TEST 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 1: If the Test of Written English had been required by my university, I would have taken it along with the
TOEFL.
A. I took the Test of Written English with the TOEFL although my university didn’t require it.
B. I took both Test of Written English and the TOEFL because my university required them.
C. I did not take the Test of Written English with the TOEFL because my university did not require it.
D. I took the Test of Written English but not the TOEFL when it was required at my university.
Question 2: The students did not take to their new lecturer.
A. The new lecturer was unpopular with his students.
B. The students didn’t follow the new lecturer.
C. The new lecturer didn’t care his students.
D. The students didn’t understand what the new lecturer said.
Question 3: "No, it’s not true. I didn’t steal the car!" Peter said.
A. Peter did not intend to steal the car. B. Peter denied stealing the car.
C. Peter refused to steal the car. D. Peter admitted stealing the car.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 4: The gorilla, the largest of the apes, is now able to be bred in confinement.
A. safety B. haste C. captivity D. intervals
Question 5: Most high school students look up to the star player on the football team.
A. respect B. pursue C. trust D. envy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. habitat B. employment C. optimist D. obstacle
Question 7: A. gazelle B. challenge C. secure D. remote
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 8: The initial step is often the most difficult.
A. longest B. last C. first D. quickest
Question 9: On the spur of the moment, she decided to enter the race that she had come to watch.
A. At the earliest possible moment B. Without previous thought
C. For only a short time D. After careful thought
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
The trend for children to multitask by juggling all sorts of electronic gadgets at the same time is seriously damaging
their levels of concentration, scientists have warned. Rocketing use of the Internet, iPods, mobile phones and DVDs
(10)______ behind that finding. Scientists have confirmed the belief of many parents that it is impossible to concentrate
on more than one thing at the same time. They found that children tackling homework while sending messages via the
Internet can end up spending 50% longer than if they had done each task (11)______.
David Meyer, Professor of Cognitive Psychology at the University of Michigan, said that true multitasking is (12)______
possible for simple activities such as ironing and listening to the radio. He ran experiments demonstrating that young
adults who had to switch from one maths problem to another wasted significant amounts of time. Meyer said: ‘For
situations (13)______ more complex tasks, especially those requiring language, the total time taken to get all the tasks
done will increase greatly. Over long periods, this kind of multitasking can stress you out and (14)______ to mental and
physical exhaustion.
Question 10: A. lies B. rests C. sits D. stands
Question 11: A. apart B. separately C. aside D. distinctly
Question 12: A. Merely B. simply C. purely D. only
Question 13: A. meaning B. containing C. involving D. consisting
Question 14: A. bring B. result C. lead D. proceed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 15: ~ John: "I’m afraid I can’t help you." ~ Diana: "___________"
A. That’s OK. I’ll ask Mary. B. Are you sure?
C. I’m so glad you can. D. Don’t be frightened.
Question 16: ~ Susan: "I’m sorry, but would you mind turning off your phone?" ~ Jenifer: "________"
 A. Oh, sorry about that. B. It’s nonsense.
C. Sure. Do you want to make a call? D. Yes, I would.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 17: Water polo is a game in which is played in the water by two teams, each with seven players.
A. in the water B. in which C. by D. with
Question 18: Although research has been ongoing since 1930, the existence of ESP - perception and communication
without the use of sight, hear, taste, touch, or smell - is still disputed.
A. hear B. since C. existence D. use
Question 19: Because there were so few women in the early Western states, the freedom and rights of Western women
were more extensive than Eastern ladies.
A. so few women B. more extensive C. than Eastern ladies D. Because
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
In the history of technology, computers and calculators were innovative developments. They are essentially
different from all other machines because they have a memory. This memory stores instructions and information. In a
calculator, the instructions are the various functions of arithmetic, which are permanently remembered by the machine
and cannot be altered or added to. The information consists of the numbers keyed in.
An electronic pocket calculator can perform almost instant arithmetic. A calculator requires an input unit to feed
in numbers, a processing unit to make the calculation, a memory unit, and an output unit to display the result. The
calculator is powered by a small battery or by a panel of solar cells. Inside is a microchip that contains the memory and
processing units and also controls the input unit, which is the keyboard, and the output unit, which is the display.
The input unit has keys for numbers and operations. Beneath the keys is a printed circuit board containing a set
of contacts for each key. Pressing a key closes the contacts and sends a signal along a pair of lines in the circuit board
to the processing unit, in which the binary code for that key is stored in the memory. The processing unit also sends the
code to the display. Each key is connected by a different pair of lines to the processing unit, which repeatedly checks
the lines to find out when a pair is linked by a key.
The memory unit stores the arithmetic instructions for the processing unit and holds the temporary results that
occur during calculation. Storage cells in the memory unit hold the binary codes for the keys that have been pressed.
The number codes, together with the operation code for the plus key, are held in temporary cells until the processing
unit requires them.
When the equals key is pressed, it sends a signal to the processing unit. This takes the operation code - for example,
addition - and the two numbers being held in the memory unit and performs the operation on the two numbers. A full
adder does the addition, and the result goes to the decoder in the calculator’s microchip. This code is then sent to the
liquid crystal display unit, which shows the result, or output, of the calculation.
Question 20: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To discuss innovative developments in technology
B. To compare computers and calculators with other machines
C. To summarize the history of technology
D. To explain how a calculator works
Question 21: What can be inferred about machines that are not calculators or computers?
A. They cannot store information in a memory. B. They are less expensive than computers.
C. They have simple memory and processing units. D. They are older than computers.
Question 22: The word "innovative" in paragraph 1 could best replaced by_______.
A. recent B. important C. revolutionary D. complicated
Question 23: In what part of the calculator are the processing and memory units?
A. The battery B. The solar cells C. The output unit D. The microchip
Question 24: According to the passage, one function of the memory unit is_______.
A. to control the keyboard B. to store temporary results during calculation
C. to send codes to the display unit D. to alter basic arithmetic instructions
Question 25: The word "This" in paragraph 5 refers to_______.
A. the plus key B. the processing unit C. the memory unit D. the equals key
Question 26: The word "contacts" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. commands B. codes C. locations D. connections
Question 27: Which of the following could NOT be said about calculators?
A. Pressing a key activates a calculator.
B. The calculator’s "thinking" takes place in the processing and memory units.
C. Calculators require a lot of instructions to operate quickly.
 D. Calculators and computers are similar.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 28: A. pressure B. assist C. extension D. expansion
Question 29: A. hoped B. watched C. saved D. finished
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
People who suffer from excessive drowsiness during the daytime may be victims of a condition known as
"narcolepsy." While most people may feel sleepy while watching TV or after eating a meal, narcoleptics may fall asleep
at unusual or embarrassing times. They may doze while eating, talking, taking a shower, or even driving a car. Victims
can be affected in one of two ways. Most narcoleptics have several sleeping spells during each day with alert periods in
between. A minority of others feel drowsy almost all the time and are alert for only brief intervals.
There are no reliable data showing how many people have narcolepsy. Some estimates put the number as high
as 300,000 in the United States alone. The cause of this illness has not been identified, although recent research suggests
that the problem may stem from an immune system reacting abnormally to the brain's chemical processes. There is
currently no cure for narcolepsy, so sufferers of this condition can only have their symptoms treated through a
combination of counseling and drugs.
Question 30: Which of the following statements about narcolepsy is NOT TRUE?
A. Doctors treat symptoms rather than causes.
B. The causes of narcolepsy have not been found yet.
C. Researchers know how many people suffer from this problem.
D. Narcolepsy affects people in two basic ways.
Question 31: Narcolepsy is a condition in which people_______.
A. doze at unusual times B. only sleep in the day
C. doze after eating a meal D. have unusual brain chemistry
Question 32: A person is most likely to be narcoleptic if he or she falls asleep while_______.
A. eating at a restaurant B. taking a long car trip.
C. lying on the beach D. watching a movie
Question 33: The cause of narcolepsy may be related to_______.
A. sleeping B. watching television C. drugs D. brain chemistry
Question 34: The passage implies that narcolepsy_______.
A. is an imaginary problem B. can be a serious disorder
C. is really laziness D. is easily cured
Question 35: The main topic of this passage is_______.
A. treatment of narcolepsy B. aspects of narcolepsy
C. causes of narcolepsy D. development of narcolepsy
Question 36: According to the passage, it can be said that_______.
A. narcolepsy is a very rare condition B. the number of narcoleptics is unknown
C. most people are narcoleptics sometimes D. narcoleptics are drug addicts
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 37: If the examiner can't_______ sense of your writing, you'll get a low mark.
A. bring B. take C. make D. understand
Question 38: He waved to_______ the attention of the waitress.
A. pull B. ask C. attract D. pay
Question 39: I_______ the whole of War and Peace by the time I was seven years old.
A. had been read B. had read C. have been reading D. was reading
Question 40: I’ve never seen anyone so_______ to their job as Philip is.
A. eager B. dedicated C. interested D. keen
Question 41: The old woman is said_______ all her money to an old people's home when she died.
A. to leaving B. to have left C. have left D. to leave
Question 42: The Federation’s mission is to improve the lives of vulnerable people who are victims of_______ disasters,
poverty and health emergencies.
A. naturalize B. nature C. naturally D. natural
Question 43: For many years people have wondered_______ exists elsewhere in the universe.
A. life which B. whether life C. that life D. life as it
Question 44: Not only_______ among the largest animals that ever lived, but they are also among the most intelligent.
A. they are whales B. whales C. are whales D. some whales
Question 45: They are_______ danger of losing their spectator status.
A. on B. in C. by D. at
Question 46: _______ is more interested in rhythm than in melody is apparent from his compositions.
A. Philip Glass B. Philip Glass, who C. Because Philip Glass D. That Philip Glass
Question 47: Most parents do not allow their children_______ out late.
A. stay B. staying C. stayed D. to stay
Question 48: You_______ that film last week - it was only released yesterday.
A. couldn’t see B. didn't need to see C. mustn't have seen D. can't have seen

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: The tornado struck with great force. It lifted automobiles off the ground.
A. Automobiles were lifted off by a very great force.
B. The force was so great that it lifted automobiles off the ground.
C. The tornado struck so great force that it lifted automobiles off the ground.
D. The tornado struck with such great force that it lifted automobiles off the ground.
Question 50: I tried to persuade her. I didn't succeed, however.
A. Although I tried to persuade her, but I didn't succeed.
B. Although I tried to persuade her, I didn't succeed.
C. I didn't succeed despite of trying to persuade her.
D. However I tried I didn't succeed persuading her.
TEST 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. village B. luggage C. engage D. damage
Question 2: A. swallowed B. practiced C. finished D. punched
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. equal B. campus C.danger D. perform
Question 4: A. atmosphere B. information C. understanding D. entertainment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 5: Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from Canada, are planning to attend the firework display in Da Nang,
Vietnam.
A. with B. her cousins C. are D. to attend
Question 6: If one type of manufacturing expands, it is like that another type will shrink considerably.
A. expands B. like C. another D. considerably
Question 7: For thousands of years, man has created sweet-smelling substances from wood, herbs and flowers
and using them for perfumes or medicine.
A. man B. sweet-smelling C. using them D. or
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 8: I was tired when you saw me because I____for the exam.
A. studied B. have been studying C. had been studying D. would study
Question 9: Mountain gorillas are an endangered species ______ habitats are being badly destroyed.
A. why B. whose C. which D. that
Question 10: His speech was careful and______, but his words seemed to make no sense.
A. distinctive B. distinction C. distinct D. distinguish
Question 11: The more he insisted he was innocent, _________they seemed to believe him
A. the less B. the least C. the little D. the most
Question 12: The storm is reported ___________ people.
A. to kill B. to be killed C. to have killed five D. to have been killed
Question 13: Species become extinct or endangered for _______ number of reasons, but the primary cause is the
destruction of habitat by human activities.
A. Ø B. a C. the D. an
Question 14: Make sure you ______ up the data on your computer, because you might get a virus.
A. back B. store C. save D. copy
Question 15: This winter wasn’t_______ as difficult as last winter.
A. almost B. nearly C. closely D. just
Question 16: Indiana University, one of the largest in the nation, is located in a ____ town.
A. small beautiful Midwestern B. beautiful Midwestern small
C. Midwestern beautiful small D. beautiful small Midwestern
Question 17: The hotel was terrible, but the wonderful beach_____ our disappointment.
A. came down with B. made up for C. got through to D. faced up to
Question 18: When it started to snow, he________ his overcoat.
A. took out B. put off C. took off D. put on
Question 19: Some scientists say that it is still not too late to minimize the effects of climate change_____
enough money and effort are invested in correct projects.
A. in case B. so that C. even if D. provided that
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Thomas and Peter are meeting after a long time.
Thomas: “How have you been recently?” Peter: “_______________”
A. I am going on holiday next week. B. Pretty busy, I think.
C. By car, usually. D. I am working here.
Question 21: George and Frankie are talking about their hobbies.
George: “In my opinion, action films are exciting”. Frankie: “_______________”
A. What are opinion! B. There’s no doubt about it.
C. Yes, you can do it. D. Your opinion is exactly.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the bold and underlined
part in each of the following questions.
Question 22: We decided to pay for the car on the installment plan.
A. cash and carry B. monthly payment C. credit card D. piece by piece
Question 23: I told you clearly and definitely not to write your answers in pencil, Smith!
A. altogether B. specifically C. thoroughly D. considerably
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold and
underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 24: These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence.
A. strongly condemned B. publicly said C. openly criticized D. publicly supported
Question 25: Names of the people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity.
A. reveal B. cover C. presume D. conserve
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
question.
Question 26: The doctor said, “You really ought to rest for a few days. Jasmine."
A. The doctor strongly advised Jasmine to take a few days' rest.
B. The doctor suggested that Jasmine should take a short rest.
C. Jasmine's doctor told that she should rest for a few days.
D. It is the doctor's recommendation that Jasmine should take a short rest.
Question 27: The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have seen her for the last three years.
B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
C. I haven’t seen her for three years.
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her again.
Question 28: It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t.
A. You should have persuaded him to change his mind.
B. You must have persuaded him to change his mind.
C. You should persuade him to change his mind.
D. You may persuade him to change his mind.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
in the following questions.
Question 29: He failed his driving test the first time. As a result, he took it again.
A. He failed his driving test the first time and so he therefore took it again.
B. He failed his driving test the first time and he therefore took it again.
C. He failed his driving test the first time which he took it again.
D. Failing his driving test the first time and he therefore took it again.
Question 30: You’d better take the keys. It’s possible I’ll come home late.
 A. If I come home late, you’d better take the keys.
B. You’d better take the keys in case I come home late.
C. You'd better take the keys as I possibly come home late.
D. I'll probably come home late so that you’d better take the keys.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks
A surprising number of popular spectator sports, for example football or baseball, (31)______ in Europe
or the USA in the nineteenth century. This did not happen by chance. It was the (32) ______ of changes in the way
people lived in those places at that time. Until then, more people lived In the country than in towns. They worked in
small groups and had no regular time off. All this changed with the growth of factories and industry in the nineteenth
century, first in Europe and (33) ______. In the USA. For the first time, most people began to live in towns, and they
found themselves with regular free time. They had more leisure time than ever before. This resulted in the need
for organized entertainment. Suitable games developed or were invented, typically team games, in which the
crowd could (34) ______ sides and become involved. This gave people some of the entertainment they need in their
free time. The recent explosion in TV, with the introduction of satellite and cable channels, has caused an increase in
(35) ______ for sports as entertainment. The money TV has broughtto games such as football, tennis and
baseball means that spectator sports will certainly go on playing an important part in our lives.

Question 31: A. started B. stemmed C. appeared D. came

Question 32: A. result B. cause C. reason D. effect
Question 33: A. lately B. next C. second D. then
Question 34: A. choose B. take C. select D. decide
Question 35: A. requirement B. need C. request D. demand

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
The advent of the Internet may be one of the most important technological developments in recent years. Never
before have so many people had access to so many different sources of information. For all of the Internet’s
advantages, however, people are currently becoming aware of some of its drawbacks and are looking for creative
solutions. Among the current problems, which include a general lack of reliability and numerous security concerns,
the most crucial is speed.
First of all, the Internet has grown very quickly. In 1990, only a few academics had ever heard of the Internet.
In 1996, over 50 million people used it. Every year, the number of people with access to the Internet
doubles. The rapid growth has been a problem. The computer systems which run the Internet have not been able
to keep up with the demand. Also, sometimes, a request for information must pass through many routing
computers before the information can be obtained. A request for information made in Paris might have to go through
computers in New York, Los Angeles and Tokyo in order to obtain the required information. Consequently, the
service is often slow and unpredictable. Service also tends to be worse when the Internet is busiest - during the
business day of the Western Hemisphere - which is also when companies need its service the most.
Some people are trying to harness the power of networked computers in such a way as to avoid this problem.
In 1995, a group of American universities banded together to form what has come to be known as Internet II. Internet
II is a smaller, more specialized system intended for academic use. Since it is more specialized, fewer users are
allowed access. Consequently, the time required to receive information has decreased.
Businesses are beginning to explore a possible analogue to the Internet II. Many businesses are
creating their own “Intranets”. These are systems that can only be used by the members of the same company. In
theory, fewer users should translate into a faster system. Intranets are very useful for large national and international
companies whose branches need to share information. Another benefit of an Intranet is an increased amount of
security. Since only company employees have access to the information on the Intranet, their information is
protected from competitors. While there is little doubt that the Internet will eventually be a fast and reliable service,
industry and the academic community have taken their own steps toward making more practical global networks.

Question 36: In the passage, which of the following ts NOT true of the Internet?
A. It has become increasingly less popular. B. It has created a sense of financial security
C. It tends to be unreliable D. It is sometimes too slow to access
Question 37: As it can be inferred from the passage, what benefits does Internet II have over the Internet I?
A. Small businesses pay higher premiums to access to the Internet
B. Internet II contains more information than the Internet.
C. Internet II has fewer users and therefore is faster to access
 D. There is no governmental intervention regulating Internet II.
Question 38: The word "analogue" in paragraph 5 most nearly means_____.
A. solution B. alternative C. similarity D. use
Question 39: The word “harness" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. block B. steal C. utilize D. disguise
Question 40: According to the author, what is one reason why the Internet is sometimes slow?
A. Phone lines are often too busy with phone calls and fax transmissions to handle Internet traffic.
B. Most people do not have computers that are fast enough to take advantage of the Internet.
C. Often a request must travel through many computers before it reaches its final destination.
D. Scientists take up too much time on the Internet, thus slowing it down for everyone else.
Question 41: All of the following are advantages of business “Intranets” mentioned in the passage EXCEPT_______
A. they move data faster. B. they share information with other company branches.
C. they provide a higher level of security. D. they are cheaper than other alternatives.
Question 42: With which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree?
A. Fewer academic communities need to create their own Internet systems.
B. An Internet system with fewer users would be quicker.
C. The technology used by Internet creators is too complex for computer owners to understand.
D. Companies who develop their own Intranets are limiting their information data base.
Question 43: According to the passage, which of the following statements was true in 1990?
A. The Internet was a secure means to gain information.
B. Internet data proved to be impractical.
C. The Internet experienced enormous growth rates.
D. Few people were using the Internet.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed-ability teaching. On the contrary, both
their knowledge and experience are enriched. We feel that there are many disadvantages in streaming pupils.
It does not take into account the fact that children develop at different rates. It can have a bad effect on both the
bright and the not-so-bright
child. After all, it can be quite discouraging to be at the bottom of the top grade!
Besides, it is rather unreal to grade people just according to their intellectual ability. This is only one aspect of
their total personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities of all our pupils to the full, not just their academic
ability. We also value personal qualities and social skills, and we find that mixed-ability teaching contributes to all
these aspects of learning.
In our classroom, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups; this gives them the opportunity
to learn to co-operate, to share, and to develop leadership skills. They also learn how to cope with the personal problems
as well as learning how to think, to make decisions, to analyze and evaluate, to communicate effectively. The pupils
learn from each other as well as from the teachers. Sometimes the pupils work in pairs; sometimes the work on individual
tasks and assignments, they can do this at their own speed. They also have some formal class teaching when this
is appropriate. We encourage our pupils to use the library, and we teach them the skills they need in order to do
this effectively. An advanced pupil can do advanced works; it does not matter what age the child is. We expect our
pupils to do their best, not their least, and we give them every encouragement to attain this goal.

Question 44: The author’s purpose of writing this passage is to_______.

A. recommend pair work and group work classroom activities
B. emphasize the importance of appropriate formal classroom teaching
C. offer advice on the proper use of the school library
D. argue for teaching bright and not-so-bright pupils in the same class
Question 45: As it can be inferred from the passage, which of the following is an advantage of mixed-ability teaching?
A. Pupils as individuals always have the opportunities to work on their own.
B. Pupils can be hindered from an all-round development.
C. Formal class teaching is the important way to give the pupils essential skills such as those to be used in the
library.
D. A pupil can be at the bottom of a class.
Question 46: The phrase "held back” in paragraph 1 means________.
A. forced to study in lower classes B. prevented from advancing
C. made to lag behind D. made to remain in the same classes
Question 47: Which of the following statements can best summarize the main idea of the passage?
A. Various ways of teaching should be encouraged in class.
B. The aim of education is to find out how to teach the bright and not-so-bright pupils.
C. Bright children do benefit from mixed-class teaching.
D. Children, in general, develop at different rates.
Question 48: In paragraph 1, “streaming pupils"________.
A. will help the pupils learn best
B. is quite discouraging
C. is the act of putting pupils into classes according to their academic abilities
D. aims at enriching both their knowledge and experience
Question 49: In the passage, the author’s attitude towards “mixed-ability teaching” is_____.
A. questioning B. objective C. critical D. approving
Question 50: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Pupils cannot develop in the best way if they are streamed into classes of different intellectual
abilities.
B. There is no fixed method in teaching pupils to develop themselves to the full.
C. It’s not good for a bright child to find out that he performs worst in a mixed-ability class.
D. Development of pupils as individuals is not the aim of group work.
Read the passage below and choose one correct answer for each question:
Many people think that we can learn a lot about the culture of a foreign country simply by living in that country.
However, this is not necessarily true. Often, the longer we stay in a foreign country, the more we realize how little we
actually know about the culture of that country.
Books and talks about other people’s culture can even be dangerous because they concentrate on cultural
differences and exaggerate national character, and sometimes a lot of information they contain is untrue.
In a study recently carried out in Britain, people were asked to make a list of anything that they thought was
typical ofBritainand would interest a foreign visitor there. Most mentioned Shakespeare, the Queen, village inns,
English folk dancing, English castles, and fish chips wrapped in newspaper. Although all of these characters can be
found in British culture, they do not show the real interests of ordinary British people: (they are, in fact, simply
stereotype - that is, general character which people wrongly think are typical). What is surprising is that they were
suggested by British people themselves as representing their culture. If people have such a wrong impression of their
own culture, how much false would their impression of their culture be!

1. If we stay a long time in a foreign country, _______.

A. we will usually realize that we know very little about its culture
B. we will sometimes forget about culture of our own country
C. we can often learn a lot about the culture of the foreign country
D. we can seldom find out anything at all about its culture
2. It is hard to learn about a country’s cultural from books because such books _______.
A. concentrate on the dangers of the foreign culture B. exaggerate national character
C. take no notice of culture different D. contain little information about culture
3. When asked about their own culture, many British people _______.
A. gave incorrect answers
B. were surprised by the question asked
C. argued they know little about British culture
D. said they themselves were not typical of British people
4. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that it’s easy to _______.
A. give exact information about your own country B. describe stereotypes of your country
C. know a lot about your own country’s culture D. know the culture of other countries
5. Which of the following is true?
A. It’s easy to assimilate the culture of a foreign country.
B. Visitors to a country are soon assimilated into it culture.
C. British people understand their own culture more than other culture.
D. The culture of a foreign culture can not be learned by reading books.