary with load. Core losses are
caused by two factors: hysteresis and eddy current losses. Hysteresis loss is
that energy lost by reversing the magnetic field in the core as the magnetizing
AC rises and falls and reverses direction. Eddy current loss is a result of
induced currents circulating in the core.

2. Load loss (also called copper loss) is associated with full-load current flow in
the transformer windings. Copper loss is power lost in the primary and
secondary windings of a transformer due to the ohmic resistance of the
windings. Copper loss varies with the square of the load current. (P=I2R).

For a given transformer, the manufacturer can supply values for no-load loss, PNO-
LOAD, and load loss, PLOAD. The total transformer loss, PTOTAL, at any load level can
then be calculated from:
PTOTAL = PNO-LOAD+ (% Load/100)2 x PLOAD

Where transformer loading is known, the actual transformers loss at given load can
be computed as:

2
 kVA Load 
 No load loss    full load loss
 Rated kVA 

S-2 The power input to a three phase induction motor is 45 kW. If the
induction motor is operating at a slip of 2% and with total stator losses
of 1.80 kW, find the total mechanical power developed.

Solution:

Stator input: 45kW


Stator losses: 1.80 kW

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

Stator output: 45-1.80= 43.2kW


OR Rotor Input= 43.2 kW
Slip= 2%
Mechanical Power Out put= ( 1-s)x Rotor Input
= 42.336 kW

S-3 List any five energy conservation opportunities in pumping system.

Answer:

1. Avoid over sizing of pumps


2. Consider impeller trimming and other “easy-to implement” alternatives
3. Consider variable speed drives wherever possible
4. Operate pumps near best efficiency point.
5. Modify pumping system/pumps losses to minimize throttling.
6. Stop running multiple pumps - add an auto-start for an on-line spare or add a
booster pump in the problem area.
7. Conduct water balance to minimise water consumption
8. Replace old pumps by energy efficient pumps

S-4 A water pump of a process plant is analysed for efficiency and following
data is collected:

Flow: 60 m3/hr, Total head: 30 meters, Power drawn by motor– 7.4 kW,
Motor efficiency – 90%

Determine the pump efficiency

Answer

Hydraulic power Q (m3/s) x total head (m) x 1000 x 9.81


/1000
(60/3600) x 30 x 1000 x 9.81/1000
Hydraulic power 4.905kW

Power input to pump 7.4x 0.9


6.66 kW
Pump efficiency 4.905/6.66
73.6 %

S-5 Name any five methods of capacity controls for fans (Note: no
explanation is required)

Answer

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

1. Pulley Change
2. Damper Controls
3. Inlet Guide Vanes
4. Variable Speed Drives
5. Parallel Operation

S-6 A genset is operating at 700 kW loading with 450OC exhaust gas


temperature: The DG set generates 8 kg gas/ kWh generated, and
specific heat of gas at 0.25 kCal/ kg OC. A heat recovery boiler is
installed after which the exhaust temperature drops by 260oC. How much
steam will be generated at 3 kg/ cm2 with enthalpy of 650.57 kCal/ kg.
Assume boiler feed water temperature as 60oC.

Answer
= 700 kWh x 8 kg gas generated/ kWh output x 0.25 kCal/ kg oC x (450oC-260
o
C) =2,66,000 kCal/hr
Steam generation = 2,66,000 kCal/hr / (650.57 kCal/kg – 60) = 450 kg/ hr.

S-7 An energy audit of a fan was carried out. It was observed that fan was
delivering 15,000 Nm3/hr of air at static pressure rise of 60 mm WC. The
power measurement of the 3-phase induction motor coupled with the fan
recorded 1.92 kW/ phase on an average. The motor operating efficiency
was assessed as 0.88 from the motor performance curves. What would
be the fan static efficiency ?.

Answer:

Q = 15,000 Nm3 / hr.= 4.1667 m3/sec ,


SP = 60 mmWC,
St = ?,

Power input to motor= 1.92x3=5.76 kW


P ower input to fan shaft=5.76 x0.88=5.067 kW

Fan static  = Volume in m3/sec x Pst in mmWc


102 x Power I/p to shaft

= 4.167 x 60
102 x 5.067
=0.484
= 48.4%

S-8 Discuss in brief any three methods by which energy can be saved in an
air conditioning system.

Answer:

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

a) Cold Insulation

Insulate all cold lines / vessels using economic insulation thickness to minimize
heat gains; and choose appropriate (correct) insulation.

b) Building Envelop

Optimise air conditioning volumes by measures such as use of false ceiling and
segregation of critical areas for air conditioning by air curtains.

c) Building Heat Loads Minimisation

Minimise the air conditioning loads by measures such as roof cooling, roof
painting, efficient lighting, pre-cooling of fresh air by air- to-air heat exchangers,
variable volume air system, otpimal thermo-static setting of temperature of air
conditioned spaces, sun film applications, etc.

e) Process Heat Loads Minimisation

Minimize process heat loads in terms of TR capacity as well as refrigeration level,


i.e., temperature required, by way of:
i) Flow optimization
ii) Heat transfer area increase to accept higher temperature coolant
iii) Avoiding wastages like heat gains, loss of chilled water, idle flows.
iv) Frequent cleaning / de-scaling of all heat exchangers

-------- End of Section – II ---------

_______________________ 10
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 6 x 10 = 60

(i) Answer all Six questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1 An energy audit of electricity bills of a process plant was conducted. The plant
has a contract demand of 3000 kVA with the power supply company. The
average maximum demand of the plant is 2300 kVA/month at a power factor of
0.95. The maximum demand is billed at the rate of Rs.500/kVA/month. The
minimum billable maximum demand is 75 % of the contract demand. An
incentive of 0.5 % reduction in energy charges component of electricity bill are
provided for every 0.01 increase in power factor over and above 0.95. The
average energy charge component of the electricity bill per month for the
company is Rs.11 lakhs.
The plant decides to improve the power factor to unity. Determine the power
factor capacitor kVAr required, annual reduction in maximum demand charges
and energy charge component. What will be the simple payback period if the
cost of power factor capacitors is Rs.800/kVAr.

Answer

kW drawn 2300 x 0.95 =

2185 kW
Kvar required to improve power factor from 0.95 kW ( tan 1 – tan 2)
to 1
kW ( tan (cos-1) – tan (cos-2)
2185 ( tan (cos- – tan (cos-
2185(0.329 - 0)
719 kVAr
Cost of capacitors @Rs.800/kVAr Rs.5,75,200

Maximum demand at unity power factor 2185/1 = 2185 kVA


75 % of contract demand 3000x0.75=2250 kVA
Reduction in Demand charges 2300-2250=50kVa, as the plant has to
pay MD charges on minimum billable
demand of 2250, and not on the
improved MD of 2185 kVA in this case

50kVA/month x 12 months x Rs.500


kVA/ month= Rs.3,00,000
Percentage reduction in energy charge from 0.95 2.5 %
to 1 @ 0.5 % for every 0.01 increase
Monthly energy cost component of the bill Rs.11,00,000
Reduction in energy cost component 11,00,000 x (2.5/100)

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

Rs.27,500/month
Annual reduction Rs.27,500 x 12
Rs.3,30,000
Savings in electricity bill Rs.6,30,000
Investment Rs.5,75,200
Payback period 5,75,200/6,30,000
0.91 years or 11months

L-2 Fill in the blanks for the following

1. The intersection point of the pump curve and the system curve is
called_____________
2. Presenting the load demand of a consumer against time of the day is
known as______
3. The vector sum of active power and reactive power is ____.
4. The ratio of isothermal power to actual measured input power of an air
compressor is known as------:
5. The input energy for refrigeration in vapour absorption refrigeration
plants is____
6. The fan which is choosen for moving large flows against relatively low
pressures is_____ curved fan.
7. The system resistance in a fan ducting system refers to ____________
pressure
8. The friction loss, on the liquid being moved, in pipes, valves and
equipment in the system is called ________ head.
9. The ratio of luminous flux emitted by a lamp to the power consumed
by the lamp is called_________________.
10. In an amorphous core distribution transformer, ______ loss is less
than a conventional transformer

ANS:
1 Best efficiency point / pump operating point/ duty point
2. Load curve
3. Apparent Power
4. Isothermal efficiency
5. Thermal energy (or steam or waste heat or gas or any energy related to
thermal energy)
6. Forward Curve
7. Static
8.Dynamic/friction head
9.Luminous efficacy

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

10. No load

L-3 A free air delivery test was carried out before conducting a leakage test on a
reciprocating air compressor in an engineering industry and following were the
observations:

Receiver capacity : 10 m3
Initial pressure : 0.2 kg / cm2g
Final pressure : 7.0 kg / cm2g
3
Additional hold-up volume : 0.2 m
Atmospheric pressure : 1.026 kg / cm2 abs.
Compressor pump-up time : 4.5 minutes
The following was observed during the conduct of leakage test during the lunch time
when no pneumatic equipment/ control valves were in operation:
a) Compressor on load time is 30 seconds and unloading pressure is 7
kg/cm2g
b) Average power drawn by the compressor during loading is 90 kW
c) compressor unload time and loading pressure are 70 seconds and 6.6
kg/cm2 g respectively.

Find out the following:


(i) Compressor output in m3/hr(neglect temperature correction)
(ii) Specific Power Consumption, kW/ m3/hr
(iii) % air leakage in the system
(iv) leakage quantity in m3/hr
(v) power lost due to leakage

Ans.
(i)
P2  P1   Total Volume
Compressor output m3/minute :
Atm. Pressure  Pumpup time

:
7.0  0.2  10.2 = 15.0227 m3/minute
1.026  4.5
: 901.36 m3/hr

power consumption : 90 kW
output : 901.36 m3/hr
(ii)
Specific power consumption : 90/901.36 = 0.099 kW/m3/hr
(iii) % Leakage in the system
Load time (T) : 30 secs.
Un load time (t) : 70 secs

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

T
% leakage in the system : x 100
(T  t)
30
: x 100
(30  70)
: 30%
iv) Leakage quantity : 0.30x901.36
: 270.41 m3/hr
v) Power lost due to leakage : Leakage quantity x specific power
consumption
: 270.41 x 0.099
: 26.77 kW

L-4 a) In a Thermal Power Station, the steam input to a turbine operating on a


fully condensing mode is 100 Tonnes/Hr. The heat rejection requirement
of the steam turbine condenser is 555 kCals/kg of steam condensed. The
temperatures at the inlet to and outlet from the turbine condenser are
measured to be 27oC and 37o C respectively. Find out the circulating
cooling water flow.

b) An energy audit was conducted to find out the ton of refrigeration (TR) of
an Air Handling Unit (AHU). The audit observations are as under.

Parameter AHU
Evaporator area (m2) 9.0
Inlet velocity (m/s) 1.81
Inlet air DBT (°C) 21.5
RH (%) 75.0
Enthalpy 53.0
(kJ/kg)
Out let air DBT (°C) 17.4
RH (%) 90.0
Enthalpy 46.4
(kJ/kg)
Density of air 1.14
(kg/m3)

Find out the TR of AHU.

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

Answer:

The quantum of heat rejected in the turbine condenser=


Quantum of steam condensed (kg) * heat rejection
( kcal/kg)
= 100,000 * 555= 55.5 million kcals /Hr Marks: 2
Heat gained by circulating c. w = Heat rejected in the condenser
Circulating water flow= 100,000 * 555/ (37-27) * specific heat ( 1)
= 5550 m3/ Hr 5 Marks
b)AHU refrigeration load =
Air flow rate (m 3 / h) x Density of air (kg / m 3 ) x Difference in enthalpy
3024 x 4.18
(9.0 x1.81 x 3600 ) x (1.14) (53  46.4)
AHU = = 34.9 TR
3024 x 4.18
5 marks

L-5 A Cooling Tower cools 1565 m3/hr of water from 44º C to 37.6º C at 29.3º
C wet bulb temperature. The cooling tower fan flow air rate is 989544
m3/hr (air density =1.08 kg/m3) and operates at 2.7 cycles of
concentration.

Find

a) Range,
b) Approach,
c) % CT Effectiveness
d) L/G Ratio in kg/kg
e) Cooling Duty Handled in TR
f) Evaporation Losses in m3/hr
g) Blow down requirement in m3/hr
h) Make up water requirement/cell in m3/hr

Ans:

* CT Flow, m3/hr = 1565 (1565000 kg/hr)


* CT Fan Flow, m3/hr = 989544
* CT Fan Flow kg/hr = 1068708
@ Density of 1.08 kg/m3
d) L/G Ratio of C.T. kg/kg = 1.464
a) CT Range = (44 – 37.6) = 6.4oC

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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 3 –Set A Key

b) CT Approach = (37.6 – 29.3) = 8.3oC


c) % CT Effectiveness = 100 * [Range/Range +
Approach]
= 100 * (6.4) / (6.4 + 8.3)
= 43.53
*

e) Cooling Duty Handled in kCal = 1565 * 6.4 * 103


(i.e., Flow * Temperature Difference in = 10016 * 103 kCal/hr /
kCal/hr) 3024
3312 TR
3
f) Evaporation Losses in m /hr = 0.00085 x 1.8 x 1565 x
6.4
= 15.32 m3/hr
* Percentage Evaporation Loss = [15.32/1565]*100
= 0.98 %
g) Blow down requirement for site COC of 2.7 = Evaporation
losses/COC–1
= 15.32/(2.7–1) = 9 m3/hr
h) Make up water requirement in m3/hr = Evaporation Loss +
Blow down Loss
= 15.32 + 9
= 24.32

L-6 Write short notes on


(i) Effect of supply voltage on capacitors rating
(ii) Pump impeller trimming
(iii) Affinity laws for centrifugal machines

i) Ideally capacitor voltage rating is to match the supply voltage. If the supply voltage is
2 2
lower, the reactive kVAr produced will be the ratio V /V where V is the actual supply
1 2 1
voltage, V is the rated voltage.
2

……. End of Section – III ………….…

_______________________ 16
Bureau of Energy Efficiency

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